ĐỀ SỐ 1
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. hair
B. rain C. laid D. wait
Question 2: A. rhythm
B. psychology C. physical
D. mythology
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on you answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3:
A. physical
B. summary
C. romantic
D. following
Question 4:
A. compliment B. counterpart C.kindergarten
D. biologist
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 5: St Nicholas' Church has been granted more than £130,000 by English Heritage to repair the
.................. building.
A. Weather-beaten
B. Contemporary
C. Under the weather D. Chic
Question 6: I can’t imagine how anyone .................. clever as he is could make a terrible mistake.
A. even-rather B. so-as
C. quite-just
D. as-such
Question 7: What I can’t understand is why he is now pursuing our daughter and why he has not told
that he was once acquainted .................. us.
A. to
her
B. with C. for D. of
Question 8: The belief that a man in his early twenties ought to have a firm occupational choice reflects
.................. that development is complete by the end of adolescence.
A. the prevailing view B. the prevailed view C. the view prevailed D. this view is prevailing
Question 9: I know that someone who has great natural shape but is .................. won't beat someone with a
lesser shape who is in condition.
A. out of reach
B. out of the question C. out of the ordinary D. out of the condition
Question 10: I couldn’t believe my eyes. She .................. in that pink kimono.
A. looked so perfectly B. looked so beautiful C. was looking beautifully D. look such nice
Question 11: Even though Nestlé is a globally recognized .................. name, Nestlé products only account
for a little more than 2% of packaged food and beverages sold around the world.
A. notorious
B. household C. double-barreled
D. strange-sounding
Question 12: I’m sure you can recognize her; she .................. a purple raincoat.
A. will have worn
B. will be wearing
C. is going to wear
D. will have been wearing
Question 13: Unlike most modernist poets, .................. based on ordinary speech.
A. Robert Frost’s poems were
B. the works of Robert Frost were
C. Robert Frost wrote poems that were
D. the poetry written by Robert Frost
Question 14: According to reports, choosing a winner from the final three .................. was a hard task.
A. participants B. contestants C. applicants D. partakers
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Question 15: Peter: “I can’t decide what color I want for my bedroom. What do you think?” Jane: “You should
choose .................. color you want. You’re the one who will have to live with it.”
A. whichever that
B. whatever
C. however
D. that what
Question 16: .................. playing professional basketball, she also enjoys tennis.
A. Besides
B. Moreover
C. Apart
D. Together
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 17: “Maybe you can take a vacation next month.”
A. Nothing special.
B. You’re welcome.
C. It’s very expensive. D. I don’t think so. I’m teaching all summer.
Question 18: “ .................. ” “Yes. Do you have any shirts?”
A. Could you do me a favour?
C. May I help you?
B. Oh, dear. What a nice shirt!
D. White, please.
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 19: We’re not taking on any new staff at the moment so that we can cut down the cost.
A. employing B. hiring
C. offering
D. laying off
Question 20: The story was that of a little girl who was bom in a well-to-do family and was a top performer in
her studies.
A. rolling in money
B. made of money
C. well-heeled D. destitute
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 21: The fox was unsuccessful in reaching the grapes.
A. The fox tried in vain to reach the grapes. B. There’s no point reaching the grapes.
C. It was not worth reaching the grapes.
D. It was no good to reach the grapes.
Question 22: He seemed very reluctant to take my advice.
A. He seemed quite willing to take my advice.
B. It seemed he was not ready to give me advice.
C. It seemed he was not willing to take my advice.
D. He seemed very anxious to take my advice.
Question 23: I don’t agree with prohibiting smoking in bars.
A. I am not in favor to prohibiting smoking in bars.
B. I am not in favor of prohibiting smoking in bars.
C. I am not in favor with prohibiting smoking in bars.
D. I am not on favor of prohibiting smoking in bars.
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* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 24 to 30.
REALITY TELEVISION
Reality television is genre of television programming which, (it is claimed), presents unscripted dramatic or
humorous situation, documents actual events, and features ordinary rather than professional actors. It could
be described as a form of artificial or “heightened” documentary. Although the genre has existed in some form
or another since the early years of television, the current explosion of popularity dates from around 2000.
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Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or quiz shows which
resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a modem
example is Gaki no Tsukai), to surveillance- or voyeurism- focused productions such as Big Brother.
Critics say that the term “reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently portray
a modifies and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic location or abnormal situations,
sometimes coached to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on screen manipulated
through editing and other post-production techniques.
Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary situations. For
example, on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women simultaneously, traveling on
extraordinary dates to scenic locales. Reality television also has the potential to turn its participants into
national celebrities, outwardly in talent and performance programs such as Pop Idol, though frequently
Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach some degree of celebrity.
Some commentators have said that the name “reality television” is an inaccurate description for several styles
of program included in the genre. In competition- based programs such as Big Brother and Survivor, and
other special-living-environment shows like The Real World, the producers design the format of the show and
control the day-to-day activities and the environment, creating a completely fabricated world in which the
competition plays out. Producers specifically select the participants, and use carefully designed scenarios,
challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviours and conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of
Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and avoids the word “reality” to describe
his shows; he has said, “I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV. It really is unscripted drama.”
Question 24. The word “demeaning” is closest in meaning to ..................
A. despising
B. diminishing C. valueless
D. humiliating
Question 25. According to the passage, Reality TV appeals to some because ...................
A. it uses exotic locations
B. it shows eligible men dating women
C. it can um ordinary people into celebrities
D. it shows average people in exceptional circumstances
Question 26. According to the passage, the program “Pop Idol” ...................
A. turns all participants into celebrities
B. is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities that Big Brother
C. is less likely to turn participants into celebrities than Big Brother
D. is a dating show
Question 27. Producers choose the participants ..................
A. to make an imaginary world
B. on the ground of talent
C. to create conflict among other things
D. only for special-living-environment shows
Question 28. The term “reality television” is inaccurate ..................
A. for talent and performance programs
B. for special-living-environment program
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C. for all programs
D. for Big Brother and Survivor
Question 29. The word “fabricated” is closest in meaning to ...................
A. imaginary B. real C. imaginative D. isolated
Question 30. Which of the following in NOT true according to the passage?
A. Shows like Survivor have good narratives.
B. Mark Burnett thinks the term “reality television” is inaccurate.
C. Japan has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere.
D. Reality television has been popular since well before 2000.
* Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 31 to 35.
Alligators have always been the most dangerous predators of the Florida Everglades, (31) .................. their
long-held position is now being challenged by a growing population of Burmese pythons.
The Burmese python, a giant snake measuring up to 20 feet long and weighing up to 200 pounds, is very
popular among exotic pet owners. However, as the (32) .................. snakes grow, they become more difficult
to cafe and handle. To avoid dealing with the snakes, the owners irresponsibly release them into the wild. (33)
.................. the Everglades is quite similar to the python’s native environment of Southeast Asia, they survive
and prosper without difficulty.
The issue with the Burmese pythons is their choice of meals. They eat alligators and endangered birds, which
creates a strain on an already (34) .................. ecosystem. Recently a 13-foot long Burmese python was
found with a 5-foot alligator bursting from its stomach. They python died trying to eat the alligator but a larger
one would have easily won the struggle. With over 30,000 Burmese pythons now living in the Everglades, a
solution to stop this invasive species is necessary. If the pythons are (35).................. unchecked, there is a
strong possibility they will wipe out a variety of species necessary for the functioning of the Everglades
ecosystem.
(Source: * Master TOEFL Junior*, Hahn (2015)
Question 31: A. but B. so C. because
D. since
Question 32: A. deadB. died C. death
D. deadly Question 33: A. Although B. On account of
C.
Since D. When Question 34: A. solid
B. fragile
C. balance
D. substantial Question 35: A. left
B. leaving
C. leave
D. to leave
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 36: I’m not surprised that Tom is ill. He’s been burning the candle at both ends for a long time. It
was bound to affect his health sooner or later.
A. overworking
B. extra work C. over loading
D. playing with fire Question 37: The word crisis
is too often used to exaggerate the predicament of a club experiencing hard times.
A. situation
B. dilemma
C. shame
D. embarrassment
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
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Question 38: Julie had a training course in alternative medicine. She was able to help the
man out of danger.
A. Much as Julie had a training course in alternative medicine, she was able to help the man
out of danger.
B. Having trained in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
C. But for a training course in alternative medicine, Julie could have helped the man out of
danger.
D. Despite training in alternative medicine, Julie was able to help the man out of danger.
Question 39: The guest on our show who has won the Opera. He is the youngest
professional golfer that has won this award so far.
A. The guest on our show is the youngest professional golfer to win the Opera so far.
B.The professional golfer who has won the Opera so far is the youngest guest on our show.
C. The youngest professional golfer won the Opera so far is the guest on our show.
D. The youngest guest on our show is the professional golfer winning the Opera so far.
* Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that
needs correction in each of the following questions
Question 40: If the goal of education is to enhance both individual achievement and social
progress, then the “shopping mall colleges” should been replaced with colleges that are true
learning communities.
A. to enhance B. both C. been
D. that are
Question 41: If the man had transported to the hospital sooner than he was, he could have
survived the electrocution.
A. had transported
B. sooner
C. could
D. survived
Question 42: Some researchers believe that an unfair attitude toward the poor will
contributed to the problem of poverty.
A. Some researchers B. an unfair
C. poor
D. contributed
*Read the following passage and mark the letter A, H, C, or 1) on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 43 to 50.
Theresa May, the second female Britain’s prime minister following Margaret Thatcher,
revealed in 2013 that she had been given a diagnosis of Type 1 diabetes, a condition that
requires daily insulin injections. Asked later how she felt about the diagnosis, she said her
approach to it was the same as toward everything in her life: “Just get on and deal with it.”
That kind of steeliness brought her to center stage in the aftermath of Britain’s vote to leave
the European Union and the feuding that erupted in the Conservative Party over who would
succeed David Cameron.
Ms” May, 59 years old, is the country’s longest-serving home secretary in half a century, with
a reputation for seriousness, hard work and above all, determination. She is one of a
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growing number of women in traditionally male-dominated British politics rising to the upper
position of leadership.
Bom in 1956, Ms. May grew up mainly in Oxford shire, an only child who was first drawn to
the Conservative Party at age 12. As a conscientious student, she never rebelled against her
religious upbringing and remains a regular churchgoer. Tellingly, her sports hero was
Geoffrey Boycott, a solid, stubborn cricketer who specialized in playing the long game.
Like many other Britain’s prime minister including Tony Blair, Sir Robert Peel and Margaret
Thatcher, she won a place at Oxford. But while almost every other political leader got there
by way of Eton College and joined Oxford’s hedonistic Bullingdon Club, she attended a state
secondary school and had a more
sedate university career. After unsuccessful attempts to be elected to the House of
Commons in 1992 and 1994, she finally became an MP in 1997 general election.
May is known for a love of fashion and in particular distinctive shoes. She even wore
leopard-print shoes to her final Cabinet meeting as Home Secretary in early 2016. However,
she has been quite critical of the media focusing on her fashion instead of her achievement
as a politician. May also describes cooking and walking as primary hobbies, and if someone
is raising questions about why walking can be classified as a hobby, she elaborates in a
column for Balance magazine, in which she wrote of her battle with diabetes.
Question 43. According to the passage, who is the prime minister coming before Theresa
May?
A. Tony Blair B. Margaret Thatcher C. Sir Robert Peel
D. David Cameron
Question 44. The most prominent characteristic of Theresa May is ...................
A. stubbornness
B. seriousness
C. determination
D. hard work
Question 45. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. British political life is conventionally controlled mainly by men.
B. The number of women in politics is increasing.
C. Conservative Party didn’t have to discuss about who would be the next prime minister.
D. Theresa May’s toughness was one of the reasons for the Party to choose her for the
prime minister position.
Question 46. Which of the following facts is TRUE about Theresa May?
A. She graduated from Eon College.
B. As a child, she was quite rebellious.
C. She didn’t work part time as a university student.
D. She used not to be a home secretary.
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Question 47. She first became a member of parliament in ..................
A. 1992
B. 1994
C. 1997
D. 2013
Question 48. Her reason to consider walking as one of her main hobbies is ..................
A. she is quite critical B. it helps her fight diabete
C. someone asks about it
D. it is written on Balance magazine
Question 49. The word “approach” is closest in meaning to ..................
A. means
B. advance
C. technique D. trick
Question 50. The word “hedonistic” is closest in meaning to ..................
A. ordinary
B. luxurious
C. economical D. simple
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