POWER PLANT ENGINEERING
HYDROELECTRIC PLANT, FLUID MACHINERIES, FLUID MECHANICS
1. This is a type of reaction turbine usually with typical spiral casing where water enters the
runner radially at its outer periphery and changes direction (imparting energy to the runner)
while flowing along the complex-shaped profiles to discharge axially. It is the most widely
used type of hydraulic turbine for modern power generation purposes.
a. Pelton Turbine
b. Turgo Turbine
c. Francis Turbine d. Kaplan Turbine
2. It is an expanding tube connecting the outlet passage of a turbine with the tail water.
a. Draft Tube
b. Penstock
c. Forebay
d. Surge Chamber
3. It is a hydroelectric plant in which excess
peak period and the stored water will be
period to meet the peak demand.
a. Run-of-River Plant
b. Storage Plant
water is pumped to an elevated space during offused to drive hydraulic turbines during the peak
c. Pumped Storage Plant
d. None of the above
4. It is a channel that conducts water away from the turbine.
a. Headrace Pipe
b. Penstock
c. Forebay
d. Tailrace
5. This is a grid or screen composed of parallel bars to catch floating debris. It prevents leaves,
branches, and other water contaminants from entering the penstock.
a. Surge tank
b. Butterfly valve
c. Trash Rack
d. Weir
6. It is the term used that refers to water in the reservoir.
a. Headwater
b. Tailwater
c. Discharge
d. Stored water
7. This is a propeller- type reaction turbine with both adjustable guide vanes and runner blades.
a. Kaplan Turbine b. Turgo Turbine
c. Pelton Turbine
d. Cross-flow
8. It is basically hydroelectric power utilizing the difference in elevation between high and low
tide to produce energy.
a. Water power
b. Fluid Power
c. Tidal Power
d. Wave Power
9. The power output of this plant depends on the water flow in the river; at low river flows the
output decreases accordingly.
a. Pumped Storage Plant b. Storage Plant
c. Run-of-River Plant d. All of the above
10. The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a dam.
a. Forebay
b. Penstock
c. Draft tube
d. Tailrace
11. A kind of fluid flow where in the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the paths of
individual particles do not cross or intersect.
a. Turbulent flow
b. Critical flow
c. Laminar flow
d. Steady flow
12. It conducts the water around the turbine.
a. Spiral casing
`b. Wicket gate
c. Draft tube
d. Governor
13. These are movable vertical vanes that are actuated by the governor to control the flow of water
and therefore the energy supplied to the runner.
a. Spillway
b. Headrace pipe
c. Runner
d. Wicket gate
14. The speed of a hypothetical model turbine having the same configuration as the actual turbine,
when the model would be of the proper size to develop 1 hp at a head of 1 ft.
a. Synchronous speed b. Runaway speed c. Specific speed
d. Turbine speed
15. The difference in elevation between the headwater and the tailwater or tailrace.
a. Dynamic head
b. Gross head
c. Net head
d. Effective head
16. The ratio of the effective head to the gross head.
a. Mechanical efficiency
c. Hydraulic efficiency
b. Penstock efficiency
d. Volumetric efficiency
17. The ratio of the head utilized to the effective head.
a. Mechanical efficiency
c. Hydraulic efficiency
b. Penstock efficiency
d. Volumetric efficiency
18. Heads between 70 and 800 ft generally indicate this type of turbine.
a. Impulse turbine
b. Reaction turbine c. Propeller turbine d. Pelton turbine
19. Heads below about 70 ft call for this type of turbine.
a. Impulse turbine
b. Reaction turbine c. Propeller turbine d. Pelton turbine
20. The functions of this hydraulic turbine part are: (1) It enables the turbine to be set above the
tailwater level without losing any head thereby. and (2) It reduces the head loss at submerged
discharge to increase the net head available to the turbine runner.
a. Spiral casing
b. Wicket gate
c. Draft tube
d. Butterfly valve
21. It is a tank with free surface provided at the transition from the low-pressure headrace or
tunnel to the penstock. It protects the headrace pipe or tunnel from excessive changes in
pressure and supplying or storing water as required.
a. Surge tank
b. Butterfly valve
c. Draft tube
d. Spillway
22. The rotating part of the turbine where the water imparts its energy onto the turbine shaft.
a. Runner
b. Impeller
c. Flywheel
d. Lobe
23. The formation and collapse of vapor bubbles that occurs when the pump inlet suction pressure
falls to or below the vapor pressure of the liquid is called
a. Priming
c. Foaming
b. Cavitation
d. Net positive suction head
24. A property of lubricating oil that measures the thickness of the oil and will help determine how
long oil will flow at a given temperature is known as ________________.
a. Pour point
b. Relative density
c. Flash Point
d. Viscosity
25. A flow at low Reynold’s number with smooth steam lines and shear and conduction effects
owing entirely to the fluids molecular viscosity and conductivity.
a. Turbulent
b. Critical
c. Laminar
d. Non-viscous
26. Flow of water in a pipe has a velocity at 10 meters per second. Determine the velocity head of
the water.
a. 50.1 meters
b. 5.10 meters
c. 8.20 meters
d. 100 meters
Solution:
Velocity head = V2/2g = (10)2 / (2)(9.8066) = 5.099 m
27. The fact that the buoyant force on a floating object is equal to the weight of displaced liquid is
known as
a. Bernoulli’s theorem
c. Archimedes’ principle
b. Continuity equation
d. Law of Conservation of mass
28. The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid loop is to
a. add energy to the flow
c. add mass to the flow
b. extract energy from the flow
d. none of the above
29. It connects the turbine outlet to the tailwater so that the turbine can be set above the tailwater
level.
a. draft tube
b. surge chamber
c. penstock
d. spillway
30. It provides an efficient and safe means of releasing flow water that exceeds the design capacity
of the dam.
a. draft tube
b. surge chamber
c. penstock
d. spillway
31. The power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid against a given head with no losses in
the pump is called:
a. brake power
b. indicated power
c. hydraulic power d. none of the above
32. The velocity of fluid is zero at the wall and maximum at the center because of the
a. velocity effect
c. viscous effect
b. temperature effect
d. none of the above
33. The work termed for pumps, compressors, fans and blowers is negative since work
a. done by the fluid
c. done on the fluid
b. rejected by the fluid
d. none of the above
34. This is a type of water turbine where a jet of water is made to fall on the blades or buckets and
due to the impulse of water the turbine will start moving.
a. Steam turbine
b. Reaction turbine
c. Francis turbine d. Pelton wheel turbine
35. A device used to prevent water hammer in turbine.
a. Governor
c. guard
b. Surge tank
d. wicket gate
GEOTHERMAL PLANT, WIND POWER, OTEC, TIDAL POWER
36. This is a vent or hole in the earth’s surface usually in volcanic region, from which steam,
gaseous vapors, or hot gases issue.
a. Magma
b. Fumarole
c. Geyser
d. Fault
37. The typical depth of a geothermal production well in meters.
a. 1000
b. 1500
c. 3000
d. 4000
38. A wind energy system transforms the ______________________ of the wind into mechanical
or electrical energy that can be harnessed for practical use.
a. Potential Energy b. Internal Energy
c. Heat Energy
d. Kinetic Energy
39. It is the rhythmic rise and fall of the ocean waters.
a. Tide range
b. Wave
c. Tide
c. Water current
40. The power available in the wind is proportional to the ________________ of its speed.
a. Cube
b. Square
c. Fourth Power
d. All of the above
41. It is the maximum tidal range.
a. Neap tides
b. Spring tide
c. Ebb tide
d. Tidal wave
STEAM PLANT, FUELS AND COMBUSTION & NUCLEAR POWER PLANT
42. Natural gas is considered _______________ when it is almost pure methane.
a. Dry
b. Wet
c. Saturated
d. Superheated
43. In this type of reactor, the water is heated by the nuclear fuel and boils to steam directly into
the reactor vessel. It is then piped directly to the turbine. The turbine spins, driving the
electrical generator, producing electricity.
a. Heavy Water Reactor
c. Boiling Water Reactor
b. Pressurized Water Reactor
d. All of the above
44. It is an air pollution control device that works by electrically charging the particles of fly ash
in the flue gas and collecting them by attraction to charged metal plates.
a. Wet scrubber b. Electrostatic Precipitator c. Bag houses
d. Cyclone Separator
45. This nuclear reactor component, which is made up of carbon and beryllium, slows down the
fast neutrons that are born during the fission process.
a. Control Rods
b. Moderator
c. Coolant
d. Reflector
46. These boron coated steel rods are used to regulate the rate of fission chain reaction. They are
withdrawn from the core to start the chain reaction and inserted all the way into the core to
stop it.
a. Control Rods
b. Moderator
c. Coolant
d. Reflector
47. In general usage, the term “combined cycle power plant” describes the combination of a gas
turbine generator(s) (____________________ cycle) with turbine exhaust waste boiler(s) and
steam turbine generator(s) (Rankine cycle) for the production of electrical power.
a. Diesel Cycle
b. Otto Cycle
c. Reheat Cycle
d. Brayton Cycle
48. Natural gas is a fossil fuel formed when layers of buried plants and animals are exposed to
intense heat and pressure. It has been dubbed as the “fuel of the future” or “green fuel” and
comprises mainly of _________________.
a. Propane
b. Butane
c. Ethane
d. Methane
49. It is the coal ash that exits a combustion chamber in the flue gas and is captured by air
pollution control equipment such as electrostatic precipitators, baghouses, and wet scrubbers.
a. Ash
b. Bottoming Ash
c. Fly Ash
d. Refuse
50. Also known as brown coal, it is the lowest-rank solid coal with a calorific value of less than
8,300 Btu/lb on a moist mineral-matter free basis.
a. Bituminous coal b. Peat
c. Lignite
d. Anthracite
51. It means using the same energy source for more than one purpose, such as using the waste heat
from an engine for space heating.
a. Superposing
b. Topping
c. Cogeneration
d. Combined Cycle Plant
52. The minimum amount of air required for the complete combustion of fuel.
a. Stoichiometric Air b. Excess Air
c. Actual Air
d. Percentage excess air
53. The device or instrument used for measuring the calorific value of a unit mass of fuel is called:
a. calorimeter
b. salimeter
c. pyrometer d. thermometer
54. When water (H2O) in the products of combustion is in the vapor or gaseous form, the heating
value is known as:
a. Higher heating value (HHV)
c. Lower heating value (LHV)
b. Heating value (HV)
d. Gross calorific value (GCV)
55. The percent excess air is the difference between the air actually supplied and the theoretical air
required divided by:
a. the theoretically air supplied
c. the deficiency air supplied
b. total air supplied
d. none of the above
56. During a combustion process, the components which exist before the reaction are called
______
a. reactants
b. products
c. flue gases
d. none of the above
57. The minimum amount of air needed for the complete combustion of fuel is called ________
a. excess air
b. theoretical air
c. combustion air
d. none of the above
58. A gas which will not be found in the flue gases produced from the complete combustion of
fuel oil is
a. carbon dioxide
b. hydrogen
c. oxygen
d. nitrogen
59. The higher heating value is determined when the water in the products of combustion is in
a. solid form
b. vapor form
c. liquid form
d. gas form
60. The amount of heat liberated by the complete combustion of a unit weight or volume of fuel is
known as:
a. heating value
b. latent heat
c. sensible heat
d. work of compression
61. An “ attemporator ” is another name for
a. Dry pipe
c. Reheater
b. Superheater
d. Desuperheater
62. What is the fundamental indicator of good combustion?
a. Colorless smoke.
b. Releasing maximum nitrogen content of the combustion with minimum oxygen,
carbon dioxide and carbon monoxide content.
c. Presence of minimum oxygen, maximum carbon dioxide and nil combustibles
in the flue gas.
d. Saturated clean smoke.
63. It is a solidified mass of fused ash.
a. Sludge
b. Solidified ash
c. Carbon residues
d. Clinker
64. Why does older types of economizers were constructed invariably of cast iron?
a. Because cast iron resists corrosion better than mild steel and the pressures were
comparatively low.
b. Because it is cheap.
c. Because cast iron is more abundant than any other type of steel.
d. Because it’s thermal conductivity is very small and it gives greater efficiency to the system.
65. It is an accessory often installed on modern boilers to preheat air for combustion before it
enters the boiler furnace.
a. economizer
b. air preheater
c. reheater
d. forced-draft fan
66. What components are included in the proximate analysis in solid fuel?
a. Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide and excess oxygen
b. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, ash and moisture
c. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, sulfur, nitrogen and ash
d. Fixed carbon, volatile matter, ash and moisture
67. Which element of fuel is not combustible?
a. Carbon
b. Hydrogen
c. Sulfur
d. Oxygen
INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINE/ ENGINE PERFORMANCE
68. A device or an instrument used to record the cylinder pressure of an engine and piston travel in
an X-Y graph, where pressure forms the vertical axis and piston travel forms the horizontal
axis.
a. Engine Indicator b. Planimeter
c. Pyrometer
d. Dynamometer
69. This diagram is used by the operating engineer to detect or determine leaky piston packing,
sticking piston, incorrect valve timing, loose bearings, restricted and or outlet piping, etc.
a. Timing diagram
b. T-s diagram
c. P-h diagram
d. Indicator diagram
70. The effective weight of the brake arm when the brake band is loose.
a. Tare Weight
b. Gross Load
c. Net Load d. Net Tension
71. The power output of the generator.
a. Ideal Power
b Indicated Power
c. Brake Power
d. Electrical Power
72. The amount of fuel needed to perform a unit of power.
a. Specific fuel consumption
b. Steam rate c. Heat Rate d. Mass flow rate
73. The ratio of heat converted to useful power to the heat supplied.
a. Mechanical efficiency
c. Thermal efficiency
b. Generator efficiency
d. Engine efficiency
74. The ratio of the actual power of the engine to its ideal power.
a. Mechanical efficiency
c. Thermal efficiency
b. Generator efficiency
d. Engine efficiency
75. The ratio of the cylinder volumes after and before the combustion process.
a. Compression ratio b. Expansion ratio
c. Cutoff ratio
d. All of the above
76. The position of the piston when it forms the smallest volume in the cylinder.
a. Crank End Dead Center Position
b. Bottom Dead Center Position
c. Head End Dead Center Position
d. Clearance Volume
77. The position of the piston when it forms the largest volume in the cylinder.
a. Crank End Dead Center Position
b. Top Dead Center Position
c. Head End Dead Center Position
d. Clearance Volume
78. When four events take place in one revolution of a crankshaft of an engine, the engine is
called:
a. rotary engine b. steam engine
c. 2-stroke cycle engine
d. 4-stroke cycle engine
79. What is the model cycle for spark ignition engine?
a. Diesel cycle
b. Brayton cycle
c. Otto cycle d. Carnot cycle
80. Diesel engine fuel is rated in terms of:
a. Cetane number b. Octane rating
c. Power output
81. The distance that the piston can travel in one direction.
a. Bore
`b. Stroke
c. Clearance
d. Net Calorific Value
d. Displacement
82. The minimum volume formed in the cylinder when the piston is at the top dead center.
a. Displacement volume
c. Clearance volume
b. Cylinder Volume
d. None of the above
83. It is a fictitious pressure which, if it acted on the piston during the entire power stroke, would
produce the same amount of net work as that produced during the actual cycle.
a. Average pressure
c. Maximum pressure
b. Mean effective pressure
d. Minimum pressure
84. The ratio of constant pressure specific heat to the constant volume specific heat.
a. Compression ratio b. Expansion ratio
c. Cutoff ratio d. Specific heat ratio
85. The ideal cycle for the compression-ignition reciprocating engines.
a. Diesel cycle
b. Otto cycle
c. Dual cycle d. Carnot cycle
86. The power developed in the engine cylinder as obtained from the pressure in the cylinder.
a. Ideal power
b. Indicated power c. Brake power
d. Electrical power
87. The pressure and torque spent in overcoming friction of reciprocating and revolving parts of
the engine and automobile before it reached the drive shaft.
a. Electrical losses
b. Indicated power
c. Brake power
d. Friction power
88. It is an instrument for determining brake power, usually by the independent measurement of
force, time and distance through which the force is moved.
a. Planimeter
b. Dynamometer
c. Anemometer
d. Barometer
89. It is the indicator used to determine the anti-knock characteristics of gasoline.
a. Octane Number b. Cetane Number
c. Compression Ratio d. Viscosity
90. Draws fuel from tank through the primary fuel filter. This provides flow throughout the low
portion of the fuel system.
a. Fuel injection pump
c. Fuel transfer pump
b. Valve lifter
d. Oil pan
91. Acts as a balancer and provide momentum during dead stroke in a cycle.
a. Flywheel
c. Crankshaft
b. Oil cooler
d. After cooler
92. Are steel tubes with seat at both ends and bridges the motion from camshaft to rocker arm.
a. Push rod
c. Valve lifter
b. Suction bell
d. Flywheel
93. Passage of coolant from the engine block to the cylinder head.
a. Water jacket
c. Oil cooler
b. Fuel transfer pump
d. Turbo charger
94. Are used to cool incoming air so that the volume of air available is increased.
a. After cooler
c. . Radiator
b. Waste gates
d.Muffler
95. The difference between the maximum and minimum volume.
a.Displacement Volume b.Clearance Volume cTop Dead Center d.Differential Volume
96. These are used to seal the gasses within the cylinder and to keep oil out.
a.Piston Rings b.Combustion Chamber c.Cylinder Liner d.Piston Plug
97. Process where the heat is added in the Otto cycle.
a. constant temperature
b. constant volume c. constant entropy
d. constant pressure
98. Process where the heat is added in the Diesel cycle.
a. constant temperature
b. constant volume c. constant entropy
d. constant pressure
99. It is used to reduce the friction of bearings and sliding surfaces in machines and thus diminish
the wear, heat and possibility of seizure of the parts
a. Lubricant
b. Gasoline
c. Wax
d. Benzene
100.
In a heat engine, the ratio of brake power to the indicated power is called:
a. thermal efficiency
b. mechanical efficiency c. generator efficiency d. engine efficiency
POWER PLANT TERMS AND FACTORS
111. The ratio of the average load to the peak load over a designated period of time.
a. Demand Factor
b. Capacity Factor
c. Load Factor
d. Diversity Factor
112. The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the system to the overall maximum
demand of the whole system.
a. Demand Factor
b. Capacity Factor
c. Load Factor
d. Diversity Factor
113. The sum of the continuous ratings of all the equipment and outlets on the customer’s circuit.
a. Reserve load
b. Maximum demand c. Peak load
d. Connected load
114. The ratio of the duration of the actual service of a machine or equipment to the total duration of
the period of time considered.
a. Operation factor b. Utilization factor c. Demand factor
d. Capacity factor
115. The ratio of the brake mean effective pressure to the indicated mean effective pressure.
a. Mechanical efficiency
b. Brake engine efficiency
c. Indicated engine efficiency
d. Brake thermal efficiency
116. The ratio of the combined engine efficiency to the brake engine efficiency.
a. Combined engine efficiency
b. Generator efficiency
c. Combined thermal efficiency
d. Brake engine efficiency
117. The ratio of the average load to that of the peak load of a plant is called:
a. output factor
b. demand factor
c. load factor d. capacity factor
118. The ratio of the peak load to the connected load is known as:
a. output factor
d. demand factor
c. load factor d. capacity factor
119. The difference between the power plant installed capacity and the peak load is called:
a. average load
b. connected load
c. reserve over peak
d. none of the above
THERMODYNAMICS
120. A series of processes during which the initial state point and the final state point are the same.
a. Process
b. Change of state
c. Cycle
d. All of the above
121. The compressibility factor of an ideal gas is equal to ______________.
a. 1.00
b. 1.40
c. 0.90
d. 1.30
122. The relation pV=C represents a process or change of state, which is known as _________.
a. Isometric process
b. Isobaric process c. Isothermal process d. Isentropic process
123. In the relation pVn= C, if the value of n= 0 the process is said to be ___________.
a. Isometric process
b. Isobaric process c. Isothermal process d. Polytropic process
124. In a Carnot cycle, the heat rejection ia the ____________________ process.
a. Isentropic expansion
c. Isentropic compression
b. Isothermal expansion
d. Isothermal compression
125. A system in which the mass inflow and outflow are not equal or vary with time and in which the
mass within the system changes with time.
a. Steady flow system
c. Steady state system
b. Unsteady state, unsteady flow system d. Steady flow, steady state system
126. A form of energy that is a sole function of temperature for perfect gases and a strong function of
temperature and weak function of pressure for non-perfect gases, vapors, and liquids.
a. Internal energy b. Enthalpy
c. Flow work
d. Pressure energy
127. It is that portion of the universe, an atom, a certain quantity of matter, or a certain volume in
space that one wishes to study.
a. Heat
b. Work
c. System
d. Efficiency
128. It is the force of gravity per unit volume of a substance.
a. Density
b. Specific weight
c. Specific volume
d. Specific gravity
129. It is a kind of thermodynamic system whose mass does not cross its boundaries.
a. Open system
b. Steady flow system
c. Closed system d. Transient flow
130. Which law states that “the acceleration of a particular body is directly proportional to the
resultant force acting on it and inversely proportional to its mass?
a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
b. First Law of Thermodynamics
c. Second law of Thermodynamics
d. Newton’s Second Law of Motion
131. A substance that receives, transports and transfers energy.
a. Reservoir b. Working substance
c. Engine
d. Heat sink
132. A system where energy and mass cross its boundaries.
a. Open system
b. Isolated System c. Closed system d. Transient flow system
133. The law of thermodynamics that deals with the law of conservation of energy, which states that
energy can neither be created nor destroyed.
a. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
b. First Law of Thermodynamics
c. Second law of Thermodynamics
d. Third Law of Thermodynamics
134. It states that in any mechanical mixture of gases and vapors (those that do not combine
chemically) the total pressure of the gaseous mixture such as moist air is equal to the sum of the
partial pressure exerted by the individual gases or vapors.
a. Joule’s Law
b. Dalton’s Law
c. Amagat’s Law
d. Charles’ Law
135. It is a substance existing in the gaseous phase but relatively near its saturation temperature.
a. Gas
b. Air
c. Vapor
d. Oxygen
136. The point at which the saturated liquid and saturated vapor states are identical.
a. Critical point
b. Triple point c. Saturated liquid-vapor point d. Saturation Point
137. The point at which heat transfer stops.
a. Steady-flow
b. Thermal equilibrium
c. Thermodynamic equilibrium
d. Steady-state
138. It is an instrument used for determining the specific gravity of a solution.
a. Barometer
b. Hydrometer
c. Calorimeter
d. Manometer
139. It refers to the temperature at which all molecular motion ceases according to the kinetic theory
of heat.
a. 0 oK
b. 0 oR
c. -273 oC
d. All of the above
140. The area under the curve on a pressure-volume diagram represents _____________.
a. Steady Flow Work b. Nonflow Work
c. Net Work
d. Cycle Work
141. A boiler steam pressure gage should have a range of at least _______ times the maximum
allowable working pressure.
a. 1.0
b. 1.25
c. 1.50
d. 1.75
142. It is a valve designed to allow a fluid to pass through in one direction only.
a. Gate valve
b. Globe valve
c. Quick-return valve d. Check valve
143. An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. The enthalpy change is equal to _________.
a. Zero
b. Positive
c. Negative
d. None of the above
144. The _________________ is constant in an adiabatic throttling process.
a. Pressure
b. Volume
c. Internal energy
d. Enthalpy
145. It is the ideal cycle for a gas turbine plant.
a. Carnot cycle
b. Rankine cycle
c. Diesel cycle
d. Brayton cycle
146. It is the most thermal efficient cycle consisting of two (2) isentropic processes and two (2)
isothermal processes.
a. Carnot cycle
b. Rankine cycle
c. Otto cycle
d. Diesel cycle
147. How can the average temperature during heat rejection process of a Rankine cycle be
decreased?
a. increase boiler pressure
c. increase inlet turbine pressure
b. increase condenser pressure
d. reduce turbine exit pressure
148. What is commonly done to a vapor power cycle when the turbine has excessive moisture?
a. frosting
b. diffusing
c. reheating
d. dehumidifying
149. A form of energy that is transferred between two systems by virtue of temperature difference.
a. Heat
b. Kinetic Energy
c. Potential Energy d. Electrical Energy
150.A thermodynamic process with no heat transfer.
a. Isentropic Process b. Adiabatic Process c. Throttling Process d. All of the above.
151.An energy interaction that is not caused by a temperature difference between a system and its
surrounding.
a. Work
b. Conduction
c. Convection
d. Heat
152. Changing of solid directly to vapor, without passing through the liquid state, is called
a. Sublimation
c. Condensation
b. Evaporation
d. Vaporization
153. A rigid container is heated by the sun. There is no shaft work associated with the container.
From the first law of thermodynamics, you determine the resulting work to be:
a. equal to the heat transfer
b. equal to the change in internal energy
c. equal to the volume times the change in pressure
d. equal to zero
154. The net work output of a heat engine is always __________________________.
a. less than the amount of heat input
c. more than the amount of heat input
b. less than the amount of heat output
d. none of the above
155. The sum of all the energies of all the molecules in a system, energies that appear in several
complex forms.
a. Enthalpy
b. Internal Energy c. Kinetic Energy
d. Potential Energy
156. It is a liquid whose temperature is below the saturation temperature corresponding to its
pressure.
a. Saturated liquid
b. Superheated liquid c. Subcooled liquid d. none of the above
157. A device that violates the first law of thermodynamics is called a
a. Perpetual motion machine of the second kind
b. Perpetual motion machine of the third kind
c. Perpetual motion machine of the first kind
d. None of the above
158. The efficiencies of all reversible heat engines operating between the same two reservoirs
________.
a. differ
b. are the same
c. are unequal
d. none of the above
159. A process with no heat transfer is known as
a. isobaric process
c. isothermal process
b. adiabatic process
d. isometric process
160. The relative density of a substance is the ratio of its density to the density of:
a. mercury
b. oil
c. gas
d. water
161. This type of heat exchanger allows fluids to flow at right angles to each other
a. Series flow
b. Parallel flow
c. Cross flow
d. Counter flow
162. The fact the total energy in any one energy system remains constant is called the principle
of _______.
a.Conservation of Energy
c.Conservation of Mass
b.Second Law of Thermodynamics
d.Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
163. A process for which the inlet and outlet enthalpies are the same
a. Isenthalpic
b. Enthalpy Conservation
c. Throttling
d. Steady State
164. The sum of energies of all the molecules in system, energies that appear in several complex
forms.
a. Kinetic Energy b. Internal Energy
c. External Energy
d. Flow Work
165. A system that is completely impervious to its surrounding. Neither mass nor energy cross its
boundaries.
a. Open system
b. Closed system
c. Adiabatic system d. Isolated system
166. A device used to measure small and moderate pressure difference.
a. Manometer
b. Bourdon gage
c. Barometer
d. Piezometer
167. A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation temperature corresponding to its
pressure.
a. Superheated vapor
c. Super saturated vapor
b. Saturated vapor
d. Subcooled vapor
168. The energy or stored capacity for performing work possessed by a moving body, by virtue of its
momentum.
a. Internal energy
c. Gravitational potential energy
b. Work
d. Kinetic energy
169. The thermodynamic process wherein temperature is constant and the change in internal energy is
zero.
a. Isobaric process
b. Isometric process
c. Isothermal process
d. Polytropic process
170. The function of a pump or compressor is to
a. transfer heat from one fluid to another
b. increase the total energy content of the flow
c. extract energy from the flow
d. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
171. This law states that “all energy received as heat by a heat-engine cannot be converted into
mechanical work”.
a. 1st Law of Thermodynamics
b. 2nd Law of Thermodynamics
c. 3rd Law of Thermodynamics
d. All of the above.
172. The intensity of pressure that is measured above absolute zero is called:
a. Gage pressure
b. Absolute pressure
c. Vacuum pressure
d. Saturation pressure
173. This is the ratio of the heat equivalent of the brake or useful horsepower developed by an engine
and available on its crankshaft to the heat during the same time.
a. Brake engine efficiency
b. Indicated thermal efficiency
c. Combined thermal efficiency
d. Brake thermal efficiency
174. Flow work is equal to pressure times ____________.
a. temperature
b. entropy
c. internal energy
d. specific volume
175. This form of energy is due to the position or elevation of the body.
a. internal energy
b. kinetic energy
c. potential energy
176. Another term for constant volume process.
a. isometric
b. isochoric
c. isovolumic
d. work
d. all of the above
177. Work done by the steam during a reversible adiabatic expansion process in the turbine.
a. Brake Work
c. Actual Fluid Work
b. Ideal Work
d. Combined Work
178. The efficiency of Carnot cycle depends upon the
a. pressure
b. entropy
c. volume
d. temperature
179. It is the heat required in a constant-pressure process to completely vaporize a unit-mass of liquid
at a given temperature.
a. latent heat vaporization
b. enthalpy of vaporization
c. hfg
d. all of the above
180. It is a commonly used device for measuring temperature differences or high temperatures.
a. Thermistor
b. Thermocouple
c. Bimetallic Strip
d. Mercury in glass
181. The science and technology concerned with precisely measuring energy and enthalpy.
a. Thermodynamics
b. Chemistry
c. Calorimetry
d. None of the above
182. The rate of doing work per unit of time
a. Torque
b. Power
c. Force
d. Moment
183. In an ideal Rankine cycle with fixed boiler and condenser pressure. What is the effect of
superheating the steam to a higher temperature to the cycle thermal efficiency?
a. the cycle thermal efficiency will increase
b. the cycle thermal efficiency will decrease
c. the cycle thermal efficiency will remain constant
d. none of the above
184. A vapor having a temperature higher than the saturation temperature corresponding to the
existing pressure.
a. Superheated Vapor
b. Saturated Vapor
c. Wet Vapor
d. None of the above
185. It is the work done in pushing a fluid across a boundary, usually into or out of a system.
a. Mechanical work
b. Nonflow Work
c. Flow Work
d. Electrical work
186. A liquid that has a temperature lower than the saturation temperature corresponding to the
existing pressure.
a. Subcooled liquid b. Saturated liquid
c. Unsaturated liquid d. Water
BOILERS/STEAM GENERATORS
207. In this type of boiler, the water passes through the tubes while the flue gases burn outside the
tubes.
a. Water-tube boiler b. Fire-tube Boiler c. Steam generator
d. Electric Boiler
208. It shows the water level in the boiler drum.
a. Water column
b. Try cocks
c. Gauge glass
d. All of the above
209. It prevents damage to the boiler by giving warning of low water.
a. Safety valve
b. Fusible plug
c. Relief valve
d. Try cocks
210. It has several functions. When necessary it empties the boiler for cleaning, inspection, or
repair. It blows out mud, scale, or sediment when the boiler is in operation and prevents excessive
concentration of soluble impurities in the boiler.
a. Blow-down line b. Boiler feedwater pump
c. Steam valve d. None of the bove
211. It is a heat exchanger which utilizes the heat of the flue gases to preheat the air needed for
combustion.
a. Economizer
b. Feedwater heater c. Reheater
d. Air preheater
212. It is a feedwater preheating and waste heat recovery device which utilizes the heat of the flue
gases.
a. Economizer
b. Open heater
c. Closed heater
d. Waterwalls
213. It is a system of furnace cooling tubes which can extend the evaporative capacity of the
water-tube boiler and at the same time protect the furnace walls from high temperature.
a. Reheater
b. Waterwalls
c. Superheater
d. Feedwater heater
214. It is based on the generation of 34.5 lbm/hr of steam from water at 212 oF to steam at 212 oF
and equivalent to 33, 500 Btu/hr.
a. One horsepower b. One kilowatt c. One boiler horsepower d. None of the above
215. It prevents boiler pressure from rising above a certain predetermined pressure by opening to
allow excess steam to escape into the atmosphere when that point is reached, thus guarding
against a possible explosion through excessive pressure.
a. Relief valve
b. Safety valve
c. Fusible plug
d. Pressure switches
216. In a water-tube boiler, the water will pass through _________________________.
a. inside the tubes b. outside the tubes c. inside the shell
d. outside the shell
AIR CONDITIONING/REFRIGERATION
217. It is the temperature to which the air becomes saturated at constant pressure.
a. dry-bulb temperature
b. wet-bulb temperature
c. dewpoint temperature
d. saturation temperature
218. In a _________________ cooling tower, the air moves horizontally through the fills as the water
moves downward.
a. Cross-flow
b. Counter -flow
c. Parallel flow
d. Double-flow
219. It is the subject that deals with the behavior of moist air.
a. Psychrometer
b. Psychrometry
c. Refrigeration
d. Pneumatics
220. It is the ratio of the mass of water vapor in a certain volume of moist air at a given temperature
to the mass of water vapor in the same volume of saturated air at the same temperature.
a. Humidity ratio
b. Specific humidity c. Humidity
d. Relative Humidity
221. Air whose condition is such that any decrease in temperature will result in condensation of water
vapor into liquid.
a. Saturated air
b. Unsaturated air
c. Saturated vapor
d. Moist air
222. It is the warm water temperature minus the cold-water temperature leaving the cooling tower.
a. Approach
b. Terminal difference
c. Cooling Range
d. LMTD
223. The temperature where the relative humidity becomes 100% and where the water vapor starts to
condense is known as ___________________.
a. dry-bulb temperature
c. wet-bulb temperature
b. dewpoint temperature
d. saturation temperature
224. The surrounding air ____________ temperature is the lowest temperature to which water could
possibly be cooled in a cooling tower.
a. Dry-bulb
b. Wet-bulb
c. Dew-point
d. Saturation temperature
225. Which is not a major part of the vapor compression system?
a. compressor
b. condenser
c. evaporator
d. refrigerant
226. This refers to the rate of heat transfer attributable only to a change in dry-bulb temperature.
a. sensible heating or cooling
b. humidification
c. dehumidification
d. cooling and dehumidifying
227. It is a binary mixture of dry-air and water- vapor.
a. Dry air
c. Moist air
b. Saturated vapor
d. Wet mixture
228. The temperature measured by an ordinary thermometer.
a. Wet-bulb temp.
c. Dew-point temp.
b. Dry-bulb temp.
d. Wet-bulb depression
229. The mass of water interspersed in each kilogram of dry air.
a. enthalpy
b. humidity ratio
c. specific volume
d. relative humidity
230. This system combines two vapor-compression units, with the condenser of the low-temperature
system discharging its heat to the evaporator of the high-temperature system.
a. Cascade systems
c. Binary system
b. Multi-stage system
d. Multi-pressure system
231. A process of increasing the humidity ratio at constant dry-bulb temperature.
a. Dehumidifying process
c. Heating process
b. Cooling process
d. Humidifying process
232. The ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor in the air to the saturation pressure corresponding
to the temperature of the air.
a. Humidity Ratio
c. Specific humidity
b. Relative Humidity
d. Moisture content
232. It is an air conditioning process that involves heating without changing the moisture content of
air. The process is represented by a horizontal line in the psychrometric chart, from left to right.
a. Sensible cooling process
c. Humidifying process
b. Sensible heating process
d. Heating and dehumidifying process
233. It is an air conditioning process of increasing the humidity ratio without changing the dry-bulb
temperature of air. The process is represented in the psycrometric chart by a vertical line, from up to
down.
a. Sensible cooling process
c. Humidifying process
b. Sensible heating process
d. Heating and dehumidifying process
234. The temperature at which the water vapor content of moist air begins to condense when air is
cooled at constant pressure
a. Dew Point Temperature
c. Dry Bulb Temperature
b. Wet Bulb Temperature
d. Condensing temperature
234. It is the index of performance of a refrigeration system which is a dimensionless quantity.
a. Coefficient of Performance
c. Energy Efficiency Ratio
b. Energy Ratio
d. Performance Ratio
235. It is simply the compression of the gas in two or more cylinders in place of a single cylinder
compressor.
a. Intercooled Compression
c. Efficient Compression
b. Multistage Compression
d. High Power Compression
236. The transfer of energy from the more energetic particles of a substance to the adjacent less
energetic ones as a result of interactions between the particles.
a. Heat transfer
c. Conduction
b. Radiation
d. Convection
237. What is the simultaneous control of temperature, humidity, air movement, and quantity of air in
space?
a. Refrigeration
b. Psychrometry
c. Air-conditioning d. Humidification
238. The non-condensing component of the moist air.
a. Hydrogen
b. Water vapour
c. Nitrogen
d. Dry air
239. The substance used for heat transfer in a vapor compression refrigerating system. It picks up
heat by evaporating at a low temperature and pressure and gives up this heat by condensing at a
higher temperature and pressure.
a. Water
c. Ammonia
b. Air
d. Gas
240. What is the pressure of the refrigerant between the expansion valve and the intake of the
compressor in a multi pressure refrigeration system?
a. High-side pressure
c. Condensing pressure
b. Discharge pressure
d. Low-side pressure
241. A refrigerating machine that is classified as a one-ton machine has the capacity to produce a
cooling effect of:
a. 3.517 kW
b. 12,000 Btu/hr
c. 211 kJ/min
d. All of the above
THERMODYNAMICS
If the initial volume of an ideal gas is compressed to one-half its original volume and to twice its
temperature, the pressure:
A. Doubles
B. Quadruples
C. Remains constant
D. Halves
Solution:
P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2
P1V1/T1 = P2 (1/2 V1)/ (2T1)
P2= 4 P1
2.) If the gage pressure of a medium is 30 kPa (vacuum) and the atmospheric pressure is 101.3 kPa, the
absolute pressure will be:
A. 131.3 kPa
B. – 71.3 kPa
C. 71.3 kPa
D. -131.3 kPa
Solution:
Pabs = Patm – Pvac
= 101.3 kPa – 30 kPa
= 71.3 kPa
3.) If a particle has a velocity of 4 meters per second and a kinetic energy of 144 Joules, then the mass, in
kilograms of this particle must be:
A. 44
B.
16
C. 18
D. 24
Solution:
KE = (1/2) (m)(V2)/ 2k
144 = (1/2) (m) (4)2 / [(2) (1)]
m = 18 kg
4.) A very important consequence of the ideal gas model is that the internal energy of an ideal gas is a
function of _______________ only.
A. pressure
B. Temperature
C. Point function
D. Volume
5.) At what temperature readings do the Fahrenheit and Celsius scales have the same value?
A. – 35 degrees
B. – 40 degrees
C. – 45 degrees
D. – 30 degress
6.) States that if the temperature of a given quantity of gas is held constant, the volume of the gas varies
inversely with the absolute pressure during a change of state.
A. Daltons Law
B. Charles’ Law
C. First Law of Thermodynamics
D. Boyle’s Law
7.) A condenser vacuum gauge reads 715 mm Hg when the barometer stands at 757 mm Hg. State the
absolute pressure in the condenser in kN/m2 or kPa.
A. 5.6 kPa
B. 5.9 kPa
C. 6.5 kPa
D. 5.2 kPa
Solution:
Pabs = Patm – Pvac
= 757 – 715 = 42 mm Hg (101.325 kPa/760 mm Hg)
= 5.60 kPa
8.) A unit of force that produces unit acceleration (in ft/s2) in a unit mass (in lbm)
A. Poundal
B. Pound
C. Newton
D. Dyne
9.) Determine the force in Newton in a piston of 465 mm2 area with a pressure of 0.172 MPa.
A. 65 N
B. 72 N
C. 80 N
D. 111
Solution:
F = PA = (0.172 MPa) (106 Pa/ MPa) (465 mm2) (m2/ 106 mm2)
F = 79.98 N
10.) Which of the following does not belong to the group?
A. Potential Energy
B. Kinetic Energy
C. Heat Energy
11.) Why does a cube of ice float in water?
A. Ice has lower temperature than water
B. The density of ice is lesser than water
C. There are more water than ice
D. None of the above
D. Flow energy
12.) One piston of a hydraulic press has an area of 1 cm 2. The other piston has an area of 25 cm2. If a force
of 150 N is applied on the smaller piston, what will be the total force on the larger piston is both piston
surfaces are the same level?
A. 6 N
B. 175 N
C. 3750 N
D. 4250 N
Solution:
F1/A1 = F2/A2
(150/1) = (F2/ 25)
F2 =3750 N
13.) If the pressure of a confined gas at a constant temperature is tripled, what will happen to the volume?
A. The volume will be tripled
C. The volume will remain unchanged
B. The volume will be reduced to one-third of its original value D. The volume is constant
Solution:
P1V1 = P2V2
P1V1 = (3P1) V2
V2 = (1/3) V1
14.) The work done on air is 10.86 kJ/kg, determine the compressor power if it is receiving 272 kg/min if
air.
A. 36.72 hp
B. 49.23 hp
C. 2954 hp
D. 66 hp
Solution:
W= (10.86) (272/60) = 49.232 kJ/s or kW
= 49.232 kW (1 hp/ 0.746 kW)
= 65.99 hp
15.) A water tank of 18 ft wide, 14 ft long and 4 ft high, calculate the pressure at the bottom of the tank.
A. 1.733 psi
B. 1.999psi
C. 2.337 psi
D. 3.773 psi
Solution:
P = (62.4 lbf/ft3) (4 ft) (1ft2 / 144 in2) = 1.733 psi
16.) The pressure of 750 mm Hg in kN/m2.
A. 90
B. 100
C. 103
Solution:
P = 750 mm Hg (101.325 kPa/760 mm Hg)
= 99.99 kPa
D. 110
17.) A double purpose tank 18 ft wide, 24 ft long and 4 ft depth is filled with water. What is the weight of
water in the tank in long tons?
A. 49 tons
B. 48 tons
C. 54 tons
D. 50 tons
Solution:
W = (62.4 lb/ft2) [(18)(24)(4)] ft3 = 107,827.2 lbf
= 107, 827.2 lb (1 ton/ 2200 lb) = 49 tons
18.) Oil flow though a 16 tubes on a single cooler with a velocity of 2 m/s. The internal diameter of the tube
is 30mm and oil density is 0.85 gm/ml. Find the volume flow in liters per sec.
A. 22.62
B. 32.22
C. 62.22
D. 42.62
Solution:
Volume flow rate = (3.1416) (0.015)2(2) (16) =0.02262 m3/s or 22.62 liters/s
19.) A substance temperature was 620 deg R. What is the temperature in deg C?
A. 50.7
B. 45.54
C. 71.11
D. 94.44
Solution:
T, oC = [(620-460) – 32] (5/9) = 71.11
20.) Unknown volume of container gas of gas of 1 atmosphere is allowed to expand to another container of
10 m3 volume at 500 mm Hg at constant temperature. Find the unknown volume.
A. 6.58 m3
B. 6.75 m3
C. 5.67 m3
D. 7.65 m3
Solution:
P1V1 = P2V2
(760) V1 = (500) (10)
V1= 6.58 m3
21.) An iron block weighs 5 Newton and has volume of 200 cm3. What is the density of the block?
A. 2458 kg/m3
B. 2485 kg/m3
C. 2584 kg/m3
D. 2549 kg/m3
Solution:
Density = specific weight [At sea level or near the surface of the earth]
= (5 N/200 cm3)(106 cm3/ m3) (1 kg/9.8066 N)
= 2549.30 kg/m3
22.) If air is at a pressure of 22.22 psia and at temperature of 800oR, what is the specific volume?
A. 11.3 ft3/lbm
B. 33.1 ft3/lbm
C. 13.3 ft3/lbm
D. 31.3 ft3/lbm
Solution:
Pv = RT
v= (53.34) (800)/ [(22.22) (144)] = 13.33 ft3/lbm
23.) The specific gravity of mercury is 13.55. What is the specific weight of mercury?
A. 123.9 kN/m3
B. 139.2 kN/m3
C. 132.9 kN/m3
D. 193.2 kN/m3
Solution:
γ = (13.55) (9.8066) = 132.88 kN/m3
24.) The equivalent weight of mass 10 kg at a location where the acceleration of gravity is 9.77 m/sec2.
A. 97.7 N
B. 79.7 N
C. 77.9 N
D. 977 N
Solution:
Weight = mg/k = [(10) (9.77)]/1 = 97.7 N
25.) A transportation company specializes in the shipment of pressurized gaseous materials. An order is
received fro 100 liters of a particular gas at STP (32oF and 1 atm). What minimum volume tank is
necessary to transport the gas at 80 oF and maximum pressure of 8 atm?
A. 16 liters
B. 14 liters
C. 10 liters
D. 12 liters
Solution:
P1V1/T1 = P2V2/T2
[(1) (100)/ (32 +460)]/ [(8) (V2)/ (80+460)]
V2 = 13.72 liters
26.) 100 g of water are mixed with 150 g of alcohol (density = 790 kg/m3). What is the specific volume of
the resulting mixtures, assuming that the fluids mixed completely?
A. 0.82 x 10-3 cu.m/kg
B. 0.88 x 10-3 cu.m/kg C. 0.63 x 10-3 cu.m/kg
D. 1.16 x 10-3
cu.m/kg
Solution:
Mass of mixtures = 100 + 150 = 250 g
Volume of mixture = [(0.100) / (1000)] + [(0.150)/ (790)] = 0.00029 m3
Specific Volume of mixture = (0.00029)/ (0.250) = 1.16 x 10-3 cu.m/kg
27.) How much does 30 lbm weigh on the moon? (gmoon = 5.47 ft/s2).
A. 2.0 lbf
B. 3.2 lbf
C. 3.4 lbf
Solution:
Weight = mg/k = {[(30) (5.47)]/32.174} = 5.1 lbf
D. 5.096 lbf
28.) A 10 kg block is raised vertically 3 meters. What is the change in potential energy?
A. 320 J
B. 350 kg-m2/s2
C. 294 J
D. 350 N-m
Solution:
PE = mgz/k = {[(10)(9.8066)(3)]/1} = 294.2 J
29.) How many cubic meters is 100 gallons of liquid?
A. 3.7850 cu.m
B. 0.1638 cu.m
C. 0.3785 cu.m
Solution:
100 gal (3.785 liters/gal) (1m3/1000 liters) = 0.3785 m3
D. 1.638 cu.m
30.) Steam turbine is receiving 1014 lbm/hr of steam, determine the horsepower output of the turbine if the
work done by steam is 251 Btu/lbm
A. 100 Hp
B. 462.7 Hp
C. 200 Hp
D. 6002.7 Hp
Solution:
W = (251 Btu/lbm) (1014 lbm/hr) (1 hp/2545 Btu/hr) = 100 hp
31.) What is the resulting pressure when one pound of air at 15 psia and 200oF is heated at constant volume
to 800oF?
A. 52.1 psia
B. 15 psia
C. 28.6 psia
D. 36.4 psia
Solution:
P1/T1 = P2/T2
P2 = [ (800+460)/(200+460)](15) = 28.64 psia
32.) A bicycle tire has a volume of 600 cm3. It is inflated with carbon dioxide to pressure of 551.43 kPa at
20 oC. How many grams of CO2 are contained in the tire? RCO2 = 0.18896 kJ/kg.K
A. 5.98 g
B. 6.43 g
C. 4.63g
D. 3.83 g
Solution:
m = PV/RT = [(551.43) (600)/ (106)]/ [(0.18896) (20+273)] = 0.00598 kg or 5.98 g
33.) The absolute pressure at the bottom of a vertical column of water is 15.5 psia. What is the height of this
column?
A. 22 in.
B. 9.2 in
C. 12 in
D. 9.8
Solution:
h = [(15.5- 14.7) (144)]/ (62.4) = 1.846 ft or 22.15 in.
34.) The work done in pushing a fluid across a boundary, usually into or out of a system is called ________
A. Potential Energy
B. Flow Energy
C. Kinetic Energy
D. Internal Energy
35.) Energy balance for steady flow process is:
A. Energy (in) = Energy (out)
C. Energy (in) – Energy (out) = change in total energy
B. Energy (int) = change in total energy
D. Energy (in) + Energy (out) = change in total energy
36. A water temperature rise of 18 oF in the water cooled condenser is equivalent in oC to:
A. 7.78oC
B. 10oC
C. 263.56oK
D. -9.44oC
Solution:
Delta T = 18 oF (1 oC/1.80 oF) = 10 oC
37. ____________ is a composite property applicable to all fluids and is defined by sum of internal energy
and the product of pressure and volume
A. Heat
B. Work
C. Enthalpy
D. Total Work
38. An oil storage tank contains oil with specific gravity of 0.88 and depth of 20 meters. What is the
hydrostatic pressure at the bottom of the tank in kg/cm2?
A. 1.67
B. 1.76
C. 1.56
D. 1.87
Solution:
P = (0.88) (9.8066)(20) = 172.60 kN/m2 (1 m2/104 cm2)(103 N/kN) (1 kg/9.8066 N)
= 1.76 kg/cm2
39. A vertical column of water will be supported to what height by standard atmospheric pressure?
A. 34 ft
B. 36 ft
C. 24 ft
D. 26 ft
Solution:
h = [14.7 (144)]/62.4 = 33.92 ft of water
40. The specific weight of liquid is 60 lb/ft3 what is the equivalent to kN/m3:
A. 9.334
B. 9.249
C. 9.643
D. 9.420
Solution:
(60 lb/ft3)(1kg/2.205 lb) (0.0098066 kN/kg)((3.28)3ft3/ m3) = 9.42 kN/m3
41. A cylinder weighs 150 lbf. Its cross-sectional area is 40 square inches. When the cylinder stands
vertically on one end, what pressure does the cylinder exert on the floor?
A. 14. 1 kPa
B. 58.2 kPa
C. 0.258 bar
D. 0.141 bar
Solution:
P = F/A = 150/40 = 3.75 psi (6.895 kPa/psi) (1 bar/100 kPa) = 0.2586 bar
42. States that energy is neither created nor destroyed; it can only change forms:
A. Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
C. Daltons Law
B. First Law of Thermodynamics
D. Archimedes Principle
43. What is the absolute pressure exerted on the surface of a submarine cruising 300 ft below the free
surface of the sea? Assume specific gravity of sea water is 1.03.
A. 133.9 psia
B. 148.6 psia
C. 100.7 psia
D. 103.7 psia
Solution:
Pabs = (62.4) (1.03) (300)/ (144) + 14.7 = 148.60 psia
44. Air enters a nozzle steadily at 2.21 kg/m3 and 30 m/s. What is the mass flow rate through the nozzle if
the inlet area of the nozzle is 80 cm2?
A. 0.35 kg/s
B. 3.5 kg/s
C. 5.3 kg/s
D. 0.53 kg/s
Solution:
Mass flow rate = (80/104) (30) (2.21) = 0.5304 kg/s
45. The work required to accelerate an 800-kg car from rest to 100 km/h on a level road:
A. 308.6 kJ
B. 806.3 kJ
C. 608.3 kJ
D. 386 kJ
Solution:
W = KE = (1/2) (800) [(100 km/h) (1000m /km) (1h/3600s)]2/ [1(1000)]= 308.64 kJ
46.
Heat is defined as form of energy that is transferred between two systems by the virtue of a
________________.
A. Pressure difference
B. Mass difference
C. Volume difference
D. Temperature
difference
47. Assuming that there are no heat effects and no friction effects, find the speed of a 3220-lbm body after it
falls 778 ft from rest.
A. 422 ft/sec
B. 424 ft/sec
C. 224 ft/sec
D. 424 ft/sec
Solution:
Velocity = [(2) (32.174) (778)]1/2 = 223.75 ft/s
48. What is the flow rate through a pipe 4 inches in diameter carrying water at a velocity of 11 ft/sec?
A. 430.84 gpm
B. 7.18 gpm
C. 340.28 gpm
D. 39.16 gpm
Solution:
Volumetric flow rate = (3.1416) (2/12)2(11)= 0.96 ft3/s (7.48 gal/ft3)(60sec/min)= 430.84 gpm
49. If the specific weight of a liquid is 58.5 lbf per cubic foot, what is the specific volume of the liquid,
cm3/g ?
A. 0.5321 cm3/g
B. 0.6748 cm3/g
C. 0.9504 cm3/g
D. 1.0675 cm3/g
Solution:
Density = specific weight = 58.50 lb/ft3 (At sea level or near the surface of the earth)
Specific Volume = (1/58.50) = 0.0171 ft3/lbm (1lbm/453.6 g) [(30.48)3cm3/ft3]
= 1.0675 cm3/g
50. What is the resulting pressure when one pound of air at 0.3 psig and 200 oF is heated at constant volume
to 800 oF?
A. 0.572 psig
B. 28.6 psia
C. 7.857 psia
D. 1.2 psig
Solution:
P1/T1 = P2/T2
(0.30 + 14.70) / (200 +460) = P2/ (800 + 460)
P2 = 28.64 psia
FLUID MACHINERIES
1.) Axial fans are best suitable for application.
A. Large flow, low head
C. Low flow, high head
B. High head, large flow
D. Low flow, low head
2.) Which of the following axial fan types is most efficient?
A. Propeller
B. Tube axial
C. Vane axial
D. Radial
3.) Constant rotative speed of the hydraulic turbine runner under varying load is achieved by a
___________ that actuates a mechanism that adjust the gate openings.
A. Governor
B. Wicket gates
C. Runner
D. Draft tube
4.) A pipe or conduit used to carry water from reservoir intake to a reaction turbine is known as:
A. Guide Vane
B. Draft Tube
C. Wicket Gate
D. Penstock
5.) The efficiency of forward curved centrifugal fans compared to backward curved fans is_________
A. Higher
B. Lower
C. Same
D. None
6.) When selecting a pump for a given application, it is usually desirable to use a pump that will operate
near its BEP which stands for _________.
A. Brake Effective Horsepower
B. Best Efficiency Point
C. Best Effective Point
D. Break Even Point
7.) In order to prevent shock or water hammering in the penstock when the governor quickly closes the
gates, many turbines are provided with a _______________.
A. Surge Tank
B. Draft Tube
C. Intake Valve
D. Flywheel
8.) Name the fan which is more suitable for high pressure application?
A. Propeller type fans
C. Backward curved centrifugal fan
B. Tube-axial fans
D. All of the above
9.) A type of centrifugal pump impeller characterized by wide passages for water and the ratio of outside
impeller to impeller eye diameter is about 1.5.
A. Francis type
B. Radial type
C. Mixed Flow type
D. Axial type
10.) The seal that allows the impeller shaft of centrifugal pump to pass from outside of the pump to inside,
while maintaining an air tight seal.
A. Sleeve
B. Wearing Ring
C. Mechanical Seal
D. Packing
11.) The general shape of pump performance characteristic curves for two identical pumps in series:
A.
B.
H
C.
H
Q
D.
H
H
Q
Q
Q
12.) The effect (2) of system characteristic curves when throttling valve (valve partially closed) is used for
given system (1)
A.
B.
C.
D.
(2)
H
H
(1)
(1)
H
(2)
H
(1)
Q
Q
Q
(2)
(2)
(1)
Q
13.) Stationary guide vanes of a centrifugal pump surround the impeller converts velocity energy to pressure
head.
A. Diffuser
B.
Volute Casing
C. Impeller
D. Impeller vanes
14.) If two identical centrifugal pumps are installed in parallel the _______________ is doubled.
A. Flow rate
B. Power
C. Head
D. Efficiency
15.) ____________ are used isolate as well as regulates the flow. They have a high pressure drop even wide
open.
A. Check Valve
B. Ball Valve
C. Gate Valve
D. Globe Valve
16.) Which pipe accessories do not belong to the group?
A. Elbows
B. Tees
C. Unions
D. Strainers
17.) ________________ pump are known as vortex and periphery pumps.
A. Turbine (Regenerative) Pumps
C. Vertical Turbine Pumps
B. Diaphragm Pumps
D. Sliding Vane Pumps
18.) Which types of pump does not belong to the group:
A. Screw Rotary Pump
C. Diaphragm Pump
B. Direct Acting Steam Pump
D. Centrifugal Pump
19.) _____________ impellers are generally preferred when handling average waters, because it does no
rust and machining it, making its surface smooth are easy.
A. Stainless Steel
B. Cast-Steel
C. Bronze
D. Cast-iron
20.) A valve used to prevent backflow in the fluid pipe is called:
A. Check Valve
B. Angle Valve
C. Globe Valve
D. Gate Valve
21.) ______________ is a single-stage or multistage centrifugal pump with pumping element suspended
from discharge piping also known as deep well or bore hole pumps.
A. Turbine (Regenerative) Pump
C. Vertical Turbine Pump
B. Screw Pump
D. Sliding Vane Pump
22.) ___________________ pumps are intended for handling thick pulps, sewage sludge, acid, or alkaline
solutions, mixture of water and gritty solids that wear out metal pumps.
A. Direct acting steam pumps
C. Vertical Turbine Pumps
B. Lobe pumps
D. Diaphragm pumps
23.) ___________________ is that part of a rotary pump mounted on the drive shaft; it is the principal
pumping member.
A. Idle Rotors
B. Rotor
C. Stator
D. Driver
24.) What is the relationship of the capacity of centrifugal pump, Q to impeller diameter, D, when there are
two impeller diameters (one is original the other cut down diameter) in the same pump?
A. Q is directly proportional to the square of D.
B. Q is inversely proportional to D.
C. Q is directly proportional to D.
D. Q is inversely proportional to the square of D.
25.) What is the relationship of the horsepower of a centrifugal pump, P, to the impeller speed, N, is pump is
at two different rotative speeds?
A. P is inversely proportional to the cube of N.
B. P is directly proportional to N.
C. P is inversely proportional to N.
D. P is directly proportional to the cube of N.
26.) Hydraulic turbine suitable for low head:
A.) Pelton wheel
B.) Kaplan turbine
C.) Francis turbine
D.) Turgo turbine
27.) If two identical centrifugal pump are installed in series, the system flow rate ____________________.
A.) is doubled
B.) remains the same
C.) is halved
D.) zero
28.) The formation ad collapse of vapor bubbles that occurs when pump inlet suction pressure falls to or
below the vapor pressure of the liquid is called:
A.) sublimation
B.) water hammering
C.) oxidation
D.) cavitation
29.) The process done in centrifugal pump by filling-up the suction line and pump casing with liquid to
remove air or vapors from the waterways of the pump is called:
A.) priming
B.) water hammering
C.) charging
D.) pumping
30.) Which term does not belong to the group:
A.) gear pump
B.) vane pump
C.) screw pump
D.) diaphragm pump