Summer
GRADE 12 BIOLOGY PRACTICE EXAM
SBI 4U1
DURATION: 2.5 HOURS
165 MARKS
[AUTHORS]
MEGAN STEEVES
HANIYA KHAN
ELIZABETH CHAN
TARYN THEAKER
ANSWER COPY
11
SECTION 1: DIAGRAM LABELING
COMMUNICATION [25 MARKS]
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
9
10
8
11
12
13
14
15
16
18
17
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
PLEASE PLACE ANSWERS BESIDE THEIR CORRESPONDING NUMBERS IN THE CHART BELOW:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone
LH
Sertoli Cells
Schwann Cell
Node of Ranvier
Axon
SSB
DNA Polymerase
Leading
Lagging
Water
Carbon Dioxide
Oxygen
Sugar
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
Ovary
Uterus
Urethra
Cervix
Vagina
Hydrophilic Heads
Cholesterol
Peripheral Protein
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
Golgi Body
Mitochondria
SECTION 2: MULTIPLE CHOICE
KNOWLEDGE AND UNDERSTANDING [50 MARKS]
BIOCHEMISTRY:
1. Mitochondria will not be found in which of the following organisms:
a) Protists
b) Plants
c) Arachaebacteria
d) Fungi
Explanation: Prokaryotic organisms (arachaebacteria) lack membrane bound
organelles.
2. Vacuoles do not:
a) Transport proteins
b) Store and release wastes
c) Transport wastes
d) Keep cells rigid
3. An example of a monomer is a (n):
a) Maltose
b) Amino acid
c) Proteins
d) Nucleic acid
Explanation: Amino acids are monomers that bond together to form protein
molecules.
4. Which of the following statements best describes olive oil?
a) Contains double bonds between carbon atoms
b) Saturated fat
c) Unsaturated fat
d) Both a & c
e) None of the above
Questions 5 & 6 questions refer to the diagram below:
5. Identify the molecule shown above:
a) Disaccharide
b) Polysaccharide
c) Monosaccharide
d) Glucose
6. Classify the molecule above:
a) Protein
b) Lipid
c) Carbohydrate
d) Nucleic acid
7. Purine bases include:
a) Guanine & Adenine
b) Cytosine & Thymine
c) Cytosine & Guanine
d) Adenine & Thymine
8. Without enzymes biological reactions:
a) Stop
b) Slow down
c) Speed up
d) Experience no change in speed
9. A (n) _____________ stabilizes the inactive form of an enzyme:
a) Competitive inhibitor
b) Allosteric regulator
c) Allosteric inhibitor
d) Competitive regulator
10. A cell is placed in an unknown solution. After some time the cell begins to shrink.
Which of the following is true of the solution?
a) It had a lower [water] than the cell
b) It had a higher [water] than the cell
c) It is hypotonic
d) It is isotonic
METABOLIC PROCESSES:
11. Pyruvate oxidation releases one ___________ molecule and a ____________
enzyme is added to make ___________.
a) H2O, CoA, acetyl-CoA
b) CO2, PFK, pyruvate
c) H2O, CoA, oxaloacetate
d) CO2, CoA, acetyl-CoA
12. Which of the following about lactic acid fermentation is false?
a) Lactic acid fermentation occurs when there is a lack of oxygen in a local area
(i.e. during exercise).
b) The process produces 2 ATP molecules via SLP.
c) The process produces lactic acid which is toxic (the “burn” of exercising).
d) 2 FAD molecules become 2 FADH2 molecules.
e) Both d and b
13. What is the correct order of intermediates in glycolysis?
a) Glucose-6-phosphate, fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-1,6-biphosphate,
BPG, G3P, 3PG, 2PG, PEP, pyruvate
b) Glucose-6-phosphate, fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-1,6-biphosphate, 3PG,
2PG, BPG, G3P, PEP, pyruvate
c) Glucose-6-phosphate, fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-1,6-biphosphate, G3P,
BPG, 3PG, 2PG, PEP, pyruvate
d) Fructose-6-phosphate, fructose-1,6-biphosphate, glucose-6-phosphate, G3P,
BPG, 3PG, 2PG, PEP, pyruvate
14. The Krebs cycle occurs in the __________ and produces ___________ ATP
molecules via ___________. (1 cycle)
a) Mitochondrial membrane, 1, SLP
b) Mitochondrial matrix, 2, OLP
c) Mitochondrial matrix, 1, SLP
d) Cytoplasm, 1, SLP
e) Cytoplasm, 1, OLP
15. ___________ acts as the final _____________ in the ETC.
a) H2O, electron acceptor
b) Oxygen, electron acceptor
c) ATP Synthase, protein complex
d) Oxygen, protein complex
16. Which of the following orders of protein complexes in the ETC are correct?
a) Ubiquinone, cytochrome bc complex, cytochrome c, NADH dehydrogenase,
cytochrome oxidase complex
b) NADH dehydrogenase, ubiquinone, cytochrome bc complex, cytochrome c,
cytochrome oxidase complex
c) Cytochrome c, ubiquinone, cytochrome bc complex, NADH dehydrogenase,
cytochrome oxidase complex
d) None of the above
17. What type of plant is more efficient in fixing carbon at lower temperatures?
a) Cactus
b) Potatoes
c) Sugarcane
d) Dandelions
e) Both b and d
18. A competitive inhibitor:
a) Binds to the active site and blocks the substrate from being able to bind to
the active site.
b) Binds to the allosteric site and causes a conformation change that prevents
the substrate from binding.
c) Binds to the active site and causes a conformation change that prevents the
substrate from binding.
d) Binds to the allosteric site and blocks the substrate from being able to bind
to the active site.
19. When __________ instead of CO2 is fixed by RuBP in the _____________,
___________ is produced; this process is called ____________.
a) Oxygen, Kreb’s cycle, CO2, photorespiration
b) Oxygen, Kreb’s, oxygen, photosynthesis
c) Oxygen, Calvin Cycle, CO2, photorespiration
d) Oxygen, Calvin Cycle, H2O, photorespiration
20. Who was the first to discover that light and CO2 are essential to photosynthesis?
a) C.B. Van Niel
b) F.F. Blackman
c) Joseph Priestley
d) J.B. Van Helmont
e) Jan Ingenhosz
POPULATIONS:
21. Population density is:
a) The total number of one species in a given area.
b) The number of individuals per each unit of area or volume.
c) The number of individuals of a species divided by the total area of the
location the species is found in.
d) The number of individuals of a species divided by the area they actually use
(their habitat).
22. Crude density is:
a) The total number of one species in a given area.
b) The number of individuals per each unit of area or volume.
c) The number of individuals of a species divided by the total area of the
location the species is found in.
d) The number of individuals of a species divided by the area they actually use
(their habitat).
23. Ecological density is:
a) The total number of one species in a given area.
b) The number of individuals per each unit of area or volume.
c) The number of individuals of a species divided by the total area of the
location the species is found in.
d) The number of individuals of a species divided by the area they actually use
(their habitat).
24. Density dependent factors are:
a) Factors whose effects on the size of population vary with the population size.
b) Factors that affect the size of the population regardless of what the
population density is.
c) Factors whose effects on the growth of the population vary with the
population size.
d) Both a and c
25. When species are equally spaced throughout a habitat, what kind of dispersion is
this?
a) Random
b) Clumped
c) Uniform
d) None of the above
26. What type of growth does the graph show?
a) Exponential
b) Logistic
c) Geometric
d) None of the above
27. In an Ontario forest, close to the Quebec border line, the deer population has
been growing. There is a population of 547 deer. This year 38 migrated from the
Quebec and 18 died. There were 6 births and 12 migrated to Quebec. What is
the population change?
a) 2.56
b) 6.78
c) 13.53
d) 6.95
28. A frog that feeds on an insect is called a
a) Decomposer
b) Tertiary Consumer
c) Primary Consumer
d) Secondary Consumer
29. A stick insect, Carausius morosusi, is sitting on the stump of a tree. This is an
example of what type of mimicry?
a) Concealing
b) Aggressive
c) Mullerian
d) Batesian
30. The rapidly growing human population is endangering populations of Kstrategists while favouring r-strategists. Examples of K-strategists and rstrategists are, respectively,
a) Whales and houseflies
b) Elephants and Spruce Trees
c) Cockroaches and Dandelions
d) Mosquitoes and Woodpeckers
MOLECULAR GENETICS:
31. Which scientist is responsible for discovering the “nuclein” after analyzing white
blood cells in the pus of surgical band-aids?
a) Joachim Hammerling
b) Frederick Griffith
c) Friedrich Miescher
d) Erwin Chargoff
32. The following are the steps of DNA replication in the incorrect order:
1. DNA helicase disrupts hydrogen bonds and unwinds the helix.
2. DNA gyrase relieves the tension from the unwinding DNA.
3. Replication bubble is formed.
4. Proteins bind to the origin of replication.
5. Single-stranded binding proteins bind to exposed bases.
6. Primase makes RNA primers that bind to the 3’ end of the parental strand.
7. DNA ligase joins the Okazaki fragments.
8. DNA polymerase I remove RNA primers and replaces with the appropriate
nucleotides.
9. DNA polymerase III used the RNA primer as a starting point.
The correct order of the steps of DNA replication is:
a) 4, 1, 3, 5, 2, 6, 9, 8, 7
b) 7, 8, 9, 6, 2, 5, 3, 1, 4
c) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5, 6, 9, 8, 7
d) 7, 8, 9, 6, 5, 2, 3, 1, 4
33. What is the mutation caused by a single substitution of one base that causes in a
premature start codon?
a) Frameshift Mutation
b) Silent Mutation
c) Nonsense Mutation
d) Missense Mutation
34. Which of the following statements about PCR is false?
a) Similar to DNA replication
b) Heat is used to separate DNA strands
c) Does not require recombinant DNA
d) Indirect method of making copies of a desired sequence of DNA
35. What is the purpose of methylases?
a) Regulates which genes are transcribed
b) Protects chromosomes by binding proteins that stop the ends from being
degraded and sticking together
c) Prevents restriction enzymes from cutting the bacterium’s own DNA
d) Removes incorrect nucleotides and replaces it with the correct one
36. What is the enzyme involved in the initiation of transcription?
a) DNA ligase
b) DNA polymerase III
c) RNA ligase
d) RNA polymerase
37. If the promoter region of a gene in a DNA molecule is removed, how will the
corresponding amino acid sequence be affected?
a) The sequence will be no longer than usual.
b) The sequence will be longer than usual.
c) The sequence will not be affected.
d) The sequence will not be produced.
38. Restriction enzymes cut DNA molecules at recognition sites with to create sticky
ends. Which of the following DNA sequences is a complimentary palindromic
sequence?
a) 5’GAATTC 3’ and 3’CTTAAG 5’
b) 5’AATTCG 3’ and 3’GCGTAA 5’
c) 3’GAATTG 5’ and 5’ CCATTG 3’
d) 3’GATCGT 5’ and 5’TCGTAG 5’
39. What is the correct order for the three stages that make up transcription and/or
translation?
a) Elongation, Initiation, Termination
b) Initiation, Elongation, Termination
c) Initiation, Elongation, Translation
d) Transcription, Translation, Termination
40. With regards to the lac operon, what happens when lactose is absent?
a) The shape of the repressor protein changes and no longer binds to the
operator.
b) The repressor protein binds to the operator and partially blocks the
promoter.
c) There is no effect on the operon.
d) None of the above
HOMEOSTASIS:
41. The renal cortex:
a) Produces the hormone cortisol and aldosterone
b) Produces testosterone
c) Produces adrenaline and noradrenaline
d) None of the above
e) Both a and b
42. Blood is pumped in through the ____________ arteriole and pumped out
through the ___________ arteriole.
a) Efferent, efferent
b) Afferent, efferent
c) Efferent, afferent
d) Afferent, afferent
e) None of the above
43. The descending loop of Henley is permeable to ___________ and the ascending
loop of Henley is permeable to ____________.
a) K+, NaCl
b) H2O, NaCl
c) NaCl, H2O
d) H2O, H2O and NaCl
44. The movement of wastes from the blood back into the nephron primarily occurs
via active transport. Which organelle is likely found in high concentration in the
cells that line the tubules involved with secretion?
a) Vesicles
b) Golgi body
c) Mitochondria
d) Ribosome
e) None of the above
45. Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH) made and stored?
a) Made in anterior pituitary, stored in anterior pituitary
b) Made in hypothalamus, stored in anterior pituitary
c) Made in anterior pituitary, made in posterior pituitary
d) Made in hypothalamus, stored in posterior pituitary
46. Steroid hormones:
a) Are made from amino acids and are fat soluble
b) Are made from cholesterol and are fat soluble
c) Are made from amino acids and are water soluble
d) Are made from cholesterol and are water soluble
47. The Myelin Sheath wraps around the ________and is made up of
_____________, which is a type of ___________cell.
a) Axon, dendrites, glial
b) Axon hillock, Schwann cells, glial
c) Axon, nodes of Ranvier, Schwann
d) Axon, Schwann cells, conducting
e) Axon, Schwann cells, glial
48. What voltage needs to be reached to reach action potential?
a) Below rest potential
b) Above rest potential
c) Usually 40 mV
d) Usually 20 mV
e) None of the above
49. What of the following about synaptic transmission is true?
a) A presynaptic neuron carries impulse toward the synapse and the
postsynaptic neuron carries impulse away from synapse
b) Synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitters are found in axonal end plates
c) Excitatory NTs are more permeable to K+
d) Inhibitory NTs opens Na+ channels
e) Inhibitory NTs causes depolarization
f) Both a and b
50. Which of the following is a function of the parietal lobe?
a) Body senses (touch, pain, etc)
b) Vision
c) Hearing
d) Memory
SECTION 3: MODIFIED TRUE AND FALSE
KNOWLEDGE AND UNDERSTANDING [10 MARKS]
1. In order to engulf food from the extracellular fluid, cell membranes grows
extensions called “pseudo pods” during pinocytosis.
False – Phagocytosis
2. Most proteins are functional at the tertiary structure.
True
3. During translation of a protein, the start codon is ‘read’ in the A site where a
tRNA molecule delivers methionine. The second codon is exposed in the P site.
False – ‘read’ in the P site, exposed in the A site
4. During DNA replication, DNA polymerase I works in the 5’ to 3’ direction adding
nucleotides.
False – DNA polymerase III
5. The somatic nervous system includes the sympathetic and parasympathetic
nervous systems.
False – Autonomic nervous system
6. Anabolic steroids cause kidney problems, hair loss, oily skin, acne, shrinking
testes, infertility, and cancer.
True
7. A C4 plant consists of a mesophyll cell and bundle sheath cell underneath,
connected by plasodesmata, ensuring that there is always a high concentration
of CO2 to fix.
True
8. CAM plants use spatial separation by closing their stomata during the day and
opening them at night so that there is little water loss when up taking CO2.
False - Temporal Separation
9. The three symbiotic relationships are not; parasitism, mutationism and
commensalism.
True
10. Social parasites manipulate the social behaviour of another species to complete
their life cycle.
True
SECTION 4: MATCHING
KNOWLEDGE AND UNDERSTANDING [10 MARKS]
Vernon Ingram
Antrum
Nephron
Diffusion
Receptor-Mediated
Endocytosis
Intraspecific
Competition
Interspecific
Competition
NAD+ and FAD+
NADH
Dehydrogenase
Histones
Concluded that a gene specifies the type and location of each
amino acid in a polypeptide chain
A fluid-filled cavity which forms around the secondary oocyte
and supplies nutrition for the oocyte
The smallest functional unit of the kidneys
The tendency of particles to move from an area of [high] to an
area of [low].
A method used to bring in bulk quantities of a specific substance
into a cell.
A species competes against other members of its own species
Different species compete against one another
Low energy, oxidized coenzymes that act as electron acceptors
Protein complex that is embedded in the ETC that acts as an
electron acceptor
A stabilizing protein that DNA is coiled around
SECTION 5: SHORT ANSWER
INQUIRY & APPLICATION [39 MARKS]
1. Draw the formation of a triglyceride with four carbon monounsaturated fatty
acids [3]. On the diagram:
a) Clearly draw the individual monomers. [2]
b) Label all functional groups on the monomers. [2]
Hydroxyl – on the glycerol
Carboxyl – on the fatty acids
c) Label and name the resulting bond. [1]
Ester linkage
d) Classify the reaction. [1]
Dehydration Synthesis – Anabolic reaction
2. Explain what is meant by the term “fluid mosaic model” of the plasma
membrane. Discuss at least three different components in the membrane that
lend it this name. [4]
The fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane refers to the fluidity and various
different components of the membrane. The fluidity of the membrane is
dependent on the following components:
- Phospholipids, integral and peripheral proteins which move laterally 
proving that the membrane is not static and thus is fluid.
- Cholesterol molecules insert themselves into spaces between the hydrophobic
tails. At high temperatures the cholesterol makes the membrane less fluid
and at low temperatures it prevents the membrane from freezing. Cholesterol
regulates fluidity.
Finally the membrane is mosaic like because it is composed of an array of
different macromolecules. For example: glycoproteins, glycolipids, and surface
proteins.
3. Clearly explain what would happen to ATP production in the following situations,
stating the exact number of ATP produced if possible. [3]
a) What if a mutation occurred in the mitochondrial matrix so that 2 NADH
and 2 FADH2 were produced in the Calvin Cycle during cellular
respiration? [1 pyruvate]
b) Photosystem I does not have a Z protein attached to it? [3]
Answer:
a) 2 NADH makes 3 ATP each in the ETC and 2 FADH2 makes 2 ATP each,
making 6 + 4 = 10 ATP. Glycolysis produces 2 ATP and 1 NADH, the NADH
goes through the glycerol phosphate shuttle and is converted into FADH2= 2
ATP. 1 NADH is produced in pyruvate oxidation= 3 ATP
b) Water would not be broken down into oxygen, hydrogen, and 2 electrons,
therefore there would be no electrons to replace the electrons from
photosystem I that were exited by 2 photons. The light reactions of
photosynthesis would not be able to continue. There would also be no
protons to strengthen the concentration gradient between the thylakoid
lumen and stroma.
4. Describe any 2 of the following and give an example: [4]
a) Microparasites: They are microscopic in size and reproduce fast; plasmodium
and trypanosoma.
b) Macroparasites: The can be seen by the naked eye; tapeworms and lice.
c) Endoparasites: They live and feed on the inside of a host; tapeworms and
plasmodium.
d) Ectoparasites: They live and feed on the outside of a hose; fleas, ticks and
lice.
5. What are the differences between Facultative and Obligatory Mutualism? [2]
Answer:
The interaction of facultative mutualism is beneficial to both of the series;
although they can survive without each other. Obligatory mutualism organisms
cannot grow and reproduce with each other.
6. Using the original DNA template given below, answer part (a) and (b).
Original DNA template: 3’ATCCTGAG 5’
a) State the corresponding mRNA stand and DNA coding strand. [2]
mRNA strand: 5’UAGGACUC 3’
DNA coding strand: 5’TAGGACTC 3’
b) What type of mutation is present in the strand, 3’ATCTGAG 5’ compared to
the original DNA template? Explain the effect that this mutation will have. [2]
The type of mutation present in the strand is a deletion of a base. Therefore,
this type of mutation was a frameshift mutation. This will cause all the amino
acids being coded for to change.
7. If given DNA samples from a crime scene, how would you go about determining
whether the individual was present at the scene of the crime? [3]
In order to determine whether an individual was present at the scene of the crime
the process of gel electrophoresis should be used. Gel electrophoresis separates
DNA fragments according to their size. DNA is cleaved into different sized
fragments by endonucleases. The DNA is then mixed with a glycerol-containing
dye and loaded into well. The DNA is submerged into an electrolytic solution. A
negative charge is placed near the wells and a positive charge is at the opposite
side of the gel. DNA travels toward the positive electrode.
8. John is a marathon runner and every day after his early morning jog, he becomes
very hot. Explain in detail how his body works to maintain homeostasis with
regards to body temperature during this time. Be sure to reference all important
glands and organs. [3]
-
In order to lower John’s body temperature;
The hypothalamus turns on the cooling system.
As a result, the sweat glands initiate sweating because evaporation of sweat
causes cooling.
Moreover, the skin’s blood vessels dilate and blood flow to the skin increases. As
a result, heat exudes from the skin.
Finally, as the body temperature decreases, the hypothalamus will turn off the
body’s cooling system.
9. Explain briefly any 2 of the phases of the menstrual cycle. Be sure to identify all
hormones at work in each phase. [4]
(a) Flow Phase
o Beginning of menstrual cycle
o Shedding of the endometrium as a result of mass decrease in
production of estrogen and progesterone
o No fertilization has taken place
(b) Follicular Phase
o Development of follicle
o Estrogen is secreted, which triggers the thickening of the
endometrium
(c) Ovulatory Phase
o Ovulation occurs due to a spike in luteinizing hormone (LH)
o Secondary oocyte is released from ovary
(d) Luteal Phase
o Corpus Luteum develops
 Secretes estrogen and progesterone
 Endometrium continues to thicken
o Progesterone inhibits further ovulation and prevents uterine
contractions
SECTION 6: LONG ANSWER
INQUIRY & APPLICATION [31 MARKS]
1. Explain what is occurring in each of the following pictures. Use correct
terminology. [6]
All three pictures describe osmosis, where water moves from an area of high [water]
to an area of low [water]
First Picture:
- Isotonic cell and solution
- No net movement of water
- Cell’s [water] = solution’s [water]
Second Picture:
- Hypertonic cell, hypotonic solution
- Cell’s [water] is lower than solution’s [water]
- Water moves from solution to cell
Third Picture:
- Hypotonic cell, hypertonic solution
- Cell’s [water] is higher than solution’s [water]
- Water moves from cell to solution
2. Should manufacturers be focusing more on the quality of their products as
opposed to the quantity of products produced and purchased? Explain both the
local and global perspectives looking at the social, political, environmental and
economic issues. Explore the pros and cons of each issue. [6]
Cons:
Environmental: The environment is degrading; it is breaking down which can
cause a strain on animal populations
Political: There is no law that say products must be labelled if they are genetically
modified
Economic: Creates a strain on the economy because the government is spending
so much money trying to prevent environmental degradation
Social: It will cost people more money and their paycheques will be spent more
on less products making harder to make ends meet.
Pros:
Environmental: It would minimize environmental degradation and the strain on
the environment.
Political:
Economic: The economy would improve due to the lifting of the strain on the
environment.
Social: It would lessen the burden on the population to take care of the
environment.
3. Explain why feedback inhibition is important and how it relates to cellular
respiration. Provide a specific example. [4]
Feedback inhibition ensures that the body does not waste energy. It regulates the
rate of reactions. It is very important in controlling aerobic respiration. An
example of this is PFK which is an allosteric enzyme that catalyzes the third
reaction in glycolysis. It is inhibited by ATP and stimulated by ADP. Citrate also
acts as an inhibitor to PFK; when it accumulates, it will inhibit PFK and slow down
glycolysis. When citrate is used up, the concentration will decrease and the rate
of glycolysis will increase.
NADH can also act as an inhibitor for an enzyme that reduces the amount of
acetyl-CoA that is shuttled to the Krebs cycle, reducing the amount of NADH
produced. This ensures that excess energy that the body does not need is not
produced and therefore wasted.
Both of these feedback loops help to control aerobic respiration.
4. Explain in detail at least three of the ethical factors that shape the genetics
industry. Be sure to explain the positive and negative effects that these factors
have on the social, political, environmental, and ecological landscape of the
industry. [9]
-
-
-
-
Stem Cells;
o Stem cell research involves removing a nucleus from an egg cell and
fusing it with a denucleated egg cell. The denucleated egg cell now
feels fertilized and begins to develop into a zygote.
o The genetics industry is concerned with the question of the moral
status of an embryo. Is it considered to be a collection of cells or a
living being?
o One of the negative consequences of not exploring this division of
science is the expansion of the black market. Individuals in dire
circumstances often feel propelled to sell their organs to individuals
looking to make a profit.
o Research involving stem cell research could benefit countries all over
the world as the cure that this technology offers is not limited to one
type of illness.
Human Cloning;
o The purpose of human cloning is to create a child (infertility) or to
treat degenerative diseases.
o The Assisted Human Reproductive Act prohibits human cloning for any
reason. This means that only animal trials can be performed.
o Performing cloning on animals has allowed the genetics community to
better understand how we can manipulate and incorporate genetics
into new technologies.
Gene Patenting;
o Gene patenting has allowed companies like Myriad Genetics to patent
BRCA genes which are linked with ovarian and breast cancer in
women.
o Gene patenting does allow for individuals to check the likeness of
them developing certain illnesses. However, because only one
company owns that gene there is no opportunity to develop more
effective tests or allow for individuals to receive a second opinion.
Health Canada Regulation on GMOs
o Labels on products are only required if there is a healthy or allergy
issue associated with that product. Otherwise, companies have the
option of whether or not they would like to include such labels on their
products.
o Consumers are not being given all of the information that will allow
them to make appropriate choices about the food that they want to
consume.
-
o GMOs make up a large portion of the world’s food supply and without
this industry the world would not be able to support the growing
population.
DNA and Privacy
o Genetic information Non-Discrimination Act prohibits discrimination
on the basis of genetic information with respect to health insurance
and employment.
o This allows for all individuals to have an equal opportunity that is not
biased based on factors out of the individual’s control.
5. a) Which hormone(s) play a role in establishing homeostasis when the body has
low blood pressure? [2]
Renin, Aldosterone
b) Explain how the hormone(s) work(s) to increase blood pressure and reestablish homeostasis in the body. Be sure to indicate the hormone’s
function, target organ and where it’s produced/ released. [4]
Renin;
o Released by juxtaglomerular apparatus
o Renin converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin
o Angiotensin constricts blood vessels to increase blood pressure –
angiotensin stimulates the release of aldosterone
Aldosterone;
o Released from the adrenal gland
o Carried in blood to the kidneys
o It acts on nephrons to increase sodium and water re-absorption