APES
Review
2013-2014
Matter is anything that
A. Has mass and takes up space
B. Gives off energy
C. Is a solid at room temperature
D. Cannot be chemically changed
2
Most plastics are classified as
_________________ pollutants
A. Degradable
B. Biodegradable
C. Nonpersistant
D. Nondegradable
E. Slowly degradable
3
A nuclear change in which two
isotopes form a heavier nucleus is
known as
A. Nuclear fission
B. Nuclear reaction
C. Radioactive decay
D. Nuclear fusion
E. Critical mass
4
Natural capital consists of:
A. Goods and services produced by
natural means
B. Goods and services produced by
nature
C. Goods and services produced
using only natural ingredients
5
The economic theory that claims that
the best way to alleviate poverty and
to grow the economy is known as
A. Trickle-down theory
B. Narrowing the wealth gap
C. Capitalism
D. Social engineering
6
If the statute of limitations is cited as a basis
for the dismissal of an environmental
lawsuit, that means that:
A. The law upon which the case was filed is
no longer in effect.
B. The plaintiff was asking for more money
than the law allows.
C. The defendant has gone out of business.
D. The problem that was the basis of the
lawsuit has been solved.
E. The plaintiff waited too long to file the
lawsuit.
7
Cradle-to-grave is the concept that
companies can and should be held
responsible for the harmful consequences
of their products from manufacture to
final disposal are covered under what
environmental law?
A. Clean Air Act
B. Superfund
C. Toxic Substances Control Act
D. Resource Conservation & Recovery Act
E. Hazardous and Solid Wastes Act
8
Under the provisions of the Clean Air
Act, priority pollutants are:
A. Pollutants that do the most harm to
the air quality.
B. Air pollutants that are most
commonly generated
C. The most toxic air pollutants
D. Air pollutants from factories and
hazardous waste sites
E. Air pollutants from non-point
sources
9
Nitrate is converted to nitrogen
gas through the process of
A. denitrification.
B. nitrification.
C. leaching.
D. nitrogen fixation.
E. assimilation.
10
Inorganic nitrogen-containing ions
are converted into organic molecules
through
A. assimilation.
B. leaching.
C. nitrification.
D. nitrogen fixation.
E. denitrification.
11
Net primary productivity
A. is usually reported as the energy output
of an area of producers over a given time.
B. is the rate at which producers
manufacture chemical energy through
photosynthesis.
C. is the rate at which producers use
chemical energy through respiration.
D. is the energy input of an area of
producers over a given time.
E. is the rate of photosynthesis plus the rate
of respiration.
12
Life on earth depends on interaction
of gravity, the cycling of matter and
A. the destruction of matter.
B. the consumption of matter.
C. one-way flow of energy.
D. cycling of energy.
E. one-way flow of matter.
13
The pyramid which best explains
why there are typically only four to
five links in a food chain is the
pyramid of
A. energy.
B. biomass.
C. productivity.
D. matter.
E. numbers.
14
The two ways in which humans have
most interfered with the carbon cycle
are
A. removal of forests and aerobic
respiration.
B. burning fossil fuels and removal of
forests and brush.
C. respiration and removal of forests.
D. respiration and photosynthesis.
E. aerobic respiration and burning fossil
fuels.
15
Humus is
A. indicative of poor soils.
B. poisonous to soil microorganisms.
C. partially decomposed organic
matter.
D. freshly, fallen leaves.
E. light colored or nearly white.
16
You read the data records of a field ecologist
who reports the following varieties of species:
beetles, spiders, grasshoppers, many insects
and invertebrates, earthworms, prairie dogs,
rabbits, squirrels, meadowlarks, coyotes,
foxes, and hawks. You conclude that the field
ecologist is located in a
A. arctic tundra.
B. desert.
C. taiga.
D. tropical grassland.
E. temperate grassland
17
Which of the following is true with respect
to oligotrophic lakes and eutrophic lakes?
A. Oligotrophic lakes are more subject to
oxygen depletion.
B. Rates of photosynthesis are lower in
eutrophic lakes.
C. Eutrophic lake water contains lower
concentrations of nutrients.
D. Eutrophic lakes are richer in nutrients.
E. Sediments in oligotrophic lakes contain
larger amounts of decomposable organic
matter.
18
Which of the following is characteristic of
most terrestrial biomes?
A. annual average rainfall in excess of 250
cm
B. a distribution predicted almost entirely
by rock and soil patterns
C. clear boundaries between adjacent
biomes
D. vegetation demonstrating stratification
E. cold winter months
19
The term upwelling refers to the
movement of
A. cool water from the Arctic toward
the equator.
B. cool nutrient-rich water from the
bottom to the surface.
C. warm nutrient-rich water from the
bottom to the surface.
D. warm water replacing cool water.
E. warm surface water.
20
The rain shadow effect refers to
A. wetter conditions on the leeward side
of mountain ranges.
B. drier conditions on the windward side
of mountain ranges.
C. more light on the leeward side of
mountain ranges.
D. more light on the windward side of
mountain ranges.
E. drier conditions on the leeward side
of mountain ranges.
21
The main reason Polar Regions are
cooler than the equator is because
A. there is more ice at the poles.
B. sunlight strikes the poles at a lower
angle.
C. the poles are farther from the sun.
D. the poles have a thicker atmosphere.
E. the poles are permanently tilted
away from the sun.
22
Which of the following ecosystems
has the highest average net primary
productivity?
A. open ocean
B. agricultural land
C. swamps and marshes
D. lakes and streams
E. temperate forest
23
Nitrogen gas is converted to ammonia
through
A. nitrogen fixation.
B. leaching.
C. nitrification.
D. denitrification.
E. assimilation.
24
If something is biodegradable, it
A. cannot be broken down by any living
processes.
B. can be broken down by decomposers.
C. can be broken down by heterotrophs.
D. can be broken down by autotrophs.
E. cannot be broken down by omnivores.
25
When organisms die, their nitrogenous
organic compounds are converted to
simpler inorganic compounds such as
ammonia through
A. nitrification.
B. ammonification.
C. denitrification.
D. nitrogen fixation.
E. leaching.
26
The hydrologic cycle is driven
primarily by
A. solar energy and gravity.
B. solar energy and the moon.
C. solar energy and mechanical
energy.
D. chemical energy from the moon.
E. mechanical and chemical energy.
27
Which of the following ecosystems
has the lowest level of kilocalories per
square meter per year?
A. lakes and streams
B. agricultural land
C. temperate forest
D. tropical rain forest
E. open ocean
28
Ammonium ions are converted to
nitrite ions and nitrate ions through
the process of
A. nitrification.
B. leaching.
C. denitrification.
D. assimilation.
E. nitrogen fixation.
29
Photosynthesis
A. yields glucose and carbon dioxide
gas as products.
B. produces carbon dioxide and
oxygen gas.
C. yields glucose and oxygen gas as
products.
D. requires the combustion of carbon.
E. converts glucose into energy and
water.
30
Plants of the arctic tundra are adapted to
A. freezing temperatures, lack of sunlight,
and constant high winds.
B. freezing temperatures, lack of water, and
lack of sunlight.
C. moderate temperatures, lack of sunlight,
and constant high winds.
D. freezing temperatures, lack of water, and
bright sunlight.
E. freezing temperatures, lack of water, and
variable winds.
31
Most of the wetlands that are lost are
used for
A. mining.
B. recreation.
C. forestry.
D. urban development.
E. agriculture.
32
In lakes, the nutrient-rich water near
the shore is part of the
A. limnetic zone.
B. benthic zone.
C. profundal zone.
D. abyssal zone.
E. littoral zone.
33
Estuaries exhibit
A. constant temperature.
B. variable temperature and constant
salinity.
C. constant temperature and salinity.
D. variable temperature and salinity.
E. constant temperature and variable
salinity.
34
During an El Niño-Southern Oscillation
(ENSO),
A. surface water along the South and
North American coasts becomes cooler.
B. upwellings of cold, nutrient-rich
water are suppressed.
C. prevailing easterly winds weaken.
D. upwellings of cold, nutrient-rich
water are increased.
E. upwellings of warm, nutrient-poor
water are suppressed.
35
Deserts typically occur in a band at 30
degrees north and south latitude because
A. descending air masses tend to be cool
and dry.
B. trade winds have a little moisture.
C. water is heavier than air and is not
carried far over land.
D. ascending air tends to be moist.
E. these locations get the most intense solar
radiation of any location on Earth.
36
Climate is the general pattern of
weather over a period of at least
A. 30 years.
B. 20 years.
C. 50 years.
D. 10 years.
E. 40 years.
37
An ecologist would expect a
temperate lake to demonstrate
overturns in
A. fall and winter.
B. fall and summer.
C. spring and summer.
D. spring and fall.
E. spring and winter.
38
Plants and trees can be cut down and
replanted. These resources are
therefore considered to be
A. Renewable resources
B. Nonrenewable resources
C. Perpetual
D. Exhaustible resources
E. Sustainable
39
An ecological footprint is defined as
A. The impact an individual may have
on a given area of land
B. The amount of biologically productive
land and water needed to sustain an
individual within a population
C. The carrying capacity of the earth for
a given population
D. The amount of land and water that
has been converted to nonproductive
use within a given geographical region
40
Point pollution sources
A. Can usually be identified within a
given area
B. Can never be located
C. Are dispersed and difficult to
identify
D. Are much more expensive to
control than nonpoint sources
E. Cannot be controlled
41
A __________________ feedback loop
causes a system to change further in
the same direction.
A. Negative
B. Corrective
C. Nominal
D. Positive
E. Polarized
42
Changes in the gene pools of symbiotic
species over time is known as
A. Mutation
B. Hybridization
C. Coevolution
D. Natural selection
E. Genetic shift
43
The realized niche of a species is
______________ its fundamental
niche.
A. The same as
B. Larger than
C. Not effected by
D. Smaller than
E. Independent from
44
Broad niches are characteristic of
A. Generalist species
B. Extinct species
C. Natural species
D. Competitive species
E. Specialist species
45
The alteration of an organism’s
genetic material through adding,
deleting, or changing segments of DNA
is known as
A. Genetic engineering
B. Cloning
C. Transgenic organisms
D. Bioengineering
E. Artificial selection
46
Which habitat has the highest number
of species?
A. Tropical rainforest
B. Temperate forest
C. Short-grass prairie
D. Savannah
E. Boreal forest
47
Habitat fragmentation that increases the
edge area around a community can
A. Make species less vulnerable to fi
B. Allow species to increase their genetic
variation
C. Increase the propagule pressure of a
community
D. Make species less vulnerable to
predators
E. Create barriers that prevent species
from colonizing new areas
48
Species richness is defined as
A. The abundance of individuals within
a species
B. The number of different species
within a community
C. The amount of food types a species
consumes
D. The number of niches a species
occupies
E. The diversity of species within a
community
49
A species that plays a major role in
shaping communities by creating
and enhancing habitat is a
A. Keystone species
B. Invasive species
C. Charismatic species
D. Indicator species
E. Foundation species
50
When lions and leopards live in the
same area, lions take mostly larger
animals as prey and leopards take
smaller ones to avoid direct
competition. This is referred to as
A. Resource partitioning
B. Symbiosis
C. Commensalism
D. Mutualism
E. Predator-prey competition
51
The fact that a community consists of
an ever-changing mosaic of vegetation
patches at different stages of succession
conflicts with the idea of a
A. Balance of nature
B. Foundation species
C. Pioneer species
D. Late successional species
E. Climax community
52
Which of the following would be most vulnerable
to extinction?
A. a mold that attacks wheat in the field
B. an orchid endemic to an area where logging is
occurring
C. a healthy plant, such as a pine tree, that
completely dominates its native environment
D. a migratory flock of warblers stopping along
its winter route to feed on local resources that
are now gone and replaced by a suburb
E. a moth, brought to the United States for silk
production, escaping into the wild and
becoming established
53
Humans have dramatically altered the rate
of nitrogen fixation into forms usable by
autotrophs ________.
A. because of the erosion of farmlands
through poor agricultural practices
B. due to the burning of fossil fuels to meet
our energy needs
C. as we produce synthetic fertilizers and
apply them to crops, lawns, and parks
D. by using antibiotics to reduce the
numbers of denitrifying bacteria
E. by selectively removing leguminous
plants
54
You are studying species diversity in the
Caribbean islands. Which island would you
expect to have the most number of species?
A. a large island near the mainland
B. a medium-sized island is the middle of an
island chain
C. a medium-sized island near the mainland
D. a large island far removed from other
sites
E. a small island far removed from other
sites
55
CITES is
A. a treaty controlling the international
trade in endangered species.
B. a set of regulations controlling the
introduction of exotic species.
C. a pact that supports critical ecosystems
that support wildlife.
D. an international organization dedicated
to the preservation of endangered species.
E. an American law that catalogues all
known endangered species and uses
Custom Agents to confiscate any that
come into the country
56
The resilience of a community is defined as
A. The ability of the community to repair
damage after a moderate disturbance
B. The ability of a community to resist
being disturbed
C. The ability of a community to keep its
population size limited by its resources
D. The ability of a community to tolerate
exponential population growth
E. The ability of a community to alter its
successional processes
57
Why do communities with higher
biodiversity also have higher net primary
productivity?
A. They are more resistant to being
disturbed
B. They are able to maintain population
sizes of component species
C. Each species is able to exploit a different
portion of the available resources
D. These communities have lower numbers
of herbivores
E. Each species is able to compete more
effectively
58
Why are some animals, such as frogs, so
brightly colored?
A. The colors are used for camouflage in
the tropical forests
B. The colors are used to attract mates
C. The colors are used for parental
identification by offspring
D. The colors are used to startle
competitors
E. The colors are used to warn predators
that the frogs are toxic
59
The relationship between flowering
plants and bees is best described as __.
A. predation
B. parasitism
C. herbivory
D. mutualism
E. competition
60
The relationship between flowering
plants and caterpillars is best
described as _______.
A. amensalism
B. parasitism
C. herbivory
D. mutualism
E. commensalism
61
The IUCN's Red List is ________.
A. a list of unidentified species
B. an identification list of known species
C. an updated list of species facing
unusually high risk of extinction
D. a scorecard of international failures
at conservation
E. a list of ecologically damaged
ecosystems
62
Bullfrog tadpoles are often sold as fish bait,
even in areas where they do not occur
naturally. When people buy 10 of them and
don't use them all, they often dump the
remainder into the lake or river. This is an
example of ________.
A. extermination
B. overharvesting of species from the wild
C. introduced species
D. inbreeding
E. habitat destruction
63
Biodiversity enhances food security
because it ________.
A. increases the number of available
pathogens
B. decreases the number of predators
C. means that there is genetic
uniformity
D. protects crops against losses due to
disease
E. reduces the number of pollinators
64
Which of the following are facing
the highest rates of extinction?
A. birds in general
B. plants in general
C. K-strategists
D. r-strategists in general
E. insects in general
65
The species most often vulnerable
to human impact is the
________.
A. keystone species
B. decomposer
C. competitive species
D. producer
E. top predator
66
The country of Belize depends on lobster for
a major portion of its income, along with
fishing and tourism. Over the past 30 years
the average size of an individual lobster has
dropped, even as increasing numbers of
Belizeans buy boats, build lobster traps, and
enter the industry. This is an example of
________.
A. habitat alteration
B. effects of pollution
C. overharvesting
D. results of an invasive species
E. problems with monoculture
67
Most of the world's forests occur
as ________.
A. temperate rainforest
B. chaparral
C. tropical dry forest
D. temperate deciduous forest
E. taiga and rainforest
68
Forests reach their greatest ecological
complexity when ________.
A. they are frequently logged using
clear-cutting
B. in the early stages of recovering from
logging
C. shrubs and other ground cover plants
are absent
D. they are frequently burned
E. they are mature and exhibit a multilevel canopy
69
The National Environmental Policy Act
(NEPA) ________.
A. altered the amount of chemicals allowed
in water as a result of industrial pollution
B. put all federal land under stringent
environmental protection
C. was signed into law by Bill Clinton
D. requires compensation to be given to
anyone harmed by deliberate pollution
from any business or corporate entity
E. required environmental impact
statements for any projects funded by the
U.S. government
70
When natural selection occurs, what is the
key factor that will determine which
individuals will survive and pass on the
beneficial traits?
A. The traits that are more useful to humans
will be passed on
B. Size; the larger the animal or plant, the
more likely it will survive
C. How large the initial population is
D. The environment will determine which
traits are most beneficial
E. Natural selection is random and occurs by
chance
If a population of 100 birds increases
to 120 birds the following year, r =
_____.
A. 0. 16
B. 0. 20
C. 1. 2
D. 2
E. 20
Population A
I. Is likely to have a higher level of education
than population B
II. Is likely to have had a recent decline in infant
mortality
III. Is likely to be poorer than population B
A. I
B. III
C. I and II
D. II and III
E. I, II, and III
A population of rabbits, introduced to
an island, has rapid growth for a few
years; then its growth slows. The
population becomes stable because
A. the carrying capacity has been
reached.
B. environmental resistance declines.
C. immigration is reduced.
D. r declines.
E. Bergman’s Principle takes effect.
Rapidly growing countries have an age
structure that
A. forms an inverted pyramid.
B. has a broad-based pyramid.
C. shows little variation in population
by age.
D. has a large postreproductive
population.
Countries that have achieved ZPG
have an age structure that
A. forms an inverted pyramid.
B. has a broad-based pyramid.
C. shows little variation in population
by age.
D. has a large prereproductive
population.
E. has a large reproductive population.
According to the theory of
demographic transition, rapid growth
occurs during phase
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
E. 5.
Two useful indicators of overall health
in a country or region are
A. birth rate and death rate.
B. replacement-level fertility rate and
total fertility rate.
C. life expectancy and infant mortality
rate.
D. life expectancy and death rate.
E. population growth rate.
Two useful indicators of overall health
in a country or region are
A. birth rate and death rate.
B. replacement-level fertility rate and
total fertility rate.
C. life expectancy and infant mortality
rate.
D. life expectancy and death rate.
E. population growth rate.
Approximately how many females are
between
the ages of
50 and 59?
A. 500,000
B. 5,000,000
C. 20,000,000
D. 30,000,000
E. 50,000,000
The crude birth rate is the number of
live births per ____ persons in a given
year.
A. 50
B. 100
C. 500
D. 1,000
E. 10,000
Which of the following best
describes the survivorship curve
you would expect to find for a
Kangaroo?
A. late loss
B. constant loss
C. early loss
D. no loss
Which of the following factors
leads to an increase in biotic
potential?
A. too much or too little light
B. low reproductive rate
C. too many competitors
D. optimal level of critical nutrients
E. specialized niche
Worldwide, the largest densitydependent cause of death is
A. natural disaster.
B. malnutrition.
C. heart disease.
D. infectious disease.
E. car accidents.
Using the rule of 70, a population
growing at 3.5% would double in
A. 7 years
B. 10 years
C. 15 years
D. 17 years
E. 20 years
According to the theory of
demographic transition, birth rates
make the most significant decline
during phase
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
E. 5.
Developing countries tend to have
a(n) ____ age structure diagram.
A. rectangular-shaped
B. inverted triangle
C. pyramid-shaped
D. square
E. round
To determine the number of
individuals that will be added to a
population in a specified time we
multiply the growth rate (r) by the
A. biotic potential.
B. original population size.
C. environmental resistance.
D. final population size.
E. number of immigrants.
The biologist who studies interactions at
the “community” level investigates
interactions between
A. organisms of one species
B. populations of more than one species.
C. animals of one species.
D. social animals (like insects).
E. ecosystems.
According to the theory of demographic
transition, the highest birth rates and
death rates are likely to occur during
phase
A. 1.
B. 2.
C. 3.
D. 4.
E. 5.
Approximately how many males are
under the age of 10?
A. 130,000,000
B. 110,000,000
C. 20,000,000
D. 15,000,000
E. 450,000
Currently, most of the US population
lives in ____ areas.
A. Rural
B. Suburban
C. Exurban
D. Urban
E. Superurban
The major component of MSW
in the United States is
A. paper
B. yard trimmings
C. metal
D. plastic
E. wood
An environmental cost of sending computers to
landfills is
A. there is inadequate landfill space in the
United States for computers
B. it is less expensive to send computers to the
landfill than to recycle them
C. children separate the components of the
disposed of computers
D. the disposed computers contain toxic metals
that can end up in the environment
E. landfill standards keep the toxic compounds
in the computers from leaching into the
water table
Which of the following is/are environmental
benefit/s of recycling aluminum?
I. Reduces the effects on the land from
mining
II. Reduces the effects of leaching in landfills
III. Reduces the energy required to
transport and process mined ore
A. I only
D. I and III only
B. II only
E. I, II, and III
C. I and II only
Which of the following is least likely to be a
danger associated with leachate from a
sanitary landfill?
A. The leachate can leak into nearby soils
B. The leachate can leak into groundwater
C. The leachate can contain toxic metal
compounds
D. The leachate can be at a high
temperature
E. The leachate can be classified as toxic
waste and have to be treated
accordingly
Byproducts of waste incineration
include
I. Waste heat
II. Fly ash (residues from combustion)
III. Increase in rodent population
A. I
D. I and III
B. II
E. I, II, and III
C. I and II
Given the following waste management
options, which is the optimal choice for
the environment?
A. Production of less waste material
B. Depositing waste in a landfill
C. Depositing waste in an open pit in
the ground
D. Incineration of waste
E. Hazardous waste treatment
United States legislation that directly
addresses the handling of hazardous
waste includes:
I. Clean Air Act
II. RCRA
III. CERCLA
A. I only
D. II and III only
B. II only
E. I, II, and III
C. I and III only
What law was implemented in
reaction to Love Canal?
A. RCRA
B. Toxic Substances Control Act
C. CERCLA
D. The Lacey Act
E. Endangered Species Act
The Superfund program pays
A. to clean up inactive or abandoned
hazardous-waste dump sites.
B. to monitor hazardous wastes.
C. for testing for lead in paint, water,
and air samples.
D. the doctors' bills and lawyers' fees
for pollution events.
E. for repairing Clark Kent’s cape
Of the following materials, the
most difficult to recycle is
A. glass.
B. plastic.
C. paper.
D. aluminum.
E. cardboard.
Of the following methods of reducing
hazardous wastes, the most desirable is
A. recycling and reusing hazardous
wastes.
B. substitution of safer products that
don't produce hazardous wastes.
C. conversion into less hazardous and
nonhazardous materials.
D. incineration.
E. perpetual storage.
Which of the following produces
the loudest sound?
A. jackhammer
B. chain saw
C. rock music
D. military rifle
E. truck
The main advantage of rapid rail over
mass transit rail is that rapid rail:
A. it is more energy efficient
B. it produces less air pollution
C. it requires less land area
D. it must operate along heavily used
routes to be profitable
E. it is ideal for trips of 200-1,000
kilometers
Which of the five Rs is the least
desirable from an environmental
standpoint?
A. Refuse
B. Reduce
C. Reuse
D. Repurpose
E. Recycle