QUESTION BANK
Anatomy and Physiology II
Exam 1 Question Bank
Endocrinology
1: Which of the following is directly related to the chemical reactions that occur in the body?
A: Growth
B: Metabolism
C: Personally
D: Sex Characteristics
2: An endocrine reaction is slow acting, but it doesn’t last very long.
A: True
B: False
3: The venue of message transmission for the nervous system includes hormones.
A: True
B: False
4: Receptors are used for these kinds of hormones.
A: Steroid
B: Eicosanoids
C: Amino acid
D: Targeted
5: Chemicals that function to communicate within animals are:
A: Hormones
B: Pheromones
C: Calcium
D: None of these
6: Pheromones are chemicals that effect physiology between animals.
A: True
B: False
7: Which of the following is not a function of a hormone?
A: Increase mitosis
B: Increase or decrease enzyme activity
C: Cause cell apoptosis
D: Change membrane permeability
8: Hormones can bind to any receptor
A: True
B: False
9: Someone who takes melatonin pills would most likely see ______ in their nervous system.
A: Necrosis
B: Down-regulation
C: Up-regulation
D: No change
10: Which of the following hormonal interactions is seen when thyroxine allows estrogen to be
created.
A: Permissiveness
QUESTION BANK Version 1
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B: Synergism
C: Antagonism
D: None of these
11: Steroid hormone – hormones that are hydrophilic – can pass through the cell membrane with
no additional receptor required.
A: True
B: False
For questions X-X put the steps of the Cyclic AMP system in correct order using the column to
the right.
12: Step 1 C
A: Active G-protein causes adenylate cyclase to be activated
B: Cyclic adenosine monophosphate actives protein kinases
13: Step 2 E
C: 1st messenger (hormone) binds to receptor
14: Step 3 A
D: Adenylate Cyclase makes cyclic adenosine monophosphate
15: Step 4 D
E: G-Protein is activated using MTP
16: Step 5 B
17: In the IP3 system, the PIP2 is split into diacylglycerol and IP3.
A: True
B: False
18: What does the release of IP3 initiate?
A: Release of Na++ from the cell
B: Causes a ribosomal reaction
C: Causes release of Ca++ from the Endoplasmic Reticulum
D: Activation of Protein Kinases
Use the column to the right for questions X-X.
19: Found in the dorsal body cavity, known for secretion of a
sleep-wake cycle hormone. B
20: Largest endocrine gland C
21: Promotes calcium homeostasis E
22: Under direct control from the nervous system A
23: Secretes corticosteroids and neurotransmitters F
24: Contains Islets of Langerhans G
25: Involved with T-Cell maturation D
26: Secretes androgen H
A: Pituitary Gland
B: Pineal Gland
C: Thyroid Gland
D: Thymus Gland
E: Parathyroid Gland
F: Adrenal Gland
G: Pancreas
H: Gonads
27: What is the master gland according to Daempfle?
A: Pituitary
B: Pons
C: Hypothalamus
D: Thalamus
28: The hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract connects to the ______ from the ______.
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A: Hypothalamus, Thalamus
B: Pituitary, Hypothalamus
C: Thalamus, Hypothalamus
D: Pituitary, Thalamus
29: The hypothalamus is a part of the lower brain that receives information from other parts of
the body.
A: True
B: False
Use the column to the right to answer questions X-X.
30: Stimulates the generation of corticosteroid hormones. B
A: TSH
31: Released due to a positive-feedback mechanism during
B: Adrenocorticotropin
labor. H
C: Gonadotropin
32: Stimulates development of gametes. E
D: Luteinizing hormone
33: Stimulates the generation of thyroxine. A
E: Follicle stimulating hormone
34: Stimulated by GnRH. C
F: Prolactin
35: Involved with mammary activity. F
G: Growth hormone
36: Promotes gonadal hormone production. D
H: Oxytocin
37: Promotes water retention. I
38: Stimulates bones and muscles to increase in size. G
I: Antidiuretic Hormone
39: What do tropic hormones have to use to relay their message?
A: IP3 System
B: cAMP system
C: Osmotic reactions
D: None, they are fat soluble and dissolve through the membrane
40: The anterior of the pituitary gland is comprised of epithelium to secrete hormones; while the
pituitary section is a bundle of nervous tissue.
A: True
B: False
41: What lowers blood Ca++
A: Thyroxine
B: Calcitonin
C: Parathyroid hormone
D: None of these
42: The parathyroid is only found within the thyroid.
A: True
B: False
43: Which of the following is not a physiologic result of parathyroid hormone?
A: Increased osteoblastic activity
B: Increased absorption in the intestines
C: Calcium retention in nephrons of kidney
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D: These are all functions of parathyroid hormone
Use the column to the right to answer questions X-X
44: Hyposecretion of adrenal cortex, results in decreased Na+, and
increase K+. I
45: Decreased metabolism from a deficiency of thyroxine. D
46: Occurs when growth hormone continues to secrete after
epiphyseal plates close. G
47: Thyromegaly due to a lack of iodine in diet. E
48: An autoimmune disorder where antibodies mimic TSH and
overstimulate thyroid. A
49: An overactive thyroid. B
50: An underactive thyroid. C
51: Causes by a hypersecretion of growth hormone early in life. F
52: Hypersecretion of glucocorticoids from an adrenal tumor. H
A: Graves’ Disease
B: Hyperthyroidism
C: Hypothyroidism
D: Cretinism
E: Goiter
F: Gigantism
G: Acromegaly
H: Cushing disease
I: Addison’s Disease
53: What hormone made by parafollicular cells is an antagonist to parathyroid hormone?
A: Calcitonin
B: Ca++
C: Thyroxine
D: Triiodothyronine
54: Chief cells secrete parathyroid hormone.
A: True
B: False
55: Gonadocorticoids are made in this layer of the adrenal cortex.
A: Zona glomerulus
B: Zona fasciculata
C: Zona reticularis
D: None of these
56: Glucocorticoids are ______ that are made by the ______.
A: Metabolic hormones, zona fasciculata
B: Metabolic hormones, zona glomerulosa
C: Steroid hormones, zona fasciculata
D: Steroid hormones, zona glomerulosa
57: Mineralocorticoids are ______ and secreted by the ______.
A: Water in blood, zona reticularis
B: Water in blood, zona glomerulosa
C: Glucagon imitators, zona reticularis
D: Glucagon imitators, zona glomerulosa
58: The adrenal medulla only secretes both epinephrine and norepinephrine.
A: True
B: False
59: In the pancreas, alpha cells secrete ______ and beta cells secrete ______.
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A: Insulin, pancreatic juices
B: Insulin, glucagon
C: Glucagon, insulin
D: Glucagon, pancreatic juices
60: What is the average blood sugar for humans?
A: 30 mg/ml
B: 60 mg/ml
C: 90 mg/ml
D: 140 mg/ml
61: In ______ Diabetes Meletus there is a down-regulation in insulin, and in ______ Diabetes
Meletus there is an auto immune attack on the Islets of Langerhans.
A: Type I, Type II
B: Type II, Type I
C: Type I, Type I
D: Type II, Type II
62: This gland secretes more of its hormone in the winter
A: Pituitary
B: Pineal
C: Thyroid
D: Parathyroid
Blood
63: ______ mostly carry oxygenated blood, and ______ mostly carry deoxygenated blood.
A: Capillaries, Veins
B: Capillaries, Arteries
C: Arteries, Veins
D: Veins, Arteries
64: Capillaries can exchange O2 and CO2 because they are made of simple cuboidal epithelium
A: True
B: False
Use the column to the right to answer questions x-x.
A: Complete Blood Count
65: Tests the rate of clotting. D
66: Tests the total of formed elements. A
B: Hematocrit
67: Tests the percent of leukocytes in the blood. C
C: Differential
68: Tests for different minerals in the blood E
D: Prothrombin Time
69: Tests for the ratio of erythrocytes to the total volume of
blood. B
E: SMAC
70: Plasma – a straw colored liquid – is 90% H2O.
A: True
B: False
71: The normal pH of blood is ______ to ______.
A: 7.25, 7.35
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B: 7.35, 7.45
C: 7.35, 7.55
D: 7.45, 7.55
72: Arteriolar blood is usually bright red, and venous blood is usually dark red.
A: True
B: False
73: Which of the following is not a function of the blood?
A: Body temperature
B: pH homeostasis
C: Fluid Volume
D: None of these
74: The blood distributes hormones, wastes, and oxygen.
A: True
B: False
75: Antibodies are proteins for a general category of invaders, making it most effective for a
frontline battle.
A: True
B: False
76: Na+ and plasma proteins maintain ______.
A: Calcium balance
B: Sodium balance
C: Osmotic balance
D: None of these
77: Erythrocytes are mitotic, and therefore are created efficiently.
A: True
B: False
78: Erythrocytes are pliable due to ______.
A: Fe (iron)
B: Their size (7.5 micrometers diameter)
C: Seratin protein
D: Enzymes
79: Why do erythrocytes not contain organelles?
A: The bone marrow does not have the ability to produce the organelles
B: It would take too much energy to produce the organelles
C: The mitosis of the cell would take too long if there were organelles
D: The erythrocyte would then use the materials it is transporting
80: Hemoglobin is comprised of ______ and ______ bound to a ring-like heme group.
A: 2 alpha chains, 3 beta chains
B: 2 alpha chains, 2 beta chains
C: 2 alpha chains, a Fe group
D: 3 alpha chains, 2 beta chains
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81: Where in the long-bone does erythropoiesis occur?
A: Medullary cavity
B: Diaphysis
C: Epiphysis
D: Endosteum
82: Hypoxemia will result in a decrease in:
A: Erythropoietin production
B: Leukocyte production
C: Deeper breathing
D: No changes
83: The lifespan of erythrocytes is approximately 110 days.
A: True
B: False
Use the column to the right to answer questions X-X.
84: Contains the largest granules that bind to Immunoglobin E. C
85: Related to allergies. B
86: Nucleus make up most of cell volume, mature in spleen and thymus. D
87: Can become wandering macrophages E
88: Produce copious H2O2 and are polymorpho nuclear leukocytes. A
89: Most numerus leukocyte. A
A: Neutrophil
B: Eosinophil
C: Basophil
D: Lymphocyte
E: Monocyte
90: The Epstein Barr virus results in clouded cytoplasm
A: True
B: False
91: Platelets are:
A: Chunks of megakaryocytes
B: Anucleic
C: Kept inactive by prostaglandins
D: All of the above
92: Platelets and endothelial cells release chemicals that cause:
A: EPO to be released
B: Release of granules
C: Vasoconstriction
D: Vasodilation
93: The second phase of clotting is a positive-feedback system where:
A: Vasoconstriction occurs
B: Vasodilation occurs to allow for clotting factors to flood the area
C: Coagulation occurs at the site
D: Platelets attach to collagen fibers of wounded vessel
94: Thrombin activates before the platelets are attached.
A: True
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B: False
Use the patient chart below to answer questions X-X.
EMERGENCY DEPARTMENT PATIENT CHART
PATIENT NAME: Jennie Tailiya AGE: 15 SEX: F PAST MEDICAL HISTORY: None
NARRATIVE: pt was admitted to ED c/o malaise and other associated symptoms. Diff, and
Hematocrit were ordered, results are attached below. Dx pending consultation from MD.
LAB RESULTS:
Differential: Neut: 80% Lymp: 15% Mono: 3% Eosi: 1.5% Baso: .5%
Hematocrit: 67%
95: Based on the patient chart, what leukocyte has the most abnormal result?
A: Neutrophil
B: Lymphocyte
C: Monocyte
D: Eosinophil
E: Basophil
96: If the patient states that they have trouble doing any activities without loosing their breath,
what result would you be interested in looking at?
A: Differential
B: Hematocrit
C: None of these
97: Does the patient have an abnormal Hematocrit?
A: Yes, it is abnormally high
B: Yes, it is abnormally low
C: No, it is normal
98: The doctor tells that patient that they may have leukemia. What kind of leukemia does the
patient have?
A: Acute
B: Chronic
C: The patient does not have leukemia
99: Prothrombin  ______, ______  Fibrin
A: Fibrinogen, thrombin
B: Thrombin, fibrinogen
C: Fibrinogen, prothrombin activator
D: Prothrombin activator, fibrinogen
100: The intrinsic pathway triggers clotting through ______; while the extrinsic pathway
triggers clotting through ______.
A: Platelets sticking to collagen,
B: Platelets sticking to collagen, tissue factor releasing
C: Tissue factor releasing,
D: Tissue factor releasing, platelets sticking to collagen
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