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TEST BANK
Concepts of Genetics12th edition
by Klug, Cummings All Chapters 1 to 26
1
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TABLE OF CONTENTS
Part One--Genes, Chromosomes, and Heredity
1 Introduction to Genetics
2 Mitosis and Meiosis
3 Mendelian Genetics
4 Extensions of Mendelian Genetics
5 Sex Determination and Sex Chromosomes
6 Chromosomal Mutations: Variation in Number and Arrangement
7 Chromosome Mapping in Eukaryotes
8 Genetic Analysis and Mapping in Bacteria and Bacteriophages
9 Extranuclear Inheritance
Part Two--DNA: Structure, Replication, and Organization
10 DNA Structure and Analysis
11 DNA Replication and Recombination
12 DNA Organization in Chromosomes
Part Three--Gene Expression and Its Regulation
13 The Genetic Code and Transcription
14 Translation and Proteins
15 Gene Mutation, DNA Repair, and Transposition
16 Regulation of Gene Expression in Bacteria
17 Transcriptional Regulation in Eukaryotes
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18 Posttranscriptional Regulation in Eukaryotes
19 Epigenetic Regulation of Gene Expression
Part Four--Genomics
20 Recombinant DNA Technology
21 Genomic Analysis
22 Applications of Genetic Engineering and Biotechnology
Part Five--Genetics of Organisms and Populations
23 Developmental Genetics
24 Cancer Genetics
25 Quantitative Genetics and Multifactorial Traits
26 Population and Evolutionary Genetics
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Concepts of Genetics, 12e
(Klug)
Chapter 1 Introduction to Genetics
1) In the 1600s, William Harvey studied reproduction and development. What is the term given
to the theory that states that an organism develops from the fertilized egg by a succession of
developmental events that lead to an adult?
A) preformation
B) sequential pattern formation
C) equational transformation
D) transduction
E) epigenesis
Answer: E
Section: 1.1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
2) What is the term given to the theory that states that the fertilized egg contains a
complete miniature adult?
A) preformation
B) transduction
C) transformation
D) conjugation
E) cell theory
Answer: A
Section: 1.1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
3) What is the term given to the theory that put forth the idea that living organisms could arise by
incubating nonliving components?
A) spontaneous generation
B) natural selection
C) evolution
D) preformation
E) collective combination
Answer: A
Section: 1.1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
4) What is a homunculus?
A) a large cyst or growth on a plant due to viral infection
B) a sperm or egg containing a miniature adult, perfect in size and proportion
C) the intermediate stage of the DNA after CRISPR-Cas treatment
D) when the mitochondrion grows in size before splitting into two via fission
E) during development sometimes a growing individual's cell can become mutated and one part
of the child has different characteristics than the other
Answer: B
Section: 1.1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
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5) Who, along with Alfred Wallace, formulated the theory of natural selection?
A) Gregor Mendel
B) William Harvey
C) Louis Pasteur
D) Charles Darwin
E) James Watson
Answer: D
Section: 1.1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
6) Who was the Augustinian monk that conducted a decade of experiments on the garden
pea, eventually showing that traits are passed from parents to offspring in predictable ways?
A) Francis Crick
B) Alfred Wallace
C) Hippocrates
D) Aristotle
E) Gregor
Mendel Answer:
E Section: 1.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
7) In many species, there are two representatives of each chromosome. In such species, the
characteristic number of chromosomes is called the
number. It is usually symbolized
as .
A) haploid; n
B) haploid; 2n
C) diploid; 2n
D) diploid; n
E) monoploid; n
Answer: C
Section: 1.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
8) Genetics is the study of
.
A) inheritance and variation
B) mutation and recession
C) transcription and translation
D) diploid and haploid
E) replication and recombination
Answer: A
Section: 1.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
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9) Early in the twentieth century, Walter Sutton and Theodor Boveri noted that the behavior of
chromosomes during meiosis is identical to the behavior of genes during gamete formation. They
proposed that genes are carried on chromosomes, which led to the basis of the
.
A) Chromosome Theory of Inheritance
B) Law of Segregation
C) Law of Independent Assortment
D) First Law of Thermodynamics
E) Chromosomal Maintenance Theory
Answer: A
Section: 1.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
10) What is a mutation?
A) an inherited change in a DNA sequence
B) the source of all genetic variation
C) a change in DNA that leads to death
D) an inherited change in DNA sequences that is the source of all genetic variation
E) an inherited changed in DNA sequence that is always bad for an organism
Answer: D
Section: 1.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
11) Which of the following is TRUE about alleles?
A) An allele is a variant form of a gene.
B) Alleles come in two forms, the good form and the bad form.
C) Individuals carry both forms of each allele.
D) The phenotype of the individual will always indicate with certainty the alleles of the
individual.
E) An individual will only carry one version of an allele.
Answer: A
Section: 1.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
12) Until the mid-1940s, many scientists considered proteins to be the likely candidates for the
genetic material. Which of the following characteristics led scientist to believe DNA was NOT
the genetic material?
A) DNA is more stable than protein.
B) DNA is less abundant than protein.
C) DNA has less variation than protein.
D) Protein can fold into may shapes.
E) DNA is less abundant than protein and DNA has less variation than protein.
Answer: E
Section: 1.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
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13) Name the individual who, while working with the garden pea in the mid-1850s,
demonstrated quantitative patterns of heredity and developed a theory involving the behavior
of hereditary factors.
A) Walter Sutton
B) Theodor Boveri
C) Barbara McClintock
D) Gregor Mendel
E) George
Wallace Answer:
D Section: 1.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
14) Which of the following is the subdiscipline of biology concerned with the study of heredity
and variation at the molecular, cellular, developmental, organismal, and populational levels?
A) genetics
B) cell biology
C) molecular biology
D) cytogenetics
E) biochemistry
Answer: A
Section: 1.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
15) Which of the following is an example of natural selection?
A) a bird's beak is able to effectively crack the seeds it encounters
B) human beings develop freckles from being out in the sun
C) depending on the food a turtle eats, it shell may grow faster or slower
D) sometime during human's life they break a bone and it heals
E) bacteria can be effectively killed by treatment with
bleach Answer: A
Section: 1.1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
16) What term is used to describe the fact that different genes in an organism often
provide differences in observable features?
A) phenotype
B) genotype
C) alleles
D) natural selection
E) inheritance
Answer: A
Section: 1.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
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17) Which of the following is an example of heredity?
A) Doberman pinschers and boxers have similar body shapes.
B) Both moths and birds have wings and can fly.
C) Dalmation dogs all have spots.
D) Flying squirrels have a different mechanism of flight than mosquitos.
E) Flies and molluscs both have eyes.
Answer: C
Section: 1.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
18) Which of the following is NOT an example of variation?
A) a child does not have her mother's hair color
B) cats can have long or short fur
C) giraffes have not been seen in an albino form
D) both monocotyledons and dicotyledons perform the dark reaction
E) lobsters can come in many colors including blue, read, and brown
Answer: D
Section: 1.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
19) What would happen if, during meiosis, the chromosome number was not halved before egg
and sperm formation?
A) nothing
B) in each successive generation, the offspring would double their chromosome number
C) n would become halved
D) each offspring would have different phenotypes than their parents
E) the spindle would be compromised
Answer: B
Section: 1.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
20) Alternative forms of a gene are called
A) alleles
B) mutants
C) phenotypes
D) genotypes
E) meiotic products
Answer: A
Section: 1.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
.
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21) The various characteristics of organisms that result from their genetic makeup are
collectively referred to as an organism's
.
A) genotype
B) alleles
C) phenotype
D) genome
E) proteome
Answer: C
Section: 1.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
22) Name the substance that serves as the hereditary material in eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
A) RNA or ribonucleic acid
B) DNA or deoxyribonucleic acid
C) protein
D) lipid
E) carbohydrat
e Answer: B
Section: 1.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
23) Which of the following contains all the others?
A) double helix
B) nucleotide
C) hydrogen bond
D) DNA strand
E) sugar
Answer: A
Section: 1.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
24) A fundamental property of DNA's nitrogenous bases that is necessary for the doublestranded nature of its structure is
.
A) complementarity
B) anti-parallel
C) ring structure
D) sugar phosphate backbone
E) deoxyribose versus ribose
Answer: A
Section: 1.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
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25) Which of the following is the function of DNA?
A) DNA serves to hold the information for protein, lipid, and carbohydrate storage.
B) DNA is required when cells are using their ribosomes to translate a protein.
C) DNA is responsible for the storage and replication of genetic information.
D) DNA is involved in the expression of stored genetic information.
E) DNA is used structurally to hold the nucleus together.
Answer: C
Section: 1.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
26) Which of the following molecules serves the function to express the genetic material by
being translated to protein?
A) DNA
B) lipid
C) carbohydrate
D) RNA
E) cholesterol
Answer: D
Section: 1.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
27) Name the bases in DNA and their pairing specificities.
A) adenine:thymine, guanine:cytosine
B) adenine:uracil, guanine:cytosine
C) adenine:guanine, guanine:uracil
D) adenine:cytosine, guanine:uracil
E) adenine:guanine, thymine:cytosine
Answer: A
Section: 1.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
28) The
consists of a linear series of three adjacent nucleotides present in mRNA
molecules.
A) genetic code
B) Watson—Crick base pairing
C) chromosomal theory of inheritance
D) law of segregation
E) messenger RNA
Answer: A
Section: 1.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
10
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29) Which of the following processes describes the formation of a complementary RNA
molecule?
A) replication
B) transcription
C) translation
D) mutation
E) mosaicism
Answer: B
Section: 1.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
30) If a scientist changed a cell's ionic composition and complementarity between DNA strands
could no longer occur, what would the scientist first detect?
A) DNA becomes single stranded
B) DNA strands become shorter
C) RNA would start binding to DNA
D) ribosomes would move into the nucleus
E) cell membranes would become less permeable
Answer: A
Section: 1.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
31) Reference is often made to adapter molecules when describing protein synthesis in that they
allow amino acids to associate with nucleic acids. To what class of molecules does this term refer?
A) DNA
B) protein
C) mRNA
D) amino acids
E) tRNA
Answer: E
Section: 1.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
32) Given that DNA is the genetic material in prokaryotes and eukaryotes, what other general
structures (macromolecules) and substances made by the cell are associated with the expression
of that genetic material?
A) lipids and carbohydrates
B) DNA and protein
C) RNA (messenger, ribosomal, and transfer), ribosomes, enzymes, and proteins
D) DNA and RNA
E) chromosomes
Answer: C
Section: 1.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
11
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33) Which of the following are true about codons?
A) They are complementary to RNA and specify amino acids at the ribosome.
B) They are complementary to DNA and are a two-nucleotide code for an amino acid.
C) They are complementary to DNA and specify amino acids at the ribosome.
D) They are a circular series of nucleotide triplets.
E) They are placed at random in the RNA.
Answer: C
Section: 1.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
34) What is another term for a biological catalyst?
A) protein
B) enzyme
C) codon
D) ribosome
E) lipid
Answer: B
Section: 1.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
35) A protein's shape and chemical behavior are determined by
A) its linear sequence of amino acids
B) the type of cell in which it resides
C) the environment of an organism
D) the cholesterol makeup of the lipid membrane
E) the cell's age
Answer: A
Section: 1.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
.
36) Once a protein is made, its biochemical or structural properties play a role in producing
.
A) genotype
B) phenotype
C) mutant
D) chromosome
E) DNA
Answer: B
Section: 1.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
12
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37) When mutation alters a gene, it may modify or even eliminate the encoded protein's usual
and cause an altered
.
A) function; phenotype
B) function; genotype
C) structure; genotype
D) cell type; genotype
E) ribosome; phenotype
Answer: A
Section: 1.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
38) Recombinant DNA technology is dependent on a particular class of enzymes, known as
that cuts DNA at specific nucleotide sequences.
A) restriction enzymes
B) clones
C) recombinant DNA technology
D) genomes
E) vectors
Answer: A
Section: 1.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
39) What represents an organism's genome?
A) all the RNA in a cell
B) an organism's genome can be defined as the complete haploid nuclear DNA content of an
organism.
C) all the protein in a cell
D) the nuclear and mitochondrial DNAs
E) a catalog of mutations in a cell
Answer: B
Section: 1.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
40) A
is an organism produced by biotechnology that involves the transfer of
hereditary traits across species.
A) transgenic organism
B) mutant
C) clone
D) vector
E) frankenfood
Answer: A
Section: 1.5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
13
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41) What term is applied to a variety of projects whereby genome sequences are deposited
in databases for research purposes?
A) proteomics
B) bioinformatics
C) genetics
D) cloning
E) genomics
Answer: E
Section: 1.6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
42) Organisms that are well understood from a scientific standpoint and are often used in basic
biological research are often called
.
A) clones
B) vectors
C) recombinant DNA technology
D) model organisms
E) restriction enzymes
Answer: D
Section: 1.7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
43)
is a discipline involved in the development of both hardware and software for
processing, storing, and retrieving nucleotide and protein data.
A) Bioinformatics
B) Genomics
C) Recombinant DNA technology
D) Cloning
E) Proteomics
Answer: A
Section: 1.6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
14
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Concepts of Genetics, 12e
Chapter 2 Mitosis and Meiosis
(Klug)
1) Living organisms are categorized into two major groups based on the presence or absence of
a nucleus. What group is defined by the presence of a nucleus?
A) eukaryotic organism
B) virus
C) bacterium
D) prokaryotic organism
E) mitochondrial organism
Answer: A
Section: 2.1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
2) What is the name of the membranous structure that compartmentalizes the cytoplasm of
eukaryotic organisms?
A) ribosome
B) mitochondria
C) cytosol
D) endoplasmic reticulum
E) nucleoid
Answer: D
Section: 2.1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
3) You have identified a mutant in human cells that when shifted to 37°C, the microfilaments
depolymerize (fall apart). Which of the following would be true about this mutant at 37°C?
A) The mitochondria would no longer work.
B) The sister chromatids would no longer be attached to each other.
C) The cells would no longer be able to produce ATP.
D) The cells would change shape.
E) The endoplasmic reticulum could still import polypeptides but could no longer synthesize
lipids.
Answer: D
Section: 2.1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
4) Name two cellular organelles, each containing genetic material, which are involved in either
photosynthesis or respiration.
A) rough and smooth endoplasmic reticula
B) chloroplast and endoplasmic reticulum
C) peroxisomes and mitochondria
D) lysosome and chloroplast
E) chloroplasts and mitochondria
Answer: E
Section: 2.1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
1
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5) The nucleolus organizer region (NOR) is responsible for production of what type of cell
structure?
A) nucleolus
B) ribosome
C) chromatids
D) mitochondria
E) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: B
Section: 2.1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
6) The diploid chromosome number of an organism is usually represented as 2n. Humans have a
diploid chromosome number of 46. What would be the expected haploid chromosome number in
a human?
A) 92
B) 16
C) 12
D) 24
E) 23
Answer: E
Section: 2.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
7) Which chromosome has a telomere but the p arm is much shorter than the q arm?
A) metacentric
B) submetacentric
C) acrocentric
D) telocentric
E) sex chromosome
Answer: C
Section: 2.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
8) Which of the following is true about sex-determining chromosomes?
A) They are independent during meiosis.
B) They do not participate in meiosis.
C) They act like homologous chromosomes during meiosis so each gamete will get one sex
chromosome.
D) They have the same gene configuration and same loci.
E) They are always metacentric.
Answer: C
Section: 2.2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
2
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9) What significant genetic function occurs in the S phase of the cell cycle?
A) cytokinesis
B) karyokinesis
C) DNA synthesis
D) chromosome condensation
E) centromere division
Answer: C
Section: 2.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
10) During interphase of the cell cycle,
A) DNA recombines
B) sister chromatids move to opposite poles
C) the nuclear membrane disappears
D) RNA replicates
E) DNA content essentially doubles
.
Answer: E
Section: 2.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
11) The house fly, Musca domestica, has a haploid chromosome number of 6. How many
chromatids should be present in a diploid, somatic, metaphase cell?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 12
D) 18
E) 24
Answer: E
Section: 2.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
12) How many haploid sets of chromosomes are present in a diploid individual cell with a
chromosome number of 32?
A) 2
B) 1
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
Answer: A
Section: 2.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
3
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13) How many haploid sets of chromosomes are present in an individual cell that is pentaploid
(5n)?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) It is impossible to tell with the information given.
Answer: D
Section: 2.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
14) You may have heard through various media of an animal alleged to be the hybrid of a
rabbit and a cat. Given that the cat (Felis domesticus) has a diploid chromosome number of 38
and a rabbit (Oryctolagus cuniculus) has a diploid chromosome number of 44, what would be the
expected chromosome number in the somatic tissues of this alleged hybrid?
A) 38
B) 41
C) 44
D) 82
E) 40
Answer: B
Section: 2.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
15) Which of the follow could occur if a cell cycle checkpoint was missed?
A) An unreplicated chromosome could be put through mitosis.
B) DNA would mutate during G2.
C) The cell cycle would be arrested until the error could be corrected.
D) The spindle apparatus would not form.
E) Cohesin could not function correctly.
Answer: A
Section: 2.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
16) In which stage of the cell cycle is G0 located?
A) G1
B) S
C) G2
D) M
E) anaphase
Answer: A
Section: 2.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
4
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17) When cells withdraw from the continuous cell cycle and enter a "quiescent" phase, they are
said to be in what stage?
A) G1
B) G2
C) G0
D) M
E) S
Answer: C
Section: 2.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
18) A typical G1 nucleus is 2n and contains 2C (two complements) of DNA. Which of the
following is true?
A) A prophase cell is 4n and contains 4C of DNA.
B) A cell in prophase is 2n and contains 2n of DNA.
C) A cell in prophase is 2n and contains 4C of DNA.
D) A cell in metaphase is 2n and contains 2C of DNA.
E) A cell in G2 is 4n and contains 2C of DNA.
Answer: C
Section: 2.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
19) Which part of interphase does DNA duplication take place?
A) G1
B) G2
C) S
D) G0
E) M
Answer: C
Section: 2.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
20) The centromere of a chromosome separates during
A) interphase
B) prometaphase
C) prophase
D) anaphase
E) telophase
Answer: D
Section: 2.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
5
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21) Normal diploid somatic (body) cells of the mosquito Culex pipiens contain six chromosomes.
Assuming that all nuclear DNA is restricted to chromosomes and that the amount of nuclear DNA
essentially doubles during the S phase of interphase, how much nuclear DNA would be present in
metaphase I of mitosis? Note: Assume that the G1 nucleus of a mosquito cell contains
3.0 × 10-12 grams of DNA.
A) 3.0 × 10−12 g
B) 6.0 × 10−12 g
C) 1.5 × 10−12 g
D) 0.75 × 10−12 g
E) 12 × 10−12 g
Answer: B
Section: 2.3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
22) If a typical somatic cell has 64 chromosomes, how many chromosomes are expected in each
gamete of that organism?
A) 8
B) 16
C) 32
D) 64
E) 128
Answer: C
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
23) In an organism with 60 chromosomes, how many bivalents would be expected to form
during meiosis?
A) 15
B) 30
C) 60
D) 120
E) 240
Answer: B
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
6
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24) The ant, Myrmecia pilosula, is found in Australia and is named bulldog because of its
aggressive behavior. It is particularly interesting because it carries all its genetic information in a
single pair of chromosomes. In other words, 2n = 2. (Males are haploid and have just one
chromosome.) Which of the following figures would most likely represent a correct configuration
of chromosomes in a metaphase I cell of a female?
A)
B)
C)
D)
E)
Answer: A
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
7
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25) A G1 somatic cell nucleus in a female diploid Myrmecia pilosula (bulldog ant) contains 2
picograms of DNA. How much DNA would be expected in a metaphase I cell of a female?
A) 16 picograms
B) 32 picograms
C) 8 picograms
D) 4 picograms
E) Not enough information is provided to answer the question.
Answer: D
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
26) Myrmecia pilosula (the bulldog ant) actually consists of several virtually identical, closely
related species, with females having chromosome numbers of 18, 20, 32, 48, 60, 62, and 64.
Assume one crossed a female of species (A) with 32 chromosomes and a male of species (B)
with 9 chromosomes (males are haploid, and each gamete contains the n complement). How
many chromosomes would one expect in the body (somatic) cells of the female offspring?
A) 4.5
B) 9
C) 25
D) 32
E) 41
Answer: C
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
27) What is the outcome of synapsis, a significant event in meiosis?
A) side-by-side alignment of nonhomologous chromosomes
B) dyad formation
C) monad movement to opposite poles
D) side-by-side alignment of homologous chromosomes
E) chiasma segregation
Answer: D
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
28) Which of the following is true about the second meiotic division?
A) Sister chromatids are pulling apart.
B) Homologous chromosomes are pulling apart.
C) Nondisjunction would lead to extra bivalents forming.
D) Synapsis occurring in the second meiotic division.
E) The products are four identical gametes.
Answer: A
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
8
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29) Which if the following is not a source of genetic variation in meiosis?
A) crossing over
B) law of independent assortment
C) the random lining up of chromosomes on the metaphase plate
D) tetrad formation
E) polar body formation
Answer: E
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
30) The accompanying sketch depicts a cell from an organism in which 2n = 2 and each
chromosome is metacentric.
Which of the following is the correct stage for this sketch?
A) anaphase of mitosis
B) anaphase of meiosis I
C) anaphase of meiosis II
D) telophase of mitosis
E) telophase of meiosis II
Answer: C
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Evaluating
9
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31) Given that each G1 nucleus from this organism contains 16 picograms of DNA, how many
picograms of chromosomal DNA would you expect in the cell shown below?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32
Answer: D
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
32) The horse (Equus caballus) has 32 pairs of chromosomes, whereas the donkey (Equus
asinus) has 31 pairs of chromosomes. How many chromosomes would be expected in the
somatic tissue of a mule, which is a hybrid of these two animals?
A) 63
B) 64
C) 62
D) 60
E) 126
Answer: A
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
33) Which of the following are the areas where chromatids intertwine during meiosis?
A) synapsis
B) chiasma
C) tetrad
D) bivalent
E) nondisjunction
Answer: B
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
10
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34) After meiosis II,
would be formed.
A) dyads
B) tetrads
C) monads
D) synapsis
E) chiasma
Answer: C
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Evaluating
35) Which of the following would occur if there was no chiasma formation in prophase I?
A) In a heterozygote, there would only be a 2:2 formation after meiosis II, never a 1:1:1:1.
B) All gametes would have the same genotype.
C) Mosaic chromosomes would form.
D) All gametes would have the same phenotype.
E) In a heterozygote, there would only be a 1:1:1:1 formation after meiosis II, never a 2:2.
Answer: A
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
36) Which term describes meiosis I?
A) middling
B) confrontational
C) multiplicative
D) reducational
E) equinational
Answer: D
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
37) Which if the following is true?
A) A chromosome may contain one or two chromatids in different phases of the mitotic or
meiotic cell cycle.
B) A chromosome always contains the same number of chromatids, regardless of phase of the
mitotic or meiotic cell cycle.
C) Cells are considered to be 2n after meiosis I.
D) Cells are 4n after S phase.
E) Sister chromatids in mitosis are not identical.
Answer: B
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
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38) If a typical G1 nucleus contains 2C (two complements) of DNA, a gamete that is haploid (n)
contains
of DNA.
A) 1C
B) 0.5C
C) 2C
D) 3C
E) 4C
Answer: A
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
39) During meiosis, chromosome number reduction takes place in
A) anaphase II
B) anaphase I
C) metaphase I
D) prophase I
E) telophase II
Answer: B
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
40) A bivalent at prophase I contains
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) eight
Answer: D
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
chromatids.
41) The meiotic cell cycle involves
number of cell division(s) and
of DNA replication(s).
A) one; one
B) one; two
C) two; one
D) two; two
E) two; zero
Answer: C
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
12
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.
number
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42) An organism with a haploid number of 10 will produce
chromosomes at the end of meiosis.
A) 10
B) 100
C) 10,000
D) 32
E) 1024
Answer: E
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
43) An organism with a diploid chromosome number of 46 will produce
of chromosomes at the end of meiosis.
A) 23
B) 46
C) 8388608
D) 529
E) 7.04 × 1013
Answer: C
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
combinations of
combinations
44) The stage at which "sister chromatids go to opposite poles" immediately follows which of
the stages listed below?
A) mitotic metaphase
B) metaphase of meiosis I
C) metaphase of meiosis II
D) A and B
E) A and C
Answer: E
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
45) Drosophila melanogaster, the fruit fly, has a 2n chromosome number of 8. Assuming that a
somatic G2 nucleus from one of the individuals in this scenario contains about 8.0 picograms of
DNA, how much nuclear DNA would you expect in a fly egg?
A) 8 pg
B) 4 pg
C) 2 pg
D) 1 pg
E) 16 pg
Answer: B
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
13
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46) In a healthy female, how many secondary oocytes would be expected to form from 100
primary oocytes? How many first polar bodies would be expected from 100 primary oocytes?
A) 200; 50
B) 100; 50
C) 200; 300
D) 100; 100
E) 50; 50
Answer: D
Section: 2.5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
47) In a healthy male, how many sperm cells would be expected to be formed from (a) 400
primary spermatocytes? (b) 400 secondary spermatocytes?
A) (a) 800; (b) 800
B) (a) 1600; (b) 1600
C) (a) 1600; (b) 800
D) (a) 400; (b) 400
E) (a) 100; (b) 800
Answer: C
Section: 2.5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
48) There is about as much nuclear DNA in a primary spermatocyte as in
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 4
Answer: E
Section: 2.5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
spermatids.
49) List, in order of appearance, all the cell types expected to be formed during spermatogenesis.
A) spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa
B) primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatozoa, spermatid, spermatogonia
C) spermatozoa, spermatid, spermatogonia , primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte
D) spermatogonia, spermatozoa, spermatid, primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte
E) primary spermatocyte, secondary spermatocyte, spermatid, spermatozoa,
spermatogonia Answer: A
Section: 2.4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
14
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50) List, in order of appearance, all the cell types expected to be formed during oogenesis.
A) primary oocyte, secondary oocyte and first polar body, oogonium, second polar body
and ootid
B) oogonium, primary oocyte, secondary oocyte and first polar body, ootid and second
polar body
C) primary oocyte, secondary oocyte and first polar body, ootid, second polar body, oogonium
D) primary oocyte, secondary oocyte and first polar body, second polar body, ootid, oogonium
E) oogonium, primary oocyte, second polar body and ootid, secondary oocyte and first
polar body
Answer: B
Section: 2.5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
51) In plants, which stage is haploid?
A) gametophyte
B) sporophyte
C) polar body
D) spermatozoa
E) germ cell
Answer: A
Section: 2.6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
52) Which of the following is diploid?
A) egg
B) sperm
C) zygote
D) megaspore
E) gametophyt
e Answer: C
Section: 2.6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
53) Electron microscopy of metaphase chromosomes demonstrated various degrees of coiling.
What was the name of the model that depicted this process?
A) folded-fiber
B) double-stranded
C) chromatid folding
D) packing
E) condensation
Answer: A
Section: 2.7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
15
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54) During the transition from interphase to metaphase chromosome, the DNA undergoes how
much compaction?
A) 2 fold
B) 10 fold
C) 50 fold
D) 500 fold
E) 5000
fold
Answer: E
Section: 2.7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
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