Ms. Caputo is newly promoted to a patient care
manager position. She updates her knowledge on the
theories in management and leadership in order to
become effective in her new role. She learns that some
managers have low concern for services and high
concern for staff. Which style of management refers to
this?
B. A manager is effective when he has the ability to plan
well.
C. Assessment of personality traits is a reliable tool for
predicting a manager’s potential.
D. There is good evidence that certain personal
qualities favor success in a managerial role.
A. Organization Management
B. Impoverished Management
C. Country Club Management
D. Team Management
Her former manager demonstrated passion for serving
her staff rather than being served. She takes time to
listen, prefers to be a teacher first before being a leader,
which is characteristic of:
She reads about Path-Goal theory. Which of the
following behaviors is manifested by the leader who
uses this theory?
A. Recognizes staff for going beyond expectations by
giving them citations.
B. Challenges the staff to take individual accountability
for their own practice.
C. Admonishes staff for being laggards.
D. Reminds staff about the sanctions for nonperformance.
A. Transformational leader
B. Transactional leader
C. Servant leader
D. Charismatic leader
One leadership theory states that “leaders are born and
not made,” which refers to which of the following
theories?
A. Trait
B. Charismatic
On the other hand, Ms. Caputo notices that the Chief
Nurse Executive has a charismatic leadership style.
Which of the following behaviors best describes this
style?
C. Great Man
D. Situational
B. Acts as he does because he expects that his behavior
will yield positive results.
She came across a theory which states that the
leadership style is effective depends on the situation.
Which of the following styles best fits a situation when
the followers are self-directed, experts, and are
matured A. Democraticindividuals?
C. Uses visioning as the core of his leadership.
A. Democratic
D. Matches his leadership style to the situation at hand.
B. Authoritarian
Which of the following conclusions of Ms. Caputo about
leadership characteristics is true?
C. Laissez-faire
A. Possesses inspirational quality that makes followers
get attracted to him and regard him with reverence.
A. There is a high correlation between the
communication skills of a leader and the ability to get
the job done.
D. Bureaucratic
She surfs the internet for more information about
leadership styles. She reads about shared leadership as
a practice in some magnet hospitals. Which of the
following describes this style of leadership?
A. Leadership behavior is generally determined by the
relationship between the leader’s personality and the
specific situation.
B. Leaders believe that people are basically good and
need not be closely controlled.
C. Leaders rely heavily on visioning and inspire
members to achieve results.
D. Leadership is shared at the point of care.
D. Ignore the issues since these will be resolved
naturally.
He knows that there are external forces that influence
changes in his unit. Which of the following is not an
external force?
A. Memo from the CEO to cut down on electrical
consumption.
B. Demands of the labor sector to increase wages.
Ms. Caputo learns that some leaders are transactional
leaders. Which of the following does not characterize a
transactional leader?
A. Focuses on management tasks.
B. Is a caretaker.
C. Uses trade-offs to meet goals.
D. Inspires others with vision.
C. Low morale of staff in his unit.
D. Exacting regulatory and accreditation standards.
After discussing the possible effects of the low patient
satisfaction rate, the staff started to list down possible
strategies to solve the problems head-on. Should they
decide to vote on the best change strategy, which of the
following strategies is referred to this?
A. Collaboration
B. Majority rule
She finds out that some managers have a benevolentauthoritative style of management. Which of the
following behaviors will she exhibit most likely?
A. Have condescending trust and confidence in their
subordinates.
C. Dominance
D. Compromise
B. Gives economic or ego awards.
One staff suggests that they review the pattern of
nursing care that they are using, which is described as a:
C. Communicates downward to the staff.
A. Job description
D. Allows decision-making among subordinates.
B. System used to deliver care
C. Manual of procedure
Henry is a Unit Manager I the Medical Unit. He is not
satisfied with the way things are going in his unit. The
patient satisfaction rate is 60% for two consecutive
months and staff morale is at its lowest. He decides to
plan and initiate changes that will push for a turnaround
in the condition of the unit. Which of the following
actions is a priority for Henry?
Which of the following is true about functional nursing?
A. Call for a staff meeting and take this up in the
agenda.
C. One-to-one nurse-patient ratio.
B. Seek help from her manager.
C. Develop a strategic action on how to deal with these
concerns.
D. Rules to be followed
A. Concentrates on tasks and activities.
B. Emphasizes the use of group collaboration.
D. Provides continuous, coordinated, and
comprehensive nursing services.
Functional nursing has some advantages, which one is
an exception?
A. Psychological and sociological needs are
emphasized.
B. Great control of work activities.
C. Most economical way of delivering nursing services.
D. Workers feel secure in a dependent role.
He is hopeful that his unit will make a big turnaround in
the succeeding months. Which of the following actions
of Henry demonstrates that he has reached the third
stage of change?
A. Wonders why things are not what they used to be.
B. Finds solutions to the problems.
C. Integrate the solutions to his day-to-day activities.
D. Selects the best change strategy.
He raised the issue of giving priority to patient needs.
Which of the following offers the best way for setting
priority?
A. Assessing nursing needs and problems.
B. Giving instructions on how nursing care needs are to
be met.
C. Controlling and evaluating the delivery of nursing
care.
D. Assigning a safe nurse: patient ratio.
Joey is a newly-appointed nurse manager of The Holy
Spirit Medical Center, a tertiary hospital located within
the heart of the metropolis. He thinks of scheduling a
planning workshop with his staff in order to ensure
effective and efficient management of the department.
Should he decide to conduct a strategic planning
workshop, which of the following is not a characteristic
of this activity?
A. Long-term goal-setting.
B. Extends to 3-5 years in the future.
Which of the following is the best guarantee that the
patient’s priority needs are met?
C. Focuses on routine tasks.
D. Determines directions of the organization.
A. Checking with the relative of the patient.
B. Preparing a nursing care plan in collaboration with
the patient.
Which of the following statements refer to the vision of
the hospital?
C. Consulting with the physician.
A. The Holy Spirit Medical Center is a trendsetter in
tertiary health care in the next five years.
D. Coordinating with other members of the team.
When Henry uses team nursing as a care delivery
system, he and his team need to assess the priority of
care for a group of patients, which of the following
should be a priority?
A. Each patient is listed on the worksheet.
B. The officers and staff of The Holy Spirit Medical
Center believe in the unique nature of the human
person.
C. All the nurses shall undergo a continuing competency
training program.
D. The Holy Spirit Medical Center aims to provide
patient-centered care in a total healing environment.
B. Patients who need the least care.
C. Medications and treatments required for all patients.
D. Patients who need the most care.
The statement, “The Holy Spirit Medical Center aims to
provide patient-centered care in a total healing
environment” refers to which of the following?
A. Vision
B. Goal
B. Unity of direction
C. Philosophy
C. Unity of command
D. Mission
D. Command responsibility
Joey plans to revisit the organizational chart of the
department. He plans to create a new position of a
Patient Educator who has a coordinating relationship
with the head nurse in the unit. Which of the following
will likely depict this organizational relationship?
Joey stresses the importance of promoting ‘esprit d
corps’ among the members of the unit. Which of the
following remarks of the staff indicates that they
understand what he pointed out?
A. Box
B. Solid line
C. Broken line
D. Dotted line
He likewise stresses the need for all the employees to
follow orders and instructions from him and not from
anyone else. Which of the following principles does he
refer to?
A. Scalar chain
A. “Let’s work together in harmony; we need to be
supportive of one another”
B. “In order that we achieve the same results; we must
all follow the directives of Julius and not from other
managers.”
C. “We will ensure that all the resources we need are
available when needed.”
D. “We need to put our efforts together in order to
raise the bar of excellence in the care we provide to all
our patients.”
B. Discipline
He discusses the goal of the department. Which of the
following statements is a goal?
C. Unity of command
A. Increase the patient satisfaction rate.
D. Order
B. Eliminate the incidence of delayed administration of
medications.
Joey orients his staff on the patterns of reporting
relationships throughout the organization. Which of the
following principles refer to this?
A. Span of control
B. Hierarchy
C. Esprit de' corps
D. Unity of direction
C. Establish rapport with patients.
D. Reduce response time to two minutes.
He wants to influence the customary way of thinking
and behaving that is shared by the members of the
department. Which of the following terms refer to this?
A. Organizational chart
B. Cultural network
He emphasizes to the team that they need to put their
efforts together towards the attainment of the goals of
the program. Which of the following principles refers to
this?
A. Span of control
C. Organizational structure
D. Organizational culture
He asserts the importance of promoting a positive
organizational culture in their unit. Which of the
following behaviors indicate that this is attained by the
group?
A. Proactive and caring with one another
B. Makes management easier
C. Reflects the interest of the worker
D. Allows quick decisions or actions.
B. Competitive and perfectionist
C. Powerful and oppositional
D. Obedient and uncomplaining
Stephanie is a new Staff Educator of a private tertiary
hospital. She conducts orientation among new staff
nurses in her department. Joseph, one of the new staff
nurses, wants to understand the channel of
communication, a span of control, and lines of
communication. Which of the following will provide this
information?
Stephanie delegates effectively if she has authority to
act, which is best defined as:
A. Having a responsibility to direct others.
B. Being accountable to the organization.
C. Having a legitimate right to act.
D. Telling others what to do.
B. Policy
Regardless of the size of a workgroup, enough staff must
be available at all times to accomplish certain purposes.
Which of these purposes is not included?
C. Job description
A. Meet the needs of patients.
D. Manual of procedures
B. Provide a pair of hands to other units as needed.
Stephanie is often seen interacting with the medical
intern during coffee breaks and after duty hours. What
type of organizational structure is this?
C. Cover all time periods adequately.
A. Organizational structure
D. Allow for growth and development of nursing staff.
A. Formal
B. Informal
C. Staff
D. Line
She takes pride in saying that the hospital has a
decentralized structure. Which of the following is not
compatible with this type of model?
Which of the following guidelines should be least
considered in formulating objectives for nursing care?
A. Written nursing care plan
B. Holistic approach
C. Prescribed standards
D. Staff preferences
A. Flat organization
B. Participatory approach
C. Shared governance
D. Tall organization
Stephanie considers shifting to transformational
leadership. Which of the following
statements best describes this type of leadership?
A. Uses visioning as the essence of leadership.
B. Serves the followers rather than being served.
Centralized organizations have some advantages. Which
of the following statements is true? Select all that apply.
A. Highly cost-effective
C. Maintains full trust and confidence in the
subordinates.
D. Possesses innate charisma that makes others feel
good in his presence.
issue. Which of the following conflict resolution
strategies did she use?
As a manager, she focuses her energy on both the
quality of services rendered to the patients as well as
the welfare of the staff of her unit. Which of the
following management styles does she adopt?
A. Smoothing
A. Country club management
D. Restriction
B. Organization man management
Kathleen knows that one of her staff is experiencing
burnout. Which of the following is the best thing for her
to do?
C. Team management
D. Authority-obedience management
B. Compromise
C. Avoidance
A. Advise her staff to go on vacation.
B. Ignore her observations; it will be resolved even
without intervention.
Katherine is a young Unit Manager of the Pediatric
Ward. Most of her staff nurses are senior to her, very
articulate, confident, and sometimes aggressive.
Katherine feels uncomfortable believing that she is the
scapegoat of everything that goes wrong in her
department. Which of the following is the best action
that she must take?
A. Identify the source of the conflict and understand
the points of friction.
C. Remind her to show loyalty to the institution.
D. Let the staff ventilate her feelings and ask how she
can be of help.
She knows that performance appraisal consists of all the
following activities except:
A. Setting specific standards and activities for individual
performance.
B. Disregard what she feels and continues to work
independently.
B. Using agency standards as a guide.
C. Seek help from the Director of Nursing.
C. Determine areas of strength and weaknesses.
D. Quit her job and look for another employment.
D. Focusing activity on the correction of identified
behavior.
As a young manager, she knows that conflict occurs in
any organization. Which of the following statements
regarding conflict is not true?
A. Can be destructive if the level is too high.
B. Is not beneficial; hence it should be prevented at all
times.
C. May result in poor performance.
D. May create leaders.
Katherine tells one of the staff, “I don’t have time to
discuss the matter with you now. See me in my office
later” when the latter asks if they can talk about an
Which of the following statements is not true about
performance appraisal?
A. Informing the staff about the specific impressions of
their work help improve their performance.
B. A verbal appraisal is an acceptable substitute for a
written report.
C. Patients are the best source of information
regarding personnel appraisal.
D. The outcome of performance appraisal rests
primarily with the staff.
There are times when Katherine evaluates her staff as
she makes her daily rounds. Which of the following
is not a benefit of conducting an informal appraisal?
A. The staff member is observed in a natural setting.
B. Incidental confrontation and collaboration are
allowed.
She plans on assigning competent people to fill the roles
designed in the hierarchy. Which process refers to this?
C. The evaluation is focused on objective data
systematically.
A. Staffing
D. The evaluation may provide valid information for the
compilation of a formal report.
B. Scheduling
C. Recruitment
D. Induction
She conducts a 6-month performance review session
with a staff member. Which of the following actions is
appropriate?
A. She asks another nurse to attest to the session as a
witness.
B. She informs the staff that she may ask another nurse
to read the appraisal before the session is over.
C. She tells the staff that the session is managercentered.
D. The session is private between the two members.
Alexandra is tasked to organize the new wing of the
hospital. She was given the authority to do as she
deems fit. She is aware that the director of nursing has
substantial trust and confidence in her capabilities,
communicates through downward and upward
channels, and usually uses the ideas and opinions of her
staff. Which of the following is her style of
management?
She checks the documentary requirements for the
applicants for the staff nurse position. Which one
is not necessary?
A. Certificate of previous employment
B. Record of the related learning experience (RLE)
C. Membership to an accredited professional
organization
D. Professional identification card
Which phase of the employment process includes
getting on the payroll and completing documentary
requirements?
A. Orientation
B. Induction
C. Selection
D. Recruitment
B. Consultative
She tries to design an organizational structure that
allows communication to flow in all directions and
involves workers in decision-making. Which form of
organizational structure is this?
C. Exploitive-authoritative
A. Centralized
D. Participative
B. Decentralized
A. Benevolent –authoritative
C. Matrix
She decides to illustrate the organizational structure.
Which of the following elements is not included?
D. Informal
A. Level of authority
In a horizontal chart, the lowest level worker is located
at the
B. Lines of communication
A. Leftmost box
C. Span of control
B. Middle
D. Unity of direction
D. Bottom
following is a primary task that they should
perform to have an effective control
system?
She decides to have a decentralized staffing system.
Which of the following is an advantage of this system of
staffing?
A. Make an interpretation about strengths and
weaknesses.
C. Rightmost box
A. Greater control of activities.
B. Identify the values of the department.
B. Conserves time.
C. Identify structure, process, outcome standards &
criteria.
C. Compatible with computerization.
D. Measure actual performances.
D. Promotes better interpersonal relationships.
Aubrey thinks about primary nursing as a system to
deliver care. Which of the following activities
is not done by a primary nurse?
A. Collaborates with the physician.
B. Provides care to a group of patients together with a
group of nurses.
C. Provides care for 5-6 patients during their hospital
stay.
D. Performs comprehensive initial assessment.
Ms. Valencia develops the standards to be followed.
Among the following standards, which is considered as a
structure standard?
A. The patients verbalized satisfaction with the nursing
care received.
B. Rotation of duty will be done every four weeks for
all patient care personnel.
C. All patients shall have their weights recorded.
D. Patients shall answer the evaluation form before
discharge.
Which pattern of nursing care involves the care given by
a group of paraprofessional workers led by a
professional nurse who takes care of patients with the
same disease conditions and is located geographically
near each other?
When she presents the nursing procedures to be
followed, she refers to what type of standards?
A. Case method
B. Outcome
B. Modular nursing
C. Structure
C. Nursing case management
D. Criteria
A. Process
D. Team nursing
St. Raphael Medical Center just opened its
new Performance Improvement
Department. Ms. Valencia is appointed as
the Quality Control Officer. She commits
herself to her new role and plans her
strategies to realize the goals and
objectives of the department. Which of the
The following are basic steps in the controlling process
of the department. Which of the following
is not included?
A. Measure actual performance.
B. Set nursing standards and criteria.
C. Compare results of performance to standards and
objectives.
D. Identify possible courses of action.
Which of the following statements refers to criteria?
A. Agreed on level of nursing care.
B. Characteristics used to measure the level of nursing
care.
C. Step-by-step guidelines.
Ms. Valencia is responsible for the number of personnel
reporting to her. This principle refers to:
A. Span of control
B. Unity of command
C. Carrot and stick principle
D. Esprit d’ corps
D. Statement which guides the group in decision
making and problem-solving.
She wants to ensure that every task is carried out as
planned. Which of the following tasks is not included in
the controlling process?
A. Instructing the members of the standards
committee to prepare policies.
B. Reviewing the existing policies of the hospital.
C. Evaluating the credentials of all nursing staff.
D. Checking if activities conform to the schedule.
Ms. Valencia prepares the process standards. Which of
the following is not a process standard?
A. Initial assessment shall be done to all patients within
twenty-four hours upon admission.
B. Informed consent shall be secured prior to any
invasive procedure.
C. Patients report a 95% satisfaction rate prior to
discharge from the hospital.
D. Patient education about their illness and treatment
shall be provided for all patients and their families.
Which of the following is evidence that the controlling
process is effective?
She notes that there is increasing unrest of the staff due
to fatigue brought about by the shortage of staff. Which
action is a priority?
A. Evaluate the overall result of the unrest.
B. Initiate a group interaction.
C. Develop a plan and implement it.
D. Identify external and internal forces.
Kevin is a member of the Nursing Research Council of
the hospital. His first assignment is to determine the
level of patient satisfaction with the care they received
from the hospital. He plans to include all adult patients
admitted from April to May, with an average length of
stay of 3-4 days, first admission, and with no
complications. Which of the following is an extraneous
variable of the study?
A. Date of admission
B. Length of stay
C. Age of patients
D. Absence of complications
He thinks of an appropriate theoretical framework.
Whose theory addresses the four modes of adaptation?
A. Martha Rogers
A. The things that were planned are done.
B. Sr. Callista Roy
B. Physicians do not complain.
C. Florence Nightingale
C. Employees are contented.
D. Jean Watson
D. There is an increase in customer satisfaction rate.
He opts to use a self-report method. Which of the
following is not true about this method?
A. Most direct means of gathering information.
B. Reliability
C. Sensitivity
D. Objectivity
B. Versatile in terms of content coverage.
C. Most accurate and valid method of data gathering.
D. Yields information that would be difficult to gather
by another method.
Which criteria refer to the ability of the instrument to
detect fine differences among the subjects being
studied?
A. Sensitivity
Which of the following articles would
Kevin least consider for his review of literature?
A. “Story-Telling and Anxiety Reduction Among
Pediatric Patients”
B. Reliability
C. Validity
D. Objectivity
B. “Turnaround Time in Emergency Rooms”
C. “Outcome Standards in Tertiary Health Care
Institutions”
D. “Environmental Manipulation and Client Outcomes”
Which of the following terms refer to the degree to
which an instrument measures what it is supposed to be
measured?
A. Validity
B. Reliability
Which of the following variables will he likely exclude in
his study?
A. Competence of nurses
C. Meaningfulness
D. Sensitivity
C. Salary of nurses
He plans for his sampling method. Which sampling
method gives an equal chance to all units in the
population to get picked?
D. Responsiveness of staff
A. Random
B. Caring attitude of nurses
B. Accidental
He plans to use a Likert Scale to determine:
C. Quota
A. Degree of agreement and disagreement
D. Judgment
B. Compliance to expected standards
C. Level of satisfaction
D. Degree of acceptance
He checks if his instruments meet the criteria for
evaluation. Which of the following criteria refers to the
consistency or the ability to yield the same response
upon its repeated administration?
A. Validity
Raphael is interested to learn more about transcultural
nursing because he is assigned at the family suites
where most patients come from different cultures and
countries. Which of the following designs is appropriate
for this study?
A. Grounded theory
B. Ethnography
C. Case study
D. Phenomenology
The nursing theorist who developed transcultural
nursing theory is
A. Dorothea Orem
B. Madeleine Leininger
C. Betty Newman
D. Sr. Callista Roy
Nursing Management, Delegation and Prioritization
1. A 16-year old patient with cystic fibrosis is admitted
with increased shortness of breath and possible
pneumonia. Which nursing activity is most important to
include in the patient’s care?
a. Perform postural drainage and chest
physiotherapy every 4 hours
b. Allow the patient to decide whether she needs
aerosolized medications
c. Place the patient in a private room to decrease
the risk of further infection
d. Plan activities to allow at least 8 hours of
uninterrupted sleep
2. A patient with a pulmonary embolus is receiving
anticoagulation with IV heparin. What instructions
would you give the nursing assistant who will help the
patient with activities of daily living? Select all that
apply.
a. Use a lift sheet when moving and positioning
the patient in bed
b. Use an electric razor when shaving the patient
each day
c. Use a soft-bristled toothbrush or tooth sponge
for oral care
d. Use a rectal thermometer to obtain a more
accurate body temperature
e. Be sure the patient’s footwear has a firm sole
when the patient ambulates
3. A patient with acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS) is receiving oxygen by a nonrebreather mask, but
arterial blood gas measurements still show poor
oxygenation. As the nurse responsible for this patient’s
care, you would anticipate a physician order for what
action?
a. Perform endotracheal intubation and initiate
mechanical ventilation
b. Immediately begin continuous positive airway
pressure (CPAP) via the patient’s nose and
mouth
c. Administer furosemide (Lasix) 100 mg IV push
stat
d. Call a code for respiratory arrest
4. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD). Which intervention for airway management
should you delegate to a nursing assistant (PCT)?
a. Assisting the patient to sit up on the side of the
bed
b. Instructing the patient to cough effectively
c. Teaching the patient to use incentive spirometry
d. Auscultation of breath sounds every 4 hours
5. A patient with sleep apnea has a nursing diagnosis of
Sleep Deprivation related to disrupted sleep cycle.
Which action should you delegate to the nursing
assistant (PCT)?
a. Discuss weight-loss strategies such as diet and
exercise with the patient
b. Teach the patient how to set up the BiPAP
machine before sleeping
c. Remind the patient to sleep on his side instead
of his back.
d. Administer modafinil (Provigil) to promote
daytime wakefulness
6. After change of shift, you are assigned to care for the
following patients. Which patient should you assess
first?
a. A 60-year old patient on a ventilator for whom a
sterile sputum specimen must be sent to the lab
b. A 55-year old with COPD and a pulse oximetry
reading from the previous shift of 90%
saturation
c. A 70-year old with pneumonia who needs to be
started on intravenous (IV) antibiotics
d. A 50-year old with asthma who complains of
shortness of breath after using a
bronchodilator
7. After the respiratory therapist performs suctioning on
a patient who is intubated, the nursing assistant
measures vital signs for the patient. Which vital sign
value should the nursing assistant report to the RN
immediately?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Heart rate of 98 beats/min
Respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min
Blood pressure of 168/90 mm Hg
Tympanic temperature of 101.4 F (38.6 C)
8. An experienced LPN, under the supervision of the
team leader RN, is providing nursing care for a patient
with a respiratory problem. Which actions are
appropriate to the scope of practice of an experienced
LPN? Select all that apply.
a. Auscultate breath sounds
b. Administer medications via metered-dose
inhaler (MDI)
c. Complete in-depth admission assessment
d. Initiate the nursing care plan
e. Evaluate the patient’s technique for using MDI’s
9. The charge nurse is making assignments for the next
shift. Which patient should be assigned to the fairly new
nurse (6 months experience) pulled from the surgical
unit to the medical unit?
a. A 58-year old on airborne precautions for
tuberculosis (TB)
b. A 68-year old just returned from bronchoscopy
and biopsy
c. A 72-year old who needs teaching about the
use of incentive spirometry
d. A 69-year old with COPD who is ventilator
dependent
10. The high-pressure alarm on a patient’s ventilator
goes off. When you enter the room to assess the
patient, who has ARDS, the oxygen saturation monitor
reads 87% and the patient is struggling to sit up. Which
action should you take next?
a. Reassure the patient that the ventilator will do
the work of breathing for him
b. Manually ventilate the patient while assessing
possible reasons for the high-pressure alarm
c. Increase the fraction of inspired oxygen on the
ventilator to 100% in preparation for
endotracheal suctioning
d. Insert an oral airway to prevent the patient from
biting on the endotracheal tube
11. The nursing assistant tells you that a patient who is
receiving oxygen at a flow rate of 6 L/min by nasal
cannula is complaining of nasal passage discomfort.
What intervention should you suggest to improve the
patient’s comfort for this problem?
a. Suggest that the patient’s oxygen be
humidified
b. Suggest that a simple face mask be used instead
of a nasal cannula.
c. Suggest that the patient be provided with an
extra pillow
d. Suggest that the patient sit up in a chair at the
bedside
12. The patient with COPD has a nursing diagnosis of
Ineffective Breathing Pattern. Which is an appropriate
action to delegate to the experienced LPN under your
supervision?
a. Observe how well the patient performs
pursed-lip breathing
b. Plan a nursing care regimen that gradually
increases activity intolerance
c. Assist the patient with basic activities of daily
living
d. Consult with the physical therapy department
about reconditioning exercises
13. The patient with COPD tells the nursing assistant
that he did not get his annual flu shot this year and has
not had a pneumonia vaccination. You would be sure to
instruct the nursing assistant to report which of these?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Blood pressure of 152/84 mm Hg
Respiratory rate of 27 breaths/min
Heart rate of 92 beats/min
Oral temperature of 101.2 F (38.4C)
14. To improve respiratory status, which medication
should you be prepared to administer to the newborn
infant with RDS?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Theophylline (Theolair, Theochron)
Surfactant (Exosurf)
Dexamethasone (Decadron)
Albuterol (Proventil)
15. When a patient with TB is being prepared for
discharge, which statement by the patient indicates the
need for further teaching?
a. “Everyone in my family needs to go and see the
doctor for TB testing.”
b. “I will continue to take my isoniazid until I am
feeling completely well.”
c. “I will cover my mouth and nose when I sneeze
or cough and put my used tissues in a plastic
bag.”
d. “I will change my diet to include more foods rich
in iron, protein, and vitamin C.”
16. When assessing a 22-year old patient who required
emergency surgery and multiple transfusion 3 days ago,
you find that the patient looks anxious and has labored
respirations at the rate of 38 breaths/min. The oxygen
saturation is 90% with the oxygen delivery at 6 L/min via
nasal cannula. Which action is most appropriate?
a. Increase the flow rate on the oxygen to 10
L/min and reassess the patient after about 10
minutes
b. Assist the patient in using the incentive
spirometer and splint his chest with a pillow
while he coughs
c. Administer the ordered morphine sulfate to the
patient to decrease his anxiety and reduce the
hyperventilation
d. Switch the patient to a nonrebreather mask at
95% to 100% oxygen and call the physician to
discuss the patient’s status.
17. Which intervention for a patient with a pulmonary
embolus could be delegated to the LPN on your patient
care team?
a. Evaluating the patient’s complaint of chest pain
b. Monitoring laboratory values for changes in
oxygenation
c. Assessing for symptoms of respiratory failure
d. Auscultating the lungs for crackles
18. Which of these medication orders for a patient with
a pulmonary embolism is more important to clarify with
the prescribing physician before administration?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Warfarin (Coumadin) 1.0 mg by mouth (PO)
Morphine sulfate 2 to 4 mg IV
Cephalexin (Keflex) 250 mg PO
Heparin infusion at 900 units/hr
19. You are a team leader RN working with a student
nurse. The student nurse is to teach a patient how to
use and MDI without a spacer. Put in correct order the
steps that the student nurse should teach the patient.
a. Remove the inhaler cap and shake the inhaler
b. Open your mouth and place the mouthpiece 1
to 2 inches away
c. Tilt your head back and breathe out fully
d. Hold your breath for at least 10 seconds
e. Press down firmly on the canister and breathe
deeply through your mouth
f. Wait at least 1 minute between puffs.
ACBEDF
20. You are acting as preceptor for a newly graduated
RN during her second week of orientation. You would
assign the new RN under your supervision to provide
care to which patients? Select all that apply.
a. A 38-year old with moderate persistent asthma
awaiting discharge
b. A 63-year old with a tracheostomy needing
tracheostomy care every shift.
c. A 56-year old with lung cancer who has just
undergone left lower lobectomy
d. A 49-year old just admitted with a new
diagnosis of esophageal cancer.
21. Jenna is a nurse from the medical-surgical unit of a
tertiary hospital. She was asked to float on the
orthopedic in which she has no prior experience on
working on. Which client should be assigned to her?
a. A client with a cast for a fractured femur and
who has numbness and discoloration of the
toes.
b. A client with balanced skeletal traction and
needs assistance with morning care.
c. A client who had an above-the-knee amputation
yesterday and has currently has a temperature
of 101.4ºF.
d. A client who had a total hip replacement two
days ago and needs blood glucose monitoring.
22. Sally is a nurse working in an emergency department
and receives a client after a radiological incident. Which
task is utmost priority for the nurse to do first?
a. Decontaminate the client’s clothing.
b. Decontaminate the open wound on the client’s
thigh.
c. Decontaminate the examination room the client
is placed in.
d. Save the client’s vomitus for analysis by the
radiation safety staff.
23. The nurse plans care for a client in the post
anesthesia care unit. The nurse should assess first the
client’s:
a.
b.
c.
d.
respiratory status.
level of consciousness.
level of pain.
reflexes and movement of extremities.
24. Nurse Jackie is reviewing the diet of a 28-year-old
female who reports several months of intermittent
abdominal pain, abdominal bloating, and flatulence. The
nurse should tell the client to avoid:
a.
b.
c.
d.
fiber.
broccoli.
yogurt.
simple carbohydrates.
25. Nurse Jason is planning care for a client who will
undergo a colposcopy. Which of the following actions
should Jason take first?
a. Discuss the client’s fear regarding potential
cervical cancer.
b. Assist with silver nitrate application to the
cervix to control bleeding.
c. Give instructions regarding douching and sexual
relations.
d. Administer pain medications.
26. Nurse Channing is caring for four clients and is
preparing to do his initial rounds. Which client should
the nurse assess first?
a. A client with diabetes being discharged today.
b. A 35-year-old male with tracheostomy and
copious secretions.
c. A teenager scheduled for physical therapy this
morning.
d. A 78-year-old female client with pressure ulcer
that needs dressing change.
c. Assist the client back to bed.
d. Ask the client what happened.
28. Paige is a nurse preceptor who is working with a
new nurse Joyce. She notes that the Joyce is reluctant to
delegate tasks to members of the care team. Paige
recognizes that this reluctance is mostly likely due to:
a. Role modeling behaviors of the preceptor.
b. The philosophy of the new nurse’s school of
nursing.
c. The orientation provided to the new nurse.
d. Lack of trust to the members of the healthcare
team.
29. Nurse Paul is developing a care plan for a client after
bariatric surgery for morbid obesity. The nurse should
include which of the following on the care plan as the
priority complication to prevent:
a.
b.
c.
d.
pain.
wound infection.
depression.
thrombophlebitis.
30. A client presents to the emergency room with
dyspnea, chest pain, and syncope. The nurse assesses
the client and notes that the following assessment cues:
pale, diaphoretic, blood pressure of 90/60, respirations
of 33. The client is also anxious and fearing death.
Which action should the nurse take first?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Administer pain medications.
Administer IV fluids.
Administer dopamine.
Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
31. Nurse Pietro receives a 11-month old child with a
fracture of the left femur on the pediatric unit. Which
action is important for the nurse to take first?
a. Call for a social worker to meet with the family.
b. Check the child’s blood pressure, pulse,
respiration, and temperature.
c. Administer pain medications.
d. Speak with the parents about how the fracture
occurred.
27. Nurse Janus enters a room and finds a client lying on
the floor. Which of the following actions should the
nurse perform first?
32. Nurse Skye is on the cardiac unit caring for four
clients. He is preparing to do initial rounds. Which client
should the nurse assess first?
a. Call for help to get the client back in bed.
b. Establish whether the client is responsive.
a. A client scheduled for cardiac ultrasound this
morning.
b. A client with syncope being discharged today.
c. A client with chronic bronchitis on nasal
oxygen.
d. A client with diabetic foot ulcer that needs a
dressing change.
33. A nurse enters a room and finds a patient lying face
down on the floor and bleeding from a gash in the head.
Which action should the nurse perform first?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Determine the level of consciousness.
Push the call button for help.
Turn the client face up to assess.
Go out in the hall to get the nursing assistant to
stay with the client while the nurse calls the
physician.
34. Nurse Adonai is working on the night shift with a
nursing assistant. The nursing assistant comes to the
nurse stating that the other nurse working on the unit is
not assessing a client with abdominal pain despite
multiple requests. Which of the following actions by the
nurse is best?
a. Ask the other nurse if she needs help.
b. Assess the client and let the other nurse know
what should be done.
c. Ask the client if he is satisfied with his care.
d. Contact the nursing supervisor to address the
situation.
35. Nurse Vivian is reviewing immunizations with the
caregiver of a 72-year-old client with a history of
cerebrovascular disease. The caregiver learns that which
immunization is a priority for the client?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Hepatitis A vaccine.
Lyme’s disease vaccine.
Hepatitis B vaccine.
Pneumococcal vaccine.
36. You are admitting a patient for whom a diagnosis of
pulmonary embolus must be ruled out. The patient’s
history and assessment reveal all of these findings.
Which finding supports the diagnosis of pulmonary
embolus?
a. The patient was recently in a motor vehicle
accident
b. The patient participated in an aerobic exercise
program for 6 months
c. The patient gave birth to her youngest child 1
year ago
d. The patient was on bed rest for 6 hours after a
diagnostic procedure
37. You are assigned to provide nursing care for a
patient receiving mechanical ventilation. Which action
should you delegate to an experienced nursing
assistant?
a. Assessing the patient’s respiratory status every
4 hours
b. Taking vital signs and pulse oximetry readings
every 4 hours
c. Checking the ventilator settings to make sure
they are as prescribed
d. Observing whether the patient’s tube needs
suctioning every 2 hours
38. You are caring for a patient with emphysema and
respiratory failure who is receiving mechanical
ventilation through an endotracheal tube. To prevent
ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), which action is
most important to include in the plan of care?
a. Administer ordered antibiotics as scheduled
b. Hyperoxygenate the patient before suctioning
c. Maintain the head of the bed at a 30 – to 45degree angle
d. Suction the airway when coarse crackles are
audible
39. You are evaluating and assessing a patient with a
diagnosis of chronic emphysema. The patient is
receiving oxygen at a flow rate of 5 L/min by nasal
cannula. Which finding concerns you immediately?
a. The patient has fine bibasilar crackles
b. The patient’s respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min.
c. The patient sits up and leans over the night
table.
d. The patient has a large barrel chest.
40. You are initiating a nursing care plan for a patient
with pneumonia. Which intervention for cough
enhancement should you delegate to a nursing
assistant?
a. Teaching the patient about the importance of
adequate of fluid intake and hydration.
b. Assisting the patient to a sitting position with
neck flexed, shoulders relaxed, and knees flexed
c. Reminding the patient to use an incentive
spirometer every 1 to 2 hours while awake
d. Encouraging the patient to take a deep breath,
hold it for 2 seconds, then cough two or three
times in succession.
41. You are making a home visit to a 50-year old patient
who was recently hospitalized with a right leg deep vein
thrombosis and a pulmonary embolism. The patient’s
only medication is enoxaparin (Lovenox)
subcutaneously. Which assessment information will you
need to communicate to the physician?
a. The patient says that her right leg aches all night
b. The right calf is warm to the touch and is larger
than the left calf
c. The patient is unable to remember her
husband’s first name
d. There are multiple ecchymotic areas on the
patient’s arms
42. You are providing care for a patient with recently
diagnosed asthma. Which key points would you be sure
to include in your teaching plan for this patient? (Select
all that apply)
a. Avoid potential environmental asthma triggers
such as smoke
b. Use the inhaler 30 minutes before exercising to
prevent bronchospasm
c. Wash all bedding in cold water to reduce and
destroy dust mites.
d. Be sure to get at least 8 hours of rest and sleep
every night.
e. Avoid foods prepared with monosodium
glutamate (MSG)
43. You are providing nursing care for a newborn infant
with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) who is
receiving nasal CPAP ventilation. What complications
should you monitor for this infant?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pulmonary embolus
Bronchitis
Pneumothorax
Pneumonia
44. You are responsible for the care of a postoperative
patient with a thoracotomy. The patient has been given
a nursing diagnosis of Activity Intolerance. Which action
should you delegate to the nursing assistant?
a. Instructing the patient to alternate rest and
activity periods
b. Encouraging, monitoring, and recording
nutritional intake
c. Monitoring cardiorespiratory response to
activity
d. Planning activities for periods when the patient
has the most energy
45. You are supervising a nursing student who is
providing care for a thoracotomy patient with a chest
tube. What finding would you clearly instruct the
nursing student to notify you about immediately?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Chest tube drainage of 10 to 15 mL/hr
Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
Complaints of pain at the chest tube site
Chest tube dressing dated yesterday
46. You are supervising a student nurse who is
performing tracheostomy care for a patient. For which
action by the student should you intervene?
a. Suctioning the tracheostomy tube before
performing tracheostomy care
b. Removing old dressings and cleaning off excess
secretions
c. Removing the inner cannula and cleaning using
universal precautions
d. Replacing the inner cannula and cleaning the
stoma site.
e. Changing the soiled tracheostomy ties and
securing the tube in place
47. You are supervising an RN who was pulled from the
medical-surgical floor to the emergency department.
The nurse is providing care for a patient admitted with
anterior epistaxis (nosebleed). Which of these directions
would you clearly proved to the RN? (Select all that
apply)
a. Position the patient supine and turned on his
side
b. Apply direct lateral pressure to the nose for 5
minutes
c. Maintain universal body substances
precautions.
d. Apply ice or cool compresses to the nose
e. Instruct the patient not to blow the nose for
several hours.
48. You are the preceptor for an RN who is undergoing
orientation to the intensive care unit. The RN is
providing care for a patient with ARDS who has just
been intubated in preparation for mechanical
ventilation. You observe the nurse perform all of these
actions. For which action must you intervene
immediately?
a. Assessing for bilateral breath sounds and
symmetrical chest movements
b. Auscultating over the stomach to rule out
esophageal intubation
c. Marking the tube 1 cm from where it touches
the incisor tooth or nares
d. Ordering a chest radiograph to verify that tube
placement is correct
49. You have just finished assisting the physician with a
thoracentesis for a patient with recurrent left pleural
effusion caused by lung cancer. The thoracentesis
removed 1800 mL of fluid. Which patient assessment
information is important to report to the physician?
a. The patient starts crying and says she can’t go
on with treatment much longer
b. The patient complains of sharp, stabbing chest
pain with every deep breath
c. The patient’s blood pressure is 100/48 mm Hg
and her heart rate is 102 beats/ min
d. The patient’s dressing at the thoracentesis site
has 1 cm of bloody drainage
50. You have obtained the following assessment
information about a 3-year old who has just returned to
the pediatric unit after having a tonsillectomy. Which
finding requires the most immediate follow-up?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Frequent swallowing
Hypotonic bowel sounds
Complaints of a sore throat
Heart rate of 112 beats/min
MANAGEMENT OF CARE
1. Angelina, an R.N., reports to work looking unkempt.
Maegan, another R.N., approaches when she notices
her using uncoordinated movements. Angelina’s breath
reeks of peppermints and Maegan suspects Angelina
may be intoxicated. What is the best initial nursing
action for Maegan to take?
a. Call the supervisor and report Angelina.
b. Confront Angelina, saying that she feels she is
intoxicated, and relieve her of her nursing
duties immediately.
c. Ignore the situation.
d. Give Angelina a lecture about substance abuse
and do nothing else.
2. Carol has a nasogastric tube after colon surgery.
Which one of these tasks can be safely delegated to an
unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
a. To observe the type and amount of nasogastric
tube drainage
b. Monitor the client for nausea or other
complications
c. Irrigate the nasogastric tube with the ordered
irrigant
d. Perform nostril and mouth care
3. Britney is admitted with a diagnosis of schizophrenia.
The client refuses to take medication and states “I don’t
think I need those medications. They make me too
sleepy and drowsy. I insist that you explain their use and
side effects.” The nurse should understand that:
a. a referral is needed to the psychiatrist who is to
provide the client with answers
b. the client has a right to know about the
prescribed medications
c. such education is an independent decision of
the individual nurse whether or not to teach
clients about their medications
d. clients with schizophrenia are at a higher risk of
psychosocial complications when they know
about their medication side effects
4. James with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder has been
referred to a local boarding home for consideration for
placement. The social worker telephoned the hospital
unit for information about the client’s mental status and
adjustment. The appropriate response of the nurse
should be which of these statements?
a. “I am sorry. Referral information can only be
provided by the client’s providers”
b. “I can never give any information out by
telephone. How do I know who you are?”
c. “Since this is a referral, I can give you this
information”
d. “I need to get the client’s written consent
before I release any information to you”
5. A client tells the nurse, “I have something very
important to tell you if you promise not to tell.” The
best response by the nurse is:
a. “I must document and report any important
information.”
b. “I can’t make such a promise.”
c. “That depends on what you tell me.”
d. “I must report everything to the treatment
team.”
6. Helen, a nurse from the maternity unit is floated to
the critical care unit because of staff shortage on the
evening shift. Which client would be appropriate to
assign to this nurse? A client with:
a. Dopamine drip IV with vital signs monitored
every 5 minutes
b. a myocardial infarction that is free from pain
and dysrhythmias
c. a tracheotomy of 24 hours in some respiratory
distress
d. a pacemaker inserted this morning with
intermittent capture
7. A client asks the nurse to call the police and states: “I
need to report that I am being abused by a nurse.” The
nurse should first:
a. focus on reality orientation to place and person
b. assist with the report of the client’s complaint
to the police
c. obtain more details of the client’s claim of
abuse
d. document the statement on the client’s chart
with a report to the manager
8. John, a client frequently admitted to the locked
psychiatric unit repeatedly compliments and invites one
of the nurses to go out on a date. The nurse’s response
should be to:
a. ask to not be assigned to this client or to work
on another unit
b. tell the client that such behavior is
inappropriate
c. inform the client that hospital policy prohibits
staff to date clients
d. discuss the boundaries of the therapeutic
relationship with the client
9. A client continuously calls out to the nursing staff
when anyone passes the client’s door and asks them to
do something in the room. The best response by the
charge nurse would be to:
a. keep the client’s room door cracked to minimize
the distractions
b. assign 1 of the nursing staff to visit the client
regularly
c. reassure the client that 1 staff person will check
frequently if the client needs anything
d. arrange for each staff member to go into the
client’s room to check on needs every hour on
the hour
10. The nurse is responsible for several elderly clients,
including a client on bed rest with a skin tear and
hematoma from a fall 2 days ago. What is the best care
assignment for this client?
a. Assign an RN to provide total care of the client
b. Assign a nursing assistant to help the client with
self-care activities
c. Delegate complete care to an unlicensed
assistive personnel
d. Supervise a nursing assistant for skin care
11. A 24-year-old woman had surgery today. Her father,
a physician but not her surgeon, enters the nursing
station and asks for her chart. The best action for the
nurse to take is:
a. to give him the chart as requested.
b. not to allow him to read the chart.
c. to ask the attending surgeon if it is permissible
for him to read the chart.
d. to ask the client if she wants him to read her
chart.
12. When assessing a client, it is important for the nurse
to be informed about cultural issues related to the
client’s background because:
a. Normal patterns of behavior may be labeled as
deviant, immoral, or insane
b. The meaning of the client’s behavior can be
derived from conventional wisdom
c. Personal values will guide the interaction
between persons from 2 cultures
d. The nurse should rely on her knowledge of
different developmental mental stages
13. Robin, an adult male is scheduled for exploratory
surgery this morning. After he is premedicated for
surgery the nurse reviews his chart and discovers that
he has not signed a consent form. The nurse’s action is
based on which of the following understandings?
a. Since the client came to the hospital consent is
implied even if the consent for the surgery has
not been signed.
b. All invasive procedures require a consent form.
c. The nurse should have him sign a consent form
immediately
d. The nurse should have the next of kin sign the
necessary consent form
14. Zantac is ordered for an adult client. The nurse
mistakenly administered Xanax. What is the most
appropriate action for the nurse to take?
a. Notify the physician and document in the
nurse’s notes that the physician was notified of
the error.
b. Notify the supervisor, complete a medication
error incident report, and document in the
nurse’s notes that an incident report was
completed
c. Notify the house supervisor, assess client
carefully, and document only if adverse or
untoward effects occur.
d. Notify the physician, complete an incident
report, and document the notification of the
physician and any assessments made.
15. A client with Guillain-Barré syndrome has been on a
ventilator for three weeks, and can communicate only
with eye blinks because of quadriplegia. The intensive
care nursing staff sometimes have no time for this
tedious communication process. The client’s family
comes infrequently since they run a family-owned
restaurant that does not close until visiting hours are
over. How should the nurse respond to the family’s
request for exemption from visiting hours?
a. Arrange for a volunteer to stay with the client
during the day to provide for socialization needs
and to facilitate communication with staff.
b. Explain to the family that consistency in
enforcing rules is important to prevent
complaints from the families of other clients.
c. Suggest that the family visit in shifts during the
normal visiting hours, since the client needs to
sleep at night.
d. Make an exception to visiting regulations
because of the long-term nature of the client’s
recovery and the need for family support.
16. An adult client has continued slow bleeding from the
graft after repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm.
Because of the client’s unstable condition, he is in the
intensive care unit where visitors are limited to the
family. The client insists on having a visit from a
medicine man whom the family visits regularly. How
should the nurse interpret this request?
a. The principle of justice prohibits giving one
client a privilege that other clients are not
permitted.
b. Faith healers do not meet the standards for
clergy exemption from visitation rules.
c. Medicine men are not approved by the hospital
as legitimate health care providers.
d. Provision of holistic care requires that the
client’s belief system is honored.
17. Mrs. Jefferson is an 88-year-old client at a long-term
care facility. Prior to administering any medication or
treatment to this client the nurse must confirm identity
by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
asking the client if she is Mrs. Jefferson.
reading the client’s identification bracelet
reading the client’s medical record.
asking the roommate to state the client’s name.
18. After working with a very demanding client, a
nursing assistant tells the nurse, “I have had it with that
client. I just can’t do anything that pleases him. I’m not
going in there again.” The nurse’s BEST response is:
a. “He has a lot of problems. You need to be
patient with him.”
b. “I will talk with him and try to figure out what to
do.”
c. “He is scared and taking it out on you. Let’s try
to figure out what to do.”
d. “Ignore him and get the rest of your work done.
Someone else can take care of him tomorrow.”
19. A client frequently compliments and invites the
nurse to go out. The nurse should:
a. Minimize further contact with the client
b. Tell the client that his/her behavior is
inappropriate
c. Tell the client that hospital policy prohibits
dating clients
d. Discuss the boundaries of the relationship with
the client
20. Which one of the following could be safely
delegated by the nurse to the nursing assistant?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Observe a client’s self-administration of insulin
Cleanse and dress a small decubitus ulcer
Monitor a client’s response to physical therapy
Apply and care for a client’s rectal pouch
STUDOCU
1. A group of staff nurses is dissatisfied with the new
ideas presented by the newly hired nurse manager. The
staff wants to keep their old procedures, and they resist
the changes. Conflict arises from:
a. group decision-making options.
b. perceptions of incompatibility.
c. increases in group cohesiveness.
d. debates, negotiations, and compromises.
2. Two staff nurses are arguing about whose turn it is to
work on the upcoming holiday. In trying to resolve this
conflict, the nurse manager understands that
interpersonal conflict arises when:
a. risk taking seems to be unavoidable.
b. people see events differently.
c. personal and professional priorities do not match.
d. the ways in which people should act do not match the
ways in which they do act
3. The nurse manager is aware that conflict is occurring
on her unit; however, she is focused on preparing for a
state health department visit, so she ignores the
problem. What factor can increase stress and escalate
conflict?
a. The use of avoidance
b. An enhanced nursing work force
c. Accepting that some conflict is normal
d. Managing the effects of fatigue and error
4. The nurse manager decides to use a mediator to help
resolve the staff's conflict. A basic strategy for truly
addressing this conflict is to:
a. identify the conflicting facts.
b. be determined to resolve the conflict.
c. schedule a meeting time for resolution.
d. have a clear understanding of the differences
between the parties in conflict.
5. Sarah, a staff nurse on your unit, witnesses another
nurse striking a patient. Sarah wants to remain friends
with her colleague and worries that confrontation with
her colleague or reporting her colleague will destroy
their relationship. Sarah is experiencing which type of
conflict?
a. Intrapersonal
b. Interpersonal
c. Organizational
d. Professional
6. The chief nursing officer plans a series of staff
development workshops for the nurse managers to help
them deal with conflicts. The first workshop introduces
the four stages of conflict, which are:
a. frustration, competition, negotiation, and action.
b. frustration, conceptualization, action, and
outcomes.
c. frustration, cooperation, collaboration, and action
outcomes.
d. frustration, conceptualization, negotiation, and action
outcomes.
7. After using a mediator to resolve a conflict between
the nurse manager and two staff nurses, the chief
nursing officer decides to:
a. observe to make sure the conflict has been resolved.
b. fire both staff nurses.
c. reassign both staff nurses.
d. reassign the nurse manager.
8. A nursing instructor is teaching a class on conflict and
conflict resolution. She relates to the class that conflict
in an organization is important, and that an optimal
level of conflict will generate:
a. creativity, a problem-solving atmosphere, a weak
team spirit, and motivation of its workers.
b. creativity, a staid atmosphere, a weak team spirit, and
motivation of its workers.
c. creativity, a problem-solving atmosphere, a strong
team spirit, and motivation for its workers.
d. a bureaucratic atmosphere, a strong team spirit, and
motivation for its workers.
9. Jane has transferred from the ICU to the CCU. She is
very set in the way she makes assignments and
encourages her new peers to adopt this method without
sharing the rationale for why it is better. This is a good
example of a process and procedure that creates which
type of conflict?
a. Organizational
b. Intrapersonal
c. Interpersonal
d. Disruptive
10. Two nurses on a psychiatric unit come from different
backgrounds and have graduated from different
universities. They are given a set of new orders from the
unit manager. Each nurse displays different emotions in
response to the orders. Nurse A indicates that the new
orders include too many changes; Nurse B disagrees and
verbally indicates why. This step in the process is which
of the following in Thomas' stages of conflict?
a. Frustration
b. Conceptualization
c. Action
d. Outcomes
11. Mrs. Hill, aged 68, was hospitalized after a stroke.
The speech therapist recommended that oral feeding be
stopped because of her dysplasia. During visiting hours,
Mr. Hill fed his wife some noodles. The nurse noticed
this and stopped Mr. Hill from feeding his wife, telling
him it was the doctor's decision. An hour later, the nurse
returned and found Mr. Hill feeding his wife again. The
nurse tried to stop him again. Mr. Hill refused and
claimed that the clinical staff was trying to starve his
wife; he also threatened to get violent with the nurse.
The nurse decided to walk away and documented the
event in Mrs. Hill's chart. According to Thomas' four
stages of conflict, in which stage could the nurse have
been more effective?
a. Frustration
b. Conceptualizing
c. Action
d. Outcomes
12. Mrs. Hill, aged 68, was hospitalized after a stroke.
The speech therapist recommended that oral feeding be
stopped because of her dysplasia. During visiting hours,
Mr. Hill fed his wife some noodles. The nurse noticed
this and stopped Mr. Hill from feeding his wife, telling
him it was the doctor's decision. An hour later, the nurse
returned and found Mr. Hill feeding his wife again. The
nurse tried to stop him again. Mr. Hill refused and
claimed that the clinical staff was trying to starve his
wife; he also threatened to get violent with the nurse.
The nurse decided to walk away and documented the
event in Mrs. Hill's chart. The outcome as depicted by
Thomas' conflict stages can be considered to be:
a. compromising.
b. confronting.
c. constructive.
d. destructive.
13. Jill is the head nurse on a unit in a large hospital.
Two of the staff nurses are constantly arguing and
blaming each other, and a resolution has not occurred in
months. To solve the existing conflict, which is the most
creative conflict resolution?
a. Avoiding
b. Competing
c. Compromising
d. Collaborating
14. A nurse educator is giving a workshop on conflict.
During the sessions, he makes various statements
regarding conflict. All of the statements are true except:
a. conflict can decrease creativity, thus acting as a
deterrent for the development of new ideas.
b. horizontal violence involves those with similar status
but little power in the larger
context.
c. interprofessional collaboration reduces unresolved
conflicts.
d. all conflicts involve some level of disagreement.
15. Sarah is a nurse manager in a surgical unit. She is
concerned about a conflict between Lucy (a staff nurse)
and one of the maintenance personnel. Sarah explains
to Lucy that unsatisfactory resolution of the conflict is
typically destructive and will result in:
a. decreased frustration between the maintenance
worker and her.
b. a good relationship with the maintenance
department.
c. eventual resolution of the problem without further
intervention.
d. decreased productivity on her part.
16. Staff at Valley Hospital are concerned that recent
staffing cuts will affect their ability to provide quality
patient care, and they express their concerns to senior
management. The CEO of Valley Hospital makes the
following statement: "We need to contain costs because
our funding has been decreased." This is a good
example of which of the following conditions that
propel a situation toward conflict?
a. Incompatible goals
b. Role conflicts
c. Structural conflict
d. Competition for resources
17. Kala, a unit manager, in discussing a role the CEO
would like her to perform, makes the following
statement, "I will sit on the hospital task force on
improving morale if you send me to the hospital's
leadership training classes next week, so I can further
develop my skills and thus be more effective." Which of
the following conflict management styles is Kala using?
a. Collaborating
b. Avoiding
c. Negotiating
d. Accommodating
18. John is a circulating nurse in the operating room. He
is usually assigned to general surgery, but on this day he
is assigned to the orthopedic room. He is unfamiliar
with the routines and studies the doctor's preference
cards before each patient. The fourth patient comes into
the room and John prepares a site for a biopsy using a
Betadine solution. The surgeon prefers another solution.
He notices what John has done and immediately
corrects him by rudely insulting John. What is the
appropriate approach to conflict resolution in this
example?
a. Collaboration
b. Compromising
c. Avoiding
d. Withdraw
19. Factors that influence the ease with which conflict is
resolved include all except which of the following?
a. Level of interdependence of the parties
b. Interprofessional collaboration
c. Expression of one's own needs and ideas
d. Avoidance of the issue or concern
20. The head nurse and a staff nurse are having a
conflict over how to use and apply a new procedure for
dressings in the medical/surgical area. The staff nurse
wishes to use the new procedure based on newly
released nursing research. The head nurse wishes to use
a protocol that has been used in the department for a
number of years. The head nurse later makes comments
to other staff on her unit about the credibility of the
staff nurse. This behavior is associated with:
a. lateral violence.
b. horizontal violence.
c. confrontation.
d. bullying.
21. Which of the following exemplifies the predominant
conflict management style of nurse managers?
a. Elizabeth, the head nurse on neurology, finds that
Tom, the RN nurse on nights, is
irritable in relation to any suggestions or new ideas, and
so she comes in to work after Tom leaves the unit.
b. The technology committee has recommended a
clinical system for implementation on the nursing unit.
Staff is anxious about the change. Tim, the head nurse,
asks staff for ideas on how to meet the technology goals
and to meet staff needs.
c. During management meetings, George, the head
nurse on nephrology, dominates meetings and
decisions. Lee, the head nurse on the cardiac step-down
unit, begins to miss the management meetings.
d. Ann, RN, asks her head nurse if she can go on the
permanent evening shift. The head nurse, Rajib,
agrees, as long as Ann agrees to be involved in
assisting to mentor evening staff in the use of the new
clinical information system.
22. Lee, the head nurse in ER, has attempted to meet
Jillian, one of her staff RNs, for several days to discuss
concerns about Jillian's relationships with her team
members. Lee hopes to offer Jillian coaching so that
Jillian's relationships can be more satisfying for Jillian
and her team members. Each time Lee and Jillian set a
time to meet, Jillian phones in sick. In this situation, Lee
and Jillian are demonstrating:
a. similar conflict management strategies.
b. escalation of conflict.
c. avoidance and compromise strategies.
d. competing and compromise strategies.
SCRIBD
23. What exemplifies the predominant style of conflict
management for staff nurses?
a. Sarah and Jonas, two RNs, disagree about the best
approach to assisting a family that has complex needs.
They decide that they will consult with family and
together will decide what is best.
b. Jennifer needs to switch a shift to attend a family
function. She arranges to trade with Nancy, who wants a
day off next to a 3-day break.
c. Lindsay asks Melody to stay late for the third day in a
row. Melody refuses, stating that she has already helped
out for 2 days by staying late for Lindsay.
d. Lara asks Stacey to switch shifts with her because
Lara wants to attend a concert. Stacey would prefer
not to but does to enable Lara, who is new in town, to
be with her friends.
b) Experimentation process
24. In trying to achieve Magnet® status, the chief
nursing officer establishes a shared governance model
to help nurses experience job satisfaction. However,
some nurses who have enjoyed working with less
autonomy resist this change and begin to criticize and
make rude comments about managers who embrace
this model, as well as colleagues who support it. The
comments are largely ignored because those who are
making them are well established nurses who are often
vocal about their displeasure with the organization.
Organizational conflict is arising from which of the
following?
a. Staffing practices
b. Increased participation in decision making
c. Allocation of resources
d. Tolerance of incivility
1. Nurses entering the work force today are faced with
which of the following relationships that could create
organizational conflict? (Select all that apply.)
a. Nurse-physician relationship
b. Nurse-nurse relationship
c. Nurse-patient relationship
d. Nurse-chief nursing officer relationship
e. Nurse-auxiliary personnel relationships
1. The nurse manager generally uses a stepwise method
to arrive at decisions that are logical and that is used to
maximize the achievement of the desired objective.
Which decisionmaking model does this manager use?
a) Political decision-making model
c) Rational decision-making model
d) Trial-and-error method
2. What leadership style is used to maintain a strong
control in the department?
a) Laissez- faire
b) Democratic
c) Collegial
d) Autocratic
3. What make you think is the most effective leadership
style that can be used during emergency situations?
a) Democratic
b) Laissez- faire
c) Autocratic
d) Supportive
4. What are the qualities that define a leader who uses
laissez- faire?
a) The group in planning and in decision making
b) Passive and puts the responsibility of decisionmaking to others.
c) Foster independence in team by promoting
motivation and creativity.
d) Provide little autonomy and self motivation.
5. This is a joint trait of a leader which is defined as his
ability to possess honesty, responsibility and maturity in
the working area.
a) Integrity
b) Personality
c) Intelligence
a) It uses action words in present tense
d) Flexibility
b) It is written to magnify the various activities and it is
projected with a broad time frame
6. You are head nurse in the pediatric department. Your
roles in the planning process in the hospital include the
following, except one:
c) It reflects why the organization exist
d) It reflects what the organization wants to be
a) Act as link between higher- level managers and nonmanagers
b) Directly responsible for the actual production of
nursing services
c) Represent the organization
10. In the hospital, your department is using the
functional method of patient care modality. What is it all
about?
d) None of Above
a) One nurse is responsible for giving bedside care,
another one for administering medications and
another one for treatments and so on
7. What is true of a patient classification system (PCS)?
b) It is a one-on-one constant patient care for a period
of time.
a) It is a method of grouping patients according to
length or duration of nursing care
b) It is a measuring tool used to describe the progress of
patient’s status
c) The nurse has the responsibility for giving nursing
care to the client from admission until discharge
d) A team leader has the task of coordinating the total
care of a group of patients
c) It depends on the complexity of nursing care
requirements of the patient
d) All of the above
11. It is a managerial function that indicates leading the
staff in the most applicable method.
a) Planning
8. You are asked by your instructor to discuss about
Contingency Theory. What should you are included in
your discussion?
a) It is a theory in leadership that views the pattern of
leader behavior as dependent on the interaction of the
personality and the needs of the situation.
b) It considers that leaders must provide followers the
sense of security and approval and discipline to succeed
in an output.
c) It emphasizes that both leaders and followers should
act on one another to raise their motivation.
d) It states that leadership qualities inspire followers to
be motivated by what they do.
9. In planning, conceptualizing the purpose and the
aspirations of the organization are essential. What
statement gives a false description of a vision?
b) Directing
c) Organizing
d) Controlling
12. Which describes an informal leader?
a) Competencies and continuing education
b) The leader of the team because of years of
experience in the department
c) The leader of the team since gave the legitimate
authority to act as one.
d) The administration because of age and knowledge in
the area of work.
13. Why is effective communication important in
managing personnel?
a) It fosters influence and power
c) Mary Follet
b) It promotes independence and collaboration
d) Henri Fayol
c) It motivates personnel to do their jobs well
d) All of the above
14. Downward communication is outlined below. Which
one is correct?
18. What are the tasks that should not be delegated to a
non-professional employee?
a) Doing the vital signs
b) Turning the client every two hours
a) The communication is between two supervisors
c) Grooming and bathing the client
b) The flow of communication is from the head nurse to
supervisor
d) Assessment of neurological deficits
c) The flow of communication is from the chief nurse to
the head nurse
d) The flow of communication is from the staff nurse to
the chief nurse
15. During controlling and evaluating phase, which one
of the following is quality improvement method utilized
by institutions.
a) Credentialing and licensing
b) Standards of care
19. You are requested by your instructor to differentiate
a leader and a manager. Which one is incorrect?
a) A leader is focused on purpose but a manager is
focused on structures and processes.
b) A leader makes the right thing and a manager does
each task the right way.
c) A leader has a short-term view while a manager views
work in long term duration
d) A leader relies on trust while a manager relies on
control
c) Clinical pathways
d) Benchmarking
16. Which type of conflict management technique is
described as cooperating and that one side gives way to
the other?
a) Avoiding
20. Supervision and delegation fall to what phase of the
management process
a) Organizing
b) Directing
c) Controlling
d) Planning
b) Accommodating
c) Competing
d) Compromising
17. The management theorist who developed the 14
principles of management is:
21. What type of conflict refers to when there are two
or more opposing incompatible demands that arise and
priority differences affect the resolution of the conflict?
a) Interpersonal conflict
b) Organizational conflict
a) Frederick Taylor
c) Intrapersonal conflict
b) Max Weber
d) None of Above
22. What is no longer a characteristic of an
organizational chart?
a) It shows the division of work
b) It shows the workload of each personnel
a) Content
b) Impact
c) Outcome
d) Process
c) It reflects the type of work of each staff
d) It delineates the groupings according to type of work
23. What kind of staffing is considered the most
common pattern and the oldest type?
26. The nursing professional development specialist
facilitates selection by using the decision-making
technique of:
a) Brainstorming
a) Cyclical staffing
b) Consensus
b) Full time equivalent staffing
c) Convergent thinking
c) Decentralized staffing
d) Groupthink.
d) Conventional staffing
24. A lecture format is most appropriate when the:
a) Educational material is complex and detailed
b) Learning involves attitudes and feelings.
c) Objective is to achieve long-term retention of
knowledge.
d) Primary purpose of education is the delivery of
information.
25. A learning objective that is based on the cognitive
domain includes asking participants to:
a) Demonstrate drawing blood from a central line
catheter
b) Explain how they feel about caring for patients with
terminal illness
c) Identify two risk factors for heart disease
27. Which is an accurate statement about certification in
nursing professional development?
a) Certification guarantees that standards of care will be
met
b) Certification is a means of licensure and public
protection
c) Certification measures the nurse’s knowledge of the
specialty
d) Certification measures the nurse’s level of education
28. Which role is typically the most challenging for
preceptors?
a) Educator
b) Evaluator
c) Role model
d) Socializer
d) Remove a colostomy pouch correctly.
25. Six months after an educational activity on
documentation, a nursing professional development
specialist performs an audit of patient charts. Which
type of evaluation does the audit reflect
29. A process within the nursing professional
development specialist practice model is:
a) Patient safety
b) Staff orientation
c) The learning environment
d) The quality of care
b) Intrapersonal behaviors
c) Task behaviors
30. As a new nursing professional development
practitioner, the mastery of which skill is most
Important?
a) Communicating effectively
b) Coordinating programs
c) Managing resources
d) Serving as facilitator
d) Relational behaviors
35. What are the stages of Group Building?
a) Closed and Open
b) Trust
c) Belief
d) All of the Above
31. Which of the following factors will influence the
types of structures groups create?
36. Which of these isn’t a Behavior Style?
a) Member characteristics and preferences
a) Promoter
b) The nature of the group’s task
b) Directors
c) The interplay between important value
c) Actors
d) All of the above
d) Thinkers
32. Group tension comes in two types. They are:
37. The following are characteristics of supporters
except
a) Internal and external
b) Interpersonal and intrapersonal
c) Primary and secondary
d) Group and environmental
a) Nurturing
b) Sensitive
c) Callous
d) Caring
33. What can be done to reduce a group’s primary
tension?
a) Establish clear lines of communication among
members
b) Establish clear roles among members
c) Take the time for members to get acquainted
38. In order to have an effective group, one must have
a) Supporters and Directors
b) Promoters
c) Thinkers
d) All of the above
d) None of the above
34. When the group has reached socio-emotional
maturity, which types of behaviors will Predominate?
a) Interpersonal behaviors
39. Which one of the following is not aim of Nursing
Practice?
a) Promote Health
b) Prevent Illness
c) Disease Process
d) Restore Health
40. There are ________ periods of Nursing History:
a) 3
b) 5
c) 4
d) 6
which should the manager do first to overcome
resistance to change?
a. ensure that the planned change is within the current
beliefs and values of the group
b. provide incentives to encourage commitment of
participants to the change
c. implement change by employing small steps rather
than large steps
d. use influence power to ensure that goals of change
are met
NCLEX QUIZLET
an accurate assessment drives the rest of the steps of
the nursing process. which management function drives
effective management?
a. planning
b. directing
c. organizing
d. controlling
when considering the autocratic leadership style, an
"autocratic" leader is to an "authoritarian" leader as a
"democratic" leader is to which type of leader?
a. directive
b. permissive
c. oppressive
d. consultative
which is most basic for a nurse to have when working a
management position?
a. strong interpersonal communication skills
b. awareness of when to be confrontational
c. knowledge of the role of a change agent
d. recognition by peers as a leader
which nursing-care delivery model is based on case
management?
a. client classification system
b. diagnosis related groups
c. critical pathways
d. primary nursing
a unit manager mentors a new unit manager as part of
orientation to the position. what type of power is being
used by the unit manager mentor?
a. influence
b. coercive
c. referent
d. expert
which statement is most significant in relation to the
concept of change theory in the health care
environment?
a. stages of change are predictable
b. risks and benefits of change must be weighed
c. activities that are new result in positive outcomes
d. changes that are large are easier to adapt to than
multiple smaller changes
a nurse manager considers that there are "five rights of
delegation". which is a right of delegation in addition to
right task, right person, right communication, and right
time?
a. place
b. route
c. feedback
d. supervision
several nurses complain to the nurse manager that on of
the nursing assistants constantly takes extensive lunch
breaks. which should the nurse manager do?
a. convene a group meeting of all the nursing assistants
to review their responsibilities related to time
management
b. talk with the nursing assistant to explore the
reasons for the behavior and review expectations
c. arrange a meeting with the nurses so that they can
confront the nursing assistant as a group
d. document the nursing assistant's behavior and place
it in the aide's personnel file
which should the nurse do to ensure efficiency when
managing a daily assignment?
a. give care to a client in isolation first
b. plan activities to promote nursing convenience
c. organize care around legally required activities
d. perform routine bed baths between breakfast and
lunch
a supervisor communicates expectations about a task to
be completed and then delegates the task. which
management function is being implemented by the
supervisor?
a. planning
b. directing
c. organizing
d. controlling
a first year nursing student in the clinical area is given an
appropriate client assignment by the instructor. which
should the student nurse do?
a. complete the care indicated on the client's plan of
care
b. accept the role of leader of the client's health care
team
c. assume accountability for the tasks that are assigned
by the instructor
d. help other students to complete their assigned tasks
whenever necessary
which statement is significant in relation to the concept
of change theory in the health care environment?
a. barriers to change can be overcome by embracing
new ideas uncritically
b. change generates anxiety by moving away from the
comfortable
c. behaviors are easy to change when change is
supported
d. change is effective when spontaneous
which is the major task of a nurse manager?
a. accomplishing an objective
b. empowering others
c. problem solving
d. planning
a staff nurse must solve a complex problem. which is the
nurse's most effective resource?
a. organizational chart of the institution
b. nursing procedure manual
c. unit's nurse manager
d. nursing supervisor
when delegating a specific procedure to a client care
aide, the aide refuses to perform the procedure. which
should the nurse do first?
a. assign the procedure to another client care aide
b. explain that it is part of the client care aide's job
description
c. explore why the client care aide refused to perform
the procedure
d. send the client care aide to the procedure manual to
review the procedure
which is the first thing the nurse should do when
planning to apply for a new position within an agency?
a. review the job description
b. provide at least several positive references
c. identify if power is associated with the position
d. locate the position on the agency's table of
organization
which is the most important reason why a nursing
assistant must fully understand how to implement a
delegated procedure?
a. be capable of completing the procedure safely
b. be proficient enough to perform the procedure
quickly
c. have the knowledge to explain the procedure to a
client
d. have to correct information when teaching the
procedure to another nursing assistant
a nursing team leader delegates a would irrigation to a
licensed practical nurse (lpn). it has been a long time
since the lpn performed this procedure. which should
the nursing team leader do to ensure client safety?
a. verbally describe how to perform the procedure to
the lpn
b. have the lpn demonstrate how to perform the
procedure
c. assign another lpn to assist with the procedure
d. delegate the procedure to another lpn
a nurse manager is informed that a large number of
clients will be admitted in response to a terrorist attack.
which type of leadership style is appropriate to use in
this situation?
a. collaborative
b. authoritarian
c. laissez-faire
d. democratic
a nurse manager is experiencing staff resistance when
implementing change. which is the most important
action by the nurse manager to overcome resistance to
change?
a. identify the reason for the resistance
b. restate the purpose of the change concisely
c. modify the goals to appeal to more key people
d. emphasize the positive consequences of the planned
change
which is the major focus of leadership?
a. inspiring people
b. initiating change
c. controlling others
d. producing a product
which factor associated with a manager differentiates
the role of a manager from a leader?
a. vision
b. charisma
c. confidence
d. responsibility
which situation is reflective of the saying "a stitch in
time saves nine"?
a. obtaining the vital signs of clients on the unit during a
specified time frame
b. collecting equipment for a procedure before
entering the room
c. delegating some interventions to the licensed
practical nurse
d. documenting the nursing care given every few hours
a registered nurse delegates a procedure to a licensed
practical nurse. which is the purpose for delegating the
procedure to the licensed practical nurse?
a. create change
b. establish a network
c. improve productivity
d. transfer accountability
a nurse manager plans to provide feedback to a
subordinate who needs a change in behavior. which is
the first intervention by the nurse manager?
a. be assertive
b. explore alternatives
c. identify the unacceptable behavior
d. document the content of the counseling session
which is the main reason a nurse manager achieves a
consensus when making a decision within a group?
a. explore possible alternative solutions
b. demonstrate that staff members are flexible
c. facilitate cooperative effort toward goal
achievement
d. ensure the use of effective autocratic decision making
a nurse manager evaluates the performance of a
subordinate. which management function is being
implemented by the nurse manager?
a. planning
b. directing
c. organizing
d. controlling
which of the following is related to systems theory?
a. end result
b. linear format
c. trial and error
d. cyclical process
which activity does a nurse manager engage in that
values the importance of positive role modeling? (select
all that apply).
a. counseling subordinates who fail to meet
expectations
b. holding team meetings to review rules of the agency
c. engaging in ongoing quality improvement activities
d. reviewing job descriptions with employees
e. following the policies of the agency
which premise is basic to the motivation climate of the
theory y management style associated with human
relations oriented management? (select all that apply)
a. employees will exercise self direction when
committed to organizational goals
b. employees pursue security above other elements
related to work
c. employees generally will accept and even request
responsibility
d. employees must be pressured with discipline to
achieve goals
e. employees seek direction whenever possible
lewin's planned change theory progresses through
phases. place these statements by the nurse manger in
order as change moves through the process.
a. "let's implement a pilot project next week"
b. "this is a new venture that should be exciting"
c. "i know it may be difficult, but you are doing a great
job"
BAC
which action is an example of a nurse working
independently? (select all that apply)
a. giving a bed bath to a client who is experiencing
profuse diaphoresis
b. assigning another nurse to administer intravenous
medications
c. assessing a client's wound for signs of an infection
d. elevating a client's arm after an IV site infiltrates
e. obtaining a client's vital signs
a nurse who is a member of a quality improvement
committee reviews a chart detailing trends of 4 problem
categories identified in incident reports over a 3 month
period of time. corrective action plans were
implemented to address each problem category. after
analyzing the chart documenting tends over the
successive months of march, april, and may, which
problem category demonstrated the most
improvement?
a. falls
b. medication errors
c. violations of confidentiality
d. violations in standards of practice
a client is to be discharged from the hospital. which
discharge task can be delegated to a nursing assistant?
(select all that apply)
a. teaching the client how to measure weight using a
standing scale
b. obtaining the client's temperature, pulse, and
respiratory rate
c. determining if the client knows how to measure fluid
intake
d. demonstrating to the client how to safely use a walker
e. reviewing foods that are high in vitamin c
place the following steps of the decision-making process
in the order in which they should be implemented by a
nurse.
a. identify possible solutions to the problem
b. gather relevant information
c. identify the problem
d. evaluate the result
e. test a solution
CBAED
a nurse and a nursing assistant are working together on
a surgical unit. which activity should the nurse assign to
the nursing assistant? (select all that apply)
a. taking vital signs of clients who are stable
b. delivering meal trays to clients who are in isolation
c. explaining to a client how to use an incentive
spirometer
d. changing the linens on beds that are occupied by
clients who are on bedrest
e. emptying a urine collection bag that is attached to
continuous bladder irrigation
the department of outpatient services of an agency is
converting from paper charting to electronic charting.
the nurse in charge of one of the clinics is responsible
for implementing the change on the unit. identify the
most significant barrier to change based on the
statements by upper level managers, the nurse in
charge , and staff nurses.
a. the upper level managers have given an ultimatum
about the change
b. the nurse in charge has a negative attitude toward
the change
c. a staff nurse does not know how to use a computer
d. a staff nurse is anxious about the change
nursing diagnosis of Disturbed thought process. The
registered nurse asks the nursing student to revise the
plan if which incorrect intervention is documented?
the nursing team consists of a nurse in charge, a
registered nurse, and a nursing assistant. which task
should be delegated to the registered nurse rather than
the nursing assistant? (select all that apply).
a. obtaining routine vital signs
b. providing discharge teaching
c. ambulating a stable client in the hall
d. administering a cleansing enema to a client
e. transporting a client to another location for an x-ray
examination
A registered nurse is discussing the characteristics of
anorexia nervosa with a nursing student. The registered
nurse determines that the nursing student needs to
further research this disorder if the student states that
which of the following is a characteristic of anorexia
nervosa?
based on kurt lewin's change theory, in which stage
does change take place?
a. unfreezing
b. moving
c. refreezing
A registered nurse reviews a plan of care developed by a
nursing student for a client with depression and notes a
nursing diagnosis of impaired nutrition: less than body
requirements. The registered nurse asks the student to
revise the plan if which incorrect intervention is
documented?
a) offer small, high-calorie, high protein snacks
frequently throughout the day and evening
b) offer high protein, high-calorie fluids frequently
throughout the day and evening
c) remain with the client during meals
d) complete the food menu for the client during the
depressed period
A registered nurse reviews a plan of care developed by a
nursing student for client with paranoia and notes a
a) sit with the client and hold the client's hand
b) avoid a warm approach when working with the client
c) use simple and clear language when speaking to the
client
d) diffuse angry and hostile verbal attacks with a
nondefensive stand
a) personal relationships tend to become more
superficial and distant
b) social contacts are avoided because of the fear of
being invited to eat and being discovered
c) the client is being preoccupied with food and meal
planning, especially for others
d) the client will usually keep her weight near normal
An experienced emergency department nurse observes
a new nurse employed in the emergency department
obtain the equipment needed to draw a blood sample
for a blood alcohol level on a client. The experienced
emergency department nurse intervenes if the new
nurse plans to use which item?
a) tourniquet
b) alcohol swabs
c) a blood-draw needle
d) a blood tube
A nurse administers digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg instead of
the prescribed order of 0.125 mg. The nurse discovers
the error while charting the medication. The nurse
completes an incident report and notifies the physician
of the incident. The nurse takes which additional action?
a) gives the client a copy of the incident report
b) makes a copy of the incident report and sends it to
the physician's office
c) documents the incident in the client's record
d) places the incident report in the client's record
A registered nurse is supervising a new nursing graduate
who is performing an irrigation on an assigned client
with a buildup of cerumen in the left ear. Which of the
following observations if made by the registered nurse
would indicate that the nursing graduate is performing
the procedure correctly?
a) the client is positioned with the ear to be irrigated
facing upward
b) the irrigating solution is warmed to 100F
c) a direct and slow steady stream of irrigation solution
is directed toward the eardrum
d) the client is positioned with the affected ear up
following the irrigation
A nurse is performing a sterile wound irrigation on an
assigned client. A nursing assistant enters the client's
room and tells the nurse that a physician has
telephoned and requests to speak to the nurse. The
appropriate nursing action is which of the following?
a) finish the wound irrigation while the physician waits
on the telephone
b) cover the client and answer the telephone call
c) ask the nursing assistant to obtain a telephone
number from the physician so that the call can be
returned after the wound irrigation
d) ask the nursing assistant to take a message
A case manager is reviewing the records of the clients in
the nursing unit. Which of the following documentation,
if noted in a client's record, would the nurse indicate as
a positive variance?
a) a client in skeletal traction has a temperature of 98.6F
and the pin sites are clean and dry
b) a postoperative client is performing coughing and
deep-breathing exercises every hour
c) a client with congestive heart failure has clear breath
sounds
d) a client with pneumonia is discharged to home 1 day
earlier than expected
A nurse is a member of a community task force on
violence. The task force recognizes that it has
insufficient data to make decisions about specific
interventions. Using the nursing process, the first
activity that the nurse would suggest to the task force is
to:
a) call other communities similar in size to determine
what they do
b) develop a general educational program related to
violence
c) conduct a community survey to assess community
perceptions regarding violence
d) develop a pamphlet on violence to be distributed to
the community
A community health nurse has been assigned to be the
leader of a task force to identify interventions for
teenagers from a local community who are abusing
drugs. At the first meeting of the task force, the
members express concern that more information is
needed to determine appropriate measures for the
target teenagers. The nurse would direct the group
effectively by suggesting which of the following?
a) preparing a survey that can be distributed to
community members to determine their
understanding of the drug abuse problem
b) initiating a drug abuse program in all of the schools
c) seeking out the teenage drug abusers and referring
them to drug abuse centers
d) preparing posters that can be distributed to the
schools