University of Rizal System
Morong Campus
College of Engineering
1000 MANUFACTURING ENGINEERING II MCQS
BY MANISH BHOJASIAH
HYDRAULIC MACHINES
1. Hydraulic energy is converted into another
form of energy by hydraulic machines. What
form of energy is that?
a. Mechanical Energy
b. Electrical Energy
c. Nuclear Energy
d. Elastic Energy
2. In hydraulic turbines, inlet energy is greater
than the outlet energy.
a. True
b. False
3. Which principle is used
Turbines?
a. Faraday law
b. Newton’s second law
c. Charles law
d. Braggs law
in
Hydraulic
4. Buckets and blades used in a turbine are
used to:
a. Alter the direction of water
b. Switch off the turbine
c. To regulate the wind speed
d. To regenerate the power
5.
_______________is the electric power
obtained from the energy of the water.
a. Roto dynamic power
b. Thermal power
c. Nuclear power
d. Hydroelectric power
6. Which energy generated in a turbine is
used to run electric power generator linked
to the turbine shaft?
a. Mechanical Energy
b. Potential Energy
c. Elastic Energy
d. Kinetic Energy
7. Hydraulic Machines fall under the category:
a. Pulverizers
b. Kinetic machinery
c.
d.
Condensers
Roto-dynamic machinery
8. Which kind of turbines changes the
pressure of the water entered through it?
a. Reaction turbines
b. Impulse turbines
c. Reactive turbines
d. Kinetic turbines
9. Which type of turbine is used to change the
velocity of the water through its flow?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Kinetic turbines
Axial flow turbines
Impulse turbines
Reaction turbine
10. Which type of turbine is a Francis Turbine?
a. Impulse Turbine
b. Screw Turbine
c. Reaction turbine
d. Turgo turbine
11. How many types of Reaction turbines are
there?
a. 5
b. 4
c. 3
d. 9
12. Turgo Turbine is an impulsive turbine.
a. True
b. False
13. Which kind of turbine is a Fourneyron
Turbine?
a. Inward flow turbine
b. Outward flow turbine
c. Mixed flow turbine
d. Radial flow turbine
14. Maximum Number of jets, generally,
employed in an impulse turbine without jet
interference can be?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
15. The overall efficiency of a reaction turbine is
the ratio of
a. Actual work available at the turbine to
the energy imparted to the wheel
b. Work done on the wheel to the energy
(or head of water) actually supplied to
the turbine
c. Power produced by the turbine to the
energy actually supplied by the
turbine
d. Actual work available at the turbine to
energy imparted to the wheel
16. In a reaction turbine, the draft tube is used
to _________
a. To increase the head of water by an
amount that is equal to the height of
the runner outlet above the tail race
b. To prevent air to enter the turbine
c. To increase pressure energy of water
d. To transport water to downstream
17. In reaction turbine hydraulic efficiency
is______________
a. Ratio of actual work at the turbine to
the energy imparted to the wheel
b. Ratio of work done on the wheel to
energy that is supplied to the turbine
c. Ratio of power produced by the
turbine to the energy actually supplied
by the turbine
d. Ratio of Work done on the wheel to
the energy (or head of water) actually
supplied to the turbine
18. Consider an inward flow reaction turbine,
here, water _______
a. Flows parallel to the axis of the wheel
b. Enters the wheel at the outer periphery
and then flows towards the centre of
the wheel
c. Flow is partly radial and partly axial
d. Enters at the centre of the wheel and
then flows towards the outer periphery
of the wheel
19. The working of which of the following
hydraulic units is based on Pascal’s law?
a. Air lift pump
b. Hydraulic coupling
c. Hydraulic press
d. Jet pump
20. Which kind of turbine is a Pelton Wheel
turbine?
a. Tangential flow turbine
b. Radial flow turbine
c. Outward flow turbine
d. Inward flow turbine
21. IN what type of turbine water enters in
radial direction and leaves axial direction?
a. Tangential flow turbine
b. Axial flow turbine
c. Outward flow turbine
d. Mixed flow turbine
22. How many types of turbines can you classify
on the basis of direction of flow through
runner?
a. 6
b. 3
c. 4
d. 7
23. Into
flow
a.
b.
c.
d.
how many types can you classify radial
turbines?
4
3
6
2
24. Into how many types can you classify
turbines on basis of head at inlet?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 6
d. 5
25. Among the following which turbine requires
more head?
a. Pelton Turbine
b. Kaplan Turbine
c. Francis turbine
d. Tube Turbine
26. Total head of turbines is_______
a. Pressure head + Static head
b. Kinetic head + Static head
c. Static head + Pressure head
d.
Pressure head + Kinetic head + Static
head
27. Head under which Kaplan
operated______
a. 10-70 meters
b. 70 -100 meters
c. 100-200 meters
d. Above 200 meters
turbine
is
28. Head under which Francis turbine is
operated?
a. 10-70 meters
b. 70-100 meters
c. 100-200 meters
d. 40-600 meters
29. The turbine is preferred for 0 to 25 m head
of water?
a. Pelton wheel
b. Kaplan turbine
c. Tube turbine
d. Francis turbine
34. The difference between gross head and
friction losses is ____________
a. Net head
b. Gross head
c. Manometric head
d. Net positive suction head
35. _____________ is defined as ratio between
power delivered to runner and power
supplied at inlet of turbine.
a. Mechanical efficiency
b. Volumetric efficiency
c. Hydraulic efficiency
d. Overall efficiency
36. Which among the following which is not an
efficiency of turbine?
a. Mechanical efficiency
b. Volumetric efficiency
c. Hydraulic efficiency
d. Electrical efficiency
30. Under what head is Pelton turbine operated?
a. 20-50 meters
b. 15-2000 meters
c. 60-200 meters
d. 50-500 meters
37. The ratio of power at the shaft of turbine
and power delivered by water to runner is
known as?
a. Mechanical efficiency
b. Volumetric efficiency
c. Hydraulic efficiency
d. Overall efficiency
31. _____________ is difference
head race and tail race.
a. Gross head
b. Net head
c. Net positive suction head
d. Manometric head
38. The product of mechanical efficiency and
hydraulic efficiency is known as?
a. Mechanical efficiency
b. Volumetric efficiency
c. Hydraulic efficiency
d. Overall efficiency
between
32. The head available at inlet of turbine is
____________
a. Net positive suction head
b. Gross head
c. Net head
d. Manometric head
39. Among the following which turbine has
highest efficiency?
a. Kaplan turbine
b. Francis turbine
c. Pelton turbine
d. Propeller turbine
33. Head lost due to friction is given by
k*f*L*v*v/D*2g
where
ffriction
coefficient, L- length of pen stock, Ddiameter of penstock and” k” is constant
and its value is ____________
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
40. _____________ is ratio of volume of water
actually striking the runner and volume of
water supplied to turbine.
a. Mechanical efficiency
b. Volumetric efficiency
c. Hydraulic efficiency
d. Overall efficiency
41. In the expression for overall efficiency of
turbine, which is p/(k*g*q*h), where “k” is
known as ___________
a. Density of liquid
b. Specific density of liquid
c. Volume of liquid
d. Specific gravity of liquid
42. The expression for maximum hydraulic
efficiency of pelton turbine is given by?
a. (1+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade
angle
b. (2+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade
angle
c. (3+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade
angle
d. (4+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade
angle
43. To obtain maximum hydraulic efficiency of
pelton turbine, blade velocity should be
___________ Times the inlet velocity of jet.
a. Half
b. One quarter
c. Twice
d. Thrice
44. Among the following which turbine has least
efficiency?
a. Pelton turbine
b. Kaplan turbine
c. Francis turbine
d. Propeller turbine
45. The ratio of volume available at shaft of
turbine and power supplied at the inlet of
the turbine
a. Mechanical efficiency
b. Volumetric efficiency
c. Hydraulic efficiency
d. Overall efficiency
46. A hydraulic coupling belongs to the category
of________
a. Energy absorbing machines
b. Energy generating machines
c. Power absorbing machines
d. Energy transfer machines
47. The electric power which is obtained from
hydraulic energy____________
a. Thermal power
b. Mechanical power
c. Solar power
d.
Hydroelectric power
48. At present which is cheapest means of
generating power_____________
a. Thermal power
b. Nuclear power
c. Hydroelectric power
d. Electric Power
49. Pipes of largest diameter which carry water
from reservoir to the turbines is known
as_____________
a. Head stock
b. Tail race
c. Tail stock
d. Pen stock
50. Pen
a.
b.
c.
d.
stocks are made up of _____________
Steel
Cast iron
Mild steel
Wrought iron
51. ____________ is an inward radial flow
reaction turbine.
a. Pelton turbine
b. Kaplan turbine
c. Francis turbine
d. Propeller turbine
52. The important type of axial flow reaction
turbines are ______________
a. Propeller and Pelton turbines
b. Kaplan and Francis turbines
c. Propeller and Francis turbines
d. Propeller and Kaplan turbines
53. ______________ is a axial flow reaction
turbines, if vanes are fixed to hub of turbine.
a. Propeller turbine
b. Francis turbine
c. Kaplan turbine
d. Pelton turbine
54. Francis and Kaplan turbines are known as
_______
a. Impulse turbine
b. Reaction turbine
c. Axial flow turbine
d. Mixed flow turbine
55. Specific speed
between?
a. 5 and 50
of
reaction
turbine
is
b.
c.
d.
10 and 100
100 and 150
150 and 300
b.
c.
d.
Direction of flow through runner
Head at inlet of turbine
Specific speed of turbine
56. Impulse turbine is generally fitted at
______________
a. At the level of tail race
b. Above the tail race
c. Below the tail race
d. About 2.5mts above tail race to avoid
cavitations.
63. If water flows in radial direction at inlet of
runner and leaves axially at outlet then
turbine is named as ____________
a. Tangential flow turbine
b. Axial flow turbine
c. Radial flow turbine
d. Mixed flow turbine
57. Hydraulic turbines are classified based on
____________
a. Energy available at inlet of turbine
b. Direction of flow through vanes
c. Head at inlet of turbine
d. Energy available, Direction of flow,
Head at inlet.
64. Pelton turbine is operated under_________
a. Low head and high discharge
b. High head and low discharge
c. Medium head and high discharge
d. Medium head and medium discharge
58. Impulse turbine and reaction turbine are
classified based on?
a. Type of energy at inlet
b. Direction of flow through runner
c. Head at inlet of turbine
d. Specific speed of turbine
59. Tangential flow, axial flow, radial flow
turbines are classified based on?
a. Type of energy at inlet
b. Direction of flow through runner
c. Head at inlet of turbine
d. Specific speed of turbine
60. High head, low head and medium head
turbines
are
classified
based
on
____________
a. Type of energy at inlet
b. Direction of flow through runner
c. Head at inlet of turbine
d. Specific speed of turbine
61. Low specific speed, high specific speed and
medium specific speed are classified based
on ____________
a. Type of energy at inlet
b. Direction of flow through runner
c. Head at inlet of turbine
d. Specific speed of turbine
62. If energy available at inlet of turbine is only
kinetic energy then it is classified based on
____________
a. Type of energy at inlet
65. Kaplan
turbine
is
operated
under
__________
a. Low head and high discharge
b. High head and low discharge
c. Medium head and high discharge
d. Medium head and medium discharge
66. Medium specific speed of turbine implies
_____________
a. Pelton turbine
b. Kaplan turbine
c. Francis turbine
d. Propeller turbine
67. High specific speed of turbine implies that it
is ___________
a. Francis turbine
b. Propeller turbine
c. Pelton turbine
d. Kaplan turbine
68. Velocity triangles are used to analyze
____________
a. Flow of water along blades of turbine
b. Measure discharge of flow
c. Angle of deflection of jet
d. Flow of water, measure of discharge,
angle of deflection
69. In which of following turbine inlet and outlet
blade velocities of vanes are equal?
a. Francis turbine
b. Kaplan turbine
c. Pelton turbine
d. Propeller turbine
70. Tangential velocity of blade of Pelton wheel
is proportional to ____________
a. Speed of wheel
b. Angular velocity of wheel
c. Rpm of wheel
d. Speed, angular velocity, RPM of the
wheel
71. The value of coefficient of velocity is
_____________
a. 0.98
b. 0.65
c. 0.85
d. 0.33
77. In Pelton wheel if angle of deflection is not
mentioned then we assume it
as______________
a. 150 degrees
b. 200 degrees
c. 165 degrees
d. 185 degrees
72. In which of following turbine inlet whirl
velocity and inlet jet velocity are equal in
magnitude?
a. Pelton turbine
b. Propeller turbine
c. Kaplan turbine
d. Francis turbine
78. The work done per unit weight of water jet
striking runner blades of Pelton turbine is
given by expression ______________
a. [Vw1+Vw2] u/g
b. Vw1*u/g
c. [Vw1+Vw2]/g
d. [Vw1+Vw2]u
73. In Pelton wheel, if outlet velocity angle of
jet is “acute angled” then outlet whirl
velocity of jet is ______________
a. x- component of V(r2) – blade velocity
b. x- component of V (r2) + blade
velocity
c. Blade velocity – x- component of V
(r2)
d. Zero
79. In Pelton turbine the energy available at
inlet of runner that is at outlet of nozzle is
known as
a. Shaft power
b. Runner power
c. Output power
d. Water power
74. In Pelton wheel, if outlet velocity angle of jet
is “obtuseangled” then outlet whirl velocity
of jet is _____________
a. x- component of V (r2) – blade
velocity
b. x- component of V (r2) + blade
velocity
c. Blade velocity – x- component of V
(r2)
d. Zero
75. In Pelton wheel, if outlet velocity angle of jet
is “right angled” then outlet whirl velocity of
jet is __________
a. x- component of V (r2) – blade
velocity
b. x- component of V (r2) + blade
velocity
c. Blade velocity – x- component of V
(r2)
d. Zero
76. In Pelton wheel, relative inlet velocity of jet
with respect to velocity of vane is
_____________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Difference between inlet jet velocity
and blade velocity
Sum of inlet jet velocity and blade
velocity
Inlet jet velocity
Blade velocity
80. In Pelton turbines the expression for power
delivered at inlet to runner is given by
__________
a. W*[Vw1+Vw2]u/g
b. W*[Vw1-Vw2]u/g
c. W*[Vw1+Vw2]u/g, W*[Vw1-Vw2]u/g
d. [Vw1+Vw2]u/g
81. In Pelton turbine runner power is more
when compared with power available at exit
of nozzle.
a. True
b. False
82. Kinetic energy of jet at inlet of turbine is
given as __________________
a. 0.5(paV1)*V1
b. 0.5(paV1)*V1*V1
c. 0.5(aV1)*V1*V1
d. 0.5(pV1)*V1*V1
83. The force exerted by a jet of water in the
direction of jet of jet on a stationary curved
plates Fx is ____________
a. pav*v
b. pav
c. pav*v(1+cos k)
d. pav*v(1+sin k)
84. The force exerted by a jet of water in the
direction of jet of jet on moving curved
plates is ___________
a. pa(v-u)*(v-u)
b. pa(v-u)
c. pav*(v-u)(1+cos k)
d. pa(v-u)*(v-u)(1+sin k)
85. Calculate work done by jet per second on
the runner where, discharge=0.7cubic
meters/s, inlet and outlet whirl velocities be
23.77 and 2.94?
a. 200Kw
b. 150Kw
c. 187Kw
d. 250Kw
86. The power supplied at inlet of turbine in S.I
units is known as_____________
a. Shaft power
b. Runner power
c. Water power
d. Total power
87. The expression for water power in Pelton
wheel is ________________
a. (P*g*Q*H) Kw
b. (g*Q*H*a) Kw
c. (g*Q) Kw
d. (g*H) Kw
b.
c.
d.
Volumetric efficiency
Hydraulic efficiency
Overall efficiency
92. Among the following which turbine has
least efficiency?
a. Pelton turbine
b. Kaplan turbine
c. Francis turbine
d. Propeller turbine
93. In Pelton ____________ is ratio of volume
of water actually striking the runner and
volume of water supplied to turbine.
a. Mechanical efficiency
b. Volumetric efficiency
c. Hydraulic efficiency
d. Overall efficiency
94. In Pelton turbine the ratio of volume
available at shaft of turbine and power
supplied at the inlet of the turbine is
_______
a. Mechanical efficiency
b. Volumetric efficiency
c. Hydraulic efficiency
d. Overall efficiency
88. The hydraulic efficiency of Pelton turbine
will be maximum when blade velocity is
equal to _______
a. V/2
b. V/3
c. V/4
d. V/5
95. The expression for maximum hydraulic
efficiency of Pelto turbine is given by
______________
a. (1+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade
angle
b. (2+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade
angle
c. (3+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade
angle
d. (4+cos k)/2 where k is outlet blade
angle
89. In Pelton turbine ___________ is defined as
ratio between power delivered to runner and
power supplied at inlet of turbine.
a. Mechanical efficiency
b. Volumetric efficiency
c. Hydraulic efficiency
d. Overall efficiency
96. In the expression for overall efficiency of
turbine, which is p/ (k*g*q*h), where “k” is
known as _______
a. Specific density of liquid
b. Density of liquid
c. Specific gravity of liquid
d. Volume of liquid
90. The maximum efficiency of Pelton turbine is
_________
a. 80%
b. 70%
c. 50%
d. 88%
97. In Pelton turbine hydraulic efficiency is
product of mechanical efficiency and overall
efficiency.
a. True
b. False
91. In Pelton turbine product of mechanical
efficiency and hydraulic efficiency is known
as _____________
a. Mechanical efficiency
98. The expression for hydraulic efficiency is
given by
a. 2(V1-u)[1+cos k]u/V1*V1
b. 2(V1+u)[1+cos k]u/V1*V1
c. 2(V1-u)[1-cos k]u/V1*V1
d.
2(V1+u)[1+cos k]u/V1*V1
99. In Pelton turbine inlet velocity of jet is
85.83m/s, inlet and outlet whirl velocities be
85.83 and 0.143 and blade velocity be
38.62 then its hydraulic efficiency is
___________
a. 90.14%
b. 80%
c. 70%
d. 85%
100.
Design of Pelton wheel means the
following data is to be determined.
a. Width of buckets
b. Depth of buckets
c. Number of buckets
d. All of the mentioned
101.
The width of buckets of Pelton wheel is
_________________
a. 2 times diameter of jet
b. 3 times diameter of jet
c. 4 times diameter of jet
d. 5 times diameter of jet
102.
The depth of buckets of Pelton wheel
____________
a. times diameter of jet
b. times diameter of jet
c. times diameter of jet
d. times diameter of jet
103.
The ratio of pitch diameter of Pelton
wheel to diameter of jet is known as
___________
a. Speed ratio
b. Jet ratio
c. Velocity ratio
d. Co-efficient of velocity
104.
Find the diameter of jet D, if jet ratio m
and diameter of jet d are given as 10 and
125mm.
a. 1.25 meters
b. 1.5 meters
c. 2 meters
d. Meters
105.
The number of buckets of Pelton wheel
is 25 and diameter of runner is 1.5meters
then
calculate
diameter
of
jet
is
___________
a. 80mm
b. 85mm
c. 90mm
d. 82mm
106.
In most of cases the value of jet ratio
is _______________
a.
b.
c.
d.
10
11
12
13
107.
Number of buckets on runner of Pelton
wheel is given by expression? (D-diameter
of runner and d- diameter of jet)
a. 15 + D/2d
b. 15 + 3D/2d
c. 15 + D/d
d. 15 + 2D/d
108.
____________ is obtained by dividing
total rate of flow through the turbine by rate
of flow through single jet.
a. Number of jets
b. Diameter of jets
c. Velocity of jets
d. Speed ratio
109.
If diameter of jet is 85mm and diameter
of runner is 1.5 meter then calculate width
of buckets.
a. 400mm
b. 500mm
c. 420mm
d. 425mm
110.
If diameter of jet is 85mm and diameter
of runner is 1.5 meter then depth of buckets
is ___________
a. 100mm
b. 105mm
c. 106mm
d. 102mm
111.
If diameter of jet is 85mm and diameter
of runner is 1.5 meter then calculate
number of buckets on Pelton wheel
approximately
a. 20
b. 22
c. 23
d. 25
112.
The width of Pelton wheel should be 5
times the diameter of jet?
a. True
b. False
113.
The ratio of diameter of jet to diameter
of runner is _____________
a. 1:3
b. 1:6
c. 1:5
d. 3:4
114.
Radial flow reaction turbines are those
turbines in which water flows
____________
a. Radial direction
b. Axial direction
c. Tangential direction
d. All of the mentioned
115.
Main parts of radial flow
turbines are ______________
a. Casing
b. Guide mechanism
c. Draft tube
d. All of the mentioned
122.
The pressure at the exit of runner of
reaction turbine is generally ____________
than atmospheric pressure
a. Greater
b. Lesser
c. Constant
d. Equal
reaction
116.
Discharge through radial flow reaction
turbine is ______________
a. P1*b1*Vf1
b. P2*b2*Vf2
c. P1*b2*Vf2
d. Both P1*b1*Vf1 & P2*b2*Vf2
117.
Radial flow reaction turbines contain
spiral casing which area ____________
a. Remains constant
b. Gradually decreases
c. Gradually increases
d. Suddenly decreases
118.
____________ consists of stationary
circular wheel all around the runner of
turbine
a. Casing
b. Guide mechanism
c. Runner
d. Drafting
123.
___________is a pipe of gradually
increasing area used for discharging water
from exit of the turbine to the tail race.
a. Casing
b. Guide mechanism
c. Draft tube
d. Runner
124.
____________and
__________of
radial flow reaction turbine are always full of
water.
a. Casing and runner
b. Casing and penstocks
c. Runner and penstocks
d. Runner and draft tube
125.
____________governs the flow
water entering the runner blades.
a. Casing
b. Guide vanes
c. Draft tube
d. Runner
of
126.
Spiral casing of reaction turbine will
regulate the flow.
a. True
b. False
119.
The casing of radial flow reaction turbine
is made of spiral shape, so that water may
enter the runner__________
a. Variable acceleration
b. Constant acceleration
c. Variable velocity
d. Constant velocity
127.
Inward radial flow reaction turbine is a
turbine in which water flows across the
blades of runner______________
a. Radial direction
b. Radially inward
c. Radially outward
d. Axial direction
120.
_____________ allow the water to
strike the vanes fixed on runner without
shock at inlet
a. Casing
b. Guide vanes
c. Runner
d. Draft tube
128.
Which of following is inward radial flow
reaction turbine?
a. Pelton wheel
b. Francis turbine
c. Axial turbine
d. Kaplan turbine
121.
Runner blades
_____________
a. Cast steel
b. Cast iron
c. Wrought iron
d. Steel
are
made
up
of
129.
In Inward radial flow reaction turbine
which is not required?
a. Runner
b. Air tight casing
c. Guide vanes
d. Breaking jet
130.
The main difference between reaction
turbine and inward radial flow reaction
turbine is water flows___________
a. Radial direction
b. Radially inward
c. Radially outward
d. Axial direction
131.
In Inward radial flow reaction turbine
the ratio of tangential wheel at inlet to
given velocity of jet is known as _______
a. Speed ratio
b. Flow ratio
c. Discharge
d. Radial discharge
132.
In Inward radial flow reaction turbine
the ratio of tangential velocity at inlet to the
given velocity ____________
a. Speed ratio
b. Flow ratio
c. Discharge
d. Radial discharge
133.
The discharge through a reaction radial
flow turbine is given by____________
a. P1*b1*Vf1
b. P2*b2*Vf2
c. P1*b2*Vf2
d. Both P1*b1*Vf1 & P2*b2*Vf2
134.
In Inward radial flow reaction turbine if
thickness is considered then discharge is
_________
a. (P1-n*t)*b1*Vf1
b. (P2-n*t)*b2*Vf2
c. (P1-n*t)*b2*Vf2
d. Both (P1-n*t)*b1*Vf1 & (P2n*t)*b2*Vf2
135.
In Inward radial flow reaction turbine if
angle made by absolute velocity with its
tangent is 90 degrees and component of
whirl is zero at outlet is _____________
a. Radial inlet discharge
b. Radial outlet discharge
c. Flow ratio
d. Speed ratio
136.
In which of following turbine whirl
component is zero?
a. Reaction turbine
b. Inward radial flow reaction turbine
c. Axial flow turbine
d. Impulse turbine
137.
Discharge in inward
turbine ____________
a. Increases
flow
b.
c.
d.
Decreases
Remains constant
Gradually decreases
138.
Speed control of Outward flow reaction
turbine is _________
a. Easy
b. Moderate
c. Difficult
d. Very difficult
139.
Centrifugal head in inward flow
reaction turbine __________
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. Gradually decreases
140.
Tendency of wheel to race is almost nil
in ___________turbine.
a. Inward flow reaction turbine
b. Outward flow reaction turbine
c. Impulse turbine
d. Axial flow turbine
141.
Inward flow reaction turbine is used in
practical applications.
a. True
b. False
142.
The formation of vapour cavities is
called _____
a. Static pressure drop
b. Cavitation
c. Isentropic expansion
d. Emulsion
143.
as?
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is the degree of reaction denoted
144.
Voids are created due to______
Reaction ratio
Pressure ratio
Liquid free layers
Volumetric layers
a.
b.
c.
d.
D
R
R
D
145.
Cavitation usually occurs due to the
changes in ________
a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Volume
d. Heat
reaction
146.
Degree of reactions are most commonly
used in________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Turbomachinery
Pressure drag
Aerodynamics
Automobiles
147.
At high pressure, the voids can generate
______
a. Drag force
b. Mass density
c. Shock waves
d. Flow speed
148.
Voids that implode near metal surface
develops a_______
a. Drag force
b. Cyclic stress
c. Shock waves
d. Flow speed
149.
In
case
of
gas
turbines
and
compressors,
degree
of
reaction
is
________
a. Static pressure drop in rotor/ static
pressure drop in stage
b. Static pressure drop in stage/ static
pressure drop in rotor
c. Isentropic enthalpy drop in rotor/
isentropic enthalpy drop in stage
d. Static temperature drop in stage/
static temperature drop in rotor
150.
Non-inertial cavitation is the one in
which a bubble of fluid is forced to oscillate.
a. True
b. False
151.
The efficiency of the vane is given
by_________
a. 1-V22/ V12
b. 1-(V22/ V12)
c. V22/ V12
d. 1-V12
152.
The velocities of the blade angles can
be found out using________
a. Mach number
b. Froude’s number
c. Velocity triangles
d. Reynolds number
153.
Which among the following velocities
cannot be found using the velocity
triangle?
a. Tangential
b. Whirl
c. Relative
d. Parabolic
154.
Hydrodynamic cavitation is due to the
process of _________
a. Vaporisation
b. Sedimentation
c. Filtration
d. Excavation
155.
The process of bubble generation leads
to __________
a. High temperatures
b. High pressures
c. High energy densities
d. High volumetric ratio
156.
Super cavitation is the use of cavitation
effect to create a bubble of steam inside a
liquid.
a. True
b. False
157.
of?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Degree of reaction turbine is the ratio
Pressure energy to total energy
Kinetic energy to total energy
Potential energy to total energy
Kinetic energy to potential energy
158.
Which of these options are best suited
for the total energy change inside the
runner per unit weight?
a. Degree of action
b. Degree of reaction
c. Turbulence
d. Efficiency of turbine
159.
Which of these ratios are termed to be
hydraulic efficiency?
a. Water power to delivered power
b. Delivered power to input power
c. Power lost to power delivered
d. Runner power to water power
160.
When a container containing a liquid is
rotated, then due to centrifugal action, then
which of these energies are changed?
a. Kinetic energy
b. Pressure energy
c. Potential energy
d. Energy due to viscous force
161.
For an actual reaction turbine, what
should be the angle beta, such that the loss
of kinetic energy at the outlet is to be
minimum?
a. 90
b. 45
c. 60
d. 30
162.
Discharge through a reaction flow
reaction turbine is given by, Q = ______
a. Pi*d*b*Vf1
b. Pi*d*d*b*Vf1
c. Pi*d*b*b*Vf2
d. Pi*b*b*Vf1
163.
When the thicknesses of vanes are to be
considered in the discharge of a turbine,
what will be the area under consideration?
a. Pi*d – n*t
b. Pi*d – n*n*t
c. Pi*d – t*t
d. Pi*d *d– n*t
164.
The speed ratio is defined as u/(2gH)1/2
a. True
b. False
165.
Flow ratio is defined as Vf1/(2gH)1/2
a. False
b. True
166.
_________ means the angle made by
absolute velocity with the tangent on the
wheel is 90 degrees and the component of
whirl velocity is zero.
a. Axial discharge
b. Tangential discharge
c. Turbulent discharge
d. Radial discharge
167.
lies
a.
b.
c.
d.
In a Francis turbine, degree of reaction
between _____
0 and 1
1 and 2
0 and 0.5
0.5 and 0.1
168.
In an outward flow reaction turbine,
water from casing enters guiding wheel.
a. True
b. False
169.
The water from penstocks enters the
_____ which is spiral in shape which the
area of cross section of casing goes on
decreasing gradually
a. guide wheel
b. draft tube
c. casing
d. runner
170.
If the water flows from inwards to
outwards, the turbine is known as
_____________
a. Tangential flow turbine
b. Turbulent low inward flow
c. Inward flow turbine
d.
Outward flow turbine
171.
In general, reaction turbines consist of
which types of energies?
a. kinetic energy and potential energy
b. potential energy and pressure energy
c. kinetic energy and pressure energy
d. gravitational energy and potential
energy
172.
___________ is a circular wheel on
which a series of smooth, radial curved
vanes are fixed.
a. Guide wheel
b. Runner
c. Casing
d. Draft tube
173.
In outward radial flow reaction turbines,
tangential velocity at inlet is less than that
of the outlet.
a. False
b. True
174.
In an outward radial flow reaction
turbine the ratio of tangential wheel at inlet
to given velocity of jet is known as
___________
a. Speed ratio
b. Flow ratio
c. Discharge
d. Radial discharge
175.
In an outward radial flow reaction
turbine the ratio of tangential velocity at
inlet to the given velocity is ______
a. Speed ratio
b. Flow ratio
c. Discharge
d. Radial discharge
176.
Discharge in an outward flow reaction
turbine ____________
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. Gradually decreases
177.
An outward radial reaction turbine has
______
a. u1 < u2
b. u1 > u2
c. u1 = u2
d. u2 = u1 = 0
178.
An outward flow reaction turbine,
________
a. D1 > D2
b. D1 < D2
c.
d.
D1 = D2
D1 = D2 = 0
179.
___________is ratio of pressure
energy change inside runner to total
energy change inside runner
a. Degree of reaction
b. Speed ratio
c. Flow ratio
d. Hydraulic efficiency
180.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Degree of reaction for impulse turbine
0
1
2
3
181.
The formula for degree of reaction for
hydraulic turbines is __________
a. (V1*V1-V2*V2)/(V1*V1V2*V2)*(u1*u1-u2*u2)*(Vr2*Vr2Vr1*Vr1)
b. (V1*V1-V2*V2)/ (V1*V1V2*V2)*(u1*u1-u2*u2)*(Vr2*Vr2Vr1*Vr1)
c. 1+ (V1*V1-V2*V2)/ (V1*V1V2*V2)*(u1*u1-u2*u2)*(Vr2*Vr2Vr1*Vr1)
d. (V2*V2-V1*V1)/ (V1*V1V2*V2)*(u1*u1-u2*u2)*(Vr2*Vr2Vr1*Vr1)
182.
Degree of reaction for reaction turbine
is _____________
a. cot x /2(cot x –cot y)
b. 1+ cot x /2(cot x –cot y)
c. cot x /2(cot x +cot y)
d. 1+ cot x /2(cot x +cot y)
183.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A turbine is a ________
Rotary mechanical device
Static pressure drop device
Electrical device
Static temperature device
a.
b.
c.
d.
Turbine converts _________
Work to energy
Energy to work
Work to Electricity
Work to pressure
a.
b.
c.
d.
Turbine extracts energy from________
Reaction ratio
Pressure ratio
Fluid flow
Volumetric ratio
184.
185.
186.
Inward
flow
reaction turbine enter through ______
a.
b.
c.
d.
Outer periphery
Blades
Inner periphery
Pressure angle
187.
________
a. Turbomachinery
b. Pressure drag
c. Aerodynamics
d. Automobiles
188.
flow
a.
b.
c.
d.
A turbine is a
Centrifugal
is imparted when the__________
Reaction flow is negative
Reaction flow is positive
Efficiency is 100 percent
Reaction rate is negligible
189.
turbine not used?
a. Solar power
b. Windmill
c. Water wheels
d. Gas plant
Where is the
190.
In an inward
flow reaction turbine the discharge _______
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Same
d. Independent
191.
A working fluid
contains kinetic energy only.
a. True
b. False
192.
In
impulse
turbines with moving blades, there is no
_________ in blades of the turbine.
a. Pressure change
b. Same pressure
c. Volumetric change
d. Pressure independent
193.
In
impulse
turbines with stationary blades, there
is_________ in blades of the turbine.
a. Pressure change
b. Same pressure
c. Volumetric change
d. Pressure independent
194.
In an outward
flow reaction turbine the discharge _______
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Same
d.
Independent
c.
d.
195.
Before
reaching the turbine, the acceleration of
the fluid takes place through
the__________
a. Vane angle
b. Nozzle
c. Pump
d. Pipe
196.
The Pelton
wheel extracts energy from________
a. Vane angle
b. Moving fluid
c. Increase in temperature
d. Heat rejection
197.
Pelton wheel
is a Reaction type water turbine.
a. True
b. False
198.
The outward
radial flow reaction turbine is a turbine in
which direction of water flow is
___________
a. Radial direction
b. Radially inward
c. Radially outward
d. Axial direction
199.
Outward flow
reaction turbine is used in practical
applications
a. True
b. False
200.
The
energy
available at inlet for outward reaction flow
turbine is ____________
a. Potential
b. Kinetic energy
c. Pressure energy
d. Pressure energy and Kinetic energy
201.
Centrifugal
head in Outward flow reaction turbine
_____________
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains constant
d. Gradually decreases
202.
outward
flow
____________
a. Increases
b. Decreases
Discharge
in
reaction
turbine
Remains constant
Gradually decreases
203.
Speed control
of Outward flow reaction turbine is
_____________
a. Easy
b. Moderate
c. Difficult
d. Very difficult
204.
Tendency of
wheel to race is predominant in
____________ turbine
a. Inward flow reaction turbine
b. Outward flow reaction turbine
c. Impulse turbine
d. Axial flow turbine
205.
Outward flow
reaction turbine will quite suitable
for_____________
a. High head
b. Medium head
c. Low head
d. Static head
206.
In
outward
flow reaction turbine tangential velocity at
inlet is always __________ than outlet
velocity.
a. Equal
b. Less
c. More
d. Constant
207.
In
outward
radial flow reaction turbine if angle made by
absolute velocity with its tangent is 90
degrees and component of whirl is zero at
inlet is _______________
a. Radial inlet discharge
b. Radial outlet discharge
c. Flow ratio
d. Speed ratio
208.
In
outward
radial flow reaction turbine if thickness is
considered then discharge is ____________
a. (P1-n*t)*b1*Vf1
b. (P2-n*t)*b2*Vf2
c. (P1-n*t)*b2*Vf2
d. Both (P1-n*t)*b1*Vf1 & (P2n*t)*b2*Vf2
209.
The
main
difference between reaction turbine and
outward radial flow reaction turbine is water
flows __________
a. Radial direction
b.
c.
d.
Radially inward
Radially outward
Axial direction
a.
b.
c.
d.
Head race
Tail race
Tank
Nozzle
210.
In
outward
radial flow reaction turbine the ratio of
tangential wheel at inlet to given velocity of
jet is known as ___________
a. Speed ratio
b. Flow ratio
c. Discharge
d. Radial discharge
218.
Turbine that
consists of moving nozzles and with fixed
nozzles is called as__________
a. Impulse turbine
b. Curtis turbine
c. Rateau turbine
d. Reaction turbine
211.
Conical
diffuser draft tube is also called_______
a. Straight divergent tube
b. Simple elbow tube
c. Thermal tube
d. Elbow tube with varying cross section
219.
An example of
reaction turbine is________
a. Parsons turbine
b. Curtis turbine
c. Rateau turbine
d. Pelton wheel
212.
Steam turbine
converts energy into________
a. Electrical work
b. Mechanical work
c. Chemical work
d. Thermal work
220.
When we
arrange turbine blades in multiple stages it
is called ________
a. Pressure change
b. Vane deviation
c. Compounding
d. Pressure ratio
213.
Most common
application of steam turbine is _______
a. Motor
b. Generator
c. Pump
d. Filter
214.
Conical
diffuser draft tube consists of conical
diffuser with angles of______
a. 10 degrees
b. 20 degrees
c. 30 degrees
d. 40 degrees
215.
What is the
purpose of a conical diffuser?
a. To prevent flow separation
b. To avoid Pressure drag
c. To prevent rejection of heat
d. To increase efficiency
216.
What is the
efficiency of conical diffuser draft tube?
a. 30
b. 50
c. 70
d. 90
217.
elbow draft
the_______
tube
is
The
simple
placed close to
221.
Compounding
is needed to ___________
a. Increase Pressure
b. Decrease temperature
c. Change volume
d. Increase efficiency
222.
the
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which among
following is not a type of compounding?
Pressure
Temperature
Pressure velocity
Velocity
223.
Newtons
second law describes the transfer of energy
through impulse turbines.
a. True
b. False
224.
flow
a.
b.
c.
d.
Inner radial
extracts energy from _____
Turbine blades
Moving fluid
Pressure change
Temperature increase
225.
Reaction
turbines develop torque by reacting to the
gas or fluids pressure or mass.
a. True
b.
False
226.
What is the
water flow direction in the runner in a
Francis turbine?
a. Axial and then tangential
b. Tangential and then axial
c. Radial and then axial
d. Axial and then radial
227.
Which of the
following is true in case of flow of water
before it enters the runner of a Francis
Turbine?
a. Available head is entirely converted to
velocity head
b. Available head is entire converted to
pressure head
c. Available head is neither converted to
pressure head nor velocity head
d. Available head is partly converted to
pressure head and partly to velocity
head
228.
Why does the
cross sectional area of the Spiral casing
gradually decrease along the circumference
of the Francis turbine from the entrance to
the tip?
a. To ensure constant velocity of water
during runner entry
b. To prevent loss of efficiency of the
turbine due to impulsive forces caused
by extra area
c. To prevent leakage from the turbine
d. To reduce material costs in order to
make the turbine more economical
229.
Which of the
following profiles are used for guide vanes
to ensure smooth flow without separation?
a. Rectangular
b. Bent Rectangular
c. Elliptical
d. Aerofoil
230.
In which of the
following type of runners the velocity of
whirl at inlet is greater than the blade
velocity?
a. Such a case is practically impossible
b. Slow Runner
c. Medium Runner
d. Fast Runner
231.
Which of the
following runner types will have the highest
vane angle at inlet (β1 value)?
a. Slow Runner
b.
c.
d.
Medium Runner
Fast Runner
Vane angle is defined only for Kaplan
Turbines and not Francis turbines
232.
In case of a
Medium runner, tan (α1) CANNOT be given
by (α1 = Guide vane angle at inlet)?
a. Vf1 / Vw1
b. Vr1 / Vw1
c. Vr1 / u1
d. Vw1 / u1
233.
In the velocity
diagrams for Francis turbine, which of the
following velocity directions is along the
blade curvature?
a. Vr1
b. Vw1
c. V1
d. u1
234.
In the figure
shown below, which of the following angles
replace the question mark?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Guide vane angle at inlet
Blade angle at inlet
Vane angle at inlet
Blade angle at outlet
235.
In the figure
shown below, which of the following type of
runners has the blade curvature as shown in
the above figure (The arrow denotes
direction of blade motion)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
Information insufficient to determine
Slow Runner
Medium Runner
Fast Runner
236.
Francis turbine
is typically used for which of the following
values of available heads?
a. 300 m
b. 100 m
c. 30 m
d. 5 m
237.
Water
flow
velocity is given 10 m/s. The runner
diameter is 3 m and the width of the wheel
is 25 cm. Find the mass of water (kg)
flowing across the runner per second.
a. 7500π
b. 50π
c. 300π
d. RPM of the turbine needs to be given
238.
Work done per
second by a Francis turbine can be given by
ρAVf (Vw1u1 + Vw2u2).
a. True
b. False
239.
Which of the
following terms is considered to be zero
while deriving the equation for work done
per second for Francis Turbine?
a. Vr1
b. Vw2
c. Vf2
d. Vr2
240.
Power
developed by Francis turbine are calculated
for a certain set of conditions. Now, the inlet
whirl velocity is doubled, the blade velocity
at inlet is doubled and the flow velocity is
quartered. The power developed:
a. Is 4 times the original value
b. Is 2 times the original value
c. Is ½ times the original value
d. Is same as the original value
e.
241.
Volume flow
rate of water in a Francis turbine runner is
25 m3/s. The flow velocity, whirl velocity
and blade velocity are 11 m/s, 10 m/s and
5 m/s respectively, all values given at
runner inlet. Find the power developed by
the turbine.
a. 25 kW
b. 1.25 MW
c. 1.25 kW
d. 25 MW
242.
The flow rate
of the water flow in a Francis turbine is
increased by 50% keeping all the other
parameters same. The work done by the
turbine changes by?
a. 50% increase
b. 25% increase
c. 100% increase
d. 150% increase
243.
A
student
performs an experiment with a Francis
turbine. He accidently set the RPM of Francis
turbine to 1400 rpm instead of 700 rpm. He
reported the power to be 1 MW. His teacher
asks him to perform the same experiment
using the correct RPM. The student
performs the same experiment again, but
this time the erroneously doubled the flow
velocity. What does the student report the
power to be?
a. 0.5 MW
b. 0.25 MW
c. 2 MW
d. 1 MW
244.
Velocity
of
whirl at the runner inlet is given to be 10
m/s and blade velocity to be 5 m/s. The
volume flow rate of water in Francis turbine
is given to be 25 m3/s. Find the power
generated by the turbine?
a. 1700 HP
b. 800 HP
c. 3400 HP
d. 1000 HP
245.
The available
head of a Francis Turbine is 100 m. Velocity
of the flow at the runner inlet is 15 m/s. Find
the flow ratio.
a. 0.33
b. 0.45
c. 0.67
d. 0.89
246.
How does the
flow ratio (ψ) of a Francis turbine vary with
available head (H)?
a. ψ α H
b. ψ α 1/H
c. ψ α sqrt (H)
d. ψ α 1/(sqrt (H))
247.
What is the
typical value for flow ratio in a Francis
turbine?
a. 0.05 – 0.1
b. 0.15 – 0.30
c. 0.35 – 0.45
d. 0.50 – 0.60
248.
The available
head of a Francis Turbine is 120 m. The
blade velocity is given 35 m/s. Find the
speed ratio of the turbine.
a. 0.56
b. 0.61
c. 0.71
d. 0.81
249.
The
speed
ratio (φ) varies directly with which of the
following parameters?
a. Vw1
b. V1
c. N (RPM)
d. H (Available head)
250.
The
typical
value range of speed ratio for a Francis
turbine is:
a. 0.3 – 0.6
b. 0.5 – 0.6
c. – 0.4
d. 0.6 – 0.9
251.
Which of the
following efficiencies for Francis Turbine is
described as the ratio between the power
produced by runner to the power supplied
by water at the inlet?
a. Hydraulic efficiency
b. Volumetric efficiency
c. Mechanical efficiency
d. Overall efficiency
252.
Which of the
following efficiencies for Francis Turbine is
described as the ratio between total
quantity of water over runner blades to total
quantity of water supplied to turbine?
a. Hydraulic efficiency
b. Volumetric efficiency
c. Mechanical efficiency
d. Overall efficiency
253.
Which of the
following efficiencies for Francis Turbine is
defined as the ratio between the power
available at the shaft of the turbine to the
power produced by the runner?
a. Hydraulic efficiency
b.
c.
d.
Volumetric efficiency
Mechanical efficiency
Overall efficiency
254.
Which of the
following efficiencies for Francis Turbine is
defined as the ratio between the power
available at the shaft to the power supplied
by water at the inlet?
a. Hydraulic efficiency
b. Volumetric efficiency
c. Mechanical efficiency
d. Overall efficiency
255.
The
whirl
velocity at inlet of Francis turbine is given to
be 20 m/s. The blade velocity is given as 35
m/s. What is the hydraulic efficiency for a
head of 100 m?
a. 80%
b. 90%
c. 70%
d. 98%
256.
The
desired
hydraulic efficiency of a turbine is 80% at a
whirl velocity of 20 m/s and a head of 100
m. What should be the blade velocity of the
turbine at inlet in m/s?
a. 40
b. 60
c. 80
d. 25
257.
The
input
water power of the Francis turbine is 1.25
times the runner power. What would be the
hydraulic efficiency of the turbine (in %)?
a. 60
b. 70
c. 80
d. 90
258.
The
volume
flow rate into a Francis turbine is Q m3/s.
0.25Q m3/s volume of water do not flow
over the runner blades. What is the
mechanical efficiency of the turbine (in %)?
a. 65
b. 75
c. 80
d. Mechanical efficiency cannot be found
out from the given information
259.
The volumetric
efficiency of a Francis turbine is given to be
90%. If the volume flow rate through the
turbine is 25 m3/s. What is the flow rate of
water over the runner blades (in m3/s)?
a.
b.
c.
d.
20
25
22.5
21.5
260.
The volumetric
efficiency of a given turbine is 80%. If
volume flow rate of water in given to be 30
m3/s, find the volume of water (m3) NOT
flowing over the runner blades per second?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 10
d. 12
261.
The
power
available at the shaft of a Francis turbine is
1 MW. The volume flow rate of water in 25
m3/s, whirl velocity at inlet is 10 m/s and
blade velocity is 5 m/s. Find the mechanical
efficiency (in %)?
a. 65
b. 75
c. 80
d. 90
262.
The
whirl
velocity at inlet is 15 m/s and blade velocity
is 10 m/s. The volume flow rate of water in
20 m3/s. Find the power output available at
the shaft if the mechanical efficiency is 95%
(in MW)?
a. 2.85
b. 3.075
c. 6.55
d. 0.285
263.
The
power
output of the shaft is 5 MW. The volume flow
rate of water in 10 m3/s at an available head
of 60 m. Find the overall efficiency of the
turbine in % (g = 10 m/s2)?
a. 80
b. 82.5
c. 83.3
d. 85
264.
The
volume
flow rate of water in 10 m3/s at an available
head of 60 m (g = 10 m/s3). Find the shaft
power (in MW) if the overall efficiency of the
turbine is 90%.
a. 54
b. 5.4
c. 540
d. 0.54
265.
The hydraulic
efficiency of a Francis turbine is 90%, the
mechanical efficiency is 95% and the
volumetric efficiency is assumed to be
100%. Fine the overall efficiency (in %)?
a. 80
b. 85.5
c. 87.5
d. 83.3
266.
In a Kaplan
turbine, what is the direction of water flow?
a. Axial and then axial
b. Radial and then axial
c. Tangential and then axial
d. Tangential and then radial
267.
For which of
the following values of available heads may
Kaplan turbine be used?
a. 250 m
b. 100 m
c. 80 m
d. 50 m
268.
In this type of
low head turbine, the guide vanes are fixed
to the hub of the turbine and are not
adjustable. What is this type of turbine
called?
a. Francis turbine
b. Kaplan Turbine
c. Propeller Turbine
d. Pelton turbine
269.
The velocity of
flow through a Kaplan turbine is 10 m/s. The
outer diameter of the runner is 4 m and the
hub diameter is 2 m. Find the volume flow
rate of the turbine in m3/s?
a. 95
b. 75
c. 85
d. 105
270.
The velocity of
the flow at the inlet of Kaplan turbine is V.
In an experimental setup, what could be the
possible value of the velocity of the flow at
the outlet of Kaplan turbine?
a. V
b. 0.8V
c. 1.2V
d. 2V
271.
Which of the
following turbines will have the lowest
number of blades in it?
a. Pelton turbine
b. Steam turbine
c. Francis turbine
d.
Kaplan turbine
d.
15 m/s
272.
The velocity of
the flow through the Kaplan turbine is 25
m/s. The available head of the turbine is 60
m. Find the flow ratio of the turbine (take g
= 10 m/s2).
a. 0.65
b. 0.72
c. 0.69
d. 0.75
278.
The
whirl
velocity of water at the inlet of the Kaplan
turbine is 15 m/s. The velocity of water at
inlet of the turbine is 20 m/s. Find the guide
vane angle at inlet (In degrees).
a. 53.13
b. 36.86
c. 45
d. 41.41
273.
A
Kaplan
turbine requires a speed ratio of 2. The
available head of the turbine is 5 m. What
should be the blade velocity of the turbine
such that a speed ratio of 2 is maintained
(take g = 10 m/s2)?
a. 75.75 m/s
b. 63.25 m/s
c. 23.35 m/s
d. 50.00 m/s
279.
The
relative
velocity of water at the inlet of the Kaplan
turbine is 7 m/s. β1 = 75o. The whirl velocity
of the water at inlet is 10 m/s. Find the blade
velocity of the turbine?
a. 26.124 m/s
b. 40 m/s
c. 36.124 m/s
d. 60 m/s
274.
The flow ratio
of a Kaplan turbine is given as 0.7. The
available head is 30 m. The outer diameter
of the runner is 3.5 m and the hub diameter
is 2 m. Find the volume of water flowing
through the turbine per second (m3/s)?
a. 90
b. 111
c. 125
d. 168
275.
In which of the
following type of runners in a Kaplan turbine
the velocity of whirl at inlet is smaller than
the blade velocity?
a. Such a case is practically impossible
b. Slow Runner
c. Medium Runner
d. Fast Runner
276.
In the outlet
velocity triangle of a Kaplan turbine, β2 =
30o. Vf2 = 5 m/s. What is the relative
velocity of the flow at outlet?
a. 10 m/s
b. 5.77 m/s
c. 8.66 m/s
d. 2.88 m/s
277.
In the inlet
velocity triangle of a Kaplan turbine, α1 =
45o. The velocity of flow at inlet = 10 m/s.
Find the whirl velocity of water at the inlet
of Kaplan turbine?
a. 5 m/s
b. 10 m/s
c. 12.5 m/s
280.
For the figure
given below, find the missing terms in the
order of (1), (2), (3) and (4).
a.
b.
c.
d.
Vr1, α1, β1, Vw1
Vw1, β1, α1, Vr1
Vw1, α1, β1, Vr1
Vr1, β1, α1, Vw1
281.
works on________
a. Electrical energy
b. Hydro energy
c. Thermal energy
d. Chemical energy
Kaplan turbine
282.
Kaplan turbine
is an ______ reaction turbine
a. Inward flow
b. Outward flow
c. Radial
d. Axial
283.
The
Kaplan
Turbine is an evolution of ________
a. Francis turbine
b.
c.
d.
Pelton wheel
Parsons turbine
Curtis turbine
c.
d.
284.
What is the
dimension of thermal efficiency of a Kaplan
turbine?
a. Kg
b. M
c. kg/m
d. Dimensionless
285.
A
turbine is used in ________
a. Turbomachinery
b. Pressure drag
c. Aerodynamics
d. Automobiles
286.
the
a.
b.
c.
d.
The
Kaplan ranges from ______
100 to 200 m
250 to 300 m
10 to 70 m
0m
Kaplan
head
of
287.
Nozzles in the
Kaplan turbine move due to impact of
________
a. Water
b. Steam
c. Blade
d. Another nozzle
288.
output
of
Kaplan
from__________
a. 5 to 200 MW
b. 1000 to 2000 MW
c. 2000 to 3000 MW
d. 5000 and above
The
turbine
power
ranges
289.
Kaplan
turbines rotates at a ________ rate
a. Increasing
b. Decreasing
c. Constant
d. Increasing and then decreasing
290.
What type of
turbine is Kaplan?
a. Impulse
b. Reaction
c. Energy
d. Hydro
291.
Kaplan turbine
is needed to improve ________
a. Increase Pressure
b. Decrease temperature
Change volume
Increase efficiency
292.
Kaplan turbine
is an ________ type turbine
a. Pressure
b. Inward flow
c. Outward flow
d. Velocity
293.
The
turbine
does not have to be at the lowest point of
water flow as long as the water in the draft
tube is full.
a. True
b. False
294.
the
a.
b.
c.
d.
The outlet of
Kaplan turbine is through _______
Vane Blades
Moving pipeline
Draft tube
Pump
295.
is most commonly
turbines.
a. True
b. False
used
Kaplan turbine
in propeller
296.
For a Kaplan
turbine, the whirl velocity at inlet of the
turbine is given to be 18 m/s. The blade
velocity is given as 25 m/s. What is the
hydraulic efficiency for a head of 50 m. Take
g = 10 m/s2?
a. 80%
b. 90%
c. 70%
d. 98%
297.
Which of the
following efficiencies for Kaplan Turbine is
described as the ratio between the power
produced by runner to the power supplied
by water at the inlet?
a. Hydraulic efficiency
b. Volumetric efficiency
c. Mechanical efficiency
d. Overall efficiency
298.
The
desired
hydraulic efficiency of a Kaplan turbine is
98% at a whirl velocity of 20 m/s and a head
of 60 m. What should be the blade velocity
of the turbine at inlet in m/s? Take g = 10
m/s2.
a. 40
b. 60
c.
d.
80
30
299.
It is given that
the input water power of the Kaplan turbine
is 1.10 times the runner power. What would
be the hydraulic efficiency of the turbine (in
%)?
a. 60.61
b. 70.71
c. 80.81
d. 90.91
300.
Which of the
following efficiencies for Kaplan Turbine is
described as the ratio between total
quantity of water over runner blades to total
quantity of water supplied to turbine?
a. Hydraulic efficiency
b. Volumetric efficiency
c. Mechanical efficiency
d. Overall efficiency
301.
The
volume
flow rate into a Kaplan turbine is Q m3/s.
0.10Q m3/s volume of water do not flow
over the runner blades. What further
information is required to find the
volumetric efficiency (numerical value) of
the Kaplan turbine?
a. The numerical value of Q
b. The available head of the turbine
c. The RPM or the blade velocity of the
turbine
d. No further information is required
302.
A
student
reports the volumetric efficiency of a Kaplan
turbine to be 95%. If he measures the
volume flow rate through the turbine is 40
m3/s. What is the flow rate of water over the
runner blades (in m3/s)?
a. 38
b. 40
c. 42.11
d. 45
303.
In a Kaplan
turbine
experiment,
the
volumetric
efficiency of a given turbine is 91%. If
volume flow rate of water in given to be 35
m3/s, find the volume of water (m3) NOT
flowing over the runner blades per second?
a. 4.05
b. 3.15
c. 3.30
d. 2.55
304.
Which of the
following efficiencies for Kaplan Turbine is
defined as the ratio between the power
available at the shaft of the turbine to the
power produced by the runner?
a. Hydraulic efficiency
b. Volumetric efficiency
c. Mechanical efficiency
d. Overall efficiency
305.
The
power
available at the shaft of a Kaplan turbine is
0.75 MW. The volume flow rate of water in
15 m3/s, whirl velocity at inlet is 12 m/s and
blade velocity is 5 m/s. Find the mechanical
efficiency (in %)?
a. 66.66
b. 75.00
c. 83.33
d. 91.33
306.
The
whirl
velocity at inlet of a Kaplan turbine is 7.5
m/s and blade velocity is 5 m/s. The volume
flow rate of water in 20 m3/s. Find the
power output available at the shaft if the
mechanical efficiency is 93% (in MW)?
a. 0.831
b. 0.697
c. 1.362
d. 0.298
307.
In a Kaplan
Turbine experimental setup, the power
output of the shaft is 4.325 MW. The volume
flow rate of water in 15 m3/s at an available
head of 50 m. Find the overall efficiency of
the turbine in % (g = 10 m/s2)?
a. 57.66
b. 83.63
c. 81.33
d. 79.95
308.
efficiency of a Kaplan
mechanical efficiency
volumetric efficiency
100%. Fine the overall
a. 80.05
b. 93.15
c. 87.55
d. 88.35
The hydraulic
turbine is 95%, the
is 93% and the
is assumed to be
efficiency (in %)?
309.
Which of the
following efficiencies for Kaplan Turbine is
defined as the ratio between the power
available at the shaft to the power supplied
by water at the inlet?
a. Hydraulic efficiency
b.
c.
d.
Volumetric efficiency
Mechanical efficiency
Overall efficiency
310.
In
Kaplan
turbine apparatus, the volume flow rate of
water in 15 m3/s at an available head of 55
m (g = 10 m/s2). Find the shaft power (in
MW) if the overall efficiency of the turbine is
95%.
a. 78.3
b. 7.83
c. 783
d. 0.783
311.
also
a.
b.
c.
d.
Draft tube is
called_______
Straight divergent tube
Simple elbow tube
Thermal tube
Elbow tube with varying cross section
312.
helps
in
converting
into________
a. Electrical work
b. Mechanical work
c. Chemical work
d. Thermal work
A draft tube
kinetic
energy
313.
Most common
application of the draft tube is ______
a. Rotor
b. Motor
c. Pump
d. Filter
314.
Draft
tube
consists of conical diffuser with angles
of______
a. 10 deg
b. 20 deg
c. 30 deg
d. 40 deg
315.
What
purpose of a Draft tube?
a. To prevent flow separation
b. To avoid Pressure drag
c. To prevent rejection of heat
d. To increase efficiency
is
the
316.
What is the
maximum value of efficiency in a draft tube?
a. 100
b. 50
c. 90
d. 40
317.
elbow draft tube
the_______
a. Head race
b. Tail race
c. Tank
d. Nozzle
318.
consists
of
draft
as__________
a. Impulse turbine
b. Curtis turbine
c. Rateau turbine
d. Reaction turbine
is
The
simple
placed close to
Turbine
that
tubes
is
called
319.
Which of the
following is a 50 percent reaction turbine?
a. Parsons turbine
b. Curtis turbine
c. Rateau turbine
d. Pelton wheel
320.
The
simple
elbow draft tube helps to cut down the cost
of excavation.
a. True
b. False
321.
The
exit
diameter for a simple elbow draft tube
should be________
a. Large
b. Small
c. Very small
d. Same
322.
Properties that
do not affect a draft tube is _______
a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Pressure velocity
d. Velocity
323.
The
other
name for elbow with varying cross section
tube is called_____
a. Pressure tube
b. Bent draft tube
c. Velocity tube
d. Sink tube
324.
What is the
efficiency of the simple elbow type draft
tube?
a. 10
b. 30
c. 60
d. 90
325.
The horizontal
portion of the draft tube is usually bent to
prevent entry of air from the exit end.
a. True
b. False
333.
Which
equation is applied to determine the flow?
a. Newtons equation
b. Rutherford’s equation
c. Bernoulli’s equation
d. Faradays equation
326.
The efficiency
of the draft tube is ratio of ________
a. Pressure energy by kinetic energy
b. Kinetic energy by Pressure energy
c. Kinetic energy into mechanical energy
d. Pressure into mechanical
334.
Height of the
draft tube is denoted by _____
a. H
b. H
c. Z
d. X
327.
not
a.
b.
c.
d.
335.
Draft
tube
allows turbine to be placed above the tail
race.
a. True
b. False
Draft tubes are
used in which of the following turbines?
Francis
Reaction
Kaplan
Pelton
328.
The draft tube
at the exit of the nozzle increases the
_______
a. Temperature
b. Pressure
c. Volume of the flow
d. Density of flow
329.
Efficiency of a
draft tube gives __________
a. Temperature difference
b. Pressure difference
c. Kinetic energy difference
d. Density of flow
330.
Cavitation in a
draft tube occurs when _______
a. Temperature difference
b. Pressure drop
c. Kinetic energy difference
d. Density of flow
331.
Which among
the following is an important parameter to
avoid cavitation?
a. Tail race length
b. Head race length
c. Height of draft tube
d. Pump
332.
is situated in the _______
a. Inlet
b. Outlet
c. Tank
d. Nozzle
The draft tube
336.
The efficiency
of the draft tube depends on the ______
a. Heat
b. Pressure
c. Temperature
d. Pressure and temperature
337.
have _________ shafts
a. Horizontal
b. Vertical
c. Circular
d. Cross sectional
Draft
tubes
338.
Draft tubes are
situated at the outlet in____________
a. Pelton
b. Reaction
c. Kaplan
d. Francis
339.
Efficiency of a
draft tube is directly proportional to its
__________
a. Temperature
b. Pressure
c. Velocity
d. Density
340.
Z is a draft
tube is _______
a. Temperature difference
b. Pressure drop
c. Kinetic energy difference
d. Datum head
341.
operates at ______
a. Same efficiency
b. Different efficiency
Draft
tube
c.
d.
Turbine
Pump
342.
is an ________
a. Interior tube
b. Exterior tube
c. Tank depth alternator
d. Nozzle tube
The draft tube
343.
What type of
pressure does the draft tube depend upon?
a. Gauge pressure
b. Atm pressure
c. Normal pressure
d. Normal and Atm pressure
344.
Gauge
pressure of the draft tube is denoted by
_____
a. P
b. H
c. Z
d. X
345.
Draft
tube
allows turbine to be placed below the tail
race.
a. True
b. False
346.
is denoted by ________
a. N
b. N
c. Ns
d. S
Specific speed
347.
Specific
speeds are used in pumps to determine
________
a. Temperature
b. Reaction speed
c. Suction specific speed
d. Wheel speed
348.
The tube at
the exit of the nozzle increases the _______
a. Temperature
b. Pressure
c. Volume of the flow
d. Density of flow
349.
Specific speed
is used to characterize _______
a. Turbomachinery speed
b. Flow speed
c. Energy flow
d. Heat generated
350.
Specific speed
predicts the shape of a/an _________
a. Pump
b. Density head
c. Impeller
d. Motor
351.
categorizing the impellers?
a. Quasi static number
b. Rotor
c. Height of draft tube
d. Pump
What helps in
352.
Imperial units
is defined as _________
a. Temperature by pressure
b. Tail race and head race
c. Revolutions per minute
d. Turbine performance
353.
Ratio of pump
or turbine with reference pump or turbine is
called as _________
a. Efficiency
b. Performance
c. Heat generated
d. Relative velocity
354.
Low
specific
speed in hydraulic head is developed due to
_________
a. Mass flow rate
b. Increase in temperature
c. Centrifugal force
d. Increase in pressure
355.
Centrifugal
pump impellers have speed ranging from
________
a. 500- 10000
b. 50- 100
c. 200-300
d. 0-50
356.
unit
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is the
of specific speed in metric system?
m.s
m/s
m3/s
m
357.
develop a hydraulic
centrifugal pumps.
a. True
b. False
flow
Specific speed
through the
358.
Net
suction
speed is used in problems with cavitation.
a. True
b. False
359.
Low
specific
speed in hydraulic head is developed due to
_________
a. Mass flow rate
b. Increase in temperature
c. Centrifugal force
d. Increase in pressure
360.
diameter in
__________
a. A
b. Dr
c. Rr
d. De
a
turbine
The
runner
is denoted as
361.
Specific speed
is the speed of the turbine which is similar
to its ________
a. Temperature difference
b. Pressure difference
c. Aspect ratio
d. Speed of rotor
362.
Specific
speeds are used in pumps to determine
________
a. Temperature
b. Reaction speed
c. Suction specific speed
d. Wheel speed
363.
Specific speed
develops a unit power under a unit _______
a. Temperature
b. Pressure
c. Volume of the flow
d. Head
364.
Impeller in a
motor is used to _________
a. Change temperatures
b. Change Pressure
c. Kinetic energy change
d. Change density
365.
Hydraulic head
is also called as _________
a. Pressure head
b. Density head
c. Kinetic head
d. Piezometric head
366.
of a
a.
b.
c.
d.
Specific speed
Pelton wheel with single jet is _______
8.5 to 30
30 to 51
51 to 225
230 to 500
367.
Specific speed
is an index used to predict _______
a. Head race distance
b. Tail race distance
c. Tank dimensions
d. Turbine performance
368.
Specific speed
of a Pelton wheel with multiple jets is
_______
a. 8.5 to 30
b. 30 to 51
c. 51 to 225
d. 230 to 500
369.
of a
a.
b.
c.
d.
Specific speed
Francis turbine is _______
8.5 to 30
30 to 51
51 to 225
230 to 500
370.
of a
a.
b.
c.
d.
Specific speed
Kaplan turbine is _______
8.5 to 30
30 to 51
51 to 225
355 to 860
371.
less
a.
b.
c.
d.
Specific speed
than 500 are called _________
Positive displacement pumps
Negative displacement pumps
Draft tubes
Tanks
372.
With
the
increase in specific speeds, ________
a. Head race distance increases
b. Tail race distance increases
c. Tank dimensions increases
d. Diameters of impeller increases
373.
Specific speed
is used to predict desired pump or turbine
performance.
a. True
b. False
374.
Once we know
the desired functions of the specific speed,
it is easier to calculate its components units.
a. True
b.
False
375.
Which among
the following is not a unit quantity of
turbine?
a. Unit speed
b. Unit discharge
c. Unit power
d. Unit temperature
376.
What
DMU stand for?
a. Density matter usage
b. Direct material usage
c. Density material usage
d. Depth matter usage
377.
the speed of the
under________
a. One-meter head
b. Pressure head
c. Volumetric head
d. Draft tube
does
Unit speed is
turbine operating
378.
equal to ________ N.
a. 10
b. 100
c. 1000
d. 10-5
One
379.
symbol for unit speed?
a. S
b. N
c. Ns
d. Nu
What
dyne
is
383.
is denoted as _______
a. Du
b. Qu
c. Su
d. Nu
Unit discharge
384.
Unit discharge
is directly proportional to _______
a. Head race distance
b. Discharge of fluid in the turbine.
c. Pressure
d. Turbine performance
385.
are
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit quantities
physical quantities _________
With numerical variables
Without numerical variables
With different sets
With unit difference
386.
Torque measurement unit.
a. True
b. False
Dyne cm is a
387.
Unit quantities
play an important role in determining the
dimensional quantities.
a. True
b. False
is
380.
Unit speed of a
single jet in a turbine is _______
a. 100 m/s
b. 300 m/s
c. 500 m/s
d. 800 m/s
381.
Unit speed is
directly proportional to________
a. Head race distance
b. Specific speed
c. Pressure
d. Turbine performance
382.
Unit discharge
is the discharge through the turbine when
the head of the turbine is ________
a. High
b. Zero
c. Unity
d. Low
388.
Unit power is
developed by the turbine when the head of
the turbine is unity.
a. True
b. False
389.
Constant head
curves are also called as _______
a. Head race curves
b. Tail race curves
c. Main characteristic curves
d. Impeller curves
390.
The speed of
the turbine in a constant head curve is
varied by __________
a. Temperature change
b. Reaction speed change
c. Changing the gate opening
d. Wheel speed change
391.
Constant
speed curves travel at constant speed when
the value is equal to _______
a. 0
b. 1
c.
d.
2
3
392.
Power
turbine is measured ______
a. Mechanically
b. Electrically
c. Chemically
d. Thermally
of
a
393.
Which among
the following is not a parameter to
determine the efficiency of the turbine?
a. Unit speed
b. Unit power
c. Unit volume
d. Unit discharge
394.
Which among
the following is not an important parameter
to determine the performance of the
turbine?
a. Speed
b. Discharge
c. Head
d. Volume of tank
395.
the
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which among
following is not a type of curve?
Logarithimic curve
Straight curve
Pressure vs power
Efficiency vs speed
396.
The
inlet
passage of water entry is controlled by
________
a. Head race
b. Gate
c. Tail race
d. Pump
397.
Overall
efficiency vs what is drawn to determine the
turbine performance?
a. Unit Discharge
b. Unit speed
c. Unit power
d. Unit pressure
398.
Constant
discharge takes place due to _______
a. Unit Discharge
b. Unit speed
c. Unit power
d. Unit pressure
399.
All
the
characteristic curves are drawn with respect
to __________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Unit
Unit
Unit
Unit
Discharge
speed
power
pressure
400.
Constant head
curves are also called as _______
a. Head race curves
b. Tail race curves
c. Main characteristic curves
d. Impeller curves
401.
In
constant
speed curves, the speed is kept a constant
varying its head.
a. True
b. False
402.
In
all
the
characteristic curves, the overall efficiency
is aimed at the maximum value.
a. True
b. False
403.
Constant
efficiency curves are plotted using _______
a. Constant head curves
b. Constant speed curves
c. Main characteristic curves
d. Constant speed and constant head
404.
Constant
speed curves are also called as _______
a. Main characteristic curves
b. Turbine curves
c. Tail race curves
d. Impeller curves
405.
Constant
speed curve is denoted as _____
a. T
b. V
c. C
d. V
406.
Constant
speed curves are ________
a. Scalar quantities
b. Vector quantities
c. Constant quantities
d. Different conditions
407.
Constant
speed is measured _________
a. Mechanically
b. Electrically
c. Chemically
d. Thermally
408.
speed curves are
_________
a. Arc length
b. Power
c. Heat
d. Temperature
Constant
determined by
the
409.
Which
component is necessary for writing the
velocity equation?
a. Cos component
b. Sine Component
c. Cos and sine component
d. Independent
410.
Which among
the following is not a shape for a curve?
a. Logarithmic curve
b. Helix curve
c. Straight curve
d. Speed curve
411.
plot
a.
b.
c.
d.
How
do
we
points in a curve?
Analytical approach
General approach
Tail approach
Head approach
412.
Plotting
sine
curve will take place along the _________
a. y axis
b. x axis
c. z axis
d. x and z
413.
In
approach, dp= __________
a. Vdt
b. V
c. Dt
d. Dx
analytical
414.
The equation
is general approach is called as central
difference.
a. True
b. False
415.
The
approximate value of the constant speed
curve is given by ratio of ________
a. dy/dp
b. dx/dp
c. dt/dx
d. dt/dy
416.
In
constant
speed curves, the velocity is kept a constant
varying its head.
a. True
b. False
417.
The
performance of a characteristic curve is kept
at a high value.
a. True
b. False
418.
In
governing, the flow rate of
regulated by _________
a. Nozzles
b. Pumping
c. Drafting
d. Intercooling
nozzle
steam is
419.
The flow rate
of steam is controlled by regulating the
_________
a. Steam
b. Pressure
c. Temperature
d. Speed
420.
The
function of nozzle is to __________
a. Varying temperatures
b. Pressure variations
c. Load variations
d. Heat variations
421.
primary
objective
governing?
a. Maintain constant
b. Maintain constant
c. Maintain constant
d. Maintain constant
of
What
steam
main
is
turbine
speed
pressure
temperature
expansion
422.
What is
purpose of a steam turbine governing?
a. Controls speed
b. Controls flow rate
c. Controls volume
d. Controls discharge
423.
the
a.
b.
c.
d.
the
Which among
following control the flow rate?
Valve
Pump
Head
Tank pipe
424.
The advantage
of nozzle governing is that no regulating
pressure is applied.
a. True
b. False
425.
During
the
steam turbine governing, what remains a
constant?
a. Speed of rotation
b. Flow rate
c. Pump head
d. Volume of fluid
426.
When do
apply by pass governing?
a. When turbine is overloaded
b. When Unit speed decreases
c. When Unit power increases
d. When Unit pressure decreases
we
427.
When bypass
valve is opened to _______
a. Increase Pressure
b. Increase Unit speed
c. Increase Unit power
d. Increase the amount of fresh steam
428.
unit of steam rate?
a. Kg
b. kg/m
c. kg/kWh
d. N/m
What
is
the
429.
With
the
increase in load, Energy in the turbine
________
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains same
d. Independent
430.
Combination
governing involves usage of two or more
governing.
a. True
b. False
431.
When
the
mechanical speed of the shaft increases
beyond 110 percent, we use _________
a. Throttle governing
b. Steam governing
c. Nozzle governing
d. Emergency governing
432.
When
the
balancing of the turbine is disturbed, we use
________
a. Throttle governing
b. Steam governing
c. Nozzle governing
d. Emergency governing
433.
In
governing, the flow rate of
regulated by _________
a. Nozzles
b. Pumping
c. Drafting
d. Intercooling
434.
of steam is controlled
the_________
a. Steam
b. Pressure
c. Temperature
d. Speed
nozzle
steam is
The flow rate
by regulating
435.
The
function of nozzle is to __________
a. Varying temperatures
b. Pressure variations
c. Load variations
d. Heat variations
436.
primary
objective
governing?
a. Maintain constant
b. Maintain constant
c. Maintain constant
d. Maintain constant
of
What
steam
main
is
turbine
speed
pressure
temperature
expansion
437.
Which among
the following is not a parameter to determine
the efficiency of the turbine?
a. Unit speed
b. Unit power
c. Unit volume
d. Unit discharge
438.
Which among
the following control the flow rate?
a. Valve
b. Pump
c. Head
d. Tank pipe
439.
The advantage
of nozzle governing is that no regulating
pressure is applied.
a. True
b. False
440.
The
inlet
passage of water entry is controlled by
________
a. Head race
b. Gate
c. Tail race
d. Pump
441.
When do
apply by pass governing?
a. When turbine is overloaded
b. When Unit speed decreases
c. When Unit power increases
d. When Unit pressure decreases
we
442.
When bypass
valve is opened to _______
a. Increase Pressure
b. Increase Unit speed
c. Increase Unit power
d. Increase the amount of fresh steam
443.
unit of steam rate?
a. Kg
b. kg/m
c. kg/kWh
d. N/m
What
is
the
444.
With
the
increase in load, Energy in the turbine
________
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains same
d. Independent
445.
Combination
governing involves usage of two or more
governing.
a. True
b. False
446.
When
the
mechanical speed of the shaft increases
beyond 110 percent, we use _________
a. Throttle governing
b. Steam governing
c. Nozzle governing
d. Emergency governing
447.
When
the
balancing of the turbine is disturbed, we use
________
a. Throttle governing
b. Steam governing
c. Nozzle governing
d. Emergency governing
448.
pump is a_________
a. Turbomachinery
b. Flow regulating device
c. Drafting device
d. Intercooling device
Centrifugal
449.
s work under ________
a. Newtons first law
b. Newtons second law
c. Newtons third law
d. Kepler’s law
Turbomachine
450.
The
function of nozzle is to __________
a. Varying temperatures
b. Pressure variations
c. Load variations
d. Heat variations
451.
function of centrifugal
________
a. Transfer speed
b. Transfer pressure
c. Transfer temperature
d. Transfer energy
The
pumps
main
main
are to
452.
Centrifugal
pumps transfer energy from _______
a. Rotor to fluid
b. Fluid to rotor
c. Draft to rotor
d. Rotor to draft
453.
Which among
the following control the flow rate?
a. Valve
b. Pump
c. Head
d. Tank pipe
454.
Turbines and
compressors work with the gas, while
centrifugal pump transfers energy.
a. True
b. False
455.
The
inlet
passage of water entry is controlled by
________
a. Head race
b. Gate
c. Tail race
d. Pump
456.
pumps
are
a
sub
class
Centrifugal
of dynamic
axisymmetric
turbomachinery.
a. True
b. False
work
absorbing
458.
Centrifugal
pumps transport fluids by converting
_________
a. Kinetic energy to hydrodynamic
energy
b. Hydrodynamic energy to kinetic
energy
c. Mechanical energy to kinetic energy
d. Mechanical energy to Hydrodynamic
energy
With
Energy
in
the
the
460.
The rotational
kinetic energy comes from ______
a. Engine motor
b. Pump
c. Tank
d. Draft tube
461.
When
the
balancing of the turbine is disturbed, we use
________
a. Throttle governing
b. Steam governing
c. Nozzle governing
d. Emergency governing
462.
The
fluid
coming into the centrifugal pump is
accelerated by ________
a. Throttle
b. Impeller
c. Nozzle
d. Governor
463.
uses ___________
a. Petrochemical pumps
b. Meshing of gears
c. Froth pumps
Airlift pumps
464.
The
fundamental
significance
of
turbomachinery is _______
a. Conservation of momentum
b. Conservation of mass
c. Conservation of heat
d. Conservation of speed
457.
Centrifugal
pumps are used to transport ________
a. Pressure
b. Speed
c. Power
d. Fluid
459.
increase
in
load,
turbine________
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains same
d. Independent
d.
A gear pump
all
the
465.
The
most
common pump used for hydraulic fluid
power application is __________
a. Centrifugal pumps
b. Gear pump
c. Froth pumps
d. Airlift pumps
466.
The change of
angular momentum in a pump is equal to
the _________
a. Sum of speeds
b. Sum of individual momentum
c. Sum of temperatures
d. Sum of energy transferred from a
body
467.
Conservation
of angular momentum is described by
_______
a. Newtons equation
b. Euler’s equation
c. Rutherford’s equation
d. Maxim equation
468.
Gear
pumps
are mainly used in chemical installations
because they pump ________
a. High viscosity fluids
b. High density fluids
c. High pressure fluids
d. High temperature fluids
469.
Gear
pumps
convert rotational kinetic energy to
hydrodynamic energy.
a. True
b. False
470.
The
inlet
passage of centrifugal pump is controlled by
________
a. Gate
b. Head race
c. Turbine
d. Pump
471.
Absolute exit
velocity in a pump is denoted as ______
a. c2
b.
c.
d.
472.
are
a.
b.
c.
d.
v2
p2
w2
a.
b.
c.
d.
Gear
used to transport ________
Pressure
Speed
Power
Fluid
473.
Centrifugal pumps are
_________
a. Cantilever pumps
b. Hydrodynamic pump
c. Mechanical pump
d. Hydroelectric pump
474.
increase
in
load,
turbine________
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains same
d. Independent
Round
Dough nut
Rectangle
Cylindrical
pumps
Vertical
also called
With
Energy
in
480.
When
the
casing in a centrifugal pump decelerates the
flow, what increases?
a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Volume
d. Flow rate
as
the
the
475.
The rotational
kinetic energy comes from ______
a. Engine motor
b. Pump
c. Tank
d. Draft tube
476.
When
the
balancing of the turbine is disturbed, we use
________
a. Throttle governing
b. Steam governing
c. Nozzle governing
d. Emergency governing
477.
Gear
pumps
are ___________
a. Tangential flow pumps
b. Positive displacement pumps
c. Negative displacement pumps
d. Radial pumps
478.
The fluid gains
_________ while passing through the
impeller.
a. Velocity
b. Pressure
c. Temperature
d. Velocity and pressure
479.
What is the
shape of the diffuser in the centrifugal
pump?
481.
The
velocity
imparted by the impeller is converted into
_________
a. Pressure energy
b. Kinetic energy
c. Momentum
d. Potential energy
482.
The
consequence of Newtons second law
is_________
a. Conservation of angular momentum
b. Conservation of mass
c. Conservation of potential energy
d. Conservation of kinetic energy
483.
Change
of
angular momentum is equal to ________
a. Sum of external moments
b. Sum of their potential energies
c. Sum of their kinetic energies
d. Sum of their pressures
484.
Euler
developed the head pressure equation in
centrifugal pumps.
a. True
b. False
485.
What
is
a
major advantage of centrifugal pump?
a. Cost
b. Simple in construction
c. Efficiency
d. Pump parameters
486.
‘Ht’
means
_______
a. Tangential head
b. Horizontally head
c. Theory head pressure
d. Radially head pressure
487.
Centrifugal
pumps are used to transport ________
a. Pressure
b. Speed
c. Power
d.
Fluid
d.
488.
Different
velocities in a centrifugal pump
determined by using ________
a. Velocity triangle
b. Reynolds number
c. Froude number
d. Overall efficiency
are
489.
Due
to
its
impeller action, centrifugal pumps can cover
a wide range of fluid pump applications.
a. True
b. False
490.
With
the
increase in the input power, efficiency
_______
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Same
d. Independent
491.
standard acceleration?
a. kg/m
b. kg/s
c. kg/m3
d. N/m
What is unit of
492.
stand for?
a. Pump start procedure
b. Positive start pump
c. Pump start pointer
d. Positive start pointer
What does PSP
493.
unit
a.
b.
c.
d.
What
is
the
of flow rate?
kg.m
kg/m
m3/s
/s
494.
With
the
increase in the flow rate, efficiency ______
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains same
d. Independent
495.
Pump
efficiency is defined as the ratio of
___________
a. Pressure to temperature
b. Temperature to pressure
c. Water horsepower to pump horsepower
Pump horse power to water horse
power
496.
The difference
in the total head of the pump is called
_______
a. Manometric head
b. Euler head
c. Pressure head
d. Shaft head
497.
The ratio of
manometric head to the work head is called
_______
a. Manometric head
b. Euler head
c. Pressure head
d. Shaft head
498.
unit
a.
b.
c.
d.
What
is
the
of energy head?
M
m/s
m3/s
/s
499.
increase in energy
________
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains same
d. Independent
With
the
head, efficiency
500.
The
head
added by the pump is a sum of _________
a. Pressure
b. Static lift
c. Volume
d. Flow rate
501.
Power is most
commonly expressed as ________
a. M
b. kW
c. m3/s
d. /s
502.
PHE stands for
__________
a. Pump Hydraulic efficiency
b. Pressure Hydraulic efficiency
c. Power Hydraulic efficiency
d. Pump hydraulic engin
503.
centrifugal pumps
cantilever pumps.
a. True
are
Vertical
also called
as
b.
False
d.
Jukebox
504.
With increase
in power, the efficiency_________
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains same
d. Independent
512.
stand for?
a. Best efficiency point
b. Brake ejection point
c. Break effect point
d. Best effect point
505.
Vertical pumps
utilize unique shaft and bearing support
configuration.
a. True
b. False
513.
The height of a
column in a pump is called as _______
a. Vertical head
b. Horizontal head
c. Static head
d. Multi head
506.
the
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which among
following is used in mineral industries?
Vertical pumps
Horizontal pumps
Froth pumps
Multistage pumps
507.
centrifugal pumps are
________
a. Froth pumps
b. Multistage pumps
c. Cantilever pumps
d. Magnetic pumps
508.
uses _______
a. Draft tube
b. Throttle bush
c. Stuffing box
d. Interlining
Vertical
also called
What does BEP
514.
The centrifugal
pump has varying flow depending on the
_________
a. Pressure
b. Static lift
c. Volume
d. Flow rate
as
515.
What
purpose of froth in froth pumps?
a. Separates rich minerals
b. Mixes rich minerals
c. Removes ores
d. Detects oil
is
Vertical pump
509.
When
the
casing in a centrifugal pump decelerates the
flow, what increases?
a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Volume
d. Flow rate
510.
The maximum
volumetric efficiency of a pump(100cc) is
________
a. 60%
b. 70%
c. 80%
d. 90%
511.
The
most
common application of vertical centrifugal
pump is used in _______
a. Parts washer
b. Mineral industry
c. Paper plating
516.
air that blocks the pumps.
a. True
b. False
Froth contains
517.
When
froth
blocks the pump, it leads to _______
a. Separation of rich minerals
b. Mixing of rich minerals
c. Removing of ores
d. Loss of prime
518.
What
volumetric efficiency of the pump?
a. Complex interactions
b. Internal interactions
c. Retain flow
d. Air flow
affects
519.
The
Positive
Displacement Pump has more or less a
constant flow regardless of the system
pressure or head.
a. True
b. False
520.
What is
purpose of inducer in a froth pump?
the
a.
b.
c.
d.
It recirculates air
The pressurizes the air
Froths are generated
It breaks the bubbles
521.
A
multistage
centrifugal pumps has more than two
_______
a. Pumps
b. Impellers
c. Turbines
d. Magnetic pumps
522.
mounted on a ________
a. Draft tube
b. Throttle bush
c. Stuffing box
d. Shaft
523.
the
a.
b.
c.
d.
The impeller is
At each stage
fluid is directed ________
Towards the centre
Away the centre
Towards the surface
Away from the centre
524.
If the cylinder
is filled with fuel or air it is said to be
___________
a. 100% efficient
b. Transfer efficient
c. Nil efficient
d. Flow effective
525.
stands for_______
a. Shut Off head
b. Shut off heat
c. Shut off hybrid
d. Set off head
SOH in a pump
526.
At
higher
pressures, the impeller is connected in
_______
a. Series
b. Parallel
c. Equilibrium
d. Series and parallel
527.
When the flow
output is higher, impellers are connected
in________
a. Series
b. Parallel
c. Equilibrium
d. Series and parallel
528.
The point at
which piping system controls the flow rate is
called ______
a. Pressure point
b. Static lift
c. Operating point
d. Flow point
529.
What is the
common
application
of
multistage
centrifugal pump?
a. Mineral industries
b. Boiler feed water pump
c. Removes ores
d. Detects oil
530.
A
multistage
centrifugal pump produces a pressure of
__________
a. 10 Pa
b. 100 MPa
c. 21 MPa
d. 150 MPa
531.
All energy that
is transferred from the fluid is derived from
________
a. Electrical energy
b. Mechanical energy
c. Thermal energy
d. Chemical energy
532.
The point at
which the centrifugal pump operates at
maximum efficiency is called _______
a. Duty point
b. Flow point
c. Static point
d. Operating point
533.
The
energy
transferred can be measured by isentropic
compression.
a. True
b. False
534.
TDH stand for?
a. Total dynamic head
b. Total depth head
c. Tight drum head
d. Target dynamic head
What
does
535.
The
mechanical energy is developed by the
impeller.
a. True
b. False
536.
The
mechanical energy can be measured by
______
a. Adiabatic expansion
b. Isentropic compression
c. Adiabatic compression
d. Isentropic expansion
537.
How
many
impellers does a multistage centrifugal
pump have?
a. Zero
b. One
c. Exactly two
d. Two and more
538.
The
energy
usage in pumping installation is determined
by _______
a. Friction characteristics
b. Pipe diameter
c. Surface tension
d. Thermal expansion
539.
the
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which among
following is a friction factor?
Newtons factor
Darcy’s factor
Transfer temperature
Heizenberg’s factor
540.
What is
dimension for Darcy’s friction factor?
a. kg/m
b. N/mm
c. Kg
d. Dimensionless
541.
Formation
bubbles in an impeller is called ______
a. Cavities
b. Defects
c. Friction
d. Heat burn
the
of
544.
When
NPSH is low, it leads to ________
a. Breaking
b. Wear
c. Corrosion
d. Cavitation
the
545.
Wear
of
impeller can be worsened by __________
a. Draft tube
b. Pump pressure
c. Suspended solenoids
d. Turbine head
546.
the
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which pump is
most efficient centrifugal pump?
Electrical pump
Reciprocating pump
Heat pump
Pressure pump
547.
the
a.
b.
c.
d.
Corrosion
pump is developed due to _______
Pressure of air
Fluid properties
Draft tube
Tank dimensions
in
548.
Over heating is
a major problem faced in a pump.
a. True
b. False
549.
What is
effect of cavitation in boat propeller?
a. It recirculates air
b. The pressurizes the air
c. It leads to fast spinning
d. It breaks the bubbles
the
550.
Lack of prime
is a problem faced in centrifugal pump.
a. True
b. False
542.
Centrifugal
pump works by imparting _______
a. Potential energy
b. Kinetic energy
c. Heat energy
d. Electrical energy
551.
The
energy
usage of a pump is determined by _______
a. Adiabatic expansion
b. Power required
c. Adiabatic compression
d. Isentropic expansion
543.
What is the full
form of NPSH in a pump?
a. Net pressure suction head
b. Net positive suction head
c. Non-pressure suction head
d. Net pressure super head
552.
For an oil field
to have solid control, it needs _______
a. Draft tubes
b. Throttle bush
c. Stuffing box
d. Centrifugal pumps
553.
If we lower the
temperature, the water pump cavitation
________
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Same
d. Independent
554.
the
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which among
following is not a centrifugal pump?
Sand pumps
Froth pumps
Slurry pumps
Energy pumps
555.
Centrifugal
pumps work under the same principle, but
differ in their _______
a. Working
b. Functions
c. Dimensions
d. Impeller
556.
If we raise the
liquid level in the suction vessel, cavitation
______
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Same
d. Independent
557.
coupled pumps are
_________
a. Series pumps
b. Parallel pumps
c. Froth pumps
d. Drive pumps
Magnetic
also called
d.
Independent
561.
diameter of the eye
cavitation _________
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Same
d. Independent
of
Decreasing the
the impeller,
562.
No gland
needed for the centrifugal pump.
a. True
b. False
is
563.
Pump
always supported by bearings.
a. True
b. False
is
564.
If we use an
impeller inducer, we can reduce the
cavitation in a centrifugal pump.
a. True
b. False
565.
There will be
leakage only if there is ________
a. High pressure
b. High temperature
c. Froths are generated
d. Casing breakage
as
558.
Magnetic
coupled pumps works via ________
a. Antiferromagnet
b. Drive magnet
c. Pump magnet
d. Ferromagnet
559.
When
we
change the pump, the cavitation ______
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Same
d. Independent
560.
If we reduce
the motor rpm in an impeller, cavitation
_______
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Same
566.
When a pump
casing is filled with liquid before it is started,
it is called as _________
a. Adiabatic expansion
b. Priming
c. Adiabatic compression
d. Isentropic expansion
567.
The pump will
become incapable of pumping in case of
_______
a. Gas bounding
b. Throttle bush
c. Stuffing box
d. Casing breakage
568.
needed when impeller
enough _________
a. Draft speed
b. Energy
c. Pressure
d. Heat
Priming
is
cannot impart
569.
Priming
performs response using ________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Stimulus
Froth
Slurry
Heat
577.
Two
phase
mixture is pumped unit the suction line is
evacuated.
a. True
b. False
570.
To avoid gas
bounding, the pump is _________
a. Heated
b. Elevated
c. Primed
d. Charged
571.
Centrifugal
pumps are located ________ the level of
source
a. Below
b. Above
c. Parallel with
d. Series with
572.
can
a.
b.
c.
d.
A pump that
evacuate air is called as _________
Series pumps
Self priming pumps
Froth pumps
Drive pumps
573.
CPO stand for?
a. Centrifugal
b. Centrifugal
c. Centrifugal
d. Centrifugal
What
578.
During normal
working operation, the pump works like
__________
a. Centrifugal pumps
b. Self priming pumps
c. Froth pumps
d. Drive pumps
579.
The
pump
function that works on rinsing is called as
dialysis of pump.
a. True
b. False
580.
What
purpose of vent valve in a pump?
a. High pressure control
b. High temperature control
c. Froths are generated can be
minimized
d. To prevent siphon action
is
does
pump operation
part operation
pump output
part output
574.
Self priming
pumps overshadow the function of
__________
a. Self auxiliary device
b. Wear rate
c. Corrosion device
d. Cavitation device
575.
What
is
necessary for self priming to take place?
a. Draft tube
b. Pump casing
c. Suspended solenoids
d. Turbine head
576.
Centrifugal
pumps with an internal suction stage are
called as _________
a. Series pumps
b. Self priming pumps
c. Froth pumps
d. Drive pumps
581.
In
hydraulic
head, NPSH is used for the analysis of
__________
a. Adiabatic expansion
b. Priming
c. Wear
d. Cavitation
582.
NPSH is the
difference between _______
a. Suction pressure and vapour pressure
b. Vapour pressure and suction pressure
c. Suction pressure and heat
d. Shaft and head
583.
What
NPSH be used to determine _______
a. Friction characteristics
b. Pipe diameter
c. Cavitation
d. Thermal expansion
can
584.
The measure
of how close the fluid is to the given point is
called _________
a. Flashing
b. Darcy’s factor
c. Transfer temperature
d. Heizenberg’s factor
585.
What is the
dimension for Darcy’s friction factor?
a. kg/m
b. N/mm
c. Kg
d. Dimensionless
586.
NPSH
relevant ________
a. Outside the pumps
b. Inside the pumps
c. Away from the pumps
d. Series and parallel with the pumps
593.
Calculation of
NPSH in a turbine is different from the
calculation of NPSH in a pump.
a. True
b. False
is
587.
With
the
increase in cavitation, the drag coefficient of
the impeller ______
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Same
d. Independent
588.
What is the full
form of NPSH in a pump?
a. Net pressure suction head
b. Net positive suction head
c. Non-pressure suction head
d. Net pressure super head
589.
When
NPSH is low, it leads to ________
a. Breaking
b. Wear
c. Corrosion
d. Cavitation
the
590.
What
positive suction head?
a. Draft tube is above
b. Pump pressure is above
c. Liquid level is above
d. Turbine head is above
is
591.
NPSHr
determined by using ______
a. Pump pressure
b. PumpLinx
c. Heat transfer
d. Chemical energy
is
592.
the
a.
b.
c.
d.
in
Corrosion
pump is developed due to _______
Pressure of air
Fluid properties
Draft tube
Tank dimensions
594.
If we use two
lower capacity pumps in parallel, cavitation
________
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Same
d. Independent
595.
pressure
is
strongly
temperature in a pump.
a. True
b. False
Vapour
dependent
on
596.
The
characteristic curves of a centrifugal pump,
plots ______ required by the pump.
a. Velocity
b. Pressure
c. NPSH
d. Velocity and pressure
597.
What is the
shape of the diffuser in the centrifugal
pump?
a. Round
b. Dough nut
c. Rectangle
d. Cylindrical
598.
When
the
casing in a centrifugal pump decelerates the
flow, what increases?
a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Volume
d. Flow rate
599.
Which among
the following is not a characteristic curve for
centrifugal pump?
a. Transfer speed vs Transfer pressure
b. Head vs Flow rate
c. Power input vs pump efficiency
d. Specific speed vs pump efficiency
600.
The
consequence of Newtons second law is
_________
a. Conservation of angular momentum
b. Conservation of mass
c. Conservation of potential energy
d. Conservation of kinetic energy
601.
Which of the
following is taken into account during a
characteristic curve?
a. Flow rate
b. Cavitation
c. Tolerances
d. Casing
602.
The
normal
operating range of centrifugal pump is
sufficient to plot the characteristic curve.
a. True
b. False
603.
The
inlet
passage of water entry is controlled by
________
a. Head race
b. Gate
c. Tail race
d. Pump
604.
As the specific
speed increases, the slope of HQ curve
_______
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Independent
d. Remains the same
605.
The
primary
selection tool is called as _______
a. Pump curve
b. Speed curve
c. Power curve
d. Fluid curve
606.
In
case
of
centrifugal turbines with low specific speed,
the efficiency curve is _________
a. Pointed
b. Small
c. Steep
d. Flat
d.
Independent
609.
standard acceleration?
a. kg/m
b. kg/s
c. kg/m3
d. N/m
What is unit of
610.
The formation
of vapour cavities is called _____
a. Static pressure drop
b. Cavitation
c. Isentropic expansion
d. Emulsion
611.
What
degree of reaction denoted as?
a. D
b. R
c. R
d. D
612.
created due to ______
a. Reaction ratio
b. Pressure ratio
c. Liquid free layers
d. Volumetric layers
Voids
is
the
are
613.
Cavitation
usually occurs due to the changes in
________
a. Pressure
b. Temperature
c. Volume
d. Heat
614.
Degree
of
reactions are most commonly used in
________
a. Turbomachinery
b. Pressure drag
c. Aerodynamics
d. Automobiles
607.
In
case
of
centrifugal turbines with high specific speed,
the efficiency curve is
a. Pointed
b. Small
c. Steep
d. Flat
615.
At
high
pressure, the voids can generate ______
a. Drag force
b. Mass density
c. Shock waves
d. Flow speed
608.
With
the
increase in the input power, efficiency
_______
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Same
616.
implode near metal
a_______
a. Drag force
b. Cyclic stress
c. Shock waves
Voids
that
surface develops
d.
Flow speed
617.
Internal
cavitation occurs due to __________
a. Drag force
b. Cyclic stress
c. Shock waves
d. Flow speed
618.
Noninertial
cavitation is the one in which a bubble of
fluid is forced to oscillate.
a. True
b. False
619.
The efficiency
of the vane is given by _________
a. 1-V22/ V12
b. 1-(V22/ V12)
c. V22/ V12
d. V12
620.
The velocities
of the blade angles can be found out using
________
a. Mach number
b. Froude’s number
c. Velocity triangles
d. Reynolds number
621.
Which among
the following velocities cannot be found
using the velocity triangle?
a. Tangential
b. Whirl
c. Relative
d. Parabolic
622.
cavitation is due
_________
a. Vaporisation
b. Sedimentation
c. Filtration
d. Excavation
to
Hydrodynamic
the process of
623.
The process of
bubble generation leads to __________
a. High temperatures
b. High pressures
c. High energy densities
d. High volumetric ratio
624.
Super
cavitation is the use of cavitation effect to
create a bubble of steam inside a liquid.
a. True
b. False
625.
Reciprocating
pump is a ________
a. Negative displacement pump
b. Positive displacement pump
c. Diaphragm pump
d. Emulsion pump
626.
What happens
to the reciprocating pump when left
untouched?
a. Efficiency decreases
b. Wear and tear
c. Surface expansion
d. Pressure change
627.
Reciprocating
pumps operate by drawing ______ into the
chamber
a. Liquid
b. Pressure
c. Heat
d. Electricity
628.
reciprocating cylinder
_______
a. Cast iron
b. Wrought iron
c. Aluminium
d. Copper
is
The cylinder of
made up of
629.
The
higher
discharge valve line holds the discharge
valve ________
a. Open
b. Closed
c. Stop functioning
d. Automatic
630.
Reciprocating
pumps are also called as __________
a. Force pumps
b. Mass Pumps
c. Heat pumps
d. Speed pumps
631.
pumps
are
classified
___________
a. Drag force
b. Number of cylinders
c. Shock waves
d. Flow speed
Reciprocating
according
to
632.
Simple
hand
operating pump is also called as ______
a. Froth pump
b. Bicycle pump
c. Multistage pumps
d.
Centrifugal pumps
633.
Internal
cavitation in reciprocating pumps occurs
due to __________
a. Drag force
b. Cyclic stress
c. Shock waves
d. Flow speed
634.
Bicycle pump
generates more compression than volume
displacement.
a. True
b. False
635.
Power
operated pump in which only one side
engages the fluid displacement is called
_______
a. Froth pump
b. Single acting
c. Double acting
d. Bicycle pump
636.
Operation of
reciprocating motion is done by a
________ source
a. Power
b. Energy
c. Momentum
d. Inertia
637.
An
up
and
down back and forth relative linear motion
is called __________
a. Reciprocation
b. Rotation
c. Filtration
d. Excavation
638.
Power
operated pump in which only both sides
engage the fluid displacement is called
_____
a. Froth pump
b. Single acting
c. Double acting
d. Bicycle pump
639.
High pressure
reciprocating pumps are generally from
1500 HP.
a. True
b. False
640.
How many
number of valves are required for the
rotary pump?
a.
b.
c.
d.
0
1
2
3
641.
Reciprocating
pump is divided into how many types, based
on its cylinders?
a. 0
b. 5
c. 2
d. 3
642.
the
a.
b.
c.
d.
At each stage
fluid is directed ________
Towards the centre
Away the centre
Towards the surface
Away from the centre
643.
The maximum
efficiency of the reciprocating pump is
_________
a. 20
b. 50
c. 70
d. 85
644.
The
two
opposite motion that comprise a single
reciprocation is called _________
a. Turbocharger
b. Stokes
c. Fluid motion
d. Auto motion
645.
Reciprocating
pumps has ____ efficiency compared to
centrifugal pumps
a. Higher
b. Lower
c. Equal
d. Exponential
646.
pumps
works
on
__________
a. Drag force
b. Liquid flow push
c. Shock waves
d. Flow speed
the
Reciprocating
principle
of
647.
Reciprocating
pump is a type of ___________
a. Positive displacement pump
b. Bicycle pump
c. Multistage pumps
d. Centrifugal pumps
648.
During
the
suction stroke the _______ moves left thus
creating vacuum in the Cylinder.
a. Piston
b. Cylinder
c. Valve
d. Pump
656.
What happens
to the reciprocating pump when left
untouched?
a. Efficiency decreases
b. Wear and tear
c. Surface expansion
d. Pressure change
649.
In
reciprocating pumps, the chamber in which
the liquid is trapped is a stationary cylinder
that contains piston or cylinder
a. True
b. False
657.
Positive
displacement pumps are capable of
developing ______ pressures, in _______
suction pressure.
a. High, low
b. Low, high
c. High, high
d. Low, low
650.
Reciprocating
pump works like a positive displacement
pump.
a. True
b. False
651.
When both the
sources are effective it is called as
__________
a. Double acting pump
b. Single acting pump
c. Triple acting pump
d. Normal pump
652.
A
variation about the central
equilibrium is called ________
a. Reciprocation
b. Oscillation
c. Filtration
d. Excavation
repetitive
value of
653.
A linear wheel
turning motion is called as a ________
a. Reciprocation
b. Rotation
c. Oscillation
d. Bicycle pump
654.
A reciprocating
pump that has 1200 crank is _________
a. Froth pump
b. Single acting
c. Double acting
d. Triple acting
655.
In a positive
displacement pump, what gets displaced?
a. Fluid
b. Volume
c. Pressure
d. Temperature
658.
When
is
reciprocating pump used?
a. When quantity of liquid is small
b. When quantity of liquid is large
c. To pump high pressure
d. To pump low pressure
a
659.
Positive
displacement pumps are also called
as__________
a. Constant pressure pump
b. Pressure drag pumps
c. Constant volume pumps
d. Constant head pumps
660.
At
high
pressure, the voids can generate ______
a. Drag force
b. Mass density
c. Shock waves
d. Flow speed
661.
In centrifugal
pumps, their capacity is affected due
to___________
a. Drag force
b. Cyclic stress
c. Shock waves
d. Pressure
662.
A quantity of
fluid that leaks from a higher pressure
discharge to a lower pressure discharge is
called______
a. Slip
b. Heat
c. Friction
d. Enthalpy
663.
Positive
displacement pumps regulate the flow by
varying its ________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Drag force
Cyclic stress
Shock waves
Flow speed
664.
Positive
displacement pumps are divided into two
types.
a. True
b. False
a.
b.
c.
d.
0
5
2
3
672.
How
many
number of valves are required for the rotary
pump?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
665.
Centrifugal
pump is less efficient than a reciprocating
pump because of its _______
a. Temperature
b. Speed
c. Heat
d. Cost
673.
Capacity of a
rotary pump is defined as _________
a. Total liquid displaced
b. Overall performance of pump
c. Maximum fluid flow
d. Minimum fluid flow
666.
Simplest
example of single acting reciprocating pump
is _______
a. Mineral ores
b. Whirl wheels
c. Bicycle tires
d. Syringe
674.
The pump that
converts mechanical energy into hydraulic
energy is called as _________
a. Turbomachinery
b. Centrifugal pump
c. Aerodynamics
d. Auto pump
667.
Rotary pumps
do not function well under _______
a. High Vaporisation
b. High Sedimentation
c. High viscosity
d. Excavation
675.
flow
a.
b.
c.
d.
668.
The parameter
that disturbs the working of the rotary pump
is______
a. High Vaporisation
b. High Sedimentation
c. Low flow rate
d. Excavation
676.
form of PD?
a. Positive displacement
b. Pump displacement
c. Plunger displacement
d. Plunger direct
What type of
does the reciprocating pump have?
Uniform
Continuous
Pulsating
Non-uniform
What is the full
669.
In a double
acting reciprocating pump, the piston
carries suction and expulsion at the same
time.
a. True
b. False
677.
Why
can’t
rotary pumps non-lubricate water?
a. Because it has lesser viscosity
b. Because it contains abrasive particles
c. Multistage pumps are difficult to
operate
d. Draft tube is thin
670.
are
a.
b.
c.
d.
Rotary pumps
commonly used to circulate________
Lube oils
Petroleum
Diesel
Water
678.
The maximum
speed of reciprocating pump is __________
a. 20m/min
b. 30m/min
c. 40m/min
d. 50m/min
671.
Reciprocating
pump is divided into how many types, based
on its cylinders?
679.
Pumps require
clearances because of machining tolerances
or wear exhibits larger slip.
a.
b.
True
False
680.
The pump that
uses a relatively smaller amount of liquid is
called ________
a. Froth pump
b. Reciprocating pump
c. Double acting
d. Bicycle pump
681.
Sliding
in pumps are held by ________
a. Draft pins
b. Whirl wheels
c. Springs
a.
b.
c.
d.
Into the cylinder
Away from the cylinder
Into the draft tube
Away from the draft tube
689.
The pump injects compressed air at the
_________
a. Rotor pipe
b. Bottom of the discharge pipe
c. Top of the discharge pipe
d. Rotor to draft
vanes
682.
Air
vessel
accumulates excess quantity of ______
a. Vapor
b. Water
c. Heat
d. Pressure
690.
In a reciprocating pump, with the
change in discharge pressure, ________
a. The Volume delivered increases
b. The volume delivered decreases
c. Volume delivered remains the same
d. Volume delivered is independent
691.
The compressed air mixes with the
liquid casing to become less dense.
a. True
b. False
683.
In which pump is the liquid in contact
with both the sides of the plunger_____
a. Froth pump
b. Single acting
c. Double acting
d. Bicycle pump
692.
The amount of fluid that leaks internally
is called ________
a. Head race
b. Slip
c. Tail race
d. Internal friction
684.
The sliding vane is capable of delivering
medium capacity and heat.
a. True
b. False
693.
Airlift pumps are
aquaculture to pump.
a. True
b. False
685.
When a cylinder has inlet and outlet
ports at each end, then it is called as
__________
a. Double acting
b. Air lift pumps
c. Reciprocating pumps
d. Centrifugal pumps
694.
Centrifugal pumps are used to transport
________
a. Pressure
b. Speed
c. Power
d. Fluid
686.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Turbomachines work under ________
Newtons first law
Newtons second law
Newtons third law
Kepler’s law
widely
695.
For a good condition,
be________
a. Below 1 percent
b. 1 to 2 percent
c. 3 to 4 percent
d. Above 5 percent
used
slip
in
should
687.
The main function of nozzle is to
__________
a. Varying temperatures
b. Pressure variations
c. Load variations
d. Heat variations
696.
If the slip is above 5 percent, the pumps
needs to be ______
a. Dragged
b. Overhauled
c. Retracted
d. Intermittent
688.
When the piston moves forward, liquid
is drawn ________
697.
The rotational kinetic energy comes
from ______
a.
b.
c.
d.
Engine motor
Pump
Tank
Draft tube
706.
Reciprocating pumps can deliver fluid at
high pressure.
a. True
b. False
698.
When the balancing of the turbine is
disturbed, we use ________
a. Throttle governing
b. Steam governing
c. Nozzle governing
d. Emergency governing
707.
When an external force is not available
in a pump, we use a ________
a. Hydraulic cylinder
b. Slip gauge
c. Tail race
d. Heater
699.
Slip in a pump depends on which of
following parameters?
a. Wear
b. Pressure
c. Temperature
d. Heat
700.
Internal breakage in a pump mainly
takes place when ________
a. Discharge pressure is increased
b. Temperature is increased
c. Heat leads to expansion
d. Corrosion takes place
708.
701.
During internal breakage, output power
________
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Remains same
d. Independent
702.
The output that we get after an internal
breakage can be classed as _________
a. An increase
b. A decrease
c. Constant
d. An independent variable
703.
When the hydraulic fluid forms on only
one side of the piston, it is called _______
a. Single acting pump
b. Double acting pump
c. Froth pump
d. Draft tube
704.
The speed of the reciprocating pump is
generally measured in ______
a. Stokes.min
b. Stokes/min
c. Rps
d. rp/s
705.
A pump with two steams and two water
cylinders is called ________
a. Single acting pump
b. Double acting pump
c. Froth pump
d. Duplex pump
a.
b.
Piston pumps are self priming.
True
False
709.
Reciprocating pumps give a ________
flow
a. Uniform
b. Non- uniform
c. Pulsating
d. Sinusoidal
710.
Suction stroke becomes difficult
pump ______
a. High temperature fluids
b. Viscous fluids
c. Fluids with abrasives
d. High velocity fluids
711.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Piston pumps are very _______
Expensive
Cheap
Reasonable
Intricate
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is the full form of DAC?
Digital Acting pumps
Double acting pumps
Data acting pumps
Draft tube pumps
712.
to
713.
Which among the following is not a
multi-cylinder pump?
a. Double acting simplex
b. Single acting duplex
c. Double acting duplex
d. Single acting triplex
714.
As the motor rotates the flywheel, the
eccentrically mounted connecting rod
rotates with it.
a. True
b. False
715.
A pressure vessel is used to hold
_______
a. Air
b. Gases
c.
d.
Molecules
Solids
a.
b.
716.
Why do we need a maximum safe
operating pressure?
a. Pressure vessel might explode
b. Temperature increase needs to be
controlled
c. Heat transfer is rejected
d. Improve overall efficiency
725.
Where is the excess quantity of water
from the pump accumulated?
a. Froth tube
b. Draft tube
c. Air vessels
d. Bicycle pump
726.
717.
a.
b.
c.
d.
When is a reciprocating pump used?
When quantity of liquid is small
When quantity of liquid is large
To pump high pressure
To pump low pressure
a.
b.
c.
d.
NDT relies upon _________
Electromagnetic radiation
Heat
Pressure change
Temperature
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is the shape of a pressure vessel?
Square
Spheres
Cones
All the shapes
727.
718.
The maximum efficiency
reciprocating pump is _________
a. 20
b. 50
c. 70
d. 85
of
the
719.
A tank that is used to protect closed
water heating systems is called ________
a. Pressure vessel
b. Expansion vessel
c. Heat vessel
d. Auto vessel
720.
How is the construction of the vessel
tested?
a. Uniform testing
b. Continuous testing
c. Pulsating test
d. Non-destructive testing
721.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What does BPVC stand for?
Boiler and pressure vessel code
Boiler and pump vessel code
Boiler and pressure vessel clutch
Boiler and pump vessel clutch
722.
Which of the following is not an NDT
type?
a. Ultrasonic
b. Liquid penetrant
c. Visual
d. Hammer test
723.
a.
b.
c.
d.
What is the full form of NDI?
Non-destructive intern
Non-destructive inspection
Non-destructive inkling
Non-destructive inertia
724.
NDT is a money and time saving
technique.
True
False
728.
Safety valve is used to ensure that the
pressure in the vessels is not exceeded.
a. True
b. False
729.
Pressure vessel closures are used to
_________
a. Avoid breakage
b. Avoid leakage
c. Retain structures
d. Maintain pressure
730.
The hydraulic press is also known as
_________ press.
a. Pascal
b. Toricelli
c. Bernouille
d. Bramah
731.
The underlying principle behind a
hydraulic press is based on ______
principle.
a. Bramah’s
b. Pascal’s
c. Stoke’s
d. Newton’s
732.
In a hydraulic press, the pump acts as a
_________
a. Piston
b. Motor
c. Tubing
d. Cylinder
733.
A hydraulic press makes use of a
_________
a. hydraulic pump
b.
c.
d.
hydraulic cylinder
hydraulic accumulator
hydraulic shaft
734.
In a hydraulic press, the metal can be
_______
a. Crushed
b. Straightened
c. Molded
d. Crushes, straightened and molded
735.
The cylinder with the smaller diameter
Is called _________
a. Slave cylinder
b. Master cylinder
c. Working cylinder
d. Casting Cylinder
736.
A ________ is the main essence of a car
crushing system.
a. hydraulic press
b. hydraulic cylinder
c. hydraulic crane
d. accumulator
737.
The cylinder having the larger diameter
is called _______ cylinder.
a. Slave
b. Master
c. Cage
d. Pump
738.
A ________ is a storage reservoir under
pressure where a liquid is held under
pressure.
a. Hydraulic accumulator
b. Hydraulic crane
c. Hydraulic gear
d. Hydraulic pump
739.
The most frequently used accumulator
type is ________
a. Liquid accumulator
b. Solid accumulator
c. Compressed gas accumulator
d. Plasma accumulator
c.
d.
water filled
gas filled
742.
________ invented the compressed air
accumulator.
a. Reynold
b. Braman
c. Pascal
d. Jean Mercier
743.
The inert gas used in gas compressed
accumulator is usually ______
a. Sulphur
b. Nitrogen
c. Oxygen
d. Carbon dioxide
744.
Spring type accumulator works on the
principle of ______
a. Bernouille’s law
b. Charles’ law
c. Hooke’s law3
d. Pascal’s law
745.
A __________ is a hydraulic machine
for converting hydraulic power at low
pressure into a reduced volume at higher
pressure.
a. Hydraulic Ram
b. Hydraulic crane
c. Hydraulic Intensifier
d. Hydraulic accumulator
746.
If the diameters of the two pistons used
in the arrangement are different, the
_______ in each cylinder will vary.
a. Hydraulic velocities
b. Hydraulic acceleration
c. Hydraulic pressure
d. Hydraulic force
747.
The working volume of the intensifier is
restricted by the stroke of the ________
a. Piston
b. Shaft
c. Jack
d. Cylinder
740.
The first accumulators for Armstrong’s
hydraulic dock machinery were ________
which is placed raised.
a. oil towers
b. gas towers
c. water towers
d. plasma towers
748.
Intensifiers are employed as a part of
machines such as ________
a. Hydraulic presses
b. Hydraulic Crane
c. Hydraulic accumulator
d. Hydraulic Ram
741.
________ is the simplest form of an
accumulator.
a. air filled
b. oil filled
749.
Small intensifiers usually
________ in their basic system.
a. Stepped piston
b. Stepped cylinder
have
a
c.
d.
Accumulator
Stepped presses
c.
d.
Inlet pipe
Waste valve
750.
Most
commonly
used
hydraulic
intensifier for water jet cutting is
_________
a. Inline hydraulic intensifier
b. Parallel hydraulic intensifier
c. Pressed hydraulic intensifier
d. Casting hydraulic intensifier
758.
One of the main reasons why the
cycling stops in the hydraulic ram is due to
poor adjustment of ________
a. pressure vessel
b. diaphragm
c. waste valve
d. water hammer
751.
When the intensifier is placed outside its
jack, it produces higher ________
a. Pressure
b. Force
c. Displacement
d. Momentum
759.
An alternate option to the hydraulic ram
is _________
a. water-powered pump
b. Oscillating pump
c. Inlet pressure pump
d. Water vessel pump
752.
A ________ is a cyclic water pump that
derives its power from hydroelectric
sources.
a. Hydraulic crane
b. Hydraulic Ram
c. Hydraulic Accumulator
d. Hydraulic presses
760.
In a hydraulic lift ______ is fixed on the
crown of the sliding ram where the carried
load is located.
a. Cage
b. Wire rope
c. Pulleys
d. Jiggers
753.
A hydraulic ram uses the _______ effect
to develop pressure.
a. Water hammer
b. Pascal’s law
c. Bernouille’s
d. Toricelli’s
761.
When fluid is subjected to _______ it is
pushed into the cylindrical chamber which
gives the ram gets a push in the upward
direction.
a. Pressure
b. Force
c. Momentum
d. Acceleration
754.
Hydraulic Ram is used in areas where
there is a source of ________ power.
a. Thermal
b. Hydroelectric
c. Biogas
d. Solar
755.
The typical efficiency of a hydraulic ram
is ____
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. 80%
756.
_______ aids in cushioning the shock of
the hydraulic pressure during the working of
the hydraulic ram
a. Pressure vessel
b. air bags
c. inlet valve
d. Drive pipe
757.
___________ restricts the dissolution
of the pressurized air into the water.
a. Elastic diaphragm
b. Pressure vessel
762.
______ is attached to the fixed
cylindrical chamber which moves in the
upward or downward direction.
a. Jiggers
b. Sliding Ram
c. Crown
d. Pulley
763.
The two types of pulleys in a hydraulic
lift are ______ and ______
a. fixed, fixed
b. movable, fixed
c. movable, movable
d. semi-movable, movable
764.
_________ is attached to the wall of the
floor, where the sliding ram moves upwards
or downwards depending on how the
pressure is applied.
a. Cage
b. Fixed cylinder
c. Pulleys
d. shaft
765.
the
a.
b.
c.
d.
Working period is defined as the ratio of
height of lift to the ___________
acceleration of the lift
pressure of the lift
velocity of the lift
displacement of the lift
766.
Idle period of lift is defined as the
difference of the total time taken for one
operation and the _____ of the lift.
a. Working period
b. Stationary period
c. Active period
d. Passive period
776.
Due to the arrangement of hydraulic
jigger, the ________ rotates
a. Fixed cylinder
b. Sliding contact
c. Fluid
d. Pulley
782.
_______ restricts
tipping.
a. Gear
b. Indicator
c. Counterweights3
d. Boom
778.
In a hydraulic crane __________ is the
component mainly responsible for lifting.
a. Boom
b. Counter-weights
c. Jib
d. Rotex Gear
779.
________ helps in indicating
maximum lifting limit of the crane.
a. Jib
b. Gear
c. Shaft
d. Load moment indicator
the
780.
Out of the ________ a lattice structure
called jib projects out.
a. Boom
b. Pump
c. Gear
d. Out-triggers
781.
________ allows the rotation of the
boom.
a. Rotex gear
b. Jib
c. Motor
d. Pump
crane
from
783.
The
pressure
generated
by
counterweight gear pump is ______
a. 1200 psi
b. 1300 psi
c. 1400 psi
d. 1500 psi
a
784.
A pump that has low suction and
moderate discharge is called _______
a. Froth pumps
b. Air lift pumps
c. Reciprocating pumps
d. Centrifugal pumps
785.
777.
In a hydraulic system the development
of pressure is by variable displacement pump
and _____
a. stationary pump
b. fixed pump
c. gear pump
d. motor pump
the
a.
b.
c.
d.
Turbomachines work under ________
Newtons first law
Newtons second law
Newtons third law
Kepler’s law
786.
The main function of nozzle is to
__________
a. Varying temperatures
b. Pressure variations
c. Load variations
d. Heat variations
787.
The main function of centrifugal pumps
are to ________
a. Transfer speed
b. Transfer pressure
c. Transfer temperature
d. Transfer energy
788.
The pump injects compressed air at the
_________
a. Rotor pipe
b. Bottom of the discharge pipe
c. Top of the discharge pipe
d. Rotor to draft
789.
flow
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which among the following control the
rate?
Valve
Pump
Head
Tank pipe
790.
The compressed air mixes with the
liquid casing to become less dense.
a. True
b. False
791.
The inlet passage of water entry is
controlled by ________
a. Head race
b. Gate
c. Tail race
d. Pump
792.
Airlift pumps are
aquaculture to pump.
a. True
b. False
widely
used
in
793.
Centrifugal pumps are used to transport
________
a. Pressure
b. Speed
c. Power
d. Fluid
794.
The air lift pump works under the
principle of _______
a. Newtons equation
b. Buoyancy
c. Momentum conservation
d. Hydrodynamic energy
795.
With the increase in load, Energy in the
turbine________
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains same
d. Independent
796.
The rotational kinetic energy comes
from ______
a. Engine motor
b. Pump
c. Tank
d. Draft tube
797.
When the balancing of the turbine is
disturbed, we use ________
a. Throttle governing
b. Steam governing
c. Nozzle governing
d. Emergency governing
798.
The fluid coming into the airlift pump is
accelerated by ________
a. Throttle
b. Impeller
c. Nozzle
d. Governor
799.
a.
b.
c.
d.
A gear pump uses ___________
Petrochemical pumps
Meshing of gears
Froth pumps
Airlift pumps
800.
A pump that has low suction and
moderate discharge of liquid is called
________
a. Airlift Pump
b. Vacuum pump
c. Turbine pump
d. Draft tube
801.
The most common pump used for
hydraulic
fluid
power
application
is
__________
a. Centrifugal pumps
b. Gear pump
c. Froth pumps
d. Airlift pumps
802.
The main function of gear pumps are to
________
a. Transfer speed
b. Transfer pressure
c. Transfer temperature
d. Transfer energy
803.
Centrifugal pumps transfer energy from
_______
a. Rotor to fluid
b. Fluid to rotor
c. Draft to rotor
d. Rotor to draft
804.
Gear pumps are mainly used in
chemical installations because they pump
________
a. High viscosity fluids
b. High density fluids
c. High pressure fluids
d. High temperature fluids
805.
Gear pumps convert rotational kinetic
energy to hydrodynamic energy.
a. True
b. False
806.
The injection pumps used in most
diesel engines can create up to ________
a. 300 psi
b. 3000 psi
c. 30000 psi
d. 3 psi
807.
A pneumatic sewage ejector includes a
tank for holding _________
a. Fluid sewage
b. Horizontally sewage
c. Axial sewage
d. Radial sewage
808.
Gear pumps are used to transport
________
a.
b.
c.
d.
Pressure
Speed
Power
Fluid
809.
Centrifugal pumps transport fluids by
converting _________
a. Kinetic energy to hydrodynamic energy
b. Hydrodynamic energy to kinetic energy
c. Mechanical energy to kinetic energy
d. Mechanical energy to Hydrodynamic
energy
810.
With the increase in load, Energy in the
turbine ________
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains same
d. Independent
811.
The rotational kinetic energy comes
from ______
a. Engine motor
b. Pump
c. Tank
d. Draft tube
812.
When the balancing of the turbine is
disturbed, we use ________
a. Throttle governing
b. Steam governing
c. Nozzle governing
d. Emergency governing
813.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Gear pumps are ___________
Tangential flow pumps
Positive displacement pumps
Negative displacement pumps
Radial pumps