Select the most appropriate answer:
1. In adult the average length of external auditory canal is:
A. 18 mm
D. 26mm
B. 20mm
E. None of the above.
C. 24mm
2. Hair follicles in the external auditory canal are seen in:
A. Its whole length
C. Its cartilaginous part only
B. Its bony part only
D. At the junction of bony and cartilaginous parts.
3. Wax in the ear is composed of:
A. Cerumen
C. Shedded epithelium of the external auditory canal
B. Dust particles
D. All of the above.
4. Which of the following is the smallest bone of the body:
A. Incus
D. Nasal bones
B. Malleus
E. Vomer.
C. Stapes
5. In a newborn child external auditory canal:
A. Is full developed
C. Has only a osseоus portion
B. Has a cartilaginous portion only D. Has an osseous and cartilaginous portion
6. Indications of myringotomy include:
A. A.S.O.M. with small perforation
B. Bulging stage of A.O.S.M.
C. A.S.O.M. with threatening intracranial complication
D. Secretary otitis media with non purulent middle ear effusion
E. All of the above.
7. Features of serous otitis media may include all, exept:
A. Eustachian tube blockage
B. Glue ear
C. May require the insertion of a grommet
D. Bulging red ear drum.
8. Varieties of acute mastoiditis include:
A. Luc's abscees
D. Zygomatic Abscess
B. Petrositis
E. All of the above.
C. Bezold's Abscess
9. All of the following are features of acute mastoiditis, exept:
A. Sagging of posterosuperior bony meatal wall
D. Retro-auricular oedema
B. Perceptive deafness
E. Abnormal tympanic membrane.
C. Pinna is pushed forwards
10. Complications of myringotomy may include:
A. Injury to chorda tympani nerve
D. All of the above
B. Injury to jugular bulb
E. None of the above.
C. Injury to incudo-stapedial joint
11. Early features of acute suppurative otitis media include :
A. Autophony
D. Sensation of fullness of the ear
B. Retraction of car drum
E. All of the above.
С Conductive deafness
12. Otoscopic appereance of retracted drumhead with a hair line or air bubbles is diagnostic
of:
A. Chronic suppurative otitis media
D. Acute non-suppurative otitis media
B. Acute suppurative otitis media
E. Non of the above.
C.
Chronic adhesive otitis media
13. All of the following are features of acute salpingitis, except:
A. Nose and nasopharynx are usually normal D. Slight deafness
B. Drumhead may be retracted
E. A feeling of stuffiness
C. Cone of light, may be absent
14. Feature of cerebellar abscess include all of the following, except:
A. Vomiting
D. The head is turned towards the healthy side
B. Papilloedema
E. Nystagmus.
C. Dysdiadochokinesia
15. The treatment of lateral sinus thrombosis may require:
A. Antibiotics
D. Internal jugular vein ligation
B. Heparinisation
E. All of the above.
C. Evacuation of thrombus
16. A momentary attack of vertigo occurring in a patient with cholesteatoma whose ear is
cleaned suggests:
A. Brain abscess
D. Exposure of the head of stapes
B. Dural exposure
E. Horizontal semicircular canal fistula.
C. Tympanic membrane perforation
17. All of the following are true about meniere's disease, except:
A. Recruitment is usually present
B. Rinne test is negative
С. Absolute bone conduction is reduced on the affected side
D. Presence of vertigo
E. Perceptive type of deafness.
18. All of the following are features of otosclerosis except
A. Commoner in males
D. Tinnitus
B. Conductive deafness
E. Gclle test is negative.
С. Paracusis Willisii
19. Menier's disease may be treated by:
A. A Shunt operation
B. A prosthesis
20. Paracusis Willisi is typical of:
A. C.S.O.M.
B. Otosclerosis
C. Tympanosclerosis
D. Stapedectomy
E.All of the above.
D. Acute secretory otitis media
E. None of the above.
21. Which of the following is not true about otosclerosis?
A. Commoner in females
B. A flamingo-pink blush may be seen through the tympanic membrane
С. No relation with puberty
D. Presence of Paracusis Willisii
E. Negative Rinne's test.
22. Inferior turbinate is:
A. Separate bone
B. Part of ethmoid bone
C. Part oh maxillary bone
D. None of the above.
23. Middle turbinate is:
A. Separate bone
B. Part of ethmoid bone
C. Superior meatus
D. All of the above
E. None of the above.
24. Bulla ethmoidalis is situated in:
A. Inferior meatus
B. Middle meatus
C. Superior meatus
D. All of the above
E. None of the above.
25. Maxillary sinus opening is situated in:
A. Spheno-ethmoidal recces
B. Inferior meatus
C. Superior meatus
D. Middle meatus
E. None of the above.
26. Posterior ethmoidal sinuses open in:
A. Superior meatus
B. Inferior meatus
С.Middle meatus
D. Sphenoethmoidal recess
E. None of the above.
27. Hkesselbach's pluxus is formed by all of the following, except:
A.Sphenopalatine artery
C.Infraorbital artery
B.Anterior and Posterior ethmoidal arteries
D.Septal branch of the superior labial artery.
28. Blood supply of the external nose is from all of the following except:
A. Infra-orbital artery
D. Supratrochlear artery
B. Dorsal nasal artery
E.
Sphenopalatine artery.
С. Supratrochlear artery
29. Rhinophyma is a complication of:
A. Acne vulgaris
B. Pemphigus
C. Acne rosacea
D. Psoriasis
E. Seborrhic dermatitis.
30. The drug of choice in Rhinoscleroma is:
A. Sulpha drugs
D. Tetracyclines
B. Penicillin
E. All of the above.
С. Streptomycin
31. Injection of silicone may be useful in:
A. Treatment of atrophic rhinitis
B. Correction of small defects in the shape of nose
C. Both
D. Neither.
32. Which of the following is not true about Rhinophyma?
A. Nasal apex becomes bulbous in appearance
B. Commoner in females
С. It occurs due to hypertrophy of sebaceous glands at nasal apex
D. The skin at nasal apex becomes coarse and pitted
E. There is excessive secretion of sebaceous material at nasal tip.
33. Allergic Rhinitis (Hay Fever):
A. Is usually associated with a pale nasal mucosa
B. Is frequently associated with eosinophilia on nasal smear
C. May be associated with clouding of the sinuses on X-ray in the absence of infection
D. All of the above
E. None of the above.
34. The Caldwell-Luc operation is done for all except:
A. Vasomotor rhinitis
B. Closing an oro-antral fistula
C. Draining intractable purulant maxillary sinusitis
D. Removing nasal polypi
E. Hypetrofrmed middle turbinate
35. All of the following are true about nasal polypi, except:
A. Ethmoidal polypi are usually multiple
D. They are sensitive to touch
B. Antrochoanal polyp is usually single
E. They are mobile soft.
C. They cause nasal obstruction
36. A case of closed fracture of nasal bones with deformity comes after a for tnight. What
should be the line of treatment:
A. Closed reduction immediately
B. Closed reduction after one week
С. Closed reduction after one month
D. Rhinoplasty immediately
E. No treatment is required if the air way is adequate.
37. A rhinolith is a:
A. Foreign body in nose
B. Stone in nose
С.Deposition of calcium over some foreign body in the nose
D. Misnomer.
38. The internal carotid artery:
A. Is located medial to the external carotic artery in the neck
B. Has no branches in the neck
C. Both of the above is true
D. Neither of the above is true
39. The external laryngeal nerve is closely related to the:
A. Superior thyroid artery
D. Pyramidal lobe
B. Inferior thyroid artery
E. Thyrohyoid membrane.
C. Middle thyroid vein
40. The recurrent laryngeal nerve is closely related to the:
A. Superior thyroid artery
D. Pyramidal lobe
B. Inferior thyroid artery
E. Thyrohyoid membrane
С. Middle thyroid vein
41. A pulsating swelling on the lateral wall of pharynx suggests:
A. Nasopharyngeal fibroma
D. Aneurysm of the external carotid artery
B. Pharyngeal haemangioma
E. Aneurysm of the internal carotid artery.
C. Peritonsilar abscess
42. Pharyngeal or laryngeal diphtheria is best treated by:
A. Passive immunization
D. Penicillin + Antitoxin
B. Antitoxin (A.D.S.)
E. Erythromycin
С. Penicillin
43. Varicosities on the undersurface of the tongue are often associated with:
A. Cardiac failure
С. Both
B. Cirrhosis of liver
D. Neither.
44. The recurrent laryngeal nerve sends motor branches to all intrinsic laryngeal muscles, except
the:
A. Vocalis
D. Posterior cricoarytenoid
B. Interarytenoid
E. Lateral cricoarytenoid
С. Criocothyroid
45. Reinke's space in the larynx is:
A. Limited above and below by the linea arcuata
B. Located in the true cord
С. Associated with vocal polyps
D. All of the above
E. All except C.
46. The typical case of psychosomatic aphonia presents on laryngeal examination:
A. Lack of approximation of cords on phonation
C. Both
B. Glottic closure on coughing
D. Neither.
47. Acute infective laryngptracheo-bronchitis:
A. Is most often seen below age 3
B. Produces infrasternal and intercostal retraction
С. Should be treated with antibiotics and a high humidity
D. All of the above
E. None of these.
48. The primary aetiologic factor in contact ulcer of the larynx is:
A. Syphilis
D. Vocal abuse
B. Tuberculosis
E. Smoking.
C. Viral
49. About 90% of tracheo-oesophageal fistula have:
A. A blind upper pouch with a lower segment of oseophagus from stomach to trachea or left
main brochus
B. Both upper and lower segment of oesophagus enter the trachea
С. Upper segment of oesophagus entering the trachea with blind lower segment of oesophagus
D. An intact oesophagus, aside from the communication
E. None of the above.
50. The antibiotic of choice in acute epiglottitis, pending culture and sensitivity results is:
A. Erythromycin
D. Tetracycline
B. Chloromycetin
E. Clixicillin.
С. Ampicillin
Select the most appropriate answer:
1. The temporal bone air cell groups include all of the following, except:
A. Petrosal
D.Hypotympanic
B. Promontory
E. Sublabyrinthine
C. Retrofacial
2. Which of the following is true about vestibular nystagmus?
A. The slow component is of vestibular origin
B. There is no vertigo
C. Hearing is normal
D. There is signs of ocular disease
E. There are signs of intracranial desease.
3. Chorda tympani nerve:
A. It carries taste from vallate papille
B. It carries preganglionic fibres to thee parotid
C. is a pretrematic nerve of first arch
D. is a branch of anterior division of mandibular nerve.
4. The landmark on the lateral surface of temporal bone which acts as a guide to surgery to the
antrum is the:
A. Trautman's triangle
D. Notch of rivinus
B. Temporal line
E. None of above.
C. Suprameatal spine of Henle
5. The utricle and saccule are connected by the:
A. Semicircular canals
D. Endolymphatic duct
B. Cochlear aqueduct
E. None of the above.
C. Ductus reunites
6. All of the following are features of acute mastoiditis, except:
A. It occurs as an extension of infection from acute otitis media
B. There may be sagging of postero-supcrior meatal wall
C. Deafness of varying degree
D. Auricle is in normal position
E. Tenderness over the masioid antrum.
7. All of the following are true of otitic baro-trauma, except
A. Chewing of gum is a preventive measure during descent
B. Intermittent valsalva manoeuvre during descent is useful
C. Nasal decongestant is a prophylactic measure
D. Ear drum is ruptured
E. Majority of patients become normal.
F. All of the above are true.
8. Features of abnormal patency of the Eustachian tube include all of the folllowing, except:
A. Autophony
B. It may be a congenital anomaly
С No movement of tympanic membrane during respiration
D. It is common in old debilitated persons
E. Patients may hear their own breath sounds.
9. The common causative organisms for acute suppurative otitis media in children are:
A. H. Influenza
E. Pneumococcus
B. Hemolytic streptococcus
F. Non-haemolytic streptococcus
C. Esch. coli
G. B.proteus
D. Staphylococcus
H. Pseudomonas pyocyanea
10. Bezold's abscess is:
A. An abscess over the zygoma
B. An abscess with brawny swelling beneath sternomastoid muscle
C. An abscess in the external auditory canal
D. The usual post-aural subperiosteal abscess.
11. The essential radiologic finding in surgical mastoiditis is:
A. Poor temporal bone pneumatization
B. Diffuse clouding of mastoid cells
C. Radiolucent defect in antral area
D. Rarefaction and loss of distinctness of cell partitions
E. Erosion of dural sinus plate.
12. Suppuration of the neck following perforation of the medial aspect of the mastoid lip into
the digastric groove results in:
A. Lateral sinus thrombosis
D. Bezold's abscess
B.Perichondritis
E. All of the above.
13. The following may be the complications of myringotomy, except:
A. Injury to the ossicles
B. Injury to the jugular bulb
C. Facial paralysis
D. Persistent perforation of the tympanic membrane
E. Injury to the chorda tympani nerve
F. Injury to the dura mater covering the middle cranial fossa.
14. The safe ear in chronic suppurative otitis media may present with any of the following
except:
A. Central perforation
D. Mucopurulunt discharge
B. Subtotal perforation
E. Slight hearing loss.
C. Marginal perforation
15. The following are
A. Extradural abscess
B. Subdural abscess
C. Petrositis
the
intracranial complications of otitis
D. Brain abscess
E. Meningitis
F. Otitic Hydrocephalous.
media,
except:
16. X-ray mastoid, of a patient having COSM with polyp, will usually reveal
A. Sclerotic mastoid
D. Diploic mastoid
B. Pneumatized mastoid
E. None of the above.
C. Accellular mastoid
17. All of the following are features of tympanosclerosis (chronic adhesive otitis media),
except:
A. Conductive deafness
B.Impaired mobility of the eardrum
С. Normal lustre of the tympanic membrane
D.Prominent lateral process of the Malleus
E.Tinnitus.
18. All of the following are features of Meniere's disease, except:
A. Sudden onset of vertigo
D. Fluctuating hearing loss
B.Vertigo associated with tinnitus
E. Hyperactive caloric response.
С. Paroxysmal vertigo
19. A sudden and often complete loss of vestibular function on one side with out impairment
of hearing suggests:
A. Meinere's disease
D. Paroxysmal positional vertigo
B. Vestibular neuronitis
E. None of the above.
С. Streptomycin toxicity
20. Otosclerosis consists of absorption of normal bone and replacement of bone which is:
A. Spongy
B. Sclerotic
С. Fibrous
D. More vascular
E. All of the above.
21. Regarding cochlear otosclerosis all are true, except:
A. Usually begins late in life
B.Produces a progressive sensorineural hearing loss
С. Audiograms retain good discrimination scores despite sizable hearing loss
D. May have an associated conductive hearing loss
E. None of the above
22. Infra-orbital nerve is branch of:
A. Maxillary nerve
B. Mandibular nerve
C. Ophthalmic nerve
D. None of the above.
23. Mucosa of nasal cavity is:
A. Stratified squamous type
B. Columnar type
C.Pseudostratified ciliated columnar type
D.Simple cuboidal type.
24. Cribriform plate is a part of:
A. Frontal bone
B. Ethmoid bone
С. Sphenoid bone
D. All of the above
E. None of the above.
25. Olfactory area is situated at:
A. In front of middle turbinate
B. Above the middle turbinate
C. Below the middle turbinate
D. None of the above.
26. Sphenoid sinus drains in:
A. Superior meatus
B. Sphenoethmoid recess.
C. Middle meatus
D. Inferior meatus.
27. Role of nasal turbinates is:
A. Regulation of air flow
B. Air conditioning of the inhaled air
С. Filtration of the inhaled air
D. All of the above.
28. The maxillary sinus, or antrum of Highmore, communicates with:
A. Superior meatus
D. All of the above
B. Inferior meatus
E. None of the above.
С. Middle meatus
29. Perforation of nasal septum occurs in:
A. Tuberculosis
B. Trauma
С. Syphilis
D. Lupus
E. All of the above.
30. The complication of S.M.R. operation are all except:
A. Haematoma
E. Nasal polypi
B. Septal perforation
F. Atrophic rhinitis
С. Flapping of nasal septum
G. Falling of the nasal bridge
D. Meningitis
H. All of the above.
31. Coryza is caused by:
A. Bacterial infection
B. Viral infection
С. Fungal infection
D. Protozoal infection
32. The causative organism of coryza are:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Adenovirus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Rhinoviruses
E. Respiratory syncytial virus.
33. Coryza is usually prolonged by superadded infection by:
A. Streptococci
D. Pneumococci
B. Staphylococci
E. Myxo viruses.
C. Haemophilus
34. Protection against nasal infection can be by:
A. Vitamins
D. Ultra violet radiations
B. Vaccines
E. All of the above.
С. Calcium
35. Cysts of the maxillary sinus are usually of:
A. Nasal origin
D. Auditory origin
B. Orbital origin
E.None of the above.
С. Dental origin
36. All of the following are features of orbital abscess secondary to suppuration in the frontal
sinus, except:
A. Oedema of the upper eyelid
B. Widening of the palpebral fissure
C. Proptosis
D. Downward and lateral displacement of the eyeball
E. Limited eye movements.
37. In hereditary Haemorrhagic talangiectasis:
A. Bleeding time is prolonged
B. Clotting time is prolonged
С. Platelet count is increased
D. All of the above
E. All coagulation studies are normal.
38. An effective procedure for controlling epistaxis due to hereditary Haemorrhagic talegiectasis is:
A. Anterior ethmoid artery ligation
D. Septal dermoplasty
B. Internal carotid ligation
E. None of me above.
С. External carotid ligation
39. Supraglottis includes all of the following except:
A. Ary-epiglottic folds
D. The laryngeal surface of the epiglottis
B. False cords
E. Arytenoids.
С. The lingual surface of the epiglottis
40. Nerve supply of tonsils is from:
A. Sphenopalatine ganglion
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above.
41. Normal flora of the upper respiratory tract includes all of the following,
except:
A. Streptococcus viridans
D. Leptothrix
B. Anaerobic streptococci
E. Pneumococci.
С Neisseria catarrhalis
42. Surgical drainage of Ludwig's angina may require external and/or intraoral drainage because of the:
A. Buccinator muscle
D. Geniohyoid muscle
B. Digastric muscle
E. Mylohyoid muscle.
С. Genioglossus muscle
43. Herpangina:
A. Is characterized by vesicles on the soft palate and fauces
B. Is due to coxsackie virus
С. Is most often seen below the age 15
D. Is most often seen in the summer
E. All of the above.
44. Retropharyngeal abscess is characterized by:
A. Occurs most commonly in infants
В. Involves the prevertebral space
C. May occur with tuberculosis of cervical vertebrae
D. Is best seen on lateral X-ray of neck
E. All of the above.
45. The commonest type of speech disorder is in the area of:
A. Phonation-resonation
D. Articulation
B. Aphasia
E. Symbolization.
C. Stuttering
46. During indirect laryngoscopy:
A. The right and left vocal cords appear reversed
B. The anterior and posterior regions are reversed
С. Both
D. Neither.
47. The primary aetiologic factor in contact ulcer of the larynx is:
A. Syphilis
D. Vocal abuse
B. Tuberculosis
E. Smoking.
C. Viral
48. Regarding external laryngocele all of the fallowing are true, except:
A. Is acquired
B. Communicates with the laryngeal ventricle
С. Herniates through the cricothyroid membrane
D. Should be removed surgically.
49. The commonest site for esophageal perforation during rigid oesophagoscopy is:
A. In areas of oesophagitis
D. In the region of cricopharyngeal muscle
B. At the site of carcinoma
E. In the distal third of oesophagus.
C. At the site of diverticulum
50. The most frequent location of a rigid foreign body in the oesophagus is:
A. Just below the circopharyngeus muscle
B. At the level where the arch of aorta crosses the oesophagus
С. At the level where the left bronchus crosses the oesophagus
D. At the cardio-oesophageal junction.
Select the most appropriate answer:
1. Normal frequency range of sound audible to the ear is from:
A. 0-10000 Hz
D. 20-30000 Hz
B. 10-10000 Hz
E. None of the above.
C. 20-20000 Hz
2. Following arteries supply the external ear exept:
A. Superfacial temporal artery
B. Facial artery
C. Posterior auricular artery.
3. Tensor tympani muscle is supplied by:
A. Mandibular nerve
C. Facial nerve
B. Tympanic plexus
D. None of the above.
4. Stapedius muscle is supplied by:
A. Chorda Tympani nerve
C. Greater superfacial petrosal nerve
B. Facial nerve
D. None of the above.
5. Sound reaches the inner ear through:
A. Round window
C. Round and oval window
B. Oval window
D. None of the above.
6. The indications of myringotomy are following, except:
A.
Pus in middle ear, usually when under tension
B.
Secretory otitis media
C. Non-suppurative otitis media
D. Haemotypanum of recent origin
E. Myringitis bullosa.
7. Features of petrositis may include all except:
A. Occipital headache
B. Severe retro-orbital or temporal headeche
С. Diploplia
D. Persistent otorrhea following cortical mastoidectomy
E. Pneumatized petrous bone.
8. Hair line on otoscopy is a feature of:
A. Otosclerosis
B. Secretory otitis media
C. Chronic suppurative otitis media
D. Menier's diseasese
9. Which of the following organisms is most commonly responsible for acute suppurative otitis
media in adults:
A. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus anreus
D. Pneumococcus.
10. In acute suppurative otitis media, myringotomy is indicated in:
A. Stage of congestion
C. Stage of suppuration
B. Stage of exudation
D. All of the above
11. Which of the following can be the complications of myringotomy:
A. Incudostapedial joint dislocation
C. Labyrinthitis secondary to window injury
B. Injury to chorda tympani
D. All of the above.
12. All of the following are features of acute suppurative otitis media, except:
A. Pain
D. Tragus sign is positive
B. Congested tympanic membrane
E. Tragus sign is negative.
13. Myringotomy is indicated in:
A. Early stage of ASOM
B. CSOM
C. Secretory otitis media
D. 2 mm traumatic perforation of tympanic membrane
E. None of the above
F. All of the above.
14. A patient of CSOM develops severe headache photophobia and irretability, on examination,
there is no neuro-deficit but Kerling's is positive:
A. Meningitis
C. Intracerebral abscess
B. Sinus thrombophelibitis
D. Otitic hydrocephalus.
15. Fistula test is used to detect erosion of:
A. Utricle
D. Superior semicircular canal
B. Saccule
E. Posterior semicircular canal
C. Lateral semicircular canal
16. Feature of cerebellar abscess include all of the following, except:
A. Vomiting
D. The head is turned towards the healthy side
B. Papilloedema
E. Nystagmus.
C. Dysdiadochokinesia
17. Otosclerosis:
A. Is more common in males
B. Is manifested by deafness without tinnitus
C. Is often associated with a retracted eardrum
D. All of the above
E. None of the above.
18. Menier's syndrome:
A. Has cochlear symptoms preceding vestibular ones
B. Usually is bilateral from the onset
C. Very rarely leaves residual vestige after the acute attack
D. All of the above
E. None of the above.
19. Normal tympanic membrane is a feature:
A. Secretory otitis media
C. Adhesive otitis media
B. Otosclerosis
D. None of the above.
20. On impedence audiometry , otosclerosis is characterized by :
A. Normal pressure and normal compliance
B. Negative pressure and normal compliance
C. Normal pressure and low compliance
D. Negative pressure and low complaince.
21. Paracusis Willisi is a feature of:
A. Menier's diseases
C. Otosclerosis
B. Acoustic neuroma
22. Main functions of nose are:
A. Smell distinction
B. Filtration of the air
С. Humidification of air
D. Acoustic trauma.
D. Vocal resonance
E. All of the above
23. All of the following open into middle meatus, except:
A. Nasolacrimal duct
С. Maxillary sinus
B. Anterior ethmoidal sinus
D. Frontal sinus.
24. The olfactory nerve is about:
A. 5 filaments
B. 10 filaments
C. 15 filaments
D. 20 filaments
E. None of the above.
25. Olfactory nerves are distributed in the upper:
A. Half of nasal septum
B. Half of lateral wall of the nasal cavity
С. Third of the nasal septum and the lateral wall of nasal cavity
D. Fourth of the nasal septum and the upper third of the lateral wall of nasal cavity
E. None of the above.
26. By posterior rhinoscopy one may see:
A. Posterior end of nasal septum
B. Posterior ends of the three conchae
С. Posterior nares
D. Tubal ridges
E. None of the above
27. Bony portion of nasal septum is formed by all of the following except:
A. Vomer bone
С. Perpendicular plate of palatine bone
B. Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone
D. Rostrum of sphenoid.
28. Major portion of blood supply to nose is supplied by:
A. Anterior ethmoidal artery
С. Posterior ethmoidal artery
B. Sphenopalatine artery
D. Greater palatine artery.
29. Protection against nasal infection can be by:
A. Vitamins
D. Ultra violet radiations
B. Vaccines
E. All of the above.
С. Calcium
30. Ozaena is characterized by:
A. Female patient
B. Anosmia
С. Foetid smell from nose
D. All of the above.
31. In operation of S.M.R., one resects all except:
A. Nasal bones
D.Perpendicular plate of Vomer
B. Septal cartilage
E. Vomerine crest.
C. Maxillary spine
32. Unilateral nasal discharge suggests:
A. Papilloma
D. Foreign body
B. Nasal polyps
С. Juvenile angiofibroma
E. Vasomotor rhinitis.
33. A patient of complete anosmia would respond to inhalation of:
A. Tobacco
D. Oil of lemon
B. Coffee
E. Chocolate.
С. Ammonia
34. An alternative to S.M.R. for correction of deviated nasal septum:
A. Rhinoplasty
D. Lateral rhinotomy
B. Septoplasty
E. None of the above.
С. Septal dermoplasty
35. Infection from nose travels to cavernous sinus via:
A. Ophthalmic veins
D. A and С
B. Sphenopalatine veins
E. B and C.
С. Pterygoid plexus
36. All of the following are indications of Caldwel - Luc's operations, except:
A. Dental cyst
B. Chronic refractory sinusitis
C. Dentigerons cyst
D. Ca nasopharynx extending into maxillary sinus.
37. In severe epistaxis the pterygomaxillary fossa may be entered surgically in order to ligate the:
A. Anterior ethmoid artery
D. Posterior ethmoid artery
B. Internal carotid artery
E. Internal maxillary artery.
С. External carotid artery
38. The usual nerve injured in maxillary fractures is:
A. Anterior ethmoidal nerve
D. Sphenoplatine nerve
B. Supraorbital nerve
E. Mental nerve.
C. Infraorbital nerve
39. The most useful preoperative screening test for potential tonsillectomy-adenoidectomy
bleeding is the:
A. Partial thromboplastin time
D. Platelet count
B. Bleeding time
E. None of the above.
С. Clotting time
40. A pulsating swelling on the lateral wall of pharynx suggests:
A. Nasopharyngeal fibroma
D. Aneurysm of the external carotid artery
B. Pharyngeal haemangioma
E. Aneurysm of the internal carotid artery.
C. Peritonsilar abscess
41. Pharyngeal or laryngeal diphtheria is best treated by:
A. Passive immunization
D. Penicillin + Antitoxin
B. Antitoxin (A.D.S.)
E. Erythromycin
С. Penicillin
42. Ludwig's angina is characterized by:
A. Is most commonly due to intraoral trauma i.e. dental extraction
B. Is a severe form of infection of sublingual space
C. Spreads by continuity
D. All of the above
E. Only В and С
43. All of the following are clinical features of peritonsillar abscess, except:
A. Acute pain in the throat
B. Trismus is common
С. The head is flexed and inclined to the unaffected side
D. Intense dysphagia
E. General malaise and fever.
44. Indication of tonsillectomy include:
A. Recurrent attacks of acute tonsillitis
B. Persistant tonsillar enlargement causing obstruction to swallowing and breathing
С. An attack of qunisy
D. Before the avulsion of the glossopharyngeal nerve
E. All of the above.
45. Abductors of the glottis include all of the following, except:
A. Cricothyoideus
D. Crico-arytenoideus lateralis
B. Crico-arytenoideus posterior
E. Vocalis.
С. Thyro-arytenoideus external
46. Motor supply of all of the following muscles is by recurrent laryngeal nerve, except:
A. Ary-epiglottic muscle
D. Crico-thyroid
B. Arytenoideus transverses
E. Crico-arytenoideus posterior
С. Circo-arytenoideus lateralis
47. The aphonia of abductor paralysis can be overcome by:
A. Tracheostomy
D. Arytenoidectomy
B. Speech therapy
E. Teflon injection of the involved vocal cord
С. Arytenoid mobilization
48. Anaesthesia of larynx may occur with:
A. Syphilis
B. Lead poisoning
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Diphtheria
E. All of the above.
49. An instrumental perforation of the oesophagus at the level of the crico-pharyngeus is treated by:
A. Antibiotics
D. Superior mediastinotomy
B. Intravenous fluids
E. All of the above.
С. Giving the patient nothing by mouth
50. All of the following are true about foreign bodies in the oesophagus, except:
A. These are often retained in the piriform fossa
B. These are often held immediately below the cricopharyngeus muscle
С. Children usually swallow coins
D. Oesophagoscopy is best performed under local anaesthesia
E. Radiography is often helpful.
Select the most appropriate answer:
1. Jugular bulb is related to ______________ wall of middle ear:
A. Medial
C. Posterior
B. Anterior
D. Inferior.
2. Organ of Corti rest on:
A. Basilar membrane
B. Reissner's membrane
C. Tectorial membrane
D. Otolithic membrane.
3. Cells of Deiter and Hensen are situated in:
A. Olfactory mucosa
C. Organ of Corti
B. Aedenohypophysis
D. Laryngeal mucosa.
4. Directional preponderance to right seen: after bithermal caloric test indicates:
A. Hypoactive «L» ear
C. Hyperactive «L» ear
B. Hypoactive «R» ear
D. Hyperactive «R» ear
5. Darwin's Tubercle is:
A. Dermoid cyst on the bridge of nose
B. Dermoid cyst on the helix of the ear
C. A small elevation on the posterior-superior part of the helix
D. None of the above.
6. Treatment of choice for glue ear with adenoids is:
A. Adenoidectomy with Grommet insertion D. Antibiotics with mucolytic agents
B. Adenoidectomy alone
E. Adenoidectomy with tympanotomy
7. Acute otitis media in adults is usually due to:
A. H. Infiuenzae
D. E. coli
B. Staphylococcus areus
E. All of the above.
С . Streptococcus
8. Varieties of acute mastoiditis include:
A. Luc's abscees
D. Zygomatic Abscess
B. Petrositis
E. All of the above.
C. Bezold's Abscess
9. Complications of myringotomy may include:
A. Injury to chorda tympani nerve
D. All of the above
B. Injury to jugular bulb
E. None of the above.
C. Injury to incudo-stapedial joint
10. Early features of acute suppurative otitis media include :
A. Autophony
D. Sensation of fullness of the ear
B. Retraction of car drum
E. All of the above.
С Conductive deafness
11. Bezold's abscess is:
A. An abscess over the zygoma
B. An abscess with brawny swelling beneath sternomastoid muscle
C. An abscess in the external auditory canal
D. The usual post-aural subperiosteal abscess.
12. Features of petrositis may include all except:
A. Occipital headache
B. Severe retro-orbital or temporal headeche
С. Diploplia
D.
Persistent otorrhea following cortical mastoidectomy
E.
Pneumatized petrous bone.
13. Which of the following organisms is most commonly responsible for acute suppurative otitis
media in adults:
A. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Streptococcus
B. Staphylococcus anreus
D. Pneumococcus.
14. The treatment of lateral sinus thrombosis may require:
A. Antibiotics
D. Internal jugular vein ligation
B. Heparinisation
E. All of the above.
C. Evacuation of thrombus
15. The following are the intracranial complications of otitis media, except:
A. Extradural abscess
D. Brain abscess
B. Subdural abscess
E. Meningitis
C. Petrositis
F. Otitic Hydrocephalous.
16. Sepsis, chemosis, and proptosis following an ENT infection suggest:
A. Lateral sinus thrombosis
D. Brain abscess
B. Frontial Osteomyelitis
E. None of the above.
C.Cavernous sinus thrombosis
17. All of the following aге true about adhesive otitis media except:
A. It usually follows CSOM
B. It is synonymous with tympanosclerosis
C. Mobility of tympanic membrane is diminished
D. Ossicular ankylosis is present.
18. Which of the following is not true about carhast's notch:
A. It is an audiometric dip in conduction curve seen maximum at 2000 Htz
B. It is always seen in otosclcrosis
C. It is to correspondence of the resonance of ossicular chain by bone conduction at 2000 Hertz
D. All of the above.
19. Glycerol test is helpful in the diagnosis of:
A. Meniere's disease
С. Facial nerve paralysis
B. Otosclerosis
D. Acoustic neuroma.
20. A young child with marked sensorineural deafness is usually best treated by:
A. Speech therapy
B. Placement in school for deaf
С. Training by lip reading
D. Wearing hearing aids
E. No treatment till age five, when acurate audiometry can be done.
21. The commonest cause of unilateral acquired sensorineural deafness in children is:
A. Syphilis
D. Rhincompatibility
B. Mumps
E. Ototoxic poisoning.
С. Measles
22. Infection from nose travels to cavernous sinus via:
A. Ophthalmic veins
D. A and С
B. Sphenopalatine veins
E. В and С
С. Pterygoid plexus
23. Type of nasal mucosa is:
A. Squamous epithelium
B. Columnar epithelium
С. Transitional epithelium
D. Peudostratified ciliated columnar
24. Nasopalatine nerves arise from:
A. Olfactory nerves
B. Mandibular nerve
С. Pterygopalatine ganglion
D. None of the above.
25. Greater alar cartilaged are:
A. two in number
B. Four in number
C. Six in number.
26. Lateral wall of nose is formed by all of the following, except:
A. Nasal process of frontal bone
С. Cribriform plate of ethmoid
B. Frontal process of maxilla
D. Lachrymal bone.
27. Floor of maxillary sinus in an adult is:
A. Above the level of floor of nose
B. Below the level of floor of nose
С. At the level of floor of nose.
28. In a newborn, frontal sinus is:
A. Rudimentary
B. Not developed
29. The principal cause of Hay fever is:
A. Roses
B. Grass
C. Tree pollen
С. Wall developed
D. None of the above
D. Ragweed
E. None of the above.
30. The most frequent cause of perforation of the nasal septum is:
A. Congenital
D. Syphilis
B. Operative trauma
E. Tuberculosis.
C. Chronic infection
31. In adults, abscess of the nasal septum usually follows:
A. Traumatic haematoma
D. Tuberculosis
B. Purulent rhinitis
E. Atrophic rhinitis.
С. Syphilis
32. Cytologic examination of nasal secretions:
A. Suggests allergy when eosinophils are found
B. Rules out allergy when eosinophils are not found
С. Both
D. Neither.
33. Which of the following tests are not related to allergic rhinitis?
A. Intracutaneous test
С. Shick test
B. Scratch test
D. Rash test
34. Prolonged use of vasoconstrictor nose drops results in:
A. Rhinitis sicca
D. Rebound phenomenon
B. Allergic rhinitis
E. Mulberry turbinates.
С. Vasomotor rhinitis
35. Rhinogenic intracranial suppuration usually follow infection of:
A. Frontal sinus
С. Ethmoidal sinus
B. Sphenoidal sinus
D. BothA&C.
36. The treatment of chois for recurrent antrochoanal polyp is:
A. Pattersons operation
C. Howarths operation
B. Polypectomy with intranasal antrostomy
D. CaldWell-lucs operation.
37. Regarding epistaxis which of the following is not true?
A. If coming from the front of the nose the treatment is to pack the nostrils
B. Some times requires arterial ligation
C. Is commonly epistaxis digitorum
D. May be feature of hypertension
E. Usually comes from little's area.
38. Depressed bridge may be caused by:
A. Syphilis
D. All of the above
B. Septal abscess
E. None of the above
C. Injury
39. Supraglottis includes all of the following except:
A. Ary-epiglottic folds
D. The laryngeal surface of the epiglottis
B. False cords
E. Arytenoids.
С. The lingual surface of the epiglottis
40. Nerve supply of tonsils is from:
A. Sphenopalatine ganglion
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above.
41. Normal flora of the upper respiratory tract includes all of the following,
except:
A. Streptococcus viridans
D. Leptothrix
B. Anaerobic streptococci
E. Pneumococci.
С. Neisseria catarrhalis
42 Features of acute retropharyngeal abscess include all except:
A. Commoner in children
D. Usually tuberculous in nature
B. Difficulty in breathing
E. It presents as a lateral swelling of the posterior pharyngeal wall.
C. The patient refuses feeds
43. All of the following are features of chronic tonsillitis, except:
A. Flushing of pillars
B. An unpleasant taste and smell in the mouth
С. Cheesy particles at the mouth of the crypts from which they are not easily removed.
D. Submandibular glands are palpable
E. Systemic features.
44. All of the following are true about adenoids, except:
A. Adenoids are present at birth
D. Is bounded by a capsule
B. Adenoids atrophy at puberty
E. Is covered by ciliated epithelium.
C. Does not contain crypts
45. Which of the following is not a function of larynx:
A. Respiration
C. Fixation of chest in severe muscular effort
B. Phonation
D. Deglutition.
46. Sinus of Morgagni is:
A. Pyriform sinus
B. Laryngeal ventricle
C. None of the above.
47. Preccancerous conditions of the larynx include:
A. Syphilis
B. Keratosis
С. Papilloma
D. Leukoplakia
E. All of the above except A.
48. Bilateral oedematous thickening of vocal cords suggests:
A. Hypothyroidism
D. All of the above
B. Pachydermia laryngia
E. None of the above.
С. Laryngitis sicca
49. Pyriform fossae open to:
A. Help in phonation
В. Permit the passage of food
50. Piriform fossa is the:
A. Lowest part of laryngopharynx
B. Highest part of laryngopharynx
С. In the middle of laryngopharynx
D. None of the above.
C. None of the above
D. Both of the above.
Cay for tests
1 вариант
1.C 2.C 3.D 4.C 5.B
11.E 12.D 13.A 14. D
21.C 22.A 23.B 24.B
31.A 32.B 33.D 34.E
41.E 42.D 43.D 44.C
6.E 7.D 8.E 9. B
15.E 16.E 17.B
25.D 26.A 27.C
35.D 36.D 37.C
45.E 46.C 47.D
10. D
18.A 19.A 20.B
28.D 29/C 30.C
38.B 39.A 40.B
48.D 49.A 50.C
II вариант
1.C
2.A 3.C
4.C
11.D 12.D 13.F 14.C
21.E 22.A 23.C 24.B
31.B 32.D 33.A 34.E
41.E 42.E 43.E 44.E
5.D 6.D
7.F 8.C
9.A 10.B
15.C 16.A 17.C 18.E 19.B 20.A
25.D 26.B 27.D 28.C 29.E 30.E
35.C 36.B 37.E 38. D 39.C 40.C
45.D 46.B 47.D 48.C 49.D 50.A