British Association of Critical Care Nurses – Military Region
Test your knowledge: Military Trauma
The Nursing and Midwifery Council (NMC) Code and Post Registration Education
and Practice (PREP) requirements outline the need for continuous professional
development (NMC, 2008, 2011). This quiz on military trauma nursing and reflective
framework provides one way to demonstrate professional development and
supporting evidence for the Defence Operational Nursing Competencies (DONC).
There are two ways to approach this quiz. Either attempt the quiz and then using the
answer sheet to see if you would answer them differently or read around the subject
first, attend a study event such as the Military Region Trauma Critical Care Skills
Workshop and then attempt the questions.
Whichever method you use, one you have finished complete the reflective practice
framework and file in your professional portfolio.
If you would like to contribute to future Military Region quizzes please contact the
Military Region Chair Capt Chris Carter (chris.carter946@mod.uk)
Quiz
1. What are the components of the lethal triad of trauma?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Hypothermia
Coagulopathy
Acidosis
All of the above
2. What is the definition of massive transfusion?
a) Any transfusion of four or more units
b) >10 units of packed red cells over a 24 hour period
c) As much as required in order to achieve oxygenation and coagulation
3. What are the signs of a tension pneumothorax?
a) Hypo-ressonance, tracheal deviation, asymmetrical chest movement, reduced
air entry on side of pneumothorax and tachypnoea
b) Hyper-ressonance, tracheal deviation, asymmetrical chest movement,
reduced air entry on side of pneumothorax and tachypnoea
4. What the potential chest injuries caused by trauma?
a) Blast lung
b) Haemothorax
c) Fracture ribs
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d) All of the above
5. A casualty has been involved in major trauma, what is the preferred method of
opening the airway?
a) Head tilt, chin lift
b) Jaw thrust
6. What are the potential complications of neck collars?
a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
Unable to open mouth
Limited access to perform cricoid pressure
Still able to move head once blocked e.g. coughing
Pressure ulcers to ears, chin shoulder,
All of the above
7. Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency and can occur in spinal cord
injured individuals which tends to occur in spinal injuries above?
a) T6
b) T10
c) L1
8. What are common signs of autonomic dysreflexia?
a) Hypertension, bradycardia, headaches, profuse sweating, flushing.
b) Hypotension, tachycardia, cold and clammy.
9. What are potential causes of autonomic dysreflexia?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Full bladder
Kinked urinary catheter
Trapped wind
All of the above
10. A fractured pelvis can potentially cause which of the following injuries?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Exsanguination from large pelvic vessels
Damage to the bowel
Damage to the genitourinary system
All of the above
11. Initial treatment should involve applying a pelvic binder or splint. What does
alignment allow?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Reduces pain
Restores vascular supply and reduced bleeding
Reduces damages to soft tissue injuries
Decreases incidence of fat embolism
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e) All of the above
12. What is the correct dosage of amitriptyline for treatment of ‘phantom limb pain’
following traumatic amputation?
a) 25mg once daily
b) 50mg once daily
c) 75mg three times a day
13. Pregabilin can also be used to treat phantom limb pain following traumatic
amputation. What is the correct dose?
a) 50mg twice a day
b) 75mg twice a day
c) 100mg twice a day
14. When IV access has been unsuccessful intraosseous (IO) access is an
acceptable method of obtaining vascular access?
a) True
b) False
15. Which of the following drugs can be administered via an intraosseous (IO) line?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Co-Amoxiclav
Blood, Fresh Frozen Plasma, Platelets
Morphine boluses
All of the above
17. In relation to fluid resuscitation in trauma, what does the term ‘hypotensive
resuscitation’ mean?
18. What is the NICE recommendation for fluid boluses in trauma if no radial pulse
can be felt?
a)
b)
c)
d)
250ml crystalloid
500ml crystalloid
250ml colloid
1l Hartmann’s stat
19. What does a ‘bubbling’ chest drain indicate?
a) Fluid is being removed from the pleural space
b) Air is being removed from the pleural space
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c) Moves when patient breaths in
20. What does a ‘swinging’ chest drain indicate?
a) Occurs when patient breaths in and out
b) Fluid is being removed from the pleural space
c) Air is being removed from the pleural space
21. Which of the following statements are false?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Chest drains should not be routinely clamped
Chest drains should be secured in place using a purse string suture
Chest drains should remain below the chest level
Chest drains should be secured a transparent dressing
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