33rd national licensure examination
1. Infancy period starts from:
a. Birth to one month of age
b. One month to one year of age
c. Birth to one year age
d. Birth to two years of age
2. According to Erikson’s theory, a preschool child goes through the developmental crisis of:
a. Initiative versus guilt
b. Identify versus role confusion
c. Trust versus mistrust
d. Autonomy versus same and doubt
3. Head and chest circumference becomes equal by the age of:
a. 9 months
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. 24 months
4. An 8 years old male child who had achieved dry nights 4 years back has started wetting the bed.
Which of the following terminology best represent this problem?
a. Denial
b. Regression
c. Repression
d. Sublimation
5. A child aged 2 years is considered to have fast breathing if the respiratory rate is:
a. More than 30 breaths per minute
b. More than 40 breaths per minute
c. More than 50 breaths per minute
d. More than 70 breaths per minute
6. According to IMNCI protocol, a young infant with diarrhea has severe dehydration if:
a. Skin pitch goes back slowly and has sunken eyes and restlessness
b. Skin pitch goes back slowly and has sunken eyes
c. Skin pitch goes back very slowly and is unconscious
d. Skin pitch goes back slowly and is thirsty
7. A premature neonate is more likely to develop hypothermia because of the lack of:
a. Brown fat
b. Vasoconstriction
c. Lanugo
d. Surfactants
8. For a child with suspected leukemia which of the following tests, would confirm this diagnosis?
a. Lumber puncture
b. Bone marrow aspiration
c. Complete blood count
d. Blood culture
9. A school age child with bronchial asthma is in respiratory distress. In which position should this
child be placed?
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a. Left lateral position
b. Prone position
c. Upright position
d. Knee chest position
Tetralogy of Fallot includes ventricular septal defect, pulmonary stenosis, overriding of aorta
and:
a. Coarctation of aorta
b. Hypertrophy of right ventricle
c. Hypertrophy of left ventricle
d. Atrial septal defect
A newborn’s failure to pass meconium within the first 24 hours after birth may indicate which of
the following?
a. Imperforated anus
b. Celiac disease
c. Intussusception
d. Abdominal wall defect
A child with Cushing syndrome is most likely to have:
a. Hypoglycemia
b. Buffalo hump
c. Bull neck
d. Brassy cough
Which of the following is a chronic non-progressive motor dysfunction caused by damage to the
motor areas of brain?
a. Mental retardation
b. Cerebral palsy
c. Tic disorder
d. Myasthenia gravis
The nurse is caring for a child admitted with epiglottis. Because of the possibility of complete
obstruction of the airway an emergency article to be kept ready is:
a. Intravenous access set
b. Infusion pump set
c. Tracheostomy set
d. Oxygen cylinder
A child is brought with organophosphate poisoning. Which of the following can be used an
antidote to this poisoning?
a. Naloxone
b. Atropine
c. Secondary prevention
d. Tertiary prevention
Level of prevention that is concerned with the prevention of the development of risk factor is:
a. Primordial prevention
b. Primary prevention
c. Secondary prevention
d. Tertiary prevention
17. Which of the following is a principle of Primary Health Care(PHC)?
a. Comprehensive approach
b. Community approach
c. Use of appropriate technology
d. Maternal and child health
18. Which sustainable development goal (SDG) is related to health?
a. Goal 1
b. Goal 2
c. Goal 3
d. Goal 4
19. What are the elements of communication?
a. Sender, message, audience and channel
b. Sender, message, audience and listening
c. Sender, message, mass media and channels
d. Sender, mass media, audience and channel
20. Epidemiology is the study of distribution and determinants of the frequency of a disease in:
a. human papulation
b. Domestic animals
c. Wild animals
d. Vectors
21. Which of the following is the most sensitive health indicator?
a. infant mortality rate
b. Maternal mortality rate
c. Migration rate
d. Fertility rate
22. A comprehensive assessment of health status of a community in relation to its social, physical
and biological environment is:
a. Community action
b. Community health
c. Community visit
d. Community diagnosis
23. Milk is a poor source of:
a. Calcium
b. Protein
c. Iron
d. Carbohydrate
24. Visualized explanation on preparation of weaning food can be best done through:
a. Interactive lecture
b. Group discussion
c. Demonstration
d. Panel discussion
25. Which of the following is a mechanical method of family planning?
a. Oral pills
b. Depo-Provera
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c. Intrauterine contraceptive device
d. Norplant
Which type of vaccine is oral polio vaccine?
a. Toxoid
b. Live attenuated vaccine
c. Killed vaccine
d.
Inactivated vaccine
The safest method of household purification of water is:
a. Boiling
b. Chlorination
c. Filtration
d. Ultra violet radiation
The most satisfactory method of refuse disposal when suitable land is available:
a. Burial
b. Composting
c. Controlled tipping
d. Dumping
The minimum number of rooms acceptable in a house having 7-member family is:
a. 2 rooms
b. 3 rooms
c. 4 rooms
d. 5 rooms
Incomplete combustion of carbon containing substances such as automobiles, lead to formation
of:
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Hydrocarbons
d. Ozone
Welders are exposed to occupational hazard of mainly:
a. Ultraviolet radiation
b. Inhalation of solid particles
c. Ingestion of chemical substances
d. Vibration hazards
A technique through which sexual partners of a diagnosed STD patients are identified, located,
investigated and treated, is known as:
a. Case screening
b. Contact tracing
c. Cluster testing
d. Personal prophylaxis
Which of the following micro-nutrient gives to reduce the duration and severity of acute and
persistent diarrhoea?
a. Copper
b. Zinc
c. Iodine
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d. Fluorine
School health program should have provision for dental examination of children at least:
a. Every 3 monthly
b. Severy 6 monthly
c. Once a year
d. Once in two years
Which of the following classroom conditions, promotes healthful classroom environment for
students?
a. Light coming from the front side of the classroom
b. Narrow window with no bottom sill
c. Large classroom that can occupy more than 50 students
d. Classroom walls painted with white color
In family planning, an eligible couple refers to a currently married couple where:
a. Both husband wife is within the age group 45 years
b. Both husband and wife have crossed the age of 20 years
c. The wife is in between the age of 15-45 years
d. The wife has had her menarche
Which of the following is a sexually transmitted disease?
a. Chancroid
b. Endometritis
c. Cystitis
d. Trachoma
Pentavalent (DPT, HepB and Hib) vaccine is administered:
a. Subcutaneously
b. Intradermally
c. Intravenously
d. Intramuscularly
The formation of gametes in the ovaries is called:
a. Oogenesis
b. Spermatogenesis
c. Gametogenesis
d. Fertilization
In which phase of menstrual cycle, the endometrium prepares for implantation of the fertilized
ovum?
a. Menstrual phase
b. Proliferative phase
c. Secretary phase
d. Follicular phase
Prolactin hormone is concerned mainly with:
a. Breast development during pregnancy
b. Softening of nipples after child birth
c. Initiation of lactation after child birth
d. Continuation of breast milk secretion after child birth
Assessment of women with vaginal bleeding after 22 weeks of pregnancy should:
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a. Include thorough head-to-toe examination immediate vaginal examination
b. Exclude immediate vaginal examination
c. Avoid abdominal examination
d. Assess for nutritional status
During antenatal examination, the fetal heart rate should be counted for:
a. Avoiding spicy, fried, fatty and gas forming foods
b. Taking adequate rest and sleep
c. Taking small and frequent meals
d. Performing exercise to stretch muscles and ligaments
The relief measures of heart burn during pregnancy includes:
a. Avoiding spicy, fried, fatty and gas forming foods
b. Taking adequate rest and sleep
c. Taking small and frequent meals
d. Performing exercise to stretch muscles and ligaments
The drug of choice for treatment of convulsion in severe pre-eclampsia is:
a. Magnesium sulphate
b. Diazepam
c. Hydralazine
d. Calcium gluconate
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for a woman with 8 weeks of pregnancy. The nurse
should tell the woman that she can expect to feel the fetal movement:
a. Between 10 to 14 weeks of gestation
b. Between 16 to 20 weeks of gestation
c. Between 21 to 23 weeks of gestation
d. Between 24 to 26 weeks of gestation
The shortest diameter of normal gynecoid pelvic brim is:
a. The oblique diameter
b. The transverse diameter
c. The anterior posterior diameter
d. The anatomical conjugate
Sequential steps of active management of third stage of labour should be:
a. Fundal massage, inj. Oxytocin 10-unit IM and control cord traction
b. Inj. Oxytocin 10-unit IM, controlled cord traction and fundal massage
c. Controlled cord traction, fundal massage and inj. Oxytocin 10-unit IM
d. Inj. Oxytocin 10-unit IM, fundal massage and controlled cord traction
A laboring woman has strong contractions lasting for 90 seconds with oxytocin augmentation. In
this condition the nurse should:
a. Continue the infusion and increase the drop rate
b. Monitoring the fetal heart rate every 4 hours
c. Stop the infusion and turn the woman on her left side
d. Continue the infusion and notify the physician
The commonest complication of premature rupture of membranes is:
a. Prolonged labour
b. Cord prolapses
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c. Cord presentation
d. Fetal distress
Partograph is used to monitor:
a. Time for delivery of the fetus
b. Vital signs of the mother and fetus is second stage of labour
c. Progress of labour and condition of mother and fetus
d. Fetal presenting part descent in the second stage of labour.
The umbilical cord attached at the very edge of the placenta is called:
a. Battledore insertion of the cord
b. Velamentous insertion of cord
c. Circumvallate placenta
d. Bipartite placenta
A primigravid woman is admitted in first stage labor ward. Per vaginal examination revealed the
cervix to be 100 percent effaced and 3cm dilatated and presenting part of fetus us at +1 station.
This indicated that the fetal head is:
a. Yet to be engaged
b. Just engaged
c. 1cm below the ischial spine
d. At the perineum
In the immediate postpartum period, the commonest complication of caesarean section in the
woman is:
a. Full bladder
b. Hemorrhage due to uterine atony
c. Shivering
d. Presence of show
The confirmed sign of second state of labor is:
a. Fully dilatation of cervix
b. Rupture of membranes
c. Anus gapping
d. Presence of show
While plotting the partograph of a laboring woman, the nurse plotted the cervical dilatation to
the right of the alert line. This indicates:
a. Satisfactory progress of labor
b. Unsatisfactory progress of labor
c. The end of latent phase
d. The beginning of latent phase=
Hallucination and expression of suicide are indicative of:
a. Postpartum psychosis
b. Postpartum anxiety disorder
c. Postpartum depression
d. Postpartum blues
The nurse should assess the postpartum mother closely for few hours after delivery of baby in
order to identify:
a. Thrombophlebitis
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b. Breast engorgement
c. Uterine infection
d. Postpartum hemorrhage
Subcutaneous and brown fat are essential for survival of the baby. Which of the following is a
possible complication in small for gestation age newborn babies due to lack of brown fat?
a. Hyperbilirubinemia
b. Polycythemia
c. Hypothermia
d. Hypoglycemia
In assessing a preterm new born, which of the following findings requires the greater concern?
a. Milia over the bridge of the nose
b. Thin transparent skin
c. Poor muscle tone
d. Heart murmur
In order to prevent pelvic organ, prolapse, a nurse should advise the postpartum woman to:
a. Perform Kegel exercise
b. Perform Breathing exercise
c. Wear firm panty
d. Do yoga every morning
The fundus usually reaches at the umbilicus by:
a. 12 weeks of gestation
b. 16 weeks of gestation
c. 20 weeks of gestation
d. 24 weeks of gestation
Four hours after vaginal delivery a woman still has not voided. The nurse’s first action should be
to:
a. Palpate her suprapubic area for bladder distension
b. Encourage her to void by placing her on bed pan
c. Pour warm water to vagina to encourage micturition
d. Inform the doctor about her inability to void urine
One of the key psychosocial needs of a woman diagnosed with cancer is:
a. Providing clear information
b. Hand holding
c. Being cheerful
d. Offering hope
The symptoms of threatened abortion include:
a. heavy vaginal bleeding, dilated cervix and uterus larger than dates.
b. Light vaginal bleeding, closed cervix and uterus that corresponds to date.
c. Heavy vaginal bleeding, dilated cervix and uterus that corresponds to date
d. Light vaginal bleeding, closed cervix and uterus smaller than date.
Which of the following is the most prevalent gynecological cancer in Nepal?
a. Cervical cancer
b. Uterine cancer
c. Vaginal cancer
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d. Breast cancer
Hormonal therapy reduces some negative effects of menopause. Which of the following
hormones are used for this purpose?
a. Estrogen and prostaglandin hormones
b. Estrogen and progesterone hormones
c. Testosterone and estrogen hormones
d. Prostaglandin and follicle stimulating hormone
Protrusion of the bladder occurs when the bladder descends into the vaginal canal. This is
known as:
a. Rectocele
b. Cystocele
c. Enterocele
d. Vesicovaginal fistula
Which of the following organisms is responsible for cervical cancer?
a. Herpes simplex virus
b. Human papilloma virus
c. Neisseria Gonorrhea
d. Trichomonas Vaginalis
The most important purpose of back care is:
a. To provide comfort
b. To keep clean
c. To prevent pressure sore
d. To prevent infection
A client who is unconscious needs frequent mouth care. When performing mouth care, the best
position to place this client is
a. Flower’s position
b. Side lying position
c. Supine position
d. Trendelenburg position
A bed prepared to receive a new patient is
a. an occupied bed
b. an unoccupied bed
c. an orthopedic bed
d. a postoperative bed
while checking pulse of a client, which artery should be used normally?
a. Carotid artery
b. Apical artery
c. Brachial artery
d. Radial artery
A patient is having dyspnea. What should the nurse do first?
a. Remove pillow from under the head
b. Elevate the head of the bed
c. Take blood pressure
d. Elevate the foot of the bed
75. The pattern of fever in which the temperature fluctuates each day but not fail to normal is
known as
a. Intermittent fever
b. Continuous fever
c. Remittent fever
d. Relapsing fever
76. Respiratory center is normally simulated by:
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Oxygen
c. Lactic acid
d. Bicarbonate
77. In a bed ridden patient, to prevent pressure sore, position should be changed every:
a. 1 hourly
b. 2 hourly
c. 3 hourly
d. 4 hourly
78. Keeping the soiled linen away from uniform while bed making is the principle of:
a. Aseptic technique
b. Medical asepsis
c. Body mechanism
d. Safety of the patient
79. A nurse is going to give health education on nutrition to the patient who had surgery. Which
nutrient helps to repair the tissue?
a. Fat
b. Protein
c. Vitamin
d. Carbohydrate
80. If a patient who is receiving intravenous fluids develops tenderness, warmth, erythema and pain
at the site, the nurse should suspect:
a. Sepsis
b. Phlebitis
c. Infiltration
d. Fluid overload
81. A nurse gently touches a post operative client and asks how she is feeling. The nurse is fulfilling
which types of need?
a. Physiological need
b. Love and belonging need
c. Self-esteem need
d. Self-actualization need
82. In nursing process, goal achievement is measured by:
a. Assessment
b. Planning
c. Nursing diagnosis
d. Evaluation
83. The nurse is doing physical examination in a client in a sequence of inspection, palpation,
percussion and auscultation. It is an example of:
a. Assessment
b. Nursing diagnosis
c. Nursing intervention
d. Evaluation
84. Which of the following is the most effective way to break the chain of infection?
a. Hand hygiene
b. Wearing gloves
c. Keeping patients in isolation room
d. Use of boiled water
85. A patient with indwelling urinary catheter is at risk of developing urinary tract infection because
the catheter:
a. Causes dryness of urinary tract
b. Obstructs the normal flushing action of urine flow
c. Causes friction in the surrounding tissue
d. Prevents voiding the urine normally
86. When a nurse is performing surgical hand asepsis, the nurse must keep hands:
a. Below elbows
b. Above elbows
c. At a 45-degree angle
d. At a 60-degree angle
87. Which of the following is the result of prolonged immobility in an elderly patient?
a. Cerebral vascular accident
b. Anaemia
c. Pneumonia
d. Hypertension
88. Which description best fits that of the serious drainage from a wound?
a. Fresh bleeding
b. Thick and yellow
c. Clear, water and plasma
d. Brown color and foul smelling
89. Which skin care measures are used to manage an unconscious patient who is having fecal and
urine incontinence?
a. Keeping the buttocks exposed to air at all time
b. Using a large absorbent diaper changing when saturated
c. Applying ointment and covering the areas with an absorbent towel
d. Using an incontinence cleaner and applying of a moisture barrier ointment
90. Which nursing intervention is appropriate for preventing atelectasis in the postoperative
patient?
a. Postural drainage
b. Chest percussion
c. Incentive spirometer
d. Suctioning
91. A patient suffering from dumping syndrome should be advised to:
a. Drink liquid between meal
b. Drink liquid only with meal
c. Drink liquid any time the want
d. Restrict fluid intake 1200ml/day
92. In a patient receiving continuous oxygen inhalation through nasal catheter, the catheter should
be changed at least every:
a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 18 hours
d. 24 hours
93. A patient is having elastic stocking following the major abdominal surgery. The nurse teaches the
patient that the stocking us used after a surgical procedure to:
a. Prevent varicose vein
b. Promote venous return to the heart
c. Prevent muscular atrophy
d. Promote peristaltic movement
94. Which of the following points does the nurse include in her teaching to the patient to ensure
safe use of oxygen in the home setting?
a. Smoking is prohibited around oxygen
b. How to adjust the oxygen rate based on symptoms
c. To avoid use of electrical equipment around oxygen
d. Special precaution while moving from room to room
95. To minimize nocturia in a patient, the nurse would teach him/her to:
a. Limit the fluids before bedtime
b. Set up toileting schedule
c. Perform perineal hygiene after urination
d. Provide syrup alkasol
96. The postoperative patient has difficulty voiding after surgery and is feeling uncomfortable in the
lower abdomen. Which action should the nurse implement first?
a. Encourage fluid intake
b. Administer pain medication
c. Catheterize the patient
d. Turn on the bathroom tap as he tries to void
97. The nurse is taking health history of a newly admitted patient with a diagnosis of bowel
obstruction. The priority question to ask the patient would be to find out:
a. The nature of bowel movement
b. Frequency of bowel movement
c. The time of the last bowel movement
d. Use of routine softeners
98. The practice of nursing professionals is controlled by:
a. Respective Health institution
b. Nepal Nursing Council
c. Health Professional Council
d. Medical Education Commission
99. High quality patient care can be achieved by use of:
a. Individualized patient care
b. Self-care method
c. Functional method of patient care
d. Family involvement in care
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A nurse accidently gave high dose medicine to a patient. The nurse's first priority is to:
a. A complete report of medication
b. Notify the on-duty doctor
c. Notify the in charge
d. Assess the patients for adverse effect
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According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs which of the following activities should the
nurse perform first:
a. Encouraging family support to patient
b. Providing health teaching for health promotion
c. Catheterizing to relieve bladder distension
d. Providing counseling to relieve stress of illness
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When the body responds to stress which hormone is released?
a. Thyroid hormone
b. Oxytocin hormone
c. Cortisol hormone
d. Parathyroid hormone
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General adaptation syndrome is the physiological response of the whole body to stress.
Which sequence of general adaptation syndrome is correct?
a. Alarm reaction, exhaustion and resistance
b. Exhaustion resistance and alarm reaction
c. Alarm reaction, resistance and exhaustion
d. Alarm reaction, resistance and resolution
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Physical examination by touching and feeling with hands is known as:
a. Percussion
b. Palpation
c. Auscultation
d. Inspection
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In application of nursing process, the nurse should first:
a. Identify goals for nursing care
b. State the client's nursing need
c. Obtaining information about the client's health
d. Evaluate the effectiveness of nursing action
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Recording of the observation and measurement is known as:
a. Monitoring
b. Charting
c. Documenting
d. Reporting
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Sequential order of nursing process after assessment is :
a. Planning, nursing diagnosis, implementation and evaluation
b. Nursing diagnosis, planning, implementation and evaluation
c. Nursing goal, nursing diagnosis, implementation and Planning
d. Planning, implementation, evaluation and Nursing diagnosis
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Application of hot compress is indicated for:
a. Relieving itching
b. Minimizing Shivering
c. Promoting wound healing
d. Alleviating body temperature
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In a patient, the range of motion exercise prevents:
a. Contracture
b. Muscle atrophy
c. Osteoporosis
d. Renal calculi formation
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Kidneys Consist of:
a. Neurons
b. Nephrons
c. Neuralgia
d. Axons
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Which of the following blood cells play active role in blood coagulation?
a. Thrombocytes
b. Lymphocytes
c. Leukocytes
d. Erythrocytes
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Digoxin is a commonly used cardiac glycosides. Which of the following is the most
serious adverse effect of the drug?
a. Drowsiness
b. Dizziness
c. Ventricular fibrillation
d. Blurred vision
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Which of the following drug is used as urinary antiseptic?
a. Nitrofurantoin
b. Hydrochlorothiazide
c. Frusemide
d. Chlorpromazine
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The commonest cocci causing rhematic fever is:
a. Staphylococci
b. Pneumococci
c. Gonococci
d. Streptococci
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Which worm enters the body via bare foot walking?
a. Pin worm
b. Hook worm
c. Tape worm
d. Whip worm
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Carbohydrate from ingested food is absorbed in to the blood stream in the form of:
a. Amino acid
b. Fatty acid
c. Glucose
d. Glycerol
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Hemorrhage is the possible complication of tonsillectomy. A nurse suspect hemorrhage
in a post tonsillectomy patient, if she observes:
a. Pallor
b. Snoring respiration
c. Swallowing frequently
d. Dehydration
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Malaria is transmitted by the bite of:
a. Male anopheles mosquito
b. Female anopheles mosquito
c. Male culex
d. Female culex
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Which instrument is commonly used to test hearing?
a. Reflex hammer
b. Laryngoscope
c. Otoscope
d. Tuning fork
120.
The initial nursing action for eye injury from chlorine solution, would be to:
a. Begin visual acuity testing
b. Irrigate the eye with sterile normal saline
c. Swab the eye with antibiotic ointment
d. Cover the eye with pressure patch
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Which of the following intervention is appropriate for the patient with epistaxis?
a. Apply an ice collar to the neck area
b. Compress the nares to the septum for 5-10 minutes
c. Encourage warm saline throat gargle
d. Encourage nasal blow
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The breakdown of one's perception of his/her surrounding, memory, identity or
consciousness is known as:
a. Physical disorder
b. Phobia
c. Dissociative disorder
d. Psychological disorder
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Which of the followings is a psychomotor manifestation of a patient with anxiety
disorders?
a. Decreased activities
b. Increased activities
c. Increased liabilities of the emotions
d. Decreased liabilities of the emotions
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An important feature of psoriasis is:
a. Crusting
b. Oozing
c. Erythema
d. Scaling
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When planning care for a client with burns on the upper part of the body, which nursing
diagnosis should take the highest priority?
a. Ineffective airway clearance related to edema of respiratory passage
b. Impaired physical mobility related to the disease process
c. Disturbed sleep pattern related to facility environment
d. Risk for infection related to breaks in the skin
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Which route is used to administer insulin for the initial treatment of diabetic
ketoacidosis?
a. Oral
b. Subcutaneous
c. Intravenous
d. Intramuscular
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A Chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is:
a. Diabetic ketoacidosis
b. Retinopathy
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Hypoglycemia
128.
After abdominal surgery the scrub nurse and circulating nurse have the major
responsibilities in counting sponge and instrument. When is the sponge and instrument count be
reported?
a. Before closing the subcutaneous layers
b. Before closing the peritoneum
c. Before closing the skin
d. Before closing the fascia
129.
A facility that provides palliative and supportive care for terminally ill patient and their
families is:
a. Terminal center
b. Hospice center
c. Hospitality center
d. Convalescent center
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Starting a family is one of the major developmental tasks of:
a. Young adulthood period
b. Middle adulthood period
c. Older adulthood period
d. Adolescent period
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A patient is scheduled for below knee amputation. This patient's rehabilitation should
begin:
a. Before surgery
b. Soon after surgery
c. At the time of discharge
d. At the time of using prosthesis
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The best position to place the patient for hip surgery is:
a. Supine
b. Trendelenburg
c. Lithotomy
d. Lateral
133.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is a chronic form of respiratory disease,
characterized by:
a. Emphysema and chronic bronchitis
b. Asthma and bronchitis
c. Pleurisy and asthma
d. Emphysema and pneumonia
134.
The most important action to be followed while caring a patient with fractured of
lower limbs is:
a. Bandaging
b. Control of bleeding
c. Maintaining immobility in the affected part
d. Wound dressing
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As a result of fractured ribs, the client can develop:
a. Scoliosis
b. Pneumonia
c. Obstructive lungs disease
d. Pneumothorax
136.
In duodenal ulcer pain occurs:
a. In empty stomach
b. After food
c. Relieved by vomiting
d. Relieved by vomiting
137.
A client who has had colostomy should receive diet that is:
a. Rich in protein
b. Low fiber contents
c. High in carbohydrate
d. Close to normal as possible
138.
While performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation to an unresponsive adult client, a nurse
should assess the pulse over the:
a. Radial artery
b. Carotid artery
c. Brachial artery
d. Temporal artery
139.
Which of the following cells initiates the clotting process?
a. White blood cells
b. Platelets
c. Monocytes
d. Red blood cells
140.
A client is at risk for fluid volume excess. Which of the following nursing interventions,
would ensure the most accurate monitoring of the client's fluid status?
a. Measuring and recording fluid intake and output
b. Weighing the client daily at the same time each day
c. Assessing vital signs every 4 hours
d. Checking the lungs for crackles
141.
What are the major risk factors of stroke?
a. Obesity
b. High blood pressure
c. Family history of stroke
d. Diabetes
142.
During assessment of a patient who had injury 24 hours ago, the emergency nurse notes
the development of slurred speech and disorientation to time and place. What should be the
initial action of the nurse?
a. Prepare the patient for emergency surgery
b. Recheck the patient's neurological status in every 15 minutes
c. Inform the neurosurgeon of the patient status
d. Continue hourly neurologic assessment
143.
Using the "Rules of Nine", what is the total body surface area burnt if the victim has
second and third degree burn on the left arm, left anterior leg and anterior trunk?
a. 18 percent
b. 27 percent
c. 30 percent
d. 36 percent
144.
Quality control, audit and performance appraisal are the components of:
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Leading
d. Controlling
145.
The ward in charge assigned a nurse to monitor the vital signs of all clients in the ward.
The method of assignment used is:
a. Team method
b. Functional method
c. Patient centered method
d. Holistic method
146.
Which management function is used to determine in advance the future course of action
as a blue print for a work?
a. Planning
b. Organizing
c. Staffing
d. Directing
147.
While triaging victims in the emergency unit, which color code is used for a victim with
life threating injury?
a.
b.
c.
d.
148.
a.
b.
c.
d.
149.
a.
b.
c.
d.
150.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Yellow
Red
Green
Black
Organizational change is required for:
Survival of organization
Use of latest technology
Formulation of organizational strategies
Delegation of authority
The leadership style in which the subordinates are involved in decision making is called:
Autocratic
Democratic
Laissez fair
Free rein
Job description is essential to promote:
Position
Power
Authority
Accountability