Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 1 An Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology
Multiple Choice Questions
1) Anatomy is to ________ as physiology is to ________.
A) function; form
B) form; structure
C) structure; function
D) structure; form
E) growth; form
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) The analysis of the internal structure of individual cells is called
A) cytology.
B) histology.
C) embryology.
D) physiology.
E) anatomy.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) The study of the general form and superficial markings of an organism is called ________
anatomy.
A) gross
B) surface
C) systemic
D) regional
E) surgical
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) Anatomical features that change during illness are studied in ________ anatomy.
A) gross
B) surface
C) microscopic
D) pathological
E) regional
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 1-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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5) The study of the first two months of development is termed
A) histology.
B) embryology.
C) cytology.
D) pathology.
E) organology.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) The study of the function of specific organ systems is called
A) systemic physiology.
B) organ physiology.
C) cell physiology.
D) pathological physiology.
E) histology.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) Cardiovascular function is an example of
A) histophysiology.
B) organ physiology.
C) systemic physiology.
D) pathological physiology.
E) physiological chemistry.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) The study of the liver is to gross anatomy as the study of a liver cell is to
A) physiology.
B) regional anatomy.
C) cytology.
D) systemic anatomy.
E) radiographic anatomy.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
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9) Identify the branch of biological science that studies the external and internal structure of the
body and the physical relationship among body parts.
A) genetics
B) physiology
C) embryology
D) anatomy
E) cytology
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 1-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) Identify the branch of biological science that deals with the study of how living organisms
perform their vital functions.
A) genetics
B) physiology
C) embryology
D) anatomy
E) cytology
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) The study of the changes in form that occur between conception and physical maturity is
called ________ anatomy.
A) developmental
B) clinical
C) systemic
D) embryological
E) physiological
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12) The study of the anatomical organization of specific areas of the body is called ________
anatomy.
A) gross
B) surface
C) systemic
D) regional
E) clinical
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 1-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
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13) The study of the relationships of the body's structures by examining cross sections of tissues
or organs is called ________ anatomy.
A) gross
B) surface
C) systemic
D) regional
E) sectional
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 1-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) Which of the following is arranged in correct order from the most complex to the simplest?
A) cellular, tissue, molecular, system, organ, organism
B) molecular, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organism
C) tissue, cellular, molecular, organ, system, organism
D) organ, organism, molecular, cellular, tissue, system
E) organism, system, organ, tissue, cellular, molecular
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 1-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
15) Which organ system provides support, protection of soft tissue, mineral storage, and blood
formation?
A) integumentary
B) muscular
C) skeletal
D) nervous
E) endocrine
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) Which organ system transports nutrients, metabolic wastes, gases, and defense cells?
A) cardiovascular
B) digestive
C) muscular
D) respiratory
E) urinary
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) Which organ system includes the spleen and the tonsils?
A) digestive
B) endocrine
C) nervous
D) cardiovascular
E) lymphatic
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 1-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) The kidneys and ureters are organs of the ________ system.
A) endocrine
B) digestive
C) respiratory
D) urinary
E) lymphatic
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 1-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19) The pituitary gland and thyroid gland are organs of the ________ system.
A) endocrine
B) cardiovascular
C) respiratory
D) lymphatic
E) digestive
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) Which organ system removes carbon dioxide from the bloodstream?
A) cardiovascular
B) lymphatic
C) respiratory
D) digestive
E) endocrine
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5
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21) Lungs are to the respiratory system as the liver is to the ________ system.
A) lymphatic
B) urinary
C) digestive
D) cardiovascular
E) nervous
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
22) Skin, hair, and nails are associated with the ________ system.
A) skeletal
B) muscular
C) integumentary
D) endocrine
E) immune
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) A chemical imbalance in the body can cause the heart to stop pumping blood, which in turn
will cause other tissues and organs to cease functioning. This observation supports the view that
A) all organisms are composed of cells.
B) all levels of organization within an organism are interdependent.
C) chemical molecules make up cells.
D) blood has magical properties.
E) congenital defects can be life-threatening.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
24) In general, the nervous system does each of the following except
A) help to maintain homeostasis.
B) respond rapidly to change.
C) direct long-term responses to change.
D) direct very specific responses.
E) interpret sensory information.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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25) Which one of the following is not a characteristic of the endocrine system?
A) releases chemical messengers called hormones
B) produces a more rapid response than the nervous system
C) produces effects that last for days or longer
D) produces an effect that involves several organs or tissues at the same time
E) important homeostatic system
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
26) Systemic physiology is
A) the study of the effects of diseases on system functions.
B) the study of the function of specific organs.
C) the study of the functional chemistry of cells.
D) the study of all aspects of the functioning of specific organs systems.
E) the study of functions of the whole human body.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 1-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27) Anatomy uses a special language, called ________ terminology, which involves the use of
word roots, prefixes, suffixes, and combining forms to construct terms related to the body in
health and disease.
A) clinical
B) pathological
C) medical
D) anatomical
E) surgical
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28) ________ serves as a worldwide official standard of anatomical vocabulary.
A) Gray's Anatomy
B) Terminologia Anatomica
C) Hippocratic Corpus
D) Anatomia Inteligencia
E) De Materia Medica
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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29) Many medical terms are rooted in
A) Latin.
B) German.
C) Greek.
D) Phoenician.
E) Greek or Latin.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 1-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30) The quadrants of the abdominopelvic region include all of the following except
A) right upper quadrant (RUQ).
B) right lower quadrant (RLQ).
C) left upper quadrant (LUQ).
D) left lower quadrant (LLQ).
E) pelvic quadrant.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31) Which of the following is not considered an abdominopelvic region?
A) right hypochondriac
B) right inguinal region
C) left lumbar
D) left hypochondriac
E) upper
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
32) A person who is standing facing forward with hands at the sides and palms facing forward is
in the ________ position.
A) supine
B) prone
C) anatomical
D) frontal
E) sagittal
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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33) An anatomical term that means the same as ventral is
A) posterior.
B) inferior.
C) abdominal.
D) anterior.
E) superior.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34) The heart is ________ to the lungs.
A) lateral
B) medial
C) posterior
D) proximal
E) distal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
35) The wrist is ________ to the elbow.
A) proximal
B) distal
C) lateral
D) medial
E) horizontal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
36) The chin is ________ to the nose.
A) anterior
B) superior
C) posterior
D) inferior
E) medial
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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37) Which of the following regions corresponds to the buttocks?
A) pelvic
B) cephalic
C) gluteal
D) lumbar
E) thoracic
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38) Which of the following terms refers to the foot?
A) cervical
B) brachial
C) antebrachial
D) femoral
E) pedal
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39) Which plane divides the body into right and left parts?
A) proximal
B) frontal
C) orthogonal
D) transverse
E) sagittal
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40) A midsagittal section of the body would pass through the
A) kidney.
B) lung.
C) heart.
D) spleen.
E) leg.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10
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41) The plane that separates the abdominal and the pelvic cavities is
A) the mediastinum.
B) sagittal on the brachium.
C) transverse at the hips.
D) midsagittal on the trunk.
E) superior to the thorax.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42) Terms of anatomical direction are used to describe
A) one body part in relation to another.
B) surgical procedures.
C) a supine position.
D) the nervous system.
E) living matter.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
43) While standing erect, the direction of caudal is
A) toward the head.
B) toward the heel.
C) lateral to the trunk.
D) medial to the sides.
E) posterior to the head.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
44) While standing in the anatomical position,
A) front refers to anterior.
B) front refers to ventral.
C) back refers to posterior.
D) back refers to dorsal.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
11
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45) The liver is primarily located in the ________ quadrant.
A) right upper
B) left upper
C) right lower
D) left lower
E) hepatic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
46) The urinary bladder is found in the ________ quadrant and the ________ quadrant.
A) right upper; right lower
B) left upper; left lower
C) left upper; right upper
D) right lower; left lower
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
47) A person lying face down is in the ________ position.
A) anatomical
B) prone
C) supine
D) ventral
E) prostrate
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
48) A person lying on the bed and gazing at the ceiling is in the ________ position.
A) prone
B) supine
C) anatomical
D) dorsal
E) caudal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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49) The common term for the buccal region is the
A) back.
B) waist.
C) breast.
D) cheeks.
E) buttocks.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
50) The common term for the carpal region is the
A) wrist.
B) fingers.
C) ankle.
D) shin.
E) chest.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
51) The common name for the pollex is the
A) ear lobe.
B) belly.
C) big toe.
D) hand.
E) thumb.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
52) The common name for the patella is the
A) forehead.
B) knee.
C) heel.
D) palm of the hand.
E) chin.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
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53) A cut parallel to the midsagittal plane would produce a(n) ________ section.
A) frontal
B) transverse
C) oblique
D) parasagittal
E) coronal
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
54) The abdominopelvic region that is immediately superior to the umbilical region is the
A) hypogastric region.
B) left hypochondriac region.
C) right inguinal region.
D) epigastric region.
E) left lumbar region.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
55) The abdominopelvic region that is immediately superior to the hypogastric region is the
A) umbilical region.
B) left hypochondriac region.
C) right inguinal region.
D) epigastric region.
E) left lumbar region.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
56) The diaphragm muscle separates the ________ from the ________.
A) pleural cavity; mediastinum
B) thoracic cavity; abdominopelvic cavity
C) pericardial cavity; pleural cavity
D) abdominal cavity; pelvic cavity
E) pericardial sac; pericardial cavity
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14
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57) The thoracic cavity contains the
A) coelom.
B) pericardial cavity.
C) pelvic cavity.
D) pleural cavities.
E) pericardial and pleural cavities.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 1-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
58) The serous membrane covering the stomach and most of the intestines is called the
A) pericardium.
B) peritoneum.
C) pleura.
D) mediastinum.
E) abdomen.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
59) Which of the following organs is described as retroperitoneal?
A) stomach
B) kidney
C) urinary bladder
D) large intestine
E) spleen
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
60) The right pleural cavity contains
A) the heart.
B) the trachea.
C) the left lung.
D) the right lung.
E) both lungs.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 1-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15
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61) Visceral pericardium is located
A) on the heart itself.
B) lining the pleural cavity.
C) lining the pericardial cavity.
D) on the lung itself.
E) lining the peritoneal cavity.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
62) The mediastinum
A) contains the pleural cavities.
B) separates the pleural cavities.
C) contains the pericardial cavity.
D) contains the pleural cavities and pericardial cavity.
E) separates the pleural cavities and includes the pericardial cavity.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 1-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
63) Identify the structure located within the mediastinum.
A) pericardial cavity
B) small intestine
C) lung
D) spleen
E) stomach
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
64) Which of the following imaging techniques is used to monitor blood flow through specific
organs, such as the brain, heart, lungs, and kidneys?
A) PET scan
B) ultrasound
C) digital subtraction angiography
D) MRI
E) CT scan
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
16
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65) The ________ is the membrane that covers the internal organs.
A) parietal serosa
B) visceral serosa
C) mucous membrane
D) cutaneous membrane
E) serous membrane
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
66) The ________ is the membrane that covers the inner surface of cavity walls.
A) parietal serosa
B) visceral serosa
C) mucous membrane
D) cutaneous membrane
E) serous membrane
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
67) Which of the following imaging techniques causes particles within atoms to line up in
uniform direction allowing the imaging of soft tissue?
A) PET scan
B) ultrasound
C) digital subtraction angiography
D) MRI
E) CT scan
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 1-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
68) The imaging technique that assesses metabolic and physiological activity of a structure is
called a
A) PET scan.
B) ultrasound.
C) digital subtraction angiography.
D) MRI.
E) CT scan.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
17
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69) The imaging technique that builds an image by using sound waves reflected by internal
structures is called a
A) PET scan.
B) ultrasound.
C) digital subtraction angiography.
D) MRI.
E) CT scan.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
70) The central principle of physiology is
A) nutrition.
B) reflexes.
C) homeostasis.
D) stimulation.
E) temperature regulation.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
71) The maintenance of a relatively constant internal environment in an organism is termed
A) positive feedback.
B) homeostasis.
C) negative feedback.
D) effector control.
E) integration.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
72) The tendency for physiological systems to stabilize internal conditions is called
A) self-regulation.
B) homeostasis.
C) equilibriosis.
D) hemopoiesis.
E) amplification.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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73) Homeostatic regulation usually involves a(n) ________ that detects a particular stimulus, and
a(n) ________ that responds to the stimulus by communicating with a(n) ________ whose
activity has an effect on the same stimulus.
A) control center; effector; receptor
B) receiver; communicator; effector
C) receptor; control center; effector
D) effector; receiver; communicator
E) control center; receiver; effector
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
74) ________ results from the activities of the nervous or endocrine system.
A) Self-regulation
B) Automatic regulation
C) Intrinsic regulation
D) Extrinsic regulation
E) Autoregulation
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 1-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
75) The process that occurs when a cell, tissue, organ, or organ system adjusts in response to
some environmental change is
A) negative feedback.
B) positive feedback.
C) homeostatic equilibrium.
D) dynamic equilibrium.
E) autoregulation.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 1-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
76) When body temperature rises, a center in the brain initiates physiological changes to
decrease the body temperature. This is an example of
A) negative feedback.
B) positive feedback.
C) nonhomeostatic regulation.
D) diagnostic regulation.
E) fever.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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77) A cell or an organ that responds to commands of the control center in negative feedback is
termed a(n)
A) receptor.
B) thermoregulator.
C) hypothalamus.
D) effector.
E) stimulus.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 1-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
78) This type of feedback exaggerates the effects of variations from normal.
A) negative
B) positive
C) neutral
D) depressing
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
79) If a response decreases a disturbance, the control system is classified as a ________ feedback
system.
A) deficit
B) negative
C) neutral
D) polarized
E) positive
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
80) If a response increases a disturbance, the control system is classified as a ________ feedback
system.
A) deficit
B) negative
C) neutral
D) polarized
E) positive
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 1-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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81) An example of a receptor in a negative feedback loop controlling body temperature would be
A) temperature sensors on the skin that detect a stimulus.
B) sweat glands that increase secretion.
C) regulatory centers that send commands to an effector.
D) effectors that cause blood vessels to dilate.
E) sweat glands that act like effectors.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
82) The integrating center for the negative feedback loop that regulates body temperature is the
A) hypothalamus.
B) skin.
C) temperature sensor.
D) positive feedback center.
E) thermostat.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
83) Disease is an indicator of
A) negative feedback.
B) signs and symptoms.
C) homeostatic failure.
D) positive feedback.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
84) In ________ a stimulus produces a response that opposes or negates the original stimulus.
A) negative feedback
B) positive feedback
C) homeostatic equilibrium
D) dynamic equilibrium
E) homeostasis
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 1-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
21
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85) In ________ a stimulus produces a response that amplifies or enhances the original stimulus.
A) negative feedback
B) positive feedback
C) homeostatic equilibrium
D) dynamic equilibrium
E) homeostasis
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) Are the following anatomical landmarks visible from the anterior or posterior view: dorsal,
gluteal, calcaneal? (Figure 1-3)
A) anterior
B) posterior
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) In which abdominopelvic quadrant and region is the stomach predominantly found? (Figure 14)
A) right upper quadrant and epigastric region
B) left lower quadrant and umbilical region
C) left upper quadrant and epigastric region
D) right lower quadrant and umbilical region
E) left lower quadrant and hypochondriac region
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) Using directional references for a person in anatomical position, how would you describe the
relationship of the hand compared to the elbow? To the groin? (Figure 1-5)
A) proximal; medial
B) proximal; posterior
C) proximal; lateral
D) distal; medial
E) distal; lateral
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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4) Which plane separates the body into superior and inferior portions? Which plane separates the
body into anterior and posterior portions? (Figure 1-6)
A) transverse/horizontal; sagittal
B) sagittal; transverse/horizontal
C) frontal/coronal; sagittal
D) transverse/horizontal; frontal/coronal
E) frontal/coronal; transverse/horizontal
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5) If a person's body temperature gets too high, the body will respond by decreasing its
temperature to restore homeostasis. What are some of the body's homeostatic responses to
decrease body temperature? (Figure 1-9)
A) blood vessels constrict, sweating increases
B) blood vessels are not affected but sweating decreases
C) blood vessels dilate, sweating increases
D) shivering increases
E) sweating decreases, shivering increases
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 1-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
Essay Questions
1) What is homeostatic regulation, and what is its physiological importance?
Answer: Homeostatic regulation refers to adjustments in physiological systems that are
responsible for the preservation of a constant internal environment. This enables cells to maintain
metabolism and the chemical environment that stabilizes the living state.
Learning Outcome: 1-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
2) During exercise, blood flow to skeletal muscles increases. The initial response that increases
blood flow is automatic and independent of the nervous and endocrine systems. Which type of
homeostatic regulation is this? Why?
Answer: The initial increase in blood flow to active muscles is an example of autoregulation.
For example, when oxygen levels decline in a tissue, the cells release chemicals that dilate local
blood vessels. This dilation increases the rate of blood flow and provides more oxygen to the
region even before responses from the nervous or endocrine system take place. Autoregulation
does not require the nervous or endocrine system.
Learning Outcome: 1-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
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3) Name the organs found in the thoracic cavity.
Answer: lungs, heart, trachea, esophagus, thymus, major blood vessels connected to the heart
Learning Outcome: 1-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) Name the two upper abdominal quadrants and list the organs that lie in each.
Answer: right upper quadrant (RUQ): right lobe of liver, gallbladder, right kidney, portions of
stomach, large and small intestines; left upper quadrant (LUQ): left lobe of liver, stomach,
pancreas, left kidney, spleen, portions of large intestine
Learning Outcome: 1-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5) Explain what dynamic equilibrium is and how it affects homeostasis.
Answer: Dynamic equilibrium is defined by a system that is capable of adapting and adjusting to
changing conditions in order to maintain a normal range of values. In thermal regulation at
equilibrium heat loss is equal to heat production. As circumstances changing and our bodies
experience more muscle contraction we increase heat production. In order to maintain
equilibrium the body must shed excess heat produced by the muscles so that heat loss and heat
production are again equal or in equilibrium.
Learning Outcome: 1-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 2 The Chemical Level of Organization
Multiple Choice Questions
1) The smallest stable units of matter are
A) atoms.
B) molecules.
C) protons.
D) neutrons.
E) electrons.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) The "atomic number" of an atom is determined by the number of ________ it has.
A) electrons
B) protons
C) neutrons
D) protons + neutrons
E) protons + electrons
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) The "atomic weight" of an atom reflects the average number of
A) protons.
B) neutrons.
C) electrons.
D) protons + neutrons.
E) protons + neutrons + electrons.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) One mole of any element has the same
A) mass.
B) weight.
C) number of atoms.
D) number of electrons.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) The nucleus of an atom consists of
A) electrons.
B) protons.
C) neutrons.
D) protons + neutrons.
E) protons + electrons.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) Isotopes of an element differ in the number of
A) protons in the nucleus.
B) electrons in the nucleus.
C) neutrons in the nucleus.
D) electron clouds.
E) electrons in energy shells.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) The innermost electron shell in an atom holds up to ________ electrons.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
E) 8
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
8) Radioisotopes have unstable
A) ions.
B) nuclei.
C) isotopes.
D) electron clouds.
E) protons.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
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9) By weight, which element is the most plentiful in the human body?
A) sulfur
B) sodium
C) oxygen
D) potassium
E) carbon
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) Which of these lists contains only trace elements?
A) sulfur, chlorine, oxygen
B) selenium, hydrogen, calcium
C) boron, oxygen, carbon
D) silicon, fluorine, tin
E) cobalt, calcium, sodium
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) Helium (HE) has an atomic number of 2. It is chemically stable because it
A) is neutral in electrical charge.
B) readily ionizes to react with other atoms.
C) has a full outer electron shell.
D) will form a covalent bond with another He atom.
E) lacks electrons, thus the He atom is stable.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
12) Which element commonly has only a proton as its nucleus?
A) helium
B) neon
C) argon
D) hydrogen
E) carbon
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3
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13) By weight, which element is the second most abundant in the human body?
A) oxygen
B) carbon
C) hydrogen
D) nitrogen
E) calcium
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) In any given molecule, the sum of the atomic weights of its component atoms is called
A) molecular mass.
B) molecular weight.
C) atomic mass.
D) atomic weight.
E) chemical mass.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) Given the following approximate values, calculate the molecular weight for NaCl.
Atomic number for Na: 11, Atomic weight for Na: 23 g/mol, Atomic number for Cl: 17,Atomic
weight for Cl: 35 g/mol, Boiling point for Cl: -34 °C
A) 11 g/mol
B) 28 g/mol
C) 34 g/mol
D) 40 g/mol
E) 58 g/mol
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
16) If an isotope of oxygen has 8 protons, 10 neutrons, and 8 electrons, its mass number is
A) 26.
B) 16.
C) 18.
D) 8.
E) 12.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
4
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17) If an element is composed of atoms with an atomic number of 6 and a mass number of 14,
then a non-isotopic atom of this element contains
A) 6 protons.
B) 8 electrons.
C) 8 neutrons.
D) 6 protons and 8 electrons.
E) 6 protons and 8 neurons.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
18) A(n) ________ is a pure substance composed of atoms of only one kind.
A) element
B) macromolecule
C) ion
D) isotope
E) compound
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19) The center of an atom is called the
A) core.
B) hub.
C) middle point.
D) nucleus.
E) focus.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) Electrons whirl around the center of the atom at high speed, forming a(n)
A) spiral.
B) figure 8.
C) cylinder.
D) electron cloud.
E) helix.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5
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21) Electrons in an atom occupy an orderly series of electron shells or
A) energy levels.
B) electron clouds.
C) energy circles.
D) electron lanes.
E) energy fields.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22) The actual mass of an atom is known as its
A) chemical weight.
B) atomic weight.
C) atomic mass.
D) chemical mass.
E) chemical force.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) Atoms of the same element whose nuclei contain the same number of protons, but different
numbers of neutrons, are called
A) isotonics.
B) heterotopes.
C) isotopes.
D) homotopes.
E) heterotonics.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) The ________ of a radioactive substance is the time required for 50 percent of a given
amount of radioisotope to decay.
A) decay-point
B) mid-life
C) deterioration point
D) half-life
E) entropy
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6
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25) The molecule NO is known as
A) nitric oxide.
B) noxious oxide.
C) noxious oxygen.
D) nitric oxygen.
E) nitrous oxide.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26) The molecule CO2 is known as
A) carbonized oxygen.
B) carbonated oxygen.
C) carbon monoxide.
D) carbon oxide.
E) carbon dioxide.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27) The molecule H2 is known as
A) hydrohydrogen.
B) hydrogen.
C) hydroxide.
D) helium.
E) semi-water.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
28) When electrons are transferred from one atom to another, and the two atoms unite as a result
of the opposite charges, a(n) ________ is formed.
A) ion
B) molecule
C) hydrogen bond
D) ionic bond
E) covalent bond
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
7
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29) Magnesium atoms have two electrons in the outermost shell. As a result, you would expect
magnesium to form ions with a charge of
A) +1.
B) +2.
C) -1.
D) -2.
E) either +2 or -2.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
30) Which of the following statements about hydrogen bonds is false?
A) Hydrogen bonds are strong attractive forces between hydrogen atoms and negatively charged
atoms.
B) Hydrogen bonds can occur within a single molecule.
C) Hydrogen bonds can form between neighboring molecules.
D) Hydrogen bonds are important for holding large molecules together.
E) Hydrogen bonds are responsible for many of the properties of water.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
31) The molecule O2 is known as
A) oxide.
B) oxygen.
C) organic.
D) oxate.
E) a salt.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) H2O is an example of a(n)
A) ionic formula.
B) glucose molecule.
C) compound.
D) ion.
E) covalent formula.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
8
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33) Which of the following is not a cation?
A) Na+
B) ClC) K+
D) Ca2+
E) Mg2+
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
34) A dust particle floating on a water surface illustrates
A) surface tension.
B) chemical tension.
C) static electricity.
D) heat capacity.
E) hydrophilic attraction.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
35) In an aqueous solution, cations are attracted toward
A) sodium.
B) salt.
C) buffers.
D) anions.
E) hydrogen ions.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36) In an aqueous solution, sodium ions would move toward
A) a negative terminal.
B) a positive terminal.
C) a pH terminal.
D) an organic terminal.
E) the bottom.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
9
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37) The chemical behavior of an atom is determined by the
A) number of protons.
B) number of neutrons.
C) outermost electron shell.
D) size of the atom.
E) mass of the nucleus.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
38) Ions with a + charge are called
A) cations.
B) anions.
C) radicals.
D) positrons.
E) isotopes.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39) When atoms complete their outer electron shell by sharing electrons, they form
A) ionic bonds.
B) covalent bonds.
C) hydrogen bonds.
D) anions.
E) cations.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40) Ionic bonds are formed when
A) atoms share electrons.
B) an electron or electrons are completely transferred from one atom to another.
C) a pair of electrons is shared unequally by two atoms.
D) hydrogen forms bonds with negatively charged atoms.
E) two or more atoms lose electrons at the same time.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10
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41) If a pair of electrons is unequally shared between two atoms, a(n) ________ bond occurs.
A) single covalent
B) double covalent
C) triple covalent
D) polar covalent
E) hydrogen
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42) Elements that have atoms with full outer shells of electrons
A) will form many compounds.
B) will normally form anions.
C) will normally form cations.
D) frequently form hydrogen bonds.
E) are inert gases.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43) Ions in an ionic molecule are held together due to
A) the sharing of electrons.
B) the attraction of opposite electrical charges.
C) each electron orbiting all of the ions in the molecule.
D) the presence of water molecules.
E) the attraction of similar charges of the ions' protons.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44) Sodium (NA) has an atomic number of 11. How many electrons are in the outer electron
shell of a neutral sodium atom?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 8
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
11
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45) Oxygen (atomic number 8) requires how many additional electrons to fill its outer electron
shell?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
E) 8
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
46) The formula for methane gas is CH4. What does the formula 4CH4 represent?
A) a molecule with 4 carbon atoms
B) a molecule with 4 carbon atoms and 16 hydrogen atoms
C) 4 molecules, each containing a carbon and a hydrogen atom
D) 4 molecules, each containing a carbon atom and 4 hydrogen atoms
E) an inorganic compound with ionic bonds
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
47) In an ionic bond, the electron donor is the ________, whereas the electron acceptor is the
________.
A) acid; base
B) salt; ion
C) anion; cation
D) base; acid
E) cation; anion
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
48) In a molecule of nitrogen, three pairs of electrons are shared by two nitrogen atoms. The type
of bond that is formed is an example of a ________ bond.
A) single trivalent
B) double divalent
C) triple covalent
D) polar covalent
E) hydrogen
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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49) In chemical notation, the symbol Ca2+ means
A) two calcium atoms.
B) a calcium ion that has lost two electrons.
C) a calcium ion that has gained two protons.
D) a calcium ion that has gained two electrons.
E) a calcium ion that has lost two protons.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
50) Magnesium atoms have two electrons in the outermost shell and chlorine atoms have seven.
The compound magnesium chloride would contain
A) 1 magnesium and 1 chlorine.
B) 1 magnesium and 2 chlorine.
C) 2 magnesium and 1 chlorine.
D) 2 magnesium and 7 chlorine.
E) impossible to tell without more information
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
51) Ions with a negative charge are called
A) cations.
B) anions.
C) radicals.
D) positrons.
E) isotopes.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
52) The three familiar states of matter are solids, liquids, and
A) globules.
B) fibroids.
C) gases.
D) crystals.
E) vapors.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
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53) A molecule that has unpaired electrons is a(n)
A) isotope.
B) free radical.
C) ion.
D) triple bonded molecule.
E) compound.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
54) Cumulative damage from reactive ________ is thought to be a major factor in aging.
A) nitrogen
B) double bonds
C) isotopes
D) free radicals
E) helium
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
55) Oxygen, which forms naturally as two atoms, are bonded together with what type of bond?
A) nonpolar covalent bond
B) single covalent bond
C) polar covalent bond
D) ionic bond
E) hydrogen bond
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
56) The electrostatic attraction between the slight positive charge of a hydrogen of one molecule
and the slight negative charge of an oxygen, nitrogen, or fluorine of another molecule is called
a(n)
A) nonpolar covalent bond.
B) single covalent bond.
C) polar covalent bond.
D) ionic bond.
E) hydrogen bond.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
14
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57) AB → A + B is to decomposition as A + B → AB is to
A) exchange.
B) synthesis.
C) combustion.
D) replacement.
E) metabolism.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
58) The reaction A + B + energy → AB is an example of a(n) ________ reaction.
A) exergonic
B) endergonic
C) equilibrium
D) decomposition
E) exchange
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
59) In hydrolysis reactions, compounds react with
A) hydrogen, causing decomposition.
B) glucose, causing decomposition.
C) water, causing decomposition.
D) carbon, causing decomposition.
E) water, causing synthesis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
60) In dehydration synthesis reactions, compounds
A) lose water molecules.
B) gain water molecules.
C) convert water molecules to hydrogen and oxygen.
D) convert hydrogen and oxygen to water.
E) gain electrons.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15
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61) Kinetic energy is stored as ________ energy when a spring is stretched or compressed.
A) potential
B) possible
C) plausible
D) probable
E) positive
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
62) Stored energy that has the ability to do work is called
A) kinetic energy.
B) heat energy.
C) light energy.
D) potential energy.
E) dark energy.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
63) The energy of motion is
A) kinetic energy.
B) heat energy.
C) light energy.
D) potential energy.
E) dark energy.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
64) Collectively, reactions that break down molecules are known as
A) anabolism.
B) metabolism.
C) synthesis reactions.
D) exchange reactions.
E) catabolism.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16
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65) Collectively, reactions that build new molecules are known as
A) anabolic.
B) metabolic.
C) synthetic reactions.
D) exchange reactions.
E) catabolic.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
66) The reaction HCl → H+ + Cl- is what type of reaction?
A) decomposition
B) exchange
C) hydrolysis
D) synthesis
E) reversible
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
67) The reaction H2CO3 ↔ H+ + HCO3 is what type of reaction?
A) decomposition
B) exchange
C) hydrolysis
D) synthesis
E) reversible
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
68) The reaction HCl + NaOH → H2O + NaCl is what type of reaction?
A) decomposition
B) exchange
C) hydrolysis
D) synthesis
E) reversible
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
17
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69) Chemical reactions that yield energy, such as heat, are said to be
A) endergonic.
B) activated.
C) exergonic.
D) neutral.
E) thermonuclear.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
70) Which of the following descriptors is false regarding enzymes?
A) They are proteins.
B) They function as biological catalysts.
C) They lower the activation energy required for a reaction.
D) They affect only the rate of a chemical reaction.
E) They are consumed during the reaction.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
71) Chemical reactions that absorb energy are called
A) exergonic.
B) endergonic.
C) equilibrial.
D) decomposition.
E) exchange.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
72) Chemical reactions that occur in the body are accelerated by
A) vitamins.
B) cofactors.
C) hormones.
D) electrons.
E) enzymes.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
18
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73) In living cells, complex metabolic reactions proceed in a series of steps called
A) maneuvers.
B) degrees.
C) pathways.
D) increments.
E) cascades.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
74) Activation energy is
A) the energy of motion.
B) stored energy.
C) the same as heat energy.
D) the energy in chemical bonds.
E) the energy needed to start a reaction.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
75) Each of the following is an inorganic compound except
A) water.
B) acids.
C) bases.
D) salts.
E) carbohydrates.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
76) Which of the following is both an anion and a compound?
A) Na+
B) ClC) K+
D) HCO3E) NaCl
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
19
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77) Compounds that contain carbon as the primary structural atom are called ________
molecules.
A) carbonic
B) organic
C) inorganic
D) catabolic
E) anabolic
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
78) Compounds that do not usually contain carbon and hydrogen atoms as the primary structural
ingredients are called ________ molecules.
A) non-carbonic
B) organic
C) hydro-carbonic
D) metabolic
E) inorganic
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
79) Nonpolar organic molecules are good examples of
A) electrolytes.
B) molecules that will dissociate when placed into water.
C) hydrophobic compounds.
D) hydrophilic compounds.
E) solutes.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
80) During ionization, water molecules disrupt the ionic bonds of a salt to produce a mixture of
ions. These ions can carry a current and so are called
A) cations.
B) anions.
C) acids.
D) electrolytes.
E) counterions.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20
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81) Oppositely charged ions in solution are prevented from combining by
A) heat capacity of water.
B) hydration spheres.
C) water's nonpolar nature.
D) free radicals.
E) hydrogen bonding.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
82) Hydrophilic molecules readily associate with
A) lipid molecules.
B) hydrophobic molecules.
C) water molecules.
D) acids.
E) salts.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
83) Which of the following statements about water is false?
A) It is composed of polar molecules.
B) It is responsible for much of the mass of the human body.
C) It has a relatively low heat capacity.
D) It can dissolve many substances.
E) It contains hydrogen bonds.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
84) Which property of water helps keeps body temperature stabilized?
A) kinetic energy
B) lubrication
C) surface tension
D) reactivity
E) thermal inertia
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
21
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85) Soluble inorganic compounds whose solutions will conduct an electric current are called
A) electrolytes.
B) ions.
C) isotopes.
D) free radicals.
E) metabolites.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
86) A(n) ________ is a homogeneous mixture containing a solvent and a solute.
A) emulsion
B) blend
C) compound
D) infusion
E) solution
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
87) Molecules that do not readily interact with water are called
A) inert.
B) stable.
C) hydrophobic.
D) unstable.
E) hydrophilic.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
88) Muddy lake water is an example of a(n)
A) colloid.
B) suspension.
C) solute.
D) solvent.
E) solution.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22
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89) Water has the ability to dissolve polar covalent molecules like sucrose by
A) forming hydration spheres around the molecule.
B) pulling atoms out of the molecule and into solution.
C) creating crystals of positively and negatively charged atoms.
D) taking electrons from the polar covalent molecule.
E) ionization.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
90) Which of the following has the highest concentration of hydroxide ions?
A) pH 1
B) pH 14
C) pH 7
D) pH 10
E) pH 2
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
91) Which pH is closest to normal body pH?
A) pH 7
B) pH 8
C) pH 4
D) pH 3
E) pH 2
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
92) An excess of hydrogen ions in the body fluids can have fatal results because this can
A) break chemical bonds.
B) change the shape of proteins, rendering them nonfunctional.
C) disrupt tissue functions.
D) change body fluid pH.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
23
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93) A solution containing equal numbers of hydrogen ions and hydroxide ions is
A) acidic.
B) basic.
C) neutral.
D) alkaline.
E) in equilibrium.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
94) The chemical notation that indicates concentration is represented as
A) ().
B) <>.
C) [ ].
D) {}.
E) ||.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
95) If a substance has a pH that is greater than 7, it is
A) neutral.
B) acidic.
C) alkaline.
D) a buffer.
E) a salt.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
96) An important buffer in body fluids is
A) NaCl.
B) NaOH.
C) HCl.
D) NaHCO3.
E) H2O.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
24
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97) Which of the following substances would be most acidic?
A) lemon juice, pH = 2
B) urine, pH = 6
C) tomato juice, pH = 4
D) white wine, pH = 3
E) stomach secretions, pH = 1
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
98) Of the following choices, the pH of the least acidic solution is
A) 6.0.
B) 4.5.
C) 2.3.
D) 1.0.
E) 12.0.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
99) Which has the greater concentration of hydrogen ions, a substance with a pH of 5 or a
substance with a pH of 4?
A) A pH of 4 is greater.
B) A pH of 5 is greater.
C) They are both equal; 4 and 5 are relative values.
D) pH 9, if you mixed the solutions.
E) There is not enough information to determine the answer.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
100) The ________ of a solution is the negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration
expressed in moles per liter.
A) charge
B) pH
C) solubility
D) acidity
E) basicity
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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101) What is the [H+] in pure water?
A) 1X10-7 mol/L
B) 1X10-14 mol/L
C) 7 mol/L
D) 1X107 mol/L
E) 1X1014 mol/L
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
102) What is the pH of a solution with a [H+]=1X10-7 mol/L?
A) 2
B) 7.4
C) 6
D) 7
E) 8.2
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
103) If the pH of the stomach is 2 what is the [H+]?
A) 1X10-2 mol/L
B) .2 mol/L
C) 200 mol/L
D) 2 mol/L
E) .10 mol/L
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
104) A(n) ________ removes hydrogen ions and a(n) ________ releases hydrogen ions.
A) acid; base
B) base; acid
C) compound; element
D) element; compound
E) molecule; acid
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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105) In the body, inorganic compounds
A) can serve as buffers.
B) can make up proteins.
C) are made from organic compounds.
D) are structural components of cells.
E) are metabolized for cellular energy.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
106) When placed in water, an inorganic compound dissociates 99 percent, forming hydrogen
ions and anions. This compound would be a
A) strong base.
B) weak base.
C) strong acid.
D) weak acid.
E) salt.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
107) When a small amount of HCl or NaOH is added to a solution of Na2HPO4, the pH of the
solution barely changes. Based on these observations, all of the following are true concerning the
compound Na2HPO4, except
A) Na2HPO4 is able to accept extra hydrogen ions from the HCl.
B) Na2HPO4 is able to donate hydrogen ions to the OH- from NaOH.
C) Na2HPO4 adsorbs excess H+ and OH- directly onto the surface of its crystalline structure.
D) Na2HPO4 is a salt formed from reacting a strong base with a weak acid.
E) Na2HPO4 acts as a buffer.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
108) Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are classified as
A) organic molecules.
B) inorganic molecules.
C) acids.
D) salts.
E) bases.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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109) A functional group is best described as reoccurring clusters of
A) elements that occur in a salt and that can neither be hydrolyzed nor dehydrated.
B) atoms that form the main reactive area for a particular compound.
C) atoms that function in the body even if temperatures and pH reach extreme values.
D) elements that form at high pH and who can successfully resist the action of buffers.
E) amino acids in a globular protein such as hemoglobin, immunoglobulins, and albumins.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
110) To bond two monomers together, a molecule of water must be ________ to/from
monomers. This process is called ________.
A) added; hydrolysis
B) removed; dehydration synthesis
C) removed; crenation
D) added; denaturation
E) added; ionization
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
111) Which of the following functional groups is the hydroxyl group?
A) -NH2
B) -PO4
C) -COOH
D) -SH
E) -OH
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
112) Which of the following functional groups is the carboxyl group?
A) -NH2
B) -PO4
C) -COOH
D) -SH
E) -OH
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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113) Which of the following functional groups is the phosphate group?
A) -NH2
B) -PO4
C) -COOH
D) -SH
E) -OH
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
114) Fructose is
A) a hexose.
B) an isomer of glucose.
C) found in male reproductive fluids.
D) a carbohydrate.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
115) Molecules that have the same molecular formula but different structural formulas are called
A) isotopes.
B) isomers.
C) isozymes.
D) isotypes.
E) isomoles.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
116) The most important metabolic fuel molecule in the body is
A) sucrose.
B) caffeine.
C) protein.
D) vitamins.
E) glucose.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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117) A polysaccharide that is formed in liver and muscle cells to store glucose is
A) lactose.
B) cellulose.
C) glycogen.
D) sucrose.
E) fructose.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
118) The group of organic compounds containing carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen in a near 1:2:1
ratio is defined as a
A) carbohydrate.
B) lipid.
C) protein.
D) nucleic acid.
E) saturated fat.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
119) Carbohydrate molecules
A) are the building blocks of cellular membranes.
B) form the regulatory molecules known as enzymes.
C) are the body's most readily available source of energy.
D) are composed of C, H, O, and N atoms.
E) contain the genetic information found in cells.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
120) When two monosaccharides undergo a dehydration synthesis,
A) two new monosaccharides are formed.
B) a disaccharide is formed.
C) a polysaccharide is formed.
D) a starch is formed.
E) hydrolysis occurs.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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121) ________ is a type of indigestible polysaccharide.
A) Glycogen
B) Starch
C) Cellulose
D) Sucrose
E) Galactose
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
122) Lipids
A) form essential structural components of cells.
B) provide a significant energy reserve.
C) help to maintain body temperature.
D) cushion organs against shocks.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
123) A fatty acid that contains two or more double covalent bonds is said to be
A) saturated.
B) monounsaturated.
C) polyunsaturated.
D) hydrogenated.
E) carboxylated.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
124) Which of the following is/are needed to form a triglyceride molecule?
A) 3 glycerol molecules
B) 1 glycerol molecule
C) 3 fatty acid molecules
D) 3 glycerol molecules and 3 fatty acid molecules
E) 3 fatty acid molecules and 1 glycerol molecule
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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125) A shortage of steroids in the body would result in a shortage of
A) sex hormones.
B) proteins.
C) plasma membranes.
D) glycogen.
E) sex hormones and plasma membranes.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
126) Lipids that are produced by nearly every tissue in the body and act as local regulators are
the
A) prostaglandins.
B) steroids.
C) monoglycerides.
D) phospholipids.
E) glycolipids.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
127) Cholesterol, phospholipids, and glycolipids are examples of
A) dietary fats.
B) prostaglandins.
C) structural lipids.
D) lipid drugs.
E) steroids.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
128) A fatty acid with no double bonds between carbon atoms is
A) unsaturated.
B) polyunsaturated.
C) dehydrated.
D) saturated.
E) denatured.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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129) Many lipids are composed of fatty acids and
A) glycerol.
B) amino acids.
C) sugars.
D) monosaccharides.
E) polypeptides.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
130) All fatty acids contain a functional group at one end called the ________ acid group.
A) linoleic
B) ribonucleic
C) hydroxyl
D) glycosidic
E) carboxylic
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
131) Molecules with two fatty acid chains and a phosphate group that form biological
membranes are called
A) diglycerides.
B) disaccharides.
C) dipeptides.
D) prostaglandins.
E) phospholipids.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
132) In water, phospholipids tend to form tiny droplets with hydrophobic tails buried inside
called
A) micelles.
B) chylomicrons.
C) glycocalyces.
D) eicosanoids.
E) hydroceles.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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133) Which of the following is not a function of triglycerides?
A) They are a reserve and important source of energy.
B) They help insulate against heat loss in cold climates.
C) They help protect organs by creating a cushion around the organ.
D) They act as a reserve for lipid soluble vitamins.
E) They act as a structural component of plasma membranes.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
134) Which of the following is not a function of steroids?
A) They are a significant energy reserve for the body.
B) They are structural components of the plasm membrane.
C) They are involved in regulation of sexual function.
D) They regulate tissue metabolism and mineral balance.
E) They are required for normal processing of dietary fats.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
135) Which of the following are functions of proteins?
A) support
B) defense
C) metabolic regulation
D) buffering
E) All of these are functions of proteins.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
136) The monomers of protein are
A) glucose.
B) fatty acids.
C) amino acids.
D) nucleotides.
E) nitrogen base.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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137) Substrate molecules bind to enzymes at the ________ sites.
A) amino
B) active
C) carboxyl
D) reactant
E) neutral
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
138) The term ________ refers to certain amino acids, which can have both a positive charge
and a negative charge.
A) anion
B) cation
C) twinion
D) zwitterion
E) double ion
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
139) You would expect a peptide bond to link
A) two simple sugars.
B) two amino acids.
C) two nucleotides.
D) a sugar and a peptide.
E) a peptide and a fatty acid.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
140) Each amino acid differs from another in the
A) number of central carbon atoms.
B) size of the amino group.
C) number of carboxyl groups.
D) nature of the side chain.
E) number of peptide bonds in the molecule.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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141) A side chain on an amino acid is sometimes called
A) fibrous or globular.
B) a polypeptide chain.
C) an R group.
D) an isozyme.
E) nucleic acid.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
142) The alpha-helix and beta sheet are examples of ________ protein structure.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
E) pentanary
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
143) Interaction between individual polypeptide chains to form a protein complex is ________
structure.
A) primary
B) secondary
C) tertiary
D) quaternary
E) pentagonal
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
144) Glycoproteins and proteoglycans are combinations of amino acids and
A) carbohydrates.
B) fatty acids.
C) lipids.
D) nucleic acids.
E) inorganic compounds.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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145) Which of the following is the symbol for an amino group?
A) -COOH
B) -PO3
C) -NH2
D) -AMO
E) -OH
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
146) The maximum rate of an enzyme reaction
A) occurs during dehydration.
B) occurs during hydrolysis.
C) occurs during synthesis.
D) is reversible.
E) occurs at the saturation limit.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
147) How would the lack of a cofactor for an enzyme affect that enzyme's function?
A) The enzyme's function would not be altered.
B) The enzyme would function more slowly.
C) The enzyme would function more quickly.
D) The enzyme would not be able to function.
E) The enzyme would cease to function after reaching a maximum rate.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
148) Identify the correct statement regarding the process of denaturation.
A) It is affected by low temperatures.
B) It is unaffected by changes in pH.
C) It is the loss of protein structure.
D) It is an increase in enzyme activity.
E) It results in decreased substrate availability.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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149) ________ structure results primarily from hydrophobic and hydrophilic interactions
between the R-groups of the polypeptide chain and water.
A) Primary
B) Secondary
C) Tertiary
D) Quaternary
E) Pentanary
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
150) In tertiary structure the ________ bond is formed between two cysteine amino acids.
A) hydrophilic
B) hydrophobic
C) hydrogen
D) ionic
E) disulfide
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
151) Mucins are a type of ________ that absorb water to form mucus.
A) glycolipid
B) glycoprotein
C) proteoglycan
D) glyceride
E) glycerol
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
152) Molecules that store and process genetic information are the
A) proteins.
B) nucleic acids.
C) carbohydrates.
D) lipids.
E) steroids.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-13
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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153) An amino acid is to a protein as a ________ is to a nucleic acid.
A) purine
B) nucleotide
C) protein
D) proton
E) neutron
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-13
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
154) A nucleotide consists of a
A) five-carbon sugar and phosphate group.
B) five-carbon sugar and a nitrogenous base.
C) phosphate group and a nitrogenous base.
D) five-carbon sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group.
E) five-carbon sugar and an amino acid.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-13
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
155) According to the rules of complementary base pairing in nucleic acids, cytosine would pair
with the base
A) thymine.
B) adenine.
C) uracil.
D) cytosine.
E) guanine.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-13
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
156) Adenine and guanine are
A) purines represented by T and C.
B) pyrimidines represented by A and G.
C) purines represented by A and G.
D) pyrimidines represented by T and C.
E) nucleotides represented by A and G.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-13
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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157) The structure of RNA differs from DNA in that
A) the backbone of RNA contains ribose.
B) RNA contains pyrimidines but not purines.
C) RNA contains purines but not pyrimidines.
D) DNA contains pyrimidines but not purines.
E) DNA contains purines but not pyrimidines.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-13
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
158) The molecule DNA contains a five-carbon sugar called
A) glucose.
B) fructose.
C) maltose.
D) ribose.
E) deoxyribose.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-13
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
159) The three structural components of a nucleotide are a pentose, a phosphate group, and a
________ base.
A) nucleic
B) hydrophilic
C) hydrochloric
D) nitrogenous
E) sulfuric
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-13
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
160) The purines found in DNA are ________ and guanine.
A) cytosine
B) adenine
C) thymine
D) uracil
E) niacin
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-13
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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161) The pyrimidine bases found in DNA are ________ and cytosine.
A) cytosine
B) adenine
C) thymine
D) uracil
E) niacin
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-13
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
162) The most abundant high-energy compound in cells is
A) DNA.
B) adenosine diphosphate.
C) adenosine monophosphate.
D) adenosine triphosphate.
E) RNA.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-14
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
163) A high-energy bond in ATP is present between
A) adenine and ribose.
B) adenine and a phosphate group.
C) the first and second phosphate group.
D) the second and third phosphate group.
E) phosphate groups 1 and 2 and between phosphate groups 2 and 3.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-14
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
164) The phosphorylation of adenosine forms
A) ADP.
B) ATP.
C) AMP.
D) 2ATP.
E) ribose.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-14
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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165) Identify the product formed from the phosphorylation of ADP.
A) adenosine diphosphate
B) adenine
C) adenosine triphosphate
D) deoxyribonucleic acid
E) ribose
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-14
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
166) AMP + P →
A) ADP.
B) 2ADP.
C) DNA.
D) ATP.
E) adenine.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-14
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
167) A(n) ________ bond is a covalent bond that stores an unusually large amount of energy.
A) forceful
B) charged
C) excitable
D) power
E) high-energy
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-14
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
168) In the process of ________ a phosphate group is transferred to a molecule.
A) ionization
B) buffering
C) amination
D) dissociation
E) phosphorylation
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 2-14
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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169) The hydrolysis of ATP yields ADP, phosphate ion, and
A) AMP.
B) H2O.
C) energy.
D) adenosine.
E) nuclease.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-14
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) How many electrons can the second energy level hold when it is completely filled? (Figure 23)
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 10
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Hydrogen bonds do not form between two hydrogen atoms. Where do hydrogen bonds form?
(Figure 2-8)
A) between the slight positive charge on the hydrogen atom and the slight negative charge on the
oxygen atom
B) between the slight negative charge on the hydrogen atom and the slight positive charge on the
oxygen atom
C) between the slight positive charge on the sodium atom and the slight negative charge on the
chlorine atom
D) between the slight negative charge on the sodium atom and the slight negative charge on the
chlorine atom
E) between two ions
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43
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3) Which number represents the greatest amount of energy that must be overcome during the
reaction? Which number represents the lowest amount of reaction energy? (Figure 2-9)
A) 1; 2
B) 1; 4
C) 4; 2
D) 2; 4
E) 4; 3
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 2-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
4) How many atoms are shown in each glucose structure? (Figure 2-12)
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 10
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5) What type of bond does an unsaturated fatty acid contain that a saturated fatty acid does not?
(Figure 2-15)
A) at least 4 single covalent bonds
B) at least one double covalent bond
C) an ionic bond
D) a hydrogen bond
E) at least one triple covalent bond
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) What makes fatty acid 3 an unsaturated fatty acid? (Figure 2-17)
A) the presence of only single covalent bonds
B) the presence of a double covalent bond
C) the presence of an ionic bond
D) the presence of a hydrogen bond
E) the presence of a triple covalent bond
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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7) What structural differences make adenine and guanine different from cytosine, thymine, and
uracil? (Figure 2-24)
A) Adenine and guanine have a phosphate group, while cytosine, thymine, and uracil do not.
B) Adenine and guanine do not have a phosphate group, while cytosine, thymine, and uracil do.
C) Adenine and guanine are double-ringed nitrogenous bases, while cytosine, thymine, and
uracil are single-ringed.
D) Adenine and guanine are single-ringed nitrogenous bases, while cytosine, thymine, and uracil
are double-ringed.
E) Adenine and guanine have ribose as the sugar, while cytosine, thymine, and uracil have
deoxyribose.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 2-13
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) How many phosphorylations does AMP undergo to become ATP? (Figure 2-26)
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 2-14
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
45
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Essay Questions
1) The element sulfur has an atomic number of 16 and mass number of 32. How many neutrons
are in the nucleus of a sulfur atom? If sulfur forms covalent bonds with hydrogen, how many
hydrogen atoms can bond to one sulfur atom?
Answer: The number of neutrons in an atom is equal to the mass number minus the atomic
number. Thus, sulfur has 32 - 16 = 16 neutrons. The atomic number indicates the number of
protons, so a neutral sulfur atom contains 16 protons plus 16 electrons to balance the protons
electrically. The electrons would be distributed as follows: 2 in the first electron shell, 8 in the
second, and the remaining 6 in the third. To achieve a full 8 electrons in the third (outermost)
electron shell, the sulfur atom can accept 2 electrons in an ionic bond or can share 2 electrons in
a covalent bond. Because hydrogen atoms can share one electron in a covalent bond, the sulfur
atom can form two covalent bonds with hydrogen, one with each of two hydrogen atoms. In
chemical notation, this is H2S.
Learning Outcome: 2-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
2) What role do buffer systems play in the human body?
Answer: Buffer systems help maintain pH within normal limits by removing or replacing
hydrogen ions as needed.
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
3) Blood has a very narrow normal pH range but urine has a very broad normal pH range. What
does that indicate about the physiology of pH?
Answer: Homeostasis requires that the pH of body fluids be maintained almost constant to avoid
disruptions of healthy function. To accomplish this, the urinary system eliminates or retains
hydrogen ion as needed. These actions cause the pH of urine to vary widely, depending on
whether there is too much or not enough hydrogen ion in the body.
Learning Outcome: 2-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
4) Explain the role of water molecules in polysaccharide formation.
Answer: Water molecules are removed in the dehydration synthesis of polysaccharides.
Learning Outcome: 2-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
5) How does the DNA molecule control the appearance and function of a cell?
Answer: The DNA molecule controls the synthesis of enzymes and structural proteins. By
controlling the synthesis of structural proteins, the DNA is able to influence the physical
appearance of a cell. By controlling the production of enzymes, the DNA is able to control all
aspects of cellular metabolism and thus control the activity and biological functions of the cell.
Learning Outcome: 2-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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6) Explain three physiological benefits that are a result of the heat capacity of water.
Answer: First, because water requires a large amount of heat to break the hydrogens bonds and
vaporize the resulting benefit is that water is a liquid over a broad range of temperatures allowing
physiological reactions to function. Second, because water absorbs a lot of heat before it
vaporizes, as perspiration evaporates from the skin it takes with it a lot of heat thereby providing
us with a mechanism for cooling. Third, because water requires a large amount of heat to change
temperature, large bodies of water will change temperature slowly. This means that the water in
the body will be slow to change overall and will provide a thermally stabilizing effect around
which we can maintain our core body temperature.
Learning Outcome: 2-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 3 The Cellular Level of Organization
Multiple Choice Questions
1) What is an advantage of the electron microscope over the compound light microscope?
A) It can function in complete darkness.
B) It is older, more reliable technology.
C) It is less expensive.
D) It allows much greater magnification of a specimen.
E) It is portable.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) The smallest living unit within the human body is
A) a protein.
B) a cell.
C) a tissue.
D) an organ.
E) an organ system.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) The cell theory includes all of these concepts except
A) each cell maintains homeostasis at the cellular level.
B) cells are the smallest units that carry out the essential functions of life.
C) cells are the building blocks of all organisms.
D) all cells come from the division of preexisting cells.
E) every cell is capable of living on its own if isolated from the body.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
4) The only kind of cell in the body that is not produced by the division of preexisting cells is
A) a gamete (sperm or egg cell).
B) a neuron (nerve cell).
C) an osteocyte (bone cell).
D) none, because every cell is produced by the division of another cell.
E) a liver cell.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
1
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5) What would be an example of a cell maintaining homeostasis at the cellular level?
A) a cell of the intestine secretes digestive enzymes
B) a muscle cell contracts
C) a sperm fertilizes an egg
D) a cell takes up potassium to maintain the proper cytoplasmic potassium concentration
E) a cell divides to become two cells
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
6) Cytology is the study of
A) biological macromolecules.
B) causes and treatment of cancer.
C) the origins of life on Earth.
D) genes and their function.
E) the structure and function of cells.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) ________ cells are all of the cells of the body except the reproductive cells (sperm and
oocytes).
A) Core
B) Somatic
C) Corpus
D) Main
E) Primary
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) Most cells have only one
A) nucleus.
B) ribosome.
C) peroxisome.
D) lysosome.
E) mitochondrion.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
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9) The extracellular fluid in most tissues is called ________ fluid.
A) interstitial
B) cytosolic
C) cytoplasmic
D) outside
E) peripheral
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) What is a structure that separates the contents of a human cell from its surrounding medium?
A) cell wall
B) tissue
C) plasma membrane
D) skin
E) nucleus
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) If a hole is torn in a cell's plasma membrane, the cell will die because
A) it will not be able to maintain differences between the cytoplasm and extracellular fluid.
B) germs are attracted toward cytoplasm leaking from a cell.
C) it will not be able to undergo cell division.
D) its chromosomes will not be held in place.
E) cells can only make more plasma membrane during cell division.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
12) What is the first part of the cell that is affected when the pH of extracellular fluid changes?
A) the nucleus
B) the nucleolus
C) the cytosol
D) the plasma membrane
E) the cytoskeleton
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3
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13) How is the plasma membrane involved in structural support of body tissues?
A) It has specialized connections to other cells or extracellular materials.
B) It primarily consists of fibrous proteins.
C) It is inflated by cytoplasm at high pressure.
D) Tissues are largely composed of empty plasma membranes left by dead cells.
E) It is hydrophobic, so it repels extracellular fluid and attracts the membranes of other cells.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) Functions of the plasma membrane include all of the following except
A) separation of the cytoplasm from the extracellular fluid.
B) regulation of exchange of materials with the extracellular environment.
C) sensitivity to chemical changes in the extracellular fluid.
D) thermal insulation.
E) structural support.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) Which of the following is not a function of membrane proteins?
A) bind to ligands
B) regulate the passage of ions
C) act as carrier molecules for various solutes
D) act as anchors or stabilizers for the cell membrane
E) store cellular nutrients
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) Most of the surface area of a plasma membrane consists of
A) a protein bilayer.
B) a phospholipid bilayer.
C) carbohydrate molecules.
D) DNA.
E) cells.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) The tails of a phospholipid molecule in a plasma membrane are
A) hydrophilic.
B) composed of amino acids.
C) hydrophobic.
D) facing the cytosol.
E) interlocked to provide membrane strength.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) The plasma membrane does not include
A) integral proteins.
B) glycolipids.
C) phospholipids.
D) cholesterol.
E) silk mesh.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19) Identify the role of cholesterol in the plasma membrane.
A) enables ions to pass
B) forms enzymes
C) reduces membrane fluidity and permeability
D) anchors the phospholipids
E) provides energy
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
5
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Figure 3-1 The Plasma membrane
Use Figure 3-1 to answer the following questions.
20) What part of the plasma membrane is hydrophobic?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
6
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21) Which structure is water most likely to pass through?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 8
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
22) Which structure has a "gate" to control transport?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 7
E) 8
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
23) Microfilaments are labeled
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 5.
E) 6.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) Membrane proteins perform all of the following functions except
A) anchoring the cell to other structures.
B) binding to extracellular ligands.
C) transporting solutes across the membrane.
D) catalyzing chemical reactions.
E) metabolizing glucose to gain energy.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
7
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25) Identify the mismatched pair.
A) receptor proteins—bind to extracellular ligands
B) channel proteins—provide passageway for ions
C) recognition glycoproteins and glycolipids—identify the cell as "self"
D) carrier proteins—allow a cell to move
E) enzymes—speed up chemical reactions
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
26) Proteins of the plasma membrane carry out all of the following functions except
A) binding to DNA to turn on genes.
B) sending and receiving signals to and from other cells.
C) transporting substances across the membrane.
D) anchoring the cell to external structures.
E) catalyzing chemical reactions at the inner or outer surface of the membrane.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
27) Receptor molecules on the surface of cells bind specific molecules called, in general,
A) recognizers.
B) binders.
C) ligands.
D) bonders.
E) reactants.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28) Water and small hydrophilic solutes
A) may pass through the phospholipid bilayer of the plasma membrane.
B) cannot pass through a plasma membrane.
C) can dissolve holes in the plasma membrane.
D) may pass through channels in the plasma membrane.
E) do not mix with each other.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
8
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29) The watery component of the cytoplasm is called
A) cytosol.
B) protoplasm.
C) extracellular fluid.
D) interstitial fluid.
E) matrix.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30) Which of the following descriptors regarding cytoplasm is false?
A) contains less protein than extracellular fluid
B) the material that fills a cell
C) syrupy or gel-like consistency
D) includes cytoskeleton
E) includes cytosol
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31) Many proteins in the cytosol are ________ that accelerate metabolic reactions.
A) carbohydrates
B) enzymes
C) lipids
D) messengers
E) ions
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) Compared to the extracellular fluid, cytosol contains
A) a higher concentration of potassium ions.
B) a lower concentration of dissolved proteins.
C) almost no glycogen.
D) a higher concentration of amino acids.
E) almost no lipids.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
9
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33) The cytoplasm contains the fluid cytosol, insoluble inclusions, and the
A) microvilli.
B) nucleolus.
C) enzymes.
D) organelles.
E) cilia.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34) Masses of insoluble material that are sometimes found in cytosol are known as
A) colloids.
B) emulsifiers.
C) solutes.
D) crystals.
E) inclusions.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
35) The endoplasmic reticulum is an example of a(n) ________ organelle.
A) filamentous
B) extracellular
C) interstitial
D) membranous
E) bound
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36) ________ are compartments within the cell whose contents are isolated from the cytosol.
A) Cytoskeleton
B) Microvilli
C) Nonmembranous organelles
D) Membranous organelles
E) Ribosomes
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
10
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37) Each of the following is an example of a nonmembranous organelle except
A) lysosomes.
B) cilia.
C) centrioles.
D) ribosomes.
E) cytoskeleton.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38) Match the organelle (1-4) with the correct description (5-8).
1) mitochondrion
2) centriole
3) endoplasmic reticulum
4) cytosol
5) synthesizing molecules
6) liquid in cell
7) provides cell with energy
8) aids the formation of the spindle apparatus
A) 1 and 7, 2 and 6, 3 and 8, 4 and 5
B) 1 and 8, 2 and 5, 3 and 6, 4 and 7
C) 1 and 7, 2 and 8, 3 and 5, 4 and 6
D) 1 and 5, 2 and 6, 3 and 7, 4 and 8
E) 1 and 6, 2 and 8, 3 and 5, 4 and 7
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39) Tubulin is to microtubules as actin is to
A) ribosomes.
B) microfilaments.
C) intermediate filaments.
D) flagella.
E) microvilli.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
40) Microfilaments do not
A) anchor the cytoskeleton to membrane proteins.
B) help determine the consistency of cytoplasm.
C) produce cell movement, with myosin.
D) consist of the protein called actin.
E) distribute chromosomes to opposite ends of a dividing cell.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11
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41) Microfilaments
A) are usually composed of myosin.
B) are hollow, filamentous structures.
C) anchor the cytoskeleton to integral proteins of the cell membrane.
D) interact with filaments composed of tubulin to produce muscle contractions.
E) are found in the cytoplasm radiating away from the centrosome.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42) Which of the following cytoskeleton components moves the chromosomes during cell
division?
A) microfilaments
B) intermediate filaments
C) thick filaments
D) microtubules
E) basal bodies
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43) Which of following properties of microtubules is correct?
A) made of myosin
B) made of actin
C) found only in the terminal web
D) another term for microfilaments
E) interact with dynein and kinesin
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44) Which of following properties of the cytoskeleton is incorrect?
A) supports organelles
B) controls cell shape
C) provides cell strength
D) connects cells to each other
E) moves organelles
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
12
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Figure 3-2 The Anatomy of a Representative Cell
Use Figure 3-2 to answer the following questions:
45) The structure labeled "1" permits the cell to
A) attach to neighboring cells.
B) produce more cells.
C) increase its surface area for increased absorption.
D) swim in extracellular fluid.
E) trap bacteria.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
13
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46) Which structure organizes the mitotic spindle during cell division?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
E) 6
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
47) Synthesis of carbohydrates and lipids occurs in the structure labeled
A) 4.
B) 5.
C) 6.
D) 7.
E) 8.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
48) Which organelle renews the cell membrane and modifies and packages proteins for
secretion?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
E) 8
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
49) Which structure produces ATP for the cell?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
E) 6
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
14
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50) Microvilli are found on cells of the inner surface of the small intestine, where they
A) slow the movement of food through the digestive tract.
B) increase the absorption of nutrients from digested food.
C) sense the presence of food in the digestive tract.
D) push food along the digestive tract.
E) protect the intestinal lining from irritants or toxins in the food.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
51) If an animal cell lacked centrioles, it would not be able to
A) move.
B) synthesize proteins.
C) produce DNA.
D) metabolize sugars.
E) divide.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
52) The ________ is the microtubule organizing center of the cell.
A) flagellum
B) ribosome
C) nucleus
D) centrosome
E) plasma membrane
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
53) Centrioles form the basal bodies that anchor microtubules within cilia and
A) flagella.
B) microfilaments.
C) microvilli.
D) ribosomes.
E) chromosomes.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15
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54) Cilia and flagella contain nine pairs of ________ surrounding a central pair.
A) microvilli
B) microfilaments
C) microsomes
D) microtubules
E) intermediate filaments
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
55) Motile cilia move fluids across a cell's surface, while a flagellum
A) cools a cell.
B) is not motile.
C) fastens one cell to another.
D) propels a cell through fluid.
E) detects environmental stimuli.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
56) ________ may be scattered in the cytoplasm or bound to endoplasmic reticulum.
A) Mitochondria
B) Ribosomes
C) Vesicles
D) Proteosomes
E) Nuclei
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
57) Ribosomes are composed of protein and
A) glycogen.
B) rRNA.
C) ATP.
D) DNA.
E) steroids.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16
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58) The "r" in rRNA stands for
A) regeneration.
B) recurrence.
C) rebuilding.
D) ribosomal.
E) radiation.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
59) ________ are responsible for identifying and digesting damaged or denatured proteins.
A) Peroxisomes
B) Proteasomes
C) Lysosomes
D) Endosomes
E) Nucleosomes
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
60) Proteosomes ________ proteins that have been damaged or denatured.
A) tag for destruction by a different organelle
B) break down
C) expel from the cell
D) repair
E) duplicate
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
61) Synthesis of lipids and glycogen takes place at the
A) ribosomes.
B) rough ER.
C) smooth ER.
D) Golgi apparatus.
E) mitochondria.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
17
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62) Which of the following consists of a network of intracellular membranes with attached
ribosomes?
A) rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C) mitochondria
D) nucleoli
E) Golgi apparatus
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
63) Which form of endoplasmic reticulum modifies and packages newly synthesized proteins?
A) all forms of endoplasmic reticulum
B) simple endoplasmic reticulum
C) raised endoplasmic reticulum
D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E) rough endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
64) The endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for all of the following except
A) drug and toxin neutralization.
B) lipid synthesis.
C) modification of new proteins.
D) passing molecules to the Golgi apparatus.
E) housing the chromosomes.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
65) Each of the following is a function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum except
A) storage and release of calcium ions.
B) synthesis of protein.
C) synthesis of steroid hormones.
D) synthesis of triglycerides.
E) detoxification of drugs.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
18
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66) Examination of a sample of glandular cells reveals an extensive network of smooth
endoplasmic reticulum. Which of the following is the likeliest product of these cells?
A) digestive enzymes
B) steroid hormones
C) protein hormones
D) transport proteins
E) antibodies
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
67) Which of the following statements about the Golgi apparatus is false?
A) It receives transport vesicles from the RER.
B) It sends transport vesicles to the RER.
C) It produces lysosomes.
D) It supplies new membrane components.
E) It produces secretory vesicles.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
68) The following is a list of the steps involved in the process of secretion by the Golgi
apparatus. What is the proper order for these steps?
1. Cisternae move from the forming face toward the maturing face.
2. Exocytosis
3. Products from RER are packaged into transport vesicles.
4. Secretory vesicles are formed at the maturing face.
5. Vesicles arrive at the forming face.
6. Enzymes modify arriving proteins and glycoproteins.
A) 5, 6, 1, 4, 2, 3
B) 2, 3, 5, 6, 1, 4
C) 4, 3, 1, 6, 5, 2
D) 3, 5, 6, 1, 4, 2
E) 1, 3, 6, 4, 2, 5
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
69) The ________ typically consists of five or six flattened membranous discs called cisternae.
A) centrioles
B) rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) Golgi apparatus
D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E) mitochondria
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19
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70) When activated, lysosomes function in
A) formation of new cell membranes.
B) synthesis of proteins.
C) digestion of materials.
D) synthesis of lipids.
E) cell division.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
71) Macrophages are cells that engulf and consume germs or debris. What organelle must be
especially plentiful in these cells?
A) centrioles
B) lysosomes
C) mitochondria
D) ribosomes
E) nuclei
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
72) Peroxisomes
A) both generate and break down hydrogen peroxide.
B) pull the chromosomes toward the poles of a dividing cell.
C) manufacture proteins.
D) manufacture most of a cell's ATP.
E) contain the genetic information of a cell.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
73) Organelles that break down fatty acids and hydrogen peroxide are
A) lysosomes.
B) peroxisomes.
C) endocytic vesicles.
D) nuclei.
E) toxisomes.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20
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74) What is the source of new material for the plasma membrane?
A) microtubules
B) mitochondria
C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) ribosomes
E) Golgi apparatus
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
75) In addition to secreting products from the cell, vesicles produced by the Golgi apparatus can
A) house chromosomes.
B) produce ATP.
C) synthesize proteins.
D) add new material to the plasma membrane.
E) transport materials to the endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
76) Which of the following statements concerning mitochondria is false?
A) The cristae increase the inner surface area of the organelle.
B) The matrix contains metabolic enzymes involved in ATP synthesis.
C) Respiratory enzymes are attached to the surface of the cristae.
D) The mitochondria produce oxygen in the process of energy transformation.
E) The mitochondria produce most of a cell's ATP.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
77) Some cells contain large numbers of mitochondria while others have relatively few or none.
This suggests that
A) cells with large numbers of mitochondria are short-lived.
B) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a high energy demand.
C) cells with small numbers of mitochondria have a large ATP supply.
D) cells with large numbers of mitochondria have a low energy demand.
E) some cells are older than others.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
21
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78) Most of the ATP required to power cellular operations is produced in the
A) cytoplasm.
B) endoplasmic reticulum.
C) nucleus.
D) mitochondria.
E) cilia.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
79) Most of a cell's DNA is located in its
A) ribosomes.
B) lysosomes.
C) Golgi apparatus.
D) nucleus.
E) nucleolus.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
80) The control center for cellular operations is the
A) nucleus.
B) mitochondria.
C) Golgi apparatus.
D) endoplasmic reticulum.
E) ribosome.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
81) A mature red blood cell lacks a nucleus; therefore, it
A) can repair itself readily.
B) is malformed.
C) can only divide once more.
D) will be a long-lived cell.
E) cannot make new proteins and will be worn out within a few months.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
22
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82) The nucleus is surrounded by the
A) plasma membrane.
B) membranous sac.
C) phospholipid bilayer.
D) nuclear envelope.
E) chromosome shield.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
83) Which organelle is more prominent in cells that make large amounts of protein?
A) nucleus
B) nucleolus
C) chromosome
D) proteasome
E) mitochondria
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
84) The components of ribosomes are formed within
A) the endoplasmic reticulum.
B) Golgi complexes.
C) lysosomes.
D) mitochondria.
E) nucleoli.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
85) Histones are found in
A) nucleosomes.
B) proteasomes.
C) lysosomes.
D) vesicles.
E) endosomes.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23
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86) Chromosomes consist of ________ and ________.
A) RNA; carbohydrates
B) DNA; lipids
C) DNA; proteins
D) water; RNA
E) RNA; proteins
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
87) In cells that are not dividing, chromosomes uncoil to form a tangle of fine fibers known as
A) histones.
B) histiocytes.
C) chromatin.
D) chromaffin.
E) genes.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
88) How do chromosomes become visible under a light microscope as a cell prepares to divide?
A) The cell becomes flat and thin, and its internal structures become easier to see.
B) Thin strands of chromatin coil tightly and then coil again.
C) DNA is thicker after it has replicated.
D) Chromosomes become more intensely colored before cell division.
E) Chromosomes are created before cell division, and then broken down afterward.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
89) Each triplet of bases in a gene corresponds to
A) one amino acid in a protein.
B) one DNA nucleotide.
C) one protein.
D) one mRNA.
E) one chromosome.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24
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90) The functional units of DNA that contain the instructions for making one or more proteins
are
A) chromosomes.
B) genes.
C) ribosomes.
D) codons.
E) RNA.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
91) A gene is a set of specific instructions that
A) produces amino acids for proteins.
B) copies DNA strands for mitosis.
C) controls the process of mitosis.
D) indicates the sequence of amino acids in a protein molecule.
E) directs carbohydrate synthesis.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
92) Which of the following is false about DNA fingerprinting?
A) determined by analyzing proteins
B) unique to each individual with the exception of identical twins
C) used extensively during crime scene investigations
D) may be obtained from blood, semen, hair, and other tissues
E) based on short tandem repeats (STRs) in the DNA
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
93) The "m" in mRNA stands for
A) messenger.
B) modifier.
C) metabolic.
D) molecular.
E) matching.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
25
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94) The enzyme ________ is required for the synthesis of mRNA.
A) RNA polymerase
B) deoxyribase
C) phosphatase
D) RNA synthetase
E) ribase
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
95) The process of forming mRNA is called
A) replication.
B) transcription.
C) translation.
D) ribolation.
E) auscultation.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
96) The start of each gene begins with a(n) ________ segment.
A) neocodon
B) intron
C) histone
D) promoter
E) boosting
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
97) Thymine is replaced by which nitrogen base in RNA?
A) ribose
B) uracil
C) guanine
D) thymine is not replaced in RNA
E) cytosine
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
26
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98) The mRNA sequence that is complementary to the sequence ATC on DNA is
A) ATC.
B) TAG.
C) UAG.
D) AUG.
E) AUC.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
99) Before the mRNA transcribed from a gene can be used to translate into a protein, it must be
A) edited to remove introns.
B) edited to remove exons.
C) transported into the cytoplasm.
D) edited to remove introns and transported into the cytoplasm.
E) coated with phospholipids for transport out of the nucleus.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
100) Transfer of mRNA from the nucleus to the cytosol occurs through
A) carrier proteins.
B) gap junctions.
C) nucleosides.
D) gap lines.
E) nuclear pores.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
101) mRNA is needed to synthesize ________ in the cytoplasm.
A) carbohydrates
B) lipids
C) proteins
D) phospholipids
E) salts
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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102) A molecule of ________ contains all the codons needed to produce a particular
polypeptide.
A) rRNA
B) mRNA
C) dRNA
D) tRNA
E) cRNA
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
103) The process of protein formation directed by mRNA is called
A) replication.
B) transcription.
C) translation.
D) mitosis.
E) auscultation.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
104) The anticodon for the triplet UCA is
A) AGU.
B) AGC.
C) TCA.
D) TGT.
E) AGT.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
105) During protein synthesis, amino acids are assembled in the proper sequence because each
tRNA has a(n) ________ that binds to the next codon in the mRNA.
A) enzyme
B) nucleotide
C) anticodon
D) promotor
E) transporter
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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106) Amino acids are transferred to the ribosome to be incorporated into a growing polypeptide
chain by
A) aRNA.
B) mRNA.
C) rRNA.
D) tRNA.
E) pRNA.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
107) The "t" in tRNA stands for
A) translate.
B) transport.
C) transfer.
D) transcribe.
E) transmit.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
108) What is the correct order of occurrence for the steps of protein synthesis?
1. mRNA is produced in nucleus.
2. Ribosome moves along mRNA.
3. DNA uncoils for transcription.
4. Polypeptide is produced.
5. tRNA brings amino acids to ribosome.
6. mRNA moves to ribosome.
A) 3, 1, 6, 2, 5, 4
B) 2, 4, 6, 1, 3, 5
C) 2, 1, 5, 4, 3, 6
D) 3, 5, 1, 6, 2, 4
E) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2, 6
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
109) The duplication of DNA is called ________, the copying of DNA to mRNA is called
________, and the reading of the mRNA by the cell to make a protein is called ________.
A) replication; transcription; translation
B) interphase; replication; active transport
C) replication; translation; transcription
D) mitosis; duplication; protein synthesis
E) reproduction; duplication; initiation
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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110) Permanent alterations in a cell's DNA that affect the nucleotide sequence of one or more
genes are called
A) interferons.
B) mutations.
C) reconstructions.
D) polymorphs.
E) changelings.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
111) The ________ of a cell membrane indicates how easy it is for substances to cross.
A) thickness
B) pliability
C) density
D) permeability
E) charge
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
112) Cell membranes are said to be ________ because they allow some substances to pass but
not others.
A) impermeable
B) doubly amphipathic
C) hydrophilic
D) selectively permeable
E) hydrophobic
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
113) A cell can increase how fast a substance diffuses across its plasma membrane by inserting
channels, which modify the
A) distance across the membrane.
B) concentration gradient of the substance.
C) size and mobility of the substance.
D) membrane's permeability to the substance.
E) charge of the substance.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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114) The movement of oxygen from an area of high concentration to an area of low
concentration is an example of
A) osmosis.
B) active transport.
C) diffusion.
D) facilitated transport.
E) filtration.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
115) Breathing faster and deeper eliminates more carbon dioxide from the body than normal
breathing. Under these circumstances, in the lungs
A) more carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood.
B) more carbon dioxide will diffuse into the blood.
C) less carbon dioxide will diffuse out of the blood.
D) less carbon dioxide will diffuse into the blood.
E) the amount of carbon dioxide diffusion will remain unchanged.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
116) Diffusion of a substance across the cell membrane may be influenced by all of the
following except
A) the availability of ATP.
B) the presence of membrane channels for the substance.
C) its charge of the substance.
D) its concentration gradient.
E) its lipid solubility.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
117) There is a direct correlation between the potency of a general anesthetic such as ether and
its ability to
A) dissolve in water.
B) dissolve in lipids.
C) bind to proteins.
D) interact with carbohydrates.
E) bind to DNA.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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118) Water molecules and small ions enter a cell through
A) channels formed by integral membrane proteins.
B) peripheral proteins.
C) lipid channels.
D) peripheral carbohydrates.
E) defects in the lipid layer of the membrane.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
119) Which of the following best describes osmosis?
A) active transport of water across the cell membrane
B) diffusion of water from a greater to a lesser water concentration
C) movement of water into a solute
D) diffusion of water from a greater to a lesser water concentration across a selectively
permeable membrane
E) random movement of water due to kinetic energy
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
120) Imagine a beaker divided down the center by a rigid membrane that is freely permeable to
water but impermeable to glucose. Side 1 contains a 10 percent glucose solution and side 2
contains the same volume of pure water. At equilibrium, what will be the situation?
A) Water will continue to move from side 1 to side 2.
B) Water will continue to move from side 2 to side 1.
C) The volume of liquid will be greater in side 1.
D) The volume of liquid will be greater in side 2.
E) The volume of liquid remain equal on both sides.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
121) A blood cell undergoes crenation when it is placed in a(n) ________ solution.
A) isotonic
B) hypertonic
C) hypotonic
D) merotonic
E) homotonic
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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122) Hemolysis may occur when a blood cell is placed into a(n) ________ solution.
A) isotonic
B) hypertonic
C) hypotonic
D) merotonic
E) homotonic
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
123) If the amount of chloride ion in blood plasma increases, which of the following would
initially occur?
A) The blood osmotic pressure will increase.
B) The blood osmotic pressure will decrease.
C) The blood osmotic pressure will stay the same.
D) The blood hydrostatic pressure will increase.
E) The blood hydrostatic pressure will decrease.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
124) If the concentration of sodium chloride in the interstitial fluid surrounding cells decreases
and the concentration of other solutes remains constant,
A) the cells will shrink.
B) the cells will swell.
C) the fluid outside of the cells will become isotonic.
D) the fluid outside of the cells will become hypertonic.
E) the cells will not change.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
125) A solution that contains a lower osmotic pressure than the cytoplasm of a cell is called
A) merotonic.
B) hypertonic.
C) isotonic.
D) hypotonic.
E) homotonic.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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126) A patient suffers blood loss and is given IV fluids that contain an impermeable
carbohydrate called dextran, which serves to ________ leading to an increase in blood volume.
A) provide nutrition
B) increase the osmolarity of the blood
C) increase the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood
D) decrease the osmolarity of the blood
E) reduce blood clotting
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
127) In ________, one substance is transported into the cell and another is transported out.
A) cotransport
B) ditransport
C) countertransport
D) protransport
E) throughtransport
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
128) Assume that the import of a particular amino acid across the plasma membrane is observed
(1) to occur only down its concentration gradient and (2) to slow when a different but similar
amino acid is added to the extracellular fluid. The movement of the amino acid through the
membrane is most likely by
A) osmosis.
B) diffusion.
C) facilitated diffusion.
D) active transport.
E) pinocytosis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
129) The process by which molecules such as glucose are moved into cells along their
concentration gradient with the help of membrane-bound carrier proteins is called
A) osmosis.
B) facilitated diffusion.
C) active transport.
D) endocytosis.
E) exocytosis.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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130) Facilitated diffusion differs from ordinary diffusion in that
A) facilitated diffusion consumes ATP.
B) facilitated diffusion moves molecules from an area of lower concentration to an area of higher
concentration.
C) the rate of facilitated diffusion is limited by the number of available carrier proteins.
D) facilitated diffusion never eliminates the concentration gradient.
E) facilitated diffusion does not rely on carrier proteins.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
131) Membrane-bound proteins that use metabolic energy to move ions across the plasma
membrane are called ________ pumps.
A) channel
B) receptor
C) active
D) motor
E) ion
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
132) A process that requires cellular energy to move a substance against its concentration
gradient is called
A) active transport.
B) passive transport.
C) facilitated transport.
D) osmosis.
E) diffusion.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
133) Secondary active transport
A) is not carried out by membrane proteins.
B) is not directly linked to the hydrolysis of ATP.
C) does not link the pumping of one substance to the concentration gradient of another.
D) does not require the cell to invest energy, either directly or indirectly.
E) cannot move a substance against its concentration gradient.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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134) An extracellular cation whose concentration gradient drives the secondary active transport
of many different solutes is
A) sodium.
B) calcium.
C) potassium.
D) chloride.
E) glucose.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
135) In order to maintain cellular homeostasis, one abundant type of exchange pump ejects
________ ions from the cell and imports ________ ions.
A) potassium; calcium
B) sodium; calcium
C) potassium; sodium
D) sodium; potassium
E) calcium; sodium
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
136) All of the following membrane transport mechanisms are passive processes except
A) diffusion.
B) facilitated diffusion.
C) vesicular transport.
D) osmosis.
E) movement of water.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
137) The intake of materials from the extracellular fluid using vesicles is called
A) osmosis.
B) exocytosis.
C) facilitated transport.
D) endocytosis.
E) an ion exchange pump.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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138) Endocytosis is a
A) method for transporting substances into the cell.
B) method for metabolizing within the cytosol.
C) form of anabolism.
D) viral infection.
E) method for packaging secretions.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
139) Receptor-mediated endocytosis
A) is a type of secretion.
B) imports target molecules after they bind to membrane proteins.
C) does not require energy from the cell.
D) can only move a substance down its concentration gradient.
E) imports extracellular fluid, including all of its dissolved molecules.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
140) A defense cell engulfing a bacterium illustrates
A) pinocytosis.
B) receptor-mediated exocytosis.
C) exocytosis.
D) phagocytosis.
E) receptor-mediated endocytosis.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
141) The electric potential difference across the cell membrane is known as
A) the membrane potential.
B) the membrane difference.
C) the cellular potential.
D) the cellular difference.
E) the plasmalemma potential.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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142) The membrane potential in an undisturbed cell is called its
A) quiet potential.
B) inactive state.
C) passive state.
D) resting membrane potential.
E) interphase.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
143) In a series of measurements of resting membrane potentials, the following values were
recorded. Which one is likeliest to be an error?
A) -10 mV
B) -20 mV
C) -40 mV
D) -70 mV
E) +100 mV
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
144) The potential difference across the cell membrane is due to the unequal distribution of
________ across the membrane.
A) carbohydrate molecules
B) water molecules
C) cations and anions
D) acids and bases
E) phospholipids and proteins
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
145) Which of these substances could be driven across a membrane by the resting membrane
potential?
A) H2O
B) O2
C) glucose
D) Na+
E) CO2
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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146) The genetically programmed death of cells is called
A) differentiation.
B) replication.
C) apoptosis.
D) metastasis.
E) mitosis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
147) If a cell lacked the enzyme DNA polymerase, it could not
A) maintain the integrity of the nuclear envelope.
B) form complementary strands of DNA during replication.
C) link segments of DNA together.
D) form spindle fibers.
E) form a new nuclear membrane during telophase.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
148) In DNA replication,
A) 23 copies are made of each chromosome.
B) one new copy is made of each chromosome, and the original chromosome remains intact.
C) two new copies are made of each chromosome, and the original chromosome is destroyed.
D) two copies are made of each chromosome, and each copy contains one of the DNA strands
from the original chromosome.
E) the chromosome is copied to RNA, which is then copied to DNA for a new chromosome.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
149) When is DNA replicated?
A) interphase
B) anaphase
C) metaphase
D) telophase
E) interkinesis
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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150) The stage in a cell's life cycle in which the cell performs its normal functions and prepares
for division is called
A) prophase.
B) metaphase.
C) interphase.
D) telophase.
E) anaphase.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
151) The process of duplicating chromosomes prior to cell division is called
A) replication.
B) repetition.
C) recurrence.
D) remodeling.
E) reassembling.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
152) A cell duplicates its chromosomes during the ________ phase.
A) Go
B) G1
C) G2
D) Gm
E) S
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
153) Before a cell divides, its DNA must be replicated to
A) provide a backup copy of DNA in case the original DNA is damaged during mitosis.
B) replace the DNA lost during transcription.
C) supply each new cell with a full set of the genetic material.
D) replace genetic instructions used by the original cell.
E) use as an energy source during cytokinesis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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154) The proper distribution of a somatic cell's genetic material to two daughter cells is
accomplished by the process of
A) cytosis.
B) mitosis.
C) cytokinesis.
D) phoresis.
E) meiosis.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
155) During mitosis, chromatids separate into daughter chromosomes at the start of
A) prophase.
B) metaphase.
C) interphase.
D) telophase.
E) anaphase.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
156) During this phase of cell division, the chromosomes uncoil, the nuclear membrane forms,
and cytokinesis occurs.
A) anaphase
B) prophase
C) interphase
D) telophase
E) metaphase
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
157) During mitosis, two daughter cells form, each of which has
A) a different number of chromosomes than the original cell.
B) twice as many chromosomes as the original cell.
C) the same number of chromosomes as the original cell.
D) a lesser number of chromosomes than the original cell.
E) half as many chromosomes as the original cell.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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158) The correct order of phases in the cell cycle is
A) prophase, interphase, anaphase, metaphase, and telophase.
B) telophase, anaphase, metaphase, interphase, and prophase.
C) interphase, prophase, anaphase, metaphase, and telophase.
D) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
E) metaphase, anaphase, interphase, prophase, and telophase.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
159) If an animal cell has 18 chromosomes and undergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes
would each daughter cell have?
A) 9
B) 36
C) 23
D) 18
E) It varies, but the total number in the two daughter cells will always add up to 18.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
160) Which phase of the cell cycle has the biggest extremes in duration?
A) S phase
B) G0 phase
C) G1 phase
D) G2 phase
E) V phase
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
161) Generally, cells with a very brief interphase and lacking a G0 phase
A) are stem cells.
B) do not exhibit cytokinesis.
C) have brief life spans.
D) are reproductive cells.
E) lack the enzyme DNA polymerase.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
42
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162) Special cells called ________ cells maintain tissues by unending cycles of cell division.
A) cytogenic
B) mother
C) stem
D) root
E) omnipotent
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
163) The physical process by which a single animal cell separates into two cells is called
A) cytosis.
B) mitosis.
C) cytokinesis.
D) phoresis.
E) meiosis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
164) During growth, a tissue increases in size by
A) increasing the size of its cells.
B) increasing the osmolarity of its tissue fluid to draw in water.
C) increasing its rate of cell division.
D) dilating blood vessels to increase its blood supply.
E) recruiting cells from surrounding tissues.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
165) A chemical from outside a cell that promotes cell division is called a
A) nutrient.
B) promoter.
C) mutagen.
D) telomere.
E) growth factor.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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166) Cyclin, a protein that becomes more abundant as the cell cycle proceeds,
A) delays cytokinesis.
B) activates repressor genes.
C) triggers DNA replication.
D) damages telomeres.
E) takes part in triggering mitosis.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
167) When telomeres get too short after repeated cell divisions,
A) the cell dies.
B) the cell becomes cancerous.
C) the cell stops dividing.
D) the chromosomes uncoil.
E) the cell divides more frequently.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
168) An alternate term for tumor is
A) neoplasm.
B) cytoplasm.
C) benign malignancy.
D) primary metastasis.
E) nucleoplasm.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
169) Cancer cells
A) are indistinguishable from normal body cells.
B) have a slow mitotic rate.
C) may exhibit metastasis.
D) do not form neoplasms.
E) generally form benign tumors.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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170) A(n) ________ is a mutated regulatory gene that causes cancer.
A) neogene
B) plasmogene
C) toxogene
D) oncogene
E) monogene
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
171) ________, which is usually inactive in adult cells, is active in 90% of cancer cells.
A) Phagocytosis
B) Apoptosis
C) The p53 gene
D) Telomerase
E) DNA polymerase
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
172) The process by which cells become specialized is called
A) determination.
B) cytokinesis.
C) mutation.
D) differentiation.
E) distinction.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
173) Different cell types in the body
A) produce exactly the same proteins.
B) have different genes.
C) are identical except for their superficial appearance.
D) have the same genes, but different sets of genes are inactivated.
E) have the ability to take on the characteristics of each other or any cell in the body.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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174) Embryonic stem cells might be used to replace neurons lost in Parkinson's Disease because
A) they are readily available.
B) they divide quickly.
C) they are young and vigorous.
D) they have not yet differentiated.
E) they are taken from the brain of the embryo.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) What are the three different components that make up the cytoskeleton in all body cells?
(Figure 3-3)
A) thick filaments, thin filaments, intermediate filaments
B) microfilaments, microvilli, villi
C) microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules
D) thick filaments, thin filaments, microvilli
E) microtubules, macrotubules, tubules
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) What are the two reactants shown here that are necessary for energy production? What are the
three products shown here as a result of this reaction? (Figure 3-9)
A) oxygen and ATP; carbon dioxide, pyruvate, and water
B) oxygen and carbon dioxide; pyruvate, carbon dioxide, and water
C) water and pyruvate; oxygen, carbon dioxide, and ATP
D) oxygen and pyruvate; carbon dioxide, ATP, and water
E) carbon dioxide and pyruvate; oxygen, ATP, and water
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) How is DNA organized in the nucleus when the cell is prepared for division? How is DNA
organized in the nucleus when the cell is not dividing? (Figure 3-11)
A) tightly coiled as chromosomes; loosely coiled as chromatin
B) tightly coiled as chromatin; loosely coiled as chromosomes
C) loosely coiled as chromosomes; tightly coiled as chromatin
D) loosely coiled as chromatin; tightly coiled as chromosomes
E) loosely coiled as chromosomes; loosely coiled as chromatin
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 3-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46
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4) How do small water-soluble molecules and ions diffuse across the plasma membrane? How do
lipid-soluble molecules diffuse across the plasma membrane? (Figure 3-15)
A) diffuse by osmosis; diffuse by carrier-mediated transport
B) diffuse by endocytosis; diffuse by pinocytosis
C) diffuse by carrier-mediated transport; diffuse by passive transport
D) diffuse directly through the plasma membrane; diffuse through membrane channels
E) diffuse through membrane channels; diffuse directly through the plasma membrane
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5) Describe the concentration of the intracellular fluid relative to the extracellular fluid in parts b
and c. (Figure 3-17)
A) hypotonic to the extracellular fluid; hypertonic to the extracellular fluid
B) hypertonic to the extracellular fluid; hypotonic to the extracellular fluid
C) isotonic to the extracellular fluid; hypertonic to the extracellular fluid
D) isotonic to the extracellular fluid; hypotonic to the extracellular fluid
E) hypertonic to the extracellular fluid; isotonic to the extracellular fluid
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) In the facilitated diffusion of glucose, what determines the direction in which glucose
molecules will be transported? (Figure 3-18)
A) the amount of ATP available inside the cell versus outside the cell
B) the amount of sodium available to bind inside the cell versus outside the cell
C) the concentration gradient
D) the voltage of the membrane
E) the tonicity of the cell
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
7) What provides the energy for the sodium-potassium exchange pump? (Figure 3-19)
A) breaking the high energy bond of ADP
B) the concentration gradient of sodium
C) the concentration gradient of potassium
D) breaking the high energy bond of ATP
E) the voltage of the cell
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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Essay Questions
1) Describe the ways that proteins of the plasma membrane allow a cell to control its internal
environment or interact with its external environment.
Answer: Carrier proteins and channels help control the cell's internal environment by allowing
specific materials to enter the cell. Anchoring proteins connect the cell's cytoskeleton to
extracellular proteins or to other cells. Recognition proteins allow immune cells to identify the
cell. Receptor proteins allow the cell to respond to external signals such as hormones. Finally,
enzymes can carry out chemical reactions inside or outside the cell, depending on which face of
the membrane they are attached to.
Learning Outcome: 3-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) Which organelles are involved in membrane flow? Trace the route of a single integral
membrane protein from formation to incorporation into the plasma membrane.
Answer: All membranous organelles are involved in membrane flow. Those most directly
associated are the ER, Golgi apparatus, secretory vesicles, and plasma membrane. A membrane
protein would be synthesized in the RER, then flow through the cisternae to a transport vesicle.
There the protein will be moved to the forming face of the Golgi apparatus, where it will slowly
travel upward toward the maturing face, usually becoming modified along the way. Once
reaching the maturing face of the Golgi apparatus, the protein would be embedded in the
membrane of a secretory vesicle and transported to the plasma membrane. There the vesicle will
fuse with the membrane, inserting the protein in the cell membrane.
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
3) What organelles would be enhanced in a cell that produces digestive enzymes and secretes
them into the intestine? Why?
Answer: Digestive enzymes are proteins, and they are produced at a high rate while a meal is
being digested. Organelles that would be enhanced include the nucleus, which would have larger
or more numerous nucleoli for making ribosomes; a larger number of ribosomes for making
proteins; increased rough ER, where proteins to be secreted are made; more numerous or larger
Golgi apparatus, where proteins are packaged for secretion; and more secretory vesicles to carry
the enzymes to the surface of the cell.
Learning Outcome: 3-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
4) Differentiate between transcription and translation.
Answer: In transcription, RNA polymerase uses the nucleotide sequence on DNA to construct a
complementary strand of mRNA. In translation, ribosomes use information carried by the mRNA
strand and tRNA to synthesize the corresponding polypeptide.
Learning Outcome: 3-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
48
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5) When a person receives intravenous fluids to help build up blood volume, why is it important
for the fluid to be isotonic?
Answer: Intravenous fluids must be isotonic to prevent the cells from losing or gaining water. If
the solution was hypertonic, the cells of the body would lose water, shrink, and possibly be
harmed. On the other hand, the introduction of hypotonic fluid would cause the cells to swell and
tissues to rupture.
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
6) Define osmosis and tell in what direction it occurs.
Answer: Osmosis is the transfer of water across a semipermeable membrane due to a difference
in concentration of impermeant solutes. Water moves from lower to higher solute concentration
(or from higher to lower water concentration, or from lower to higher osmolarity, or from lower
to higher tonicity).
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
7) During kidney dialysis, a person's blood is passed through a bath that contains several ions
and molecules. The blood is separated from the dialysis fluid by a membrane that allows water,
small ions, and small molecules to pass, but does not allow large proteins or blood cells to pass.
What should the composition of dialysis fluid be for it to remove urea (a small molecule without
changing the blood volume (removing water from the blood)?
Answer: For the dialysis fluid to remove urea without removing water, it should not contain
urea. Because urea is a small molecule, it will diffuse through the dialysis membrane from an
area of high concentration (the blood to an area of low concentration (the dialysis fluid). To
prevent an associated osmotic water movement, the dialysis fluid should have an osmotic
concentration similar to that of blood plasma, but with higher concentrations of solutes such as
bicarbonate ions or glucose. As urea diffuses into the dialysis fluid, glucose and bicarbonate
diffuse into the blood; as a result, the solute concentrations remain in balance and no osmotic
water movement occurs.
Learning Outcome: 3-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
8) A) What are the similarities between facilitated diffusion and active transport? B) What are
the differences?
Answer: A) Both processes use carrier proteins and exhibit saturation. B) Facilitated diffusion is
driven by a concentration gradient, does not consume ATP, and so is "passive," whereas active
transport is active, consumes ATP, and moves a substance up its concentration gradient.
Learning Outcome: 3-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
49
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9) Tell how a carcinogen can cause cancer, and describe the progression of cancer.
Answer: Some carcinogens directly cause rapid cell division and others are mutagens that may
mutate a gene that regulates cell growth, differentiation, or division. Cancer begins with
increased cell division to produce a cluster of cells called a tumor or neoplasm. These cells
change their appearance, lose their response to certain inhibitory signals, and may acquire other
mutations. Malignancy occurs as cells from the tumor invade surrounding tissues. Metastasis
occurs when these cells enter the circulatory system and start tumors in distant regions of the
body. Angiogenesis is the growth of blood vessels into the region of the tumor. Tumors can
disrupt normal function by failing to carry out their regular functions, physically interfering with
normal tissue, outcompeting normal tissues for nutrients, or overproducing their normal
products, such as hormones.
Learning Outcome: 3-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
50
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 4 The Tissue Level of Organization
Multiple Choice Questions
1) Which statement about tissues is correct?
A) Tissues are always in the form of sheets of cells.
B) All the organs of an organ system are composed of a single tissue type.
C) A tissue is composed of a single type of cell.
D) An organ combines several different tissues.
E) Tissues are microscopic, and invisible to the naked eye.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) Where is the tissue level of organization?
A) between cells and organs
B) between organelles and cells
C) between organs and organ systems
D) between atoms and molecules
E) between molecules and organelles
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3) The study of tissues is called
A) cytology.
B) toxicology.
C) microbiology.
D) histology.
E) mycology.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) Which one of the following is not one of the four main tissue categories?
A) muscle tissue
B) neural tissue
C) osseous tissue
D) connective tissue
E) epithelial tissue
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) Which of the four basic tissue types form coverings or linings of organs?
A) muscle tissue
B) epithelial tissue
C) protective tissue
D) neural tissue
E) connective tissue
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) Neural tissue
A) carries information from one part of the body to another.
B) can contract.
C) fills spaces in the body.
D) stores energy.
E) forms glands.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) Any substance that enters or leaves your body must cross
A) muscle tissue.
B) connective tissue.
C) secretory tissue.
D) neural tissue.
E) epithelial tissue.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) The tissue that always has an apical and a basal surface is ________ tissue.
A) epithelial
B) connective
C) muscle
D) basal
E) apical
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2
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9) Characteristics of epithelia include all of the following except
A) attachment.
B) avascularity.
C) regeneration.
D) polarity.
E) extracellular matrix.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) Epithelial cells that line the small intestine transport nutrients into the body. Directional
transport is associated with the epithelial tissue property of
A) avascularity.
B) regeneration.
C) cellularity.
D) polarity.
E) attachment.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
11) Epithelial cells that are adapted for absorption usually have ________ at their free surface.
A) mitochondria
B) cilia
C) microvilli
D) junctional complexes
E) Golgi complexes
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
12) Close examination of a healthy organ reveals a lining of several layers of cells. The layers do
not contain any blood vessels and one surface of the cells lines the cavity of the organ. This
tissue is a type of
A) epithelium.
B) muscle tissue.
C) connective tissue.
D) neural tissue.
E) fat tissue.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
3
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13) An epithelial cell can be divided into two functional regions. They are the ________ and the
basal surface.
A) apical
B) pinnacle
C) topical
D) crest
E) apogeal
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) The junction type that lets neighboring cells exchange small molecules is the
A) desmosome.
B) hemidesmosome.
C) gap junction.
D) tight junction.
E) zonula adherens.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) A type of intercellular junction that stops materials from crossing an epithelium between
cells is called a(n)
A) tight junction.
B) gap junction.
C) intermediate junction.
D) desmosome.
E) hemidesmosome.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) Dead skin cells are shed in thin sheets because they are held together by "spots" of
proteoglycan reinforced by intermediate filaments. Such strong intercellular connections are
called
A) gap junctions.
B) intermediate junctions.
C) tight junctions.
D) desmosomes.
E) junctional complexes.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) ________ are proteins that connect adjacent cells at a gap junction.
A) Bindins
B) Adhesions
C) Connexins
D) Attachons
E) Tieons
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) In stratified epithelia adapted to resist mechanical forces, which of the following types of
cell-to-cell junctions are especially abundant?
A) tight junctions
B) basolateral junctions
C) gap junctions
D) hemidesmosomes
E) desmosomes
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
19) Epithelium is connected to underlying connective tissue by
A) keratin.
B) interfacial canals.
C) a basement membrane.
D) a reticular lamina.
E) proteoglycan.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) Germinative cells
A) start in the superficial layers of epithelial tissue.
B) cannot divide in the deep layers of epithelial tissue.
C) make up most of the epithelial type of tissue.
D) divide continually to produce new epithelial cells.
E) cannot function in the repair of epithelial tissue.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
5
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21) Cells that are flat and thin are classified as
A) columnar.
B) squamous.
C) blasts.
D) transitional.
E) cuboidal.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22) The two major types of cell layering in epithelia are
A) simple and proper.
B) stratified and pseudostratified.
C) squamous and simple.
D) simple and stratified.
E) cuboidal and columnar.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) The epithelium that lines the body cavities is known as
A) perithelium.
B) myothelium.
C) intrathelium.
D) endothelium.
E) mesothelium.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) The epithelia that line body cavities and blood vessels are classified as
A) simple squamous.
B) stratified squamous.
C) simple cuboidal.
D) stratified cuboidal.
E) transitional.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6
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25) An example of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium would be
A) exposed skin.
B) air sacs of the lungs.
C) the lining of the anus.
D) the outer covering of the intestines.
E) the lining of the oral cavity.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
26) The function of simple cuboidal epithelium is
A) support and structure.
B) protection and transport.
C) phagocytosis and immunity.
D) absorption and secretion.
E) storage and retrieval.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27) Which tissue lines the small intestine and the stomach?
A) simple squamous epithelium
B) simple cuboidal epithelium
C) simple columnar epithelium
D) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
E) stratified squamous epithelium
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28) Transitional epithelium is found
A) lining the urinary bladder.
B) lining the ducts that drain sweat glands.
C) lining kidney tubules.
D) lining the stomach.
E) at the surface of the skin.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7
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29) You would find pseudostratified columnar epithelium lining the
A) trachea.
B) urinary bladder.
C) secretory portions of the pancreas.
D) surface of the skin.
E) stomach.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30) The Pap test for cervical cancer utilizes
A) histology.
B) physiology.
C) anatomy.
D) embryology.
E) exfoliative cytology.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
31) Gland cells produce
A) mesenchyme.
B) antibodies.
C) secretions.
D) phagocytes.
E) fibers.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) Glands that secrete hormones into the interstitial fluid are ________ glands.
A) endocrine
B) interstitial
C) exocrine
D) merocrine
E) holocrine
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8
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33) The pancreas produces ________ secretions that include digestive enzymes and hormones,
respectively.
A) serous and sebaceous
B) mucous and acid
C) merocrine and holocrine
D) exocrine and endocrine
E) secretory and absorptive
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
34) Unicellular exocrine glands secrete
A) milk.
B) sweat.
C) mucus.
D) sebum.
E) insulin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
35) A gland formed by cells arranged in a one blind pocket with a single unbranched duct would
be called
A) simple tubular.
B) simple branched tubular.
C) compound tubular.
D) compound alveolar.
E) tubuloalveolar.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
36) Which of the following glands have a compound rather than a simple structure?
A) salivary glands
B) sebaceous glands
C) mucous glands
D) sweat glands
E) gastric glands
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
9
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37) Glands that secrete their product by the bursting of cells are ________ glands.
A) apocrine
B) sudoriferous
C) holocrine
D) endocrine
E) merocrine
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38) The process of lactation (milk production) depends on both merocrine and ________
secretion by mammary gland epithelial cells.
A) epicrine
B) eccrine
C) holocrine
D) apocrine
E) endocrine
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
39) Glands whose secretions contain mucins are classified as
A) serous glands.
B) compound glands.
C) mucous glands.
D) mixed glands.
E) endocrine glands.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
40) Epithelial tissue is always attached to which other major tissue type?
A) neural tissue
B) membrane tissue
C) fascial tissue
D) muscle tissue
E) connective tissue
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
10
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41) The combination of fibers and ground substance in supporting connective tissues is known as
A) collagen.
B) cartilage.
C) chondroitin.
D) matrix.
E) scaffold.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42) The three categories of connective tissues are
A) connective tissue proper, fluid connective tissue, and supporting connective tissue.
B) epithelial connective tissue, muscle connective tissue, and neural connective tissue.
C) glandular connective tissue, exocrine connective tissue, and endocrine connective tissue.
D) connective tissue proper, cartilage connective tissue, and bone connective tissue.
E) areolar connective tissue, adipose connective tissue, and dense connective tissue.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43) Which tissue is correctly paired with its category of connective tissue?
A) bone—connective tissue proper
B) fat—supporting connective tissue
C) lymph—fluid connective tissue
D) cartilage—fluid connective tissue
E) tendon—supporting connective tissue
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44) Which of the following tissues are classified as "connective tissue proper"?
1. areolar connective tissue
2. adipose tissue
3. fibrocartilage
4. dense irregular connective tissue
A) 3 and 4
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 1 and 2
D) 1, 2, and 4
E) 1 and 3
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11
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45) Blood is which type of tissue?
A) mesenchyme
B) nerve
C) epithelial
D) muscle
E) connective
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46) Which of the following connective tissue cells produces collagen?
A) adipocytes
B) fibroblasts
C) macrophages
D) mast cells
E) lymphocytes
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
47) Cells that store fat are called
A) fibrocytes.
B) macrocytes.
C) adipocytes.
D) podocytes.
E) melanocytes.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
48) Cells that respond to injury by dividing to assist in connective tissue repair are
A) mast cells.
B) fibroblasts.
C) plasmocytes.
D) mesenchymal cells.
E) lymphocytes.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
12
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49) Cells that engulf bacteria or cell debris within loose connective tissue are
A) fibroblasts.
B) macrophages.
C) adipocytes.
D) mast cells.
E) melanocytes.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
50) In areolar connective tissue, ________ cells release histamine to stimulate inflammation.
A) plasma
B) mast
C) mesenchymal
D) gland
E) goblet
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
51) Antibodies are produced by
A) macrophages.
B) microphages.
C) plasma cells.
D) mast cells.
E) fibroblasts.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
52) Two types of microphages include
A) mesenchymal cells and melanocytes.
B) mast cells and basophils.
C) fixed macrophages and free macrophages.
D) neutrophils and eosinophils.
E) microphages and adipocytes.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
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53) The three types of protein fibers in connective tissue are
A) tendons, ligaments, and elastic ligaments.
B) loose, dense, and irregular.
C) cartilage, bone, and collagen.
D) collagen, reticular, and elastic.
E) polar, cellular, and permeable.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
54) The viscous component of connective tissue matrix is called
A) basal layer.
B) ground substance.
C) collagen.
D) lymph.
E) plasma.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
55) Loose connective tissue functions in all of the following ways except
A) providing strong connections between muscles and bones.
B) supporting epithelia.
C) anchoring blood vessels and nerves.
D) cushioning and stabilizing.
E) filling spaces between organs.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
56) Wharton's jelly is a form of
A) Marfan's syndrome.
B) mucous connective tissue.
C) ground substance.
D) collagen fiber.
E) embryonic epithelium.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14
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57) The color distinction between white fat and brown fat exists because brown fat
A) includes active melanocytes.
B) is more superficial.
C) traps pollutants.
D) is highly vascular.
E) is more mature.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
58) If an obese person loses weight, a factor that increases the risk of regaining the weight is
A) weight loss causes the metabolic rate to slow.
B) during weight loss, calories are only temporarily displaced from fat to other tissues.
C) brown fat can become white fat if dietary intake increases again.
D) the adipose cells do not die but merely shrink, so they can easily store lipid again.
E) the body feels unfamiliar after weight loss.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
59) The internal framework or stroma of organs such as the spleen, liver, and lymph nodes is
made up of ________ tissue.
A) loose connective
B) regular dense connective
C) irregular dense connective
D) reticular tissue
E) adipose
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
60) A tissue that provides strength and support for areas subjected to stresses from many
directions is
A) any connective tissue proper.
B) elastic or hyaline cartilage.
C) dense irregular connective tissue.
D) reticular connective tissue.
E) dense regular connective tissue.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15
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61) The dominant type of extracellular protein fiber in dense connective tissue is
A) collagen.
B) elastin.
C) actin.
D) myosin.
E) connectin.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
62) Each of the following is an example of dense connective tissue except
A) tendons.
B) ligaments.
C) aponeuroses.
D) areolar tissue.
E) elastic tissue.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
63) Which kind of connective tissue has collagen fibers aligned parallel to each other?
A) adipose tissue
B) areolar tissue
C) superficial fascia
D) dense regular connective tissue
E) dense irregular connective tissue
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
64) Microscopic examination of a tissue reveals a loose framework of fibers embedded in a large
volume of fluid ground substance, with a wide variety of cell types. This tissue would most
likely have come from the
A) inner wall of a blood vessel.
B) lungs.
C) spleen.
D) superficial fascia between skin and muscle.
E) bony socket of the eye.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
16
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65) The framework of connective tissue between the skin and underlying muscles is called the
A) dermis.
B) superficial fascia.
C) deep fascia.
D) cutaneous layer.
E) subserous fascia.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
66) Which of the following refers to the dense connective tissue that surrounds a muscle and
blends with the tendon?
A) superficial fascia
B) hypodermis
C) deep fascia
D) subserous fascia
E) subcutaneous layer
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
67) The watery fluid component of blood is called
A) hemosol.
B) liquid elements.
C) formed elements.
D) hemoplasm.
E) plasma.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
68) The three kinds of formed elements in blood are erythrocytes, leukocytes, and
A) lymphocytes.
B) platelets.
C) phagocytes.
D) plasma cells.
E) mast cells.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
17
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69) What type of cell makes up almost half the volume of blood?
A) erythrocyte
B) leukocyte
C) platelet
D) monocyte
E) phagocyte
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
70) Lymphocytes can develop into cells that secrete defense proteins against disease. These cells
are termed ________, while these proteins are called antibodies.
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) plasma cells
D) immunocytes
E) phagocytes
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
71) Defense cells in blood are called white blood cells or
A) leukocytes.
B) lymphocytes.
C) erythrocytes.
D) thrombocytes.
E) immunocytes.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
72) The three major subdivisions of extracellular fluid found in the body are plasma, interstitial
fluid, and
A) synovial fluid.
B) urine.
C) sweat.
D) lymph.
E) serous fluid.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18
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73) Which blood vessels have porous walls that allow water and small solutes to seep through?
A) veins
B) arterioles
C) venules
D) arteries
E) capillaries
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
74) Interstitial fluid that enters a lymphatic vessel is called
A) plasma.
B) lymph.
C) blood.
D) humoral fluid.
E) plasmin fluid.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
75) How can cartilage maintain its function even though it is avascular?
A) Cartilage is only the thickness of a few cell layers.
B) Nutrients and waste products diffuse through the cartilage's matrix.
C) Cartilage has extensive blood vessels.
D) Cartilage does not contain living cells.
E) The perichondrium prevents any exchange of nutrients and waste products.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
76) Chondroitin sulfate is abundant in the matrix of
A) epithelial tissue.
B) cartilage.
C) areolar tissue.
D) elastic connective tissue.
E) adipose tissue.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19
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77) A tissue with a firm gel matrix and cells inside lacunae is
A) areolar connective tissue.
B) cartilage.
C) bone.
D) epithelium.
E) dense regular connective tissue.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
78) Antiangiogenesis factor is a chemical produced by ________ that blocks the growth of blood
vessels.
A) leukocytes
B) lymphocytes
C) chondrocytes
D) erythrocytes
E) mesenchymal cells
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
79) Cartilage is separated from surrounding tissues by a fibrous
A) perichondrium.
B) ground substance.
C) periosteum.
D) chondroplasm.
E) matrix.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
80) The most common type of cartilage is ________ cartilage.
A) ligamentous
B) hyaline
C) elastic
D) fibrous
E) osseous
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20
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81) Which type of connective tissue is found in the trachea and between the ribs and sternum?
A) areolar connective tissue
B) hyaline cartilage
C) elastic cartilage
D) fibrous cartilage
E) dense regular connective tissue
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
82) The auricle, or outer ear, contains
A) muscle.
B) hyaline cartilage.
C) bone.
D) fibrous cartilage.
E) elastic cartilage.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
83) A herniated disc is an injury of the pads of cartilage between the vertebrae in which the
cartilage bulges from normal position. What type of cartilage is affected?
A) mesenchymal
B) fibrous
C) elastic
D) hyaline
E) articular
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
84) Growth of cartilage by accumulation of new matrix around chondrocytes that are embedded
in existing matrix is called ________ growth.
A) appositional
B) intrasitional
C) transitional
D) transformational
E) interstitial
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
21
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85) In ________ growth, cartilage grows wider or thicker in diameter.
A) appositional
B) intrasitional
C) transitional
D) transformational
E) interstitial
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
86) Osseous tissue is also called
A) cartilage.
B) fat.
C) cellulite.
D) bone.
E) ligament.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
87) Chondrocytes are to cartilage as osteocytes are to
A) blood.
B) epithelium.
C) fat.
D) bone.
E) neural tissue.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
88) Unlike cartilage, bone
A) is a connective tissue.
B) has a matrix that contains collagen.
C) undergoes remodeling throughout life.
D) has an outer covering.
E) has cells within lacunae.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
22
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89) Tendons and ligaments attach to the ________ of bone.
A) osteocytes
B) lacunae
C) periosteum
D) calcium phosphate
E) central canals
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
90) Epithelia and connective tissues combine to form ________ that cover and protect other
structures and tissues in the body.
A) fasciae
B) aponeuroses
C) organ capsules
D) cutaneous layers
E) tissue membranes
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
91) The loose connective tissue component of a mucous membrane is called the
A) lamina densa.
B) basal lamina.
C) areolar lamina.
D) lamina propria.
E) mucina lamina.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
92) Tissue membranes combine
A) muscle and connective tissue.
B) neural and epithelial tissue.
C) epithelial and connective tissue.
D) neural and muscle tissue.
E) epithelial and muscle tissue.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23
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93) Which of the following membranes line cavities that communicate with the exterior of the
body?
A) mucous
B) serous
C) cutaneous
D) synovial
E) pleural
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
94) Which of the following membranes covers the surface of visceral organs?
A) synovial
B) plasma
C) serous
D) cutaneous
E) mucous
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
95) The reduction of friction between the parietal and visceral surfaces of an internal cavity is the
function of
A) cutaneous membranes.
B) mucous membranes.
C) serous membranes.
D) synovial membranes.
E) the lamina propria.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
96) The serous membrane lining the abdominal cavity is the
A) pleura.
B) peritoneum.
C) pericardium.
D) periosteum.
E) perichondrium.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24
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97) The term transudate describes fluid associated with
A) mucus membranes.
B) mammary glands.
C) cutaneous membranes.
D) serous membranes.
E) endocrine glands.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
98) Which type of tissue membrane is characteristically dry?
A) synovial
B) cutaneous
C) serous
D) mucous
E) pleural
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
99) The fluid that lubricates movable joints is produced by
A) mucous membrane.
B) cutaneous membrane.
C) synovial membrane.
D) serous membrane.
E) plasma membrane.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
100) Tissue that is specialized for contraction is ________ tissue.
A) loose connective
B) dense connective
C) epithelial
D) nerve
E) muscle
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
25
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101) What is the cause of the striated appearance of skeletal and cardiac muscle?
A) the nuclei of the muscle cells
B) the connections of neurons to muscle cells
C) the arrangement of intercalated discs
D) the repeating arrangement of the contractile proteins, actin and myosin
E) the stacking of muscle cells
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
102) Voluntary movements are carried out by the contraction of
A) nonstriated muscle.
B) all types of muscle.
C) smooth muscle.
D) skeletal muscle.
E) cardiac muscle.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
103) Myosatellite cells are found in association with ________ muscle.
A) skeletal
B) smooth
C) cardiac
D) involuntary
E) both smooth and cardiac
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
104) Intercalated discs and pacemaker cells are characteristic of ________ tissue.
A) smooth muscle
B) cardiac muscle
C) skeletal muscle
D) all types of muscle
E) nerve
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26
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105) The muscle tissue that shows no striations is ________ muscle.
A) skeletal
B) cardiac
C) smooth
D) voluntary
E) multinucleated
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
106) Which kind of muscle is best able to regenerate after an injury?
A) both types of striated muscle
B) skeletal muscle
C) no type of muscle can regenerate
D) cardiac muscle
E) smooth muscle
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
107) The muscle found in the walls of most hollow organs of the body is
A) smooth muscle.
B) involuntary striated muscle.
C) skeletal muscle.
D) cardiac muscle.
E) voluntary striated muscle.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
108) Tissue that is specialized for the conduction of electrical impulses is ________ tissue.
A) connective
B) neural
C) areolar
D) osseous
E) epithelial
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27
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109) Most of the nervous tissue of the body is in the
A) nerves and muscles.
B) hands.
C) brain and spinal cord.
D) skin.
E) eyes, ears, nose and tongue.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
110) The function of ________ is to propagate electrical signals from one place to another.
A) muscle cells
B) neurons
C) transmitter cells
D) teleocytes
E) neuroglia
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
111) ________ support, protect, and nourish nerve cells.
A) Nurse cells
B) Neuroglia
C) Neurons
D) Nurturons
E) Nutrient cells
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
112) All of the following are true of neurons except that
A) they cannot divide.
B) they conduct a nervous impulse.
C) they are composed of a cell body and axon.
D) they are a very specialized form of connective tissue.
E) they receive information from other neurons through their dendrites.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28
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113) The body's longest cells are
A) muscle cells.
B) connective tissue.
C) epithelia.
D) neurons.
E) neuroglia.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
114) The body's first tissue response to any injury is
A) fever.
B) inflammation.
C) bleeding.
D) shivering.
E) regeneration.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
115) Inflammation is
A) a repair process that restores normal function to injured tissue.
B) a fever.
C) an infection of a wound.
D) a process that clears damaged cells and dangerous microorganisms from an injury.
E) the process of blood clotting.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
116) During an inflammatory response to injury, which of the following is the least likely in the
region of the injury?
A) increase in basophils
B) increase in histamine
C) increase in blood flow
D) cold, pale skin
E) swelling
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 4-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
29
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117) The permanent replacement of normal tissue by fibrous tissue is called
A) inflammation.
B) apoptosis.
C) fibrosis.
D) cystosis.
E) necrosis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
118) Tissue changes with age include all of the following except
A) less efficient tissue maintenance.
B) proliferation of epidermal cells.
C) thinner epithelia.
D) more fragile connective tissues.
E) decreased ability to repair tissue damage.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
119) As a person ages, exercise contributes to
A) inflammation of the muscles.
B) faster aging due to exhaustion.
C) an increased incidence of cancer.
D) cumulative damage of tissues throughout the body.
E) maintaining bone strength.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
120) The majority of cancers are caused by
A) a sedentary lifestyle.
B) negative thoughts.
C) genetic factors.
D) contact with a person who has cancer.
E) chemical exposure or other environmental factors.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-12
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
30
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In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) Which is the only type of cell junction shown here that allows the diffusion of ions and
molecules between cells? (Figure 4-3)
A) tight junction
B) gap junction
C) hemidesmosome
D) spot desmosome
E) adhesion belt
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) In "simple columnar epithelium," which word describes cell shape and which word describes
the number of cell layers? (Figure 4-6)
A) columnar; simple
B) simple; columnar
C) simple; epithelium
D) epithelium; columnar
E) columnar; epithelium
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) Which method of secretion destroys the cell? (Figure 4-8)
A) merocrine
B) apocrine
C) holocrine
D) endocrine
E) exocytosis
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) Which type of loose connective tissue provides padding, cushions shock, reduces heat loss,
and stores energy? Where are some places in the body this type of tissue is commonly found?
(Figure 4-11)
A) reticular tissue; spleen, lymph nodes, bone marrow
B) areolar tissue; deep to the dermis, between muscles and around joints
C) adipose tissue; deep to the skin at sides, buttocks, and breasts
D) areolar tissue; liver and kidney
E) reticular tissue; around eyes and kidneys
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
31
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5) Which formed element of the blood contains a nucleus? (Figure 4-14)
A) red blood cells
B) platelets
C) white blood cells
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 4-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) What is the only type of cell found in cartilage matrix? (Figure 4-16)
A) fibroblasts
B) osteoblasts
C) osteoclasts
D) chondroblasts
E) chondrocytes
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) What is the name of the epithelium that lines the peritoneal cavity? (Figure 4-18)
A) endothelium
B) mesothelium
C) synovial
D) cutaneous
E) lamina propria
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 4-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) Which muscle tissue consists of multinucleate cells? (Figure 4-19)
A) skeletal muscle
B) cardiac muscle
C) smooth muscle
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 4-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32
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Essay Questions
1) Explain why sunburned skin peels rather than being shed as a powder.
Answer: The abundant desmosomes between cells in the superficial layers of the skin hold the
cells together as a sheet instead of loosely organized cells.
Learning Outcome: 4-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) Indicate an advantage for having simple rather than stratified epithelium lining the gasexchange surfaces of the lungs.
Answer: The epithelia are thin, keeping diffusion distance between blood and airspaces to a
minimum. This speeds gas exchange across the layers.
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3) A biology student accidentally loses the labels of two prepared slides she is studying. One is a
slide of an intestine, the other of an esophagus. You volunteer to help her sort them out. How
would you decide which slide is which?
Answer: Because animal intestine is modified for absorption, you would look for a slide that
shows a single layer of epithelium lining the cavity. The cells would be cuboidal or columnar
and would probably have microvilli on the surface to increase surface area. Because the
esophagus receives undigested food, it would have a stratified epithelium consisting of squamous
cells to protect it.
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
4) Analysis of a glandular secretion indicates that it contains some DNA, RNA, and membrane
components such as phospholipids. What kind of secretion is this and why?
Answer: The presence of DNA, RNA, and membrane components suggest that the cell was
destroyed during the process of secretion. This is consistent with a holocrine type of secretion.
Learning Outcome: 4-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
5) Harriet had liposuction several years ago, but has since gained back all the weight lost through
the procedure. She does not understand her weight gain because adipocytes are incapable of
dividing. Provide a plausible explanation.
Answer: While it is true that adipocytes do not divide and the number of fat cells in peripheral
tissues is limited, mesenchymal cells can divide and give rise to cells that differentiate into fat
cells. Thus, areolar connective tissue can become adipose tissue in times of nutritional excess.
Along with this, the fat cells that remain after surgery can enlarge by storing more triglyceride if
the patient continues to overeat.
Learning Outcome: 4-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
33
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6) Which is likely to heal faster, a bone injury or a cartilage injury? Why?
Answer: Bone injuries heal relatively quickly because of the good nutrient supply by way of
nearby blood vessels and the canaliculi, whereas cartilage is supplied nutrients via diffusion from
the outside, a far slower process. In addition, in bone the cellular layer of the surface periosteum
takes part in remodeling and repair, whereas chondrocytes do not usually divide in an adult.
Learning Outcome: 4-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
7) The four types of tissue membrane consist of an epithelium supported by connective tissue.
What do the qualities of each of these two tissues contribute to the function of the membrane?
Use one type of tissue membrane as an example.
Answer: The connective tissue provides structural support and strength, and its blood supply
sustains the membrane. The epithelial tissue gives a smooth surface that protects against friction
by being slippery (or keratinized, for cutaneous membrane), it is secretory (mucus, serous fluid,
synovial fluid, sweat and skin oil), and it may control the passage of materials (for example,
cutaneous membrane reducing water loss from the body).
Learning Outcome: 4-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
8) Why is cardiac muscle tissue that has been damaged by injury or disease incapable of
regeneration?
Answer: Cardiac muscle can't regenerate because it contains no stem cells (satellite cells). Since
mature cardiac muscle cells can't divide, there is no basis for tissue regeneration.
Learning Outcome: 4-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
9) Compare the three types of muscle tissue. List three similarities and three differences among
them.
Answer: Similarities: All have contractile proteins; skeletal and cardiac have striations; cardiac
and smooth are involuntary; cardiac and smooth are uninucleate.
Differences: Skeletal is voluntary; cardiac has intercalated discs; smooth is nonstriated; skeletal
is multinucleate.
Learning Outcome: 4-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
10) What is the difference between neurons and neuroglia?
Answer: Neurons are specialized to respond to chemical and electrical signals and communicate
by propagating an electric impulse along their axon. Neuroglia are a diverse group of cell types
within neural tissue that support, nourish, and protect neurons.
Learning Outcome: 4-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
11) During the inflammatory process, blood vessels dilate. What does this accomplish?
Answer: It allows for increased blood flow for delivery of nutrients, oxygen, and defense cells
and proteins and for the removal of waste products and debris from the site of injury.
Learning Outcome: 4-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
34
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 5 The Integumentary System
Multiple Choice Questions
1) Accumulations of fluid within the epidermis or between the epidermis and the dermis is/are
called
A) keloids.
B) scabs.
C) blisters.
D) scars.
E) pus.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) Rapid water loss from burned skin is an extreme form of ________ perspiration.
A) imprudent
B) non-sense
C) impractical
D) vacuous
E) insensible
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3) Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except
A) protection of underlying tissue.
B) excretion of salts and wastes.
C) maintenance of body temperature.
D) synthesis of vitamin C.
E) detection of sensations.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
4) The two components of the integumentary system are the
A) epidermis and dermis.
B) cutaneous membrane and hypodermis.
C) cutaneous membrane and accessory structures.
D) integument and hypodermis.
E) epidermis and superficial fascia.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) The type of cells that form the strata in the epidermis are
A) adipocytes.
B) keratinocytes.
C) fibroblasts.
D) melanocytes.
E) dendritic cells.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) The tough superficial layer of the epidermis is known as the stratum
A) corneum.
B) lucidum.
C) basale.
D) granulosum.
E) spinosum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) The largest quantities of keratin are found in the epidermal layer called the stratum
A) corneum.
B) lucidum.
C) basale.
D) granulosum.
E) spinosum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
8) Water loss due to evaporation of fluid that has penetrated through the skin is called ________
perspiration.
A) sensible
B) insensible
C) latent
D) active
E) inactive
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
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9) The layer of the epidermis that contains several layers of living cells connected by abundant
desmosomes is the stratum
A) corneum.
B) lucidum.
C) basale.
D) granulosum.
E) spinosum.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
10) The layer of the skin that provides a barrier against bacteria as well as chemical and
mechanical injuries is the
A) dermis.
B) subcutaneous layer.
C) epidermis.
D) stratum basale.
E) sebaceous layer.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) Characteristics of the epidermis include
A) multilayered.
B) flexible.
C) contains desmosomes.
D) serves as UV radiation protection.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
12) All of the following are true of epidermal ridges except that they
A) extend into the hypodermis.
B) increase surface area and friction on fingertips.
C) cause ridge patterns on the surface of the skin.
D) produce patterns that are determined partially genetically.
E) interconnect with the dermal papillae.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3
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13) ________ are cells in the epidermis that are part of the immune system.
A) Dendritic cells
B) Basal cells
C) Merkel cells
D) Squamous cells
E) Melanocytes
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) Water loss from insensible perspiration
A) is unaffected by damage to the epidermis.
B) is too small to be measured reliably.
C) is approximately 0.5 liters a day.
D) always exceeds sensible perspiration.
E) depends on apocrine sweat glands.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
15) The epidermis of the skin is composed of what type of tissue?
A) keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
B) simple squamous epithelium
C) transitional epithelium
D) areolar connective tissue
E) nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) The layer of stem cells that constantly divide to renew the epidermis is the
A) stratum corneum.
B) stratum basale.
C) papillary layer.
D) basal lamina.
E) stratum granulosum.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) The protein that reduces water loss at the skin surface is
A) eleidin.
B) collagen.
C) mucin.
D) keratin.
E) melanin.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) Thin skin contains ________ epidermal layer(s) and thick skin contains ________ layers.
A) 1; 2
B) 2; 3
C) 3; 4
D) 4; 5
E) 5; 6
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
19) While walking barefoot on the beach, Joe stepped on a thorn that penetrated through the sole
of his foot to the dermis. How many layers of epidermis did the thorn penetrate?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
20) Which of following is not an accessory structure of the integumentary system?
A) sweat glands
B) hair follicles
C) exocrine glands
D) nails
E) dermis
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5
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21) All of the following contain blood vessels except the
A) epidermis.
B) papillary layer.
C) reticular layer.
D) subcutaneous layer.
E) hypodermis.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
22) The sensory cells associated with the deep layers of the epidermis are
A) Pacinian corpuscles.
B) Merkel cells.
C) melanocytes.
D) Meissner's corpuscles.
E) keratinocytes.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) The layer of epidermis where most cells have stopped dividing and started making large
amounts of keratin is the
A) stratum spinosum.
B) stratum corneum.
C) stratum granulosum.
D) stratum lucidum.
E) stratum basale.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) The layer of epidermis where keratohyalin crosslinks keratin fibers is the
A) stratum spinosum.
B) stratum corneum.
C) stratum granulosum.
D) stratum lucidum.
E) stratum basale.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6
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25) The amount of time it takes for a cell to progress from stratum basale to stratum corneum is
A) 7-10 days.
B) 14 days.
C) 5 days.
D) 1 day.
E) 1 minute.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7
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Figure 5-1 The Components of the Integumentary System
Use Figure 5-1 to answer the following questions:
26) From what structure does sensible perspiration occur?
A) 6
B) 7
C) 8
D) 9
E) 10
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
8
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27) Which layer is the primary barrier against environmental hazards?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
28) Which layer contains most of the accessory structures?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
29) Adipose tissue is a major component of the region labeled
A) 1.
B) 2.
C) 3.
D) 4.
E) 5.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 5-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
30) Which tissue is located in the region labeled "2"?
A) stratified squamous epithelium
B) areolar connective tissue
C) adipose tissue
D) cartilage and blood
E) reticular connective tissues
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
9
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31) The layer of the skin that contains bundles of collagen and elastic fibers responsible for the
strength of the skin is the ________ layer.
A) papillary
B) reticular
C) epidermal
D) subcutaneous
E) hypodermal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) The drug tretinoin (Retin-A)
A) reduces the appearance of fine wrinkles.
B) minimizes scarring after surgery.
C) stimulates hair growth.
D) improves night vision.
E) is used to treat dandruff.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
33) Skin inflammation that primarily involves the papillary layer is termed
A) papillitis.
B) dermatitis.
C) epidermatitis.
D) superficialis.
E) melanocytis.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34) A surgical incision parallel to the lines of cleavage
A) closes and heals with relatively little scarring.
B) has a tendency to reopen.
C) heals slower than incisions made perpendicular to the lines of cleavage.
D) does not affect the healing process.
E) requires no sutures.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
10
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35) While assessing a patient, you discover that after pinching the skin on the back of the hand, it
remains peaked. This is a sign of
A) hydration intoxication.
B) water intoxication.
C) dehydration.
D) advanced skin cancer.
E) malfunctioning elastin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
36) Stretch marks occur when
A) the skin is stretched in normal movements.
B) surgical incisions are made perpendicular to the skin's lines of cleavage.
C) the skin is so extensively stretched that its elastic limits are exceeded.
D) athletes overextend a muscle.
E) individual epidermal layers separate.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
37) The cutaneous plexus is
A) a network of nerves in the cutaneous membrane.
B) a superficial network of dermal arteries.
C) a deep network of dermal arteries along the boundary of the reticular layer.
D) a neural plexus responsible for deep pressure.
E) a network of arteries in the epidermis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
38) The subpapillary plexus is
A) a network of nerves in the cutaneous membrane.
B) a superficial network of dermal arteries.
C) a deep network of dermal arteries along the boundary of the reticular layer.
D) a neural plexus responsible for deep pressure.
E) a network of arteries in the epidermis.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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39) What are the dermal sensory structures that sense deep pressure?
A) Meissner's corpuscles
B) lamellar corpuscle
C) tactile corpuscles
D) tactile dics
E) Merkel cells
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40) All of the following are true of the subcutaneous layer except it
A) contains many blood vessels.
B) permits independent movement of deeper structures.
C) contains large amounts of adipose tissue.
D) is attached to the dermis by a basement membrane.
E) is well supplied with nerves that pass into the skin.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
41) The layer of loose connective tissue deep to the dermis is the
A) epidermis.
B) subcutaneous layer.
C) hyperdermis.
D) deep fascia.
E) reticular layer.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42) The primary pigments contained in the epidermis are
A) carotene, hemoglobin, and xanthophyll.
B) carotene, eumelanin, and pheomelanin.
C) melanin, chromatin, and chlorophyll.
D) xanthophyll, hemoglobin, and melanin.
E) melanin, carotene, and chromatin.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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43) An albino individual lacks the ability to produce
A) melanin.
B) keratin.
C) carotene.
D) perspiration.
E) eleidin.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44) Cyanosis signifies that a patient has
A) had too much sun.
B) been kept out of the sun.
C) an allergic reaction.
D) oxygen-starved skin.
E) been exposed to cyanide.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
45) Jaundice is indicated by a(n) ________ skin coloration.
A) reddish
B) yellowish
C) orange
D) bluish
E) brown
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46) Exposure to ultraviolet light (sunlight) causes the skin to darken by increasing the production
of
A) hemoglobin.
B) carotene.
C) collagen.
D) keratin.
E) melanin.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 5-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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47) The ________ in keratinocytes protects the epidermis and dermis from the harmful effects of
sunlight.
A) sebum
B) hemoglobin
C) melanin
D) carotene
E) keratin
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
48) The pigment found in vegetables that can make the skin appear orange or yellow is called
A) cadmium.
B) carotene.
C) hemoglobin.
D) keratin.
E) melanin.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
49) Melanin is produced by melanocytes within the stratum
A) corneum.
B) lucidum.
C) granulosum.
D) spinosum.
E) basale.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 5-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
50) Which one of the following is the red-yellow form of melanin?
A) eumelanin
B) phycomelanin
C) anthomelanin
D) pheomelanin
E) promelanin
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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51) Which of the following is the brown-black form of melanin?
A) eumelanin
B) phycomelanin
C) anthomelanin
D) pheomelanin
E) promelanin
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
52) Which of the following is not true of melanin?
A) There is more than 1 type of melanin.
B) Melanin is released by exocytosis.
C) It is manufactured from tyrosine.
D) It is packaged in vesicles called melanosomes.
E) It absorbs UV radiation.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
53) Which of the following causes yellowing of the skin?
A) vitiligo
B) pituitary tumor affecting melanocyte stimulating hormone
C) Addison's disease
D) cyanosis
E) faulty bile excretion in the liver
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 5-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
54) Which pigment is responsible for blushing?
A) eumelanin
B) pheomelanin
C) carotene
D) hemoglobin
E) melanocyte stimulating hormone
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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55) Which of the following is not an effect of ultraviolet radiation?
A) increased activity by melanocytes
B) production of cholecalciferol within epidermal cells
C) reduced amounts of elastic fibers in the dermis
D) chromosomal damage in germinative cells or melanocytes
E) loss in skin pigmentation as seen in vitiligo
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 5-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
56) Which of the following is formed in the skin when it is exposed to sunlight?
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B
C) vitamin C
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin E
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
57) Which of the following statements about rickets is not true?
A) It is usually genetic.
B) It leads to weak bones.
C) It leads to skeletal deformity.
D) It is prevented by vitamin D.
E) It is prevented by sunlight.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
58) A deficiency disease that illustrates the effect of integumentary system function on the
structure of the skeletal system is
A) osteoporosis.
B) seborrheic dermatitis.
C) decubitus ulcers.
D) rickets.
E) beriberi.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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59) The most dangerous type of skin cancer is called
A) keratosis.
B) psoriasis.
C) squamous cell carcinoma.
D) melanoma.
E) basal cell carcinoma.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
60) Vitamin D3 is important for proper ________ development.
A) skin
B) bone
C) muscle
D) vision
E) neural
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
61) Skin cancer that starts in the mitotically most active epidermal layer is called
A) keratosis.
B) psoriasis.
C) squamous cell carcinoma.
D) melanoma.
E) basal cell carcinoma.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 5-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
62) Children in northern regions experience months of inadequate sunlight exposure on the skin.
To prevent possible abnormal bone development, what essential organic nutrient is necessary in
the diet?
A) vitamin C
B) calcium
C) cholecalciferol
D) protein
E) retinol-A
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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63) The layer of hard keratin that acts as the surface of the hair is termed the
A) medulla.
B) cuticle.
C) hair bulb.
D) root.
E) shaft.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
64) Variations in hair color reflect differences in the pigment produced by
A) keratinocytes.
B) melanocytes.
C) dermal papillae.
D) soft keratin.
E) carotene cells.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
65) Which of the following is correct about Lanugo hairs?
A) also known as "peach fuzz"
B) persists throughout the entire life
C) deeply pigmented and somewhat coarse
D) exists primarily in fetuses
E) never found on the feet
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
66) If the papilla of a hair follicle is destroyed,
A) the hair produced by the follicle will change from terminal to vellus.
B) the color of the hair will become lighter.
C) the texture of the hair will become coarser.
D) the hair matrix will lose its blood supply.
E) hair production will not be affected.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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67) When the arrector pili muscles contract,
A) "goose bumps" are formed.
B) hairs are shed.
C) sweat is released from sweat glands.
D) shivering occurs.
E) the skin changes color.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
68) Which of the following statements concerning hair is false?
A) The medulla is the soft core of the hair.
B) The cortex of the hair is composed of hard keratin.
C) Terminal hairs are heavy and more darkly pigmented than other types of hair.
D) Club hair is hair that has ceased growing.
E) Scalp hairs grow constantly throughout life.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 5-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
69) Fine hairs (like "velvet") that lack pigment and cover much of the body surface are called
________ hairs.
A) veneer
B) gossamer
C) lanugo
D) vellus
E) terminal
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
70) Coarse pigmented hairs are called ________ hairs.
A) veneer
B) gossamer
C) lanugo
D) vellus
E) terminal
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 5-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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71) The network of sensory nerves that surrounds the base of each hair follicle is the
A) root hair plexus.
B) hair papilla.
C) hair matrix.
D) cutaneous plexus.
E) subpapillary plexus.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
72) Arrange the layers of the hair follicle from outermost to innermost layers.
1. cuticle
2. glassy membrane
3. medulla
4. connective tissue sheath
5. external root sheath
6. internal root sheath
7. cortex
A) 1,5,7,6,2,3,4
B) 4,2,5,6,1,7,3
C) 4,2,6,5,1,7,3
D) 4,6,2,5,7,1,3
E) 4,2,5,6,3,7,1
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
73) A common cause of dandruff is
A) inflammation around sebaceous glands.
B) lack of sebaceous glands.
C) too many sebaceous glands.
D) inactive apocrine glands.
E) inactive eccrine glands.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
74) Glands that discharge an oily secretion into hair follicles are ________ glands.
A) ceruminous
B) apocrine sweat
C) merocrine sweat
D) sebaceous
E) mammary
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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75) The ________ glands in the axilla become active at the time of puberty.
A) ceruminous
B) apocrine sweat
C) merocrine sweat
D) sebaceous
E) axillary
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
76) Sensible perspiration is produced by ________ glands.
A) ceruminous
B) apocrine sweat
C) merocrine sweat
D) sebaceous
E) mammary
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
77) Earwax is produced by ________ glands.
A) sebaceous
B) apocrine sweat
C) merocrine sweat
D) ceruminous
E) eccrine sweat
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
78) The highest concentration of merocrine sweat glands is found
A) in the axillae.
B) on the chest.
C) on the palms of the hands.
D) on the upper back.
E) surrounding the genitals.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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79) ________ sweat glands are widely distributed across the body surface, ________ glands are
located wherever hair follicles exist, and ________ sweat glands are found only in a few areas.
A) Sebaceous; merocrine; apocrine
B) Apocrine; merocrine; sebaceous
C) Merocrine; sebaceous; apocrine
D) Merocrine; apocrine; sebaceous
E) Apocrine; sebaceous; merocrine
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
80) Which of the following happens if body temperature rises above normal?
A) Circulation in the skin decreases.
B) Sweat gland activity decreases.
C) Evaporative cooling stops.
D) Blood flow to the skin increases.
E) The activity of melanocytes increases.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
81) Merocrine sweat glands
A) are compound alveolar glands.
B) produce organic secretions that are metabolized by bacteria to produce body odor.
C) secrete a watery fluid directly onto the surface of the skin.
D) increase in number and activity with aging.
E) primarily function in lubricating the hairs.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
82) All of the following are true of perspiration produced by merocrine sweat glands except that
it
A) is more than 99 percent water.
B) contains electrolytes and waste products.
C) helps cool the body when it evaporates.
D) helps to prevent bacteria from colonizing the skin.
E) produces the body odor characteristic of "sweating."
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 5-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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83) Which of the following is not a function of the sebum?
A) It inhibits growth of bacteria.
B) It lubricates the hair shaft.
C) It conditions the surrounding skin.
D) It helps the skin shed excess heat.
E) It protects the hair shaft.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
84) Which of the following is not a function of the exocrine sweat gland?
A) It cools the surface of the skin.
B) It conditions the surrounding skin with its lipid secretion.
C) It excretes electrolytes.
D) It interferes with adhesion of microorganisms.
E) It uses dermicidin as antibiotic protection.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
85) The nail body covers the
A) nail root.
B) nail bed.
C) lunula.
D) free edge.
E) hyponychium.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
86) Nail production occurs at the nail
A) body.
B) bed.
C) root.
D) cuticle.
E) hyponychium.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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87) The cuticle around a nail is the
A) eponychium.
B) hyponychium.
C) free edge.
D) perinychium.
E) lunula.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
88) The stratum corneum just under the free edge of a nail is the
A) hyponychium.
B) lunula.
C) eponychium.
D) nail root.
E) cuticle.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
89) A child who skins his knee in a fall has a(n)
A) abrasion.
B) laceration.
C) puncture.
D) incision.
E) contusion.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
90) In a penetrating wound, ________ divide to produce mobile cells that repair the dermis.
A) granulation cells
B) dendritic cells
C) macrophages
D) fibroblasts
E) muscle cells
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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91) The type of burn that may require a skin graft is a ________ burn.
A) first-degree
B) second-degree
C) third-degree
D) partial-thickness
E) epidermal
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
92) If a fair-skinned person is outside on a hot sunny day, why does his or her skin turn red?
A) The blood flow to the skin increases.
B) The number of red melanocytes in the skin increases.
C) Melanocytes increase production of red pigments.
D) Carotene production greatly increases.
E) Decreased heat causes the skin to turn red.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
93) Skin can regenerate effectively even after considerable damage has occurred because
A) the epidermis of the skin has a rich supply of small blood vessels.
B) stem cells persist in the skin even after injury.
C) fibroblasts in the dermis can give rise to new germinal cells in the epidermis.
D) contraction in the area of the injury brings cells of adjacent strata together.
E) cells of the stratum basale cannot migrate to other positions in the skin.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
94) The following are stages in the regeneration of skin following an injury. What is the correct
order for these events?
1. inflammation
2. cellular migration
3. epidermis covers granulation tissue
4. epidermis covers scar tissue
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 4, 3, 2, 1
C) 4, 3, 1, 2
D) 3, 4, 1, 2
E) 2, 4, 1, 3
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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95) Scar tissue is the result of
A) large numbers of inflexible fibers and relatively few blood vessels in the injured area.
B) increased numbers of keratinocytes in the epidermal layers in the area of the injury.
C) a thickened stratum basale in the area of the injury.
D) increased numbers of fibroblasts in the reticular layer of the injured area.
E) a lack of sebaceous glands in the injured area.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
96) During repair of the integument, fibroblasts follow areas of new capillary growth and
produce ________ tissue.
A) scar
B) epithelial
C) granulation
D) pus
E) keloid
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
97) Charlie is badly burned in an accident. When he reaches the emergency room, the examining
physician finds that he can remove entire hair follicles from Charlie's arm when he gently pulls
on a hair with his forceps. Charlie is suffering from a(n) ________ burn.
A) first-degree
B) second-degree
C) third-degree
D) partial-thickness
E) epidermal
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
98) A thickened area of scar tissue that is covered by a shiny, smooth epidermal surface is called
a
A) keloid.
B) contusion.
C) hematoma.
D) psoriasis.
E) sclerotome.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26
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99) A fibrin clot that is formed over a skin wound is called a
A) scar.
B) keloid.
C) graft.
D) scab.
E) plug.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
100) The combination of blood clot, fibroblasts, and extensive capillary network that is formed
in injured skin is called ________ tissue.
A) germinative
B) spinous
C) fibrocytic
D) granulation
E) abscess
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
101) A bacterial infection that is often fatal in burn patients is called
A) sepsis.
B) necrosis.
C) toxis.
D) pernicious.
E) noxious.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
102) The effects of aging on the skin include
A) a decline in the activity of sebaceous glands.
B) increased production of vitamin D.
C) thickening of the epidermis.
D) an increased blood supply to the dermis.
E) a decreased number of sweat glands.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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103) Wrinkles in individuals are the result of
A) increased production of epidermal layers.
B) loss of elastic fibers in the reticular layer of the dermis.
C) increased keratinization of the epidermis.
D) the loss of glands and hair follicles from the skin.
E) decreased thickness of the dermis.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
104) Why would an elderly person be more prone to skin infections than a younger person?
A) Skin repairs take longer in the elderly.
B) The epidermis is thinner in the elderly.
C) There are fewer dendritic cells in the skin of the elderly.
D) Basal cell activity is reduced in the elderly.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 5-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) What types of glands are found in the skin? (Figure 5-1)
A) salivary glands and submucosal glands
B) endocrine glands and salivary glands
C) mucus glands and submucosal glands
D) sebaceous glands and sweat glands
E) cerumen glands and endocrine glands
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Which plexus supplies blood to the capillary loops that follow the epidermis-dermis
boundary? (Figure 5-6)
A) submucosal plexus
B) mucosal plexus
C) subcapillary plexus
D) cutaneous plexus
E) epidermal plexus
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 5-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28
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3) In which layer of the skin are melanocytes found? (Figure 5-8)
A) stratum basale
B) stratum spinosum
C) stratum granulosum
D) stratum lucidum
E) stratum corneum
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 5-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) What are the body's two sources of cholecalciferol (vitamin D3)? (Figure 5-10)
A) air and water
B) air and food
C) sunlight and water
D) sunlight and food
E) air and sunlight
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 5-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5) Where do sebaceous glands and sebaceous follicles discharge their secretions? (Figure 5-13)
A) epidermis; hair follicle
B) hair follicle; epidermis
C) hair root; dermis
D) dermis; hair root
E) both into the dermis
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 5-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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Essay Questions
1) Many lipid-soluble medications can be delivered by diffusion across the skin. This process is
called transdermal administration and is commonly done by applying patches that contain the
medication to the surface of the skin. These patches can be attached anywhere on the skin except
the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet. Why?
Answer: Thick skin slows the rate of diffusion of the medication and thus decreases its
effectiveness. In addition, excessive sweat formed on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet
would make the patch fall off more readily.
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
2) In a condition known as sunstroke, the victim appears flushed, the skin is warm and dry, and
the body temperature rises dramatically. Explain these observations based on what you know
concerning the role of the skin in thermoregulation.
Answer: When the body temperature increases, more blood flow is directed to the vessels of the
skin. The red cells in the blood give the skin a redder-than-usual color and account for the
victim's flushed appearance. The skin is dry because the sweat glands are not producing sweat
(avoiding further dehydration). Without evaporation cooling, not enough heat is dissipated from
the skin, the skin is warm, and the body temperature rises. This situation represents positive
feedback operating in a disease state.
Learning Outcome: 5-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
3) Why is regional infection or inflammation of the skin usually very painful?
Answer: Inflammation of the skin is painful because sensory receptors are abundant in the skin.
Changes associated with swelling stimulate the sensory receptors, resulting in a painful
sensation.
Learning Outcome: 5-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
4) Why is a subcutaneous injection with a hypodermic needle a useful method of administering
drugs?
Answer: The subcutaneous layer has a limited capillary supply and contains no vital organs;
thus, the potential for tissue damage is reduced.
Learning Outcome: 5-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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5) A new mother notices that her 6-month-old infant has a yellow-orange complexion. Fearful
that the child may have jaundice, she takes him to her pediatrician. After examining the child and
learning about the infant's diet, the pediatrician declares him perfectly healthy and advises the
mother to watch the child's diet. What is likely the cause for the change in skin color?
Answer: The infant probably has a fondness for vegetables that are high in carotene, such as
sweet potatoes, squash, and carrots. It is not uncommon for parents to feed babies what they will
eat best. If the child consumes large amounts of carotene, the yellow-orange pigment will be
stored in the skin, producing a yellow-orange skin color. This harmless condition is known as
carotenosis.
Learning Outcome: 5-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
6) Explain how to use the mnemonic ABCD when checking for signs of skin cancer.
Answer: When checking for signs of skin cancer one can take a careful look at the appearance of
existing moles. The mnemonic ABCD assists with this process because each letter corresponds
with a physical characteristic of moles. A stands for asymmetry (healthy moles appear
symmetrical); B stands for border (healthy moles have a regular, well defined border); C stands
for color (healthy moles have a single color); D stands for diameter (healthy moles have a
diameter of less than 5 mm).
Learning Outcome: 5-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
7) Explain how skin helps to thermally regulate body temperature.
Answer: When body temperature rises, the blood vessels beneath your epidermis are dilated and
filled with blood, your skin reddens, and the surface of your skin is warm and wet due the excess
heat in the blood. As the moisture evaporates, the excess heat evaporates with it, and your skin
cools. If your body temperature then falls below normal, sensible perspiration stops, blood flow
to the skin is reduced, and the skin surfaces cools and dries, releasing little heat into the
environment.
Learning Outcome: 5-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
8) Why is scab formation important in wound healing?
Answer: Scabs temporarily restore epidermal integrity, restricting further entry of
microorganisms. They also prevent the loss of fluids, maintaining internal fluid balance, and
protect the delicate granulation tissue during tissue recovery.
Learning Outcome: 5-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
9) Vanessa's 80-year-old grandmother sets her thermostat at 26°C (80°F) and wears a sweater on
balmy spring days. When asked why, the grandmother says she feels cold. What is a possible
cause for her feeling cold?
Answer: Most elderly people have poor blood flow to the skin. Thus, their skin becomes cold.
This triggers thermal receptors in the skin to signal cold skin. The brain interprets this as a cold
body temperature.
Learning Outcome: 5-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
31
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 6 Bones and Bone Structure
Multiple Choice Questions
1) Which of following is a function of the skeletal system?
A) body support
B) calcium homeostasis
C) protection of internal organs
D) blood cell production
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Which of the following are not components of the skeletal system?
A) tendons
B) bones
C) ligaments
D) cartilage
E) other tissues that connect bones
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3) The shaft of long bones is called the
A) epiphysis.
B) metaphysis.
C) diaphysis.
D) paraphysis.
E) endophysis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) A ________ is a smooth, grooved bone process shaped like a pulley.
A) tubercle
B) trochanter
C) trochlea
D) tuberosity
E) trabeculae
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) A small rough bump on bone where a tendon attaches is called a
A) tubercle.
B) trochanter.
C) trochlea.
D) tuberosity.
E) trabecula.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) A chamber within a bone normally filled with air is a
A) foramen.
B) sinus.
C) fossa.
D) canal.
E) meatus.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) The expanded articular end of an epiphysis that is separated from the shaft by a narrower neck
is called a
A) head.
B) crown.
C) capitulum.
D) corona.
E) bulb.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) A ________ is a rounded passageway for passage of blood vessels and/or nerves.
A) sinus
B) fossa
C) meatus
D) foramen
E) cavernosa
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
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9) The adult skeleton contains ________ major bones.
A) 88
B) 115
C) 174
D) 206
E) 251
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) Which of the following bones is classified as "irregular" in shape?
A) patella
B) frontal
C) vertebra
D) metatarsal
E) ulna
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) The proximal and distal ends of a long bone are called the
A) epiphyses.
B) diaphyses.
C) epiphyseal plates.
D) metaphyses.
E) periphyses.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12) The carpal bones are examples of ________ bones.
A) long
B) short
C) flat
D) irregular
E) sesamoid
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
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13) A rib is an example of a ________ bone.
A) long
B) short
C) flat
D) sutural
E) sesamoid
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) The patella is an example of a(n) ________ bone.
A) irregular
B) sesamoid
C) sutural
D) sagittal
E) flat
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) Small bones that fill gaps between bones of the skull are called ________ bones.
A) irregular
B) sesamoid
C) sutural
D) sagittal
E) tendon
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) ________ bones develop inside tendons, commonly near the knees, hands, and feet.
A) Irregular
B) Sesamoid
C) Short
D) Long
E) Flat
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) The humerus is an example of a(n) ________ bone.
A) long
B) short
C) flat
D) irregular
E) sesamoid
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) A ________ is a large rough proximal projection on a bone.
A) ramus
B) trochanter
C) tuberosity
D) tubercle
E) condyle
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19) A rounded passage or hole through a bone is called a
A) ramus.
B) foramen.
C) linea.
D) tubercle.
E) facet.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) The smooth, rounded articular process of a bone is termed a
A) crest.
B) ridge.
C) head.
D) condyle.
E) trochlea.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5
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21) A shallow depression on a bone is termed a
A) fossa.
B) sulcus.
C) facet.
D) fissure.
E) line.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22) The region of a long bone between the end and the shaft is known as the
A) diaphysis.
B) epiphysis.
C) osseophysis.
D) metaphysis.
E) medullary cavity.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) Bones that are relatively long and slender, consisting of a shaft with two ends are
A) long bones.
B) flat bones.
C) sesamoid bones.
D) short bones.
E) irregular bones.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) Bones that have thin parallel surfaces are
A) long bones.
B) flat bones.
C) sesamoid bones.
D) short bones.
E) irregular bones.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6
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25) Bones that are boxy with approximately equal dimensions are
A) long bones.
B) flat bones.
C) sesamoid bones.
D) short bones.
E) irregular bones.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26) Bones that have complex shapes are
A) long bones.
B) flat bones.
C) sesamoid bones.
D) short bones.
E) irregular bones.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27) Bones that are small, round and tend to develop in tendons are
A) long bones.
B) flat bones.
C) sesamoid bones.
D) short bones.
E) irregular bones.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28) Canaliculi are
A) also known as Volkmann's channels.
B) the same as Haversian canals.
C) narrow passageways in the matrix connecting lacunae to blood supply.
D) layers of bony matrix laid down in rings.
E) have both a fibrous outer layer and a cellular inner layer.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7
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29) Which of the following is not true of osteocytes?
A) Osteocytes maintain protein and mineral content of matrix.
B) Osteocytes take part in repair of damaged bone.
C) Osteocytes form cytoplasmic extensions within canaliculi.
D) Osteocytes are located within lacunae.
E) Osteocytes have 50 or more nuclei.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30) Which of the following is true of osteoclasts?
A) Osteoclasts maintain protein and mineral content of matrix.
B) Osteoclasts are responsible for laying down osteoid.
C) Osteoclasts form cytoplasmic extensions within canaliculi.
D) Osteoclasts are located within lacunae.
E) Osteoclasts secretes protein digesting enzymes and acids that dissolve matrix.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
31) Which of following is/are produced from the monocyte stem cells?
A) osteoblasts
B) osteoclasts
C) osteocytes
D) osteoprogenitor cells
E) osteogenic cells
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) Which of the following labels best matches osteocyte?
A) stem cell
B) dissolves matrix
C) mature bone cell
D) secretes organic matrix
E) immature bone cell
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
8
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33) Bone is composed of ________ percent cells.
A) 25
B) 10
C) 2
D) 15
E) 50
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34) Cells that secrete the organic components of the bone matrix are called
A) osteocytes.
B) osteoprogenitor cells.
C) osteoblasts.
D) osteoclasts.
E) osteoid cells.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
35) ________ are stem cells that develop into osteoblasts.
A) Osteoclasts
B) Osteocytes
C) Osteomedullary cells
D) Osteogenic cells
E) Osteoid cells
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36) Through the action of osteoclasts,
A) new bone is formed.
B) an organic framework is formed.
C) bony matrix is dissolved.
D) osteoid is calcified.
E) fractured bones regenerate.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
9
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37) The space occupied by an osteocyte is called
A) Volkmann's canal.
B) a lacuna.
C) a trabecula.
D) a Haversian canal.
E) a canaliculus.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38) Which of the following chemicals is not present in bone?
A) calcium phosphate
B) collagen fibers
C) calcium carbonate
D) chondroitin sulfate
E) hydroxyapatite
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
39) ________ account(s) for almost two-thirds of the weight of bone.
A) Water
B) Calcium carbonate
C) Collagen fibers
D) Fluoride
E) Calcium phosphate
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40) ________ cells are located in the inner cellular layer of the periosteum.
A) Osteocyte
B) Osteoclast
C) Osteoid
D) Osteogenic
E) Osteolytic
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10
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41) The ________ interactions allow bone to be strong, somewhat flexible, and highly resistant
to shattering.
A) collagen-fiber
B) protein-crystal
C) mineral-crystal
D) protein-protein
E) hydroxyapatite-crystal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
42) The most abundant cell type in bone is
A) osteoclasts.
B) osteoblasts.
C) osteolytes.
D) osteoprogenitor cells.
E) osteocytes.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
43) The lacunae of osseous tissue contain
A) blood cells.
B) osteocytes.
C) chondroblasts.
D) bone marrow.
E) capillaries.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
44) How would removing hydroxyapatite from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a
bone?
A) The bone would be less flexible.
B) The bone would be stronger.
C) The bone would be more brittle.
D) The bone would be more flexible.
E) The bone would be more compressible.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
11
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45) The narrow passageways that contain cytoplasmic extensions of osteocytes are called
A) central canals.
B) lacunae.
C) canaliculi.
D) medullary cavities.
E) foramina.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46) In bone, the calcium phosphate forms crystals of
A) osteoid matrix.
B) calcium carbonate.
C) hydroxyapatite.
D) calcitriol.
E) proteolytic enzymes.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
47) Stem cells that can differentiate into osteoblasts are called ________ cells.
A) osteopropagator
B) osteoforming
C) osteocreator
D) osteotrophic
E) osteogenic
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
48) Cells that free calcium from bone to maintain blood calcium levels are called
A) osteolytics.
B) osteoclasts.
C) osteoblasts.
D) osteogenics.
E) osteocytes.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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49) ________ prevents damaging bone-to-bone contact within movable joints.
A) A synovial membrane
B) Elastic cartilage
C) A serous membrane
D) Articular cartilage
E) Serous fluid
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
50) Cells that are found in small depressions on the endosteal surfaces are the
A) osteolytic cells.
B) osteoclasts.
C) osteoblasts.
D) osteocytes.
E) osteogenic cells.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
51) Cells that secrete protein fibers in bone are called
A) osteolytic cells.
B) osteoclasts.
C) osteoblasts.
D) osteocytes.
E) osteogenic cells.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
52) The organic component of the matrix in developing or repairing bone is called
A) osteon.
B) osteoid.
C) hydroxyapatite.
D) mesenchymal tissue.
E) calcium phosphate.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
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53) Layers of bony matrix at the outer and inner surfaces of bone and covered by the periosteum
and the endosteum are
A) concentric lamellae.
B) osteons.
C) Haversian systems.
D) interstitial lamellae.
E) circumferential lamellae.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
54) The layer of bone that is interwoven with tendons is the
A) circumferential lamellae.
B) periosteum.
C) endosteum.
D) concentric lamellae.
E) perichondrium.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
55) Connective tissue fibers incorporated into bone tissue from ligaments are called
A) elastic fibers.
B) reticular fibers.
C) perforating fibers.
D) superficial fibers.
E) calcified fibers.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
56) The central canal of an osteon contains
A) bone marrow.
B) osteocytes.
C) concentric lamellae.
D) blood vessels.
E) lacunae.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14
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57) The interconnecting tiny arches of bone tissue found in spongy bone are called
A) osteons.
B) trabeculae.
C) concentric lamellae.
D) interstitial lamellae.
E) lacunae.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
58) The type of bone that is adapted to withstand stresses that arrive from many directions is
________ bone.
A) spongy
B) osteon
C) compact
D) lamellar
E) irregular
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
59) The structural units of mature compact bone are called
A) trabeculae.
B) osteocytes.
C) osteons.
D) canaliculi.
E) lamellae.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
60) Adipose tissue is stored within the
A) medullary cavity.
B) metaphysis.
C) spongy bone.
D) epiphysis.
E) diaphysis.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15
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61) Which of the following is a characteristic of bone?
A) The bone matrix is very dense and contains deposits of calcium salts.
B) The matrix of the bone contains osteoclasts and chondroblasts.
C) Narrow channels pass through the matrix to allow for muscle attachment.
D) The matrix of bone is mostly collagen with very little calcium.
E) For strength, compact bone is organized into a meshwork of matrix called trabeculae.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
62) In relationship to the diaphysis of a long bone, the osteons are
A) radial.
B) anterior.
C) parallel.
D) proximal.
E) diagonal.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
63) The femur can withstand ________ times the body's weight without breaking.
A) 3
B) 5 to 10
C) 8
D) 10 to 15
E) 30
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
64) ________ marrow is found between the trabeculae of spongy bone.
A) Blue
B) Yellow
C) White
D) Gray
E) Red
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16
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65) The lining of the medullary cavity is called the
A) endosteum.
B) periosteum.
C) epiosteum.
D) mediosteum.
E) paraosteum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
66) ________ bone reduces the weight of the skeleton and reduces the load on muscles.
A) Short
B) Irregular
C) Spongy
D) Compact
E) Long
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
67) The layers of bone tissue immediately deep to the periosteum are
A) circumferential lamellae.
B) osteoid plates.
C) trabeculae.
D) concentric lamellae.
E) epiphseal ridges.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
68) Which statement is true regarding calcium in bone matrix?
A) Calcium is found in crystals called hydroxyapatite.
B) Calcium is secreted by osteoblasts into the matrix.
C) Once deposited, calcium cannot be removed from bone.
D) Calcium provides flexibility to the bone matrix.
E) Calcium is the organic part of the matrix.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
17
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69) The trabeculae of spongy bone
A) are organized parallel to the long axis of the bone.
B) are organized along stress lines.
C) are composed mostly of cartilage.
D) will collapse under stress.
E) are concentrated in the cortex of the diaphysis.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
Figure 6-1 The Structure of Compact Bone
Use Figure 6-1 to answer the following questions:
70) Which structure is called an osteon?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
18
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71) Which structure is characteristic of spongy bone?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
72) The structure labeled "3" is the result of which process?
A) bone cells adding matrix between existing osteons
B) surface growth of bone
C) remodeling of compact bone
D) remodeling of spongy bone
E) osteoporosis
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
73) Identify the structures labeled "4."
A) concentric lamellae
B) circumferential lamellae
C) interstitial lamellae
D) trabeculae
E) periosteum
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
74) What lines the structure labeled "7"?
A) the endosteum
B) blood vessels
C) the central canal
D) spongy bone
E) trabeculae
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
19
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75) Blood is distributed from the surface of a bone to deeper central canals through channels
known as
A) perforating canals.
B) canaliculi.
C) interstitial canals.
D) concentric ducts.
E) concentric canals.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
76) ________ fibers are stronger than steel when stretched.
A) Calcium
B) Mineral
C) Elastic
D) Carbon
E) Collagen
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
77) The superficial membrane of a bone is called the
A) endosteum.
B) ectosteum.
C) cortical membrane.
D) periosteum.
E) osteoid collar.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
78) The process by which osteoblasts add layers to circumferential lamellae is
A) appositional growth.
B) interstitial growth.
C) intramembranous growth.
D) endochondral ossification.
E) epiphyseal ossification.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20
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79) During endochondral ossification these vessels invade the cartilage of the diaphysis.
A) metaphyseal vessels
B) nutrient arteries and veins
C) periosteal vessels
D) endosteal vessels
E) diaphyseal artery and vein
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
80) During the process of ________, an existing tissue is replaced by bone.
A) phosphorylation
B) resorption
C) ossification
D) osteopropagation
E) remodeling
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
81) A calcified skeletal muscle is an example of
A) bone spurs.
B) osteoporosis.
C) heterotopic bone formation.
D) osteodysplasia.
E) osteomalacia.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
82) What type of tissue is replaced in the embryo during endochondral ossification?
A) connective tissue membranes
B) fibrocartilage
C) mesenchymal tissue
D) hyaline cartilage
E) Wharton's jelly
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
21
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83) The articular cartilage of a typical long bone is composed of what type of cartilage?
A) elastic cartilage
B) synovial cartilage
C) hyaline cartilage
D) fibrocartilage
E) osseous cartilage
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
84) The deposition of calcium salts in bone tissues is referred to as
A) hardening.
B) ossification.
C) calcification.
D) osteogenesis.
E) remodeling.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
85) Which of the following is formed by intramembranous ossification?
A) roof of the skull
B) carpal bones
C) femur
D) clavicle
E) the roof of the skull and the clavicle
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
86) Endochondral ossification begins with the formation of a(n)
A) fibrous connective-tissue model.
B) cartilage model.
C) membranous model.
D) calcified model.
E) osteoid model.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22
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87) The following are important steps in the process of endochondral ossification. What is the
correct order for these events?
1. Enlarged chondrocytes die.
2. Osteoblasts replace calcified cartilage with spongy bone.
3. Chondrocytes enlarge and the surrounding matrix begins to calcify.
4. Blood vessels grow around the edges of the cartilage.
5. Perichondrial cells become osteoblasts and produce a superficial layer of bone.
A) 3, 1, 5, 4, 2
B) 1, 3, 5, 4, 2
C) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2
D) 2, 3, 1, 5, 4
E) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
88) Secondary ossification centers occur
A) in the diaphysis.
B) at the periosteum.
C) in the epiphyses.
D) in the metaphyses.
E) in dermal bones.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
89) Intramembranous ossification begins with differentiation of ________ cells.
A) osteoclast
B) osteolytic
C) mesenchymal
D) osteoblast
E) osteocyte
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
90) Which of the following statements about Marfan's syndrome is false?
A) It results in short, stubby fingers.
B) It results from a mutation.
C) It affects connective tissue structures.
D) It affects epiphyseal cartilages.
E) It may also cause cardiovascular problems.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
23
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91) Bone growth in length occurs by mitosis of
A) concentric lamellae.
B) cartilage cells in the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis.
C) growth of trabeculae.
D) osteoblasts in the endosteum.
E) cartilage cells in the diaphyseal side of the metaphysis.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
92) Intramembranous ossification
A) produces flat bones, as in the bones of the roof of the skull.
B) explains how a juvenile's bone can grow in length.
C) occurs in the diaphysis of a long bone.
D) occurs inside a bag of cartilage.
E) occurs in all bones before birth.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
93) Primary ossification centers develop in long bones in the
A) proximal epiphysis.
B) periosteum.
C) metaphysis.
D) distal epiphysis.
E) diaphysis.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
94) Suppose that epiphyseal lines appear in a 10-year-old's long bones. Which of the following
statements is, therefore, true?
A) The epiphyseal plates have ossified and further growth in length is not possible.
B) Administration of growth hormone will stimulate future bone growth in length.
C) Osteoclasts will dissolve the metaphysis so length growth can continue until adulthood.
D) More growth will occur during the teenage years as sex hormones stimulate rebuilding of
growth plates.
E) Intramembranous ossification will enable further growth in length.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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95) During appositional growth,
A) bones grow longer.
B) bones grow wider.
C) cartilage replaces bone.
D) the epiphysis fuses with the diaphysis.
E) compact bone replaces spongy bone.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
96) When the epiphyseal plate is replaced by bone,
A) puberty begins.
B) interstitial bone growth begins.
C) appositional bone growth begins.
D) long bones have reached their adult length.
E) the bone becomes more brittle.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
97) When cartilage is produced at the epiphyseal side of the metaphysis at the same rate as bone
is deposited on the opposite side, bones
A) grow longer.
B) grow wider.
C) become shorter.
D) become more porous and weaker.
E) become thicker.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
98) Accelerated closure of the epiphyseal plates could be caused by
A) high levels of vitamin D.
B) too much calcium in the diet.
C) elevated levels of estrogen.
D) too little thyroxine.
E) an excess of growth hormone.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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99) When production of sex hormones increases at puberty, epiphyseal plates
A) widen.
B) become narrower.
C) increase slowly.
D) accelerate rapidly, but mostly in thickness.
E) are hardly affected.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
100) The following are major steps in the process of intramembranous ossification:
1. Clusters of osteoblasts form osteoid that becomes mineralized.
2. Osteoblasts differentiate within mesenchymal connective tissue.
3. Spicules of bone radiate out from the ossification centers.
4. Mesenchymal cells aggregate.
What is the correct order for these events?
A) 4, 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 1, 3, 4
C) 4, 2, 1, 3
D) 2, 3, 1, 4
E) 3, 4, 2, 1
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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Figure 6-2 Endochondral Ossification
Use Figure 6-2 to answer the following question(s):
101) Where does growth in length occur?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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102) What type of tissue occurs at #1?
A) elastic tissue
B) fibrocartilage
C) bone
D) hyaline cartilage
E) marrow tissue
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
103) What process is shown at #6?
A) primary ossification
B) secondary ossification
C) length growth
D) width growth
E) fracture repair
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
104) Identify the structure at #4.
A) intramembranous bone
B) spongy bone
C) hyaline cartilage
D) periosteum
E) mesenchyme
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
105) Identify the structure labeled "2."
A) epiphysis
B) diaphysis
C) metaphysis
D) marrow cavity
E) trabeculae
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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106) In normal adult bones,
A) there is no turnover of minerals.
B) a portion of the protein and mineral content is replaced each year.
C) osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity, once bone has been formed.
D) osteoclasts continue to be active long after osteoblast activity ceases.
E) exercise will have no effect on bone remodeling.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
107) The ongoing process of tearing down and rebuilding bone matrix is called
A) restoration.
B) osteolysis.
C) resorption.
D) ossification.
E) remodeling.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
108) How do sex hormones affect bone growth?
A) Testosterone stimulates osteoclast activity.
B) They cause ossification to be faster than cartilage replacement.
C) They stimulate the cleavage of hydroxyapetite.
D) They cause osteoporosis.
E) Estrogen causes slower epiphyseal closure.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
109) Which hormone increases calcium and phosphate ion absorption by the intestines?
A) parathyroid hormone
B) calcitriol
C) thyroxine
D) calcitonin
E) estrogen
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
29
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110) A lack of exercise could
A) cause bones to become thicker.
B) cause bones to store more calcium.
C) result in porous and weak bones.
D) cause bones to become longer.
E) cause bones to lose their medullary cavity.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
111) When stress is applied to a bone,
A) the minerals in the bone produce a weak electrical field that attracts osteoblasts.
B) osteoclast activity increases and osteoblast activity decreases.
C) the bone becomes thin and brittle and ultimately fractures.
D) the bone compensates by becoming thinner in the region of stress.
E) blood supply through the nutrient artery diminishes and thus remodeling proceeds at a much
slower rate.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
112) Excessive growth hormone prior to puberty could result in
A) osteoporosis.
B) osteopenia.
C) rickets.
D) gigantism.
E) dwarfism.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
113) Factors that are necessary for proper bone formation include all of the following, except
A) vitamin A.
B) vitamin E.
C) vitamin C.
D) the hormone thyroxine.
E) vitamin D.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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114) Where in the body does the production of precursors for the synthesis of calcitriol occur?
A) bone
B) kidneys
C) small intestine
D) liver
E) skin
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
115) ________ hormones stimulate osteoblasts to produce bone matrix.
A) Sex
B) Growth
C) Thyroid
D) Parathyroid
E) Pancreatic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
116) RANKL or receptor activators of nuclear factor kB
A) are receptors that bind directly to PTH.
B) are found on the surface of osteoclasts.
C) are molecules that cause osteoblasts to lay down bone.
D) is a signal molecule that stimulates osteoclasts development.
E) causes calcium to be excreted by the kidneys.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
117) Calcitonin does all of the following except
A) increase bone deposition.
B) inhibit osteoclasts.
C) cause kidneys to excrete calcium.
D) cause less calcitriol to be secreted.
E) increase its level in pregnant women.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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118) If blood calcium levels drop below 8.5 mg/dL which hormone is likely to be activated?
A) parathyroid hormone
B) estrogen
C) calcitonin
D) calcitriol
E) both calcitriol and parathyroid hormone
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
119) If blood calcium levels rise above 11mg/dL which hormone is likely to be activated?
A) parathyroid hormone
B) estrogen
C) calcitonin
D) calcitriol
E) both calcitriol and parathyroid hormone
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
120) Of the total inorganic components in bone, calcium accounts for what percent?
A) 17%
B) 9.7%
C) 39%
D) 72%
E) 0.72%
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
121) Of the total organic components in bone most of it is
A) collagen.
B) keratin.
C) keratohyalin.
D) elastin.
E) actin.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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122) The most abundant mineral in the human body is
A) sodium.
B) potassium.
C) phosphorus.
D) calcium.
E) hydrogen.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
123) Elevated levels of calcium ion in the blood stimulate the secretion of the hormone
A) calcitonin.
B) thyroid hormone.
C) parathyroid hormone.
D) growth hormone.
E) testosterone.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
124) The hormone calcitonin functions to
A) stimulate osteoclast activity.
B) decrease the rate of calcium excretion.
C) decrease the rate of calcium absorption.
D) decrease the level of calcium ion in the blood.
E) stimulate osteoblasts and inhibit osteoclasts.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
125) Parathyroid hormone functions in all of the following ways except
A) stimulating osteoclast activity.
B) increasing the rate of calcium absorption.
C) decreasing the rate of calcium excretion.
D) raising the level of calcium ion in the blood.
E) inhibiting calcitonin secretion.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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126) A child with rickets often has
A) oversized facial bones.
B) long fingers.
C) frequent bruises.
D) bowed legs.
E) inadequate muscle development.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
127) Bone plays a central role in the regulation of blood levels of
A) potassium.
B) iron.
C) sulfate.
D) calcium.
E) sodium.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
128) Hundreds of years ago, explorers often died of scurvy. How can this bone-related disease be
prevented?
A) Supplement the diet with more calcium from meat.
B) Increase levels of testosterone to stimulate bone repair.
C) Supplement the diet with fresh fruit rich in vitamin C.
D) Drink more water to promote bone remodeling and repair.
E) Amputate fractured limbs to prevent the spread of scurvy.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
129) How is vitamin D (vitamin D3) related to calcium homeostasis in bone?
A) Vitamin D provides a framework for calcium in the matrix.
B) Vitamin D is regulated by osteoclast activity.
C) Vitamin D is produced by osteoblasts during endochondral ossification.
D) Vitamin D is involved in calcium absorption by the digestive tract.
E) Vitamin D replaces calcium in the skeleton.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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130) The disease osteomalacia causes calcium loss from the skeleton, which would result in
bones that are
A) more resistant to compression.
B) stronger and heavier.
C) stronger and contain more spongy bone.
D) weaker and more flexible.
E) weaker and more brittle.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
131) Damage to a bone because of extreme load, sudden impact, or stresses applied from an
unusual direction is called a
A) dislocation.
B) contortion.
C) rupture.
D) fragmentation.
E) fracture.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
132) A(n) ________, or closed, fracture does not break the skin.
A) plain
B) internal
C) simple
D) contained
E) common
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
133) An open or ________ fracture projects through the skin.
A) external
B) exposed
C) complex
D) compound
E) complicated
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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134) A ________ fracture shatters the bone.
A) comminuted
B) greenstick
C) compression
D) transverse
E) spiral
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
135) A fracture of the bone across its long axis is called a ________ fracture.
A) comminuted
B) greenstick
C) compression
D) transverse
E) spiral
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
136) In a ________ fracture one side of the shaft is split and the other side is bent.
A) comminuted
B) greenstick
C) compression
D) transverse
E) spiral
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
137) A ________ fracture is produced by twisting stresses applied to the bone.
A) comminuted
B) greenstick
C) compression
D) transverse
E) spiral
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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138) A transverse fracture of the wrist that may be comminuted is called a ________ fracture.
A) Pott's
B) Long's
C) tarsal
D) common
E) Colles
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
139) A fracture that affects the malleolus on both lower leg bones is called a ________ fracture.
A) carpal
B) Pott's
C) Colles
D) complex
E) double-split
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
140) The fracture of vertebrae subjected to extreme vertical stress is called a ________ fracture.
A) comminuted
B) greenstick
C) compression
D) transverse
E) spiral
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
141) After a fracture of the diaphysis has healed, the thickened region that results is called the
A) epiphyseal plate.
B) external callus.
C) dense tuberosity.
D) condyle.
E) fracture facet.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
37
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142) A fracture at the ankle involving both lower leg bones is often called a ________ fracture.
A) compression
B) Pott's
C) displaced
D) greenstick
E) Colles
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
143) While on a school skiing trip in Colorado, Heidi falls and breaks her tibia and fibula in a
Pott's fracture. What would you expect as a prominent part of her clinical assessment several
hours after the fall?
A) hypertension
B) tachycardia
C) erythema
D) hematoma
E) cyanosis
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 6-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
144) What is the correct sequence of steps in bone repair?
1. Cartilage in the external callus is replaced by bone.
2. A hematoma occurs.
3. An internal callus forms at the site of injury.
4. Osteoclasts and osteoblasts remodel the bone at the site of repair.
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 2, 1, 3, 4
C) 3, 1, 4, 2
D) 4, 2, 3, 1
E) 2, 3, 1, 4
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
145) Osteoclast-activating factor does all of the following except that it
A) is released in large amounts early in life.
B) increases the number of osteoclasts.
C) increases the activity of osteoclasts.
D) produces a severe osteoporosis.
E) is released by some cancer tumors.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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146) A condition in which bone becomes riddled with holes making them brittle and
compromises normal function is called
A) osteopenia.
B) osteoporosis.
C) osteomyelitis.
D) osteitis.
E) osteomalacia.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
147) The condition known as osteopenia
A) affects mostly women.
B) causes a gradual reduction in bone mass.
C) is caused by too much vitamin D in the diet.
D) is rarely seen as people age.
E) only affects the femur.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
148) If osteoclasts are more active than osteoblasts, bones will become
A) denser.
B) thicker.
C) osteopenic.
D) stronger.
E) calcified.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
149) Why does osteoporosis affect more women than men?
A) Women typically do not get enough calcium in their diet.
B) Men do not remodel the skeleton as fast as women.
C) Pregnancy causes deossification of bones in women and will lead to osteoporosis.
D) Men exercise more than women and therefore have less osteoporosis.
E) Women have a decrease in sex hormones after menopause.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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150) Aging has what effect on the skeletal system?
A) progressive loss of processes and tuberosities
B) fusion of joints, especially in the vertebral column
C) loss of calcium and collagen fibers from matrix
D) increase in the number of cranial foramina
E) increase in adipose tissue in epiphyses
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
151) If a tumor secretes high levels of osteoclast-activating factor, which of the following would
you expect to occur as a result of this condition?
A) increases in blood levels of calcium
B) bone fragility
C) decreased bone density
D) increased osteoclast activity
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
152) Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals the
beginnings of osteoporosis. Her physician suggests hormone therapy. What hormone might she
prescribe for Mary?
A) thyroid hormone
B) growth hormone
C) estrogen
D) parathyroid hormone
E) calcitonin
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
153) Mary is 50 years old and has entered menopause. During a checkup, a bone scan reveals the
beginnings of osteoporosis. Her physician suggests nutritional therapy. What might she
recommend for Mary?
A) vitamin C
B) vitamin D
C) calcium supplements
D) dairy products
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
40
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154) The natural age-related loss of bone mass is called
A) osteogenesis imperfecta.
B) osteoporosis.
C) osteomalacia.
D) osteodysplasia.
E) osteopenia.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) Where is spongy bone found in long bones? Where is spongy bone found in flat bones?
(Figure 6-3)
A) diaphysis; between the compact bone layers
B) epiphyses; between the compact bone layers
C) metaphyses; between the compact bone layers
D) between the compact bone layers; medullary cavity
E) epiphyses; metaphyses
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Which three types of bone cells are developmentally related and what is their progression
from the earliest to the latest stage? (Figure 6-5)
A) osteoclasts to osteoblasts to osteocytes
B) osteocytes to osteoblasts to osteoclasts
C) osteogenic to osteoclasts to osteoblasts
D) osteogenic to osteocytes to osteoblasts
E) osteogenic to osteoblasts to osteocytes
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
41
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3) What are the three ways in which lamellae are organized in compact bone? (Figure 6-7)
A) horizontally around an osteon, vertically between osteons, and transversely around the entire
bone
B) concentrically around an osteon, vertically between osteons, and transversely around the
entire bone
C) vertically around an osteon, interstitially between osteons, and horizontally around the entire
bone
D) concentrically around an osteon, vertically between osteons, and parallel around the entire
bone
E) concentrically around an osteon, interstitially between osteons, and circumferentially around
the entire bone
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
4) Select the correct words for the following sentence: The (endosteum/periosteum) covers the
superficial layer of compact bone and is made up of (the fibrous and cellular layers/osteoblasts,
osteoclasts, and osteocytes). (Figure 6-10)
A) periosteum; fibrous and cellular layers
B) endosteum; fibrous and cellular layers
C) periosteum; osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes
D) endosteum; osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes
E) endosteum and periosteum; osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 6-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5) What gland responds when the blood calcium level is too low? (Figure 6-16a)
A) thyroid gland
B) adrenal gland
C) parathyroid gland
D) pituitary gland
E) hypothalamus
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42
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Essay Questions
1) During the growth of a long bone, how is the epiphysis forced farther from the shaft?
Answer: The chondrocytes of the epiphyseal cartilage enlarge and divide, increasing the
thickness of the cartilage. On the shaft, the chondrocytes become ossified, "chasing" the
expanding epiphyseal cartilage away from the shaft.
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) What is the difference between ossification and calcification?
Answer: Ossification means specifically the conversion of connective tissue into bone tissue.
Calcification means the depositing of calcium salts in any tissue, including bone.
Learning Outcome: 6-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3) Todd is 13 and lives in an urban apartment. He spends most of his time watching TV and
eating "junk" food. One afternoon, during recess, he falls on the playground and breaks his leg.
Although he appears to be healthy, his leg takes longer to heal than expected. What might be the
cause of the longer healing time?
Answer: Assuming that there is no other disease process involved, Todd's problem is probably
related to his poor diet. Good nutrition is important for promoting the healing process.
Insufficient quantities of protein, vitamin C, vitamin A, and vitamin D would cause the normal
healing process to occur at a much slower rate. Todd's inactivity may also contribute to his
slower rate of healing.
Learning Outcome: 6-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
4) An elderly patient has a broken femur that is healing very slowly. A young resident suggests
using a device that will create an electrical field in the area of the fracture to help speed the
healing process. Why might this possibly help?
Answer: Osteoblasts are attracted to electrical fields produced by bone crystals when they are
stressed. This is one of the reasons that trabeculae of bones are organized along stress lines. If
the same type of electrical field could be duplicated at the site of the fracture, osteoblasts may be
stimulated to migrate to the area and increase the rate of bone production and thus healing of the
fracture.
Learning Outcome: 6-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
43
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5) Would you expect to see changes in blood levels of the hormones calcitonin and PTH as a
result of vitamin D3 deficiency? Explain.
Answer: A person deficient in vitamin D3 would not be able to absorb calcium effectively from
the digestive tract, leading to a shortage of calcium in the blood. To maintain homeostasis, the
decrease in blood calcium would trigger the release of PTH. The PTH, in turn, would stimulate
osteoclasts to release enough calcium from the bone to maintain proper calcium levels in the
blood. Levels of calcitonin would decrease, because release of this hormone is triggered by high
blood calcium levels.
Learning Outcome: 6-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
6) What is osteopenia? Name and define two forms of osteopenia.
Answer: Osteopenia is a general term for reduced bone mass. Osteoporosis and osteomalacia are
forms. Osteoporosis is a condition of reduced bone density, bone weakness, and pain resulting
from the loss of mineral from bone with advancing age. Osteomalacia is bone weakness caused
by insufficient calcium deposits. It is known as rickets in the young.
Learning Outcome: 6-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
44
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 7 The Axial Skeleton
Multiple Choice Questions
1) Which of the following is not true regarding the axial skeleton?
A) has 80 bones
B) includes the skull
C) includes the pelvic and pectoral girdles
D) includes auditory ossicles
E) includes the thoracic cage
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Which of the following is a function of the axial skeleton?
A) provides an attachment for muscles that move the appendicular skeleton
B) provides an attachment for muscles that move the head, neck, and trunk
C) provides an attachment for muscles involved in breathing
D) provides protection for the brain and spinal cord
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) Which of the following is not part of the axial skeleton?
A) skull
B) false ribs
C) sternum
D) hyoid bone
E) pelvic girdle
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) The skull and vertebral column are part of the ________ skeleton.
A) axial
B) apical
C) appendicular
D) articulated
E) sagittal
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) Identify the mismatched pair.
A) skull bones: 8 cranial and 14 facial bones
B) bones associated with the skull: 6 auditory ossicles and 1 hyoid bone
C) vertebral column: 24 vertebrae and 1 sacrum and 1 coccyx
D) thoracic cage: sternum and 24 ribs and 2 clavicles
E) There is no mismatched pair.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
6) In some individuals the supra-orbital foramen is incomplete and called the
A) supra-orbital fissure.
B) supra-orbital suture.
C) supra-orbital fontanelle.
D) supra-orbital notch.
E) supra-orbital meatus.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) The olfactory foramina are found in which of the following bones?
A) ethmoid
B) sphenoid
C) temporal
D) nasal
E) zygomatic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) A thickening of the frontal bone that helps protect the eye is the
A) optic canal.
B) supra-orbital margin.
C) superior orbital fissure.
D) frontal suture.
E) frontal sinuses.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2
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9) Which portion of the temporal bone houses the structures of the internal ear?
A) squamous
B) petrous
C) styloid
D) zygomatic
E) mastoid
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
10) Which paired bones form the lateral, posterior portions of the cranium?
A) frontal
B) maxilla
C) sphenoid
D) parietal
E) zygomatic
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) Delicate projections that form from the ethmoidal labyrinth are
A) olfactory foramina.
B) pterygoid processes.
C) sphenoidal sinuses.
D) superior and middle nasal conchae.
E) auditory ossicles.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
12) Which of the following is not a cranial bone?
A) frontal
B) parietal
C) palatine
D) temporal
E) occipital
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
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13) Air-filled chambers found in several bones of the skull are called
A) conchae.
B) sinuses.
C) fontanelles.
D) sutures.
E) fossae.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?
A) mandible: movable facial bone in skull
B) maxilla: alveolar processes
C) sphenoid: external acoustic meatus
D) frontal: glabella
E) occipital: foramen magnum
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
15) Which of the following articulate in the mandibular fossa?
A) condylar process
B) mastoid process
C) acromion process
D) coronoid process
E) zygomatic process
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) The internal acoustic meatus is located in which bone?
A) occipital
B) ethmoid
C) sphenoid
D) temporal
E) parietal
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) The occipital ________ are where the occipital bone articulates with the first cervical
vertebra.
A) processes
B) condyles
C) foramina
D) fossae
E) tubercles
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) The auditory ossicles are housed in which cranial bone?
A) sphenoid
B) ethmoid
C) zygomatic
D) temporal
E) lacrimal
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19) The parietal bones and occipital bone articulate at the ________ suture.
A) lambdoid
B) central
C) sagittal
D) coronal
E) posterior
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) The ________ is the bony chamber that protects and supports the brain.
A) skull
B) centrum
C) cranium
D) cephalum
E) cortex
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
5
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21) Infection of the large process on the temporal bone would be called
A) tinnitus.
B) encephalitis.
C) meningitis.
D) petrositis.
E) mastoiditis.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
22) The inferior portion of the nasal septum is formed by the
A) nasal bone.
B) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone.
C) inferior nasal conchae.
D) vomer.
E) palatine bone.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) The optic nerve passes through which structure?
A) superior orbital fissure
B) inferior orbital fissure
C) optic canal
D) internal optic meatus
E) external acoustic meatus
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) The four primary sutures are lambdoid, coronal, sagittal, and
A) lateral.
B) cuboidal.
C) parietal.
D) squamous.
E) frontal.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6
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25) The ________ bone is unusual because it doesn't contact another bone.
A) vomer
B) lacrimal
C) hyoid
D) atlas
E) ethmoid
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26) The hard palate of the roof of the mouth is mostly formed by the
A) palatine processes of the maxillae.
B) lesser wings of the sphenoid bone.
C) nasal bones.
D) zygomatic process.
E) palatine bones.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27) The foramen magnum is found in the ________ bone.
A) frontal
B) parietal
C) ethmoid
D) occipital
E) temporal
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28) The suture that forms the articulation of the parietal bones with the frontal bone is the
________ suture.
A) lambdoid
B) rostral
C) coronal
D) squamous
E) sagittal
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7
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29) The calvaria (or skullcap) is formed by the ________ bones.
A) frontal, temporal, and parietal
B) frontal, parietal, and occipital
C) temporal, parietal, and occipital
D) frontal, temporal, and occipital
E) frontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30) The zygomatic arch is formed by the articulation of processes from which two bones?
A) zygomatic and maxilla
B) frontal and temporal
C) sphenoid and temporal
D) zygomatic and sphenoid
E) temporal and zygomatic
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31) The prominent bulge just posterior and inferior to the external auditory meatus is the
A) mastoid process.
B) styloid process.
C) occipital condyle.
D) condyloid process.
E) temporal process.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) Which of these is not one of the facial bones?
A) frontal
B) maxilla
C) vomer
D) mandible
E) zygomatic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8
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33) Each of the following regions/markings is associated with the occipital bone except the
A) superior and inferior nuchal lines.
B) foramen magnum.
C) hypoglossal canals.
D) glabella.
E) external occipital crest.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34) A point of attachment for muscles that rotate or extend the head is the
A) styloid process.
B) mastoid process.
C) palatine process.
D) coronoid process.
E) zygomatic process.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
35) Ligaments that support the hyoid bone are attached to the
A) styloid process.
B) mastoid process.
C) palatine process.
D) coronoid process.
E) zygomatic process.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36) Each of the following is associated with the temporal bone except the
A) mastoid cells.
B) petrous portion.
C) sella turcica.
D) internal acoustic meatus.
E) mandibular fossa.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
9
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37) The hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica contains the ________ gland.
A) lacrimal
B) pituitary
C) olfactory
D) nasal
E) sellar
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38) Each of the following structures is associated with the sphenoid bone except the
A) foramen ovale.
B) optic canals.
C) pterygoid processes.
D) sella turcica.
E) cribriform plate.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
39) A skull bone that could be described as looking like a bat with wings extended is the
A) maxilla.
B) crista galli.
C) sphenoid.
D) ethmoid.
E) temporal.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40) The nasal conchae
A) attach muscles that move the eye.
B) contain the nerves for olfaction.
C) create turbulence in the nasal passageways.
D) protect the pituitary gland.
E) attach muscles that move the mouth.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10
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41) The bony portion of the nasal septum is formed by the
A) nasal bones.
B) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone.
C) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and vomer bone.
D) vomer and sphenoid bone.
E) perpendicular plate of the ethmoid and sphenoid bone.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42) Of the following bones, which is unpaired?
A) vomer
B) maxillae
C) palatine
D) nasal
E) lacrimal
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43) The styloid process, zygomatic process, and auditory ossicles are associated with the
A) parietal bone.
B) occipital bone.
C) sphenoid bone.
D) temporal bone.
E) lacrimal bone.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44) The skull contains ________ bones.
A) 32
B) 22
C) 42
D) 12
E) 27
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11
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45) While playing softball, Gina is struck in the frontal bone by a wild pitch. Which of the
following complaints would you expect her to have?
A) a sore jaw
B) a black eye
C) a headache
D) a sore chest
E) a sore back
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
46) The alveolar processes of the mandible
A) support the upper teeth.
B) support the lower teeth.
C) anchor the tongue.
D) are part of the temporomandibular joint.
E) articulate with the hyoid bone.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
47) The smallest facial bones are the
A) ethmoid bones.
B) lacrimal bones.
C) lacerum bones.
D) nasal bones.
E) zygomatic bones.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
48) Ridges that anchor muscles that stabilize the head are the
A) anterior and posterior nuchal lines.
B) anterior and superior nuchal lines.
C) inferior and superior nuchal lines.
D) medial and lateral nuchal lines.
E) cranial and caudal nuchal lines.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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49) The hyoid bone
A) attaches to tongue muscles.
B) is linked to the styloid process by a ligament.
C) is superior to the larynx.
D) does not directly articulate with other bones.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
50) Damage to the temporal bone would most likely affect the sense(s) of
A) balance.
B) hearing and balance.
C) smell and taste.
D) vision.
E) touch and pressure.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
51) Premature closure of the sagittal suture would result in
A) a long and narrow head.
B) a very broad head.
C) an unusually small head.
D) a distorted head with one side being longer than the other.
E) death.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
52) During development a cleft palate forms when which bones fail to meet along the midline of
the hard palate?
A) temporal
B) maxillae
C) zygomatic
D) sphenoid
E) ethmoid
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
13
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53) Kristen went to the dentist complaining of jaw tenderness and popping noises when she
opens and closes her mouth. He notices abnormal wearing on the articulating surfaces of her
teeth. Which of the following conditions does she most likely suffer from?
A) deviated nasal septum
B) cleft palate
C) temporomandibular joint syndrome
D) dislocated jaw
E) sinusitis
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
54) Jack gets into a fight and is punched in the nose. Which of the following bones might be
fractured?
A) ethmoid bone
B) zygomatic bone
C) temporal bone
D) mandible
E) parietal bone
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
55) As the result of an accident, Bill suffers a dislocated jaw. This injury would involve the
A) stylohyoid ligaments.
B) hyoid bone.
C) condylar process of the mandible.
D) alveolar process of the mandible.
E) greater horn of the hyoid bone.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
56) Your friend Greg is hit in the jaw and when looking at him, his face looks misaligned. You
immediately take him to the emergency room and are not surprised to learn that he has a broken
A) temporal bone.
B) zygomatic bone.
C) mandible.
D) external auditory meatus.
E) clavicle.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
14
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Figure 7-1 Floor of the Cranial Cavity
Use Figure 7-1 to answer the following questions:
57) Which bone structure has foramina for the olfactory nerves?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 8
E) 5
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
58) Identify the sphenoid bone.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
15
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59) Which structure encloses the pituitary gland?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
E) 8
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
60) What is the name of the structure labeled "7"?
A) optic canal
B) foramen spinosum
C) foramen rotundum
D) foramen lacerum
E) foramen ovale
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
61) What is the name of the structure labeled "8"?
A) sella turcica
B) foramen ovale
C) foramen rotundum
D) carotid canal
E) foramen spinosum
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
62) The facial nerve (VII) passes through the internal acoustic meatus and then through the
A) mastoid foramen.
B) stylomastoid foramen.
C) jugular foramen.
D) carotid foramen.
E) foramen lacerum.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16
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63) The large foramen that serves as a passageway for the medulla of the brain and the accessory
nerve (XI) is the
A) foramen lacerum.
B) foramen rotundum.
C) carotid canal.
D) jugular foramen.
E) foramen magnum.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
64) Nerves carrying sensory information from the lips and the chin pass through the
A) ramus of the mandible.
B) condylar process.
C) mental foramina.
D) mandibular foramen.
E) maxillary foramina.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
65) The ________ passes through the ________.
A) vagus nerve; foramen magnum
B) optic nerve; foramen ovale
C) vestibulocochlear nerve; external acoustic meatus
D) internal jugular vein; jugular foramen
E) internal carotid artery; jugular foramen
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
66) The nasal complex includes the bones that enclose the nasal cavity and the ________
sinuses.
A) hyponasal
B) paranasal
C) endonasal
D) epinasal
E) intranasal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
17
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67) Sinus inflammation is called
A) sinusitis.
B) asthma.
C) congestion.
D) postnasal drip.
E) encephalitis.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
68) Each of the following bones is a component of the orbital complex except the ________
bone.
A) lacrimal
B) nasal
C) sphenoid
D) ethmoid
E) frontal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
69) The greater wings of which bone form a large portion of the posterior wall orbit?
A) lacrimal
B) ethmoid
C) sphenoid
D) nasal
E) zygomatic
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
70) How many bones make up the orbital complex?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
E) 7
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18
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71) The nasal complex consists of all of the following bones except the
A) zygomatic.
B) ethmoid.
C) sphenoid.
D) frontal.
E) maxillary.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
72) Which statement(s) about the functions of the paranasal sinuses is/are not true?
A) They provide an extensive area of mucous epithelium.
B) They make skull bones lighter.
C) The mucus they secrete enters the oral cavities.
D) They support cilia that move the mucus.
E) They are located in the sphenoid, ethmoid, frontal, palatine and maxillae.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
73) The floor of the orbital complex is formed mainly by the
A) maxilla.
B) ethmoid.
C) zygomatic.
D) sphenoid.
E) frontal.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
74) The largest sinus is within which bone?
A) nasal
B) sphenoid
C) ethmoid
D) frontal
E) maxilla
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19
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75) The role(s) of the sinuses include(s)
A) making the skull lighter.
B) production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air.
C) increasing surface area for gas exchange.
D) extra source of air and increasing surface area for gas exchange.
E) making the skull lighter and production of mucus that moistens and cleans the air.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
76) A bent nasal septum that slows or prevents sinus drainage is known clinically as a ________
septum.
A) deviated
B) crooked
C) obstructive
D) deviant
E) restrictive
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
77) Sutures can be found at all of the joints of an adult skull except between
A) the mandible and the cranium.
B) the zygomatic bone and the maxillary bone.
C) the occipital bone and the parietal bone.
D) the vomer and the zygomatic bone.
E) the sphenoid bone and the ethmoid bone.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
78) The condition in which distortions of the skull occur due to the premature closure of
fontanelles is called
A) anencephaly.
B) microcephaly.
C) craniostenosis.
D) membranitis.
E) epicranial block.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
20
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79) In the condition known as ________, premature closure of all of the cranial sutures results in
restricted brain growth and an undersized head.
A) anencephaly
B) microcephaly
C) craniostenosis
D) membranitis
E) epicranial block
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
80) Each of the following statements concerning the development of the skull is true except that
A) all the bones of the skull develop from one single ossification center.
B) at birth the cranial bones are connected by areas of fibrous connective tissue.
C) the growth of the cranium is usually coordinated with the growth of the brain.
D) the skulls of infants and adults differ in shape and structure of the skeletal elements.
E) the most significant growth of the skull occurs before the age of 5.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
81) Which two fontanelles form along the sagittal suture?
A) anterior and sphenoidal
B) anterior and posterior
C) posterior and sphenoidal
D) anterior and mastoid
E) posterior and mastoid
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
82) Identify the correct statement regarding fontanelles.
A) They form fibrous connections between facial bones.
B) They persist throughout childhood.
C) They enable easier delivery through the birth canal.
D) The occipital fontanelles are also known as the soft spot.
E) The sphenoidal fontanelles are the largest.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
21
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83) The fibrous connective tissue membranes between the cranial bones of the fetal skull are
A) fontanelles.
B) sutures.
C) Wormian bones.
D) foramina.
E) fibrocartilaginous discs.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
84) The most significant skull growth occurs before the age of
A) 3.
B) 2.
C) 5.
D) 1.
E) 4.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
85) While you're visiting your friend who recently gave birth, she comments on her infant's soft
spot. You think to yourself that the correct term for the "soft spot" located at the intersection of
the frontal, sagittal, and coronal sutures is
A) sphenoidal fontanelle.
B) anterior fontanelle.
C) occipital fontanelle.
D) mastoid fontanelle.
E) cushion spot.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
86) The most common distortion of the spinal curvature is
A) kyphosis.
B) lordosis.
C) scoliosis.
D) spinosis.
E) spina bifida.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22
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87) The four curves of the adult spinal column are not all present at birth. Which of the following
are the secondary curves, which do not appear until several months later?
A) cervical and lumbar
B) thoracic and lumbar
C) sacral and lumbar
D) thoracic and sacral
E) cervical and sacral
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
88) What is the purpose of the secondary curves?
A) accommodate the thoracic organs
B) shift the weight of the body to permit an upright posture
C) accommodate the abdominal organs
D) form a humpback
E) accommodate the pelvic organs
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
89) The four spinal curves include all but one of the following. Identify the exception.
A) thoracic
B) cervical
C) lumbar
D) axial
E) sacral
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
90) The primary spinal curves
A) are also called compensation curves.
B) accommodate the thoracic and abdominopelvic viscera.
C) develop several months after birth.
D) are the lumbar and cervical curves.
E) help shift the weight to permit an upright posture.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
23
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91) Successive vertebrae articulate at facets on the inferior articular processes of the superior
vertebra and facets on the ________ of the adjacent inferior vertebrae.
A) dens
B) pedicles
C) lamellae
D) transverse processes
E) superior articular processes
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
92) The five vertebral regions are the cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and
A) medial.
B) proximal.
C) distal.
D) coccygeal.
E) os coxal.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
93) The first cervical vertebra is called the
A) primum.
B) atlas.
C) axis.
D) cervix.
E) apex.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
94) The second cervical vertebra is called the
A) primum.
B) atlas.
C) axis.
D) cervix.
E) apex.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24
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95) The term ________ is used to describe an injury caused by displacement of the cervical
vertebrae during a sudden change in body position.
A) remodel
B) rearrangement
C) fracture
D) whiplash
E) adjustment
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
96) The ________ allow for a wide range of head movements.
A) hyoid bones
B) temporomandibular joints
C) cervical vertebrae
D) intervertebral discs
E) occipital condyles
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
97) The vertebral column contains ________ thoracic vertebrae.
A) 4
B) 5
C) 7
D) 12
E) 31
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
98) The vertebral arch is formed by the pedicles and the
A) transverse spinous processes.
B) dorsal spinous processes.
C) laminae.
D) costal facets.
E) intervertebral disc.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
25
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99) The part of the vertebrae that transfers weight along the axis of the vertebral column is the
A) vertebral arch.
B) vertebral body.
C) articular processes.
D) intervertebral space.
E) transverse process.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
100) Most mammals, including humans and giraffes, have ________ cervical vertebrae.
A) 11
B) 6
C) 7
D) 19
E) 10
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
101) Vertebrae of which regions are fused in the adult?
A) lumbar region
B) sacral region
C) coccygeal region
D) thoracic
E) sacral and coccygeal regions
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
102) The widest intervertebral discs are found in the ________ region.
A) cervical
B) thoracic
C) lumbar
D) sacral
E) coccygeal
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
26
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103) As you move in an inferior direction along the vertebral column,
A) the vertebral foramen become relatively larger.
B) the vertebral bodies become relatively larger.
C) the dorsal spines grow progressively longer.
D) the transverse processes move anteriorly.
E) the vertebrae get progressively smaller and thinner.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
104) The dens process is found on the
A) atlas.
B) axis.
C) sacrum.
D) coccyx.
E) ribs.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
105) The sacrum consists of how many fused bones?
A) 7
B) 5
C) 4
D) 3
E) 6
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
106) Which of the following is not true regarding the vertebral canal?
A) It encloses the spinal cord.
B) It is formed by vertebral foramina of successive vertebrae.
C) The anterior border is the vertebral body.
D) It is found only in cervical and thoracic vertebrae.
E) The posterior border is the vertebral arch.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
27
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107) The ability to nod "yes" is due to the articulation of which two bones?
A) atlas and axis
B) axis and C3
C) atlas and C3
D) axis and occipital
E) atlas and occipital
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
108) Thoracic vertebrae can be distinguished from other vertebrae by the presence of
A) transverse processes.
B) transverse foramina.
C) facets for the articulation of ribs.
D) notched spinous processes.
E) costal cartilages.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
109) The distinguishing feature of a cervical vertebra is the
A) costal facet.
B) vertebral arch.
C) transverse foramina.
D) spinous process.
E) pedicle.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
110) Which of the following types of vertebrae and their numbers is not correct?
A) cervical: 7
B) thoracic: 12
C) lumbar: 5
D) sacral: 2 fused
E) coccygeal: 3 to 5 fused
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28
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111) All of the following are true of the sacrum except that it
A) provides protection for reproductive, digestive, and excretory organs.
B) provides a point of attachment for leg muscles.
C) articulates with the pelvic bones.
D) articulates with the second and third lumbar vertebrae.
E) articulates with the coccyx.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
112) Gesturing "no" with the head depends on the structure(s) of which cervical vertebrae?
A) atlas
B) axis
C) vertebra prominens
D) both the atlas and the axis
E) both the atlas and the vertebra prominens
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
113) The ribs articulate with the ________ of the vertebrae.
A) spinous processes
B) transverse processes
C) laminae
D) pedicles
E) auric arches
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
114) The thickened area that is the site of articulation of the sacrum to the ilium at the sacroiliac
joint is the
A) sacral hiatus.
B) sacral canal.
C) auricular surface.
D) ala.
E) lateral sacral crest.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
29
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115) The spinous processes of the sacral vertebrae fuse to form the
A) median sacral crest.
B) lateral sacral crest.
C) sacral hiatus.
D) sacral canal.
E) sacral tuberosity.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
116) Which of the following statements about the coccyx is true?
A) It is the most caudal vertebral region.
B) It anchors a muscle that constricts the anal opening.
C) It consists of three to five coccygeal vertebrae.
D) Fusion is delayed until the mid-twenties.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
30
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Figure 7-2 Typical Vertebra (inferior view)
Use Figure 7-2 to answer the following questions:
117) Identify the structure labeled "7."
A) transverse process
B) lamina
C) pedicle
D) vertebral body
E) spinous process
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
118) Which structure contacts the intervertebral disc?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
31
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119) Identify the structure labeled "3."
A) lateral process
B) spinous process
C) lamina
D) transverse process
E) pedicle
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
120) Identify the structure labeled "1."
A) pedicle
B) transverse process
C) lamina
D) spinous process
E) transverse articular facet
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
121) Where is the spinal cord located?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6
E) 7
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
122) Identify the structure labeled "2."
A) transverse process
B) superior articular process
C) pedicle
D) inferior articular process
E) lamina
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
32
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123) The clavicles articulate with which portion of the sternum?
A) manubrium
B) body
C) xiphoid process
D) sternal angle
E) jugular notch
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
124) Ribs 8 to 12 are called ________ because they do not attach directly to the sternum.
A) free
B) false
C) floating
D) fibrous
E) filamentous
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
125) The superior part of the sternum is called the
A) apex.
B) xiphoid.
C) coccyx.
D) manubrium.
E) head.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
126) Give the clinical term for the condition in which the vertebral laminae fail to unite during
development.
A) spina imperfecta
B) laminaecta
C) laminal cleft
D) ossificans imperfecta
E) spina bifida
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
33
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127) The ribs articulate with the
A) cervical vertebrae.
B) thoracic vertebrae.
C) lumbar vertebrae.
D) sacrum.
E) hyoid bone.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
128) Humans normally have ________ pairs of ribs.
A) 2
B) 6
C) 10
D) 12
E) 24
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
129) The part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles is the
A) manubrium.
B) body.
C) xiphoid process.
D) angle.
E) tuberculum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
130) Which bone(s) include(s) a manubrium?
A) scapula
B) clavicle
C) sternum
D) cervical vertebrae #1 and #2
E) all of the vertebrae
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 7-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34
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131) A tubercle of a rib articulates with the
A) manubrium.
B) costal facets of thoracic vertebrae.
C) hyoid.
D) xiphoid process.
E) cervical and thoracic vertebrae.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
132) The true ribs are
A) ribs 1-7.
B) called vertebrosternal ribs.
C) ribs 8-12.
D) called vertebrochondral ribs.
E) ribs 1-7 and are called vertebrosternal ribs.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
133) The ribs that have no attachment to the sternum are
A) true ribs.
B) ribs 8-12 and are called false ribs.
C) floating ribs.
D) ribs 11 and 12.
E) ribs 11 and 12 and are called floating ribs.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
134) Which connective tissue is found between the ribs and the sternum?
A) dense regular connective tissue
B) hyaline cartilage
C) elastic cartilage
D) fibrocartilage
E) dense irregular connective tissue
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
35
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135) While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on an unconscious person, you are
careful to position your hands correctly to avoid damage to the
A) ribs.
B) scapula.
C) xiphoid process.
D) sacrum.
E) ribs and xiphoid process.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) Looking at all the views of the skull, name the major sutures. (Figure 7-3)
A) sagittal, lambdoid, and squamous
B) frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal
C) frontal, sagittal, and coronal
D) sagittal, lambdoid, squamous, and coronal
E) mastoid, styloid, and zygomatic
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Name the fontanelles found on the infant skull. Why aren't they labeled on the adult skull?
(Figure 7-16)
A) frontal, parietal, occipital, and sphenoid; they became foramen
B) sphenoidal (paired), mastoid (paired), anterior, and posterior; they fused and are not on the
adult skull
C) superior, inferior, anterior, and posterior; they fused and are not on the adult skull
D) sphenoidal (paired), mastoid (paired), anterior, and posterior; they became foramen
E) coronal, sagittal, lambdoid, and squamous; they fused and are not on the adult skull
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 7-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3) Which two regions of the spine form primary curves? (Figure 7-17)
A) cervical and sacral
B) lumbar and sacral
C) cervical and thoracic
D) thoracic and lumbar
E) thoracic and sacral
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36
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4) Which two pairs of ribs are the floating ribs? What distinguishes them from the other false
ribs? (Figure 7-23)
A) ribs 11 and 12; they do not attach to the sternum
B) ribs 9 and 10; they do not attach to the sternum
C) ribs 1 and 12; they attach to the sternum by costal cartilage
D) ribs 1 and 2; they attach to the sternum directly
E) ribs 1 and 12; they do not attach to the sternum
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 7-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
Essay Questions
1) Frank gets into a brawl at a sports event and receives a broken nose. After the nose heals, he
starts to have sinus headaches and discomfort in the area of his maxillae. What is probably the
cause of Frank's discomfort?
Answer: Frank probably has a deviated septum as the result of his broken nose. In a deviated
septum the cartilaginous portion of the septum is bent where it joins the bone. This condition
often blocks the drainage of one or more sinuses with resulting sinus headaches, infections, and
sinusitis.
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
2) Caroline goes to the doctor complaining of ear pain and fever. The doctor notices that the ear
infection is not limited to the middle and inner ear but has traveled posteriorly. Explain where
the infection has likely traveled, how it was able to move beyond the inner ear, and what
additional symptoms she may exhibit with the infection.
Answer: Caroline's inner ear infection has likely spread to the mastoid process causing
mastoiditis. The infection traveled through the mastoid air cells which are connected to the
middle ear cavity. She may also experience swelling and redness behind the ear at the mastoid
process.
Learning Outcome: 7-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
3) Consider a disease whereby cilia within the epithelial lining of the paranasal sinuses are
destroyed. What would be some of the consequences?
Answer: The ciliated epithelium moves mucus back toward the throat, where it is eventually
swallowed or expelled coughing. Mucus traps foreign particulates, such as dust or
microorganisms, which in the absence of cilia would build up within the paranasal sinuses.
Possible consequences may include congestion, pain, sinusitis, and spread of infections into the
respiratory tract.
Learning Outcome: 7-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
37
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4) What role do the fontanelles play in infant development?
Answer: These fibrous connective tissue structures fill in between the bones of the cranium in a
newborn infant. As the brain grows, the skull bones can move apart and allow for brain growth
without interfering with nervous system development and function. If they are prematurely
ossified, brain development is restricted, leading to skull deformity and mental retardation. This
condition is called craniostenosis.
Learning Outcome: 7-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
5) Joe is 40 years old and 30 pounds overweight. Like many middle-aged men, Joe carries most
of this extra weight in his abdomen and jokes with his friends about his "beer gut." During an
annual physical, Joe's physician advises him that his spine is developing an abnormal curvature.
Why is the curvature of Joe's spine changing, and what is this condition called?
Answer: The curvature of the spine is changing as a result of the heavy abdomen pulling on the
anterior cavity. This extra weight causes abnormal spinal curvature to compensate for balance.
The condition is called lordosis because its effects are prevalent in the lumbar region.
Learning Outcome: 7-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
6) Why are ruptured intervertebral discs more common in lumbar vertebrae and dislocations and
fractures more common in cervical vertebrae?
Answer: The lumbar vertebrae have massive bodies and carry a lot of weight; these factors
contribute to the rupturing of an intervertebral disc. The cervical vertebrae are more delicate and
have small bodies; these factors increase the possibility of dislocations and fractures in the
cervical vertebrae.
Learning Outcome: 7-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
7) Billy is injured during a high school football game. His chest is badly bruised and he is
experiencing difficulty in breathing. What might the problem be?
Answer: Billy has probably broken one or more of his ribs. Movement of the ribs changes the
size of the thoracic cavity, which is an important part of breathing. When the ribs are broken,
breathing can become difficult (labored) because of pain when the ribs are moved.
Learning Outcome: 7-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
38
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 8 The Appendicular Skeleton
Multiple Choice Questions
1) Which of the following bones is not part of the appendicular skeleton?
A) scapula
B) tibia
C) sacrum
D) coxal bones
E) clavicles
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) The medial end of the clavicle is also known as the ________ end.
A) acromial
B) sternal
C) coracoidal
D) manubrial
E) scapular
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) Which of the following is the term for the articulation of the clavicles with the sternum?
A) acromioclavicular joint
B) sternoclavicular joint
C) acromiosternal joint
D) sternoacromial joint
E) costalclavicular joint
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) Which of the following is the term for the articulation of the clavicles with the scapulae?
A) acromioclavicular joint
B) sternoclavicular joint
C) acromiosternal joint
D) sternoacromial joint
E) costalclavicular joint
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) The acromion is continuous with a prominent ridge of bone on the posterior surface of the
scapula known as the
A) conoid tubercle.
B) glenoid cavity.
C) coracoid process.
D) spine.
E) inferior angle.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) The anterior surface of the scapula is smooth and concave. The name of the concave
depression is the
A) supraspinous fossa.
B) infraspinous fossa.
C) subscapular fossa.
D) subspinous fossa.
E) glenoid fossa.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) The scapula is roughly triangular in shape. Which of the following are correct terms for the
borders?
A) superior, medial, and lateral borders
B) dorsal and costal borders
C) anterior, posterior, and superior borders
D) scapular, sternal, and clavicular borders
E) pectoral borders
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the
A) clavicle articulates with the humerus.
B) clavicle articulates with the manubrium of the sternum.
C) coxal bones articulate with the femur.
D) vertebral column articulates with the sacrum.
E) clavicle articulates with the xiphoid process.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2
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9) The clavicle articulates with the
A) coracoid process and the humerus.
B) glenoid cavity and scapular spine.
C) coracoid process and acromion.
D) manubrium and xiphoid process.
E) manubrium and acromion.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) Which of the following constitutes the pectoral girdle?
A) clavicles only
B) clavicles and scapulae
C) clavicles, scapulae, and humerus
D) clavicles, scapulae, humerus, radius, and ulna
E) clavicles, scapulae, humerus, radius, ulna, and carpal bones
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) Which of the following is located closest to the jugular notch?
A) medial end of scapula
B) medial end of clavicle
C) lateral end of scapula
D) lateral end of clavicle
E) xiphoid process
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
12) Which of the following is most commonly fractured in a fall?
A) radius
B) scapula
C) clavicle
D) sternum
E) glenoid cavity
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3
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13) The appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the upper and lower extremities and their
supporting elements called
A) joints.
B) girdles.
C) sutures.
D) ball and socket.
E) rotator cuffs.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) Two prominent features of the clavicle are the conoid tubercle at the lateral end and the
________ tuberosity at the medial end.
A) costal
B) sternal
C) acromial
D) deltoid
E) scapular
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) The scapula articulates with the humerus at the ________ joint.
A) acromiogleno
B) acromiohumoral
C) glenohumoral
D) glenoscapular
E) humeroscapular
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) The ________ are S-shaped bones that articulate lateral to the jugular notch.
A) scapulae
B) manubria
C) coracoid processes
D) clavicles
E) acromial processes
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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Figure 8-1 The Scapula
Use Figure 8-1 to answer the following questions:
17) Identify the structure labeled "1."
A) spine of scapula
B) scapular process
C) acromion
D) coracoid process
E) scapular notch
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
5
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18) Identify the structure labeled "2."
A) glenoid cavity
B) acetabulum
C) scapular cavity
D) subscapular fossa
E) rotator cup
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
19) Which structure is the acromion?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
20) Identify the structure labeled "7."
A) acromion
B) scapular process
C) spine of scapula
D) coracoid process
E) scapular notch
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
21) What bone articulates on the structure labeled "2"?
A) femur
B) clavicle
C) humerus
D) manubrium
E) radius
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
6
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22) Which of the following features is located near the proximal end of the humerus?
A) medial epicondyle
B) lateral epicondyle
C) greater tubercle
D) olecranon fossa
E) capitulum
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) The depression on the posterior surface at the distal end of the humerus is the
A) olecranon fossa.
B) coronoid fossa.
C) radial fossa.
D) intertubercular groove.
E) radial groove.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) The ulnar nerve is exposed when it crosses the posterior surface of what process?
A) greater tubercle
B) lesser tubercle
C) deltoid tuberosity
D) medial epicondyle
E) trochlea
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
25) The deltoid muscle attaches to what process?
A) radial groove
B) deltoid fossa
C) intertubercular groove
D) deltoid tuberosity
E) greater tubercle
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7
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26) The short projections at the distal ends of both the radius and ulna are the
A) styloid processes.
B) radial head and ulnar head.
C) radial head and olecranon.
D) medial and lateral epicondyles.
E) medial and lateral malleolus.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27) Which of the following processes is not found on the ulna?
A) styloid process of ulna
B) olecranon
C) radial notch
D) coronoid process
E) trochlea
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28) The attachment site for the biceps brachii muscle to the radius is at the
A) deltoid tuberosity.
B) greater tubercle.
C) radial tuberosity.
D) brachial tuberosity.
E) styloid process of the radius.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
29) Which of the following is not one of the four proximal carpal bones?
A) scaphoid
B) lunate
C) pisiform
D) hamate
E) triquetrum
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8
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30) The radius and ulna are bound to each other by a(n) ________ ligament.
A) radioulnar
B) interosseous
C) antebrachial
D) lateromedial
E) intrabrachial
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31) The trochlea is located on the
A) tibia.
B) humerus.
C) radius.
D) scapula.
E) ulna.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) The bones of the forearm, or ________, consist of the radius and ulna.
A) olecranon region
B) brachium
C) antecubital region
D) antebrachium
E) cubital region
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
33) Identify the mismatched pair.
A) lunate; comma-shaped
B) triquetrum; boat-shaped
C) pisiform; pea-shaped
D) trapezoid; wedge-shaped
E) hamate; hook-shaped
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
9
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34) In the anatomical position, the ulna is located ________ to the radius.
A) distal
B) proximal
C) medial
D) superior
E) lateral
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
35) The condyle of the humerus consists of the
A) medial and lateral epicondyles.
B) trochlea and olecranon fossa.
C) capitulum and trochlea.
D) head and neck.
E) capitulum and coronoid process.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36) Which of the following surface features is found on the radius?
A) olecranon
B) coronoid process
C) trochlear notch
D) radial notch
E) ulnar notch
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
37) There are ________ carpal bones located in the wrist, which form ________ rows of bones.
A) 2; 8
B) 10; 3
C) 4; 2
D) 8; 2
E) 6; 2
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10
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38) The bones that form the fingers are the
A) carpals.
B) tarsals.
C) metacarpals.
D) metatarsals.
E) phalanges.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39) The rough surface feature present along the lateral border of the shaft of the humerus is the
A) radial groove.
B) medial epicondyle.
C) lateral epicondyle.
D) deltoid tuberosity.
E) coronoid process.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40) The bones that give the hand a wide range of motion are the
A) carpals.
B) tarsals.
C) metacarpals.
D) metatarsals.
E) phalanges.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
41) The head of the radius articulates with the
A) trochlea.
B) capitulum.
C) carpals.
D) olecranon process.
E) styloid process.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11
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42) The hand has ________ bones in the wrist and ________ bones in the palm.
A) 5; 5
B) 10; 5
C) 8; 4
D) 8; 5
E) 4; 5
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43) Which of the following is not an upper limb bone?
A) ulna
B) radius
C) humerus
D) metatarsals
E) carpals
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44) The ________ of the radius helps stabilize the wrist joint.
A) olecranon process
B) coronoid process
C) styloid process
D) radial tuberosity
E) capitulum
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
45) The bones that form the palm are the
A) carpals.
B) tarsals.
C) metacarpals.
D) metatarsals.
E) phalanges.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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46) Tina falls and fractures her pisiform bone. What part of her body was injured?
A) foot
B) forearm
C) wrist
D) hand
E) ankle
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
13
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Figure 8-2 The Humerus
Use Figure 8-2 to answer the following questions:
47) Which structure is the lateral epicondyle?
A) 7
B) 8
C) 9
D) 3
E) 4
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Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
48) Identify the structure labeled "9."
A) olecranon process
B) medial epicondyle
C) lateral epicondyle
D) greater tubercle
E) trochlea
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
49) When the arm is straight, which structure accepts the olecranon?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 8
E) 9
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
50) Identify the place where the humerus often fractures.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 5
D) 6
E) 7
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
51) Upon which structure does the radius articulate?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
15
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52) Which of the following is not a part of the pelvis?
A) sacrum
B) coccyx
C) coxal bone
D) lumbar vertebrae
E) pubic symphysis
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
53) What bone articulates with the coxal bone at the acetabulum?
A) sacrum
B) femur
C) humerus
D) tibia
E) fibula
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
54) When seated, the weight of the body is borne by the
A) ischial tuberosities.
B) posterior inferior iliac spines.
C) iliac crests.
D) obturator foramina.
E) inferior rami of the pubis.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
55) The pubic and ischial rami encircle the
A) pubic symphysis.
B) lesser sciatic notch.
C) greater sciatic notch.
D) obturator foramen.
E) acetabulum.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16
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56) The two pubic bones join medially at the
A) pubic tuberosity.
B) superior ramus.
C) inferior ramus.
D) pubic tubercle.
E) pubic symphysis.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
57) The smooth articular surface of the acetabulum is called the
A) ovale surface.
B) obturator surface.
C) lunate surface.
D) sciatic surface.
E) hamate surface.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
58) The sacroiliac joint is stabilized by ligaments attaching to a roughened area superior to the
auricular surface of the ilium called the
A) iliac fossa.
B) anterior superior iliac spine.
C) greater sciatic notch.
D) iliac tuberosity.
E) arcuate line.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
59) The bony edge of the true pelvis consisting of the ilium and pubis is called the
A) pelvic spine.
B) pelvic brim.
C) pubic symphysis.
D) sacral curvature.
E) pelvic crest.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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60) The opening surrounded by the pelvic brim is called the
A) pelvic inlet.
B) false pelvis.
C) pelvic crest.
D) pelvic outlet.
E) lesser pelvis.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
61) The largest component of the coxal bone is the
A) pubis.
B) ischium.
C) ilium.
D) femur.
E) tibia.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
62) A male has a ________ pelvic outlet when compared to the woman's pelvic outlet.
A) larger
B) longer
C) narrower
D) wider
E) deeper
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
63) The superior border of the ilium that acts as a point of attachment for both ligaments and
muscles is the
A) anterior iliac spine.
B) acetabulum.
C) posterior superior iliac spine.
D) iliac crest.
E) iliac notch.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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64) The sacrum articulates with the
A) ilium.
B) ischium.
C) pubis.
D) ilium and ischium.
E) ischium and pubis.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
65) The ilium, ischium, and pubis fuse into a single bone called the
A) patella.
B) pelvic girdle.
C) pectoral girdle.
D) coccyx.
E) coxal bone.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
66) Which surface feature(s) along the ilium mark(s) attachment sites for large hip muscles?
A) lunate surface
B) greater sciatic notch
C) gluteal lines
D) lesser sciatic notch
E) pubic symphysis
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
67) The greater sciatic notch is a feature on the
A) ilium.
B) ischium.
C) pubis.
D) femur.
E) patella.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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68) The pelvic organs are mostly found within the
A) ischial spine.
B) iliac fossa.
C) ischial fossa.
D) obturator foramen.
E) pubic symphysis.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
69) One type of hip fracture is a fracture of the
A) patellar surface of the femur.
B) pubic ramus.
C) coxal bones.
D) distal epiphysis of the femur.
E) neck of the femur.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
70) The ridge of bone that separates the medial and lateral condyles of the tibia is called the
A) anterior margin.
B) medial malleolus.
C) intercondylar eminence.
D) interosseous membrane.
E) intertrochanteric crest.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
71) The ________ is a large sesamoid-shaped bone sometimes called the kneecap.
A) talus
B) cuboid
C) patella
D) fibula
E) navicular
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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72) Which lower leg bone does not carry any body weight?
A) talus
B) tibia
C) navicular
D) fibula
E) calcaneus
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
73) The foot arch that is maintained by ligaments running from the calcaneus to the metatarsals
is the
A) longitudinal arch.
B) transverse arch.
C) superior arch.
D) posterior arch.
E) distal arch.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
74) The longest and heaviest bone in the body is the
A) humerus.
B) femur.
C) tibia.
D) fibula.
E) coxal bone.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
75) Which of the following is the heel bone?
A) talus
B) navicular
C) calcaneus
D) cuboid
E) patella
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
21
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76) The distal end of the tibia articulates with the
A) talus.
B) fibula.
C) patella.
D) calcaneus.
E) navicular.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
77) Which of the following is not a tarsal bone?
A) medial cuneiform
B) capitate
C) cuboid
D) navicular
E) talus
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
78) The part of the tibia that is easily felt through the skin and is known as the shin is the
A) medial malleolus.
B) anterior crest.
C) tibial tuberosity.
D) linea aspera.
E) anterior margin.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
79) The medial malleolus is located on the
A) fibula.
B) femur.
C) tibia.
D) patella.
E) ischium.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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80) The ligament that surrounds the ________ attaches to the tibial tuberosity.
A) tibia
B) calcaneus
C) talus
D) patella
E) head of the fibula
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
81) A ligament attaches the acetabulum to the femur at the ________, a small pit in the center of
the femoral head.
A) greater trochanter
B) lesser trochanter
C) fovea capitis
D) gluteal tuberosity
E) lateral lip
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
82) Identify the incorrect descriptor of congenital talipes equinovarus (club foot).
A) due to inappropriately developed arches
B) may involve one or both feet
C) may affect the tibia, ankle, and foot
D) feet are turned laterally and everted
E) may be treated with casts or supports in infancy
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
83) The patella slides in a groove on the femur called the
A) medial condyle.
B) interpatellar groove.
C) patellar surface.
D) femoral head.
E) patellar canal.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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84) The linea aspera is located on the
A) humerus.
B) tibia.
C) ischium.
D) femur.
E) fibula.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
85) The lateral malleolus is found on the
A) femur.
B) tibia.
C) fibula.
D) patella.
E) calcaneus.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
86) The medial border of the fibula is bound to the lateral border of the tibia by the
A) lateral malleolus.
B) medial malleolus.
C) intercondylar eminence.
D) interosseous membrane.
E) tibial ligament.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
87) The tarsus contains ________ bones.
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
E) 8
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24
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88) The weight of the body is supported by the
A) distal metacarpals.
B) proximal metatarsals.
C) hallux.
D) calcaneus.
E) distal ends of the metatarsals and the calcaneus.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
89) Tom stumbles and injures his hallux. What part of his anatomy is injured?
A) his hand
B) his foot
C) his ankle
D) his knee
E) his hip
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
90) The talus articulates with the
A) calcaneus.
B) navicular bone.
C) tibia.
D) calcaneus and navicular bones.
E) tibia, calcaneus, and navicular bones.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
91) Compared to the hand, the foot
A) has more phalanges.
B) has fewer metatarsals than the hand has metacarpals.
C) has more tarsal bones than the hand has carpal bones.
D) contains arches that help distribute body weight.
E) has the same number of tarsal bones as the hand has carpal bones.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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92) When standing normally, most of your weight is transmitted to the ground by the
A) tibia, talus, and calcaneus.
B) talus and proximal ends of metatarsals.
C) calcaneus and talus.
D) talus and cuneiforms.
E) calcaneus and proximal ends of metatarsals.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
93) The condition known as "flat feet" is due to a lower-than-normal longitudinal arch in the
foot. A problem with which of the following would most likely contribute to this condition?
A) a loose calcaneal tendon
B) weak tarsometatarsal joints
C) weakness in the ligaments that attach the calcaneus to the distal ends of the metatarsals
D) weakness in the ligaments that attach the talus to the tibia
E) poor alignment of the phalanges with the metatarsals
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
26
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Figure 8-3 The Femur
Use Figure 8-3 to answer the following questions:
94) Which structure articulates with the acetabulum?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 5
E) 9
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
27
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95) Identify the diaphysis of the femur.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
E) 7
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
96) Identify the structure labeled "2."
A) greater trochanter
B) linea aspera
C) head
D) lateral epicondyle
E) lesser trochanter
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
97) Identify the structure labeled "12."
A) greater trochanter
B) linea aspera
C) head
D) lateral epicondyle
E) lateral condyle
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
98) Identify the area of the femur most likely to fracture.
A) 9
B) 8
C) 1
D) 7
E) 3
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
28
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Figure 8-4 Bones of the Ankle and Foot
Use Figure 8-4 to answer the following questions:
99) Identify the bones labeled "9."
A) metatarsals
B) carpals
C) metacarpals
D) tarsals
E) phalanges
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
29
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100) Identify the bones named for their wedge shape.
A) 3
B) 8
C) 7
D) 1
E) 2
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
101) On which bone does the tibia press?
A) 1
B) 7
C) 9
D) 2
E) 3
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
102) Identify the bone labeled "4."
A) 5th distal phalanx
B) 5th proximal phalanx
C) 5th middle phalanx
D) 1st distal phalanx
E) 1st middle phalanx
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
103) Identify the bone labeled "1."
A) talus
B) calcaneus
C) cuneiform V
D) cuboid
E) metatarsal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing
30
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104) Compared to the male pelvis, the female pelvis
A) is larger.
B) is heavier.
C) has a greater pubic angle.
D) has a thicker ischial tuberosity.
E) has deep acetabula.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
105) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the male pelvis?
A) heavy, rough textured bone
B) heart-shaped pelvic inlet
C) angle of pubic arch greater than 100 degrees
D) relatively deep iliac fossa
E) ilia extend far above sacrum
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
106) The clearest distinction between a male and female skeleton is seen in the characteristics of
the
A) skull.
B) pelvis.
C) sacrum.
D) teeth.
E) thoracic cage.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
107) Which of the following describes the female pelvis?
A) broad and smooth
B) prominent bone markings
C) acetabulum directed laterally
D) bones are heavy
E) pelvic outlet is narrow
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
31
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108) Study of human skeletons can reveal all of the following information except the person's
A) sex.
B) age and nutritional status.
C) size and handedness.
D) health.
E) intelligence.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 8-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
109) Which of the following is not an age-related change in the skeleton?
A) closure of the fontanels
B) bone remodeling
C) reduction in mineral content
D) appearance of major vertebral curves
E) fusion of the coxal bones
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
110) On a field trip you discover a skeleton with the following characteristics: the acetabulum is
directed laterally, the ischial spine points medially, and the angle inferior to the pubic symphysis
is less than 90 degrees. The long bones of the arms and legs are relatively light and show
epiphyseal plates. This skeleton is probably from
A) a young male.
B) a young female.
C) an elderly male.
D) an elderly female.
E) an infant male.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
32
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In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) What structures comprise the appendicular skeleton? (Figure 8-1)
A) skull, pectoral girdles, and upper limbs
B) skull, thoracic cage, and vertebral column
C) vertebral column, pelvic girdles, and lower limbs
D) pectoral girdles, upper limbs, pelvic girdles, and lower limbs
E) thoracic cage, pectoral girdles, and pelvic girdles
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 8-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) With which carpal bones does metacarpal IV articulate? (Figure 8-6)
A) hamate and capitate
B) trapezium and trapezoid
C) trapezoid and capitate
D) lunate and triquetrum
E) scaphoid and lunate
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 8-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) What is the correct term for the opening formed by the pubis and the ischium? (Figure 8-8)
A) foramen magnum
B) pubic symphysis
C) obturator foramen
D) ischial foramen
E) foramen rotundum
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) Which of the leg bones does not articulate with the femur? (Figure 8-12)
A) tibia
B) fibula
C) ulna
D) radius
E) ilium
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
33
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Essay Questions
1) Why is it necessary for the bones of the pelvic girdle to be more massive than the bones of the
pectoral girdle?
Answer: The pelvic girdle must withstand the load of bearing and moving the entire body
whereas the pectoral girdle only supports the upper limbs.
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) What is the distinction between the false pelvis and the true pelvis?
Answer: The true pelvis encloses the pelvic cavity and its superior limit is a line that extends
from either side of the base of the sacrum, along the arcuate line and pectineal line to the pubic
symphysis. The false pelvis consists of the expanded, bladelike portions of each ilium superior to
the pelvic brim.
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3) Describe the pelvic adaptations to childbearing in the female.
Answer: These include: an enlarged pelvic outlet, a broader pubic angle, less curvature on the
sacrum and coccyx, wider and more circular pelvic inlet, a relatively broad pelvis that does not
extend as far superiorly, and ilia that project farther laterally, but do not extend as far superior to
the sacrum.
Learning Outcome: 8-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
4) A runner visits a podiatrist complaining of pain at the bottom of the foot. The podiatrist
quickly notes that the patient has flatfeet and decides to take an x-ray of his foot. Explain what it
means to have flatfeet. What are some possible consequences of flatfeet and why did the
podiatrist take an x-ray? What treatments might the doctor recommend?
Answer: The normal arches in the foot are lower than normal because they have lost elasticity or
didn't form correctly. When you stand normally the arches provide an elastic connection as the
weight is transferred from the calcaneus to the metatarsals. The arches act as shock absorbers but
when the arches are flat the load is distributed into the metatarsals causing pain. The patient may
have a stress fracture of one of the metatarsals as a result of the stress of running with poor
arches. The doctor would recommend wearing shoes with extra arch support.
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
5) To settle a bet, you need to measure the length of your lower limb (head of femur to distal end
of tibia). What landmarks would you use to make the measurement?
Answer: You could feel the lesser sciatic notch, which is at the same level as the head of the
femur. You could feel the medial malleolus of the tibia at the ankle.
Learning Outcome: 8-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
34
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 9 Joints
Multiple Choice Questions
1) Joints can be classified structurally as
A) bony.
B) fibrous.
C) cartilaginous.
D) synovial.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) The synarthrosis that binds the teeth to the bony sockets is a
A) suture.
B) gomphosis.
C) synchondrosis.
D) synotosis.
E) syndesmosis.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) An immovable joint is a(n)
A) synarthrosis.
B) diarthrosis.
C) amphiarthrosis.
D) syndesmosis.
E) symphysis.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) A synovial joint is an example of a(n)
A) synarthrosis.
B) amphiarthrosis.
C) diarthrosis.
D) symphysis.
E) syndesmosis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) A ligamentous connection such as an antebrachial interosseous membrane is called a
A) syndesmosis.
B) symphysis.
C) synchondrosis.
D) synostosis.
E) gomphosis.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) A slightly movable joint is a(n)
A) synarthrosis.
B) diarthrosis.
C) amphiarthrosis.
D) gomphosis.
E) synostosis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) A suture is an example of a(n)
A) synarthrosis.
B) syndesmosis.
C) symphysis.
D) diarthrosis.
E) amphiarthrosis.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) An epiphyseal line is an example of a
A) gomphosis.
B) synchondrosis.
C) synostosis.
D) symphysis.
E) syndesmosis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
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9) Dense fibrous connective tissue is to a suture as a periodontal ligament is to a(n)
A) amphiarthrosis.
B) syndesmosis.
C) synostosis.
D) synchondrosis.
E) gomphosis.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
10) An example of a synchondrosis is the articulation of the
A) ribs with the sternum.
B) radius and the ulna.
C) femur with the acetabulum.
D) atlas and the axis.
E) navicular bone with the cuniform bones.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) A freely movable joint is a(n)
A) synarthrosis.
B) diarthrosis.
C) amphiarthrosis.
D) syndesmosis.
E) symphysis.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12) The intervertebral disc joint is called a
A) synarthrosis.
B) glide joint.
C) condylar joint.
D) synchondrosis.
E) symphysis.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
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13) Which of the following is one of the four major types of synarthrotic joints?
A) suture
B) gomphosis
C) synchondrosis
D) synostosis
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) Syndesmosis is to ligament as symphysis is to
A) fibrous cartilage.
B) dense regular connective tissue.
C) periodontal ligament.
D) rigid cartilaginous bridge.
E) completely fused.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
15) Structurally, the pubic symphysis is classified as a ________ articulation.
A) cartilaginous
B) bony
C) synovial
D) fibrous
E) diarthrotic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) Identify the incorrect pair.
A) synarthrosis; immovable joint
B) amphiarthrosis; slightly movable joint
C) chondrosis; freely moving joint
D) gomphosis; articulation between tooth and bone
E) They are all correct; there is no incorrect pair.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
4
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17) Which of the following occurs when the articular cartilage is damaged?
A) The matrix begins to break down.
B) The exposed surface appears rough.
C) Friction in the joint increases.
D) Normal synovial joint function is unable to continue.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) Which of the following is not a function of synovial fluid?
A) shock absorption
B) increases osmotic pressure within joint
C) lubrication
D) provides nutrients
E) protects articular cartilages
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
19) Bursae are found in all of the following areas except
A) tendon sheaths.
B) beneath the skin covering a bone.
C) within connective tissue exposed to friction or pressure.
D) around blood vessels.
E) around many synovial joints.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) Which of the following is not a property of articular cartilage?
A) covered by perichondrium
B) lubricated by synovial fluid
C) enclosed by an articular capsule
D) similar to hyaline cartilage
E) smooth, low-friction surface
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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21) The surface of articular cartilage is
A) slick.
B) flat.
C) smooth.
D) rough.
E) both slick and smooth.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22) Which of the following is not considered an accessory synovial structure?
A) fat pads
B) menisci
C) tendons
D) bursae
E) synovial membrane
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) Mike falls off his skateboard and sprains his ankle. Which of the following most likely
occurs with this type of accident?
A) A bursa is damaged and leaks synovial fluid.
B) A ligament is stretched and collagen fibers in the ligament are damaged.
C) Articulating bones are forced out of position and ligaments are torn.
D) Dislocation of the ankle occurs.
E) The tibia is broken and must be set in a cast.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
24) Which of the following is not a property of synovial joints?
A) freely movable
B) lined by a secretory epithelium
C) covered by a serous membrane
D) contain synovial fluid
E) covered by a capsule
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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Figure 9-1 A Simplified Sectional View of the Knee Joint
Use Figure 9-1 to answer the following questions:
25) Which structure acts as a cushion and consists of fibrous cartilage?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
26) Identify the structure at label "1."
A) meniscus
B) bursa
C) articular cartilage
D) synovial membrane
E) joint cavity
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
7
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27) Identify the structure labeled "2."
A) serous membrane
B) synovial membrane
C) joint capsule
D) periosteum
E) intracapsular ligament
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
28) What type of tissue occurs at the structure labeled "3"?
A) fibrocartilage
B) synovial membrane
C) articular cartilage
D) bone tissue
E) dense connective tissue
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
29) Identify the structure labeled "5."
A) serous membrane
B) synovial membrane
C) joint capsule
D) periosteum
E) intracapsular ligament
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
30) Usually found outside the capsule, ________ protect the articular cartilages and act as
packing material for the joint.
A) ligaments
B) tendons
C) bursae
D) menisci
E) fat pads
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8
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31) Small pockets of synovial fluid that reduce friction and act as a shock absorber where
ligaments and tendons rub against other tissues are called
A) fat pads.
B) menisci.
C) bursae.
D) lacunae.
E) fasciae.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) ________ subdivide synovial cavities, channel the flow of synovial fluid, and allow for
variations in the shapes of the articular surfaces.
A) Fat pads
B) Menisci
C) Bursae
D) Lacunae
E) Fasciae
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
33) A ________ occurs when articulating surfaces are forced out of position.
A) fracture
B) bunion
C) bursitis
D) dislocation
E) sprain
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
34) The three functions of synovial fluid are nutrient distribution, shock absorption, and
A) stabilization.
B) lubrication.
C) padding.
D) strengthening.
E) enzyme secretion.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
9
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35) A ________ is a tender nodule formed around bursae over the base of the great toe.
A) spur
B) blister
C) callus
D) bunion
E) pimple
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36) A collagenous type of connective tissue that reinforces the synovial joint and is found
outside the joint capsule is called the
A) extracapsular tendon.
B) intracapsular ligament.
C) extracapsular ligament.
D) intracapsular tendon.
E) meniscus.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
37) Which one of the following is not a stabilizing factor of synovial joints?
A) skeletal muscles around the joint
B) the presence of a meniscus
C) collagen fibers of the joint capsule
D) fat pads around the joint
E) the synovial membrane
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
38) The joint between the forearm bones and the wrist is a ________ joint.
A) saddle
B) glide
C) hinge
D) condylar
E) pivot
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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39) Ankle extension is also called
A) dorsiflexion.
B) inversion.
C) eversion.
D) plantar flexion.
E) protraction.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40) Pronation is defined as
A) a rolling of the distal epiphysis of the radius over the ulna.
B) a twisting of the ulna medially.
C) twisting the forearm so that the palms face anteriorly.
D) the shortening of the angle between the radius and the humerus.
E) movement of the mandible anteriorly, as seen when biting the upper lip.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
41) A movement away from the midline of the body is called
A) inversion.
B) abduction.
C) adduction.
D) flexion.
E) extension.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42) To pinch with a thumb and finger involves a movement called
A) rotation.
B) opposition.
C) circumduction.
D) eversion.
E) retraction.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11
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43) A common injury to the ankle occurs by excessive turning of the sole inward, called
A) eversion.
B) protraction.
C) dorsiflexion.
D) plantar flexion.
E) inversion.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44) The ankle joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint.
A) condylar
B) saddle
C) hinge
D) ball-and-socket
E) gliding
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
45) Which of the following movements is a good example of flexion?
A) opening the mouth
B) turning the hand palm upward
C) extreme bending of the head backwards
D) bending the elbow
E) spreading the fingers
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
46) A twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole of the foot outward is known as
A) inversion.
B) plantar flexion.
C) eversion.
D) dorsiflexion.
E) pronation.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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47) The joints that connect the four fingers with the metacarpal bones are
A) condylar joints.
B) saddle joints.
C) pivot joints.
D) hinge joints.
E) condyloid joints.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
48) The joint between the trapezium and metacarpal bone of the thumb is an example of a
________ joint.
A) saddle
B) gliding
C) condylar
D) hinge
E) pivot
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
49) Monaxial joints are known as ________ joints.
A) saddle
B) gliding
C) ball-and-socket
D) condylar
E) hinge
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
50) Which type of joint is found between the carpal bones?
A) saddle
B) gliding
C) hinge
D) ball-and-socket
E) pivot
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
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51) Which of the following types of joints is monaxial, but capable of only rotation?
A) saddle
B) gliding
C) hinge
D) ball-and-socket
E) pivot
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
52) Curling into the "fetal position" ________ the intervertebral joints.
A) hyperextends
B) flexes
C) abducts
D) extends
E) rotates
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
53) The movements known as dorsiflexion and plantar flexion involve moving the
A) hand.
B) arm.
C) foot.
D) leg.
E) hip.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
54) The elbow joint is an example of a(n) ________ joint.
A) saddle
B) gliding
C) condylar
D) hinge
E) pivot
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14
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55) In a triaxial articulation,
A) movement can occur in all three axes.
B) movement can occur in only two axes.
C) movement can occur in only one axis.
D) only circumduction is possible.
E) no movement is possible.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
56) An extension past the anatomical position is known as
A) double-jointed.
B) extension.
C) flexion.
D) rotation.
E) hyperextension.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
57) Which of the following joints is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?
A) elbow
B) knee
C) ankle
D) wrist
E) shoulder
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
58) The joints between vertebrae are examples of ________ joints.
A) saddle
B) pivot
C) condylar
D) hinge
E) gliding
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15
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59) Which foot movement enables the ballerina to stand on her toes?
A) dorsiflexion
B) plantar flexion
C) inversion
D) rotation
E) eversion
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
60) Which of the following movements is a good example of supination?
A) opening the mouth
B) turning the hand palm upward
C) extreme bending of the head backwards
D) moving the hand toward the shoulder
E) spreading the fingers
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
61) Lifting a stone with the tip of foot is
A) circumduction.
B) eversion.
C) inversion.
D) plantar flexion.
E) dorsiflexion.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
62) Which of the following movements is a good example of hyperextension?
A) opening the mouth
B) turning the hand palm upward
C) extreme bending of the head backwards
D) moving the hand toward the shoulder
E) spreading the fingers
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
16
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63) Which of the following movements is a good example of abduction?
A) opening the mouth
B) turning the hand palm upward
C) extreme bending of the head backwards
D) moving the hand toward the shoulder
E) spreading the fingers
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
64) Which of the following movements is a good example of depression?
A) opening the mouth
B) turning the hand palm upward
C) extreme bending of the head backwards
D) moving the hand toward the shoulder
E) spreading the fingers
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
65) Nodding your head "yes" is an example of
A) lateral and medial rotation.
B) circumduction.
C) flexion and extension.
D) pronation and supination.
E) protraction and retraction.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
66) Which of the following movements would you associate with chewing food?
A) elevation
B) abduction
C) flexion
D) pronation
E) circumduction
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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Figure 9-2 Bones of the Wrist and Hand
Use Figure 9-2 to answer the following questions:
67) Identify the type of joint at label "1."
A) hinge
B) condylar
C) gliding
D) saddle
E) pivot
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
18
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68) Identify the type of joint at label "2."
A) hinge
B) condylar
C) gliding
D) saddle
E) pivot
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
69) Identify the type of joint at label "3."
A) hinge
B) gliding
C) condylar
D) saddle
E) pivot
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
70) Identify the type of joint at label "4."
A) hinge
B) gliding
C) condylar
D) saddle
E) pivot
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
71) Identify the type of joint at label "5."
A) hinge
B) condylar
C) gliding
D) saddle
E) pivot
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
19
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72) The movement of rotating a limb toward the anterior surface of the body is called ________
rotation.
A) frontal
B) external
C) lateral
D) outward
E) medial
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
73) The movement of rotating a limb outward is called ________ rotation.
A) lateral
B) internal
C) medial
D) superficial
E) abductive
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
74) The atlantoaxial joint is an example of a ________ joint.
A) ball and socket
B) pivot
C) gliding
D) condyloid
E) saddle
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
75) The movement of the forearm while twisting a doorknob is
A) protraction and retraction.
B) abduction and adduction.
C) flexion and extension.
D) lateral rotation and medial rotation.
E) supination and pronation.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
20
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76) Identify the incorrect pair.
A) gliding joint; sacroiliac joint
B) pivot joint; hip joint
C) hinge joint; ankle joint
D) condylar joint; radiocarpal joint
E) saddle joint; first carpometacarpal joint
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
77) You ________ your mandible when you grasp your upper lip with your lower teeth.
A) rotate
B) extend
C) pivot
D) protract
E) pronate
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
78) The movement of a body part upward is called
A) extension.
B) protraction.
C) supination.
D) elevation.
E) abduction.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
79) Which of the following types of movement are not permitted at a synovial joint?
A) eversion
B) flexion
C) retraction
D) gliding
E) They are all permitted.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
21
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80) The movement of a body part downward is called
A) retraction.
B) pronation.
C) depression.
D) protraction.
E) eversion.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
81) ________ is a type of angular movement that increases the angle between articulating bones.
A) Adduction
B) Abduction
C) Flexion
D) Extension
E) Rotation
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
82) ________ is a type of angular movement that decreases the angle between articulating bones.
A) Adduction
B) Abduction
C) Flexion
D) Extension
E) Rotation
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
83) Which of the following is not a type of synovial joint?
A) gliding
B) hinge
C) pivot
D) symphysis
E) condylar
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22
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84) All of the following movements occur at the intervertebral joints except
A) flexion.
B) rotation.
C) dorsiflexion.
D) lateral flexion.
E) extension.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
85) The gelatinous core of an intervertebral disc is called the
A) annulus fibrosus.
B) nucleus pulposus.
C) synovial fluid.
D) gelatinous pulposus.
E) gelatinous fibrosus.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
86) The fibrocartilage outer layer of the intervertebral disc is called the
A) annulus fibrosus.
B) nucleus pulposus.
C) synovial fluid.
D) gelatinous pulposus.
E) gelatinous fibrosus.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
87) The flava ligament is
A) a paired ligament that connect the laminae of adjacent vertebrae.
B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies.
C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae.
D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the
sacrum.
E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23
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88) The supraspinous ligament is
A) a paired ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae.
B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies.
C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae.
D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the
sacrum.
E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
89) The interspinous ligament is
A) a paired ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae.
B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies.
C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae.
D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the
sacrum.
E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
90) The anterior longitudinal ligament is
A) a paired ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae.
B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies.
C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae.
D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the
sacrum.
E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
91) The posterior longitudinal ligament is
A) a paired ligament that connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae.
B) a fibrous band that connects the posterior surfaces of adjacent vertebral bodies.
C) a band of fibrous tissue connecting the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae.
D) a longitudinal fibrous band that is attached to the tips of spinous processes from C7 to the
sacrum.
E) a wide fibrous band that connect the anterior surfaces of the adjacent vertebral bodies.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24
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92) The elbow joint is extremely stable because
A) the ulna and humerus interlock.
B) the articular capsule is thin.
C) the capsule lacks ligaments.
D) several muscles support the joint capsule.
E) the joint lacks bursae.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
93) Contraction of the muscle that is attached to the radial tuberosity results in
A) flexion of the forearm.
B) extension of the forearm.
C) abduction of the forearm.
D) adduction of the forearm.
E) rotation of the shoulder.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
94) The largest and strongest articulation at the elbow is the
A) humero-ulnar joint.
B) ulnar joint.
C) ulnaradial joint.
D) radial joint.
E) humeroradial joint.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
95) The ligament that provides support to the front of the knee joint is the ________ ligament.
A) anterior cruciate
B) posterior cruciate
C) patellar
D) popliteal
E) tibial collateral
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
25
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96) The ligaments that limit the anterior-posterior movement of the tibia and maintain the
alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles are the ________ ligaments.
A) cruciate
B) fibular collateral
C) patellar
D) popliteal
E) tibial collateral
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
97) In the knee joint, the medial and lateral menisci
A) are cartilages that bind the knee to the tibia.
B) act as cushions between the articulating surfaces.
C) take the place of bursae.
D) are found between the patella and femur.
E) are prominent fat pads to protect the articulating bones.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
98) The structures that assist the bursae in reducing friction between the patella and other tissues
are the
A) fat pads.
B) medial menisci.
C) lateral menisci.
D) popliteal ligaments.
E) cruciate ligaments.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
99) The normal movement of the knee joint during walking involves
A) abduction.
B) adduction.
C) flexion.
D) extension.
E) both flexion and extension.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
26
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100) The back of the knee joint is reinforced by ________ ligaments.
A) tibial collateral
B) anterior cruciate
C) posterior cruciate
D) patellar
E) popliteal
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
101) The medial surface of the knee joint is reinforced by the ________ ligament.
A) cruciate
B) fibular collateral
C) patellar
D) popliteal
E) tibial collateral
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
102) Complete dislocation of the knee is rare because
A) the knee is protected by the patella.
B) the femur articulates with the tibia at the knee.
C) the knee contains seven major ligaments.
D) the knee contains fat pads to absorb shocks.
E) the knee is extremely resilient.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
103) The most common athletic knee injury produces damage to the
A) patella.
B) lateral meniscus.
C) ligaments.
D) tendons.
E) medial meniscus.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
27
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104) The ligament that encloses the ________ attaches to the tibial tuberosity.
A) head of the femur
B) greater trochanter
C) medial malleolus
D) lesser trochanter
E) patella
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
105) The knee joint is stabilized by ________ major ligaments.
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
E) 11
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
106) In nursemaids elbow the radial head is dislocated from the
A) ulnar collateral ligament.
B) radial collateral ligament.
C) articular capsule.
D) anular ligament.
E) antebrachial interosseous membrane.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
107) Which ligament connects the clavicle and the acromion?
A) coracohumeral
B) coracoacromial
C) coracoclavicular
D) glenohumeral
E) acromioclavicular
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28
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108) The joint that permits the greatest range of mobility of any joint in the body is the ________
joint.
A) hip
B) shoulder
C) elbow
D) knee
E) wrist
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
109) Which of the following is false?
A) The rotator cuff functions to limit the range of movements of the shoulder joint.
B) The shapes of the articulating surfaces within the joint help prevent movement in a particular
direction and strengthen and stabilize the joint.
C) The tighter two bones are held together within a joint, the stronger the joint.
D) The more movement a joint allows, the stronger the joint.
E) The tension produced by muscle tendons surrounding a joint help stabilize the joint.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
110) The "rotator cuff" of the shoulder functions to
A) reinforce the joint capsule.
B) limit the range of movements.
C) allow biaxial movement.
D) allow monaxial movement.
E) reinforce the joint capsule and limit the range of movements.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
111) Which of the following ligaments assists in stabilization of the shoulder joint?
A) coracoacromial
B) subscapularis
C) coracoclavicular
D) coracoacromial and subscapular ligaments
E) coracoacromial and coracoclavicular ligaments
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
29
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112) Which of the following athletes are at greatest risk of developing a rotator cuff injury?
A) tennis players
B) soccer players
C) runners
D) baseball pitchers
E) high jumpers
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
113) Which of the following ligaments is not associated with the hip joint?
A) iliofemoral ligament
B) pubofemoral ligament
C) ischiofemoral ligament
D) ligamentum teres
E) anterior cruciate ligament
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
114) Which of the following explains the occurrence of a hip fracture rather than a hip
dislocation?
A) There is a severe lack of capsular fibers in hip joints compared to other synovial joints.
B) Only three ligaments are present in hip joints to provide stability.
C) Stress gets transferred from head of femur to the diaphysis via the thin neck.
D) Muscles surrounding the hip joint are altogether small and thus provide little stability.
E) All of the above.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
115) Factors that increase the stability of the hip joint include
A) strong muscular padding.
B) tough capsule.
C) almost complete bony socket.
D) supporting ligaments.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30
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116) The coxal bones articulate with the sacrum at the ________ joint.
A) vertebrocoxal
B) coxosacral
C) iliocoxal
D) vertebroilial
E) sacroiliac
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
117) The glenoid fossa is rimmed by the fibrocartilaginous
A) fovea capitis.
B) glenoid labrum.
C) menisci glenoidum.
D) annulus fibrosus.
E) nucleus pulposus.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
118) The shoulder joint, or ________ joint, permits the greatest range of motion of any joint.
A) coracocondylar
B) humeroacromial
C) clavicoscapular
D) glenohumeral
E) deltobrachial
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 9-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
119) Which of the following is not a member of the rotator cuff?
A) teres major
B) subscapularis
C) teres minor
D) infraspinatus
E) supraspinatus
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31
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120) Arthritis always involves damage to the ________ cartilages, but the specific cause can
vary.
A) articular
B) intervertebral
C) costal
D) elastic
E) fibrous
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
121) A general term for pain and stiffness that affects the skeletal or muscular system is
A) rheumatism.
B) atherosclerosis.
C) bursitis.
D) bunions.
E) arthritis.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
122) The clinical term for joint inflammation is
A) rheumatism.
B) atherosclerosis.
C) bursitis.
D) bunions.
E) arthritis.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
123) In ________ crystals of uric acid form within the synovial fluid of joints.
A) rheumatism
B) degenerative joint disease
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) osteoporosis
E) gouty arthritis
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32
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124) In ________ an autoimmune response attacks joints and causes an inflammation condition.
A) rheumatism
B) degenerative joint disease
C) rheumatoid arthritis
D) osteoporosis
E) gouty arthritis
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
125) The most common type of joint inflammation is called
A) rheumatism.
B) degenerative joint disease.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) osteoporosis.
E) gouty arthritis.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) What structure covers the bony surfaces of a synovial joint to prevent the surfaces from
touching? (Figure 9-1)
A) fibrous joint capsule
B) synovial membrane
C) articular cartilage
D) elastic cartilage
E) meniscus
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) List the various types of angular movements. (Figure 9-3)
A) inversion and eversion
B) dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
C) circumduction
D) pronation and supination
E) flexion/extension/hyperextension, abduction/adduction, and circumduction
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
33
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3) Within an intervertebral disc, which structure provides the tough outer layer of fibrocartilage
and which structure provides the soft inner core for resiliency and shock absorption? (Figure 9-6)
A) anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus
B) nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus
C) anulus pulposus; nucleus fibrosus
D) nucleus fibrosus; anulus pulposus
E) anular ligament; spinous ligament
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 9-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) What two bones does the acromioclavicular ligament connect? (Figure 9-9)
A) acromion and clavicle
B) scapula and clavicle
C) sternum and clavicle
D) humerus and clavicle
E) rib 1 and clavicle
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 9-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
Essay Questions
1) Explain how the structure of synovial fluid allows it to function as a lubricant in a joint.
Answer: Synovial fluid is a viscous fluid like egg white or molasses and made up of
proteoglycans and hyaluranon. It is absorbed by the sponge-like articular cartilage of joints and
creates a slick film on the surfaces that reduces friction.
Learning Outcome: 9-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) When the triceps brachii muscle contracts, what movements does it produce?
Answer: The triceps brachii attaches to the olecranon process. Contraction of the triceps brachii
muscle causes the ulna to rotate around the distal humerus, causing extension of the forearm.
Learning Outcome: 9-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3) Why is the inferior region of the shoulder joint most vulnerable to dislocation?
Answer: The anterior, superior, and posterior surfaces of the shoulder joint are reinforced by
ligaments, muscles, and tendons, but the inferior capsule is poorly reinforced. As a result, a
dislocation caused by an impact or a violent muscle contraction is most likely to occur at this
site. Such a dislocation can tear the inferior capsular wall and the glenoid labrum.
Learning Outcome: 9-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
34
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4) A high school student comes to the emergency room complaining of persistent pain and
stiffness in her shoulder joint. In talking with her, you discover that she has been spending many
hours trying to improve her pitching skills for her school's softball team. What is likely causing
the pain?
Answer: Her pain is probably caused by injury to the rotator cuff, which can result from
repetitive motion, trauma, or excessive force. The rotator cuff consists of the tendons of four
muscles that stabilize the shoulder joint. If torn, surgical repair may be indicated.
Learning Outcome: 9-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
5) How are osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis different?
Answer: Osteoarthritis is a "wear-and-tear" disease seen usually in the elderly. Rheumatoid
arthritis is an autoimmune disease in which the body's immune system attacks synovial joints,
triggered by an infection or some other cause.
Learning Outcome: 9-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
35
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 10 Muscle Tissue
Multiple Choice Questions
1) Muscle tissue, one of the four basic tissue groups, consists chiefly of cells that are highly
specialized for
A) conduction.
B) contraction.
C) peristalsis.
D) cushioning.
E) secretion.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Which of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle?
A) produce movement
B) maintain posture
C) maintain body temperature
D) guard body entrances and exits
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) At each end of the muscle, the collagen fibers of the epimysium, perimysium, and
endomysium, come together to form a
A) tendon.
B) satellite cell.
C) ligament.
D) tenosynovium.
E) sheath.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds an entire skeletal muscle is the
A) tendon.
B) epimysium.
C) endomysium.
D) perimysium.
E) fascicle.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) Nerves and blood vessels that service a muscle fiber are located in the connective tissues of its
A) endomysium.
B) perimysium.
C) sarcolemma.
D) sarcomere.
E) myofibrils.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) A fascicle is a
A) group of muscle fibers that are encased in the perimysium.
B) layer of connective tissue that separates muscle from skin.
C) group of muscle fibers that are all part of the same motor unit.
D) group of muscle fibers and motor neurons.
E) collection of myofibrils in a muscle fiber.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) The delicate connective tissue that surrounds the skeletal muscle fibers and ties adjacent
muscle fibers together is the
A) endomysium.
B) perimysium.
C) epimysium.
D) superficial fascia.
E) periosteum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) The bundle of collagen fibers at the end of a skeletal muscle that attaches the muscle to bone
is called a(n)
A) fascicle.
B) tendon.
C) ligament.
D) epimysium.
E) myofibril.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
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9) Put the following structures in order from superficial to deep.
1. muscle fiber
2. perimysium
3. myofibril
4. fascicle
5. endomysium
6. epimysium
A) 1, 5, 4, 3, 2, 6
B) 6, 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
C) 6, 2, 4, 5, 1, 3
D) 1, 3, 5, 6, 4, 2
E) 2, 3, 1, 4, 6, 5
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
10) A(n) ________ can be described as a broad tendinous sheet.
A) fasciae
B) retinaculum
C) aponeurosis
D) interstitium
E) tympanum
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) Interactions between actin and myosin filaments of the sarcomere are responsible for
A) muscle fatigue.
B) the conduction of neural stimulation to the muscle fiber.
C) muscle contraction.
D) muscle relaxation.
E) the striped appearance of skeletal muscle.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12) In a sarcomere, the central portion of thick filaments are linked laterally by proteins of the
A) Z line.
B) M line.
C) H band.
D) A band.
E) I band.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
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13) The advantage of having many nuclei in a skeletal muscle fiber is the ability to
A) contract much more forcefully.
B) produce more ATP with little oxygen.
C) store extra DNA for metabolism.
D) produce large amounts of muscle proteins.
E) produce nutrients for muscle contraction.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) Skeletal muscle fibers are formed from embryonic cells called
A) sarcomeres.
B) myofibrils.
C) myoblasts.
D) fascicles.
E) myomeres.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) The repeating unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is the
A) sarcolemma.
B) sarcomere.
C) sarcoplasmic reticulum.
D) myofibril.
E) myofilament.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the
A) sarcolemma.
B) sarcomere.
C) sarcosome.
D) sarcoplasmic reticulum.
E) sarcoplasm.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) Which of the following best describes the term sarcomere?
A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle
B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils
C) storage site for calcium ions
D) thin filaments are anchored here
E) largely made of myosin molecules
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) Muscle fibers differ from "typical cells" in that muscle fibers
A) lack a plasma membrane.
B) have many nuclei.
C) are very small.
D) lack mitochondria.
E) have large gaps in the cell membrane.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19) Which of the following best describes the term sarcoplasmic reticulum?
A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle
B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils
C) storage and release site for calcium ions
D) thin filaments are anchored here
E) largely made of myosin molecules
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) Which of the following best describes the term Z line?
A) protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle
B) repeating unit of striated myofibrils
C) storage site for calcium ions
D) thin filaments are anchored here
E) largely made of myosin molecules
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5
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21) The region of the sarcomere containing the thick filaments is the
A) Z line.
B) M line.
C) H band.
D) A band.
E) I band.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22) The skeletal muscle complex known as the triad consists of
A) actin, myosin, and titin filaments.
B) a transverse tubule and two terminal cisternae.
C) filaments, myofibrils, and sarcomeres.
D) A bands, H bands, and I bands.
E) actin, myosin, and sarcomeres.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) The area in the center of the A band that contains no thin filaments is the
A) Z line.
B) M line.
C) H band.
D) I band.
E) zone of overlap.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) At rest, the tropomyosin molecule is held in place by
A) actin molecules.
B) myosin molecules.
C) troponin molecules.
D) ATP molecules.
E) calcium ions.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6
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25) Each thin filament consists of
A) two actin protein strands coiled helically around each other.
B) chains of myosin molecules.
C) six molecules coiled into a helical structure.
D) a rod-shaped structure with "heads" projecting from each end.
E) a double strand of myosin molecules.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26) The region of the sarcomere that always contains thin filaments is the
A) Z line.
B) M line.
C) H band.
D) A band.
E) I band.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27) At rest, active sites on the actin are blocked by
A) myosin molecules.
B) troponin molecules.
C) tropomyosin molecules.
D) calcium ions.
E) ATP molecules.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28) The series of membranous channels that surround each myofibril is the
A) sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B) sarcoplasm.
C) sarcomere.
D) sarcolemma.
E) endomysium.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7
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29) All of the following proteins are part of the thin filaments except
A) actin.
B) tropomyosin.
C) troponin.
D) titin.
E) None of the answers is correct; there are no exceptions.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30) When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, the
A) H bands and I bands get larger.
B) zones of overlap get larger.
C) Z lines move further apart.
D) width of the A band increases.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
31) Since each myofibril is attached at either end of the muscle fiber, when sarcomeres shorten,
the muscle fiber
A) lengthens.
B) shortens.
C) strengthens.
D) weakens.
E) pulls from the middle.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8
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Figure 10-1 Skeletal Muscle Fiber
Use Figure 10-1 to answer the following questions:
32) Identify the structure labeled "1."
A) mitochondria
B) glycogen
C) ATP
D) myofibril
E) synaptic vesicle
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
33) Which of the following are found in the structure labeled "3"?
A) actin
B) myosin
C) titin
D) tropomyosin
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
9
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34) What physiological process occurs in the structure labeled "7"?
A) release of neurotransmitter
B) conduction of the action potential into the cell interior
C) activity of acetylcholinesterase
D) release of protein and calcium ions into the muscle fiber
E) opening of sodium channels and subsequent influx of sodium
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
35) What is released from the structure labeled "9"?
A) sarcoplasm
B) acetylcholine
C) protein
D) calcium ions
E) acetylcholinesterase
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
36) Where would calcium ions be predominately found?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 8
E) 9
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
37) Which structure has pumps to remove calcium ions from the sarcoplasm to produce
relaxation?
A) 6
B) 7
C) 1
D) 3
E) 2
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
10
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38) Where are the myosin molecules located?
A) 4
B) 5
C) 6
D) 7
E) 8
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
39) Which structure contains the motor end plate?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
E) 8
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
40) Identify the structure where ATP is produced.
A) 6
B) 7
C) 1
D) 3
E) 2
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
41) Identify the structure(s) where ATP is consumed?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 3 and 6
D) 7
E) 3 and 7
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
11
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42) Active sites on the actin become available for binding after
A) actin binds to troponin.
B) troponin binds to tropomyosin.
C) calcium binds to troponin.
D) calcium binds to tropomyosin.
E) myosin binds to troponin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43) The action potential is conducted into a skeletal muscle fiber by
A) motor end plates.
B) neuromuscular junctions.
C) transverse tubules.
D) triads.
E) sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44) The most important factor in decreasing the intracellular concentration of calcium ion after
contraction is
A) active transport of calcium across the sarcolemma.
B) active transport of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
C) active transport of calcium into the synaptic cleft.
D) diffusion of calcium out of the cell.
E) diffusion of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
45) When calcium ion binds to troponin,
A) tropomyosin rolls away from the active site.
B) active sites on the myosin are exposed.
C) actin heads will bind to myosin.
D) muscle relaxation occurs.
E) myosin shortens.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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46) Physical evidence that supports the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction includes
A) constant distance between Z lines during contraction.
B) decreased width of the H band during contraction.
C) increased width of the I band during contraction.
D) decreased width of the A band during contraction.
E) the I band + H band distance is constant during contraction.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
47) The protein that is found in the Z line of a sarcomere is called
A) actinin.
B) titin.
C) nebulin.
D) myosin.
E) actin.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
48) The protein that regulates muscle contraction by controlling the availability of active sites on
actin is called
A) actin.
B) titin.
C) myosin.
D) tropomyosin.
E) nebulin.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
49) Thin filaments are mostly made of the protein
A) actin.
B) titin.
C) myosin.
D) tropomyosin.
E) nebulin.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
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50) Thick filaments are made of the protein
A) actin.
B) titin.
C) myosin.
D) tropomyosin.
E) nebulin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
51) Stem cells located between the endomysium and sarcolemma that function in the repair of
damaged muscle tissue are called
A) myocytes.
B) satellite cells.
C) endocytes.
D) sarcocytes.
E) creatinocytes.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
52) The complex of a transverse tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae is known as a
A) trimer.
B) triad.
C) triptych.
D) trisome.
E) trilogy.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
53) The structural theory that explains how a muscle fiber contracts is called the ________
theory.
A) sliding filament
B) excitation-contraction coupling
C) neuromuscular
D) muscle contraction
E) action-myosin interaction
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14
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54) The region of sarcomere where thin and thick filaments are located is called the
A) I band.
B) A band.
C) Z line.
D) M line.
E) zone of overlap.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
55) In the sarcomere which elastic protein attaches the thick filament to the Z line?
A) titin
B) actin
C) G actin
D) nebulin
E) myosin
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
56) In the sarcomere the protein that forms two twisted strands around a central rod-like protein
is called
A) titin.
B) actin.
C) G actin.
D) nebulin.
E) myosin.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
57) In the myofibril the protein that possesses the active site for myosin heads to bind is called
A) titin.
B) actin.
C) G actin.
D) nebulin.
E) myosin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15
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58) In the myofibril the thin filament is organized around a rod-like core protein called
A) titin.
B) actin.
C) G actin.
D) nebulin.
E) myosin.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
59) In response to action potentials arriving along the transverse tubules, the sarcoplasmic
reticulum releases
A) acetylcholine.
B) sodium ions.
C) potassium ions.
D) calcium ions.
E) hydrogen ions.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
60) Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a motor neuron at a single
A) synaptic knob.
B) sarcomere.
C) neuromuscular junction.
D) synaptic cleft.
E) transverse tubule.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
61) The narrow space between the synaptic terminal and the muscle fiber is the
A) synaptic knob.
B) motor end plate.
C) motor unit.
D) synaptic cleft.
E) M line.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16
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62) Which of the following become connected by myosin cross-bridges during muscle
contraction?
A) thin filaments and thick filaments
B) thick filaments and titin filaments
C) z disks and actin filaments
D) thick filaments and t-tubules
E) thin filaments and t-tubules
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
63) After death, muscle fibers run out of ATP and calcium begins to leak from the sarcoplasmic
reticulum into the sarcoplasm. This results in a condition known as
A) tetany.
B) treppe.
C) depolarization.
D) rigor mortis.
E) oxygen debt.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
64) In rigor mortis
A) the myosin heads are attached to actin.
B) ATP is depleted.
C) calcium ions keep binding to troponin.
D) sustained contractions occur.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
65) In a sarcomere, cross-bridge attachment occurs specifically in the
A) zone of overlap.
B) A band.
C) I band.
D) M line.
E) H band.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
17
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66) Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after
A) acetylcholine binds to chemically-gated channels in the motor end plate.
B) acetylcholinesterase is released from synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft.
C) calcium ion binds to channels on the motor end plate.
D) the action potential jumps across the neuromuscular junction.
E) Any of these can produce an action potential in the muscle cell.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
67) The following is a list of the events that occur during a muscle contraction. What is the
correct sequence of these events?
1. Myosin cross-bridges bind to the actin.
2. The free myosin head splits ATP.
3. Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
4. The myosin head pivots toward the center of the sarcomere.
5. Calcium ion binds to troponin.
6. The myosin head binds an ATP molecule and detaches from the actin.
A) 1, 3, 5, 4, 6, 2
B) 5, 1, 4, 6, 2, 3
C) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4, 6
D) 3, 5, 1, 4, 6, 2
E) 1, 4, 6, 2, 3, 5
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
68) How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle?
A) It would make the muscles less excitable.
B) It would produce muscle weakness.
C) It would cause muscles to stay contracted.
D) It would cause muscles to stay relaxed.
E) It would have little effect on skeletal muscles.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
69) When acetylcholine binds to receptors at the motor end plate, the sarcolemma becomes
A) more permeable to sodium ions.
B) less permeable to sodium ions.
C) more permeable to calcium ions.
D) less permeable to potassium ions.
E) less permeable to potassium and sodium ions.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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70) The cytoplasm of the neuromuscular terminal contains vesicles filled with molecules of the
neurotransmitter
A) epinephrine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) acetylcholine.
D) antidiuretic hormone.
E) adrenaline.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
71) At what point during excitation contraction coupling does exocytosis play a role?
A) during calcium ion reuptake into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) when sodium channels open up on the motor end plate
C) during acetylcholine release from the synaptic terminal
D) when the action potential surges through the T-tubules
E) when ATP splits into ADP and P on the free myosin head
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
72) Which of the following statements about excitation-contraction coupling is incorrect?
A) Calcium ions travel through the transverse tubule.
B) Calcium ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
C) Tropomyosin moves to expose myosin binding sites on actin.
D) Troponin binds calcium ion and signals tropomyosin to move.
E) Relaxation requires uptake of calcium ion by the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
73) Synaptic vesicles contain neurotransmitters that are released by ________ when the action
potential arrives.
A) endocytosis
B) apoptosis
C) exocytosis
D) hydrolysis
E) sodium
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19
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74) A patient takes a medication that blocks ACh receptors of skeletal muscle fibers. What is this
drug's effect on skeletal muscle contraction?
A) increases tone in the muscle
B) causes a strong contraction similar to a "charlie horse" cramp
C) increases the muscle's excitability
D) produces a strong, continuous state of contraction
E) reduces the muscle's ability for contraction
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
75) Communication between axons and muscle fibers occurs at specialized synapses called
A) nervous units.
B) synaptic terminals.
C) motor end plates.
D) motor units.
E) neuromuscular junctions.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
76) Active sites become exposed when calcium ions bind to
A) tropomyosin.
B) actin.
C) myosin.
D) troponin.
E) calcium channels.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
77) Cross bridge detachment is caused by ________ binding to the myosin head.
A) ATP
B) calcium
C) magnesium
D) acetylcholine
E) acetylcholinesterase
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20
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78) The sequence of processes that links the action potential to contraction is called
A) neuromuscular junction.
B) action potential propagation.
C) excitation-contraction coupling.
D) cross bridge formation.
E) sliding filament theory.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
79) The role of acetylcholinesterase is to
A) bind to ligand gated sodium channels.
B) activate acetylcholine.
C) release acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft.
D) transport acetylcholine across the synaptic cleft.
E) break down acetylcholine into acetate and choline components.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
80) Which of the following is not true of acetylcholine?
A) It binds to receptor membrane channels.
B) It diffuses across the synaptic cleft.
C) It is stored in the neuron in vesicles.
D) It enters the muscle fiber to release calcium form the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
E) It is digested by acetylcholinesterase.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
81) Put the following events of excitation-contraction coupling in the order in which they occur.
1. Excitation
2. Sarcomere shortening
3. Generation of muscle tension
4. Neural control
5. Contraction cycle begins
6. Release of calcium ions
A) 4,1,5,2,6,3
B) 4,1,6,5,2,3
C) 1,2,5,6,3,4
D) 6,1,4,2,5,3
E) 1,4,6,2,5,3
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
21
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82) Put the following events of the neuromuscular junction in the order in which they occur.
1. Action potential is propagated in the sarcolemma.
2. Acetylcholine binds to ligand gated sodium channels.
3. Action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction.
4. Vesicles full of acetylcholine are stored at the axon terminal.
5. Acetylcholine is released into the synaptic cleft.
A) 4,3,5,2,1
B) 4,3,5,1,2
C) 4,5,3,2,1
D) 4,3,1,5,2
E) 4,1,3,2,5
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
83) Put the following events of the contraction cycle in the order in which they occur.
1. Cross-bridge detachment
2. Cross-bridge formation
3. Active site exposure
4. Myosin reactivation
5. Calcium ions bind troponin
6. Myosin head pivoting
A) 5,3,6,2,1,4
B) 5,3,2,6,4,1
C) 5,3,2,6,1,4
D) 5,3,6,2,4,1
E) 3,5,2,6,1,4
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
84) The rapid rise and fall in force produced by a muscle fiber after a single action potential is
a(n)
A) tetanus.
B) unfused tetanus.
C) twitch.
D) motor end plate potential.
E) muscle action potential.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
22
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85) When a muscle is stimulated repeatedly at a high rate, the amount of tension gradually
increases to a steady maximum tension. This state of maximum tension is called
A) incomplete tetanus.
B) complete tetanus.
C) a twitch.
D) wave summation.
E) recruitment.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
86) A muscle producing almost peak tension during rapid cycles of contraction and relaxation is
said to be in
A) incomplete tetanus.
B) complete tetanus.
C) treppe.
D) wave summation.
E) recruitment.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
87) If a second stimulus arrives before the relaxation phase has ended, a second, more powerful
contraction occurs. This addition of one twitch to another is called
A) incomplete tetanus.
B) complete tetanus.
C) treppe.
D) wave summation.
E) recruitment.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23
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Figure 10-2 Muscle Contractions
Use Figure 10-2 to answer the following questions:
88) What is the contraction in graph (a) called?
A) complete tetanus
B) incomplete tetanus
C) twitch
D) wave summation
E) treppe
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
24
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89) What is thought to happen in a muscle during the response shown in graph (a)?
A) It is strengthening with exercise.
B) There is a gradual increase in calcium ion concentration in the sarcoplasm.
C) It is fatigued and must make repeated efforts to twitch normally.
D) It is aged and has lost contractile proteins.
E) It is producing more ATP as tension increases.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
90) To produce a contraction similar to the one in graph (b), the muscle
A) must be stimulated to the point of fatigue.
B) must be stimulated again before it has relaxed from the previous stimulation.
C) is excited by a stimulus of increasing intensity.
D) must go through a rapid series of isolated twitches.
E) generates more and more thin and thick filaments.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
91) Why is there partial relaxation in graph (c)?
A) Calcium ion release is slow.
B) The muscle is starting to fatigue.
C) Stimulation intensity is fluctuating.
D) ATP reserves are cycling.
E) Nerve stimulation frequency is below maximum.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
92) What is the contraction in graph (d) called?
A) complete tetanus
B) incomplete tetanus
C) twitch
D) wave summation
E) treppe
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
25
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93) A single contraction-relaxation cycle in a muscle fiber produces a(n)
A) cramp.
B) twitch.
C) tetanic contraction.
D) action potential.
E) motor unit.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
94) A muscle produces its highest tension when in complete
A) recovery.
B) treppe.
C) wave summation.
D) aerobic metabolism.
E) tetanus.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
95) During the time when the action potential moves through the sarcolemma a muscle twitch is
in
A) contraction phase.
B) relaxation phase.
C) stimulus phase.
D) latent period.
E) isotonic period.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
96) The point in a muscle twitch when the troponin is bound to calcium is called the
A) contraction phase.
B) relaxation phase.
C) stimulus phase.
D) latent period.
E) isotonic period.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26
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97) Detachment of myosin cross-bridges occurs during the
A) contraction phase.
B) relaxation phase.
C) stimulus phase.
D) latent period.
E) isotonic period.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
98) A single motor neuron together with all the muscle fibers it innervates is called a(n)
A) end foot.
B) end plate.
C) motor unit.
D) dermatome.
E) myotome.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
99) The increase in muscle tension that is produced by increasing the number of active motor
units is called
A) incomplete tetanus.
B) complete tetanus.
C) treppe.
D) wave summation.
E) recruitment.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
100) The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is called
A) tetany.
B) treppe.
C) concentric.
D) isotonic.
E) isometric.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27
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101) A weight-lifter strains to lift a heavy weight and there is no movement of the person's arms
holding on to the weight. This type of contraction is called a(n) ________ contraction.
A) isometric
B) tetanus
C) isotonic
D) treppe
E) concentric
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
102) You try to pick up an object and discover that it is much heavier than you expected. Which
process must occur in the muscle to increase tension so you can pick up the object?
A) wave summation
B) isotonic contraction
C) complete tetanus
D) recruitment
E) treppe
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
103) In which of the following would the motor units have the fewest muscle fibers?
A) muscles of the neck
B) postural muscles of the back
C) muscles that control the eyes
D) thigh muscles
E) calf muscles
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
104) In an isotonic contraction,
A) muscle tension exceeds the load and the muscle lifts the load.
B) tension rises and falls but the muscle length is constant.
C) the peak tension is less than the load.
D) many twitches always fuse into one.
E) postural muscles stabilize the vertebrae.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28
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105) Identify the incorrect statement about a single motor unit.
A) The more neurons involved, the more powerful the contraction.
B) The smaller the number of muscle fibers, the more precise the movement.
C) Fine motor skills depend on the development of small motor units.
D) Some motor units include as many as 2000 muscle fibers.
E) Muscle fibers of one motor unit intermingle with the fibers of another motor unit.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
106) The type of contraction where the tension exceeds the load is called
A) isometric contraction.
B) isotonic eccentric contraction.
C) isotonic concentric contraction.
D) isometric concentric contraction.
E) isometric eccentric contraction.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
107) The type of contraction where the tension is less than the load is called
A) isometric contraction.
B) isotonic eccentric contraction.
C) isotonic concentric contraction.
D) isometric concentric contraction.
E) isometric eccentric contraction.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
108) Which of the following allows muscles to return to their original shape during relaxation?
A) gravity
B) opposing muscle contractions
C) elastic forces
D) myosin binding
E) gravity, opposing muscle contractions, and elastic forces
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
29
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109) A resting muscle generates most of its ATP by
A) hydrolysis of creatine phosphate.
B) anaerobic respiration.
C) aerobic metabolism of fatty acids.
D) glycogenolysis.
E) the tricarboxylic acid cycle.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
110) Creatine phosphate
A) is produced by the process of anaerobic respiration.
B) can replace ATP in binding to myosin molecules during contraction.
C) acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue.
D) is only formed during strenuous exercise.
E) cannot transfer its phosphate group to ADP.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
111) During anaerobic glycolysis,
A) ATP is produced.
B) pyruvic acid is produced.
C) oxygen is not consumed.
D) carbohydrate is metabolized.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
112) Aerobic metabolism normally provides ________ percent of the ATP demands of a resting
muscle cell.
A) 25
B) 50
C) 70
D) 95
E) 100
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30
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113) During the recovery period following exercise, all of the following are true except
A) lactic acid is removed from muscle cells.
B) the muscle actively produces ATP.
C) muscle fibers are unable to contract.
D) oxygen is consumed at above the resting rate.
E) heat is generated.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
114) Which of the following hormones directly stimulates growth of muscle tissue, leading to
increased muscle mass?
A) epinephrine
B) thyroid hormone
C) testosterone
D) parathyroid hormone
E) calcitonin
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
115) How would an elevated level of thyroid hormone in the body affect skeletal muscles?
A) It would stimulate atrophy.
B) It would stimulate hypertrophy.
C) It would stimulate energy use and heat production.
D) It would decrease heat production by muscle tissue.
E) It would cause an increase in muscle mass.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
116) Heat energy gained from muscle contraction is released by the ________ system.
A) integumentary
B) respiratory
C) cardiovascular
D) urinary
E) endocrine
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31
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117) The type of muscle fiber that is most resistant to fatigue is the ________ fiber.
A) fast
B) slow
C) intermediate
D) anaerobic
E) high-density
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
118) Fast fibers
A) have low resistance to fatigue.
B) rely on aerobic metabolism.
C) have many mitochondria.
D) have twitches with a very brief contraction phase.
E) have low resistance to fatigue and quick twitches.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 10-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
119) Muscles that move the eyeball have ________ fibers.
A) fast
B) slow
C) intermediate
D) circular
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
120) Which of the following statements is/are false regarding human muscles?
A) Most have both slow and fast fibers.
B) Slow fibers are abundant in the muscles of the hand.
C) Eye muscles are composed entirely of fast fibers.
D) Slow fibers are abundant in the back muscles.
E) All of the answers are correct; none of them are true regarding human muscles.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32
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121) Large-diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria
are characteristics of
A) slow fibers.
B) intermediate fibers.
C) fast fibers.
D) red muscles.
E) fatty muscles.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
122) Which of the following types of muscle fibers are best adapted for prolonged contraction
such as standing all day?
A) uninucleated fibers
B) striated fibers
C) fast fibers
D) slow fibers
E) intermediate fibers
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
123) Which of the following is not an effect of aging on the muscular system?
A) hypertrophy
B) smaller muscle fibers
C) decreased recovery from muscle injuries
D) exercise tolerance decreases
E) muscles become less elastic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
124) The ability of smooth muscle to function over a wide range of lengths is called
A) elasticity.
B) contractility.
C) extensibility.
D) plasticity.
E) variability.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
33
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125) Which of the following is not characteristic of smooth muscle?
A) The striations are due to the orderly arrangement of actin and myosin.
B) Neurons that innervate smooth muscles are under involuntary control.
C) Smooth muscle cells are uninucleate.
D) Smooth muscles do not contain sarcomeres.
E) The thin filaments of smooth muscle fibers are attached to dense bodies.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
126) Which of the following is not a function of smooth muscle tissue?
A) altering the diameter of the respiratory passageways
B) elevating hairs on the arm
C) forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries
D) moving food materials along the digestive tract
E) forcing urine out of the urinary tract
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
127) Which of the following is true about the difference between cardiac muscle cells and
skeletal muscle cells?
A) Cardiac muscle cells does not have striations like skeletal muscle cells.
B) Cardiac muscle cells does not have t-tubules.
C) Cardiac muscle cells does not have sarcomeres.
D) Cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not.
E) Cardiac muscle cells have more nuclei in them than skeletal muscle cells.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 10-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
34
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In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) The terminal cisternae that form a triad along with a T tubule are part of what organelle?
(Figure 10-3)
A) endoplasmic reticulum
B) sarcoplasmic reticulum
C) Golgi apparatus
D) myofibril
E) sarcolemma
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Match the level of organization with the structure that surrounds it: Level of organization:
skeletal muscle, muscle fascicle, muscle fiber, myofibril Surrounding structure: endomysium,
epimysium, perimysium, sarcoplasmic reticulum. (Figure 10-6)
A) skeletal muscle—epimysium; muscle fascicle—perimysium; muscle fiber—endomysium;
myofibril— sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) skeletal muscle—sarcoplasmic reticulum; muscle fascicle—epimysium; muscle fiber—
perimysium; myofibril—endomysium
C) skeletal muscle—endomysium; muscle fascicle—epimysium; muscle fiber—perimysium;
myofibril— sarcoplasmic reticulum
D) skeletal muscle—endomysium; muscle fascicle—perimysium; muscle fiber—sarcoplasmic
reticulum; myofibril—epimysium
E) skeletal muscle—epimysium; muscle fascicle—endomysium; muscle fiber—perimysium;
myofibril— sarcoplasmic reticulum
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) What happens to sarcomere length if the zone of overlap is decreased? (Figure 10-14)
A) sarcomere length decreases
B) sarcomere length stays the same
C) sarcomere length increases
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 10-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
4) Which skeletal muscle fiber type—slow or fast—contains more mitochondria? (Figure 10-21)
A) slow
B) fast
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 10-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
35
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Essay Questions
1) Describe the basic sequence of events that occurs as an action potential arrives at the
neuromuscular junction and is transmitted to the muscle cell.
Answer: The action potential triggers the exocytosis of neurotransmitters stored in vesicles in
the axon terminal. This acetylcholine binds to receptors in the motor end plate, increasing the
muscle membrane permeability to sodium. Acetylcholinesterase destroys the acetylcholine,
ensuring that each nerve action potential produces only a single twitch. The influx of these
positive sodium ions triggers an action potential. The action potential spreads in both directions
away from the motor end plate across the entire surface of the muscle fiber and into the interior
via transverse tubules, triggering a pulse of calcium ion release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum,
which generates a brief small twitch. With additional stimuli, calcium ion builds up and higher
tensions are produced.
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) A hypothetical genetic disease causes the body to produce antibodies that compete with
acetylcholine for receptors on the motor end plate. Patients with this disease exhibit varying
degrees of muscle weakness in the affected muscles. If you could administer a drug that inhibits
acetylcholinesterase or a drug that blocks acetylcholine, which one would you use to alleviate
these symptoms?
Answer: This is a case of competition between acetylcholine and the antibody. To make the
patient's acetylcholine more effective, a drug that inhibits acetylcholinesterase would slow the
breakdown of acetylcholine, relieving some of the weakness. An acetylcholine blocker would be
worse than doing nothing.
Learning Outcome: 10-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
3) Describe a motor unit. How many fibers does a motor unit contain?
Answer: A motor unit consists of all of the skeletal muscle fibers controlled by a single motor
neuron. They may have as few as 10 fibers (eye muscles) or as many as 10,000 (back muscles).
Learning Outcome: 10-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) Thirty minutes after Mary has completed a 25-km race, she begins to notice severe muscle
soreness and stiffness in her legs. Her urine is dark colored. She wonders whether she may have
damaged her muscles during the race. She visits the ER, and the doctor orders several blood
tests. What kind of blood tests can help determine whether muscle damage has occurred?
Answer: If muscle damage occurred, the doctor would find enzymes such as creatine kinase and
proteins such as myoglobin or troponin in the bloodstream released by injured skeletal muscle
cells. The level of these substances correlates with the severity of the injury.
Learning Outcome: 10-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
36
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5) Megan wants to enter a weight-lifting competition and consults you as to what type of muscle
fibers she needs to develop and how she should go about it. What would you suggest to her?
Answer: Weight lifting requires anaerobic endurance. Megan would want to develop her fast
fibers for short-term maximum strength. She would achieve this by engaging in activities that
involve frequent, brief, but intensive workouts, such as with heavy weights to the point of muscle
fatigue. The fatigue triggers the production of new myofilament proteins, leading to muscle bulk
and strength.
Learning Outcome: 10-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
6) Many visceral smooth muscle cells lack motor neuron innervation. How are their contractions
coordinated and controlled?
Answer: Gap junctions interconnect visceral smooth muscle fibers. An action potential that
begins in one will spread to its surrounding neighbors. The action potential can be triggered by
stretching, hormones, chemical changes, or stimulation at a myoneural junction on a distant
smooth muscle cell.
Learning Outcome: 10-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
37
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 11 The Muscular System
Multiple Choice Questions
1) Muscles that guard entrances and exits of internal passageways are ________ muscles.
A) parallel
B) convergent
C) pennate
D) bipennate
E) circular
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) In a ________ muscle, the fascicles are concentrically arranged around an opening.
A) convergent
B) parallel
C) straight
D) pennate
E) circular
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) The type of muscle whose functional characteristics most closely resemble those of its muscle
fibers is the ________ muscle.
A) pennate
B) circular
C) parallel
D) convergent
E) divergent
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) In a ________ muscle, the muscle fibers and fascicles lie in a slanted or oblique position to
the tendon.
A) parallel
B) circular
C) pennate
D) convergent
E) divergent
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) ________ muscle fibers pull in different directions, permitting different actions depending on
stimulation.
A) Convergent
B) Parallel
C) Straight
D) Pennate
E) Circular
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) Most of the skeletal muscles in the body are ________ muscles.
A) convergent
B) parallel
C) straight
D) pennate
E) circular
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) In a convergent muscle, fascicles converge on a common attachment site that may be a slender
band of collagen fibers known as a(n)
A) retinaculum.
B) raphe.
C) aponeurosis.
D) orbicularis.
E) ligament.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) Which of the following is not a type of fascicle arrangement?
A) parallel
B) palmate
C) unipennate
D) circular
E) convergent
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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9) A lever consists of
A) a tendon and a muscle.
B) a rigid structure.
C) a fulcrum.
D) a bone, a muscle, and a nerve.
E) a rigid structure and a fulcrum.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) The most common lever systems in the body are those that have the applied force between
the fulcrum and the load. These are called ________ levers.
A) first-class
B) second-class
C) third-class
D) fourth-class
E) fifth-class
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) Contracting the gastrocnemius muscles to elevate the body on the toes involves a ________
lever.
A) first-class
B) second-class
C) third-class
D) fourth-class
E) fifth-class
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12) The fulcrum of a lever system is the
A) joint.
B) muscle.
C) bone.
D) resistance.
E) load.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
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13) When the fulcrum is located between the load and the force, it is called a ________ lever.
A) first-class
B) second-class
C) third-class
D) fourth-class
E) compound
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) A(n) ________ is a muscle whose contraction is chiefly responsible for producing a
particular movement.
A) prime mover
B) motor-unit
C) antagonist
D) opposition
E) synergist
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) Which of these phrases most aptly describes "muscle insertion"?
A) broad tendon sheet
B) connective tissue that surrounds a single muscle fiber
C) tendon attachment that doesn't move
D) tendon attachment that moves
E) connective tissue that surrounds an entire muscle
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) Muscles that insert on the olecranon process of the ulna can act to
A) flex the forearm.
B) extend the forearm.
C) abduct the forearm.
D) adduct the forearm.
E) extend the carpals.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
4
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17) A muscle that assists the muscle that is primarily responsible for a given action is a(n)
A) agonist.
B) antagonist.
C) synergist.
D) originator.
E) levator.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) The insertion end of the biceps brachii muscle of the anterior upper arm is
A) at the proximal end of the muscle.
B) at the distal end of the muscle.
C) on the dorsal side of the muscle.
D) on the lateral side of the muscle.
E) the thumb.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
19) The end of a muscle that is attached to the point that moves when the muscle contracts is
called the
A) origin.
B) aponeurosis.
C) insertion.
D) tendon.
E) lever.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) The end of a muscle that remains stationary when the muscle contracts is called the
A) origin.
B) aponeurosis.
C) insertion.
D) tendon.
E) lever.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5
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21) A type of muscle whose action opposes that of another muscle is called a(n)
A) synergist.
B) fixator.
C) agonist.
D) prime mover.
E) antagonist.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22) A muscle that assists another by preventing movement at another joint is called a(n)
A) synergist.
B) fixator.
C) agonist.
D) prime mover.
E) antagonist.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) The names of the muscles can indicate all of the following except
A) the angle of the muscle relative to the long axis of the body.
B) the action of the muscle.
C) the location of the muscle.
D) structural characteristics of the muscle.
E) the collagen content of the muscle.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) A muscle whose name ends in the suffix -glossus would be found within or attached to the
A) chin.
B) cheek.
C) jaw.
D) tongue.
E) lips.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6
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25) Muscles including the term capitis would be found within or attached to the
A) head.
B) neck.
C) thorax.
D) abdomen.
E) groin.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26) Muscles with fibers that run parallel to the long axis of the body are called
A) lateralis.
B) transversus.
C) rectus.
D) obliquus.
E) medialis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27) Each of the following terms is a descriptive term for a muscle's action except
A) levator.
B) pronator.
C) extensor.
D) sartorius.
E) adductor.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28) Muscles visible at the body surface are often called
A) internus.
B) extrinsic.
C) profundus.
D) intrinsic.
E) superficialis.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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29) Muscles located close to the midline of the body may be called
A) rectus.
B) distalis.
C) proximal.
D) medialis.
E) lateralis.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30) Muscles with fibers that run at an angle to the long axis of the body are called
A) lateralis.
B) transversus.
C) rectus.
D) oblique.
E) medialis.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31) Muscles with fibers that run perpendicular to the long axis of the body are called
A) lateralis.
B) transversus.
C) rectus.
D) oblique.
E) medialis.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) Which muscle is named for either shape or size?
A) pectoralis major
B) latissimus dorsi
C) deltoid
D) vastus lateralis
E) All of the above are named for shape or size.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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33) Which of the following is not a pennate muscle?
A) rectus femoris
B) extensor digitorum longus
C) deltoid
D) pectoralis
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
34) Muscles visible at the body surface often called
A) externus.
B) profundus.
C) rectus.
D) transversus.
E) oblique.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
35) Muscles that position or stabilize an organ are called
A) externus.
B) superficialis.
C) intrinsic.
D) extrinsic.
E) oblique.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36) Which of the following is not primarily a muscle of facial expression?
A) buccinator
B) depressor labii
C) risorius
D) masseter
E) mentalis
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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37) The mentalis muscle inserts on the
A) orbicularis oris.
B) skin of the chin.
C) angle of the mouth.
D) hyoid bone.
E) skin around the eyelids.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38) The "kissing muscle" that purses the lips is the
A) zygomaticus.
B) orbicularis oris.
C) buccinator.
D) levator labii.
E) procerus.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39) All of the following are innervated by the facial nerve (N VII) except for the ________
muscle.
A) risorius
B) orbicularis oculi
C) levator palpebrae superioris
D) mentalis
E) temporoparietalis
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40) The origin of the frontalis muscle is the
A) mandible.
B) frontal bone.
C) occipital bone.
D) epicranial aponeurosis.
E) forehead.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10
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41) The temporalis muscle passes through the
A) alveolar processes of the maxillae and mandible.
B) tendinous band around the optic foramen.
C) epicranial aponeurosis.
D) zygomatic arch.
E) fascia surrounding the submandibular salivary gland.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42) The temporoparietalis muscle acts to
A) move the external ear.
B) purse the lips.
C) depress the lip.
D) draw the corner of the mouth back and up.
E) close the eye.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43) The iliac crest is the origin of the
A) quadratus lumborum.
B) iliocostalis cervicis.
C) longissimus cervicis.
D) semispinalis capitis.
E) splenius.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
44) Which of the following describes the action of the digastric muscle?
A) elevates the larynx
B) elevates the larynx and depresses the mandible
C) depresses the larynx
D) depresses and retracts the tongue
E) elevates the mandible
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11
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45) Which of the following is not an extrinsic eye muscle?
A) inferior rectus
B) rectus abdominis
C) lateral rectus
D) medial rectus
E) superior oblique
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
46) The muscle that elevates the tongue is the
A) genioglossus.
B) hyoglossus.
C) palatoglossus.
D) styloglossus.
E) digastric.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
47) Which of the following muscles has its origin on the hyoid and inserts on the tongue?
A) hyoglossus
B) lateral pterygoideus
C) sternohyoid
D) thyrohyoid
E) geniohyoid
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
48) Which of the following is a spinal flexor?
A) quadratus lumborum
B) longus capitis
C) longus colli
D) All of the answers are correct.
E) both the longus capitis and the longus colli
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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49) The sternocleidomastoid inserts on the
A) occipital bone.
B) clavicle.
C) mastoid process of the temporal bone.
D) sternum.
E) mandible.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
50) The anterior muscle of facial expression that inserts widely on the periosteum of the
mandible is the
A) temporalis.
B) masseter.
C) lateral pterygoideus.
D) medial pterygoideus.
E) platysma.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
51) The scalenes have their origin on the
A) transverse and costal processes of cervical vertebrae.
B) inferior border of the previous rib.
C) superior border of the next rib.
D) cartilages of the ribs.
E) thoracodorsal fascia and iliac crest.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
52) Which of the following muscles has its insertion on the sternum?
A) internal oblique
B) external intercostal
C) rectus abdominis
D) internal intercostal
E) scalene
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
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53) Which of the following muscles compresses the abdomen?
A) diaphragm and intercostals
B) external oblique and latissimus dorsi
C) rectus abdominis and pectoralis major
D) transverse abdominis
E) external oblique, rectus abdominis, and transverse abdominis
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
54) Which of the following is the origin of the bulbospongiosus in the female?
A) ischial spine
B) inferior ischial ramus
C) linea alba and pubis
D) coccyx
E) collagen sheath at the base of the clitoris
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
55) The levator ani inserts on the
A) iliac crest.
B) coccyx.
C) ischial spine.
D) central tendon of the perineum.
E) sacrum.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
56) The ________ muscle allows you to look down.
A) inferior rectus
B) medial rectus
C) lateral rectus
D) superior rectus
E) inferior oblique
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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57) A muscle that inserts on the body of the mandible is probably involved in
A) kissing.
B) blowing.
C) chewing.
D) frowning.
E) spitting.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
58) The muscle that originates from the superior surface of the pubis around the symphysis is the
A) internal oblique.
B) external oblique.
C) rectus abdominis.
D) transversus abdominis.
E) scalene.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
59) The eye muscles include which of the following muscles?
A) medial rectus
B) inferior rectus
C) superior oblique
D) inferior oblique
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
60) Which eye muscle sends its tendon of origin through a pulley or trochlea before inserting on
the globe?
A) superior rectus
B) superior oblique
C) lateral rectus
D) inferior rectus
E) inferior oblique
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15
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61) The ________ allows you to look up.
A) inferior rectus
B) medial rectus
C) lateral rectus
D) superior rectus
E) inferior oblique
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
62) The ________ muscle is the strongest jaw muscle.
A) lateral pterygoid
B) digastric
C) pterygoid
D) medial pterygoid
E) masseter
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
63) The ________ extends the neck.
A) spinalis thoracis
B) splenius capitis
C) trapezius
D) splenius
E) splenius cervicis
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
64) Which of these is true about the muscle named levator palpebrae superioris?
A) lifts the scapula
B) elevates the eyebrow
C) raises the upper eyelid
D) originates at the back of the orbit
E) originates at the back of the orbit and raises the upper eyelid
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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65) In assessing a stroke patient, you ask her to stick out (protract) her tongue. You note that it
deviates to one side. You suspect that damage to the neural control of the ________ muscle has
occurred.
A) hyoglossus
B) genioglossus
C) palatoglossus
D) styloglossus
E) None of the answers are correct.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
66) Ryan hears a loud noise and quickly turns his eyes sideways in the direction of the sound. To
accomplish this action he must use his ________ muscles.
A) superior rectus
B) lateral rectus
C) inferior rectus
D) medial rectus
E) lateral and medial rectus
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
67) During abdominal surgery, the surgeon makes a cut lateral to the linea alba. The muscle that
would be cut is the
A) digastric.
B) external abdominal oblique.
C) rectus abdominis.
D) scalenus.
E) splenius.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
68) Medial rotation of the eyeball is performed by the ________ muscle.
A) inferior rectus
B) lateral rectus
C) medial rectus
D) superior rectus
E) inferior oblique
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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69) Each of the following muscles is involved in the process of chewing or manipulating food in
the mouth except the
A) masseter.
B) temporalis.
C) pterygoid.
D) omohyoid.
E) genioglossus.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
70) Which of the following muscles functions to expel urine or semen in males?
A) bulbospongiosus
B) superficial transverse perineus
C) coccygeus
D) levator ani
E) anconeus
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
71) Pam's daughter is born cross-eyed. As she grows, the problem does not become any better.
Her physician suggests cutting an eye muscle to bring the eyes into a more normal position.
Which muscle will he cut?
A) inferior rectus
B) lateral rectus
C) medial rectus
D) superior rectus
E) superior oblique
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
72) Tom, a trumpet player, asks you which muscles he should develop in order to be a better
trumpeter. What would you tell him?
A) the masseter and buccinator
B) the buccinator and orbicularis oris
C) the orbicularis oris and risorius
D) the risorius and zygomaticus
E) the levator labii and mentalis
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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73) Damage to the pectoralis major would interfere with a person's ability to
A) extend the forearm.
B) abduct the humerus.
C) flexion of the humerus.
D) elevate the scapula.
E) rotate the elbow.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
74) The spinous processes of the upper thoracic vertebrae are the origin of the
A) levator scapulae.
B) rhomboid major.
C) trapezius.
D) supraspinatus.
E) rhomboid major and the trapezius.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
75) Which of the following is the insertion of the pectoralis major?
A) the vertebral border near the spine
B) the greater tubercle of the humerus
C) the mastoid region of the skull
D) the occipital bone of the skull
E) the clavicle and scapula
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
76) Which of the following describes the action of the serratus anterior?
A) adducts the arm
B) adducts and flexes the humerus
C) protracts the shoulder, abducts and medially rotates the scapula
D) medial rotation of the humerus
E) lateral rotation of the humerus
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19
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Figure 11-1 Major Anterior Skeletal Muscles
Use Figure 11-1 to answer the following questions:
77) Identify the muscle labeled "1."
A) trapezius
B) deltoid
C) sternocleidomastoid
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D) temporalis
E) pectoralis major
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
78) Identify the muscle labeled "15."
A) sternocleidomastoid
B) platysma
C) sartorius
D) stylohyoid
E) risorius
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
79) Identify the muscle labeled "19."
A) external oblique
B) internal oblique
C) rectus abdominis
D) iliacus
E) linea alba
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
80) The muscle that raises the corners of the mouth as when smiling is the ________ muscle.
A) orbicularis oculi
B) zygomaticus major
C) orbicularis oris
D) masseter
E) buccinator
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
81) The action of the masseter muscle is to ________ the mandible.
A) depress
B) elevate
C) abduct
D) flex
E) open
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
21
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82) The muscle that retracts and elevates the upper lip is the ________ muscle.
A) orbicularis oculi
B) zygomaticus minor
C) orbicularis oris
D) masseter
E) buccinator
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
83) The thick, flat sheet of tendon deep to the scalp is called the
A) retinaculum.
B) calcaneal tendon.
C) linea alba.
D) plantar aponeurosis.
E) epicranial aponeurosis.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
84) The muscle that elevates the larynx is the ________ muscle.
A) masseter
B) buccinator
C) platysma
D) sternocleidomastoid
E) stylohyoid
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
85) The inferior rectus is innervated by which nerve?
A) abducens
B) trigeminal
C) facial
D) trochlear
E) oculomotor
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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86) The stylohyoid is innervated by which nerve?
A) abducens
B) trigeminal
C) facial
D) trochlear
E) oculomotor
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
87) Which of the following does not depress the hyoid bone?
A) omohyoid
B) stylohyoid
C) sternohyoid
D) sternothyroid
E) thyrohyoid
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
23
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Figure 11-1 Major Anterior Skeletal Muscles
Use Figure 11-1 to answer the following questions:
88) Identify the muscle labeled "20."
A) biceps brachii
B) brachioradialis
C) triceps brachii
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D) pronator teres
E) deltoid
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
89) Identify the muscle labeled "7."
A) supinator
B) brachioradialis
C) brachialis
D) pronator teres
E) palmaris longus
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
90) Identify the muscle labeled "11."
A) rectus anterior
B) vastus lateralis
C) soleus
D) serratus anterior
E) tibialis anterior
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
91) Identify the muscle labeled "25."
A) rectus femoris
B) biceps femoris
C) adductor longus
D) risorius
E) sartorius
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
92) Identify the muscle labeled "27."
A) rectus femoris
B) gastrocnemius
C) soleus
D) gracilis
E) biceps femoris
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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93) The infraspinatus has its insertion on the
A) greater tubercle of the humerus.
B) tuberosity of the radius.
C) lesser tubercle and intertubercular groove of the humerus.
D) clavicle and scapula.
E) vertebral border near the spine.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
94) The muscle that inserts on the acromion and scapular spine is the
A) serratus anterior.
B) trapezius.
C) sternocleidomastoid.
D) pectoralis minor.
E) levator scapulae.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
95) The muscle that adducts the thumb is the
A) adductor pollicis.
B) abductor pollicis.
C) extensor digitorum.
D) flexor digitorum profundus.
E) flexor pollicis longus.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
96) All of the following originate on the scapula except the
A) pectoralis major.
B) teres major.
C) teres minor.
D) subscapularis.
E) supraspinatus.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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97) The powerful abductor muscle of the upper arm is the
A) supraspinatus.
B) subscapularis.
C) deltoid.
D) coracobrachialis.
E) teres major.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
98) The muscle that extends the forearm when doing push-ups is the
A) deltoid.
B) pectorals.
C) brachialis.
D) triceps.
E) biceps.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
99) The muscle(s) that adduct(s) the humerus is/are the
A) coracobrachialis.
B) deltoid.
C) trapezius.
D) latissimus dorsi.
E) coracobrachialis and latissimus dorsi.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
100) Which of the following does not originate on the humerus?
A) anconeus
B) brachialis
C) brachioradialis
D) biceps brachii
E) anconeus and brachioradialis
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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101) Which of the following is the insertion of the triceps brachii?
A) olecranon process of the ulna
B) infraglenoid tuberosity of the scapula
C) lateral condyle of the humerus
D) medial epicondyle of the humerus
E) base of the second metacarpal
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
102) Which of the following originates on the medial epicondyle of the humerus?
A) flexor carpi radialis
B) flexor carpi ulnaris
C) palmaris longus
D) pronator teres
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
103) The band of collagen fibers that laterally braces the knee is the
A) linea alba.
B) tensor fasciae latae.
C) linea aspera.
D) iliotibial tract.
E) piriformis.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
104) The adductor brevis has its origin on the
A) ilium.
B) pubis.
C) sacrum.
D) iliac crest.
E) linea aspera.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28
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105) Which of these muscles is a member of the quadriceps group?
A) vastus lateralis
B) vastus medialis
C) vastus intermedius
D) rectus femoris
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
106) The muscle that inserts on the iliotibial tract and gluteal tuberosity of the femur is the
A) tensor fasciae latae.
B) piriformis.
C) gluteus minimus.
D) gluteus medius.
E) gluteus maximus.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
107) Muscles that laterally rotate the thigh include all of the following except the
A) gluteus maximus.
B) obturator internus.
C) obturator externus.
D) piriformis.
E) tensor fasciae latae.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
108) Which of the following are members of the hamstring group?
A) biceps femoris and rectus femoris
B) semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius
C) biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus
D) adductor longus and adductor magnus
E) gluteus maximus and rectus femoris
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
29
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109) The only knee flexor that originates superior to the acetabulum is the
A) biceps femoris.
B) gracilis.
C) sartorius.
D) iliopsoas.
E) semimembranosus.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
110) The insertion of the flexor hallucis longus is
A) above the femoral condyles.
B) the superior surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe.
C) the inferior surface of the distal phalanx of the great toe.
D) the lateral condyle of the tibia and anterior surface of the fibula.
E) the posterior surface of the medial condyle of the tibia.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
111) The inferior ramus of the pubis is the origin and the medial tibia is the insertion of the
________ muscle.
A) biceps femoris
B) gracilis
C) sartorius
D) vastus intermedius
E) piriformis
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
112) A muscle that dorsiflexes the foot is the
A) tibialis anterior.
B) tibialis posterior.
C) peroneus brevis.
D) soleus.
E) gastrocnemius.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30
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113) Muscles of the rotator cuff include all of the following except the
A) supraspinatus.
B) infraspinatus.
C) subscapularis.
D) teres minor.
E) rhomboid.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
114) Which of these muscles produces lateral rotation at the hip?
A) gluteus maximus
B) piriformis
C) obturator externus
D) obturator internus
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
115) The quadriceps group includes all of the following except the
A) biceps femoris.
B) vastus intermedius.
C) vastus lateralis.
D) vastus medialis.
E) rectus femoris.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
116) Tom is having difficulty with plantar flexion and eversion of his foot. Which muscle is
most likely involved in this problem?
A) tibialis anterior
B) soleus
C) gastrocnemius
D) flexor digitorum longus
E) fibularis longus
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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117) Individuals who are engaged in repetitive hand movements such as typing or playing the
piano may suffer wrist pain, especially during palmar flexion. All of the following are true
concerning this condition except that it
A) is called carpal tunnel syndrome.
B) results from inflammation of the synovial tendon sheaths.
C) never causes muscle weakness.
D) results from inflammation of the carpal retinacula.
E) irritates the median nerve.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
118) If you bruised your gluteus maximus, you would expect to experience discomfort when
A) flexing your hip.
B) extending your hip.
C) abducting your hip.
D) laterally rotating your hip.
E) extending and laterally rotating the hip.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
119) Jill suffers a severe cut that severs the tendon that attaches the insertion of the flexor carpi
ulnaris. As a result of this injury, what action is difficult for her to perform?
A) flex her forearm
B) flex her elbow
C) flex her ulna
D) flex and adduct her hand
E) flex her shoulder
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
32
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Figure 11-2 Major Posterior Skeletal Muscles
Use Figure 11-2 to answer the following questions:
120) Identify the muscle labeled "1."
33
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A) deltoid
B) trapezius
C) sternocleidomastoid
D) triceps brachii
E) brachioradialis
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
121) Identify the muscle labeled "2."
A) deltoid
B) teres major
C) sternocleidomastoid
D) trapezius
E) rhomboid
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
122) Identify the muscle labeled "3."
A) rhomboid major
B) supraspinatus
C) infraspinatus
D) deltoid
E) teres minor
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
123) Identify the muscle labeled "6."
A) trapezius
B) tensor fasciae latae
C) latissimus dorsi
D) adductor magnus
E) rhomboid major
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
34
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124) Identify the muscle labeled "17."
A) anconeus
B) extensor carpi ulnaris
C) extensor digitorum
D) pronator teres
E) brachioradialis
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
125) Identify the structure labeled "9."
A) quadriceps tendon
B) femoral aponeurosis
C) linea alba
D) iliotibial tract
E) calcanean tendon
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
126) Identify the muscle labeled "11."
A) gracilis
B) semitendinosus
C) gluteus medius
D) biceps femoris
E) adductor magnus
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
127) Identify the muscle labeled "12."
A) soleus
B) gastrocnemius
C) sartorius
D) tibialis posterior
E) peroneus longus
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
35
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128) The whole deltoid muscle ________ the humerus.
A) abducts
B) flexes
C) pronates
D) rotates
E) inverts
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
129) The muscle group on the posterior thigh is called the ________ group.
A) hamstring
B) quadricep
C) femoris
D) adductor
E) extensor
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
130) The four prominent muscles on the anterior thigh comprise the ________ muscle group.
A) quadriceps femoris
B) hamstring
C) gluteal
D) rhomboid
E) adductor
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
131) The long strap-like muscle on the anterior thigh is the ________ muscle.
A) gracilis
B) rectus femoris
C) iliotibial tract
D) adductor longus
E) sartorius
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36
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132) What is the action of the subclavius?
A) elevates the scapula
B) depresses the shoulder
C) protracts the shoulder
D) depresses and protracts the shoulder
E) adducts the scapula
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
133) Which of the following controls abduction at the shoulder?
A) supraspinatus
B) subscapularis
C) teres major
D) infraspinatus
E) teres minor
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
134) Which of the following controls adduction at the shoulder?
A) supraspinatus
B) subscapularis
C) teres major
D) infraspinatus
E) teres minor
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
135) Which of the following muscles is innervated by the ulnar nerves?
A) flexor carpi radialis
B) flexor carpi ulnaris
C) palmaris longus
D) extensor carpi radialis longus
E) extensor carpi ulnaris
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
37
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136) The median nerve innervates all of the following except the
A) flexor carpi radialis.
B) palmaris longus.
C) pronator teres.
D) extensor carpi ulnaris.
E) pronator quadratus.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
137) Which of the following does not control flexion of the hip?
A) adductor longus
B) pectineus
C) psoas major
D) gluteus maximus
E) adductor brevis
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
138) Which of the following is not innervated by the lateral plantar nerve?
A) adductor hallucis
B) abductor hallucis
C) plantar interosseus
D) dorsal interosseus
E) abductor digiti minimi
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
139) Which of the following is innervated by the sciatic nerve?
A) soleus
B) tibialis anterior
C) plantaris
D) fibularis longus
E) gasctrocnemius
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38
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140) The adductor longus is innervated by which nerve?
A) obturator
B) femoral
C) sciatic
D) fibular
E) tibial
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
141) The Sartorius is innervated by which nerve?
A) obturator
B) femoral
C) sciatic
D) fibular
E) tibial
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) Given its name, what does the levator anguli oris do? (Figure 11-5)
A) raise the eyebrows
B) raise the eyelids
C) raise the mouth
D) tense the mouth
E) close the eyelids
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
2) Six muscles control eye movement. How many of these muscles can you see from the lateral
surface and how many can you see from the medial surface, respectively? (Figure 11-6)
A) 2; 4
B) 4; 2
C) 4; 4
D) 5; 5
E) 1; 6
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39
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3) Which muscles insert on the hyoid bone? (Figure 11-10)
A) sternothyroid and digastric
B) sternocleidomastoid, digastric, and geniohyoid
C) omohyoid, thyrohyoid, and sternothyroid
D) sternocleidomastoid, digastric, sternothyroid, geniohyoid, mylohyoid, and omohyoid
E) digastric, geniohyoid, omohyoid, sternohyoid, stylohyoid, thyrohyoid, and mylohyoid
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) Give the origins of the heads of the triceps brachii. (Figure 11-17)
A) lateral surface of the humerus, infraglenoid tubercle of scapula, posterior surface of the
humerus
B) lateral surface of the humerus, medial surface of the humerus, posterior surface of the
humerus
C) lateral surface of the humerus, anterior surface of the humerus, posterior surface of the
humerus
D) all on olecranon of ulna
E) coracoid process of scapula, supraglenoid tubercle of scapula, anterior surface of humerus
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
5) Which two intrinsic thumb muscles are an agonist-antagonist pair? (Figure 11-19)
A) lumbricals and opponens digiti minimi
B) adductor pollicis and abductor pollicis brevis
C) flexor retinaculum and extensor retinaculum
D) flexor pollicis brevis and palmar interosseous
E) palmar interosseous and dorsal interosseous
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
6) Which quadriceps femoris muscle is not visible from the superficial anterior thigh? (Figure
11-21)
A) vastus lateralis
B) vastus medialis
C) vastus intermedius
D) rectus femoris
E) biceps femoris
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40
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Essay Questions
1) How do first-, second-, and third-class levers differ?
Answer: Levers differ in the position of their fulcrum in relation to the applied force and the
load. A first-class lever has the fulcrum positioned between the applied force and the load.
Second-class levers have the fulcrum at one end, adjacent to the load, with the applied force at
the other end. Third-class levers have the fulcrum at one end, the load at the other, and the
applied force in the middle.
Learning Outcome: 11-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) Which three functional roles in a movement are used to characterize muscle groups? Give a
brief description of each action.
Answer: Agonist, antagonist, or synergist. Agonists are chiefly responsible for a movement.
Antagonists oppose the agonists, keeping the movements smooth. Synergists provide additional
force or stabilize the origin.
Learning Outcome: 11-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3) Jeff is interested in toning his abdomen. What muscles would you tell Jeff to exercise to
accomplish his goal? What movements would best exercise these muscles?
Answer: Jeff should do exercises that flex and twist the trunk. The muscles he should target are
the rectus abdominis muscles, and the external and internal oblique muscles. Sit-ups and twisting
movements will stimulate these muscles. If he places a weight on his chest as he does sit-ups, it
will produce faster results because the rectus abdominis muscle would be working against a
greater load.
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
4) Shelly gives her son an ice-cream cone. The boy grasps the cone with his right hand, opens his
mouth, and begins to lick the ice cream. Which muscles does he use to perform these actions?
Answer: As the child grasps the ice-cream cone, he uses flexor muscles, principally the flexor
digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. Opening
his mouth requires the contraction of the platysma and digastric muscles and the relaxation of the
masseter, temporalis, and pterygoid muscles. The licking action would involve the genioglossus
muscle (to depress and protract the tongue and the palatoglossus muscle (to elevate the tongue).
Learning Outcome: 11-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
5) While playing softball, Sid pulls his hamstring muscle. As a result of the injury, he has
difficulty extending and medially rotating his thigh. Which muscle(s) of the hamstring group did
he probably injure?
Answer: Sid probably injured the semimembranosus and/or the semitendinosus, since both of
these muscles have these actions.
Learning Outcome: 11-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
41
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 12 Nervous Tissue
Multiple Choice Questions
1) The ________ nervous system is composed of the brain and spinal cord.
A) autonomic
B) peripheral
C) central
D) efferent
E) afferent
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) The ________ nervous system controls the skeletal muscles.
A) sympathetic
B) parasympathetic
C) afferent
D) somatic
E) autonomic
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) The part of the peripheral nervous system that carries sensory information to the CNS is
designated
A) motor.
B) afferent.
C) efferent.
D) autonomic.
E) somatic.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) The efferent division of the peripheral nervous system innervates ________ cells.
A) skeletal muscle
B) smooth muscle
C) heart muscle
D) glandular
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) The nervous tissue outside of the central nervous system composes the ________ nervous
system.
A) somatic
B) peripheral
C) autonomic
D) afferent
E) parasympathetic
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) The ________ division of the peripheral nervous system brings sensory information to the
central nervous system.
A) somatic
B) peripheral
C) autonomic
D) afferent
E) parasympathetic
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) The ________ division of the nervous system carries motor commands to muscles and glands.
A) spinal
B) peripheral
C) autonomic
D) afferent
E) efferent
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) The ________ nervous system provides involuntary regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac
muscle, and glandular activity.
A) somatic
B) peripheral
C) autonomic
D) afferent
E) motor
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
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9) ________ carry motor information to peripheral effectors.
A) Unipolar neurons
B) Efferent neurons
C) Multipolar neurons
D) Afferent neurons
E) Interneurons
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) ________ nerves are nerves that connect to the spinal cord.
A) Spinal
B) Cranial
C) Afferent
D) Multipolar
E) Autonomic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) ________ nerves are nerves that connect to the brain.
A) Spinal
B) Unmyelinated
C) Myelinated
D) Cranial
E) Interneural
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12) The axoplasm of the axon contains which of the following?
A) neurotubules
B) mitochondria
C) vesicles
D) neurofibrils
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
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13) Which of the following is not a recognized structural classification for neurons?
A) anaxonic
B) bipolar
C) multipolar
D) pseudopolar
E) unipolar
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) The most abundant class of neuron in the central nervous system is
A) anaxonic.
B) bipolar.
C) multipolar.
D) pseudopolar.
E) unipolar.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) The cytoplasm that surrounds the nucleus of a neuron is called the
A) protoplasm.
B) nucleoplasm.
C) sarcoplasm.
D) neuroplasm.
E) perikaryon.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) Clusters of RER and free ribosomes in neurons are called
A) neurofilaments.
B) neurofibrils.
C) perikaryon.
D) Nissl bodies.
E) microglia.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) The axon is connected to the soma at the
A) telodendria.
B) synaptic terminal.
C) collaterals.
D) axon hillock.
E) synapse.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) Branches that may occur along an axon are called
A) telodendria.
B) synaptic terminals.
C) collaterals.
D) hillocks.
E) synapses.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19) Axons terminate in a series of fine extensions known as
A) telodendria.
B) terminals.
C) collaterals.
D) dendrites.
E) synapses.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) The site of intercellular communication between a neuron and another cell is the
A) telodendria.
B) axolemma.
C) collateral.
D) hillock.
E) synapse.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5
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21) The rabies virus travels to the CNS via
A) anterograde axoplasmic transport.
B) retrograde axoplasmic transport.
C) blood vessels.
D) subcutaneous connective tissue.
E) cerebrospinal fluid.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
22) Neurons that are rare, small, and lack features that distinguish dendrites from axons are
called
A) anaxonic.
B) unipolar.
C) bipolar.
D) tripolar.
E) multipolar.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) Neurons in which dendritic and axonal processes are continuous and the soma lies off to one
side are called
A) anaxonic.
B) unipolar.
C) bipolar.
D) tripolar.
E) multipolar.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) Neurons that have one axon and one dendrite, with the soma in between, are called
A) anaxonic.
B) unipolar.
C) bipolar.
D) tripolar.
E) multipolar.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6
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25) Neurons that have several dendrites and a single axon are called
A) anaxonic.
B) unipolar.
C) bipolar.
D) tripolar.
E) multipolar.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26) Sensory neurons of the PNS are
A) unipolar.
B) bipolar.
C) anaxonic.
D) multipolar.
E) tripolar.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27) Which of the following activities or sensations is/are not monitored by interoceptors?
A) sight
B) pain
C) activities of the digestive system
D) cardiovascular activities
E) urinary activities
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
28) ________ are the most numerous type of neuron in the CNS.
A) Sensory neurons
B) Motor neurons
C) Unipolar neurons
D) Bipolar neurons
E) Interneurons
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7
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29) How does blocking retrograde axoplasmic transport in an axon affect the activity of a
neuron?
A) The neuron becomes unable to produce neurotransmitters.
B) The neuron becomes unable to produce action potentials.
C) The soma becomes unable to export products to the synaptic terminals.
D) The soma becomes unable to respond to changes in the distal end of the axon.
E) The neuron becomes unable to depolarize when stimulated.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
Figure 12-1 The Neuron
Use Figure 12-1 to answer the following questions:
30) The structures labeled "1" are dendrites. Their membranes contain numerous chemicallygated ion channels.
A) The first statement is true but the second statement is false.
B) The first statement is false but the second statement is true.
C) Both statements are true.
D) Both statements are false.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
8
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31) The structure labeled "2" is a(n)
A) neurofilament.
B) dendrite.
C) initial segment.
D) perikaryon.
E) axon.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
32) Which type of membrane channels are found at label "3"?
A) voltage-gated Na+ channels
B) voltage-gated K+ channels
C) chemically-gated Na+ and K+ channels
D) voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
E) both voltage-gated Na+ channels and voltage-gated K+ channels
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
33) Identify the structure labeled "4."
A) synaptic terminals
B) telodendria
C) dendritic spines
D) collateral branches
E) axons
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
34) Identify the structure labeled "5."
A) axons
B) telodendria
C) dendritic spines
D) synaptic terminals
E) collateral branch
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
9
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35) What is contained inside the structure labeled "5"?
A) neuroglia
B) sodium ions
C) acetylcholinesterase
D) calcium ions
E) neurotransmitter molecules
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
36) Which part(s) of the neuron can propagate an action potential?
A) 1
B) 1 and 2
C) 2 and 3
D) 3
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
37) On which structure do most neuron to neuron communications occur?
A) 2
B) 1
C) 3
D) 4
E) 5
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
38) ________ monitor the position of skeletal muscles and joints.
A) Proprioceptors
B) Internoceptors
C) Photoreceptors
D) Exteroceptors
E) Pressoreceptors
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10
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39) ________ carry sensory information to the CNS.
A) Motor neurons
B) Efferent neurons
C) Multipolar neurons
D) Afferent neurons
E) Interneurons
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40) ________ provide information about the external environment.
A) Spinal nerves
B) Anaxonic neurons
C) Internoceptors
D) Exteroceptors
E) Proprioceptors
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
41) ________ monitor the digestive, respiratory, cardiovascular, urinary, and reproductive
systems.
A) Spinal nerves
B) Unipolar neurons
C) Internoceptors
D) Exteroceptors
E) Proprioceptors
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42) The plasma membrane of an axon is called the
A) axon terminal.
B) neurilemma.
C) myelin sheath.
D) sarcolemma.
E) axolemma.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11
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43) The basic functional unit of the nervous system is the
A) neuron.
B) axon.
C) nerve.
D) glial cell.
E) receptor.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44) The most common neuron of the nervous system is the
A) interneuron.
B) externoceptor.
C) bipolar neuron.
D) unipolar neuron.
E) microglial cell.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
45) Most neurons lack ________ and so are permanently blocked from undergoing cell division.
A) ribosomes
B) endoplasmic reticula
C) a nucleus
D) centrioles
E) cytoplasm
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46) Deteriorating changes in the distal segment of an axon as a result of a break between it and
the soma is called ________ degeneration.
A) neural
B) central
C) peripheral
D) Wallerian
E) conduction
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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47) Which of the following is not a function of the neuroglia?
A) support
B) memory
C) secretion of cerebrospinal fluid
D) maintenance of blood-brain barrier
E) phagocytosis
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
48) Which of the following is a type of glial cell found in the peripheral nervous system?
A) astrocytes
B) satellite cells
C) oligodendrocytes
D) microglia
E) ependymal cells
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
49) The largest and most numerous of the glial cells in the central nervous system are the
A) astrocytes.
B) satellite cells.
C) oligodendrocytes.
D) microglia.
E) ependymal cells.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
50) Functions of astrocytes include all of the following except
A) maintaining the blood-brain barrier.
B) conducting action potentials.
C) guiding neuron development.
D) responding to neural tissue damage.
E) forming a three-dimensional framework for the CNS.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
13
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51) ________ account for roughly half of the volume of the nervous system.
A) Axons
B) Dendrites
C) Neuroglia
D) Synapses
E) Efferent fibers
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
52) The neuroglial cells that participate in maintaining the blood-brain barrier are the
A) astrocytes.
B) ependymal cells.
C) microglia.
D) oligodendrocytes.
E) Schwann cells.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
53) The myelin sheath that covers many CNS axons is formed by
A) astrocytes.
B) satellite cells.
C) oligodendrocytes.
D) microglia.
E) ependymal cells.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
54) ________ line the brain ventricles and spinal canal.
A) Astrocytes
B) Satellite cells
C) Oligodendrocytes
D) Microglia
E) Ependymal cells
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14
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55) Small, wandering cells that engulf cell debris and pathogens in the CNS are called
A) astrocytes.
B) satellite cells.
C) oligodendrocytes.
D) microglia.
E) ependymal cells.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
56) The neurilemma of axons in the peripheral nervous system is formed by
A) astrocytes.
B) satellite cells.
C) oligodendrocytes.
D) microglia.
E) Schwann cells.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
57) Glial cells that surround the neurons in ganglia are
A) astrocytes.
B) satellite cells.
C) oligodendrocytes.
D) microglia.
E) ependymal cells.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
58) Damage to ependymal cells would most likely affect the
A) formation of myelin sheaths.
B) formation of cerebrospinal fluid.
C) formation of ganglia.
D) repair of axons.
E) transport of neurotransmitters within axons.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
15
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59) When pressure is applied to neural tissue, all of the following effects are possible except
A) a decrease in blood flow.
B) a decrease in available oxygen.
C) a change in neuron excitability.
D) glial cells degenerate.
E) neurons are triggered to divide.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
60) In the peripheral nervous system, Schwann cells participate in the repair of damaged nerves
by
A) producing new axons.
B) regenerating cell bodies for the neurons.
C) forming a cellular cord that directs axonal regrowth.
D) clearing away cellular debris.
E) producing more satellite cells that fuse to form new axons.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
61) The tiny gaps between adjacent Schwann cells are called
A) neurillema.
B) nodes of Ranvier.
C) axolemma.
D) terminals.
E) vesicles.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
62) Regions of the CNS with an abundance of myelinated axons constitute the ________ matter.
A) gray
B) white
C) neural
D) brain
E) ganglion
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16
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63) Regions of the CNS where neuron cell bodies dominate constitute the ________ matter.
A) white
B) gray
C) neural
D) brain
E) ganglion
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
64) Which of the following is not a function of astrocytes?
A) They create a three dimensional framework for the CNS.
B) They maintain the blood-brain barrier.
C) They guide neuron development.
D) They rebuild injured neurons.
E) They adjust the composition of the interstitial tissue.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
65) All of the following cause demyelination except
A) heavy-metal ion poisoning.
B) diphtheria.
C) multiple sclerosis.
D) dopamine deficiency.
E) All of these cause demyelination.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
66) Which of the following can cause demyelination?
A) arsenic poisoning
B) diphtheria
C) multiple sclerosis
D) mercury exposure
E) Demyelination can be caused by arsenic, diphtheria, multiple sclerosis and mercury.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
17
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67) Which of the following is not true regarding the establishment of a neuron's resting
membrane potential?
A) Chemical and electrical forces both favor sodium ions entering the cell.
B) Electrical forces do not push sodium ions into the cell.
C) The chemical gradient for potassium ions tends to drive them out of the cell.
D) Ion pumps in the plasma membrane eject sodium ions as fast as they cross the membrane.
E) Resting membrane permeability to Na+ is very low.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
68) At the normal resting membrane potential of a typical neuron, its sodium-potassium
exchange pump transports
A) 1 intracellular sodium ion for 2 extracellular potassium ions.
B) 2 intracellular sodium ions for 1 extracellular potassium ion.
C) 3 intracellular sodium ions for 1 extracellular potassium ion.
D) 3 intracellular sodium ions for 2 extracellular potassium ions.
E) 3 extracellular sodium ions for 2 intracellular potassium ions.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
69) Ion channels that are always open are called ________ channels.
A) active
B) gated
C) leak
D) regulated
E) local
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
70) Opening of sodium channels in the axon membrane causes
A) depolarization.
B) repolarization.
C) hyperpolarization.
D) increased negative charge inside the membrane.
E) inhibition.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18
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71) Voltage-gated channels are present
A) at the motor end plate.
B) on the surface of dendrites.
C) in the membrane that covers axons.
D) on the soma of neurons.
E) along the perikaryon of neurons.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
72) The sodium-potassium ion exchange pump
A) must reestablish ion concentrations after each action potential.
B) transports sodium ions into the cell during depolarization.
C) transports potassium ions out of the cell during repolarization.
D) moves sodium and potassium opposite to the direction of their electrochemical gradients.
E) depends on a hydrogen gradient for energy.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
73) ________ open or close in response to binding specific molecules.
A) Leak channels
B) Activated channels
C) Chemically gated channels
D) Voltage-gated channels
E) Voltage-gated and chemically gated channels
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
74) ________ channels open or close in response to physical distortion of the membrane surface.
A) Voltage-gated
B) Chemically gated
C) Active
D) Mechanically gated
E) Leak
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19
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75) Any stimulus that opens a ________ ion channel will produce a graded potential.
A) voltage-gated
B) chemically gated
C) sodium
D) mechanically gated
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
76) If the permeability of a resting axon to sodium ion increases,
A) the membrane potential will repolarize.
B) the membrane potential will hyperpolarize.
C) inward movement of sodium ion will increase.
D) outward movement of sodium ion will decrease.
E) inward movement of sodium will increase and the membrane will depolarize.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
77) Which of the following is not involved in creating the resting membrane potential of a
neuron?
A) diffusion of potassium ions out of the cell
B) diffusion of sodium ions into the cell
C) membrane permeability for sodium ions greater than potassium ions
D) membrane permeability for potassium ions greater than sodium ions
E) The interior of the plasma membrane has an excess of negative charges.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
78) If the sodium-potassium pumps in the plasma membrane fail to function, all of the following
occur except
A) the intracellular concentration of potassium ions will increase.
B) the neuron will slowly depolarize.
C) the membrane will slowly lose its capacity to generate action potentials.
D) the inside of the membrane will have a resting membrane potential that is more positive than
normal.
E) the intracellular concentration of sodium ions will increase.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
20
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79) Graded potentials
A) produce an effect that increases with distance from the point of stimulation.
B) produce an effect that spreads actively across the membrane surface.
C) may be either a depolarization or a hyperpolarization.
D) are often all-or-none.
E) cause repolarization.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
80) When potassium channels open and the ions diffuse through the membrane,
A) the inside of the membrane will become more positive.
B) the inside of the membrane will become more negative.
C) there will be almost no effect on transmembrane potential.
D) the membrane will become depolarized.
E) the membrane will depolarize to threshold.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
81) Ions can move across the plasma membrane in which of the following ways?
A) through voltage-gated channels as in the action potential
B) through passive or leak channels
C) by ATP-dependent ion pumps like the sodium-potassium exchange pump
D) through chemically gated channels as in neuromuscular transmission
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
82) Raising the potassium ion concentration in the extracellular fluid surrounding a nerve cell
will have what effect?
A) depolarize it
B) hyperpolarize it
C) increase the magnitude of the potassium equilibrium potential
D) decrease the magnitude of the potassium equilibrium potential
E) both hyperpolarize it and decrease the magnitude of the potassium equilibrium potential
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
21
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83) Voltage-gated sodium channels have both an activation gate and a(n) ________ gate.
A) inactivation
B) ion
C) swinging
D) repolarization
E) threshold
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
84) If acetylcholine (ACh) causes inhibition of a postsynaptic neuron, to what type of membrane
channel did the ACh bind?
A) mechanically-regulated channel
B) voltage-regulated sodium channel
C) voltage-regulated calcium channel
D) chemically-regulated potassium channel
E) chemically-regulated sodium channel
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
85) A movement of charges in response to a potential difference is called
A) current.
B) depolarization.
C) hyperpolarization.
D) action potential.
E) electricity.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
86) The sum of the electrical and chemical forces acting on an ion is known as its
A) permeability gradient.
B) thermodynamic difference.
C) electrochemical gradient.
D) action potential.
E) summation difference.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22
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87) A shift of the resting transmembrane potential toward 0 mV is called
A) potential difference.
B) depolarization.
C) hyperpolarization.
D) polarization.
E) repolarization.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
88) The equilibrium potential of potassium is
A) -90mV.
B) -65mV.
C) -70mV.
D) +30mV.
E) +66mV.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
89) The equilibrium potential of sodium is
A) -90mV.
B) -65mV.
C) -70mV.
D) +30mV.
E) +66mV.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23
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90) The following are the main steps in the generation of an action potential.
1. Sodium channels are inactivated.
2. Voltage-gated potassium channels open and potassium moves out of the cell, initiating
repolarization.
3. Sodium channels regain their normal properties.
4. A graded depolarization brings an area of an excitable membrane to threshold.
5. A temporary hyperpolarization occurs.
6. Sodium channel activation occurs.
7. Sodium ions enter the cell and depolarization occurs.
What is the proper sequence of these events?
A) 4, 6, 7, 3, 2, 5, 1
B) 4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 3, 5
C) 6, 7, 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
D) 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 3, 5
E) 4, 2, 5, 6, 7, 3, 1
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
91) The all-or-none principle states that
A) all stimuli will produce identical action potentials.
B) all stimuli great enough to bring the membrane to threshold will produce identical action
potentials.
C) the greater the magnitude of the stimuli, the greater the magnitude of the action potential.
D) only sensory stimuli can activate action potentials.
E) only motor stimuli can activate action potentials.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
92) Which of the following statements about the action potential is false?
A) The rapid depolarization phase is caused by the entry of potassium ions.
B) During the repolarization phase, sodium channels close and potassium channels open.
C) During the depolarization phase, membrane potential becomes positive.
D) During the hyperpolarization phase, the ion pumps re-establish the sodium and potassium
concentrations across the cell membrane.
E) Repolarization occurs as potassium ions leave the axon.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
24
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93) How would the absolute refractory period be affected if voltage-regulated sodium channels
failed to inactivate?
A) It would last indefinitely.
B) It would be much briefer.
C) It would be basically unaffected.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
94) During repolarization of a neuron
A) sodium ions move out of the cell.
B) potassium ions move out of the cell.
C) potassium ions move into the cell.
D) both sodium and potassium ions move into the cell.
E) sodium ions move into the cell.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
95) How would a chemical that prevents the opening of voltage-regulated Na+ channels affect
the function of a neuron?
A) The neuron will only be able to hyperpolarize.
B) The neuron will depolarize more rapidly.
C) Action potentials will lack a repolarization phase.
D) The neuron will automatically and repeatedly produce graded potentials.
E) The neuron will only be capable of producing graded potentials.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
96) A threshold stimulus is the
A) depolarization necessary to cause an action potential.
B) peak of an action potential.
C) hyperpolarization of an axon.
D) resting membrane potential.
E) electrical current that crosses the synaptic cleft.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
25
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97) Which of the following is true about threshold for an action potential?
A) It is more positive than the resting membrane potential.
B) Voltage-gated potassium channels begin to close.
C) Voltage-gated potassium channels begin to open.
D) The membrane begins to hyperpolarize.
E) Threshold for a typical neuron is approximately -30 mV.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26
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98) Puffer fish poison blocks voltage-gated sodium channels like a cork. What effect would this
neurotoxin have on the function of neurons?
A) Neurons would depolarize more rapidly.
B) Action potentials would lack a repolarization phase.
C) The absolute refractory period would be shorter than normal.
D) The axon would be unable to generate action potentials.
E) None, because the chemically gated sodium channels would still function.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
Figure 12-2 The Nerve Action Potential
Use Figure 12-2 to answer the following questions:
99) What is occurring at the area labeled #4?
A) An inhibitory stimulus has occurred.
B) Chemically gated potassium channels have opened.
C) Excessive potassium has diffused out causing hyperpolarization.
D) Sodium ions have been pumped out of the neuron.
E) Excessive depolarization of the axon has occurred.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
27
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100) What is occurring in the area between #2 and #3?
A) An excitatory graded potential is occurring.
B) Potassium ions are entering the axon and causing depolarization.
C) Chemically gated sodium channels are open and sodium is diffusing into the axon.
D) Sodium ions are entering the axon and causing depolarization.
E) Repolarization of the axon due to sodium ions leaving the axon is occurring.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
101) Which area of the graph shows when chemically gated sodium channels are open?
A) 3
B) 1
C) 2
D) 5
E) 4
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
102) Which area of the graph shows when voltage-gated sodium channels are open?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 1
D) 5
E) 3
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
103) Which area of the graph shows when potassium channels open?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
104) In which area of the graph do you see a sudden rush of sodium ions into the neuron?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
28
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105) Which area of the graph shows when membrane potential approaches the potassium
equilibrium potential?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
106) Which point of the graph shows when potassium ion outflow exceeds sodium ion inflow?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
107) When is the neuron in the relative refractory period?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
108) Rapid impulse conduction from "node" to "node" is called
A) spatial propagation.
B) saltatory propagation.
C) divergent propagation.
D) synaptic transmission.
E) continuous propagation.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
29
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109) Which of the following does not influence the time necessary for a nerve impulse to be
transmitted?
A) length of the axon
B) presence or absence of a myelin sheath
C) diameter of the axon
D) presence or absence of nodes
E) whether or not the impulse begins in the CNS
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
110) Which of the following types of nerve fiber possesses the fastest speed of impulse
propagation?
A) type A
B) type B
C) type C
D) type D
E) type E
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
111) Type ________ fibers have the largest diameter axons.
A) S
B) F
C) A
D) B
E) C
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
112) Sensory information from skeletal muscles travels over ________ fibers.
A) type A
B) type B
C) type C
D) type D
E) type E
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30
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113) In which of the following would the rate of impulse conduction be the greatest?
A) a myelinated fiber of 10-µm diameter
B) a nonmyelinated fiber of 20-µm diameter
C) a myelinated fiber of 1-µm diameter
D) a nonmyelinated fiber of 10-µm diameter
E) It would be the same in all because of the all-or-none principle.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
114) The minimum stimulus required to trigger an action potential is known as the
A) threshold.
B) all-or-none response.
C) potential.
D) incentive.
E) summation.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
115) The ________ principle states that the size and speed of the action potential are
independent of the stimulus strength.
A) threshold
B) all-or-none
C) summation
D) polarization
E) potential
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
116) The period during which an excitable membrane cannot respond to further stimulation is the
________ period.
A) relative refractory
B) absolute refractory
C) resting
D) lag
E) stationary
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31
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117) The period during which an excitable membrane can respond again, but only if the stimulus
is greater than the threshold stimulus, is the ________ period.
A) relative refractory
B) absolute refractory
C) resting
D) lag
E) stationary
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
118) The presence of ________ dramatically increases the speed at which an action potential
moves along an axon.
A) a capsule
B) plasma protein
C) neurilemma
D) glial cells
E) myelin
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
119) Below are the events that occur during continuous propagation of action potential. Select
the correct order in which the events occur.
1. Adjacent membrane segment depolarizes.
2. Local current spreads to adjacent voltage gated channel.
3. Threshold is met.
4. Local current develops due to sodium moving in the cytosol.
A) 2,4,3,1
B) 2,4,1,3
C) 4,2,3,1
D) 4,2,1,3
E) 1,4,2,3
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
120) A neuron that receives neurotransmitter from another neuron is called
A) the presynaptic neuron.
B) the motor neuron.
C) an oligodendrocyte.
D) a satellite cell.
E) the postsynaptic neuron.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32
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121) Which type of synapse is most common in the nervous system?
A) chemical
B) electrical
C) mechanical
D) processing
E) radiative
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
122) The ion that triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft is
A) sodium.
B) potassium.
C) calcium.
D) chloride.
E) magnesium.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
123) Cholinergic synapses release the neurotransmitter
A) norepinephrine.
B) adrenalin.
C) serotonin.
D) acetylcholine.
E) GABA.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
33
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124) The following are the steps involved in transmission at a cholinergic synapse. What is the
correct sequence for these events?
1. Chemically-gated sodium channels on the postsynaptic membrane are activated.
2. Calcium ions enter the synaptic terminal.
3. Acetylcholinesterase hydrolyzes acetylcholine.
4. An action potential depolarizes the synaptic terminal at the presynaptic membrane.
5. The pre-synaptic terminal reabsorbs choline.
6. Acetylcholine is released from storage vesicles by exocytosis.
7. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane.
8. Calcium ions are removed from the cytoplasm of the pre- synaptic terminal.
A) 4, 2, 6, 7, 8, 5, 3, 1
B) 4, 2, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5
C) 2, 4, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5
D) 2, 5, 4, 6, 7, 1, 8, 3
E) 6, 4, 2, 7, 1, 8, 3, 5
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
125) If the chemically gated sodium channels in the postsynaptic membrane were completely
blocked,
A) synaptic transmission would fail.
B) release of neurotransmitter would stop.
C) smaller action potentials would result.
D) the presynaptic membrane would be unable to reach threshold.
E) the presynaptic neuron would release a different neurotransmitter.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
126) The effect that a neurotransmitter has on the postsynaptic membrane depends on the
A) frequency of neurotransmitter release.
B) nature of the neurotransmitter.
C) characteristics of the receptors.
D) quantity of neurotransmitters released.
E) All of the answers are correct.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
34
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127) When cholinergic receptors are stimulated,
A) sodium ions enter the postsynaptic neuron.
B) sodium ions leave the postsynaptic neuron.
C) chloride ions enter the postsynaptic neuron.
D) chloride ions leave the postsynaptic neuron.
E) norepinephrine deactivates acetylcholine.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
128) What triggers the release of acetylcholine from a synaptic terminal?
A) release of calcium ions from the synaptic vesicles
B) graded potentials in the synaptic terminal
C) synaptic vesicles fuse to dendrites
D) diffusion of sodium ions out of the synaptic terminal
E) diffusion of calcium ions into the synaptic terminal
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
129) At a(n) ________ synapse, a neurotransmitter is released to stimulate the postsynaptic
membrane.
A) electrical
B) cell
C) chemical
D) osmotic
E) gap
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
130) In a(n) ________ synapse, current flows directly between cells.
A) electrical
B) cell
C) chemical
D) osmotic
E) gap
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
35
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131) At a synapse the 0.2-0.5 milliseconds it takes for calcium influx and neurotransmitter
release is called
A) latency period.
B) synaptic delay.
C) recovery period.
D) repolarization.
E) synaptic diffusion.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
132) Synaptic delay is caused by
A) neurotransmitter diffusion.
B) binding of acetylcholine to post-synaptic receptors.
C) calcium influx and neurotransmitter release.
D) production and transport of neurotransmitter within the neuron.
E) the lack of permeability of the post-synaptic membrane.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
133) Adrenergic synapses release the neurotransmitter
A) acetylcholine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) dopamine.
D) serotonin.
E) GABA.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
134) Which of the following is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain that is
important in learning and memory?
A) glutamate
B) gamma aminobutyric acid
C) serotonin
D) noradrenaline
E) glycine
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36
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135) After acetylcholinesterase acts, the synaptic terminal
A) reabsorbs the acetylcholine.
B) reabsorbs the acetate.
C) reabsorbs the choline.
D) reabsorbs axoplasm.
E) pinches off and a new terminal grows.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
136) A deficiency in which neurotransmitter would cause Parkinson's-like symptoms?
A) dopamine
B) norepinephrine
C) serotonin
D) GABA
E) endorphins
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
137) Which neurotransmitter has a direct effect on opening chloride channels?
A) dopamine
B) norepinephrine
C) serotonin
D) GABA
E) endorphins
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
138) Which neurotransmitter has widespread effects on a person's attention and emotional state?
A) dopamine
B) norepinephrine
C) serotonin
D) GABA
E) endorphins
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
37
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139) Which of the following neurotransmitters is a dissolved gas?
A) serotonin
B) glutamate
C) aspartate
D) nitric oxide
E) histamine
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
140) Which of the following neurotransmitters are known to bind to G-protein coupled
receptors?
A) epinephrine
B) serotonin
C) dopamine
D) GABA
E) All of these bind to G-protein coupled receptors.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 12-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
141) The molecule responsible for making cyclic AMP is called
A) adenylate cyclase.
B) adenosine.
C) anandamide.
D) adenosine synthase.
E) G-protein.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
142) Which of the following is the primary second messenger in G-protein coupled post-synaptic
cells?
A) NO
B) CO
C) cAMP
D) GABA
E) ATP
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38
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143) A postsynaptic neuron will have an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) when
A) chemically regulated potassium channels are open and potassium is diffusing out of the cell.
B) more calcium ions than usual diffuse into the neuron.
C) chemically regulated sodium channels are open and sodium is diffusing into the cell.
D) the neuron is hyperpolarized.
E) more potassium ions than usual diffuse out of the neuron.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
144) The site in the neuron where EPSPs and IPSPs are integrated is the
A) chemical synapse.
B) electrical synapse.
C) axon hillock.
D) dendritic membrane.
E) synaptic terminal.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
145) EPSPs (excitatory postsynaptic potentials) occur when
A) more potassium ions than usual leak out of a cell.
B) more calcium ions than usual leak out of a cell.
C) chloride ions enter a cell.
D) extra sodium ions enter a cell.
E) hyperpolarizations occur.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
146) IPSPs (inhibitory postsynaptic potentials)
A) are local depolarizations.
B) are local hyperpolarizations.
C) increase membrane permeability to sodium ions.
D) block the efflux of potassium ions.
E) block the efflux of calcium ions.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39
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147) When a second EPSP (excitatory postsynaptic potential) arrives at a single synapse before
the effects of the first have disappeared, what occurs?
A) spatial summation
B) temporal summation
C) inhibition of the impulse
D) hyperpolarization
E) decrease in speed of impulse transmission
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
148) Summation that results from the cumulative effect of multiple synapses at multiple places
on the neuron is designated
A) spatial summation.
B) temporal summation.
C) inhibition of the impulse.
D) hyperpolarization.
E) impulse transmission.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
149) A neuron whose membrane potential shifts closer to threshold is said to be
A) hyperpolarized.
B) depolarized.
C) facilitated.
D) repolarized.
E) at equilibrium.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 12-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
150) In ________, activity at an axoaxonic synapse increases the amount of neurotransmitter
released when an action potential arrives at the axon terminus.
A) presynaptic inhibition
B) presynaptic facilitation
C) spatial summation
D) temporal summation
E) spatial facilitation
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40
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151) In one form of presynaptic inhibition the release of ________ inhibits the opening of
voltage gated calcium channels in the axon terminus.
A) glutamate
B) GABA
C) serotonin
D) dopamine
E) aspartate
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
152) The release of GABA and subsequent inhibition of voltage gated calcium channels is
associated with
A) presynaptic inhibition.
B) presynaptic facilitation.
C) spatial summation.
D) temporal summation.
E) spatial facilitation.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) The axon hillock is a region between what two general regions of a neuron? (Figure 12-2)
A) dendrites and cell body
B) nucleolus and nucleus
C) axon and axon terminals
D) cell body and axon
E) dendrites and telodendria
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Which neuroglia myelinate CNS axons and which neuroglia myelinate PNS axons?
(Figure 12-4)
A) oligodendrocytes; Schwann cells
B) Schwann cells; oligodendrocytes
C) astrocytes; satellite cells
D) satellite cells; astrocytes
E) astrocytes; Schwann cells
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
41
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3) Which part of an acetylcholine (ACh) molecule undergoes reuptake by the axon terminal to be
reused in another acetylcholine molecule? (Figure 12-16)
A) acetate
B) choline
C) coenzyme A
D) calcium
E) acetyl-CoA
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 12-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
Essay Questions
1) Rabies is caused by a virus that attacks the central nervous system. The virus is normally
introduced by an animal bite that breaks the surface of the skin. Since the virus is not motile,
how does it travel to the central nervous system?
Answer: When the skin is broken by an animal bite some cutaneous receptors are physically
damaged. It is through these damaged axons that the virus gains entrance to the neuron.
Retrograde axoplasmic transport carries the virus to the central nervous system, where it can
reproduce and spread.
Learning Outcome: 12-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) The myelination of central and peripheral axons occurs rapidly through the first few years of
life. How can this developmental process explain the improved motor abilities of infants and
toddlers?
Answer: Without full myelination, information about limb movement and body position moves
slowly to the CNS, and motor commands move slowly and erratically to the muscles. By the
time the brain is aware of movement or position and can issue a motor command, the limb has
already moved. When the motor command reaches the skeletal muscle, the response is no longer
appropriate. As the neurons become fully myelinated, information processing speeds up, so we
observe improved balance, coordination, and movement.
Learning Outcome: 12-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
42
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3) A drug that blocks ATP production is introduced into an isolated axon preparation. The axon
is then repeatedly stimulated, and recordings are made of the response. What effects would you
expect to observe?
Answer: Initially, the recording would show normal action potentials in response to the
repetitive stimulation. After 50,000 to 100,000 action potentials have passed, the recording
would start to indicate less responsiveness from the axon; ultimately, the axon would fail to
respond. Because very few ions actually move across the membrane during an action potential,
axons can carry thousands of action potentials before the concentrations of sodium and
potassium ions must be reestablished by the sodium-potassium pump. Without ATP production,
the supply of ATP would be consumed, the pump would shut down, and so the cell could not
restore the sodium and potassium ion gradients. The resulting slow depolarization would
inactivate voltage-gated sodium channels, leading to a persistent absolute refractory state. The
loss of the electrochemical gradients denies the axons their means of generating an action
potential and transmission would stop.
Learning Outcome: 12-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
43
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 13 The Spinal Cord, Spinal Nerves, and Spinal Reflexes
Multiple Choice Questions
1) The spinal cord is part of the ________ nervous system.
A) peripheral
B) somatic
C) central
D) autonomic
E) afferent
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) The adult spinal cord typically ends between vertebrae
A) T12-L1.
B) S4-S5.
C) L5-S1.
D) L1-L2.
E) S5-Co1.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) Arrange the spinal meninges from innermost layer to outermost layer.
A) dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
B) dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater
C) arachnoid mater, pia mater, dura mater
D) pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid mater
E) pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) Enlarged area of the spinal cord from which nerves to the shoulder and upper limbs arise.
A) cervical enlargement
B) lumbar enlargement
C) thoracic region
D) conus medullaris
E) sacral region
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) These structures extending from the pia mater through to the dura mater support the spinal
cord by preventing lateral movement.
A) coccygeal ligament
B) rami communicantes
C) cauda equina
D) denticulate ligaments
E) spinal ligaments
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
6) The conus medullaris anchors the spinal cord to the coccygeal ligament via a strand of fibrous
tissue called the
A) denticulate ligament.
B) filum terminale.
C) spinal ligament.
D) meningeal ligament.
E) dura mater.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) Spinal nerves are
A) purely sensory.
B) purely motor.
C) both sensory and motor.
D) interneuronal.
E) involuntary.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) The spinal cord consists of four regions and ________ pairs of spinal nerves.
A) five
B) twelve
C) twenty-five
D) thirty-one
E) The number varies widely among individuals.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
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9) The posterior root ganglia mainly contain
A) axons of motor neurons.
B) axons of sensory neurons.
C) cell bodies of motor neurons.
D) cell bodies of sensory neurons.
E) synapses.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) The posterior root of a spinal nerve contains
A) axons of motor neurons.
B) axons of sensory neurons.
C) cell bodies of motor neurons.
D) cell bodies of sensory neurons.
E) interneurons.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) The anterior root of a spinal nerve contains
A) axons of motor neurons.
B) axons of sensory neurons.
C) cell bodies of motor neurons.
D) cell bodies of sensory neurons.
E) interneurons.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12) The tough, fibrous, outermost covering of the spinal cord is the
A) arachnoid mater.
B) pia mater.
C) dura mater.
D) coccygeal ligament.
E) periosteum.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
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13) If the posterior root of a spinal nerve is severed,
A) output to skeletal muscles would be blocked.
B) output to visceral organs would be blocked.
C) efferent fibers would be blocked.
D) the brain would not be able to communicate with that level of the spinal cord.
E) sensory input would be blocked.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
14) The subdural space lies between
A) the arachnoid mater and the pia mater.
B) the pia mater and the dura mater.
C) the dura mater and the arachnoid mater.
D) the pia mater and the subarachnoid space.
E) the endosteum and the periosteum.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
15) The layer of the meninges in direct contact with the spinal cord is the
A) dura mater.
B) subarachnoid space.
C) arachnoid mater.
D) pia mater.
E) choroid plexus.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) A posterior and anterior root of each spinal segment unite to form a
A) cervical enlargement.
B) lumbar enlargement.
C) spinal nerve.
D) denticulate ligament.
E) spinal ganglion.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) Which of the following is not true of meningitis?
A) Inflammation of the meninges occurs.
B) Bacteria can be the cause.
C) Viruses can be the cause.
D) CSF flow can be disrupted.
E) It only affects spinal meninges.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
18) Which of the following is not true regarding an epidural block?
A) It is commonly used as a method of pain control during labor and delivery.
B) This procedure does not provide sustained anesthesia.
C) It can provide sensory and motor anesthesia, depending on the anesthetic selected.
D) Intubation is not necessary because respiratory muscles are not paralyzed.
E) It affects only the spinal nerves in the immediate area of the injection.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
19) Cerebrospinal fluid flows within the
A) filum terminale.
B) subarachnoid space.
C) dura mater.
D) pia mater.
E) arachnoid mater.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
20) The spinal cord continues to elongate until about age
A) 20 years.
B) 10 years.
C) 4 years.
D) 6 months.
E) 2 months.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5
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21) The specialized membranes that surround the spinal cord are termed the
A) cranial meninges.
B) cranial mater.
C) spinal meninges.
D) spinal mater.
E) epidural membranes.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22) Blood vessels that supply the spinal cord run along the surface of the
A) pia mater.
B) dura mater.
C) epidural space.
D) subdural space.
E) arachnoid mater.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) Samples of CSF for diagnostic purposes are normally obtained by placing the tip of a needle
in the
A) dura mater.
B) arachnoid mater.
C) epidural space.
D) subarachnoid space.
E) cerebral ventricles.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
24) In an adult, the conus medullaris is found at about
A) T6.
B) T10.
C) L1.
D) L5.
E) C8.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6
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25) The dura mater tapers inferiorly to form the
A) coccygeal ligament.
B) conus medullaris.
C) cauda equina.
D) subarachnoid space.
E) denticulate ligament.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26) The condition in which a person loses all feeling and movement of the arms and legs due to
spinal cord injury is termed
A) paraplegia.
B) hemiplegia.
C) spinal shock.
D) quadriplegia.
E) spinal transection.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
27) The loss of feeling and movement of the legs is termed
A) paraplegia.
B) hemiplegia.
C) spinal shock.
D) quadriplegia.
E) spinal transection.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
28) During the procedure known as a(n) ________, a needle is inserted into the subarachnoid
space in the inferior lumbar region.
A) myelography
B) encephalomyelogram
C) laminectomy
D) lumbar puncture
E) thoracic tap
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7
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29) Bill contracts a viral disease that destroys cells in the posterior gray horns in his spinal cord.
As a result, which of the following would you expect?
A) loss of sensation in his torso
B) inability to breathe
C) problems with moving his arms
D) uncontrollable sweating of his feet
E) problems moving his legs
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
30) Masses of gray matter within the central nervous system are
A) ganglia.
B) columns.
C) nuclei.
D) commissures.
E) horns.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31) Bundles of axons in the central nervous system are known as
A) tracts.
B) ganglia.
C) nuclei.
D) horns.
E) commissures.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) Axons cross from one side of the spinal cord to the other through the
A) lateral white column.
B) posterior gray horn.
C) central canal.
D) posterior median sulcus.
E) anterior white commissure.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8
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33) The white matter of the spinal cord is mainly
A) unmyelinated axons.
B) neuroglia.
C) Schwann cells.
D) myelinated axons.
E) nodes of Ranvier.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34) The gray horns of the spinal cord contain mainly
A) nerve tracts.
B) columns.
C) meninges.
D) neuron cell bodies.
E) funiculi.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
35) The large anterior gray horns of the spinal cord contain mainly
A) somatic sensory nuclei.
B) somatic motor nuclei.
C) visceral motor nuclei.
D) visceral sensory nuclei.
E) sympathetic nuclei.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
36) Nerve tracts or fasciculi make up the
A) central canal.
B) posterior gray horns.
C) gray commissures.
D) white columns.
E) anterior gray horns.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
9
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37) In the spinal cord, white matter is separated into ascending and descending tracts organized
as
A) nuclei.
B) ganglia.
C) columns.
D) nerves.
E) horns.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38) The outward projections from the central gray matter of the spinal cord, seen easily in
microscopic spinal cord cross sections, are called
A) wings.
B) horns.
C) pyramids.
D) fibers.
E) tracts.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39) Axons crossing from one side of the spinal cord to the other within the gray matter are found
in the
A) anterior gray horns.
B) lateral gray horns.
C) posterior gray horns.
D) gray commissures.
E) white commissures.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10
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Figure 13-1 The Spinal Cord
Use Figure 13-1 to answer the following questions:
40) Ascending and descending tracts can be found in which area(s) of the spinal cord?
A) 9
B) 8
C) 11, 12, 13, 14
D) 1, 2, 3
E) 4, 5, 6
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
41) Identify the structure labeled "1."
A) anterior white column
B) lateral white column
C) lateral white horn
D) median commissure
E) posterior white column
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11
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42) Identify the structure labeled "4."
A) posterior gray column
B) posterior gray ganglion
C) posterior white column
D) posterior gray horn
E) anterior gray horn
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43) Identify the structure labeled "9."
A) anterior white commissure
B) anterior median fissure
C) anterior white column
D) anterior gray commissure
E) anterior white horn
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44) What is the function of the structure labeled "11"?
A) somatic motor control
B) somatic sensory receiving
C) visceral sensory receiving
D) visceral motor control
E) ascending pathway
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
45) Where do somatic motor neurons reside?
A) 9
B) 11
C) 12
D) 13
E) 14
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
12
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46) Sensory information from visceral organs is carried by the
A) parasympathetic nerve.
B) sympathetic nerve.
C) anterior ramus.
D) posterior ramus.
E) rami communicantes.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
47) Nerve plexuses are formed by interconnecting branches of the
A) posterior rami.
B) anterior rami.
C) posterior root.
D) anterior root.
E) white rami communicans.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
48) Regional loss of sensory or motor function from nerve trauma or compression is termed
A) shingles.
B) dermatome.
C) peripheral neuropathy.
D) hemisection.
E) areflexia.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
49) Large bundles of axons from several spinal nerves in the brachial plexus are termed
A) cords.
B) rami.
C) dermatomes.
D) trunks.
E) roots.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
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50) The largest peripheral nerve is the ________ nerve.
A) median
B) femoral
C) phrenic
D) obturator
E) sciatic
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
51) Loss of feeling in the thumb and first two fingers is most likely due to a damaged ________
nerve.
A) radial
B) musculocutaneous
C) ulnar
D) median
E) axillary
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
52) The outermost connective tissue covering of nerves is the
A) endoneurium.
B) endomysium.
C) perineurium.
D) epineurium.
E) epimysium.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
53) The preganglionic fibers that connect a spinal nerve with an autonomic ganglion in the
thoracic and lumbar region of the spinal cord and carries visceral motor fibers that are
myelinated form the
A) white rami communicantes.
B) gray rami communicantes.
C) posterior ramus.
D) anterior ramus.
E) dermatomes.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
14
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54) The postganglionic fibers that innervate glands in the body wall or smooth muscles in limbs
are
A) white rami communicantes.
B) gray rami communicantes.
C) posterior ramus.
D) anterior ramus.
E) dermatomes.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
55) Preganglionic and postganglionic fibers of the autonomic nervous system that innervate
internal organs are collectively called
A) posterior rami.
B) anterior rami.
C) white rami.
D) gray rami.
E) sympathetic nerves.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
56) Which of the following associations is incorrect?
A) 8 cervical spinal nerves
B) 11 thoracic spinal nerves
C) 5 lumbar spinal nerves
D) 5 sacral spinal nerves
E) 1 coccygeal spinal nerve
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
57) Muscles of the neck and shoulder are innervated by spinal nerves from the ________ region.
A) cervical
B) thoracic
C) lumbar
D) sacral
E) coccygeal
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15
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58) The anterior rami of spinal nerves C5 to T1 contribute fibers to the ________ plexus.
A) cervical
B) brachial
C) lumbar
D) sacral
E) thoracic
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
59) In which plexus does the ulnar nerve arise?
A) cranial
B) cervical
C) brachial
D) lumbar
E) sacral
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
60) In the condition ________, a virus infects posterior root ganglia, causing a painful rash
whose distribution corresponds to that of the affected sensory nerves as seen in their
dermatomes.
A) myasthenia gravis
B) neuronal damage
C) shingles
D) chickenpox
E) Hodgkin's disease
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
61) The layer of connective tissue that surrounds a fascicle within a peripheral nerve is the
A) perineurium.
B) epineurium.
C) endoneurium.
D) epimysium.
E) endosteum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16
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62) Spinal nerves from the sacral region of the cord innervate the ________ muscles.
A) shoulder
B) intercostal
C) abdominal
D) leg
E) facial
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
63) The ________ innervates the ventrolateral body surface, structures in the body wall, and the
limbs.
A) white rami communicantes
B) gray rami communicantes
C) posterior rami
D) anterior rami
E) dermatomes
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
64) A viral disease that destroys the cells of the anterior gray horn will
A) lead to skeletal muscle weakness or paralysis.
B) interfere with position sense.
C) mainly interfere with crude touch and temperature sense.
D) block autonomic regulation.
E) affect visceral motor function.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
65) The complex, interwoven network formed by contributions from the anterior rami of
neighboring spinal nerves is termed a(n)
A) dermatome.
B) autonomic nerve.
C) lateral nerve.
D) tract.
E) plexus.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
17
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66) Each of the following nerves originates in the lumbar plexus except the ________ nerve.
A) saphenous
B) sciatic
C) femoral
D) obturator
E) genitofemoral
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
67) The ________ nerve, which arises in the cervical plexus, innervates the diaphragm.
A) ansa cervicalis
B) lesser occipital
C) thoracic
D) phrenic
E) supraclaviculars
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
68) The layer of connective tissue that surrounds individual axons within a peripheral nerve is
termed the
A) endoneurium.
B) perineurium.
C) epineurium.
D) metaneurium.
E) subneurium.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
69) If a person has a crush injury to the C3-C5 spinal segments, you would expect that he
A) might be unable to breathe on his own.
B) could walk without difficulty.
C) would have full range of motion in all extremities.
D) would be in a coma.
E) would have difficulty chewing and moving the tongue.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
18
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70) Mary is in an automobile accident and suffers a spinal cord injury. She has lost feeling in her
lower body. Her doctor tells her that swelling is compressing a portion of her spinal cord. Which
part of her cord is likely to be compressed?
A) the anterior gray horns
B) the anterior gray commissures
C) ascending tracts
D) descending tracts
E) the anterior white commissures
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
71) The brachial plexus gives rise to all of the following nerves except the
A) radial.
B) median.
C) ulnar.
D) musculocutaneous.
E) phrenic.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
19
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Figure 13-2 Spinal Nerves
Use Figure 13-2 to answer the following questions:
72) Identify the structure labeled "2."
A) anterior root
B) posterior ramus
C) spinal nerve
D) anterior ramus
E) white ramus
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
73) Identify the structure labeled "3."
A) spinal nerve
B) gray ramus communicans
C) white ramus communicans
D) posterior ramus communicans
E) anterior ramus communicans
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20
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74) Ken has a herniated disc which is pinching the structure labeled "10". He is most likely
experiencing impairment in which sensory pathway?
A) somatic sensory
B) visceral sensory
C) somatic and visceral sensory
D) somatic and visceral motor
E) visceral motor
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
75) Damage to which structure would lead to paralysis of limbs?
A) 11
B) 2
C) 1
D) 7
E) 9
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
76) Identify the structure labeled "4."
A) spinal nerve
B) gray ramus
C) white ramus
D) posterior ramus
E) anterior ramus
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
77) Identify the structure labeled "6."
A) autonomic nerve
B) sympathetic ganglion
C) posterior root ganglion
D) rami communicantes
E) anterior root
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
21
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78) Identify the structure labeled "8."
A) peripheral nerve
B) posterior ramus
C) spinal nerve
D) anterior root
E) posterior root
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
79) What is the function of the structure labeled "12"?
A) somatic motor control
B) visceral motor control
C) somatic sensory input
D) visceral sensory input
E) sensory receptor for pain
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
80) Which branch carries motor neurons to structures on the back of the body trunk?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 5
D) 7
E) 11
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
81) In which structure are sensory cell bodies located?
A) 4
B) 6
C) 5
D) 10
E) 12
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
22
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82) Suppose that you feel something brushing against your abdomen. The sensory information
would be carried to the spinal cord over a(n) ________ ramus.
A) posterior
B) sympathetic
C) lateral
D) anterior
E) ascending
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
83) The specific strip of skin that is innervated by a specific spinal nerve is called a
A) root.
B) ramus.
C) trunk.
D) ganglion.
E) dermatome.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
84) A complex, interwoven network of nerves is called a
A) dermatome.
B) ramus.
C) plexus.
D) ganglion.
E) tract.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
85) Recognized neuronal circuit patterns include all of the following except
A) convergent.
B) divergent.
C) multipolar.
D) reverberating.
E) parallel processing.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23
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86) You are sitting at a Mexican restaurant waiting for your food. The waiter brings a very hot
plate, telling you to be careful about touching it. You touch it anyway, producing a pain
sensation in your fingers, a withdrawal of your hand, and an auditory comment of what you are
thinking. This scenario represents a ________ neuronal circuit.
A) parallel processing
B) reverberating
C) serial processing
D) convergent
E) divergent
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
87) In ________, one neuron synapses on several postsynaptic neurons.
A) divergence
B) reverberation
C) serial processing
D) parallel processing
E) convergence
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
88) A motor neuron typically receives input from neurons that originate in various areas of the
brain. This type of circuit is a
A) divergent circuit.
B) convergent circuit.
C) serial processing circuit.
D) parallel processing circuit.
E) reverberating circuit.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
89) Which of the following is not a way that reflexes are classified?
A) innate/acquired
B) somatic/visceral
C) sympathetic/parasympathetic
D) monosynaptic/polysynaptic
E) spinal/cranial
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24
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90) All of the following are true of neural reflexes except that they
A) are automatic motor responses.
B) are the simplest form of behavior.
C) help preserve homeostasis.
D) cannot be modified by the brain.
E) involve at least two neurons.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
91) Reflexes based on synapses formed during development are ________ reflexes.
A) visceral
B) innate
C) acquired
D) somatic
E) intersegmental
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
92) The neural "wiring" of a single reflex is called a(n)
A) reflex arc.
B) ramus.
C) ganglion.
D) tract.
E) circuit.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
93) ________ reflexes activate skeletal muscles.
A) Involuntary
B) Cranial
C) Spinal
D) Autonomic
E) Somatic
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 13-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
25
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94) The most complicated spinal reflexes are called
A) collateral reflex arcs.
B) ipsilateral reflex arcs.
C) intersegmental reflex arcs.
D) dermatomes.
E) spinal plexuses.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
95) All of the following are true of muscle spindles except they
A) are found within skeletal muscle.
B) consist of specialized fibers called intrafusal fibers.
C) are found in tendons.
D) are the receptor for the stretch reflex.
E) are innervated by gamma motor neurons.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
96) The reflex that prevents a muscle from exerting too much tension is the ________ reflex.
A) stretch
B) tendon
C) flexor
D) crossed extensor
E) reciprocal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
97) Spinal interneurons inhibit antagonist motor neurons in a process called
A) a crossed extensor reflex.
B) a stretch reflex.
C) a tendon reflex.
D) reciprocal inhibition.
E) reverberating circuits.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26
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98) Which of the following is not true of polysynaptic reflexes?
A) They involve pools of interneurons.
B) They are intersegmental in distribution.
C) They involve reciprocal inhibition.
D) They involve one muscle group.
E) They have reverberating circuits.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
99) Place the following events of a reflex arc in the correct order: 1) motor neuron activation, 2)
sensory neuron activation, 3) sensory receptor activation, 4) Information processing, 5) effector
response.
A) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
B) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
C) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1
D) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
E) 1, 5, 3, 2, 4
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
100) The ________ reflex complements the flexor reflex by activating contralateral muscles.
A) stretch
B) tendon
C) flexor
D) crossed extensor
E) reciprocal
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
101) The flexor reflex
A) prevents a muscle from overstretching.
B) prevents a muscle from generating damaging tension.
C) moves a limb away from a painful stimulus.
D) usually depends on cranial neurons.
E) is an example of a monosynaptic reflex.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27
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102) Reflexes that activate muscles on the same side of the body as the stimulus are called
A) contralateral.
B) ipsilateral.
C) monosynaptic.
D) involuntary.
E) polysynaptic.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
103) Reflexes that activate muscles on the opposite side of the body as the stimulus are called
A) contralateral.
B) ipsilateral.
C) monosynaptic.
D) involuntary.
E) polysynaptic.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
104) In a(n) ________ reflex, a sensory neuron synapses directly on a motor neuron.
A) monosynaptic
B) ipsilateral
C) commensual
D) contralateral
E) polysynaptic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
105) A(n) ________ reflex has at least one interneuron placed between the sensory and motor
neurons.
A) monosynaptic
B) ipsilateral
C) contralateral
D) involuntary
E) polysynaptic
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 13-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28
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106) Which of the following is not a reason a reflex response may fail during a clinical exam?
A) The person may consciously suppress the response.
B) The nerves may be damaged.
C) The person may be elderly and no longer have any reflexes.
D) The CNS may be damaged.
E) There may be nerve conduction problems.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
107) Which of the following is not true about a positive Babinski reflex?
A) normal in newborns
B) abnormal in adults
C) a sign of injury to descending spinal tracts
D) clinicians test this when a peripheral nerve injury is suspected
E) flaring of the toes when the sole is stroked
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) What is the area between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater? (Figure 13-3)
A) dura mater
B) subdural space
C) subarachnoid space
D) denticulate space
E) epidural space
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 13-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) In which horn are somatic motor nuclei located? (Figure 13-5)
A) anterior horn
B) posterior horn
C) lateral horn
D) dorsal horn
E) central horn
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 13-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
29
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3) The axillary, radial, and ulnar nerves branch from which plexus? (Figure 13-9)
A) cervical
B) brachial
C) lumbar
D) sacral
E) thoracic
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) What are the four ways reflexes can be classified? (Figure 13-15)
A) monosynaptic, polysynaptic, monosegmental, polysegmental
B) flexor, extensor, crossed extensor, withdrawal
C) somatic, muscle, visceral, autonomic
D) development, response, complexity, processing site
E) dorsal, ventral, lateral, central
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 13-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
Essay Questions
1) The varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles. The virus attacks the dorsal roots
of spinal nerves and sensory ganglia of cranial nerves. What are the characteristic symptoms of
shingles and where are they localized on the body?
Answer: The symptoms include red skin that is warm to the touch. The skin is extremely
sensitive and very painful. Additionally, the skin forms painful blisters that are slow to heal. The
rash follows the dermatome of the affected sensory nerve so it is typically a small area and
usually affects only on one side of the body.
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
2) While playing football, Ramón is tackled hard, and as he tries to get up, he finds that he has
difficulty flexing and adducting his left thigh and extending his left leg. Which nerve innervating
the lower limb may be damaged, and how would the damage affect sensory perception in
Ramón's left leg?
Answer: Ramón has a damaged left femoral nerve. This nerve also supplies sensory innervation
to the skin on the anteromedial surface of the thigh and medial surfaces of the leg and foot, so he
will also experience numbness in those regions.
Learning Outcome: 13-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
30
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3) What is a reflex arc? What components must be present to qualify?
Answer: A reflex arc is the wiring pattern of neurons that underlie a particular reflex. A reflex
arc consists of three elements at the minimum: (1) a sensory receptor and neuron to carry afferent
information to the CNS; (2) an excitatory synapse on a motor neuron; (3) the motor neuron to
generate an action potential and conduct the impulse to an effector such as a skeletal muscle
motor unit.
Learning Outcome: 13-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
4) Sometimes, when it is difficult to initiate a knee-jerk reflex by tapping the patellar tendon, a
patient will be asked to voluntarily make a fist. Then the reflex will be easily evoked. What does
this illustrate about the relation between voluntary and involuntary reflex movement?
Answer: Descending motor tracts that excite the motor neurons that activate forearm and hand
muscles also send excitatory impulses to motor neurons lower down the spinal cord. These
EPSPs spatially summate with the excitatory inputs from the muscle spindles to quadriceps
motor neurons, bringing the quadriceps neurons to threshold, and thus generate a brisk "kneejerk" response.
Learning Outcome: 13-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
31
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 14 The Brain and Cranial Nerves
Multiple Choice Questions
1) The adult human brain contains almost ________ of the body's neural tissue.
A) 15 percent
B) 25 percent
C) 68 percent
D) 97 percent
E) 35 percent
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Male brains are typically ________ compared to female brains.
A) larger
B) smaller
C) the same size
D) very smooth
E) more convoluted
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) During embryonic development, which of the following secondary brain vesicles will form the
cerebrum?
A) telencephalon
B) diencephalon
C) mesencephalon
D) metencephalon
E) myelencephalon
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) Which of these is not one of the main divisions of the adult brain?
A) cerebrum
B) diencephalon
C) prosencephalon
D) brainstem
E) cerebellum
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) Which of the following lies between the cerebrum and the brain stem?
A) medulla oblongata
B) pons
C) mesencephalon
D) diencephalon
E) cerebellum
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) The floor of the diencephalon is formed by the
A) hypothalamus.
B) thalamus.
C) brain stem.
D) mesencephalon.
E) pons.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) The tracts that connect the cerebellum to the brain stem are located in the
A) medulla oblongata.
B) pons.
C) mesencephalon.
D) diencephalon.
E) thalamus.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) Autonomic centers that control blood pressure, heart rate, and digestion are located in the
A) medulla oblongata.
B) pons.
C) midbrain.
D) diencephalon.
E) cerebellum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
9) The cerebellum and pons develop from the
A) telencephalon.
B) diencephalon.
C) mesencephalon.
D) metencephalon.
E) myelencephalon.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) Sensory information is processed and relayed to the cerebrum by the
A) medulla oblongata.
B) pons.
C) midbrain.
D) thalamus.
E) cerebellum.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) As you ascend from the medulla oblongata to the cerebrum, the functions of each successive
level become
A) more complex.
B) simpler.
C) better understood.
D) more crucial to visceral functions.
E) critical to reflexes.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
12) The ________ provides the principal link between the nervous and endocrine systems.
A) cerebellum
B) medulla oblongata
C) cerebrum
D) pons
E) hypothalamus
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
13) The ventricle associated with the pons and upper medulla is the
A) first.
B) second.
C) third.
D) fourth.
E) lateral.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) Which of the following is true about the cerebral cortex?
A) It is a deep layer of gray matter.
B) It is a superficial layer of gray matter.
C) It is a deep layer of white matter.
D) It is a superficial layer of white matter.
E) It is a deep layer of both white and gray matter.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) When you perform a physical activity that you have not done in a while, such as riding a
bike, which area of your brain coordinates your movements with learned experiences?
A) thalamus
B) pons
C) midbrain
D) cerebellum
E) medulla oblongata
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
16) During development, three primary brain vesicles form. The three vesicles are the
A) prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon.
B) telencephalon, diencephalon, and mesencephalon.
C) mesencephalon, metencephalon, and myelencephalon.
D) cerebrum, diencephalon, and midbrain.
E) rhombencephalon, diencephalon, and telencephalon.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) The lateral ventricles are found
A) in the cerebellar hemispheres.
B) between the pons and the midbrain.
C) in the cerebral hemispheres.
D) in the diencephalon.
E) in the spinal cord.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) The medulla oblongata, pons, and midbrain comprise the
A) basal ganglia.
B) brain stem.
C) mesencephalon.
D) ventricles.
E) diencephalon.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19) The rounded elevations of the cerebrum that increase its surface area are called
A) sulci.
B) fissures.
C) cortical folds.
D) gyri.
E) dural sinuses.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) The wall between the lateral ventricles is called the
A) cerebral aqueduct.
B) fornix.
C) falx cerebri.
D) corpus callosum.
E) septum pellucidum.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5
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21) The passageway between the lateral ventricles and the third ventricle is the
A) posterior foramen.
B) interventricular foramen.
C) cerebral aqueduct.
D) lateral foramen.
E) central canal.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22) Specialized ________ form the secretory component of the choroid plexus.
A) epididymal cells
B) ependymal cells
C) arachnoid cells
D) astrocyte
E) blood cells
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) The dural venous sinuses are located in the
A) paranasal cavity.
B) arachnoid folds.
C) pia mater.
D) dural folds.
E) tentorium cerebelli.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) What structure is covered by many blood vessels and adheres tightly to the surface of the
brain?
A) pia mater
B) arachnoid mater
C) dura mater
D) cranial plexus
E) choroid plexus
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6
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25) The brain requires a substantial blood supply. The vessels that deliver blood to the brain are
the
A) external carotid arteries.
B) facial arteries.
C) jugular veins.
D) internal carotid and vertebral arteries.
E) dural sinuses.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26) Which of the following is not a property of the blood-brain barrier?
A) The capillary endothelial cells are interconnected by tight junctions.
B) It is very permeable to many water and lipid-soluble compounds.
C) Astrocytes surround the CNS capillaries.
D) It is absent in portions of the hypothalamus.
E) It is intact except in areas known as circumventricular organs.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
27) The dural fold that projects into the longitudinal fissure between cerebral hemispheres is
called the
A) dural sinus.
B) falx cerebri.
C) tentorium cerebelli.
D) falx cerebelli.
E) choroid plexus.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28) Cerebrospinal fluid
A) is secreted by ependymal cells.
B) is formed by a passive process.
C) is normally produced twice as fast as it is removed.
D) has almost the same composition as blood plasma.
E) contains blood cells and blood plasma.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
7
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29) Which statement is true regarding the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid of the spinal cord
and brain?
A) Spinal fluid is secreted both in the brain and in the spinal cord areas.
B) There is an epidural space associated with the spinal meninges, but not with the cranial
meninges.
C) The meninges around the brain are not the same as those around the spinal cord.
D) There is a subarachnoid space within the spinal meninges but not the cranial meninges.
E) The choroid plexuses are located only within the brain, not within the spinal cord.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
30) The choroid plexus is composed of
A) lymphatic vessels.
B) blood vessels.
C) nerve fibers.
D) ganglia.
E) subarachnoid granulations.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31) Cerebrospinal fluid enters the blood circulation at the
A) jugular veins.
B) central canal.
C) arachnoid granulations.
D) tentorium cerebelli.
E) frontal sinus.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) What contains a spider web-like network of cells and fibers through which cerebrospinal
fluid flows?
A) subdural space
B) dural sinus
C) falx cerebri
D) subarachnoid space
E) pia mater
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8
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33) Which of the following is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid?
A) provides cushioning for delicate neural tissues
B) provides buoyant support for the brain
C) acts as a transport medium for nutrients
D) produces ATP for impulse transmission
E) acts as a transport medium for waste products
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34) Which statement is true regarding cerebrospinal fluid?
A) CSF is identical in composition to blood plasma.
B) CSF is made during fetal development and does not change through the lifetime of the person.
C) There is about a liter of CSF within the brain and spinal cord.
D) If CSF is not properly resorbed, the result would be hydrocephalus.
E) CSF moves back into the blood supply by the process of osmosis.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
35) Hydrocephalus, or "water on the brain," may result from
A) deficient production of cerebrospinal fluid.
B) excessive production of cerebrospinal fluid.
C) blockage of circulation of CSF.
D) excessive water intake.
E) blockage of CSF circulation or excessive CSF production.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
36) To return CSF to circulation, arachnoid granulations extend into the
A) subarachnoid space.
B) superior sagittal sinus.
C) carotid canal.
D) inferior sagittal sinus.
E) jugular foramen.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
9
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37) In each ventricle is a blood vessel network called the ________ that produces cerebrospinal
fluid.
A) choroid plexus
B) jugular vein
C) carotid artery
D) vertebral artery
E) dural sinus
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38) Chambers within the brain that contain cerebrospinal fluid are called
A) plexuses.
B) ganglia.
C) sinuses.
D) aqueducts.
E) ventricles.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39) Two large venous sinuses, the sagittal sinuses, lie within a dural fold called the
A) cerebral aqueduct.
B) basal ganglia.
C) falx cerebri.
D) tentorium cerebelli.
E) septum pellucidum.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40) The dural sinuses form between which two layers of the cranial dura mater?
A) pia and arachnoid layers
B) periosteal and endosteal layers
C) meningeal and cranial layers
D) periosteal and meningeal layers
E) superior and inferior sagittal layers
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10
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41) Tony hit his head in a car accident. The physicians diagnosed him with a subdural
hemorrhage. Which of the following correctly states where the bleeding has occurred in his
brain?
A) Blood is between the dura mater and the skull.
B) Blood is between the pia mater and arachnoid mater.
C) Blood is between the pia mater and the brain.
D) Blood is between the superior sagittal sinus and inferior sagittal sinus.
E) Blood is between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
42) How rapidly is the CSF volume replaced?
A) every 20 minutes
B) every 2 hours
C) every 8 hours
D) every 2 days
E) every week
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43) Which dural fold separates the cerebral hemispheres from the cerebellum?
A) tentorium cerebelli
B) falx cerebelli
C) falx cerebri
D) longitudinal fissure
E) superior sagittal sinus
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44) A patient comes into the emergency room with weakness on one side and difficulty walking
and talking. You determine that the brain has been deprived of oxygen due to lack of regional
blood flow. You suspect that patient has most likely experienced
A) a subdural hemorrhage.
B) meningitis.
C) hydrocephalus.
D) cranial trauma.
E) a cerebrovascular accident.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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Figure 14-1 The Circulation of Cerebrospinal Fluid
Use Figure 14-1 to answer the following questions:
45) Identify the structure labeled "1."
A) choroid plexus
B) cerebral aqueduct
C) third ventricle
D) subarachnoid space
E) corpus callosum
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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46) Ependymal cells are most likely found at which structure?
A) 10
B) 2
C) 9
D) 3
E) 7
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
47) CSF is absorbed into the venous circulation via arachnoid granulations. Identify an arachnoid
granulation.
A) 8
B) 1
C) 10
D) 2
E) 4
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
48) Identify the structure labeled "3."
A) lateral ventricles
B) corpora quadrigemina
C) cerebral aqueduct
D) pons
E) central canal
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
49) Identify the structure labeled "4."
A) cerebral aqueduct
B) lateral ventricle
C) sagittal sinus
D) 4th ventricle
E) choroid plexus
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
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50) Identify the structure labeled "6."
A) choroid plexus
B) fourth ventricle
C) lateral ventricle
D) cerebral aqueduct
E) subarachnoid space
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
51) Identify the structure labeled "7."
A) dura mater
B) lateral ventricle
C) fourth ventricle
D) subarachnoid space
E) filum terminale
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
52) Identify the structure labeled "9."
A) dura mater
B) superior sagittal sinus
C) lateral ventricle
D) subarachnoid space
E) arachnoid granulation
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
53) Identify the structure labeled "10."
A) arbor vitae
B) central canal
C) corpus callosum
D) pons
E) diencephalon
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14
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54) The control of heart rate and blood pressure is based in the
A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) diencephalon.
D) medulla oblongata.
E) thalamus.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
55) The medulla oblongata regulates
A) somatic motor contractions.
B) food intake.
C) auditory reflexes.
D) vision and hearing.
E) blood pressure and respiration.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
56) This structure of the medulla oblongata relays information from the red nuclei, midbrain, and
the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum.
A) inferior olivary complex
B) reticular formation
C) nucleus gracilis
D) nucleus cuneatus
E) solitary nucleus
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
57) Damage to the medulla oblongata can result in death because
A) electrical activity originates within the medulla.
B) the vital centers for the control of blood pressure, heart rate, and breathing are located there.
C) the blood might not be able to circulate properly around the brain.
D) body temperature is controlled by the medulla.
E) digestive processes are controlled by the medulla.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
15
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58) Cardiovascular centers located in the ________ adjust the heart rate, the strength of cardiac
contractions, and the flow of blood through the peripheral tissues.
A) pons
B) medulla oblongata
C) prefrontal cortex
D) thalamus
E) midbrain
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
59) The term used to describe the crossing over of a tract to the side of the nervous system
opposite to where the axons originated is
A) decussation.
B) contralateral.
C) ascending crossovers.
D) pyramidal tracts.
E) consensual tracts.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
60) Jane, a 79-year-old woman, has been diagnosed with a tumor in the brain. She has lost some
sensory and motor functions associated with the face, like control of facial muscles for emotion
and various sensory functions like taste. In addition, she has some hearing loss and balance
problems. The location of the tumor is likely to be the
A) cerebellum.
B) cerebrum.
C) medulla.
D) thalamus.
E) pons.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
61) If the pons was damaged, which of the following functions would be affected?
A) breathing
B) control of blood pressure
C) coordination
D) sleep patterns
E) judgment
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
16
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62) The nuclei of which cranial nerves are associated with the midbrain?
A) I and II
B) II and III
C) III and IV
D) IV and V
E) V and VI
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
63) Descending fibers from the pons to the cerebellum pass through these structures of the
midbrain?
A) substantia nigra
B) reticular formation
C) superior colliculus
D) corpora quadrigemina
E) cerebral peduncles
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
64) The medulla oblongata relays auditory stimuli to the
A) substantia nigra.
B) red nuclei.
C) cerebral peduncles.
D) superior colliculi.
E) inferior colliculi.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
65) The structure of the brain that carries ascending sensory information to the thalamus is the
A) midbrain.
B) cerebral aqueduct.
C) 4th ventricle.
D) basal ganglion.
E) cerebellum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
17
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66) Nerve fiber bundles on the ventrolateral surface of the mesencephalon are the
A) tectum.
B) corpora quadrigemina.
C) cerebral peduncles.
D) superior colliculi.
E) inferior colliculi.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
67) The corpora quadrigemina is composed of the
A) four cerebral lobes.
B) superior and inferior colliculi.
C) first four cranial nerves.
D) cranial nerve IV.
E) two superior cerebellar peduncles and the two inferior cerebellar peduncles.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
68) The reflex movement of the head toward a loud noise is directed by the mesencephalon.
Which nuclei accomplish this?
A) substantia nigra
B) red nuclei
C) tectum
D) superior colliculi
E) inferior colliculi
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
69) Damage to the corpora quadrigemina would interfere with
A) control of autonomic function.
B) regulation of body temperature.
C) visual and auditory reflex movements of the head and neck.
D) conscious control of skeletal muscles.
E) control of breathing.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
18
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70) Examination of a tissue sample from the central nervous system reveals many darkly
pigmented cells. This tissue probably came from the
A) nucleus gracilis.
B) nucleus cuneatus.
C) motor cortex.
D) substantia nigra.
E) cerebellar nucleus.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
71) The ________ are the four masses on the posterior of the midbrain.
A) cerebral peduncles
B) reticular formation
C) substantia nigra
D) choroid plexuses
E) corpora quadrigemina
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
72) The mesencephalon contains the headquarters of the ________, a specialized component of
the reticular formation that controls alertness and attention.
A) falx cerebri
B) Wernicke's area
C) general association area
D) reticular activating system
E) basal ganglia
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
73) Which of the following tracts is correctly matched?
A) superior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the spinal cord
B) middle cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the pons
C) inferior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the cerebrum
D) superior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the medulla oblongata
E) inferior cerebellar peduncles: link cerebellum with nuclei in the midbrain
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
19
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74) Overseeing the postural muscles of the body and making rapid adjustments to maintain
balance and equilibrium are functions of the
A) cerebrum.
B) thalamus.
C) cerebellum.
D) pons.
E) medulla oblongata.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
75) The cerebellar hemispheres are separated by a band of cortex called the
A) flocculonodular lobe.
B) arbor vitae.
C) folia.
D) vermis.
E) pyramid.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
76) The white matter of the cerebellum forms the
A) flocculonodular lobe.
B) arbor vitae.
C) folia.
D) vermis.
E) pyramid.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
77) The presence of many large, highly-branched Purkinje cells in a sample of brain tissue
indicates that it came from the
A) pons.
B) medulla.
C) cerebral cortex.
D) cerebellar cortex.
E) arbor vitae.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
20
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78) The cerebellum can be permanently damaged by stroke or temporarily affected by drugs or
alcohol. The resulting disturbance in motor control is known as
A) ataxia.
B) aphasia.
C) dysphagia.
D) Parkinson's.
E) epilepsy.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
79) The folds of the surface of the cerebellum
A) are called folia and are less prominent than the cerebral folds.
B) form a network of blood vessels over the brain.
C) consist of axons and dendrites of neurons.
D) are bathed in spinal fluid.
E) are called sulci.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
80) Which of the following is not one of the thalamic nuclei?
A) ventral nuclei
B) medial nuclei
C) superior nuclei
D) anterior nuclei
E) dorsal nuclei
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
81) Which hypothalamic nucleus is responsible for regulating circadian rhythms?
A) suprachiasmatic nucleus
B) preoptic area
C) autonomic nucleus
D) paraventricular nucleus
E) tuber cinereum
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
21
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82) The hypothalamus produces which two hormones?
A) ADH and epinephrine
B) epinephrine and norepinephrine
C) ADH and oxytocin
D) growth hormone and melatonin
E) oxytocin and melatonin
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
83) Which of the following is true regarding the pineal gland?
A) It is part of the epithalamus and secretes melatonin.
B) It is part of the hypothalamus and secretes oxytocin.
C) It is part of the thalamus.
D) It is part of the limbic system.
E) It controls heart rate and blood pressure.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
84) The pineal gland is part of the
A) hypothalamus.
B) diencephalon.
C) midbrain.
D) medulla oblongata.
E) brainstem.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
85) Which of the following is not function of the hypothalamus?
A) produces ADH
B) secrete melatonin
C) regulates body temperature
D) secretes oxytocin
E) controls autonomic centers
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22
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86) Which of the following is/are true of the epithalamus?
A) contains the mammillary body
B) forms the roof of the diencephalon
C) processes sensory information and relays it to the cerebrum
D) forms the cerebrum
E) creates the lateral ventricles
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
87) The anterior nuclei of the thalamus
A) are part of the limbic system.
B) secrete pituitary hormones.
C) secrete melatonin.
D) receive axon collaterals from the optic nerve.
E) secrete pituitary hormones and melatonin.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
88) The medial nuclei of the thalamus
A) are part of the limbic system.
B) connect emotional centers in the hypothalamus with the frontal lobe.
C) produce the hormone oxytocin.
D) process visual information.
E) process olfactory information.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
89) The dorsal/posterior nuclei of the thalamus includes the
A) basal nuclei.
B) lateral and medial geniculate nuclei.
C) mammillary body.
D) interthalamic adhesion.
E) red nucleus.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23
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90) The optic tracts carry visual information from the retina to the
A) pulvinar nuclei.
B) lateral geniculate nuclei.
C) medial geniculate nuclei.
D) supraoptic nuclei.
E) paraventricular nuclei.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
91) Which of the following is a function of the thalamus?
A) secrete cerebrospinal fluid
B) secrete melatonin
C) process sensory information and relay it to the cerebrum
D) store memories
E) regulate food intake
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
92) The thalamus is often called the "air traffic controller" of the brain because it
A) controls the autonomic functions of the body, such as the fight-or-flight response.
B) determines what can enter the brain from the blood.
C) controls reflexes.
D) determines the routing of incoming sensory information to the correct cerebral cortex area.
E) passes motor information on to the cerebellum.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
93) The mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus
A) regulate lactation.
B) secrete oxytocin.
C) control feeding reflexes.
D) control heart rate and blood pressure.
E) secrete antidiuretic hormone.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24
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94) The ________ filters and relays sensory information to cerebral cortex.
A) cerebrum
B) thalamus
C) pons
D) medulla oblongata
E) cerebellum
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
95) Damage to the preoptic area of the hypothalamus leads to which problem?
A) an intense thirst
B) an uncontrolled sex drive
C) reduced ability to regulate body temperature
D) an insatiable appetite
E) production of a large volume of urine
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
96) Joe begins to experience mood swings and disturbed thirst and hunger. Imaging studies
indicate that a brain tumor is the likely cause of these disorders. In what part of the brain is the
tumor most likely located?
A) prefrontal cortex
B) postcentral gyrus
C) basal nuclei
D) hypothalamus
E) reticular formation
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
97) Stimulation of the ________ within the hypothalamus produces the sensation of hunger.
A) satiety center
B) feeding center
C) thirst center
D) limbic system
E) hormone center
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
25
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98) The ________, a narrow stalk, connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland.
A) hippocampus
B) infundibulum
C) supraoptic nucleus
D) basal ganglia
E) amygdala
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
99) The system that functions in tying together emotions, motivation and memory is the
A) reticular activating system.
B) circadian system.
C) limbic system.
D) hypothalamic system.
E) apneustic system.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
100) Which of the following is not a property of the limbic system?
A) primarily a functional grouping
B) functions in maintaining homeostasis in cold weather
C) located between the border of the cerebrum and diencephalon
D) links conscious functions of the cerebral cortex with unconscious functions of the brain stem
E) functions in emotions, learning, and memory
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
101) The ________ is important in storage and recall of new long-term memories.
A) amygdaloid body
B) cingulate gyrus
C) mammillary bodies
D) hippocampus
E) fornix
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26
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102) A tract of white matter that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus is the
A) amygdaloid body.
B) cingulate gyrus.
C) mammillary bodies.
D) hippocampus.
E) fornix.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
103) Terry suffers from dissociation of memories from their emotional content as the result of an
automobile accident. What system of the brain is probably damaged?
A) the prefrontal lobe
B) the general interpretive area
C) the limbic system
D) the preoptic area
E) the reticular activating system
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
104) Which of the following is not correctly matched?
A) commissural fibers: interconnect the cerebral hemispheres
B) arcuate fibers: short association fibers
C) projection fibers: pass through the diencephalon
D) association fibers: interconnect areas within a single cerebral hemisphere
E) internal capsule: bands of association fibers
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
105) Which of the following is not true regarding the lentiform nucleus?
A) It is part of the basal nuclei.
B) It contains white matter.
C) It controls subconscious control of skeletal muscle.
D) It contains the putamen and the globus pallidus.
E) It is located deep to the floor of the lateral ventricle on each cerebral hemisphere.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
27
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106) The olfactory cortex is located in the
A) frontal lobe.
B) parietal lobe.
C) temporal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) cerebellum.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
107) A person touches you lightly with a feather. What two areas of the brain allow you to feel
and interpret this touch?
A) primary motor cortex and the primary sensory cortex
B) primary sensory cortex and the somatic sensory association area
C) primary sensory cortex and the visceral sensory association area
D) primary motor cortex and the somatic motor association area
E) gustatory cortex and the gustatory association area
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
108) In order to take notes the primary motor cortex must receive input from the ________ first.
A) postcentral gyrus
B) primary sensory cortex
C) somatic sensory association area
D) premotor cortex
E) olfactory association area
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
109) The complex integration of sensory information with visual and auditory memories occurs
in this area near the auditory cortex?
A) somatosensory area
B) precentral gyrus
C) premotor cortex
D) Wernicke's area
E) Broca's area
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28
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110) Following a head injury, Kevin can think of the word he wants to say but cannot make his
mouth form the correct sounds to produce the word. He is most likely suffering from damage to
A) Wernicke's area.
B) Broca's area.
C) Brodmann's area.
D) the general interpretive area.
E) the basal nuclei.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
111) Which of the following is not true regarding hemispheric lateralization?
A) Sensory analysis occurs in the right hemisphere.
B) Emotional recognition of facial expressions occurs in the right hemisphere.
C) Speech and language control is in the left hemisphere.
D) Analytic tasks like math and decision making occurs in the right hemisphere.
E) Reading and writing control is in the left hemisphere.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
112) Which EEG wave if seen in an awake adult may indicate a pathological condition?
A) alpha
B) beta
C) theta
D) delta
E) No waves should be seen in awake adults.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
113) Damage to the substantia nigra causes a decrease in the neurotransmitter dopamine. This
causes a gradual, generalized increase in muscle tone, which is the main symptom of
A) Parkinson's disease.
B) rabies.
C) Alzheimer's disease.
D) myasthenia gravis.
E) tetanus.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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114) The two cerebral hemispheres are separated by the
A) longitudinal fissure.
B) central sulcus.
C) transverse fissure.
D) parieto-occipital sulcus.
E) postcentral sulcus.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
115) Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are
A) fissures.
B) sinuses.
C) lobes.
D) sulci.
E) gyri.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
116) The cerebral lobe posterior to the central sulcus is the
A) parietal lobe.
B) temporal lobe.
C) frontal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) insula.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
117) The region(s) of the cerebral cortex superior to the lateral sulcus is/are the
A) parietal lobe.
B) temporal lobe.
C) frontal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) parietal and frontal lobes.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30
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118) The region of the cerebral cortex that is medial and deep to the temporal lobe is the
A) parietal lobe.
B) temporal lobe.
C) frontal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) insula.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
119) The primary motor cortex is the surface of the
A) insula.
B) precentral gyrus.
C) postcentral gyrus.
D) arcuate gyrus.
E) corpus callosum.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
120) The corpus callosum is composed of
A) arcuate fibers.
B) longitudinal fasciculi.
C) association fibers.
D) commissural fibers.
E) projection fibers.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
121) The surface of the postcentral gyrus contains the ________ cortex.
A) primary sensory
B) primary motor
C) visual
D) olfactory
E) auditory
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31
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122) Commissural fibers
A) carry pain information to the correct brain structure.
B) are divided by the longitudinal fissure.
C) link the cerebral cortex to the diencephalon.
D) interconnect and allow communication between cerebral hemispheres.
E) connect the frontal lobe to other lobes of the same hemisphere.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
123) The visual cortex is located in the
A) frontal lobe.
B) parietal lobe.
C) temporal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) insula.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
124) The auditory cortex is located in the
A) frontal lobe.
B) parietal lobe.
C) temporal lobe.
D) occipital lobe.
E) insula.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
125) Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called
________ areas.
A) commissural
B) sensory
C) association
D) somesthetic
E) processing
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32
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126) The region of the brain responsible for predicting the consequence of events or actions is
the
A) prefrontal cerebral cortex.
B) occipital association cortex.
C) reticular formation.
D) temporal lobe.
E) premotor cortex.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
127) Parkinson's disease is the result of
A) excess production of GABA by neurons in the basal nuclei.
B) decreased levels of acetylcholine from neurons in the substantia nigra.
C) inadequate production of dopamine by substantia nigra neurons.
D) hyperactivity of the limbic system.
E) weak response of the red nuclei of the mesencephalon.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
128) After suffering a stroke, Mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest
that the stroke damage is in the area of the ________ lobe.
A) right frontal
B) left frontal
C) right temporal
D) left temporal
E) occipital
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
129) After suffering a blow to the back of the head, Phil loses his vision. The blow probably
caused damage to the
A) frontal lobe.
B) postcentral gyrus.
C) temporal lobe.
D) limbic system.
E) occipital lobe.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
33
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130) Difficulties in estimating temporal relationships between events may stem from damage to
A) the prefrontal cortex.
B) the general interpretive area.
C) Broca's area.
D) Wernicke's area.
E) the postcentral gyrus.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
131) Within each hemisphere, deep to the floor of the lateral ventricle, you will find the
A) anterior commissures.
B) basal nuclei.
C) motor association areas.
D) visual cortex.
E) auditory cortex.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
132) Which cerebral area is involved with judgment and predictive abilities?
A) Broca's area
B) Brodmann area
C) prefrontal cortex
D) Wernicke's area
E) general interpretive area
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
133) The highest levels of information processing occur in the
A) cerebrum.
B) diencephalon.
C) cerebellum.
D) medulla oblongata.
E) corpus callosum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34
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134) A person with a damaged visual association area may be
A) unable to see rows of letters.
B) declared legally blind.
C) unable to recognize letters but able to identify whole words and their meanings.
D) able to see letters but unable to associate them into words.
E) unable to understand spoken words.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
135) Jane suffers from chronic seizures and in order to control the problem undergoes surgery in
which the fibers of the corpus callosum are cut. As a result of this surgery she would likely be
unable to
A) speak.
B) move her left arm.
C) verbally identify an object placed in her left hand.
D) recognize written words.
E) touch her nose with her eyes closed.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
136) ________ centers receive information from many association areas and direct extremely
complex motor activities such as speech.
A) Frontal
B) Integrative
C) Communication
D) Terminal
E) Vocal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
137) What symptoms would you expect to see in a patient with damage to the basal nuclei?
A) inability to process thoughts in a rational way
B) visual problems
C) facial tics
D) problems in rhythmic movements related to skeletal muscles
E) anger problems
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
35
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138) Bob is struck on the left side of the head and is knocked unconscious. When he recovers
consciousness, he can hear individual words but cannot understand the meaning of phrases or
sentences. This implies damage to his
A) somatosensory association area.
B) general interpretive area.
C) speech center.
D) prefrontal lobe.
E) temporal lobe.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
139) Damage to the premotor cortex of the frontal lobe would interfere with the ability to
A) understand written words.
B) understand spoken words.
C) understand visual images.
D) play the piano.
E) sense the texture of velvet.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
140) ________ is a temporary cerebral disorder accompanied by abnormal movements, unusual
sensations, and/or inappropriate behavior.
A) Dyslexia
B) Apraxia
C) Aphasia
D) Parkinson's disease
E) A seizure
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
141) A(n) ________ is a printed record of the brain's electrical activity over a period of time.
A) electrocardiogram
B) electroencephalogram
C) x-ray
D) MRI
E) CT scan
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
36
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142) ________ is a disorder affecting the ability to speak or read.
A) Aphasia
B) Ataxia
C) Apraxia
D) Bell's palsy
E) Dysphagia
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
143) The basal nuclei
A) initiate voluntary muscle activity.
B) provide the general pattern and rhythm for movements such as walking.
C) coordinate sensory information.
D) control the secretions of the pituitary gland.
E) control respiration and blood pressure.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
144) In most cases, the general interpretive center and the speech center are located in
A) the left cerebral hemisphere.
B) the right cerebral hemisphere.
C) neither of the cerebral hemispheres.
D) both of the cerebral hemispheres.
E) the cerebellum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
145) The dominant cerebral hemisphere of the brain
A) is for emotional status.
B) is for interpretation of art and music.
C) performs analytical tasks.
D) controls vital functions such as blood pressure and heart rate.
E) controls emotions.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
37
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146) Cortical regions that interpret sensory information or coordinate motor responses are called
________ areas.
A) association
B) motor
C) cranial
D) sensory
E) intercalated
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
147) The white structure that connects the cerebral hemispheres is the
A) geniculate nucleus.
B) basal ganglia.
C) amygdala.
D) arbor vitae.
E) corpus callosum.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
148) The only sensation that is received directly by the cerebrum is
A) olfaction.
B) gustation.
C) hearing.
D) vision.
E) dizziness.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
149) Which of the following nerves is purely sensory?
A) vagus
B) trochlear
C) abducens
D) optic
E) hypoglossal
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38
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150) A patient suffers an inability to shrug their shoulders. The nerve most likely to be damaged
is the
A) vagus.
B) accessory.
C) facial.
D) trigeminal.
E) vestibulocochlear.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
151) Which cranial nerve sends balance sensations to the brain?
A) facial
B) trigeminal
C) olfactory
D) vagus
E) vestibulocochlear
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
152) Which cranial nerve is tested by having the patient stick out their tongue?
A) hypoglossal
B) vagus
C) facial
D) glossopharyngeal
E) abducens
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
153) ________ is a condition resulting from an inflammation of a facial nerve.
A) Cerebral palsy
B) Bell's palsy
C) Addison's disease
D) Gout
E) Tic douloureux
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
39
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154) There are ________ pairs of cranial nerves.
A) 2
B) 6
C) 12
D) 22
E) 31
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
155) Droopy eyelids and double vision can result from injury to the ________ nerve.
A) optic
B) oculomotor
C) trochlear
D) olfactory
E) facial
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
156) The cranial nerves that innervate the extrinsic eye muscles are
A) I, II, and III.
B) III, IV, and VI.
C) II, III, and IV.
D) II and VI.
E) III and V.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
157) The cranial nerve that has three major branches is the
A) abducens.
B) facial.
C) vagus.
D) trigeminal.
E) glossopharyngeal.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40
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158) Sensory innervation of the lower teeth and gums is by the ________ nerve.
A) ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal
B) maxillary branch of the trigeminal
C) mandibular branch of the trigeminal
D) glossopharyngeal
E) hypoglossal
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
159) Difficulty in swallowing may be a sign of damage to which cranial nerve(s)?
A) vagus
B) facial
C) glossopharyngeal
D) hypoglossal
E) glossopharyngeal and vagus
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
160) A reflex that is used to assess the sensory function of the trigeminal nerve is the ________
reflex.
A) corneal
B) tympanic
C) auditory
D) vestibulocochlear
E) spinal
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
161) Which sensation(s) does the vestibulocochlear nerve carry?
A) hearing
B) balance
C) atmospheric pressure
D) hearing and balance
E) hearing, balance, and taste
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
41
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162) Jean needs to have a tooth in her mandible filled. Her dentist injects a local anesthetic to
block pain afferents in one of her cranial nerves. What cranial nerve does the dentist numb?
A) trochlear
B) trigeminal
C) facial
D) glossopharyngeal
E) hypoglossal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
163) You suspect your friend has damage to cranial nerve I when he is unable to
A) smell his food.
B) smile.
C) blink his eyes.
D) nod his head.
E) hear your voice.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
164) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate and synapse on neurons in the
A) medulla.
B) thalamus.
C) cerebral cortex.
D) olfactory bulb.
E) olfactory tract.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
165) At the optic chiasm,
A) axons from the medial halves of each retina cross.
B) axons from the lateral halves of each retina cross.
C) axons from the retinae synapse on those from the other half.
D) the olfactory nerve crosses to the opposite side of the brain.
E) the optic nerve enters the cerebellum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
42
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166) A patient develops a tumor of a cranial nerve that leads to difficulty in speaking from a loss
of tongue movement. Which cranial nerve is affected?
A) glossopharyngeal
B) hypoglossal
C) vagus
D) spinal accessory
E) trigeminal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
167) Which of the following symptoms would you associate with damage to the spinal accessory
nerve?
A) loss of the sense of taste
B) tooth pain
C) weakness of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
D) lack of facial expression
E) dry mouth from lack of saliva
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
168) The patient has the following symptoms: change in vocal tone, problems swallowing,
inability to control urination, erratic heart rate, and gastric problems. You would identify the
problem as being related to the
A) vagus nerve.
B) accessory nerve.
C) abducens nerve.
D) trigeminal nerve.
E) hypoglossal nerve.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
43
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Figure 14-2 Cranial Nerves
Use Figure 14-2 to answer the following questions:
169) Identify the structure labeled "1."
A) mammillary body
B) infundibulum
C) oculomotor nerve
D) olfactory bulb
E) optic nerve
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44
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170) Identify the nerve labeled "3."
A) facial
B) abducens
C) trochlear
D) trigeminal
E) vagus
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
171) What is the function of the nerve labeled "4"?
A) vision
B) olfaction
C) taste
D) hearing and balance
E) eye movement
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
172) What is the function of the nerve labeled "5"?
A) movement of the tongue
B) facial expression
C) vision
D) taste
E) visceral sensation and motor control
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
173) What is the function of the structure labeled "7"?
A) vision
B) olfaction
C) taste
D) auditory
E) eye movement
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
45
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174) Identify the nerve labeled "11."
A) oculomotor
B) trigeminal
C) trochlear
D) abducens
E) optic
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
175) Identify the nerve labeled "12."
A) trochlear
B) trigeminal
C) facial
D) abducens
E) vagus
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
176) Identify the spinal accessory nerve (XI).
A) 10
B) 11
C) 9
D) 6
E) 3
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
177) Identify the nerve that goes beyond the head and neck to innervate the thorax and abdomen.
A) 5
B) 6
C) 7
D) 10
E) 2
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46
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In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) What structures make up the brainstem? (Figure 14-1)
A) cerebrum, cerebellum, diencephalon
B) diencephalon, midbrain, cerebellum
C) midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
D) hypothalamus, thalamus, epithalamus
E) pons, medulla oblongata, cerebellum
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) List the maters surrounding the brain from the deepest layer to the most superficial layer.
(Figure 14-3)
A) dura, arachnoid, pia
B) pia, arachnoid, dura
C) arachnoid, dura, pia
D) arachnoid, pia, dura
E) pia, dura, arachnoid
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) What makes up the gray matter in the cerebellum? (Figure 14-9)
A) superior, middle, and inferior cerebellar peduncles
B) transverse pontine fibers and arbor vitae
C) arbor vitae and superior, middle, and inferior cerebellar peduncles
D) transverse pontine fibers and cerebellar nuclei
E) cerebellar cortex and cerebellar nuclei
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 14-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
4) The central sulcus divides which two lobes? (Figure 14-13)
A) left parietal lobe and right parietal lobe
B) occipital lobe and parietal lobe
C) frontal lobe and parietal lobe
D) frontal lobe and temporal lobe
E) parietal lobe and temporal lobe
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
47
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5) Which portion of the lentiform nucleus is more medial and which portion is more lateral?
(Figure 14-15)
A) putamen is more medial; globus pallidus is more lateral
B) globus pallidus is more medial; putamen is more lateral
C) claustrum is medial; septum pellucidum is lateral
D) septum pellucidum is medial; claustrum is lateral
E) insula is medial; caudate nucleus is lateral
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) Which structure receives visual information before it reaches the visual cortex? (Figure 14-20)
A) lateral geniculate body of the thalamus
B) medial geniculate body of the thalamus
C) ventral nucleus of the thalamus
D) paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus
E) supra-optic nucleus of the hypothalamus
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
7) What are the three divisions of the trigeminal nerve? (Figure 14-22)
A) lingual, mental, salivary
B) optic, auditory, buccal
C) temporal, zygomatic, buccal
D) ophthalmic, maxillary, mandibular
E) otic, ophthalmic, vestibular
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
48
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Essay Questions
1) Why is injury to the medulla oblongata frequently fatal?
Answer: This region of the brain contains the centers for regulating the cardiovascular system
and initiating respiration, both vital to life. In addition, most sensory and motor tracts pass
through the medulla oblongata between higher and lower centers of the nervous system.
Learning Outcome: 14-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
2) A patient develops a clot that blocks the blood supply to the right cerebral hemisphere. What
signs and symptoms would you expect as a result of this blockage?
Answer: Because the right primary motor cortex controls the muscles of the left side of the
body, you would expect left-sided paralysis whose extent and severity will depend on the extent
of brain injury. Similarly, the patient will experience somatic sensory loss on the left side of the
body. Higher-order functions such as memory, planning, spatial orientation, and emotional
control could be damaged but many language skills would be spared.
Learning Outcome: 14-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
3) Bell's palsy is caused by inflammation of the facial nerve (VII). What signs and symptoms
would you expect in this condition? Is it permanent?
Answer: Patients suffering from Bell's palsy usually experience paralysis of the facial muscles
on the affected side along with a loss of sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
Pain is rare and the condition usually resolves without specific treatment.
Learning Outcome: 14-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
49
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 15 Sensory Pathways and the Somatic Nervous System
Multiple Choice Questions
1) The term general senses refers to sensitivity to all of the following, except
A) temperature.
B) taste.
C) touch.
D) vibration.
E) pain.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) The sensory receptors, neurons and pathways make up the ________ division of the nervous
system.
A) voluntary
B) efferent
C) afferent
D) involuntary
E) somatic
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) The general senses
A) involve receptors that are relatively simple in structure.
B) are located in specialized structures called sense organs.
C) are localized to specific areas of the body.
D) cannot generate action potentials.
E) include taste and smell.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) The ________ nervous system carries impulses to skeletal muscles.
A) somatic
B) sympathetic
C) parasympathetic
D) afferent
E) autonomic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) The heart muscle is a ________ effector.
A) somatic
B) sympathetic
C) visceral
D) afferent
E) higher-order
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) The conversion of the stimulus into an action potential to be interpreted by the brain is called
A) transformation.
B) transduction.
C) translation.
D) transcription.
E) transpotential.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) Gustatory receptors are sensitive to dissolved chemicals but insensitive to light. This is due to
A) receptor specificity.
B) accessory cells.
C) the fact that they are interoceptors.
D) receptor potentials.
E) receptor speciation.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
8) Using the two-point discrimination test you can fairly accurately determine whether you have
been touched with one point or two because of the density of the
A) effectors.
B) perception.
C) labeled line.
D) receptor fields.
E) action potential.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
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9) General sense receptors are typically the
A) dendrites of motor neurons.
B) dendrites of sensory neurons.
C) axons of motor neurons.
D) axons of sensory neurons.
E) cell bodies of sensory neurons.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) Your brain is not constantly bombarded with signals telling it that you are wearing socks.
This is because the touch receptors around your ankle are
A) tonic receptors.
B) tonic receptors and slow-adapting.
C) phasic receptors and slow-adapting.
D) phasic receptors and fast-adapting.
E) nociceptors.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
11) Which is an example of a slow-adapting receptor?
A) phasic
B) touch
C) smell
D) temperature
E) pain
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12) In order for a sensation to become a perception,
A) it must be received by the somatosensory cortex.
B) the individual must vocalize about it.
C) it must arrive over fast-conducting nerve fibers.
D) the other senses must be silent.
E) it must be received by the pulvinar nucleus of the thalamus.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3
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13) All of the following can contribute to receptor specificity except
A) the structure of the receptor cell.
B) characteristics of the receptor cell membrane.
C) accessory cells that function with the receptor.
D) accessory structures and tissues that shield the receptors from other stimuli.
E) the metabolism of the receptor cell.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
14) Central adaptation refers to
A) the decline in activity of peripheral receptors when stimulated.
B) a characteristic of phasic receptors.
C) inhibition of nuclei located along a sensory pathway.
D) increases in conscious perception of a sensory stimulus.
E) a change in motor receptivity of a neuron.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) A receptor potential may cause all of the following responses except
A) increase neurotransmitter release.
B) decrease neurotransmitter release.
C) cause hyperpolarization.
D) cause depolarization.
E) turning off the original stimulus.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) Peripheral adaptation ________ the number of action potentials that reach the CNS.
A) decreases
B) increases
C) stabilizes
D) neutralizes
E) amplifies
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
4
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17) Which of the following statements is true about general senses?
A) They are distributed all over the body.
B) They are all mechanoreceptors.
C) All receptors involved in general sensation consist of free nerve endings.
D) They are located in sense organs.
E) The reception of the stimulus occurs slowly with these receptors.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
18) Sensory encoding of the perceived location of a stimulus depends on
A) the frequency of action potentials.
B) which labeled line is active.
C) the specific location of the cortical neuron that is stimulated.
D) the specific sensitivity of the peripheral receptor.
E) the number of receptors stimulated.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19) Action potentials from receptors involved in general sensations are interpreted in the
A) premotor cortex.
B) primary sensory cortex.
C) general interpretive area.
D) mesencephalon.
E) reticular activating system.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) Sensory information from all parts of the body is routed to
A) the prefrontal cortex.
B) the cerebellum.
C) the primary motor cortex.
D) the somatosensory cortex.
E) Broca's area.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5
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21) The conversion of a sensory input to a change in membrane potential in the receptor is
known as
A) transduction.
B) reception.
C) effection.
D) potential.
E) stimulation.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22) The link between peripheral receptor and cortical neuron is called a(n)
A) efferent pathway.
B) spinocortical line.
C) sympathetic chain.
D) adaptation pathway.
E) labeled line.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) A ________ potential is a depolarization of a sensory dendrite that can lead to an afferent
nerve impulse if strong enough.
A) resting
B) refractory
C) postsynaptic
D) generator
E) presynaptic
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) Sensory neurons that adapt quickly are called ________ receptors.
A) phasic
B) tonic
C) intracellular
D) chemical-channel
E) opioid
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
25) A reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus is referred to as
A) transduction.
B) adaptation.
C) negation.
D) exhaustion.
E) transformation.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26) Sensory neurons that are always active are called ________ receptors.
A) tonic
B) static
C) phasic
D) isometric
E) isotonic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27) You cannot tell when your small intestines shift position as food enters because you do not
have any ________ there.
A) chemoreceptors
B) nociceptors
C) proprioceptors
D) thermoreceptors
E) photoreceptors
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
28) Receptors in your stomach that determine when food enters because the pH changes would
be classified as
A) mechanoreceptors.
B) nociceptors.
C) proprioceptors.
D) baroreceptors.
E) chemoreceptors.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
7
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29) Free nerve endings detect which stimulus/stimuli?
A) chemical
B) temperature, pain, stretch and touch
C) pain only
D) stretch
E) deep pressure
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30) Two types of receptors that are least likely to adapt are the
A) proprioceptors and nociceptors.
B) free nerve endings and the root hair plexus.
C) tactile discs and the free nerve endings.
D) lamellar corpuscles and baroreceptors.
E) chemoreceptors and baroreceptors.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31) Chemoreceptors of the general senses do not send information to the primary sensory cortex
but instead send information to the ________ to control autonomic function.
A) cerebellum
B) cerebrum
C) brain stem
D) spinal cord
E) corpus callosum
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
32) A receptor that contains many mechanically-gated ion channels would function best as a
A) tactile receptor.
B) chemoreceptor.
C) photoceptor.
D) thermoreceptor.
E) light receptor.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8
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33) A mechanoreceptor in the papillary layer of the dermis that responds to fine touch is a
A) tactile (Merkel) disc.
B) root hair plexus.
C) free nerve ending.
D) Bulbous corpuscle.
E) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34) Which of the following is/are sometimes called "prickling pain"?
A) mechanical damage
B) proprioception
C) extremes of temperature
D) fast pain
E) fast and slow pain
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
35) All of the following are true of fast pain sensations except that they
A) are carried by type A fibers.
B) reach the CNS quickly.
C) are interpreted by the pre-frontal cortex.
D) receive conscious attention.
E) often trigger somatic reflexes.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
36) Endorphins can reduce perception of sensations initiated by
A) nociceptors.
B) mechanoreceptors.
C) thermoreceptors.
D) chemoreceptors.
E) proprioceptors.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
9
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37) Receptors that monitor the position of joints belong to the category called
A) nociceptors.
B) chemoreceptors.
C) baroreceptors.
D) proprioceptors.
E) thermoreceptors.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38) Mechanoreceptors that respond to changes in blood pressure are called
A) nociceptors.
B) baroreceptors.
C) chemoreceptors.
D) proprioceptors.
E) thermoreceptors.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39) Tactile receptors located in the reticular dermis that are tonic and show little if any
adaptation are called
A) Bulbous corpuscles.
B) lamellar corpuscles.
C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscles.
D) tactile discs.
E) root hair plexuses.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40) A tactile receptor composed of highly coiled dendrites that are surrounded by modified
Schwann cells and a fibrous capsule is a
A) lamellar corpuscle.
B) Bulbous corpuscle.
C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.
D) tactile (Merkel) disc.
E) root hair plexus.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10
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41) A very large, fast-adapting tactile receptor that is composed of a single dendrite enclosed by
concentric layers of collagen is a
A) Bulbous corpuscle.
B) lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscle.
C) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.
D) tactile (Merkel) disc.
E) root hair plexus.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42) Sensations of burning or aching pain
A) are carried by type A fibers.
B) reach the CNS quickly.
C) cause a generalized activation of the reticular formation and the thalamus.
D) are well localized.
E) are fast adapting.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
43) Bladder fullness is to ________ as blood pH is to ________.
A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors
B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors
C) baroreceptors; nociceptors
D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors
E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
44) A highly sensitive tactile receptor composed of dendritic processes of a single myelinated
fiber that makes contact with specialized cells of the stratum basale is a
A) lamellar corpuscle.
B) tactile (Meissner) corpuscle.
C) Bulbous corpuscle.
D) tactile (Merkel) disc.
E) root hair plexus.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11
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45) A sensory receptor characterized peripherally as a free nerve ending which centrally uses
glutamate and/or substance P as neurotransmitters would most likely be a
A) chemoreceptor.
B) mechanoreceptor.
C) thermoreceptor.
D) nociceptor.
E) free receptor.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46) We are constantly bombarded by a variety of stimuli inside and outside of our bodies. Why
are we not overwhelmed by sensory information?
A) We do not have receptors for most stimuli.
B) Stimuli are blocked from the receptors by our immune systems.
C) Most stimuli are external to our bodies and we have very few exteroceptors on the outside of
the body.
D) A particular receptor type can have different sensitivities to different stimuli.
E) A very tiny percentage of incoming sensory information is received by the cerebral cortex.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
47) Pain is to ________ as cold is to ________.
A) nociceptors; thermoreceptors
B) baroreceptors; chemoreceptors
C) baroreceptors; nociceptors
D) chemoreceptors; nociceptors
E) baroreceptors; thermoreceptors
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
48) If a friend is talking about someone she knows who lost his special senses, you would correct
her when you hear her mention ________ because it is not a special sense.
A) smell
B) sight
C) balance
D) cold
E) hearing
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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49) ________ are receptors in the aorta that monitor the blood pressure.
A) Chemoreceptors
B) Nociceptors
C) Baroreceptors
D) Proprioceptors
E) Hair cells
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
50) Which of the following is a property of thermoreceptors?
A) involves specialized receptors
B) monitor heat stimuli, not cold
C) found in skin only
D) project to reticular formation
E) cold receptors are less numerous than warm receptors
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
51) For the last few weeks, you have had an odd sensation on your upper thigh. When you touch
the naked skin, it feels very strange, like you are touching your skin through layers of cloth. The
surrounding area feels normal. Your doctor thinks that this may be related to spinal nerve
damage related to a herniated disc. The doctor calls this change in sensation
A) paresthesia.
B) anesthesia.
C) hypesthesia.
D) synesthesia.
E) kinesthesia.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
52) Chemoreceptors are located in all of the following except
A) carotid bodies.
B) aortic bodies.
C) the skin.
D) the organs of taste.
E) the organs of smell.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
53) Why is it that one cannot identify the location of internal organs, although joints and bone
location can be identified?
A) The internal organs have no proprioceptors like joints, bones, and muscles.
B) Internal organs have no pain receptors.
C) Although internal organs have some receptors, the information is not interpreted by the brain.
D) Internal organs have no receptors of any kind.
E) Sensory information from internal organs is processed by a different part of the brain than the
joints, bones, and muscles.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
54) Sensory neurons synapse in the CNS with an interneuron known as a
A) first-order neuron.
B) second-order neuron.
C) third-order neuron.
D) motor neuron.
E) efferent neuron.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
55) All of the following pathways require third-order neurons synapsing in the thalamus except
A) the lateral spinothalamic tract.
B) the anterior spinothalamic tract.
C) the anterior and posterior spinocerebellar tracts.
D) the gracile fasciculus.
E) the cuneate fasciculus.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
56) Which of the following is true of all the sensory pathways?
A) They all have third-order neurons.
B) They all synapse in the thalamus.
C) They all synapse in the cerebellum.
D) They all enter through dorsal roots.
E) Axons in each pathway decussate.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
14
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57) Activity of neurons in the spinothalamic pathway may still send signals even if the first order
sensory receptor does not receive a signal such as in amputation. This situation might cause
A) referred pain.
B) phantom limb pain.
C) pain adaptation.
D) paresthesia.
E) anesthesia.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
58) Which ascending tract carries the sensations for fine touch and vibration?
A) corticobulbar
B) corticospinal
C) posterior (dorsal) column
D) spinothalamic
E) spinocerebellar
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
59) The spinal tract that relays information concerning pain and temperature to the CNS is the
A) gracile fasciculus.
B) cuneate fasciculus.
C) posterior spinocerebellar.
D) lateral spinothalamic.
E) anterior spinothalamic.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
60) Your uncle was just diagnosed with a heart attack. One of his major symptoms is left arm
pain. You are not surprised because you are familiar with the phenomenon of ________ pain.
A) referred
B) phantom
C) psychosomatic
D) somatic
E) neurogenic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
15
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61) Stimulation of a neuron that terminates in the superior region of the left postcentral gyrus
would produce
A) a sensation in the right leg.
B) a sensation in the lips.
C) a muscle twitch in the right leg.
D) a muscle twitch in the lips.
E) both sensations and muscle twitches in the right leg.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
62) The spinal tract that relays information concerning crude touch and pressure to the CNS is
the
A) gracile fasciculus.
B) cuneate fasciculus.
C) posterior spinocerebellar.
D) lateral spinothalamic.
E) anterior spinothalamic.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
63) Each of the following is an ascending tract in the spinal cord except the
A) gracile fasciculus.
B) cuneate fasciculus.
C) posterior spinocerebellar.
D) reticulospinal tract.
E) anterior spinothalamic.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
64) The afferent neuron that carries the sensation and enters the CNS is a ________ neuron.
A) receptor
B) first-order
C) second-order
D) third-order
E) fourth-order
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
65) What loss would result from cutting through the medial lemniscus on the right side?
A) loss of pain sensation on the left side of the body
B) loss of pain sensation on the right side of the body
C) loss of fine touch sensation on the left side of the body
D) loss of fine touch sensation on the right side of the body
E) complete hemiplegia (paralysis) on the left side of the body
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
66) Thalamic neurons that project to the primary sensory cortex are ________ neurons.
A) receptor
B) first-order
C) second-order
D) third-order
E) fourth-order
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
67) Which neuron delivers sensations to the CNS?
A) first-order
B) second-order
C) third-order
D) fourth-order
E) sensory receptor
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
68) We can localize sensations that originate in different areas of the body because
A) sensory neurons carry only one modality.
B) sensory neurons from specific body regions project to specific cortical regions.
C) incoming sensory information is first processed by the thalamus.
D) different types of sensory receptors produce action potentials of different sizes and shapes.
E) of the many types of tactile receptors.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
17
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
Figure 15-1 Spinothalamic Tracts
Use Figure 15-1 to answer the following questions:
69) Identify the axon labeled "3."
A) axon of a lower motor neuron
B) axon of a upper motor neuron
C) axon of a first-order neuron
D) axon of a second-order neuron
E) axon of a ganglionic neuron
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
18
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
70) Where in the spinal cord is the structure labeled "2" located?
A) anterior gray horns
B) dorsal root ganglion
C) anterior white column
D) anterior median fissure
E) posterior white column
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
71) Identify the neuron labeled "1."
A) lower motor neuron
B) upper motor neuron
C) first-order neuron
D) second-order neuron
E) ganglionic neuron
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
72) Identify the structure labeled "5."
A) thalamus
B) cerebral cortex
C) primary motor cortex
D) primary sensory cortex
E) autonomic ganglion
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
73) The third-order neuron in this pathway synapses in what structure labeled "7"?
A) cerebellum
B) thalamus
C) primary sensory cortex
D) pons
E) medulla oblongata
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
74) Which structure conducts action potentials directly from a sensory receptor?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
E) 7
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
75) Identify the type of information that travels along the structure labeled "2."
A) motor commands to skeletal muscles
B) proprioception to the cerebral cortex
C) fine touch to the cerebral cortex
D) crude touch and pressure sensations
E) visceral motor commands to smooth muscle
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
76) The sense of proprioception passes along the ________ pathway.
A) rubriocerebellar
B) corticospinal
C) spinocerebellar
D) decussation pathways
E) ganglion
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
77) In the spinothalamic pathway, the sensory neuron that synapses with a neuron in the cerebral
cortex is called the ________ neuron.
A) first-order
B) second-order
C) third-order
D) fourth-order
E) receptive
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20
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78) Ascending tracts in the spinal cord relay ________ information.
A) sensory
B) motor
C) sensory and motor
D) only somatic
E) autonomic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
79) Which of the following is a progressive, degenerative disorder that affects upper and lower
motor neurons causing skeletal muscle atrophy?
A) cerebral palsy
B) stroke
C) paralysis
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
E) multiple sclerosis
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
80) In motor pathways, the only portion of the pathway that is outside of the CNS is the
A) lower motor neuron.
B) upper motor neuron.
C) axon of the lower motor neuron.
D) axon of the upper motor neuron.
E) interneuron.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
81) Which motor pathway does not end in the spinal cord?
A) corticobulbar tract
B) corticospinal tract
C) vestibulospinal tract
D) tectospinal tract
E) rubrospinal tract
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
21
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82) The corticospinal pathway begins in which area of the brain?
A) somatosensory cortex
B) primary motor cortex
C) midbrain
D) vestibular nuclei
E) red nuclei
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
83) The motor homunculus shows larger structures in areas of the body that
A) have more surface area.
B) have more sensory receptors.
C) have bigger skeletal muscles.
D) are highly sensitive.
E) have more motor units.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
84) The rubrospinal tracts originate in the
A) primary motor cortex.
B) vestibular nuclei.
C) thalamus.
D) red nuclei.
E) reticular formation.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
85) Which areas of the brain monitor and adjust activities of the motor pathways?
A) basal nuclei
B) cerebellum
C) basal nuclei and cerebellum
D) midbrain
E) pons
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22
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86) The neurons of the primary motor cortex are ________ cells.
A) neuroglial
B) dendritic
C) pyramidal
D) cortical
E) astrocyte
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
87) The descending spinal tract that crosses to the opposite side of the body within the medulla
oblongata is the ________ tract.
A) lateral corticospinal
B) anterior corticospinal
C) rubrospinal
D) reticulospinal
E) vestibulospinal
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
88) The spinal tract that normally plays a role in the subconscious regulation of the muscles of
the arms is the ________ tract.
A) lateral corticospinal
B) anterior corticospinal
C) rubrospinal
D) reticulospinal
E) vestibulospinal
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
89) Descending (motor) pathways always involve at least ________ motor neuron(s).
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
E) spinal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
90) The spinal tract that unconsciously maintains balance and muscle tone is the ________ tract.
A) lateral corticospinal
B) anterior corticospinal
C) rubrospinal
D) reticulospinal
E) vestibulospinal
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
91) The medial pathway that controls involuntary movements of head, neck, and arm position in
response to sudden visual and auditory stimuli is the ________ tract.
A) lateral corticospinal
B) tectospinal
C) rubrospinal
D) reticulospinal
E) vestibulospinal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
92) The pyramidal system provides
A) voluntary control over skeletal muscles.
B) voluntary control over smooth muscles.
C) involuntary control over skeletal muscles.
D) involuntary control over smooth muscles.
E) involuntary control over cardiac muscle.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
93) Upper motor neurons of the corticospinal tract synapse with neurons in
A) autonomic ganglia.
B) the anterior gray horns of the spinal cord.
C) the spinothalamic tract.
D) the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord.
E) the dorsal root ganglia.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
24
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94) The corticospinal system is often referred to as the
A) red nucleus.
B) reticular formation.
C) spinothalamic tracts.
D) pyramidal system.
E) medullary centers.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
95) The area of the motor cortex that is devoted to a particular region of the body is proportional
to the
A) size of the body area.
B) distance of the body area from the brain.
C) number of motor units in that region.
D) number of sensory receptors in the area of the body.
E) size of the nerves that serve the area of the body.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
96) Axons of the corticobulbar tract terminate in the
A) sensory neurons.
B) somatic motor neurons in the spinal cord.
C) autonomic motor neurons in the spinal cord.
D) motor nuclei of cranial nerves.
E) nuclei in the thalamus.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
97) The ________ tract provides subconscious regulation of upper limb muscle tone and
movement and is part of the ________ pathway.
A) tectospinal; lateral
B) rubrospinal; lateral
C) reticulospinal; medial
D) vestibulospinal; lateral
E) corticobulbar; medial
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
25
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98) Based on the motor homunculus, which of the following body regions has the fewest number
of motor units involved?
A) tongue
B) face
C) hands
D) back trunk
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
99) The pyramids on the ventral surface of the medulla oblongata are formed by fibers of the
________ tracts.
A) corticospinal
B) corticobulbar
C) reticulospinal
D) vestibulospinal
E) tectospinal
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
100) The basal nuclei
A) initiate conscious motor activity.
B) activate spinal reflexes.
C) provide the background patterns of movement involved in voluntary motor activities.
D) exert direct control over lower motor neurons.
E) act as gatekeepers, filtering out unnecessary sensorimotor activity.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
101) The upper motor neurons of the medial pathway are located within any of the following
except the
A) vestibular nuclei.
B) reticular formation.
C) superior colliculi.
D) inferior colliculi.
E) mammillary bodies.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26
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102) A brain injury to a patient results in facial paralysis. Which descending tract is most likely
affected?
A) corticospinal tract
B) tectospinal tract
C) rubrospinal tract
D) corticobulbar tract
E) reticulospinal tract
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
103) Some neurons within the basal nuclei are known to
A) stimulate neurons with GABA.
B) inhibit neurons with GABA.
C) stimulate neurons with acetylcholine.
D) stimulate neurons with GABA and stimulate neurons with acetylcholine.
E) inhibit neurons with GABA and stimulate neurons with acetylcholine.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
104) Damage to the pyramidal cells of the cerebral cortex would directly affect
A) perception of pain.
B) sight.
C) voluntary motor activity.
D) hearing.
E) balance.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
105) The cerebellum adjusts motor activity in response to all of the following except
A) touch sensations.
B) visual information.
C) equilibrium-related sensations.
D) input from the motor cortex.
E) input from proprioceptors.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27
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106) Motor neurons whose cell bodies are within the spinal cord are called ________ neurons.
A) upper motor
B) lower motor
C) preganglionic
D) postganglionic
E) somesthetic
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
107) Upper motor neurons are located in the
A) precentral gyrus.
B) postcentral gyrus.
C) brain stem.
D) spinal cord.
E) cerebral hemispheres and the brain stem.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
108) Damage to the tectospinal tracts would interfere with the ability to
A) position the arms.
B) monitor body position.
C) make reflex responses of the head and neck in response to sudden movements or loud noises.
D) control motor units located in the leg.
E) coordinate eating and swallowing movements.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
109) Descending tracts in the spinal cord relay ________ information.
A) sensory
B) motor
C) sensory and motor
D) only somatic
E) autonomic
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28
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110) In the corticospinal pathway, the neuron that exits the spinal cord and enters the spinal
nerve is called the ________ neuron.
A) upper sensory
B) lower sensory
C) upper motor
D) lower motor
E) pyramidal
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
29
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Figure 15-2 The Corticospinal Pathway
Use Figure 15-2 to answer the following questions:
111) Identify the origin of the axon labeled "2."
A) lower motor neuron
B) upper motor neuron
C) decussation neuron
D) second-order neuron
E) ganglionic neuron
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
30
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112) The axon labeled "2" synapses with which structure?
A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
E) 6
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
113) Identify the structure labeled "5."
A) ventral root
B) upper motor neuron
C) first-order neuron
D) second-order neuron
E) dorsal root
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
114) What occurs in this neural pathway at label "3"?
A) synapse
B) communication between sensory and motor neurons
C) amplification of motor signals
D) decussation
E) autonomic reflexes
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
115) Identify the structure labeled "1."
A) primary sensory cortex
B) primary motor cortex
C) thalamus
D) autonomic motor center
E) basal nuclei
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
31
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116) Identify the type of information that travels along the structure labeled "4."
A) motor commands to skeletal muscles
B) proprioception to the cerebral cortex
C) fine touch to the cerebral cortex
D) pain and crude touch sensations
E) visceral motor commands to smooth muscle
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) Which motor pathway directs a faster response: voluntary or involuntary? (Figure 15-1)
A) voluntary
B) involuntary
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 15-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) Describe the receptive field. (Figure 15-2)
A) The area receptive to stimuli monitored by a single receptor cell.
B) The overlap where many receptors detect stimuli.
C) The distance the generator potential travels after receptor stimulation.
D) The distance covered by action potentials after receptor stimulation.
E) The areas of the brain that process the receptor stimuli.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 15-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3) Which tactile receptors are located in the dermis? (Figure 15-4)
A) free nerve endings and tactile corpuscles
B) free nerve endings and the root hair plexus
C) tactile discs and tactile corpuscles
D) root hair plexus, bulbous corpuscle, and lamellar corpuscles
E) tactile discs and proprioceptors
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32
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4) Which pathway or tract detects sensations of pain and temperature? (Figure 15-7)
A) posterior spinocerebellar
B) anterior spinocerebellar
C) posterior column pathway
D) anterior spinothalamic
E) lateral spinothalamic
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
5) Identify the descending (motor) tracts in the spinal cord. (Figure 15-10)
A) anterior spinothalamic, posterior spinothalamic, lateral spinothalamic
B) anterior spinocerebellar, posterior spinocerebellar, lateral spinocerebellar
C) lateral corticospinal, anterior corticospinal, rubrospinal, medial and lateral reticulospinal,
tectospinal, vestibulospinal
D) gracile fasciculus and cuneate fasciculus
E) medial lemniscus, anterior spinothalamic, posterior spinothalamic, anterior spinocerebellar,
posterior spinocerebellar
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
Essay Questions
1) What are the four types of sensory receptors for the general senses? What is the nature of the
stimuli that excite each type?
Answer: (1) Nociceptors: a variety of stimuli associated with tissue damage; (2)
thermoreceptors: respond to changes in temperature; (3) mechanoreceptors: stimulated by
physical distortion, contact, or pressure; and (4) chemoreceptors: monitor the presence of
specific chemical substances.
Learning Outcome: 15-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) Jake steps on a piece of ice with his right foot. Outline the pathway this sensation will travel to
reach his brain being specific about the structures along the way.
Answer: When Jake steps on a piece of ice it will activate a thermoreceptor which are free nerve
endings in the dermis. This sensation will travel up the axon of a first-order neuron entering the
CNS through the dorsal root. The first-order neuron will synapse with a second-order
(interneuron) in the posterior gray horn. The second-order axons will enter the lateral
spinothalamic tract on the opposite side of the spinal cord and ascend to the thalamus. At the
thalamus the second-order neuron will synapse with a third-order neuron which will end at the
primary sensory cortex on the left side of the brain.
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
33
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3) What are differences and similarities between "crude" touch and "fine" touch sensations?
Answer: Crude touch refers to sensations from stimulation of tactile receptors of low sensitivity
with large receptive fields. In contrast, fine touch refers to tactile receptors of high sensitivity
with small receptive fields. Crude touch ascends in the anterior spinothalamic pathway whereas
fine touch ascends in the posterior column pathway. The spinothalamic pathway crosses the
neural axis in the spinal cord but the posterior column pathway crosses in the medulla oblongata.
Both ultimately project to the somatosensory cortex on the contralateral side of the stimulus in
the same region of cortex.
Learning Outcome: 15-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
4) How can an understanding of the neurotransmitters important in the function of the basal
nuclei contribute to an understanding the underlying cause for Parkinson's disease?
Answer: Two distinct populations of neurons exist: one that stimulates neurons by releasing
acetylcholine, and another that inhibits neurons through the release of gamma aminobutyric acid
(GABA). Under normal conditions, the excitatory interneurons are kept inactive, and the tracts
leaving the basal nuclei have an inhibitory effect on upper motor neurons. In Parkinson's disease,
the excitatory neurons become more active, leading to problems with the voluntary control of
movement. Treatment directed at increasing the supply of GABA is being investigated actively.
Learning Outcome: 15-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
34
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 16 The Autonomic Nervous System and Higher-Order Functions
Multiple Choice Questions
1) The ________ division of the autonomic nervous system is said to function during "rest and
digest."
A) sympathetic
B) parasympathetic
C) thoracolumbar
D) visceral
E) somatomotor
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) The sympathetic division of the ANS is also known as which of the following?
A) somatic division
B) craniosacral division
C) resting division
D) thoracolumbar division
E) lumbosacral division
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) Preganglionic fibers leave the CNS and then synapse on
A) postganglionic fibers.
B) visceral reflex responses.
C) motor neurons.
D) ganglionic neurons.
E) afferent neurons.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) Preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system are located in
A) the brain.
B) the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord.
C) the posterior gray horns of the spinal cord.
D) both the brainstem and the lateral gray horns of the spinal cord.
E) the cerebrum.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) Ganglionic neurons innervate all of the following except
A) smooth muscle.
B) cardiac muscle.
C) adipose tissue.
D) glands.
E) skeletal muscle.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) The parasympathetic nervous system is especially active during which physiological state?
A) exertion
B) trauma
C) digestion
D) stress
E) exercise
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) A visceral motor neuron whose cell body is within the CNS is called a(n)________ neuron.
A) upper motor
B) lower motor
C) preganglionic
D) postganglionic
E) somatomotor
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) In which system are the ganglia in or near the target organ?
A) sympathetic division of the ANS
B) parasympathetic division of the ANS
C) somatic nervous system
D) afferent nervous system
E) central nervous system
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
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9) The parasympathetic division is also called the ________ division.
A) thoracolumbar
B) craniosacral
C) thoracocranial
D) craniolumbar
E) craniococcygeal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) Which of the following is not controlled by the ANS?
A) skeletal muscle system
B) cardiovascular system
C) respiratory system
D) digestive system
E) urinary system
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
11) Visceral motor neuron nuclei are located in which part of the brain?
A) midbrain
B) primary motor cortex
C) hypothalamus
D) thalamus
E) cerebellum
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12) Sympathetic postganglion fibers that innervate the small intestines originate from the
A) inferior mesenteric ganglion.
B) cardiac plexus.
C) celiac ganglion.
D) sacral splanchnic nerves.
E) superior mesenteric ganglion.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
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13) Sympathetic nerves contain postganglionic fibers that innervate organs in which cavity?
A) thoracic
B) pelvic
C) abdominal
D) cranial
E) abdominopelvic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) Which is not a sympathetic ganglion?
A) celiac
B) otic
C) inferior mesenteric
D) superior mesenteric
E) sacral chain
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) A pedestrian narrowly avoids being hit by an oncoming car. He notices that it takes a little
while for his heart rate and respiratory rate to return to normal. This is likely because
A) the parasympathetic nervous system has become activated.
B) sympathetic activation of the adrenal medulla has released epinephrine and norepinephrine
into the bloodstream.
C) the splanchnic nerves have become activated.
D) somatic motor neurons have increased the heart and respiratory rate.
E) the corticospinal pathway has become activated.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
16) Sympathetic preganglionic fibers are ________ and have ________ axons.
A) short; myelinated
B) short; unmyelinated
C) long; myelinated
D) long; unmyelinated
E) intermediate; small
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) In the sympathetic nervous system, where are the preganglionic neurons located?
A) cervical and sacral segments of the spinal cord
B) sacral segments of the spinal cord
C) brain stem
D) thoracic and lumbar segments of the spinal cord
E) cerebellum
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) Preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system are located in the
A) lateral gray horns of the cervical cord.
B) anterior gray horns of the cervical and thoracic spinal cord.
C) lateral gray horns of segments T1 to L2 of the spinal cord.
D) anterior gray horns of segments T1 to L2 of the spinal cord.
E) lateral gray horns of T1 to S2 of the spinal cord.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19) Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons lying along either side of the spinal cord are
called sympathetic ________ ganglia.
A) intramural
B) collateral
C) chain
D) paravertebral
E) adrenal
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) Clusters of ganglionic sympathetic neurons that innervate organs in the abdominopelvic
region are called ________ ganglia.
A) intramural
B) collateral
C) chain
D) paravertebral
E) adrenal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5
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21) Injury to the neurons of a collateral ganglion would affect the function of the
A) heart.
B) pupils.
C) sweat glands.
D) digestive tract.
E) arrector pili muscles.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
22) Damage to the ventral roots of the first five thoracic spinal nerves on the right side of the
body would interfere with the ability to
A) dilate the right pupil.
B) constrict the right pupil.
C) dilate the left pupil.
D) constrict the left pupil.
E) smile and frown.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
23) Postganglionic axons usually are
A) myelinated.
B) unmyelinated.
C) larger than preganglionic fibers.
D) located in the brain.
E) located in the spinal cord.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) Stimulation of the neurons in the celiac ganglion would lead to
A) relaxation of the urinary sphincter.
B) increased heart rate.
C) conversion of liver glycogen reserves into glucose.
D) activation of ventral sweat glands.
E) increased gastric motility.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
6
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25) Collateral ganglia contain neurons that innervate tissues and organs in which cavity?
A) thoracic
B) pelvic
C) abdominal
D) craniosacral
E) abdominopelvic
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26) Sympathetic nerves
A) provoke feelings of sympathy.
B) allow us to relax, rest, and recover.
C) contains short preganglionic fibers and longer postganglionic fibers.
D) control swallowing.
E) stimulate gastric secretion.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
27) Preganglionic fibers that innervate the collateral ganglia form the
A) adrenal medulla.
B) celiac ganglia.
C) sympathetic chain ganglia.
D) inferior mesenteric ganglia.
E) splanchnic nerves.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28) Which of the following is not innervated by the celiac ganglia?
A) liver
B) spleen
C) stomach
D) pancreas
E) bladder
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7
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29) The adrenal medullae secrete
A) medullin.
B) epinephrine.
C) norepinephrine.
D) renin.
E) both epinephrine and norepinephrine.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30) Specialized ganglionic sympathetic neurons that release hormones into the bloodstream are
found within the
A) intramural ganglia.
B) collateral ganglia.
C) chain ganglia.
D) brain stem.
E) adrenal medullae.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31) Postganglionic fibers that innervate targets in the body wall or thoracic cavity originate on
neurons within
A) intramural ganglia.
B) collateral ganglia.
C) sympathetic chain ganglia.
D) suprarenal ganglia.
E) white rami communicantes.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) Each of the following effects is associated with the action of postganglionic sympathetic
fibers except
A) increased sweat secretion.
B) reduced circulation to the skin.
C) decreased heart rate.
D) dilation of the pupils.
E) increased blood flow to skeletal muscles.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8
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33) Splanchnic nerves
A) originate from first-order neurons located in the upper five thoracic segments of the spinal
cord.
B) innervate the viscera or internal organs.
C) control sympathetic function of structures in the thorax.
D) connect chain ganglia.
E) are formed of parasympathetic fibers.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34) Autonomic disorders would not cause
A) excessive perspiration.
B) appetite.
C) sexual arousal.
D) problems in maintenance of blood pressure.
E) problems related to skeletal muscle function.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
35) The celiac, superior mesenteric and inferior mesenteric ganglia are collectively called
________ ganglia.
A) chain
B) collateral
C) intramural
D) paravertebral
E) terminal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36) The ________ nervous system stimulates the arrector pili muscles and gives you
"goosebumps."
A) parasympathetic
B) afferent
C) dorsal
D) sympathetic
E) somatic
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
9
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37) As the result of an accident, the white rami communicantes of spinal nerves T1 and T2 on
the left side of Brad's body are severed. What organ(s) would you expect to be affected by this
injury?
A) left pupil
B) right pupil
C) heart
D) both pupils
E) left pupil and heart
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
Figure 16-1 ANS Pathway
Use Figure 16-1 to answer the following questions:
38) Identify the structure labeled "1."
A) somatic motor neuron
B) preganglionic neuron
C) sensory neuron
D) ganglionic neuron
E) astrocyte
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
39) Identify the round structure labeled "3."
A) dorsal root ganglion
B) spinal nerve
C) chain ganglion
D) intramural ganglion
E) rami communicantes
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
40) Identify the structure labeled "4."
A) preganglionic neuron
B) postganglionic fibers of sympathetic nerve
C) preganglionic fibers of sympathetic nerve
D) collateral ganglion
E) white ramus communicans
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
41) Identify the structure labeled "2."
A) ventral root
B) dorsal ramus
C) spinal nerve
D) ventral ramus
E) white ramus communicans
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42) Identify the structure labeled "6."
A) somatic motor neuron
B) preganglionic neuron
C) sensory neuron
D) ganglionic neuron
E) astrocyte
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11
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43) Tom suffers from hypertension (high blood pressure). Which of the following might help
deal with his problem?
A) a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle
B) a drug that blocks alpha-2 receptors in adipose tissue
C) a drug that increases cAMP levels in cardiac muscle tissue
D) a drug that blocks beta receptors in cardiac muscle tissue
E) a drug that blocks alpha-1 receptors in smooth muscle and blocks beta receptors in cardiac
muscle tissue
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
44) Drugs that have effects similar to those of sympathetic activation are called
sympathomimetic drugs. Which of the following would you not expect to observe in a person
who has taken a sympathomimetic drug?
A) sweating
B) increased heart rate
C) dilation of respiratory passages
D) decreased blood pressure
E) increased blood sugar level
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
45) Drugs known as beta-blockers may be useful for treating
A) constipation.
B) diarrhea.
C) excessive salivation.
D) excessive heart rate.
E) prostate disorders.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
46) Sympathetic axon terminals form a branching network of swollen segments called
A) ganglia.
B) receptors.
C) varicosities.
D) nuclei.
E) bulbs.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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47) The majority of norepinephrine released by varicosities only briefly affects the target tissue
because it is quickly reused or broken down by
A) monoamine oxidase.
B) acetylcholinesterase.
C) nitroxide.
D) decarboxylase.
E) catalase.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
48) Which of the following is a sympathetic neurotransmitter used for vasodilation?
A) acetylcholine
B) norepinephrine
C) dopamine
D) serotonin
E) nitric oxide
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
49) Stimulation of the beta receptors on heart muscle cells results in
A) the decrease in ATP production.
B) increased heart rate and force of contraction.
C) decreased force of contraction.
D) slower heart rate.
E) inhibition of the heart muscle.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
50) Regarding the sympathetic nervous system, the neurotransmitter ACh is
A) always excitatory when used in the synapses of the sympathetic nervous system.
B) broken down by COMT.
C) going to reduce the activity of the other neurotransmitter norepinephrine.
D) broken down by monoamine oxidase.
E) a chemical similar to the structure of adrenaline.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
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51) Which of the following statements is true?
The stimulation of beta-adrenergic receptors can lead to
1. an increase in metabolic activity.
2. contraction of airway smooth muscle.
3. the breakdown of triglycerides within adipocytes.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 1 and 3
E) 1, 2, and 3
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
52) An inhaler used to treat airway constriction in asthma or allergy might contain a drug that
A) activates β1 adrenergic receptors.
B) activates β2 adrenergic receptors.
C) activates muscarinic cholinergic receptors.
D) blocks β2 adrenergic receptors.
E) activates β2 adrenergic receptors or activates muscarinic cholinergic receptors.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
53) Most sympathetic effector junctions release norepinephrine but a significant number release
acetylcholine instead. Which of these is an example of an organ of the cholinergic type?
A) the heart
B) a blood vessel in the skin
C) a sweat gland
D) the liver
E) the salivary glands
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
54) A certain drug decreases heart rate by blocking a receptor on cardiac pacemaker cells. This
drug probably binds to ________ receptors.
A) nicotinic cholinergic
B) muscarinic cholinergic
C) alpha-1 adrenergic
D) alpha-2 adrenergic
E) beta-1 adrenergic
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
14
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55) Drugs that stimulate alpha receptors, causing constriction of peripheral vessels, are
A) sympathetic blocking agents.
B) sympathomimetic.
C) parasympathetic blocking agents.
D) parasympathomimetic.
E) autonomic blocking agents.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
56) Sympathomimetic drugs might be used to
A) decrease heart rate.
B) decrease blood pressure.
C) dilate airways.
D) increase gastric motility.
E) reduce blood sugar levels.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
57) If the receptor on the postsynaptic membrane binds to norepinephrine, the synapse is called
A) cholinergic.
B) anergic.
C) adrenergic.
D) synergic.
E) noradrenergic.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
58) Disorders involving the vagus nerve might cause
A) food to remain in your stomach longer.
B) a drop in blood pressure.
C) constriction of the pupils.
D) more saliva production.
E) increased sweating.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
15
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59) The statement "It initiates contraction of urinary bladder smooth muscle" is
A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
E) true only for the somatic nervous system.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
60) Preganglionic fibers of parasympathetic neurons are present in all of the following cranial
nerves except
A) III.
B) VII.
C) IX.
D) X.
E) XII.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
61) Almost 75 percent of all parasympathetic outflow travels along the ________ nerve(s).
A) splanchnic
B) facial
C) vagus
D) glossopharyngeal
E) trigeminal
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
62) Which of the following is not a parasympathetic ganglion?
A) ciliary
B) pterygopalatine
C) submandibular
D) otic
E) celiac
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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63) Parasympathetic functions include all of the following, except
A) decrease in the rate of cardiac contraction.
B) constriction of the pupils.
C) dilation of the airways.
D) stimulation of urination.
E) stimulation of defecation.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
64) Which of the following statements concerning the parasympathetic division of the autonomic
nervous system is false?
A) Preganglionic neurons are located in the brain stem and sacral region of the spinal cord.
B) Ganglionic neurons are located in ganglia within or near to effectors.
C) Preganglionic fibers are relatively short and postganglionic fibers are relatively long.
D) The actions of the parasympathetic division are more localized than those of the sympathetic
division.
E) The ganglionic neurons always release acetylcholine.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
65) Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers leave the CNS in all of the following locations except
A) the midbrain.
B) the pons.
C) the medulla oblongata.
D) spinal segments T1-L2.
E) spinal segments S2-S4.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
66) Preganglionic fibers from the sacral segments of the spinal cord form the ________ nerve(s).
A) pelvic
B) splanchnic
C) celiac
D) sympathetic
E) mesenteric
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
17
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67) Parasympathetic stimulation
A) increases heart rate.
B) increases gastric motility.
C) causes sweat glands to secrete.
D) causes blood vessels in the skin to dilate.
E) causes the pupils to dilate.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
68) Intramural ganglia in the digestive, urinary, and reproductive organs are innervated by the
________ nerves.
A) spinal
B) splanchnic
C) chain
D) pelvic
E) collateral
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
69) Damage to the glossopharyngeal nerve would likely cause
A) increase in heart rate.
B) problems in sexual arousal.
C) a reduction in saliva.
D) visual problems.
E) urine retention.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
70) Parasympathetic ganglia that are near the eyes and salivary glands are called ________
ganglia.
A) somatic
B) collateral
C) contralateral
D) intramural
E) terminal
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18
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71) The statement "Its postganglionic axons always use acetylcholine as the neurotransmitter" is
A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
E) true only for the somatic nervous system.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
72) Nicotinic receptors
A) respond to epinephrine.
B) respond to norepinephrine.
C) open chemically-gated sodium ion channels.
D) can be either excitatory or inhibitory in function.
E) are found at synaptic junctions of the sympathetic nervous system.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
73) Muscarinic receptors
A) are normally activated by acetylcholine.
B) are found mostly in autonomic ganglia.
C) always produce an excitatory response.
D) control sodium channels in the affected membrane.
E) are blocked by norepinephrine.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
74) The statement "Preganglionic axon terminals release acetylcholine" is
A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
E) true only for the somatic nervous system.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19
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75) Parasympathetic effects are localized and short-lived because
A) muscarinic receptors are deactivated by norepinephrine.
B) acetylcholine is inactivated at the synapse by acetylcholinesterase.
C) norepinephrine hyperpolarizes the postganglionic membrane.
D) norepinephrine is inactivated at the synapse by monoamine oxidase.
E) epinephrine blocks the muscarinic receptors.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
76) Nicotine poisoning differs from muscarine poisoning in that
A) it causes vomiting.
B) it causes salivation.
C) it causes sweating.
D) it causes skeletal muscle convulsions.
E) it causes diarrhea.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
77) Drugs that block nicotinic receptors would be
A) sympathomimetic.
B) parasympathomimetic.
C) parasympathetic blocking agents.
D) sympathetic blocking agents.
E) autonomic blocking agents.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
78) Parasympathetic blocking agents can be useful in treating
A) heart failure.
B) high blood pressure.
C) urinary incontinence.
D) hyperactivity.
E) excessive sweating.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
20
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79) A doctor places drops in the eyes to dilate the pupils for an examination. The type of drug
that is used is a(n) ________ drug.
1. sympathomimetic
2. parasympathomimetic
3. adrenergic activating
4. cholinergic activating
A) 1, 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 1, 3
E) 2, 4
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
80) Mary accidentally ate poisonous mushrooms that contain muscarine. You would expect to
observe all of the following symptoms except
A) diarrhea.
B) salivation.
C) very fast heart rate.
D) sweating.
E) low blood pressure.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
81) The ganglia located lateral to the vertebral column are part of the sympathetic
A) chain.
B) tract.
C) decussation.
D) tubes.
E) canal.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
82) Which of the following is not a true statement regarding the sympathetic division?
A) PNS ganglia are near the vertebral column.
B) Preganglionic fibers are relatively short.
C) Preganglionic neurons are located between T1 and L2 of the spinal cord.
D) The effects are not widespread but very specific and localized.
E) Postganglionic fibers are relatively long.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
21
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83) All parasympathetic neurons are
A) adrenergic.
B) cholinergic.
C) nitroxidergic.
D) gamma-aminobutyric.
E) dopaminergic.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
84) Which of the following is correctly matched?
A) sympathetic: short preganglionic and long postganglionic fibers
B) sympathetic: short preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers
C) sympathetic: long preganglionic and short postganglionic fibers
D) parasympathetic: short preganglion and long postganglionic fibers
E) parasympathetic: contains only preganglionic fibers
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
85) Dual innervation refers to an organ receiving
A) two nerves from the spinal cord.
B) both autonomic and somatomotor nerves.
C) both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation.
D) nerves from both the brain and the spinal cord.
E) both sensory and motor nerves.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
86) The statement "It controls the diameter of the pupil" is
A) true only for the parasympathetic nervous system.
B) true only for the sympathetic nervous system.
C) true for both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
D) not true for either the parasympathetic or sympathetic nervous systems.
E) true only for the somatic nervous system.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22
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87) Sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers that innervate the heart pass through the
A) celiac plexus.
B) hypogastric plexus.
C) cardiac plexus.
D) sphenopalatine ganglia.
E) otic ganglia.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
88) Control of the diameter of the respiratory passages depends upon
A) sympathetic stimulation only.
B) parasympathetic stimulation only.
C) somatomotor stimulation only.
D) both parasympathetic and sympathetic levels of stimulation.
E) sensory receptors sensitive to changes in lung ventilation.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
89) Nerve networks that include both sympathetic and parasympathetic fibers that reach the same
structure are called
A) somatic plexuses.
B) somatic ganglia.
C) autonomic plexuses.
D) autonomic ganglia.
E) central plexuses.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
90) Descending branches of the vagus and splanchnic nerves travel through the ________
plexus.
A) cardiac
B) pulmonary
C) hypogastric
D) esophageal
E) celiac
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23
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91) Autonomic tone is an important aspect of ANS function because it
A) allows ANS neurons to be silent under normal conditions.
B) allows ANS neurons to increase activity on demand but not decrease their activity.
C) allows ANS neurons to decrease their activity on demand but not increase their activity.
D) allows ANS neurons to increase or decrease their activity, providing a range of control
options.
E) provides for a narrow range of control options that keeps target tissues constantly active.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
92) A decrease in the autonomic tone of the smooth muscle in a blood vessel would result in
A) no change in vessel diameter.
B) a decrease in vessel diameter.
C) oscillation in vessel diameter.
D) a decrease in blood flow through the vessel.
E) an increase in blood flow through the vessel.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
93) In general, autonomic tone of peripheral blood vessels increases when
A) sympathetic stimulation is increased.
B) sympathetic stimulation is decreased.
C) parasympathetic stimulation is increased.
D) parasympathetic stimulation is decreased.
E) somatomotor stimulation is increased.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
94) Most vital organs receive ________ innervation. That is, they receive input from both
sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
A) single
B) dual
C) biaxial
D) ambitonic
E) autonomic
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24
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95) Which of the following is not true regarding visceral reflex arcs?
A) They are monosynaptic.
B) They have the same basic components as somatic reflexes.
C) Short visceral reflexes bypass the CNS.
D) They can be short or long reflexes.
E) The processing steps involve interneurons in the CNS.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
96) Which of the following visceral reflexes is not coordinated by the medulla oblongata?
A) swallowing reflex
B) vasomotor reflex
C) coughing reflex
D) cardioacceleratory reflex
E) pupillary reflex
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
97) Which of the following would be an example of higher-level control of autonomic function?
A) gagging on food that does not appeal to you
B) a violent coughing attack in response to an irritant
C) increased heart rate when you see a person you fear
D) dilation of the pupils when you enter a dark room
E) increased salivation when you smell food that appeals to you
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
98) ________ reflexes perform the simplest functions of the autonomic nervous system.
A) Somatic
B) Cranial
C) Spinal
D) Visceral
E) Consensual
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
25
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99) Visceral reflex arcs can bypass CNS neurons in ________ reflexes.
A) short
B) intermediate
C) long
D) hyper
E) spinal
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
100) The integrative centers for autonomic activity are located in the
A) cerebrum.
B) thalamus.
C) cerebellum.
D) pituitary gland.
E) hypothalamus.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
101) Which of the following is essential for memory consolidation?
A) occipital lobe
B) basal nuclei
C) hippocampus
D) insula
E) prefrontal lobe
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
102) Mechanisms involved in memory formation and storage involve all of the following except
A) increased release of neurotransmitters.
B) anterograde amnesia.
C) the formation of additional synaptic connections.
D) the formation of memory engrams.
E) facilitation at synapses.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26
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103) Long-term memories that are with you for a lifetime are called ________ memories.
A) tertiary
B) reflexive
C) consolidated
D) multilobar
E) secondary
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
104) Most long-term memories are stored in the
A) cerebellum.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebral cortex.
D) pons.
E) thalamus.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
105) For minor surgical procedures, Valium is typically given to patients to cause anterograde
amnesia. This means the patient will temporarily
A) forget all fact memories such as the color of a stop sign.
B) forget skill memories like how to ride a bike.
C) forget long-term memories like their name.
D) forget memories from before surgery.
E) forget memories from during and immediately after surgery.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
106) Blocking ________ receptors in the ________ prevents long-term memory formation.
A) serotonin; hypothalamus
B) NMDA; hippocampus
C) NMDA; midbrain
D) serotonin; midbrain
E) norepinephrine; hippocampus
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27
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107) Which of the following is an inherited disease characterized by destruction of AChsecreting and GABA-secreting neurons in the basal nuclei causing difficulty controlling
movements?
A) schizophrenia
B) Parkinson's disease
C) Huntington's disease
D) Alzheimer's disease
E) senile dementia
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
108) Conversion of a short-term memory to a long-term memory is called
A) memory conversion.
B) anterograde amnesia.
C) memory programming.
D) memory consolidation.
E) memory engraving.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
109) The conscious state is maintained by the
A) prefrontal lobes.
B) general interpretive area.
C) limbic system.
D) reticular activating system.
E) nucleus gracilis.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
110) Based on stimulation studies, the "headquarters" of the reticular activating system appears
to be based in the
A) medulla.
B) pons.
C) midbrain.
D) diencephalon.
E) cerebrum.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28
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111) A state of unconsciousness in which an individual cannot be aroused even by strong stimuli
is
A) somnolence.
B) sleep.
C) stupor.
D) coma.
E) a chronic vegetative state.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
112) The brain waves produced by normal adults while resting with their eyes closed are
________ waves.
A) alpha
B) beta
C) theta
D) delta
E) gamma
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
113) The regulation of awake-asleep cycles appears to involve an interplay between brain stem
nuclei that use different neurotransmitters. The one that favors alertness is ________ and the
other promoting deep sleep is ________.
A) acetylcholine; serotonin
B) serotonin; norepinephrine
C) norepinephrine; serotonin
D) dopamine; GABA
E) glutamate; serotonin
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
114) During ________ sleep, dreaming occurs.
A) REM
B) deep
C) beta
D) stage 1
E) stage 2
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
29
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115) Hallucinogenic drugs, such as LSD, function by
A) stimulating receptors for norepinephrine.
B) blocking acetylcholine receptors.
C) increasing the production of GABA.
D) stimulating serotonin receptors.
E) mimicking the action of dopamine.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
116) The inherited brain disorder Huntington's disease is caused by the destruction of basal
nuclei that use different neurotransmitters. One neurotransmitter is ________ and the other is
________.
A) acetylcholine; serotonin
B) serotonin; norepinephrine
C) norepinephrine; serotonin
D) acetylcholine; GABA
E) glutamate; serotonin
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
117) What mental illness is often improved by drugs that block serotonin re-uptake?
A) agitation
B) hallucinations
C) depression
D) Parkinson's
E) Huntington's
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
118) An age-related decline in mental function characterized by difficulties with spatial
orientation, memory, language, and personality is called
A) delirium agitans.
B) senile dementia.
C) persistent vegetative state.
D) somnolence of the aged.
E) progressive cerebral dysfunction.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30
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119) Changes in the central nervous system that accompany aging include all of the following
except
A) reduction in brain size and weight.
B) decrease in the number of neurons.
C) decreased blood flow to the brain.
D) changes in synaptic organization in the brain.
E) increased memory storage.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
120) Alzheimer's disease is characterized by all of the following except that it
A) is the most common cause of senile dementia.
B) is characterized by a progressive loss of memory.
C) has a clear genetic basis.
D) is associated with the formation of plaques and neurofibrillary tangles.
E) may be associated with damage to the nucleus basalis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) The somatic nervous system affects skeletal muscles. Name effectors of the autonomic
nervous system. (Figure 16-1)
A) bone and spinal cord
B) smooth muscle, glands, cardiac muscle, adipocytes
C) bone and joints
D) spinal cord and brainstem
E) cerebrum and cerebellum
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 16-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Which type of ganglionic neuron innervates visceral organs in the abdominopelvic cavity?
(Figure 16-3)
A) adrenal medullary neurons
B) sympathetic chain ganglionic neurons
C) collateral ganglionic neurons
D) sacral ganglionic neurons
E) cervical ganglionic neurons
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31
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3) What neurotransmitter is released from most varicosities in the sympathetic division? (Figure
16-4)
A) dopamine
B) serotonin
C) epinephrine
D) norepinephrine
E) GABA
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
4) The short reflex bypasses what part of the nervous system? (Figure 16-7)
A) peripheral nervous system
B) enteric nervous system
C) spinal cord
D) brainstem
E) central nervous system
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 16-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
5) Special sensory inputs arrive by which cranial nerves? (Figure 16-11)
A) I and II
B) II and IV
C) II and VIII
D) V and VII
E) VII and VIII
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 16-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
32
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Essay Questions
1) List the different types of adrenergic receptors, the responses they produce, and by what
mechanisms.
Answer: There are two types of alpha receptors and two types of beta receptors. The alpha-1
receptor produces excitation or stimulation of metabolism. It works by activation of an enzyme
and/or by release of calcium ion from internal stores. The alpha-2 receptor is inhibitory on its
target cell by reducing the level of cAMP. Beta-1 receptors are stimulating and/or lead to
increased energy consumption. They activate cellular enzymes. Beta-2 receptors inhibit activity
or produce relaxation in smooth muscle cells. They operate through enzyme activation.
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) Mr. Martin is suffering from a condition known as ventricular tachycardia, in which his heart
beats too quickly. Would an alpha-blocker or a beta-blocker help alleviate his problem? Why?
Answer: You would want to use a beta-blocker, because the stimulation of beta-1 receptors
increases heart rate. By blocking these receptors, parasympathetic influence will predominate
and the heart will slow down.
Learning Outcome: 16-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
3) What effect would cutting the vagus nerve branch that innervates the stomach have on gastric
function?
Answer: The vagus nerve carries parasympathetic preganglionic fibers to many organs within
the ventral cavity, including the digestive organs. It stimulates gastric motility and secretion of
acid and enzymes. Removing the vagus innervation will eliminate parasympathetic stimulation,
leaving only sympathetic innervation, which is inhibitory. This procedure will thus greatly
reduce gastric activity. Hormonal stimulation will remain but higher centers will no longer
influence secretion of gastric juice.
Learning Outcome: 16-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
4) Explain what dual innervation means with regard to the autonomic nervous system. Using the
cardiovascular, respiratory and digestive systems as examples, explain how dual innervation
regulates the function of each system.
Answer: Dual innervation means that both the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous
systems control some areas of the body. In general, they have opposing actions. In the
cardiovascular system, sympathetic stimulation increases heart rate and contractility while
parasympathetic stimulation decreases heart rate. In the respiratory system, sympathetic
stimulation dilates the airways while parasympathetic stimulation constricts the airways. In the
digestive system, sympathetic stimulation slows down motility and release of secretions while
parasympathetic stimulation increases motility and release of secretions.
Learning Outcome: 16-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
33
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 17 The Special Senses
Multiple Choice Questions
1) Olfactory glands
A) house the sense of smell.
B) regenerate to form new olfactory epithelium.
C) react to aromatic molecules.
D) coat the olfactory epithelium with a pigmented mucus.
E) group as olfactory bulbs.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Olfactory information is first received by which part of the brain?
A) pons
B) cerebellum
C) thalamus
D) cerebrum
E) medulla oblongata
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) Before an olfactory receptor can detect an odorant, it has to
A) contact a basal cell.
B) bind to receptors on olfactory dendrites.
C) open ion channels.
D) respond to applied pressure.
E) be transported to the olfactory bulbs.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) Which of the following is true of olfactory discrimination?
A) There are 6 primary smells known.
B) The number of olfactory receptors decline as we age.
C) All odorants require the same concentration to activate an olfactory receptor.
D) There are different types of olfactory receptor cells to detect each type of odorant.
E) The olfactory receptor population does not divide.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
1
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
5) All of the following are true of olfactory pathways except which one?
A) They project first to the occipital lobes and then to the thalamus.
B) Neurons from the olfactory epithelium synapse in the olfactory bulb.
C) Information flows to the olfactory cortex, hypothalamus, and limbic system.
D) They reach the forebrain without first synapsing in the thalamus.
E) The limbic system-olfactory pathway connection means that there are close ties between
experiences and memories with smell.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
6) Some neural tissues retain stem cells and thus the capacity to divide and replace lost neurons.
Which of these special senses can replace its damaged neural receptors?
A) olfaction
B) hearing
C) equilibrium
D) proprioception
E) vision
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
7) A normal, relaxed inhalation carries about ________ of the inhaled air to the olfactory organs.
A) 50 percent
B) 8 percent
C) 2 percent
D) 35 percent
E) 10 percent
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) Olfactory receptors send axons through the cribriform plate. They synapse on neurons in the
A) medulla oblongata.
B) medial geniculate.
C) cerebral cortex.
D) olfactory bulb.
E) olfactory tract.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
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9) Olfactory organs are located in the nasal cavity inferior to the perforated bony structure
known as the
A) cribriform plate.
B) sphenoid bone.
C) sella turcica.
D) vomer.
E) zygomatic process.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) The olfactory organ consists of the ________ and the lamina propria.
A) gustatory cells
B) basilar membrane
C) olfactory epithelium
D) hippocampus
E) ethmoid bone
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) The olfactory receptors are highly modified
A) epithelial cells.
B) interneurons.
C) sensory neurons.
D) motor neurons.
E) neuroglial cells.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
12) Which of the following types of sensory information reaches the cerebral cortex directly?
A) visual
B) hearing
C) equilibrium
D) olfactory
E) gustatory
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
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13) When odorant molecules contact the dendritic processes of olfactory receptors the initial
response is
A) an action potential.
B) activation of a kinase.
C) a generator potential.
D) a hyperpolarization potential.
E) a conversion of 11-trans retinal to 11-cis retinal.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
14) During a sinus infection it is difficult to smell because
A) basal cell division decreases.
B) olfactory glands stop producing mucus.
C) olfactory supporting cells block odorant molecules from reaching the receptors.
D) the hypothalamus stops responding to olfactory stimulation.
E) excess mucus blocks odorant molecules from reaching the receptors.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
15) Damage to the insula is most likely to affect which of the following senses?
A) olfaction
B) gustation
C) vision
D) hearing
E) equilibrium
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
16) Our taste buds are most receptive to which of the following types of compounds?
A) sweet
B) salty
C) sweet and salty
D) bitter
E) umami
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) As we age
A) taste bud sensitivity increases.
B) taste bud sensitivity doubles.
C) the number of taste buds increases.
D) the number of taste buds decreases.
E) the number of taste buds decreases but the number of olfactory receptors increases to
compensate.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
18) Which of the following correctly states how a gustatory receptor will be stimulated by an
acidic or sour compound?
A) G proteins will be activated.
B) Hydrogen ions will diffuse into the receptor cell causing depolarization.
C) Sodium ions will diffuse into the receptor cell causing depolarization.
D) Second messengers will be activated.
E) Adenylate cyclase will be activated.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
19) The function of gustatory receptors parallels that of
A) photoreceptors in the eye.
B) mechanoreceptors in the ear.
C) olfactory receptors.
D) lamellar corpuscles.
E) proprioceptors.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) Which of the following lingual papillae has the largest number of taste buds?
A) pharynx
B) foliate papillae
C) filiform papillae
D) fungiform papillae
E) vallate papillae
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5
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21) Destruction to your left glossopharyngeal nerve would result in
A) inability to sense sweetness at the tip of your tongue.
B) inability to identify sour and bitter foods at the posterior one-third of the tongue.
C) inability to smell.
D) inability to see.
E) inability to hear.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
22) Stimulation of receptors within the trigeminal nerve might produce a perception of
A) intensely sweet.
B) intensely sour.
C) quite salty.
D) peppery hot.
E) bitter.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
23) An adult has approximately ________ taste buds.
A) 100
B) 10,000
C) 4,000,000
D) 500
E) 50,000
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) A patient who experienced head trauma has lost the ability to taste spicy food. You should
expect damage to cranial nerve
A) VII.
B) III.
C) IX.
D) V.
E) XII.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
6
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25) Which of the following is not one of the six primary taste sensations?
A) sweet
B) peppery
C) sour
D) salty
E) umami
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26) The taste sensation that is triggered by the amino acid glutamate is known as
A) sweet.
B) umami.
C) salty.
D) peppery.
E) sour.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27) The sense of taste is also known as
A) proprioception.
B) maculation.
C) gustation.
D) olfaction.
E) sublation.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28) The membrane structures that respond to chemical stimuli to produce sweet, bitter, and
umami sensations are called
A) gustatory hairs.
B) chemically-gated ion channels.
C) voltage-regulated ion channels.
D) G proteins.
E) papillae.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7
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29) Taste buds are clusters of individual
A) vallate papillae.
B) gustatory hairs.
C) epithelial cells.
D) olfactory receptors.
E) gustatory receptors.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30) Each gustatory cell extends ________ (called taste hairs) into the surrounding fluids through
a narrow taste pore.
A) microvilli
B) villi
C) papillae
D) palpebra
E) G proteins
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31) Taste buds on the tongue are often associated with epithelial projections called
A) macula.
B) lingual papillae.
C) ganglion cells.
D) pharyngeal papillae.
E) ampulla.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) A typical gustatory cell survives for only about ________ day(s) before it is replaced.
A) 10
B) 1
C) 60
D) 30
E) 365
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8
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33) Tears pass through which of the following structures before emptying into the nasal cavity?
A) anterior chamber
B) posterior chamber
C) nasolacrimal duct
D) scleral venous sinus
E) corneoscleral junction
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34) Which structure of the eye is the most sensitive but contains no blood vessels?
A) iris
B) choroid
C) retina
D) sclera
E) cornea
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
35) Which of the following is incorrectly matched?
A) anterior chamber: between the cornea and the iris
B) posterior chamber: between the iris and the lens
C) ciliary body: site of extrinsic eye muscle attachment
D) retina: consists of a pigmented layer and a neural layer
E) sclera: covers most of the ocular surface
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36) Which of the following is a function of the pigmented layer of the retina?
A) provide eye color
B) house the photoreceptors
C) secrete vitreous humor
D) absorb light passing through the neural layer
E) refract light onto the photoreceptors
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
9
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37) The purpose of the intrinsically photosensitive retinal ganglion cell (ipRGC) photoreceptors
are
A) to give clear sharp vision.
B) to allow us to see in dim light.
C) to replace rods as we age.
D) influence the circadian rhythm.
E) to provide color vision.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
38) The primary cause of blindness in the United States is
A) cataracts.
B) diabetic retinopathy.
C) glaucoma.
D) retinal detachment.
E) retinopathy of prematurity.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39) Jonathan received a strong blow to the eye. The eyeball remained intact but he suddenly
could not see. This has likely caused
A) development of cataracts.
B) a detached retina.
C) development of glaucoma.
D) astigmatism.
E) myopia.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
40) Which of the following is false concerning lacrimal glands?
A) They produce a strongly hypertonic fluid.
B) They produce most of the volume of tears.
C) They produce lysozyme.
D) They produce watery, slightly alkaline secretions.
E) They are located in recesses in the frontal bones.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10
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41) All of the following are true of the fibrous layer of the eye except that it
A) consists of the sclera and cornea.
B) provides mechanical support and some protection for the eye.
C) produces aqueous humor.
D) contributes substantial focusing power.
E) is where extrinsic eye muscles insert.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42) What structure changes the shape of the lens for far and near vision?
A) aqueous humor
B) ciliary body
C) iris
D) extrinsic eye muscles
E) macula
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43) The eyelids are connected at the
A) palpebral fissure.
B) medial and lateral angles.
C) lacrimal caruncle.
D) chalazion.
E) conjunctiva.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44) The space between the iris and the lens is the
A) anterior chamber.
B) posterior chamber.
C) pupil.
D) scleral venous sinus.
E) vitreous body.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11
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45) All of the following are true of the neural layer of the eye except that it
A) contains ganglion cells.
B) contains the photoreceptor cells.
C) contains bipolar cells.
D) is the innermost layer of the eyeball.
E) consists of dense fibrous connective tissue.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46) The human lens focuses light on the photoreceptor cells by
A) moving up and down.
B) moving in and out.
C) changing shape.
D) opening and closing.
E) dilating and constricting.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
47) A structure that is located at the medial angle and contains glands that contribute to a gritty
deposit is the
A) palpebra.
B) lacrimal caruncle.
C) chalazion.
D) tarsal gland.
E) conjunctiva.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
48) Which of the following produces a lipid-rich secretion that prevents the upper and lower
eyelids from sticking together at their edges?
A) palpebra
B) lacrimal caruncle
C) chalazion
D) tarsal gland
E) conjunctiva
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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49) The vitreous body
A) fills the anterior chamber.
B) helps to stabilize the eye and holds the retina up against the eyewall.
C) is replaced at the rate of 20 percent per year until middle age.
D) circulates through the pupil.
E) holds the retina against the lens for proper refraction.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
50) The space between the cornea and the iris is the
A) anterior chamber.
B) posterior chamber.
C) scleral venous sinus.
D) aqueous humor.
E) pupil.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
51) The shape of the lens is controlled by the
A) pupillary sphincter muscles.
B) pupillary radial muscles.
C) ciliary muscles.
D) iris.
E) cornea.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
52) The ________ covers most of the exposed surface of the eye.
A) conjunctiva
B) cornea
C) iris
D) anterior chamber
E) caruncle
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
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53) The transparent portion of the fibrous layer is the
A) conjunctiva.
B) cornea.
C) iris.
D) pupil.
E) angle.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
54) The part of the eye that determines eye color is the
A) conjunctiva.
B) cornea.
C) iris.
D) pupil.
E) scleral venous sinus.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
55) The opening in the iris through which light passes is the
A) conjunctiva.
B) cornea.
C) pupil.
D) anterior chamber.
E) posterior chamber.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
56) An area of the retina that contains only cones and is the site of sharpest vision is the
A) outer segment.
B) inner segment.
C) fovea.
D) optic disc.
E) tapetum lucidum.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14
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57) A ray of light entering the eye will encounter the following structures in which order?
A) conjunctiva → cornea → aqueous humor → lens → vitreous body → retina
B) vitreous body → retina → choroids → aqueous humor → lens → conjunctiva → cornea
C) cornea → aqueous humor → vitreous body → lens → conjunctiva → choroids → retina
D) conjunctiva → cornea → lens → aqueous humor → vitreous body → retina
E) cornea → aqueous humor → conjunctiva → lens → vitreous body → retina → choroid
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
58) The cornea is part of the
A) iris.
B) fibrous layer.
C) neural layer.
D) uvea.
E) choroid.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
59) The gelatinous material that gives the eyeball its basic shape is the
A) vitreous humor.
B) aqueous humor.
C) ora serrata.
D) perilymph.
E) posterior cavity.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
60) Pupillary muscle groups are controlled by the ANS. Parasympathetic activation causes
pupillary ________, and sympathetic activation causes ________.
A) dilation; constriction
B) dilation; dilation
C) constriction; dilation
D) constriction; constriction
E) vasoconstriction; vasoconstriction
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
15
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61) Trace the circulation of aqueous humor from the site of production to the site of where it is
reabsorbed.
1. posterior chamber
2. anterior chamber
3. ciliary body
4. scleral venous sinus
5. pupil
A) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2
B) 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
C) 1, 3, 4, 5, 2
D) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
E) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
62) What structure regulates the amount of light that passes to the photoreceptors of the eye?
A) vitreous body
B) cornea
C) ciliary muscle
D) iris
E) lens
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
63) The optic disc is a blind spot because
A) there are no photoreceptors in that area.
B) the retina lacks nerves in the optic disc.
C) humans are unable to focus light on that area of the retina.
D) the vitreous body is too thick in this area for the passage of light.
E) the fovea prevents light from striking the optic disc.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
64) Modified sebaceous glands located along the margin of the eyelid that secrete a lipid-rich
product are called ________ glands.
A) carpal
B) mucous
C) optic
D) ocular
E) tarsal
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16
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65) A(n) ________ is an infection in one of the glands on the eyelids.
A) sty
B) furuncle
C) abscess
D) lesion
E) carbuncle
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
66) The abnormality that develops when a lens loses its transparency is known as
A) glaucoma.
B) myopia.
C) macular degeneration.
D) a cataract.
E) Fuch's dystrophy.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
67) ________ cells connect photoreceptors to ganglion cells.
A) Bipolar
B) Ganglion
C) Amacrine
D) Cone
E) Rod
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
68) Amacrine and ________ cells facilitate or inhibit communication between photoreceptors
and ganglion cells.
A) bipolar
B) ganglion
C) nuclear
D) hair
E) horizontal
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
17
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69) ________, or pinkeye, results from damage to or irritation of the conjunctival surface.
A) Fuch's dystrophy
B) Conjunctivitis
C) Glaucoma
D) Myopia
E) Uveitis
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18
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Figure 17-1 The Sectional Anatomy of the Eye
Use Figure 17-1 to answer the following questions:
70) Identify the space labeled "1."
A) posterior cavity
B) posterior chamber
C) pupil
D) anterior chamber
E) vitreous chamber
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
19
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71) Identify the structure labeled "7."
A) choroid
B) optic disc
C) sclera
D) retina
E) cornea
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
72) Which structure is commonly called the blind spot?
A) 4
B) 10
C) 14
D) 5
E) 6
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
73) Identify the structure labeled "12."
A) pupil
B) optic disc
C) sclera
D) fovea
E) retina
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
74) Identify the structure labeled "14."
A) pupil
B) optic disc
C) sclera
D) fovea
E) suspensory ligaments
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
20
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75) An abnormal blind spot appearing in vision is called a(n)
A) astigmatism.
B) cataract.
C) scotoma.
D) chalazion.
E) sty.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
76) Light refraction takes place at the
A) cornea and lens.
B) lens only.
C) optic disc.
D) cornea and optic disc.
E) cornea only.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
77) Which of the following is not true regarding image formation?
A) The greatest amount of refraction occurs at the cornea.
B) The focal distance must equal the distance between the center of the lens and the retina to
form a sharp image.
C) A round lens has a short focal distance.
D) Images arrive at the retina upside down and reversed.
E) To view a distant object the lens will become rounder.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
78) The visible spectrum for humans extends between a wavelength of
A) 700 and 1000 nm.
B) 100 and 200 nm.
C) 200 and 400 nm.
D) 2000 and 2500 nm.
E) 400 and 700 nm.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
21
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79) In the human eye, most refraction occurs when light passes through the
A) iris.
B) cornea.
C) lens.
D) aqueous humor.
E) vitreous humor.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
80) The ciliary muscle contracts to
A) control the amount of light reaching the retina.
B) adjust the shape of the lens for distant vision.
C) adjust the shape of the lens for near vision.
D) control the production of aqueous humor.
E) adjust the shape of the cornea.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
81) If your vision is 20/15, this means that you can see
A) 20-point font at 15 feet.
B) objects at 20 feet that individuals with normal eyesight can see at 15 feet.
C) objects at 15 feet that individuals with eye problems see at 20 feet.
D) all 15 eye chart letters from 20 feet.
E) objects that are 20 feet or less away.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
82) During accommodation, the ciliary muscle ________ causing the ciliary body to move
________ and apply ________ tension on the lens.
A) relaxes; toward the lens; more
B) contracts; toward the lens; less
C) contracts; away from the lens; more
D) relaxes; inward; less
E) contracts; away from the lens; less
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
22
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83) When light encounters a medium of different density, it is
A) refracted.
B) diffracted.
C) reflected.
D) angled.
E) absorbed.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
84) An irregularity in curvature in the cornea or lens, called ________, causes a reduction in
visual acuity.
A) astigmatism
B) glaucoma
C) a cataract
D) macular degeneration
E) corneal atrophy
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
85) A person suffering from ________ can see objects that are close, but distant objects appear
blurred.
A) myopia
B) hyperopia
C) emmetropia
D) presbyopia
E) diplopia
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
86) A person suffering from ________ can see distant objects more clearly than those that are
close.
A) myopia
B) hyperopia
C) emmetropia
D) presbyopia
E) diplopia
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23
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87) A type of farsightedness that results from a loss of lens elasticity with age is
A) myopia.
B) hyperopia.
C) emmetropia.
D) presbyopia.
E) diplopia.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
88) Old discs shed from rods and cones are phagocytosed by
A) the outer segment.
B) the inner segment.
C) the pigment epithelium.
D) the bipolar cells.
E) the ganglion cells.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
89) Which of the following is not true about the resting state of rods?
A) It is during darkness.
B) Retinal is in 11-cis form.
C) Gated sodium channels are open.
D) Bleaching occurs.
E) Membrane potential is around -40mV.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
90) Rods exposed to a phosphodiesterase inhibitor would
A) remain in the resting state.
B) return to resting membrane potential.
C) break down rhodopsin.
D) cause bleaching to occur.
E) decrease neurotransmitter release.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
24
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91) Dietary deficiency of vitamin A is likely to cause
A) retinitis pigmentosa.
B) color blindness.
C) night blindness.
D) retinal detachment.
E) altered depth perception.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
92) A sudden increase of light into the eye would cause
A) contraction of the sphincter pupillary muscles.
B) contraction of the radial pupillary muscles.
C) conversion of 11-trans to 11-cis retinal.
D) an increase in the size of the pupil.
E) parasympathetic stimulation to the pupil.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
93) In the light-adapted state,
A) photoreceptors are much more sensitive to stimulation.
B) photoreceptors are much less sensitive to stimulation.
C) we can only see color, and not black and white.
D) we would see better in the dark.
E) colors are dull.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
94) Under which condition would the release of neurotransmitter by photoreceptors be greatest?
A) under normal room light
B) in a pitch-black room after 30 minutes
C) immediately after going outside in bright sunlight
D) focusing intently on a close object
E) focusing intently on a distant object
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
25
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95) There are three different types of cones, each one sensitive to different light energies. These
cones are designated
A) red, yellow, blue.
B) red, green, blue.
C) red, green, yellow.
D) yellow, red, blue.
E) red, white, blue.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
96) The cell of the retina that produces an action potential that goes to the brain is a(n)
A) bipolar cell.
B) photoreceptor.
C) ganglion cell.
D) amacrine cell.
E) horizontal cell.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
97) When all three cone populations are stimulated equally, we perceive
A) red.
B) blue.
C) green.
D) white.
E) black.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
98) The first step in the process of photoreception is
A) the bleaching of rods.
B) the bleaching of cones.
C) absorption of a photon by a visual pigment.
D) inhibition of the sodium pumps.
E) release of neurotransmitter.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26
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99) Visual pigments are derivatives of the compound
A) retinal.
B) opsin.
C) rhodopsin.
D) transducin.
E) cGMP.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
100) The following steps occur in rods when they are excited by photons of light. What is the
proper sequence for these steps?
1. Membrane sodium channels close.
2. Increased phosphodiesterase breaks down cGMP.
3. Retinal changes from the 11-cis form to the 11-trans form.
4. The membrane hyperpolarizes and the rate of neurotransmitter release declines.
5. Opsin activates transducin.
6. Opsin activation occurs.
A) 1, 6, 5, 2, 4, 3
B) 3, 6, 5, 2, 1, 4
C) 6, 3, 5, 2, 1, 4
D) 3, 6, 5, 1, 2, 4
E) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 2
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
101) A period of adjustment is required when moving from a dark room into bright light because
A) the breakdown of rhodopsin to opsin occurs slowly.
B) the lens requires time to accommodate dim light.
C) rods exposed to strong light need time to regenerate rhodopsin.
D) rhodopsin does not function in dim light.
E) only cones function in dim light.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
102) Where are the visual pigments located in the rods and cones?
A) in the inner segment of photoreceptors
B) in mitochondria located in the outer segment
C) inside membrane discs stacked in the outer segment
D) inside a photosensitive nucleus
E) sandwiched in the cell membrane of the photoreceptors
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
27
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103) A young child has been diagnosed with a recessive hereditary disease that results in
destruction of the lateral geniculate body. The result of this would be
A) inability to change the focus with your lens.
B) excessive light bouncing around within the posterior portion of the eyeball.
C) total blindness.
D) no production of rhodopsin.
E) partial loss of vision.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
104) Photoreceptor cells that are most useful in dim light are
A) rods.
B) cones.
C) amacrine cells.
D) horizontal cells.
E) bipolar cells.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
105) Photoreceptors that convey our ability to see color are
A) rods.
B) cones.
C) amacrine cells.
D) horizontal cells.
E) bipolar cells.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
106) Color blindness is a(n)
A) hereditary disease involving a lack of certain cones.
B) nutritional disease related to a deficiency of vitamin A.
C) progressive deterioration of the ganglion cells of the retina.
D) inflammatory reaction causing damage to the photoreceptors.
E) infection of the retina, resulting in destruction of the cones.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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107) Otitis media is
A) an infection of the pinna.
B) also known as swimmer's ear.
C) an infection of the middle ear.
D) an infection of semicircular canals.
E) a ringing in the ears.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
108) Our inner ear is protected from very loud noises by
A) the tensor tympani stiffening the tympanic membrane.
B) the stapedius reducing movement of the stapes.
C) the tensory tympani stiffening the tympanic membrane and the stapedius reducing movement
of the stapes.
D) cerumen in the auditory canal.
E) contraction of the auditory tube.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
109) Between the bony and membranous labyrinth flows ________, while the membranous
labyrinth contains ________.
A) perilymph; endolymph
B) endolymph; perilymph
C) endolymph; air
D) cerebrospinal fluid; perilymph
E) perilymph; air
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
110) The vestibular complex includes the
A) cochlea and organ of Corti.
B) cochlea and tympanic membrane.
C) vestibule and semicircular canals.
D) vestibule and cochlea.
E) auditory ossicles and oval window.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
29
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111) Conflicting sensory information from visual and movement signals may cause
A) ringing in the ears.
B) temporary deafness.
C) difficulty hearing low tones.
D) motion sickness.
E) enhanced hearing.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
112) Shaking your head "no" will stimulate the hair cells of the
A) anterior semicircular duct.
B) lateral semicircular duct.
C) posterior semicircular duct.
D) utricle.
E) saccule.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
113) Vertical movement is detected by which structure?
A) ampullary crest of the lateral semicircular canal
B) ampullary crest of the anterior semicircular canal
C) ampullary crest of the posterior semicircular canal
D) macula in the utricle
E) macula in the saccule
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
114) The cochlear duct lies between which two structures?
A) utricle and saccule
B) vestibule and semicircular canals
C) basilar and tectorial membranes
D) scala vestibuli and scala tympani
E) ganglion cells and the cochlear nerve
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30
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115) When the tympanic membrane vibrates with the same frequency as the incoming sound
waves it is known as
A) resonance.
B) amplitude.
C) pitch.
D) hertz.
E) cycles.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
116) As the stapes vibrates the oval window, pressure waves first begin
A) in the endolymph of the scala vestibuli.
B) in the endolymph of the scala tympani.
C) in the perilymph of the scala vestibuli.
D) in the perilymph of the scala tympani.
E) in the endolymph of the cochlear duct.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
117) Which structure of the brain does not receive any auditory input?
A) superior olivary nucleus of the pons
B) inferior colliculi of the midbrain
C) auditory cortex of the temporal lobe
D) medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus
E) pineal gland of the epithalamus
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
118) The ________ ear collects sounds waves and transmits them to the ________ ear, which
contains auditory ossicles.
A) inner; middle
B) outer; middle
C) outer; inner
D) middle; inner
E) superficial; deep
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31
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119) The external acoustic meatus ends at the
A) tympanic membrane.
B) auditory ossicles.
C) cochlea.
D) pinna.
E) vestibule.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
120) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term basilar membrane?
A) moves up and down due to currents in the perilymph
B) transmits movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear
C) supports the olfactory organ
D) tiny duct necessary for the static sense of equilibrium
E) covers over the oval window
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
121) The ________ convey(s) information about head position with respect to gravity.
A) cochlea
B) utricle
C) ampulla
D) saccule
E) utricle and the saccule
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
122) A sound with a frequency of 12,000 hertz would
A) be very loud.
B) be barely audible.
C) be high-pitched.
D) be low-pitched.
E) damage the tympanic membrane.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
32
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123) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term otoliths?
A) move up and down when the stapes moves back and forth
B) transmit movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear
C) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells
D) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium
E) seal the oval window
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
124) The auditory ossicles connect the
A) tympanic membrane to the oval window.
B) tympanic membrane to the round window.
C) oval window to the round window.
D) stapedius to the tympanic membrane.
E) otitis to the media.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
125) The structure that forms the "roof" of the spiral organ is the
A) basilar membrane.
B) tectorial membrane.
C) stapedius.
D) perilymph.
E) endolymph.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
126) The structure that supports the spiral organ is the
A) tectorial membrane.
B) basilar membrane.
C) membranous labyrinth.
D) vestibular duct.
E) tympanic membrane.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
33
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127) Gravity and linear acceleration are sensed in the
A) semicircular canals.
B) cochlea.
C) scala tympani.
D) saccule and utricle.
E) spiral organ.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
128) The sensory receptors of the semicircular canals are located in the
A) saccules.
B) ampullary crest.
C) perilymph.
D) utricles.
E) basilar membrane.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
129) The region of the ampulla that contains the receptors for rotational (dynamic) equilibrium
are called
A) utricles.
B) ampullary crests.
C) saccules.
D) fovea.
E) maculae.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
130) The superficial hard part of the inner ear is called the ________ and contains ________.
A) bony labyrinth; perilymph
B) membranous labyrinth; perilymph
C) membranous labyrinth; endolymph
D) cochlea; perilymph
E) bony labyrinth; endolymph
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34
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131) Movement of the endolymph in the semicircular canals
A) produces a rushing sound.
B) allows us to hear low tones.
C) signals rotational movements.
D) signals body position with respect to gravity.
E) signals linear acceleration.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
132) The structure attached to the oval window that transmits vibrations from the tympanic
membrane to the inner ear is the
A) malleus.
B) basilar membrane.
C) incus.
D) stapes.
E) auditory tube.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
133) Low frequency sounds stimulate hair cells on which part of the basilar membrane?
A) area close to the round window
B) the entire membrane
C) the distal end
D) the middle region
E) area close to the oval window
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
134) The energy from a pressure wave in the cochlear fluid is released by the bulging and
stretching of the
A) tectorial membrane.
B) cochlear duct.
C) round window.
D) vestibular membrane.
E) oval window.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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135) The function of the auditory tube is to
A) help maintain equilibrium.
B) amplify sounds.
C) equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane.
D) redistribute endolymph after hearing a sound.
E) provide a passageway for sound waves to enter the ear.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
136) Standing still in an elevator that suddenly lowers will stimulate receptors in the
A) basilar membrane.
B) spiral organ.
C) semicircular canals.
D) bony labyrinth.
E) utricle and saccule.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
137) An infection that damages the vestibular nerve could result in a loss of
A) hearing and equilibrium.
B) olfaction.
C) visual acuity.
D) hearing.
E) equilibrium.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
138) The hair cells of the utricle and saccule are clustered in
A) ampullae.
B) cristae.
C) ampullary cupulae.
D) maculae.
E) otoconia.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36
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139) The frequency of a perceived sound depends on
A) the frequency of stereocilia vibration.
B) the number of hair cells that are stimulated.
C) which part of the cochlear duct is stimulated.
D) the movement of perilymph in the cochlear duct.
E) the frequency of vibration of the tectorial membrane.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
140) The following is a list of the steps that occur in the production of an auditory sensation.
What is the proper sequence for these steps?
1. The pressure wave distorts the basilar membrane on its way to the round window.
2. Movement of the tympanic membrane causes displacement of the malleus.
3. Displacement of the stereocilia stimulates sensory neurons of the cochlear nerve.
4. Movement of the malleus causes movement of the incus and stapes.
5. Distortion of the basilar membrane forces the hair cells of the spiral organ to vibrate against
the tectorial membrane.
6. Movement of the oval window establishes pressure waves in the perilymph of the scala
vestibuli.
A) 2, 4, 1, 6, 5, 3
B) 2, 4, 6, 3, 5, 1
C) 2, 1, 4, 6, 5, 3
D) 2, 4, 6, 1, 5, 3
E) 2, 5, 4, 6, 1, 3
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
141) Perception of gravity and linear acceleration depends on
A) changes in the pressure exerted by the ampullary cupula on hair cells.
B) vibrations of the tectorial membrane striking hair cells.
C) the force exerted by otoliths on hair cells of the maculae.
D) the movement of endolymph within the semicircular canals.
E) the bending of hair cells in the ampullae.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
37
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142) Sound waves are converted into mechanical movements by the
A) auditory ossicles.
B) cochlea.
C) oval window.
D) round window.
E) tympanic membrane.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
143) The cell bodies of sensory neurons that innervate the hair cells of the cochlea form the
________ ganglion.
A) vestibular
B) spiral
C) cochlear
D) acoustic
E) auditory
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
144) The vestibular nuclei at the boundary of the pons and the medulla function in all of the
following except
A) integrating the vestibular information arriving from each side of the head.
B) relaying vestibular information to the cerebellum.
C) relaying vestibular information to the cerebral cortex.
D) sending commands to motor nuclei in the brain stem and spinal cord.
E) sending information to the vestibular complex of the inner ear.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
145) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term stereocilia?
A) move up and down when the stapes moves back and forth
B) transmit movement of the tympanic membrane to the inner ear
C) bending these produces receptor potential in hair cells
D) tiny weights necessary for the static sense of equilibrium
E) seal the oval window
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38
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146) The elevated ridges within the semicircular canals that support the hair cells are known as
A) ampullary crests.
B) maculae.
C) canals.
D) vestibules.
E) otoliths.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
147) ________ fills the membranous labyrinth.
A) Perilymph
B) CSF
C) Interstitial fluid
D) Endolymph
E) Blood
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
148) The ________ is a region of dense bone that surrounds and protects the membranous
labyrinth.
A) sella turcica
B) ossicle
C) auditory canal
D) membranous labyrinth
E) bony labyrinth
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
149) ________ is a fluid similar to cerebrospinal fluid that fills the space between the bony
labyrinth and the membranous labyrinth.
A) Perilymph
B) Endoplasma
C) Interstitial fluid
D) Endolymph
E) Blood
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39
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150) The hair cells of the cochlear duct are located in the
A) spiral organ.
B) ossicles.
C) ampullary crest.
D) utricle.
E) saccule.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
151) ________ deafness results from conditions in the outer or middle ear that block the transfer
of vibrations from the environment to the tympanic membrane or to the oval window.
A) Sensory
B) Nerve
C) Conductive
D) Mechanical
E) Macular
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
152) ________ deafness occurs because of a problem in the cochlea or somewhere along the
auditory pathway.
A) Vibrational
B) Nerve
C) Conductive
D) Mechanical
E) Macular
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
153) Abnormal jumpy eye movements that may appear after brain stem or inner ear damage are
called
A) tinnitus.
B) vertigo.
C) strabismus.
D) nystagmus.
E) trismus.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40
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154) ________ sensations inform us of the position of the head in space by monitoring gravity,
linear acceleration, and rotation.
A) Nociceptor
B) Proprioceptor
C) Olfactory
D) Gustatory
E) Vestibular
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
155) When you spin quickly, you may feel dizzy. Which component of the inner ear generates
the sensations that can lead to this feeling?
A) spiral organ
B) maculae
C) otoliths
D) semicircular canals
E) ossicles
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
41
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Figure 17-2 The Ear
Use Figure 17-2 to answer the following questions:
156) Identify the structures labeled "8."
A) cochlea
B) auditory ossicles
C) auricle
D) tympanic membrane
E) vestibule
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
157) Which structure contains the receptors for hearing?
A) 6
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
E) 11
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
42
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158) Which structure is known as the vestibule?
A) 6
B) 8
C) 9
D) 10
E) 11
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
159) Identify the structure that is called the pinna or auricle.
A) 1
B) 5
C) 6
D) 8
E) 9
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
160) Identify the structure labeled "3."
A) cochlea
B) semicircular canals
C) auricle
D) tympanic membrane
E) vestibule
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
43
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) Choose the correct word from each pairing: The lacrimal gland is located (inferior, superior)
and (lateral, medial) to the eye. (Figure 17-4)
A) inferior; lateral
B) inferior; medial
C) superior; lateral
D) superior; medial
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Amacrine cells are found where what other types of cells synapse? Horizontal cells are found
where what other types of cells synapse? (Figure 17-7)
A) bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells; photoreceptors synapse with bipolar cells
B) photoreceptors synapse with bipolar cells; bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells
C) photoreceptors synapse with ganglion cells; bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells
D) horizontal cells synapse with photoreceptors; amacrine cells synapse with ganglion cells
E) horizontal cells synapse with bipolar cells; amacrine cells synapse with bipolar cells
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) The tympanic cavity and auditory ossicles are found in which anatomical region of the ear?
(Figure 17-21)
A) external ear
B) middle ear
C) internal ear
D) temporal ear
E) vestibule of ear
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44
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4) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain a different fluid than the cochlear duct. What
type of fluid does each chamber contain? (Figure 17-28)
A) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain vitreous humor; the cochlear duct contains
aqueous humor.
B) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain aqueous humor; the cochlear duct contains
vitreous humor.
C) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain perilymph, the cochlear duct contains
endolymph.
D) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain endolymph, the cochlear duct contains
perilymph.
E) The scala vestibuli and scala tympani contain CSF; the cochlear duct contains otoliths.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
Essay Questions
1) Robbie has been diagnosed with pigmentary glaucoma. In this type of glaucoma, pigment
granules from the iris break off into the aqueous humor. Describe the steps of aqueous humor
formation, circulation, and drainage and how glaucoma may develop.
Answer: The epithelial cells of the ciliary processes of the ciliary body produce aqueous humor.
It is secreted into the posterior chamber then flows into the anterior chamber through the pupil.
After filtering through connective tissues at the base of the iris it enters the scleral venous sinus
into veins in the sclera. If pigment pieces block the scleral venous sinus canal the fluid that is
continuously produced cannot drain at the same rate and intraocular pressure will increase
causing glaucoma.
Learning Outcome: 17-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
2) Sally's driver's license indicates that she must wear glasses when she drives. She does not need
glasses to see objects that are close. What type of lenses is in Sally's eyeglasses? How do they
work?
Answer: Sally is apparently nearsighted (myopic) and needs diverging lenses to correct the
condition by moving the focal distance back in the eye to the retina.
Learning Outcome: 17-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
3) Trace the pathway of a nerve impulse from the eye to the cortex.
Answer: ganglion cell → optic nerve (cranial nerve I) through optic chiasm → lateral geniculate
nucleus of thalamus → primary visual cortex (occipital lobe)
Learning Outcome: 17-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
45
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4) What six basic steps are involved in the process of hearing?
Answer:
(1) Sound waves arrive at the tympanic membrane.
(2) Movement of the tympanic membrane causes displacement of the auditory ossicles.
(3) Movement of the stapes at the oval window establishes pressure waves in the perilymph of
the vestibular duct.
(4) The pressure waves distort the basilar membrane on their way to the round window of the
tympanic duct.
(5) Vibration of the basilar membrane causes vibration of hair cells and bending of stereocilia
against the tectorial membrane.
(6) Information about the region and intensity of stimulation is relayed to the brain stem over the
cochlear branch of N VIII.
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
5) Each of the special senses can be expected to decline in some way over time. Describe some
of the changes commonly seen in the function of the special senses with age.
Answer: Olfactory receptors are reduced in number and olfactory glands decline in activity.
Both changes reduce olfactory acuity. Gustatory sense declines with a decline in the number of
taste buds and taste receptors. Vision suffers from a loss of retinal function, clouding of lens and
cornea, and loss of lens elasticity, leading to senile hyperopia (presbyopia). Hearing declines due
to accumulation of cerumen, scarring of the tympanum, arthritis of the ossicular chain, and loss
of proximal hair cells in the organ of Corti, leading to high-tone deafness. Balance declines due
to nerve problems, fluid problems, and vascular problems, leading to faulty or delayed vestibular
information. That decline coupled with a sluggish and weak motor response increases the risk of
falls and consequent trauma.
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
6) How would blockage of the auditory (Eustachian) tube at its exit in the nasopharynx by
lymphatic tissue ("adenoids") affect ear function and health?
Answer: Blockage of the auditory tube leads to pain because pressure cannot equilibrate
between the middle ear and the atmosphere. Also, fluid can accumulate (otitis media) in the
middle ear, which is also painful and potentially infective. Untreated, adenoids can lead to
scarring of the tympanum and some loss of hearing.
Learning Outcome: 17-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
46
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 18 The Endocrine System
Multiple Choice Questions
1) Which of the following is true of the endocrine system?
A) It responds rapidly to stimuli.
B) It responds specifically to digestive stimuli.
C) It communicates by the release of neurotransmitters.
D) It responds with motor output.
E) It responds slowly but effectively for maintaining homeostatic functions.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Endocrine cells
A) are a type of nerve cell.
B) release their secretions onto an epithelial surface.
C) release their secretions directly into body fluids such as blood.
D) contain few vesicles.
E) are modified connective tissue cells.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) ________ are chemical messengers that are released by cells and transported in the
bloodstream to alter the activities of specific cells in other tissues.
A) Hormones
B) Neuropeptides
C) Neurotransmitters
D) Humoral antibodies
E) Antigens
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) A hormone might
A) alter a membrane channel by changing its shape, thereby affecting what can go through it.
B) depolarize a skeletal muscle cell.
C) interfere with norepinephrine at a neuronal synapse.
D) inactivate glucose so it cannot be used by a cell.
E) block the production of a cell membrane.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
1
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
5) Which of the following is not true regarding target cells?
A) They have receptors for a specific hormone.
B) They can be anywhere in the body.
C) They are associated with synapses.
D) They can respond to more than one hormone if they have receptors for each one.
E) If a target cell lacks receptors for a hormone then it cannot bind that hormone.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
6) Hormones known as "catecholamines" are
A) lipids.
B) peptides.
C) steroids.
D) derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine.
E) derivatives of reproductive glands.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) Peptide hormones are
A) composed of amino acids.
B) produced by the adrenal glands.
C) derived from the amino acid tyrosine.
D) lipids.
E) chemically related to cholesterol.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) A kinase is an enzyme that performs
A) phosphorylation.
B) as a membrane channel.
C) active transport.
D) protein synthesis.
E) as an antibody.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2
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9) Calcium ions serve as messengers, often in combination with the intracellular protein
A) calcitonin.
B) calcitriol.
C) calmodulin.
D) calcium-binding globulin.
E) calcitropin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
10) Which of the following substances activates protein kinases and thus acts as a second
messenger?
A) insulin
B) ACTH
C) epinephrine
D) cyclic AMP
E) TSH
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
11) All of the following are true of steroid hormones except that they
A) are produced by the adrenal medulla.
B) are derived from cholesterol.
C) are produced by reproductive glands.
D) bind to receptors within the cell.
E) are lipids.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12) Each of the following hormones is an amino acid derivative except
A) epinephrine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) thyroid hormone.
D) testosterone.
E) melatonin.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
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13) Membrane receptors are used by which of the following types of hormones?
A) catecholamines
B) peptide hormones
C) eicosanoids
D) thyroid
E) catecholamines, peptide hormones, and eicosanoids
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
14) Steroid hormones
A) are proteins.
B) cannot diffuse through cell membranes.
C) bind to receptors in the nucleus of their target cells.
D) act on target cells by activating second messenger cascades.
E) are transported in the blood dissolved in the plasma.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) When a catecholamine or peptide hormone binds to receptors on the surface of a cell, the
A) hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm.
B) cell membrane becomes depolarized.
C) second messenger appears in the cytoplasm.
D) cell becomes inactive.
E) hormone is transported to the nucleus where it alters the activity of DNA.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) Hormones can be divided into different groups based on their chemistry. These categories
include all of the following except
A) peptides.
B) steroids.
C) eicosanoids.
D) amino acid derivatives.
E) acetylcholine derivatives.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) Hormonal actions on cells affect all of the following except
A) quantities of enzymes.
B) activities of enzymes.
C) synthesis of enzymes.
D) gating of ion channels.
E) thickness of the plasma membrane.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
18) The link between a first messenger and a second messenger in a cell that responds to peptide
hormones is usually
A) cAMP.
B) cGMP.
C) adenyl cyclase.
D) a G protein.
E) calcium ion levels.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19) When adenyl cyclase is activated,
A) ATP is consumed.
B) cAMP is formed.
C) cAMP is broken down.
D) ATP is produced.
E) ATP is consumed and cAMP is formed.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) After a steroid hormone binds to its receptor to form an active complex,
A) adenyl cyclase is activated.
B) cyclic nucleotides are formed.
C) G proteins are phosphylated.
D) gene transcription is initiated.
E) protein kinases are activated.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
5
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21) The humoral control of hormone release may be triggered which of the following factors?
A) blood level of an ion like calcium
B) blood level of a pituitary hormone
C) blood level of a hypothalamic hormone
D) nervous stimuli
E) neurotransmitter activation
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
22) Which of the following hormones is/are water soluble and therefore bind(s) to extracellular
receptors?
A) insulin
B) epinephrine
C) cortisol
D) calcitriol
E) insulin and epinephrine
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
23) If the adenyl cyclase activity of liver cells were missing, which of these hormones could no
longer stimulate release of glucose?
A) progesterone
B) glucagon
C) cortisol
D) thyroxine
E) leptin
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
24) Increased activity of phosphodiesterase in a target cell would decrease its level of
A) testosterone.
B) estrogen.
C) thyroid hormone.
D) cAMP.
E) progesterone.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
6
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25) The intracellular protein ________ binds calcium ion. This complex can then activate
enzymes.
A) prostaglandin
B) phosphodiesterase
C) cyclic AMP
D) calmodulin
E) kinase
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26) Receptors for ________, peptide hormones, and eicosanoids are found in the cell membranes
of target cells.
A) catecholamines
B) carbohydrates
C) kinases
D) genes
E) acetylcholine
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
27) Cells that respond to a hormone are called ________ cells.
A) stem
B) pluripotent
C) germ
D) target
E) peripheral
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28) One cause for insulin resistance in non-insulin dependent (Type II) diabetes is
A) insulin receptor up-regulation.
B) decreased insulin secretion.
C) decreased cortisol secretion.
D) insulin receptor down-regulation.
E) cortisol receptor up-regulation.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
7
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29) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the second-messenger mechanism of
hormone action?
A) Hormone effects are amplified.
B) G proteins and cAMP are used.
C) Receptors are on the cell surface.
D) Cellular operations are altered by direct stimulation of a gene.
E) Kinases may phosphorylate proteins.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
30) Upon binding of a single first messenger to a plasma membrane, thousands of second
messengers may become activated. This effect is known as
A) receptor down-regulation.
B) receptor up-regulation.
C) amplification.
D) humoral stimuli.
E) synergism.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31) Intracellular calcium stores open in response to intracellular activation of
A) protein kinase C, diacylglycerol, and inositol triphosphate.
B) calmodulin.
C) leukotrienes.
D) adenylate cyclase.
E) phosphodiesterase, adenylate cyclase, and prostacyclins.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) Leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and thromboxanes are all examples of
A) amino acid derivatives.
B) eicosanoids.
C) tyrosine derivatives.
D) glycoproteins.
E) steroid hormones.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8
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33) Which hormone is not correctly matched?
A) epinephrine: amino acid derivative
B) insulin: peptide hormone
C) testosterone: amino acid derivative
D) cortisol: lipid derivative
E) eicosanoids: lipid derivative
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34) The hypothalamus acts as both a neural and a(n) ________ organ.
A) endocrine
B) cardiovascular
C) renal
D) muscular
E) hepatic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
35) The most complex endocrine responses involve the
A) thyroid gland.
B) pancreas.
C) adrenal glands.
D) hypothalamus.
E) thymus gland.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
36) Destruction of the supra-optic nucleus of the hypothalamus would have which of the
following results?
A) loss of ADH secretion
B) loss of GH secretion
C) loss of melatonin secretion
D) loss of thyroid stimulating hormone secretion
E) loss of prolactin secretion
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
9
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37) If the hypophyseal portal system is destroyed, the hypothalamus would no longer be able to
control the secretion of which of the following hormones?
A) TSH
B) ACTH
C) PRL
D) ADH and OXT
E) TSH, ACTH, PRL
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
38) Changes in blood osmotic pressure would most affect the secretion of
A) ACTH.
B) ADH.
C) oxytocin.
D) TSH.
E) LH.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39) The hypothalamus controls secretion in the adenohypophysis by
A) direct neural stimulation.
B) indirect osmotic control.
C) secreting releasing and inhibiting hormones into the hypophysealportal system.
D) altering ion concentrations and pH in the anterior pituitary.
E) gap synaptic junctions.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
40) Neurons of the supra-optic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus manufacture
A) CRF and GnRH.
B) TSH and FSH.
C) ADH and oxytocin.
D) FSH and PRL.
E) GHIH and GHRH.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10
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41) The main action of antidiuretic hormone is
A) increased water conservation by kidneys.
B) to stimulate kidney cells to secrete renin.
C) increase urine output to remove excess fluid.
D) increased blood pressure by increased Na+ reabsorption.
E) inhibition of aldosterone.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
42) Excess secretion of growth hormone during early development will cause
A) dwarfism.
B) rickets.
C) gigantism.
D) acromegaly.
E) diabetes insipidus.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43) Which of the following hormones may lead to acromegaly if hypersecreted after closure of
the epiphyseal plates?
A) cortisol
B) parathyroid hormone
C) insulin
D) growth hormone
E) epinephrine
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
44) The hormone produced by the pars intermedia of the adenohypophysis during early
childhood is
A) FSH.
B) ADH.
C) TSH.
D) MSH.
E) ACTH.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11
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45) Each of the following hormones is produced by the pars distalis of the adenohypophysis
except
A) FSH.
B) oxytocin.
C) TSH.
D) corticotropin.
E) somatotropin.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46) All of the following are true of oxytocin except?
A) It promotes uterine contractions.
B) It is responsible for milk expression from the mammary glands.
C) It triggers prostate gland contraction.
D) It is produced in the hypothalamus.
E) It is stored in the anterior pituitary.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
47) Growth hormone does all of the following except
A) promote bone growth.
B) promote muscle growth.
C) promote cortisol release.
D) spare glucose.
E) promote amino acid uptake by cells.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
48) Liver cells respond to growth hormone by releasing hormones called
A) gonadotrophins.
B) prostaglandins.
C) hepatic hormones.
D) somatomedins.
E) glucocorticoids.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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49) The pituitary hormone that triggers the release of thyroid hormone from the thyroid gland is
A) TSH.
B) ACTH.
C) FSH.
D) LH.
E) GH.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
50) The pituitary hormone that controls the release of glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex is
A) TSH.
B) ACTH.
C) FSH.
D) LH.
E) GH.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
51) The pituitary hormone that promotes egg development in ovaries and sperm development in
testes is
A) TSH.
B) ACTH.
C) FSH.
D) LH.
E) GH.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
52) The pituitary hormone that promotes ovarian secretion of progesterone and testicular
secretion of testosterone is
A) TSH.
B) ACTH.
C) FSH.
D) LH.
E) GH.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
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53) The pituitary hormone that stimulates milk production by the mammary glands is
A) TSH.
B) ACTH.
C) growth hormone.
D) FSH.
E) prolactin.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
54) The pituitary hormone that stimulates cell growth and replication by accelerating protein
synthesis is
A) ACTH.
B) MSH.
C) prolactin.
D) insulin.
E) growth hormone.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
55) After brain surgery, a patient receiving postoperative care in an intensive care unit began to
pass large volumes of very dilute urine. The ICU nurse administered a medicine that mimics one
of the following hormones. Which one?
A) aldosterone
B) epinephrine
C) renin
D) ADH
E) cortisol
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
56) The term used to describe excess production of urine is
A) polyuria.
B) polydipsia.
C) hematuria.
D) glycosuria.
E) polyphagia.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14
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57) The two lobes of the pituitary gland together produce or store how many hormones?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
E) 16
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
58) The hormone(s) that may be slowly administered by intravenous drip to accelerate labor and
delivery is/are
A) oxytocin.
B) prolactin.
C) luteinizing hormone.
D) follicle stimulating hormone.
E) both oxytocin and luteinizing hormone.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
59) The posterior lobe of the pituitary is also known as the
A) basal ganglion.
B) infundibulum.
C) adenohypophysis.
D) mesencephalon.
E) neurohypophysis.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
60) The anterior lobe of the pituitary is also known as the
A) basal ganglion.
B) infundibulum.
C) adenohypophysis.
D) mesencephalon.
E) neurohypophysis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15
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61) The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland can be divided into three parts: the pars distalis, the
pars intermedia, and the pars
A) tuberalis.
B) nervosa.
C) pinea.
D) intermedia.
E) magnus.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
62) Hormones produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland that regulate the male and
female reproductive organs are collectively called
A) tropic hormones.
B) androgens.
C) somatotropins.
D) immunogens.
E) gonadotropins.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
63) Abnormally low production of LH and FSH results in
A) diabetes insipidus.
B) a diabetogenic effect.
C) hypogonadism.
D) a glucose-sparing effect.
E) hypocortisolism.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
64) Vasopressin is a common term for this hormone.
A) ADH
B) GH
C) oxytocin
D) prolactin
E) TSH
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16
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65) The pituitary gland is located within this structure.
A) the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone
B) hypoglossal canal
C) crista galli
D) sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
E) petrous part of the temporal bone
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
66) Milk production is stimulated by ________, milk ejection is stimulated by ________.
A) somatomedin; MSH
B) prolactin; oxytocin
C) oxytocin; prolactin
D) MSH; somatomedin
E) LH; FSH
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
67) All of the following are functions of LH except
A) triggering ovulation.
B) stimulating secretion of testosterone.
C) stimulating the formation of the corpus luteum.
D) stimulating the secretion of progesterone.
E) stimulating follicle development.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
68) A tumor in the pituitary gland could directly result in all of the following except
A) hypercortisolism.
B) pituitary dwarfism.
C) diabetes insipidus.
D) gigantism.
E) hypogonadism.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
17
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69) Hormones that stimulate endocrine glands to release other hormones are
A) humoral.
B) tropic.
C) reflexive.
D) up-regulators.
E) paracrine factors.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
70) Hypophyseal portal system capillaries are
A) lined by tight junctions.
B) lined by microglial cells.
C) fenestrated.
D) impermeable.
E) lined by podocytes.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18
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Figure 18-1 Pituitary Hormones and Their Targets
Use Figure 18-1 to answer the following questions:
71) Identify the hormone labeled "4."
A) thyroid-releasing hormone
B) thyroid-stimulating hormone
C) thyroxin
D) thyrotropin
E) calcitonin
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
19
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72) Identify the hormone labeled "1."
A) mineralocorticoid
B) cortisol
C) dopamine
D) ACTH
E) aldosterone
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
73) A deficiency of which hormone can lead to diabetes insipidus?
A) 3
B) 7
C) 2
D) 8
E) 14
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
74) Identify the hormone labeled "5."
A) thyroid-releasing hormone
B) thyroid-stimulating hormone
C) thyroxine
D) thyrotropin
E) parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
75) Identify the hormone labeled "13."
A) LH
B) progesterone
C) estrogen
D) oxytocin
E) testosterone
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
20
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76) Which of the following elements is necessary for the production of thyroid hormone?
A) sodium
B) iodine
C) potassium
D) iron
E) colloid
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
77) Activity of which of the following cells is inhibited by calcitonin release?
A) alpha cells
B) osteoclasts
C) osteoblasts
D) C cells
E) all cells in the body
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
78) All of the following are known effects of thyroid hormone on peripheral tissues except
A) increased oxygen consumption.
B) increased heart rate.
C) increased sensitivity to autonomic stimulation.
D) increased body temperature.
E) decreased cellular metabolism.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
79) Mental and physical sluggishness and low body temperature may be signs of
A) hyperthyroidism.
B) hypothyroidism.
C) hyperparathyroidism.
D) hypoparathyroidism.
E) diabetes insipidus.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
21
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80) The hormone that plays a pivotal role in setting the metabolic rate and thus impacting body
temperature is
A) somatotropin.
B) thyroxine.
C) calcitonin.
D) parathyroid hormone.
E) glucagon.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
81) A hormone that can lower blood levels of calcium ion is
A) parathyroid hormone.
B) thyroxine.
C) calcitonin.
D) glucagon.
E) oxytocin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
82) The C cells of the thyroid gland produce
A) thyroxine.
B) TSH.
C) calcitonin.
D) PTH.
E) triiodothyronine.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
83) Increased levels of the hormone ________ will lead to decreased levels of calcium ion in the
blood via inhibition of ________.
A) thymosin; osteocytes
B) calcitonin; osteoclasts
C) PTH; osteocytes
D) aldosterone; osteoclasts
E) cortisol; osteoblasts
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22
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84) Where does the chemical reaction between thyroglobulin and iodine take place?
A) in lysosomes
B) in rough endoplasmic reticulum
C) in the follicle cavity
D) in pinocytotic vesicles
E) in apical microvilli
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
85) TSH plays a key role in the ________ of thyroid hormones.
A) inhibition
B) synthesis
C) release
D) inhibition and secretion
E) synthesis and release
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
86) The control of calcitonin excretion is an example of direct ________ regulation.
A) endocrine
B) pancreatic
C) homeostatic
D) hepatic
E) vascular
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
87) Thyroxine and calcitonin are secreted by the
A) kidneys.
B) heart.
C) thyroid gland.
D) gonads.
E) pituitary gland.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23
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88) Which of the following is not an action of TSH?
A) stimulates T3 and T4 secretion
B) stimulates iodide trapping by thyroid follicle cells
C) inhibits T3 and T4 secretion
D) stimulates pinocytosis of colloid by thyroid follicle cells
E) increases cyclic AMP concentration within thyroid follicle cells
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
89) The two lobes of the thyroid gland are connected by the
A) isthmus.
B) pars intermedia.
C) commissure.
D) aqueduct.
E) infundibulum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
90) The thyroid gland is composed of many ________ that produce and store thyroid hormone.
A) tubules
B) follicles
C) ducts
D) capillaries
E) plexuses
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
91) Thyroid hormones are structural derivatives of the amino acid
A) glutamic acid.
B) epinephrine.
C) iodine.
D) tyrosine.
E) glycine.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24
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92) The specific target cells of the thyroid hormones, thyroxine and triiodothyronine are
A) the cells of the parathyroid glands.
B) the cells of the pituitary gland.
C) all cells of the body.
D) the cells of the ovaries and testes.
E) the cells of the thymus gland.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
93) Follicle cells synthesize a protein called
A) calcitonin.
B) thyroglobulin.
C) transthyretin.
D) albumin.
E) colloid.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
94) The majority of thyroid hormones are secreted as ________ but small amounts of ________
is also secreted from the follicle.
A) transthyretin; calcitonin
B) T3; calcitonin
C) T4; T3
D) thyroglobulin; transthyretin
E) calcitonin; colloid
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
95) Thyroid hormone may increase cellular ATP production by binding to
A) the cytoplasm.
B) the outer surface of the plasma membrane.
C) the inner surface of the plasma membrane.
D) the mitochondria.
E) the vesicles.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
25
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
96) If dietary iodine levels are deficient you would expect that plasma TSH levels would be
________ and that plasma thyroxine levels would be ________.
A) high; low
B) low; high
C) unchanged; low
D) low; unchanged
E) low; low
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
97) Before the discovery of these glands, thyroid surgery often led to a rapid drop in blood
calcium levels, which triggered muscle contractions and cardiac arrhythmias. What glands are
these and which hormone is lacking?
A) thyroid glands; calcitonin
B) parathyroid glands; calcitonin
C) parathyroid glands; parathyroid hormone
D) thyroid glands; levothyroxine
E) parathyroid glands; levothyroxine
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
98) Parathyroid hormone does all of the following except
A) stimulate osteoclast activity.
B) inhibit osteoblast activity.
C) build up bone.
D) stimulate the formation and secretion of calcitriol at the kidneys.
E) enhance the reabsorption of calcium at the kidneys.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
99) The hormone that does the opposite of calcitonin is
A) insulin.
B) glucagon.
C) growth hormone.
D) parathyroid hormone.
E) thyroid hormone.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26
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100) The parathyroid glands produce a hormone that
A) stimulates the formation of white blood cells.
B) increases the level of calcium ions in the blood.
C) increases the level of sodium ions in the blood.
D) increases the level of potassium ions in the blood.
E) increases the level of glucose in the blood.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
101) A tumor present on the parathyroid gland causing hyperparathyroidism may lead to
A) osteoporosis and kidney stones.
B) diabetes mellitus and hypercortisolism.
C) diabetes mellitus.
D) diabetes insipidus.
E) hypogonadism.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
102) The zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex produces
A) androgens.
B) glucocorticoids.
C) mineralocorticoids.
D) epinephrine.
E) norepinephrine.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
103) The zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex produces
A) androgens.
B) glucocorticoids.
C) mineralocorticoids.
D) epinephrine.
E) norepinephrine.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27
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104) The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex produces
A) androgens.
B) glucocorticoids.
C) mineralocorticoids.
D) epinephrine.
E) norepinephrine.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
105) The adrenal medulla produces
A) androgens.
B) glucocorticoids.
C) mineralocorticoids.
D) catecholamines.
E) corticosteroids.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
106) A hormone that promotes gluconeogenesis in the liver is
A) aldosterone.
B) erythropoietin.
C) thymosin.
D) cortisol.
E) calcitonin.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
107) A hormone that helps to regulate the sodium ion content of the body is
A) cortisol.
B) parathormone.
C) thymosin.
D) somatotropin.
E) aldosterone.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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108) Cushing's disease results from an excess of
A) growth hormone.
B) parathyroid hormone.
C) ADH.
D) glucocorticoids.
E) epinephrine.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
109) Reduction of fluid losses at the kidneys due to the retention of Na+ is the action of
A) antidiuretic hormone.
B) calcitonin.
C) aldosterone.
D) cortisone.
E) oxytocin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
110) The adrenal medulla produces the hormones
A) synephrine and neosynephrine.
B) epinephrine and norepinephrine.
C) corticosterone and testosterone.
D) androgens and progesterone.
E) cortisone and cortisol.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
111) Damage to cells of the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex would result in
A) the loss of axillary and pubic hair.
B) increased volume of urine formation.
C) decreased levels of sodium ion in the blood.
D) decreased ability to convert amino acids to glucose.
E) increased water retention.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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112) A rise in cortisol would cause an increase in each of the following except
A) the rate of glucose synthesis by the liver.
B) the rate of glycogen formation by the liver.
C) the level of fatty acids in the blood.
D) fatty acid metabolism by muscle cells.
E) ACTH levels.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
113) If a patient is administered a powerful glucocorticoid (such as prednisone) to suppress the
immune system, what unintended effects might this have on blood chemistry?
A) increase of sodium
B) decrease of sodium
C) increase of blood glucose
D) decrease of blood glucose
E) both an increase in insulin and an increase in glucose
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
114) Hyposecretion of cortisol causes
A) goiter.
B) diabetes mellitus.
C) diabetes insipidus.
D) Addison's disease.
E) Cushing's disease.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
115) A hormone that is synergistic to growth hormone is
A) aldosterone.
B) insulin.
C) cortisol.
D) calcitonin.
E) renin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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116) Which of the following hormones increases and prolongs effects of the sympathetic nervous
system?
A) cortisol
B) parathyroid hormone
C) insulin
D) growth hormone
E) acetylcholine
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
117) Which gland is called the "emergency gland" and helps the body adjust to stress?
A) thyroid
B) adrenal (suprarenal)
C) pituitary
D) pancreas
E) thymus
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
118) Which group of hormones cause an anti-inflammatory action?
A) thyroglobulins
B) mineralocorticoids
C) pancreatic hormones
D) antidiuretic hormones
E) glucocorticoids
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
119) Hormones from the adrenal cortex that regulate electrolyte balance are
A) antidiuretics.
B) calcitonin and parathyroid hormone.
C) mineralocorticoids.
D) androgens.
E) glucocorticoids.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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120) During dehydration the body would increase production of
A) aldosterone and cortisol.
B) cortisol and ADH.
C) epinephrine and cortisol.
D) aldosterone and ADH.
E) epinephrine and ADH.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
121) Which hormone may be prescribed in chronic inflammatory disorders such as Lupus?
A) aldosterone
B) cortisol
C) androgens
D) calcitonin
E) insulin
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
122) The adrenal medulla primarily secretes
A) epinephrine.
B) norepinephrine.
C) dopamine.
D) cortisol.
E) aldosterone.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
123) Excess production of hormones by the zona reticularis may lead to which disorder?
A) aldosteronism
B) gigantism
C) pheochromocytoma
D) adrenogenital syndrome
E) Cushing's disease
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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124) A patient is receiving exogenous cortisol in the form of hydrocortisone shots for a sinus
infection. Their natural adrenal secretion of cortisol will decrease due to negative feedback on
the ________ reducing the secretion of ________.
A) hypothalamus; ACTH
B) anterior pituitary; CRH
C) hypothalamus; cortisol
D) anterior pituitary; cortisol
E) anterior pituitary; ACTH
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
125) Which of the following is false concerning melatonin?
A) Exposure to light inhibits production.
B) Exposure to light stimulates production.
C) It inhibits releases of GnRH.
D) It is produced by pinealocytes.
E) It is made from serotonin.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
126) Melatonin is produced by the
A) thymus.
B) pineal gland.
C) kidneys.
D) skin.
E) heart.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
127) Each of the following is true of the pineal gland except that it
A) is a component of the epithalamus.
B) is a component of the hypothalamus.
C) secretes melatonin.
D) contains pinealocytes.
E) responds to light and darkness.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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128) The condition known as seasonal affective disorder (SAD) may be caused by
A) increased levels of melanin.
B) increased levels of melatonin.
C) increased levels of melanocyte-stimulating hormone.
D) increased levels of gonadotrophins.
E) decreased levels of testosterone.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
129) All of the following may be functions of melatonin except that it
A) can act as an antioxidant.
B) protects against free-radicals.
C) may maintain circadian rhythms.
D) can act as an insulin synergist.
E) may influence sexual maturation.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
130) Alpha cells are to ________ as beta cells are to ________.
A) glucagon; insulin
B) somatostatin; insulin
C) insulin; glucagon
D) glucagon; somatostatin
E) pancreatic polypeptide; insulin
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
131) If a diabetic patient received too much insulin, the low blood sugar could be corrected by
injecting
A) glucagon.
B) GHIH.
C) thyroid hormone.
D) aldosterone.
E) antidiuretic hormone.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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132) The pancreatic hormone that causes blood sugar levels to fall is
A) cortisol.
B) somatotropin.
C) insulin.
D) glucagon.
E) aldosterone.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
133) In persons with untreated diabetes mellitus all of the following are true, except
A) blood glucose levels are very high.
B) excessive thirst is shown.
C) glucose is present in the urine in large amounts.
D) a large excretion of urine occurs.
E) intracellular and tissue levels of glucose is very high.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
134) Which of the following might occur in an overdose of insulin?
A) glycosuria
B) ketoacidosis
C) high blood glucose
D) low blood glucose
E) polyuria
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
135) Which of the following statements is true about the pancreas?
A) The pancreas lies over the top of the stomach.
B) The sole function of the pancreas is to produce hormones.
C) The pituitary gland produces stimulating hormones that control the pancreas.
D) The islets contain a variety of different cells producing different hormones.
E) The pancreas stores glucose, which can be released into the blood.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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136) When blood glucose levels fall,
A) insulin is released.
B) glucagon is released.
C) peripheral cells take up more glucose.
D) protein synthesis increases.
E) calcitonin is secreted.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
137) The beta cells of the pancreatic islets produce
A) insulin.
B) glucagon.
C) somatostatin.
D) cortisol.
E) peptide P.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
138) The delta cells of the pancreatic islets produce
A) insulin.
B) glucagon.
C) somatostatin.
D) cortisol.
E) peptide P.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
139) Type II diabetes is characterized by
A) a lack of response by target cells to insulin.
B) a decrease in secretion by pancreatic beta cells.
C) excessive secretion of glucagon.
D) inadequate insulin production.
E) low blood-glucose concentration.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
36
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140) Which of the following hormones stimulates skeletal muscle fibers to take in glucose from
the blood?
A) calcitonin
B) cortisol
C) insulin
D) glucagon
E) parathyroid hormone
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
141) Which of the following directly regulates the secretion of insulin?
A) parasympathetic nervous system
B) sympathetic nervous system
C) blood glucose concentration
D) hypothalamus
E) tropic hormones from the pituitary gland
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
142) All of the pancreatic hormones are regulated by
A) the adenohypophysis.
B) the liver.
C) the neurohypophysis.
D) the thyroid gland.
E) nutrient concentrations in the blood.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
143) Cells in the brain
A) can absorb glucose without insulin stimulation.
B) prefer fats to glucose for energy production.
C) are sensitive to insulin but not to glucagon.
D) are very sensitive to high concentrations of glucagon.
E) can store glycogen, to be used later for glucose release.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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144) Inability of the pancreas to produce insulin results in
A) acromegaly.
B) goiter.
C) diabetes mellitus.
D) diabetes insipidus.
E) Addison's disease.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
145) Which problem is related to untreated diabetes mellitus?
A) damage to the retina
B) neuropathy
C) gastric ulcers
D) goiter
E) retinal problems and nerve problems
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
146) Type 2 diabetes
A) can usually be controlled by diet and exercise rather than with medication.
B) is associated with an immune reaction to the pancreatic cells.
C) is a lack of insulin production.
D) is typically diagnosed in the very young.
E) is not as common as type 1 diabetes.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
147) Which hormone is not produced by the pancreas?
A) glucagon
B) pancreatic polypeptide
C) somatostatin
D) calcitriol
E) insulin
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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148) At about 4pm in the afternoon, you could expect that ________ will be released if you have
not eaten since 12pm.
A) insulin
B) glucagon
C) melatonin
D) pancreatic polypeptide
E) insulin and glucagon
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
149) Which of the following is not true regarding Type 1 Diabetes?
A) pancreatic destruction of beta cells
B) need insulin injections or infusion
C) tissues exhibit insulin resistance
D) accounts for only about 5% of cases of diabetes
E) usually diagnosed in children or young adults
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
150) Poorly managed diabetes can adversely affect which organ(s)?
A) kidneys
B) eyes
C) heart and blood vessels
D) nerves
E) kidneys, eyes, nerves, heart and blood vessels
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
151) The interstitial endocrine cells of the testes produce
A) LH.
B) progesterone.
C) testosterone.
D) inhibin.
E) FSH.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39
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152) Follicle cells in the ovary secrete ________ when stimulated by FSH.
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) testosterone
D) inhibin
E) gonadotropins
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
153) A structure known as the corpus luteum secretes
A) testosterone.
B) progesterone.
C) aldosterone.
D) cortisone.
E) androstenedione.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
154) The hormone that opposes the release of FSH in both males and females is
A) testosterone.
B) LH.
C) inhibin.
D) aldosterone.
E) somatostatin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
155) The hormones that are important for coordinating the immune response are
A) thymosins.
B) corticosteroids.
C) aldosterones.
D) thyroxines.
E) somatotropins.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40
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156) Which of the following hormones increases production of red blood cells?
A) cortisol
B) erythropoietin
C) thymosin
D) aldosterone
E) atrial natriuretic peptide
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
157) Cholecalciferol is synthesized within the
A) bone marrow of the skeletal system.
B) splenic pulp of the lymphatic system.
C) endothelial linings of the cardiovascular system.
D) hypothalamus of the nervous system.
E) epidermis of the integumentary system.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
158) The heart secretes the hormone
A) progesterone.
B) oxytocin.
C) thymosin.
D) thyroxine.
E) atrial natriuretic peptide.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
159) Adipocytes produce a peptide hormone called ________ that acts on the hypothalamus.
A) leptin
B) grehlin
C) lipase
D) glucagon
E) adipocin
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
41
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160) The hormone related to appetite control is
A) thymosin.
B) brain natriuretic peptide.
C) melanin.
D) leptin.
E) erythropoietin.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
161) Why might someone want to take erythropoietin in a non-medical situation?
A) to increase muscle mass
B) to sleep
C) to increase oxygen-carrying capacity and increase stamina
D) to increase the chance of getting pregnant
E) to increase sex drive
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
162) The effects of this hormone oppose aldosterone.
A) ADH
B) oxytocin
C) inhibin
D) atrial natriuretic peptide
E) renin
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
163) This hormone is released in response to PTH and its actions are synergistic to PTH.
A) calcitriol
B) calcitonin
C) inhibin
D) cholecystokinin
E) pancreatic polypeptide
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42
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164) Which is not a component of the RAAS and does not contribute to blood volume and
electrolyte homeostasis?
A) renin
B) angiotensin
C) ADH
D) aldosterone
E) androgens
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
165) Increased aggressive and assertive behavior is associated with an increase in which of the
following hormones?
A) somatostatin
B) thyroxine
C) growth hormone
D) androgens
E) insulin
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
166) The hormone that dominates during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome
(GAS) is
A) testosterone.
B) aldosterone.
C) cortisol.
D) thyroid hormone.
E) epinephrine.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
167) You have just become the nurse manager of a nursing home and you are reminding yourself
about what problems your nursing home population might have by studying your old
pathophysiology books from nursing school. Many of the residents are tired and have problems
with blood glucose levels. All of the following hormones might be related except
A) insulin.
B) cortisol.
C) thymosin.
D) thyroid hormones.
E) GH.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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168) During the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), there is
A) decreased blood flow to skeletal muscles and skin.
B) decreased mental alertness.
C) mobilization of energy reserves.
D) increased urine release.
E) decreased rate of respiration.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
169) If stress lasts longer than a few hours, an individual will enter the ________ phase of the
general adaptation syndrome (GAS).
A) alarm
B) resistance
C) exhaustion
D) extension
E) prolonged
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
170) Hormones that dominate during the resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome
(GAS) are the
A) mineralocorticoids.
B) androgens.
C) glucocorticoids.
D) catecholamines.
E) gonadotropins.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
171) During the resistance phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS),
A) lipid reserves are mobilized.
B) proteins are conserved.
C) blood glucose levels fall drastically.
D) levels of growth hormone decrease.
E) levels of insulin decrease.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44
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172) The exhaustion phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) is characterized by
A) failure of electrolyte balance.
B) an increasing ability to produce glucose from glycogen.
C) increased pumping effectiveness of the heart.
D) a sharp increase in motivation and energy.
E) an increase in urine output.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
173) Two hormones that have opposing effects are called
A) antagonists.
B) agonists.
C) resistors.
D) synergists.
E) adjuvants.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
174) Two hormones that have additive effects are called
A) antagonists.
B) agonists.
C) resistors.
D) synergists.
E) adjuvants.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
175) Hormones that produce different but complementary results are called
A) permissive.
B) integrative.
C) radicals.
D) synergists.
E) antagonists.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
45
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176) Normal growth is dependent on all of the following hormones except
A) thyroid hormones.
B) oxytocin.
C) growth hormone.
D) insulin.
E) glucocorticoids.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 18-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
177) Which of the following is not an antagonistic hormone pair?
A) glucagon; insulin
B) calcitonin; parathyroid hormone
C) leptin; thymosins
D) aldosterone; atrial natriuretic peptide
E) FSH; inhibin
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
178) The absence of which hormone during development will cause the nervous system to
develop abnormally and cause developmental delays?
A) thymosin
B) calcitriol
C) calcitonin
D) androgens
E) thyroxine
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
46
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In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) The regulatory hormones from the hypothalamus control secretion from endocrine cells,
which are located where? (Figure 18-6)
A) anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
B) posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
C) thalamus
D) cortex of the adrenal gland
E) medulla of the adrenal gland
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) In a typical regulation pattern of endocrine secretion, which hormone is responsible for
negative feedback? (Figure 18-8)
A) the releasing hormone
B) hormone 1 from the pituitary gland
C) hormone 2 from the endocrine target gland
D) the inhibiting hormone
E) the posterior pituitary hormone
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3) What hormones are released from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland and how does their
release differ from hormones released by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland? (Figure 18-9)
A) melanocyte stimulating hormone and growth hormone; posterior pituitary hormones are
released in response to circadian rhythms
B) LH and FSH; posterior pituitary hormones are released at puberty
C) epinephrine and norepinephrine; posterior pituitary hormones are released following neural
stimulation by the SNS
D) ADH and oxytocin; posterior pituitary hormones are released following stimulation by
hypothalamic releasing hormones
E) ADH and oxytocin; posterior pituitary hormones are released directly from the hypothalamus
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 18-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
47
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4) Which zone of the adrenal cortex produces mineralocorticoids and what is the primary
mineralocorticoid? (Figure 18-14)
A) zona reticularis; cortisol
B) zona reticularis; aldosterone
C) zona fasciculata; epinephrine
D) zona glomerulosa; aldosterone
E) zona glomerulosa; cortisol
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5) Which pancreatic cells secrete glucagon? List the effects of glucagon. (Figure 18-17)
A) alpha; to increase blood glucose levels by increasing the breakdown of glycogen and fat, and
by increasing the synthesis and release of glucose by the liver
B) beta; to increase blood glucose levels by increasing the breakdown of glycogen and fat, and
by increasing the synthesis and release of glucose by the liver
C) delta; to increase blood glucose levels by increasing the breakdown of glycogen and fat, and
by increasing the synthesis and release of glucose by the liver
D) alpha; to decrease blood glucose levels by decreasing the breakdown of glycogen and fat, and
by increasing cellular uptake of glucose
E) beta; to decrease blood glucose levels by decreasing the breakdown of glycogen and fat, and
by increasing cellular uptake of glucose
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
48
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Essay Questions
1) Communication between cells is key to organism-level regulation of the internal environment
to maintain health, that is, nearly constant internal conditions (homeostasis). Outline and
compare the intercellular communication pathways that function to provide homeostasis.
Answer: Intercellular communication occurs largely through the nervous system and the
endocrine system. In general, the nervous system performs short-term "crisis management,"
whereas the endocrine system regulates longer-term, ongoing metabolic processes. Ideally, the
nervous system communicates by an impulse over an axon to a neuron or some other effector.
This is a very fast and spatially specific process. In contrast, the endocrine system relies on
blindly sending out chemical messages to the whole body through the blood and interstitial fluid.
This process is slow, and relies on the response of a different target cell.
Learning Outcome: 18-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
2) You see a patient with a goiter. You run some tests and find the patient is iodine deficient.
Explain how iodine is used in the production of thyroid hormones. Also, explain how a goiter
might form as a result of iodine deficiency. Be sure to include the role of TSH in your response.
Answer: Iodine atoms are attached to tyrosine molecules. Tyrosine molecules join together
forming thyroid hormones as triiodothyronine (with 3 iodine atoms) or thyroxine (with 4 iodine
atoms). If the patient is iodine deficient then he cannot produce adequate levels of thyroid
hormones and negative feedback to the anterior pituitary does not occur. When the body is
deficient in thyroid hormone the anterior pituitary will produce excess TSH trying to stimulate
the thyroid gland. Excess TSH will cause the gland to hypertrophy and form a goiter.
Learning Outcome: 18-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
3) When patients who are receiving glucocorticoid therapy (for example, with prednisone need to
stop taking it, the doctor will prescribe a series of doses of tapering size to gradually lower the
dose rather than suddenly stop it. Explain this dosage strategy in terms of the negative feedback
control of cortisol secretion.
Answer: Glucocorticoids inhibit the production of corticotrophin-releasing hormone by the
hypothalamus and ACTH by the anterior pituitary. High doses of prednisone will mean that
levels of ACTH in the patient have been quite low, and so the zona fasciculate of the adrenal
cortex will have not been stimulated for a while and can't do much synthesis. By slowly reducing
the prednisone, it gives the patient's own ability to make cortisol a chance to recover and thus
prevents collapse of blood pressure and other serious effects of suddenly withholding the
corticosteroid.
Learning Outcome: 18-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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4) What does it mean to say that the pancreas is both an endocrine and an exocrine organ?
Answer: The pancreas contains both exocrine and endocrine cells. Cells of the endocrine
pancreas form clusters called pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans) and the exocrine cells
cluster in structures called pancreatic acini. The endocrine cells secrete at their basal surfaces
into the interstitial space, exactly opposite to the exocrine gland cells, which secrete fluid and
digestive enzymes out of their apical surfaces into tiny ducts. The pancreatic islets secrete the
hormones glucagon, insulin, somatostatin, and pancreatic polypeptide, which diffuse into nearby
capillaries and then reach cells throughout the body via the circulation. The pancreatic exocrine
secretions enter the intestine during digestion and play a key role in both protecting the
epithelium and dissolving food particles into their constituent building blocks.
Learning Outcome: 18-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
5) Describe the three phases of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) that constitute the body's
response to stress. Which endocrine secretions play dominant roles in the alarm and resistance
phases?
Answer: The three phases are alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. During the alarm phase, energy
reserves are mobilized and the body prepares itself with "fight or flight" responses. During the
resistance phase, glucocorticoids are released to (1) mobilize lipid and protein reserves, (2)
conserve glucose for neural tissue, (3) elevate and stabilize blood glucose concentrations, (4)
conserve salts and water, and (5) lose K+ and H+. During the exhaustion phase, homeostatic
regulation breaks down. Epinephrine plays a dominant role in the alarm phase and
glucocorticoids are dominant in the resistance phase.
Learning Outcome: 18-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
50
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 19 Blood
Multiple Choice Questions
1) Plasma is closest in composition to
A) urine.
B) isotonic saline solution.
C) sterile water.
D) CSF.
E) interstitial fluid.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the
A) viscosity.
B) specific gravity.
C) packed volume.
D) hematocrit.
E) differential cell count.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) Which of the following statements about blood is false?
A) Blood contains buffers that control pH.
B) The normal pH of blood is 6.8 to 7.0.
C) Blood is more viscous than water.
D) Blood is about 55 percent plasma.
E) Cells in blood comprise the formed elements.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) The combination of plasma and formed elements is called
A) serum.
B) lymph.
C) whole blood.
D) extracellular fluid.
E) packed blood.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
5) Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from
A) the heart.
B) a superficial artery.
C) a superficial vein.
D) a capillary.
E) an arteriole.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) Consider the following results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal?
A) RBCs—5.2 million/µl
B) platelets—280,000/µl
C) leukocytes—8600/µl
D) hemoglobin—10.7 g/100 ml
E) hematocrit—44 percent
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
7) Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a
A) temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius.
B) viscosity about the same as water.
C) pH of 7.4.
D) built-in system for clotting.
E) red color from hemoglobin.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) The total volume of blood in the body of a 76-kg man is approximately ________ liters.
A) 10
B) 6 to 8
C) 5.3
D) 4.4
E) 3.8
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
9) The most abundant component of plasma is
A) ions.
B) proteins.
C) water.
D) gases.
E) nutrients.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) A person who has a low blood volume is said to be
A) hypovolemic.
B) hypervolemic.
C) normovolemic.
D) isovolemic.
E) antivolemic.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the concentration of
A) water.
B) electrolytes.
C) nitrogen wastes.
D) proteins.
E) glucose.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12) A typical adult hematocrit is
A) 85.
B) 75.
C) 65.
D) 45.
E) 25.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
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13) Which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood?
A) RBCs
B) platelets
C) antibodies
D) lymphocytes
E) basophils
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood and water composes ________
percent of the plasma volume.
A) 55; 92
B) 92; 7
C) 92; 55
D) 45; 55
E) 50; 50
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) A hematocrit provides information on
A) blood type.
B) clotting factors.
C) formed elements abundance.
D) plasma composition.
E) sedimentation rate.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) You are caring for an adult patient who weighs 48 kg. What would her approximate blood
volume be?
A) 6.6 L
B) 6.0 L
C) 5.6 L
D) 4.8 L
E) 3.8 L
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
4
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17) Approximately 45 percent of blood volume is composed of the
A) clotting factors.
B) formed elements.
C) leukocytes.
D) plasma.
E) antibodies.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) Blood volume represents about ________ percent of a person's body weight.
A) 7
B) 15
C) 2
D) 25
E) 42
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19) Thyroid-binding globulin is an example of which kind of plasma protein?
A) metalloprotein
B) steroid-binding
C) hormone-binding
D) apolipoprotein
E) transport albumin
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein?
A) metalloprotein
B) steroid-binding protein
C) hormone-binding protein
D) apolipoprotein
E) transport albumin
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5
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21) Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones?
A) apolipoprotein
B) steroid-binding protein
C) hormone-binding protein
D) albumin
E) gamma globulin
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22) Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins?
A) pancreas
B) heart
C) kidney
D) brain
E) liver
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are
A) globulins.
B) transport proteins.
C) albumins.
D) lipoproteins.
E) fibrinogens.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the
A) albumins.
B) fibrinogens.
C) immunoglobulins.
D) metalloproteins.
E) lipoproteins.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
25) A plasma protein essential for blood clotting is
A) albumin alpha.
B) fibrinogen.
C) immunoglobulin A.
D) metalloprotein D.
E) lipoprotein C.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26) All of the following are functions of blood except
A) regulating pH.
B) transporting gases and hormones.
C) generating action potentials.
D) defending against pathogens.
E) regulating ion concentration.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27) In what way does blood assist in immune function?
A) Platelets allow clotting.
B) Red blood cells transport gases.
C) White blood cells defend against pathogens.
D) Albumins transport hormones.
E) Plasma antibodies and white blood cells defend against pathogens.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
28) The protein(s) that are the major contributors to plasma osmolarity is/are
A) globulins.
B) albumins.
C) fibrinogen.
D) lipoprotein.
E) transferrin.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7
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29) Blood that has clotting proteins removed is termed
A) whole blood.
B) hematocrit.
C) formed elements.
D) serum.
E) plasma.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30) In an emergency situation, a patient may be given plasma expanders while blood typing
occurs. The plasma expanders are used to
A) stimulate blood clotting.
B) replace lost albumin.
C) increase blood volume and maintain osmolarity.
D) elevate blood pH.
E) stimulate immune responses.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
31) Antibodies are what type of plasma protein?
A) apolipoprotein
B) metalloprotein
C) steroid-binding protein
D) immunoglobulin
E) fibrinogen
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) The primary reason males have a higher hematocrit than females is because
A) males have more skeletal muscle.
B) males have larger livers.
C) males have longer blood vessels.
D) males have fewer white blood cells.
E) males have androgens.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
8
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33) You have spent 24 hours traveling from the U.S to New Zealand, on quite a few airplanes
with many stops. Because of the stress, changes in time zones, and short blocks of time between
planes, you find yourself tired with a headache when you arrive. You are severely dehydrated. A
hematocrit value of your blood would be ________ than normal because ________.
A) lower; more red blood cells are being made by the bone marrow
B) higher; you have less blood plasma volume
C) lower; the bone marrow is making fewer red blood cells due to the latitude of the airplanes
D) higher; more plasma proteins are made by the liver
E) lower; you have less blood plasma volume
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
34) Jane has been taking the antibiotic chloramphenicol for a few weeks as treatment for a
serious bacterial infection. There is a possibility that a future side effect of long-term antibiotic
therapy could cause her to develop problems in blood cell counts. The result is
A) autoimmune disease.
B) aplastic anemia.
C) drug resistance.
D) thrombocytopenia.
E) erythroblastosis.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
35) All the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the
A) heart.
B) thymus.
C) spleen.
D) red bone marrow.
E) lymph tissue.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36) Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone
A) thymosin.
B) angiotensin.
C) erythropoietin.
D) thymopoietin.
E) renin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
9
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37) Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false?
A) Red cells are biconcave discs.
B) Red cells lack mitochondria.
C) Red cells are about 18 µm in diameter.
D) Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen.
E) Red cells can form stacks called rouleaux.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38) Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron?
A) hemoglobin
B) ferritin
C) hemosiderin
D) transferrin
E) ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
39) The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if
A) the diet is deficient in iron.
B) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin.
C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal.
D) red blood cells bind too much oxygen.
E) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
40) Surgical removal of the stomach could cause
A) hemophilia.
B) pernicious anemia.
C) thrombocytopenia.
D) leukocytosis.
E) jaundice.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
10
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41) Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her
hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that
A) she is suffering from anemia.
B) she has fewer red blood cells than normal.
C) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal.
D) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia.
E) her hemoglobin level is normal.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
42) An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would result in
A) pernicious anemia.
B) renal anemia.
C) increased erythropoiesis.
D) decreased erythropoiesis.
E) increased sensitivity to vitamin K.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
43) The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following except
A) anemia.
B) high altitude.
C) as a consequence of hemorrhage.
D) periods of fasting.
E) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
44) The average life span of a red blood cell is
A) 24 hours.
B) 1 month.
C) 4 months.
D) about 1 year.
E) many years.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11
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45) The function of red blood cells is to
A) carry oxygen from the cells to the lungs.
B) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells.
C) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells.
D) defend the body against infectious organisms.
E) carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away carbon dioxide.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46) Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that
her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest
candidate?
A) aplastic anemia
B) iron-deficiency anemia
C) sickle cell anemia
D) vitamin K deficiency
E) vitamin B6 deficiency
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
47) In adults, the only site of red blood cell production, and the primary site of white blood cell
formation, is the
A) liver.
B) spleen.
C) thymus.
D) red bone marrow.
E) yellow bone marrow.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
48) Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of
A) magnesium.
B) calcium.
C) iron.
D) sodium.
E) copper.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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49) Excess iron is stored in the liver and spleen as
A) transferrin.
B) urobilin and stercobilin.
C) bilirubin and biliverdin.
D) hemoglobin.
E) hemosiderin and ferritin.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
50) In which of the following situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be
elevated?
A) during coagulation
B) an alcoholic with a damaged liver
C) iron-deficient diet
D) low hematocrit
E) low blood volume
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
51) If bile ducts are blocked,
A) more bilirubin appears in the plasma.
B) bilirubin appears in the saliva.
C) more hemolysis takes place.
D) more red blood cells are produced.
E) more white blood cells are produced.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
52) More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is
A) albumin.
B) porphyrin.
C) hemoglobin.
D) immunoglobulin.
E) fibrinogen.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
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53) The function of hemoglobin is to
A) carry dissolved blood gases.
B) carry bicarbonate ion.
C) aid in the process of blood clotting.
D) produce antibodies.
E) stimulate erythropoiesis.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
54) ________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced.
A) Polycythemia
B) Leukemia
C) Anemia
D) Leukopenia
E) Thrombocytopenia
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
55) Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by
A) oral doses of iron.
B) injections of iron.
C) oral doses of vitamin B12.
D) injections of vitamin B12.
E) blood transfusion.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
56) Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood
sample after donating a unit of blood?
A) fibrocytes
B) platelets
C) reticulocytes
D) lymphocytes
E) neutrophils
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
14
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57) A red blood cell that contains excessive amounts of hemoglobin would be called
A) hyperchromic.
B) normochromic.
C) hypochromic.
D) normocytic.
E) macrocytic.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
58) A bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because
A) hemoglobin has leaked from the blood into the injury and hemoglobin has a green color.
B) the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin.
C) bilirubin from iron recycling has built-up in the bruise.
D) red blood cells lyse releasing biliverdin from inside.
E) dead white blood cells accumulate at the site of injury.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
59) Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by macrophages in the
A) spleen.
B) liver.
C) bone marrow.
D) digestive tract.
E) spleen, liver, and bone marrow.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
60) The waste product bilirubin is produced from
A) globin chains of hemoglobin.
B) heme molecules plus iron.
C) heme molecules lacking iron.
D) iron found in hemoglobin molecules.
E) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15
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61) Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is
A) excreted by the kidneys.
B) excreted by the liver.
C) excreted by the intestines.
D) recycled to the red bone marrow.
E) stored in yellow bone marrow.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
62) In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in
A) the liver.
B) yellow bone marrow.
C) red bone marrow.
D) the spleen.
E) lymphoid tissue.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
63) The process of red blood cell production is called
A) erythrocytosis.
B) erythropenia.
C) hemocytosis.
D) erythropoiesis.
E) hematopenia.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
64) The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as
A) hemocytoblasts.
B) reticulocytes.
C) band forms.
D) myeloid cells.
E) proerythrocytes.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16
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65) ________ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation.
A) Erythroblasts
B) Normoblasts
C) Myeloblasts
D) Band cells
E) Reticulocytes
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
66) Erythropoiesis is stimulated when
A) oxygen levels in the blood increase.
B) carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease.
C) blood flow to the kidney declines.
D) coagulation begins.
E) blood pressure increases.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
67) Each hemoglobin molecule contains
A) four alpha chains.
B) one alpha and one beta chain.
C) four iron atoms.
D) one heme group.
E) a molecule of oxygen and a molecule of carbon dioxide.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
68) Reticulocytes complete their development into ________ in the circulation.
A) neutrophils
B) megakaryocytes
C) thrombocytes
D) macrophages
E) erythrocytes
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
17
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69) Which mature cell has no nucleus, no mitochondria and no ribosomes?
A) erythrocyte
B) leukocyte
C) platelet
D) thrombocyte
E) neutrophil
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
70) Erythropoietin is a hormone
A) released by the liver to stimulate red blood cell production.
B) released by the liver to stimulate white blood cell production.
C) released by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production.
D) released by the kidneys to stimulate red and white blood cell production.
E) released by the bone marrow to stimulate red blood cell production.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
71) Which of the following is not a way that red blood cell shape is significant?
A) It gives the red blood cell a large surface area to volume ratio.
B) It allows fast exchange of gases between the inside of the cell and the plasma.
C) It enables red blood cells to form stacks.
D) It allows red blood cells to bend and flex.
E) It enables red blood cells to phagocytose bacteria.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
72) Which of the following is true regarding red blood cells?
A) They are anucleate.
B) They survive for approximately one year.
C) They have a biconvex shape.
D) They are produced in the spleen.
E) They primarily carry carbon dioxide.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18
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73) When hemoglobin does not have oxygen bound to hemoglobin it is termed
A) carbaminohemoglobin.
B) deoxyhemoglobin.
C) oxyhemoglobin.
D) hemolyzed.
E) sickle hemoglobin.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
74) When hemoglobin is saturated with oxygen atoms it is termed
A) carbaminohemoglobin.
B) deoxyhemoglobin.
C) oxyhemoglobin.
D) hemolyzed.
E) sickle hemoglobin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
75) When carbon dioxide is bound to hemoglobin it is termed
A) carbaminohemoglobin.
B) deoxyhemoglobin.
C) oxyhemoglobin.
D) hemolyzed.
E) sickle hemoglobin.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
76) Hydroxyurea is a common drug treatment for sickle cell anemia patients. Hydroxyurea
improves sickle cell symptoms because it
A) causes more hemoglobin alpha chains to be produced improving oxygen transport.
B) causes more hemoglobin beta chains to be produced improving oxygen transport.
C) increases the free iron in plasma.
D) stimulates the production of fetal hemoglobin improving oxygen transport.
E) increases the production of heme.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
19
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77) During fetal development the primary site(s) of red blood cell production is/are
A) bone marrow.
B) liver.
C) thymus.
D) kidneys.
E) liver and spleen.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
78) A person's blood type is determined by the
A) size of the RBCs.
B) volume of the RBCs.
C) chemical composition of the hemoglobin.
D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane.
E) shape of the RBCs.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
79) People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because
A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens.
B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins.
C) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins.
D) they usually have very strong immune systems.
E) they are usually Rh negative.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
80) Type AB blood has which of the following characteristics?
A) RBCs have the Rh positive antigens and the anti-D plasma antibodies.
B) RBCs have no surface antigens and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma.
C) RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies.
D) RBCs have the A and the B surface antigens and the plasma has anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
E) RBCs have the A antigen and the plasma has the anti-B antibody.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
20
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81) Anti-D antibodies are present in the blood of
A) all individuals with type AB blood.
B) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen.
C) all Rh positive individuals.
D) Rh positive individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen.
E) all Rh negative individuals.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
82) Antigens of the surface of red blood cells are also called ________ and antibodies in the
blood plasma are also called ________.
A) agglutinins; agglutinogens
B) agglutinogens; agglutinins
C) T-cells; B-cells
D) erythrogens; antibiotics
E) serum; plasma
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
83) Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn?
A) mother Rh positive, baby Rh negative
B) mother Rh negative, baby Rh negative
C) mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive
D) mother type A+, baby type O+
E) mother Rh positive, baby Rh positive
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
84) A cross-match test is performed between donor blood and recipient blood, even though the
ABO and Rh blood types match between the two because
A) there are many more surface antigens on red blood cells other than A, B and Rh.
B) all antibodies of the donor blood and the recipient blood must be identified.
C) coagulation can occur even in a small percentage of cases.
D) one has to make sure that the same agglutinogens have to be on both donor and recipients red
blood cells.
E) errors are commonly made by the clinical staff regarding donor-recipient matches.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
21
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85) Type A blood has ________ antibodies in the blood plasma.
A) anti-A
B) anti-D
C) anti-B
D) anti-Rh
E) anti-O
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
86) The clumping of red blood cells, when the specific antibody against the antigen on the cells
is added, is called
A) coagulation.
B) agglutination.
C) hemostasis.
D) vascularization.
E) areolation.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
87) Jane has Type A blood; therefore, she
A) has antibodies to B agglutinogens.
B) can give blood to other people with Type A blood only.
C) can receive blood from other people with Type A blood only.
D) makes anti-A without ever having been exposed to Type A blood.
E) has B antigen on her RBCs.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
88) You have type B positive blood. What are all the types of packed RBCs you can receive?
A) A positive and A negative
B) B positive and B negative
C) A positive and B positive
D) B positive, B negative, O positive, O negative
E) O positive and O negative
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
22
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89) The most common blood type is
A) type A.
B) type B.
C) type AB.
D) type O.
E) type AO.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
90) In an emergency situation when you have no time to wait for cross-matched blood you could
give a patient type ________ until the cross-match is available.
A) A positive
B) O negative
C) B negative
D) AB positive
E) AB negative
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
91) The process of lymphopoiesis occurs mainly in the
A) spleen.
B) kidneys.
C) lymph nodes.
D) red bone marrow.
E) thymus.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
92) All of the following are true of neutrophils except that they are
A) granular leukocytes.
B) phagocytic.
C) also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
D) important in coagulation.
E) active in fighting bacterial infections.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23
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93) The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the
A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
94) White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are
A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
95) ________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as
fixed and free phagocytic cells.
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Lymphocytes
E) Monocytes
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
96) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term colony stimulating factor?
A) adheres to collagen beneath endothelium
B) helper cells are one type
C) hormone that regulates white blood cell formation
D) kills bacteria using hydrogen peroxide
E) often elevated in allergic individuals
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24
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97) White blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals are the
A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) platelets.
D) lymphocytes.
E) monocytes.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
98) A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes and monocytes is
A) M-CSF.
B) G-CSF.
C) GM-CSF.
D) multi-CSF.
E) thymosin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
99) Monocytes can be stimulated by which of the following colony-stimulating factors?
A) G-CSF
B) G-CSF and GM-CSF
C) EPO
D) G-CSF and EPO
E) M-CSF, GM-CSF, multi-CSF
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
100) The most numerous WBCs in a differential count of a healthy individual are
A) neutrophils.
B) basophils.
C) lymphocytes.
D) monocytes.
E) leukocytes.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
25
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101) Which of the following is not true of neutrophils?
A) less abundant than lymphocytes
B) can make hydrogen peroxide
C) can exit capillaries
D) can destroy bacteria
E) attracted to complement-coated bacteria
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
102) Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes?
A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium
B) helper cells are one type
C) develop into plasma cells and produce antibodies in response to antigens
D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide
E) often elevated in allergic individuals
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
103) Which of these descriptions best matches the term T lymphocytes?
A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium
B) are involved in cell mediated immunity
C) develop into plasma cells and produce antibodies in response to antigens
D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide
E) often elevated in allergic individuals
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
104) Which of the following is not true of monocytes?
A) about same size as basophils
B) enter tissues and wander
C) become macrophages
D) are long-lived
E) can phagocytize bacteria
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26
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105) Eosinophils function in
A) destroying antibody-labeled antigens.
B) blood coagulation.
C) production of surface antigens for red blood cells.
D) antibody production.
E) production of heparin.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
106) During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of
A) neutrophils.
B) eosinophils.
C) basophils.
D) reticulocytes.
E) thrombocytes.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
107) The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the
A) neutrophils.
B) monocytes.
C) basophils.
D) erythrocytes.
E) lymphocytes.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
108) Non-specific immunity, such as phagocytosis, is a function of which blood cells?
A) basophils and eosinophils
B) neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes
C) lymphocytes and monocytes
D) platelets
E) lymphocytes
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
27
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109) A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would
you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count?
A) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) basophils
D) lymphocytes
E) monocytes
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
110) Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations.
A) erythropoietin
B) bilirubin
C) thrombopoietin
D) colony-stimulating factors
E) plasmin
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
111) The ________ is a procedure that is used to determine the number of each of the various
types of white blood cells.
A) differential count
B) hematocrit
C) sedimentation rate
D) WBC count
E) complete cell count (CBC)
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
112) A small white blood cell with a large round nucleus would be a
A) neutrophil.
B) lymphocyte.
C) monocyte.
D) basophil.
E) eosinophil.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28
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113) Which feature of WBCs makes them particularly important in tissue injury?
A) They undergo aerobic respiration.
B) They stick to injured blood vessels.
C) They undergo a fast rate of mitosis.
D) They can squeeze out through blood vessel walls into tissues.
E) They carry loads of oxygen.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
114) Which of the following white blood cells are mobile?
A) lymphocytes
B) neutrophils
C) monocytes
D) neutrophils and monocytes
E) basophils
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
115) Which white blood cell is most effective against parasitic infections?
A) neutrophils
B) eosinophils
C) basophils
D) monoctyes
E) lymphocytes
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
116) During routine bloodwork, Mary's doctor noticed significant leukocytosis. He is concerned
she might have
A) pernicious anemia.
B) sickle cell anemia.
C) thalassemia.
D) leukemia.
E) leukopenia.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
29
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117) Macrophages develop from
A) neutrophils.
B) lymphocytes.
C) thrombocytes.
D) eosinophils.
E) monocytes.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
118) Natural killer cells are one of the functional classes of
A) neutrophils.
B) lymphocytes.
C) thrombocytes.
D) eosinophils.
E) monocytes.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
Figure 19-1 The Origins and Differentiation of Formed Elements
Use Figure 19-1 to answer the following questions:
119) Identify the cell labeled "5."
A) erythrocyte
B) lymphocyte
C) eosinophil
D) basophil
E) monocyte
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
30
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120) Identify the cell labeled "6."
A) erythrocyte
B) lymphocyte
C) eosinophil
D) basophil
E) monocyte
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
121) Identify the cell labeled "4."
A) neutrophil
B) lymphocyte
C) platelet
D) basophil
E) monocyte
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
122) Identify the cell labeled "2."
A) lymphocyte
B) eosinophil
C) basophil
D) neutrophil
E) monocyte
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
123) Identify the formed element that originated as a megakaryocyte.
A) 1
B) 3
C) 5
D) 2
E) 7
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
31
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124) The function of platelets is to assist in the
A) destruction of bacteria.
B) process called hemostasis.
C) removal of worn out red blood cells.
D) immune response during an infection.
E) transport of blood gases such as oxygen.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
125) Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called
A) erythroblasts.
B) normoblasts.
C) megakaryocytes.
D) myeloblasts.
E) lymphoblasts.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
126) Platelets are
A) red blood cells that lack a nucleus.
B) red blood cells that have a nucleus.
C) large cells with a prominent, concave nucleus.
D) tiny cells with a polynucleus.
E) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
127) In case of hemorrhage, platelets are stored as a reserve in
A) the heart.
B) the kidneys.
C) the spleen.
D) the thymus gland.
E) bone marrow.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
32
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128) Which of the following descriptions best matches the function of platelets?
A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium
B) helper cells are one type
C) produce antibodies in response to antigens
D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide
E) often elevated in allergic individuals
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
129) A person whose platelet count is 40,000/µl is suffering from
A) thrombocytosis.
B) leukocytosis.
C) hemocytosis.
D) thrombocytopenia.
E) leukopenia.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
130) A sign of thrombocytopenia would be
A) a drop in oxygen-carrying capacity.
B) allergic reactions.
C) bacterial infections.
D) excessive clotting.
E) bleeding.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
131) The hormone that stimulates platelet formation is
A) thymosin.
B) thrombopoietin.
C) erythropoietin.
D) colony-stimulating factor.
E) endothelin.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
33
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132) ________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
A) Vascular spasm
B) The platelet phase
C) Retraction
D) Coagulation
E) Fibrinolysis
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
133) Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by
A) platelets.
B) megakaryocytes.
C) the liver.
D) the kidneys.
E) the spleen.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
134) The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the
A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen.
C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium.
D) release of heparin from the liver.
E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
135) The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the
A) sticking of platelets to each other.
B) activation of Factor XII by platelet factors.
C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium.
D) release of heparin from the liver.
E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34
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136) The common pathway of coagulation begins with the
A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue.
B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen.
C) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium.
D) activation of Factor X and production of prothrombin activator.
E) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
137) The process of fibrinolysis
A) activates fibrinogen.
B) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together.
C) dissolves clots.
D) forms emboli.
E) forms thrombi.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
138) The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is
A) thrombin.
B) plasmin.
C) heparin.
D) fibrinase.
E) phosphokinase.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
139) Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the ________ pathway.
A) extrinsic
B) intrinsic
C) common
D) retraction
E) fibrinolytic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
35
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140) Tissue factor is a factor in the ________ pathway.
A) extrinsic
B) intrinsic
C) common
D) retraction
E) fibrinolytic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
141) Some rat poisons contain a toxin that blocks the liver's ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals
that consume this poison would die of
A) anemia.
B) acidosis.
C) hemorrhage.
D) thrombocytopenia.
E) starvation.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
142) A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to
A) cause clots to form faster.
B) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster.
C) initiate clot formation.
D) recruit platelets to the area.
E) recruit neutrophils to an infection.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
143) How would removal of calcium ions from a blood sample affect coagulation?
A) The coagulation pathway would be more sensitive to activation.
B) Coagulation would be prevented.
C) There would be no important effect because magnesium can substitute for calcium.
D) Coagulation would occur only in Rh positive individuals.
E) More blood cells would be produced.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
36
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144) Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors?
A) vitamin A
B) vitamin B
C) vitamin K
D) vitamin D
E) vitamin E
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
145) A moving blood clot is called a(n)
A) embolus.
B) thrombus.
C) plaque.
D) procoagulant.
E) platelet plug.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
146) Areas in a vessel wall where large quantities of lipid accumulate are called
A) thrombi.
B) emboli.
C) plaques.
D) clots.
E) occlusions.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
147) People who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional Factor VIII; as a result,
A) they lack a functional intrinsic pathway.
B) they lack a functional extrinsic pathway.
C) they lack a functional common pathway.
D) their coagulation times are much longer than normal.
E) their coagulation times are too quick.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
37
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148) The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme
A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme.
B) plasmin.
C) factor VIII.
D) thrombin.
E) prothrombinase.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
149) The phase of hemostasis that involved clotting of blood is called
A) coagulation.
B) hemolysis.
C) vascular spasm.
D) a platelet plug.
E) diapedesis.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
150) A fibrin network that contains trapped blood cells and platelets is called a(n)
A) platelet plug.
B) rouleaux.
C) agglutinin.
D) blood clot.
E) lysin.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
151) Which common over the counter drug can decrease blood clotting and thus may be
beneficial for preventing a heart attack?
A) cough syrup
B) anti-histamines
C) aspirin
D) acetaminophen
E) tums
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
38
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152) Which of these is used clinically to impede or prevent blood clotting?
A) thrombin
B) heparin
C) fibrin
D) tissue factor
E) prothrombin
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
153) A blood clot attached to the inner surface of a blood vessel is called a
A) embolus.
B) plaque.
C) thrombus.
D) platelet plug.
E) fibrin mesh.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
154) The first step of hemostasis is
A) coagulation.
B) agglutination.
C) clot retraction.
D) vascular spasm.
E) platelet phase.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
155) Which of the following could be used as a treatment for a stroke if given early in the
disease progression?
A) tissue factor
B) vitamin K
C) calcium channel blockers
D) factor X
E) tissue plasminogen activator
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 19-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
39
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In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) Each molecule of heme contains a single ion of what element? (Figure 19-3)
A) sodium
B) potassium
C) magnesium
D) iron
E) calcium
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Where are red blood cells produced? (Figure 19-5)
A) spleen
B) liver
C) red bone marrow
D) kidney
E) large intestine
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) Type A blood has what type of RBC surface antigen and what type of opposing antibodies?
(Figure 19-6)
A) antigen A; anti-B antibodies
B) antigen B; anti-A antibodies
C) antigen A; anti-A antibodies
D) antigen B; anti-B antibodies
E) antigen A; both anti-A and anti-B antibodies
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 19-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
4) Granulocytes consist of what three types of mature cells and from what blast cell do
granulocytes differentiate? (Figure 19-10)
A) monocytes, lymphocytes, and platelets; lymphoblast
B) basophil, eosinophil, and neutrophil; myeloblast
C) erythrocyte, neutrophil, and lymphocyte; proerythroblast
D) reticulocyte, megakaryocyte, and promonocyte; monoblast
E) platelets, erythrocyte, and monocyte; reticulocyte
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 19-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40
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Essay Questions
1) Why do people with advanced kidney disease commonly become anemic?
Answer: For three reasons: (1) Damaged kidneys produce less erythropoietin and so there is less
stimulation of the marrow to produce RBCs. (2) Erythropoietin is more easily lost into the urine
by leaky kidneys. (3) Finally, during dialysis treatment, the patient's erythropoietin is washed
away. Treatment for kidney patients today includes injections of synthetic erythropoietin.
Learning Outcome: 19-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
2) How does Rhogam prevent erythroblastosis fetalis (HDN, hemolytic disease of the newborn)?
Answer: If a mother who is Rh negative carries a fetus who is Rh positive, she will make
antibodies against its Rh positive RBCs after being exposed to the infant's blood during labor and
delivery. By giving a dose of anti-Rh antibody (Rhogam) just before or after delivery, the fetal
red cells will be agglutinated and removed from the mother's circulation before her immune
system will have time to make anti-Rh antibodies that would endanger her next Rh-positive
offspring.
Learning Outcome: 19-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
3) Which of the formed elements would increase after the donation of a pint of blood?
Answer: Reticulocytes would increase in number as additional numbers of immature RBCs
move into the bloodstream to compensate for the reduction in blood volume.
Learning Outcome: 19-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
41
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 20 The Heart
Multiple Choice Questions
1) The heart beats approximately ________ times each day.
A) 1,000
B) 10,000
C) 100,000
D) 1,000,000
E) 10,000,000
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) The heart pumps approximately ________ liters of blood each day.
A) 8,000
B) 15,000
C) 20,000
D) 50,000
E) 100,000
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) The adult heart is roughly the size of
A) the liver.
B) a man's clenched fist.
C) the gallbladder.
D) the hand of a 10-year-old.
E) the brain.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) The term used to describe fluid collecting in the pericardial cavity that restricts the movement
of the heart is known as
A) cardiac tamponade.
B) mitral valve prolapse.
C) pleural effusion.
D) cardiomyopathy.
E) pericarditis.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
1
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
5) The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal
circulation is the
A) foramen ovale.
B) interatrial septum.
C) coronary sinus.
D) fossa ovalis.
E) ligamentum arteriosus.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) Blood leaves the right ventricle by passing through the
A) aortic valve.
B) pulmonary valve.
C) mitral valve.
D) tricuspid valve.
E) bicuspid valve.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) The atrioventricular valves permit blood flow
A) in one direction only.
B) in both directions.
C) in many directions.
D) in opposite directions on the right and left.
E) from a ventricle to an atrium.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circuit first enters the
A) right atrium.
B) right ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) left ventricle.
E) conus arteriosus.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
9) Blood returning to the heart from the pulmonary circuit first enters the
A) right atrium.
B) right ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) left ventricle.
E) conus arteriosus.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) The earlike extension of the atrium is the
A) ventricle.
B) coronary sinus.
C) coronary sulcus.
D) auricle.
E) interatrial septum.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) The coronary sulcus is a groove that
A) marks the border between the atria and ventricles.
B) marks the boundary line between the right and left ventricles.
C) marks the boundary line between the right and left atria.
D) separates the atrioventricular valves from the atria.
E) separates the coronary arteries from the coronary veins.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12) In the middle of the thoracic cavity is a region occupied by the heart, great vessels, thymus,
esophagus, and trachea called the
A) pleural space.
B) pericardial space.
C) mediastinum.
D) cardiac notch.
E) ventral cavity.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
13) The cusps (leaflets) of atrioventricular valves attach directly to
A) papillary muscles.
B) trabeculae carneae.
C) chordae tendineae.
D) interatrial septa.
E) coronary sulci.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) Contractions of the papillary muscles
A) close the atrioventricular valves.
B) close the semilunar valves.
C) eject blood from the ventricles.
D) prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria.
E) eject blood from the atria into the ventricles.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) The visceral pericardium is the same as the
A) mediastinum.
B) parietal pericardium.
C) epicardium.
D) myocardium.
E) endocardium.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) Most of the middle layer in the heart wall is composed of
A) cardiac muscle cells.
B) chondrocytes.
C) epithelial cells.
D) fibrocytes.
E) smooth muscle cells.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
4
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
17) The right ventricle pumps blood to the
A) right and left lungs.
B) left ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) aorta.
E) right atrium.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) The left ventricle pumps blood to the
A) lungs.
B) right ventricle.
C) right atrium.
D) aorta.
E) pulmonary circuit.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19) The right atrium receives blood from all of the following structures except the
A) coronary sinus.
B) superior vena cava.
C) inferior vena cava.
D) systemic circuit.
E) pulmonary veins.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) When a blood clot forms on a ruptured plaque in a coronary artery, the condition is referred
to as a(n)
A) coronary spasm.
B) myocardial infarction.
C) coronary thrombosis.
D) angina pectoris.
E) pulmonary embolism.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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21) Cardiac cells damaged by infarction will show all of the following except
A) a switch to anaerobic metabolism.
B) release of enzymes into the circulation.
C) release of troponin T and I into the circulation.
D) release of CK-MB into the circulation.
E) an increase in metabolic activity.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
22) As blood leaves the right ventricle, it passes through the ________ and then into the
pulmonary trunk.
A) pulmonary veins
B) conus arteriosus
C) aorta
D) inferior vena cava
E) superior vena cava
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) Coronary veins empty into the
A) left atrium.
B) left ventricle.
C) right atrium.
D) right ventricle.
E) conus arteriosus.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
24) There are ________ pulmonary veins.
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 12
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6
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25) Rupture of the papillary muscles in the left ventricle may result in
A) pulmonary valve regurgitation.
B) mitral valve prolapse.
C) tricuspid regurgitation.
D) tricuspid prolapse.
E) aortic valve prolapse.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
26) Blood is supplied to the muscular wall of the left atrium by the
A) brachiocephalic artery.
B) right coronary artery.
C) left coronary artery.
D) phrenic arteries.
E) pulmonary arteries.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27) The pulmonary valve prevents backward flow into the
A) aorta.
B) pulmonary trunk.
C) pulmonary veins.
D) right ventricle.
E) left atrium.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28) The bicuspid or mitral valve is located
A) in the opening of the aorta.
B) in the opening of the pulmonary trunk.
C) where the venae cavae join the right atrium.
D) between the right atrium and right ventricle.
E) between the left atrium and left ventricle.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7
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29) The ________ valve prevents backward flow into the left atrium.
A) semicaval
B) semilunar
C) bicuspid
D) tricuspid
E) pulmonic
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30) The function of an atrium is to
A) store blood for use by the myocardial cells.
B) pump blood to the lungs.
C) pump blood into the systemic circuit.
D) pump blood to the ventricle.
E) collect blood then pump it to the ventricle.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31) Compared to the right ventricle, the left ventricle has all the following characteristics except
A) has a thicker wall.
B) is round in cross section.
C) pumps a greater volume.
D) works harder.
E) produces about four to six times more pressure when it contracts.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) Which of the following are involved in the pulmonary circuit?
A) superior vena cava, right atrium, left ventricle
B) right ventricle, pulmonary veins, aorta
C) right ventricle, pulmonary trunk, left atrium
D) inferior vena cava, right atrium, aorta
E) left ventricle, pulmonary veins, right atrium
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8
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33) The right pulmonary veins carry ________ blood to the ________.
A) deoxygenated; left atrium
B) oxygenated; right lung
C) deoxygenated; superior vena cava
D) deoxygenated; right atrium
E) oxygenated; left atrium
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
34) The following is a list of vessels and structures that are associated with the heart. What is the
correct order for the flow of blood entering from the systemic circulation?
1. right atrium
2. left atrium
3. right ventricle
4. left ventricle
5. venae cavae
6. aorta
7. pulmonary trunk
8. pulmonary veins
A) 1, 2, 7, 8, 3, 4, 6, 5
B) 1, 7, 3, 8, 2, 4, 6, 5
C) 5, 1, 3, 7, 8, 2, 4, 6
D) 5, 3, 1, 7, 8, 4, 2, 6
E) 5, 1, 3, 8, 7, 2, 4, 6
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
35) The pulmonary arteries carry blood to the
A) heart.
B) lungs.
C) brain.
D) intestines.
E) liver.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
9
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36) The pulmonary veins carry blood to the
A) heart.
B) lungs.
C) brain.
D) intestines.
E) liver.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
37) The foramen ovale in the fetal heart is located in the
A) right atrium.
B) left atrium.
C) right ventricle.
D) left ventricle.
E) interatrial septum.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
38) Blood is supplied to the myocardium by
A) the coronary sinus.
B) contact with blood in the pumping chambers.
C) the coronary arteries.
D) arteries that branch from the pulmonary arteries.
E) arteries that branch off the subclavian arteries.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39) The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the ________ arteries.
A) pulmonary
B) coronary
C) circumflex
D) carotid
E) subclavian
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10
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40) The marginal branch and posterior interventricular branch are branches of the
A) right coronary artery.
B) left coronary artery.
C) circumflex artery.
D) coronary sinus.
E) aorta.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
41) The circumflex branch and the anterior interventricular artery are branches of the
A) right coronary artery.
B) left coronary artery.
C) interventricular artery.
D) coronary sinus.
E) aorta.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42) The great and middle cardiac veins drain blood into the
A) superior vena cava.
B) inferior vena cava.
C) coronary sinus.
D) coronary sulcus.
E) aorta.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43) The heart lies within the ________ cavity.
A) peritoneal
B) pleural
C) orbital
D) dorsal
E) pericardial
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11
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44) The superior portion of the heart where major blood vessels enter and exit is the
A) apex.
B) hilum.
C) base.
D) septum.
E) mediastinum.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
45) The inferior point of the heart is called the
A) apex.
B) hilum.
C) base.
D) septum.
E) mediastinum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46) Pericardial fluid
A) provides oxygen to the heart muscle.
B) is located between the myocardium and the endocardium.
C) is a lubricant between the heart and the pericardial sac.
D) consists of plasma that has leaked out of whole blood.
E) flows through the four chambers of the heart.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
47) The ________ is shared by the two ventricles.
A) vena cava
B) bicuspid valve
C) chordae tendineae
D) interventricular septum
E) trabeculae carneae
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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48) Muscular ridges on the inner surface of the ventricles are called
A) coronary sinuses.
B) trabeculae carneae.
C) intercalated discs.
D) papillary muscles.
E) chordae tendineae.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
49) The ________ circuit carries blood to and from the lungs.
A) pulmonary
B) systemic
C) oxygen
D) portal
E) primary
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
50) The ________ circuit carries blood from the aorta to the right ventricle.
A) pulmonary
B) systemic
C) oxygen
D) portal
E) primary
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
51) The ________ carry blood away from the heart.
A) arterioles
B) arteries
C) veins
D) venules
E) capillaries
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
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52) The ________ carry blood toward the heart.
A) arterioles
B) arteries
C) veins
D) lacteals
E) capillaries
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
53) The ________ covers the outer surface of the heart.
A) epicardium
B) myocardium
C) endocardium
D) parietal pericardium
E) mediastinum
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
54) The muscle layer of the heart is the
A) epicardium.
B) myocardium.
C) endocardium.
D) parietal pericardium.
E) mediastinum.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
55) The ________ lines the chambers of the heart, covers the heart valves, and is continuous
with the endothelium.
A) epicardium
B) myocardium
C) endocardium
D) visceral pericardium
E) mediastinum
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14
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56) Oxygen is added to blood as it flows through the ________ circuit.
A) pulmonary
B) systemic
C) oxygen
D) portal
E) primary
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
57) The term ________ refers to blockage in the coronary circulation.
A) congestive heart failure
B) atherosclerosis
C) coronary artery disease
D) embolism
E) phlebitis
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
58) ________ is the symptom generally brought on by coronary ischemia.
A) Angina pectoris
B) Memory loss
C) A rash
D) Hematuria
E) Fluid in the lungs
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
59) In a procedure known as ________, an inflatable balloon at the end of a catheter is used to
press plaque back against the vessel wall.
A) balloon angioplasty
B) coronary arterial bypass graft
C) intravenous catheterization
D) ablation
E) atherectomy
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
15
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60) A procedure in which a length of the patient's vein or artery is used to create a detour around
an obstruction in a coronary artery is called
A) balloon angioplasty.
B) coronary artery bypass graft.
C) intravenous catheterization.
D) ablation.
E) atherectomy.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
61) A fine tubular wire mesh called a ________ may be inserted into a coronary vessel, holding
it open.
A) angioplast
B) stent
C) angiogram
D) keyhole
E) catheter
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
62) The coronary sinus drains the ________ into the ________.
A) coronary arteries; left ventricle
B) cardiac veins; right atrium
C) interventricular artery; left ventricle
D) right atrium; right ventricle
E) cardiac vein; right ventricle
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
63) The ________ is a remnant of an important fetal blood vessel that once linked the pulmonary
and systemic circuits.
A) fossa ovalis
B) ductus arteriosus
C) foramen ovale
D) ductus venosus
E) ligamentum arteriosum
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
16
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64) Which of the following statements is true concerning differences between the right and left
ventricles?
A) The right ventricle pumps with more force compared to the left.
B) The left ventricles pumps twice as much blood as the right ventricle.
C) The right ventricles pumps blood to the body, whereas the left ventricle pumps blood to the
lungs.
D) The right ventricle is conical-shaped while the left ventricle is half-moon shaped.
E) The efficiency of the right ventricle is increased by the left ventricle because the wall of the
left ventricle pushes into the right ventricle.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
65) Cardiac muscle layers form this distinct pattern.
A) inner longitudinal layer
B) outer longitudinal layer
C) outer circular layer
D) figure eight
E) weave
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
66) The endocardium consists of this type of tissue.
A) cardiac muscle
B) simple squamous epithelium
C) dense irregular connective tissue
D) reticular connective tissue
E) stratified squamous epithelium
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
67) A hole in the interventricular septum in an infant may cause all of the following symptoms
except
A) mixing of oxygen-rich and oxygen-poor blood.
B) a murmur to be heard.
C) the heart to work harder.
D) the individual to have low peripheral oxygen saturation.
E) build-up of atherosclerotic plaque.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
17
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68) Thick projections of muscle in the ventricles that anchor chordae tendineae are called
A) pectinate muscles.
B) conus arteriosus.
C) papillary muscles.
D) trabeculae carneae.
E) auricles.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
69) Prominent muscular ridges in the anterior atrial wall and auricles are called
A) pectinate muscles.
B) conus arteriosus.
C) papillary muscles.
D) trabeculae carneae.
E) fossa ovalis.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
70) Which of the following is not true regarding the right atrioventricular valve?
A) It has 3 cusps.
B) It is also called the tricuspid valve.
C) It prevents backflow of blood from the right ventricle into the right atrium.
D) The valve closes when the right atrium contracts.
E) The cusps provide one-way flow of blood.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
71) The ________ is an important ridge of muscle extending horizontally around the right
ventricle from the interventricular septum to the base of the anterior papillary muscle containing
part of the conducting system.
A) auricle
B) pectinate muscle
C) trabeculae carneae
D) moderator band
E) conus arteriosus
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18
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72) Which valve(s) contains 2 cusps?
A) right AV valve
B) left AV valve
C) right and left AV valves
D) left AV and aortic valves
E) right AV and pulmonary valves
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
73) Which valve(s) cusps open up toward the base of the heart?
A) right and left AV valves
B) aortic and pulmonary valves
C) left AV and aortic valves
D) right AV and pulmonary valves
E) right AV, left AV, aortic and pulmonary valves
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
74) These structures keep the aortic valve cusps from sticking to the wall of the aorta.
A) auricles
B) chordae tendineae
C) papillary muscles
D) pectinate muscles
E) aortic sinuses
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
75) Which statement correctly describes the term left atrioventricular valve?
A) Its cusps open into the left atrium.
B) Its cusps open into the superior vena cava.
C) Its cusps open into the aorta.
D) Its cusps open into the left ventricle.
E) Its cusps open into the pulmonary trunk.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
19
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76) Which chamber has the thickest wall?
A) left atrium
B) right atrium
C) left ventricle
D) right ventricle
E) left auricle
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
77) An MI that affects the ________ side of the heart is more severe because it has to pump
blood with ________ force.
A) right; less
B) right; more
C) left; less
D) left; more
E) right; equal
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
78) One possible consequence of untreated strep throat is a disease causing inflammation of heart
called
A) rheumatic fever.
B) rheumatoid arthritis.
C) coronary thrombosis.
D) coronary ischemia.
E) angina pectoris.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
79) Rheumatic fever causes generalized inflammation of the heart called
A) rheumatoid arthritis.
B) coronary thrombosis.
C) carditis.
D) coronary ischemia.
E) myocardial infarction.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20
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80) The connective tissues of the heart are important for all of the following reasons except
A) they help distribute the forces of contraction.
B) they prevent overexpansion of the heart.
C) they provide support for blood vessels and nerves.
D) they produce the pericardial fluid.
E) they provide elasticity to help the heart return to its original shape after contraction.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
21
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Figure 20-1 The Heart
Use Figure 20-1 to answer the following questions:
81) Identify the structure labeled "19."
A) tricuspid valve
B) pulmonary semilunar valve
C) aortic semilunar valve
D) bicuspid valve
E) ligamentum arteriosum
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
22
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82) Identify the structure(s) labeled "8."
A) moderator band
B) pectinate muscles
C) papillary muscles
D) trabeculae carneae
E) chordae tendineae
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
83) Identify the structure labeled "6."
A) cusp of tricuspid valve
B) pulmonary semilunar valve
C) aortic semilunar valve
D) bicuspid valve
E) ligamentum arteriosum
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
84) Which chamber receives oxygenated blood from the pulmonary circuit?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 16
D) 13
E) both 5 and 16
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
85) Identify the structure labeled "22."
A) pulmonary trunk
B) aortic arch
C) pulmonary veins
D) superior vena cava
E) carotid artery
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
23
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86) Tetanic muscle contractions don't occur in a normal cardiac muscle because
A) cardiac muscle tissue contracts on its own.
B) neural stimulation is lacking.
C) the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes.
D) the refractory period ends before the muscle reaches peak tension.
E) potassium channels outnumber sodium channels.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
87) Cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells differ in a few ways. Which of the following
is not one of them?
A) Cardiac muscle cells are smaller in size.
B) Cardiac muscle cells have a single, centered nucleus.
C) Cardiac muscle cells branch.
D) Skeletal muscle cells lack intercalated discs.
E) Cardiac muscle cells lack transverse tubules.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
88) In cardiac muscle, the fast depolarization phase of the action potential is the result of
A) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions.
B) increased membrane permeability to potassium ions.
C) decreased membrane permeability to calcium ions.
D) decreased membrane permeability to sodium ions.
E) increased membrane permeability to chloride ions.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
89) The long plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to
A) movement of fewer sodium ions across the cell membrane.
B) calcium channels remaining open.
C) increased membrane permeability to potassium ion.
D) decrease in the amount of calcium diffusing across the membrane.
E) increased membrane permeability to sodium ions.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24
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90) In cardiac muscle,
A) calcium ions are not released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
B) calcium ions do not bind to troponin molecules.
C) calcium ions play no role in the process of contraction.
D) about 20 percent of the calcium ion required for contraction comes from outside the cell.
E) calcium ions play an important role in repolarizing the membrane after the depolarization
phase.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
91) The normal pacemaker of the heart is located in
A) the Purkinje fibers.
B) the sinoatrial node.
C) the atrioventricular node.
D) the wall of the left ventricle.
E) both the left and right ventricles.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
92) Abnormally slow depolarization of the ventricles would most change the shape of the
________ in an ECG tracing.
A) P wave
B) T wave
C) QRS complex
D) P-R interval
E) R-T interval
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
93) As a result of the long refractory period in the cardiac action potential, cardiac muscle
cannot exhibit
A) tonus.
B) treppe.
C) tetany.
D) recruitment.
E) fatigue.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
25
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94) If the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions, the
A) heart rate will increase.
B) heart rate will decrease.
C) cells will depolarize.
D) cells will hyperpolarize.
E) heart rate will decrease and cells will hyperpolarize.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
95) If the connection between the SA node and AV node becomes blocked,
A) the ventricles will beat faster.
B) the ventricles will beat more slowly.
C) the ventricular beat will remain unchanged.
D) cardiac output will increase.
E) the atria will contract more forcefully.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
96) The following are structural components of the conducting system of the heart.
1. Purkinje fibers
2. AV bundle
3. AV node
4. SA node
5. bundle branches
The sequence in which excitation would move through this system is
A) 1, 4, 3, 2, 5.
B) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1.
C) 3, 5, 4, 2, 1.
D) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1.
E) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
97) The P wave of the electrocardiogram is a signal from
A) the SA node.
B) depolarization of the AV node.
C) depolarization of the atria.
D) repolarization of the atria.
E) depolarization of the ventricles.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26
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98) If there is a complete block between the SA node and the AV node, how would the ECG be
affected?
A) The P-R interval will be shorter.
B) The QRS duration will be longer.
C) There will be much bigger P waves.
D) The ventricles will stop beating.
E) The rate of P waves will be faster than the rate of QRS complexes.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
99) Depolarization of the ventricles is represented on an electrocardiogram by the
A) P wave.
B) T wave.
C) S wave.
D) QRS complex.
E) PR complex.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
100) The T wave on an ECG tracing represents
A) atrial depolarization.
B) atrial repolarization.
C) ventricular depolarization.
D) ventricular repolarization.
E) ventricular contraction.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
101) Analysis of the electrocardiogram can reveal all of the following except
A) heart rate.
B) stroke volume.
C) the condition of the conducting system.
D) the effects of drugs and poisons.
E) the duration of the ventricular action potential.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27
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102) Pacemaker cells isolated from the SA node generate action potentials at ________ beats per
minute.
A) 20-40
B) 40-60
C) 80-100
D) 100-140
E) 140-180
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
103) ________ is to slow heart rate as ________ is to fast heart rate.
A) Tachycardia; bradycardia
B) Bradycardia; cardiomyopathy
C) Bradycardia; tachycardia
D) Cardiac tamponade; bradycardia
E) Angina; infarction
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
104) Depolarization of the atria corresponds to the EKG's
A) P wave.
B) QRS complex.
C) QT interval.
D) T wave.
E) S-T segment.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
105) Which of the following statements is true regarding cardiac muscle?
A) Its main source of ATP production is glycogen.
B) The actin and myosin myofilaments are not arranged in sarcomeres.
C) Cardiac muscle preferentially metabolizes anaerobically.
D) There are specialized gap junctions in cardiac muscle not found in skeletal or smooth
muscles.
E) Cardiac muscle goes into sustained contractions faster than skeletal muscle.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
28
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106) The property of heart muscle to contract in the absence of neural or hormonal stimulation is
called
A) intrinsic.
B) extrinsic.
C) automaticity.
D) self-replicating.
E) self-starting.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
107) The structures responsible for distributing excitation to the contractile cells are
A) contractile cells.
B) conducting cells.
C) intercalated cells.
D) pacemaker cells.
E) intermodal cells.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
108) A slower-than-normal heart rate is called
A) tachycardia.
B) bradycardia.
C) hypercardia.
D) hypocardia.
E) procardia.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
109) A faster-than-normal heart rate is called
A) tachycardia.
B) bradycardia.
C) hypercardia.
D) hypocardia.
E) procardia.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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110) Collectively, the conducting cells that carry the impulse from the SA node to the AV node
is known as the
A) conducting system.
B) AV block.
C) internodal pathway.
D) bundle branches.
E) pacemaker cells.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
111) Which of the following describes what is directly measured by an ECG?
A) the force of contractions
B) blood vessel resistance
C) end-systolic volume
D) electrical conduction
E) neural stimulation of cardiac myocytes
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
112) Gradual drifting of membrane potential toward threshold in autorhythmic cells is termed a
A) receptor potential.
B) pacemaker potential.
C) gated potential.
D) ligand-gated potential.
E) action potential.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
113) The basic heartrate established by the SA node is called the
A) pacemaker potential.
B) action potential.
C) vagal tone.
D) sinus rhythm.
E) SA potential.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30
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114) The AV node delay is beneficial because
A) it allows time for the atria to contract.
B) it allows time for the ventricles to contract.
C) it allows time to send feedback to the brain about heartrate.
D) it decreases neural stimulation of the heart.
E) it hyperpolarizes the ventricular cell membranes.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
115) An ECG is used to diagnose all of the following conditions except
A) an AV block.
B) an ectopic pacemaker.
C) angina pectoris.
D) premature atrial contractions.
E) ventricular tachycardia.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
116) The first heart sound ("lubb") is associated with
A) atrial systole.
B) closing of the atrioventricular valves.
C) opening of the atrioventricular valves.
D) closing of the semilunar valves.
E) opening of the semilunar valves.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
117) Considering the left ventricle, why does isovolumetric ventricular contraction occur during
ventricular systole?
A) The ventricle needs to pressurize the blood to close the aortic valve.
B) Ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure so the ventricle cannot eject blood.
C) The bicuspid valve needs time to shut before the ventricle can eject blood.
D) Aortic pressure is higher than ventricular pressure and the ventricle must pressurize the blood
to open the aortic valve.
E) The ventricle is still filling with blood and therefore cannot eject blood during this time.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
31
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118) The phase in the cardiac cycle when the mitral valve is closed and the aortic valve is open is
the
A) atrial systole.
B) early diastolic filling phase.
C) late diastolic filling phase.
D) systolic ejection phase.
E) dicrotic phase.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
119) During ventricular systole, the
A) atria are contracting.
B) blood is entering the ventricles.
C) AV valves are closed.
D) pressure in the ventricles remains constant.
E) pressure in the aorta remains constant.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
120) With each ventricular systole,
A) blood pressure remains steady.
B) the ventricles fill with blood.
C) blood pressure decreases.
D) cardiac output decreases.
E) blood pressure increases.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
121) The contraction phase of the cardiac cycle is called
A) depolarization.
B) systole.
C) diastole.
D) hyperpolarization.
E) asystole.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32
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122) The relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle is called
A) depolarization.
B) systole.
C) diastole.
D) hyperpolarization.
E) asystole.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
123) Abnormal heart sounds caused by turbulent flow through faulty valves are called
A) ectopic foci.
B) murmurs.
C) asystole.
D) fibrillations.
E) flutters.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
124) The backward flow of blood from a ventricle to its atrium or from a outflow vessel to its
ventricle is called
A) emesis.
B) flutter.
C) fibrillation.
D) regurgitation.
E) stenosis.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
125) In mitral valve prolapse, the cusps of the mitral valve are pushed into the
A) left ventricle.
B) right ventricle.
C) left atrium.
D) right atrium.
E) aorta.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
33
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126) The ________ is the amount of blood in a ventricle after it has contracted and before it
begins to refill.
A) ejection fraction
B) end-diastole volume
C) start-diastolic volume
D) end-systolic volume
E) stroke volume
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
127) The ________ is the volume of blood in a ventricle at the beginning of systole.
A) ejection fraction
B) end-diastole volume
C) asystolic volume
D) end-systolic volume
E) stroke volume
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
128) The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle when the semilunar valve closes is the
A) ejection fraction.
B) end-diastole volume.
C) start-diastolic volume.
D) end-systolic volume.
E) stroke volume.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
129) The heart spends most of the cardiac cycle in which phase?
A) atrial systole
B) atrial diastole
C) ventricular systole
D) ventricular diastole
E) isovolumetric contraction
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34
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130) During the beginning of ventricular systole when the muscle is contracting but not enough
pressure has built up to open the semilunar valves the heart is said to be in
A) atrial kick.
B) isovolumetric contraction.
C) isovolumetric relaxation.
D) atrial systole.
E) passive ventricular filling.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
131) When heart rate increases, the time spent in
A) systole increases.
B) diastole increases.
C) all phases decreases but most of the decrease is during systole.
D) all phases decreases but most of the decrease is during diastole.
E) isovolumetric contraction increases.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
132) In an adult at rest, the end-diastolic volume is typically
A) 50 mL.
B) 80 mL.
C) 130 mL.
D) 320 mL.
E) 560 mL.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
133) Which of the following is occurring during ventricular diastole?
A) The ventricles are passively filling.
B) The ventricles are passively filling and atria are contracting.
C) The AV valves are closed.
D) The SL valves are open.
E) Ventricular ejection.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
35
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Figure 20-2 Cardiac Cycle
Use Figure 20-2 to answer the following questions:
134) What occurs at the circle labeled "3" on the graph?
A) atrial systole
B) isovolumetric relaxation
C) atrial diastole and ventricle systole
D) atrial ejection
E) ventricular ejection
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
36
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135) What volume is labeled "G" on the graph?
A) cardiac output
B) stroke volume
C) end-systolic volume
D) end-diastolic volume
E) ejection fraction
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
136) What occurs at "A" on the graph?
A) Semilunar valve opens.
B) Semilunar valve closes.
C) AV valve opens.
D) AV valve closes.
E) end systolic volume
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
137) What volume is labeled "E" on the graph?
A) cardiac output
B) stroke volume
C) end-diastolic volume
D) end-systolic volume
E) total cardiac volume
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
138) What occurs at the circle labeled "5" on the graph?
A) peak systolic pressure
B) isovolumetric systole
C) isovolumetric contraction
D) ventricular refilling
E) increased heart rate
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
37
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139) What occurs at the area labeled "B" on the graph?
A) Ventricular ejection occurs.
B) AV valve closes.
C) Semilunar valve opens.
D) Semilunar valve closes.
E) AV valve opens.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
140) What occurs at the circle labeled "4" on the graph?
A) ventricular ejection
B) sympathetic stimulation
C) isovolumetric ventricular contraction
D) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
E) ventricular filling
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
141) What occurs at the circle labeled "7" on the graph?
A) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
B) sympathetic stimulation
C) isovolumetric ventricular contraction
D) ventricular ejection
E) ventricular filling
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
142) What volume is labeled "F" on the graph?
A) cardiac output
B) end-systolic volume
C) end-diastolic volume
D) total cardiac volume
E) stroke volume
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
38
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143) What occurs at the area labeled "C" on the graph?
A) AV valve opens.
B) AV valve closes.
C) Ventricular filling begins.
D) Semilunar valve closes.
E) Semilunar valve opens.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
144) What is occurring in the left atrium at the circle labeled "2" on the graph?
A) Left atrium is pressurizing the left ventricle.
B) Left atrium is in systole.
C) Left atrial pressure is decreasing.
D) Left atrium is in diastole.
E) Left atrium is receiving pressure from the left ventricle.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
145) An increase in the rate of action potentials from baroreceptors will trigger a reflex to
A) increase heart rate.
B) decrease heart rate.
C) decrease blood pressure.
D) both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure.
E) both increase heart rate and increase pressure.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
146) The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called the
A) end-diastolic volume.
B) end-systolic volume.
C) stroke volume.
D) cardiac output.
E) cardiac reserve.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39
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147) Each of the following factors will increase cardiac output except increased
A) venous return.
B) parasympathetic stimulation.
C) sympathetic stimulation.
D) heart rate.
E) force of contraction.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
148) Which of the following would not increase heart rate?
A) increased sympathetic stimulation of SA node
B) decreased parasympathetic stimulation of nodal fibers
C) increased levels of epinephrine
D) faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential
E) beta blocking drugs
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
149) Stroke volume depends on all of the following factors except
A) end diastolic volume.
B) the contractility of the ventricle.
C) the pressure required to pump blood into the aorta.
D) venous return of blood to the heart.
E) respiratory rate.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
150) Cardiac output can be increased by all of the following except
A) decreasing ejection fraction.
B) decreasing end systolic volume.
C) increasing stroke volume.
D) increasing ejection fraction.
E) increasing heart rate.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
40
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151) Heart rate is controlled by neurons of the cardiovascular center located in the
A) pons.
B) thalamus.
C) medulla oblongata.
D) hypothalamus.
E) higher centers.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
152) Which of the following would cause stroke volume to increase?
A) when venous return is decreased
B) when ventricular contraction is reduced
C) drugs that stimulate beta-1 receptors
D) decrease in heart rate
E) decreased sympathetic stimulation
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
153) Cardiac output is increased by
A) sympathetic stimulation.
B) increased end systolic volume.
C) decreased end diastolic volume.
D) decreased venous return.
E) inhibiting the atrial reflex.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
154) Activation of which kind of receptor causes heart rate to increase?
A) alpha-one
B) beta-one
C) muscarinic
D) beta-two
E) preganglionic
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
41
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155) Drugs that block the beta-one adrenergic receptors will
A) increase heart rate.
B) decrease heart rate.
C) increase contractility.
D) increase cardiac output.
E) decrease the end-systolic volume.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
156) If the force of ventricular contraction increases, what will happen to the end-systolic
volume?
A) increase
B) fluctuate rapidly
C) remain the same
D) decrease
E) reduced to zero
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
157) End-systolic volume is defined as the
A) amount of blood a ventricle ejects per cycle.
B) amount of blood which backflows into a ventricle.
C) amount of blood remaining in an atrium after atrial systole.
D) amount of blood remaining in a ventricle after contraction.
E) stroke volume multiplied by the heart rate.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
158) A patient has an end-diastolic volume of 125 ml. A heart attack has weakened her left
ventricle so it can pump a stroke volume of only 40 ml. Calculate her end-systolic volume.
A) 85 ml
B) 3.1 ml
C) 5000 ml
D) 165 ml
E) There is not enough data given to calculate the end-systolic volume.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
42
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159) Calculate cardiac output if the heart rate is 125 beats/minute, the end-diastolic volume is
130 ml, and the end-systolic volume is 40 ml.
A) 21,250 ml / min
B) 16,250 ml / min
C) 11,250 ml / min
D) 195 ml / min
E) 200 ml / min
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
160) Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with a heart rate of 100 beats/minute and a stroke
volume of 75 ml.
A) 0.75 ml / min
B) 750 ml / min
C) 7500 ml / min
D) 175 ml / min
E) 25 ml / min
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
161) ________ is when the heart can't maintain adequate cardiac output.
A) Heart failure
B) Fibrillation
C) Flutter
D) Murmur
E) Coronary heart disease
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
162) The ________ is the difference between the resting and maximal cardiac output.
A) end-systolic volume
B) end-diastolic volume
C) cardiac reserve
D) stroke volume
E) ejection fraction
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43
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163) The principle that increasing the end-diastolic volume results in a corresponding increase in
the stroke volume is known as
A) afterload.
B) cardiac capacity.
C) cardiac reserve.
D) Frank-Starling principle.
E) expandibility.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
164) The amount of blood returning to the heart is the
A) afterload.
B) stroke volume.
C) end-diastolic volume.
D) cardiac reserve.
E) venous return.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
165) Which factor directly influences preload?
A) contractility
B) heart rate
C) stroke volume
D) venous return
E) parasympathetic tone
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
166) Positive inotropic drugs such as glucagon and thyroid hormone cause
A) decreased heart rate.
B) increased heart rate.
C) increased contractility.
D) decreased contractility.
E) asystole.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
44
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167) Hypertension increases ________ causing stroke volume to ________.
A) afterload; increase
B) afterload; decrease
C) preload; increase
D) preload; decrease
E) contractility; increase
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
168) John encounters a bear while hiking. His heart will respond in all of the following ways
except
A) increasing preload.
B) increasing heart rate.
C) increasing contractility.
D) decreasing heart rate and contractility.
E) increasing venous return.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
169) A tumor on the adrenal gland increasing catecholamine release will cause all of the
following cardiovascular responses except
A) decreased heart rate.
B) increased contractility.
C) increased venous return.
D) increased preload.
E) decreased ESV.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
45
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In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) The ________ side of the heart supplies blood to the systemic circuit, while the ________ side
of the heart supplies blood to the pulmonary circuit. (Figure 20-1)
A) superior; inferior
B) inferior; superior
C) left; right
D) right; left
E) left; superior
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Beginning with the right atrium, what is the order of the valves through which blood will
pass? (Figure 20-5)
A) mitral valve, aortic valve, tricuspid valve, pulmonary valve
B) aortic valve, tricuspid valve, mitral valve, pulmonary valve
C) tricuspid valve, mitral valve, pulmonary valve, aortic valve
D) pulmonary valve, tricuspid valve, aortic valve, mitral valve
E) tricuspid valve, pulmonary valve, mitral valve, aortic valve
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 20-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) What happens to the electrical impulse when it reaches the AV node? (Figure 20-11)
A) It fizzles out.
B) It gets delayed.
C) It gets stronger.
D) It spreads across the purkinje fibers.
E) It causes ventricular contraction to occur.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
4) Which ion's entry causes rapid depolarization? Which ion's entry causes the plateau? Which
ion's exit causes repolarization? (Figure 20-15)
A) sodium; calcium; potassium
B) potassium; calcium; sodium
C) calcium; sodium; potassium
D) sodium; potassium; calcium
E) sodium; iron; potassium
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46
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5) Which division of the autonomic nervous system would increase heart rate? (Figure 20-21)
A) sympathetic nervous system
B) parasympathetic nervous system
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) What is considered a "normal" cardiac output when resting? Please provide units. (Figure 2024)
A) 1-2 L/min
B) 2-5 L/min
C) 5-7.5 L/min
D) 10-12.5 L/min
E) 20-25 L/min
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
Essay Questions
1) A doctor tells her nursing students that it is important to monitor patients' blood pressure when
they are receiving verapamil (a calcium channel blocker). Why?
Answer: Calcium channel blockers inhibit the movement of calcium ions from the interstitial
fluid into cardiac and smooth muscle cells. This would cause a decrease in heart rate, stroke
volume, and cardiac output. These in turn would lower blood pressure. In addition, the calcium
channel blockers would also inhibit contraction of the smooth muscle in the wall of blood
vessels, causing them to get wider and thus also lower blood pressure. Because both heart and
smooth muscle cells are inhibited by verapamil, its effects on blood pressure are particularly
potent.
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
2) A patient's ECG recording shows a very long P-R interval. What is the cause of this abnormal
wave pattern?
Answer: The P wave marks the time of atrial depolarization and the QRS complex signals
ventricular depolarization. Between those two events the AV node was excited and the action
potential was spread through the conducting tissue to the ventricular myocardium. A prolonged
P-R interval signifies an unusually slow conduction through the AV node and conducting
system, possibly due to insufficient blood flow (ischemia).
Learning Outcome: 20-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
47
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3) If a patient's resting cardiac output is 5.6 l/min and on a stress test she elevated her heart rate
to a maximum of 176 beats/min with a stroke volume of 115 ml/beat, what is her cardiac
reserve? Show your work.
Answer: Cardiac reserve equals maximum cardiac output - resting cardiac output.
Maximum CO = HR × SV = 176 beats/minute × 0.115 liters/beat = 20.2 liters/minute.
Cardiac reserve equals 14.6 liters/minute.
Learning Outcome: 20-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
48
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 21 Blood Vessels and Circulation
Multiple Choice Questions
1) The muscular layer in the wall of a blood vessel is the tunica
A) intima.
B) externa.
C) media.
D) interna.
E) adventitia.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Compared to arteries, veins
A) are rounder in a sectional cut.
B) have more smooth muscle in their tunica media.
C) have a pleated endothelium.
D) have thinner walls.
E) hold their shape better when cut.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) Capillaries that have a complete lining are called
A) continuous capillaries.
B) fenestrated capillaries.
C) sinusoidal capillaries.
D) sinusoids.
E) vasa vasorum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) The smallest arterial branches are called the
A) muscular arteries.
B) arterioles.
C) capillaries.
D) venules.
E) veins.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) The layer between the tunica media and the tunica externa in a large artery is the
A) tunica intima.
B) external elastic membrane.
C) tunica media.
D) internal elastic membrane.
E) tunica externa.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) Which of the following layers of a vessel contains collagen fibers with scattered bands of
elastic fibers?
A) tunica intima
B) external elastic membrane
C) tunica media
D) internal elastic membrane
E) tunica externa
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) After blood leaves the capillaries, it enters the
A) arteries.
B) arterioles.
C) capillaries.
D) venules.
E) veins.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) Which layer of a blood vessel contains concentric sheets of smooth muscle tissue?
A) tunica intima
B) external elastic membrane
C) tunica media
D) internal elastic membrane
E) tunica externa
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
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9) The large vessels that return blood to the heart are called
A) arteries.
B) arterioles.
C) capillaries.
D) venules.
E) veins.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) In arteries, the thick layer of elastic fibers associated with the tunica intima is called the
A) tunica intima.
B) external elastic membrane.
C) tunica media.
D) internal elastic membrane.
E) tunica externa.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) Which of the following is the innermost layer of a blood vessel?
A) tunica intima
B) external elastic membrane
C) tunica media
D) internal elastic membrane
E) tunica externa
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12) Venoconstriction ________ the amount of blood within the venous system, which ________
the volume in the arterial and capillary systems.
A) doubles; decreases
B) reduces; increases
C) decreases; doubles
D) increases; reduces
E) reduces; reduces
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
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13) Venous valves are responsible for
A) preventing anterograde flow.
B) channeling blood away from the heart.
C) channeling blood toward the heart.
D) preventing blood from re-entering a ventricle.
E) regulating blood pressure in veins.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
14) Venae cavae are the largest of what type of vessel?
A) artery
B) arteriole
C) capillary
D) venule
E) vein
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) Which of the following vessels changes diameter most readily to local conditions or SNS
stimulation?
A) elastic arteries
B) arterioles
C) fenestrated capillaries
D) venules
E) veins
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
16) Of the following, which is an elastic artery?
A) the subclavian
B) the external carotid
C) the brachial
D) the femoral
E) the ulnar
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) You would expect to find fenestrated capillaries in
A) skeletal muscles.
B) cardiac muscle.
C) the pituitary gland.
D) bone.
E) skin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
18) A sample of tissue displays many large flattened spaces lined by fenestrated endothelium.
Blood moves slowly through these spaces. This tissue sample most likely came from the
A) heart.
B) lungs.
C) liver.
D) kidneys.
E) skin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
19) These vessels may be continuous or fenestrated.
A) arteries
B) arterioles
C) capillaries
D) venules
E) veins
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
20) What structure do RBCs move through single-file?
A) artery
B) arteriole
C) capillary
D) venule
E) vein
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
5
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21) Capillaries with a perforated lining are called
A) perforated capillaries.
B) discontinuous capillaries.
C) fenestrated capillaries.
D) sinuses.
E) vasa vasorum.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22) Exchange between a blood vessel and the cells that surround it can occur only in
A) arteries.
B) arterioles.
C) veins.
D) venules.
E) capillaries.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) Which kind of vessel is also called a resistance vessel?
A) artery
B) arteriole
C) capillary
D) venule
E) vein
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) Blood flow through a capillary is controlled by the
A) vasa vasorum.
B) plexus.
C) precapillary sphincter.
D) thoroughfare channel.
E) venule.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6
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25) The common iliac artery is an example of which type of artery?
A) arteriolar
B) elastic
C) connective
D) muscular
E) vascular
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26) Venoconstriction reduces the diameter of which vessel?
A) artery
B) arteriole
C) capillary
D) venule
E) vein
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27) The brachial and femoral arteries are examples of which type of artery?
A) arteriolar
B) elastic
C) connective
D) muscular
E) vascular
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28) What vessels contain elastic fibers in the walls that are stretched during systole?
A) arteries
B) arterioles
C) capillaries
D) venules
E) veins
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
7
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29) Which of the following is most likely to result from an aneurysm in a brain artery?
A) hypotension
B) quadriplegia
C) stroke
D) myocardial infarction
E) pulmonary embolism
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
30) Complications related to arteriosclerosis account for roughly ________ percent of deaths in
the United States.
A) 30
B) 60
C) 20
D) 50
E) 25
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31) Arteriosclerosis can lead to all of the following except
A) hypertension.
B) stroke.
C) coronary artery disease.
D) myocardial infarction.
E) diabetes.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
32) Which of the following are the smallest venous vessels?
A) large veins
B) venules
C) medium veins
D) arteriovenules
E) venous valves
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8
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33) Blood moves forward through veins because of all of the following except
A) the pressure in the veins is lower than in the arteries.
B) pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein.
C) the respiratory pump.
D) valves in the veins preventing the backward flow of blood.
E) muscular compression.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34) Which part of the vascular system functions as a blood reservoir and contains over 60% of
the body's blood?
A) pulmonary arteries
B) capillaries
C) systemic arterioles
D) veins
E) arteries
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
35) What is the correct order for the sequence of blood vessels that blood would travel in the
systemic circuit, starting at the aorta?
1. venules
2. arterioles
3. capillaries
4. elastic arteries
5. medium veins
6. large veins
7. muscular arteries
A) 6, 5, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4
B) 4, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6
C) 7, 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6
D) 5, 6, 1, 3, 2, 7, 4
E) 2, 7, 6, 3, 1, 5, 6
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
9
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36) The main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the
A) arterioles.
B) venules.
C) veins.
D) arteries.
E) capillaries.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
37) Multiple arteries joined in order to serve a single capillary network are called
A) convergents.
B) arteriole beds.
C) portals.
D) connexons.
E) collaterals.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38) The direct interconnection of two arteries is called an arterial
A) collateral.
B) anastomosis.
C) unification.
D) merger.
E) portal.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39) A(n) ________ is a direct connection between an arteriole and a venule.
A) arteriovenule joint
B) collateralization
C) arteriovenous anastomosis
D) arteriovenule junction
E) arch
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10
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40) The ________ are small blood vessels that nourish tissue components in the wall of large
arteries and veins.
A) tunica capillaria
B) perfusion capillaries
C) vasa vasorum
D) vascular capillaries
E) cortical vessels
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
41) The increase in effective blood volume that results from venoconstriction is the
A) venous reserve.
B) capacitance of veins.
C) vessel mobilization.
D) venous return.
E) vessel residual.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42) In the condition known as ________, the wall of an artery becomes thicker and stiffer.
A) arthritis
B) arteriosclerosis
C) stenosis
D) atherosclerosis
E) multiple sclerosis
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43) The condition known as ________ is characterized by the formation of fatty plaques within
the wall of arteries.
A) arthritis
B) arteriosclerosis
C) stenosis
D) atherosclerosis
E) multiple sclerosis
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11
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44) Points where a muscular artery can be compressed against a bone to control severe bleeding
are called
A) decompression points.
B) palpation points.
C) diastolic points.
D) regulation points.
E) pressure points.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
45) A(n) ________ is a bulge, or weakened wall, of an artery.
A) aneurysm
B) stroke
C) vascular edema
D) arteriosclerosis
E) atherosclerosis
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46) ________ form elaborate capillary networks within tissues that allow for very slow blood
flow.
A) Varicosities
B) Sinusoids
C) Foramina
D) Portal systems
E) Perfusion centers
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
47) After the precapillary sphincter, blood enters a(n)
A) venule.
B) anastomosis.
C) vein.
D) arteriole.
E) thoroughfare channel.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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48) The tunica intima consists of
A) stratified squamous epithelium.
B) simple squamous epithelium and loose connective tissue.
C) smooth muscle and loose connective tissue.
D) simple squamous epithelium and smooth muscle.
E) loose connective tissue.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
49) What are the layers of blood vessels from outside to inside?
A) tunica intima; tunica externa; tunica media
B) tunica intima; tunica media; tunica externa
C) tunica media; tunica externa; tunica interna
D) tunica externa; tunica interna; tunica media
E) tunica externa; tunica media; tunica interna
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
50) What is the difference between elastic arteries and muscular arteries?
A) Elastic arteries have more smooth muscle than muscular arteries.
B) Muscular arteries have larger lumens than elastic arteries.
C) Elastic arteries have elastic fibers throughout the tunica media whereas muscular arteries have
few elastic fibers in the tunica media.
D) Elastic arteries are closest to the arterioles and muscular arteries are farther away.
E) Elastic arteries have a larger tunica intima and tunica media compared to muscular arteries.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
51) Monocytes filled with lipid that attach to the endothelial lining in atherosclerosis are termed
A) lipoproteins.
B) foam cells.
C) Kuppfer cells.
D) fibrocytes.
E) adipocytes.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
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52) Cardiovascular diseases typically affect
A) young children.
B) young women.
C) old men.
D) old men and old women.
E) young men.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
53) What is the primary reason cardiovascular disease affects older women and not younger
women?
A) Older women are less likely to smoke.
B) Older women are less likely to see a doctor.
C) Older women lack estrogen.
D) Older women are more likely to have osteoporosis.
E) Older women lack growth hormone.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
54) A genetic condition that leads to the inability to absorb and recycle cholesterol in the liver is
A) focal calcification.
B) familial hypercholesterolemia.
C) atherosclerosis.
D) arteriosclerosis.
E) coronary artery disease.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
55) Which of the following is not a commonly palpated arterial pressure point?
A) axillary
B) radial
C) brachial
D) femoral
E) popliteal
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14
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56) Which vessel has only the tunica intima layer?
A) artery
B) vein
C) arteriole
D) venule
E) capillary
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
57) In the bone marrow, new blood cells must enter the circulation through
A) arterioles.
B) continuous capillaries.
C) fenestrated capillaries.
D) sinusoidal capillaries.
E) venules.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
58) Anti-angiogenic drugs are being used to decrease tumor growth. These drugs work by
decreasing
A) cell division.
B) cell communication.
C) new blood vessel formation.
D) focal calcification.
E) vascular flow.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
59) Distension of the superficial veins caused by weakened valves is termed
A) hemorrhoids.
B) venoconstriction.
C) vaso vasorum.
D) varicose veins.
E) venous reserve.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15
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60) Resistance is a force that
A) increases blood flow.
B) decreases blood flow.
C) never changes in a blood vessel.
D) acts with pressure to move blood along a vessel.
E) is always higher than blood pressure.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
61) Total peripheral resistance is related to all of the following except the
A) length of a blood vessel.
B) osmolarity of interstitial fluids.
C) turbulence.
D) blood viscosity.
E) blood vessel diameter.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
62) As blood travels from arteries to veins,
A) pressure builds.
B) pressure drops.
C) flow becomes turbulent.
D) viscosity increases.
E) diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
63) Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the
A) level of oxygen at the tissue increases.
B) level of carbon dioxide at the tissue decreases.
C) veins constrict.
D) arterioles dilate.
E) arterioles constrict.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
16
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64) Blood pressure is determined by
A) measuring the size of the pulse.
B) listening carefully to the pulse.
C) estimating the pressure needed to close off an artery with an external pressure cuff.
D) estimating the degree of turbulence in a partly closed vessel.
E) measuring the force of contraction of the left ventricle.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
65) In what vessel is blood pressure the highest?
A) artery
B) arteriole
C) capillary
D) venule
E) vein
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
66) Blood pressure increases with all of the following except increased
A) cardiac output.
B) peripheral resistance.
C) blood volume.
D) parasympathetic innervation.
E) force of cardiac contraction.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
67) Which of the following factors will increase the net filtration pressure to move fluid out of
capillaries?
A) decreased plasma albumin
B) increased blood hydrostatic pressure
C) increased tissue hydrostatic pressure
D) both decreased plasma albumin and increased blood hydrostatic pressure
E) increased plasma albumin and decreased blood hydrostatic pressure
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
17
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68) The main control of peripheral resistance occurs in the
A) artery.
B) arteriole.
C) capillary.
D) venule.
E) vein.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
69) The vascular pressure that declines from roughly 35 mm Hg to about 18 mm Hg is the
A) venous pressure.
B) capillary hydrostatic pressure.
C) diastolic pressure.
D) peripheral pressure.
E) pulse pressure.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
70) Clinically, the term blood pressure usually refers to
A) arteriovenous pressure.
B) capillary hydrostatic pressure.
C) arterial pressure.
D) peripheral pressure.
E) pulse pressure.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
71) Averaged over a few heartbeats, venous return is ________ cardiac output.
A) much higher than
B) somewhat higher than
C) equal to
D) somewhat lower than
E) much lower than
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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72) Blood pressure is lowest in the
A) arteries.
B) arterioles.
C) capillaries.
D) venules.
E) veins.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
73) If blood pressure doubled, the blood flow through a vessel would be
A) doubled.
B) halved.
C) four times greater.
D) 1/4 as much.
E) unchanged.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
74) In which of the following would the blood flow be highest?
A) a vessel 0.5 cm in diameter and 2 meters long
B) a vessel 1.0 cm in diameter and 10 meters long
C) a vessel 0.5 cm in diameter and 4 meters long
D) a vessel 1.0 cm in diameter and 2 meters long
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
75) Each of the following factors would increase peripheral resistance except
A) increased sympathetic stimulation.
B) elevated levels of epinephrine.
C) vasodilation.
D) irregularities in the vessel walls caused by plaques.
E) elevated hematocrit.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
19
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76) If a person has a blood pressure of 120/90, his mean arterial pressure would be ________
mm Hg.
A) 210
B) 100
C) 93
D) 105
E) 90
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
77) The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures is called the ________ pressure.
A) critical closing
B) mean arterial
C) pulse
D) blood
E) circulatory
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
78) The blood colloid osmotic pressure mostly depends on the
A) concentration of plasma sodium ions.
B) concentration of plasma glucose.
C) concentration of plasma waste products.
D) concentration of plasma proteins.
E) number of red blood cells.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
79) Which of the following statements is false concerning the movement of fluid between
capillaries and interstitial space?
A) Blood hydrostatic pressure forces fluid from the capillary to the interstitial space.
B) Blood osmotic pressure moves fluid from the interstitial space to the capillary.
C) The osmotic pressure of the interstitial fluid is less than the blood osmotic pressure.
D) The hydrostatic pressure of the interstitial fluid is largely unimportant in determining fluid
movement.
E) The net filtration pressure is usually zero.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
20
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80) Each of the following changes will result in increased blood flow to a tissue except
A) increased hematocrit.
B) increased vessel diameter.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) decreased peripheral resistance.
E) relaxation of precapillary sphincters.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
81) In comparison to a vessel with a large diameter, a vessel with a small diameter has
A) less resistance to blood flow.
B) the same amount of pressure as resistance.
C) a greater resistance to blood flow.
D) a higher blood pressure.
E) a greater blood flow.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
82) Which of the following equations shows the correct relation between blood flow (F),
pressure (P), and resistance (R)?
A) P = (F × R) × 4
B) F = R/P
C) F = P + R
D) F = P - R
E) F = P/R
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
83) As blood circulates from arteries into capillaries, the total cross-sectional area of capillaries
A) decreases and causes the blood velocity to decrease.
B) is the same as the total cross-sectional area of arteries and blood velocity is equal between
arteries and capillaries.
C) increases and causes the blood velocity to decrease.
D) increases and causes the blood velocity to increase.
E) decreases and causes the blood velocity to increase.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
21
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84) Which of the following is normally the greatest source acting against blood flow?
A) vascular resistance
B) venous pressure
C) viscosity of blood
D) vessel length
E) turbulence
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
85) The force that moves fluid out of capillaries is ________ pressure whereas the opposing
force that moves fluid into capillaries is ________ pressure.
A) systolic; diastolic
B) hydrostatic; colloid osmotic
C) blood; interstitial
D) colloid osmotic; hydrostatic
E) plasma; extracellular
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
86) Some of the fluid that is forced out of capillaries is returned to the blood by the
A) muscular arteries.
B) liver.
C) hepatic portal vein.
D) venules.
E) lymphatic system.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
87) Blood colloid osmotic pressure is produced by
A) large non-diffusible proteins in the blood plasma.
B) a greater salt concentration in blood cells.
C) the force of blood pushing against the vessel wall.
D) osmosis of water.
E) hypertonic solutions separated by a cell membrane.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
22
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88) Blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP) decreases in starving children because
A) starvation increases blood pressure which, in turn, decreases BCOP.
B) starvation increases the permeability of capillaries causing a decrease in BCOP.
C) starvation prevents the liver from producing enough protein to maintain BCOP.
D) malnourished children do not exercise, which results in a decrease in BCOP.
E) This statement is false; BCOP actually increases in starving children.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
89) Calculate the net filtration pressure (NFP) with a blood hydrostatic pressure of 40 mm Hg
and a blood colloid osmotic pressure of 25 mm Hg. Then determine if filtration or reabsorption
occurs.
NFP = ________ and results in a fluid ________.
A) 15 mm Hg; filtration
B) 65 mm Hg; reabsorption
C) 65 mm Hg; filtration
D) 15 mm Hg; reabsorption
E) -15 mm Hg; filtration
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
90) Which of the following opposes the flow of blood back to the heart?
A) vascular resistance
B) peripheral veins have valves to prevent backflow of blood
C) muscular pumps squeeze veins and move blood toward the heart
D) blood pressure
E) blood pressure gradient from arteries to veins
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
91) As blood travels from arteries to veins,
A) viscosity of blood changes.
B) pressure increases.
C) diameter of the blood vessels gets progressively smaller.
D) pressure decreases.
E) flow becomes turbulent.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
23
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92) Edema may occur when
A) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced.
B) capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated.
C) capillary endothelium permeability goes up.
D) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced and capillary endothelium permeability goes
up.
E) the plasma concentration of protein is reduced, capillary hydrostatic pressure is elevated, and
the capillary endothelium permeability goes up.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
93) The resistance to blood flow of the entire cardiovascular system is known as
A) severe combined constriction.
B) vasomotion.
C) vasoconstriction.
D) total peripheral resistance.
E) systemic resistance.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
94) Systemic arterial pressure in an adult at the entrance to the aorta averages
A) 18 mmHg.
B) 35 mmHg.
C) 80 mmHg.
D) 120 mmHg.
E) 93 mmHg.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
95) You can expect children to have lower blood pressures than adults on average because
A) they have fewer blood vessels.
B) their hearts beat less forcefully.
C) their capillaries are leakier.
D) their blood is less viscous.
E) their blood vessel length is less.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
24
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96) Total peripheral resistance is affected primarily by
A) blood vessel diameter.
B) blood vessel length.
C) blood viscosity.
D) venous pressure.
E) turbulence.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
97) All of the following conditions change peripheral resistance by affecting blood viscosity
except
A) sickle-cell anemia.
B) increase in erythropoietin.
C) polycythemia.
D) atherosclerosis.
E) pernicious anemia.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
98) Cross-sectional area is highest in
A) arteries.
B) arterioles.
C) capillaries.
D) venules.
E) veins.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
99) Which of the following is true of arteries compared to other vessels?
A) Blood pressure and velocity are lowest.
B) Blood pressure and velocity are highest.
C) Blood pressure and cross-sectional area are lowest.
D) Blood pressure and cross-sectional area are highest.
E) Velocity and cross-sectional area are highest.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
25
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100) Which of the following is true of capillaries compared to other vessels?
A) Blood pressure and velocity are highest.
B) Blood pressure and cross-sectional area are lowest.
C) Cross-sectional area is highest and velocity is lowest.
D) Cross-sectional area is lowest and velocity is highest.
E) Blood pressure is highest and velocity is lowest.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
101) A temporary loss of consciousness due to a decrease in blood flow to the brain is termed
A) stroke.
B) coronary ischemia.
C) cerebral hypoxia.
D) fainting.
E) cerebral hypotension.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
102) During hemorrhaging, the drop in capillary hydrostatic pressure will ________ NFP, thus
________ reabsorption.
A) increase; reducing
B) increase; increasing
C) decrease; reducing
D) decrease; increasing
E) stabilize; reducing
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
103) Each of the following will lead to a decrease in blood pressure except
A) release of renin.
B) decrease in blood volume.
C) decreased peripheral resistance.
D) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide).
E) decreased levels of aldosterone.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26
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104) Each of the following will cause an increase in blood pressure except
A) increased levels of aldosterone.
B) increased levels of angiotensin II.
C) increased blood volume.
D) increased levels of ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide).
E) increased levels of ADH (antidiuretic hormone).
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
105) When a person rises quickly from a sitting position, all of the following reactions will occur
except
A) the carotid baroreceptors become less active.
B) venous return is decreased.
C) reflex vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels occurs.
D) heart rate is reflexively elevated.
E) cardiac output will decrease.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
106) Stimulation of the aortic baroreceptors reflexively results in
A) stimulation of the cardioaccelerator center in the brain.
B) increased sympathetic stimulation of the heart.
C) increased activity by the parasympathetic nervous system.
D) stimulation of the vasoconstrictive center.
E) increased heart rate.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
107) Fear can result in
A) increased stimulation of the cardioinhibitory center by higher brain centers.
B) increased stimulation of the cardioacceleratory center by higher brain centers.
C) decreased heart rate.
D) decreased blood pressure.
E) parasympathetic stimulation.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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108) Elevated levels of the natriuretic peptide hormones ANP and BNP will produce increased
A) salt and water loss through the kidneys.
B) blood volume.
C) sodium ion levels in blood.
D) venous return and preload.
E) blood pressure.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
109) When carotid and aortic baroreceptors reduce their output,
A) heart rate increases.
B) heart rate decreases.
C) stroke volume increases.
D) both heart rate and stroke volume increase.
E) the heart rate will decrease to lower blood pressure.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
110) Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood will result in decreased
A) heart rate.
B) cardiac output.
C) blood flow to the lungs.
D) parasympathetic stimulation of the heart.
E) sympathetic stimulation of the heart.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
111) Vickie has a tumor that secretes excess amounts of the hormone aldosterone. Because of the
elevated level of hormone, she exhibits
A) decreased blood volume.
B) increased blood pressure.
C) increased body stores of sodium ions.
D) polycythemia.
E) both an increase in blood pressure and an increase in stored sodium ions.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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112) Which of the following conditions is least likely to lead to renin release?
A) renal artery thrombus
B) vasospasm of the renal arteries
C) circulatory shock
D) increased sympathetic activity
E) hypertension
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
113) The regulation of blood flow by local mechanisms within a capillary bed is called
A) autoregulation.
B) hormonal regulation.
C) hemoregulation.
D) vasoregulation.
E) neuroregulation.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
114) Partial constriction due to constant sympathetic stimulation of blood vessels is known as
A) vasoconstriction.
B) vasodilation.
C) arteriosclerosis.
D) vasomotor tone.
E) aortic reflex.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
115) Baroreceptors are located in the
A) carotid sinuses.
B) aortic sinuses.
C) right atrial wall.
D) carotid and aortic sinuses.
E) carotid and aortic sinuses and the right atrial wall.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
29
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116) Which is not an effect of angiotensin II to increase blood pressure?
A) increasing production of aldosterone
B) increasing secretion of ADH
C) increasing atrial natriuretic peptide
D) increasing thirst
E) vasoconstriction increasing total peripheral resistance
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
117) Which of the following changes does not occur during exercise compared to rest?
A) Cardiac output is higher.
B) Heart blood flow is higher.
C) Skin blood flow is lower.
D) Abdominal viscera blood flow is lower.
E) Kidney blood flow is lower.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
118) To defend blood volume against dehydration, the body
A) reduces reabsorption of water at the kidneys.
B) experiences an increase of interstitial fluids.
C) experiences a decrease in the blood colloidal osmotic pressure.
D) releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
E) releases atrial natriuretic peptide.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
119) All of the following occur during exercise except
A) vasodilation occurs at the active skeletal muscles.
B) venous return increases.
C) both cardiac output and stroke volume increase.
D) tissue perfusion to the digestive system decreases.
E) angiotensin II is released.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30
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120) In response to hemorrhage, there is
A) peripheral vasodilation.
B) increased parasympathetic stimulation of the heart.
C) mobilization of the venous reserve.
D) constriction of elastic arteries to maintain blood pressure.
E) increased blood flow to the digestive system.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
121) Homeostatic mechanisms in response to blood loss include all of the following except
A) uptake of interstitial fluid due to reduced capillary pressure.
B) inhibition of EPO secretion.
C) activation of ADH secretion.
D) activation of aldosterone secretion.
E) increased thirst and water intake.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
122) Trained athletes tend to have ________ heart rates and ________ stroke volumes than
nonathletes at rest.
A) higher; higher
B) lower; lower
C) higher; lower
D) lower; higher
E) similar; higher
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
123) Which of these is not a short-term response to a decrease in blood pressure?
A) release of EPO
B) increase in heart rate
C) increase in heart contractility
D) peripheral vasoconstriction
E) release of epinephrine and norepinephrine
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
31
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124) Pulmonary arteries carry blood to the
A) right atrium.
B) left atrium.
C) lungs.
D) aorta.
E) systemic circuit.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
125) The pulmonary veins carry ________ blood to the ________.
A) deoxygenated; left atrium
B) oxygenated; right lung
C) deoxygenated; superior vena cava
D) deoxygenated; right atrium
E) oxygenated; left atrium
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
126) How many pulmonary veins are there?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) it varies
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
127) Branches off the aortic arch include the
A) brachiocephalic trunk.
B) left subclavian artery.
C) left common carotid artery.
D) left subclavian artery and left common carotid artery.
E) brachiocephalic trunk, left subclavian artery, and left common carotid artery.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32
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128) Major branches of the subclavian artery include the ________ artery(ies).
A) radial
B) brachial
C) internal thoracic
D) digital
E) phrenic
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
129) After passing the first rib, the subclavian artery becomes the ________ artery.
A) radial
B) ulnar
C) brachial
D) axillary
E) digital
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
130) After entering the arm, the axillary artery becomes the ________ artery.
A) radial
B) ulnar
C) brachial
D) subclavian
E) digital
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
131) The brachial artery branches to form the radial and ________ arteries.
A) axillary
B) digital
C) ulnar
D) subclavian
E) brachiocephalic
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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132) The two vertebral arteries fuse to form a large artery called the
A) cerebral arterial circle.
B) common carotid artery.
C) external carotid artery.
D) internal carotid artery.
E) basilar artery.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
133) The ________ carries nutrient-rich blood into the liver.
A) hepatic artery
B) gastric vein
C) myenteric capillaries
D) hepatic portal vein
E) superior mesenteric vein
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
134) The internal carotids and the basilar artery are interconnected by an anastomosis called the
A) common carotid artery.
B) basal ring.
C) cerebral arterial circle.
D) external carotid artery.
E) arterial bypass.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
135) Near the carotid sinus,
A) the common carotid divides into an internal and an external branch.
B) the internal carotids fuse with the vertebral arteries.
C) the external carotid forms the internal carotid.
D) veins and arteries anastomose.
E) the aorta gives rise to the common carotids.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34
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136) The ________ divides the aorta into the thoracic aorta and the abdominal aorta.
A) pericardium
B) mediastinum
C) diaphragm
D) peritoneum
E) pleura
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
137) Branches of the thoracic aorta include all of the following except the ________ arteries.
A) basilar
B) superior phrenic
C) esophageal
D) bronchial
E) intercostal
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
138) Near the level of vertebra L4, the aorta branches to form the ________ arteries.
A) common carotid
B) common iliac
C) femoral
D) tibial
E) popliteal
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
139) The external iliac artery branches to form the ________ arteries.
A) radial and ulnar
B) femoral and popliteal
C) femoral and tibial
D) tibial and popliteal
E) femoral and deep femoral
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
35
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140) At the knee, the femoral artery becomes the ________ artery.
A) iliac
B) deep femoral
C) popliteal
D) tibial
E) peroneal
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
141) Branches of the popliteal artery include the
A) femoral artery.
B) anterior tibial artery.
C) iliac artery.
D) dorsalis pedis.
E) plantar arch.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
142) The vessel that receives blood from the head, neck, chest, shoulders, and arms is the
A) internal jugular vein.
B) external jugular vein.
C) superior vena cava.
D) inferior vena cava.
E) coronary sinus.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
143) Veins of the brain empty into
A) coronary sinuses.
B) dural sinuses.
C) the cerebral arterial circle.
D) external jugular veins.
E) vertebral veins.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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144) The superior sagittal sinus collects blood from the
A) heart.
B) lungs.
C) brain.
D) arms.
E) legs.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
145) Which of the following is a deep vein of the forearm?
A) azygos
B) hemiazygos
C) cephalic
D) radial
E) basilic
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
146) The radial and ulnar veins fuse to form the ________ vein.
A) azygos
B) hemiazygos
C) axillary
D) brachial
E) basilic
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
147) At the level of the first rib, the axillary vein becomes the ________ vein.
A) cephalic
B) azygos
C) subclavian
D) innominate
E) external jugular
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
37
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148) The vein that is formed from the fusion of the subclavian with the internal and external
jugulars is the ________ vein.
A) azygos
B) hemiazygos
C) axillary
D) iliac
E) brachiocephalic
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
149) The fusion of the brachiocephalic veins forms the
A) inferior vena cava.
B) superior vena cava.
C) innominate vein.
D) subclavian vein.
E) azygos vein.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
150) Each of the following is a component of the cerebral arterial circle except the ________
artery.
A) anterior communicating
B) anterior cerebral
C) posterior communicating
D) posterior cerebral
E) basilar
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
151) An important artery that supplies blood to the brain is the ________ artery.
A) internal carotid
B) external carotid
C) mental
D) azygos
E) maxillary
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38
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152) Blood from the brain returns to the heart through the ________ vein.
A) vertebral
B) azygos
C) innominate
D) internal jugular
E) external jugular
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
153) Which of the following contributes to the formation of the popliteal vein?
A) internal iliac
B) small saphenous and great saphenous
C) anterior and posterior tibial and fibular
D) peroneal and popliteal
E) great saphenous and posterior tibial
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
154) Blood from capillaries on the superior surface of the foot drains into a(n)
A) plantar vein.
B) dorsal venous arch.
C) small saphenous vein.
D) peroneal vein.
E) iliac vein.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
155) Blood from the dorsal venous arch is drained by the ________ vein(s).
A) small saphenous
B) great saphenous
C) posterior tibial
D) small saphenous and great saphenous
E) posterior tibial and great saphenous
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39
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156) At the knee, the small saphenous, tibial, and fibular veins unite to form the ________ vein.
A) femoral
B) popliteal
C) external iliac
D) internal iliac
E) inferior vena cava
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
157) When the popliteal vein reaches the femur, it becomes the ________ vein.
A) femoral
B) deep femoral
C) internal iliac
D) external iliac
E) lumbar
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
158) The ________ vein is formed by the fusion of the greater saphenous vein, femoral vein, and
deep femoral vein.
A) internal iliac
B) external iliac
C) common iliac
D) inferior vena cava
E) azygos
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
159) Which of the following veins empty directly into the inferior vena cava?
A) left gonadal
B) hepatic portal
C) azygos
D) left adrenal
E) renal
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40
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160) The two common iliac veins form the
A) femoral vein.
B) greater saphenous vein.
C) inferior vena cava.
D) hepatic portal vein.
E) innominate vein.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
161) The blood vessel that carries blood to the arm and shoulder is the ________ artery.
A) axillary
B) subclavian
C) brachial
D) acromial
E) brachiocephalic
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
162) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the head and neck is the ________ artery.
A) brachiocephalic
B) vertebral
C) subclavian
D) common carotid
E) cervical
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
163) The bronchial arteries branch from the ________ to supply the lung airways.
A) pulmonary arteries
B) thoracic aorta
C) pulmonary veins
D) pleural arteries
E) brachiocephalic trunk
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
41
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164) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the liver, stomach, and spleen is the
A) celiac artery.
B) inferior mesenteric vein.
C) hepatic portal vein.
D) gastric vein.
E) superior mesenteric artery.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
165) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the pancreas, the small intestine, and most of the
large intestine is the
A) celiac artery.
B) inferior mesenteric vein.
C) hepatic portal vein.
D) gastric vein.
E) superior mesenteric artery.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
166) The ________ is the kidney's sole blood supply.
A) celiac trunk
B) abdominal aorta
C) hepatic artery
D) renal artery
E) superior mesenteric artery
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
167) The blood vessel that branches from the subclavian artery to supply the anterior wall of the
chest is the
A) internal thoracic.
B) azygos artery.
C) mediastinal artery.
D) thoracic aorta.
E) vertebral artery.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42
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168) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the cerebral arterial circle from the posterior is the
________ artery.
A) basilar
B) middle cerebral
C) vertebral
D) internal carotid
E) posterior cerebral
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
169) The superior phrenic artery supplies blood to the
A) lungs.
B) heart.
C) diaphragm.
D) pharynx.
E) pancreas.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
170) The ________ artery supplies blood to the face.
A) facial
B) vertebral
C) common carotid
D) external carotid
E) internal carotid
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
171) The lower part of the large intestine including the rectum receives blood from the
A) celiac trunk.
B) inferior mesenteric artery.
C) internal iliac artery.
D) abdominal aorta.
E) external iliac artery.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43
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172) Ovaries and testes receive a blood supply from the ________ arteries.
A) gonadal
B) reproductive
C) pelvic
D) pubic
E) internal iliac
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
173) The inferior portion of the spinal cord and the abdominal wall receive blood from the
A) vertebral artery.
B) abdominal aorta.
C) sacral artery.
D) coccygeal artery.
E) lumbar artery.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
174) The larger of the two branches of the common iliac artery is the ________ artery.
A) superficial iliac
B) deep iliac
C) external iliac
D) internal iliac
E) femoral
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
175) The branch of the common iliac artery that enters the pelvic cavity is the ________ artery.
A) superficial iliac
B) deep iliac
C) external iliac
D) internal iliac
E) femoral
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44
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176) The vessels that receive blood from the ovaries or testes are the
A) gonadal veins.
B) reproductive veins.
C) inferior vena cavae.
D) pelvic veins.
E) pubic veins.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
177) Blood is drained from the liver by the
A) inferior vena cava.
B) celiac trunk.
C) hepatic vein.
D) hepatic portal vein.
E) both the hepatic vein and the hepatic portal vein.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
178) The ________ receives blood from the diaphragm.
A) pleural vein
B) phrenic vein
C) inferior vena cava
D) celiac trunk
E) inferior mesenteric vein
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
179) Blood returns from the gallbladder by way of the ________ vein.
A) hepatic
B) hepatic portal
C) biliary
D) cystic
E) azygos
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
45
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180) Arteries that supply the plantar portion of the foot branch from the posterior ________
artery.
A) popliteal
B) femoral
C) calcaneal
D) tibial
E) dorsalis pedis
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
181) The vein in the arm commonly sampled for blood by venipuncture is the ________ vein.
A) cephalic
B) basilic
C) brachial
D) median cubital
E) ulnar
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
182) The ________ vein ascends along the ulnar side of the forearm.
A) cephalic
B) basilic
C) brachial
D) median cubital
E) ulnar
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
183) The ________ vein ascends along the radial side of the forearm.
A) cephalic
B) basilic
C) brachial
D) median cubital
E) ulnar
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46
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184) Blood from the medial border of the stomach is drained by the
A) celiac trunk.
B) gastric vein.
C) superior mesenteric vein.
D) inferior mesenteric vein.
E) inferior vena cava.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
185) Blood is drained from the lower portion of the large intestine by the
A) celiac trunk.
B) gastric vein.
C) superior mesenteric vein.
D) inferior mesenteric vein.
E) inferior vena cava.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
186) Veins from the spleen, pancreas, and lateral border of the stomach unite to form the
A) celiac trunk.
B) hepatic portal vein.
C) splenic vein.
D) gastric vein.
E) superior mesenteric vein.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
187) The ________ collects blood from the entire small intestine and two-thirds of the large
intestine.
A) celiac trunk
B) hepatic portal vein
C) splenic vein
D) gastric vein
E) superior mesenteric vein
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
47
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188) Which of the following arteries is not a trunk?
A) brachiocephalic
B) carotid
C) celiac
D) pulmonary
E) thyrocervical
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
189) The left and right coronary arteries originate at the
A) aortic arch.
B) carotid sinus.
C) brachiocephalic trunk.
D) aortic sinus.
E) aortic valve.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
190) The brachiocephalic trunk delivers blood to
A) the left arm.
B) the right arm.
C) the left arm and neck.
D) the right arm and neck.
E) the right arm, head and neck.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
191) The blood vessel that supplies blood to the muscles and other tissues of the neck, shoulder,
and upper back is the
A) brachiocephalic trunk.
B) common carotid artery.
C) jugular vein.
D) thyrocervical trunk.
E) axillary artery.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
48
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192) The fingers are supplied with blood by the ________ arteries.
A) deep palmar
B) digital
C) superficial palmar
D) plantar
E) dorsalis pedis
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
193) An important pulse point in the neck on the lateral sides of the trachea is the
A) internal carotid artery.
B) external carotid artery.
C) common carotid artery.
D) internal jugular vein.
E) external jugular vein.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
194) Which blood vessel enters the brain through the carotid canal?
A) internal carotid artery
B) external carotid artery
C) common carotid artery
D) internal jugular vein
E) carotid sinus
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
195) The internal carotid artery branches into the
A) ophthalmic artery and anterior cerebral artery.
B) ophthalmic artery and middle cerebral artery.
C) ophthalmic artery, anterior cerebral and middle cerebral arteries.
D) ophthalmic artery, anterior cerebral, middle cerebral, and posterior cerebral arteries.
E) ophthalmic artery and basilar artery.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
49
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196) Which artery is not part of the cerebral arterial circle?
A) anterior communicating artery
B) anterior cerebral artery
C) posterior communicating artery
D) posterior cerebral artery
E) middle cerebral artery
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
197) The most common site of a stroke is the
A) anterior communicating artery.
B) anterior cerebral artery.
C) posterior communicating artery.
D) posterior cerebral artery.
E) middle cerebral artery.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
198) Which of the these blood vessels is not a visceral branch of the thoracic aorta?
A) intercostal arteries
B) pericardial arteries
C) bronchial arteries
D) esophageal arteries
E) mediastinal arteries
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
199) The azygos vein is the major branch of the
A) axillary vein.
B) superior vena cava.
C) inferior vena cava.
D) common iliac vein.
E) jugular vein.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
50
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200) The gluteal, internal pudendal, obturator, and lateral sacral veins fuse to form the
A) femoral circumflex vein.
B) deep femoral vein.
C) internal iliac vein.
D) external iliac vein.
E) common iliac vein.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
201) The largest branches of the inferior vena cava are the
A) lumbar veins.
B) gonadal veins.
C) hepatic veins.
D) renal veins.
E) adrenal veins.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
202) The median cubital vein is located at the
A) anterior surface of the elbow.
B) posterior surface of the elbow.
C) anterior surface of the knee.
D) posterior surface of the knee.
E) posterior surface of the scapula.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
51
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Figure 21-1 Arteries
Use Figure 21-1 to answer the following questions:
203) Identify the artery labeled "16."
A) axillary
B) inferior mesenteric
C) celiac
D) superior mesenteric
E) splenic
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
52
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204) Identify the artery labeled "10."
A) brachiocephalic trunk
B) common carotid
C) subclavian
D) brachial
E) axillary
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
205) Identify the artery labeled "1."
A) axillary
B) brachiocephalic trunk
C) common carotid
D) ascending aorta
E) brachial
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
206) Identify the arteries labeled "9."
A) axillary
B) brachiocephalic
C) common carotid
D) aorta
E) brachial
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
207) Identify the artery labeled "6."
A) common iliac
B) internal iliac
C) external iliac
D) abdominal aorta
E) femoral
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
53
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Figure 21-2 Veins
Use Figure 21-2 to answer the following questions:
208) Identify the vein labeled "9."
A) axillary
B) brachial
C) cephalic
D) basilic
E) median cubital
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
54
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209) Identify the vein labeled "12."
A) cephalic
B) median cubital
C) radial
D) basilic
E) brachial
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
210) Identify the vein labeled "10."
A) inferior vena cava
B) superior vena cava
C) aorta
D) pulmonary
E) thoracic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
211) Identify the vein labeled "8."
A) superior vena cava
B) brachiocephalic
C) axillary
D) external jugular
E) subclavian
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
212) Identify the vein labeled "6."
A) inferior vena cava
B) common iliac
C) internal iliac
D) external iliac
E) femoral
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
55
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213) The developing fetus receives nutrient rich blood through the
A) umbilical artery.
B) placental artery.
C) gonadal artery.
D) umbilical vein.
E) placental vein.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
214) Which of the following is not a cardiovascular modification present during fetal
development?
A) ductus arteriosus
B) ductus venosus
C) foramen ovale
D) ligamentum arteriosum
E) incomplete interatrial and interventricular septa
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
215) Elderly individuals are more prone than younger individuals to have all of the following,
except
A) hypertension.
B) venous thrombosis.
C) increased elasticity of vessel walls.
D) varicose veins.
E) arteriosclerosis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
56
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In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) Which type of blood vessel has (a) the largest lumen and (b) the thickest tunica media?
(Figure 21-2)
A) arteries; veins
B) veins; arteries
C) arteries; capillaries
D) capillaries; arteries
E) veins; capillaries
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 21-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Which of the following would increase vascular resistance? increased vessel length, increased
vessel luminal diameter, turbulence. (Figure 21-7)
A) increased vessel length and increased vessel luminal diameter
B) increased vessel luminal diameter and turbulence
C) increased vessel luminal diameter
D) increased vessel length and turbulence
E) increased vessel length, increased luminal diameter, and turbulence
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 21-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
3) For blood flow to be autoregulated, what types of stimuli signal inadequate local blood flow
and blood pressure? (Figure 21-12)
A) physical stress, chemical changes, and increased tissue activity
B) decreased tissue activity and decreased inflammatory responses
C) blood oxygen levels are high
D) carbon dioxide levels are low and pH is high
E) increased baroreceptor stretch and decreased tissue activity
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 21-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
4) What hormones are released as a short-term response to a decrease in blood pressure and
blood volume? (Figure 21-15)
A) natriuretic peptides
B) erythropoietin
C) epinephrine and norepinephrine
D) aldosterone
E) ADH
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
57
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5) The superficial temporal, maxillary, occipital, facial, and lingual arteries are all branches of
what carotid artery? (Figure 21-21)
A) internal carotid artery
B) common carotid artery
C) external carotid artery
D) carotid sinus
E) transverse carotid artery
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) What veins are shown draining directly into the superior vena cava? (Figure 21-29)
A) right and left common iliac, renal, and adrenal veins
B) right and left subclavian, and right and left jugular veins
C) right and left jugular veins
D) phrenic and hepatic veins
E) right and left brachiocephalic, mediastinal, and the azygos veins
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 21-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
Essay Questions
1) During exercise, the blood flow to the active skeletal muscles is increased by autoregulation.
How does this work? What other controls on blood flow operate?
Answer: When a skeletal muscle becomes more active, it consumes oxygen and nutrients and
releases carbon dioxide, waste products, and potassium ions. One effect of reduced oxygen is to
cause the smooth muscle cells that block capillary blood flow, the precapillary sphincters, to
relax. As these relax, the capillaries open and plasma and red cells can perfuse the active tissue.
After recovery from exercise is complete, gases and metabolites return to normal and blood flow
returns to its resting value. This local mechanism works along with central control of
vasodilation by the sympathetic vasodilator fibers that appear to utilize nitric oxide (NO) as the
transmitter substance.
Learning Outcome: 21-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
2) If a wound overwhelms the clotting mechanism and leads to serious hemorrhage and drop in
blood pressure, what compensations does the body have to maintain cardiac output?
Answer: Acutely, the autonomic nervous system undergoes sympathetic activation. Epinephrine
from the adrenal medulla supports the neural mechanisms. Heart rate and contractility are
increased in trying to maintain cardiac output. Vasoconstriction increases peripheral resistance,
raising blood pressure and redirecting flow to vital internal organs. Simultaneously,
venoconstriction occurs, increasing venous return and forcing extra blood from the venous to the
arterial side of the circulation. The endocrine system releases ADH, angiotensin II, and
aldosterone, which act together to raise blood volume by reducing fluid loss at the kidney.
Learning Outcome: 21-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
58
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3) Compare the hearts of a trained athlete and a nonathlete.
Answer: The athlete's heart will be larger and will have a higher resting stroke volume and a
lower resting heart rate. During maximum activity, stroke volume will be much greater for the
athlete, and cardiac output of the athlete may approach 30 liters/minute compared to 20
liters/minute of the nonathlete. Maximum heart rates will be about the same despite the much
larger cardiac output, due to the larger stroke volume.
Learning Outcome: 21-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
4) Your friend tells you that her baby was dubbed a "blue baby" by hospital staff and that it was
born with a "hole in its heart". Provide an explanation to your friend of this phenomenon.
Answer: A fetus has reduced need for blood flow to the lungs, since the lungs are not yet
functional in terms of gas exchange. A fetal modification called foramen ovale provides a direct
connection between the right and left atria, thereby allowing blood to more directly enter the
systemic circuit. If this bypass persists after birth, there is reduced systemic blood flow which
results in cyanosis.
Learning Outcome: 21-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
59
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 22 The Lymphatic System and Immunity
Multiple Choice Questions
1) The primary function of the lymphatic system is
A) the transport of hormones.
B) circulation of nutrients and dissolved gases.
C) defending the body against both external and internal threats.
D) the production and distribution of plasma proteins.
E) the production and maturation of leukocytes.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) The lymphatic system does all of the following except
A) helps maintain normal blood volume.
B) transports gases to and away from lymph nodes.
C) eliminates variations in the composition of interstitial fluid.
D) transports lipids from the digestive tract.
E) fights infection.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) The lymphatic system is composed of all of the following except
A) lymphatic vessels.
B) the venae cavae.
C) the spleen.
D) lymph nodes.
E) lymph.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) Compared to blood capillaries, lymph capillaries exhibit all of the following except that they
A) have no basement membrane.
B) have only a tunica interna.
C) have walls of endothelial cells that overlap like shingles.
D) are smaller in diameter.
E) are frequently irregular in shape.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) Lymph nodes do all of the following except
A) produce antibodies through B cells.
B) monitor the contents of lymph.
C) remove debris and pathogens from the lymph.
D) accumulate cancer cells.
E) remove excess nutrients from the lymph.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) All of the following are true of the thymus gland except that it
A) activates B cells.
B) reaches its greatest relative size during the second year of life.
C) involutes after puberty.
D) produces T cells.
E) lies in the anterior mediastinum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the
A) right lymphatic duct.
B) thoracic duct.
C) cisterna chyli.
D) hepatic portal vein.
E) dural sinus.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) The medulla of a lymph node contains ________ lymphocytes and macrophages.
A) cytotoxic T
B) medullary
C) NK
D) B
E) cordal
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
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9) ________ are large lymphatic nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx.
A) Tonsils
B) Peyer's patches
C) Lymph nodes
D) Immune complexes
E) Spleens
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) ________ are clusters of lymphatic nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small
intestine.
A) Tonsils
B) Adenoids
C) Peyer's patches
D) Immune complexes
E) Lymph glands
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) The term lymphadenopathy refers to
A) a congenital lack or malformation of lymph nodes.
B) a chronic or excessive enlargement of lymph nodes.
C) accumulations of lymph in the tissue space.
D) the lack of lymphocytes in peripheral circulation.
E) increased numbers of circulating lymphocytes.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12) Areas of the spleen that contain large aggregations of lymphocytes are known as
A) Peyer's patches.
B) adenoids.
C) white pulp.
D) red pulp.
E) lymph nodes.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
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13) Which class of cells is particularly abundant in the red pulp of the spleen?
A) T lymphocytes
B) macrophages
C) B lymphocytes
D) neutrophils
E) Natural Killer cells
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) Lymphatic organs differ from lymphatic tissues in what way?
A) They contain T lymphocytes and lymphatic tissues do not.
B) They are found in the digestive tract and lymphatic tissues are found in the thorax.
C) They are surrounded by a fibrous capsule and lymphatic tissues are not.
D) They cannot produce antibodies, whereas lymphatic tissues can.
E) They occur throughout the body except in the head.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) T Lymphocytes are produced and stored in all of the following except
A) the thymus.
B) lymphatic nodules.
C) lymph node organs.
D) the spleen.
E) the brain.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) Lymphatic capillaries are known for all of the following except
A) being the starting point of the lymphatic circulation.
B) being the smallest lymphatic vessels.
C) having larger diameters and looser walls than blood capillaries.
D) having shingle-like endothelial cells.
E) allowing nutrient and gas exchange.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) The merging of ________ forms the right lymphatic duct.
A) the right jugular, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks
B) the right lumbar, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks
C) two great vessels
D) the thoracic and mediastinal ducts
E) superior and inferior lymphatic ducts
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) Dividing lymphocytes can be found in the ________ of the lymphatic nodule.
A) sinus regions
B) germinal center
C) cortical layer
D) capsular space
E) stroma
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19) Lymphatic vessels begin in peripheral tissues and ultimately drain into
A) veins.
B) peripheral capillary beds.
C) arteries.
D) the kidneys.
E) arterioles.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) Which of the following statements about lymph flow in a node is false?
A) Lymph enters in an afferent lymphatic.
B) Lymph first enters the subcapsular space.
C) Lymph flows past dendritic cells.
D) The efferent lymphatic exits at the hilum.
E) The afferent lymphatic enters at the hilum.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5
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21) Stem cells that can form all types of lymphocytes are concentrated in the
A) circulation.
B) thymus.
C) red bone marrow.
D) spleen.
E) yellow marrow.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22) T cells develop from stem cells in the
A) bone marrow.
B) liver.
C) spleen.
D) thymus.
E) kidneys.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) Lymphatic tissue is found in the greatest quantity in
A) the adult spleen.
B) the adult thymus.
C) bone marrow.
D) the tonsils.
E) Peyer's patches.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) If the thymus shrank and stopped making thymosins, we would expect to see an immediate
decrease in the number of
A) B lymphocytes.
B) NK cells.
C) T cells.
D) neutrophils.
E) red blood cells.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
6
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25) The cell that dominates the deep cortical region of a lymph node is the ________ cell.
A) B
B) T
C) plasma
D) nodule
E) NK
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26) The thoracic duct originates from an expanded chamber called the
A) thoracic sinus.
B) cisterna chyli.
C) thoracic trunk.
D) hilum.
E) thoracic ventricle.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27) The ________ lymphatics leave the lymph node at the hilum.
A) ascending
B) lateral
C) afferent
D) descending
E) efferent
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28) Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals are
A) located primarily in the large intestine.
B) necessary for the transport of dietary lipids.
C) part of the fenestrated capillary group.
D) more numerous than blood capillaries.
E) located throughout the body.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
7
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29) An infection and inflammation of the aggregated lymphatic nodules in the pharynx is called
A) laryngitis.
B) lymph edema.
C) tonsillitis.
D) indigestion.
E) lymphosis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30) An accumulation of lymph in a region where lymphatic drainage has been blocked is called
A) lymphopenia.
B) lymphadenopathy.
C) lymphoma.
D) lymphedema.
E) lymphosis.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31) The primary lymphoid tissues include
A) the bone marrow.
B) the thymus.
C) the bone marrow and thymus.
D) the lymph nodes and tonsils.
E) the bone marrow, thymus, spleen and lymph nodes.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) Which of the following is not a secondary lymphoid tissue or organ?
A) spleen
B) tonsils
C) MALT
D) thymus
E) lymph nodes
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8
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33) Lymphatic capillaries are not found in
A) the digestive system.
B) the skin.
C) cornea of the eye.
D) skeletal muscles.
E) the liver.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34) Large lymphatic vessels have a wall structure most similar to which blood vessel?
A) veins
B) venules
C) capillaries
D) arterioles
E) arteries
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
35) Lymph fluid enters the venous circulation via the
A) right atrium.
B) subclavian veins.
C) brachiocephalic trunks.
D) jugular veins.
E) superior and inferior vena cava.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36) The lymphoid organ that acts like a filter as lymph passes through is
A) appendix.
B) tonsils.
C) adenoids.
D) lymph nodes.
E) thymus.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
9
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37) The blood-thymus barrier is made up of
A) immature T cells.
B) mature T cells.
C) macrophages.
D) plasma cells.
E) epithelial reticular cells.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
Figure 22-1 The Structure of a Lymph Node
Use Figure 22-1 to answer the following questions:
38) Identify the structure labeled "1."
A) efferent lymphatic vessel
B) venule
C) arteriole
D) afferent lymphatic vessel
E) lymphatic nodule
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10
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39) Identify the structure labeled "2."
A) deep cortex
B) capsule
C) subcapsular space
D) trabeculae
E) medullary cord
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40) Identify the structure labeled "3."
A) deep cortex
B) capsule
C) subcapsular space
D) trabeculae
E) outer cortex
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
41) Identify the structure labeled "6."
A) medulla
B) cortex
C) capsule
D) trabeculae
E) cortical sinus
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42) Identify the dominant cell type in the area labeled "6."
A) T cells
B) B cells
C) erythrocytes
D) platelets
E) dendritic
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11
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43) A substance that provokes an immune response is called an
A) immunoglobulin.
B) antihistamine.
C) antibody.
D) antigen.
E) allopath.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44) In general, lymphocytes
A) spend most of their time in lymphatic tissue.
B) have relatively short life spans.
C) have two nuclei.
D) are produced and mature only in red bone marrow.
E) are located primarily in the blood stream.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
45) The cells directly responsible for cellular immunity are the ________ cells.
A) dendritic
B) plasma
C) helper T
D) cytotoxic T
E) suppressor T
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46) The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the ________ cells.
A) NK
B) B
C) helper T
D) cytotoxic T
E) suppressor T
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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47) Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells.
A) plasma
B) B
C) helper T
D) cytotoxic T
E) suppressor T
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
48) Lymphocytes
A) are actively phagocytic.
B) destroy red blood cells.
C) respond to antigens.
D) are primarily found in red bone marrow.
E) decrease in number during infection.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
49) The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are ________ cells.
A) NK
B) plasma
C) helper T
D) thymus
E) liver
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
50) Stem cells that will form B cells or NK cells are found only in the
A) red bone marrow.
B) liver.
C) spleen.
D) thymus.
E) kidneys.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
13
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51) T is to ________ as B is to ________.
A) top-located; bottom-located
B) thymus-dependent; bone marrow-derived
C) thyroid-drawn; bowel-developed
D) non-thymus-dependent; bottom-located
E) trabeculae-descended; bursa-origin
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
52) Which of the following is not a lymphocyte?
A) NK cells
B) plasma cells
C) memory T cells
D) macrophages
E) suppressor T cells
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
53) Sally has a tumor. In an effort to fight the cancerous cells her body increases the production
of
A) neutrophils.
B) NK cells.
C) suppressor T cells.
D) memory B cells.
E) plasma cells.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
54) The body's innate defenses include all of the following except
A) the skin.
B) complement.
C) interferon.
D) inflammation.
E) antibodies.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14
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55) Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection except
A) body hair.
B) epithelium.
C) secretions.
D) complement.
E) basement membranes.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
56) An inflammatory response is triggered when
A) red blood cells release pyrogens.
B) T cells release interferon.
C) mast cells release histamine and heparin.
D) neutrophils phagocytize bacteria.
E) blood flow to an area increases.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
57) The release of endogenous pyrogen (or interleukin-1) by active macrophages would
A) cause inflammation.
B) produce a fever.
C) activate complement.
D) opsonize pathogens.
E) activate antibodies.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
58) Microphages include
A) monocytes.
B) Kupffer cells.
C) neutrophils.
D) eosinophils.
E) both neutrophils and eosinophils.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15
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59) Various types of macrophages are derived from
A) lymphocytes.
B) monocytes.
C) neutrophils.
D) eosinophils.
E) basophils.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
60) Plasma contains ________ special proteins that form the complement system.
A) about 3
B) exactly 10
C) roughly 18
D) exactly 25
E) more than 30
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
61) Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for all of the
following changes that occur during inflammation except
A) redness of the inflamed tissue.
B) chemotaxis of phagocytes.
C) heat of the inflamed tissue.
D) movement of defense proteins and cells into the interstitial space.
E) swelling of the inflamed tissue.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
62) Leslie has a severe sore throat and the lymph nodes in her neck are swollen. This would
indicate that
A) the focus of the infection is the lymph nodes.
B) lymph is not flowing consistently through these lymph nodes.
C) the lymph nodes contain an increased number of lymphocytes.
D) the lymph nodes are actively producing phagocytes.
E) the lymph nodes have increased their secretion of thymosin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
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63) A sample of John's blood shows a high level of pyrogens. This would indicate that John
A) is feeling achy.
B) is producing T lymphocytes.
C) has a sore throat.
D) is running a fever.
E) has swollen lymph nodes.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
64) The effects of activating the complement system include all of the following except
A) destruction of target cell plasma membranes.
B) stimulation of inflammation.
C) inhibition of the immune response.
D) opsonization.
E) chemotaxis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
65) The classic pathway of complement activation begins when the protein C1 binds to
A) the cell wall of bacteria.
B) the plasma membrane of bacteria.
C) two antibodies attached to an antigen.
D) a cell surface antigen.
E) a plasma protein.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
66) The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the ________ cells.
A) NK
B) plasma
C) B
D) helper T
E) suppressor T
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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67) The first line of cellular defense against pathogens are the
A) T cells.
B) B cells.
C) NK cells.
D) phagocytes.
E) plasma cells.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
68) The phagocytic antigen-presenting cells belong to the ________ group.
A) tumor-suppressing
B) complement
C) interferon
D) monocyte-macrophage
E) lymphatic
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
69) Fixed macrophages that are found in the central nervous system are called
A) astrocytes.
B) oligodendrocytes.
C) microglia.
D) Kupffer cells.
E) ventricular macrophages.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
70) ________ are fixed macrophages found in the liver.
A) Astrocytes
B) Oligodendrocytes
C) Microglia
D) Kupffer cells
E) Ventricular macrophages
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18
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71) Free phagocytes found in the air sacs of the lungs are called
A) alveolar macrophages.
B) histiocytes.
C) Kupffer cells.
D) pleurocytes.
E) microglia.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
72) The movement of phagocytes through the capillary wall is called
A) chemotaxis.
B) diapedesis.
C) adherens.
D) transcytosis.
E) diffusion.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
73) The attraction or repulsion of certain cells to chemicals in their environment is called
A) polarity.
B) diapedesis.
C) cytotoxicity.
D) infection.
E) chemotaxis.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
74) Cytokines that make a cell and its neighbors resistant to virus infection are called
A) complement.
B) interferons.
C) interleukins.
D) immunoglobulins.
E) transferrins.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19
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75) An important protein in the activation of the alternative pathway of complement activation is
A) properdin.
B) interferon.
C) histamine.
D) fibrin.
E) C1.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
76) NK cells use ________ to lyse abnormal cells.
A) pyrogen
B) perforin
C) interferon
D) complement
E) phagocytosis
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 20-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
77) Place the following steps of NK cell killing in order.
1. Secretion of perforin
2. Realignment of Golgi apparatus
3. Lysis of abnormal cell
4. Recognition and adhesion
A) 4, 2, 1, 3
B) 2, 1, 4, 3
C) 4, 1, 2, 3
D) 1, 2, 4, 3
E) 1, 4, 3, 2
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
78) Cancer cells can be detected by NK cells when they show
A) interferons.
B) complement proteins.
C) tumor-specific antigens.
D) opsonization.
E) CD4 markers.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20
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79) Interferons
A) prevent viruses from leaving a cell.
B) prevent viruses from entering a cell.
C) bind to viruses and destroy them.
D) interfere with viral replication.
E) reduce macrophage chemotaxis to the infection.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
80) The complement system works closely with and complements the action of
A) interferons.
B) antibodies.
C) pyrogens.
D) phagocytes.
E) microphages.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
81) The end result of the classical and alternative pathways of complement activation is
A) an increase in pyrogen release.
B) release of histamine.
C) activated C3B attached to the cell wall.
D) C1 bound to two antibodies.
E) activation of properdin.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
82) Immunity that is genetically determined and present at birth is called ________ immunity.
A) active
B) natural passive
C) passive
D) auto
E) innate
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
21
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83) Cytotoxic T cells can attack target cells with which of the following chemical weapons?
A) secrete strong acid
B) secrete organic solvent
C) secrete free radicals
D) secrete a cytokine that triggers apoptosis
E) secrete mutant proteins that get incorporated into the target's DNA
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
84) All of the following are characteristics of adaptive defenses except
A) versatility.
B) tolerance.
C) memory.
D) specificity.
E) present at birth.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
85) Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by
A) innate immunity.
B) adaptive immunity.
C) immunological surveillance.
D) skin defenses.
E) fever.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
86) Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called ________
immunity.
A) naturally acquired active
B) naturally acquired passive
C) artificially acquired active
D) artificially acquired passive
E) innate
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22
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87) Immunity that results from antibodies that pass through the placenta from mother to fetus is
called ________ immunity.
A) naturally acquired active
B) naturally acquired passive
C) artificially acquired active
D) artificially acquired passive
E) innate
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
88) In passive immunity, the
A) immune system attacks normal body cells.
B) body is deliberately exposed to an antigen.
C) body receives antibodies produced by other humans.
D) body receives antibodies produced by an animal.
E) body receives antibodies produced by other humans or by an animal.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
89) In an experimental situation, a rabbit is exposed to a viral antigen to which it makes
antibodies. These antibodies are then purified and injected into a human with the same viral
disease. This is an example of
A) innate immunity.
B) active immunization.
C) passive immunization.
D) natural immunity.
E) alloimmunity.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
90) Hormones of the immune system include all of the following except
A) interleukins.
B) interferons.
C) natriuretic factor.
D) thymosins.
E) tumor necrosis factor.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23
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91) ________ cells enable the immune system to respond quickly and robustly if the same
antigen is encountered a second time.
A) Secondary
B) Primary
C) Memory
D) Responder
E) Transponder
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
92) ________ exists when the immune system does not respond to a particular antigen.
A) Immunity
B) Memory
C) Adaptation
D) Tolerance
E) Versatility
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
93) Frank was bitten by a rattlesnake and received anti-venom containing neutralizing
antibodies. Frank received ________ immunity and he ________ long-term immunity as a result.
A) naturally acquired passive immunity; will have
B) artificially acquired passive immunity; will not have
C) artificially acquired passive immunity; will have
D) naturally acquired active immunity; will have
E) naturally acquired active immunity; will not have
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
94) T cells and B cells destroy one antigen without affecting other antigens or normal tissues,
this is termed
A) memory.
B) versatility.
C) tolerance.
D) specificity.
E) antigen processing.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24
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95) Interleukins do all of the following except
A) increase T-cell sensitivity to antigens exposed on macrophage membranes.
B) stimulate B-cell activity, plasma cell formation, and antibody production.
C) stimulate inflammation.
D) elevate body temperature.
E) stimulate collagen synthesis.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
96) The following are steps in the cell-mediated immune response. What is the correct sequence
for these steps?
1. Several cycles of mitosis occur.
2. Antigen is engulfed and presented by a macrophage.
3. Cytotoxic T cells migrate to focus of infection.
4. T cells with specific receptors recognize the antigen.
5. T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells or T memory cells.
6. Cytotoxic T cells release perforin and/or lymphotoxin.
A) 4, 1, 5, 3, 6, 2
B) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3, 6
C) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 6
D) 3, 2, 4, 1, 5, 6
E) 3, 6, 4, 5, 1, 2
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
97) Cells that help regulate the immune response are ________ cells.
A) B
B) plasma
C) helper T
D) cytotoxic T
E) NK
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
98) Suppressor T cells act to
A) suppress antigens.
B) erase memory T cells.
C) limit antigen proliferation.
D) inhibit T and B cell activities.
E) produce antibodies involved in autoimmunity.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
25
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99) When an antigen is bound to a Class I MHC molecule, it can stimulate a ________ cell.
A) B
B) plasma
C) helper T
D) cytotoxic T
E) NK
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
100) Class II MHC molecules are found on which of the following?
A) all body cells with a nucleus
B) red blood cells
C) granulocytes and microphages
D) lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells
E) liver cells and macrophages in the spleen
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
101) When an antigen is bound to a Class II MHC protein, it can activate a ________ cell.
A) plasma
B) helper T
C) NK
D) suppressor T
E) cytotoxic T
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
102) Helper T cells do all of the following except
A) trigger B-cell division, plasma cell maturation, and antibody production.
B) provide a rapid response to a future exposure to the antigen.
C) enhance production of memory and cytotoxic T cells.
D) attract macrophages to the affected area.
E) enhance nonspecific defenses.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26
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103) T cells and B cells can be activated only by
A) pathogens.
B) interleukins, interferons, and colony-stimulating factors.
C) cells infected with viruses, bacteria, or cancer cells.
D) exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane.
E) disease-causing agents.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
104) In order for a lymphocyte to respond to an antigen, the antigen must
A) be phagocytized by the lymphocyte.
B) enter the cytoplasm of the lymphocyte.
C) bind to the DNA of the lymphocyte.
D) bind to specific receptors on the lymphocyte surface.
E) depolarize the lymphocyte.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
105) CD8 markers are to ________ T cells as CD4 markers are to ________ T cells.
A) suppressor; cytoxic
B) cytoxic; helper
C) helper; suppressor
D) NK; cytoxic
E) plasma; NK
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
106) Antigen-presenting cells located in the epithelia of the skin are called
A) keratinocytes.
B) squamous macrophages.
C) germinative cells.
D) dendritic cells.
E) Merkel cells.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27
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107) Hormones that regulate the activity of B cells and T cells and enhance nonspecific defense
are called
A) calcitriol.
B) glucocorticoids.
C) mineralocorticoids.
D) interleukins.
E) immunoglobulins.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
108) Hormones that slow tumor growth are called
A) transferrins.
B) tumor necrosis factors.
C) interferons.
D) radiation agents.
E) chemotherapins.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
109) Martha had a heart transplant. In order to keep her body from rejecting the transplant she
takes
A) aspirin.
B) antacids.
C) immunosuppressive drugs.
D) anti-rheumatic drugs.
E) anti-histamines.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
110) An abnormal cell would be identified by the immune system because it showed
A) Class I MHC proteins.
B) Class II MHC proteins.
C) Class I MHC proteins with an antigen bound.
D) Class II MHC proteins with an antigen bound.
E) a CD3 receptor complex in the membrane.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28
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111) Class II MHC proteins are present in the plasma membrane only when
A) a helper T cell has engulfed an antigen.
B) an antigen-presenting cell has engulfed and is processing an antigen.
C) a virus-infected cell secretes interferons.
D) a cancerous cell gets attacked by NK cells.
E) the body cells are healthy.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
112) A T cell can only become activated after being physically or chemically stimulated by the
abnormal target cell in a process called
A) costimulation.
B) opsonization.
C) sensitization.
D) neutralization.
E) precipitation.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
113) During a primary humoral response to antigens all of the following occur except
A) B cells may differentiate into plasma cells immediately.
B) B cells may undergo several rounds of mitosis before producing plasma cells and memory
cells.
C) antibody levels do not peak until 1 to 2 weeks after the initial exposure.
D) neutrophils invade the surrounding areas, releasing chemotactic substances.
E) the first immunoglobulins to appear in circulation are of the IgM type.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
114) All of the following are true of the secondary response of humoral immunity except that it
A) depends on memory B cells.
B) results in much higher antibody titers than in the primary response.
C) results in much quicker rise in antibody titers.
D) produces more effective antibodies.
E) weakens quickly because memory B cells only survive for a year or two.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
29
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115) All of the following are true of the primary response of humoral immunity except that
A) it depends on antigen triggering the appropriate B cell.
B) it requires B cell differentiation into plasma cells.
C) it depends on memory B cells.
D) circulating antibodies undergo a gradual, sustained rise.
E) it peaks 1 to 2 weeks after the initial exposure.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
116) If the disulfide bonds in IgG were broken, how many peptide chains would be set free?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 1
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
117) The various classes of immunoglobulins are differentiated on the basis of their
A) asymmetry.
B) antigen specificity.
C) light-chain variable segments.
D) heavy-chain constant segments.
E) reactivity.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
118) Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many
viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins are
A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG.
E) IgM.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30
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119) Immunoglobulins that attach to and sensitize mast cells and basophils are
A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG.
E) IgM.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
120) Immunoglobulins that are found on the surface of B cells and that may activate antibody
production are
A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG.
E) IgM.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
121) Immunoglobulins, formed of five subunits, that are the first antibodies to be produced in
response to infection, are
A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG.
E) IgM.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
122) B cells are primarily activated by the activities of
A) antigens.
B) antibodies.
C) helper T cells.
D) macrophages.
E) plasma cells.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31
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123) In IgG, the antigen binding site is formed by the
A) variable segment of the light chain.
B) variable segment of the heavy chain.
C) constant segment of the heavy chain.
D) variable segments of both the light and heavy chains.
E) ionized segment of the light chain and the isotropic segment of the heavy chain.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
124) Which of the following is not a property of an IgG heavy chain?
A) has one constant segment
B) has one variable segment
C) binds one light chain
D) binds antigen at both ends
E) binds complement in the constant region
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
125) Each IgG has ________ binding sites for attachment to antigenic determinants.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) up to 8
E) as many as a 1000
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
126) In a routine examination, some blood is taken and analyzed. The results show a high IgM
titer for the mumps virus but a low IgG anti-mumps titer. This would indicate the person
A) has just recovered from mumps.
B) was recently infected with mumps.
C) is allergic to mumps.
D) is immune to mumps.
E) is relying on passive immunity.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
32
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127) A crime scene investigator found that a biological fluid sample contains a large amount of
IgA-type antibody. This fluid is probably
A) blood.
B) lymph.
C) serum.
D) tears.
E) interstitial.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
128) Another term for antibodies is
A) cytokines.
B) cytosolic factors.
C) interleukins.
D) interferons.
E) immunoglobulins.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
129) The portions of an antigen to which antibodies bind are the
A) active sites.
B) reactive sites.
C) antigenic determinant sites.
D) antibody active sites.
E) antigen activation segments.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
130) A ________ antigen is an antigen with at least two antigenic determinant sites.
A) complete
B) perfect
C) mature
D) paired
E) dipolar
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
33
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131) A measure of antibody level in the plasma is
A) the primary response.
B) the secondary response.
C) antigen concentration.
D) body temperature.
E) the antibody titer.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
132) The process by which antibodies bind to antigenic sites on viruses or toxins, rendering them
incapable of binding to other cells, is called
A) opsonization.
B) activation.
C) agglutination.
D) precipitation.
E) neutralization.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
133) The process by which soluble antigens combine with antibodies to form insoluble immune
complexes is called
A) opsonization.
B) activation.
C) agglutination.
D) precipitation.
E) neutralization.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
134) The process by which antibodies bind to the antigen on the surface of cells, forming large
immune complexes, is called
A) opsonization.
B) activation.
C) agglutination.
D) precipitation.
E) neutralization.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34
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135) The process by which the surface of a microorganism is covered with antibodies and
complement, rendering it more likely to be phagocytized, is called
A) opsonization.
B) activation.
C) agglutination.
D) precipitation.
E) neutralization.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
136) When antigens bind to inactive B cells and are brought into the cell by endocytosis to be
displayed on the Class II MHC proteins this results in ________ of the B cells.
A) activation
B) sensitization
C) co-stimulation
D) cloning
E) division
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
137) Partial antigens that do not cause B cell activation alone are called
A) complete antigens.
B) immunoglobulins.
C) mature antigens.
D) haptens.
E) short chains.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
138) A sensitized B cell typically is not activated until
A) it binds a helper T cell that releases cytokines.
B) it binds a cytotoxic T cell.
C) memory B cells have been cloned.
D) it has cloned plasma cells.
E) antibodies have been produced.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
35
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139) Pregnant women are encouraged to get flu shots so that the maternal ________ can pass
through the placenta to the fetus.
A) IgG
B) IgE
C) IgD
D) IgM
E) IgA
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
140) Anti-A and Anti-B blood typing antibodies are of which class?
A) IgG
B) IgE
C) IgD
D) IgM
E) IgA
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
141) Which is not a way that antigen-antibody complexes may cause elimination of the antigen?
A) opsonization
B) enhancing phagocytosis
C) activation of complement
D) neutralization
E) sensitization
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
142) Newborns gain their immunity initially from
A) early immunizations during routine neo-natal check-ups.
B) contact with viruses and bacteria.
C) antibodies passed across the placenta from the mother.
D) contact with siblings.
E) breast milk.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36
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143) Autoantibodies are
A) produced by activated T cells.
B) produced during an allergic reaction.
C) directed against the body's own antigens.
D) the first step in immunological competence.
E) important in tissue rejection reactions.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
144) Inappropriate or excessive immune responses to antigens are
A) immunodeficiency diseases.
B) autoimmune diseases.
C) allergies.
D) the result of stress.
E) signs of a weak immune system.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
145) The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS
selectively infects ________ cells.
A) B
B) plasma
C) cytotoxic T
D) helper T
E) suppressor T
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
146) Infection with the HIV virus occurs through
A) eating contaminated food.
B) airborne droplets from coughs and sneezes.
C) intimate contact with an infected person's body fluids.
D) casual contact with an infected individual.
E) sharing clothes with an infected individual.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
37
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147) Which of the following is not a characteristic of AIDS?
A) has killed at least 1/2 million people in the United States
B) is spread most often through sexual contact
C) attacks the T helper (CD4) cells
D) is declining worldwide
E) almost always eventually fatal
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
148) Milly has just received a kidney transplant and is taking cyclosporin A to help prevent graft
rejection. This medication is one in a class of drugs known as ________ drugs.
A) anticoagulant
B) antibiotic
C) analgesic
D) retroviral
E) immunosuppressive
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 22-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
149) Stress can affect the immune response in all of the following ways except by
A) inhibiting glucocorticoid release.
B) depressing the inflammatory response.
C) reducing the number of phagocytes.
D) inhibiting interleukin secretion.
E) increasing the level of cortisol.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
150) The term immunological ________ refers to the ability to demonstrate an immune response
upon exposure to an antigen.
A) determination
B) readiness
C) competence
D) potency
E) drive
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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151) In a(n) ________, either the immune system fails to develop normally or the immune
response is blocked.
A) autoimmune disease
B) immunodeficiency disease
C) allergic response
D) cross-reaction
E) agglutination reaction
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
152) When the immune response mistakenly targets normal body cells and tissues, a(n)
________ develops.
A) autoimmune disease
B) immunodeficiency disease
C) allergic response
D) cross-reaction
E) agglutination reaction
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
153) Antigens that trigger allergic reactions are called
A) interferons.
B) microbes.
C) pyrogens.
D) allergens.
E) agglutinins.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
154) The production of autoantibodies generally causes
A) allergic reactions.
B) autoimmune diseases.
C) immunodeficiency diseases.
D) allergic reactions and immunodeficiency diseases.
E) a normal immune response.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39
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155) Immediate hypersensitivity reactions like hay fever may be treated by
A) aspirin.
B) anti-rheumatic drugs.
C) immunosuppressive drugs.
D) antihistamines.
E) interferons.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
156) All of the following are characteristics of anaphylaxis except
A) the first exposure does not always lead to a reaction.
B) IgE antibodies are produced.
C) symptoms include capillary dilation, airway constriction, pain and itching.
D) helper T cells are destroyed.
E) sensitized mast cells and basophils are stimulated upon each exposure to an allergen.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
157) Changes in the immune system that accompany aging include all of the following except
A) T cells becoming less responsive to antigens.
B) fewer cytotoxic T cells responding to infections.
C) decreased numbers of T helper cells.
D) more efficient secondary responses.
E) B cells are less responsive.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40
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In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) What feature do lymphatic vessels share with veins that allows lymph to flow in only one
direction? (Figure 22-3)
A) incomplete basement membrane
B) blunt end tubes
C) thick muscular walls
D) valves
E) endothelial cell inner lining
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) What types of cells are found in the white pulp of the spleen and in the red pulp of the spleen?
(Figure 22-8)
A) lymphocytes; epithelial reticular cells
B) lymphocytes; red blood cells
C) red blood cells; macrophages
D) red blood cells; lymphocytes
E) epithelial cells; endocrine cells
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) Which type of interferon attracts and stimulates NK cells as a way to enhance viral resistance
to viral infection? (Figure 22-12)
A) interferon alpha
B) interferon beta
C) interferon gamma
D) interferon delta
E) interferon omega
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) What type of immunity develops after receiving a vaccine? (Figure 22-17)
A) innate immunity
B) naturally acquired active immunity
C) artificially acquired active immunity
D) naturally acquired passive immunity
E) artificially acquired passive immunity
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 22-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
41
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5) During the primary response, which antibody peaks sooner? During the secondary response,
which antibody level is higher? (Figure 22-25)
A) IgM; IgG
B) IgG; IgM
C) IgD; IgE
D) IgE; IgA
E) IgA; IgG
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) After the appearance of bacteria in the body, which immune cell is present for the shortest
amount of time? (Figure 22-26)
A) neutrophils
B) NK cells
C) macrophages
D) cytotoxic T cells
E) plasma cells
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 22-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
Essay Questions
1) List and briefly describe the components of the lymphatic system.
Answer: The lymphatic system consists of (1) lymph, a fluid that resembles plasma but contains
a much lower concentration of suspended proteins; (2) a network of lymphatic vessels, often
called lymphatics, which begin in peripheral tissues and end at connections to veins; (3) an array
of lymphatic tissues and lymphatic organs such as lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus scattered
throughout the body; and (4) lymphocytes and smaller numbers of phagocytes and other cells
such as dendritic cells.
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2) Explain what MALT is and give a couple of examples? What role does it play in the body's
defenses?
Answer: MALT is an acronym for mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue. It consists of aggregated
lymphatic nodules deep to the mucosa (gut lining) of the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and
reproductive systems. Examples of MALT in the digestive system include Peyer's patches in the
small intestine and the vermiform appendix that is attached where the small intestine joins the
large intestine. These lymphocytes are positioned to detect and neutralize pathogens to enter the
body across the digestive mucosa. Beside these specific defenses, there is also mucus and other
protective secretions.
Learning Outcome: 22-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
42
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3) List and briefly describe the four general properties of adaptive immunity.
Answer: (1) Specificity: The immune response is triggered by a specific antigen and defends
against only that antigen. (2) Versatility: The immune system can differentiate among hundreds
of millions of antigens that it might encounter during a normal lifetime. (3) Memory: The
immune response following the second exposure to a particular antigen is stronger and lasts
longer than before. (4) Tolerance: Some antigens, such as those on your own cells, do not elicit
an immune response.
Learning Outcome: 22-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
4) You are a researcher interested in studying the cytoskeleton. How can you use antibodies to
locate actin- and tubulin-containing structures?
Answer: Since those cytoskeletal components are proteins, it is possible to immunize an animal
with foreign proteins isolated from tissues. For example, a rabbit could be immunized with the
actin and tubulin purified from tissues of the chicken, a very distant relative of the rabbit. Those
antibodies could be purified from the rabbit's blood and then linked to fluorescent tags. When the
cells are exposed to the anti-actin and anti-tubulin antibodies, they will stick to those molecules
in the cell. If different colored dyes were used to tag the antibodies, it would be possible to
localize those cytoskeletal proteins in the same cell.
Learning Outcome: 22-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
43
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 23 The Respiratory System
Multiple Choice Questions
1) The nasal cavity, pharynx, and larynx constitute the ________ portion of the airway.
A) conducting
B) exchange
C) respiratory
D) sinus
E) primary
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) The respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways consists of
A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
B) moist cuboidal epithelium.
C) simple squamous epithelium.
D) ciliated squamous epithelium.
E) stratified squamous epithelium.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) The larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles all make up the
A) upper respiratory tract.
B) lower respiratory tract.
C) internal respiratory tract.
D) alveoli of the respiratory tract.
E) respiratory mucosa.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) The respiratory mucosa consists of
A) epithelium and underlying layer of areolar tissue.
B) dense irregular connective and adipose tissue.
C) ciliated stratified squamous and columnar cells.
D) fibrocartilage and mucous cells.
E) dense regular connective and areolar tissue.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) Tuberculosis results from an infection by the bacterium
A) Clostridium difficile.
B) Staphylococcus aureus.
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D) Vancomycin-resistant streptococcus.
E) Tuberculin plumonae.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) ________ is the most common lethal inherited disease affecting individuals of Northern
European descent.
A) MRSA
B) Congestive heart failure
C) Cystic fibrosis
D) Myasthenia gravis
E) Parkinson's disease
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
7) Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the
A) upper respiratory tract.
B) lower respiratory tract.
C) lungs.
D) alveoli.
E) bronchioles.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) Inhaling through the nostrils is preferred over the mouth because
A) there is less resistance to air flow.
B) it combines olfaction with respiration.
C) it allows better conditioning of the inhaled air.
D) bacteria won't be inhaled from the oral cavity.
E) it dries out the mouth.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
2
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9) Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and has severe breathing difficulties. His problems result
from
A) genetic mutation in cilia production.
B) laryngospasms.
C) thick secretions that are difficult to transport.
D) lack of neural control of respiration.
E) reduced mucus secretions in the trachea.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) The entire array of protective mechanisms in the respiratory system is called the
A) respiratory immunity.
B) macrophage complex.
C) respiratory defense system.
D) acquired respiratory defense.
E) mucus escalator.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) The beating of the cilia of the respiratory passages in the direction of the pharynx forms a(n)
A) debris filter.
B) mucus escalator.
C) respiratory rhythmicity center.
D) smooth slick surface allowing particles to slide.
E) increased surface area for gas exchange.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12) Which of these is not part of the upper respiratory system?
A) larynx
B) pharynx
C) nasal cavity
D) nose
E) sinuses
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
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13) The respiratory portion of the respiratory tract includes the
A) bronchi.
B) trachea.
C) larynx.
D) alveoli.
E) nose.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) An important component of the lamina propria in the upper respiratory system is
A) sweat glands.
B) ceruminous glands.
C) mucus glands.
D) serous glands.
E) smooth muscle cells.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) The nasopharynx transitions into the oropharynx at the level of the
A) hard palate.
B) soft palate.
C) cribriform plate.
D) internal nares.
E) pharyngeal septum.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) The ________ is shared by the respiratory and digestive systems.
A) pharynx
B) esophagus
C) trachea
D) windpipe
E) right mainstem bronchus
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) Which of the following organs is not part of the lower respiratory system?
A) pharynx
B) trachea
C) larynx
D) bronchi
E) alveoli
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) The conchae
A) divide the nasal cavity into a right and a left side.
B) provide an opening into the pharynx.
C) provide a increase in surface area for the sense of smell.
D) create turbulence in the air to trap particulate matter in mucus.
E) provide an opening to paranasal sinuses.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19) Functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following except
A) filtering the air.
B) warming the air.
C) humidifying the air.
D) housing tonsils.
E) housing olfactory receptors.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) The openings to the nasal cavity are the
A) external nares.
B) internal nares.
C) nasal meatuses.
D) nasal conchae.
E) nasal sinuses.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5
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21) The portion of the nasal cavity contained within the flexible tissues of the external nose is the
A) nasopharynx.
B) vestibule.
C) internal chamber.
D) conchae.
E) nasal septum.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22) The nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by the
A) hard palate.
B) soft palate.
C) cribriform plate.
D) internal nares.
E) pharyngeal septum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the
A) larynx.
B) glottis.
C) vestibule.
D) pharynx.
E) trachea.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) The auditory tubes open into the
A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx.
C) laryngopharynx.
D) larynx.
E) nasal cavity.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6
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25) The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the
A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx.
C) laryngopharynx.
D) larynx.
E) nasal cavity.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26) The ________ is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.
A) nasopharynx
B) trachea
C) oropharynx
D) larynx
E) nasal cavity
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
27) Physical damage to the lamina propria of the nasal mucosa is likely to result in
A) epistaxis.
B) nasal congestion.
C) nosebleeds.
D) a deviated septum.
E) epistaxis or nosebleeds.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
28) Which of the following is false about the pharynx?
A) It is shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems.
B) The nasopharynx is superior.
C) The oropharynx connects to oral cavity.
D) The laryngopharynx ends at esophagus opening.
E) Solids, liquids, and gases pass through.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
7
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29) The superior region of the pharynx is called the
A) nasal cavity.
B) nasopharynx.
C) oropharynx.
D) laryngopharynx.
E) superior nasal conchae.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30) The nasal cavity opens into the nasopharynx through a connection known as the
A) oropharynx.
B) nasal meatus.
C) nasal vestibule.
D) internal nares.
E) auditory canal.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
31) Which bone does not form part of the lateral or superior walls of the nasal cavity?
A) maxilla
B) mandible
C) nasal
D) ethmoid
E) sphenoid
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) Air flows between nasal conchae through the
A) dorsum nasi.
B) apex.
C) external nares.
D) nasal vestibule.
E) superior, middle, and inferior nasal meatuses.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8
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33) Accidently sending fluid up out of the nose happens when the ________ fails to close off the
________.
A) epiglottis; larynx
B) epiglottis; nasopharynx
C) soft palate; nasopharynx
D) soft palate; larynx
E) soft palate; oropharynx
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
9
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Figure 23-1 The Upper Airways
Use Figure 23-1 to answer the following questions:
34) What is the function of the structure labeled "5"?
A) help olfaction
B) improve warming of air
C) cause air to swirl within the respiratory passageway
D) prevent food from entering the larynx
E) prevent food from entering the nasopharynx
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
10
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35) Identify the structure labeled "7."
A) internal nares
B) esophagus
C) glottis
D) oropharynx
E) laryngopharynx
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
36) Identify the structure labeled "2."
A) olfactory organ
B) oropharynx
C) nasopharynx
D) internal nares
E) nasal sinus
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
37) What is the function of the structure labeled "8"?
A) forces air into the lungs
B) causes air to swirl within the respiratory passageway
C) prevents food from entering the larynx
D) acts like a supplementary air pump
E) adjusts tension of vocal folds
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
38) Identify the structure labeled "5."
A) pharyngeal tonsil
B) palatine tonsil
C) epiglottis
D) soft palate
E) hard palate
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
11
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39) The larynx contains ________ cartilages.
A) 14
B) 6
C) 9
D) 2
E) 5
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
40) The glottis is
A) the soft tissue that hangs off the end of the soft palate.
B) a flap of elastic cartilage.
C) the opening to the larynx.
D) the opening to the pharynx.
E) part of the hard palate.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
41) The vocal folds are located within the
A) nasopharynx.
B) oropharynx.
C) larynx.
D) trachea.
E) bronchi.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42) The elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the
A) thyroid cartilage.
B) cricoid cartilage.
C) corniculate cartilage.
D) cuneiform cartilage.
E) epiglottis.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12
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43) The largest cartilage of the larynx is the ________ cartilage.
A) thyroid
B) cricoid
C) cuneiform
D) arytenoid
E) epiglottic
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44) The ring-shaped cartilage just inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the ________ cartilage.
A) epiglottis
B) cuneiform
C) corniculate
D) cricoid
E) arytenoid
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
45) The paired cartilages that articulate with the superior border of the cricoid cartilage are the
________ cartilages.
A) cricothyroid
B) innominate
C) cuneiform
D) corniculate
E) arytenoid
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46) A common site to place a tracheostomy tube is through the ligament that connects the cricoid
cartilage to the ________ cartilage.
A) thyroid
B) cuneiform
C) corniculate
D) epiglottic
E) vestibular
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
13
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47) A pair of ligaments covered by laryngeal epithelium that function in sound production are
the
A) intrinsic ligaments.
B) extrinsic ligaments.
C) ventricular folds.
D) vocal folds.
E) intrinsic laryngeal muscles.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
48) Air passing through the glottis vibrates the vocal folds and produces
A) speech.
B) articulation.
C) phonation.
D) whistling.
E) ululation.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
49) The laryngeal cartilage which is not composed of hyaline cartilage is the
A) arytenoid.
B) corniculate.
C) cricoid.
D) epiglottis.
E) thyroid.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
50) An acute infection of the throat that can lead to swelling and closure of the glottis and cause
suffocation is known as
A) laryngitis.
B) laryngospasm.
C) acute epiglottitis.
D) strep throat.
E) acute pharyngitis.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
14
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51) Contraction of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles can
A) move the cricoid cartilage.
B) close the glottis.
C) constrict the trachea.
D) move food from the larynx to the esophagus.
E) assist in breathing during exercise.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
52) Tina is singing a song. At a certain point in the song, she forces a large volume of air out of
the glottis and at the same time increases the tension on her vocal cords. The sound that she
produces is
A) low pitched and loud.
B) high pitched and loud.
C) low pitched and soft.
D) high pitched and soft.
E) medium pitched and soft.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
53) The adult human trachea is about ________ in diameter and contains ________ tracheal
cartilages.
A) 1.0 cm; 15-20
B) 1.0 cm; 10-15
C) 2.5 cm; 15-20
D) 2.5 cm; 40-50
E) 4.5 cm; 60-80
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
54) During a choking episode, most foreign objects are lodged in the ________ bronchus due to
its larger diameter and steeper angle.
A) right primary
B) left primary
C) right lobar
D) left lobar
E) medial
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
15
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55) Which of the following statements about the trachea is false?
A) It is lined by pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
B) Tracheal cartilages prevent tracheal collapse.
C) It contains many mucous glands.
D) It alters its diameter in response to the autonomic nervous system.
E) It is completely wrapped in smooth muscle.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
56) The airway that connects the larynx to the bronchial tree is the
A) trachea.
B) bronchiole.
C) laryngopharynx.
D) alveolar duct.
E) bronchus.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
57) The ________ branch from the trachea at the carina.
A) terminal bronchioles
B) lobar bronchi
C) segmental bronchi
D) primary bronchi
E) alveolar ducts
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
58) The C shape of the tracheal cartilages is important because
A) large masses of food can move through the esophagus.
B) large masses of air can pass through the trachea and thus the bronchi.
C) it facilitates turning of the head.
D) the bronchi are also C-shaped.
E) it permits the trachea to pinch shut prior to sneezing.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16
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59) Primary bronchi are to ________ as secondary bronchi are to ________.
A) main bronchi; lobar bronchi
B) lobar bronchi; segmental bronchi
C) segmental bronchi; lobar bronchi
D) trachea; pharynx
E) lobar bronchi; alveolar ducts
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
60) Roughly ________ terminal bronchioles arise from each segmental bronchus.
A) 1,500
B) 3,000
C) 6,500
D) 10,000
E) 100,000
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
61) Asthma is
A) a collapsed lung resulting from insufficient production of surfactant.
B) due to an excessive stimulation of smooth muscle in bronchioles.
C) an obstructive tumor targeting primarily the terminal bronchioles.
D) characterized by fluid buildup in the alveoli.
E) caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
62) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term bronchiolar smooth muscle?
A) accessory muscle of expiration
B) accessory muscle of inspiration
C) primary muscle of inspiration
D) contraction increases airway resistance
E) affects lung compliance
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
17
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63) The flap-like structure that prevents food from entering the larynx is called the
A) uvula.
B) soft palate.
C) epiglottis.
D) thyroid cartilage.
E) cricoid cartilage.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
64) An elastic ________ ligament and the ________ muscle connect the ends of tracheal
cartilage.
A) tracheal; trachealis
B) anular; trachealis
C) tracheal; anular
D) cricoid; anular
E) cricoid; trachealis
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
65) The ligament bridging the larynx with the trachea is the ________ ligament.
A) cricoid
B) thyrohyoid
C) vestibular
D) cricothyroid
E) cricotracheal
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
66) The thyroid cartilage is also called the
A) vestibular fold.
B) vocal cord.
C) laryngeal prominence.
D) Adam's apple.
E) laryngeal prominence and Adam's apple.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18
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67) Children have slender, short vocal cords so their voices tend to be
A) louder.
B) softer.
C) higher pitched.
D) lower pitched.
E) deeper toned.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
68) JJ is suffering from laryngitis. He will most likely experience which of the following
symptoms?
A) coughing
B) hoarseness
C) sneezing
D) suffocation
E) impaired swallowing
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
69) Primary bronchi enter their respective lungs along with pulmonary vessels, nerves, and
lymphatics at which region?
A) base
B) apex
C) hilum
D) cardiac notch
E) superior lobe
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-3
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19
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70) The following is a list of some airways. What is the order in which air passes through them?
1. lobar bronchus
2. bronchioles
3. alveolar ducts
4. primary bronchus
5. respiratory bronchiole
6. alveoli
7. terminal bronchiole
A) 4, 1, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6
B) 4, 1, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6
C) 1, 4, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6
D) 1, 4, 2, 7, 5, 3, 6
E) 2, 4, 1, 7, 5, 3, 6
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
71) The actual sites of gas exchange within the lungs are the
A) bronchioles.
B) terminal bronchioles.
C) spaces between the parietal and visceral pleura.
D) blood air barrier of the alveoli.
E) interlobular septa.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
72) The blood air barrier consists of
A) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.
B) 1 layer of moist cuboidal epithelium.
C) 2 layers of simple squamous epithelium.
D) stratified squamous epithelium.
E) surfactant cells.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
73) Respiratory function deteriorates as a result of pneumonia because inflammation
A) causes fluids to leak into the alveoli.
B) causes respiratory bronchioles to swell and dilate.
C) causes the lungs to leak air into the thorax.
D) reduces movement of the epiglottis.
E) reduces the size of the pleural cavity.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
20
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74) Surfactant is produced by what cell type in the alveolus?
A) smooth muscle cells
B) pneumocytes Type I
C) pneumocytes Type II
D) pneumocytes Type I and Type II
E) alveolar macrophages
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
75) The condition resulting from inadequate production of surfactant and the resultant collapse
of alveoli is
A) respiratory distress syndrome.
B) COPD.
C) anoxia.
D) pulmonary embolism.
E) pneumothorax.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
76) The interlobular septa divide the lungs into
A) lobes.
B) pulmonary lobules.
C) alveolar sacs.
D) vital capacity and residual volume.
E) visceral pleura and fibrous trabeculae.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
77) The right lung is to ________ as the left lung is to ________.
A) three lobes; two lobes
B) two lobes; two lobes
C) two lobes; three lobes
D) three lobes; three lobes
E) four lobes; three lobes
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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78) The most superior portion of the lung is called the
A) base.
B) apex.
C) cardiac notch.
D) hilus.
E) epipleurium.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
79) A patient with a connective tissue disease experiences increased pulmonary vascular
resistance. Over a period of time, you would expect to observe
A) increased cardiac output from the right ventricle.
B) increased cardiac output from the left ventricle.
C) increased thickness of the right ventricular wall.
D) distension of the pulmonary veins from the right lung.
E) no appreciable changes in heart structure or function.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
80) The resulting pain and inflammation when pleural fluid is unable to prevent friction between
the opposing pleural surfaces is known as
A) pleurisy.
B) pulmonary hypertension.
C) asthma.
D) emphysema.
E) COPD.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
81) Blockage of pulmonary blood flow by a traveling clot or similar obstruction is
A) emphysema.
B) COPD.
C) anoxia.
D) pulmonary embolism.
E) pneumothorax.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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82) Which respiratory organ has a cardiac notch?
A) right lung
B) left lung
C) right primary bronchus
D) left primary bronchus
E) diaphragm
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
83) The ________ fissure separates the lobes of the left lung.
A) lateral
B) longitudinal
C) medial
D) left horizontal
E) oblique
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
84) A unique feature of the left lung is the
A) hilum.
B) carina.
C) primary bronchus.
D) cardiac notch.
E) apex.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
85) The serous membrane that covers the lungs is the
A) visceral pleura.
B) parietal pleura.
C) visceral pericardium.
D) parietal pericardium.
E) visceral peritoneum.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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86) Lung tissue receives oxygen and nutrients from the
A) pleural arteries.
B) pulmonary arteries.
C) pulmonary veins.
D) coronary arteries.
E) bronchial arteries.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
87) The process by which dissolved gases are exchanged between the cells and interstitial fluids
is
A) pulmonary ventilation.
B) external respiration.
C) internal respiration.
D) cellular respiration.
E) breathing.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
88) External respiration involves the
A) movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) diffusion of gases between the interstitial fluid and the external environment.
C) exchange of dissolved gases between the cells and interstitial fluids.
D) binding of oxygen by hemoglobin.
E) utilization of oxygen by tissues to support metabolism.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
89) In which direction does carbon dioxide move during internal respiration?
A) from the blood into the tissue cells
B) from the blood into the lungs
C) from the lungs into the atmosphere
D) from the tissue cells into the blood
E) from the lungs into the blood
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24
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90) Low partial pressure of oxygen in tissues is a condition called
A) asthma.
B) emphysema.
C) hypoxia.
D) ischemia.
E) lung cancer.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
91) The physical movement of air into and out of lungs is termed
A) external respiration.
B) internal respiration.
C) cellular respiration.
D) pulmonary ventilation.
E) gas diffusion.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-6
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
92) The most common unit of measurement for measuring pulmonary pressures is
A) mm Hg.
B) torr.
C) cm H2O.
D) psi.
E) centigrade.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
93) When there is no air movement, the relationship between the intrapulmonary and
atmospheric pressure is that
A) they are equal.
B) intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric.
C) atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary.
D) atmospheric pressure is more than intrapulmonary.
E) intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
25
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94) Boyle's law states that the pressure of a gas is
A) inversely proportional to the volume of its container.
B) always higher in the atmosphere than in the lungs.
C) directly proportional to temperature.
D) inversely proportional to temperature.
E) directly proportional to the volume of its container.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
95) Air moves out of the lungs when the pressure inside the lungs is
A) greater than intraalveolar pressure.
B) less than the pressure in the atmosphere.
C) less than intrapulmonic pressure.
D) equal to the pressure in the atmosphere.
E) greater than the pressure in the atmosphere.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
96) During quiet breathing,
A) only the internal intercostal muscles contract.
B) inspiration involves muscular contractions and expiration is passive.
C) inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions.
D) both inspiration and expiration are passive.
E) both inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
97) What is one atmosphere of pressure?
A) 760 mm Hg
B) 1000 mm Hg
C) 105 mm Hg
D) 45 mm Hg
E) 650 mm Hg
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
26
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98) If the volume of the lungs increases, what happens to the air pressure inside the lungs?
A) It decreases.
B) It increases and possibly damages the lungs.
C) It increases twice the amount of the increase in volume.
D) It remains constant.
E) It increases.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
99) What occurs if intrapulmonic pressure is 763 mm Hg?
A) hyperventilation
B) exhalation
C) pause in breathing
D) apnea
E) inhalation
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
100) During exercise, which of the following contract for active exhalation?
A) rectus abdominis and internal intercostal muscles
B) diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
C) rectus abdominis and diaphragm muscles
D) diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
E) pectoralis major and serratus anterior muscles
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
101) The term ________ describes the result from an injury that permits air to leak into the
intrapleural space.
A) pleurisy
B) pneumonia
C) pneumothorax
D) pulmonary edema
E) emphysema
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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102) Quiet breathing is to ________ as shallow breathing is to ________.
A) eupnea; diaphragmatic breathing
B) eupnea; costal breathing
C) costal breathing; eupnea
D) costal breathing; diaphragmatic
E) diaphragmatic breathing; eupnea
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
103) ________ involves active inspiratory and expiratory movements and calls on accessory
muscles to assist with inhalation, while exhalation involves contraction of the internal intercostal
muscles and sometimes abdominal muscles, too.
A) Eupnea
B) Forced breathing
C) Costal breathing
D) Vital breathing
E) Passive breathing
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
104) ________ is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single
respiratory cycle.
A) Residual volume
B) Expiratory reserve volume
C) Inspiratory reserve volume
D) Tidal volume
E) Inspiratory capacity
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
105) ________ is the amount of air that you can inhale above the resting tidal volume.
A) Residual inhaled volume
B) Expiratory reserve volume
C) Inspiratory reserve volume
D) Enhanced tidal volume
E) Inspiratory capacity
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28
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106) Expiratory movements are produced by contraction of the ________ muscle.
A) scalene
B) diaphragm
C) internal intercostal
D) external intercostal
E) serratus anterior
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
107) When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract,
A) the volume of the thorax increases.
B) the volume of the thorax decreases.
C) the volume of the lungs decreases.
D) the lungs shrink.
E) expiration occurs.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
108) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term external intercostal?
A) accessory muscle of expiration
B) accessory muscle of inspiration
C) primary muscle of inspiration
D) primary muscle of expiration
E) an accessory muscle for both expiration and inspiration
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
109) Increasing the alveolar ventilation rate will
A) decrease the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli.
B) decrease the rate of oxygen diffusion from the alveoli to the blood.
C) increase the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli.
D) decrease the rate of carbon dioxide diffusion from the blood to the alveoli.
E) hardly affect either the partial pressure or diffusion of gases.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
29
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110) Alveolar ventilation refers to the
A) movement of air into and out of the lungs.
B) movement of air into and out of the alveoli.
C) movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.
D) movement of dissolved gases from the blood to the alveoli.
E) utilization of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
111) The function of pulmonary ventilation is to
A) remove carbon dioxide from the blood.
B) supply oxygen to the blood.
C) maintain adequate alveolar ventilation.
D) remove air from dead air space.
E) prevent gas exchange in the bronchioles.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
112) If a patient inhales as deeply as possible and then exhales as much as possible, the volume
of air expelled would be the patient's
A) tidal volume.
B) inspiratory reserve volume.
C) expiratory reserve volume.
D) reserve volume.
E) vital capacity.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
113) ________ = respiratory rate × (tidal volume - anatomic dead space)
A) Vital capacity
B) Respiratory minute volume
C) Pulmonary ventilation rate
D) Alveolar ventilation rate
E) External respiration rate
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
30
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114) Boyle's law of gases states that
A) the pressure and volume of a gas are equal.
B) as the temperature goes up, the pressure goes up.
C) the total gas pressure is equal to the sum of the partial pressures.
D) the concentration of dissolved gas is proportional to its partial pressure.
E) if the volume goes up, the pressure goes down.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
115) As an astronaut is lifted into Earth's orbit, what is the first change to take place in response
to the drop in cabin pressure?
A) increased hematocrit
B) renal hypoxia
C) increased alveolar ventilation rate
D) decreased alveolar PO2
E) decreased hemoglobin saturation
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
116) While playing in an intramural football game, Joe is tackled so hard that he breaks a rib. He
can actually feel a piece of the rib sticking through the skin and he is having a difficult time
breathing. Joe is probably suffering from
A) a collapsed trachea.
B) an obstruction in the bronchi.
C) a pneumothorax.
D) decreased surfactant production.
E) a bruised diaphragm.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
117) Which of the following can be calculated if the tidal volume and respiratory rate are
known?
A) respiratory minute volume
B) inspiratory reserve volume
C) expiratory reserve volume
D) anatomical dead space
E) forced vital capacity
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
31
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118) When the inspiratory muscles relax, the rib cage returns to its original position as a result of
A) exhalation.
B) gravity.
C) elastic rebound.
D) accessory muscle contraction.
E) partial pressure difference.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
119) The ________ of the lungs is an indication of their expandability, how easily the lungs
expand and contract.
A) compliance
B) ventilation
C) volume
D) intrapulmonary pressure
E) cellular respiration
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
120) Use of the accessory respiratory muscles is characteristic of forced breathing, or
A) hyperpnea.
B) eupnea.
C) dyspnea.
D) hypoxia.
E) apnea.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
121) The normal respiratory rate of a resting adult ranges from ________ breaths each minute, or
roughly one for every four heartbeats.
A) 6-10
B) 8-14
C) 10-15
D) 12-18
E) 18-22
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
32
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122) During inhalation, air continues to move into the lungs until
A) the internal pressure is the same is atmospheric pressure.
B) the internal pressure is less than atmospheric pressure.
C) the internal pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure.
D) the compliance of the lung decreases.
E) the lungs recoil.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
123) A condition that increases lung compliance is
A) lung cancer.
B) respiratory distress syndrome.
C) loss of surfactant.
D) emphysema.
E) pneumothorax.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
124) A pneumothorax typically causes
A) COPD.
B) emphysema.
C) atelectasis.
D) loss of surfactant.
E) elevated intrapulmonary pressure.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
125) A typical respiratory minute volume is
A) 1 liter.
B) 2 liters.
C) 500 mL.
D) 6 liters.
E) 10 liters.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
33
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126) Air that remains in conducting passages and doesn't participate in gas exchange is termed
A) vital capacity.
B) minimal volume.
C) residual volume.
D) functional residual capacity.
E) anatomic dead space.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
127) Lungs are held tightly to the wall of the thorax due to
A) the diaphragm and intercostal muscle contractions.
B) tight junctions between the lungs and the thorax.
C) surface tension of the pleural fluid and negative pressure in the cavity.
D) atmospheric pressure pushing on the lungs.
E) pulmonary ligaments that anchor the lungs.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
128) Which pressure remains negative throughout the respiratory cycle?
A) intrapulmonary
B) intrapleural
C) intra-alveolar
D) atmospheric
E) intrapulmonary and intra-alveolar
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
34
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Figure 23-2 Mechanics of Ventilation
Use Figure 23-2 to answer the following questions:
129) Which muscle(s) produce(s) the movement labeled "1"?
A) rectus abdominis
B) internal intercostals
C) external intercostals
D) diaphragm
E) both rectus abdominis and external intercostals
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
130) What is the relationship between the pressures at label "3"?
A) P outside = P inside
B) P outside > P inside
C) P outside < P inside
D) P outside + P inside
E) P outside - P inside
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
131) What pressure will be present in the space labeled "4"?
A) alveolar pressure
B) interpleural pressure
C) subalveolar pressure
D) intrapleural pressure
E) atmospheric pressure
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
35
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132) What is the relationship between the pressures at label "8"?
A) P outside = P inside
B) P outside > P inside
C) P outside < P inside
D) P outside + P inside
E) P outside - P inside
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
133) What produces the movement labeled "2"?)
A) rectus abdominis contracts
B) rectus abdominis relaxes
C) diaphragm contracts
D) diaphragm relaxes
E) diaphragm relaxes and rectus abdominis contracts
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
134) How does the pressure "P4" at label "4" compare to the pressure "P5" at label "5"?
A) P4 is higher than P5 during inhalation and then lower during exhalation.
B) P4 is always higher than P5.
C) P4 is always lower than P5.
D) P4 always equals P5.
E) P4 is lower than P5 during inhalation and then higher during exhalation.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
135) Henry's law states that
A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional.
B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.
C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and
the gas pressure.
D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial
pressures of the gases in the mixture.
E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36
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136) Dalton's law states that
A) gas volume and temperature are directly proportional.
B) gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional.
C) the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and
the gas pressure.
D) in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial
pressures of the gases in the mixture.
E) gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
137) The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood is approximately
A) 40 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 50 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
138) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in venous blood is approximately
A) 40 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 50 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
139) The partial pressure of oxygen in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is approximately
A) 40 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 50 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
37
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140) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the interstitial space of peripheral tissues is
approximately
A) 35 mm Hg.
B) 45 mm Hg.
C) 55 mm Hg.
D) 70 mm Hg.
E) 100 mm Hg.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
141) Each of the following factors affects the rate of external respiration except the
A) PO2 of the alveoli.
B) PCO2 of the blood.
C) thickness of the respiratory membrane.
D) PN2 of the alveoli.
E) solubility of oxygen in plasma.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
142) The partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at sea level is
A) greater than the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest.
B) less than the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest.
C) equal to the partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest.
D) equal to the sum of partial pressures from carbon dioxide and nitrogen.
E) equal to the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in atmospheric air at the top of Mt. Everest.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
143) The partial pressure of carbon dioxide is greatest in
A) venous blood.
B) alveolar air.
C) expired air.
D) inspired air.
E) arterial blood.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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144) A SCUBA diver has been deep underwater and suddenly rises to the surface too fast. Why
does the diver get decompression sickness?
A) Pressure decreases and carbon dioxide rushes into cells.
B) Pressure changes too fast and the carbon dioxide in the blood forms bubbles.
C) Pressure decreases too fast and nitrogen gas in the blood forms bubbles.
D) The gas in the SCUBA tank had too much pressure and rapid ascent forces too much air into
the blood.
E) Pressure increases too fast and too much oxygen enters the blood and forms bubbles.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
145) Which is not a reason gas exchange is efficient at the blood air barrier?
A) Partial pressure differences are substantial.
B) Distance is short.
C) Surface area is large.
D) Gap junctions facilitate fast movement.
E) Gases are lipid soluble.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
146) Total alveolar surface area is reduced in
A) lung cancer.
B) atelectasis.
C) emphysema.
D) pneumothorax.
E) asthma.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
147) Which of the following decreases respiratory efficiency?
A) decreased blood flow
B) increased surface area
C) increased partial pressure gradients
D) increased gas solubility
E) decreased diffusion distance
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
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148) The chloride shift occurs in order to
A) force oxygen out of the blood and into tissues.
B) transport bicarbonate ions into the blood plasma.
C) produce salt for the cytosol of blood cells.
D) produce carbonic acid.
E) pump hydrochloric acid out of gastric cells.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
149) Carbon dioxide and water combine to form
A) hydrochloric acid.
B) oxygen.
C) carbonic acid.
D) carbaminohemoglobin.
E) nitric acid.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
150) When does oxyhemoglobin form during respiration?
A) during external respiration
B) immediately after carbon dioxide enters the blood
C) when the chloride shift occurs
D) during pulmonary ventilation
E) during internal respiration
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
151) At a PO2 of 70 mm Hg and normal temperature and pH, hemoglobin is ________ percent
saturated with oxygen.
A) 10
B) 25
C) 50
D) 75
E) more than 90
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
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152) Most of the oxygen transported by the blood is
A) dissolved in plasma.
B) bound to hemoglobin.
C) in ionic form as solute in the plasma.
D) bound to the same protein as carbon dioxide.
E) carried by white blood cells.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
153) Most of the carbon dioxide in the blood is transported as
A) solute dissolved in the plasma.
B) carbaminohemoglobin.
C) bicarbonate ions.
D) solute dissolved in the cytoplasm of red blood cells.
E) carbonic acid.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
154) Which of the following factors would increase the amount of oxygen discharged by
hemoglobin to peripheral tissues?
A) decreased temperature
B) decreased pH
C) increased tissue PO2
D) decreased amounts of BPG
E) decreased temperature and decreased amounts of BPG
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
155) Each 100 ml of blood leaving the alveolar capillaries carries away roughly ________ ml of
oxygen.
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 50
E) 75
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
41
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156) Under quiet conditions, blood returning to the heart retains about ________ of its oxygen
content.
A) 25 percent
B) 50 percent
C) 75 percent
D) 90 percent
E) 100 percent
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
157) For maximum loading of hemoglobin with oxygen at the lungs, the
A) PCO2 should be high.
B) pH should be slightly acidic.
C) PO2 should be about 70 mm Hg.
D) BPG levels in the red blood cells should be high.
E) PO2 should be as high as possible.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
158) Which of the following statements about the chloride shift is false?
A) It involves a movement of chloride ion into RBCs.
B) It depends on the chloride-bicarbonate countertransporter.
C) It involves a movement of bicarbonate ions into the plasma.
D) It is driven by a rise in PCO2.
E) It causes RBCs to swell.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
159) The percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 38 degrees
centigrade is
A) greater than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43
degrees centigrade.
B) less than the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees
centigrade.
C) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 43 degrees
centigrade.
D) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when the temperature is 20 degrees
centigrade.
E) equal to the percent of oxygen saturation of hemoglobin when BPG levels are high.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
42
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160) Low pH alters hemoglobin structure so that oxygen binds less strongly to hemoglobin at
low PO2. This increases the effectiveness of
A) external respiration.
B) internal respiration.
C) carbon dioxide transport.
D) hemoglobin synthesis.
E) acid-base balance.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
161) Hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is high is
A) greater than hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low.
B) less than hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low.
C) equal to hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when the BPG level is low.
D) equal to hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when pH is low.
E) equal to hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen when pH is high.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
162) Which of these factors does not affect hemoglobin's affinity for oxygen?
A) RBC metabolic activity
B) temperature
C) electrolyte balance
D) the PO2 of blood
E) blood pH
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
163) Factors affecting the release of oxygen from hemoglobin can be visualized by using a
A) spirograph.
B) pulmonary volume chart.
C) respiratory cycle chart.
D) oxygen-hemoglobin saturation curve.
E) blood gas analysis.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
43
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164) If PO2 increases
A) saturation goes down and hemoglobin gives away oxygen.
B) hemoglobin stores oxygen.
C) hemoglobin gives away oxygen.
D) saturation goes up.
E) saturation goes up and hemoglobin stores oxygen.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
165) The effect of pH on hemoglobin saturation is known as the
A) Bainbridge reflex.
B) Bohr effect.
C) pulmonary reflex.
D) respiratory effect.
E) Hering-Breuer reflex.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
166) The most important chemical regulator of respiration is
A) oxygen.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) bicarbonate ion.
D) sodium ion.
E) hemoglobin.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
167) A 10 percent increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the blood will
A) decrease the rate of breathing.
B) double the respiratory rate.
C) decrease pulmonary ventilation.
D) decrease the alveolar ventilation rate.
E) decrease the vital capacity.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
44
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168) The term hypercapnia refers to
A) the cessation of breathing.
B) elevated PCO2.
C) elevated PO2.
D) an increase in pH.
E) labored breathing.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
169) The apneustic centers of the pons
A) inhibit the pneumotaxic and inspiratory centers.
B) provide stimulation to the inspiratory center.
C) monitor blood gas levels.
D) alter chemoreceptor sensitivity.
E) generate the gasp reflex.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
170) All of the following provide chemoreceptor input to the respiratory centers of the medulla
oblongata except the
A) olfactory epithelium.
B) medullary chemoreceptors.
C) aortic body.
D) carotid body.
E) central chemoreceptors.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
171) The normal rate and depth of breathing is established by the ________ center(s).
A) apneustic
B) pneumotaxic
C) DRG and VRG
D) expiratory
E) ventral respiratory
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
45
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172) Prolonged inspirations can result from stimulating the ________ center.
A) apneustic
B) pneumotaxic
C) expiratory
D) baroreceptor
E) chemoreceptor
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
173) The pneumotaxic center of the pons
A) sets the at-rest respiratory pattern.
B) prolongs inspiration.
C) modifies the rate and depth of breathing.
D) suppresses the expiratory center in the medulla.
E) stimulates the dorsal respiratory group.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
174) Higher brain centers that alter the activity of the respiratory centers include all of the
following except
A) cortical association areas.
B) the precentral motor gyrus.
C) the limbic system.
D) the hypothalamus.
E) Broca's center.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
175) The Hering-Breuer reflex
A) functions to increase ventilation with changes in blood pressure.
B) alters pulmonary ventilation when the PO2 changes.
C) alters pulmonary ventilation when the PCO2 changes.
D) protects the lungs from damage due to overinflation.
E) is an important aspect of normal, quiet breathing.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
46
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176) Blocking afferent action potentials from the chemoreceptors in the carotid and aortic bodies
would interfere with the brain's ability to regulate breathing in response to
A) changes in PCO2.
B) changes in PO2.
C) changes in pH.
D) changes in blood pressure.
E) changes in PCO2, PO2, and pH.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
177) Damage to the phrenic nerves would
A) increase respiratory rate.
B) increase the tidal volume.
C) force reliance on costal breathing.
D) result in greater pressure differences between the lungs and the outside air.
E) have little effect on ventilation.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
178) Stimulation of the apneustic center would result in
A) increased respiratory rate.
B) more intense inhalation.
C) a shorter respiratory cycle.
D) less activity in the DRG center.
E) decreased vital capacity.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
179) If the dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the medulla oblongata were destroyed
bilaterally,
A) a person would stop breathing.
B) pulmonary ventilation would increase markedly.
C) the respiratory minute volume would increase.
D) tidal volumes would decrease.
E) alveolar ventilation would increase.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
47
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180) Severing the sensory fibers from the lungs would result in all of the following except
A) less inhibition of the inspiratory center during forced breathing.
B) a drop in tidal volume.
C) potential damage to the lungs due to overinflation.
D) a disappearance of the Hering-Breuer reflexes.
E) less stimulation of the expiratory center during forced breathing.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
181) Which of the following is not a true statement?
A) The DRG primarily controls inspiration.
B) The VRG primarily controls expiration.
C) The DRG functions in forced breathing only.
D) The VRG functions in forced breathing only.
E) The DRG controls external intercostals and the diaphragm.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
182) The ________ inhibit the apneustic centers and promote passive or active exhalation.
A) DRG
B) VRG
C) pheumotaxic centers
D) LRG
E) inspiratory centers
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
183) Information from chemoreceptors travels to the brain via the ________ nerves.
A) trigeminal
B) hypoglossal
C) vagus
D) glossopharyngeal
E) vagus and glossopharyngeal
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
48
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184) The leading cause of death for children under 1 year of age is
A) motor vehicle accidents.
B) falls.
C) cardiac congenital malformations.
D) sudden infant death syndrome.
E) asthma.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
185) Which of the following age-based changes is false?
A) The lungs lose elastic tissue.
B) The lung's compliance changes.
C) Vital capacity increases.
D) Respiratory muscles weaken.
E) Costal cartilages become more flexible.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
186) The obstructive lung disease in which connective tissues are lost, alveolar surfaces are
damaged, and the respiratory surface is reduced is called
A) asthma.
B) bronchitis.
C) emphysema.
D) tuberculosis.
E) pneumonia.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
187) Which of the following are not present prior to birth?
A) Pulmonary arterial resistance is high.
B) Pulmonary vessels are collapsed.
C) Rib cage is compressed.
D) Alveoli are expanded.
E) Lungs and airways contain only a small amount of fluid.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
49
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188) Which of the following changes does not occur at birth when an infant takes his or her first
breaths?
A) Blood flow to the lungs decreases.
B) The resistance in the pulmonary arteries decreases.
C) Changes in blood flow cause the foramen ovale to close.
D) Air enters the alveoli.
E) Gas diffuses across the alveolar-capillary membrane.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
189) One way to improve respiratory performance with age is to
A) eat smaller meals.
B) stop smoking.
C) sleep longer.
D) maintain normal glucose levels.
E) produce less surfactant.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
In-Text Figure Based Questions
1) What type of epithelium lines the conducting portion of the respiratory tract? (Figure 23-2)
A) simple squamous epithelium
B) simple columnar epithelium
C) stratified ciliated columnar epithelium
D) pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
E) stratified squamous epithelium
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) What type of muscle wraps around a respiratory bronchiole and can change the diameter of
the airway? (Figure 23-8)
A) skeletal muscle
B) smooth muscle
C) cardiac muscle
D) voluntary muscle
E) respiratory muscle
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 23-4
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
50
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3) How many lobes does each lung have, and which lung has a cardiac notch? (Figure 23-9)
A) right lung has 2 lobes, the left lung has 3 lobes; the right lung has a cardiac notch
B) right lung has 3 lobes, the left lung has 2 lobes; the right lung has a cardiac notch
C) right lung has 2 lobes, the left lung has 3 lobes; the left lung has a cardiac notch
D) right lung has 3 lobes, the left lung has 2 lobes; the left lung has a cardiac notch
E) both lungs have 3 lobes, the left lung has a cardiac notch
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-5
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) Name the primary muscles of inspiration. (Figure 23-14)
A) internal intercostal muscles and external intercostal muscles
B) diaphragm and internal intercostal muscles
C) diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
D) rectus abdominis and transversus thoracis
E) serratus anterior and rectus abdominus
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5) The inspiratory capacity is a total of what two pulmonary volumes? (Figure 23-16)
A) tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume
B) vital capacity and tidal volume
C) vital capacity and inspiratory reserve volume
D) residual volume and tidal volume
E) inspiratory reserve volume and functional residual capacity
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 23-7
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
6) According to these graphs, more oxygen is released when the pH is (higher or lower) than
normal and when temperature is (higher or lower) than normal. (Figure 23-20)
A) higher; higher
B) lower; lower
C) higher; lower
D) lower; higher
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 23-9
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
51
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7) Inhibition of medulla oblongata chemoreceptors and respiratory muscles has what effect on
respiratory rate, elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and arterial PCO2? (Figure 23-26)
A) increased respiratory rate, increased elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and increased arterial
PCO2
B) increased respiratory rate, decreased elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and decreased arterial
PCO2
C) increased respiratory rate, increased elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and decreased arterial
PCO2
D) decreased respiratory rate, increased elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and increased arterial
PCO2
E) decreased respiratory rate, decreased elimination of CO2 at alveoli, and increased arterial
PCO2
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
Essay Questions
1) What are the primary functions of the respiratory system?
Answer: (1) Provide an extensive area for gas exchange between inhaled air and the circulation;
(2) move air to and from the exchange surfaces of the lungs; (3) protect the respiratory surfaces
from dehydration, temperature changes, and other environmental variations and defend the
respiratory system and other tissues from invasion by pathogens; (4) produce sounds involved in
speaking, singing, or nonverbal auditory communication; (5) direct incoming air to the olfactory
epithelium in support of olfaction; (6) indirectly contribute to regulation of blood volume, blood
pressure, and pH.
Learning Outcome: 23-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Ralph is taking scuba diving classes and is warned not to hold his breath when ascending from
depth but to continuously release air from his mouth. What is the basis of this instruction and
what is the risk if it is ignored?
Answer: When breathing underwater with scuba equipment, gas is supplied by the tank at higher
than atmospheric pressure to overcome the extra pressure imposed by the overlying water.
According to Boyle's Law, during ascent when the pressure falls, the volume of gas contained in
the lungs will expand. If not permitted to escape through the mouth, nitrogen will come out of
solution and form gas bubbles in the joint as well as in the blood stream. A massive air embolism
in the pulmonary arteries could be suddenly fatal.
Learning Outcome: 23-8
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
52
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3) What is hypercapnia? How does it affect respiration? What are common causes?
Answer: Hypercapnia refers to a condition of elevated partial pressure of carbon dioxide. This
rise is detected by chemoreceptors in the aortic and carotid bodies and powerfully stimulates
ventilation through effects on pontine nuclei. Hypercapnia results from increased production as
during exercise or reduced elimination as in reduced alveolar ventilation.
Learning Outcome: 23-10
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
4) A newborn infant is found dead, abandoned by the road. Among the many questions that the
police would like answered is whether the infant was stillborn. How could the medical examiner
tell?
Answer: If the infant had been born alive, his or her first breaths would inflate the alveoli from
the dense condition during fetal development. Thus, the medical examiner would focus on the
lungs. If they are spongy, filled with air, it was a live birth. If not, the infant was stillborn. A
simple test is to place the lungs in water. If they float, they are air-filled.
Learning Outcome: 23-11
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying
53
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Fundamentals of Anatomy and Physiology, 11e (Martini)
Chapter 24 The Digestive System
Multiple Choice Questions
1) Each of the following organs is a component of the digestive tract except the
A) stomach.
B) pharynx.
C) esophagus.
D) bladder.
E) colon.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2) Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?
A) appendix
B) pancreas
C) spleen
D) colon
E) esophagus
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3) Digestion refers to the
A) progressive dehydration of indigestible residue.
B) mechanical breakdown of food.
C) chemical breakdown of food.
D) mechanical and chemical breakdown of food.
E) release of water, acids, enzymes and buffers by organs.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4) Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?
A) mechanical processing
B) absorption
C) secretion
D) ingestion
E) filtration
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
1
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5) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term submucosal plexus?
A) component of mucosa
B) sensory neural network
C) secretes a watery fluid
D) coordinates activity of muscularis externa
E) loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6) Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called
A) segmentation.
B) pendular movements.
C) peristalsis.
D) churning movements.
E) mastication.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7) The lamina propria and mucous epithelium are components of the
A) serosa.
B) adventitia.
C) muscularis mucosa.
D) mucosa.
E) submucosa.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8) Which of the following descriptions best matches the term myenteric plexus?
A) component of mucosa
B) sensory neural network
C) secretes a watery fluid
D) coordinates activity of muscularis externa
E) loose connective tissue layer containing blood vessels
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
2
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9) Contraction of the ________ alters the shape of the intestinal lumen and moves epithelial
pleats and folds.
A) mucosa
B) submucosa
C) submucosal neural plexus
D) muscularis mucosa
E) adventitia
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
10) The ________ are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and
carry nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels.
A) serosa
B) adventitia
C) mesenteries
D) fibrosa
E) lamina propria
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
11) Sensory nerve cells, parasympathetic ganglia, and sympathetic postganglionic fibers can be
found in the
A) mucosa.
B) serosa.
C) adventitia.
D) submucosal neural plexus.
E) lamina propria.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
12) Sandwiched between the layer of circular and longitudinal muscle in the muscularis externa
is the
A) mucosa.
B) submucosa.
C) muscularis mucosa.
D) myenteric plexus.
E) submucosal neural plexus.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
3
Copyright © 2018 Pearson Education, Inc.
13) Large blood vessels and lymphatics are found in the
A) mucosa.
B) submucosa.
C) muscularis.
D) adventitia.
E) serosa.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
14) The layer of loose connective tissue that directly supports the digestive epithelium is the
A) lamina propria.
B) muscularis mucosae.
C) submucosa.
D) submucosal neural plexus.
E) myenteric plexus.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
15) A stratified squamous epithelial lining can be found in all of the following except in the
A) anal canal.
B) esophagus.
C) stomach.
D) oropharynx.
E) oral cavity.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
16) A feature of the digestive tract wall that increases surface area available for absorption is the
A) transitional cells.
B) circular folds.
C) elastic cells.
D) rugae.
E) muscularis mucosa.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
4
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17) The ________ supports all but 25 cm of the small intestine and provides stability and limited
movement.
A) falciform ligament
B) greater omentum
C) mesentery proper
D) lesser omentum
E) diaphragm
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
18) Which of the following contains adipose tissue and provides padding for the anterior and
lateral portions of the abdomen?
A) falciform ligament
B) greater omentum
C) mesentery proper
D) lesser omentum
E) diaphragm
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
19) Which organ is responsible for dehydration and compaction of indigestible materials?
A) small intestine
B) esophagus
C) large intestine
D) stomach
E) anus
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
20) The double-layer sheets of serous membrane that support the viscera are called
A) peritoneal sheets.
B) mesenteries.
C) ascites.
D) the diaphragm.
E) the dorsal and ventral frenulums.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
5
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21) What provides access for blood vessels entering and leaving the liver?
A) falciform ligament
B) greater omentum
C) mesentery proper
D) lesser omentum
E) diaphragm
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
22) All of the following contain mucous cells in the epithelium except the
A) stomach.
B) transverse colon.
C) esophagus.
D) small intestine.
E) large intestine.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
23) The oral mucosa has ________ epithelium.
A) simple squamous
B) stratified squamous
C) pseudostratified
D) stratified columnar
E) transitional
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
24) The greater omentum is
A) the entrance to the stomach.
B) attached to the stomach at the lesser curvature.
C) important in the digestion of fats.
D) a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera.
E) a sheet of mesentery that attaches to the liver.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
6
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25) A disease that attacks and disables the myenteric plexus would
A) increase intestinal motility.
B) decrease intestinal motility.
C) increase gastric secretion.
D) decrease gastric secretion.
E) interfere with both intestinal motility and gastric secretion.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
26) Put the following layers of the digestive tract wall in order from the lumen to the deepest
layer.
1. lamina propria
2. muscularis externa
3. submucosa
4. digestive (mucous) epithelium
5. serosa
6. muscularis mucosae
A) 5, 2, 3, 6, 1, 4
B) 4, 1, 6, 3, 2, 5
C) 4, 6, 3, 1, 2, 5
D) 5, 4, 2, 6, 1, 3
E) 1, 4, 3, 6, 2, 5
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
27) Which accessory organ of the digestive system does not produce any enzymes or digestive
secretions?
A) pancreas
B) gallbladder
C) liver
D) salivary glands
E) teeth
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
28) The movement of nutrients from the digestive tract lumen across the epithelium is called
A) chemical digestion.
B) absorption.
C) secretion.
D) reabsorption.
E) ingestion.
Answer: B
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
7
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29) The process of defecation eliminates
A) a bolus.
B) chyme.
C) feces.
D) ascites.
E) bile.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
30) Becky is experiencing indigestion and pain. The doctor also notes ascites formation in her
abdomen. What is ascites?
A) buildup of bile in the bile duct
B) gallstones blocking the cystic duct
C) inflammation of the appendix
D) buildup of peritoneal fluid in the peritoneal cavity
E) buildup of pancreatic juice in the pancreas
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding
31) The mesocolon is
A) a section of the large intestines between the sigmoid colon and the rectum.
B) a thick mesenteric sheet associated with the small intestines.
C) a ligament that suspends the liver from the diaphragm.
D) a serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity.
E) a mesentery associated with a portion of the large intestine.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
32) Hormones are released from the mucosa layer by these cells?
A) enteroendocrine cells
B) Kupffer cells
C) Paneth cells
D) serous cells
E) mucus cells
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 24-1
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
8
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33) The functions of the oral cavity include all of the following except
A) sensory analysis of material before swallowing.
B) mechanical processing of food.
C) lubrication.
D) absorption of monosaccharides.
E) digestion of carbohydrates.
Answer: D
Learning Outcome: 24-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
34) ________ pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral cavity.
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
E) Six to Ten
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 24-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
35) The ________ gland empties into the oral cavity at the level of the second upper molar.
A) submaxillary
B) submandibular
C) parotid
D) sublingual
E) vestibular
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 24-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
36) A structure that helps prevent food from entering the pharynx prematurely is the
A) uvula.
B) pharyngeal arch.
C) palatoglossal arch.
D) palatopharyngeal arch.
E) epiglottis.
Answer: A
Learning Outcome: 24-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
9
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37) Functions of the tongue include all of the following except
A) mechanical processing of food.
B) manipulation of food.
C) sensory analysis of food.
D) aiding in speech.
E) partitioning the oropharynx from the nasopharynx.
Answer: E
Learning Outcome: 24-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
38) The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized matrix similar to that of bone called
A) enamel.
B) cement.
C) dentin.
D) pulp.
E) periodontium.
Answer: C
Learning Outcome: 24-2
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering
39) The part of a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves is the
A) enamel.
B) cement.
C) dentin.
D) pulp cavity.
E) periodontium.
Answer: D