Topic 1 Lecturer : : THE FIRM’S INVESTMENT DECISION SHELLEY DONNELLY donnellys@ukzn.ac.za Required reading: Chapters 8, 9, 10 and 15 of your prescribed text: Correia, C. (2019) Financial Management 9th Edition. Juta Press. Timetable: LECTURES & TUTS DATE TOPIC Lectures 1 & 2 25/07 Lectures 3 & 4 27/07 Revision of Incremental cash flows, OCF, and Estimating cash flows. Inflation and Capital Budgeting. Taxation effects Capital rationing Lectures 5 & 6 02/09 Risk and Uncertainty Tut 1.1 02/09 Questions provided on Learn Lectures 7 & 8 04/09 Risk and Uncertainty concluded Lectures 9 & 10 08/08 Projects with Unequal Lives The Replacement Decision Lectures 11 & 12 10/08 The Replacement Decision concluded Leasing Topic 1 Revision 15/08 Tut 1.2 15/08 Questions provided on Learn TOPIC 1: THE FIRM’S INVESTMENT DECISION Incremental Cash Flows and estimating Cash Flows revised Inflation and Taxation and Capital Budgeting Capital Rationing (including PI) Risk and Uncertainty: • Adjusting the Discount rate • Certainty Equivalents • Sensitivity and Scenario Analysis • Break Even NPV Analysis • Probability Analysis and Decision Trees • Comprehensive Example – SEC. Unequal Lives – EAC method Replacement Decision Leasing RECAPTHE INVESTMENT DECISION IN PREVIOUS COURSES: Financial Managers face three main decisions, one of which pertains to Capital Budgeting – what Long Term investments should the firm take on? FINA202 Topic 2 included the Investment Decision. You learned how to use various capital budgeting techniques such as the NPV, IRR, Payback and Discounted Payback periods (Profitability Index to come). You should recall the importance we placed on NPV due to its many advantages over the other techniques. We learned about incremental cash flows and how to arrive at the OCF’s and estimated cash flows. In this topic we will further develop a number of these concepts, hence it is vital that you review your notes from last year as it will be assumed that you have. INCREMENTAL CASH FLOWS The cash flows that should be included in a capital budgeting analysis are those that will only occur if the project is accepted These cash flows are incremental cash flows The stand-alone principle allows us to analyze each project in isolation from the firm simply by focusing on incremental cash flows You should always ask yourself “Will this cash flow occur ONLY if we accept the project?” If the answer is “yes”, it should be included in the analysis because it is incremental If the answer is “no”, it should not be included in the analysis because it will occur anyway If the answer is “part of it”, then we should include the part that occurs because of the project INCREMENTAL CASH FLOWS REVISED Sunk costs Opportunity costs Only include those that are exclusive to the project Changes in NWC Positive side effects – benefits to other projects Negative side effects – costs to other projects, sometimes known as Erosion Costs Overheads Costs of lost options (eg using property the firm already owns – what else could it have been used for/ what could it have been sold or rented out for) Side effects/Spillover effects/Externalities Costs that have accrued in the past/are accrued regardless of project being accepted or not. When the project winds down, NWC is recovered Financing costs We do not include interest paid or other financing costs – we are interested in cash flow from assets (not to lenders or shareholders). Avoid double counting. ESTIMATING CASH FLOWS - REVISED TOTAL CASH FLOW CALCULATION (Cash Flow from assets) Total Cash flow = Operating Cash Flow (OCF) – Additions to NWC – Capital Spending CALCULATION OF OCF: S = sales C = operating costs rate D = Depreciation TC =Corporate tax Conventional method: OCF = PBIT + D - Taxes Top-Down method: OCF = (S – C) – (S – C – D) x TC Bottom-Up method: OCF = Net Profit + D Tax-shield Approach: OCF = (S – C) x (1 - TC ) + (D x TC ) Which to use?? REVISION EXERCISE Best Manufacturing Company new investment proposal. Corporate tax rate 34%. Appropriate discount rate 12%. Projected year-end accounting data (R 000’s) as follows: YEAR Sales revenue Operating costs Investment Depreciation NWC 0 1 7 000 2 7 000 3 7 000 4 7 000 2 000 2 000 2 000 2 000 2 500 250 2 500 300 2 500 200 2 500 0 10 000 200 Calculate OCF using four known techniques Calculate project NPV INFLATION AND CAPITAL BUDGETING Investors should have an expectation of future inflation. It affects both cash flows and the discount rate used. The Reserve Bank includes the effects of expected inflation in deciding on interest rate policy. The cost of capital will include an inflation premium to protect investors against a decline in purchasing power, hence it is usually nominal. There are two methods of adjusting for inflation: 1. Estimate cash flows in NOMINAL terms and use a NOMINAL discount rate (nominal cash flow = prices expected to rule when cash flow occurs. Inflation not applied to deprecation which uses historical value). This is the more commonly used method. Nominal cash flows have already been adjusted for inflation. Costs of Capital (used to determine the discount rate) are usually inclusive of inflation so already nominal. OR Method 2 overleaf.. INFLATION AND CAPITAL BUDGETING 2. Estimate cash flows in REAL terms and use a REAL discount rate (real cash flows = future cash flows expressed in terms of Date 0 purchasing power). Real flows exclude inflation effects. Need to convert nominal discount rates to real to remove inflation effects. Use the Fisher Effect which expresses the relationship between NOMINAL and REAL rates of return: 1 + Nom rate = (1 + Real rate) x (1 + inflation rate) (R) (r) hence R = (1 + r) (1 + h) – 1 or (h) r= 1+R 1+h -1 INFLATION – AN EXAMPLE Dixie Co has a nominal RRR of 20% at a time where there is an 8% inflation expectation. An NPV analysis is required of the following project: Initial outlay: R50 000 Project lifespan: 4 years (zero salvage value) Current estimation of after-tax cash savings from the project: R30 000 p.a. Use both the NOMINAL and REAL methods of adjusting for inflation, to perform the NPV analysis. INFLATION EXAMPLE SOLUTION 1. Using nominal RRR and nominal cash flows: Inflate the cash flows: yr 1 = 30 000 x 1.08 = 32 400 yr 2 = 30 000 x 1.082 = 34 992 yr 3 = 30 000 x 1.083 = 37 791 yr 4 = 30 000 x 1.084 = 40 815 NPV using a fin. calculator: -50 000 CF0; 32 400 CF1; 34 992 CF2; 37 791 CF3; 40 815 CF4; 20 I/YR; NPV = R42 852.95 2. Using real RRR and real cash flows: r = (1.20 / 1.08) – 1 = 11.11% NPV using a fin. calculator: -50 000 CF0; 30 000 CF1; 4 Nj; 11.11 I/YR; NPV = R42 855.20 ANOTHER EXAMPLE OF CAPITAL BUDGETING UNDER INFLATION Sony International has an investment opportunity to produce a new stereo color TV. The required investment on January 1 of this year is $32 million. The firm will depreciate the investment to zero using the straight-line method, over the project’s lifespan of 4 years. The firm is in the 34% tax bracket. The price of the product on January 1 will be $400 per unit. The price will stay constant. Labour costs will be $15 per hour on January 1. They will increase at 2% per year. Energy costs will be $5 per unit; they will increase 3% per year. 12 and The inflation rate is 5%. Revenues are received costs are paid at year-end. EXAMPLE OF CAPITAL BUDGETING UNDER INFLATION GIVEN: Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Year 4 Physical Production (units) 100 000 200 000 200 000 150 000 Labour Input (hours) 2 000 000 2 000 000 2 000 000 2 000 000 Energy input, physical units 200 000 200 000 200 000 200 000 The real discount rate is 3.81%. Calculate the NPV, using the nominal method of adjusting for 13 inflation. YEAR 1 AFTER-TAX NOMINAL CASH FLOWS Real Cash Flows Price: $400 per unit with zero annual price increase Labour: $15 per hour with 2% annual wage increase Energy: $5 per unit with 3% annual energy cost increase Year 1 After-tax nominal Cash Flows: Revenues = $400 × 100 000 = $40 000 000 Labour costs = $15 × 1.02 × 2 000 000 = $30 600 000 Energy costs = $5 × 1.03 × 200 000 = $1 030 000 After-tax operating profit = ($40 000 000 – $30 600 000 – $1 030 000) x (1 – 0.34) 14 = $8 370 000 x 0.66 = $5 524 200 YEAR 2 AFTER-TAX NOMINAL CASH FLOWS Real Cash Flows Price: $400 per unit with zero annual price increase Labour: $15 per hour with 2% annual wage increase Energy: $5 per unit with 3% annual energy cost increase Year 2 After-tax nominal Cash Flows: Revenues Labour costs Energy costs = $400 × 200 000 = $80 000 000 = $15 × 1.022 × 2 000 000 = $31 212 000 = $5 × 1.032 × 200 000 = $1 060 900 After-tax operating profit = ($80 000 000 – $31 212 000 – $1 060 900) x (1 – 0.34) = $47 727 100 x 0.66 = $31 499 886 15 YEAR 3 AFTER-TAX NOMINAL CASH FLOWS Real Cash Flows Price: $400 per unit with zero annual price increase Labour: $15 per hour with 2% annual wage increase Energy: $5 per unit with 3% annual energy cost increase Year 3 After-tax nominal Cash Flows: Revenues = $400 × 200 000 = $80 000 000 Labour costs = $15 × 1.023 × 2 000 000 = $31 836 240 Energy costs = $5 × 1.033 × 200 000 = $1 092 727 After-tax operating profit = ($80 000 000 – $31 836 240 – $1 092 727) x (1 – 0.34) 16 = $47 071 033 x 0.66 = $31 066 882 YEAR 4 AFTER-TAX NOMINAL CASH FLOWS Real Cash Flows Price: $400 per unit with zero annual price increase Labor: $15 per hour with 2% annual wage increase Energy: $5 per unit with 3% annual energy cost increase Year 4 After-tax nominal Cash Flows: Revenues = $400 × 150 000 = $60 000 000 Labour costs = $15 × 1.024 × 2 000 000 = $32 472 964.80 Energy costs = $5 × 1.034 × 200 000 = $1 125 508.81 After-tax operating profit = ($ 60 000 000 – $ 32 472 964.80 – $ 1 125 508.81) x (1 – 0.34) 17 = $26 401 526.39 x 0.66 = $17 425 007 EXAMPLE OF CAPITAL BUDGETING UNDER INFLATION The depreciation tax shield is a nominal cash flow, and must therefore be discounted at the nominal rate. Project life = 4 years Annual depreciation expense: $32 000 000 = $8 000 000 4 years Depreciation tax shield = $8 000 000 × 0.34 = $2 720 000 per annum 18 EXAMPLE OF CAPITAL BUDGETING UNDER INFLATION [OCF = (S – C) (1 – TC) + (D X TC)] OCF 0 $32 000 000 $5 524 200 $31 499 886 $31 066 882 $17 425 007 + 2 720 00 + 2 720 000 + 2 720 00 + 2 720 000 = 8 244 200 = 34 219 886 = 33 786 882 = 20 145 007 1 2 3 4 The project NPV can now be computed by discounting the nominal cash flows at the nominal discount rate: Nominal rate (R) = (1.0381 x 1.05) – 1 = 9% NPV: -$32 000 000 CF0; 8 244 200 CF1; 34 219 886 CF2; 33 786 882 CF3; 20 145 007 CF4; 9 I/YR; NPV = $44 726 582.62 Accept 19 TAXATION AND INVESTMENT APPRAISAL Tax definitely a cash outflow, therefore after-tax cash flows of projects need to be evaluated 2 Rules: Accommodate INCREMENTAL tax effects Get the timing right 2 specific items need to be dealt with: Depreciation and Salvage values DEPRECIATION Non-cash expense, so only has cash flow implications insofar as it influences the tax bill When claimed as an expense for tax purposes, depreciation is termed a “wear and tear allowance” Firms can use the straight-line or declining balance method. The former is more advantageous from a cash flow perspective due to higher wear and tear allowances in the early years (illustrated on next slide). There may be a difference between Receiver of Revenue allowances, and the rate at which the firm may choose to depreciate its assets, in which case 2 separate asset registers are maintained. Firms who choose a lower depreciation rate, will reflect a higher profit figure. They use this approach in the belief that the wear and tear allowance does not reflect the true operating life of the asset, and that the higher profit figures are more realistic. DIFFERENT DEPRECIATION METHODS: Declining/Reducing Balance Straight-Line method Opening Book Wear and Tear Closing Book Open Wear & Tear Closing Value @ 33.3% of decl. Value Book @ 33.3% Book Value of cost Value Book Value 300 000 100 000 200 000 300 000 100 000 200 000 200 000 66 666 133 334 200 000 100 000 100 000 133 334 44 444 88 890 100 000 100 000 0 88 890 29 630 59 260 59 260 19 753 39 507 39 507 13 169 26 338 etc CHOOSING A LOWER DEPRECIATION RATE: Purchase price of asset: R180 000 Wear and Tear allowance: 33.3% of cost per annum Firm wishes to depreciate over 4 years Tax rate = 35% For Tax Purposes Own Books Operating Profit (before depr.) 150 000 150 000 Wear & Tear allowance (33.3%) 60 000 Depreciation (180 000/4) 45 000 Profit before Tax 90 000 105 000 Tax @ 35% on R90 000 31 500 31 500 Net Profit after Tax 58 500 73 500 SALVAGE VALUES If Market Value = Book Value, then asset has been depreciated correctly and taxes have been correctly paid. If Market Value exceeds Book Value, then the asset has been over-depreciated and too little was paid in taxes. Example: Market value R15 000, Book value R8 000. Then R7 000 too much was deducted in wear and tear. Therefore R7 000 x 35% too little was paid in taxes i.e. R2 450 is owed in tax (cash outflow). Sale of vehicle is treated as a ‘profit’ for tax purposes. If Book Value exceeds Market value, then too little depreciation was deducted and too much tax was paid. Example: Market value R4 000, Book value R8 000. Then R4 000 too little was deducted as wear and tear. Therefore R4 000 x 35% in taxes need to be recouped from Revenue Services (cash inflow of R1 400 ). Sale of vehicle treated as a ‘loss’ for tax purposes. WORKING EXAMPLE Harry is financial manager of a company. He is nearing retirement and you have been appointed as his deputy with a view to taking over from him in 12 months time. The company is considering an investment in a new product that will cost R1 200 000 in new machinery and will result in profit before depreciation and tax of R375 000 per annum in real terms for 5 years. At the end of the 5 years, the machinery can be sold for its written-down book value. The investment will require working capital at the beginning of each year as follows (figures in real terms): Year Amount (R) 1 100 000 2 200 000 3 300 000 4 400 000 5 500 000 Harry is proposing to evaluate the investment using the company’s nominal weighted average cost of capital (WACC) of 16%. The following notes are relevant: At the end of Year 5, the total working capital can be released in cash back to the company. Inflation is expected to be 4% per annum on all operating cash flows and working capital for the period under review. The company pays tax at the rate of 33%. There is a 12-month time lag for tax payments or refunds. Tax relief is available on capital expenditure at 25% on a reducing balance. Assume all cash flows occur at year-end except the purchase of the new machinery and the working capital. Both these items of expenditure occur at the beginning of the year. You are required to: Evaluate the investment using the company’s WACC, as suggested by Harry. WORKING EXAMPLE SOLUTION Cash flows (R’000) Time 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 Pre tax/depn profit (W2) 390 405.6 421.82 438.70 456.25 Capital allowances (W3) (300) (225) (168.75) (126.56) (94.92) 90 180.6 253.07 312.14 361.33 (29.7) (59.60) (83.51) (103.01) (119.24) 90 150.9 193.47 228.63 258.32 (119.24) + Capital allowances 300 225 168.75 126.56 94.92 OCF 390 375.9 362.22 355.19 353.24 PBIT Tax on profits @ 33% NPAT Machinery Working capital (W1) Net cash flow* (1 200) (119.24) 284.77 (W3) (100) (108) (116.48) (125.47) (134.98) 584.93 (1 300) 282 259.42 236.75 220.21 1 222.94 (119.24) Net present value = R (57 493) -1 300 CF0; 282 CF1; 259.42 CF2; 236.75 CF3; 220.21 CF4; 1 222.94 CF5; -119.24 CF6; 16 I/YR The negative NPV indicates that the project is not acceptable when appraised at the WACC WORKING EXAMPLE SOLUTION NOTES 1. Working capital The relevant cash flow is the increase in working capital required from one year to the next: Time 0 1 2 3 4 5 200 300 400 500 x x x x (1.04) (1.04)2 (1.04)3 (1.04)4 W/cap balance (nominal terms) R’000 100 208 324.48 449.95 584.93 Cash injection (outflow) R’000 -100 -108 -116.48 -125.47 -134.98 W/cap recovered R’000 +584.93 2. Pre-tax/depreciation profit These figures are obtained by applying the inflation rate of 4% for the appropriate number of years, eg, for time 3: R375 000 x (1.04)3 = R421 824 3. Capital allowances/scrap value Time Book Value 0 1 25% 2 25% 3 25% 4 25% 5 25% Scrap value R’000 1,200 (300) 900 (225) 675 (168.75) 506.25 (126.56) 379.69 (94.92) 284.77 Capital allowance (depreciation) R’000 300 225 168.75 126.56 94.92 CAPITAL RATIONING IN CAPITAL BUDGETING We now need to drop the unrealistic assumption that there are no finance limits in capital budgeting. CAPITAL RATIONING is when funds are not available to finance ALL wealth-enhancing projects There are 2 types of capital rationing: - SOFT RATIONING = internal management-imposed limits on investment expenditure e.g. Mgmt may want to maintain a fixed debt/asset ratio - HARD RATIONING = relates to capital from external sources. Financial institutions won’t supply unlimited capital, despite +’ve projected NPV’s. Banks don’t like to see debt ratio’s exceed certain parameters either (risk control). We also need to look at ONE-PERIOD capital rationing (for divisible and indivisible projects), as well as MULTIPERIOD capital rationing. ONE-PERIOD CAPITAL RATIONING DIVISIBLE PROJECTS This is where limits are placed on finance availability for one year only (thereafter unlimited funds), and the projects can be undertaken in part or in full. 2 methods: Can rank according to absolute NPV’s e.g. (R million) TIME 0 1 2 NPV @ 10% A -2 6 1 4.281 B -1 1 4 3.215 All positive, so all C -1 1 3 2.389 acceptable D -3 10 10 14.355 PROJECT But capital rationed to R4.5m for 1 year… ONE-PERIOD CAPITAL RATIONING CONTINUED - DIVISIBLE PROJECTS: Method 1: Ranking according to highest absolute NPV OUTLAY NPV All of project D 3 14.355 3/4 of project A 1.5 3.211 4.5 17.566 This method will often give an incorrect result and is biased towards the larger projects. Sometimes investing in a number of smaller projects will be better. ONE-PERIOD CAPITAL RATIONING CONTINUED - DIVISIBLE PROJECTS: Method 2: Use the PROFITABILITY INDEX or the BENEFIT-COST RATIO Profitability Index = Gross Present Value (without deducting initial outlay) Initial Outlay Benefit -Cost Ratio = Net Present Value Initial Outlay Both provide a measure of profitability per R1 invested. The choice between the 2 is a personal one. You would choose one method and then arrange the projects in order of highest P.I or B-C Ratio. Then work down the list until the capital limit is reached For the purposes of our example, we will choose the Profitability Index: ONE-PERIOD CAPITAL RATIONING DIVISIBLE PROJECTS CONCLUDED Project NPV @ 10% GPV @ 10% P.I A 4.281 6.281 6.281 / 2 = 3.14 4.281 / 2 = 2.14 B 3.215 4.215 4.215 / 1 = 4.215 3.215 / 1 = 3.215 C 2.389 3.389 3.389 / 1 = 3.389 2.389 / 1 = 2.389 D 14.355 17.355 17.355 / 3 = 5.785 14.355 / 3 = 4.785 Ranking according to highest P.I: Project P.I. Initial Outlay NPV D 5.785 3 14.355 B 4.215 1 3.215 1/2 OF C 3.389 0.5 1.195 0 OF A 3.14 0 0 4.5 18.765 Via this method, an extra R1.199m is created for shareholders (than via the absolute NPV method). So always use Method 2 with divisible projects! B-C Ratio ONE-PERIOD CAPITAL RATIONING INDIVISIBLE PROJECTS: Easiest approach is to examine the total NPV values of all feasible alternative COMBINATIONS of whole projects (trial and error): Assume same projects but a capital constraint of R3m: Combination 1 2 NPV R2m in A 4.281 R1m in B 3.215 Answer: 7.496 You would choose R2m in A 4.281 Comb.4 (highest NPV) R1m in C 2.389 6.670 Note that any unutilized capital could be 3 4 R1m in B 3.215 invested, giving rise to R1m in C 2.389 an additional NPV, to 5.604 be added to the total 14.355 NPV.(e.g. Comb.3) R3m in D MULTI-PERIOD CAPITAL RATIONING: This is a more complicated issue. We are talking about capital constraints in more than one period e.g. Capital limit of R240 000 at time 0, and a further constraint of R400 000 at time 1. To solve, a mathematical program is required and a computer would be employed. If projects are divisible, linear programming is used; if indivisible, integer programming is used. (beyond the scope of this course) RISK AND UNCERTAINTY IN CAPITAL BUDGETING INTRO Businesses operate in an uncertain environment. There is an upside (earning more than expected) and a downside (earning less than expected) to uncertainty. The presence of risk in capital budgeting decisions means the possibility exists of more than one outcome. Probabilities can be assigned to possible outcomes, with the probability of all possible outcomes summing to one. Some of the approaches we have learnt so far do make adjustments for risk. With the PBP for example, by insisting on early cut-off dates, the chance of distant cash flow forecasts proving unreliable, is eliminated (hence risk is reduced). Even within the discounting process there is a safeguard included for risk: the present value of a future cash flow is worth less the further into the future it will be received. Now we will focus on various other ways in which we can accommodate the risk of uncertain future outcomes into an NPV analysis: 1. ADJUSTING FOR RISK THROUGH THE DISCOUNT RATE This method recognizes that there is a reward for bearing risk. In this approach, a number of % points (the premium) are added to the risk-free discount rate, which is then used to calculate NPV in the normal manner. In this way, marginally profitable projects are less likely to have a +‘ve NPV.e.g. Level of Risk Risk-free rate Risk premium Risk-adjusted rate Low 9% + 3% 12% Medium 9% + 6% 15% High 9% + 10% 19% The project to be evaluated has the following cash flows: Time(years) 0 1 2 Cash flow(R) -100 55 70 If project judged low risk: -100 CF0; 55 CF1; 70 CF2; 12 I/YR; NPV = R4.91 ACCEPT If project judged med risk: -100 CF0; 55 CF1; 70 CF2; 15 I/YR; NPV = R0.76 ACCEPT If project judged high risk : -100 CF0; 55 CF1; 70 CF2; 19 I/YR; NPV = -R4.35 REJECT Drawbacks: Subjective risk assessment and arbitrary selection of risk premiums. 2. CERTAINTY EQUIVALENT METHOD Expected “risky “cash flows are converted to “riskless” or “certainty equivalent” values, and discounted at a risk-free discount rate. e.g. Year Cash flow NPV: 10 I/YR 0 - 9 000 CF0 1 7 000 CF1 2 5 000 CF2 3 5 000 CF3 NPV = 5 252.44 Project appears worthwhile, but management are uncertain of future cash flows, so take only 70% of year 1 flow, 60% of year 2 flow and 50% of year 3 flow: Hence above cash flows will be adjusted to R4 900 (year 1), R3 000 (year 2) and R2 500 (year 3). The risk-adjusted NPV of the project would then be -R188 (if we use 10% as the risk-free rate) i.e. Reject. Disadvantage of this method: Subjectivity and arbitrariness in selecting certainty equivalents. 3. SENSITIVITY ANALYSIS NPV analysis relies on assumptions about crucial variables e.g. the selling price of a particular product. ‘What if’ these variables were to change? How would these changes influence the viability of the project? This approach measures how sensitive NPV is to changes in underlying assumptions/values. The greater the volatility in NPV in relation to a specific variable, the larger the forecasting risk associated with that variable and the more attention we want to pay to its estimation. One variable is analysed at a time and the results are examined. SA is usually a computer-driven exercise, but we can do a few manual ‘what-if’s’ by way of illustration: SENSITIVITY ANALYSIS Expected cash flow of Project X: R300 000 p.a for 4 years. RRR = 15% Initial investment = R800 000. Likely annual demand for product = 1 000 000 units. Sale price / unit = R1. Total costs R0.70 / unit (labour 0.20, materials 0.40, overhead 0.10). Cash flow / unit = R0.30 (hence the R300 000 annual cash flow). -800 000 CF0; 300 000 CF1; 4 Nj; 15 I/YR; NPV = +56 493.51 (accept) SENSITIVITY ANALYSIS What if price is only R0.95? Annual cash flow = R0.25 x 1 000 000 = R250 000 -800 000 CF0; 250 000 CF1; 4 Nj; 15 I/YR; NPV = -R86 255.41 (reject) What if demand is 10% less than expected? Annual cash flow = R0.30 x 900 000 = 270 000 -800 000 CF0; 270 000 CF1; 4 Nj; 15 I/YR; NPV = -R29 155.84 (reject) What if the discount rate is 20% higher than originally assumed? i.e. 18% as opposed to 15%? -800 000 CF0; 300 000 CF1; 4 Nj; 18 I/YR; NPV = R7 018.54 (accept) SENSITIVITY ANALYSIS Advantages: At the very least it allows decision-makers to be more informed regarding project sensitivities, to know how much margin they have for judgemental error, and to decide whether they are prepared to accept the project risks or not. It points out the most crucial variables, thereby saving time and money. Contingency plans can be developed once the key variables have been identified. Disadvantages: Absence of any formal assignment of probabilities to the variations of parameters. Sensitivity analysis alters each variable in isolation, when in reality some variables are likely to be related. SCENARIO ANALYSIS What happens to NPV under different cash flows scenarios? At the very least look at: Best case – revenues are high and costs are low Worst case – revenues are low and costs are high Measure of the range of possible outcomes Best case and worst case are not necessarily probable, they can still be possible. Sensitivity Analysis is a subset of Scenario analysis. Scenario analysis addresses the main drawback of sensitivity analysis (that only one variable is changed at a time). 4. BREAK-EVEN ANALYSIS A common finding is that sales volume is seen to be a crucial variable. Break-even analysis is a common tool in analysing the relationship between sales volume and profitability. The accounting break-even point is where sales = costs i.e. the point where the project generates no profits or losses. As long as sales are above this point, the firm will make a profit. It can be calculated as: Sales Break-even = (Fixed Costs + Depreciation) x (1 - T) (Sales price - variable cost) x (1 - T) Accounting break-even takes into account accounting expenses but it fails to account for the economic opportunity cost of the initial outlay of the investment. Firms that breakeven on an accounting basis might really be losing money because they are losing the opportunity cost of the initial investment. BREAK-EVEN ANALYSIS With Present Value Break-even, we ascertain the extent to which some variables can change, before the decision to accept changes to a decision to reject (the point at which NPV swings from +’ve to -’ve). This method also indicates the sensitivity of the project to certain key variables. Example: Given a discount rate of 15%, we have: Unit Sales NPV(Rm) 0 -5 120 1 000 -2 908 3 000 1 517 10 000 17 004 The NPV is negative if 1 000 units are sold, and positive if 3 000 units are sold. Obviously the zero NPV point occurs between the 2 sales units. PV BREAK-EVEN CONTINUED The firm originally invested R1.5m. We need to annualize this like all the other variables in the equation, so we express it as a 5year EAC (equivalent annual cost), by solving for PMT on the financial calculator: -1 500 000 PV; 5 N; 15 I/YR; PMT = R447 473.33 PV Breakeven point = EAC + Fixed Costs x (1-T) – (D x T) (in sales units) (sales price - Variable cost) x (1-T) By calculating the PV break-even point, we learn what the minimum sales level needs to be in order for a project to breakeven (Zero NPV). If we consider this minimum unlikely we would not risk investing in the project. BREAK-EVEN EXAMPLE 1. 2. 3. Consider a project to supply UKZN with 10 000 dormitory beds annually for each of the next three years. Your firm has half of the wood-working equipment to get the project started; it was bought years ago for R200 000, is fully depreciated and has a market value of R60 000. The remaining R90 000 of equipment will have to be purchased. The engineering department estimates that you will need an initial net working capital investment of R10 000. Annual fixed costs will be R25 000, and the variable costs should be R90 per bed. The initial fixed investment with be depreciated straight line to zero over three years. The salvage value of all equipment is estimated to be R10 000. The marketing department estimates that the sales price per bed will be R200. You require an 8% return and face a tax rate of 34%. Should your firm proceed with this project? What is the break-even price per bed for this project? What is the present value break-even sales volume (in units)? BREAK-EVEN EXAMPLE – SOLUTION TO Q1. Year 0 Year 1 Year 2 Year 3 Net Capital Spending New Equipment Opportunity cost of not selling old equipment -90 000 -60 000 (1-0.34) Salvage Value TOTAL NCS 10 000 (1-0.34) -129 600 6 600 Total Cash Flows Sales (10 000 x R200) Fixed Costs Variable Costs (10 000 x R90) Depreciation (90 000 / 3) PBIT Less Taxes (34%) NPAT + Depreciation OCF Net Working Capital 2 000 000 2 000 000 2 000 000 -25 000 -25 000 -25 000 -900 000 -900 000 -900 000 -30 000 -30 000 -30 000 1 045 000 1 045 000 1 045 000 -355 300 -355 300 -355 300 689 700 689 700 689 700 30 000 30 000 30 000 719 700 719 700 719 700 -10 000 10 000 NCS (from above) -129 600 6 600 TOTAL CASH FLOWS -139 600 719 700 719 700 736 300 BREAK-EVEN EXAMPLE – Q1 SOLUTION CONCL. NPV: -139 600 CF0; 719 700 CF1; 2 Nj; 736 300 CF2; 8 I/YR; NPV = R1 728 314.32 Therefore, the firm should proceed with the project as the NPV is positive. BREAK-EVEN PRICE – Q2 SOLUTION. We should be concerned with the break-even price i.e. what should we put our bid in for in order to win the contract. Therefore we need to find the revenue that gives us a zero NPV. The PV of the costs of this project is the sum of the NCS and NWC required today (R139 600) less the PV of the salvage value and return of NWC in year 3 (16 600) 16 600 FV; 3 N; 8 I/YR; PV = 13 177.62 Add the -139 600: -139 600 + 13 177.62 = -126 422.38 Now we need to find the operating cash flow that the project must produce each year to break-even i.e. solve for PMT. -126 422.38 PV; 3 N; 8 I/YR; PMT = 49 056.12 BREAK-EVEN PRICE – Q2 SOLUTION CONTD. Years 1 -3 Sales 10 000 x BE Price 983 872.91 Fixed Costs -25 000 Variable Costs -900 000 Depreciation -30 000 PBIT 28 872.91 Less Taxes -9 816.79 NPAT 19 056.12 Depreciation OCF 30 000 49 056.12 Working backwards from the OCF up to Break-Even sales, the breakeven price per bed is 983 872.91 / 10 000 = R98.39. BREAK-EVEN SALES VOLUME- Q3 SOLUTION To calculate the break-even sale volume, we need to annualise the PV of the non-OCF cash flows We already did this when calculating the break-even price: PV of non-OCF cash flows = -126 422.38 PMT = 49 056.12 (EAC in PV break-even formula) PV Break-even: = [49 056.12 + (25 000 x 0.66) – (30 000 x 0.34)] [(200 - 90) x 0.66] = 763 beds PROBABILITY ANALYSIS AND DECISION TREES Satisfies the drawbacks of Sensitivity Analysis in that probabilities of certain outcomes are obtained to help with the capital budgeting decision There is usually a sequence of decisions in NPV analysis, and Decision Trees are a useful tool to identify such sequential decisions, in the face of uncertainty. A Decision Tree is a diagram showing decision points, alternatives and possible outcomes with assigned probabilities. DECISION TREES Decision trees are relevant when projects involve sequential investment decisions, or where project cash flows are partially correlated over time. For example, a company needs to develop and test prototypes and undertake a pilot production prior to investing in a large plant for full-scale production. There are two decisions. The decision to develop prototypes is dependent on the NPV from undertaking full scale production. A company may undertake product tests which will have a 70% chance of success followed by an investment in plant at a cost of R40m and possible cash flows of either R50m or R10m per year for two years. 53 DECISION TREES 54 DECISION TREE EXAMPLE Project cost in year 0 is R300 000 and the discount rate is 10%. Cash flows for project are: Probability If Cash Flow in Year 1 is Probability Cash Flow in Year 2 0.25 100 000 0.25 0 0.50 100 000 0.25 200 000 0.25 100 000 0.50 200 000 0.25 300 000 0.25 200 000 0.50 300 000 0.25 350 000 0.5 0.25 200 000 300 000 DECISION TREE DECISION TREE ANALYSIS Top Branch of the Decision tree Expected Payoff in Yr 2 = (0.25 x 0) + (0.5 x 100 000) + (0.25 x 200 000) = 100 000 Cash Flow in Yr 1 = 100 000 PV at time 0: 0 CF0; 100 000 CF1; 100 000 CF2; 10 I/YR; NPV = 173 553.72 (25% probability) Middle Branch of the Decision tree Expected Payoff in Yr 2 = (0.25 x 100 000) + (0.5 x 200 000) + (0.25 x 300 000) = 200 000 Cash Flow in Yr 1 = 200 000 PV at time 0: 0 CF0; 200 000 CF1; 200 000 CF2; 10 I/YR; NPV = 347 107.44 (50% probability) Bottom Branch of the tree Expected Payoff in Yr 2 = (0.25 x 200 000) + (0.5 x 300 000) + (0.25 x 350 000) = 287 500 Cash Flow in Yr 1 = 300 000 PV at time 0: 0 CF0; 300 000 CF1; 287 500 CF2; 10 I/YR; NPV = 510 330.58 (25% probability) E (NPV) at time 0 -300 000 + (173 553.72 x 0.25) + (347 107.44 x 0.5) + (510 330.58 x 0.25) = R44 525 Therefore accept the project. COMPREHENSIVE EXAMPLE – DECISION TREE, SENSITIVITY ANALYSIS AND BREAK EVEN. Solar Electronics Corporation (SEC) are considering the development of a solar airplane. Stage 1 involves the development of proto-types and test marketing which will last one year and cost R100 mil (now). The firm believes that there is a 75% chance of success. Stage 2 follows once Stage 1 is complete. This stage involves full scale production, costing R1 500 mil and taking 5 years. The R1 500 million cost is made upfront (at the beginning of Stage 2). The appropriate discount rate is 15%. SEC - DECISION TREE The firm has two decisions to make: 1 To test or not to test (at T0). To invest or not to invest (at T1). Succes s 75% Test -100m Failure -1500m 900 m p.a. Do not invest NPV = $0 25% Do not test NPV = $0 Invest -1500m -630m p.a. 59 0 Invest 2–6 SEC – NPV ANALYSIS Cash flow forecasts (in millions) are given as follows: Investments Year 1 Revenues Variable Costs Fixed Costs Depreciation Pre-tax Profit Tax (34%) Net Profit Cash Flow Initial Costs Successful in year 1 Years 2 - 6 6000 (3000) (1791) (300) 909 (309) 600 900 Unsuccessful in year 1 Years 2 -6 3000 (1839) (1791) (300) -930 0 -930 -630 (1500) NPV1 (successful) = R1 516.94 -1500 CF0; 900 CF1; 5 Nj; 15 I/YR NPV1 (unsuccessful) = -R3 611.86 (therefore don’t invest) -1500 CF0; -630 CF1; 5 Nj; 15 I/YR SEC - DECISION TREE Decisions are made in reverse order Should the firm invest the R1 500 million? If tests are successful the SEC should invest because the NPV > 0. If tests are unsuccessful the SEC should not invest as the NPV < 0. Should the firm invest R100 million now in order to obtain a 75% chance of R1 517million in a year’s time? Expected Payoff = (Prob of success x payoff if successful) + (Prob of failure x payoff if fail) Should we test and develop? Expected Payoff1 = (0.75 x 1 517) + (0.25 x 0) = R1 138 mil NPV0 : -100 CF0 ; 1 138 CF1; 15 I/YR; NPV = R890 mil Therefore the firm should test the market for solar-powered jet engines. SEC - SENSITIVITY ANALYSIS The SEC Sales Team estimates the following revenues (in the event of a successful test): No. of engines sold Sales Revenue = Market share x Size of market = 0.3 x 10 000 = 3 000 = No. of engines sold x Price per engine = 3 000 x R2mil = R6 000 mil Therefore revenue estimates depend on three assumptions: (1) market share, (2) the size of the engine market and (3) the price per engine. Costs are divided into: (1) variable costs, which change as output changes and are zero when production is zero, and (2) fixed costs, which are independent of production. SEC - SENSITIVITY ANALYSIS The cost breakdown is as follows: Variable cost = variable cost/ unit x no. of engines sold = R1mil x 3 000 = R3 000 mil Total cost = Variable cost + fixed cost = R3 000 mil + R1 791 mill = R4 791 mil Remember with Sensitivity analysis, one variable is changed in isolation and the resultant effect on NPV is calculated. Question 1: Imagine the managers have overestimated the market size believe it may only be 5 000 units. with the project with this change in 15% is required. are concerned that they in their calculations and Should the firm proceed market size? A return of QUESTION 1 ANSWER No. of engines sold = Market share x Size of market = 0.3 x 5 000 = 1 500 Sales Revenue = No. of engines sold x Price per engine = 1 500 x R2 mil = R3 000 mil Variable cost = variable cost/ unit x no. of engines sold = R1 mil x 1 500 = R1 500 mil Total cost = Variable cost + fixed cost = R1 500 mil + R1 791 mil = R3 291 mil Cash flow: (S – C – D) (1 – Tc) + D = {(3 000 – 3 291 – 300) x (1 - 0.34)} + 300 = -90.06 NPV = -R1 801.90 -1 500 CF0; -90.06 CF1; 5 Nj; 15 I/YR Now the project doesn’t look so good. SCENARIO ANALYSIS The assumptions on which the NPV were originally based are shown in the column (best estimate) and in the other two columns the pessimistic and optimistic calculations are shown. The NPV can be computed for each new scenario, where several variables are changed at a time. VARIABLE PESSIMISTIC BEST ESTIMATE OPTIMISTIC Market share Market size (per year) Price Variable Cost (per plane) 20% 5000 R1.9 mill R1.2 mill 30% 10000 R2 mill R1 mill 50% 20000 R2.2 mill R0.8 mill Fixed Cost (per year) Investment R1891 mill R1900 mill R1791 mill R1500 mill R1741 mill R1000 mill SCENARIO ANALYSIS ANSWER NPV Calculations as of date 1 using scenario analysis (R millions and rounded off): Scenario Pessimistic Best estimate Optimistic Revenues 1 900 6 000 22 000 Costs (1 200) (3 000) (8 000) Fixed Costs (1 891) (1 791) (1 741) (380) (300) (200) (1 571) 909 12 059 (1 037) 600 7 959 (657) 900 8 159 (4 102) 1 517 26 350 Depreciation . PBT NPAT OCF (NPAT+D) NPV @ 15% SCENARIO ANALYSIS CONCL. If the probabilities of each scenario occurring are 35% (pessimistic), 55% (best estimate) and 10% (optimistic) respectively: E(NPV) = (0.35 x -4 102) + (0.55 x 1 517) + (0.10 x 26 350) = +2 034 (Accept) SEC – PV BREAK-EVEN ANALYSIS For SEC, the annual sales are varied and the NPV is computed as detailed in the table below. It is clear that the present value break-even sales quantity lies between 1 000 and 3 000 units. Initial Inv. (Yr 1) Unit Sales p.a. Sales rev. Var. Costs Fixed Costs Depr. Tax (34%) Net Profit Cash Flows NPV (date 1) 1500 mil 0 0 0 -1791 -300 711 -1380 -1080 -5120 1500 mil 1000 2000 -1000 -1791 -300 371 -720 -420 -2908 1500 mil 3000 6000 -3000 -1791 -300 -309 600 900 1517 1500 mil 10000 20000 -10000 -1791 -300 -2689 5220 5520 17004 SEC – ACCOUNTING BREAK-EVEN ANALYSIS Accounting B-E Sales = (FC + Depreciation) x (1 – Tc) (Sales price – VC) x (1 - Tc) Considering the SEC example: Accounting Break-Even sales = (1 791 + 300) x 0.66 (2-1) x 0.66 = 2 091 units The denominator is known as the contribution margin as it measures how much each product contributes towards certain costs (fixed and depreciation). Thus, the accounting break-even sales amount effectively measures how many engines must be sold to offset the after-tax fixed costs and depreciation. SEC – BREAK-EVEN ANALYSIS The PV B-E is computed as: EAC + (FC x (1-Tc)) – (Depreciation x Tc) (Sales price – VC) x (1 - Tc) (the Depreciation tax shield is subtracted from the total costs, as it represents a saving). where the EAC = annualised PV of Initial Investment (PMT) 1 500 PV; 5 N; 15 I/YR; PMT = 447.5mil PV Break-Even Sales = 447.5 + (1 791 x 0.66) – (300 x 0.34) (2-1) x 0.66 = 2 314 units Accounting break-even understates the true costs of recovering the initial investment. If we take into account that the R1 500 mill could have been invested at 15%, the true cost is R447.5mil p.a. and not R300 mil p.a. Thus, companies that break-even in an accounting sense are really losing money because they are losing the opportunity cost of the initial investment. WHICH RISK ADJUSTMENT METHODS ARE USED IN PRACTICE IN SOUTH AFRICA? (Source: Correia and Cramer, 2008:39) INVESTMENTS OF UNEQUAL LIVES There are times when application of the NPV rule can lead to the wrong decision. One such time is when evaluating 2 mutually exclusive projects with (1) unequal lives, and (2) when the project is something that will be replaced at the end of it’s lifespan i.e it is something that the firm cannot ‘do without’. In such instances, we could use the following techniques: Replacement Chain Repeat the projects forever, find the PV of that perpetuity. Assumption: Both projects can and will be repeated. Matching Cycle Repeat projects until they begin and end at the same time (LCM). Compute NPV for the “repeated projects”. The Equivalent Annual Cost Method (EAC or ANPV): The Equivalent Annual Cost is the value of the level payment annuity that has the same PV as our original set of cash flows. (solve for PMT) 72 EXAMPLE: EAC Cape Town Cargo is considering the purchase of a new crane. They have a choice between two models. Machine A will cost R10 000 upfront with annual maintenance of R1 375 and an expected life of 3 years. Machine B will cost R12 000 with annual maintenance of R937.50 and an expected life of 4 years. The firm depreciates its assets on a straight-line basis to zero. The appropriate discount rate for both projects is 11% and the firm pays tax at 20%. Salvage values are assumed to be zero. EXAMPLE SOLUTION Present value of costs: Machine A: 0 1 After-tax maint -1 100 Depr. Tax Shield 666.67 Initial Cost -10 000 Total -10 000 -433.33 NPV = -R11 058.93 -10 000CF0; -433.33 CF1; 3 Nj; 11 I/YR Machine B: 0 1 After-tax maint -750 Depr. Tax Shield 600 Initial Cost -12 000 Total -12 000 -150 NPV = -R12 465.37 -12 000CF0; -150 CF1; 4 Nj; 11 I/YR 2 -1 100 666.67 3 -1 100 666.67 -433.33 -433.33 2 -750 600 3 -750 600 4 -750 600 -150 -150 -150 Whilst project A has a lower PV of costs, Machine B has a longer life, so we need to calculate their respective EAC’s. EXAMPLE SOLUTION CONCLUDED Using the PV of costs calculated on the previous slide, we can calculate an equivalent annual cost by solving for PMT using an I/YR of 11%, and N of 3 and 4 years respectively: Machine A: -11 058.93 PV; 3 N; 11 I/YR; PMT = -R4 525.46 Machine B: -12 465.37 PV; 4 N; 11 I/YR; PMT = -R4 017.92 Therefore, Machine B should be chosen as it has a lower EAC than A. Importantly, we do not consider the revenues that will be generated as we assume that these will be the same for both machines. However, if the revenues did differ, it would be easy to expand the analysis. EAC is not confined to the examination of costs – if your PV of costs or cash flows were positive, you then choose the project which had the highest equivalent annual cash flow (also EAC, but ‘C’ would stand for cash flow, not cost). THE REPLACEMENT DECISION It is often wise to examine the business assets used in the production process to see if they should be replaced with a new improved version This is a continuous process and even if the existing machine has years of useful life left, the right decision may still be to dispose of the old and and bring in the new (if your firm does not produce at lowest cost, someone else will) In making the replacement decision, the increased costs associated with the purchase and installation of the new machine have to be weighed against the savings from switching to the new method of production i.e. INCREMENTAL CASH FLOWS remain the focus of attention. There are 2 different situations to be dealt with: 1. Replacement of an asset with a new, identical asset. Question: How frequently must the asset be replaced? Assumes zero technological advancement, so unrealistic. 2. Replacement of an existing asset with a different (more advanced) asset. Called Non-Identical Replacement. Question: At what stage should we replace the old with the new? 1. IDENTICAL ASSET REPLACEMENT Assumptions upon which this analysis is based: That production, with the identical type of equipment, will continue to perpetuity That the estimates of the maintenance costs and scrap values are accurate to maturity That the cost of capital is known and will not change That the cash flows always arise at the year-end EXAMPLE – IDENTICAL REPLACEMENT Claremont Bicycle Rentals is considering a new standard type of bicycle and a choice has to be made between three alternative regular replacement cycles. Details are as follows: Bicycle Cost Replacement options Salvage Value Maintenance Costs 1 2 3 10 000 10 000 10 000 After one year After two years After three years 7 000 5 000 3 000 500 900 1 200 The bicycles are not worth keeping for more than three years due to breakdowns. Revenue streams and other costs are unaffected by the cycle selected. All cash flows occur at annual intervals. The bicycles will be depreciated straight-line to zero over their optimal lifespan. The appropriate discount rate is 10% and all cash flows are taxed at 20%. Determine the optimum replacement cycle. EXAMPLE SOLUTION Because the ‘projects’ have unequal lifespans, and the bikes are standard and will be replaced once sold, an EAC analysis is required. The cash flows are as follows: Project 1: (replace in a year): 0 1 After-tax Maint. -400 Depr. Tax shield 2 000 ATSV 5 600 Initial Cost -10 000 Total -10 000 7 200 PV of costs:-10 000 CF0; 7 200 CF1: 10 I/YR; NPV = -3 454.55 EAC: -3 454.55 PV; 1 N; 10 I/YR; PMT = -3 800 EXAMPLE SOLUTION Project 2: (replace in 2 years time) 0 1 2 After-tax Maint. -400 -720 Depr. Tax shield 1 000 1 000 ATSV 4 000 Initial Cost -10 000 Total -10 000 600 4 280 PV of costs:-10 000 CF0; 600 CF1: 4 280 CF2; 10 I/YR; NPV = -5 917.36 EAC: -5 917.36 PV; 2 N; 10 I/YR; PMT = -3 409.52 EXAMPLE SOLUTION Project 3: (replace after 3 years) 0 1 2 3 After-tax Maint. -400 -720 -960 Depr. Tax shield 666.67 666.67 666.67 ATSV 2 400 Initial Cost -10 000 Total -10 000 266.67 -53.33 2 106.67 PV of costs: -10 000 CF0; 266.67 CF1: -53.33 CF2; 2 106.67 CF3; 10 I/YR; NPV = -8 218.87 EAC: -8 218.87 PV; 3 N; 10 I/YR; PMT = -3 304.93 Project 3 has the lowest EAC and therefore the optimum replacement cycle is every 3 years. 2. NON-IDENTICAL ASSET REPLACEMENT When switching from one kind of machine to another, businesses have to decide on the timing of such a switch. The best option may not be to dispose of the old machine right away. It may be better to wait for a year or two because the costs of running the old machine may amount to LESS than the EQUIVALENT ANNUAL COST of starting a regular cycle with the replacement. However eventually, the old machine will become more costly due to its lower efficiency, increased repairs and/or declining scrap value. EXAMPLE: NON-IDENTICAL REPLACEMENT Milnerton Manufacturing is considering the purchase of a new machine to replace their existing one. The new machine costs R24 000 and will require maintenance of R1 875 at the end of each year for eight years. At the end of eight years the machine can be sold for R10 000. The new asset will be depreciated on a straight-line basis to zero. The existing machine requires increasing amounts of maintenance each year, and its salvage value falls each year, as shown in the next table. This asset has been depreciated in full to a book value of zero. The firm pays tax at 20% and the appropriate discount rate is 8%. EXAMPLE CONTD. YEAR MAINTENANCE COSTS SALVAGE VALUE 0 0 7 500 1 1 250 5 000 2 2 500 3 750 3 3 750 3 125 4 5 000 0 This table tells us that if the firm sells the existing machine now they will receive R7 500. If they sell it in one year’s time they will receive R5 000 but the machine will require maintenance for the year of R1 250, and so on. EXAMPLE SOLUTION Firstly, we want to calculate the equivalent annual cost of the new machine: 0 1-7 8 After-tax maint. -1 500 -1 500 Depr. Tax shield 600 600 NCS -24 000 Total -24 000 8 000 -900 7 100 PV of costs: -24 000 CF0; -900 CF1: 7 Nj; 7 100 CF2; 8 I/YR; NPV = -24 849.82 EAC: -24 849.82 PV; 8 N; 8 I/YR; PMT = -4 324.24 EXAMPLE SOLUTION CONTINUED Secondly, we want to calculate the cost of keeping the existing machine for another year at each year-end (we are not calculating the present value of the costs at time zero for each year, but rather the total costs at the end of each year). If MM keeps the old machine for one more year they will lose out on receiving R7 500 now (which is an opportunity cost), which is subject to tax and which could have earned interest in that year at 8%, hence the opportunity cost at the end of year 1 equals the FV of the ATSV invested now at 8% for one year. They will also have to pay maintenance at the end of the year of R1 250 (brought onto an after-tax basis). They will receive R5 000 for the sale of the machine at year-end however, to offset these expenses (also has to be brought onto an after-tax basis. Thus the cost of keeping the old machine for one more year is: -7 500 (1-0.2) (1.08)1 - 1 250 (1-0.2) + 5 000 (0.8) = -R3 480 EXAMPLE SOLUTION CONCLUDED The total costs of keeping the existing machine for another 1, 2, 3 and 4 years respectively are presented as follows: 1 2 3 4 FV of opport. cost -6 480 -4 320 -3 240 -2 700 After-tax maint -1 000 -2 000 -3 000 -4 000 4 000 3 000 2 500 0 -3 480 -3 320 -3 740 -6 700 ATSV Total Cost The EAC of the new machine (-R4 324.24) is only less than the annual cost of keeping the old machine for a 4th year and thus the firm should replace the machine at the end of year 3. LEASING TERMINOLOGY: Lease – contractual agreement for use of an asset in return for a series of payments Lessee – user of an asset; makes payments Lessor – owner of the asset; receives payments TYPES OF LEASES Operating lease Shorter-term lease Lessor is responsible for insurance, taxes and maintenance Often cancelable Financial lease Longer-term lease Lessee is responsible for insurance, taxes and maintenance Generally not cancelable Specific capital leases Tax-oriented Leveraged Sale and leaseback LEASE ACCOUNTING Leases are governed primarily by IAS17 Financial leases are essentially treated as debt financing Present value of lease payments must be included on the statement of financial position (of the lessee) as a liability Same amount shown under the assets of the lessee as the “capitalized value of leased assets” Operating leases are still “off-statement of financial position” and do not have any impact on the statement of financial position itself LEASING VERSUS BUYING 24-91 INCREMENTAL CASH FLOWS For a lessee: After-tax lease payment (outflow) Lease payment x (1 – T) Lost depreciation tax shield (outflow) Depreciation x tax rate for each year Initial cost of machine (inflow) Inflow because we save the cost of purchasing the asset now May have incremental maintenance, taxes or insurance depending on the type of lease and whether the leased asset is replacing one currently owned EXAMPLE: LEASE CASH FLOWS ABC Ltd needs some new equipment. The equipment would cost R100,000 if purchased and would be depreciated straightline over 5 years. No salvage is expected. Alternatively, the company can lease the equipment for R25 000 per year. The marginal tax rate is 40%. What are the incremental cash flows? After-tax lease payment = 25 000 (1 – 0,4) = 15 000 (outflow years 1 - 5) Lost depreciation tax shield = (100 000 / 5) x 0.4 = 8 000 (outflow years 1 – 5) Cost of machine = 100 000 (inflow year 0) LEASE OR BUY? The company needs to determine whether it is better off borrowing the money and buying the asset, or leasing Compute the NPV of the incremental cash flows Appropriate discount rate is the after-tax cost of debt since a lease is essentially the same risk as a company’s debt. Also the alternative to leasing is LT borrowing so the after-tax cost of such borrowing is the relevant benchmark. NET ADVANTAGE TO LEASING The net advantage to leasing (NAL) is the same thing as the NPV of the incremental cash flows If NAL > 0, the firm should lease If NAL < 0, the firm should buy Consider the previous example. Assume the firm’s cost of debt is 10%. After-tax cost of debt = 10 (1 – 0.4) = 6% NAL: 100 000 CF0; -23 000 CF1; 5 Nj; 6 I/YR; NPV = 3 115.63 Should the firm buy or lease? GOOD REASONS FOR LEASING Taxes may be reduced May reduce some uncertainty May have lower transaction costs May require fewer, if any, restrictive covenants Leasing may encumber fewer assets than secured borrowing DUBIOUS REASONS FOR LEASING Statement of financial position, especially leverage ratios, may look better if the lease does not have to be accounted for on the statement of financial position 100% financing – except leases normally do require either a down-payment or security deposit Low cost – some may try to compare the “implied” rate of interest to other market rates, but this is not directly comparable LEASING EXAMPLE - ANOTHER What is the net advantage to leasing for the following project, and should the firm lease or buy? Equipment would cost R250 000 if purchased It would be depreciated straight-line to zero salvage over 5 years. Alternatively, it may be leased for R65 000/yr. The firm’s after-tax cost of debt is 6%, and its tax rate is 40% SOLUTION After-tax lease payment = (1 – 0.4) x R65 000 = R39 000 Lost tax shield = 0.4 x R50 000 = R20 000 Year CF 0 250 000 1-5 -R39 000 – R20 000 = -R59 000 Discount at 6% NAL: 250 000 CF0; -59 000 CF1; 5 Nj; 6 I/YR; NPV = R1 470.54 (positive) Lease it! SUPPLEMENTARY NOTES ON LEASING WHAT IS LEASING? Terminology: the lessee (user of the asset, makes the payments) The lessor (owner of the asset, receives the payments) The lease contract specifies the payment frequency (monthly, semiannual etc.), with the first payment normally due as soon as the contract is signed; that is, the lessee tends to pay in advance for the use of the asset. In corporate finance, leasing is the process by which a firm can obtain the use of various fixed assets for which it must make a series of contractual, periodic, tax-deductible payments. When a lease is terminated, the leased equipment reverts to the lessor. However, the lease agreement often gives the lessee the option to purchase the equipment or take out a new lease. TYPES OF LEASES 1. Operating Leases: short-term: whilst they can be renewed, it is unlikely that ownership will ever transfer to the lessee. Generally, the total payments made by the lessee to the lessor are less than the lessor’s initial cost of the leased asset. Consequently, the lessor either expects to lease the asset again or sell it at the end of the lease agreement i.e. assets that are leased under operating leases have a usable life that is longer than the term of the lease. The lessor usually maintains the asset (insurance, taxes and maintenance), but these costs will be incorporated into the lease payment by the lessee. Therefore known as full-service or rental leases. Can be cancelled by the lessee during the contract period, but the lessee may be required to pay a penalty for cancellation. If the lessee cancels the contract the asset will be returned to the lessor. 2. Financial Leases (capital or full-payout leases): Long-term: they extend over most of the estimated economic life of the asset and cannot be cancelled (or if it is cancelled, it is with a substantial penalty). All the risks and rewards incidental to ownership are transferred to the lessee (e.g. insurance, maintenance of the asset etc). Therefore known as net leases. Financial leases are a source of financing (borrowing) - there is an immediate cash inflow because the lessee is relieved of having to pay for the asset, but the lessee also assumes a binding obligation to make the payments specified in the lease contract. Thus the cash flow consequences of leasing and borrowing are similar. In either case, the firm raises cash now and pays it back later. Failure to make the lease payment can result in bankruptcy for the lessee. May include a purchase option. According to the Accounting Practices Board, a lease can be considered a financial lease provided one of the following conditions is met: The lease transfers ownership of the asset to the lessee by the end of the lease term Cancellation costs are borne by the lessee. The lease term is for the majority of the estimated economic life of the asset (more than 80%), even if ownership is not transferred. At the beginning of the lease, the PV of the lease payments is equal to 90% or more of the fair market value of the leased asset. If the asset is of such a specialized nature that only the lessee can use it without major modifications being made. If the lessee has the ability to continue the lease for a secondary period at a rent that is substantially below market rent. FORMS OF LEASE AGREEMENTS Direct leases: the lessee identifies the equipment, arranges for a leasing company to buy it from the manufacturer, and signs a contract with the leasing company. Sales-Type leases: the manufacturer leases the asset straight to the lessee. Sale-and-lease-back: the firm sells an asset it already owns and leases it back from the buyer. Common in real estate, as a company might want to raise cash by selling a factory but still retain use of it. Leveraged leases: these are financial leases in which the lessor borrows part of the purchase price of the leased asset (up to 80%), using the lease contract as security for the loan, and the lease payments to service the debt. This does not, however, change the lessee’s obligations. THE LEASING PARADOX So far we have looked at the cash flows of the lease versus buy decision from the perspective of the lessee. What do the cash flows look like from the perspective of the Leasing Company? They have to buy the machine upfront (outflow) They will depreciate it for which they will receive a tax shield (inflow) They have to maintain the asset (outflow) They will receive the annual lease payment (inflow) They will sell the asset at the end of the lease agreement to the lessee (inflow) That is, the cash flows are the exact opposite to the lessee! This makes sense, because Radebe and the Leasing Company are the only parties to the lease agreement, and hence leasing is a zero-sum game. That is, if the lease is a positive NPV activity to one party it will be a negative NPV activity to the other party. The leasing company thus hopes Radebe will buy rather than lease the machine. WHY LEASE? (IN THE FORM OF FINANCIAL LEASES) IF ONE PARTY MUST INEVITABLY LOSE OUT IN A LEASE WHY DO THEY STILL HAPPEN? 1. Tax Advantages By far the most important reason for leasing is income tax deferral because firms may pay different tax rates; a potential tax shield which cannot be used effectively by one firm can be transferred to another via leasing. Any tax benefits from leasing can be split between the two firms by setting the lease payments at the appropriate level, and the shareholders of both firms will benefit from this arrangement. Thus SARS is the loser, as the leasing contract allows the lessor to take advantage of the depreciation and interest tax shields that cannot be used by the lessee. 2. A Reduction in Uncertainty At the end of the useful life of the asset it may be sold for its salvage value. This amount is uncertain at the time the asset is purchased. A lease contract transfers this uncertainty from the lessee to the lessor. This makes sense when the lessor is better able to absorb the risk. However, this transfer of uncertainty from the lessee to the lessor is effectively insurance for the lessee and will thus implicitly be included in the lease payments. But, if the firm leases instead of buying it gives up the salvage value which is a cost of the lease agreement. 3. Fewer Restrictions and Security Requirements If the firm borrows to purchase the asset, certain restrictions in the form of protective covenants, will be placed on their activities (e.g. minimum liquidity, subsequent borrowing and cash dividends). This is not the case with a lease agreement. Also, in order to secure the loan the firm may have to use other assets as collateral, but with the lease only the leased asset is pledged. Therefore, leasing gives management more balance sheet flexibility. Operating Leases are advantageous: Lower Transaction Costs/More Convenient The transaction costs of buying and selling an asset many times during its useful life are high, and thus the justification behind many short-term leases is the reduction in transaction costs. A reduction in transaction costs however, is not really a sufficient justification for long-term leases. Sometimes the cost of short-term rentals may seem prohibitively high, or it may be difficult to rent at any price. This can happen for equipment that is easily damaged by careless use. The owner knows that short-term users are unlikely to take the same care that they would their own equipment. When the danger of abuse becomes too high, short-term rental markets do not survive. Maintenance is provided For operating leases, which are full-service leases, the lessee receives maintenance and other services. However, these benefits will be incorporated into higher lease payments.