M13/4/PHYSI/SPM/ENG/TZ1/XX
Physics
Standard level
Paper 1
Monday 6 May 2013 (morning)
45 minutes
M13/TZ1
1. The mass of an elephant is 104 kg. The mass of a mouse is 10–2 kg.
What is the ratio mass of the elephant?
mass of the elephant
?
mass of the mouse
A. 10–8
B. 10–6
C
C. 106
D. 108
2. An archer aims five arrows at the centre of a target. The arrows strike the target as
shown below. Which of the following describes the aim of the archer?
A. Accurate and precise
B. Accurate but not precise
C. Precise but not accurate
D. Neither accurate nor precise
C
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3. The graph below shows how velocity v varies with time t for a ball thrown vertically
upwards from the Earth’s surface.
The shaded area is equal to the
A. displacement.
A
B. final velocity.
C. change in velocity.
D. acceleration.
4. Two identical balls are dropped from a tall building, one a few seconds after the other. Air
resistance is not negligible. As the balls fall, the distance between the balls will
A. decrease.
B. increase.
C. increase then remain constant. C
D. remain constant.
No air resistance
y = 5 t2
time
distance
1s
5m
2s
20 m
3s
45 m
4s
80 m
when a = 0
y=vt
v is
terminal
speed
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5. Which of the following is always true for an object moving in a straight line at constant speed?
A. No forces act on the object.
B. No resultant force acts on the object.
B
C. The momentum of the object is zero.
moving in a straight line at constant speed
→ constant velocity
Translational equilibrium: 𝑣 is const.
→ 𝑎 = 0 → 𝐹𝑛𝑒𝑡 = 0
D. No work is being done on the object.
6. A person of weight 600 N is standing on a weighing scale in a lift (elevator). The lift is
accelerating upwards at 1.0 m s–2. Which of the following is the reading on the scale?
A. 0 N
Fnet = ma
B. 540 N
Fn – 600 = 60
C. 600 N
Fn = 660 N
D. 660 N
D
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7. A spaceship is moving at constant speed in outer space.
An internal explosion causes it to break into two pieces that move in opposite directions.
Which of the following best describes what happens to its total momentum
and total kinetic energy as a result of the explosion?
Total momentum
Total kinetic energy
A.
unchanged
unchanged
B.
unchanged
increased
C.
increased
unchanged
D.
increased
increased
Momentum is conserved as the
system is isolated.
B
Kinetic energy obviously
increases as the result of
internal explosion.
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8. A horizontal disc is rotating about a vertical axis through its centre. Points P and Q on
the disc are at distances R and 2R respectively from the centre.
The acceleration at P is a. Which of the following is the acceleration at Q?
𝑣2
𝑎𝑐 =
𝑅
A. 0.5a
B. a
C. 2a
2𝜋𝑅
𝑣2
𝑃: 𝑎𝑐 =
= 𝑇
𝑟
𝑅
C
D. 4a
2𝜋2𝑅
𝑣
𝑇
𝑄: 𝑎𝑐 =
=
𝑟
2𝑅
2
4𝜋 2 𝑅
=
𝑇2
2
2
8𝜋 2 𝑅
=
𝑇2
9. 4.0 kg of water at 100 °C is mixed with 1.0 kg of water at 0 °C in a container insulated
from the surroundings. Which of the following is the final temperature of the water?
A. 20 °C
Thermal energy given by hot water = thermal energy received by cold water
B. 25 °C
m1 c1 (100 – T) = m2 c2 (T – 0)
C. 75 °C
D. 80 °C
c1 = c2
D
4.0 (100 – T) = 1.0 T
⟹ 400 – 4 T = T
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10. Which of the following best describes the evaporation of a liquid?
Location of process
Temperature at which process can occur
A.
at surface
at any temperature of liquid
B.
at surface
at maximum liquid temperature only
C.
throughout liquid
at any temperature of liquid
D.
throughout liquid
at maximum liquid temperature only
A
11. Which of the following is the temperature of an object related to?
A. The kinetic energy of the object
B. The random kinetic energy of the particles in the object
B
C. The potential energy of the particles in the object
D. The sum of the random kinetic energy and potential energy of the particles in the object
12. The acceleration of an object executing simple harmonic motion is proportionalM13/TZ1
to the
A. displacement of the object from equilibrium.
A
Simple Harmonic Motion is periodic motion in which the
acceleration/ restoring force is proportional to and in opposite
direction of the displacement.
B. velocity of the object.
C. amplitude of oscillation.
𝑎 = −𝜔2 𝑥
𝐹 = −𝑚𝜔2 𝑥
2𝜋
𝜔 𝑖𝑠 𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑢𝑙𝑎𝑟 𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 =
𝑇
D. frequency of oscillation.
13. A system, consisting of a mass M connected to a spring, oscillates on a frictionless surface
with simple harmonic motion between two points, X and Y. Point O is the centre of the
oscillation.
For the system, at which of the following points is the elastic potential energy equal to the
kinetic energy?
v = ± ω (x02 – x2)1/2
A. O only
→ KE =
B. X and Y only
PE =
C. O, X and Y
D. Neither O, X nor Y
1
2
2
1
2
D
mω
2
mω x
x
2
2
0
-x
2

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14. Microwave ovens cause the water molecules in food to resonate. Water molecules have
a natural frequency of vibration f . In order to heat the food most effectively, the frequency
of the microwaves should have a value
A. less than f .
B. equal to f .
B
C. greater than f .
D. as large as possible.
Natural frequency is the frequency an object will
vibrate with after an external disturbance.
resonance: The increase in amplitude of
oscillation of a system exposed to a periodic
driving force with a frequency equal to the
natural frequency of the system.
If the frequency of a driving force matches the natural frequency
of the system, this leads to a better absorption of energy by the
system, resulting in large amplitude oscillations.
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15. Gas particles are equally spaced along a straight line. A sound wave passes
through the gas. The positions of the gas particles at one instant are shown below.
Which of the distances shown is equal to the wavelength of the wave?
B
Wavelength λ: the distance, measured in the direction of propagation of a wave,
between two successive points with the same phase of oscillation.
16. A particle with positive charge +q moves freely from one plate held at potential V1
to another plate held at potential V2.
Which of the following is the electric potential energy lost by the charge?
A. qV1
B. qV2
∆𝑈 = 𝑞∆𝑉
C. q (V1 +V2 )
D. q (V1 – V2 )
D
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17. Which of the following graphs shows the relationship between current I and
voltage V for a filament lamp?
𝑅=
𝑉
𝐼
by definition
Filament does not obey Ohm’s law because
ratio voltage to current is not constant.
We say tungsten is “non-ohmic”
It’s resistance increases as current through it
increases, because temperature increases.
D
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18. A cell of negligible internal resistance is connected to three identical lamps.
A voltmeter is connected across one of the lamps.
If the filament in lamp X breaks, the reading on the voltmeter will
A. become zero.
B. decrease.
C. stay the same.
D. increase.
B
V = IR
R doesn’t change
Current in the circuit flowing through resistor will
be smaller if X breaks, because resistance of
the parallel connection will increase, so will total
resistance of the circuit, what results in smaller
current.
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19. The gravitational field strength at the surface of a certain planet is g. Which of the
following is the gravitational field strength at the surface of a planet with twice
the radius and twice the mass?
A.
𝑔
2
A
Force between planet (mass M) and object of
mass m is weight of that object. So
B. g
C. 2g
D. 4g
𝑚𝑔 = 𝐺
𝑀𝑚
𝑅2
R – distance between center of the planet and
object m = radius of the planet.
𝑀
2𝑀
𝑔
𝑔 = 𝐺 2 → 𝑔𝑛𝑒𝑤 = 𝐺
=
𝑅
(2𝑅)2 2
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20. Two point charges of size +2q and –q are placed as shown below. In which of the
regions I, II and III can the resultant electric field strength be zero?
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and III only
C
In region I electric field due to (+2q) is to the left and
electric field due to (–q) is to the right, but one due to (+2q)
is always greater then the other one.
In region II both electric fields are to the right
In region III electric field due to (+2q) is to the right and
electric field due to (–q) is to the left, and there is the point
at which the are equal in magnitude but in opposite
direction resulting in zero resultant electric field.
21. A wire is placed in a magnetic field which is directed to the right. The wire carries M13/TZ1
a current directed into the page. Which of the following is the direction of the
force on the wire?
D
R-H-R 1: The direction of the magnetic force on a charge/current is given by
the right-hand rule 1
Outstretch fingers in the direction of v (or current I).
Curl fingers as if rotating vector v (I ) into vector B.
Magnetic force on a positive charge (or I) is in the direction of the thumb
Magnetic force on a negative charge points in opposite direction.
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22. Which of the following would decrease the initial activity of a sample of plutonium?
A. Placing the sample in a lead container
B. Placing the sample in a dark room
C. Decreasing the mass of the sample
D. Decreasing the temperature of the sample
C
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23. A radioactive sample of initial activity 12 Bq has a half-life of 3 days.
What is the activity after 6 days?
A. 2 Bq
B. 3 Bq
B
After 3 days activity is half of the initial one = 6 Bq
After next 3 days activity is half of that one = 3 Bq
C. 4 Bq
D. 6 Bq
24. The reaction
is an example of
A. alpha decay.
B. artificial transmutation.
C. nuclear fusion.
D. proton decay.
B
25. The diagram below shows an energy flow diagram (Sankey diagram) for a car.
What is the efficiency of the car?
A. 30 %
B. 40 %
C. 70 %
D. 100 %
A
𝑢𝑠𝑒𝑓𝑢𝑙 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡
30𝑘𝐽
𝑒𝑓𝑓 =
=
𝑖𝑛𝑝𝑢𝑡
100𝑘𝐽
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26. A small biofuel power station burns ethanol with an overall efficiency of 25 %.
The energy density of ethanol is 30 MJ kg–1. The mass of fuel consumed every
second is 50 kg. Which of the following gives the useful power output in MW?
A
𝑀𝐽
𝑀𝑊 =
→ 𝑜𝑢𝑡𝑝𝑢𝑡 = 0.25 30 𝑀𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 50 𝑘𝑔/𝑠
1𝑠
25
𝑀𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1 𝑘𝑔
=
(30 × 50)
100
𝑠
=
25 × 30 × 50 𝑀𝐽
100
𝑠
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27. An oscillating water column ocean-wave energy converter produces power P
from waves of a certain amplitude and wavespeed. Which of the following would
be the power produced from waves of twice the amplitude and twice the wavespeed?
Wave power: P/L
amplitude of the wave A,
length of wavefront L,
 - density of water
A. 2P
B. 4P
C. 8P
D. 16P
C
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28. The total power radiated by the Sun is P. The distance from the Sun to the Earth is d.
The albedo of the Earth is α . What is the power absorbed by each square metre of
the Earth’s surface?
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑟𝑒𝑓𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝑠𝑐𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟
𝛼=
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑖𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟
𝐼𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦: 𝐼 =
𝑃
4𝜋𝑑2
𝐴𝑝𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑏𝑟𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡𝑛𝑒𝑠𝑠: 𝑏 =
D
𝛼=
𝑃
4𝜋𝑑2
𝑠𝑐𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦
𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑖𝑛𝑐𝑖𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦
Intensity scattered = 𝛼 (total incident intensity)
Intensity absorbed
= total incident intensity – Intensity scattered
= total incident intensity – 𝛼 (total incident intensity )
29. Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas because
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A. it absorbs infrared light radiated by the Sun.
B. it absorbs ultraviolet light radiated by the Earth.
C. its natural frequency molecular oscillation lies in the infrared region.
D. its natural frequency molecular oscillation lies in the ultraviolet region.
C
Short wavelength radiation is received from the sun and causes the surface of the Earth to warm up. The
Earth will emit infra-red radiation (longer wavelengths than the radiation coming from the sun because the
Earth is cooler than the sun). Some of this infra-red radiation is absorbed by gases in the atmosphere and
re-radiated in all directions.
Temperature of the Earth’s surface will be constant if the rate at which it radiates energy equals the rate at
which it absorbs energy.
The greenhouse effect is the warming of a planet due its atmosphere allowing in ultraviolet radiation from
the Sun, but trapping the infrared radiation emitted by the warm Earth.
The greenhouse gas has natural frequency of molecular oscillations in the infrared region, so they easily
absorb energy in that region.
When the frequency of the electric field is near to the natural frequency of an oscillation of the molecule, the
amplitude will be high: The molecule absorbed energy from the field.
Infrared radiation drives the vibration of the atoms; visible and UV radiation excites the electron cloud.
The greenhouse gases like CO2 or several organic gases have natural vibration frequency in the infrared domain.
They absorb it very strongly. On the other hand, they are transparent for visible and UV light. So the visible and
UV light arrives to the surface of the Earth, and is absorbed by metals, rocks, soil, and the leaves of the vegetation
and also by waters. The molecules can re-radiate the absorbed energy, but it is more probable, that they collide
with other molecules and excite vibrations. These vibrations emit infrared photons which can not go through the
atmosphere, as the greenhouse gases absorb them.
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30. Which of the following is most likely to increase the rate of global warming?
A. Deforestation
B. Increasing the use of nuclear power stations
C. Increasing the use of renewable energy sources
D. Using natural gas instead of coal for electricity generation
A
M13/4/PHYSI/SPM/ENG/TZ2/XX
Physics
Standard level
Paper 1
Monday 6 May 2013 (afternoon)
45 minutes
M13/TZ2
1. The length of the side of a cube is 10.0 ±0.3 cm.
What is the uncertainty in the volume of the cube?
A. ±0.027 cm3
∆𝑉 ∆𝑎 ∆𝑎 ∆𝑎
∆𝑎
=
+
+
=3
𝑉
𝑎
𝑎
𝑎
𝑎
B. ±2.7 cm3
C. ±9.0 cm3
D. ±90 cm3
D
∆𝑉 = 3𝑎2 ∆𝑎 = 90 𝑐𝑚3
2. Which of the following lists three vector quantities?
A. momentum, electric field strength, displacement
A
B. momentum, displacement, pressure
C. pressure, electric current, displacement
D. electric current, electric field strength, impulse
electric field strength is not a magnitude
It is the whole vector
3. An object, initially at rest, travels a distance d in a time t at a constant acceleration.M13/TZ2
What is the time taken for the object to travel 16d from rest at the same acceleration?
A. 16t
B. 8t
𝑑=
𝑎 2
𝑡
2
→
16𝑑 =
𝑎
(4𝑡)2
2
C
C. 4t
D. 2t
4. An object is released above the surface of Earth. Which of the following correctly
describes the speed and acceleration before it reaches terminal speed?
Speed
Acceleration
A.
increases
remains constant
B.
increases
decreases
C.
remains constant
remains constant
D.
remains constant
decreases
B
Air resistance provides a drag force to objects in free fall.
▪ The drag force increases as the speed of the falling
object increases resulting in decreasing downward acceleration
▪ Although acceleration decreases, the speed still increases
▪ When the drag force reaches the magnitude of the gravitational
force, the falling object will stop accelerating and fall at a
constant velocity. This is called the terminal velocity/speed.
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5. An object of mass m is connected via a frictionless pulley to an object of mass M,
where M > m. M rests on a horizontal frictionless surface.
𝐹𝑛𝑒𝑡 = 𝑚𝑎
T = Ma
mg - T = ma
mg - Ma = ma
What is the acceleration of the system?
A
a(M+m)=mg
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6. The graph shows the variation with distance x of the magnitude of
the net force F acting on a body initially at rest.
Which of the following describes how the kinetic energy and the acceleration
of the body change with distance?
Kinetic energy
Acceleration
A. decrease
decrease
B. decrease
increase
C. increase
decrease
D. increase
increase
1. ∆ KE = W
net work done on an object will result in the
change of kinetic energy
(work is the area under the graph F vs. x)
C
2. As net F decreases, so does acceleration
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7. A ball of mass 0.40 kg travels horizontally and strikes a vertical wall with
a speed of 5.0 m s–1. It rebounds horizontally with a speed of 3.0 m s–1.
The ball is in contact with the wall for a time of 0.20 s.
What is the average magnitude of the force exerted by the ball on the wall?
A. 0.16 N
F ∆t = ∆ p = pfinal – pinitial = m(vfinal – vinitial)
B. 0.64 N
▪ we can choose coordinate system (vectors !!!)
positive left or positive right
C. 4 N
D. 16 N
D
▪ as the force is positive we want final direction to
be positive, so we choose left to be positive
▪ Then F (0.2) = 0.40 [3.0 – (–5.0)] = 3.2
▪ F = 3.2/0.2 = 16 N
(positive means to the left)
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8. A car on a road follows a horizontal circular path at constant speed. Which of the
following correctly identifies the origin and the direction of the net force on the car?
Origin
Direction
A. car engine
toward centre of circle
B. car engine
away from centre of circle
C. friction between car tyres and road
away from centre of circle
D. friction between car tyres and road
toward centre of circle
D
Newton’s first law of motion – the law of inertia ... objects in motion tend to stay in motion with the
same speed and the same direction unless acted upon by a net force.
Whatever the object, if it moves in a circle, there is some force acting upon it to cause it to deviate
from its straight-line path, accelerate inwards and move along a circular path.
For object's moving in circular motion, there is a net force acting towards the center which
causes the object to seek the center.
9. The temperature of an object is −153°C. Its temperature is raised to 273°C.
What is the temperature change of the object?
A. 699 K
B. 426 K
C. 153 K
D. 120 K
B
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10. Two ideal gases X and Y are at the same temperature. The mass of the molecules of
gas X is twice the mass of the molecules of gas Y.
Microscopic level: (absolute) temperature directly proportional to
the average kinetic energy of the molecules of a substance:
(KE)avg =
3
𝑘𝑇
2
k is Boltzmann constant
B
1
𝑚 𝑣2
2
𝑎𝑣𝑔
1
𝑚𝑥 𝑣 2
2
1
𝑚 𝑣2
2 𝑦
𝑣2
𝑣2
~𝑇
𝑥 𝑎𝑣𝑔
𝑦 𝑎𝑣𝑔
𝑥 𝑎𝑣𝑔
𝑦 𝑎𝑣𝑔
=
𝑇
𝑇
𝑚𝑦 1
=
=
𝑚𝑥 2
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11. A sample contains 4 g of helium and 20 g of neon. The mass number of helium is 4
and the mass number of neon is 20.
number of atoms of neon
What is the ratio number of atoms of helium ?
A. 0.2
B. 1
C. 5
D. 80
B
Avogadro’s number:
Number of constituent particles
(atoms/molecules) per mole of a given
substance is 6.022×1023 mol−1
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12. Which graph shows how velocity v varies with displacement x of a system moving
with simple harmonic motion?
A
Be aware:
Dependence on t:
v = –  x0 sin ωt = – v0 sin ωt
Dependence on x:
2
v = ±  x2
0−x
at x = x0 & x = – x0
at x = 0
v=0
v = ±  x0
D. Is tempting. but D. is sinusoidal, it would
show dependence on time not x.
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13. An object undergoes simple harmonic motion with time period T and amplitude 0.5 m.
At time t = 0 s the displacement of the object is a maximum.
What is the displacement of the object at time t =
3𝑇
4
?
A. − 0.50 m
𝑇
Every
oscillator covers distance
4
of one amplitude
B. 0.50 m
C. 0.25 m
D. 0 m
D
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14. Light of wavelength 600 nm travels from air to glass at normal incidence. The
refractive index of the glass is 1.5. The speed of light in air is c. Which of the following
correctly identifies the speed of the waves and their wavelength in the glass?
𝑛=
𝑐
→
𝑣
𝑣=
𝑐 2𝑐
=
𝑛
3
𝑓𝑟𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑒𝑛𝑐𝑦 𝑑𝑜𝑒𝑠𝑛′ 𝑡 𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑛 𝑤𝑎𝑣𝑒 𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒𝑠 𝑚𝑒𝑑𝑖𝑢𝑚
𝑐 = 𝑛𝑣
𝑓λ𝑎𝑖𝑟 = 𝑛𝑓λ𝑔𝑙𝑎𝑠𝑠
λ𝑔𝑙𝑎𝑠𝑠 = λ𝑎𝑖𝑟 /𝑛
D
15. Which of the following correctly describes the direction of a ray drawn relative M13/TZ2
to a wavefront for longitudinal and transverse waves?
Longitudinal wave
Transverse wave
A.
parallel
parallel
B.
parallel
perpendicular
C.
perpendicular
parallel
D.
perpendicular
perpendicular
D
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𝑅=𝜌
𝐿
𝐿/2
=𝜌
𝐴
𝐴𝑛𝑒𝑤
→
𝐴 = 2 𝐴𝑛𝑒𝑤
C
𝑟 2 = 2 𝑟 2 𝑛𝑒𝑤
→
𝑟𝑛𝑒𝑤 = 𝑟/ 2
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𝑅𝑇𝑂𝑇 = 𝑅 +
𝐼=
B
𝜀
𝑅𝑇𝑂𝑇
𝑅
3
= 𝑅
2
2
18. A proton is accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 1000 V. What is the
potential difference through which an alpha particle must be accelerated to gain the
same kinetic energy as the accelerated proton?
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A. 4000 V
∆𝑈 = 𝑞∆𝑉 = ∆𝐾𝐸
B. 2000 V
C. 500 V
C
𝑞𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑛 ∆𝑉𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑜𝑛 = 𝑞𝑎𝑙𝑝ℎ𝑎 ∆𝑉𝑎𝑙𝑝ℎ𝑎
D. 250 V
19. The magnitude of the gravitational field strength at the surface of a planet of mass M and
radius R is g. What is the magnitude of the gravitational field strength at the surface of a planet
of mass 2M and radius 2R?
Force between planet (mass M) and object of mass
m is weight of that object. So
𝑔
A.
4
B.
𝑔
2
C. g
D. 2g
𝑚𝑔 = 𝐺
B
𝑀𝑚
𝑅2
R – distance between center of the planet and object
m = radius of the planet.
𝑀
2𝑀
𝑔
𝑔 = 𝐺 2 → 𝑔𝑛𝑒𝑤 = 𝐺
=
𝑅
(2𝑅)2 2
20. Three positive point charges +Q are fixed in position at the vertices of an isosceles
triangle. P is the mid point between two of the charges.
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The only electric field that
survives at point P is the one
due to charge at the right angle
corner. The other two cancel
each other out.
Which arrow correctly identifies the direction of the electric field at point P?
A. W
B. X
C. Y
D. Z
B
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21. Three wires, P, Q and R, carry equal currents directed into the plane of the paper.
Currents in same direction attract!
Currents in opposite direction repel!
Which arrow correctly identifies the direction of the magnetic force on wire P?
A. W
B. X
C. Y
D. Z
B
22. Which particle is acted on by both the strong nuclear force and the Coulomb force?
A. Antineutrino
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B. Electron
C. Neutron
D. Proton
D
23. A nucleus of californium (Cf) contains 98 protons and 154 neutrons. Which of the
following correctly identifies this nucleus of californium?
C
24. Which of the following gives the particles of the same energy in an increasing order
of ionizing ability?
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A. β, α, γ
B. α, β, γ
C. γ, α, β
D. γ, β, α
D
25. The use of which energy source enhances the greenhouse effect the most?
A. Wood
B. Coal
C. Wind
D. Tidal
B
26. The volume expansion coefficient of water is γ . The average depth of the ocean is h.
∆ℎ
What is the expected fractional increase
in the sea level for a temperature
ℎ
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increase of Δθ ?
A. γ Δθ h
B. γ Δθ
γh
C. Δθ
γ
D. Δθ
B
𝛾=
∆𝑉
𝑉0 ∆𝜃
(K−1 or oC−1)
γ-coefficient of volume expansion
∆𝜃 increase in temp.
coefficient of volume expansion
= change in volume per unit volume per degree
𝛾=
𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ × 𝑤𝑖𝑑𝑡ℎ × ∆ℎ
∆ℎ
=
(𝑙𝑒𝑛𝑔𝑡ℎ × 𝑤𝑖𝑑𝑡ℎ × ℎ) ∆𝜃 ℎ∆𝜃
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27. Which of the following correctly describes the energy transformation within
photovoltaic cells and within solar heating panels?
Photovoltaic cells
Solar heating panels
A. solar to thermal
solar to electrical
B. solar to thermal
solar to thermal
C. solar to electrical
solar to electrical
D. solar to electrical
solar to thermal
D
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28. An oscillating water column (OWC) ocean-wave converter produces a power P.
What is the power output of this converter if the amplitude and speed of the waves
are both doubled?
A. 2P
B. 4P
C. 8P
D. 16P
C
Wave power: P/L
A - amplitude of the wave,
L - length of wavefront
 - density of water
29. The graph shows the spectrum of a black-body.
Which graph shows the spectrum of a body of emissivity 0.5 at the same
temperature as the black-body? (The original graph is shown dotted.)
C
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30. A student states that the following factors may lead to global warming
I. decreased albedo of the Earth’s surface
II. increase in volcanic activity
III. deforestation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
D
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N13/4/PHYSI/SPM/ENG/NOV/XX
Physics
Standard level
Paper 1
Wednesday 6 November 2013 (morning)
45 minutes
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1. The sides of a square are measured to be 5.0 ± 0.2 cm. Which of the following gives
the area of the square and its uncertainty?
A. 25.0 ± 0.2 cm2
𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 = 𝑎2 = 25 𝑐𝑚2 (2𝑆𝐹)
B. 25.0 ± 0.4 cm2
C. 25 ± 2 cm2
C
D. 25 ± 4 cm2
∆𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 ∆𝑎 ∆𝑎
∆𝑎
=
+
=2
𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎
𝑎
𝑎
𝑎
∆𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑎 = 2𝑎∆𝑎 = 2 5.0 0.2 𝑐𝑚2 =2 𝑐𝑚2
Uncertainties are rounded to one digit
2. Which of the following lists two vector quantities and one scalar quantity?
A. force, mass, time
B. acceleration, energy, momentum
C. distance, impulse, power
D. density, pressure, temperature
B
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3. A tennis ball is dropped from the top of a high building. Air resistance cannot be
neglected.
Which graph represents the variation with time t of the magnitude of the acceleration
a of the ball before it hits the ground?
B
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Terminal speed – When air resistance is taken into account object in free fall will not accelerate
forever. Air resistance depends on the speed of the object. As speed increases, so does air
resistance until it reaches the value equal to the weight of the object. At that time net force is
zero, so is acceleration. The speed doesn’t change any more. It is constant speed.
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4. A model plane flies with constant velocity at constant height. Which diagram represents
the forces acting on the plane?
D
Object is in translational equilibrium if
F net = 0, a = 0
velocity is const.
5. The net force on a body is F. The impulse of F is equal to the
A. change in momentum of the body.
A
B. rate of change of momentum of the body.
C. change of kinetic energy of the body.
D. change of total energy of the body.
Impulse is defined as the product of the net force acting on an
object and time interval of action: FΔt vector! (Ns)
Impulse F∆t acting on an object will produce the change of its momentum Δp:
F∆t = ∆p
Δp = mv - mu Ns = kg m/s
Newton’s second law::
F =
Δp
Δt
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6. In an inelastic collision
A. momentum and kinetic energy are both conserved.
B. momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not.
C. kinetic energy is conserved but momentum is not.
D. neither momentum nor kinetic energy are conserved.
B
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7. A force which increases uniformly from 0 to a maximum value of F is applied to an object.
The object does not move until the force exceeds 0.5F. As the force increases from
0.5F to F the object moves a distance x in the direction of the force. What is the work
done by this force?
A. 0.25Fx
force
F
B. 0.5Fx
C. 0.75Fx
D. Fx
C
0.5 F
x
distance
Work is the area under F vs distance graph
8. A body moves with uniform speed around a circle of radius r. The period of the
motion is T. What is the speed of the body?
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A
𝑣𝑒𝑐𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑖𝑠 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑖𝑎𝑙 𝑡𝑜 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑐𝑖𝑟𝑐𝑙𝑒
Average velocity is zero, because displacement is zero
Speed is constant and is circumference/period
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9. Molar mass is defined as
A. the number of particles in one mole of a substance.
B. 1/12 the mass of one atom of carbon-12.
C. the mass of one mole of a substance.
C
D. the number of particles in 1/12 of a mole of carbon-12.
10. Which of the following is true about boiling and evaporation?
Boiling
Evaporation
A. occurs throughout liquid
occurs at liquid surface
B. occurs throughout liquid
occurs throughout liquid
C. occurs at liquid surface
occurs at liquid surface
D. occurs at liquid surface
occurs throughout liquid
A
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11. A solid of mass m is initially at temperature ΔT below its melting point. The solid has
specific heat capacity c and specific latent heat of fusion L. How much thermal energy
must be transferred to the solid in order to melt it completely?
A. mL + mc
B. mc + mLΔT
To bring solid to melting point Q = mc∆T is needed.
And then Q = mL is needed to melt it
C. mcΔT + LΔT
D. mcΔT + mL
D
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12. For a body undergoing simple harmonic motion the velocity and acceleration are
A. always in the same direction.
B. always in opposite directions.
C. in the same direction for a quarter of the period.
D. in the same direction for half the period.
D
13. Which graph of displacement x against time t represents the motion of
a critically damped body?
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A
Critical/heavy damping: occurs if the resistive force is so big that the system returns to its
equilibrium position without passing through it. The mass comes to rest at its equilibrium
position without oscillating. The friction forces acting are such that they prevent oscillations.
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14. Which of the following correctly relates the direction of oscillation of the particles in
a medium to the direction of energy propagation for transverse and longitudinal waves?
Transverse wave
Longitudinal wave
A. perpendicular
perpendicular
B. perpendicular
parallel
C. parallel
perpendicular
D. parallel
parallel
B
15. Which of the following relates the amplitude A of a travelling wave to the intensity I ?
𝑃
𝐼=
4𝜋𝑑 2
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𝑑 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑓𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟
𝑎𝑝𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑏𝑟𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡𝑛𝑒𝑠𝑠: 𝑏 =
C
𝐸~𝐴2
𝑎𝑛𝑑
𝐸=
𝑃
𝑡
𝐿
4𝜋𝑑2
→
𝐼~𝐴2
16. Two identical waves of wavelength λ leave two sources in phase. The waves meet and
superpose after travelling different distances. Which path difference will result in
destructive interference?
B
17. A resistor X of resistance R is made of wire of length L and
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cross-sectional area A.
Resistor Y is made of the same material but has a length 4L and a cross-sectional area 2A.
X and Y are connected in series. What is the total resistance of the combination?
A. 1.5R
B. 2R
C. 3R
D. 9R
𝑅𝑇𝑂𝑇 = 𝜌
C
𝐿
4𝐿
+𝜌
𝑅 + 2𝑅
𝐴
2𝐴
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18. A light dependent resistor L is connected in series with a cell C and a fixed resistor R.
The cell has a negligible internal resistance. VOUT is the output voltage across L.
A photoresistor or light-dependent resistor (LDR) or
photocell is a light-controlled variable resistor. The resistance
of a photoresistor decreases with increasing incident light
intensity; in other words, it exhibits photoconductivity. A
photoresistor can be applied in light-sensitive detector
circuits, and light- and dark-activated switching circuits.
𝑉𝑂𝑈𝑇 = 𝐼 𝑅𝐿 =
𝑒𝑚𝑓
𝑒𝑚𝑓
𝑅𝐿 =
𝑅
𝑅 + 𝑅𝐿
+1
𝑅𝐿
If intensity of light decreases, RL
increases, and VOUT increases
Which change will increase VOUT?
A. Connect another resistor in parallel with L
B. Decrease the intensity of light on L
C. Increase the resistance of R
D. Decrease the emf of C
B
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19. Each of the resistors in the circuit has a resistance of 2.0 Ω. The cell has an emf of 3.0 V
and negligible internal resistance. The ammeter has negligible resistance.
1/RTOT = 1/R + 1/3R = 4/3R
RTOT = 3/2 Ω
I = emf/RTOT = 2 A
Current through one resistor I1
Current through three resistors I3
What is the ammeter reading?
2 = I1 + I3
A. 0.4 A
R I1 = 3R I3
B. 0.5 A
I1 = 3I3
C. 1.5 A
I3 = 0.5 A
D. 2.0 A
C
I1 = 1.5 A
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20. Which diagram represents the pattern of electric field lines of two small positive point
charges held at the positions shown?
B
21. The force F between particles in gravitational and electric fields is related
to the separation r of the particles by an equation of the form
𝐹=
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𝑏𝑐
𝑎 2
𝑟
Which of the following identifies the units for the quantities a, b and c for a gravitational field?
a
b and c
A. N m2 C–2
C
B. N m2 C–2
kg
C. N m2 kg–2
C
D. N m2 kg–2
kg
Both A and D will result in the product (abc) = N m2 ,
but the problem asks about gravitational force, not
electric one.
D
22. An electron of mass me and charge e accelerates between two plates separated by
a distance s in a vacuum. The potential difference between the plates is V.
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𝑑𝑒𝑓𝑖𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐 𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑:
𝐸=
What is the acceleration of the electron?
𝐹
𝑞
𝐸=
∆𝑉
𝑠
𝐸 = 𝑁/𝐶
𝐸 =
𝑉
𝑚
𝒄𝒐𝒏𝒔𝒕. 𝑬
𝑉−0
𝐹
𝑒𝐸 𝑒 𝑠
𝑒𝑉
𝑎=
=
=
=
𝑚𝑒 𝑚𝑒
𝑚𝑒
𝑚𝑒 𝑠
C
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23. In a particular atom, the nucleon number is the total number of
A. protons.
B. neutrons.
C. electrons.
D. protons and neutrons.
D
24. For which quantity can the unit MeV c–2 be used?
A. Mass
B. Momentum
C. Kinetic energy
D. Binding energy
A
𝐸 = 𝑚𝑐 2
𝑚=
𝐸
𝑐2
Unit for mass is unit for
energy (MeV) divided by c2
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25. Uranium-238
as a result of
forms a nucleus of plutonium-239
A. electron capture followed by alpha decay.
B. electron capture followed by beta decay.
C. neutron capture followed by alpha decay.
D. neutron capture followed by two beta decays.
D
2 protons more means 2 neutrons into 2 protons and two electrons = two beta decays
1
: 10n → 1p + −10e β− + ν
That would leave the same number of nucleons, so one extra neutron must be captured
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26. In the production of electric power, an advantage of using photovoltaic cells rather
than fossil fuels is that the photovoltaic cells
A. can be effective in any location.
B. can be used continuously.
C. have low initial set-up costs.
D. are more environmentally friendly when in use.
D
27. What is the main role of the control rods and the main role of the moderator
in a thermal fission reactor?
Control Rods
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Moderator
A. decrease neutron speed
decrease neutron speed
B. decrease neutron speed
absorb neutrons
C. absorb neutrons decrease
neutron speed
D. absorb neutrons
absorb neutrons
C
Main energy transformations in a nuclear power station: nuclear energy → thermal energy → mechanical energy →
electrical energy
Three important components in the design of all nuclear reactors are moderator, control rods and heat exchanger.
▪ Moderator is a medium that slows down fast neutrons to make them suitable for reaction (water, graphite, heavy water).
▪ Control rods are movable rods that readily absorb neutrons. They can be introduced or removed from reaction chamber
in order to control the rate of fission of uranium and plutonium. Made of chemical elements capable of absorbing many
neutrons without fissioning themselves (cadmium, hafnium, boron, etc)
▪ Heat exchanger is used to seal off the place where nuclear reactions take place from the rest of the environment.
In some nuclear power plants, the steam from the reactor goes through a heat exchanger to convert another loop of
water to steam, which drives the turbine.
The advantage to this design is that the radioactive water/steam never contacts the turbine.
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28. An oscillating water column (OWC) ocean-wave energy converter uses
waves to alter the air pressure in a chamber. Which energy resources must have been
involved for this method to generate electricity?
I. Tides
II. Wind
It is wave not tide !!!!
III. Solar
A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. II and III only
D
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29. The surface temperature of a black-body emitter is doubled. By what factor does
the power emitted by the body increase?
A. 32
B. 16
B
𝑃 = 𝜎𝐴𝑇 4
𝑖𝑛 𝑎𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑜𝑝ℎ𝑦𝑠𝑖𝑐𝑠 = 𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦
C. 4
D. 2
30. Which option is not a possible solution to reduce the enhanced greenhouse effect?
A. Decommission nuclear power plants
B. Replace the use of coal and oil with natural gas
C. Use combined heating and power systems (CHP)
D. Use hybrid motor vehicles
A