APES REVIEW #4
1) Disposal of vegetable and animal waste by
natural decomposition is called:
a) composting
b) surface impoundment
c) land application
d) integrated waste management
e) sludge disposal
2) The figure on the right
indicate the types of
material that went into
landfills in 2001. Which
piece of the landfill pie
(a, b, c, d, or e)
represents paper and
paper products?
3) Leachate is a major environmental hazard
associated with solid waste disposal sites. How is
leachate most commonly produced?
a) leachate is gas that leaks from a hazardous waste
disposal site
b) nuclear decay of otherwise harmless material in a
dump site
c) leakage from deep-well disposal sites
d) chemical reaction between waste material and the
bedrock
e) chemical reaction between wastes and water
percolating through the dump
4) An option for waste management that has
the greatest negative impact on air quality is:
a) composting
b) recycling
c) source reduction
d) alchemy
e) incineration
5) Disposing of biodegradable toxic waste by land
application is a cheap and efficient method because:
a) the concept of dilute and disperse is adequate for
toxic waste
b) these materials are degraded by the
microorganisms in the soil
c) there is no limit to the amount of waste that can be
applied to the soil
d) the waste is a good fertilizer
e) the practice is difficult to regulate and laws against
it are difficult to enforce
6) Why has Europe been more successful in recycling than the
U.S.?
I. landfill fees in Europe are much higher than in the U.S.
II. the manufacturers are responsible for the disposal cost of
packaging and industrial goods they produce
III. recycling is required by law in almost all European countries
a) I only
b) II only
c) III only
d) I and II
e) I, II and III
7) The four main characteristics of hazardous
waste that make it hazardous, according to
the Resource Conservation & Recovery Act
of 1979 include all of the following except:
a) reactivity
b) corrosivity
c) ignitability
d) toxicity
e) infectiousness
8) Love Canal, near Niagara Falls, New York,
illustrates which of the following principles or
problems?
a) disposal of hazardous chemical waste in an
uncontrolled site
b) economic mineral reserves from sewage sludge
c) wild species re-establishing themselves in an urban
setting
d) poor understanding of flood hazard
e) the difficulty in finding new solid waste sites as old
dumps are filled to capacity
9) Microbial breakdown refers to:
a) the use of living organisms to clean up hazardous
substances in the environment
b) the use of living organisms to perform chemical
processing or to produce material such as animal
food
c) the concentration of toxic chemicals in an organism
higher than are normally found in the environment
d) the process of converting biomass into energy
through fermentation
e) a form of organic agriculture that relies on the use
of biological pest controls
10) The phenomenon in which city centers are
hotter on average than surrounding areas is
called:
a) green belt
b) heat island
c) situation
d) fall line
e) site
11) The location on a river that has many
advantages for early cities, including: water
power, navigation potential, and potential for
bridge building
a) green belt
b) heat island
c) situation
d) fall line
e) site
12) In a natural ecosystem, evaporation is an
important mechanism for:
a) storing solar energy
b) producing energy
c) getting rid of too much surface water
d) heating the surface
e) cooling the surface
13) Cities tend to be warmer than rural areas because
of:
I. reduced evaporation and transpiration
II. burning of fossil fuels
III. increased albedo of the ground surface
a) I only
b) II only
c) I and II
d) II and III
e) I, II, and III
14) What does the “tragedy of the commons”
lead to?
a) indirect costs
b) policy instruments
c) marginal costs
d) overexploitation of resources
e) direct costs
14) Use of DDT as a pesticide in the 1940s and 50s
led to widespread damage to various wildlife
species, from sharks to eagles. Which of the
following terms most closely describes the adverse
environmental impact of DDT use:
a) direct cost
b) environmental intangible
c) discount factor
d) externality
e) marginal cost
15) Biological resources are threatened by the socalled “tragedy of the commons” when they occur in:
a) Third World countries
b) land owned by multinational corporations, with no
specific national loyalty
c) areas with access open to many different parties
d) privately owned land
e) anywhere on Earth
16) The Chagos Archipelago contains the Great
Chagos Bank, the largest atoll structure in the world.
What the major function of the Great Chagos Bank
that makes it a global commons?
a) home to rare reptile species
b) tuna fishery
c) international boat racing events
d) eco tourism
e) all of the above
17) In a total free-market system, commercial
enterprises maximize profits by paying only
____________ costs and ignoring
_____________ .
a) indirect; direct costs
b) intangible; externalities
c) direct; externalities
d) mandatory; supply and demand
e) direct; the discount factor
18) Mineral deposit that forms as rough
spheres on the ocean floor are called:
a) secondary enrichment
b) sulfide deposit
c) biohydrometallurgy
d) mineral reserve
e) manganese oxide nodules
19) Artificial enrichment of mineral ores by
injection of microscopic organisms into the
rock is called:
a) secondary enrichment
b) sulfide deposit
c) biohydrometallurgy
d) mineral reserve
e) manganese oxide nodules
20) Minerals may be concentrated by
crystallization within a magma chamber.
What force concentrates the crystallized
minerals?
a) heat
b) pressure
c) gravity
d) fission
e) temperature
21) Mineral resources are:
a) infinite
b) nonrenewable
c) chemical byproducts
d) alternative energy sources
e) rare and high-cost materials
22) Evaporites form:
a) in nutrient-rich open ocean water
b) in enclosed or semi-enclosed saline waters
by evaporation
c) under high pressure
d) within buried saline rocks
e) in coral reefs
23) Which of the following refers to the
persistent weather pattern that concentrates
ozone-destroying chemicals in the
stratosphere over Antarctica:
a) polar stratospheric clouds
b) hydrofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
c) Dobson unit
d) polar vortex
e) mid-latitude ozone depletion
24) Which of the following refers to 1 part
ozone per billion particles of atmosphere:
a) polar stratospheric clouds
b) hydrofluorocarbons (HCFCs)
c) Dobson unit
d) polar vortex
e) mid-latitude ozone depletion
25) Which range shown
(a, b, c, d, or e)
represents the position
of the stratosphere?
a
b
c
d
e
26) Chloroflourocarbons (CFCs) that travel to
the stratosphere pose a threat because:
a) they are highly reactive and caustic
b) they contribute to photochemical smog
c) they are a major greenhouse gas
d) they lead to destruction of ozone
e) they lead to acid rain
27) Name the international agreement that
required the phase-out of ozone-depleting
chemicals:
a) Geneva Convention
b) Rio Conference
c) Montreal Protocol
d) Eiger Sanction
e) Treaty of Versailles
28) Ozone is the only known gas that absorbs:
a) UVA radiation
b) UVB radiation
c) UVC radiation
d) all of the above
e) none of the above
29) What is the natural source of ozone in the
stratosphere?
a) photochemical reaction
b) combustion of fossil fuels
c) volcanic eruptions
d) spontaneous decay of diatomic oxygen
e) solar wind
30) Ozone blocks ultraviolet light. What
becomes of the UV radiation afterwards?
a) it becomes heat in the stratosphere
b) it becomes infrared radiation
c) it is reflected to space
d) it is scattered so that its effects on the
surface are reduced
e) it combines with ozone to form water vapor
31) Ozone is the _________ variety of oxygen.
a) ionic
b) diatomic
c) inert
d) isotopic
e) triatomic
32) This is an ailment caused by long-term
exposure to air with high concentrations of
soot or carbon-rich dust:
a) formaldehyde
b) sick building syndrome
c) chimney effect
d) black lung disease
e) radon
33) Twelve days after a sample of radon gas
(with a half-life of about four days) is emitted
into a sealed room, __________ of the
original amount remains.
a) 1/2
b) 1/3
c) 1/8
d) 1/12
e) 1/16
33) Reduced air circulation on aircraft has all of the
following effects, dangers, or tradeoffs except:
a) increased CO2 levels
b) decreased fuel efficiency
c) increased danger of the transmittal of bacterial
infections
d) decreased on-board humidity
e) increased reports of headaches, fatigue, nausea,
etc.
34) Which of the following indoor air pollutants
contains NOx, CO, hydrogen cyanide, etc. and
results in an estimated 43,000 deaths per year in
the U.S. from lung cancer and heart disease?
a) mold
b) cleaning solvents
c) secondhand tobacco smoke
d) asbestos
e) formaldehyde and other preservatives
35) All of the following are methods to reduce
the concentration of radon in a home except:
a) sealing cracks or openings in foundation
b) ventilation or suction beneath foundation
c) better insulation and weatherization
d) filtering of well water
e) replacement of inappropriate building
material
36) In a large office building, a number of
employees begin complaining of headaches,
dizziness, and nausea at about the same
time. This is an example of:
a) Legionnaires’ disease
b) high concentrations of radon gas
c) chimney effect
d) mass psychosis
e) sick building syndrome
37) Asbestos is hazardous to human health because:
a) if releases toxic fumes
b) if trapped in the lungs, it decays and damages DNA
c) it is composed of small fibers, which damage skin
or lung tissue
d) if trapped in the lungs, if can be carcinogenic
e) it is a potent toxin, damaging the neurological
systems of humans and animals
38) General class of pollution that
characterizes urban area with frequent,
strong sunshine
a) atmospheric inversion
b) fugitive sources
c) photochemical smog
d) primary pollutants
e) buffers
39) This class of pollution is produced only at
certain times, such as when the wind is
blowing
a) atmospheric inversion
b) fugitive sources
c) photochemical smog
d) primary pollutants
e) buffers
40) Atmospheric inversion conditions over urban
areas pose a problem primarily because:
a) the conditions are conducive to photochemical
smog
b) pollutants are trapped and concentrated
c) the inhabitants can be cut off from oxygen
d) many sensitive plants and animals freeze to death
e) CFCs are concentrated and destroy protective
ozone
41) Sulfur dioxide emissions are caused by:
I. burning coal
II. automobile emissions
III. photochemical break-down of ozone in the
stratosphere
a) I only
b) II only
c) III only
d) I and II
e) I, II, and III
42) Particulate pollutants introduced into the atmosphere may have
which of the following effects?
I. reflect incoming sunlight, lowering the temperature at the
surface
II. absorb incoming sunlight, raising the temperature in the
atmosphere
III. act as condensation nuclei, decreasing precipitation
a) I only
b) II only
c) III only
d) I and II
e) I, II, and III
43) Ozone is of great benefit in the stratosphere but of
great harm to humans in the lower troposphere.
Which of the following is not an effect on people?
a) strong eye irritant
b) aggravates asthma
c) reduces the ability of the circulatory system to
transport oxygen
d) injury to cells in the respiratory system
e) coughing and chest discomfort
44) Tall smokestacks on power plants were designed
to:
a) allow exhaust to cool before entering the
atmosphere
b) disperse pollutants, so they wouldn’t cause harmful
effects in the immediate area
c) trap sulfur emissions
d) augment the chimney effect in the area around the
plant
e) inhibit the reactions that form sulfuric acid
45) Sulfur dioxide is:
a) a yellow-brown gas that contributes to
photochemical smog
b) a colorless and odorless gas that binds to
hemoglobin in blood
c) a colorless and odorless gas that damages the
lungs
d) a gas with a “rotten egg” odor that is highly toxic
and corrosive
e) a reactive gas produced, in part, by photochemical
reaction of sunlight with various air pollutants