Bankruptcy Reorganizations and the Troubling Legacy of Chrysler and GM BY RALPH BRUBAKER & CHARLES J. TABB 2010 U. ILLINOIS L. REVIEW 1375 Or, “how scary is the § 363 revolution?” § 363 Or, “what is the essence of ‘reorganization’?” “Reorganization” = ??? Sea change: Plan 363 sale Chrysler & GM cases are the poster children highlighting the sea change in recent years from the traditional Chapter 11 reorganization model of a duly confirmed “plan” to an all-asset sale under § 363 Plan 363 sale The cases Chrysler: went through bankruptcy in 41 days $2 billion “sale” from “Old Chrysler” to “New Chrysler” free & clear of underwater senior secured debt GM: went through bankruptcy in 39 days Credit bid “sale” from “Old GM” to “New GM,” to underwater secured lenders Traditional points of controversy re 363 sales 1st: all-asset sale under 363, rather than via plan, deprives economic stakeholders of procedural & substantive protections in plan process 2nd: not really a “sale” at all But a “reorganization” wolf masquerading in “sale” sheep’s clothing “Sub Rosa” plan Historic “tests” to ferret out the twin concerns The “sales are suspect” issue: “good business reason” (Lionel) i.e., why can’t we wait for a plan? The reorganization wolf / sales sheep issue: No “sub rosa plans” in a sale (Braniff) What is not the problem Neither the “sales are suspect” nor the “wolf/sheep sub rosa” issue is real concern raised by auto cases Although the “sub rosa” plan issue, properly understood, is implicated Problem: the “plan” / “sale” dichotomy is a false one almost any sale can be effectuated as a plan, and any plan can be structured as a sale So not helpful for a court to seek guidance on whether to approve a 363 sale in a model of a “true” sale or plan – no such thing! What is the problem So what is our worry? Boyd risen from the dead Boyd * referring of course to the 1913 Supreme Court ruling in equity receivership case that any “value” in the debtor had to be distributed in accordance with distributional entitlements, notwithstanding a supposed “sale” structure And yet this is precisely what the auto cases – and especially GM – appear to allow Boyd resurrected – and no one noticed It is bad enough that the reorganization fallacy that the Supreme Court laid to rest in Boyd was resurrected in the auto cases Even more disturbing is that no one seemed to notice – it happened sub silentio Which makes it even more likely that reorganization lawyers will be able to circumvent distributional entitlements via a 363 “sale” Without the real issue even being on the table The central point “Whether reorganization value is captured by “sale” or by “plan” is not the central question, as long as the means chosen preserves and upholds chapter 11’s distributional norms” … Thus, “courts confronting these issues must keep their primary focus on the core need to protect the normative distributional entitlements of stakeholders, whether the reorganization proceeds by sale or plan” (p. 1379) A nod to plans? Given that central thesis, I might be willing (probably more willing than my coauthor Ralph?) to acknowledge that IF distributional issues are implicated, then a plan may be favored my basic point is that the plan process makes it easier for the court to monitor the fairness of, and for affected parties to have a meaningful say in, the question of “who gets what” But it COULD be done via a sale as long as court was alert to need to enforce distributional norms Our Grades: Chrysler & GM on the real issue Chrysler: passed -- did not contravene stakeholders’ distributional entitlements GM: failed – did violate the rights of stakeholders to share in value of entity according to distributional norms Acknowledge that our view (esp. on Chrysler) is controversial (but of course correct!) Chrysler sale All assets 35% Fiat [Old] 8% US $2B + debt assumption 2% Canada 55% equity + Senior Secured VEBA ($10B $4.6B) (owed $6.9B) Trade ($5.3B) Warranty, dealer ($4B) Pension ($3.5B) New Chrsyler OUT: Jr. secured; Unassumed unsecured; Old equity GM sale All assets [Old] New GM Credit bid + pref + $6.7 B 60.8% US 11.7% Canada + 10% common stock + pref + $1.3B + debt assumption [eg, warranty, product liability, non-govt secured] US & Canada secured (~ $50B) Unsecured ($117B) - Bonds ($27B) - UAW trust ($21B) 10% Old GM + warrants 17.5% VEBA + warrants + pref + $6.5B 1st principles of reorganization Two distinct issues raised in reorganizations, and implicated in the whole 363 sale debate: 1st: how much? 2nd: to whom? One of the problems muddying the whole 363 debate is that the two issues tend to get conflated the “sub rosa” plan issue gets confused with the preliminary question of when an all-asset 363 sale should be permitted at all All cash Way to keep the two issues distinct is to posit an all cash 363 sale In effect just converting estate assets into a pot of $ Before sale after sale 1stprinciple: maximize value One of the core concerns in a bankruptcy reorganization is to maximize estate value This is a question simply of how BIG a pot of $ we can get It is in everyone’s interests to get a bigger pot of $ Which prefer? Sale v. plan agnostic on pie size! This crucial threshold issue of maximizing estate value is NOT really implicated in the “sale v. plan” debate Value max? No reason can’t get just as big (or bigger!) a pie out of estate assets in a 363 sale as in a plan Sending out disclosure statements, voting, etc. does not grow the value of the estate Individual stakeholders don’t enjoy unique & special value maximization insights that can only be captured via the plan direct democracy process Indeed, give much deference to firm in business decisions Only concern should be, is the pot of $ as big as it can be? Aggregate vs individual Note, though, that just because the action proposed may maximize the AGGREGATE value of the estate does not always mean that the value to each INDIVIDUAL stakeholder will be maximized So do possibly disadvantage some individual stakeholders if we partially disenfranchise them via a sale process, rather than giving them a direct vote under a plan But, is such a “harm” worthy of protection, if may make the entire pot smaller? Answer: “no” Big pot ≠ who gets The question of, “is this as big was we can make the pot of $ ?” is totally distinct from the question of “who gets what out of the pot” We should worry more if the “who gets what” issue is decided via a sale OK sale not OK sale Reorganization premise -> capture surplus The whole point of trying to salvage a firm via a bankruptcy reorganization – rather than just liquidating the firm (in or out of bankruptcy) -- is the belief that extra value (the “going concern surplus”) can be captured going concern surplus liquidate reorganize 363 Sale may be ok if get surplus In principle, if our 1st driving concern is to make sure we capture the “surplus” for the benefit of the stakeholders of the firm (viewed in the aggregate), then we should not necessarily object if we can realize that surplus via a 363 sale 363 sale? If realize -> then Judicial test In theory, then, a 363 sale should be fine if the only issue is whether that sale allows us to maximize aggregate estate value i.e., are we still capturing the surplus? OR Judicial test: “good business reason” for 363 sale Gets at the “getting the surplus?” issue, but indirectly The “lose-by-waiting” OK for sale Could just ask directly in any 363 all-asset sale: “does this maximize the estate value?” Instead, the Lionel “good business reason” test is framed on a “would we lose estate value if we waited for a plan?” and then only approve if answer “yes”: Sale now = Wait for plan = Why require “lose-if-wait” justification? Query why courts will only approve an immediate 363 all-asset sale if evident would lose $ by waiting? Deference to the plan process protections (e.g., disclosure, voting, etc.) As contrasted with the more limited process rights in a sale (notice, opportunity to be heard, etc.) But do these really matter on the question of how to maximize estate value? Plan dissent usually is over the “who gets what” issue, not over the “what should we do with the assets” question Could change test Could change the test to ask only if the sale = max Even if would not lose anything by waiting Thus, argue no reason not to approve 363 sale if: Sale now = Wait for plan = it’s going to be the same size pot either way! Applying the “GBR” test in auto cases Even with quibble about whether it really makes sense to use a “good business reason” test for a 363 sale, rather than a “is this really the max” test, was not much of a hurdle for courts to clear on the facts in either Chrysler or in GM Courts in both cases saw the estate value as a “melting ice cube” – i.e., waiting likely would cause enormous loss in aggregate value Call the government’s bluff? One of main reasons the proverbial “ice cube” would melt in the auto cases was the risk that the US and Canadian governments would walk away They were putting up all the $, and said “sale now or forget it” Some critics say should have called their bluff – but would it really have been worth it? No other deals were on the horizon What DO we need a plan for? If a 363 sale (rather than a plan) may be just as – indeed if not more – effective in maximizing aggregate estate value, then one might ask – what role does a plan ever serve? The answer is: determining who gets what, i.e., making decisions on how to DISTRIBUTE estate value to the interested stakeholders Negotiating over the surplus Premise of the whole plan democracy process is to ensure a fair method of allocating the supposed going concern surplus Surplus: to whom? Plan may be required Liquidation baseline -> Informed suffrage on “who gets what” Idea is that the various stakeholders should have the right to negotiate over, be informed about, and have a formal say (via a vote) as to which of them gets what share of the reorganization surplus, all subject to baseline protective allocation rules And that is what we call a “plan” Sale problems If try to allocate reorganization value under a 363 sale, lose both (i) process and (ii) substantive protections Process: disclosure, voting, etc Cannot really substitute fully for in “sale” under 363. Fatal? Substantive: best interests, absolute priority, etc. Court COULD invoke these norms in deciding whether to approve a 363 sale When 363 “sale” is not OK? 363 “sale” usually should NOT be approved when that “sale” directs the distribution of the sale proceeds among various stakeholders Group A 50% Group C Group B Or, at least import distributional norms As 2nd-best option, if otherwise a quick “sale” does seem necessary (due to exigencies, e.g., auto cases) the court at the very least should import distributional norms from the plan confirmation rules, including: Best interests test Fair and equitable No unfair discrimination Class treatment Plan rules 363 sale “Sub rosa” plan issue This “distribution-by-sale” problem parades under the rubric of “no sub rosa plans in a 363 sale” We don’t think the use of the “sub rosa” terminology moves the analytical ball forward –begs questions of “what is a sub rosa plan, and why is that bad?” better And to focus directly on what the real concern is that concern is allowing unchecked & unmonitored distribution to stakeholders contrary to rights Chrysler distributional attacks (1) Indiana Pension Funds (a secured Cr) argued sale was an invalid “sub rosa” plan because it gave “value to unsecured creditors (i.e., in the form of the ownership interest in New Chrysler provided to the union benefit funds) without paying off secured debt in full.” (2) Unequal treatment of unsecured creditors -> through the debt assumption of some unsecured claims, but not others Reprise: Chrysler sale All assets [Old] New Chrsyler $2B + debt assumption 35% Fiat 8% US 2% Canada 55% equity Senior Secured (owed $6.9B) VEBA ($10B + 4.6B) Trade ($5.3B) Warranty, dealer ($4B) Pension ($3.5B) OUT: Jr. secured; Unassumed unsecured; Old equity Secured Cr objection? nay Indiana Pension Funds’ objection to the distribution to the VEBA was properly rejected by Judge Gonzalez – no distributional violation in the sale 1st: IPF’s class consented to the give-up 2nd: even if class had not consented, the “fair and equitable” protection for a secured class is not through absolute priority rule (i.e., cut out jr classes), but through sale of collateral with credit bid right The consent? One main argument that has been leveled agst the “consent” point is that secured CR consent was tainted by conflict of interest, b/c the US govt was dangling TARP $ out to those banks, and effectively forced them to “consent” to Chrysler deal as a condition of getting the TARP $: just say “yes” Sale / plan -> no difference re consent 1st problem with the “tainted consent” argument is that Judge Gonzalez found no factual evidence to support it 2nd, and more fundamentally – no reason why judge would have made a different finding on legitimacy of consent if in a plan context Would challenge to “designate” in a plan But same factual decision as in sale setting Purely a judicial call – parties don’t “vote” on consent! Protect Secured via Credit Bid For class of secured claims, a primary “fair and equitable” distributional protection is the right of secured class to CREDIT BID their claim on a sale In Chrysler: sale price = $2 billion Secured class had claim of $6.9 billion, secured by all assets If thought $2 billion not enough, senior secured class could have “credit bid” up to $6.9 billion and acquired all assets of Old Chrysler Did not do so – suggests ok with $2 billion price tag {bracket caveat: Philly Newspapers!} Won’t dwell on it here, but of course you all know of the possible problem wherein secured creditors are denied the right to credit bid in a chapter 11 sale, see, e.g., Philly Newspapers and Pacific Lumber Of course, even there the secured Cr is protected by an “indubitable equivalent” standard, so could be OK if bankruptcy judge does her job right Bigger problem: CR inequality in debt assumption? Have been considering the distribution-by-sale issue on premise that have a cash-only sale And suggest there is usually little to worry about there But what if the sale instead is not all cash, but is for cash PLUS assumption of some debts? risk inequality The sale purchaser’s assumption of some unsecured debts, and not others, raises serious risk of improper distribution-by-sale Some unsecured creditors (those whose debts are assumed) do better than others (those whose aren’t) And occurs as a consequence of the sale itself The distributional norm implicated Unsecured creditor equality Implement in plan context through rules governing: Classification (substantially similar only) Same treatment in class Class voting No “unfair discrimination” if in cramdown Unequal distribution? What about this all-cash sale? NOT approve Obviously group B gets more than C, which gets more than A 100 Unsecured class A sale proceeds Unsecured class B 50 Unsecured class C Can reach same result via debt assumption Could restructure sale to reach the same result, with equal distribution of sale proceeds to the unsecured classes, but with a differential debt assumption by the purchaser of the to-be-preferred classes 60 Unsecured class A sale proceeds + Assume zero Unsecured class B 20 Unsecured class C + Assume 30 + Assume 10 Economically equivalent The two structures just described are economically identical in substance: Purchaser commits to pay 100 1. All-cash: pay 100 2. Cash + assumption: pay 60, assume 40 = 100 Creditor benefits total 100, differentially; same totals 1. All-cash: pay A 20, B 50, C 30 2. Cash + assumption: pay A 20; pay B 20+ assume 30 = 50; pay C 20 + assume 10 = 30 Is differential debt assumption in sale ok or not? At first blush, one is tempted to (and indeed probably should) say “of course it is not okay” As a form / substance matter, should treat as same case (viz., unfair discrimination as between same status unsecured creditors) whether done by all-cash sale or by cash-plus-assumption structure In a plan, the classes discriminated against could vote for plan (assume meet best interests test), but can’t vote on sale so can’t consent to discrimination When might be ok … However, in one factual situation, the (i) all-cash and the (ii) cash-plus-assumption scenarios are NOT identical That is when the Purchaser would not pay more -- even if debt assumption were not allowed E.g., in the Hypo -> Purchaser still will only pay $60 for the estate assets, NO MATTER WHAT – whether or not allowed to assume debts In article, this is what we call “Scenario One” (p. 1396) debt assumption $ not available to all creditors? Necessary factual premise, then, is that the $ represented by the debt assumption (in hypo the extra $40) is NOT $ that the Purchaser ever would pay as part of the sale price in an all-cash sale Stated otherwise – if Purchaser WOULD pay the extra $ as part of cash sale price (in hypo, pay $100, not $60) if debt assumption not allowed, then court should NOT allow the debt assumption We call this a “Scenario Two” (p. 1396 & ff.) Evidentiary problem The theory is easy enough to grasp The problem for bankruptcy judges is the factual one of deciding whether a case is a permissible Scenario One (where Purchaser really, truly, won’t pay more) or a verböten Scenario Two (where Purchaser would in fact pay the debt assumption $ as part of the cash purchase price) Impenetrable inquiry into “WWPD” A major proof difficulty is the impenetrability of the factual inquiry into the question of “What Would Purchaser Do” if debt assumption were not allowed Self-serving testimony by Purchaser High risk of collusion And Purchaser may be completely indifferent to form Analogous to other preferential give-ups The sort of problem encountered here is very similar conceptually to other preferential treatment situations, such as “critical vendor” payments or preferential lending terms (such as crosscollateralization) There I have suggested that only way to be sure is a OK Scenario One is to never approve a possible Scenario Two! i.e., have a flat prohibitory rule Purchaser could still pay later If have a flat prohibitory rule against a debt assumption as part of a 363 sale, does not preclude the Purchaser from paying off the “critical” parties AFTER the sale occurs In Hypo – Purchaser pay $60 in sale, distribute $20 each to classes A, B, and C; then, after sale, Purchaser can assume $30 of B’s debt and $10 of C’s debt, if so wishes But Chrysler still OK Having said that a flat prohibitory rule has much to recommend it, we still conclude that the Chrysler debt assumption = legal Scenario One As Judge Gonzalez said: “not one penny of value of the Debtors’ assets is going to anyone other than the First-Lien Lenders” “any of the obligations … do not constitute a distribution of proceeds from the Debtors’ estates” Why Chrysler OK? Chrysler is perhaps the one factual situation where we CAN verify the factual claim that the Purchaser would not pay more. Why? Because the First-Lien Lenders had every incentive to get every additional dime from Purchaser that Purchaser would pay, b/c it all was going to them Paid $2 billion, owed $6.9 billion And could credit bid up to $6.9 if did not like the $2 billion price tag Evidence that purchaser really means it Thus, in Chrysler, the fact the senior lenders went along with sale structured as $2 billion + debt assumption is strong evidence that “the entirety of the debt assumption … was incremental value that the government was willing to pay only in the form of debt assumption.” (p. 1399) * of course, one could resurrect the “coercion” claim re TARP funds, but that is a distinct factual question Bottom line Chrysler Not a prohibited sub rosa plan “The sale itself does not dictate distribution of sale proceeds in a manner that set aside the Code’s rules about priority and distribution” “Furthermore, the dynamics of the Chrysler sale were such as to give considerable comfort as to the verifiability of that central fact, which is almost equally as important” GM: ritualistic self-sale = “reorganization” On the crucial sale-approval issue of whether the sale dictates distribution in a manner that sets aside the Code’s rules about priority and distribution (and on whether that fact is verifiable), we gave Chrysler a (somewhat surprising) thumbs-up But GM is, as we say, a “horse of a different color, on both counts” the GM “sale” = “reorganization” horse GM not a cash sale “Through a credit bid of secured debt, substantially all of GM’s assets were transferred to a newly formed acquisition entity whose new capital structure had already been divvied up amongst GM’s creditors” “with a much larger allocation … to UAW retirees than to GM’s other unsecured creditors” Reprise, GM sale All assets [Old] New GM Credit bid + pref + $6.7 B 60.8% US 11.7% Canada + 10% common stock + pref + $1.3B + debt assumption [eg, warranty, product liability, non-govt secured] US & Canada secured (~ $50B) Unsecured ($117B) - Bonds ($27B) - UAW trust ($21B) 10% Old GM + warrants 17.5% VEBA + warrants + pref + $6.5B Time machine: back to equity receiverships “equity receiverships” developed in 19th century to save insolvent railroads Keep the road running Readjust the debt structure GM is a “back to the future” resurrection of the form of equity receiverships – but without the protective rules designed to safeguard normative entitlements! A “real” sale Hypo: Borrow from Boyd Assets {free & clear} Debtor 1. Mortgagees $157M 2. Unsecured Creditors (Boyd) 3. Stockholders Actual sale $61M cash Purchaser The equity receivership structure: “self-sale” Northern Pac. Ry. Co. v. Boyd, 228U.S. 482 (1913) Assets {free & clear} DR: N. Pac. Railroad 1. Mortgagees $157M 2. Unsecured Creditors (Boyd) 3. Stockholders Judicial sale $61M bid Purchaser: N. Pac. Railway 1. Old Mortgagees 2. Unsecured Creditors (Boyd) 3. Old Stockholders Boyd’s beef Argued that his claim, ranking with the unsecured creditor class, had to be paid before the stockholders could retain an interest in the “new” company Standard fare that debts have to be repaid before equity The supposed “sale” was just a sham (and thus void) as to him – old stakeholders transmuted themselves into the new stakeholders, while squeezing him out, and leaving intact those classes senior AND junior to him Thus he should be able to enforce his unsecured claim against the “purchaser” (Railroad) The “no value” argument Justification proffered was that Boyd was out of the money anyway, since the 1st-lien mortgages were for $157M and the sale bid price was only $61M: “It is insisted, however, that … the specific finding in the Paton Case, established that the property was worth less than the encumbrances of $157,000,000, and hence that Boyd is no worse off than if the sale had been made without the reorganization agreement. In the last analysis, this means that he cannot complain if worthless stock in the new company was given for worthless stock in the old.” 228 U.S. at 507. What’s it to him? It’s irrelevant, right? In effect, the argument was that since his unsecured claim against the debtor was worthless anyway, it was irrelevant as to him what the Purchaser chose to do in allocating interests in the new enterprise WRONG! said Supreme Court in Boyd In one of the most important decisions, and passages, in the history of bankruptcy reorganization law, the Supreme Court in Boyd flatly rejected that argument at 228 U.S. at 508: “If the value of the road justified the issuance of stock in exchange for old shares, the creditors were entitled to the benefit of that value, whether it was present or prospective, for dividends or only for purposes of control. In either event it was a right of property out of which the creditors were entitled to be paid before the stockholders could retain it for any purpose whatever.” Value Debtor’s Estate = New Entity S. Court’s determination in Boyd turns on what should have been an obvious truism: the value of the pre-sale Debtor’s estate is exactly equal to the value of the post-sale “Purchaser” DR: N. Pac. Railroad = Purchaser: N. Pac. Railway No divvying up in self-sale! The result of Boyd (and similar cases, see p. 1403) is: “the ‘purchaser,’ acting under the guise of a ‘sale’ of the debtor’s property to it, was not free to dole out interests in the new ‘purchasing’ entity to the debtor’s creditors and shareholders in whatever manner the ‘purchaser’ wanted” Vertical equity required Boyd involved a problem of vertical equity Unsecured creditor (Boyd) has HIGHER priority entitlement against DR’s estate – and thus against a ‘self-sale’ “purchaser” -- than do shareholders Can’t give anything in “purchaser” to the junior class (shareholders) unless pay higher-ranking class (unsecured creditors) in full 1. Mortgagees $157M 2. Unsecured Creditors (Boyd) 3. Stockholders must respect that order and Horizontal equity required as well Court’s reorganization protections applied equally to horizontal equity Unsecured creditor has SAME priority entitlement against Debtor’s estate as do other unsecured creditors Can’t give MORE to one unsecured CR than another, without a darned good reason – i.e., no “UNFAIR DISCRIMINATION” Debtor Reorganized “Purchaser” secured Unsecured A Unsecured B equity secured Unsecured C Unsecured B Unfair discrimination protection In diagram on preceding slide, Unsecured A and Unsecured C could rightly complain about fact that Unsecured B got a stake in the reorganized purchaser, and they did not Yet that is precisely what happened in GM: the UAW retirees – who just had an unsecured claim like many others -- got a much larger share of “New GM” than did the other unsecured creditors {in diagram, then, UAW retirees are Unsecured B} Not an absolute bar, but … Note that the “no unfair discrimination” does not mean that there can never be any “discrimination” between unsecureds – just that it can’t be “unfair” So can be justified if PROVE the added value to the reorganization effort provided by the favored class And indeed the need to procure the good will of a key union could be just such a justification But the plan proponent has to prove it GM/Chrysler sub silentio “repeal” of Boyd Now (in the 78th slide), we come – at long, long last – to the “troubling legacy” of GM & Chrysler, which stems from those courts’ statement that: “The allocation of ownership interests in the new enterprise is irrelevant to the estate’s economic interests” And other similar statements, including: “the purchaser was free to provide ownership interests in the new entity as it saw fit” Contradicts Boyd As showed earlier, in a “self-sale” setting, that exact argument was directly rejected by the Supreme Court in Boyd Immunizes sale allocation of value from scrutiny If followed, the disturbing consequence of the GM/Chrysler theory is that ANYTHING GOES in terms of allocating value in the “new” entity The allocation of value in the new entity will be totally immunized from any judicial scrutiny whatsoever And the excluded parties don’t even get a vote! Our take (p. 1404): “There are no limits; the § 363 sale assumes irrefutable and uncontestable omnipotence.” And can do it for a “good business reason”! 2nd Circuit in Chrysler misguidedly collapsed and conflated sub rosa plan distributional concerns into the more general preliminary inquiry as to whether can do a 363 sale at all, viz., All proponent need show is a “good business reason” So if debtor has a “melting ice cube” – apparently cannot only do an all-asset sale now to maximize value – but can distribute that value among creditors and stakeholders without any restriction! Goodbye Boyd!