t . me/ Exam_ Sakha_ Of f i c i al Chapterwise Topicwise Solved Papers 2021-1979 IITJEE JEE Main & Advanced Chemistry Ranjeet Shahi Arihant Prakashan (Series), Meerut Arihant Prakashan (Series), Meerut All Rights Reserved © Author Administrative & Production Offices Regd. Office ‘Ramchhaya’ 4577/15, Agarwal Road, Darya Ganj, New Delhi -110002 Tele: 011- 47630600, 43518550 Head Office Kalindi, TP Nagar, Meerut (UP) - 250002, Tel: 0121-7156203, 7156204 Sales & Support Offices Agra, Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Bareilly, Chennai, Delhi, Guwahati, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Jhansi, Kolkata, Lucknow, Nagpur & Pune. ISBN 978-93-25796-14-0 PO No : TXT-XX-XXXXXXX-X-XX Published by Arihant Publications (India) Ltd. For further information about the books published by Arihant, log on to www.arihantbooks.com or e-mail at info@arihantbooks.com Follow us on CONTENTS 1-22 19. Extraction of Metals 282-293 2. Atomic Structure 23-40 20. Qualitative Analysis 294-306 3. Periodic Classification and Periodic Properties 21. Organic Chemistry Basics 307-331 41-47 22. Hydrocarbons 332-349 4. Chemical Bonding 48-66 23. Alkyl Halides 350-363 5. States of Matter 67-83 24. Alcohols and Ethers 364-377 25. Aldehydes and Ketones 378-396 26. Carboxylic Acids and their Derivatives 397-412 1. Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 6. Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 84-108 7. Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 109-129 8. Solid State 130-139 9. Solutions and Colligative Properties 140-155 27. Aliphatic Compounds Containing Nitrogen 413-422 10. Electrochemistry 156-177 28. Benzene and Alkyl Benzene 423-440 11. Chemical Kinetics 178-195 12. Nuclear Chemistry 196-199 29. Aromatic Compounds Containing Nitrogen 441-457 13. Surface Chemistry 200-206 30. Aryl Halides and Phenols 458-470 14. s-Block Elements 207-217 31. Aromatic Aldehydes, Ketones and Acids 471-484 15. p-Block Elements-I 218-227 16. p-Block Elements-II 228-248 32. Biomolecules and Chemistry in Everyday Life 485-501 33. Environmental Chemistry 502-504 17. Transition and Inner-Transition Elements 249-258 18. Coordination Compounds 259-281 JEE Advanced Solved Paper 2021 1-16 SYLLABUS JEE MAIN Section A : PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY UNIT I Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry Matter and its nature, Dalton's atomic theory; Concept of atom, molecule, element and compound; Physical quantities and their measurements in Chemistry, precision and accuracy, significant figures, S.I. Units, dimensional analysis; Laws of chemical combination; Atomic and molecular masses, mole concept, molar mass, percentage composition, empirical and molecular formulae; Chemical equations and stoichiometry. UNIT II States of Matter Classification of matter into solid, liquid and gaseous states. Gaseous State Measurable properties of gases; Gas laws - Boyle's law, Charle's law, Graham's law of diffusion, Avogadro's law, Dalton's law of partial pressure; Concept of Absolute scale of temperature; Ideal gas equation, Kinetic theory of gases (only postulates); Concept of average, root mean square and most probable velocities; Real gases, deviation from Ideal behaviour, compressibility factor, van der Waals' equation, liquefaction of gases, critical constants. Liquid State Properties of liquids - vapour pressure, viscosity and surface tension and effect of temperature on them (qualitative treatment only). Solid State Classification of solids: molecular, ionic, covalent and metallic solids, amorphous and crystalline solids (elementary idea); Bragg's Law and its applications, Unit cell and lattices, packing in solids (fcc, bcc and hcp lattices), voids, calculations involving unit cell parameters, imperfection in solids; electrical, magnetic and dielectric properties. UNIT III Atomic Structure Discovery of sub-atomic particles (electron, proton and neutron); Thomson and Rutherford atomic models and their limitations; Nature of electromagnetic radiation, photoelectric effect; spectrum of hydrogen atom, Bohr model of hydrogen atom - its postulates, derivation of the relations for energy of the electron and radii of the different orbits, limitations of Bohr's model; dual nature of matter, de-Broglie's relationship, Heisenberg uncertainty principle. Elementary ideas of quantum mechanics, quantum mechanical model of atom, its important features, ψ and ψ2, concept of atomic orbitals as one electron wave functions; Variation of ψ and ψ2 with r for 1s and 2s orbitals; various quantum numbers (principal, angular momentum and magnetic quantum numbers) and their significance; shapes of s, p and d - orbitals, electron spin and spin quantum number; rules for filling electrons in orbitals – aufbau principle, Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule, electronic configuration of elements, extra stability of half-filled and completely filled orbitals. UNIT IV Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure Kossel Lewis approach to chemical bond formation, concept of ionic and covalent bonds. Ionic Bonding Formation of ionic bonds, factors affecting the formation of ionic bonds; calculation of lattice enthalpy. Covalent Bonding Concept of electronegativity, Fajan's rule, dipole moment; Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) theory and shapes of simple molecules. Quantum mechanical approach to covalent bonding Valence bond theory - Its important features, concept of hybridization involving s, p and d orbitals; Resonance. Molecular Orbital Theory Its important features, LCAOs, types of molecular orbitals (bonding, antibonding), sigma and pi-bonds, molecular orbital electronic configurations of homonuclear diatomic molecules, concept of bond order, bond length and bond energy. Elementary idea of metallic bonding. Hydrogen bonding and its applications. UNIT V Chemical Thermodynamics Fundamentals of thermodynamics System and surroundings, extensive and intensive properties, state functions, types of processes. First law of thermodynamics Concept of work, heat internal energy and enthalpy, heat capacity, molar heat capacity, Hess's law of constant heat summation; Enthalpies of bond dissociation, combustion, formation, atomization, sublimation, phase transition, hydration, ionization and solution. Second law of thermodynamics Spontaneity of processes; ΔS of the universe and ΔG of the system as criteria for spontaneity, ΔGo (Standard Gibb's energy change) and equilibrium constant. UNIT VI Solutions Different methods for expressing concentration of solution - molality, molarity, mole fraction, percentage (by volume and mass both), vapour pressure of solutions and Raoult's Law - Ideal and non-ideal solutions, vapour pressure - composition plots for ideal and non-ideal solutions. Colligative properties of dilute solutions - relative lowering of vapour pressure, depression of freezing point, elevation of boiling point and osmotic pressure; Determination of molecular mass using colligative properties; Abnormal value of molar mass, van't Hoff factor and its significance. UNIT VII Equilibrium Meaning of equilibrium, concept of dynamic equilibrium. Equilibria involving physical processes Solid -liquid, liquid - gas and solid - gas equilibria, Henry's law, general characteristics of equilibrium involving physical processes. Equilibria involving chemical processes Law of chemical equilibrium, equilibrium constants (K and K) and their significance, significance of ΔG and ΔGo in chemical equilibria, factors affecting equilibrium concentration, pressure, temperature, effect of catalyst; Le -Chatelier's principle. Ionic equilibrium Weak and strong electrolytes, ionization of electrolytes, various concepts of acids and bases (Arrhenius, Bronsted Lowry and Lewis) and their ionization, acid-base equilibria (including multistage ionization) and ionization constants, ionization of water, pH scale, common ion effect, hydrolysis of salts and pH of their solutions, solubility of sparingly soluble salts and solubility products, buffer solutions. UNIT VIII Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry Electronic concepts of oxidation and reduction, redox reactions, oxidation number, rules for assigning oxidation number, balancing of redox reactions. Eectrolytic and metallic conduction, conductance in electrolytic solutions, specific and molar conductivities and their variation with concentration: Kohlrausch's law and its applications. temperature on rate of reactions - Arrhenius theory, activation energy and its calculation, collision theory of bimolecular gaseous reactions (no derivation). Electrochemical cells - Electrolytic and Galvanic cells, different types of electrodes, electrode potentials including standard electrode potential, half - cell and cell reactions, emf of a Galvanic cell and its measurement; Nernst equation and its applications; Relationship between cell potential and Gibbs' energy change; Dry cell and lead accumulator; Fuel cells; Corrosion and its prevention. UNIT X Surface Chemistry Adsorption - Physisorption and chemisorption and their characteristics, factors affecting adsorption of gases on solidsFreundlich and Langmuir adsorption isotherms, adsorption from solutions. Catalysis Homogeneous and heterogeneous, activity and selectivity of solid catalysts, enzyme catalysis and its mechanism. Colloidal state distinction among true solutions, colloids and suspensions, classification of colloids - lyophilic, lyophobic; multi molecular, macromole-cular and associated colloids (micelles), preparation and properties of colloids Tyndall effect, Brownian movement, electrophoresis, dialysis, coagulation and flocculation; Emulsions and their characteristics. UNIT IX Chemical Kinetics Rate of a chemical reaction, factors affecting the rate of reactions concentration, temperature, pressure and catalyst; elementary and complex reactions, order and molecularity of reactions, rate law, rate constant and its units, differential and integral forms of zero and first order reactions, their characteristics and half - lives, effect of Section B : INORGANIC CHEMISTRY UNIT XI Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties Periodic Law and Present Form of the Periodic Table, s, p, d and f Block Elements, Periodic Trends in Properties of Elementsatomic and Ionic Radii, Ionization Enthalpy, Electron Gain Enthalpy, Valence, Oxidation States and Chemical Reactivity. UNIT XII General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Metals Modes of occurrence of elements in nature, minerals, ores; steps involved in the extraction of metals - concentration, reduction (chemical and electrolytic methods) and refining with special reference to the extraction of Al, Cu, Zn and Fe; Thermodynamic and electrochemical principles involved in the extraction of metals. UNIT XIII Hydrogen Position of hydrogen in periodic table, isotopes, preparation, properties and uses of hydrogen; physical and chemical properties of water and heavy water; Structure, preparation, reactions and uses of hydrogen peroxide; Classification of hydrides ionic, covalent and interstitial; Hydrogen as a fuel. UNIT XIV s - Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals) Group 1 and 2 Elements General introduction, electronic configuration and general trends in physical and chemical properties of elements, anomalous properties of the first element of each group, diagonal relationships. Preparation and properties of some important compounds - sodium carbonate, sodium chloride, sodium hydroxide and sodium hydrogen carbonate; Industrial uses of lime, limestone, Plaster of Paris and cement; Biological significance of Na, K, Mg and Ca. UNIT XV p - Block Elements Group 13 to Group 18 Elements General Introduction Electronic configuration and general trends in physical and chemical properties of elements across the periods and down the groups; unique behaviour of the first element in each group.Group wise study of the p – block elements Group 13 Preparation, properties and uses of boron and aluminium; structure, properties and uses of borax, boric acid, diborane, boron trifluoride, aluminium chloride and alums. Group 14 Tendency for catenation; Structure, properties and uses of allotropes and oxides of carbon, silicon tetrachloride, silicates, zeolites and silicones. Group 15 Properties and uses of nitrogen and phosphorus; Allotrophic forms of phosphorus; Preparation, properties, structure and uses of ammonia nitric acid, phosphine and phosphorus halides,(PCl3, PCl5); Structures of oxides and oxoacids of nitrogen and phosphorus. Group 16 Preparation, properties, structures and uses of dioxygen and ozone; Allotropic forms of sulphur; Preparation, properties, structures and uses of sulphur dioxide, sulphuric acid (including its industrial preparation); Structures of oxoacids of sulphur. Group 17 Preparation, properties and uses of chlorine and hydrochloric acid; Trends in the acidic nature of hydrogen halides; Structures of Interhalogen compounds and oxides and oxoacids of halogens. Group 18 Occurrence and uses of noble gases; Structures of fluorides and oxides of xenon. UNIT XVI d–and f–Block Elements Transition Elements General introduction, electronic configuration, occurrence and characteristics, general trends in properties of the first row transition elements - physical properties, ionization enthalpy, oxidation states, atomic radii, colour, catalytic behaviour, magnetic properties, complex formation, interstitial compounds, alloy formation; Preparation, properties and uses of K2 Cr2 O7 and KMnO4. Inner Transition Elements Lanthanoids - Electronic configuration, oxidation states, chemical reactivity and lanthanoid contraction. Actinoids - Electronic configuration and oxidation states. UNIT XVII Coordination Compounds Introduction to coordination compounds, Werner's theory; ligands, coordination number, denticity, chelation; IUPAC nomenclature of mononuclear coordination compounds, isomerism; Bonding Valence bond approach and basic ideas of Crystal field theory, colour and magnetic properties; importance of coordination compounds (in qualitative analysis, extraction of metals and in biological systems). UNIT XVIII Environmental Chemistry Environmental pollution Atmospheric, water and soil. Atmospheric pollution - Tropospheric and stratospheric. Tropospheric pollutants Gaseous pollutants Oxides of carbon, nitrogen and sulphur, hydrocarbons; their sources, harmful effects and prevention; Green house effect and Global warming; Acid rain; Particulate pollutants Smoke, dust, smog, fumes, mist; their sources, harmful effects and prevention. Stratospheric pollution Formation and breakdown of ozone, depletion of ozone layer - its mechanism and effects. Water pollution Major pollutants such as, pathogens, organic wastes and chemical pollutants their harmful effects and prevention. Soil pollution Major pollutants such as: Pesticides (insecticides, herbicides and fungicides), their harmful effects and prevention. Strategies to control environmental pollution. Section C : ORGANIC CHEMISTRY UNIT XIX Purification & Characterisation of Organic Compounds Purification Crystallisation, sublimation, distillation, differential extraction and chromatography principles and their applications. Qualitative analysis Detection of nitrogen, sulphur, phosphorus and halogens. Quantitative analysis (basic principles only) Estimation of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, halogens, sulphur, phosphorus. Calculations of empirical formulae and molecular formulae; Numerical problems in organic quantitative analysis. UNIT XX Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry Tetravalency of carbon; Shapes of simple molecules hybridization (s and p); Classification of organic compounds based on functional groups: —C=C—,—C=C— and those containing halogens, oxygen, nitrogen and sulphur, Homologous series; Isomerism - structural and stereoisomerism. Nomenclature (Trivial and IUPAC) Covalent bond fission Homolytic and heterolytic free radicals, carbocations and carbanions; stability of carbocations and free radicals, electrophiles and nucleophiles. Electronic displacement in a covalent bond Inductive effect, electromeric effect, resonance and hyperconjugation. Common types of organic reactions Substitution, addition, elimination and rearrangement. UNIT XXI Hydrocarbons Classification, isomerism, IUPAC nomenclature, general methods of preparation, properties and reactions. Alkanes Conformations: Sawhorse and Newman projections (of ethane); Mechanism of halogenation of alkanes. Alkenes Geometrical isomerism; Mechanism of electrophilic addition: addition of hydrogen, halogens, water, hydrogen halides (Markownikoff's and peroxide effect); Ozonolysis, oxidation, and polymerization. Alkenes acidic character; addition of hydrogen, halogens, water and hydrogen halides; polymerization. Aromatic hydrocarbons Nomenclature, benzene structure and aromaticity; Mechanism of electrophilic substitution: halogenation, nitration, Friedel – Craft's alkylation and acylation, directive influence of functional group in mono-substituted benzene. UNIT XXIV Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen General methods of preparation, properties, reactions and uses. Amines Nomenclature, classification, structure basic character and identification of primary, secondary and tertiary amines and their basic character. Diazonium Salts Importance in synthetic organic chemistry. UNIT XXV Polymers General introduction and classification of polymers, general methods of polymerization-addition and condensation, copolymerization; Natural and synthetic rubber and vulcanization; some important polymers with emphasis on their monomers and uses - polythene, nylon, polyester and bakelite. UNIT XXVI Biomolecules General introduction and importance of biomolecules. Carbohydrates Classification aldoses and ketoses; monosaccharides (glucose and fructose), constituent monosaccharides of oligosacchorides (sucrose, lactose, maltose) and polysaccharides (starch, cellulose, glycogen). Proteins Elementary Idea of α-amino acids, peptide bond, . polypeptides; proteins: primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structure (qualitative idea only), denaturation of proteins, enzymes. Vitamins Classification and functions. Nucleic Acids Chemical constitution of DNA and RNA. Biological functions of Nucleic acids. UNIT XXVII Chemistry in Everyday Life Chemicals in medicines Analgesics, tranquilizers, antiseptics, disinfectants, antimicrobials, antifertility drugs, antibiotics, antacids, antihistamins - their meaning and common examples. Chemicals in food Preservatives, artificial sweetening agents - common examples. Cleansing agents Soaps and detergents, cleansing action. Unit XXVIII Principles Related to Practical Chemistry — Detection of extra elements (N, S, halogens) in organic compounds; Detection of the following functional groups: hydroxyl (alcoholic and phenolic), carbonyl (aldehyde and ketone), carboxyl and amino groups in organic compounds. UNIT XXII Organic Compounds Containing Halogens General methods of preparation, properties and reactions; Nature of C—X bond; Mechanisms of substitution reactions. — Inorganic compounds Mohr's salt, potash alum. Uses/environmental effects of chloroform, iodoform, freons and DDT. — UNIT XXIII Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen General methods of preparation, properties, reactions and uses. Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers Organic compounds Acetanilide, p-nitroacetan ilide, aniline yellow, iodoform. — Chemistry involved in the titrimetric excercises - Acids bases and the use of indicators, oxali acid vs KMnO4, Mohr's salt vs KMnO4. Alcohols Identification of primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols; mechanism of dehydration. Chemistry involved in the preparation of the following — Chemical principles involved in the qualitative salt analysis — Cations — Pb2+ , Cu2+, Al3+, Fe3+, Zn2+, Ni2+, Ca2+, Ba2+ , Mg2+ NH4+. Anions – CO32-, S2-, SO42-, NO2, NO3, Cl -, Br-, I- (Insoluble salts excluded). Phenols Acidic nature, electrophilic substitution reactions: halogenation, nitration and sulphonation, Reimer - Tiemann reaction. Ethers: Structure Aldehyde and Ketones Nature of carbonyl group; Nucleophilic addition to >C=O group, relative reactivities of aldehydes and ketones; Important reactions such as - Nucleophilic addition reactions (addition of HCN, NH3 and its derivatives), Grignard reagent; oxidation; reduction (Wolff Kishner and Clemmensen); acidity of α hydrogen, aldol condensation, Cannizzaro reaction, Haloform reaction; Chemical tests to distinguish between aldehydes and Ketones. Carboxylic Acids Acidic strength & factors affecting it. — Chemical principles involved in the following experiments 1. Enthalpy of solution of CuSO4 2. Enthalpy of neutralization of strong acid and strong base. 3. Preparation of lyophilic and lyophobic sols. 4. Kinetic study of reaction of iodide ion with hydrogen peroxide at room temperature. JEE ADVANCED PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY General Topics Concept of atoms and molecules, Dalton's atomic theory, Mole concept, Chemical formulae, Balanced chemical equations, Calculations (based on mole concept) involving common oxidation-reduction, neutralisation, and displacement reactions, Concentration in terms of mole fraction, molarity, molality and normality. Gaseous and Liquid States Absolute scale of temperature, ideal gas equation, Deviation from ideality, van der Waals' equation, Kinetic theory of gases, average, root mean square and most probable velocities and their relation with temperature, Law of partial pressures, Vapour pressure, Diffusion of gases. Atomic Structure and Chemical Bonding Bohr model, spectrum of hydrogen atom, quantum numbers, Wave-particle duality, de-Broglie hypothesis, Uncertainty principle, Qualitative quantum mechanical picture of hydrogen atom, shapes of s, p and d orbitals, Electronic configurations of elements (up to atomic number 36), Aufbau principle, Pauli's exclusion principle and Hund's rule, Orbital overlap and covalent bond; Hybridisation involving s, p and d orbitals only, Orbital energy diagrams for homonuclear diatomic species, Hydrogen bond, Polarity in molecules, dipole moment (qualitative aspects only), VSEPR model and shapes of molecules (linear, angular, triangular, square planar, pyramidal, square pyramidal, trigonal bipyramidal, tetrahedral and octahedral). Energetics First law of thermodynamics, Internal energy, work and heat, pressure-volume work, Enthalpy, Hess's law, Heat of reaction, fusion and vaporization, Second law of thermodynamics, Entropy, Free energy, Criterion of spontaneity. Chemical Equilibrium Law of mass action, Equilibrium constant, Le-Chatelier's principle (effect of concentration, temperature and pressure), Significance of DG and DGo in chemical equilibrium, Solubility product, common ion effect, pH and buffer solutions, Acids and bases (Bronsted and Lewis concepts), Hydrolysis of salts. Electrochemistry Electrochemical cells and cell reactions, Standard electrode potentials, Nernst equation and its relation to DG, Electrochemical series, emf of galvanic cells, Faraday's laws of electrolysis, Electrolytic conductance, specific, equivalent and molar conductivity, Kohlrausch's law, Concentration cells. Chemical Kinetics Rates of chemical reactions, Order of reactions, Rate constant, First order reactions, Temperature dependence of rate constant (Arrhenius equation). Solid State Classification of solids, crystalline state, seven crystal systems (cell parameters a, b, c), close packed structure of solids (cubic), packing in fcc, bcc and hcp lattices, Nearest neighbours, ionic radii, simple ionic compounds, point defects. Solutions Raoult's law, Molecular weight determination from lowering of vapour pressure, elevation of boiling point and depression of freezing point. Surface Chemistry Elementary concepts of adsorption (excluding adsorption isotherms), Colloids, types, methods of preparation and general properties, Elementary ideas of emulsions, surfactants and micelles (only definitions and examples). Nuclear Chemistry Radioactivity, isotopes and isobars, Properties of rays, Kinetics of radioactive decay (decay series excluded), carbon dating, Stability of nuclei with respect to proton-neutron ratio, Brief discussion on fission and fusion reactions. INORGANIC CHEMISTRY Isolation/Preparation and Properties of the following Non-metals Boron, silicon, nitrogen, phosphorus, oxygen, sulphur and halogens, Properties of allotropes of carbon (only diamond and graphite), phosphorus and sulphur. Preparation and Properties of the following Compounds Oxides, peroxides, hydroxides, carbonates, bicarbonates, chlorides and sulphates of sodium, potassium, magnesium and calcium, Boron, diborane, boric acid and borax, Aluminium, alumina, aluminium chloride and alums, Carbon, oxides and oxyacid (carbonic acid), Silicon, silicones, silicates and silicon carbide, Nitrogen, oxides, oxyacids and ammonia, Phosphorus, oxides, oxyacids (phosphorus acid, phosphoric acid) and phosphine, Oxygen, ozone and hydrogen peroxide, Sulphur, hydrogen sulphide, oxides, sulphurous acid, sulphuric acid and sodium thiosulphate, Halogens, hydrohalic acids, oxides and oxyacids of chlorine, bleaching powder, Xenon fluorides. Transition Elements (3d series) Definition, general characteristics, oxidation states and their stabilities, colour (excluding the details of electronic transitions) and calculation of spin-only magnetic moment; Coordination compounds: nomenclature of mononuclear coordination compounds, cis-trans and ionisation isomerisms, hybridization and geometries of mononuclear coordination compounds (linear, tetrahedral, square planar and octahedral). Preparation and Properties of the following Compounds Oxides and chlorides of tin and lead, Oxides, chlorides and sulphates of Fe2+, Cu2+ and Zn2+, Potassium permanganate, potassium dichromate, silver oxide, silver nitrate, silver thiosulphate. Ores and Minerals Commonly occurring ores and minerals of iron, copper, tin, lead, magnesium, aluminium, zinc and silver. Extractive Metallurgy Chemical principles and reactions only (industrial details excluded), Carbon reduction method (iron and tin), Self reduction method (copper and lead), Electrolytic reduction method (magnesium and aluminium), Cyanide process (silver and gold). Principles of Qualitative Analysis Groups I to V (only Ag+, Hg2+, Cu2+, Pb2+, Bi3+, Fe3+, Cr3+, Al3+, Ca2+, Ba2+, Zn2+, Mn2+ and Mg2+), Nitrate, halides (excluding fluoride), sulphate and sulphide. ORGANIC CHEMISTRY Concepts Hybridisation of carbon, Sigma and pi-bonds, Shapes of simple organic molecules, Structural and geometrical isomerism, Optical isomerism of compounds containing up to two asymmetric centres, (R,S and E,Z nomenclature excluded), IUPAC nomenclature of simple organic compounds (only hydrocarbons, mono-functional and bi-functional compounds), Conformations of ethane and butane (Newman projections), Resonance and hyperconjugation, Keto-enol tautomerism, Determination of empirical and molecular formulae of simple compounds (only combustion method), Hydrogen bonds, definition and their effects on physical properties of alcohols and carboxylic acids, Inductive and resonance effects on acidity and basicity of organic acids and bases, Polarity and inductive effects in alkyl halides, Reactive intermediates produced during homolytic and heterolytic bond cleavage, Formation, structure and stability of carbocations, carbanions and free radicals. Preparation, Properties and Reactions of Alkanes Homologous series, physical properties of alkanes (melting points, boiling points and density), Combustion and halogenation of alkanes, Preparation of alkanes by Wurtz reaction and decarboxylation reactions. Preparation, Properties and Reactions of Alkenes and Alkynes Physical properties of alkenes and alkynes (boiling points, density and dipole moments), Acidity of alkynes, Acid catalysed hydration of alkenes and alkynes (excluding the stereochemistry of addition and elimination), Reactions of alkenes with KMnO4 and ozone, Reduction of alkenes and alkynes, Preparation of alkenes and alkynes by elimination reactions, Electrophilic addition reactions of alkenes with X2, HX, HOX and H2O (X=halogen), Addition reactions of alkynes, Metal acetylides. Reactions of Benzene Structure and aromaticity, Electrophilic substitution reactions, halogenation, nitration, sulphonation, Friedel-Crafts alkylation and acylation Effect of o-, m- and p-directing groups in monosubstituted benzenes. Phenols Acidity, electrophilic substitution reactions (halogenation, nitration and sulphonation), ReimerTiemann reaction, Kolbe reaction. Characteristic Reactions of the following (including those mentioned above) Alkyl halides, rearrangement reactions of alkyl carbocation, Grignard reactions, nucleophilic substitution reactions, Alcohols, esterification, dehydration and oxidation, reaction with sodium, phosphorus halides, ZnCl2/concentrated HCl, conversion of alcohols into aldehydes and ketones, Ethers, Preparation by Williamson's Synthesis, Aldehydes and Ketones, oxidation, reduction, oxime and hydrazone formation, aldol condensation, Perkin reaction, Cannizzaro reaction, haloform reaction and nucleophilic addition reactions (Grignard addition), Carboxylic acids, formation of esters, acid chlorides and amides, ester hydrolysis. Amines, basicity of substituted anilines and aliphatic amines, preparation from nitro compounds, reaction with nitrous acid, azo coupling reaction of diazonium salts of aromatic amines, Sandmeyer and related reactions of diazonium salts, carbylamine reaction, Haloarenes, nucleophilic aromatic substitution in haloarenes and substituted haloarenes (excluding Benzyne mechanism and Cine substitution). Carbohydrates Classification, mono and disaccharides (glucose and sucrose), Oxidation, reduction, glycoside formation and hydrolysis of sucrose. Amino Acids and Peptides General structure (only primary structure for peptides) and physical properties. Properties and Uses of Some Important Polymers Natural rubber, cellulose, nylon, teflon and PVC. Practical Organic Chemistry Detection of elements (N, S, halogens), Detection and identification of the following functional groups, hydroxyl (alcoholic and phenolic), carbonyl (aldehyde and ketone), carboxyl, amino and nitro, Chemical methods of separation of mono-functional organic compounds from binary mixtures. 1 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 6. The percentage composition of carbon by mole in methane is Topic 1 Mole Concept (2019 Main, 8 April II) Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. 5 moles of AB2 weight 125 × 10−3 kg and 10 moles of A2 B2 weight 300 × 10−3 kg. The molar mass of A ( M A ) and molar mass of B ( M B ) in kg mol −1 are (2019 Main, 12 April I) (a) M A = 10 × 10−3 and M B = 5 × 10−3 (b) M A = 50 × 10−3 and M B = 25 × 10−3 (d) M A = 5 × 10 and M B = 10 × 10 reactant is for the reaction (Given atomic mass : Fe = 56, O = 16, Mg = 24, P = 31, C = 12, H = 1) (2019 Main, 10 April II) C3 H8 ( g ) + 5O2 ( g ) → 3CO2 ( g ) + 4H2 O( l ) P4 ( s ) + 5O2 ( g ) → P4 O10 ( s ) 4Fe( s ) + 3O2 ( g ) → 2Fe2 O3 ( s ) 2Mg ( s ) + O2 ( g ) → 2MgO( s ) 10 mL of a hydrocarbon required 55 mL of O2 for complete combustion and 40 mL of CO2 is formed. The formula of the hydrocarbon is (2019 Main, 10 April I) (a) C4H7Cl (b) C4H 6 (c) C4H10 (d) C4H 8 4. 10 mL of 1 mM surfactant solution forms a monolayer covering 0.24 cm 2 on a polar substrate. If the polar head is approximated as a cube, what is its edge length? (2019 Main, 9 April II) (b) 0.1 nm (c) 1.0 pm (d) 80% 7. 8 g of NaOH is dissolved in 18 g of H2 O. Mole fraction of NaOH in solution and molality (in mol kg− 1 ) of the solution respectively are (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) (a) 0.2, 11.11 (b) 0.167, 22.20 (c) 0.2, 22.20 (d) 0.167, 11.11 (d) 2.0 nm 5. For a reaction, N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) → 2NH 3 ( g ), identify dihydrogen (H 2 ) as a limiting reagent in the following reaction mixtures. (2019 Main, 9 April I) (a) 56 g of N 2 + 10 g of H 2 (b) 35 g of N 2 + 8 g of H 2 (c) 14 g of N 2 + 4 g of H 2 (d) 28 g of N 2 + 6 g of H 2 (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) (d) 5.6 9. The amount of sugar (C12 H22 O11 ) required to prepare 2 L of its 0.1 M aqueous solution is (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) (a) 17.1 g (b) 68.4 g (c) 136.8 g (d) 34.2 g 10. For the following reaction, the mass of water produced from 445 g of C57 H110 O6 is : 2C57 H110 O6 ( s ) + 163O2 ( g ) → 114CO2 ( g ) + 110 H2 O ( l ) (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) (a) 490 g 3. At 300 K and 1 atmospheric pressure, (a) 2.0 pm (c) 25% (Molar mass of H2 O2 = 34 g mol −1 ) (a) 16.8 (b) 22.4 (c) 11.35 −3 2. The minimum amount of O2 ( g ) consumed per gram of (a) (b) (c) (d) (b) 20% 8. The volume strength of 1 M H2 O2 is (c) M A = 25 × 10−3 and M B = 50 × 10−3 −3 (a) 75% (b) 495 g (c) 445 g (d) 890 g 11. A solution of sodium sulphate contains 92 g of Na + ions per kilogram of water. The molality of Na + ions in that solution in mol kg−1 is (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) (a) 16 (b) 4 (c) 132 (d) 8 12. The most abundant elements by mass in the body of a healthy human adult are oxygen (61.4%), carbon (22.9%), hydrogen (10.0 %), and nitrogen (2.6%). The weight which a 75 kg person would gain if all 1 Hatoms are replaced by 2 Hatoms is (2017 JEE Main) (a) 15 kg (c) 7.5 kg (b) 37.5 kg (d) 10 kg 13. 1 g of a carbonate (M 2 CO3 ) on treatment with excess HCl produces 0.01186 mole of CO2 . The molar mass of M 2 CO3 in g mol −1 is (2017 JEE Main) (a) 1186 (b) 84.3 (c) 118.6 (d) 11.86 2 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 14. At 300 K and 1 atm, 15 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon requires 375 mL air containing 20% O2 by volume for complete combustion. After combustion, the gases occupy 330 mL. Assuming that the water formed is in liquid form and the volumes were measured at the same temperature and pressure, the formula of the hydrocarbon is (2016 Main) (b) C4 H8 (c) C4 H10 (d) C3 H6 (a) C3 H8 15. The molecular formula of a commercial resin used for 24. The normality of 0.3 M phosphorus acid (H3PO3) is (1999, 2M) (a) 0.1 (b) 0.9 (c) 0.3 (d) 0.6 25. In which mode of expression, the concentration of a solution remains independent of temperature? (a) Molarity (b) Normality (c) Formality (1988, 1M) (d) Molality 26. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of solute in (1986, 1M) exchanging ions in water softening is C8 H7 SO3 Na (molecular weight = 206). What would be the maximum uptake of Ca 2+ ions by the resin when expressed in mole per gram resin? (2015 Main) 1 1 2 1 (b) (c) (d) (a) 103 206 309 412 (a) 1000 g of solvent (b) 1.0 L of solvent (c) 1.0 L of solution (d) 22.4 L of solution 27. If 0.50 mole of BaCl 2 is mixed with 0.20 mole of Na 3 PO4 , the maximum number of moles of Ba 3 (PO4 )2 that can be formed is (1981, 1M) (a) 0.70 (b) 0.50 (c) 0.20 (d) 0.10 16. 3 g of activated charcoal was added to 50 mL of acetic acid 28. 2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated yields a solution (0.06 N) in a flask. After an hour it was filtered and the strength of the filtrate was found to be 0.042 N. The amount of acetic acid adsorbed (per gram of charcoal) is (2015 Main) (a) 18 mg (b) 36 mg (c) 42 mg (d) 54 mg 17. The ratio mass of oxygen and nitrogen of a particular gaseous mixture is 1 : 4. The ratio of number of their molecule is (2014 Main) (a) 1 : 4 (b) 7 : 32 (c) 1 : 8 (d) 3 : 16 18. The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing 750 mL of 0.5 M HCl with 250 mL of 2 M HCl will be (2013 Main) (a) 0.875 M (b) 1.00 M (c) 1.75 M (d) 0.0975M 19. Dissolving 120 g of urea (mol. wt. 60) in 1000 g of water gave a solution of density 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of the solution is (2011) (a) 1.78 M (b) 2.00 M (c) 2.05 M (d) 2.22 M 20. Given that the abundances of isotopes 54 Fe, 56 Fe and 57 Fe are 5%, 90% and 5%, respectively, the atomic mass of Fe is residue weighing (a) 2.16 g (b) 2.48 g (1979, 1M) (c) 2.32 g (d) 2.64 g 29. When the same amount of zinc is treated separately with excess of sulphuric acid and excess of sodium hydroxide, the ratio of volumes of hydrogen evolved is (1979, 1M) (a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 9 : 4 30. The largest number of molecules is in (1979, 1M) (a) 36 g of water (b) 28 g of CO (c) 46 g of ethyl alcohol (d) 54 g of nitrogen pentaoxide (N2 O5 ) 31. The total number of electrons in one molecule of carbon dioxide is (1979, 1M) (a) 22 (b) 44 (c) 66 (d) 88 32. A gaseous mixture contains oxygen and nitrogen in the ratio of 1:4 by weight. Therefore, the ratio of their number of molecules is (1979, 1M) (a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 8 (c) 7 : 32 (d) 3 : 16 (2009) (a) 55.85 (c) 55.75 (b) 55.95 (d) 56.05 Numerical Answer Type Questions 21. Mixture X = 0.02 mole of [Co(NH3 )5 SO4 ]Br and 0.02 mole of [Co(NH3 )5 Br]SO4 was prepared in 2 L solution. 1 L of mixture X + excess of AgNO3 solution → Y 1 L of mixture X + excess of BaCl 2 solution → Z Number of moles of Y and Z are (a) 0.01, 0.01 (b) 0.02, 0.01 (c) 0.01, 0.02 (d) 0.02, 0.02 22. Which has maximum number of atoms? (a) 24 g of C (12) (c) 27 g of Al (27) (2003, 1M) (2003, 1M) (b) 56 g of Fe (56) (d) 108 g of Ag (108) 23. How many moles of electron weighs 1 kg? 23 (a) 6.023 × 10 (c) 6.023 × 1054 9.108 1 (2002, 3M) (b) × 1031 9.108 1 (d) × 108 9.108 × 6.023 33. A 100 mL solution was made by adding 1.43 g of Na 2CO3 ⋅ xH 2O. The normality of the solution is 0.1 N. The value of x is ……… . (The atomic mass of Na is 23 g/mol) (2020 Main, 4 Sep II) 34. Galena (an ore) is partially oxidised by passing air through it at high temperature. After some time, the passage of air is stopped, but the heating is continued in a closed furnace such that the content undergo self-reduction. The weight (in kg) of Pb produced per kg of O 2 consumed is ……… . (Atomic weights in g mol −1 : O = 16, S = 32, Pb = 207) (2018 Adv.) 35. To measure the quantity of MnCl 2 dissolved in an aqueous solution, it was completely converted to KMnO4 using the reaction, MnCl 2 + K 2 S2 O8 + H2 O → KMnO4 + H2 SO4 + HCl (equation not balanced). Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 3 Few drops of concentrated HCl were added to this solution and gently warmed. Further, oxalic acid (225 mg) was added in portions till the colour of the permanganate ion disappeared. The quantity of MnCl 2 (in mg) present in the initial solution is ……… . (Atomic weights in g mol −1 : Mn = 55, Cl = 35.5) (2018 Adv.) 36. In the following reaction sequence, the amount of D (in gram) formed from 10 moles of acetophenone is ……. (Atomic weights in g mol −1 : H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Br = 80. The yield (%) corresponding to the product in each step is given in the parenthesis) O NaOBr H3O+ A NH3, ∆ (60%) B (2005, 3M) 45. In a solution of 100 mL 0.5 M acetic acid, one gram of active charcoal is added, which adsorbs acetic acid. It is found that the concentration of acetic acid becomes 0.49 M. If surface area of charcoal is 3.01 × 102 m2 , calculate the area occupied by single acetic acid molecule on surface of charcoal. (2003) 46. Find the molarity of water. Given: ρ = 1000 kg/m3 (2003) 47. A plant virus is found to consist of uniform cylindrical particles of 150 Å in diameter and 5000 Å long. The specific volume of the virus is 0.75 cm 3 /g. If the virus is considered to be a single particle, find its molar mass. (1999, 3M) obtain 1 dm 3 of solution of density 1077.2 kg m −3 . Calculate the molality, molarity and mole fraction of Na 2 SO4 in solution. C (50%) Br2(3 equivalent ) AcOH number of surface sites occupied per molecule of N2 . 48. 8.0575 × 10−2 kg of Glauber’s salt is dissolved in water to Br2/KOH (50%) K in a container of volume is 2.46 cm 3 . Density of surface sites is 6.023 × 1014 /cm 2 and surface area is 1000 cm 2 , find out the (1994, 3M) D (100%) (2018 Adv.) Fill in the Blanks 37. The weight of 1 × 1022 molecules of CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2 O is …………. . (1991, 1M) 49. A is a binary compound of a univalent metal. 1.422 g of A reacts completely with 0.321 g of sulphur in an evacuated and sealed tube to give 1.743 g of a white crystalline solid B, that forms a hydrated double salt, C with Al 2 (SO4 )3 . Identify A, B and C. (1994, 2M) 50. Upon mixing 45.0 mL 0.25 M lead nitrate solution with (1980, 1M) 25.0 mL of a 0.10 M chromic sulphate solution, precipitation of lead sulphate takes place. How many moles of lead sulphate are formed? Also calculate the molar concentrations of species left behind in the final solution. Assume that lead sulphate is completely insoluble. (1993, 3M) 40. The modern atomic mass unit is based on the mass of 51. Calculate the molality of 1.0 L solution of 93% H2 SO4 , 38. 3.0 g of a salt of molecular weight 30 is dissolved in 250 g water. The molarity of the solution is ………. (1983, 1M) 39. The total number of electrons present in 18 mL of water is …………. . …………. . (1980, 1M) (weight/volume). The density of the solution is 1.84 g/mL. (1990, 1M) Integer Answer Type Questions 52. A solid mixture (5.0 g) consisting of lead nitrate and sodium 41. The mole fraction of a solute in a solution is 0.1. At 298 K, molarity of this solution is the same as its molality. Density of this solution at 298 K is 2.0 g cm−3 . The ratio of the m molecular weights of the solute and solvent, solute is ... msolvent . (2016 Adv.) 42. A compound H2 X with molar weight of 80 g is dissolved in a solvent having density of 0.4 g mL−1 . Assuming no change in volume upon dissolution, the molality of a 3.2 molar solution is (2014 Adv.) 43. 29.2% (w/W ) HCl stock solution has density of 1.25g mL −1 . The molecular weight of HCl is 36.5 g mol − 1 . The volume (mL) of stock solution required to prepare a 200 mL solution 0.4 M HCl is (2012) Subjective Questions nitrate was heated below 600°C until the weight of the residue was constant. If the loss in weight is 28.0 per cent, find the amount of lead nitrate and sodium nitrate in the mixture. (1990, 4M) 53. n-butane is produced by monobromination of ethane followed by Wurtz’s reaction.Calculate volume of ethane at NTP required to produce 55 g n-butane, if the bromination takes place with 90% yield and the Wurtz’s reaction with 85% yield. (1989, 3M) 54. A sugar syrup of weight 214.2 g contains 34.2 g of sugar (C12 H22 O11 ). Calculate (i) molal concentration and (ii) mole fraction of sugar in syrup. (1988, 2M) 55. An unknown compound of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen contains 69.77% C and 11.63% H and has a molecular weight of 86. It does not reduces Fehling’s solution but forms a bisulphate addition compound and gives a positive iodoform test. What is the possible structure(s) of unknown compound? (1987, 3M) 44. 20% surface sites have adsorbed N2 . On heating N2 gas 56. The density of a 3 M sodium thiosulphate solution ( Na 2 S2 O3 ) evolved from sites and were collected at 0.001 atm and 298 is 1.25 g per mL. Calculate (i) the percentage by weight of 4 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry sodium thiosulphate (ii) the mole fraction of sodium thiosulphate and (iii) the molalities of Na + and S2 O2− 3 ions. oxygen. All volumes have been reduced to NTP. Calculate the molecular formula of the hydrocarbon gas. (1979, 3M) (1983, 5M) 59. In the analysis of 0.5 g sample of feldspar, a mixture of 57. (a) 1.0 L of a mixture of CO and CO2 is taken. This mixture chlorides of sodium and potassium is obtained, which weighs 0.1180 g. Subsequent treatment of the mixed chlorides with silver nitrate gives 0.2451 g of silver chloride. What is the percentage of sodium oxide and potassium oxide in the sample? (1979, 5M) is passed through a tube containing red hot charcoal. The volume now becomes 1.6 L. The volumes are measured under the same conditions. Find the composition of mixture by volume. (b) A compound contains 28 per cent of nitrogen and 72 per cent of a metal by weight. 3 atoms of metal combine with 2 atoms of nitrogen. Find the atomic weight of metal. (1980, 5M) 58. 5.00 mL of a gas containing only carbon and hydrogen were mixed with an excess of oxygen (30 mL) and the mixture exploded by means of electric spark. After explosion, the volume of the mixed gases remaining was 25 mL. On adding a concentrated solution of KOH, the volume further diminished to 15 mL, the residual gas being pure 60. The vapour density (hydrogen = 1) of a mixture consisting of NO2 and N2 O4 is 38.3 at 26.7°C. Calculate the number of moles of NO2 in 100 g of the mixture. (1979, 5M) 61. Accounts for the following. Limit your answer to two sentences, “Atomic weights of most of the elements are fractional”. (1979, 1M) 62. Naturally occurring boron consists of two isotopes whose atomic weights are 10.01 and 11.01. The atomic weight of natural boron is 10.81. Calculate the percentage of each isotope in natural boron. (1978, 2M) Topic 2 Equivalent Concept, Neutralisation and Redox Titration Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. An example of a disproportionation reaction is (2019 Main, 12 April I) (a) 2MnO−4 − + + 10I + 16H → 2Mn2 + +5I2 + 8H 2O (b) 2NaBr + Cl2 → 2NaCl + Br2 (c) 2KMnO4 → K 2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2 (d) 2CuBr → CuBr2 + Cu 2. In an acid-base titration, 0.1 M HCl solution was added to the NaOH solution of unknown strength. Which of the following correctly shows the change of pH of the titration mixture in this experiment? (2019 Main, 9 April II) pH surface of water in a round watch glass. Hexane evaporates and a monolayer is formed. The distance from edge to centre of the watch glass is 10 cm. What is the height of the monolayer? [Density of fatty acid = 0.9 g cm −3 ; π = 3] (2019 Main, 8 April II) (a) 10−6 m (c) 10−8 m (b) 10−4 m (d) 10−2 m 4. In order to oxidise a mixture of one mole of each of FeC2 O4 , Fe2 (C2 O4 )3 , FeSO4 and Fe2 (SO4 )3 in acidic medium, the number of moles of KMnO4 required is (2019 Main, 8 April I) (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 1.5 5. 100 mL of a water sample contains 0.81 g of calcium bicarbonate and 0.73 g of magnesium bicarbonate. The hardness of this water sample expressed in terms of equivalents of CaCO3 is (molar mass of calcium bicarbonate is 162 g mol−1 and magnesium bicarbonate is 146 g mol−1 ) pH V(mL) V(mL) (A) (B) (2019 Main, 8 April I) (a) 5,000 ppm (c) 100 ppm (b) 1,000 ppm (d) 10,000 ppm 6. 50 mL of 0.5 M oxalic acid is needed to neutralise 25 mL of pH sodium hydroxide solution. The amount of NaOH in 50 mL of the given sodium hydroxide solution is pH (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) (a) (D) (c) (B) V(mL) V(mL) (C) (D) (a) 40 g (2019 Main, 9 April II) (b) (A) (d) (C) 3. 0.27 g of a long chain fatty acid was dissolved in 100 cm 3 of hexane. 10 mL of this solution was added dropwise to the (b) 80 g (c) 20 g (d) 10 g 7. 25 mL of the given HCl solution requires 30 mL of 0.1 M sodium carbonate solution. What is the volume of this HCl solution required to titrate 30 mL of 0.2 M aqueous NaOH solution? (2019 Main, 11 Jan II) (a) 75 mL (b) 25 mL (c) 12.5 mL (d) 50 mL Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 5 8. In the reaction of oxalate with permanganate in acidic medium, the number of electrons involved in producing one (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) molecule of CO2 is (a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 1 (d) 10 9. The ratio of mass per cent of C and H of an organic compound (Cx H y O z ) is 6 : 1. If one molecule of the above compound (Cx H y O z ) contains half as much oxygen as required to burn one molecule of compound Cx H y completely to CO2 and H2 O. The empirical formula of compound Cx H y O z is (2018 Main) (c) C3 H4 O2 (d) C2 H4 O3 (a) C3 H6 O3 (b) C2 H4 O 10. An alkali is titrated against an acid with methyl orange as indicator, which of the following is a correct combination? (2018 Main) Base Acid End point (a) Weak Strong Colourless to pink (b) Strong Strong Pinkish red to yellow (c) Weak Strong Yellow to pinkish red (d) Strong Strong Pink to colourless 17. The oxidation number of sulphur in S 8 , S 2 F 2 , H 2 S respectively, are (a) 0, +1 and –2 (c) 0, +1 and +2 18. The number of moles of KMnO 4 that will be needed to react completely with one mole of ferrous oxalate in acidic medium is (1997) 2 3 4 (b) (c) (d) 1 (a) 5 5 5 19. The number of moles of KMnO 4 that will be needed to react with one mole of sulphite ion in acidic solution is (1997) 2 (a) 5 incorrect statement. (2015 Main) (a) It can act only as an oxidising agent (b) It decomposed on exposure to light (c) It has to be stored in plastic or wax lined glass bottles in dark (d) It has to be kept away from dust 12. Consider a titration of potassium dichromate solution with acidified Mohr’s salt solution using diphenylamine as indicator. The number of moles of Mohr's salt required per mole of dichromate is (2007, 3M) (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 13. In the standardisation of Na 2 S2 O3 using K 2 Cr2 O7 by iodometry, the equivalent weight of K 2 Cr2 O7 is (2001, 1M) (a) (molecular weight)/2 (b) (molecular weight)/6 (c) (molecular weight)/3 (d) same as molecular weight 14. The reaction, 3ClO − (aq) → ClO3– (aq) + 2Cl − (aq) is an (2001) 15. An aqueous solution of 6.3 g oxalic acid dihydrate is made up to 250 mL. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH required to completely neutralise 10 mL of this solution is (2001, 1M) (a) 40 mL (b) 20 mL (c) 10 mL (d) 4 mL 16. Among the following, the species in which the oxidation number of an element is + 6 (a) MnO−4 (b) Cr(CN)3− 6 (c) NiF62− (d) CrO2 Cl 2 3 (b) 5 4 (c) 5 (d) 1 20. For the redox reaction MnO4− + C2 O24 − + H+ → Mn 2+ + CO2 + H2 O The correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced reaction are 11. From the following statements regarding H2 O2 choose the example of (a) oxidation reaction (b) reduction reaction (c) disproportionation reaction (d) decomposition reaction (1999) (b) +2, +1 and –2 (d) –2, +1 and –2 (2000) (a) (b) (c) (d) MnO−4 2 16 5 2 C2 O42 − 5 5 16 16 H+ 16 2 2 5 21. The volume strength of 1.5 N H2 O2 is (a) 4.8 (b) 8.4 (c) 3.0 (1992) (1990, 1M) (d) 8.0 22. The oxidation number of phosphorus in Ba(H2 PO2 )2 is (a) +3 (c) +1 (b) +2 (d) –1 (1988) 23. The equivalent weight of MnSO 4 is half of its molecular weight, when it converts to (a) Mn 2 O3 (b) MnO2 (c) MnO−4 (1988, 1M) (d) MnO2− 4 Objective Question II (More than one correct option) 24. For the reaction, I− + ClO3− + H2 SO4 → Cl − + HSO4− + I2 the correct statement(s) in the balanced equation is/are (a) stoichiometric coefficient of HSO−4 is 6 (2014 Adv.) (b) iodide is oxidised (c) sulphur is reduced (d) H2 O is one of the products Numerical Answer Type Questions 25. 5.00 mL of 0.10 M oxalic acid solution taken in a conical flask is titrated against NaOH from a burette using phenolphthalein indicator. The volume of NaOH required for the appearance of permanent faint pink color is tabulated below for five experiments. What is the concentration, in molarity, of the NaOH solution? 6 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Exp. No. 1 2 3 4 5 Integer Answer Type Questions Vol. of NaOH (mL) 12.5 10.5 9.0 9.0 9.0 31. The difference in the oxidation numbers of the two types of sulphur atoms in Na 2 S4 O6 is 32. Among the following, the number of elements showing only one non-zero oxidation state is O, Cl, F, N, P, Sn, Tl, Na, Ti (2010) (2020 Adv.) 26. Aluminium reacts with sulphuric acid to form aluminium sulphate and hydrogen. What is the volume of hydrogen gas in litre (L) produced at 300 K and 1.0 atm pressure, when 5.4 g of aluminium and 50.0 mL of 5.0 M sulphuric acid are combined for the reaction? (Use molar mass of aluminium as 27.0 g mol −1 , R = 0.082 atm L mol −1 K −1 ) (2020 Adv.) 27. A 20.0 mL solution containing 0.2 g impure H 2O2 reacts completely with 0.316 g of KMnO4 in acid solution. The purity of H 2O2 (in%) is ............. (molecular weight of H 2O2 = 34; molecular weight of KMnO4 = 158 ). (2020 Main, 4 Sep I) 28. The ammonia prepared by treating ammonium sulphate with calcium hydroxide is completely used by NiCl 2 ⋅ 6H2 O to form a stable coordination compound. Assume that both the reactions are 100% complete. If 1584 g of ammonium sulphate and 952 g of NiCl 2 ⋅ 6H2 O are used in the preparation, the combined weight (in grams) of gypsum and the nickel-ammonia coordination compound thus produced is____ (Atomic weights in g mol −1 : H = 1, N = 14, O = 16, S = 32, (2018 Adv.) Cl = 35.5, Ca = 40, Ni = 59) Assertion and Reason Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below : (a) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true; Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true. 29. Statement I In the titration of Na 2 CO3 with HCl using methyl orange indicator, the volume required at the equivalence point is twice that of the acid required using phenolphthalein indicator. Statement II Two moles of HCl are required for the complete neutralisation of one mole of Na 2 CO3 . (1991, 2M) Fill in the Blanks 30. The (2011) compound YBa 2 Cu 3 O7 , which shows super conductivity, has copper in oxidation state ………. Assume that the rare earth element yttrium is in its usual + 3 oxidation state. (1994, 1M) 33. A student performs a titration with different burettes and finds titrate values of 25.2 mL, 25.25 mL, and 25.0 mL. The number of significant figures in the average titrate value is (2010) Subjective Questions 34. Calculate the amount of calcium oxide required when it reacts with 852 g of P4 O10 . (2005, 2M) 35. Hydrogen peroxide solution (20 mL) reacts quantitatively with a solution of KMnO4 (20 mL) acidified with dilute H2 SO4 . The same volume of the KMnO4 solution is just decolourised by 10 mL of MnSO4 in neutral medium simultaneously forming a dark brown precipitate of hydrated MnO2 . The brown precipitate is dissolved in 10 mL of 0.2 M sodium oxalate under boiling condition in the presence of dilute H2 SO4 . Write the balanced equations involved in the reactions and calculate the molarity of H2 O2 . (2001) 36. How many millilitres of 0.5 M H2 SO4 are needed to dissolve 0.5 g of copper (II) carbonate? (1999, 3M) 37. An aqueous solution containing 0.10 g KIO3 (formula weight = 214.0) was treated with an excess of KI solution. The solution was acidified with HCl. The liberated I2 consumed 45.0 mL of thiosulphate solution decolourise the blue starch-iodine complex. Calculate the molarity of the sodium thiosulphate solution. (1998, 5M) 38. To a 25 mL H2 O2 solution, excess of acidified solution of potassium iodide was added. The iodine liberated required 20 mL of 0.3 N sodium thiosulphate solution. Calculate the volume strength of H2 O2 solution. (1997, 5M) 39. A 3.00 g sample containing Fe3 O4 , Fe2 O3 and an inert impure substance, is treated with excess of KI solution in presence of dilute H2 SO4 . The entire iron is converted into Fe2+ along with the liberation of iodine. The resulting solution is diluted to 100 mL . A 20 mL of the diluted solution requires 11.0 mL of 0.5 M Na 2 S2 O3 solution to reduce the iodine present. A 50 mL of the dilute solution, after complete extraction of the iodine required 12.80 mL of 0.25 M KMnO4 solution in dilute H2 SO4 medium for the oxidation of Fe2+ . Calculate the percentage of Fe2 O3 and (1996, 5M) Fe3 O4 in the original sample. 40. A 20.0 cm 3 mixture of CO, CH4 and He gases is exploded by an electric discharge at room temperature with excess of oxygen. The volume contraction is found to be 13.0 cm 3 . A further contraction of 14.0 cm 3 occurs when the residual gas is treated with KOH solution. Find out the composition of the gaseous mixture in terms of volume percentage. (1995, 4M) Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 7 41. A 5.0 cm 3 solution of H2 O2 liberates 0.508 g of iodine from an acidified KI solution. Calculate the strength of H2 O2 solution in terms of volume strength at STP. (1995, 3M) Calculate the amount of H2 C2 O4 and NaHC2 O4 in the mixture. (1990, 5M) 47. An organic compound X on analysis gives 24.24 per cent carbon and 4.04 per cent hydrogen. Further, sodium extract of 1.0 g of X gives 2.90 g of silver chloride with acidified silver nitrate solution. The compound X may be represented by two isomeric structures Y and Z. Y on treatment with aqueous potassium hydroxide solution gives a dihydroxy compound while Z on similar treatment gives ethanal. Find out the molecular formula of X and gives the structure of Y and Z. (1989, 5M) 42. One gram of commercial AgNO3 is dissolved in 50 mL of water. It is treated with 50 mL of a KI solution. The silver iodide thus precipitated is filtered off. Excess of KI in the filtrate is titrated with (M/10) KIO 3 solution in presence of 6 M HCl till all I− ions are converted into ICl. It requires 50 mL of (M/10) KIO 3 solution, 20 mL of the same stock solution of KI requires 30 mL of (M/10) KIO3 under similar conditions. Calculate the percentage of AgNO3 in the sample. Reaction KIO3 + 2KI + 6HCl → 3ICl + 3KCl + 3H2 O (1992, 4M) 43. A 2.0 g sample of a mixture containing sodium carbonate, sodium bicarbonate and sodium sulphate is gently heated till the evolution of CO2 ceases. The volume of CO2 at 750 mm Hg pressure and at 298 K is measured to be 123.9 mL. A 1.5 g of the same sample requires 150 mL of (M/10) HCl for complete neutralisation. Calculate the percentage composition of the components of the mixture. (1992, 5M) 44. A 1.0 g sample of Fe2 O3 solid of 55.2% purity is dissolved in acid and reduced by heating the solution with zinc dust. The resultant solution is cooled and made up to 100.0 mL. An aliquot of 25.0 mL of this solution requires for titration. Calculate the number of electrons taken up by the oxidant in the reaction of the above titration. (1991, 4M) 48. An equal volume of a reducing agent is titrated separately with 1 M KMnO4 in acid, neutral and alkaline medium. The volumes of KMnO4 required are 20 mL in acid, 33.3 mL in neutral and 100 mL in alkaline media. Find out the oxidation state of manganese in each reduction product. Give the balanced equations for all the three half reaction. Find out the volume of 1M K 2 Cr2 O7 consumed, if the same volume of the reducing agent is titrated in acid medium. (1989, 5M) 49. A sample of hydrazine sulphate ( N2 H 6 SO4 ) was dissolved in 100 mL of water, 10 mL of this solution was reacted with excess of ferric chloride solution and warmed to complete the reaction. Ferrous ion formed was estimated and it, required 20 mL of M/50 potassium permanganate solution. Estimate the amount of hydrazine sulphate in one litre of the solution. Reaction 4Fe3+ + N2 H4 → N2 + 4Fe2+ + 4H+ MnO−4 + 5Fe2+ + 8H+ → Mn 2+ + 5Fe3+ + 4H2 O 45. A solution of 0.2 g of a compound containing Cu 2+ and C2 O2− 4 ions on titration with 0.02 M KMnO4 in presence of H2 SO4 consumes 22.6 mL of the oxidant. The resultant solution is neutralised with Na 2 CO3 , acidified with dilute acetic acid and treated with excess KI. The liberated iodine requires 11.3 mL of 0.05 M Na 2 S2 O3 solution for complete reduction. Find out the mole ratio of Cu 2+ to C2 O2− 4 in the compound. Write down the balanced redox reactions involved in the above titrations. (1991, 5M) (1988, 3M) 50. 5 mL of 8 N nitric acid, 4.8 mL of 5 N hydrochloric acid and a certain volume of 17 M sulphuric acid are mixed together and made up to 2 L. 30 mL of this acid mixture exactly neutralise 42.9 mL of sodium carbonate solution containing one gram of Na 2 CO3 ⋅ 10H2 O in 100 mL of water. Calculate the amount in gram of the sulphate ions in solution. (1985, 4M) 51. 2.68 × 10−3 moles of a solution containing an ion A n+ require 1.61 × 10−3 moles of MnO−4 for the oxidation of A n+ to A O−3 in acidic medium. What is the value of n ? (1984, 2M) 46. A mixture of H2 C2 O4 (oxalic acid) and NaHC2 O4 weighing 2.02 g was dissolved in water and the solution made up to one litre. Ten millilitres of the solution required 3.0 mL of 0.1 N sodium hydroxide solution for complete neutralisation. In another experiment, 10.0 mL of the same solution, in hot dilute sulphuric acid medium, required 4.0 mL of 0.1 N potassium permanganate solution for complete reaction. 52. 4.08 g of a mixture of BaO and unknown carbonate MCO3 was heated strongly. The residue weighed 3.64 g. This was dissolved in 100 mL of 1 N HCl. The excess acid required 16 mL of 2.5 N NaOH solution for complete neutralisation. Identify the metal M. (1983, 4M) Answers Topic 1 1. (d) 5. (d) 9. (b) 2. (c) 6. (b) 10. (b) 3. (b) 7. (d) 11. (b) 4. (a) 8. (c) 12. (c) 13. 17. 21. 25. 29. (b) (b) (a) (d) (a) 14. 18. 22. 26. 30. (*) (a) (a) (a) (a) 15. 19. 23. 27. 31. (d) (c) (d) (d) (a) 16. 20. 24. 28. 32. (d) (b) (d) (a) (c) 8 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 33. (10.00) 34. (6.47kg) 35. 37. (4.14 g) 38. (0.4) 39. isotope 41. (9) 42. (8) 43. 45. (5 × 10 −19 m 2 ) 46. (55.56 mol L −1) 47. (70.91 × 10 6g) 48. (4.3 × 10 −3) 51. (10.42) 52. (1.7 g) 53. 56. (i) (37.92), (ii) (0.065), (iii) (7.73m) 59. (i) (0.0179 g), (ii) (10.6 %) 60. (126 mg) 36. (495 g) (6.023×10 24 ) 40. C-12 (8 mL) 44. (2) (55.55 L) 54. (9.9 × 10 −3) 57. (a) (0.6), (b) (24) (0.437) 62. (20 %) Topic 2 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. 28. 32. 37. 45. 51. (d) (d) (b) (a) (b) (0.11) (2992) (2) (0.062 M) (1:2) (2) 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26. 29. 33. 38. 48. 52. (*) (c) (c) (b) (c) (6.15) (b) (3) (1.334 V) (16.67 mL) (Ca) 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27. 30. 34. 42. 49. (b) (a) (a) (a) (b) (85) 7/3 (1008 g) (85%) (6.5gL −1) 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. (c) (d) (d) (a) (a,b,d) 31. 36. 44. 50. (5) (8.096 mL) (1.04) (6.5376 g) Hints & Solutions Topic 1 Mole Concept 1. Key Idea To find the mass of A and B in the given question, mole concept is used. given mass (w) Number of moles( n) = molecular mass (M ) (c) 4Fe(s) + 3O2(g ) → 2Fe2O3 (s) 244g 96g 96 g of O2 consumed = 0.43 g ⇒ 1 g of reactant = 224 (d) 2Mg(s) + O2(g ) → 2MgO(s) 48 g 32 g 32 g of O2 consumed = 0.67 g 48 So, minimum amount of O2 is consumed per gram of reactant (Fe) in reaction (c). ⇒ 1 g of reactant = Compound Mass of A (g) Mass of B (g) AB2 MA 2 MB A 2B 2 2 MA 2 MB 3. In eudiometry, 300 K y y CxH y + x + O2 → x CO2 + H2O 1 atm 4 2 We know that, Number of moles (n) = given mass (w) molecular mass (M ) n×M = w Using equation (A), it can be concluded that 1 mol …(A) 5(M A + 2M B ) = 125 × 10−3 kg …(i) 10(2M A + 2M B ) = 300 × 10−3 kg …(ii) From equation (i) and (ii) 1 (M A + 2M B ) 125 = 2 (2M A + 2M B ) 300 On solving the equation, we obtain M A = 5 × 10−3 M B = 10 × 10−3 and So, the molar mass of A (M A ) is 5 × 10−3 kg mol −1 and B (M B ) is 10 × 10−3 kg mol −1. 2. (a) C3H8 (g ) + 5O2 (g ) → 3CO2 (g ) + 4H2O(l ) 44g 160g ⇒ 1g of reactant = 160 g of O2 consumed = 3.64 g 44 (b) P4 (s) + 5O2(g ) → P4O10 (s) 124g 160g ⇒1 g of reactant = 160 g of O2 consumed = 129 . g 124 1 mL 10 mL y x + mol 4 y x + mL 4 y x + × 10 mL 4 x mol x mL 10x mL Given, (i) VCO2 = 10x = 40 mL ⇒ x = 4 y (ii) VO2 = 10 x + mL = 55 mL 4 y 10 4 + = 55 4 y × 10 ⇒ 40 + = 55 4 10 4 ⇒ y× = 15 ⇒ y = 15 × =6 4 10 So, the hydrocarbon (CxH y ) is C4H6. ⇒ [Qx = 4] 4. Given, volume = 10 mL Molarity = 1mM = 10−3 M ∴Number of millimoles = 10 mL × 10−3 M = 10−2 Number of moles = 10−5 Now, number of molecules = Number of moles × Avogadro’s number = 10−5 × 6 × 1023 = 6 × 1018 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 9 Surface area occupied by 6 × 1018 molecules = 0.24 cm2 ∴Surface area occupied by 1 molecule 0.24 = = 0.04 × 10−18 cm2 6 × 1018 As it is given that polar head is approximated as cube. Thus, surface area of cube = a2, where a =edge length 2 ∴ a = 4 × 10−20 cm2 a = 2 × 10−10 cm = 2 pm 5. Key Idea The reactant which is present in the lesser amount, i.e. which limits the amount of product formed is called limiting reagent. When 56 g of N2 + 10 g of H2 is taken as a combination then dihydrogen (H2 ) act as a limiting reagent in the reaction. …(I) N2 (g ) + 3H2 (g ) → 2NH3 (g ) 2 × 14 g 28g 3 × 2g 6g 2(14 + 3) g 34g 28g N2 requires 6g H2 gas. 6g × 56 g = 12g of H2 56g of N2 requires 28 g 12g of H2 gas is required for 56g of N2 gas but only 10 g of H2 gas is present in option (a). Hence, H2 gas is the limiting reagent. In option (b), i.e. 35g of N2 + 8 g of H2. As 28 g N2 requires 6g of H2. 6g × 35 g H2 ⇒ 7.5 g of H2. 35g N2 requires 28 g Here, H2 gas does not act as limiting reagent since 7.5 g of H2 gas is required for 35g of N2 and 8g of H2 is present in reaction mixture. Mass of H2 left unreacted = 8 − 7.5 g of H2. = 0.5 gof H2. Similarly, in option (c) and (d), H2 does not act as limiting reagent. For 14 g of N2 + 4 g of H2. As we know 28g of N2 reacts with 6g of H2. 6 14 g of N2 reacts with × 14 g of H2 ⇒ 3g of H2. 28 For 28g of N2 + 6 g of H2, i.e. 28g of N2 reacts with 6g of H2 (by equation I). 6. Key Idea The percentage composition of a compound is given by the formula. % composition = [Composition of a substance in a compound / Total composition total of compound] ×100 In CH4 , mole of carbon = 1 mole of hydrogen = 4 ∴ % of carbon by mole in CH4 = 1 × 100 = 20% 1+ 4 7. Mole fraction of solute = number of moles of solute + number of moles solvent number of moles of solute χ Solute Given, w Solute n Solute Mw Solute = = w Solute w n Solute + nSolvent + Solvent Mw Solute MwSolvent wSolute = wNaOH = 8 g Mw Solute = MwNaOH = 40g mol − 1 w Solvent = w H2 O = 18g Mw Solvent = 18 g mol− 1 0.2 0.2 8 / 40 = = = 0167 . ∴ χ Solute = χ NaOH = 8 18 0.2 + 1 12 . + 40 18 Moles of solute Now, molality (m) = Mass of solvent (in kg) w Solute 8 Mw Solute 40 = × 1000 = × 1000 wSolvent (in g ) 18 0.2 = × 1000 = 11.11mol kg − 1 18 Thus, mole fraction of NaOH in solution and molality of the solution respectively are 0.167 and 11.11 mol kg − 1 . 8. Concentration of H2O2 is expressed in terms of volume strength, i.e. “volume of O2 liberated by H2O2 at NTP”. Molarity is connected to volume strength as: x or x = Molarity × 11.2 Molarity (M) = 112 . where, x = volume strength So, for 1 M H2O2, x = 1 × 112 . = 112 . Among the given options, 11.35 is nearest to 11.2. Number of moles of solute (n) 9. Molarity = Volume of solution (in L) wB (g) Also, n = M B (gmol−1 ) w / MB Molarity = B ∴ V Given, wB = mass of solute ( B ) in g M B = Gram molar mass of B (C12H22O11 ) = 342 g mol −1 Molarity = 01 . M Volume (V ) = 2 L w / 342 01 . = B ⇒ wB = 01 . × 342 × 2 g = 68.4 g ⇒ 2 10. 2 C57 H110O6 (s) + 163 O2 (g ) → 110H2O(l ) + 114 CO2 (g ) Molecular mass of C57H110O6 = 2 × (12 × 57 + 1 × 110 + 16 × 6) g = 1780 g Molecular mass of 110 H2O = 110 (2 + 16) = 1980 g 1780 g of C57H110O6 produced = 1980 g of H2O. 1980 445g of C57H110O6 produced = × 445 g of H2O 1780 = 495 of H2O Number of moles of solute 11. Molality (m) = × 1000 Mass of solvent (in g) 10 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Mass of solute (in g) × 1000 Molecular weight of solute × mass of solvent (in g) wNa + × 1000 92 × 1000 = = = 4 mol kg − 1 M Na + × wH 2 O 23 × 1000 = 16. Given, initial strength of acetic acid = 0.06 N Final strength = 0.042 N; ∴Initial millimoles of CH3COOH = 0.06 × 50 = 3 Final millimoles of CH3COOH = 0.042 × 50 = 2.1 ∴ Millimoles of CH3COOH adsorbed = 3 − 2.1= 0.9 mmol 12. Given, abundance of elements by mass oxygen = 614 . %, carbon = 22.9%, hydrogen = 10% and nitrogen = 2.6% Total weight of person = 75 kg 75 × 10 Mass due to 1 H = = 7.5 kg 100 1 2 H atoms are replaced by H atoms, Mass due to 2 H = (7.5 × 2) kg ∴ Mass gain by person = 7.5 kg 13. M 2CO3 + 2HCl → 2M Cl + H2O + CO2 1g 0.01186 mole Number of moles of M 2CO3 reacted = Number of moles of CO2 evolved 1 [M = molar mass of M 2CO3] = 0.01186 M 1 M = = 84.3 g mol − 1 0.01186 y y 14. CxH y (g ) + x + O2 (g ) → xCO2 (g ) + H2O(l ) 4 75 mL 30 mL 2 = 20% of 375 = 75 mL O 2 used Inert part of air = 80% of 375 = 300 mL Total volume of gases = CO2 + Inert part of air = 30 + 300 = 330 mL x 30 = ⇒x=2 1 15 y x+ 4 = 75 ⇒ x + y = 5 1 15 4 ⇒ x = 2, y = 12 ⇒ C2 H12 = 0.9 × 60 mg = 54 mg (mO 2 ) 17. nO 2 nN 2 = (M O 2 ) (mN 2 ) (M N 2 ) where, mO 2 = given mass of O2 , mN 2 = given mass of N2 , M O 2 = molecular mass of O2 , M N 2 = molecular mass of N2 , nO 2 = number of moles of O2 , nN 2 = number of moles of N2 mO 28 1 28 7 = 2 = × = mN 2 32 4 32 32 18. From the formula, M f = M 1V1 + M 2V2 V1 + V2 Given, V1 = 750 mL, M 1 = 0.5 M V2 = 250 mL, M 2 = 2 M 750 × 0.5 + 250 × 2 875 = = = 0.875 M 750 + 250 1000 19. Molarity = Moles of solute Volume of solution (L) 120 =2 60 Weight of solution = Weight of solvent + Weight of solute = 1000 + 120 = 1120 g 1120 g 1 ⇒ Volume = × = 0.973 L 1.15 g / mL 1000 mL / L 2.000 Molarity = = 2.05M ⇒ 0.973 Moles of urea = 20. From the given relative abundance, the average weight of Fe can be calculated as 15. We know the molecular weight of C8 H7 SO3Na = 12 × 8 + 1 × 7 + 32 + 16 × 3 + 23 = 206 we have to find, mole per gram of resin. Volume = 50 mL A= 54 × 5 + 56 × 90 + 57 × 5 = 55.95 100 21. 1.0 L of mixture X contain 0.01 mole of each [Co(NH3 )5 SO4 ]Br ∴ 1g of C8 H7 SO3Na has number of mole weight of given resin 1 = = mol Molecular, weight of resin 206 and [Co(NH3 )5 Br]SO4. Also, with AgNO3, only [Co(NH3 )5 SO4 ]Br reacts to give AgBr precipitate as Now, reaction looks like With BaCl 2, only [Co(NH3 )5 Br]SO4 reacts giving BaSO4 precipitate as [Co(NH3 )5 Br]SO4 + BaCl 2 → [Co(NH3 )5 Br]Cl 2 + BaSO4 2C8 H7 SO3Na + Ca 2+ → (C8 H7 SO3 )2 Ca + 2Na Q 2 moles of C8 H7 SO3Na combines with 1 mol Ca 2+ 1 ∴1 mole of C8 H7 SO3Na will combine with mol Ca 2+ 2 1 mole of C8 H7 SO3 Na will combine with ∴ 206 1 1 1 mol Ca 2+ = mol Ca 2+ × 412 2 206 [Co(NH3 )5 SO4 ]Br + AgNO3 → [Co(NH3 )5 SO4 ]NO3 + AgBr 1.0 mol 1.0 mol 1.0 mol Excess 1 mol Excess Hence, moles of Y and Z are 0.01 each. 22. Number of atoms = Number of moles Number of atoms in 24 g C = × Avogadro’s number (N A) 24 × NA = 2NA 12 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 11 56 NA = NA 56 27 Number of atoms in 27 g of Al = NA = NA 27 108 Number of atoms in 108 g of Ag = NA = NA 108 Hence, 24 g of carbon has the maximum number of atoms. Number of atoms in 56 g of Fe = 30. Number of molecules present in 36 g of water 36 × N A = 2N A 18 28 Number of molecules present in 28 g of CO = × NA = NA 28 46 Number of molecules present in 46 g of C2H5OH = × NA = NA 46 54 Number of molecules present in 54 g of N2O5 = × N A = 0.5 N A 108 Here, NA is Avogadro’s number. Hence, 36 g of water contain the largest (2NA ) number of molecules. = 23. Mass of an electron = 9.108 × 10−31 kg Q 9.108 × 10−31 kg = 1.0 electron 1 1031 1 electrons = × ∴ 1 kg = −31 9.108 6.023 × 1023 9.108 × 10 1 = × 108 mole of electrons 9.108 × 6.023 31. In a neutral atom, atomic number represents the number of protons inside the nucleus and equal number of electrons around it. Therefore, the number of total electrons in molecule of CO2 = electrons present in one carbon atom + 2 × electrons present in one oxygen atom = 6 + 2 × 8 = 22. 24. Phosphorus acid is a dibasic acid as : O H—P — OH only two replaceable hydrogens OH Therefore, normality = molarity × basicity = 0.3 × 2 = 0.60 25. Molality is defined in terms of weight, hence independent of temperature. Remaining three concentration units are defined in terms of volume of solution, they depends on temperature. 26. Molality of a solution is defined as number of moles of solute present in 1.0 kg (1000 g) of solvent. 27. The balanced chemical reaction is 3BaCl 2 + 2Na 3PO4 → Ba 3 (PO4 )2 + 6NaCl In this reaction, 3 moles of BaCl 2 combines with 2 moles of Na 3PO4. Hence, 0.5 mole of of BaCl 2 require 2 × 0.5 = 0.33 mole of Na 3PO4. 3 Since, available Na 3PO4 (0.2 mole) is less than required mole (0.33), it is the limiting reactant and would determine the amount of product Ba 3 (PO4 )2. Q 2 moles of Na 3PO4 gives 1 mole Ba 3 (PO4 )2 1 ∴0.2 mole of Na 3PO4 would give × 0.2 = 0.1 mole Ba 3 (PO4 )2 2 28. Unlike other metal carbonates that usually decomposes into metal oxides liberating carbon dioxide, silver carbonate on heating decomposes into elemental silver liberating mixture of carbon dioxide and oxygen gas as : Heat Ag2CO3 (s) → 2Ag (s) + CO2 (g ) + 1 O (g ) 2 2 MW = 276 g 2 × 108 = 216 g Hence, 2.76 g of Ag2CO3 on heating will give 216 × 2.76 = 2.16g Ag as residue. 276 29. The balanced chemical reaction of zinc with sulphuric acid and NaOH are Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2 (g ) ↑ Zn + 2NaOH + 2H2O → Na 2[ Zn(OH)4 ] + H2 (g ) ↑ Since, one mole of H2 (g ) is produced per mole of zinc with both sulphuric acid and NaOH respectively, hydrogen gas is produced in the molar ratio of 1:1 in the above reactions. 32. Weight of a compound in gram (w) = Number of moles (n) Molar mass (M ) Number of molecules (N ) = Avogadro number (NA ) w (O2 ) N (O2 ) …(i) ⇒ = 32 NA w (N2 ) N (N2 ) And …(ii) = 28 NA Dividing Eq. (i) by Eq. (ii) gives N (O2 ) w (O2 ) 28 1 28 7 = × = = × N (N2 ) w (N2 ) 32 4 32 32 33. Molar mass of Na 2CO3⋅ xH2O . (Atomic mass of Na = 23, C = 12, O = 16) = 23 × 2 + 12 + 48 + 18x = 46 + 12 + 48 + 18x = (106 + 18x ) Equivalent weight of Na 2CO3⋅ xH2O Molar mass M = = = (53 + 9x ) 2 n factor [ Here, m = molar mass and n factor = 2] Weight Gram equivalent = Equivalent weight [Given, weight of Na 2CO3 ⋅ xH2O = 143 . g] Hence, gram equivalent of 1.43 Na 2CO3 ⋅ xH2O = 53 + 9x Gmeq Normality = Vlitre 143 . 01 . = 53 + 9x . 01 As, volume = 100 mL = 0.1 L 12 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry So, 10−2 = 143 . 53 + 9x 36. Given, O 53 + 9x = 143 9x = 90 x = 10.00 NH3/∆ Br2/KOH Br2(3-eqiv.) NaOBr C D A B AcOH H3O+ (60%) (50%) (100%) (50%) 34. The equations of chemical reactions occurring during the process are In the presence of oxygen HO O 2PbS + 3O2 → 2PbO + 2SO2 By self reduction 207 g So, 32 g of O 2 gives 207 g of Pb 207 g of Pb 1 g of O 2 will give 32 207 1000g of O 2 will give × 1000 = 6468.75 g 32 = 6.46875 kg ≈ 6.47kg Benzoic acid (60%) i.e., 6 mol (A) Acetophenone 10 mol (1) 2MnCl 2 + 5K 2S2O 8 + 8H2O → 2KMnO 4 + 4 K 2SO 4 + 6H2SO 4 + 4HCl (2) 2KMnO 4 + 5H2C 2O 4 + 3H2SO 4 → K 2SO 4 + 2MnSO 4 + 8H2O +10CO 2 Given, mass of oxalic acid added = 225mg 225 So, millimoles of oxalic acid added = = 2.5 90 Now from equation 2 Millimoles of KMnO 4 used to react with oxalic acid=1 and Millimoles of MnCl 2 required initially=1 ∴ Mass of MnCl 2 required initially = 1 × (55 + 71) = 126mg Alternative Method O NH3/∆ NaOBr H3O+ Benzamide (50%) i.e., 3 mol (B) NH2 Br2/KOH NH2 Br Br Br2(3-eqiv.) AcOH Br 2,4,6-tribromo aniline (100%) i.e., 1.5 mol (D) Aniline (50%) i.e., 1.5 mol (C) NH2 Br Br So, 1.5 mol of are produced from 35. The balanced equations are m moles of MnCl 2 = m moles of KMnO 4 = x (let) and M eq of KMnO 4 = M eq of oxalic acid 225 So, x×5= ×2 90 Hence, x = 1 ∴ m moles of MnCl 2 = 1 Hence mass of MnCl 2 = (55 + 71) × 1 = 126 mg. H2N O …(i) 2PbO + PbS → 3Pb + SO2 Thus 3 moles of O2 produces 3 moles of Pb i.e. 32 × 3 = 96 g of O 2 produces 3 × 207 = 621 g of Pb So 1000 g (1kg) of oxygen will produce 621 × 1000 = 6468.75 g 96 = 6.4687 kg ≈ 6.47 kg Alternative Method From the direct equation, PbS + O2 → Pb + SO2 32 g The products formed are Br 10 moles of acetophenone. NH2 Br Br Molar mass of = 240 + 14 + 4 + 72 = 330 Br NH2 Br Br Hence, amount of produced is 330 × 1.5 = 495 g Br 37. Molar mass of CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2O = 63.5 + 32 + 4 × 16 + 5 × 18 = 249.5 g Also, molar mass represents mass of Avogadro number of molecules in gram unit, therefore Q 6.023 × 1023 molecules of CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2O weigh 249.5 g 249.5 × 1022 = 4.14 g ∴ 1022 molecules will weigh 6.023 × 1023 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 13 Number of moles of solute Volume of solution in litre Weight of solute 1000 = × Molar mass Volume in mL 3 1000 = × = 0.4 M 30 250 38. Molarity = 39. Considering density of water to be 1.0 g/mL, 18 mL of water is 18 g (1.0 mol) of water and it contain Avogadro number of molecules. Also one molecule of water contain 2 × (one from each H-atom) + 8 × (from oxygen atom) = 10 electrons. ⇒ 1.0 mole of H2O contain = 10 × 6.023 × 1023 = 6.023 × 1024 electrons. 40. Carbon-12 isotope. According to modern atomic mass unit, one atomic mass unit (amu) is defined as one-twelfth of mass of an atom of C-12 isotope, i.e. 1 1 amu (u) = × weight of an atom of C-12 isotope. 12 w w 41. Moles of solute, n1 = 1 ; Moles of solvent, n2 = 2 m1 m2 χ 1 (solute) = 0.1and χ 2 (solvent) = 0.9 χ 1 n1 w1 m2 1 = = ⋅ = χ 2 n2 m1 w2 9 Solute (moles) w1 × 1000 × 2 Molarity = = Volume (L) m1 (w1 + w2 ) ∴ Total mass of solution w1 + w2 Note Volume = = mL 2 Density Molality = Given, hence, ∴ ∴ 42. Solute (moles) w1 × 1000 = Solvent (kg) m1 × w2 molarity = molality 2000 w1 1000 w1 = m1 (w1 + w2 ) m1 w2 w2 1 = ⇒ w1 = w2 = 1 w1+ w2 2 w1 m2 1 m (solute) = ⇒ 1 =9 m1 w2 9 m2 (solvent) PLAN This problem can be solved by using concept of conversion of molarity into molality. Molarity = 3.2 M Let volume of solution = 1000 mL = Volume of solvent Mass of solvent = 1000 × 0.4 = 400 g Since, molarity of solution is 3.2 molar ∴ n solute = 3.2 mol 3.2 Molality (m) = =8 400 / 1000 Hence, correct integer is (8). 43. Mass of HCl in 1.0 mL stock solution = 1.25 × 29.2 = 0.365 g 100 Mass of HCl required for 200 mL 0.4 M HCl 200 = × 0.4 × 36.5 = 0.08 × 36.5 g 1000 ∴ 0.365 g of HCl is present in 1.0 mL stock solution. 0.08 × 36.5 = 8.0 mL 0.08 × 36.5 g HCl will be present in 0.365 44. Partial pressure of N2 = 0.001 atm, T = 298 K, V = 2.46 dm 3. From ideal gas law : pV = nRT pV 0.001 × 2.46 n(N2 ) = = = 10−7 RT 0.082 × 298 ⇒ Number of molecules of N2 = 6.023 × 1023 × 10−7 = 6.023 × 1016 Now, total surface sites available = 6.023 × 1014 × 1000 = 6.023 × 1017 20 Surface sites used in adsorption = × 6.023 × 1017 100 = 2 × 6.023 × 1016 ⇒ Sites occupied per molecules 2 × 6.023 × 1016 Number of sites = = 2 = Number of molecules 6.023 × 1016 45. Initial millimol of CH3COOH = 100 × 0.5 = 50 millimol of CH3COOH remaining after adsorption = 100 × 0.49 = 49 ⇒ millimol of CH3COOH adsorbed = 50 – 49 = 1 ⇒ number of molecules of CH3COOH adsorbed 1 = × 6.023 × 1023 = 6.023 × 1020 1000 3.01 × 102 ⇒ Area covered up by one molecule = 6.02 × 1020 = 5 × 10−19 m 2 46. Mass of 1.0 L water = 1000 g ⇒ Molarity = 1000 = 55.56 mol L−1 18 47. Volume of one cylinderical plant virus = πr2l = 3.14 (75 × 10−8 )2 × 5000 × 10−8 cm 3 = 8.83 × 10−17 cm 3 Volume of a virus ⇒ Mass of one virus = Specific volume = 8.83 × 10−17 cm 3 = 1.1773 × 10−16 g 0.75 cm 3 g−1 ⇒ Molar mass of virus = Mass of one virus × Avogadro’s number = 1.1773 × 10−16 × 6.023 × 1023 g = 70.91 × 106 g 48. Molar mass of Glauber’s salt (Na 2SO4 ⋅ 10H2O) = 23 × 2 + 32 + 64 + 10 × 18 = 322g 14 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry ⇒ Mole of Na 2SO4 ⋅ 10H2O in 1.0 L solution = 80.575 = 0.25 322 ⇒ Molarity of solution = 0.25 M Also, weight of 1.0 L solution = 1077.2 g weight of Na 2SO4 in 1.0 L solution = 0.25 × 142 = 35.5 g ⇒ Weight of water in 1.0 L solution = 1077.2 – 35.5 = 1041.7 g 0.25 × 1000 = 0.24 m ⇒ Molality = 1041.7 Mole of Na 2SO4 Mole fraction of Na 2SO4 = Mole of Na 2SO4 + Mole of water 0.25 = 4.3 × 10−3. = 1041.7 0.25 + 18 49. Compound B forms hydrated crystals with Al 2 (SO4 )3. Also, B is formed with univalent metal on heating with sulphur. Hence, compound B must has the molecular formula M 2SO4 and compound A must be an oxide of M which reacts with sulphur to give metal sulphate as A + S → M 2SO4 B Q 0.321 g sulphur gives 1.743 g of M 2SO4 ∴ 32.1 g S (one mole) will give 174.3 g M 2SO4 Therefore, molar mass of M 2SO4 = 174.3 g ⇒ 174.3 = 2 × Atomic weight of M + 32.1 + 64 ⇒ Atomic weight of M = 39, metal is potassium (K) K2SO4 on treatment with aqueous Al 2 (SO4 )3 gives potash-alum. K2SO4 + Al 2 (SO4)3 + 24H2O → K2SO4Al 2 (SO4)3 ⋅ 24H2O B C If the metal oxide A has molecular formula MOx, two moles of it combine with one mole of sulphur to give one mole of metal sulphate as 2KOx + S → K2SO4 ⇒ x = 2, i.e. A is KO2. 50. The reaction involved is 3Pb(NO3 )2 + Cr2 (SO4 )3 → 3PbSO4 (s) ↓ + 2Cr(NO3 )3 millimol of Pb(NO3 )2 taken = 45 × 0.25 = 11.25 millimol of Cr2 (SO4 )3 taken = 2.5 Here, chromic sulphate is the limiting reagent, it will determine the amount of product. Q 1 mole Cr2 (SO4 )3 produces 3 moles PbSO4. ∴ 2.5 millimol Cr2 (SO4 )3 will produce 7.5 millimol PbSO4. Hence, mole of PbSO4 precipitate formed = 7.5 × 10−3 Also, millimol of Pb(NO3 )2 remaining unreacted 11.25 – 7.50 = 3.75 ⇒ Molarity of Pb(NO3 )2 in final solution millimol of Pb(NO3 )2 3.75 = 0.054 M = = Total volume 70 Also, millimol of Cr(NO3 )2 formed = 2 × millimol of Cr2 (SO4 )3 reacted 5 = 0.071 M ⇒ Molarity of Cr(NO3 )2 = 70 51. 93% H2SO4 solution weight by volume indicates that there is 93 g H2SO4 in 100 mL of solution. If we consider 100 mL solution, weight of solution = 184 g Weight of H2O in 100 mL solution = 184 – 93 = 91 g Moles of solute ⇒ Molality = × 1000 Weight of solvent (g) 93 1000 = 10.42 = × 98 91 52. Heating below 600°C converts Pb(NO3 )2 into PbO but to NaNO3 into NaNO2 as ∆ Pb(NO3 )2 → PbO(s) + 2NO2 ↑ + MW : 330 ∆ 222 NaNO3 → NaNO2 (s) + MW : 85 1 O ↑ 2 2 1 O ↑ 2 2 69 28 Weight loss = 5 × = 1.4 g 100 ⇒ Weight of residue left = 5 – 1.4 = 3.6 g Now, let the original mixture contain x g of Pb(NO3 )2. Q 330 g Pb(NO3 )2 gives 222 g PbO 222 x g PbO ∴ x g Pb(NO3 )2 will give 330 Similarly, 85 g NaNO3 gives 69 g NaNO2 69 (5 − x ) g NaNO2 ⇒ (5 – x) g NaNO3 will give 85 222 x 69 (5 − x ) = 3.6 g ⇒ Residue : + 330 85 Solving for x gives, x = 3.3 g Pb(NO3 )2 ⇒ NaNO3 = 1.7 g. 53. Reactions involved are C2H6 + Br2 → C2H5Br + HBr 2C2H5Br + 2Na → C4H10 + 2NaBr Actual yield of C4H10 = 55 g which is 85% of theoretical yield. 55 × 100 = 64.70 g ⇒ Theoretical yield of C4H10 = 85 Also, 2 moles (218 g) C2H5Br gives 58 g of butane. ⇒ 64.70 g of butane would be obtained from 2 × 64.70 = 2.23 moles C2H5Br 58 Also yield of bromination reaction is only 90%, in order to have 2.23 moles of C2H5Br, theoretically 2.23 × 100 = 2.48 moles of C2H5Br required. 90 Therefore, moles of C2H6 required = 2.48 ⇒ Volume of C2H6 (NTP) required = 2.48 × 22.4 = 55.55 L. 34.2 54. Moles of sugar = = 0.1 342 Moles of water in syrup = 214.2 – 34.2 = 180 g Moles of solute Therefore, (i) Molality = × 1000 Weight of Solvent (g) 0.1 = × 1000 = 0.55 180 Mole of sugar (ii) Mole fraction of sugar = Mole of sugar + Mole of water 0.1 = = 9.9 × 10−3 0.1 + 10 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 15 55. From the given elemental composition, empirical formula can be derived as : Element Weight % Mole % C 69.77 5.81 H 11.63 11.63 Simple ratio 5 10 O 18.60 1.1625 (obtained by dividing from M ) 1 Hence, empirical formula is C5H10O and empirical formula weight is 86. Since, empirical formula weight and molecular weight both are (86), empirical formula is the molecular formula also. Also, the compound does not reduce Fehling’s solution, therefore it is not an aldehyde, but it forms bisulphite, it must be a ketone. Also, it gives positive iodoform test, it must be a methyl ketone. O C3H7 — C — CH3 Based on the above information, the compound may be one of the following : O CH3 O CH3CH2CH2— C — CH3 or CH3 — CH— C — CH3 2-pentanone 3-methyl -2-butanone 56. (a) Let us consider 1.0 L solution for all the calculation. (i) Weight of 1 L solution = 1250 g Weight of Na 2S2O3 = 3 × 158 = 474 g 474 ⇒ Weight percentage of Na 2S2O3= × 100 = 37.92 1250 (ii) Weight of H2O in 1 L solution = 1250 − 474 = 776 g 3 Mole fraction of Na 2S2O3 = = 0.065 776 3+ 18 3×2 (iii) Molality of Na + = × 100 = 7.73 m 776 57. (a) After passing through red-hot charcoal, following reaction occurs C(s) + CO2 (g ) → 2CO(g ) If the 1.0 L original mixture contain x litre of CO2, after passing from tube containing red-hot charcoal, the new volumes would be : 2x (volume of CO obtained from CO2) + 1 – x(original CO) = 1 + x =1.6 (given) ⇒ x = 0.6 Hence, original 1.0 L mixture has 0.4 L CO and 0.6 L of CO2 , i.e. 40% CO and 60% CO2 by volume. (b) According to the given information, molecular formula of the compound is M 3N2. Also, 1.0 mole of compound has 28 g of nitrogen. If X is the molar mass of compound, then : 28 X × = 28 100 ⇒ X = 100 = 3 × Atomic weight of M + 28 72 ⇒ Atomic weight of M = = 24 3 58. In the present case, V ∝ n (Q all the volumes are measured under identical conditions of temperature and pressure) Hence, the reaction stoichiometry can be solved using volumes as : y y CxH y (g ) + x + O2 (g ) → x CO2 (g ) + H2O (l ) 4 2 volume of CO2 (g ) + O2 (g ) (remaining unreacted) = 25 ⇒ Volume of CO2 (g ) produced = 10 mL (15 mL O2 remaining) Q 1 mL CxH y produces x mL of CO2 ∴ 5 mL CxH y will produce 5x mL of CO2 = 10 mL ⇒ x = 2 y Also, 1 mL CxH y combines with x + mL of O2 4 y 5 mL CxH y will combine with 5 x + mL of O2 4 y ⇒ 5 x + = 15 (15 mL of O2 out of 30 mL) 4 (remaining unreacted) ⇒ y = 4, hence hydrocarbon is C2H4. 59. Oxides of sodium and potassium are converted into chlorides according to following reactions : Na 2O + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2O K2O + 2HCl → 2KCl + H2O Finally all the chlorides of NaCl and KCl are converted into AgCl, hence moles of (NaCl + KCl) = moles of AgCl (one mole of either NaCl or KCl gives one mole of AgCl) Now, let the chloride mixture contain x g NaCl. x 0.118 − x 0.2451 ⇒ + = 58.5 74.5 143.5 Solving for x gives x = 0.0338 g (mass of NaCl) ⇒ Mass of KCl = 0.118 – 0.0338 = 0.0842 g 1 Also, moles of Na 2O = × moles of NaCl 2 1 0.0338 × 62 = 0.0179 g ⇒ Mass of Na 2O = × 2 58.5 1 0.0842 Similarly, mass of K2O = × × 94 = 0.053 g 2 74.5 0.0179 Mass % of Na 2O = ⇒ × 100 = 3.58 % 0.5 0.053 Mass % of K2O = × 100 = 10.6 % 0.5 60. From the vapour density information Molar mass = Vapour density × 2 (Q Molar mass of H2 = 2) = 38.3 × 2 = 76.6 Now, let us consider 1.0 mole of mixture and it contains x mole of NO2. ⇒ 46 x + 92 (1 − x ) = 76.6 ⇒ x = 0.3348 100 Also, in 100 g mixture, number of moles = 76.6 100 ⇒ Moles of NO2 in mixture = × 0.3348 = 0.437 76.6 16 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 61. Most of the elements found in nature exist as a mixture of isotopes whose atomic weights are different. The atomic weight of an element is the average of atomic weights of all its naturally occurring isotopes. 62. Average atomic weight Σ Percentage of an isotope × Atomic weight 100 10.01x + 11.01 (100 − x) ⇒ x = 20% ⇒ 10.81 = 100 = Therefore, natural boron contains 20% (10.01) isotope and 80% other isotope. Topic 2 Equivalent Concept, Neutralisation and Redox Titration 1. In disproportionation reactions, same element undergoes The difference in the volume of NaOH solution between the end point and the equivalence point is not significant for most of the commonly used indicators as there is a large change in the pH value around the equivalence point. Most of them change their colour across this pH change. 3. 100 mL (cm3) of hexane contains 0.27 g of fatty acid. In 10 mL solution, mass of the fatty acid, 0.27 × 10 = 0.027 g 100 Density of fatty acid, d = 0.9 g cm−3 m= ∴Volume of the fatty acid over the watch glass, m 0.027 V = = = 0.03 cm3 d 0.9 Let, height of the cylindrical monolayer = h cm Q Volume of the cylinder = Volume of fatty acid oxidation as well as reduction. Reduction e.g. +2 +1 2CuBr 0 h cm CuBr2 +Cu Oxidation Here, CuBr get oxidised to CuBr2 and also it get reduced to Cu. Other given reactions and their types are given below. 10 cm ⇒ V = πr 2 × h ⇒ h= Reduction +7 – 2 MnO4 – +10I + 16 H + +2 2Mn + 5I2 + 8H2O = 1 × 10−4cm Oxidation In the given reaction, MnO−4 get oxidised to Mn 2+ and I− get reduced to I2. It is an example of redox reaction. The reaction takes place in acidic medium. 2KMnO4 → K 2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2 The given reaction is an example of decomposition reaction. Here, one compound split into two or more simpler compounds, atleast one of which must be in elemental form. 2NaBr + Cl2 → 2NaCl + Br2 The given reaction is an example of displacement reaction. In this reaction, an atom (or ion) replaces the ion (or atom) of another element from a compound. 2. The graph that shows the correct change of pH of the titration mixture in the experiment is FeC2O4 , Fe2 (C2O4 )3 FeSO4 and Fe2 (SO4 )3 in acidic medium with KMnO4 is as follows : …(i) FeC2O4 + KMnO4 → Fe3 + + CO2 + Mn 2+ Fe2(C2O4 )3 + KMnO4 → Fe3 + + CO2 + Mn 2+ FeSO4 + KMnO4 → Fe 3+ + SO24− + Mn 2+ …(ii) …(iii) Change in oxidation number of Mn is 5. Change in oxidation number of Fe in (i), (ii) and (iii) are +3, + 6, + 1, respectively. neq KMnO 4 = neq [ FeC 2O 4 + Fe 2 ( C 2O 4 ) 3 + FeSO 4 ] ∴ n × 5 = 1× 3 + 1× 6 + 1× 1 n=2 5. Given, W Ca (HCO 3) 2 = 0.81 g W Mg (HCO ) = 0.73 g 3 2 M Ca (HCO ) = 162 g mol −1, 3 2 M Mg(HCO 3 ) 2 = 146 mol −1 V H 2 O = 100mL V(mL) Now, In this case, both the titrants are completely ionised. ⊕ = 1 × 10−6 m 4. The oxidation of a mixture of one mole of each of pH HCl + NaOH 0.03 cm3 V = πr2 3 × (10)2 cm2 + − - N a Cl + H O 2 As H is added to a basic solution, [ OHÈ ] decreases and [ H+ ] increases. Therefore, pH goes on decreasing. As the equivalence point is reached,[OHÈ ] is rapidly reduced. After this point [OH È] decreases rapidly and pH of the solution remains fairly constant. Thus, there is an inflexion point at the equivalence point. neq (CaCO3) = neq [Ca(HCO3 )2 ]+ neq [Mg(HCO3 )2 ] W 0.81 0.73 ×2= ×2+ ×2 100 162 146 W = 0.005 + 0.005 ∴ 100 W = 0.01 × 100 = 1 1 Thus, hardness of water sample = × 106 = 10,000 ppm 100 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 17 12x 6 = (given and molar mass of C = 12, H = 1) y 1 6. The reaction takes place as follows, H2C2O4 + 2NaOH → Na 2C2O4 + 2H2O Now, 50 mL of 0.5 M H2C2O4 is needed to neutralize 25 mL of NaOH. ∴ Meq of H2C2O4 = Meq of NaOH 50 × 0.5 × 2 = 25 × M NaOH× 1 M NaOH = 2M Number of moles Now, molarity = Volume of solution (in L) Weight / molecular mass = Volume of solution (in L) 1000 w 2 = NaOH × 40 50 2 × 40 × 50 wNaOH = = 4g 1000 Thus, (*) none option is correct. y y Number of oxygen atoms required = 2 × x + = 2x + 4 2 1 y y Now given, z = 2x + = x+ 2 2 4 Here we consider x and y as simplest ratios for C and H so now putting the values of x and y in the above equation. y 2 z= x+ = 1+ = 1.5 4 4 Thus, the simplest ratio figures for x , y and z are x = 1, y = 2 and z = 15 . Now, put these values in the formula given i.e. CxH yOz = C1H2O1.5 So, empirical formula will be [C1H2O1.5 ] × 2 = C2H4O3 7. The reaction of HCl with Na 2CO3 is as follows: 2HCl + Na 2CO3 → 2NaCl + H2O + CO2 We know that, M eq of HCl = M eq of Na 2CO3 25 30 × 1 × M HCl = × 0.1 × 2 1000 1000 30 × 0.2 6 M M HCl = = 25 25 The reaction of HCl with NaOH is as follows: 10. Methyl orange show Pinkish colour towards more acidic medium and yellow orange colour towards basic or less acidic media. Its working pH range is Pinkish Red NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O Also, M eq of HCl = M eq of NaOH 6 30 V ×1× = × 0.2 × 1 25 1000 1000 V = 25mL 8. Reaction of oxalate with permanganate in acidic medium. 5C2O24− + 2MnO−4 → 10CO2 + 2Mn 2+ + 8H2O n-factor : Number of mole ⇒ 5C2O42– (4 − 3 ) × 2 = 2 5 (7 − 2 ) = 5 2 10 − ions transfer 10e to produce 10 molecules of CO2. So, number of electrons involved in producing 10 molecules of CO2 is 10. Thus, number of electrons involved in producing 1 molecule of CO2 is 1. 9. We can calculate the simplest whole number ratio of C and H from the data given, as Element Now, after calculating this ratio look for condition 2 given in the question i.e. quantity of oxygen is half of the quantity required to burn one molecule of compoundC xH y completely to CO2 and H2O. We can calculate number of oxygen atoms from this as consider the equation. y y CxH y + x + O2 → xCO2 + H2O 4 2 3.9 –4.5 Yellow orange Weak base have the pH range greater than 7. When methyl orange is added to this weak base solution it shows yellow orange colour. Now when this solution is titrated against strong acid the pH move towards more acidic 1 range and reaches to end point near 3.9 where NH2 yellow orange colour of methyl orange HN In conjugation changes to Pinkish red resulting to similar change in colour of solution as well. 11. H2O2 acts as an oxidising as well as reducing agent, because oxidation number of oxygen in H2O2 is −1. So, it can be oxidised to oxidation state 0 or reduced to oxidation state –2. H2O2 decomposes on exposure to light. So, it has to be stored in plastic or wax lined glass bottles in dark for the prevention of exposure. It also has to be kept away from dust. 12. n-factor of dichromate is 6. C Relative mass 6 Molar mass 12 H 1 1 Relative mole 6 = 0.5 12 1 =1 1 Simplest whole number ratio 0.5 =1 0.5 1 =2 0.5 Alternatively this ratio can also be calculated directly in the terms of x and y as Also, n-factor of Mohr’s salt is 1 as : O. A FeSO4 (NH4 )2 SO4⋅ 6H2O → Fe3+ Mohr’s salt Q 1 mole of dichromate = 6 equivalent of dichromate. ∴ 6 equivalent of Mohr’s salt would be required. Since, n-factor of Mohr’s salt is 1, 6 equivalent of it would also be equal to 6 moles. Hence, 1 mole of dichromate will oxidise 6 moles of Mohr’s salt. 18 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Here n-factor is the net change in oxidation number per formula unit of oxidising or reducing agent. In the present case, n-factor is 2 because equivalent weight is half of molecular weight. Also, 1 n-factor MnSO4 → Mn 2O3 1 (+ 2 → + 3) 2 2 (+ 2 → + 4) MnSO4 → MnO2 − 5 (+ 2 → + 7) MnSO4 → MnO4 13. The following reaction occur between S2O32− and Cr2O2− 7 : 26H + + → 6SO24− + 8Cr 3+ + 13H2O Change in oxidation number of Cr2O72− per formula unit is 6 (it is always fixed for Cr2O2− 7 ). + 3S2O32− 4Cr2O72− Molecular weight 6 14. It is an example of disproportionation reaction because the same species (ClO− ) is being oxidised to ClO−3 as well as reduced to Cl − . Hence, equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7 = 15. Oxalic acid dihydrate H2C2O4 ⋅ 2H2O : mw = 126 It is a dibasic acid, hence equivalent weight = 63 6.3 1000 = 0.4 N Normality = × ⇒ 63 250 ⇒ N 1V1 = N 2V2 ⇒ Hence, 0.1 × V1 = 0.4 × 10 V1 = 40 mL 16. In MnO−4 , oxidation state of Mn is +7 In Cr(CN)63− , oxidation state of Cr is +3 In NiF62− , Ni is in + 4 oxidation state. MnSO4 → MnO42− 24. PLAN This problem includes concept of redox reaction. A redox reaction consists of oxidation half-cell reaction and reduction half-cell reaction. Write both half-cell reactions, i.e. oxidation half-cell reaction and reduction half-cell reaction.Then balance both the equations. Now determine the correct value of stoichiometry of H2SO4. Oxidation half-reaction, 2 I − → I2 + 2 e − …(i) Here, I − is converted into I2. Oxidation number of I is increasing from –1 to 0 hence, this is a type of oxidation reaction. Reduction half-reaction 6H+ + ClO3− + 6e− → Cl − + 3H2O l In CrO2Cl 2, oxidation state of Cr is +6. 17. In S8 , oxidation number of S is 0, elemental state. In S2F2, F is in – 1 oxidation state, hence S is in + 1 oxidation state. In H2S, H is in +1 oxidation state, hence S is in – 2 oxidation state. 19. The balanced chemical reaction is : 2MnO−4 + 5SO23− + 6H+ → 2Mn 2+ + 5SO24− + 3H2O Q 5 moles SO2− 3 reacts with 2 moles of KMnO 4 2 mole KMnO4. ∴ 1 mole of SO2− 3 will react with 5 Hence, the coefficients of reactants in balanced reaction are 2, 5 and 16 respectively. 21. Volume strength of H2O2 = Normality × 5.6 = 1.5 × 5.6 = 8.4 V l ⇒ 23. Equivalent weight in redox system is defined as : Molar mass E= n-factor Stoichiometric coefficient of HSO−4 is 6. Hence, option (a), (b) and (d) are correct. 25. Oxalic acid solution titrated with NaOH solution using phenolphthalein as an indicator. H2 C2 O4 + 2NaOH → Na 2 C2 O4 + 2H2 O Equivalent of H2C2O4 reacted = Equivalent of NaOH reacted 9 × M(NaOH) × 1 5 × 2 × 01 . = = 1000 1000 1 M (NaOH) = = 0.11 9 26. Aluminium reacts with sulphuric acid to form aluminium sulphate and hydrogen. 2Al 5. 4 = 0. 2 mol 27 + 3H2 SO4 50 × 5 = 0. 25 mol 1000 → Al 2 (SO4 )3 + 3H2 H2SO 4 is limiting reagent and moles of H2 (g ) produced = 0.25 mol Using ideal gas equation, 22. In Ba(H2PO2 )2, oxidation number of Ba is +2. Therefore, H2PO2− : 2 × (+1) + x + 2 × (−2) = − 1 x=+1 Here, H2 O releases as a product. Hence, option (d) is correct. 6I− + ClO−3 + 6H2SO4 → Cl − + 3I2 + 3H2O + 6HSO−4 20. The balanced redox reaction is : 2MnO4− + 5C2O24− + 16H + → 2Mn 2+ + 10CO2 + 16H2O …(ii) Multiplying equation (i) by 3 and adding in equation (ii) 6I− + ClO3− + 6H+ → Cl − + 3I2 + 3H2O 18. The balanced redox reaction is : 3MnO−4 + 5FeC2O4 + 24H+ → 3Mn 2+ + 5Fe3+ + 10CO2 + 12H2O Q 5 moles of FeC2O4 require 3 moles of KMnO4 3 ∴ 1 mole of FeC2O4 will require mole of KMnO4. 5 4 (+ 2 → + 6) Therefore, MnSO4 converts to MnO2. ⇒ pV = nRT 0.25 × 0.082 × 300 V = ⇒ 6.15 L 1 atm 27. Given, volume of solution = 20.0 mL Impure sample of H2O2 = 0.2 g Mass of KMnO4 = 0.316 g Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 19 Impure H2O2 react with KMnO4 (acidic) +7 −1 +2 KMnO4 + H2O2 → Mn 30. If x is the oxidation state of Cu then : 3 + 2 × 2 + 3x + 7 × (− 2) = 0 ⇒ x = 7/ 3 0 + O2 31. Na2S4O6 is a salt of H2S4O6 which has the following structure KMnO 4 acts as an oxidising agent, +7 +2 Mn + 5e− → Mn −1 O2 0 − → O2 + 2e (valency factor = 2) We have to compare both KMnO4 and H2O2. (Mass equivalent) H O2 = (Mass equivalent) KMnO4 2 Weight × 1000 molecular weight / valence factor weight = × 1000 molecular weight / valence factor (weight)H 2 O 2 34 / 2 2O2 = = O (v) S OH O ⇒ Difference in oxidation number of two types of sulphur = 5 figure cannot be greater than the same in either of them being manipulated. 34. The balanced reaction is (Pure)H2 O2 (Impure)H2 O2 × 100 017 . × 100 = 85% 0.2 (i) ( NH4)2SO 4 + Ca(OH)2 → CaSO 4 ⋅ 2H2O + 1 mol 172 g 2NH3 2 mol (2 × 17) = 34 g (ii) NiCl 2 ⋅ 6H2O + 6NH3 → [Ni(NH3)6] Cl 2 + 6H2O 6 mol 102 g S 33. Average titrate value is 25.15, but the number of significant 28. Balanced equations of reactions used in the problem are as follows 1 mol 238 g S Cl = − 1 to + 7 N = − 3 to + 5 P = − 3 to + 5 Sn = + 2, + 4 Tl = + 1, + 3 (rare but does exist) Ti = + 2, + 3, + 4 0.316 × 1000 158 / 5 0.316 34 = ×5× 158 2 26.86 = 158 1 mol 132 g S O = O− , O2− , O2+ ; (weight)H2 O2 = 017 . g (Purify) H HO O (0) 32. Only F and Na show only one non-zero oxidation state. × 1000 = (weight)H2 O2 O (valency factor = 5) 1 mol 232 g Now, in Eq. (i) if, 1584 g of ammonium sulphate is used. 1584 i.e., 1584 g (NH4 )2 SO4 = = 12 mol 132 So, according to the Eq. (i) given above 12 moles of (NH4 )2 SO4 produces (a) 12 moles of gypsum (b) 24 moles of ammonia Here, 12 moles of gypsum = 12 × 172 = 2064 g and 24 moles of NH3 = 24 × 17 = 408g Further, as given in question, 24 moles of NH3 produced in reaction (i) is completly utilised by 952g or 4 moles of NiCl 2 ⋅ 6H2O to produce 4 moles of [Ni(NH3 )6 ] Cl 2. So, 4 moles of [Ni(NH3 )6 ] Cl 2 = 4 × 232 = 928gms Hence, total mass of gypsum and nickel ammonia coordination compound [Ni(NH3 )6 ] Cl 2 = 2064 + 928 = 2992 6CaO + P4O10 → 2Ca 3 (PO4 )2 852 Moles of P4O10 = =3 284 Moles of CaO required = 3 × 6 = 18 Mass of CaO required = 18 × 56 = 1008 g 35. Meq of oxalate = 10 × 0.2 × 2 = 4 Meq of MnO2 formed = Meq of oxalate = 4 Meq of KMnO4 in 20 mL = 4 Normality of H2O2 × 20 = 4 ⇒ Normality of H2O2 = 0.20 N ⇒ 0.20 Molarity of H2O2 = ⇒ = 0.10 M 2 The balanced reactions are 2KMnO4 + 5H2O2 + 3H2SO4 → 2MnSO4 + 5O2 + K2SO4 + 8H2O MnO2 + Na 2C2O4 + 2H2SO4 → MnSO4 + Na 2SO4 + 2CO2 + 2H2O 36. The balanced chemical reaction is CuCO3 + H2SO4 → CuSO4 + H2O + CO2 0.5 × 1000 = 4.048 millimol of CuCO3 = 123.5 ⇒ Millimol of H2SO4 required = 4.048 Millimol = Molarity × Volume (in mL) Q 4.048 Volume = ⇒ = 8.096 mL 0.50 37. The redox reaction involved are 29. Both assertion and reason are factually true but the reason does IO−3 + 5I− + 6H+ → 3I2 + 3H2O not exactly explain the assertion. The correct explanation is, methyl orange and phenolphthalein changes their colour at different pH. I2 + 2S2O32− → 2I− + S4O62− 20 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 0.1 × 1000 = 0.467 214 ⇒ millimol of I2 formed = 3 × 0.467 = 1.4 ⇒ millimol of Na 2S2O3 consumed = 2 × 1.4 = 2.8 2.8 ⇒ Molarity of Na 2S2O3 = = 0.062 M 45 4 × 100= 20% 20 Vol % of He = 30% millimol of KIO3 used = Vol % of CH4 = 41. The redox reaction involved is : H2O2 + 2I− + 2H+ → 2H2O + I2 38. Meq of H2O2 = Meq of I2 = Meq of Na 2S2O3 If N is normality of H2O2, then N × 25 = 0.3 × 20 ⇒ N = 0.24 Volume strength ⇒ = N × 5.6 = 1.334 V 39. Let the original sample contains x millimol of Fe3O4 and y millimol of Fe2O3. In the first phase of reaction, Fe3O4 + I− → 3Fe2+ + I2 (n-factor of Fe3O4 = 2) − 2+ Fe2O3 + I → 2Fe + I2 (n-factor of Fe2O3 = 2) ⇒ Meq of I2 formed = Meq (Fe3O4 + Fe2O3 ) = Meq of hypo required …(i) ⇒ 2x + 2 y = 11 × 0.5 × 5 = 27.5 Now, total millimol of Fe2+ formed = 3x + 2 y. In the reaction Fe2+ + MnO−4 + H+ → Fe3+ + Mn 2+ n-factor of Fe2+ = 1 ⇒ Meq of MnO−4 2+ = Meq of Fe ⇒ 3x + 2 y = 12.8 × 0.25 × 5 × 2 = 32 Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get x = 4.5 and y = 9.25 4.5 Mass of Fe3O4 = ⇒ × 232 = 1.044 g 1000 1.044 % mass of Fe3O4 = × 100 = 34.80% 3 9.25 Mass of Fe2O3 = × 160 = 1.48 g 1000 1.48 % mass of Fe2O3 = × 100 = 49.33% 3 …(ii) 40. The reaction involved in the explosion process is CO(g ) + x mL 1 O (g ) → CO2 (g ) 2 x2 2 mL x mL CH4 (g ) + 2O2 (g ) → CO2 (g ) + 2H2O(l ) y mL 2 y mL y mL The first step volume contraction can be calculated as : x x + + y + 2 y − (x + y) = 13 2 …(i) ⇒ x + 4 y = 26 The second volume contraction is due to absorption of CO2. Hence, …(ii) x + y = 14 If M is molarity of H2O2 solution, then 0.508 × 1000 5M = (Q 1 mole H2O2 ≡≡ 1 mole I2) 254 ⇒ M = 0.4 Also, n-factor of H2O2 is 2, therefore normality of H2O2 solution is 0.8 N. ⇒ Volume strength = Normality × 5.6 = 0.8 × 5.6 = 4.48 V 42. The reaction is KIO3 + 2KI + 6HCl → 3ICl + 3KCl + 3H2O KIO3 required for 20 mL original KI solution = 3 millimol. ⇒ 7.5 millimol KIO3 would be required for original 50 mL KI. ⇒ Original 50 mL KI solution contain 15 millimol of KI. After AgNO3 treatment 5 millimol of KIO3 is required, i.e. 10 millimol KI is remaining. ⇒ 5 millimol KI reacted with 5 millimol of AgNO3. 5 ⇒ Mass of AgNO3 = × 170 = 0.85 g 1000 ⇒ Mass percentage of AgNO3 = 85% 43. CO2 is evolved due to following reaction : 2NaHCO3 → Na 2CO3 + H2O + CO2 750 123.9 1 pV Moles of CO2 produced = = × × 760 1000 0.082 × 298 RT = 5 × 10−3 ⇒ Moles of NaHCO3 in 2 g sample = 2 × 5 × 10−3 = 0.01 ⇒ millimol of NaHCO3 in 1.5 g sample 0.01 = × 1.5 × 1000= 7.5 2 Let the 1.5 g sample contain x millimol Na 2CO3, then 2x + 7.5 = millimol of HCl = 15 x = 3.75 7.5 × 84 = 0.63 g ⇒ Mass of NaHCO3 = 1000 3.75 × 106 Mass of Na 2CO3 = = 0.3975 g 1000 0.63 × 100 = 42 % ⇒ % mass of NaHCO3 = 1.50 0.3975 % mass of Na 2CO3 = × 100 = 26.5% 1.5 ⇒ 44. Mass of Fe2O3 = 0.552 g Now, solving equations (i) and (ii), x = 10 mL, y = 4 mL and volume of He = 20 – 14 = 6 mL 10 Vol % of CO = × 100 = 50% ⇒ 20 0.552 × 1000 = 3.45 160 During treatment with Zn-dust, all Fe3+ is reduced to Fe2 + , hence millimol of Fe2O3 = Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry 21 millimol of Fe2 + (in 100 mL) = 3.45 × 2 = 6.90 6.90 = 1.725 millimol Fe2+ ion. ⇒ In 25 mL aliquot, 4 Finally Fe2+ is oxidised to Fe3+ , liberating one electron per Fe2+ ion. Therefore, total electrons taken up by oxidant. = 1.725 × 10−3 × 6.023 × 1023 = 1.04 × 10 5C2O42− + 2MnO−4 + 16H+ → 2Mn 2+ + 10CO2 + 8H2O Let, in the given mass of compound, x millimol of C2O2− 4 ion is present, then Meq of C2O42− = Meq of MnO−4 ⇒ 2x = 0.02 × 5 × 22.6 ⇒ x = 1.13 At the later stage, with I − , Cu 2+ is reduced as : 2Cu 2+ + 4I − → 2CuI + I2 and I2 + 2S2O32− → 2I− + S4O62− Let there be x millimol of Cu 2+ . Meq of Cu 2+ = Meq of I2 = meq of hypo ⇒ x = 11.3 × 0.05 = 0.565 ⇒ Moles of Cu 2+ : moles of C2O42− = 0.565 : 1.13 = 1 : 2 46. Let us consider 10 mL of the stock solution contain x millimol oxalic acid H2C2O4 and y millimol of NaHC2O4. When titrated against NaOH, basicity of oxalic acid is 2 while that of NaHC2O4 is 1. … (i) ⇒ 2x + y = 3 × 0.1 = 0.3 When titrated against acidic KMnO4, n-factors of both oxalic acid and NaHC2O4 would be 2. … (ii) ⇒ 2x + 2 y = 4 × 0.1 = 0.4 Solving equations (i) and (ii) gives y = 0.1, x = 0.1 ⇒ In 1.0 L solution, mole of H2C2O4 = Mole of NaHC2O4 = ⇒ X = C2H4Cl 2 with two of its structural isomers. Cl— CH2— CH2 — Cl and I CH3— CHCl 2 II On treatment with KOH, I will give ethane-1, 2-diol, hence it is Y. Z on treatment with KOH will give ethanal as 20 45. With KMnO4, oxalate ion is oxidised only as : ⇒ Because X can be represented by two formula of which one gives a dihydroxy compound with KOH indicates that X has two chlorine atoms per molecule. 0.1 × 100 = 0.01 1000 0.1 × 100 = 0.01 1000 ⇒ Mass of H2C2O4 = 90 × 0.01 = 0.9 g Mass of NaHC2O4 = 112 × 0.01= 1.12 g 35.5 47. Mass of chlorine in 1.0 g X = × 2.9 = 0.717 g 143.5 Now, the empirical formula can be derived as : ClCH2CH2Cl + OH− → CH2 — CH2 OH OH (Y ) –H2 O CH3CHCl 2 + KOH → CH3CH(OH)2 → CH3CHO Unstable (Z ) 48. Let the n-factor of KMnO4 in acid, neutral and alkaline media are N 1, N 2 and N 3 respectively. Also, same volumes of reducing agent is used everytime, same number of equivalents of KMnO4 would be required every time. 100 5 N 2 = 100N 3 ⇒ N 1 = N 2 = 5N 3 ⇒ 20N 1 = 3 3 Also, n-factors are all integer and greater than or equal to one but less than six, N 3 must be 1. ⇒ N 1 = 5, N 2 = 3 ∴ In acid medium MnO−4 → Mn 2+ In neutral medium MnO−4 → Mn 4+ In alkaline medium MnO−4 → Mn6+ ⇒ meq of K2Cr2O7 required = 100 100 = 1 × 6 × V (n-factor = 6) ⇒ ⇒ V = 100/ 6 = 16.67 mL 1 49. Meq of MnO−4 required = 20 × ×5=2 50 ⇒ Meq of Fe2+ present in solution = 2 ⇒ millimol of Fe2+ present in solution = 2 (n-factor = 1) Also, Q 4 millimol of Fe2+ are formed from 1 millimol N2H4 1 1 ∴ 2 millimol Fe2+ from × 2 = millimol N2H4 4 2 Therefore, molarity of hydrazine sulphate solution 1 1 1 = × = 2 10 20 1 mol N2H6SO4 is present. ⇒ In 1 L solution 20 1 ⇒ Amount of N2H6SO4 = × 130 = 6.5 gL−1 20 C H Cl % wt : 24.24 4.04 71.72 Mole : 2 4 2 ⇒ Molarity of carbonate solution = Simple ratio : 1 2 1 ⇒ Normality of carbonate solution = 2 × 0.035 = 0.07 N ⇒ Empirical formula = CH2Cl. 50. Molecular weight of Na 2CO3 ⋅10H2O = 286 1 1000 = 0.035 × 286 100 22 Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry In acid solution : Normality of HNO3 = Normality of HCl = 8×5 = 0.02 2000 5 × 4.8 = 0.012 2000 Let normality of H2SO4 in final solution be N. ⇒ (N + 0.02 + 0.012) × 30 = 0.07 × 42.9 ⇒ N = 0.0681 ⇒ Gram equivalent of ⇒ Mass of SO2− 4 SO2− 4 in 2 L solution = 2 × 0.0681 = 0.1362 96 in solution = 0.1362 × = 6.5376 g 2 51. For the oxidation of A n+ as : A n+ → AO−3 n-factor = 5 – n ⇒ Gram equivalent of A n+ = 2.68 × 10−3 (5 − n) Now equating the above gram equivalent with gram equivalent of KMnO4 : 2.68 × 10−3 (5 − n) = 1.61 × 10−3 × 5 ⇒ n=+2 52. During heating MCO3 is converted into MO liberating CO2 while BaO is remaining unreacted : Heat MCO3 (s) → MO(s) + CO2 (g ) ↑ 0.44 g = 0.01 mol BaO(s) 4.08 g BaO(s) 3.64 g From the decomposition information, it can be deduced that the original mixture contained 0.01 mole of MCO3 and the solid residue, obtained after heating, contain 0.01 mole (10 millimol) of MO. Also, millimol of HCl taken initially = 100 millimol of NaOH used in back-titration = 16 × 2.5 = 40 ⇒ millimol of HCl reacted with oxide residue = 60 HCl reacts with oxides as : MO + 2HCl → MCl 2 + H2O 10 millimol 20 millimol BaO + 2HCl → BaCl 2 + H2O 60 – 20 = 40 millimol Therefore, the residue contain 20 millimol of BaO. Also, molar mass of BaO = 138 + 16 = 154 154 × 20 = 3.08 g Mass of BaO = ⇒ 1000 ⇒ Mass of MCO3 = 4.08 – 3.08 = 1.0 g Q 0.01 mole of MCO3 weight 1.0 g ∴ 1 mole of MCO3 = 100 g ⇒ 100 = (Atomic weight of metal) + (12 + 3 × 16) ⇒ Atomic weight of metal = 40, i.e. Ca 2 Atomic Structure Topic 1 Preliminary Developments and Bohr’s Model Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. Which one of the following about an electron occupying the 1s-orbital in a hydrogen atom is incorrect? (The Bohr radius is represented by a0 ) (2019 Main, 9 April II) (a) The electron can be found at a distance 2a0 from the nucleus. (b) The magnitude of the potential energy is double that of its kinetic energy on an average. (c) The probability density of finding the electron is maximum at the nucleus. (d) The total energy of the electron is maximum when it is at a distance a0 from the nucleus. 2. If p is the momentum of the fastest electron ejected from a metal surface after the irradiation of light having wavelength λ, then for 1.5 p momentum of the photoelectron, the wavelength of the light should be (Assume kinetic energy of ejected photoelectron to be very high in comparison to work function) (2019 Main, 8 April II) 4 λ 9 2 (c) λ 3 3 λ 4 1 (d) λ 2 (b) (a) 3. What is the work function of the metal, if the light of wavelength 4000 Å generates photoelectron of velocity 6 × 105 ms −1 from it? −31 (Mass of electron = 9 × 10 kg Velocity of light = 3 × 10 ms −1 8 Planck’s constant = 6.626 × 10−34 Js Charge of electron = 1.6 × 10−19 JeV−1 ) (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) (a) 4.0 eV (c) 0.9 eV (b) 2.1 eV (d) 3.1 eV The energy of second excited state of He+ ion in eV is (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) (b) −3.4 (c) −6.04 relationship between incident light and the electron ejected from metal surface? (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) K.E. of e ss K.E. of es s (a) (b) 0 0 Energy of light Number of ess Intensity of light K.E. of ess (c) (d) 0 Frequency of light 0 Frequency of light 6. A stream of electrons from a heated filament was passed between two charged plates kept at a potential difference V esu. If e and m are charge and mass of an electron, respectively, then the value of h/ λ (where, λ is wavelength associated with electron wave) is given by (2016 Main) (a) 2 meV (b) meV (c) 2meV (d) meV 7. Rutherford’s experiment, which established the nuclear model of the atom, used a beam of (2002, 3M) (a) β -particles, which impinged on a metal foil and got absorbed (b) γ-rays, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered (c) helium atoms, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered (d) helium nuclei, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered 8. Rutherford’s alpha particle scattering experiment eventually led 4. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is −13.6 eV. (a) −54.4 5. Which of the graphs shown below does not represent the (d) −27.2 to the conclusion that (1986, 1M) (a) mass and energy are related (b) electrons occupy space around the nucleus (c) neutrons are burried deep in the nucleus (d) the point of impact with matter can be precisely determined 24 Atomic Structure 9. The radius of an atomic nucleus is of the order of −10 (a) 10 −13 cm (b) 10 −15 cm (c) 10 cm −8 (d) 10 cm 10. Bohr’s model can explain List-I (1985, 1M) (1985, 1M) (a) the spectrum of hydrogen atom only (b) spectrum of an atom or ion containing one electron only (c) the spectrum of hydrogen molecule (d) the solar spectrum List-II (I) Radius of the n th orbit (P) ∝ n −2 (II) Angular momentum of the electron in the nth orbit (Q) ∝ n −1 (III) Kinetic energy of the electron in the nth orbit (R) ∝ n0 (IV) Potential energy of the electron in the nth orbit (S) ∝ n1 (T) ∝ n2 (U) ∝ n 1/ 2 11. The increasing order (lowest first) for the values of e/m (charge/mass) for electron ( e ), proton (p), neutron (n) and alpha particle (α) is (1984, 1M) (a) e, p, n, α (b) n, p, e, α (c) n , p , α , e (d) n , α, p , e 12. Rutherford’s scattering experiment is related to the size of the (a) nucleus (b) atom (1983, 1M) (c) electron (d) neutron 13. Rutherford’s experiment on scattering of α-particles showed for the first time that the atom has (a) electrons (b) protons (c) nucleus (d) neutrons (1981, 1M) 14. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of H-atom is –13.6 eV. The possible energy value(s) of the excited state(s) for electrons in Bohr orbits of hydrogen is (are) (1988) (a) − 3.4 eV (b) − 4.2 eV (c) − 6.8 eV (d) + 6.8 eV 15. The atomic nucleus contains (b) neutrons electron moves around the nucleus. In the following List-I contains some quantities for the nth orbit of the atom and List-II contains options showing how they depend on n. List-II (I) Radius of the nth orbit (P) ∝ n −2 (II) Angular momentum of the electron in the nth orbit (Q) ∝ n −1 (III) Kinetic energy of the electron in the nth orbit (R) ∝ n0 (IV) Potential energy of the electron in the nth orbit (S) ∝ n1 (T) ∝ n2 (U) ∝ n 1/ 2 (1988, 1M) (c) electrons (d) photons 16. The sum of the number of neutrons and proton in the isotope of hydrogen is (a) 6 (b) 5 20. Consider the Bohr’s model of a one-electron atom where the List-I Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) (a) protons Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II? (2019 Adv.) (a) (III), (P) (b) (III), (S) (c) (IV), (U) (d) (IV), (Q) (1986, 1M) (c) 4 (d) 3 17. When alpha particles are sent through a thin metal foil, most of them go straight through the foil, because (1984, 1M) (a) alpha particles are much heavier than electrons (b) alpha particles are positively charged (c) most part of the atom is empty space (d) alpha particles move with high velocity Which of the following options has the correct combination considering List-I and List-II? (2019 Adv.) (a) (II), (R) (b) (I), (P) (c) (I), (T) (d) (II), (Q) 21. According to Bohr’s theory, En = Total energy Vn = Potential energy Match the following : 18. Many elements have non-integral atomic masses, because (a) they have isotopes (1984, 1M) (b) their isotopes have non-integral masses (c) their isotopes have different masses (d) the constituents, neutrons, protons and electrons, combine to give fractional masses Match the Columns 19. Consider the Bohr’s model of a one-electron atom where the electron moves around the nucleus. In the following List-I contains some quantities for the nth orbit of the atom and List-II contains options showing how they depend on n. K n = Kinetic energy rn = Radius of nth orbit (2006, 6M) Column I Column II A. V / K = ? n n B. If radius of nth orbit ∝ C. Angular momentum in lowest orbital D. 1 r n ∝ Zy, y = ? E xn ,x= ? p. 0 q. –1 r. –2 s. 1 Fill in the Blanks 22. The light radiations with discrete quantities of energy are called ................ . (1993, 1M) Atomic Structure 25 23. The mass of a hydrogen is …… kg. (1982, 1M) Use Avogardo constant as 6.023 × 1023 mol −1 . (2020 Adv.) 24. Isotopes of an element differ in the number of …… in their Potential energy (kJ mol–1) nuclei. (1982, 1M) 25. Elements of the same mass number but of different atomic numbers are known as …… . (1983, 1M) Numerical Answer Type Questions H H E0 d0 26. The figure below is the plot of potential energy versus internuclear distance ( d ) of H2 molecule in the electronic ground state. What is the value of the net potential energy E0 (as indicated in the figure) in kJ mol −1 , for d = d 0 at which the electron-electron repulsion and the nucleus-nucleus repulsion energies are absent? As reference, the potential energy of H atom is taken as zero when its electron and the nucleus are infinitely far apart. d Internuclear distance (d) Subjective Questions 27. With what velocity should an α-particle travel towards the nucleus of a copper atom so as to arrive at a distance 10−13 m from the nucleus of the copper atom ? (1997 (C), 3M) Topic 2 Advanced Concept (Quantum Mechanical Theory) Electronic Configuration and Quantum Number Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. The figure that is not a direct manifestation of the quantum nature of atoms is (2020 Main, 2 Sep I) 3. Among the following, the energy of 2s-orbital is lowest in (2019 Main, 12 April II) (a) K (b) H (c) Li (d) Na 4. The electrons are more likely to be found Increasing wavelength a Ψ (x) (a) b Rb (b) (c) x –x Absorption spectrum K c Na (2019 Main, 12 April I) Kinetic energy of photoelectrons (a) in the region a and c (c) only in the region a (b) in the region a and b (d) only in the region c Frequency of incident radiation 5. The ratio of the shortest wavelength of two spectral series of 300 6. The graph between | ψ |2 and r (radial distance) is shown below. hydrogen spectrum is found to be about 9. The spectral series are (2019 Main, 10 April II) (a) Lyman and Paschen (b) Brackett and Pfund (c) Paschen and Pfund (d) Balmer and Brackett Internal energy of Ar 400 500 600 Temperature (K) This represents (2019 Main, 10 April I) T 2 >T 1 (d) Intensity of black body radiation 2 |Ψ| T1 Wavelength 2. The number of orbitals associated with quantum numbers 1 n = 5, ms = + is 2 (a) 25 (b) 50 (2020 Main, 7 Jan I) (c) 15 (d) 11 r (a) 1s-orbital (c) 3s-orbital (b) 2 p-orbital (d) 2s-orbital 26 Atomic Structure 7. For any given series of spectral lines of atomic hydrogen, let ∆ν = ν max − ν min be the difference in maximum and minimum frequencies in cm −1 . The ratio ∆ νLyman / ∆ νBalmer is (2019 Main, 9 April I) (a) 27 : 5 (b) 5 : 4 (c) 9 : 4 (d) 4 : 1 8. The quantum number of four electrons are given below: I. n = 4 , l = 2, ml = − 2, ms = − 1 2 (2019 Main, 8 April I) (b) I < II < III < IV (d) I < III < II < IV th 9. If the de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in n Bohr orbit in a hydrogenic atom is equal to 15 . πa0 (a0 is Bohr radius), then the value of n / Z is (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) (a) 1.0 (b) 0.75 (c) 0.40 (d) 1.50 10. The de-Broglie wavelength ( λ ) associated with a photoelectron varies with the frequency ( ν ) of the incident radiation as, [ν 0 is threshold frequency] (2019 Main, 11 Jan II) 1 1 (b) λ ∝ (a) λ ∝ 1 3 ( ν − ν0 )4 1 (c) λ ∝ ( ν − ν0 ) (d) λ ∝ 1 11. Which of the following combination of statements is true regarding the interpretation of the atomic orbitals? (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) I. An electron in an orbital of high angular momentum stays away from the nucleus than an electron in the orbital of lower angular momentum. II. For a given value of the principal quantum number, the size of the orbit is inversely proportional to the azimuthal quantum number. III. According to wave mechanics, the ground state angular h momentum is equal to . 2π IV. The plot of ψ vs r for various azimuthal quantum numbers, shows peak shifting towards higher r value. (a) I, III (b) II, III (c) I, II (d) I, IV 12. Heat treatment of muscular pain involves radiation of wavelength of about 900 nm. Which spectral line of H-atom is suitable for this purpose? [RH = 1 × 105 cm–1 , (a) Paschen, 5 →3 (c) Lyman, ∞ → 1 Rydberg constant, RH is in wave number unit) (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) (a) non linear (c) linear with slope RH (b) linear with slope −RH (d) linear with intercept −RH (Planck’s constant ( h ) = 6.6262 × 10− 34 Js; mass of electron = 91091 × 10− 31 . (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) (b) Paschen, ∞ → 3 (d) Balmer, ∞ → 2 kg ; charge of electron C; permitivity of vacuum ( e ) = 160210 . × 10 (∈0 ) = 8.854185 × 10− 12kg − 1 m − 3A 2 ) (2017 Main) − 19 (a) 1.65 Å (b) 4.76 Å (c) 0.529 Å (d) 2.12 Å 15. P is the probability of finding the 1s electron of hydrogen atom in a spherical shell of infinitesimal thickness, dr, at a distance r from the nucleus. The volume of this shell is 4 πr2 dr. The qualitative sketch of the dependence of P on r is (2016 Adv.) P P (a) (b) 0 ( ν − ν0 )2 1 ( ν − ν0 )2 h = 6.6 × 10−34 Js, c = 3 × 108 ms −1 ] 1 the plot of wave number ( ν ) against 2 will be (The n 14. The radius of the second Bohr orbit for hydrogen atom is 1 II. n = 3, l = 2, ml = 1, ms = + 2 1 III. n = 4 , l = 1, ml = 0, ms = + 2 1 IV. n = 3, l = 1, ml = 1, ms = − 2 The correct order of their increasing energies will be (a) IV < III < II < I (c) IV < II < III < I 13. For emission line of atomic hydrogen from ni = 8 to n f = n, 0 r P r P (c) (d) 0 r 0 r 16. Which of the following is the energy of a possible excited state of hydrogen? (a) + 13.6 eV (c) –3.4 eV (2015 Main) (b) – 6.8 eV (d) + 6.8 eV 17. The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electrons of rubidium atom ( Z = 37 ) is 1 (b) 5, 1, 0, + (a) 5, 0, 0, + 2 1 (c) 5, 1, ,1, + (d) 5, 0, 1, + 2 18. Energy of an electron is given by Z2 E = − 2.178 × 10−18 J 2 n (2013 Main) 1 2 1 2 (2013 Main) Wavelength of light required to excite an electron in an hydrogen atom from level n = 1to n = 2 will be (h = 6.62 × 10−34 Js and c = 3.0 × 108 ms −1 ) (a) 1.214 × 10−7 m (c) 6.500 × 10 −7 m (b) 2.816 × 10−7 m (d) 8.500 × 10−7 m Atomic Structure 27 19. The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr orbit of a hydrogen atom is [a0 is Bohr radius] (2012) h2 h2 h2 h2 (d) (b) (c) (a) 4π 2 ma02 16π 2 ma02 32π 2 ma02 64π 2 ma02 20. The number of radial nodes in 3s and 2p respectively are (a) 2 and 0 (c) 1 and 2 (b) 0 and 2 (d) 2 and 1 (2005, 1M) 21. Which hydrogen like species will have same radius as that of Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom? (a) n = 2, Li 2+ (2004, 1M) 3+ (b) n = 2, Be (c) n = 2, He+ (d) n = 3, Li 2+ 22. If the nitrogen atom had electronic configuration 1s , it would have energy lower than that of the normal ground state configuration 1s2 2s2 2 p 3 , because the electrons would be closer to the nucleus, yet 1s7 is not observed, because it violates (2002, 3M) (a) Heisenberg uncertainty principle (b) Hund’s rule (c) Pauli exclusion principle (d) Bohr postulate of stationary orbits 24. The wavelength associated with a golf ball weighing 200 g and moving at a speed of 5 m/h is of the order (d) 10−40 m (b) two (c) three (2001, 1M) (2001, 1M) (d) zero 26. The electronic configuration of an element is 2 2 1s , 2s 2 p 6 , 3s2 3 p 6 3d 5 , 4 s1 . This represents its (2000, 1M) (a) excited state (c) cationic form atom was made by (1997, 1M) (a) Heisenberg (c) Planck (b) Bohr (d) Einstein 31. Which of the following has the maximum number of unpaired electrons ? (1996, 1M) (d) Fe2+ (c) V3+ (b) Ti 3+ (a) Mg2+ (1996, 1M) 1 h (a) + ⋅ 2 2π h (c) 2π (b) zero (d) 2 ⋅ h 2π 33. Which of the following relates to photons both as wave motion and as a stream of particles ? (1992, 1M) (b) E = mc2 (d) E = hν (a) The radiation can ionise gases (1992, 1M) (b) It causes ZnS to fluoresce (c) Deflected by electric and magnetic fields (d) Have wavelengths shorter than ultraviolet rays 35. The correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron of chlorine atom is (a) (c) n 2 3 l 1 1 m 0 1 (1989, 1M) n (b) 2 (d) 3 l 1 0 m 1 0 36. The correct ground state electronic configuration of chromium atom is (1989, 1M) (a) [ Ar ] 3d 5 4 s1 (b) [ Ar ] 3d 4 4 s2 (c) [ Ar ] 3d 6 4 s0 (d) [ Ar ] 4 d 5 4 s1 37. The outermost electronic configuration of the most 25. The number of nodal planes in a px orbital is (a) one 30. The first use of quantum theory to explain the structure of 34. Which of the following does not characterise X-rays ? (a) rotation of the electron in clockwise and anti-clockwise direction respectively (b) rotation of the electron in anti-clockwise and clockwise direction respectively (c) magnetic moment of the electron pointing up and down respectively (d) two quantum mechanical spin states which have no classical analogue (c) 10−30 m h (d) 2 2π h (c) 2π (a) Interference (c) Diffraction 1 1 23. The quantum numbers + and − for the electron spin 2 2 represent (2001, 1M) (b) 10−20 m h h (a) 6 (b) 2 2π 2π 32. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 2s-orbital is 7 (a) 10−10 m 29. For a d-electron, the orbital angular momentum is(1997, 1M) (b) ground state (d) anionic form electronegative element is (1988, 90, 1M) (a) ns2 np3 (b) ns2 np4 (c) ns2 np5 (d) ns2 np6 38. The orbital diagram in which the Aufbau principle is violated (1988, 1M) (a) (b) (c) (d) 27. The electrons, identified by quantum numbers n and l, (i) n = 4, l = 1, (ii) n = 4, l = 0, (iii) n = 3, l = 2, (iv) n = 3, l = 1 can be placed in order of increasing energy, from the lowest to highest, as (1999, 2M) (a) (iv) < (ii) < (iii) < (i) (c) (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv) (b) (ii) < (iv) < (i) < (iii) (d) (iii) < (i) < (iv) < (ii) 28. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of H-atom is –13.6 eV. The possible energy value(s) of the excited state(s) for electrons in Bohr orbits of hydrogen is (are) (1998, 2M) (a) –3.4 eV (c) – 6.8 eV (b) – 4.2 eV (d) + 6.8 eV 39. The wavelength of a spectral line for an electronic transition is inversely related to (1988, 1M) (a) the number of electrons undergoing the transition (b) the nuclear charge of the atom (c) the difference in the energy of the energy levels involved in the transition (d) the velocity of the electron undergoing the transition 28 Atomic Structure 40. The ratio of the energy of a photon of 200 Å wavelength radiation to that of 4000 Å radiation is 1 (a) 4 (b) 4 (1986, 1M) 1 (c) 2 41. Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers (d) 49. Which of the following statement (s) is (are) correct ? (1998, 2M) (b) radio wave (d) infrared (1985, 1M) absorb a photon but not to emit a photon? (b) 2p (c) 2s (1984, 1M) (d) 1s 44. Correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence (outermost) electron of rubidium ( Z = 37 ) is 1 (a) 5, 0, 0, + 2 1 (c) 5, 1, 1, + 2 (b) (c) 43. Which electronic level would allow the hydrogen atom to (a) 3s (1999, 3M) (1986, 1M) 42. Electromagnetic radiation with maximum wavelength is (a) ultraviolet (c) X-ray can be represented by (a) (d) 2. represents an impossible arrangement? n l m s 1 (a) 3 2 –2 2 1 (b) 4 0 0 2 1 (c) 3 2 –3 2 1 (d) 5 3 0 − 2 48. The ground state electronic configuration of nitrogen atom (1984, 1M) 1 (b) 5, 1, 0 , + 2 1 (d) 6, 0, 0, + 2 45. The principal quantum number of an atom is related to the (a) size of the orbital (b) spin angular momentum (c) orientation of the orbital in space (d) orbital angular momentum 46. Any p-orbital can accommodate upto (1983, 1M) (1983, 1M) (a) four electrons (b) six electrons (c) two electrons with parallel spins (d) two electrons with opposite spins Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) 47. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is −13.6 eV. Consider an electronic state Ψ of He+ whose energy, azimuthal quantum number and magnetic quantum number are −3.4 eV, 2 and 0, respectively. (a) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d 5 4 s1 (atomic number of Cr = 24) (b) The magnetic quantum number may have a negative value (c) In silver atom, 23 electrons have a spin of one type and 24 of the opposite type. (atomic number of Ag = 47) (d) The oxidation state of nitrogen in HN3 is – 3 76 32 Ge 50. An isotone of (a) (c) is 77 32 Ge 77 34 Se (1984, 1M) (b) (d) 77 33 As 78 34 Se Assertion and Reason Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below : (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct; Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct; Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct 51. Statement I The first ionisation energy of Be is greater than that of B. Statement II 2p-orbital is lower in energy than 2s. (2000) Passage Based Questions The hydrogen-like species Li2+ is in a spherically symmetric state S 1 with one radial node. Upon absorbing light the ion undergoes transition to a state S 2 . The state S 2 has one radial node and its energy is equal to the ground state energy of the hydrogen atom. 52. The state S 1 is (a) 1s (b) 2s (2010) (c) 2p (d) 3s Which of the following statement(s) is(are) true for the state Ψ? (2019 Adv.) (a) It is a 4 d state 53. Energy of the state S 1 in units of the hydrogen atom ground (b) The nuclear charge experienced by the electron in this state is less than 2e, where e is the magnitude of the electronic charge 54. The orbital angular momentum quantum number of the state (c) It has 2 angular nodes (d) It has 3 radial nodes state energy is (a) 0.75 (b) 1.50 (2010) (c) 2.25 (d) 4.50 S 2 is (a) 0 (2010) (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 Atomic Structure 29 Match the Columns Answer Q. 55, Q. 55 and Q. 56 by appropriately matching the information given in the three columns of the following table. The wave function, ψ n , l , ml is a mathematical function whose value depends upon spherical polar coordinates ( r, θ , φ ) of the electron and characterised by the quantum number n , l and ml . Here r is distance from nucleus, θ is colatitude and φ is azimuth. In the mathematical functions given in the Table, Z is atomic number and a0 is Bohr radius. (2017 Adv.) Column 1 (I) 1s-orbital Column 2 Column 3 3 Zr 2 − a 0 e (i) Z ψn, l , ml ∝ a0 (P) ψn, I, ml (r) 0 r/a0 (II) 2s-orbital (ii) One radial node (III) 2 pz-orbital (iii) (IV) 3 dz2-orbital (iv) 5 ψn, l ml (Q) Zr Z 2 − a ∝ re 0 cosθ a0 xy-plane is a nodal plane 55. For He+ ion, the only INCORRECT combination is (a) (I) (i) (S) (c) (I) (iii) (R) (b) (II) (ii) (Q) (d) (I) (i) (R) combination for any hydrogen-like species is (a) (II) (ii) (P) (b) (I) (ii) (S) (c) (IV) (iv) (R) (d) (III) (iii) (P) 57. For hydrogen atom, the only CORRECT combination is (b) (I) (iv) (R) (d) (I) (i) (S) (2008, 6M) Column I A. B. Column II Orbital angular momentum of the electron in a hydrogen-like atomic orbital. p. A hydrogen-like one-electron wave function obeying Pauli’s principle. q. a03 (R) Probability density is maximum at nucleus (S) Energy needed to excite electron from n = 2 state to n = 4 state 27 is times the energy needed to excite electron from n = 2 32 state to n = 6 state Fill in the Blanks outermost electronic configuration of Cr is .......................... . (1994, 1M) 60. 8 g each of oxygen and hydrogen at 27°C will have the total kinetic energy in the ratio of .......... . (1989, 1M) 61. The uncertainty principle and the concept of wave nature of matter were proposed by ............ and .............respectively. (1988, 1M) 62. Wave functions of electrons in atoms and molecules are 58. Match the entries in Column I with the correctly related quantum number(s) in Column II. 1 59. The 56. For the given orbital in Column 1, the Only CORRECT (a) (I) (i) (P) (c) (II) (i) (Q) Probability density at nucleus ∝ Principal quantum number Azimuthal quantum number C. Shape, size and orientation of hydrogen-like atomic orbitals. r. Magnetic quantum number D. Probability density of electron at the nucleus in hydrogen-like atom. s. Electron spin quantum number called .............. . (1993, 1M) 63. The 2 px, 2 p y and 2 p z orbitals of atom have identical shapes but differ in their ........... . (1993, 1M) 64. When there are two electrons in the same orbital, they have …… spins. (1983, 1M) True/False 65. In a given electric field, β -particles are deflected more than α-particles in spite of α-particles having larger charge. (1993, 1M) orbital is y zero. (1986, 1M) 67. The energy of the electron in the 3d-orbital is less than that in the 4s-orbital in the hydrogen atom. (1983, 1M) 68. Gamma rays are electromagnetic radiations of wavelengths of 10−6 to 10−5 cm. (1983, 1M) 69. The outer electronic configuration of the ground state chromium atom is 3d 4 4 s2 . (1982, 1M) 66. The electron density in the XY-plane in 3d x 2 − 2 30 Atomic Structure Integer Answer Type Questions 70. Not considering the electronic spin, the degeneracy of the second excited state ( n = 3 ) of H-atom is 9, while the degeneracy of the second excited state of H− is (2015 Adv.) 71. In an atom, the total number of electrons having quantum numbers (2014 Adv.) 1 n = 4, | ml | = 1 and ms = − is 2 72. The atomic masses of He and Ne are 4 and 20 amu, respectively. The value of the de-Broglie wavelength of He gas at −73°C is ‘M’ times that of the de-Broglie wavelength of Ne at 727°C. M is (2013 Adv.) 73. The work function (φ) of some metals is listed below. The number of metals which will show photoelectric effect when light of 300 nm wavelength falls on the metal is (2011) Metal Li Na K Mg Cu Ag Fe Pt W Φ (eV) 2.4 2.3 2.2 3.7 4.8 4.3 4.7 6.3 4.75 74. The maximum number of electrons that can have principal quantum number, n = 3 and spin quantum number, (2011) ms = − 1 / 2 , is Subjective Questions 75. (a) Calculate velocity of electron in first Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom (Given, r = a0 ). (b) Find de-Broglie wavelength of the electron in first Bohr orbit. (c) Find the orbital angular momentum of 2p-orbital in terms of (2005, 2M) h / 2π units. 76. (a) The Schrodinger wave equation for hydrogen atom is ψ 2s = 1 1 4 (2π )1/ 2 a0 3/ 2 r − r / 2a 0 2 − e a0 where, a0 is Bohr’s radius. Let the radial node in 2s be at r0. Then, find r in terms of a0. (b) A base ball having mass 100 g moves with velocity 100 m/s. Find out the value of wavelength of base ball. (2004, 2M) 77. The wavelength corresponding to maximum energy for hydrogen is 91.2 nm. Find the corresponding wavelength for He+ ion. (2003, 2M) 78. Calculate the energy required to excite 1 L of hydrogen gas at 1 atm and 298 K to the first excited state of atomic hydrogen. The energy for the dissociation of H—H bond is 436 kJ mol −1 . (2000) 79. An electron beam can undergo diffraction by crystals. Through what potential should a beam of electrons be accelerated so that its wavelength becomes equal to 1.54 Å. (1997 (C), 2M) 80. Consider the hydrogen atom to be proton embedded in a cavity of radius a0 (Bohr’s radius) whose charge is neutralised by the addition of an electron to the cavity in vacuum, infinitely slowly. Estimate the average total energy of an electron in its ground state in a hydrogen atom as the work done in the above neutralisation process. Also, if the magnitude of the average kinetic energy is half the magnitude of the average potential energy, find the average potential energy. (1996, 2M) 81. Calculate the wave number for the shortest wavelength transition in the Balmer series of atomic hydrogen.(1996, 1M) 82. Iodine molecule dissociates into atoms after absorbing light to 4500Å. If one quantum of radiation is absorbed by each molecule, calculate the kinetic energy of iodine atoms. (Bond energy of I2 = 240 kJ mol –1 ) (1995, 2M) 83. Find out the number of waves made by a Bohr’s electron in one complete revolution in its 3rd orbit. (1994, 3M) 84. What transition in the hydrogen spectrum would have the same wavelength as the Balmer transition n = 4 to n = 2 of (1993, 3M) He+ spectrum? 85. Estimate the difference in energy between 1st and 2nd Bohr’s orbit for a hydrogen atom. At what minimum atomic number, a transition from n = 2 to n = 1 energy level would result in the emission of X-rays with l = 3.0 × 10–8 m ? Which hydrogen atom-like species does this atomic number correspond to? (1993, 5M) 86. According to Bohr’s theory, the electronic energy of hydrogen atom in the nth Bohr’s orbit is given by : En = −21.7 × 10−19 J n2 Calculate the longest wavelength of electron from the third Bohr’s orbit of the He+ ion. (1990, 3M) 87. What is the maximum number of electrons that may be present in all the atomic orbitals with principal quantum number 3 and azimuthal quantum number 2 ? (1985, 2M) 88. Give reason why the ground state outermost electronic configuration of silicon is (1985, 2M) 3s 3p 3s 3p and not 89. The electron energy in hydrogen atom is given by En = − 21.7 × 10−12 erg. Calculate the energy required to n2 remove an electron completely from the n = 2 orbit. What is the longest wavelength (in cm) of light that can be used to cause this transition? (1984, 3M) 90. Calculate the wavelength in Angstroms of the photon that is emitted when an electron in the Bohr’s orbit, n = 2 returns to the orbit, n = 1in the hydrogen atom. The ionisation potential of the ground state hydrogen atom is 2.17 × 10−11 erg per atom. (1982, 4M) 91. The energy of the electron in the second and third Bohr’s orbits of the hydrogen atom is − 5.42 × 10−12 erg and − 2.41 × 10−12 erg respectively. Calculate the wavelength of the emitted light when the electron drops from the third to the second orbit. (1981, 3M) Answers Topic 1 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) (d) 6. (c) 7. (d) (b) 10. (b) 11. (d) (c) 14. (a) 15. (a,b) (a,c) 18. (a,c) 19. (a) A → r; B → q; C → p, D → s 22. (photons) 23. (1 . 66 × 10 –27 kg) 25. (isobars) 26. (–5242.41) 27. 4. 8. 12. 16. 20. (c) (b) (a) (d) (c) 24. (neutrons) 6.3 × 10 6 Topic 2 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (a,c) 48. (a,d) 49. (a,b,c) 50. (b,d) 51. (c) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (a) 58. A → q; 57. (d) B → p, q, r, s 5 59. Cr = [Ar] 3d , 4s C → p, q, r 1 D → p, q, r 60. 1 : 16 61. Heisenberg, de-Broglie. 62. orbital 63. Orientation in space 64. opposite 65. True 69. False 73. (4.14 eV) 66. False 70. (3) 74. (9) 67. True 71. (6) 77. (22.8 nm) 79. (63.56 V) 81. (2.725× 10 6 M −1) 82. (2.16 × 10 20 J/atom) 89. (3.66 × 10 −5 86. (471 nm) 68. False 72. (5) 78. (98.44 kJ) 87. (10) cm) 90. (1220 Å) 91. (660 nm) Hints & Solutions Topic 1 Preliminary Developments and Bohr’s Model 1. Statement (d) is incorrect. For 1s-orbital radial probability density (R 2 ) against r is given as: decreases. The maximum in the curve corresponds to the distance at which the probability of finding the electron in maximum. 2. The expression of kinetic energy of photo electrons, 1 mv 2 = E − E0 2 When, KE > > E0, the equation becomes, 1 KE = mv 2 = E 2 1 2 hc p2 hc ⇒ = mv = ⇒ 2 λ 2 λ 2m 1 1 2 ⇒ λ = hc × 2m × 2 ⇒ λ ∝ 2 p p hc E= = energy of incident light. λ E0 = threshold energy or work functions, 1 2 1 (mv )2 1 p2 mv = × = × 2 2 2 2 m m2 Q p = momentum = mv As per the given condition, KE = R2 1s r 4πrR2 For 1s-orbital, probability density decreases sharply as we move away from the nucleus. The radial distribution curves obtained by plotting radial probability functions vs r for 1s-orbital is λ 2 p1 = λ 1 p2 2 2 r The graph initially increases and then decreases. It reaches a maximum at a distance very close to the nucleus and then ⇒ 2 λ2 p 4 2 = = = 3 . × p λ 15 9 32 Atomic Structure ⇒ 4 λ 9 λ2 = Q λ 1 = λ p1 = p So, option (a) is correct. (ii) KE of ejected electrons does not depend on the intensity of incident light. 3. Work function of metal (φ ) = hν 0 where, ν 0 = threshold frequency KE 1 mev 2 = hν − hν 0 2 1 or mev 2 = hν − φ 2 1 hc −φ mev 2 = λ 2 Given : λ = 4000 Å = 4000 × 10−10m Also, …(i) 0 …(ii) Intensity of light So, option (b) is correct. (iii) When, number of ejected electrons is plotted with frequency of light, we get v = 6 × 105 ms −1, me = 9 × 10−31 kg, c = 3 × 108 ms −1 Number of e–’s h = 6.626 × 10−34 Js Thus, on substituting all the given values in Eq. (i), we get 1 × 9 × 10−31 kg × (6 × 105 ms −1 )2 2 6.626 × 10−34 J s × 3 × 108 ms −1 −φ = 4000 × 10−10 m 0 So, option (c) is also correct. (iv) KE = hν − hν 0 φ = 162 . × 10−21 kgm 2s −2 − 4.96 × 10−19 J ∴ = 3.36 × 10−19 J [1 kgm2s −2 = 1J] KE = 21 . eV 0 4. The ground state energy of H-atom is + 13.6 eV. For second excited state, n = 2 + 1 = 3 Z2 [Qfor He+ , Z = 2] ∴ E3 (He+ ) = − 13.6 × 2 eV n 22 = − 13.6 × 2 eV = − 6.04 eV 3 KE = E − E0 Slope = + h, intercept = − hν 0. So, option (d) is not correct. 6. Plan As you can see in options, energy term is mentioned hence, we have to find out relation between h / λ and energy. For this, we shall use de-Broglie wavelength and kinetic energy term in eV. ⇒ |Ψ|2 For 1s-orbital number of radial node = 1–0–1=0 r KE = Kinetic energy of ejected electrons. E = Energy of incident light = hν E0 = Threshold energy = hν0 ν = Frequency of incident light ν0 = Threshold frequency KE E0 Slope = ± 1, intercept = − E0 E h p h λ p= …(i) Kinetic energy of an electron = eV As we know that, KE = ∴ where, 0 n n0 de-Broglie wavelength for an electron (λ ) = 5. For photoelectric effect, (i) Frequency of light (n) p2 2m eV = p2 2m or p = 2 meV …(ii) h = 2 meV λ nuclei) in his experiment. From equations (i) and (ii), we get 7. Rutherford used α-particle (He2+ 8. According to Rutherford’s model, there is a heavily positively charged nucleus and negatively charged electrons occupies space around it in order to maintain electro-neutrality. 9. Radius of a nucleus is in the order of 10−13 cm, a fact. 10. Bohr’s model is applicable to one-electron system only. 11. Neutron has no charge, hence e/ m is zero for neutron. Next, α-particle (He2+ ) has very high mass compared to proton and electron, therefore very small e/ m ratio. Proton and electron Atomic Structure 33 have same charge (magnitude) but former is heavier, hence has smaller value of e/ m. e : n<α < p< e m 21. A. Vn = − Kn = 12. The negligibly small size of nucleus compared to the size of atom was first established in Rutherford’s experiment. 13. The most important findings of Rutherford’s experiment is 13.6 where, eV n2 13.6 In excited states, E2 = − = − 3.4 eV 4 13.6 E3 = − = − 1.51 eV etc. 9 En = − n =1, 2, 3, .... 1 Ze2 8πε 0 r ⇒ Vn = − 2 (r ) Kn B. En = − discovery of nucleus. 14. Energy of electron in H-atom is determined by the expression: 1 Ze2 4 πε 0 r ⇒ Ze2 ∝ r −1 8πε 0r x = − 1 (q ) C. Angular momentum = l (l + 1) D. rn = a0n2 ⇒ Z 1 ∝ Z (s) rn 15. Nucleus is composed of neutrons and protons. 22. Photons have quantised energy. 16. The isotopes of hydrogen are 1 H2 and 1H3. 23. Mass of one H-atom = 17. Alpha particles passes mostly undeflected when sent through h = 0 in 1s-orbital — (p) 2π 10−3 kg = 1.66 × 10−27 kg 6.023 × 1023 thin metal foil mainly, because 24. Isotopes have different number of neutrons. (i) it is much heavier than electrons. (ii) most part of atom is empty space. 25. Isobars have same mass number but different atomic numbers. 18. Many elements have several isotopes. For such elements, atomic mass is average of the atomic masses of different isotopes, which is usually non-integral. 19. (III) Kinetic energy of the electron in nth orbit, K.E. = + 13.6 × Z2 n2 1 or K.E. ∝ n−2 n2 From list-II, correct match is (III P). (IV) Potential energy of the electron in the nth orbit, Z2 P.E. = − 2 × 13.6 × 2 n 1 P.E. ∝ 2 n P.E. ∝ n−2 or K.E. ∝ 26. Given that, electrons and nucleus are at infinite distance, so potential energy of H-atom is taken as zero. Therefore, according to Bohr’s model, potential energy of a H-atom with electron in its ground state = − 27.2 eV At d = d0, nucleus-nucleus and electron-electron repulsion is absent. Hence, potential energy will be calculated for 2H atoms = − 2 × 27.2 eV= − 54.4 eV Potential enery of 1 mol H atoms in kJ 54.4 × 6.02 × 1023 × 16 . × 10−19 = − 5242. 4192 kJ/mol = 1000 27. When α-particle stop at 10−13m from nucleus, kinetic energy is zero, i.e. whole of its kinetic energy at the starting point is now converted into potential energy. Potential energy of this α-particle can be determined as PE = − From List II, correct match is (IV P). Hence, correct matching from list-I and list-II on the basis of given option is (III, P). 20. (I) Radius of the nth orbit, r = 0.529 × Here, n2 Z ⇒ (Z1 = + 2, Z2 = + 29, ε 0 = 8.85 × 10−12 J−1 C2 m −1, r = 10−13 m) −19 2 2 × 29 × (1.6 × 10 ) J | PE | = 4 × 3.14 × 8.85 × 10−12 × 10−13 = 1.33 × 10−13 J r ∝ n2 From list-II, correct match is (I, T ) (II) Angular momentum of the electron, nh or mvr ∝ n mvr = 2π From list-II, correct match (II, S) Hence, correct matching from list-I and list-II on the basis of given option is (I, T ). Z1 × Z2e2 (4 πε 0 ) r ⇒ ⇒ = kinetic energy of α-particle at t = 0 1 KE = mv 2 = 1.33 × 10−13 2 v= 2 × 1.33 × 10−13 = 6.3 × 106 ms−1 4 × 1.66 × 10−27 34 Atomic Structure Topic 2 Advanced Concept (Quantum Mechanical Theory) Electronic Configuration and Quantum Number The graph between wavefunction (ψ ) and distance (r) from the nucleus helps in determining the shape of orbital. 5. According to Rydberg’s equation, 1 RH 1 1 = − hc n12 n22 λ 1. Quantum nature of atoms are associated with following phenomena or processes : (i) Absorption spectrum (ii) Emission spectrum (iii) Black body radiation (iv) Photo-electricity Internal energy (U ) of particles like atoms depends upon the thermodynamic variables ( p, V , T ) of the system. Thus, U = f ( p,T ) or U = f1 (T ,V ) orU = f2 ( p,V ) So, quantum nature of atom is not associated with its internal energy. Graph (c) is not a direct manifestation of the quantum nature of atoms. 2. According to quantum mechanical atom model, for each value of n (principal quantum number), there are ‘n’ different values of l (azimuthal quantum number), i.e. l = 0, 1, 2, …, (n − 1). And, for each value of l, there are 2l + 1 different values of ml (magnetic quantum number), i.e. ml = 0, ±1, ±2 … ± l. ∴Total number of possible combinations of n, l and ml , for a given value of n is n2, and each such combination is associated with an orbital. Each orbital can occupy a maximum of two electrons, having a different value of spin quantum number (ms ), 1 1 which are + or − . 2 2 ∴ Number of orbitals associated with n = 5 is n2 = 25. Each of 1 as well as those orbitals can be associated with ms = + 2 1 ms = − . 2 ∴ Answer = 25 3. The energy of 2s-orbital is lowest in K(potassium). An orbital Principal quantum number gets larger as the principal quantum number n increases. Correspondingly, the energy of the electron in such an orbital becomes less negative, meaning that the electron is less strongly bound and has less energy. The graph of principal quantum number with atomic number is or 1 1 1 ∝ − λ n12 n22 For shortest wavelength, i.e. highest energy spectral line, n2 will be (∞ ). For the given spectral series, ratio of the shortest wavelength of two spectral series can be calculated as follows : 1 1 1 − −0 λ L 32 ∞ 2 9 1 (a) = = = 1 1 λP 1 − 0 9 − 12 ∞ 2 1 1 − 2 2 λ Bk 1 16 16 5 ∞ (b) = = × = 1 1 λ Pf 25 1 25 − 4 2 ∞2 1 1 − 2 2 λP 1 9 9 ∞ 5 (c) = = × = 1 1 λ Pf 25 1 25 − 32 ∞ 2 1 1 − 2 2 λB 1 4 1 ∞ 4 (d) = = × = 1 1 λ Bk 16 1 4 − 22 ∞ 2 Note Lyman = L (n1 = 1), Balmer = B (n1 = 2) Paschen = P (n1 = 3), Brackett = Bk (n1 = 4 ) Pfund = Pf (n1 = 5) 6. The graphs between | ψ |2 and r are radial density plots having (n − l − 1) number of radial nodes. For 1s, 2s, 3s and 2 p-orbitals these are respectively. |Ψ|2 2 For 2s-orbital number of radial node = 2–0–1=1 r 1 2s 1 25 50 75 |Ψ|2 For 3s-orbital number of radial node = 3–0–1=2 100 Atomic number r 4. The electrons are more likely to be found in the region aand c. At b, wave function becomes zero and is called radial nodal surface or simply node. a |Ψ|2 Y (x) For 2p-orbital number of radial node = 2–1–1=0 +x → b ← –x r c Thus, the given graph between | ψ |2 and r represents 2s-orbital. Atomic Structure 35 Thus, Eq. (i) becomes 7. For any given series of spectral lines of atomic hydrogen. Let ∆ν = ν max − ν min be the difference in maximum and minimum frequencies in cm−1. For Lyman series, 2πa0 2πa0 ∴ ∆ν = ν max − ν min General formula: 1 1 ν = 109677 2 − 2 nf ni For Lyman n1 = 1, n2 = 2, 3, K 1 1 1 ν max = 109,677 − = 109,677 − 0 1 1 ∞ ν min n2 = n (1.5 πa0) [Given, λ = 1 .5 πa0] Z n 15 . πa0 1.5 = = 0.75 = 2 Z 2πa0 λ= λ∝ ∴ For Balmer series, ...(i) 1 (ν − ν 0 )1/ 2 11. (I) Angular momentum, mvr = 109677 4 nh 2π ⇒ mvr ∝ n ∝ distance from the nucleus (II) This statement is incorrect as size of an orbit ∝ Azimuthal quantum number (l ) (Q n = constant) (III) This statement is incorrect as at ground state, n = 1, l = 0 ⇒ Orbital angular momentum (wave mechanics) h = l (l + 1) =0 [Q l = 0 ] 2π (IV) The given plot is 1 109677 × 5 1 ν min = 109,677 2 − 2 ⇒ 36 (2) (3) ∆ν = ν max − ν min 109,677 109,677 1 ∆ν Balmer = − × 5 = 109,677 9 4 36 ∆ν Lyman 109,677 / 4 = ∆ν Balmer 109,677 / 9 ∆ν Lyman 9 = ∆ν Balmer 4 ∆ν Lyman is 9 : 4. ∴The ratio of ∆ν Balmer l=0 (n=1) l=1 (n=2) 8. Smaller the value of (n + l ), smaller the energy. If two or more sub-orbits have same values of (n + l ), sub-orbits with lower values of n has lower energy. The (n + l ) values of the given options are as follows : I. n = 4, l = 2 ; n + l = 6 II. n = 3, l = 2; n + l = 5 III. n = 4 , l = 1, n + l = 5 IV. n = 3, l = 1, n + l = 4 Among II and III, n = 3 has lower value of energy. Thus, the correct order of their increasing energies will be IV < II < III < I Circumference 2πr 9. Number of waves = ⇒ n= Wavelength λ ∴ 2πr = nλ Also, we know that radius (r) of an atom is given by a n2 r= 0 Z h 2 m K.E Also, according to photoelectric effect KE = hν − hν 0 On substituting the value of KE in Eq (i), we get h λ= 2m × (hν − hν 0 ) ∆ν Lyman = ν max − ν min 109,677 × 3 109,677 = 109,677 − = 4 4 ⇒ ...(ii) 10. de-Broglie wavelength (λ) for electron is given by = 109,677 1 1 = 109,677 − 2 1 (2) 1 1 ν max = 109,677 2 − (2) ∞ n2 = nλ Z ...(i) l=2 (n=3) ψ l=3 (n=4) r 12. ∆E = hc × 1 1 1 = hc × RH 2 − 2 × Z 2 λ n1 n2 1 1 hc [for H, atom Z = 1] − 2= 2 n1 n2 RH × λ × Z 2 × hc 1 1 1 = = × RH × λ (1 × 10 7 m−1 ) (900 × 10−9 m) 1 1 1 ⇒ − = n12 n22 9 ⇒ So, in option (b) 1 1 1 1 − = −0= 9 32 ∞ 2 9 ∴ n1 = 3, n2 = ∞ 36 Atomic Structure 13. According to Rydberg’s formula, 1 1 wave number (ν) = RH Z 2 − 2 nf ni Given, ni = n, nf = 8 [Q it is the case of emission] 1 1 ν = RH × (1)2 2 − 2 n 8 1 R R 1 ν = RH 2 − = H2 − H 64 n 64 n 2 On comparing with equation of straight line, y = mx + c, we get −RH Slope = RH , intercept = . 64 1 Thus, plot of wave number (ν) against 2 will be linear with n slope (+ RH ). n2h2 4π 2me2kZ 1 k= 4 π ∈0 rn = rn = Thus, its electronic configuration is [ Kr ]5s1. Since, the last electron or valence electron enter in 5s subshell. So, the quantum numbers are n = 5, l = 0, (for s-orbital) m = 0 (Q m = + l to −l), s = + 1 / 2 or − 1 / 2. Z2 18. Given, in the question E = − 2.178 × 10−18 J 2 n For hydrogen Z = 1, 1 So, E1 = − 2.178 × 10−18 J 2 1 1 −18 E2 = − 2.178 × 10 J 2 2 Now, E1 − E2 1 hc 1 i.e. ∆E = 2.178 × 10−18 2 − 2 = 1 2 λ 1 6.62 × 10−34 × 3.0 × 108 1 2.178 × 10−18 2 − 2 = 1 λ 2 ∴ λ ≈ 1.21 × 10−7 m 14. Bohr radius (rn ) = ∈0 n2h2 ∴ 17. Given, atomic number of Rb, Z = 37 19. According to Bohr’s model, mvr = 2 2 n h ∈0 a = n2 0 Z πme2Z nh 2π ⇒ (mv )2 = n2h2 4 π 2r2 e = charge of electron n2h2 1 mv 2 = 2 8π 2r2m Also, Bohr’s radius for H-atom is, r = n2a0 h = Planck’s constant Substituting ‘r’ in Eq. (i) gives ⇒ where, m = mass of electron k = Coulomb constant rn = KE = n2 × 0.53 Å Z Radius of n th KE = h2 8π 2n2a02m when n = 2 , KE = …(i) h2 32π 2 a02 m 20. The number of radial nodes is given by expression (n − l − 1). Bohr orbit for H-atom 2 = 0.53 n Å [Z = 1for H-atom] ∴Radius of 2nd Bohr orbit for H-atom For 3s, number of nodes = 3 − 0 − 1 = 2 For 2p, number of nodes = 2 − 1 −1 = 0 21. Expression for Bohr’s orbit is, rn = = 0.53 × (2)2 = 212 . Å 15. This graph shows the probability of finding the electron within shell at various distances from the nucleus (radial probability). The curve shows the maximum, which means that the radial probability is greatest for a given distance from the nucleus. This distance is equal to Bohr’s radius = a0 a0n2 = a0 Z when n = 2, Z = 4. 22. 1s7 violate Pauli exclusion principle, according to which an orbital cannot have more than two electrons. 1 1 23. + and − just represents two quantum mechanical spin states 2 2 which have no classical analogue. 24. Using the de-Broglie’s relationship : P λ= 1s r (a) (b) (c) (d) It is for 2s-orbital. It is radial wave function for 1s. Correct Probability cannot be zero at a certain distance from nucleus. 13.6 eV n2 −13.6 In excited states, E2 = = −3.4 eV 4 16. ∴ En = − where, n = 1, 2, 3 ... h 6.625 × 10−34 = = 2.3 × 10−30 m 5 mv 0.2 × 60 × 60 25. Nodal plane is an imaginary plane on which probability of finding an electron is minimum. Every p-orbital has one nodal plane : px YZ-plane, a nodal plane Atomic Structure 37 26. 1s2 2 s2 2 p6 3s2 3 p6 3d 5 4 s1 is ground state electronic configuration 38. Option (b) is wrong representation according to aufbau principle. A high energy atomic orbital (2p) cannot be filled unless the low energy orbital (2s) is completely occupied. of Cr. 27. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) n = 4, l = 1 n = 4, l = 0 n = 3, l = 2 n = 3, l = 1 ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ 4 p-orbital 4s-orbital 3d-orbital 3d-orbital 1 1 hc − 2 = 2 n1 n2 λ 39. Transition energy (∆E ) = kZ 2 (iv) 3p < (ii) 4s < (iii) 3d < (i) 4 p 28. The energy of an electron in a Bohr atom is expressed as where, k = Constant, Z = Atomic number, n = Orbit number = − 13.6 eV for H (n = 1) − 13.6 when n = 2 , E2 = eV = − 3.40 eV 22 kZ 2 En = − 2 n (n can have only integral value 1, 2, 3,…… ∞) h 29. The orbital angular momentum (L) = l (l + 1) 2π h = 6 (l = 2 for d - orbital ) 2π 30. Bohr first made use of quantum theory to explain the structure of atom and proposed that energy of electron in an atom is quantised. 31. Mg2+ = 1s2 2s2 2 p6 no unpaired electron Ti 3+ V 3+ 2 2 6 2 6 1 2 2 6 2 6 2 = 1s 2 s 2 p 3s 3 p 3d one unpaired electron = 1s 2 s 2 p 3s 3 p 3d two unpaired electrons Fe2+ = 1s2 2 s2 2 p6 3s2 3 p6 3d6 four unpaired electrons 32. Expression for orbital angular momentum (L) is h L = l (l + 1) = 0 for 2s-electrons 2π Q For s-orbital, l = 0. 33. Diffraction is property of wave, E = mc2 determine energy of particle and E = hν determine energy of photon. Interference phenomena is exhibited by both matter and waves. 34. X-rays is electrically neutral, not deflected in electric or magnetic fields. 35. Cl (17) = 1s2 2 s2 2 p6 3s2 3 p5 ∆E ∝ i.e. According to Aufbau principle, energies of above mentioned orbitals are in the order of 40. E = hc E λ ⇒ 1 = 2 =2 λ E2 λ 1 41. n l 1 λ m s 1 2 3 −3 2 This is the wrong set of quantum number because | m | cannot be greater than l. 42. The wavelength order is X-ray < ultraviolet < infrared < radio wave 43. When electron jumps to lower orbit photons are emitted while photons are absorbed when electron jumps to higher orbit. 1s-orbital is the lower most, electron in this orbital can absorb photons but cannot emit. 44. The valence shell configuration of Rubidium (Rb) is [ Kr ] 5s1 n = 5, l = 0, m = 0, s = + 1 or 2 − 1 2 45. The principal quantum number ‘n’ represents orbit number hence, determine the size of orbitals. 46. According to Pauli exclusion principle, an atomic orbital can accommodate at the most, two electrons, with opposite spins. 47. Given, ground state energy of hydrogen atom = − 13.6 eV Energy of He + = − 3.4 eV, Z = 2 13.6 × Z 2 eV n2 − 13.6 × (2 )2 13.6 × 4 − 3.4 eV = ⇒ n= ⇒ n=4 3.4 n2 Given, azimuthal quantum number (l ) = 2 (d – subshell Magnetic quantum number (m) = 0 ∴ Angular nodes (l ) = 2 Radial node = n − l − 1= 4 − 2 − 1= 1 nl = 4 d state Hence, options (a), (c) are correct. Energy of He + , E = − 48. Both (a) and (d) are correct. The three electrons in the 2p-orbitals must have same spin, no matter up spin or down spin. The last, unpaired electron has, n = 3, l = 1( p) and m can have any of the three value (− 1, 0, + 1). 36. Cr (24) = 1s2 2 s2 2 p6 3s2 3 p6 3d 5 4 s1 1442443 Ar The above configuration is exception to Aufbau’s principle. 37. Fluorine, a halogen, is the most electronegative atom, has the 2 5 electronic configuration 2s 2 p (valence shell). 49. (a) Cr = [Ar] 3d 5 4 s1 , an exception to aufbau principle. (b) For a given value of l, m can have any value from (−l to + l), so can have negative value. (c) Ag is in copper group with d 10s1 configuration, i.e. 46 electrons are spin paired. 50. Isotones have same number of neutrons. 76 77 32 Ge , 33As and 34Se78 have same number (44) of neutrons, hence they are isotones. 38 Atomic Structure 51. Assertion is correct Be(1s2 , 2s2 ) has stable electronic configuration, removing an electron require more energy than the same for B(2 p1 ). Reason is incorrect (Aufbau principle). 52. S 1 is spherically symmetrical state, i.e. it correspond to a s-orbital. Also, it has one radial node. Number of radial nodes = n − l − l ⇒ n − 0 − 1 = 1 ⇒ n = 2 i.e. S 1 = 2s-orbital. 66. 3dx2 − y2 orbital lies in XY-plane. 67. Aufbau principle. 68. This is the wavelength of infrared radiation. 69. Cr = 3d 5 4 s1. 70. In an one electron (hydrogenic) system, all orbitals of a shell remains degenerate, hence in second excited state, the degeneracy of H-atom is nine EH = 3p 3s 53. Ground state energy of electron in H-atom (EH ) H(1s1) Ground state kZ 2 = k (Z = 1, n = 1) n2 For S 1 state of Li 2+ , 3d Second excited state of H-atom All are degenerate degeneracy = 9 In case of many electrons system, different orbitals of a shell are non-degenerate. Hence, k (3)2 9 E = 2 = k = 2.25 k 4 2 1s H 2+ 54. In S 2 state, E (Li ) = K (given) Ground state qk K = 2 ⇒ n=3 n Since, S 2 has one radial node. 3 − l −1 = 1 ⇒ l = 1 2p 1s 2s 1s 2s 2p – Second excited state only three p-orbitals (2px, 2py, 2pz) are First excited state degenerate. 71. + 55. In the wave function (ψ ) expression for 1s-orbital of He , there should be no angular part. Hence (iii) can’t be true for ψ 1s of He+ . PLAN This problem is based on concept of quantum number. Follow the following steps to solve this problem. Write all possible orbitals having combination of same principal, azimuthal, magnetic and spin quantum number. Then count the all possible electrons having given set of quantum numbers. 56. Correct : 2s orbital has one radial node. No of radial node = n − l − 1 = 2 − 0 − 1 = 1 For n = 4, the total number of possible orbitals are Also, when radial part of wave function (ψ ) is plotted against ‘‘r’’, wave function changes its sign at node. 4s 4p 0 –1 0 +1 57. i is the correct expression of wave function for 1s-orbital of 4d –2 –1 0 +1 +2 4f –3 –2 –1 0 +1 +2 +3 i.e. L depends on azimuthal quantum number only. According to question | m l | = 1, i.e. there are two possible values of m l , i.e. +1 and –1 and one orbital can contain 1 maximum two electrons one having s = + and other having 2 s = − 1/ 2 . So, total number of orbitals having {| m l | = 1} = 6 B. To describe a one electron wave function, three quantum numbers n, l and m are needed. Further to abide by Pauli exclusion principle, spin quantum number(s) is also needed. Total number of electrons having 1 {| m l | = 1and ms = − } = 6 2 hydrogenic system. 58. A. Orbital angular momentum (L) = l (l + 1) h 2π C. For shape, size and orientation, only n, l and m are needed. D. Probability density (ψ 2 ) can be determined if n, l and m are known. 72. PLAN KE = λ (wavelength) = 65. Very large mass of alpha particles than beta particles is responsible for less deflection in former case. h ∝ 2mKE h 2m(T ) T = Temperature in Kelvin h λ (He at −73° C = 200 K) = 2 × 4 × 200 proposed wave nature of electron. 64. Two electrons in same orbital must have opposite spin. h = mv where, 61. Heisenberg proposed uncertainty principle and de-Broglie 62. orbital 63. 2 px ,2 py and 2pz have different orientation in space. m2v 2 = 2mKE ∴ mv = 2mKE ∴ 59. Cr = [Ar] 3d 5 4 s1 60. 1 : 16 1 3 mv 2 = RT 2 2 λ (Ne at 727°C = 1000 K) = ∴ Thus, h 2 × 20 × 1000 λ (He) =M = λ (Ne) M =5 2 × 20 × 1000 =5 2 × 4 × 200 Atomic Structure 39 73. Energy of photon = –34 8 hc hc 6.625 × 10 × 3 × 10 = 4 . 14 eV J= eV = λ eλ 300 × 10–9 × 1.602 × 10–19 For photoelectric effect to occur, energy of incident photons must be greater than work function of metal. Hence, only Li, Na, K and Mg have work functions less than 4.14 V. 74. When n = 3, l = 0, 1, 2 i.e. there are 3s, 3p and 3d-orbitals. If all these orbitals are completely occupied as 1 and 9 with 2 1 s=– . 2 Total 18 electrons, 9 electrons with s = + Alternatively In any nth orbit, there can be a maximum of 2n2 electrons. Hence, when n = 3, number of maximum electrons = 1 18. Out of these 18 electrons, 9 can have spin – 2 1 and remaining nine with spin + . 2 nh 75. (a) mvr = 2π ⇒ 6.625 × 10−34 nh v= = 2πmr 2 × 3.14 × 9.1 × 10−31 × 0.529 × 10−10 = 2.18 × 106 ms − 1 (b) λ = h 6.625 × 10−34 = 0.33 × 10−9 m = mv 9.1 × 10−31 × 2.18 × 106 (c) Orbital angular momentum h h (L) = l (l + 1) = 2 2π 2π 78. Moles of H2 = ⇒ Bond energy = 0.0409 × 436 = 17.84 kJ Number of H-atoms produced after dissociation = 2 × 0.0409 × 6.023 × 1023 = 4.93 × 1022 1 Transition energy/atom = 2.18 × 10−18 1 − J 4 3 = × 2.18 × 10−18 J 4 ⇒ Total transition energy 3 = × 2.18 × 10−18 × 4.93 × 1022 J 4 = 80.60 × 103 J = 80.60 kJ Therefore, total energy required = dissociation energy + transition energy = (17.84 + 80.60) kJ = 98.44 kJ 79. If accelerated by potential difference of V volt, then 1 mv 2 = eV 2 p2 = eV , here p = momentum (mv ) 2m h h Using de-Broglie equation, λ = = p 2meV ⇒ ⇒ 1.54 × 10−10 = 80. The work done in the given neutralisation process is W =−∫ 2 2 ⇒ (b) r0 2 r0 − a 0 1 ψ 22s = 0 = 2 − e a0 4 2π r0 2− = 0 ⇒ r0 = 2a0 a0 λ= h 6.625 × 10−34 = 6.625 × 10−35 m = mv 100 × 10−3 × 100 = 6.625 × 10−25 Å (negligibly small) 77. The general Rydberg’s equation is ν= ⇒ 1 = R (Z )2 λ 1 1 2 − 2 n n 1 2 1 ∝ Z2 λ ⇒ 1 Z (H)2 λ (He+ ) = = λ (H) Z (He+ )2 4 ⇒ λ (He+ ) = λ (H) 91.2 = nm = 22.8 nm 4 4 6.625 × 10−34 (2 × 9.1 × 10−31 × 1.6 × 10−19 V )1/ 2 Solving for V gives : V = 63.56 V. [Q For p-orbital, l = 1] 76. (a) At radial node, ψ must vanishes, i.e. pV 1×1 = = 0.0409 RT 0.082 × 298 ⇒ W = ∞ a0 F dr and F = e2 4πε 0r2 ∞ e2 1 e2 = − = Total energy (E ) 4 πε 0 r a 0 4 πε 0r Now, if ‘V’ is magnitude of potential energy, then according to given information, kinetic energy (Ek ) is V / 2. Therefore, V (PE is always negative) E = −V + 2 V =− 2 ⇒ V = − 2E = − e2 2πε 0r 81. The Rydberg’s equation for H-atom is 1 1 1 = ν (wave number) = RH 2 − 2 λ n1 n2 For Balmer series, n1 = 2 and n2 = 3, 4 , 5, ..., ∞ For shortest λ , n2 has to be maximum, i.e. infinity. Then 1.09 × 107 1 1 R ν = RH − = H = = 2.725 × 106 m −1 4 ∞ 4 4 40 Atomic Structure 82. After breaking of the bond of I2 molecule, the remaining energy would be distributed uniformly to iodine atoms as their kinetic energy, i.e. E (energy of photon) = Bond energy + 2 × kinetic energy ⇒ 240 × 103 6.625 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 + 2 × Ek = 4500 × 10−10 6.023 × 1023 Ek = 2.16 × 1020 J/atom ⇒ For longest wavelength transition from 3rd orbit, electron must jump to 4th orbit and the transition energy can be determined as 1 1 ∆E = + 4 × 21.7 × 10−19 − J = 4.22 × 10−19 J 9 16 hc λ ∆E = Also, Q λ= ∴ 83. The Bohr de-Broglie relationship is hc 6.625 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 m = ∆E 4.22 × 10−19 = 471 × 10−9 m = 471 nm 2πr = nλ = circumference of Bohr’s orbit. i.e. number of complete waves formed in one complete revolution of electron in any Bohr orbit is equal to orbit number, hence three. 87. Ten, the given value of n and l correspond to 3d-orbital which 84. The expression for transition wavelength is given by Rydberg’s multiplicity which states that the singly occupied degenerate atomic orbitals must have electrons of like spins. equation : 1 1 1 = RH Z 2 2 − 2 λ n1 n2 has five fold degeneracy level. 88. The 2nd configuration is against Hund’s rule of maximum 89. The required transition is n1 = 2 to n2 = ∞ and corresponding transition energy is 1 1 ∆E = 21.7 × 10−12 2 − 2 erg n1 n2 + Equating the transition wavelengths of H-atom and He ion, 1 1 4 4 RH 2 − 2 = RH 2 − 2 2 4 n1 n2 = Equating termwise on left to right of the above equation gives n1 = 1 and n2 = 2 85. For H-atom, the energy of a stationary orbit is determined as k En = − 2 n where, k = constant (2.18 × 10 −18 ⇒ The longest wavelength that can cause above transition can be determined as : λ= J) 1 3 ⇒ ∆E (n = 2 to n = 1) = k 1 − = k 4 4 = 1.635 × 10−18 J For a H-like species, energy of stationary orbit is determined as kZ 2 En = − 2 n where, Z = atomic number 1 ∆E k 2 1 Z − = = 1 hc hc λ ⇒ Z2 = 90. Ionisation potential of H-like species = E1 = 2.17 × 10−11 erg ⇒ = 1.6275 × 10−18 J ⇒ λ = 3 1 2 = RH Z × 4 4 6.625 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 m 1.6275 × 10−18 91. Transition energy = [ − 2.41 − (− 5.42)] × 10−12 erg = 3.01 × 10−12 erg = 3.01 × 10−19 J 86. For H-like species, the energy of stationary orbit is expressed as E ( X ) = Z 2 × E (H ) Also, ⇒ + ⇒ For He (Z = 2) E=− hc ∆E = 122 × 10−9 m = 1220 Å Z = 2 (He+ ) ⇒ 1 ∆E = 2.17 × 10−11 1 − 2 × 10−7 J 2 = 4 4 = = 4.05 3RH λ 3 × 1.097 × 107 × 3 × 10−8 hc 6.625 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 = ∆E 5.425 × 10−12 × 10−7 = 3.66 × 10−7 m = 3.66 × 10−5 cm 1 1 ∆E = kZ 2 2 − 2 n1 n2 ⇒ 21.7 × 10−12 erg = 5.425 × 10−12 erg 4 4 × 21.7 × 10−19 J n2 ∆E = λ= [Q 1 erg = 10−7 J ] hc λ 6.625 × 10−34 × 3 × 108 m 3.01 × 10−19 = 660 × 10−9 m = 660 nm 3 Periodic Classification and Periodic Properties Topic 1 History and Periodic Classification Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. The IUPAC symbol for the element with atomic number 119 would be (a) unh (c) uun (2019 Main, 8 April II) (b) uue (d) une 2. The element with Z = 120 (not yet discovered) will be an/a (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) (a) transition metal (c) alkaline earth metal (b) inner-transition metal (d) alkali metal Objective Question II (One or more than one correct option) 4. The statements that is/are true for the long form of the periodic table is/are 3. The statement that is not correct for the periodic classification of elements, is (c) the first ionisation energies of elements along a period do not vary in a regular manner with increase in atomic number (d) for transition elements the d-subshells are filled with electrons monotonically with increase in atomic number (1992, 1M) (a) the properties of elements are the periodic functions of their atomic numbers (b) non-metallic elements are lesser in number than metallic elements (1988, 1M) (a) it reflects the sequence of filling the electrons in the order of sub-energy level s, p, d and f (b) it helps to predict the stable valency states of the elements (c) it reflects tends in physical and chemical properties of the elements (d) it helps to predict the relative ionicity of the bond between any two elements Topic 2 Periodic Properties Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 2− 3− − 3. The group number, number of valence electrons and valency 2+ 1. The correct order of the ionic radii of O , N , F , Mg , + 3+ Na and Al is (2020 Main, 5 Sep II) (a) N3 − < O2 − < F− < Na + < Mg 2+ < Al 3+ (b) Al 3+ < Na + < Mg 2+ < O2 − < F− < N3 − (c) Al 3+ < Mg 2+ < Na + < F− < O2 − < N3 − 3− (d) N − 2− <F <O < Mg 2+ + < Na < Al 3+ 2. Within each pair of elements F and Cl, S and Se, and Li and Na, respectively, the elements that release more energy upon an electron gain are (2020 Main, 7 Jan II) (a) F, Se and Na (b) F, S and Li (c) Cl, S and Li (d) Cl, Se and Na of an element with atomic number 15, respectively, are (2019 Main, 12 April I) (a) 16, 5 and 2 (c) 16, 6 and 3 (b) 15, 5 and 3 (d) 15, 6 and 2 4. The element having greatest difference between its first and second ionisation energy, is (a) Ca (b) Sc (c) Ba (d) K (2019 Main, 9 April I) 5. The correct option with respect to electronegativity values of the elements is the Pauling (2019 Main, 11 Jan II) (a) P > S (c) Te > Se (b) Si < Al (d) Ga < Ge 42 Periodic Classification and Periodic Properties 6. The correct order of the atomic radii of C, Cs, Al and S is (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) (a) C < S < Al < Cs (c) S < C < Cs < Al (b) C < S < Cs < Al (d) S < C < Al < Cs 7. In general, the properties that decrease and increase down a group in the periodic table, respectively are (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) (a) electronegativity and atomic radius (b) electronegativity and electron gain enthalpy (c) electron gain enthalpy and electronegativity (d) atomic radius and electronegativity 3− 2− 8. The ionic radii (in Å) of N ,O and F respectively are (b) 1.36, 1.71 and 1.40 (d) 1.71, 1.36 and 1.40 (2015 Main) (c) Kr (d) Xe 12. The first ionisation potential of Na is 5.1 eV. The value of electron gain enthalpy of Na + will be (2013 Main) (b) − 5.1 eV (d) + 2.55 eV (b) [Ne] 3s2 3 p3 (d) [Ar] 3d 10 4s2 4 p3 (1989, 1M) (a) N3− (c) F − (b) O2− (d) Na + 21. The first ionisation potential of Na, Mg, Al and Si are in the order (a) Na < Mg >Al < Si (c) Na < Mg <Al >Si (1988, 1M) (b) Na > Mg > Al > Si (d) Na > Mg > Al <Si (2013 Main) (b) S < Se < Ca < Ba < Ar (d) Ca < Ba < S < Se < Ar 14. Identify the least stable ion amongst the following. (b) Be− (d) C − (2001, 1M) (d) Ge > Si > C (1987, 1M) (b) 1.60, 1.60 (d) None of these (a) 14.6, 13.6 (c) 13.6, 13.6 (1987, 1M) (b) 13.6, 14.6 (d) 14.6, 14.6 25. The hydration energy of Mg 2+ is larger than that of (a) Al 3+ (c) Be2+ (1984, 1M) (b) Na + (d) Mg3+ (1982, 1M) (a) boron (c) nitrogen (b) carbon (d) oxygen 27. The correct order of second ionisation potential of carbon, nitrogen, oxygen and fluorine is 16. The correct order of radii is (2000, 1M) (a) N < Be < B (b) F − < O2− < N3− (c) Na < Li < K (d) Fe3+ < Fe 2+ < Fe4+ 17. The incorrect statement among the following. respectively given by (a) 0.72, 1.60 (c) 0.72, 0.72 26. The element with the highest first ionisation potential is potential is (b) Be > Mg > Ca 23. Atomic radii of fluorine and neon in Angstrom units are (2002, 3M) 15. The set representing the correct order of first ionisation (c) B > C > N (1987, 1M) (b) N, Si, C, P (d) P, Si, N, C oxygen atoms are respectively given by increasing first ionisation enthalpy for Ca, Ba, S, Se and Ar? (a) K > Na > Li (a) C, N, Si, P (c) Si, P, C, N 24. The first ionisation potential in electron volts of nitrogen and 13. Which of the following represents the correct order of (a) Li + (c) B− 2 the order (2015 Main) 11. Which one has the highest boiling point? (a) Ca < S < Ba < Se < Ar (c) Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar configurations are given below), the one having the highest ionisation energy is (1990, 1M) 22. The electronegativity of the following elements increases in (b) Br2 (d) ICl (a) − 2.55 eV (c) − 10.2 eV 19. Amongst the following elements (whose electronic 20. Which one of the following is the smallest in size? (b) BeSO4 (d) SrSO4 (b) Ne (d) Fe2+ − 10. Which among the following is the most reactive? (a) He (c) V 3+ (c) [Ne] 3s 3 p has its hydration enthalpy greater than its lattice enthalpy? (a) Cl 2 (c) I2 (1996, 1M) (b) Ti 3+ 2 9. Which one of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates (a) CaSO4 (c) BaSO4 unpaired electrons ? (a) Mg2+ (a) [Ne] 3s2 3 p1 (2015 Main) (a) 1.36, 1.40 and 1.71 (c) 1.71, 1.40 and 1.36 18. Which of the following has the maximum number of (1997(C), 1M) (a) The first ionisation potential of Al is less than the first ionisation potential of Mg (b) The second ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the second ionisation potential of Na (c) The first ionisation potential of Na is less than the first ionisation potential of Mg (d) The third ionisation potential of Mg is greater than third ionisation potential of Na (a) C > N > O > F (c) O > F > N > C (1981, 1M) (b) O > N > F > C (d) F > O > N > C Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) 28. The option(s) with only amphoteric oxides is(are) (2017 Adv.) (a) NO, B2O3 , PbO, SnO2 (c) Cr2O3 , BeO, SnO, SnO2 (b) Cr2O3 , CrO, SnO, PbO (d) ZnO, Al 2O3 , PbO, PbO2 29. Ionic radii of (1999, 3M) 35 Cl − < (a) Ti 4+ < Mn 7 + (b) 37 (c) K + > Cl − (d) P 3+ > P 5+ Cl − Periodic Classification and Periodic Properties 43 30. The first ionisation potential of nitrogen and oxygen atoms are related as follows. (1989, 1M) (a) The ionisation potential of oxygen is less than the ionisation potential of nitrogen (b) The ionisation potential of nitrogen is greater than the ionisation potential of oxygen (c) The two ionisation potential values are comparable (d) The difference between the two ionisation potential is too large 31. Sodium sulphate is soluble in water whereas barium sulphate is sparingly soluble because (1989, 1M) (a) the hydration energy of sodium sulphate is more than its lattice energy (b) the lattice energy of barium sulphate is more than its hydration energy (c) the lattice energy has no role to play in solubility (d) the hydration energy of sodium sulphate is less than its lattice energy Atomic number n n+1 n+ 2 n+ 3 Ionisation enthalpy (kJ/mol) I1 I2 I3 1681 3374 6050 2081 3952 6122 496 4562 6910 738 1451 7733 Fill in the Blanks 38. Compounds that formally contain Pb 4+ are easily reduced to Pb 2+ . The stability of the lower oxidation state is due to …… . (1997, 1M) 39. Ca 2+ has a smaller ionic radius than K + because it has ............ (1993, 1M 40. On Mulliken scale, the average of ionisation potential and electron affinity is known as ................ (1985, 1M) 41. The energy released when an electron is added to a neutral Assertion and Reason gaseous atom is called …… . Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below : (a) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true; Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true. 32. Statement I Nitrogen and oxygen are the main components in the atmosphere but these do not react to form oxides of nitrogen. Statement II The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen requires high temperature. (2015 Main) 33. Statement I Pb 4+ compounds are stronger oxidising agents 4+ than Sn compounds. Statement II The higher oxidation states for the group 14 elements are more stable for the heavier members of the group due to ‘inert pair effect’. (2008, 3M) 34. Statement I Band gap in germanium is small. Statement II The energy spread of each germanium atomic energy level is infinitesimally small. (2007, 3M) 35. Statement I The first ionisation energy of Be is greater than True/False 42. The basic nature of the hydroxides of group 13 (III B) decreases progressively down the group. (2000, (S), 1M) 36. Statement I F-atom has a less negative electron affinity than Cl-atom. Statement II Additional electrons are repelled more effectively by 3 p-electrons in Cl-atom than by 2 p-electrons in F-atom. (1998, 2M) (1993, 1M) 43. The decreasing order of electron affinity of F, Cl, Br is F > Cl > Br. (1993, 1M) 44. In group IA of alkali metals, the ionisation potential decreases down the group. Therefore, lithium is a poor reducing agent. (1987, 1M) 45. The softness of group IA metals increases down the group with increasing atomic number. (1986, 1M) Subjective Questions 46. Arrange the following ions in order of their increasing radii Li + , Mg 2+ , K + , Al 3+. (1997, 1M) 47. Compare qualitatively the first and second ionisation potentials of copper and zinc. Explain the observation. (1996, 2M 48. Arrange the following as stated : “Increasing order of ionic size’’ N3– ,Na + , F− , O2 − , Mg 2+ (1991, 1M) that of B. Statement II 2p-orbital is lower in energy than 2s. (1982, 1M) 49. Explain the following : “The first ionisation energy of carbon atom is greater than that of boron atom whereas, the reverse is true for the second ionisation energy.’’ (1989, 2M) 50. Arrange the following in the order of their increasing size: Cl − , S2 − , Ca 2+ , Ar (1986, 1M) 51. Arrange the following in order of their (i) decreasing ionic size Mg 2+ , O2 − , Na + ,F− Numerical Answer Type Questions 37. The 1st, 2nd and 3rd ionisation enthalpies, I1 , I 2 , and I 3 , of four atoms with atomic numbers n , n + 1, n + 2, and n + 3, where n < 10, are tabulated below. What is the value of n ? (2020 Adv.) (ii) increasing first ionisation energy Mg, Al, Si, Na (iii) increasing bond length F2 , N2 , Cl 2 , O2 (1985, 3M) 44 Periodic Classification and Periodic Properties Answers Topic 1 1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b,c,d) Topic 2 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. (c) (d) (b) (c) (b) 2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 3. 7. 11. 15. 19. (c) (a) (d) (b) (d) (b) (a) (d) (b) (b) 4. 8. 12. 16. 20. (d) (c) (b) (b) (d) 21. 25. 29. 33. 37. 39. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) (b) 26. (c) 27. (c) (d) 30. (a,b,c) 31. (a,b) (c) 34. (c) 35. (c) (9) 38. (inert pair effect) (higher effective nuclear charge) 24. 28. 32. 36. (a) (a,b) (a) (c) 40. (electronegativity) 41. (electron affinity) 42. F 44. F 43. F 45. T Hints & Solutions Topic 1 History and Periodic Classification 1. Atomic number (119) = 1 1 9 un un en So, symbol of the element = uue Name of the element = ununennium It is expected to be s-block element an alkali metal and the first element in eighth period. It is the lightest element that has not yet been synthesised. 2. The element with Z = 120 will be an alkaline earth metal. Recently, oganesson (Og) with atomic number 118 is named by IUPAC is a noble gas and placed just two place before 120. So, the general electronic configuration is represented as [noble gas] ns2 and element with Z = 120 exist as an alkaline earth metal. 3. (a) Correct statement According to Moseley’s law, the properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic numbers. (b) Correct statement The whole s-block, d-block, f -block and heavier p-block elements are metal. (c) Correct statement Trend is not regular, Be has higher first ionisation energy than B, nitrogen has higher first ionisation energy than oxygen. (d) Inccorrect statement d-subshells are not filled monotonically, regularity break at chromium and copper. 4. (a) Incorrect Electrons are not filled in sub-energy levels s, p, d and f in the same sequence. (b) Correct Number of valence shell electrons usually determine the stable valency state of an element. (c) Correct Physical and chemical properties of elements are periodic function of atomic number which is the basis of modern, long form of periodic table. (d) Correct Relative ionicity of the bond between any two elements is function of electronegativity difference of the bonded atoms which in turn has periodic trend in long form of periodic table. Topic 2 Periodic Properties 1. Size of species ∝ 1 Nuclear charge Iso-electronic species are those atoms or ions which has the same number of electrons. Size of species decreases with increasing protons. More is effective nuclear charge (Zeff) lesser will be ionic size. Correct order of ionic radii Al 3+ < Mg2+ < Na + < F− < O2− < N3− 2. The first electron gain enthalpy is exothermic (or negative). Generally, electron gain enthalpy becomes less exothermic (or less negative) when comparing elements of a group from top to bottom. Therefore, electron gain enthalpy of S > Se and Li > Na. But there are some exceptions to this. One of them is the case of a group 17 elements where electron gain is most negative for Cl instead of F, due to extra small size of fluorine. ∴ Upon an electron gain, energy releases in the order : Cl > F, S > Se and Li > Na 3. The group number, number of valence electrons and valency of an element with atomic number 15 are 15, 5 and 3 respectively. Modern periodic table is based on the atomic number. Number of valence electrons present in an atom decides the group number. Electronic configuration of element having atomic number 15 = 1s2 2s2 2 p6 3s2 3 p3 Valence electrons As five electrons are present in valence shell, its group number is 15. Valency of element having atomic number 15 is +3 (8 − 5 = 3). 4. The electronic configuration of given elements are as follows : K(19) = 1s2 2s2 2 p6 3s2 3 p6 4 s1 Periodic Classification and Periodic Properties 45 Mg(12) = 1s2 2s2 2 p6 3s2 Sr(38) = 1s2 2s2 2 p6 3s2 3 p6 4 s2 3d 10 4 p6 5s2 Sc(21) = 1s2 2s2 2 p6 3s2 3 p6 4 s2 3d 1 First ionisation enthalpy (IE) of K is lowest among the given options. Here, the energy required to remove an electron from 4 s1 is least as only one electron is present in the outermost shell. IE (I) is comparatively high for Mg and Sr and two electrons (fully-filled) are placed in s-orbital. Second ionisation enthalpy of K is highest among the given options. Now, removal of an electron occur from p6 (fully-filled). So, high energy is required to remove the electron. From the above discussion, it can be concluded that (IE 2 − IE 1 ) value is maximum for K (potassium). 5. The electronegativity values of given elements on the Pauling scale can be shown as follows: Period No. 3 4 5 Group 13 Al (1.5) Ga (1.6) Group 14 Si (1.8) Ge (1.8) Group 15 P (2.1) Group 16 S (2.5) Se (2.4) Te (2.01) On moving from left to right across a period, i.e. from Ga to Se, the effective nuclear charge increases and size decreases. As a result, the value of electronegativity increases due to increase in the attraction between the outer electrons and the nucleus. Whereas on moving down the group, (i.e. from Se to Te), the atomic size increases. As a result, the force of attraction between the outer electron and the nucleus decreases. Hence, the electronegativity decreases. 6. Element C Al S Cs Period No. 2nd 3rd 3rd 6th Group No. 14 13 16 1 Along the period atomic radius decreases, so, radii : Al > S. With the addition of a new shell, period number as well as atomic radius increases. It is because of the successive addition of one extra shell of electrons. So, the order of the atomic radii of the given elements will be: C < S < Al < Cs 7. The summary of variation of periodic properties is given in table below: S.No. Periodic property 1. 2. Atomic radius Electron gain enthalpy Electronegativity 3. Variation Along a period Along a group Decreases Increases Increases Decreases Increases Decreases Thus, electronegativity decreases and atomic radius increases down a group in the periodic table. 8. Number of electrons in N3−, = 7 + 3 = 10 Number of electrons in O2− = 8 + 2 = 10 Number of electrons in F− = 9 + 1 = 10 Since, all the three species have each 10 electrons, hence they are isoelectronic species. It is considered that, in case of isoelectronic species as the negative charge increases, ionic radii increases and therefore the value of ionic radii are (highest among the three) N3− = 1.71 O2− = 1.40 F− = 136 . (lowest among the three) Time Saving Technique There is no need to mug up the radius values for different ions. This particular question can be solved through following time saving. Trick The charges on the ions indicate the size as N3− > O2− > F− . Thus, you have to look for the option in which the above trend is followed. Option(c) is the only one in which this trend is followed. Hence, it is the correct answer. 9. As we move down the group, size of metal increases. Be has lower size while SO2− 4 has bigger size, that’s why BeSO 4 breaks easily and lattice energy becomes smaller but due to lower size of Be, water molecules are gathered around and hence hydration energy increases. On the other hand, rest of the metals, i.e Ca, Ba, Sr have bigger size and that’s why lattice energy is greater than hydration energy. Time Saving Technique In the question of finding hydration energy only check the size of atom. Smaller sized atom has more hydration energy. Thus, in this question Be is placed upper most in the group has lesser size and not comparable with the size of sulphates. Hence, BeSO4 is the right response. 10. Cl 2, Br2 and I2 are homonuclear diatomic molecule in which electronegativity of the combining atoms is same, so they are more stable and less reactive, whereas, I and Cl have different electronegativities and bond between them are polarised and reactive. Therefore, interhalogen compounds are more reactive. Time Saving Technique In this type of question of halogen, only go through the polarity of the molecules. As we know, diatomic molecule does not have polarity but molecules with dissimilar sizes have polarity resulting in more reactivity. 11. As we move down the group of noble gases, molecular mass increases by which dipole produced for a moment and hence London forces increases from He to Xe. Therefore, more amount of energy is required to break these forces, thus boiling point also increases from He and Xe. 12. Na → Na + + e− First IE + Na + e− → Na Electron gain enthalpy of Na + is reverse of (IE) Because reaction is reverse so ∆H (eq) = − 5.1 eV 13. Ionisation energy increases along a period from left to right and decreases down a group. The position of given elements in the periodic table is as Group No. 2 Ca Ba 16 S Se 18 Ar Thus, the order of increasing ∆H IE1 is Ba < Ca < Se < S < Ar 14. Be− is the least stable ion, Be (1s2 2s2 ) has stable electronic configuration, addition of electron decreases stability. 15. In a group, ionisation energy decreases down the group Be > Mg > Ca 16. Among isoelectronic species, greater the negative charge, greater the ionic size, hence F− < O2− < N3− . 46 Periodic Classification and Periodic Properties 17. (a) Correct statement In a period, element of 2nd group has higher first ionisation potential than element of group 13. (b) Incorrect statement Mg+ require less energy for further ionisation than Na + because of noble gas configuration of Na + . (c) Correct statement Ionisation energy increases from left to right in a period. 18. Mg2+ = 1s2 2 s2 2 p6 = no unpaired electron Ti 3+ = 1s2 2 s2 2 p6 3s2 3 p6 3d 1 = one unpaired electron V3+ = 1s2 2 s2 2 p6 3s2 3 p6 3d 2 = two unpaired electrons 2+ Fe 2 2 6 2 6 6 = 1s 2 s 2 p 3s 3 p 3d = four unpaired electrons 19. [Ne] 3s2 3 p3 has highest ionisation energy, periodic trend. 20. Among isoelectronic species, the relation in size is 21. Ionisation energy increases from left to right in a period. However, exception occur between group 2 and group 13 elements on account of stability of electronic configuration of valence shell. IE Group 2 = > Group 13 = ns2 np1 ⇒ The desired order is Na < Mg > Al < Si 22. Electronegativity increases from left to right in a period and decreases from top to bottom in a group. Variation is more rapid in group than in a period, hence the desired order is Electronegativity : Si < P < C < N 23. Atomic radius of noble gases are greater than halogens of same period, hence (a) is the correct answer. 24. First ionisation energy of oxygen is less than that of nitrogen on the ground of stability of valence shell configuration, hence (a) is the correct answer. 25. Hydration energy depends on charge of ion and ionic radius. Higher the charge, greater the hydration energy. On the other hand, smaller the size, greater the hydration energy. Charge is considered first for comparison. Hence, Mg2+ has higher hydration energy than Na + . 26. Nitrogen has highest ionisation potential due to exceptional stability of its valence shell configuration mentioned in question 21. 27. For second ionisation potential, electron will have to be removed from valence shell of the following ions: C+ (5e–) = 1s2 2s2 2p + – N (6e ) = 1s2 2s2 2p O+ (7e–) = 1s2 (d) is incorrect because CrO is basic oxide. 29. (a) Ti 4+ > Mn 7+ is the correct order of size due to lower positive charge on Ti 4+ . Cl − = 37 Cl − : Isotopes with same charge have same size because isotopes differ in compositions of nuclei which do not affect the atomic/ionic radius. (c) K+ < Cl − is the correct order. Among isoelectronic species, anion has greater size than cation. (d) P3+ > P5+ is the correct order. For the same elements, lower the positive charge, larger the ions. 37 30. (a) and (b) are infact the same statements and both are correct. N has slightly greater ionisation energy than oxygen which is against periodic trend. This exception is due to completely half-filled (2 p3 ) orbital in nitrogen that makes ionisation slightly difficult than oxygen. (c) Also correct : Although N has greater first ionisation potential than oxygen, two values of ionisation potentials are comparable since they are adjacent in a period, i.e. electrons are removed from same orbit during ionisation. (d) Incorrect – opposite to (c). of the bonded atoms which in turn has periodic trend in long form of periodic table. 31. (a) Correct For greater solubility, hydration energy must be greater than lattice energy. (b) Correct Greater lattice energy discourage dissolution of a salt. (c) Incorrect When a salt dissolve, energy is required to break the lattice, which comes from hydration process. (d) Incorrect Explained in (A). 32. Statement I and II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. 33. Statement I is true. Stronger oxidising agent is one which itself can easily be reduced. Pb4+ is unstable, due to inert pair effect, can easily be reduced to stable Pb2+ , hence a stronger oxidising agent than Sn 4+ . Statement II is false. Due to inert pair effect, the higher oxidation states of group 14 elements becomes less stable for heavier member. 34. Both statements I and II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. 2s2 2p F+ (8e–) = 1s2 28. (c) is incorrect because NO is neutral oxide. (b) cation < neutral < anion Hence, Na + has smallest size. ns2 In general, ionisation energy increases from left to right in a period. However, exception occur between adjacent atoms in a period, greater amount energy is required for removal of electron from completely half-filled or completely filled orbital than the same for adjacent atom with either less than completely half-filled or less than completely filled orbital. Therefore, ionisation potential of O+ is greater than that of F+ . Also ionisation potential of N+ is greater than C+ but less than both O+ and F+ (periodic trend). Hence, overall order is 2nd IP : O > F > N > C. 2s2 2p 35. Statement I is true Be has higher first ionisation energy than B which is against periodic trend. Statement II is false 2s-orbital is lower in energy than 2p, Aufbau’s principle. Periodic Classification and Periodic Properties 47 36. Statement I is true; Statement II is false. F atom has slightly lower affinity for the electron than chlorine. It is due to the reason that additional electrons are repelled more effectively by 2p-electrons in F than by 3p-electrons in Cl-atom. 37. By observing the values of different ionisation energies, I 1 , I 2 and I 3 for atomic number (n + 2 ), it is observed that there is very large difference between the second ionisation energy and first ionisation energy (I 2 >> I 1 ). This indicates that number of valence shell electrons is 1 and atomic number (n + 2 ) should be an alkali metal. Also for atomic number (n + 3 ), I 3 >> I 2. This indicates that it will be an alkaline earth metal which suggests that atomic number (n + 1) should be a noble gas and atomic number (n) should belong to halogen family. Since, n < 10; hence, n = 9 (F atom) 38. Inert pair effect-favours lower oxidation state. 39. Higher effective nuclear charge due to greater p/e ratio. 40. Electronegativity = IP + EA 2 (Mulliken formula) 41. Electron affinity–definition. 42. Basic nature of hydroxides increases down a group. 43. Cl has maximum electron affinity, hence the correct order is Cl > F > Br 44. Ionisation potential decreases down the group but this is not the only criteria of reducing power. 45. In a group, size increases from top to bottom. 46. Li + < Al 3+ < Mg2+ < K+ . Size decreases from left to right in a period and it increases from top to bottom in a group. Variation is more pronounced in group than in period. 47. Zn = 3d 10 4 s2 , Cu = 3d 10 4 s1 The first ionisation energy is greater for Zn but reverse is true for 2nd ionisation energy. 48. Ionic size Mg2+ < Na + < F− < O2− < N3− 49. The first ionisation energy of carbon is greater than the same of boron as predicted from periodic trend. However, for 2nd ; more stable than C+ =1s2 2s2 B+ = 1s2 2s2 2p1 ionisation trend is reversed due to stability of completely filled 2s-orbital of B+ : 50. Size Ca 2+ < Ar < Cl − < S2− . 51. (i) Mg2+ , O2− , Na + and F − are all isoelectronic, has 10 electrons each. Among isoelectronic species, the order of size is cation < neutral < anion. Also, between cations, higher the charge, smaller the size and between anions, greater the negative charge, larger the size. Therefore, the decreasing order of ionic radii : O2− > F− > Na + > Mg2+ (ii) First ionisation energy increases from left to right in a period. However, exception occur between group 2 and 13 and group 15 and 16 where trend is reversed on the grounds of stability of completely filled and completely half-filled orbitals. Therefore, Ionisation energy (1st) : Na < Al < Mg < Si (iii) If the atoms are from same period, bond length is inversely proportional to bond order. In a group, bond length is related directly to atomic radius. Therefore, bond length N2 < O2 < F2 < Cl 2 4 Chemical Bonding Topic 1 Preliminary Concepts of Electrovalent and Covalent Bonding Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. The isoelectronic set of ions is − + + (a) F , Li , Na and Mg (2019 Main, 10 April I) 2+ (b) N3 − , Li + , Mg 2+ and O2 − (c) Li + , Na + , O2 − and F− (d) N3 − , O2 − , F− and Na + 2. Which of the following compounds contain(s) no covalent bond(s)? KCl, PH3 , O2 , B2 H6 , H2 SO4 (a) KCl, B2 H6 , PH3 (c) KCl (2018 Main) (b) KCl, H2 SO4 (d) KCl, B2 H6 3. The intermolecular interaction that is dependent on the inverse cube of distance between the molecules is (2015 Main) (a) ion-ion interaction (b) ion-dipole interaction (c) London force (d) hydrogen bond 4. The nodal plane in the π-bond of ethene is located in (a) the molecular plane (2002, 3M) (b) a plane parallel to the molecular plane (c) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which bisects the carbon-carbon σ-bond at right angle (d) a plane perpendicular to the molecular plane which contains the carbon-carbon σ-bond 5. Amongst H2 O, H2 S, H2 Se and H2 Te, the one with the highest boiling point is (2000, 1M) (a) H2 O because of hydrogen bonding (b) H2 Te because of higher molecular weight (c) H2 S because of hydrogen bonding (d) H2 Se because of lower molecular weight 6. Arrange the following compounds in order of increasing dipole moment, toluene (I), m-dichlorobenzene (II), o-dichlorobenzene (III), p-dichlorobenzene (IV) (1996, 1M) (a) I < IV < II < III (b) IV < I < II < III (c) IV < I < III < II (d) IV < II < I < III 7. The number and type of bonds between two carbon atoms in CaC2 are (1996, 1M) (a) one sigma (σ ) and one pi ( π ) bonds (b) one sigma (σ ) and two pi ( π ) bonds (c) one sigma (σ ) and one half pi ( π ) bonds (d) one sigma (σ ) bond 8. The molecule which has zero dipole moment is (1989, 1M) (d) ClO2 (c) NF3 (a) CH2 Cl 2 (b) BF3 9. Element X is strongly electropositive and element Y is strongly electronegative. Both are univalent. The compound formed would be (1980, 1M) (b) X −Y + (c) X −− Y (d) X → Y (a) X +Y − 10. Which of the following compound is covalent? (a) H2 (c) KCl (1980, 1M) (b) CaO (d) Na 2 S 11. The total number of electrons that take part in forming the bonds in N2 is (a) 2 (b) 4 (1980, 1M) (c) 6 (d) 10 12. The compound which contains both ionic and covalent bonds is (a) CH4 (1979, 1M) (b) H2 (c) KCN (d) KCl Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) 13. Each of the following options contains a set of four molecules. Identify the option(s) where all four molecules posses permanent dipole moment at room temperature. (2019 Adv.) (a) SO2 , C6 H5 Cl, H2 Se, BrF5 (b) BeCl 2 , CO2 , BCl 3 , CHCl 3 (c) NO2 , NH3 , POCl 3 , CH3 Cl (d) BF3 , O3 , SF6 , XeF6 14. Dipole moment is shown by (1986, 1M) (a) 1, 4-dichlorobenzene (b) cis-1, 2-dichloroethene (c) trans-1, 2-dichloroethene (d) trans-1, 2-dichloro-2- pentene Chemical Bonding 49 Numerical Answer Type Questions 15. Consider the following compounds in the liquid form : O 2 ,HF,H 2O,NH 3 ,H 2O 2 ,CCl 4 ,CHCl 3 , C6H 6 ,C6H 5Cl When a charged comb is brought near their flowing stream, how many of them show deflection as per the following figure? (2020 Adv.) 17. Statement I LiCl is predominantly a covalent compound. Statement II Electronegativity difference between Li and Cl is too small. (1998, 2M) Fill in the Blank 18. There are …… π -bonds in a nitrogen molecule. (1982, 1M) True/False 19. All molecules with polar bonds have dipole moment. (1985, 1/2 M) 20. Linear overlapping of two atomic p-orbitals leads to a sigma bond. (1983, 1M) Subjective Questions 21. Arrange the following ions in order of their increasing radii: Li + , Mg 2+ , K + , Al 3+ . + (1997, 1M) + 22. Between Na and Ag , which is stronger Lewis acid and why? (1997, 3M) − 23. In the reaction, I + I2 → I3− , which is the Lewis acid? (1997, 1M) 16. Among the species given below, the total number of diamagnetic species is____ H atom, NO2 monomer, O−2 (superoxide), dimeric sulphur in vapour phase, Mn 3 O4 ,( NH4 )2 [ FeCl 4 ], ( NH4 )2 [ NiCl 4 ], (2018 Adv.) K 2 MnO4 , K 2 CrO4 Assertion and Reason Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below: (a) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct 24. Explain the difference in the nature of bonding in LiF and LiI. (1996, 2M) 25. The dipole moment of KCl is 3.336 × 10−29 C-m which indicates that it is a highly polar molecule. The interatomic distance between K + and Cl − in this molecule is 2.6 × 10−10 m. Calculate the dipole moment of KCl molecule if there were opposite charges of one fundamental unit located at each nucleus. Calculate the percentage ionic character of KCl. (1993, 2M) 26. Give reasons in two or three sentences only for the following : “Hydrogen peroxide acts as an oxidising as well as a reducing agent.’’ (1992, 1M) 27. State four major physical properties that can be used to distinguish between covalent and ionic compounds. Mention the distinguishing features in each case. (1978, 2M) Topic 2 VBT, Hybridisation and VSEPR Theory Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. The correct statements among I to III are : I. Valence bond theory cannot explain the color exhibited by transition metal complexes. II. Valence bond theory can predict quantitatively the magnetic properties of transition metal complexes. III. Valence bond theory cannot distinguish ligands as weak and strong field ones. (2019 Main, 9 April II) (a) II and III only (b) I, II and III (c) I and II only (d) I and III only 2. The correct statement about ICl 5 and ICl −4 is (2019 Main, 8 April II) (a) ICl 5 is square pyramidal and ICl −4 is tetrahedral (b) ICl 5 is square pyramidal and ICl −4 is square planar (c) Both are isostructural (d) ICl 5 is trigonal bipyramidal and ICl −4 is tetrahedral 3. The ion that has sp 3 d 2 -hybridisation for the central atom, is (2019 Main, 8 April II) (a) [ICl 2 ]− (b) [BrF2 ]− (c) [ICl 4 ]− (d) [IF6 ]− 50 Chemical Bonding 4. The size of the iso-electronic species Cl − , Ar and Ca 2+ is affected by (2019 Main, 8 April I) (a) azimuthal quantum number of valence shell (b) electron-electron interaction in the outer orbitals (c) principal quantum number of valence shell (d) nuclear charge 5. In which of the following processes, the bond order has increased and paramagnetic character has changed to diamagnetic? (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) (a) O2 → O2+ (b) N2 → N+2 (c) O2 → O22 − (d) NO → NO+ (2018 Main) (b) 6 (d) 12 (2017 Main) (a) O2 − , F− , Na + , Mg 2 + (b) O− , F− , Na, Mg + (c) O2 − , F− , Na, Mg 2 + (d) O− , F− , Na + , Mg 2 + 8. The correct statement for the molecule, CsI3 is (2014 Main) it is a covalent molecule it contains Cs + and I−3 ions it contains Cs 3+ and I− ions it contains Cs + , I− and lattice I2 molecule (a) SO3 (b) BrF3 (c) (2010) (d) OSF2 magnetic nature of the diatomic molecule B2 is (a) 1 and diamagnetic (b) 0 and diamagnetic (c) 1 and paramagnetic (d) 0 and paramagnetic (2010) 11. The species having bond order different from that in CO is (b) NO+ (a) NO− (2007, 3M) (d) N2 12. Among the following, the paramagnetic compound is (2007, 3M) (a) Na 2 O2 (b) O3 (c) N2 O (d) KO2 13. Which of the following contains maximum number of lone pairs on the central atom? (b) XeF 4 (a) ClO −3 (c) SF 4 (d) I −3 14. Number of lone pair(s) in XeOF4 is/are (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (2005, 1M) (2004, 1M) (d) 3 15. Which of the following are isoelectronic and isostructural ? (a) (c) NO–3 , – NO3 , CO2− 3 ClO–3 , CO2– 3 – CO2– 3 , ClO3 , SO3 (2003, 1M) (b) SO3 , NO–3 (d) CO2– 3 , SO3 (2003, 1M) (b) CH 2 Cl 2 (d) CCl 4 of N and B atoms in a 1 : 1 complex of BF3 and NH3 . (a) N : tetrahedral, sp 3 ; B: tetrahedral, sp 3 (2002, 3M) (b) N : pyramidal, sp 3 ; B: pyramidal, sp 3 (c) N: pyramidal, sp 3 ; B: planar, sp 2 (d) N: pyramidal, sp 3 ; B: tetrahedral, sp 3 (2001, 1M) (a) dsp 2 , dsp 3 , sp 2 and sp 3 (b) sp 3 , dsp 2 , sp 3 d and sp 2 (c) dsp 2 , sp 2 , sp 3 and dsp 3 (d) dsp 2 , sp 3 , sp 2 and dsp 3 20. The common features among the species CN – , CO and NO+ are (a) bond order three and isoelectronic (b) bond order three and weak field ligands (c) bond order two and acceptors (d) isoelectronic and weak field ligands (2001, 1M) (2000, 1M) (a) sp, sp 3 and sp 2 respectively (b) sp, sp 2 and sp 3 respectively (c) sp 2 , sp and sp 3 respectively (d) sp 2 , sp 3 and sp respectively 22. In the compound CH2 == CH CH2 CH2 C ≡≡ CH, the C2 C3 bonds is of (a) sp - sp 2 (c) sp - sp 3 (1999, 2M) (b) sp 3 - sp 3 (d) sp 2 - sp 3 23. The geometry of H2 S and its dipole moment are (a) angular and non-zero (c) linear and non-zero (1999, 2M) (b) angular and zero (d) linear and zero 24. The geometry and the type of hybrid orbital present about the central atom in BF3 is (1998, 2M) (a) linear, sp (b) trigonal planar, sp 2 (c) tetrahedral, sp 3 (d) pyramidal, sp 3 25. Which one of the following compounds has sp 2 - hybridisation? (1997, 1M) (a) CO2 (d) CO (b) SO2 (c) N2 O 26. Among KO2 , AlO−2 , BaO2 and NO+2 , unpaired electron is present in (a) NO+2 and BaO2 (b) KO2 and AlO−2 (c) Only KO2 (d) Only BaO2 (1997 C, 1M) 27. The cyanide ion CN− and N2 are isoelectronic, but in contrast 16. Among the following, the molecule with the highest dipole moment is (a) CH 3 Cl (c) CHCl 3 18. Specify the coordination geometry around and hybridisation and NH+4 are 10. Assuming that Hund’s rule is violated, the bond order and (c) CN− (d) O2– 2 21. The hybridisation of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO+2 , NO−3 9. The species having pyramidal shape is SiO2− 3 (2002, 3M) (c) O–2 following species NH3 , [PtCl 4 ]2 − , PCl 5 and BCl 3 is 7. The group having isoelectronic species is (a) (b) (c) (d) electron (s)? (b) F2 (a) N2 19. The correct order of hybridisation of the central atom in the 6. Total number of lone pair of electron in I−3 ion is (a) 3 (c) 9 17. Which of the following molecular species has unpaired to CN− , N2 is chemically inert because of (1997 C, 1M) (a) low bond energy (b) absence of bond polarity (c) unsymmetrical electron distribution (d) presence of more number of electron in bonding orbitals Chemical Bonding 51 28. Among the following species, identify the isostructural pairs. NF3 , NO3− , + BF3 , H3 O , N3 H (1996, 1M) (a) [NF3 ,NO−3 ] and [BF3 ,H3 O+ ] (b) [NF3 , N3 H] and [NO−3 ,BF3 ] (c) [ NF3 , H3 O+ ] and [NO–3 , BF3 ] (d) [NF3 , H3 O+ ] and [N3 H, BF3 ] (b) NCl 3 (c) PH3 (1996, 1M) (d) BF3 30. The maximum possible number of hydrogen bonds a water molecule can form is (a) 2 (b) 4 (1992, 1M) (c) 3 ClO−2 is (a) sp (1992, 1M) (b) sp (c) sp 2 (d) None of these 32. The molecule which has pyramidal shape is (a) PCl 3 (b) SO3 (c) CO2– 3 (1989, 1M) (d) NO–3 33. Which of the following is paramagnetic? (a) O–2 (b) CN– (c) CO (1989, 1M) (d) NO+ 34. The Cl—C—Cl angle in 1, 1, 2, 2-tetrachloroethene and tetrachloromethane respectively will be about (a) 120° and 109.5° (b) 90° and 109.5° (c) 109° and 90° (d) 109.5° and 120° 35. The molecule that has linear structure is (a) CO2 (b) NO2 (c) SO2 (1988, 1M) (1988, 1M) (d) SiO2 36. The species in which the central atom uses sp 2 -hybrid orbitals in its bonding is (a) PH3 (b) NH3 (1984, 1M) (1988, 1M) (c) CH+3 (d) SbH3 37. Of the following compounds, which will have a zero dipole moment ? (a) 1, 1-dichloroethylene (b) cis-1, 2-dichloroethylene (c) trans-1, 2-dichloroethylene (d) None of the above (a) its planar structure (1983, 1M) (b) its regular tetrahedral structure (c) similar sizes of carbon and chlorine atoms (d) similar electron affinities of carbon and chlorine 42. The ion that is isoelectronic with CO is (a) CN− (1987, 1M) (b) O+2 (c) O−2 (1982, 1M) (d) N+2 43. Among the following, the linear molecule is (a) CO2 (d) 1 31. The type of hybrid orbitals used by the chlorine atom in 3 (a) two mutually perpendicular orbitals (b) two orbitals at 180° (c) four orbitals directed tetrahedrally (d) three orbitals in a plane 41. Carbon tetrachloride has no net dipole moment because of 29. Which one of the following molecules is planar? (a) NF3 40. On hybridisation of one s and one p-orbital we get (b) NO2 (c) SO2 (1982, 1M) (d) ClO2 44. If a molecule MX 3 has zero dipole moment, the sigma bonding orbitals used by M (atomic number < 21) are (a) pure p (b) sp-hybridised (1981, 1M) (d) sp 3 -hybridised (c) sp 2 -hybridised Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) 45. The molecules that will have dipole moment are (a) 2, 2-dimethyl propane (c) cis-3-hexene (1992, 1M) (b) trans-2-pentene (d) 2,2,3,3-tetramethyl butane 46. Which of the following have identical bond order? (a) CN– (b) O–2 (c) NO+ (d) CN+ (1992, 1M) 47. The linear structure assumed by (a) SnCl 2 (b) CS2 (c) NO+2 (1991, 1M) (d) NCO– 48. CO2 is isostructural with (a) HgCl 2 (b) C2 H2 (1986, 1M) (c) SnCl 2 (d) NO2 Match the Columns 49. Match the orbital overlap figures shown in Column I with the description given in Column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Columns. (2014 Adv.) Column I Column II p-d π antibonding A. 1. B. 2. d-d σ bonding C. 3. p-dπ bonding D. 4. d-d σ antibonding 38. The hybridisation of sulphur in sulphur dioxide is (1986, 1M) (a) sp (b) sp 3 (c) sp 2 (d) dsp 2 39. The bond between two identical non-metal atoms has a pair of electrons (a) unequally shared between the two (b) transferred fully from one atom to another (c) with identical spins (d) equally shared between them (1986, 1M) 52 Chemical Bonding 64. In benzene, carbon uses all the three p-orbitals for Codes A (a) 4 (c) 2 B 3 3 C 2 1 D 1 4 A 1 4 (b) (d) B 2 1 C 3 2 D 4 3 50. Match each of the diatomic molecules in Column I with its property/properties in Column II. (2009) A. p. Paramagnetic B. N2 q. Undergoes oxidation C. O−2 r. Undergoes reduction D. O2 s. Bond order ≥ 2 t. Mixing of ‘s’ and ‘p’ orbitals ColumnII B C p, r, t, s q, r, t q, r, s, t p, q, r, t p, q, r r, s, t p, q, s p, t 65. SnCl 2 is a non-linear molecule. 1 (1985, M) 2 Integer Answer Type Questions central atom in the following species is [TeBr6 ]2 − , [BrF2 ]+ , SNF3 and [XeF3 ]− Codes A q, r, s p, q, r, t q, r, s, t p, q, s, t (1987, 1M) 66. The sum of the number of lone pairs of electrons on each Column I B2 (a) (b) (c) (d) hybridisation. D p, q, t p, r, s, t p, q, r, t q, r, t (Atomic numbers : N = 7, F = 9, S = 16, Br = 35, Te = 52, Xe = 54) (2017 Adv.) N−3 , N2 O, NO+2 , 67. Among the triatomic molecules/ions BeCl 2 , O3 , SCl 2 , ICl −2 , I−3 and XeF2 , the total number of linear molecules(s)/ion(s) where the hybridisation of the central atom does not have contribution from the d-orbital(s) is [atomic number of S = 16 , Cl = 17 , I = 53 and Xe = 54] (2015 adv.) 68. A list of species having the formula XZ4 is given below (2014 Adv.) XeF4 , SF4 , SiF4 , BF4− , BrF4− , [Cu(NH3 )4 ] 2+ , [FeCl 4 ] 2− , Fill in the Blanks 51. Among N2 O, SO2 , I+3 and I–3 , the linear species are …… and …… 52. When N2 goes to (1997 C, 1M) N+2 , the N N bond distance … , and when O2 goes to O+2 the O O bond distance …… [CoCl 4 ] 2− and [PtCl 4 ] 2− Defining shape on the basis of the location of X and Z atoms, the total number of species having a square planar shape is 69. The total number of lone-pair of electrons in melamine is (1996, 1M) (2013 Adv.) 53. The two types of bonds present in B2 H6 are covalent and …… 70. Based on VSEPR theory, the number of 90° F—Br—F angles (1994, 1M) (2010) 54. The kind of delocalisation involving sigma bond orbitals is called................. (1994, 1M) 55. The valence atomic orbitals on C in silver acetylide is .............hybridised. 56. The shape of CH3 + is …… . (1990, 1M) (1990, 1M) 57. …… hybrid orbitals of nitrogen atom are involved in the in BrF5 is Subjective Questions 71. Predict whether the following molecules are isostructural or not. Justify your answer. (ii) N(SiMe3 )3 (i) NMe3 (2005, 2M) 72. On the basis of ground state electronic configuration, arrange (1982, 1M) the following molecules in increasing O—O bond length (2004, 2M) order. KO2 , O2 , O2 [AsF6 ] 58. Pair of molecules which forms strongest intermolecular 73. Draw the shape of XeF4 and OSF4 according to VSEPR formation of ammonium ion. hydrogen bonds is ……… . (SiH4 and SiF4 , acetone and (1981, 1M) CHCl 3 , formic acid and acetic acid) 59. The angle between two covalent bonds is maximum in …… . (CH4 , H2 O, CO2 ) (1981, 1M) 60. The dipole moment of CH3 F is greater than that of CH3 Cl. (1993, 1M) (1993, 1M) 62. The presence of polar bonds in a polyatomic molecule suggests that the molecule has non-zero dipole moment. (1990, 1M) 63. sp 3 hybrid orbitals have equal s and p character. (2004, Main, 2M) 74. Using VSEPR theory, draw the shape of PCl 5 and BrF5 . (2003, 2M) 75. Draw the molecular structures of XeF 2 , XeF 4 and XeO2 F2 , True/False 61. H2 O molecule is linear. theory. Show the lone pair of electrons on the central atom. (1987, 1M) indicating the location of lone pair(s) of electrons. (2000, 3M) 76. Interpret the non-linear shape of H2 S molecule and non-planar shape of PCl 3 using valence shell electron pair repulsion (VSEPR) theory. (Atomic number : H = 1, P = 15, S = 16, Cl = 17) (1998, 4M) 77. Using the VSEPR theory, identify the type of hybridisation and draw the structure of OF2 . What are the oxidation states of O and F ? (1997, 3M) Chemical Bonding 53 78. Write the Lewis dot structural formula for each of H •••• H • •O• • H the following. Give also, the formula of a neutral molecule, which has the same geometry and the same arrangement of the bonding electrons as in each of the following. An example is given below in the case of H3 O+ and NH3 . + Lewis dot. structure (i) O2− 2 (ii) CO2− 3 H •••• H • •N• • H Neutral .molecule (iii) CN (1983, 4M) (iv) NCS− − Topic 3 Resonance, LCAO, MOT, Other Bonding Types Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. The intermolecular potential energy for the molecules A, B, C and D given below suggests that: (2020 Main, 4 Sep I) 0 100 –100 A–D following will not be a viable molecule? (b) He+2 (a) He2+ 2 A–B –600 (c) H−2 (a) A-B has the stiffest bond (b) D is more electronegative than other atoms (c) A-A has the largest bond enthalpy (d) A-D has the shortest bond length (b) π 2 px (c) π2 p y * (d) σ 2 p z 3. HF has highest boiling point among hydrogen halides, because it has (2019 Main, 9 April II) (a) lowest ionic character (b) strongest van der Waals’ interactions (c) strongest hydrogen bonding (d) lowest dissociation enthalpy 4. Among the following species, the diamagnetic molecule is (2019 Main, 9 April II) (a) CO (b) B2 (c) NO (d) O2 5. Among the following, the molecule expected to be stabilised by anion formation is C2 , O2 , NO, F2 . (a) C2 (b) F2 (c) NO (d) O2 (2019 Main, 9 April I) 2− 2− 6. Among the following molecules/ions, C2− 2 , N2 , O2 , O2 Which one is diamagnetic and has the shortest bond length? (2019 Main, 8 April II) (a) C2− 2 (b) O2 (c) O2− 2 (2019 Main, 9Jan I) (2018 Main) (d) H2− 2 (2017 Main) (2019 Main, 10 April I) * (d) O2 10. Which of the following species is not paramagnetic? 2. During the change of O2 to O−2 , the incoming electron goes to the orbital. (a) π2 px (c) N+2 9. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the A–C A–A –500 (b) N2 is true with respect to Li +2 and Li −2 ? (a) Both are unstable (b) Li+2 is unstable and Li−2 is stable (c) Both are stable (d) Li+2 is stable and Li−2 is unstable 150 –200 Potential –300 Energy (kJ mol–1) –400 (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) (a) O+2 8. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the following Interatomic distance (pm) 50 7. Two pi and half sigma bonds are present in (d) N 2− 2 (a) NO (c) O2 (b) CO (d) B2 11. Assuming 2s-2p mixing is not operative, the paramagnetic species among the following is (2014 Adv.) (a) Be2 (b) B2 (c) C2 (d) N2 12. Stability of the species Li 2 , Li −2 and Li +2 increases in the order of (2013 Main) (b) Li –2 < Li +2 < Li 2 (a) Li 2 < Li 2+ < Li 2− (c) Li 2 < Li 2− < Li 2+ (d) Li −2 < Li 2 < Li +2 13. In which of the following pairs of molecules/ions both the species are not likely to exist? (a) H+2 , He2− (b) H −2 , He22 − 2 (c) H22 + , He2 (2013 Main) (d) H−2 , He2+ 2 14. Hyperconjugation involves overlap of which of the following orbitals? (a) σ - σ (c) p - p 15. According to MO theory, (2008, 3M) (b) σ - p (d) π - π (2004, 1M) (a) O+2 is paramagnetic and bond order greater than O2 (b) O+2 is paramagnetic and bond order less than O2 (c) O+2 is diamagnetic and bond order is less than O2 (d) O+2 is diamagnetic and bond order is more than O2 54 Chemical Bonding 16. Molecular shape of SF4 , CF4 and XeF4 are (2000, 1M) The electronic structure of O 3 is 24. Statement I + (a) the same, with 2, 0 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively (b) the same, with 1, 1 and 1 lone pair of electrons respectively (c) different, with 0, 1 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively (d) different, with 1, 0 and 2 lone pair of electrons respectively 17. In compounds of type ECl 3 , where E = B, P, As or Bi, the angles Cl—E—Cl is in order (a) B > P = As = Bi (b) B > P > As > Bi (c) B < P = As = Bi (d) B < P < As < Bi (1999, 2M) (1999, 2M) (b) CO2 < CO2– 3 < CO (d) CO < CO2 < CO2– 3 19. Which contains both polar and non-polar bonds? (a) NH4 Cl (c) H2 O2 (b) HCN (d) CH4 (b) Liquid NH3 (d) HCl •• − O •• . •• • • O •• O •• •• •• structure is not allowed (2016 adv.) (b) O2+ 2 is expected to have a longer bond length than O2 (c) N+2 and N−2 have the same bond order has the same energy as two isolated He atoms 22. Hydrogen bonding plays a central role in which of the following phenomena? (2014 Adv.) (a) Ice floats in water (b) Higher Lewis basicity of primary amines than tertiary amines in aqueous solutions (c) Formic acid is more acidic than acetic acid (d) Dimerisation of acetic acid in benzene 23. Which one of the following molecules is expected to exhibit diamagnetic behaviour? (2013 Main) (a) C 2 (b) N 2 (c) O 2 (d) S 2 Assertion and Reason Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below: (a) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct; Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct; Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect. (d) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct. (1998, 2M) 25. Match the reactions in Column I with nature of the reactions/type of the products in Column II. (2007, 6M) Column I A. O−2 B. C. Column II → O2 + O22 − 1. Redox reaction CrO24 − + H+ → 2. One of the products has trigonal planar structure MnO−4 + NO−2 3. Dimeric bridged tetrahedral metal ion 4. Disproportionation + + H → NO−3 + H2 SO4 + Fe 21. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the (d) • • Match the Columns D. Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) He+2 Statement II (1983, 1M) following statements is(are) correct? (a) C2− 2 is expected to be diamagnetic •• O O (1997, 1M) 20. Which one among the following does not have the hydrogen bond? (a) Phenol (c) Water • • because octet around O cannot be expanded. 18. The correct order of increasing CO bond length of CO, CO23 − , CO2 is (a) CO23 − < CO2 < CO (c) CO < CO2– 3 < CO2 O Codes A (a) 2 (c) 2 2+ → B 1, 4 3 C 3 1 D 4 4 A (b) 1, 4 (d) 3 B 3 4 C 1, 2 2, 3 D 1 1 Integer Answer Type Questions 26. Chlorine reacts with hot and concentrated NaOH and produces compounds ( X ) and (Y ). Compound ( X ) gives white precipitate with silver nitrate solution. The average bond order between Cl and O atoms in (Y ) is …… . (2020 Main, 7 Jan I) 27. Among H2 ,He+2 , Li 2 , Be2 , B2 , C2 , N2 , O−2 and F2 , the number of diamagnetic species is (Atomic numbers : H = 1, He = 2, Li = 3, Be = 4, B = 5, C = 6, N = 7, O = 8, F = 9) (2017 Adv.) Subjective Questions 28. Write the MO electron distribution of O2 . Specify its bond order and magnetic property. (2000, 3M) 29. Arrange the following as stated. “Increasing strength of hydrogen bonding ( X H X ).” O, S, F, Cl, N (1991, 1M) 30. What effect should the following resonance of vinyl chloride have on its dipole moment? CH2 ==CH Cl ←→ CH2– (1987, 1M) + C HCl Answers Topic 1 1. 5. 9. 13. 2. 6. 10. 14. (d) (a) (a) (a, c) 17. (c) 25. (80.2%) 3. 7. 11. 15. (c) (b) (a) (a) 18. (2) 4. 8. 12. 16. (b) (b) (c) (6) 19. F (a) (b) (c) (1) 20. T Topic 2 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. 29. 33. 37. 41. 45. 2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26. 30. 34. 38. 42. 46. (d) (d) (d) (d) (c) (b) (b) (d) (a) (c) (b) (b, c) 3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27. 31. 35. 39. 43. 47. (b) (c) (a) (b) (a) (d) (c) (b) (a) (c) (a) (a, c) (c) (a) (a) (a) (b) (a) (b) (a) (a) (d) (a) (b, c, d) 4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. 28. 32. 36. 40. 44. 48. (d) (d) (d) (a) (a) (b) (c) (a) (c) (b) (c) (a, b) 49. (c) A → 2; B → 3; C →1; D →4 50. (b) A → p, q, r, t; B → q, r, s, t; C → p, q, r, t; D → p, r, s, t 52. increases, decreases 51. N 2O, I 3− 53. three centre bond-two electrons 54. hyperconjugation 55. sp 56. Triangular planar 57. sp 3 58. HCOOH and CH3COOH 59. CO2 60. F 61. F 65. T 63. F 68. (4) 64. F 69. (6) 62. F 66. (6) Topic 3 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. 27. (a) (a) (d) (c) (b) (a, c) (b) A → 1, 4; (6) 2. (b) 3. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 10. (b) 11. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a) 18. (a) 19. (c) 22. (a, b, d) 23. (a,b) B → 3; C →1, 2; D →1 28. (2) 4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. 26. (a) (d) (b) (d) (d) (a) (1.67) Hints & Solutions Topic 1 Preliminary Concepts of Electrovalent and Covalent Bonding H 1. Key Idea Isoelectronic species contains same number of electrons. O H H O (O2) (PH3) The species with its atomic number and number of electrons are as follows : Species (ions) At. no. ( Z ) No. of electrons N3− 7 7 + 3 = 10 O2− 8 8 + 2 = 10 F− 9 9 + 1 = 10 Na + 11 11 − 1 = 10 3 3 −1 = 2 12 12 − 2 = 10 Li Covalent bond P + Mg 2+ Thus, option (d) contains isoelectronic set of ions. 2. KCl is the only ionic compound. The structure of PH3, O2, B2H6 and H2SO4 are given below H 120° H B 97° H 1.33Å Å H 1.19 B H H H H H H B H Covalent Bonds B H (B2H6) H O H H B B H H H Banana bond S HO OH O Sulphuric acid (H2SO4) All bond between S and O atom are covalent bonds. 56 Chemical Bonding 3. Ion-ion interaction is dependent on the square of distance, i.e. ion-ion interaction ∝ 1 r2 F Similarly, ion-dipole interaction ∝ London force ∝ 1 r6 F Three identical vectors acting in outward direction at equal angles in a plane cancel each other giving zero resultant, hence non-polar. r3 (In case of dipole-dipole interaction) From the above, it is clear that the ion-dipole interaction is the better answer as compared to dipole-dipole interaction, i.e. hydrogen bonding. 4. sp2 1 Superficially it seems as both ion-dipole interaction and hydrogen bonding vary with the inverse cube of distance between the molecules but when we look at the exact expressions of field (force) created in two situations, it comes as 2| P | (In case of ion-dipole interaction) | E | or | F | = 4 π ∈ r3 H 9. Strongly electropositive, univalent X will form an 1 : 1 ionic compound with strongly electronegative, univalent Y. X + Y → X +Y − 10. H2 is a covalent, diatomic molecule with a sigma covalent bond between two hydrogen atoms. 11. N2 has triple bond and each covalent bond is associated with one pair of electrons, therefore, six electrons are involved in forming bonds in N2. 12. In KCN, the bonding between potassium ion and cyanide ion is ionic while carbon and nitrogen are covalently bonded in cyanide ion as: Covalent bonds H + – [K] [ C ≡≡N] C—–C H 120° F—B 1 r3 and dipole-dipole interaction ∝ 2q2r – 4 q2a and F = 4 π ∈0 r3 8. BF3 has triangular planar arrangement. H Ionic bond Pi bond is formed by the p-orbitals whose lobes have minima in the plane of molecule, hence molecular plane is the nodal plane of pi-bond. Key Idea Dipole moment of a bond depends on the difference in the electronegativities of bonded atoms. More is the difference in the electronegativities, greater will be the dipole moment. Also, For symmetrical molecule, µ = 0 For unsymmetrical molecule, µ ≠ 0 13. 5. H-bond is the strongest intermolecular force. All are different with 1, 0 and 2 lone pairs of electrons at central atom. The molecules which gives permanent dipole moment are polar in nature. 6. p-dichlorobenzene is non-polar. Cl— Cl —Cl S Se p-dichlorobenzene , The two dipole vectors cancelling each other giving zero resultant dipole moment. o-dichlorobenzene has greater dipole moment than meta-isomer. Cl O µ1 Cl F F µ2 F (m-dichlorobenzene) dipole vectors are at 120° angle p-dichlorobenzene (IV) < toluene (I) < m-dichlorobenzene (II) < o-dichlorobenzene (III) Cl – m1 m¹0 (polar) Be Cl , F m2 Cl mnet» 0 (non-polar) Cl m2 , O : C ≡≡ C : one sigma and two pi-bonds. m¹0 (polar) F m1 Toluene is less polar than both ortho and para dichlorobenzene. Therefore, the increasing order of dipole moment is 7. The carbide (C2− 2 ) ion has the following bonding pattern: H H m¹0 (polar) Br Cl (o-dichlorobenzene) dipole vectors are at 60° angle – O m¹0 (polar) µ1 > µ2 Cl , C H C m¹0 (polar) Cl Cl N , O Cl m 0 (non-polar) Cl N Cl , B O mnet 0 (non-polar) O m¹0 (polar) , H H H m¹0 (polar) O P m¹0 (polar) Cl , Cl Chemical Bonding 57 F C H F F H , F H m¹0 O B Cl , O (vi) (NH4)2FeCl 4 has Fe as central metal atom with +2 oxidation state. The electronic configuration of Fe 2+ in the complex is Xe , F m=0 (non-polar) (polar) F 3d 4s 4p Cl– Cl– Cl– Cl– O m¹0 (polar) F sp3 F F 4 unpaired electrons m»0 (non-polar) Thus, options (a, c) are correct. 14. 1,4-dichlorobenzene is non-polar, individual dipole vectors (vii) (NH4)2NiCl 4 has Ni as central metal atom with +2 oxidation state. The electronic configuration of Ni 2+ in the complex is cancel each other. 3d 4s 4p Cl– Cl– Cl– Cl– sp3 µ≠0 Cl H Cl Cl ClCH2 C==C H H Cl Polar µ=0 Non-polar Cl H C2 H 5 Polar (viii) In K2MnO4 central metal atom Mn has +6 oxidation state with following structure O– 15. Only polar liquid will be attracted towards charged comb due to the formation of electrically charged droplets in the polar liquid stream, induced by a nearby charged object. Hence, liquid showing deflection are HF,H2O,NH3 ,H2O2 ,CHCl 3 , C6H5Cl. 16. Among the given species only K2CrO4 is diamagnetic as central 0 metal atom Cr in it has [ Ar ]3d electronic configuration i.e., all paired electrons. The structure and oxidation state of central metal atom of this compound are as follows O , Oxidation state Cr6+ – O– O Rest all the compounds are paramagnetic. Reasons for their paramagnetism are given below (i) H-atom have 1s1 electronic configuration, i.e. 1 unpaired electron. Electronic configuration of Mn6+ is 3d 4s 17. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. The covalency in LiCl is due to small size of Li + ion which brings about large amount of polarisation in bond. 18. These are 2π-bonds in a nitrogen molecule. 19. The resultant of individual bond dipoles may or may not be non-zero. 20. Linear overlapping of p-orbitals form sigma bond while sidewise N O O – O O one unpaired electron Cr O Mn 2K+ O Structure K+ hybridisation 2 unpaired electrons C==C C==C H (ii) NO2 , i.e. hybridisation in itself is an odd electron species. (iii) O−2 (Superoxide) has one unpaired electron in π * molecular orbital. (iv) S2 in vapour phase has O2 like electronic configuration i.e., have 2 unpaired electrons in π * molecular orbitals. (v) Mn 3O4 has following structure +2 O Mn +4 O Mn O +2 Mn O Thus, Mn is showing +2 and +4 oxidation states. The outermost electronic configuration of elemental Mn is 3d 5 4 s2. Hence, in both the above oxidation states it has unpaired electrons as 3d overlapping of two p-orbitals forms a pi bond. 21. Li + < Al 3+ < Mg2+ < K+ 22. Ag+ is stronger Lewis acid because it can easily accommodate lone pair of electrons from Lewis base. On the other hand, Na + has noble gas configuration, cannot accept lone pair of electron, not at all a Lewis acid. 23. I2 is Lewis acid because I − coordinate its one lone pair to I2. 24. Both LiF and LiI are expected to be ionic compounds. However , LiI is predominantly covalent because of small size of Li + and large size of iodide ion. A smaller cation and a larger anion introduces covalency in ionic compound. 25. Dipole moment is calculated theoretically as µ = q⋅d 4s Mn2+ Here, µ Theo = 1.6 × 10−19 × 2.6 × 10−10 = 4.16 × 10−29 cm 5 unpaired electrons 3d Mn4+ 3 unpaired electrons q = 1.6 × 10−19 C and d = 2.6 × 10−10 m 4s % ionic character = 3.336 × 10−29 µ obs × 100 × 100 = µ Theo 4.16 × 10−29 = 80.2% 58 Chemical Bonding The hybridisation of given species are as follows : 26. In hydrogen peroxide (H2O2 ), oxygen is in –1 oxidation state, can be oxidised to O2 (zero oxidation state) or can be reduced to H2O (–2 oxidation state of oxygen). l H = Hence, H2O2 can act as both oxidising agent and reducing agent. With strong oxidising agent like KMnO4, H2O2 acts as a reducing agent while with strong reducing agent like H2C2O4 , it acts as an oxidising agent. l For [ ICl4 ]− , H = 27. (i) Melting points Ionic compounds have higher melting points l than covalent compounds. (ii) Boiling points Ionic compounds have higher boiling points than covalent compounds. (iii) Solubility Ionic compounds have greater solubility in water than a covalent compound. (iv) Conductivity in aqueous solution Ionic compounds have greater electrical conductivity in aqueous solution while covalent compounds are usually non-conducting. For [ IF6 ]− , 5. Bond Order Paramagnetic/ N b − N a Diamagnetic Nature 2 Species Valence MOs NO(15e− ) [ 8 e− ] π 2 px2 = π 2 py2σ 2 pz2 π * 2 p1x = π * 2 py0σ * 2 pz 0 –e− NO + (14e− ) [ 8 e− ] π 2 px2 = π 2 py2σ 2 pz2 6−1 = 2.5 2 6−0 =3 2 Paramagnetic Diamagnetic π * 2 px0 = π * 2 py0σ * 2 pz0 •• 2. For ICl5 1 (7 + 5 − 0 + 0) = 6 (sp3d 2 ) 2 –e Cl 3 N 2 (14 e− ) [ 8 e− ] π 2 px2 = π 2 py2σ2 pz2 N 2+ (13 e− ) π * 2 px0 = π * 2 py0 , σ 2 pz0 − Cl [ 8e− ] π 2 px2 = π 2 p2y σ 2 pz 1 2 sp d hybridised Cl Geometry : Octahedral Shape / Structure : Square pyramidal I Cl Cl Cl s Geometry : Octahedral Shape/Structure : Square planar I Cl So, ICl5 and sp 3 d 2 hybridised Cl ICl−4 are isolobal but not isostructural. Key Idea The hybridisation for a central atom in a species can be calculated using formula 1 H = (V + M − C + A ) 2 where, H = No. of hybridised orbitals used by central atoms. V = No. of valence electrons of the central atom. M = No. of mono-valent atoms (bonded). C = No. of cationic (positive) charge. A = No. of anionic (negative) charge. 6−0 =3 2 5−0 = 2.5 2 Diamagnetic 6−2 =2 2 Paramagnetic Paramagnetic π * 2 px0 = π * 2 p0y σ * 2 pz0 Cl For &&ICl−4 1 H = (7 + 4 − 0 + 1) = 6 (sp3d 2 ) 2 3. 1 (7 + 4 − 0 + 1) = 6 (sp3d 2 ) 2 1 (7 + 6 − 0 + 1) = 7 (sp3d 3 ) 2 4. The radius of isoelectronic species is inversely proportional to their nuclear charge or atomic number (Z). Thus, greater the value of Z, lesser the radii of isoelectronic species. only. Valence bond theory (VBT) cannot explain the colour exhibited by transition metal complexes. This theory cannot distinguish ligands as weak and strong field ones. H= 1 (7 + 2 − 0 + 1) = 5 (sp3d ) 2 H = Topic 2 VBT, Hybridisation and VSEPR Theory 1. Among the given statements, correct statements are I and III For [ ICl2 ]− and [ BrF2 ]− O2 (16 e− ) –e− [ 8 e− ] σ 2 pz2 π 2 px2 = π 2 py2 π * 2 p1x = π * 2 p1y σ * 2 pz0 O2+ (15 e− ) [ 8 e− ] σ 2 pz2 π 2 px2 = π 2 py2 π * 2 p1x = π * 2 py0σ * 2 pz0 +2e− O22− (18 e− ) 6−1 = 2.5 2 Paramagnetic [ 8 e− ] σ 2 pz2 π 2 px2 = π 2 py2 π * 2 px2 = π * 2 py2σ * 2 pz0 6 − 4 = 1 2 Diamagnetic So, only in the conversion of NO → NO+, the bond order has increased (2.5 → 3) and paramagnetic character has changed to diamagnetic. 6. The structure of I−3 ion is – I I I Hence, 9 is the correct answer. Chemical Bonding 59 SF4 : F 7. Isoelectronic species are those which contains same number of electrons. S Species Atomic number Number of electrons O2 − 8 10 F− 9 10 11 10 Na + Mg 2+ O− Na Mg one lone pair at S. F + 12 10 8 9 11 11 12 11 ∴ Option (a) is correct which contains isoelectronic species O2 − , F − , Na + , Mg 2 + . 8. I −3 is an ion made up of I 2 and I − which has linear shape. While Cs + is an alkali metal cation. S — F F S is sp3 hybridised F •• I3− : F 14. F I I •• O Xe • • O ← • • •• − I •• •• three lone pairs at central iodine. F At central atom (Xe), there is one lone pair. • • F 15. NO−3 and CO2− 3 both have 32 electrons, central atom sp2 hybridised, triangular planar. 16. CH3Cl has the highest dipole moment. 17. O−2 has odd number(17) of electrons, therefore it must contain at least one unpaired electron. F 18. F B− ← F 9. F—S==O F F H N+ H Both ‘B’ and ‘N’ sp3 tetrahedral. H 19. NH3 = sp3 ,[ PtCl 4 ]2− = dsp2 , PCl 5 = sp3d , BCl 3 = sp2 Pyramidal SO3 is planar (S is sp2 hybridised), BrF3 is T-shaped and SiO2− 3 is planar (Si is sp2 hybridised). 20. All three have 14 electrons (iso electronic) with bond order of three. 10. For molecules lighter than O2, the increasing order of energies of + molecular orbitals is * π 2 p y * π 2 p y ..... σ1s σ* 1sσ 2s σ* 2s σ σ 2 2 p p x x π 2 p * z π 2 p z where, π2 p y and π2 p z are degenerate molecular orbitals, first singly occupied and then pairing starts if Hund’s rule is obeyed. If Hund’s rule is violated in B2 , electronic arrangement would be π 2 p 2y σ1 s2 σ* 1s2 σ 2s2 σ* 2s2 ... π 2 p z 21. H O—N==O, N – O==N==O, H sp2 sp 1 O 2 3 4 5 with CO, have the same bond order as CO. NO− (16e− ) has bond order of 2. 12. O−2 in KO2 has 17 electrons, species with odd electrons are always paramagnetic. •• 13. ClO−3 : − O Cl == O one lone pair at Cl. O XeF4 : F F Xe F two lone pairs at Xe. F 6 23. H2S has sp3 hybridised sulphur, therefore, angular in shape with non-zero dipole moment. H S H bonding electrons − antibonding electrons 2 6− 4 = =1 2 11. The bond order of CO = 3. NO , CN and N2 are isoelectronic sp3 H Hybridisation at C2 = sp2 and at C3 = sp3. Bond order = − H 22. CH2 == CH CH2 CH2 C ≡≡ CH No unpaired electron-diamagnetic. + + (Non-linear, polar molecule) F 24. F—B F sp2 (Trigonal planar) 25. Sulphur in SO2 is sp2-hybridised. S O O Electron pair = 2 (σ-bonds) + 1 (lone pair) = 3 Hybridisation = sp 2 Carbon in CO2 is sp-hybridised, N in N2 O is sp-hybridised, carbon in CO is sp-hybridised. 60 Chemical Bonding 32. PCl 3 has sp3-hybridised phosphorus, with one lone pair. Therefore, 26. Molecular orbital electronic configuration are KO2 (O−2 ) : σ1s2 σ* 1s2 σ 2s2 σ* 2s2 σ 2 px2 molecule has pyramidal shape like ammonia. π 2 p 2y π* 2 p 2y π 2 p 2z σ* 2 px0 33. O−2 has odd number of electrons, hence it is paramagnetic. * π 2 p1z Cl Has one unpaired electron in π* 2 p orbital. AlO−2 has both oxygen in O2− state, therefore, no unpaired electron is present. BaO2 (O2− 2 ) C==C 34. Cl C Cl Cl sp2-hybridised π 2 p 2y σ1s2 σ* 1s2 σ 2s2 σ* 2s2 σ 2 px2 π 2 p 2z Has no unpaired electron. 35. CO2 is linear because carbon is sp-hybridised. π* 2 p 2z has [O== N==O] bonding, hence no unpaired electron. 36. In CH+3 , there are only three electron pairs around carbon atom giving sp2-hybridisation state. + 27. N2 is a neutral, non-polar, inert molecule while CN − is a H 28. F N F F : O==N – O + H 3O : O H 37. Dipole vectors in trans-1, 2-dichloroethylene are at 180° and directed in opposite direction, cancelling each other. Cl H C==C + H H Pyramidal (O-sp3) Triangular planar (N-sp2) N3H •• F Triangular planar (B-sp2) O sp2-hybridised F F—B BF3 : Pyramidal (N-sp3) – NO3 + •• •• • N == N == N H • Central nitrogen is sp -hybridised 29. BF3 has triangular planar arrangement. F F—B 120° F sp2-hybridised There identical vectors acting in outward direction, at equal angles in a plane, cancel each other giving zero resultant, hence non-polar. 30. A water molecule can form at the most four H-bonds. 38. In SO2, the Lewis-dot structure is • • O == S == O NOTE π-bonded electrons are not present in hybrid orbitals, therefore not counted in electron pairs. Rather π bonds are formed by lateral overlapping of pure p-orbitals. 39. Bonds between identical non-metal is purely covalent due to same electronegativities of the bonded atoms. Hence, the bonded atoms have equal holds on the shared pair of electrons. 40. Hybridisation of one ‘s’ and one ‘p’ orbitals gives two sp hybrid orbitals oriented linearly at 180°. s + p → 2 sp hybrid orbitals 41. CCl 4 has a regular tetrahedral shape. Cl H µ O H Four sites of H-bonding 31. • • O Cl == O • • electron pairs at Cl = 2 (σ-bonds) + 2 (lone-pairs) = 4 Hybridisation at Cl = sp 3 dipole moment = 0 H Cl Electron pairs at S = 2 (σ-bonds) + 1 (lone-pair) = 3 sp2 hybridised. Therefore, NF3 , H3O+ and BF3 , NO3− pairs have same shape. − H H—C highly polar, highly active ion. NF3 : Cl Cl π 2 p 2y * σ 2 px0 109° sp3-hybridised * + NO+2 Cl 120° Cl Cl C µ Cl Net dipole = 0 Cl 42. CO has a total of 14 electrons and CN− also has 14 electrons. C (6e− ) + N (7e− ) + e− → CN− (14 e− ) 43. CO2 is a linear molecule because of sp-hybridisation around carbon atom. 44. For non-polar MX 3, it must have triangular planar arrangement, i.e. there should be sp2-hybridisation around M. Chemical Bonding 61 45. CH3 H3C C CH3 CH3 H H3C H Polar Symmetric, non-polar CH3H2C CH2CH3 C == C H H Polar CH2CH3 CH3 CH3 H3C C C CH3 CH3 CH3 Symmetric, non-polar 46. CN− and NO+ are isoelectronic, have the same bond order of 3. + 47. S== C == S Linear •• Sn Cl − O== N == O Linear O C ≡≡ N Linear •• Cl O Bent S d-d σ antibonding D. ∴ A → 2, B → 3, C → 1, D → 4 Hence, (c) is the correct option. 50. (A) B2 : σ1s2 σ* 1s2 σ 2 s2 σ* 2s2 π 2 p1y π 2 pz1 paramagnetic. 6− 4 =1 2 Bond is formed by mixing of s and p orbitals. B2 undergoes both oxidation and reduction as Bond order = O Bent 48. CO2 , HgCl 2 , C2H2 are all linear. 49. p-d π antibonding C. C == C Heat PLAN This problem includes basic concept of bonding. It can be solved by using the concept of molecular orbital theory. B2 + O2 → B2 O3 (Oxidation) B2 + H2 → B2 H6 (Reduction) (B) N2 : σ1s2 σ* 1s2 σ 2 s2 σ* 2 s2σ 2 px2 + ve phase π 2 p 2y π 2 p 2z diamagnetic. 10 − 4 = 3> 2 2 N2 undergoes both oxidation and reduction as Bond order = – ve phase ∆ N2 + O2 → NO Any orbital has two phase +ve and –ve. In the following diagram, +ve phase is shown by darkening the lobes and –ve by without darkening the lobes. Catalyst N2 + 3H2 → NH3 In N2 , bonds are formed by mixing of s and p orbitals. * * (C) O2− : σ1s2 σ 1s 2 σ 2 s 2 σ 2 s2 σ 2 px2 Bonding MO Antibonding MO When two same phase overlap with each other, it forms bonding molecular orbital otherwise antibonding. B. d-d σ bonding p-d π bonding π 2 p2y π* 2 p1y π 2 pz2 π* 2 p1 z * σ 2 px0 Paramagnetic with bond order = 2. O2 undergoes reduction and the bond involves mixing of s and p-orbitals. 51. N2O and I−3 are linear species. 52. Bond order in N2 is 3 while same in N+2 is 2.5, hence bond distance A. * σ 2 px0 − * * (D) O2 : σ1s2 σ 1s2 σ 2 s2 σ 2 s2 σ 2 px2 On the basis of above two concepts, correct matching can be done as shown below: π 2 pz2 π* 2 pz1 Paramagnetic with bond order = 1.5. O2 undergoes both oxidation and reduction and bond involves mixing of s and p-orbitals. σ-bond π-bond π 2 p2y π* 2 p2 y increases as N2 goes to N+2 . Bond order in O2 is 2 while same in O+2 is 2.5, hence bond distance decreases as O2 goes to O+2 . 53. Three centred-2 electrons. 54. Hyperconjugation involves delocalisation of σ-electrons. 55. sp-hybridised. 56. Triangular planar. Carbon in CH+3 is sp2 hybridised. 62 Chemical Bonding 57. sp3-hybrid orbital holding the lone pair is involved in formation H3N of ammonium ion. O O 58. H C OH and CH3 C OH . Both are capable of forming H-bonds. 2+ Cu H3N NH3 Cl NH3 Cl Cl 2– Pt Cl SF4 (See-saw) as shown below: 59. CO2, it is 180°. F 60. Dipole moment (µ ) = q.d S Since electronegativity of F and Cl are very close, it is the internuclear distance (d) that decides dipole moment here. Hence, C Cl bond has greater dipole moment the C-F bond. F F F SiF4 , BF4− , [FeCl 4 ]2− , [CoCl 4 ]2− are tetrahedral as shown below: 61. H2O is V-shaped molecule. O H H V-shaped 62. False 63. In sp3-hybrid orbital, there is 25 % s-character and 75 % p-character. 64. Carbon in benzene is sp2-hybridised, i.e. uses only two of its p-orbitals in hybridisation. 65. Sn in SnCl 2 has sp2-hybridisation. 66. S.N. No. of σ-bonds with central atom 6 Species No. of L.P at central atom 1 (i) In [ TeBr6 ]2− (ii) In [ BrF2 ]+ 2 2 (iii) (iv) In SNF3 In [ XeF3 ]− 4 3 0 3 •• N ≡≡ N → N •• •• ↑ sp 67. Cl Be Cl ↑ sp 69. PLAN Melamine is a heterocyclic compound. N O S O sp2-bent Cl 70. sp3-V-shaped 71. No, (i) NMe3 is pyramidal while (ii) N(SiMe3 )3 is planar. In the latter case, pπ - dπ back bonding between N and Si makes N sp2-hybridised. sp3d-linear XeF4 , BrF4− , [Cu(NH3 )4 ]2+ , [PtCl 4 ]2− are square planar as shown below: 72. Bond order : O2− = 1.5, O2 = 2, O2+ = 2.5 Bond length : O+2 < O2 < O−2 Xe F F O Xe F F F F F F Br F 73. s F F Lone pair would push the Br—F bond pairs in upward direction and all Br—F bond angles will contract. PLAN This problem includes concept of hybridisation using VBT, VSEPR theory, etc., F F Br sp3d-linear – [Although ICl 2 , I–3 and XeF2 all also are linear but in them d-orbital contribute in hybridisation.] F F F F [I I I]– F Xe F 68. N Each nitrogen atom has one pair of lone pair. Thus, in all six lone pairs. [Cl I Cl] Cl sp3d-linear NH2 NH2 All the above mentioned molecules/ions have sp-hybridised central atom and no one pair at central atom, hence linear also. Others are : O N H2N – + O == N == O ↑ sp •• N≡≡ N → O•• •• ↑ sp Hence, correct integer is 4. F Square planar F S F F Trigonal bipyramidal Chemical Bonding 63 74. Cl F F P Cl (d) A - D has shortest bond length, it is incorrect because inter molecular distance in between A - D more than 150 (pm) which is height in all. F Cl 2. The change of O2 to O−2 can be as follows: Br Cl Cl [Dioxygen] Energy [8e– ] σ2p2z π2px2 = π2py2 π* 2px1 = π* 2p1y Square pyramidal (Br is sp3d 2 -hybridised) Trigonal bipyramidal (P is sp3d-hybridised) 75. F F F F Xe Xe F F Square planar Linear O Xe F F O See-saw shaped 76. In H2S, S is sp -hybridised with two lone pairs of electrons on it giving V-shaped (water like) shape. In PCl 3 , P is sp3-hybridised with one lone pair of electrons on it. Therefore, PCl 3 is pyramidal in shape. +2 × × F ×× ×× •• ×× ×• O •• •× F ×× × × −1 O F F −1 V-shaped Electron pair = P = 2 + 2 = 4 Hybridisation = sp3 •• •• • • 78. (i) O2− 2 : • O •• O • •• •• 2− and • • •O• •• •• 2− (ii) CO3 : C • • • • • O • • O • • • • • • • • • •• (iv) NCS− : •• S •• •• ••C •• •• * * π 2px or π 2py molecular orbital (anti-bonding) which is half-filled in O2. 3. HF has highest boiling point among hydrogen halides because it has strongest hydrogen bonding. Here, the hydrogen bond exists between hydrogen of one molecule and fluorine atom of another molecule as shown below. δ+ δ− δ+ δ− δ+ δ− …H F…H F…H F In this molecule, hydrogen bond behaves like a bridge between two atoms that holds one atom by covalent bond and the other by hydrogen bond. •• •• • • • Cl •• Cl • •• •• (Cl 2 ) Among the given options, CO is a diamagnetic molecule. It can be proved by molecular orbital (MO) theory. The electronic configuration of given diatomic molecules are given below. • • Since, there is no unpaired electron in the CO molecule, so it is diamagnetic. F •• •• C •• •• O •• CO (Number of electrons = 14) Electronic configuration = σ1s2 , σ* 1s2 , σ 2s2 , σ* 2s2, σ2 pz2 , π 2 px2 ≈ π 2 p2y F • • B • • F (BF3 ) l (CO) σ* 2s2 , σ 2 pz2 , π 2 px2 ≈ π 2 p2y, π * 2 px1 ≈ π * 2 p0y •• •• N and •• Cl • • C • • N (ClCN) •• • • Since, NO has one unpaired electron in π * 2 px1 orbital, so it is paramagnetic. l (a) A - B has stiffest bond. This is correct because the potential energy of A - B has maximum negative value [between −500 to −600]. More negative is the potential energy means high energy is released. Higher the released energy higher is the stability and hence the stiffness bond. (b) D is more electronegative than other atoms, it is incorrect. (c) A - A has the largest bond enthalpy, it is incorrect because value of potential energy is more negative in A - B. NO (Number of electrons = 15) Electronic configuration = σ1s2 , σ* 1s2 , σ 2s2, Topic 3 Resonance, LCAO, MOT, Other Bonding Types 1. = π* 2p1y theory. Presence of unpaired electrons means paramagnetic and absence of unpaired electrons means diamagnetic in nature. and − [8e– ] σ2p2z π2p2x = π2p2y π* 2px2 Half-filled anti-bonding π*-MOs l − [Super-oxide] Energy 4. Key Idea Magnetic nature can be detected by molecular orbital 2− • • •• (iii) CN − : •• C • • N and •• – O2 (17 e–) So, in the formation of O−2 from O2, the 17th electron goes to the 3 77. +e – O2 (16 e –) F F B2 (Number of electrons = 10) Electronic configuration π 2 px1 ≈ πp1y = σ1s2 , σ* 1s2 , σ2s2, σ* 2s2, Since, two unpaired electrons are present in π 2 px1 and π 2 p1y orbital. So, it is paramagnetic. l O2 (Number of electrons = 16) Electronic configuration = σ1s2 , σ* 1s2 , σ 2s2 , σ 2 pz2 , π 2 px2 ≈ π 2 p2y, π * 2 px1 ≈ π * 2 p1y σ* 2s2, Since, two unpaired electrons are present in π * 2 px1 and π * 2 p1y orbital. So, it is also paramagnetic. 64 Chemical Bonding 5. C2 will be stabilised after forming anion. The electronic configuration of carbon is1s2 2s2 2 p2. There are twelve electrons inC2. After forming anion (i.e. C–2 ), the electronic configuration is l C−2 : (σ1s) 2 (σ *1s) 2 (σ 2 s) 2 (σ * 2 s) 2 ( π 2 px2 = π 2 p 2y ) (σ2 pz1 ) or KK (σ 2 s) 2 (σ * 2 s) 2 ( π 2 px2 = π 2 p 2y ). σ 2 pz1 Bond order = 1 1 (N b − N a ) = (9 − 4 ) = 2.5 2 2 For other options such as F2− , O2− , NO− , the electronic configurations are as follows : l F2− : (σ1s)2 (σ* 1s)2 (σ 2s)2 (σ* 2s)2 (σ 2 pz )2 (π 2 px2 = π 2 py2 ) (π * 2 px2 = π * 2 p2y )(σ* 2 pz1 ) Bond order = 1 / 2(N b − N a ) = 1 / 2(10 − 9) = 0.5 l l O−2 : (σ1s)2. (σ* 1s)2 (σ 2s)2 (σ* 2s)2 (σ 2 pz )2(π 2 px2 = π 2 p2y ) (π * 2 px2 = π * 2 p1y ) 1 1 Bond order = (N b − N a ) = (10 − 7) = 15 . 2 2 − 2 * 2 2 2 NO : (σ1s) (σ 1s) (σ 2s) (σ * 2s) (σ 2 pz )2 (π 2 px2 = π 2 p2y ) (π * 2 px1 = π * 2 p1y ) 1 1 (N b − N a ) = (10 − 6) = 2 2 2 The value of bond order of C−2 is highest among the given options. Bond order between two atoms in a molecule may be taken as an approximate measure of the bond length. The bond length decreases as bond order increases. As a result, stability of a molecule increases. Bond order = 6. Species Bond order (BO) 6−0 =3 2 6−2 =2 2 6−4 =1 2 6−2 =2 2 MO energy order C22− (14e− ) [ 8e ] π O2 (16e− ) [ 8 e ]σ O22− (18e− ) [ 8 e ]σ N22− (16e− ) [ 8e ] π 2p x2 2p z2 2p z2 2p x2 = π π π 2p x2 2p x2 = π 2p y2 σ = π = π 2p y2 σ 2p z2 2p y2 2p y2 π* π* 2p1x 2p x2 * 2p z2 π 2p1x = π* * = π 2p1y 2p y2 = *π 2p1y 1 . So order of bond length BO (Bond order) = N22− < O22− Bond length ∝ C22− (BO = 3) < O2 (BO = 2) (BO = 1) The diamagnetic species with shortest bond length is C2− 2 (option-a). 7. The energy order of MOs of the given species are as follows: O2 (16 e− ’s) = σ1s2 , σ* 1s2 , σ 2s2 , σ* 2s2 , σ 2 p2z , π 2 p2x = π 2 p2y , π * 2 px1 = π * 2 p1y , O+2 (15e− ’s ) = σ1s2, σ* 1s2 , σ2s2, σ* 2s2 , σ2 p2z , π 2 p2x = π 2 p2y , π * 2 px1 ≈π * = N+2 (13e− ’s) = σ1s σ 1s σ2 s σ* 2s2 π 2 p2x = π 2 pz2 σ 2 pz1 Thus, in case of N+2 , two π-bonds and half σ-bond are present in the bonding MOs. 8. Considering molecular orbital theory (MOT) : The electronic configuration of Diamagnetic 2 Paramagnetic 0 Diamagnetic 2 Paramagnetic Nb − Na 3 − 2 1 = = 2 2 2 The electronic configuration of Li−2 (Z = 7) = σ1s2 , σ* 1s2 , σ2 s2 , σ ∗ 2 s1 N − Na 4 − 3 1 Bond order (BO) = b = = 2 2 2 For the species having the same value of BO, the specie having lesser number of antibonding electrons[ N a ] will be more stable. Here, N a of Li+2 (2) < N a of Li −2 (3) . So, their order of stability will be Li+2 > Li2− . Bond order (BO) = Electronic , σ 2 pz2 2 * 2 2 2 0 be judged through the calculation of bond order. π 2 p2y Li+2 Magnetic character 9. Key Idea According to M.O.T, the viability of any molecule can 2 p0y N2 (14 e− ’s ) = σ 1s2 σ* 1s2 , σ 2s2 , σ* 2s2 π 2 p2x n, number of unpaired e− * 2 (Z = 5) = σ1s , σ 1s , σ 2s 1 Configuration He+2 σ 2 σ* 1 1s 1s H−2 σ H2− 2 σ He2+ 2 σ 1s 2 1s 2 1s 2 Bond order 2−1 = 0.5 2 σ* 2−1 = 0.5 2 σ* 2−2 =0 2 1s1 1s 2 2−0 =1 2 Chemical Bonding 65 Stability order is Li −2 < Li 2+ < Li 2 (because Li −2 has more number The molecule having zero bond order will not be viable hence, H2− 2 (option d) is the correct answer. of electrons in antibonding orbitals which destabilises the species). 10. To identify the magnetic nature we need to check the molecular orbital configuration. If all orbitals are fully occupied, species is diamagnetic while when one or more molecular orbitals is/are singly occupied, species is paramagnetic. (a) NO (7 + 8 = 15) − σ1s2 , σ* 1s2 , σ 2s2 , σ* 2s2 , 13. Species having zero or negative bond order do not exist. 0 H2+ 2 (1 + 1 − 2 = 0) = σ1s Bond order = 0 He2 (2 + 2 = 4 ) = σ1s2 , σ* 1s2 N − Na 2 − 2 Bond order = b = =0 2 2 So, both H2+ 2 and He2 do not exist. π 2 px2 = π 2 p2y , π 2 pz2 , π * 2 px1 = π * 2 p0y One unpaired electron is present. Hence, it is paramagnetic. (b) CO (6 + 8 = 14 ) − σ1s2 , σ* 1s2 , σ 2s2 , σ* 2s2 , π 2 px2 = π 2 p2y, σ 2 pz2 No unpaired electron is present. Hence, it is diamagnetic. (c) O2 (8 + 8 = 16) − σ1s2 , σ* 1s2 , σ 2s2 , σ* 2s2 , σ 2 pz2 , π 2 px2 = π 2 px2 , π * 2 px1 = π * 2 p1y 14. Two unpaired electrons are present. Hence, it is paramagnetic. (d) B2(5 + 5) − σ1s2 , σ* 1s2 , σ 2s2 , σ* 2s2 , π 2 px1 = π 2 p1y PLAN This problem can be solved by using the concept involved in molecular orbital theory. Write the molecular orbital electronic configuration keeping in mind that there is no 2s-2p mixing, then if highest occupied molecular orbital contain unpaired electron then molecule is paramagnetic otherwise diamagnetic. 15. O+2 (15e− ) : σ1s2 σ* 1s2 σ 2s2 σ* 2s2 σ 2 px2 x y x y z * 1s2 , σ 2s2 , σ * 2s2 (diamagnetic) (a) Be2 → σ1s , σ 2 * 1s2 , σ 2s2 , σ * 2s2 , σ 2 p2 , (b) B2 → σ1s , σ z 2 π 2 px0 π 2 py0 F F F * 1s2 , σ 2s2 , σ * 2s2 , σ 2 p2 , π 2 px , (c) C2 → σ1s2 , σ z π 2 p1y π* 2 px0 * 0 , σ 2 p (paramagnetic) S 16. z 2 * 1s2 , σ 2s2 , σ * 2s2 , σ 2 p2 , π 2 px , (d) N2 → σ1s2 , σ z π 2 py2 π* 2 px0 , σ * 2 pz0 (diamagnetic) * 0 π 2p y Hence, (c) is the correct choice. 12. Li 2 (3 + 3 = 6) = σ1s2 , σ* 1s2 , σ 2s2 Nb − Na 4 − 2 = =1 2 2 + 2 * 2 Li 2 (3 + 3 − 1 = 5) = σ1s , σ 1s , σ 2s1 3−2 1 Bond order = = = 0.5 2 2 Li −2 (3 + 3 + 1 = 7) = σ1s2 , σ*1s2 , σ 2s2 σ* 2s1 4−3 1 Bond order = = = 0.5 2 2 Bond order = Xe C F F See-saw shape molecule F F F F F (diamagnetic) 1 π* 2 py0 π 2 p2y π* 2 p1y * σ 2 px0 π 2 pz2 π* 2 p0 z 10 − 5 Bond order = = 2.5; paramagnetic. 2 π 2 p2y π* 2 p1y * − 2* * O2 (16e ) : σ1s σ 1s2 σ 2s2 σ 2s2 σ 2 px2 σ 2 px π 2 pz2 π* 2 p1 z 10 − 6 Bond order = =2 2 Hence, (a) is the correct answer. Assuming that no 2s-2p mixing takes place the molecular orbital electronic configuration can be written in the following sequence of energy levels of molecular orbitals * 1s, σ 2s, σ * 2s, σ 2 p , π 2 p ≡ π 2 p , π* 2 p ≡ π* 2 p , σ * 2p σ1s, σ z (II) (I) I and II are hyperconjugation structures of propene and involves σ-electrons of C—H bond and p-orbitals of pi bond in delocalisation. Two unpaired electrons are present. Hence, it is paramagnetic. 11. H H − H C CH == CH2 ←→ H C == CH CH2 + H H Tetrahedral F F Square planar 17. When E = Bin BCl 3 , bond angle is 120°. When E = P, As or Bi in ECl 3 , hybridisation at E will be sp3. Also, if central atoms are from same group, bond angle decreases down the group provided all other things are similar. Hence, the order of bond angles is BCl 3 > PCl 3 > AsCl 3 > BiCl 3 1 18. Bond length ∝ Bond order 1 4 Bond order : CO2 = 2, CO = 3 , CO23− = 1 + = 3 3 Therefore, order of bond length is CO23− < CO2 < CO 19. H2O2 H O—O H polar bond Non-polar bond 66 Chemical Bonding 20. HCl does not form hydrogen bond. For formation of hydrogen bond, atleast one hydrogen atom must be bonded to one of the three most electronegative atom O , N and F. 21. Species Electrons MOEC C2− 2 N B N A BO σ1s2 , σ * 1s2 , 14 10 4 3 Magnetic character Diamagnetic state, i.e. reduced. Hence, in the above reaction, oxygen ( O−1 / 2 ) is simultaneously oxidised and reduced disproportionated. 2− (B) In acidic medium, CrO2− 4 is converted into Cr2 O7 which is a dimeric, bridged tetrahedral. O– O– Cr σ 2s2 , σ * 2s2 , O π 2 px2 ≈ − π 2 p2y , 14 As above according to number of electrons 10 4 3 Diamagnetic 10 6 9 4 2.5 Paramagnetic 2 Paramagnetic O2 16 N+2 13 N −2 15 10 5 2.5 Paramagnetic He+2 3 2 1 0.5 Paramagnetic The above is a redox reaction and a product NO−3 has trigonal planar structure. (D) NO−3 + H2SO4 + Fe2+ → Fe+ + NO The above is a redox reaction. 26. The reaction is, 3Cl2 + 6 NaOH 5 NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O (Y) (X) Thus, (a) is correct. (b) Bond order O2+ 2 > O 2 thus, + AgNO3 Bond length of O2+ 2 < O 2 thus, incorrect. (c) (d) N+2 and N−2 have same bond order thus correct. He+2 with bond order = 0.5 is more stable thus, less energy AgCl (white ppt.) than isolated He atoms. Thus, (d) is incorrect. 22. + 23. C2 (6 + 6 = 12) = σ1s , σ* 1s , σ 2s , σ* 2s , 2 2 2 – The structure of ClO3 (chlorate ion) is, π 2 px2 N2 ( 7 + 7 = 14 ) = σ1s , σ* 1s2, σ 2s2 , σ* 2s2 , π 2 px2 ≈ π 2 p 2y , σ 2 p 2z 2 It is also a diamagnetic species because of the absence of unpaired electrons. O2 (8 + 8 = 16) or S2 = σ1s2 , σ* 1s2 , σ 2s2 , σ∗ 2s2 , σ 2 p 2 , π 2 p 2 ≈ π 2 p 2 π* 2 p1 ≈ π* 2 p1 x y x Cl O ≈ π 2 p2y Since, all the electrons are paired, it is a diamagnetic species. z structure of ozone. O O O −O == Cl O O O O O Cl O O 27. H2 , Li 2 , Be2 , C2 , N2 and F2 are diamagnetic according to molecular orbital theory. 28. O2 : σ1s2 σ* 1s2 σ 2s2 σ* 2s2 σ 2 px2 Bond order = + ←→ O− O ‘ClO’ bond order in the hybrid Number of bonds between Cl and O = Total number of O (surrounding atoms) 5 = = 166 . or 1.67 3 24. Statement I is correct, given structure is one of the resonance + O Cl O y Due to the presence of two unpaired electrons, O2 and S2 both are paramagnetic molecules. O – Y = NaClO3 (Na and ClO3 ) PLAN This problem can be solved by using concept of H-bonding and applications of H-bonding. 2 O O (C) MnO−4 + NO−2 + H+ → Mn 2+ + NO−3 σ 2 pz2 O2+ 2 O Cr O π 2 p2y π* 2 p1y π 2 pz2 π* 2 p1 z 10 − 6 = 2, paramagnetic. 2 29. Strength of hydrogen bonding in X—H—X depends on O Statement II is also correct because oxygen cannot expand its octet. It is also the explanation for the given structure of ozone. 25. (A) In the reaction : O−2 → O2 + O22− Oxygen on reactant side is in − 1/ 2 oxidation state. In product side, one of the oxygen is in zero oxidation state, i.e. oxidised while the other oxygen is in –1 oxidation electronegativity as well as size of X . X with higher electronegativity and smaller size forms stronger H-bond. Hence, increasing order of strength of H-bond is S < Cl < N < O < F 30. Resonance in vinyl chloride increases polar character of the molecule. 5 States of Matter Topic 1 Gaseous State Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. If the distribution of molecular speeds of a gas is as per the figure shown below, then the ratio of the most probable, the average, and the root mean square speeds, respectively, is (2020 Adv.) (a) vmp of H 2 ( 300 K ); vmp of N 2(300 K); vmp of O2(400 K) (b) vmp of O2 ( 400 K ); vmp of N 2(300 K); vmp of H 2(300 K) (c) vmp of N 2(300 K); vmp of O2 ( 400 K ); vmp of H 2(300 K) (d) vmp of N 2(300 K); vmp of H 2(300 K); vmp of O2(400 K) Fraction of molecules 4. Consider the following table. Speed (a) 1 : 1 : 1 (c) 1 : 1.128 : 1.224 (b) 1 : 1 : 1.224 (d) 1 : 1.128 : 1 2. For one mole of an ideal gas, which of these statements must be true? (2020 Main, 4 Sep I) (A) U and H each depends only on temperature. (B) Compressibility factor Z is not equal to 1. (C) C p,m − CV,m = R (D) dU = CV dT for any process. (a) (B), (C) and (D) (b) (A) and (C) (c) (A), (C) and (D) (d) (C) and (D) 3. Points I, II and III in the following plot respectively correspond to (vmp : most probable velocity) Distribution function f( v) (2019 Main, 10 April II) Gas a/(k Pa dm6mol −1) b/(dm 3mol −1 ) A 642.32 0.05196 B 155.21 0.04136 C 431.91 0.05196 D 155.21 0.4382 a and b are van der Waals’ constants. The correct statement about the gases is (2019 Main, 10 April I) (a) gas C will occupy lesser volume than gas A; gas B will be lesser compressible than gas D (b) gas C will occupy more volume than gas A; gas B will be more compressible than gas D (c) gas C will occupy more volume than gas A; gas B will be lesser compressible than gas D (d) gas C will occupy more volume than gas A; gas B will be lesser compressible than gas D 5. At a given temperature T, gases Ne, Ar, Xe and Kr are found to deviate from ideal gas behaviour. Their equation RT of state is given as, p = at T. V −b Here, b is the van der Waals’ constant. Which gas will exhibit steepest increase in the plot of Z (compression factor) vs p? (2019 Main, 9 April II) (a) Xe (b) Ar (c) Kr (d) Ne 6. Consider the van der Waals’ constants, a and b, for the following gases. Gas I II Speed, v III 6 −2 3 −1 a/(atm dm mol ) −2 b/(10 dm mol ) Ar Ne Kr Xe 1.3 0.2 5.1 4.1 3.2 1.7 1.0 5.0 68 States of Matter Which gas is expected to have the highest critical temperature ? (2019 Main, 9 April I) figure below. The temperature of one of the bulbs is then (2016 Main) raised to T2 . The final pressure p f is (a) Kr T1 (a) 2 pi T1 + T2 T (b) 2 pi 2 T1 +T2 TT (c) 2 pi 1 2 T1 +T2 TT (d) pi 1 2 T1 +T2 (b) Xe (c) Ar (d) Ne 7. The combination of plots which does not represent isothermal expansion of an ideal gas is (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) p 13. If Z is a compressibility factor, van der Waals’ equation at p O O 1/Vm (A ) low pressure can be written as (2014 Main) RT a (a) Z = 1 + (b) Z = 1 − pb VRT Vm (B) pb pb (d) Z = 1 + RT RT 14. For gaseous state, if most probable speed is denoted by C *, average speed by C and root square speed by C, then for a large number of molecules, the ratios of these speeds are (a) C * : C : C = 1.225 : 1.128 : 1 (2013 Main) (b) C * : C : C = 1.128 : 1.225 : 1 (c) C * : C : C = 1 : 1.128 : 1.225 (c) Z = 1 − pVm U O O p (C) (a) ( A ) and (C ) (c) ( B ) and ( D ) Vm (D) (b) ( B ) and (C ) (d) ( A ) and ( D ) (d) C * : C : C = 1 : 1.225 : 1.128 8. An open vessel at 27ºC is heated until two fifth of the air 15. For one mole of a van der Waals’ gas when b = 0 and (assumed as an ideal gas) in it has escaped from the vessel. Assuming that the volume of the vessel remains constant, the temperature at which the vessel has been heated is T = 300 K, the pV vs 1/V plot is shown below. The value of the van der Waals’ constant a (atm L mol − 2 ) (2012) (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) (b) 500 K (d) 500ºC 9. The volume of gas A is twice than that of gas B. The compressibility factor of gas A is thrice than that of gas B at same temperature. The pressures of the gases for equal number of moles are (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) (a) p A = 2 pB (b) 2 p A = 3 pB (d) 3 p A = 2 pB (c) p A = 3 pB 10. A 10 mg effervescent tablet containing sodium bicarbonate and oxalic acid releases 0.25 mL of CO2 at T = 29815 . K and p = 1 bar. If molar volume of CO2 is 25.0 L under such condition, what is the percentage of sodium bicarbonate in each tablet? [Molar mass of NaHCO 3 = 84 g mol −1 ] (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) (a) 8.4 (b) 0.84 (c) 16.8 (d) 33.6 11. 0.5 moles of gas A and x moles of gas B exert a pressure of 200 3 Pa in a container of volume 10m at 1000 K. Given R is the gas constant in JK −1 mol−1 , x is (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) (a) 2R 4−R (b) 4 −R 2R (c) 4 +R 2R (d) 2R 4+R 12. Two closed bulbs of equal volume (V) containing an ideal gas initially at pressure pi and temperature T1 are connected through a narrow tube of negligible volume as shown in the 24.6 pV (L atm mol–1) (a) 750 K (c) 750ºC 23.1 21.6 20.1 0 (a) 1.0 2.0 3.0 1/ V (mol L–1) (b) 4.5 (c) 1.5 (d) 3.0 16. The term that corrects for the attractive forces present in a real gas in the van der Waals’ equation is (a) nb (b) n 2 a / V 2 2 2 (c) − ( n a / V ) (d) − nb (2009) 17. The given graph represent the variations of Z (compressibility factor ( Z ) = pV / nRT ) ) versus p, for three real gases A, B and C. Identify the only incorrect statement. (2006, 5M) C A 1 B Z 0 p (atm) A Ideal gas B C States of Matter 69 (a) For the gas A, a = 0 and its dependence on p is linear at all 25. A gas will approach ideal behaviour at pressure (b) For the gas B, b = 0 and its dependence on p is linear at all pressure (c) For the gas C, which is typical real gas for which neither a nor b = 0 . By knowing the minima and the point of intersection, with Z = 1, a and b can be calculated (d) At high pressure, the slope is positive for all real gases (a) low temperature and low pressure (b) low temperature and high pressure (c) high temperature and low pressure (d) high temperature and high pressure 18. If helium and methane are allowed to diffuse out of the container under the similar conditions of temperature and pressure, then the ratio of rate of diffusion of helium to methane is (2005) (a) 2.0 (b) 1.0 (c) 0.5 (d) 4.0 19. For a monatomic gas kinetic energy = E. The relation with rms velocity is 2E (a) u = m 1/ 2 E (c) u = 2m 1/ 2 (2004, 1M) 3E (b) u = 2m 1/ 2 E (d) u = 3m 1/ 2 26. According to Graham’s law, at a given temperature the ratio rA of gases A and B is given by rB (where, p and M are pressures and molecular weights of gases A and B respectively) of the rates of diffusion 1 p M 2 (a) A A pB M B 1 p M 2 (c) A B pB M A 1 1 M p 2 (d) A B M B pA 27. The compressibility factor for an ideal gas is (a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.0 and that of O2 at 800 K is (a) 4 21. Which of the following volume (V ) temperature (T ) plots represents the behaviour of one mole of an ideal gas at the atmospheric pressure? (2002, 3M) (38.8 L, 373 K) (22.4 L, 273 K) (b) V(L) (20.4 L, 273 K) (1997, 1M) (d) ∞ 28. The ratio between the root mean square speed of H2 at 50 K of (2003, 1M) (a) molecular interaction between atom and pV / nRT > 1 (b) molecular interaction between atom and pV / nRT < 1 (c) finite size of atoms and pV / nRT > 1 (d) finite size of atoms and pV / nRT < 1 V(L) (1998, 2M) M p 2 (b) A A M B pB (b) 2 (1996, 1M) (c) 1 20. Positive deviation from ideal behaviour takes place because (a) (1999, 2M) (28.6 L, 373 K) 1 (d) 4 29. Equal weights of ethane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25° C. The fraction of the total pressure exerted by hydrogen is (1993, 1M) (a) 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1 : 16 (d) 15 : 16 30. At constant volume, for a fixed number of moles of a gas the pressure of the gas increases with rise of temperature due to (a) increase in average molecular speed (1992, 1M) (b) increase rate of collisions amongst molecules (c) increase in molecular attraction (d) decrease in mean free path 31. According to kinetic theory of gases, for a diatomic molecule (1991, 1M) T(K) (c) V(L) (30.6 L, 373 K) (22.4 L, 273 K) T(K) (d) (a) the pressure exerted by the gas is proportional to mean velocity of the molecule V(L) (b) the pressure exerted by the gas is proportional to the root (22.4 L, 273 K) (14.2 L, 373 K) mean velocity of the molecule (c) the root mean square velocity of the molecule is inversely proportional to the temperature T(K) T(K) 22. The root mean square velocity of an ideal gas at constant pressure varies with density (d ) as (a) d 2 (b) d (c) d (2001, S, 1M) (d) 1 / d 23. The compressibility of a gas is less than unity at STP. Therefore, (a) Vm > 22.4 L (c) Vm = 22.4 L (b) Vm < 22.4 L (d) Vm = 44.8 L (2000, 1M) 24. The rms velocity of hydrogen is 7 times the rms velocity of nitrogen. If T is the temperature of the gas (a) T (H2 ) = T (N2 ) (c) T (H2 ) < T (N2 ) (b) T (H2 ) > T (N2 ) (d) T (H2 ) = 7 T (N2 ) (2000, 1M) (d) the mean translational kinetic energy of the molecule is proportional to the absolute temperature 32. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The molecular weight of X is (1990, 1M) (a) 64.0 (b) 32.0 (c) 4.0 (d) 8.0 33. The density of neon will be highest at (a) STP (c) 273° C, 1 atm (1990, 1M) (b) 0° C, 2 atm (d) 273° C, 2 atm 34. The value of van der Waals’ constant a for the gases O2 , N2 , NH3 and CH4 are 1.360, 1.390, 4.170 and 2.253L2 atm mol −2 respectively. The gas which can most easily be liquefied is (a) O2 (b) N2 (c) NH3 (d) CH4 70 States of Matter 35. A bottle of dry ammonia and a bottle of dry hydrogen chloride connected through a long tube are opened simultaneously at both ends the white ammonium chloride ring first formed will be (1988, 1M) (a) at the centre of the tube (b) near the hydrogen chloride bottle (c) near the ammonia bottle (d) throughout the length of the tube Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) 45. Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct regarding the root mean square speed (U rms ) and average translational kinetic energy ( Eav ) of a molecule in a gas at equilibrium? (2019 Adv.) term that accounts for intermolecular forces is (1988, 1M) a (a) (V − b ) (b) RT (c) p + 2 (d) ( RT )−1 V (a) Urms is inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass (b) Urms is doubled when its temperature is increased four times (c) Eav is doubled when its temperature is increased four times (d) Eav at a given temperature does not depend on its molecular mass 37. The average velocity of an ideal gas molecule at 27° C is 46. One mole of a monoatomic real gas satisfies the equation 36. In van der Waals’ equation of state for a non-ideal gas, the 0.3 m/s. The average velocity at 927° C will be (1986, 1M) (a) 0.6 m/s (b) 0.3 m/s (c) 0.9 m/s (d) 3.0 m/s 38. Rate of diffusion of a gas is (1985, 1M) (a) directly proportional to its density (b) directly proportional to its molecular weight (c) directly proportional to the square root of its molecular weight (d) inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular weight 39. Equal weights of methane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25° C. The fraction of the total pressure exerted by hydrogen is (1984, 1M) 1 8 1 16 (b) (c) (d) (a) 2 9 9 17 40. When an ideal gas undergoes unrestrained expansion, no cooling occurs because the molecules (a) are above the inversion temperature (b) exert no attractive forces on each other (c) do work equal to loss in kinetic energy (d) collide without loss of energy (1984, 1M) 41. Helium atom is two times heavier than a hydrogen molecule. At 298 K, the average kinetic energy of a helium atom is (a) two times that of a hydrogen molecule (1982, 1M) (b) same as that of a hydrogen molecule (c) four times that of a hydrogen molecule (d) half that of a hydrogen molecule 42. Equal weights of methane and oxygen are mixed in an empty container at 25°C. The fraction of the total pressure exerted by oxygen is (1981, 1M) 1 1 2 1 273 (b) (c) (d) × (a) 3 2 3 3 298 43. The temperature at which a real gas obeys the ideal gas laws over a wide range of pressure is (1981, 1M) (a) critical temperature (b) Boyle temperature (c) inversion temperature (d) reduced temperature 44. The ratio of root mean square velocity to average velocity of a gas molecule at a particular temperature is (1981, 1M) (a) 1.085 : 1 (b) 1 : 1.086 (c) 2 : 1.086 (d) 1.086 : 2 p(V − b)= RT where, b is a constant. The relationship of interatomic potential V(r) and interatomic distance r for gas is given by (2015 Adv.) V(r) V(r) (a) 0 r r V(r) V(r) (c) 0 (b) 0 r (d) 0 47. According to kinetic theory of gases r (2011) (a) collisions are always elastic (b) heavier molecules transfer more momentum to the wall of the container (c) only a small number of molecules have very high velocity (d) between collisions, the molecules move in straight lines with constant velocities 48. A gas described by van der Waals’ equation (2008, 4M) (a) behaves similar to an ideal gas in the limit of large molar volumes (b) behaves similar to an ideal gas in the limit of large pressures (c) is characterised by van der Waals’ coefficients that are dependent on the identity of the gas but are independent of the temperature (d) has the pressure that is lower than the pressure exerted by the same gas behaving ideally 49. If a gas is expanded at constant temperature (1986, 1M) (a) the pressure decreases (b) the kinetic energy of the molecules remains the same (c) the kinetic energy of the molecules decreases (d) the number of molecules of the gas increases Numerical Answer Type Questions 50. A spherical balloon of radius 3 cm containing helium gas has a pressure of 48 × 10−3 bar. At the same temperature, the pressure, of a spherical balloon of radius 12 cm containing the same amount of gas will be ............ × 10−6 bar. (2020 Main, 6 Sep I) States of Matter 71 51. A closed tank has two compartments A and B, both filled with 54. The experimental value of d is found to be smaller than the oxygen (assumed to be ideal gas). The partition separating the two compartments is fixed and is a perfect heat insulator (Fig. 1). If the old partition is replaced by a new partition which can slide and conduct heat but does not allow the gas to leak across (Fig. 2), the volume (in m3 ) of the compartment A after the system attains equilibrium is ____. estimate obtained using Graham’s law. This is due to (a) larger mean free path for X as a compared of that of Y (b) larger mean free path for Y as compared to that of X (c) increased collision frequency of Y with the inert gas as compared to that of X with the inert gas (d) increased collision frequency of X with the inert gas as compared to that of Y with the inert gas 55. The value of d in cm (shown in the figure), as estimated from Graham’s law, is (a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 16 (d) 20 1 m3, 5 bar 400 K A 3 m3, 1 bar, 300 K B Fig. 1 Match the Column 56. Match the gases under specified conditions listed in Column I with their properties/laws in Column II. B A Fig. 2 (2018 Adv.) Assertion and Reason Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below : (a) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct; Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct; Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct 52. Statement I The pressure of a fixed amount of an ideal gas is proportional to its temperature. Statement II Frequency of collisions and their impact both increase in proportion to the square root of temperature. (2000) 53. Statement I The value of van der Waals’ constant ‘a’ is larger for ammonia than for nitrogen. Statement II Hydrogen bonding is present in ammonia. (1998) Passage Based Questions L = 24 cm X and Y are two volatile liquids with molar weights of 10 g mol −1 and 40 g Cotton wool Initial formation mol −1 respectively. Cotton wool d soaked in Y of the product soaked in X Two cotton plugs, one soaked in X and the other soaked in Y, are simultaneously placed at the ends of a tube of length L = 24 cm, as shown in the figure. The tube is filled with an inert gas at 1 atm pressure and a temperature of 300 K. Vapours of X and Y react to form a product which is first observed at a distance d cm from the plug soaked in X. Take X and Y to have equal molecular diameters and assume ideal behaviour for the inert gas and the two vapours. (2014 Adv.) Column I A. Hydrogen gas ( p = 200 atm, T = 273 K) B. Hydrogen gas ( p ~ 0, T = 273 K) C. CO2 ( p = 1 atm, T = 273 K) D. Real gas with very large molar volume Column II p. compressibility factor ≠ 1 q. attractive forces are dominant r. pV = nRT s. p (V − nb ) = nRT (2007, 6M) Fill in the Blanks 57. The absolute temperature of an ideal gas is …… to/than the average kinetic energy of the gas molecules. (1997, 1M) 58. 8 g each of oxygen and hydrogen at 27°C will have the total kinetic energy in the ratio of …… . (1989, 1M) 59. The value of pV for 5.6 L of an ideal gas is ......... RT, at NTP. (1987, 1M) 60. The rate of diffusion of a gas is .......... proportional to both .......... and square root of molecular mass. 61. C p − CV for an ideal gas is …… (1986, 1M) (1984, 1M) 62. The total energy of one mole of an ideal monoatomic gas at 27°C is …… cal. (1984, 1M) True / False 63. A mixture of ideal gases is cooled up to liquid helium temperature (4.22 K) to form an ideal solution. (1996, 1M) n2a 64. In the van der Waals’ equation, p + 2 (V − nb ) = nRT V the constant ‘a’ reflects the actual volume of the gas molecules. (1993, 1M) 65. A gas in a closed container will exert much higher pressure due to gravity at the bottom than at the top. 66. Kinetic energy of a molecule is zero at 0°C. (1985, 1/2 M) (1985, 1/2 M) Integer Answer Type Questions 67. The diffusion coefficient of an ideal gas is proportional to its mean free path and mean speed. The absolute temperature of 72 States of Matter an ideal gas is increased 4 times and its pressure is increased 2 times. As a result, the diffusion coefficient of this gas increases x times. The value of x is ... (2016 Adv.) 68. A closed vessel with rigid walls contains 1 mole of 238 92 Uand 1 mole of air at 298 K. Considering complete decay of 238 92 U to 206 the ratio of the final pressure to the initial pressure of Pb, 82 the system at 298 K is (2015 Adv.) mol −1 and the value of Boltzmann constant is 1.380 × 10−23 JK −1 , then the number of significant digits in the calculated value of the universal gas constant is (2014 Adv.) 69. If the value of Avogadro number is 6.023 × 10 23 70. To an evacuated vessel with movable piston under external pressure of 1 atm, 0.1 mole of He and 1.0 mole of an unknown compound (vapour pressure 0.68 atm at 0° C ) are introduced. Considering the ideal gas behaviour, the total volume (in litre) of the gases at 0° C is close to (2011) Subjective Questions 71. At 400 K, the root mean square (rms) speed of a gas X (molecular weight = 40) is equal to the most probable speed of gas Y at 60 K. The molecular weight of the gas Y is (2009) 72. The average velocity of gas molecules is 400 m s − 1 , find the rms velocity of the gas. (2003, 2M) 73. The density of the vapour of a substance at 1 atm pressure and 500 K is 0.36 kg m–3 . The vapour effuses through a small hole at a rate of 1.33 times faster than oxygen under the same condition. (i) Determine, (a) molecular weight (b) molar volume (c) compression factor (Z) of the vapour and (d) which forces among the gas molecules are dominating, the attractive or the repulsive? (ii) If the vapour behaves ideally at 1000 K, determine the average translational kinetic energy of a molecule. (2002, 5M) 74. The compression factor (compressibility factor) for one mole of a van der Waals’ gas at 0° C and 100 atm pressure is found to be 0.5. Assuming that the volume of a gas molecule is negligible, calculate the van der Waals’ constant ‘a’. (2001, 5M) 75. Calculate the pressure exerted by one mole of CO2 gas at 273 K if the van der Waals’ constant a = 3.592 dm 6 atm mol −2 . Assume that the volume occupied by CO2 molecules is negligible. (2000) 76. (i) One mole of nitrogen gas at 0.8 atm takes 38 s to diffuse through a pin-hole, whereas one mole of an unknown compound of xenon with fluorine at 1.6 atm takes 57 s to diffuse through the same hole. Calculate the molecular formula of the compound. (ii) The pressure exerted by 12 g of an ideal gas at temperature t ° C in a vessel of volume V litre is one atm. When the temperature is increased by 10°C at the same volume, the pressure increases by 10%. Calculate the temperature t and volume V. (Molecular weight of the gas = 120) (1999, 5M) 77. Using van der Waals’ equation, calculate the constant a when two moles of a gas confined in a four litre flask exert a pressure of 11.0 atm at a temperature of 300 K. The value of b is 0.05 L mol –1 . (1998, 4M) 78. An evacuated glass vessel weighs 50.0 g when empty 148.0 g when filled with a liquid of density 0.98 g mL–1 and 50.5 g when filled with an ideal gas at 760 mm Hg at 300 K. Determine the molar mass of the gas. (1998, 3M) 79. A mixture of ideal gases is cooled up to liquid helium temperature (4.22 K) to form an ideal solution. Is this statement true or false ? Justify your answer in not more than two lines. (1996, 1M) 80. The composition of the equilibrium mixture (Cl 2 s 2Cl) which is attained at 1200° C, is determined by measuring the rate of effusion through a pin-hole. It is observed that at 1.80 mm Hg pressure, the mixture effuses 1.16 times as fast as krypton effuses under the same conditions. Calculate the fraction of chlorine molecules dissociated into atoms (atomic weight of Kr = 84) (1995, 4M) 81. A mixture of ethane (C2 H6 ) and ethene (C2 H4 ) occupies 40 L at 1.00 atm and at 400 K. The mixture reacts completely with 130 g of O2 to produce CO2 and H2 O. Assuming ideal gas behaviour, calculate the mole fractions of C2 H4 and C2 H6 in the mixture. (1995, 4M) 82. An LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) cylinder weighs 14.8 kg when empty. When full it weighs 29.0 kg and shows a pressure of 2.5 atm. In the course of use at 27° C, the weight of the full cylinder reduces to 23.2 kg. Find out the volume of the gas in cubic metres used up at the normal usage conditions, and the final pressure inside the cylinder. Assume LPG to the n-butane with normal boiling point of 0° C. (1994, 3M) 83. A 4 : 1 molar mixture of He and CH4 is contained in a vessel at 20 bar pressure. Due to a hole in the vessel, the gas mixture leaks out. What is the composition of the mixture effusing out initially? (1994, 2M) 84. A gas bulb of 1 L capacity contains 2.0 × 1021 molecules of nitrogen exerting a pressure of 7.57 × 103 Nm–2 . Calculate the root mean square (rms) speed and the temperature of the gas molecules. If the ratio of the most probable speed to root mean square speed is 0.82, calculate the most probable speed for these molecules at this temperature. (1993, 4M) 85. At room temperature, the following reaction proceed nearly to completion. 2NO + O2 → 2NO2 → N2 O4 The dimer, N2 O4 , solidifies at 262 K. A 250 mL flask and a 100 mL flask are separated by a stopcock. At 300 K, the nitric oxide in the larger flask exerts a pressure of 1.053 atm and the smaller one contains oxygen at 0.789 atm. The gases are mixed by opening the stopcock and after the end of the reaction the flasks are cooled to 220 K. Neglecting the vapour pressure of the dimer, find out the pressure and composition of the gas remaining at 220 K. (Assume the gases to behave ideally). (1992, 4M) States of Matter 73 86. At 27° C, hydrogen is leaked through a tiny hole into a vessel for 20 min. Another unknown gas at the same temperature and pressure as that of hydrogen is leaked through same hole for 20 min. After the effusion of the gases the mixture exerts a pressure of 6 atm. The hydrogen content of the mixture is 0.7 mole. If the volume of the container is 3 L. What is the molecular weight of the unknown gas? (1992, 3M) 87. Calculate the volume occupied by 5.0 g of acetylene gas at 50° C and 740 mm pressure. (1991, 2M) 88. The average velocity at T1 K and the most probable at T2 K of CO2 gas is 9.0 × 104 cm s –1 . Calculate the value of T1 and T2 (1990, 4M) 89. A spherical balloon of 21 cm diameter is to be filled up with hydrogen at NTP from a cylinder containing the gas at 20 atm at 27° C. If the cylinder can hold 2.82 L of water, calculate the number of balloons that can be filled up. (1987, 5M) 90. Calculate the root mean square velocity of ozone kept in a closed vessel at 20° C and 82 cm mercury pressure. (1985, 2M) 91. Give reasons for the following in one or two sentences. (i) Equal volumes of gases contain equal number of moles. (1984, 1M) (ii) A bottle of liquor ammonia should be cooled before opening the stopper. (1983, 1M) 92. Oxygen is present in one litre flask at a pressure of 7.6 × 10−10 mm Hg. Calculate the number of oxygen molecules in the flask at 0° C. (1983, 2M) 93. When 2 g of a gas A is introduced into an evacuated flask kept at 25° C, the pressure is found to be one atmosphere. If 3 g of another gas B is then added to the same flask, the total pressure becomes 1.5 atm. Assuming ideal gas behaviour, calculate the ratio of the molecular weights M A : M B . (1983, 2M) 94. At room temperature, ammonia gas at 1 atm pressure and hydrogen chloride gas at p atm pressure are allowed to effuse through identical pin holes from opposite ends of a glass tube of one metre length and of uniform cross-section. Ammonium chloride is first formed at a distance of 60 cm from the end through which HCl gas is sent in. What is the value of p ? (1982, 4M) 95. Calculate the average kinetic energy, in joule per molecule in 8.0 g of methane at 27°C. (1982, 2M) 96. The pressure in a bulb dropped from 2000 to 1500 mm of mercury in 47 min when the contained oxygen leaked through a small hole. The bulb was then evacuated. A mixture of oxygen and another gas of molecular weight 79 in the molar ratio of 1 : 1 at a total pressure of 4000 mm of mercury was introduced. Find the molar ratio of the two gases remaining in the bulb after a period of 74 min. (1981, 3M) 97. A hydrocarbon contains 10.5 g of carbon per gram of hydrogen. 1 L of the vapour of the hydrocarbon at 127°C and 1 atm pressure weighs 2.8 g. Find the molecular formula of the hydrocarbon. (1980, 3M) 98. 3.7 g of a gas at 25°C occupied the same volume as 0.184 g of hydrogen at 17°C and at the same pressure. What is the molecular weight of the gas ? (1979, 2M) 99. 4.215 g of a metallic carbonate was heated in a hard glass tube, the CO2 evolved was found to measure 1336 mL at 27°C and 700 mm of Hg pressure. What is the equivalent weight of the metal ? (1979, 3M) 100. Calculate the density of NH3 at 30°C and 5 atm pressure. (1978, 2M) Topic 2 Liquid State Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 2. At 100°C and 1 atm if the density of the liquid water is 1. The qualitative sketches I, II and III given below show the Concentration Surface tension I Surface tension Surface tension variation of surface tension with molar concentration of three and different aqueous solutions of KCl, CH3 OH − + CH3 (CH2 )11 OSO3 Na at room temperature. (2016 Adv.) II Concentration The correct assignment of the sketches is I II (a) KCl (b) CH3 (CH2 )11 OSO3− CH3OH III Concentration III KCl Na CH3OH (c) KCl CH3 (CH2 )11 OSO−3 Na + (d) CH3OH KCl (a) 6 cm 3 (b) 60 cm 3 (c) 0.6 cm 3 (d) 0.06 cm 3 3. The critical temperature of water is higher than that of O2 because the H2O molecule has CH3 (CH2 )11 OSO−3 Na + + 1.0 g cm–3 and that of water vapour is 0.0006 g cm−3 , then the volume occupied by water molecules in 1 L of steam at this temperature is (2000, 1M) CH3OH CH3 (CH2 )11 OSO3− Na + (1997) (a) fewer electrons than O2 (b) two covalent bonds (c) V-shape (d) dipole moment 4. A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapour at it’s boiling point. On the average, the molecules in the two phases have equal (a) inter-molecular forces (b) potential energy (c) kinetic energy (d) total energy Answers Topic 1 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. 29. 33. 37. 41. 45. 49. 53. (b) (a) (b) (b) (b) (c) (c) (d) (b) (a) (b) (a, b, d) (a,b) (a) 2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26. 30. 34. 38. 42. 46. 50. 54. 3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27. 31. 35. 39. 43. 47. 51. 55. (c) (a) (a) (c) (a) (d) (c) (a) (c) (d) (a) (c) (750) (d) (c) (c) (b) (c) (a) (b) (b) (d) (b) (b) (b) (a) (2.22) (c) 4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. 28. 32. 36. 40. 44. 48. 52. (b) (b) (b) (b) (a) (c) (c) (a) (c) (b) (a) (a,c) (d) 56. (A → p,s; B → r; C→ p, q; D → r) 57. (less) 58. (1 : 16) 60. (inversely, time) 63. 67. 71. 77. 82. 86. 90. (F) 64. (4) 68. (4) 72. (6.46) 78. (2.46 m 3) 83. (1020 g mol −1) 87. (390.2 ms −1) 92. 59. (0.25) 61. (R) (F) 65. (F) (9) 69. (4) 435 ms −1 74. (1.25) (123 g mol −1) (8:1) 84. (407 ms −1) (5.23 L) 89. (10) (2.7 × 1010 g mol −1) 62. (900) 66. 70. 75. 80. 85. (F) (7 L) (0.99 atm) (0.14) (0.221 atm) 93. (1 : 3) 94. (2.20 atm) 95. (6.2 × 10 −21 J/molecule) 98. (41.32 g) 99. (12.15) 100. (3.42 gL −1) Topic 2 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) Hints & Solutions Topic 1 Gaseous State 1. Fraction of molecules vs velocity graph is Maxwell distribution curve. This curve is slightly unsymmetrical as shown below. Most probable speed (vp) Fraction of molecules Average speed (vavg) Root-mean-square speed (vrms) vp vavg vrms Speed v The ratio of most probable, the average and the root mean square speeds for this graph is 1 : 1.128 : 1.224 But the graph in question is completly symmetrical. Therefore, the most probable and the average speed will be same here but root mean square speed will be greater than average speed. So, the correct ratio is 1 : 1: 1224 . . 2. Statements (A), (C) and (D) are true whereas (B) is false. (A) For 1 mole, U = internal energy and H = enthalpy. Heat capacity at constant volume. dU dt (n = 1 mol) dU = nCV dT (QCV = constant) dU = 1 × CV × dT (Function of temperature) U = f (T ) U depends on temperature. nCV = Heat capacity at constant volume, dH nCp = dT [n = 1mol] dH = nC p dT dH = 1 × C p × dT In mathematically term, [QC p = constant] H = f (T ) Hence, H depends on function of temperature (b) Compressibility factor (Z ) describe the deviation of real gas from ideal gas behaviour. pV …(i) Z= RT For ideal gas, [n = 1mol] pV = nRT …(ii) pV = RT Put in the value of pV from Eq. (ii) to Eq. (i) RT Z= =1 RT Compressibility factor is 1 for ideal gas then option (b) is incorrect. (c) For ideal gas, (n = 1mol) C p − CV = nR C p − CV = R It is correct statement. (d) ∆U = CV dT dU nCV = dT (n = 1mol) dU = nCV dT dU = CV dT It is also correct. States of Matter 75 3. Key Idea From kinetic gas equation, 2RT Most probable velocity (vmp ) = M where, R = gas constant, T = temperature, M = molecular mass vmp = Z= M T ( K) T/M H2 2 300 300 / 2 = 150 …III (Highest) N2 28 300 300 / 28 = 10.71 …I (Lowest) O2 32 400 400 / 32 = 12.5 … II So, I. corresponds to vmp of N2 (300 K) II. corresponds to vmp of O2 (400 K) III. corresponds to vmp of H2 (300 K) 4. For 1 mole of a real gas, the van der Waals’ equation is a p + 2 (V − b) = RT V The constant ‘a’ measures the intermolecular force of attraction of gas molecules and the constant ‘b’ measures the volume correction by gas molecules after a perfectly inelastic binary collision of gas molecules. For gas A and gas C given value of ‘b’ is 0.05196 dm3 mol −1. Here, a ∝ intermolecular force of attraction ∝ compressibility ∝ real nature 1 ∝ volume occupied Value of a/(kPa dm6 mol −1) for gas A (642.32) > gas C (431.91) So, gas C will occupy more volume than gas A. Similarly, for a given value of a say 155.21 kPa dm6 mol −1 for gas B and gas D 1 ∝ intermolecular force of attraction b ∝ compressibility ∝ real nature 1 ∝ volume accupied b/(dm 3 mol −1) for gas B (0.04136) < Gas D (0.4382) So, gas B will be more compressible than gas D. 5. Noble gases such as Ne, Ar, Xe and Kr found to deviate from ideal gas behaviour. Xe gas will exhibit steepest increase in plot of Z vs p. Equation of state is given as: RT p= ⇒ p(V − b) = RT (V − b) ⇒ pV = RT + pb pV RT pb ⇒ y = c + mx RT The plot of z vs p is found to be so, Z =1+ 2RT T , i.e. vmp ∝ M M Gas pV − pb = RT pV pb =1+ RT RT As, slope = b RT Z p The gas with high value of b will be steepest as slope is directly proportional to b. b is the van der Waals’ constant and is equal to four times the actual volume of the gas molecules. Xe gas possess the largest atomic volume among the given noble gases (Ne, Kr, Ar). Hence, it gives the steepest increase in the plot of Z (compression factor) vsp. 6. Critical temperature is the temperature of a gas above which it cannot be liquefied what ever high the pressure may be. The kinetic energy of gas molecules above this temperature is sufficient enough to overcome the attractive forces. It is represented as Tc. 8a Tc = 27Rb 8 × 13 . For Ar, Tc = = 0.0144 27 × 8.314 × 3.2 8 × 0.2 For Ne, Tc = = 0.0041 27 × 8.314 × 17 . 8 × 51 . For Kr, Tc = = 018 . 27 × 8.314 × 1.0 8 × 4.1 For Xe, Tc = = 0.02 27 × 8.314 × 5.0 The value of Tc is highest for Kr (Krypton). 7. In isothermal expansion, pVm = K (constant) This relation is plotted in graph ‘C’ K Likewise, p= Vm This relation is plotted in graph “ A”. Thus, graph B and D are incorrect. For them the correct graphs are: for graph B and p Vm for graph D U Vm 8. Given, temperature (T1 ) = 27° C = 273 + 27 = 300 K Volume of vessel = constant Pressure in vessel = constant 2 3 Volume of air reduced by so the remaining volume of air is . 5 5 76 States of Matter Let at T1 the volume of air inside the vessel is n so at T2 the 3 volume of air will be n. 5 Now, as p and V are constant, so 3 ...(i) n ⋅T1 = n T2 5 Putting the value of T1 in equation (i) we get, 3 n × 300 = n × T2 5 5 or T2 = 300 × = 500 K 3 After mixing, number of moles in left chamber = Number of moles in right chamber = Total number of moles = pV [for real gases] nRT On substituting in equation (i), we get pAVA 3p V = B B nARTA nB RTB Compressibility factor (Z) = …(ii) 14. = 1.02 × 10 mol Weight of NaHCO3 Molecular mass of NaHCO3 wNaHCO3 = 102 . × 10−5 × 84 × 103 mg = 0.856 mg 0.856 × 100 = 8.56% ⇒ NaHCO 3 % = 10 pV = ΣnRT Given: p = 200 Pa, V = 10m3 , T = 1000 K ...(i) 2RT M 8RT πM C = Root square speed corrected as root means square speed, i.e. rms = 3RT and as we know C* < C < C M * C : C : C =1 : 11. From the ideal gas equation, 4 3 : = 1 : 1.128 : 1.225 p 2 NOTE As no option correspond to root square speed, it is understood as misprint. It should be root mean square speed. 15. The van der Waals’ equation of state is n2a p + 2 (V − nb) = nRT V nA = 0.5 moles, nB = x moles On substituting the given values in equation (i), we get 200 × 10 = (nA + nB ) × R × 1000 200 × 10 0.5 + x = R × 1000 1 2 2 1 4−R +x= = − = 2R R R 2 2 For one mole and when b = 0, the above equation condenses to a p + 2 V = RT V ⇒ 12. Initially, pV = RT − a V piV RT1 …(i) 1 whose slope is ‘ V − a’. Equating with slope of the straight line given in the graph. 20.1 − 21.6 −a= = − 1.5 ⇒ a = 1.5 3− 2 Eq. (i) is a straight equation between pV and pV Number of moles of gases in each container = i RT1 Total number of moles of gases in both containers = 2 C * = Most probable speed = C = Average speed = −5 ∴ PLAN To solve this problem, the stepwise approach required, i.e. (i) Write the van der Waals’ equation, then apply the condition that at low pressure, volume become high, i.e. V − b~ −V 2 mol ⇒ In the reaction, number of mole of CO2 produced. pV 1 bar × 0.25 × 10−3 L n= = RT 0.082 L atm K−1mol −1 × 298.15 K Number of mole of NaHCO3 = pf V 1 1 + R T1 T2 a At low pressure, p + 2 V = RT V a a pV + = RT or pV = RT − ⇒ V V pV a Divide both side by RT, =1− RT RTV 10. 2NaHCO3 + H2C2O4 → 2CO2 + Na 2C4O4 + H2O 1 mol RT2 = According to van der Waals’ equation, a p + 2 (V − b) = RT V 2 pA = 3 pB 2 mol RT2 pf V (ii) Now calculate the value of compressibility factor (Z ). [ Z = pV / RT ] Also, it is given that VA = 2VB , nA = nB and TA = TB ∴ Eq. (ii) becomes pA × 2VB 3 pBVB = nB RTB nB RTB ⇒ RT1 + pf V As total number of moles remains constant. pf V pf V T2 2 piV Hence, = + ⇒ pf = 2 pi T1 + T2 RT1 RT1 RT2 13. 9. Given, ZA = 3ZB pf V pf V RT1 States of Matter 77 16. In the van der Waals’ equation V =1 Videal For ideal gas V = Videal 27. Compressibility factor (Z ) = n a p + 2 (V − nb) = nRT V 2 n2a corrects for V2 intermolecular force while b corrects for molecular volume. The additional factor in pressure, i.e. Q 28. Expression of rms is, urms = urms (H2 at 50 K) = urms (O2 at 800 K) ⇒ 17. Option (b) is incorrect statement because at high pressure slope of the line will change from negative to positive. 18. r(He) r(CH4 ) = 16 =2 :1 4 = 3 2 19. Kinetic energy (E ) = kT RMS speed (u) = x 30 x Mole of hydrogen = 2 pV pV , for positive deviation, > 1. Q Z= nRT nRT 21. Option (b) and (d) are ruled out on the basis that at the initial point of 273 K, 1 atm, for 1.0 mole volume must be 22.4 L, and it should increase with rise in temperature. Option (a) is ruled out on the basis that initial and final points are not connected by the ideal gas equation V ∝ T , i.e. V /T do not have the same value at the two points. In option (c), at the initial point, the volume is 22.4 L as required by ideal gas equation and (V /T ) have the same value at both initial and final points. 22. Root mean square velocity (urms ) = 3RT M V < 1(given) Vid V < 22.4 L Vid (1 mol ) = 22.4 L at STP 23. Compressibility factor (Z ) = 24. Root mean square speed urms = ⇒ Mole fraction of hydrogen = 3RT M 14T (H2 ) urms (H2 ) T (H2 ) 28 ⇒ 7= = 7= × urms (N2 ) 2 T (N2 ) T (N2 ) T (N2 ) = 2T (H2 ) i.e. T (H2 ) < T (N2 ) 25. At high temperature and low pressure, the gas volume is infinitely large and both intermolecular force as well as molecular volume can be ignored. Under this condition postulates of kinetic theory applies appropriately and gas approaches ideal behaviour. 26. Rate of effusion ∝ pi ; pi = Partial pressure of ith component ∝ 1 M x 2 x x + 2 30 = 15 16 Partial pressure of H2 = Mole fraction of hydrogen Total pressure = 15 : 16 8RT 30. Average speed = πM ⇒ i.e. at constant volume, for a fixed mass, increasing temperature increases average speeds and molecules collide more frequently to the wall of container leading to increase in gas pressure. 31. The mean translational kinetic energy (∈) of an ideal gas is p ⋅ M = dRT Substituting for RT / M in urms expression gives, 3p 1 urms = ⇒ urms ∝ d d ⇒ 50 32 × =1 2 800 Mole of ethane = 20. Positive deviation corresponds to Z > 1 ⇒ Q 3R × 50 2 3R × 800 32 29. Let x g of each gas is mixed. 3kT 2E ⇒ u= m m Also, 3RT M ∈= 32. 3 k BT ; T = Absolute temperature, i.e. ∈ ∝ T 2 rCH 4 rX =2= MX 16 ⇒ M X = 64 33. The ideal gas equation, pV = nRT = ⇒ w RT M w pM = RT = dRT V (d = density) pM RT i.e. density will be greater at low temperature and high pressure. ⇒ d= 34. The ease of liquefication of a gas depends on their intermolecular force of attraction which in turn is measured in terms of van der Waals’ constant a. Hence, higher the value of a, greater the intermolecular force of attraction, easier the liquefication. In the present case, NH3 has highest a, can most easily be liquefied. 35. HCl will diffuse at slower rate than ammonia because rate of effusion ∝ 1 . M Therefore, ammonia will travel more distance than HCl in the same time interval and the two gas will first meet nearer to HCl end. 78 States of Matter 36. In van der Waals’ equation of state 44. The two types of speeds are defined as; a p + 2 (V − b) = RT V (For 1 mole) Root mean square speed (urms ) = 3RT M The first factor ( p + a/V 2 ) correct for intermolecular force while the second term (V − b) correct for molecular volume. Average speed (uav ) = 8RT πM 37. Expression for average velocity is uav = 8RT πM For the same gas but at different temperature uavg (T1 ) uavg (T2 ) ⇒ = T1 300 1 = = T2 1200 2 uav (927° C) = 2 × uav (27° C) = 0.6 ms−1 1 38. Rate of effusion ∝ , M x 2 x Moles of CH4 = 16 Moles of H2 = ⇒ x 2 8 Mole fraction of H2 = = x x 9 + 2 16 8 Partial pressure of H2 = Mole fraction of H2 = 9 Total pressure 40. According to postulates of kinetic theory, there is no intermolecular attractions or repulsions between the molecules of ideal gases. 3 41. According to kinetic theory, average kinetic energy (E ) = k BT 2 where, k B is Boltzmann’s constant. Since, it is independent of molar mass, it will be same for He and H2 at a given temperature. 42. If x g of both oxygen and methane are mixed then : x 32 x Mole of methane = 16 x 1 32 Mole fraction of oxygen = ⇒ = x x 3 + 32 16 According to law of partial pressure Partial pressure of oxygen ( pO 2 ) = Mole fraction × Total pressure pO 2 1 = ⇒ 3 p Mole of oxygen = 43. It is the Boyle temperature TB . At Boyle temperature, the first virial coefficient ( B ) vanishes and real gas approaches ideal behaviour. TB = = 3: 8 = 3 : 2.54 = 1.085 : 1 π 45. The explanation of given statements are as follows: (a) Urms is inversely proportional to the square root of its molecular mass. 39. Let x grams of each hydrogen and methane are mixed, ⇒ For the same gas, at a given temperature, M and T are same, therefore urms 3RT 8RT = : πM uav M a Rb Here, a and b are van der Waals’ constants. 3RT M Hence, option (a) is correct. (b) When temperature is increased four times then Urms become doubled. Urms = Urms = 3R × 4T M Urms = 2 × 3RT M Hence, option (b) is correct. (c) and (d) Eav is directly proportional to temperature but does not depends on its molecular mass at a given 3 temperature as Eav = KT . If temperature raised four times 2 than Eav becomes four time multiple. Thus, option (c) is incorrect and option (d) is correct. 46. Equation of state p(V − b) = RT indicates absence of intermolecular attraction or repulsion, hence interatomic potential remains constant on increasing ‘π’ in the beginning. As the molecules come very close, their electronic and nuclear repulsion increases abruptly. 47. (a) According to a postulate of kinetic theory of gases, collision between the molecules as well as with the wall of container is perfectly elastic in nature. (b) If a gas molecule of mass m moving with speed u collide to the wall of container, the change in momentum is ∆p = – 2mu. Therefore, heavier molecule will transfer more momentum to the wall as there will be greater change in momentum of the colliding gas molecule. However, this is not postulated in kinetic theory. (c) According to Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution of molecular speed, very few molecules have either very high or very low speeds. Most of the molecules moves in a specific, intermediate speed range. (d) According to kinetic theory of gases, a gas molecule moves in straight line unless it collide with another molecule or to the wall of container and change in momentum is observed only after collision. States of Matter 79 48. Option (a) is correct because in the limit of large volume, both or intermolecular force and molecular volume becomes negligible in comparison to volume of gas. Option (d) is wrong statement because Z can be either less or greater than unity, hence real pressure can be less or greater than ideal pressure. 51. Given p1 = 5 bar, V1 = 1 m 3, T1 = 400 K So, n1 = 5 400 R Similarly, p2 = 1 bar, V2 = 3 m 3, T2 = 300 K, n2 = 11 20 = or 9 9 52. Assertion is incorrect because besides amount, pressure also depends on volume. However, reason is correct because both frequency of collisions and impact are directly proportional to root mean square speed which is proportional to square root of absolute temperature 53. a is the measure of intermolecular force of attraction. Greater the intermolecular force of attraction (H-bond in the present case) higher the value of a. 54. X is a lighter gas than Y, hence X has greater molecular speed. Due to greater molecular speed of X, it will have smaller mean free path and greater collision frequency with the incrt gas molecules. As a result X will take more time to travel a given distance along a straight line. Hence X and Y will meet at a distance smaller than one calculated from Graham’s law. 50. Initial pressure ( p1 ) = 48 × 10−3 bar Final pressure ( p2 ) = …… × 10−6 bar 4 Initial volume (V1 ) = π (3)3 3 4 Final volume (V2 ) = π (12)3 3 According to Boyle’s law p1V1 = p2V2 pV p2 = 1 1 V2 4 48 × 10−3 × π (3)3 48 × 10−3 × (3)3 3 p2 = = 4 (12)3 π (12)3 3 48 × 10−3 × 27 = = 0.0277 × 27 × 10−3 = 750 × 10−6 bar 1728 Hence, the correct answer is 750. 11 9 2.22. 49. Pressure is inversely proportional to volume at constant temperature, hence (a) is correct. Average kinetic energy of a gas is directly proportional to absolute temperature, hence (b) is correct. Expansion at constant temperature cannot change the number of molecules, hence (d) is incorrect. 4 + 4 x = 15 − 5x or x = Hence, new volume of A i.e., (1+ x ) will comes as 1 + Option (b) is wrong statement because in the limit of large pressure Z > 1. Option (c) is correct statement. For a van der Waals’ gas, van der Waals’ constants a and b are characteristic of a gas, independent of temperature. 4 (1+ x ) = 15 − 5x or Hence, (d) is the correct choice. 55. PLAN This problem can be solved by using the concept of Graham’s law of diffusion according to which rate of diffusion of non-reactive gases under similar conditions of temperature and pressure are inversely proportional to square root of their density. 1 Rate of diffusion ∝ molar weight of gas Let distance covered by X is d, then distance covered by Y is 24 – d. If rX and rY are the rate of diffusion of gases X and Y, 40 rX d = = =2 10 rY 24 − d [Q Rate of diffusion ∝ distance travelled] d = 48 − 2d ⇒ 3d = 48 ⇒ d = 16 cm Hence, (c) is the correct choice. 56. A. At p = 200 atm, very high pressure, Z > 1. Also, at such a high (from pV = nRT ) 3 300 R Let at equilibrium the new volume of A will be (1+ x ) So, the new volume of B will be (3− x ) Now, from the ideal gas equation. p1V1 pV = 2 2 n1RT1 n2RT2 and at equilibrium (due to conduction of heat) p1 p2 = T1 T2 V1 V2 So, = or V1n2 = V2n1 n1 n2 After putting the values 3 (3 − x ) 5 5 or (1+ x ) = (1+ x ) × = (3 − x ) × 300 R 4 400 R n2a pressure, the pressure correction factor 2 can be ignored V in comparison to p. B. At p ~ 0, gas will behave like an ideal gas, pV = nRT . C. CO2 (p = 1atm, T = 273 K), Z < 1. D. At very large molar volume, real gas behaves like an ideal gas. 3 2 57. Less; E = RT 3 nRT . At same temperature, KE (total) ∝ n. 2 1 59. 0.25 RT because at NTP, 5.6 L = mole. 4 60. Inversely, time. 58. 1 : 16, KE = 61. For an ideal gas, Cp − CV = R 3 2 3 2 62. At 27°C, E = RT = × 2 × 300 = 900 cal 80 States of Matter 63. An ideal gas cannot be liquefied because there exist no urms = umps 71. Given, intermolecular attraction between the molecules of ideal gas. 3RT = M (X ) ⇒ 64. a is the measure of intermolecular force. 65. In a close container, gas exert uniform pressure everywhere in the container. 3 66. KE = RT where, T is absolute temperature (in Kelvin). 2 3R × 400 2R × 60 = 40 M (Y ) ⇒ 72. 67. (DC) Diffusion coefficient ∝ λ (mean free path) ∝ U mean ⇒ Thus (DC) ∝ λ Umean T RT ⇒ λ∝ p 2 N0 σp λ= But, rgas rO 2 8RT πM U mean = and 73. DC ∝ T2 T1 3/ 2 p 4T = 1 1 2 p1 T1 92 U 238 → 82Pb 206 + 8 2He4 (g ) + 6− 1β 0 n(gas)[Initial] = 1 (air) n(gas)[Final] = 8 (He) + 1(air) = 9 ⇒ At constant temperature and volume; p ∝ n. pf nf 9 So, = = =9 pi ni 1 69. urms = 3π uav = 8 = 1.33 = 32 Mgas (ii) Ek = a p + 2 V = RT V pV a + =1 RT VRT a Z+ =1 ZRT RT p ⇒ ⇒ a= ∴ ⇒ pV + a = RT V pV Q =Z RT ⇒ Z+ ap =1 ZR 2T 2 ZR 2T 2 (1 − Z ) 0.5 (0.082 × 273)2 (1− 0.5) = p 100 a = 1.25 atm L2 mol −2 k = Boltzmann constant 75. In case of negligible molecular volume, b = 0 and N A = Avogadro’s number −23 3 3 k BT = × 1.38 × 10−23 × 1000 J = 2.07 × 10−20 J 2 2 74. In case of negligible molecular volume, b = 0. For 1 mole of gas Universal gas constant, R = kN A and 3 × 3.14 × 400 = 434 ms−1 8 (d) Q Z > 1, repulsive force is dominating. ⇒ PLAN This problem can be solved by using the concept involved in calculation of significant figure. where, 8 3π 18 = 50 L mol −1 0.36 pV 1 × 50 (c) Z = = = 1.22 RT 0.082 × 500 3/ 2 1 = (8) = 4 2 68. 8RT 3RT = : M πM (b) Vm = (T )3/ 2 p p (DC)2 (x ) = 1 p2 (DC)1 uav = urms ⇒ M (Y ) = 4 (i) (a) Mgas = 18 g mol −1 U mean ∝ T ∴ 2RT M (Y ) 23 R = 1.380 × 10 × 6.023 × 10 J/Kmol ~ 8.312 = 8.31174 = Since, k and N A both have four significant figures, so the value of R is also rounded off upto 4 significant figures. [When number is rounded off, the number of significant figure is reduced, the last digit is increased by 1 if following digits ≥ 5 and is left as such if following digits is ≤ 4.] Hence, correct integer is (4). 70. Since, the external pressure is 1.0 atm, the gas pressure is also 1.0 atm as piston is movable. Out of this 1.0 atm partial pressure due to unknown compound is 0.68 atm. Therefore, partial pressure of He = 1.00 – 0.68 = 0.32 atm. n(He)RT 0.1 × 0.082 × 273 Volume = = =7L ⇒ p(He) 0.32 ⇒ Volume of container = Volume of He. van der Waals’ equation reduces to n2a p + 2 V = nRT V RT a − 2 (n =1 mole) V V 0.082 × 273 3.592 = 0.99 atm = − 22.4 (22.4)2 ⇒ p= 76. (i) For the same amount of gas being effused r1 t2 p1 = = r2 t1 p2 ⇒ M2 57 0.8 = ⇒ M1 38 1.6 M2 28 M 2 = 252 g mol −1 Also, one molecule of unknown xenon-fluoride contain only one Xe atom [M (Xe) = 131], formula of the unknown gas can be considered to be XeFn. ⇒ 131 + 19n = 252; n = 6.3, hence the unknown gas is XeF6. States of Matter 81 (ii) For a fixed amount and volume, p ∝ T 1 T where, T = Kelvin temperature ⇒ = 1.1 T + 10 ⇒ ⇒ 82. Weight of butane gas in filled cylinder = 29 − 14.8 kg = 14.2 kg ⇒ During the course of use, weight of cylinder reduces to 23.2 kg ⇒ Weight of butane gas remaining now = 23.2 − 14.8 = 8.4 kg Also, during use, V (cylinder) and T remains same. p1 n1 Therefore, = p2 n2 n n w 8.4 p2 = 2 p1 = ⇒ × 2.5 Here, 2 = 2 14.2 n1 n w1 1 T = 100 K = t + 273 t = − 173° C nRT 12 0.082 × 100 Volume = = = 0.82 L × 120 p 1 77. The van der Waals’ equation is = 1.48 atm Also, pressure of gas outside the cylinder is 1.0 atm. ⇒ pV = nRT nRT (14.2 − 8.4 ) × 103 0.082 × 30 ⇒ V = = × L p 58 1 n2a p + 2 (V − nb) = nRT V ⇒ a= (4 )2 2 × 0.082 × 300 V 2 nRT − p = − 11 2 2 4 − 2 ( 0.05 ) n V − nb 2 ( ) = 6.46 atm L2 mol −2 78. Mass of liquid = 148 − 50 = 98 g 98 = 100 mL = volume of flask ⇒ Volume of liquid = 0.98 mass of gas = 50.5 − 50 = 0.50 g w Now applying ideal gas equation : pV = RT M wRT 0.5 × 0.082 × 300 ⇒ M = = = 123 g mol −1 pV 1 × 0.1 79. False, ideal gas cannot be liquefied as there is no intermolecular attraction between the molecules of ideal gas. Hence, there is no point of forming ideal solution by cooling ideal gas mixture. 80. If ‘α’ is the degree of dissociation, then at equilibrium Cl 2 r 2Cl Moles 1 −α 2α From diffusion information r(mix) = 1.16 = r(Kr) ⇒ ⇒ 84 M (mix) pV 1 × 40 = RT 0.082 × 400 = 1.22 81. The total moles of gaseous mixture = Let the mixture contain x mole of ethane. Therefore, 7 C2H6 + O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O 2 x C2H4 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O 7 x x + 3 (1.22 − x ) = + 3.66 2 2 130 x ⇒ = + 3.66 32 2 ⇒ x = 0.805 mole ethane and 0.415 mole ethene. 0.805 = 0.66 ⇒ Mole fraction of ethane = 1.22 Mole fraction of ethene = 1 − 0.66 = 0.34 Total moles of O2 required = rCH4 = M CH 4 nHe n CH4 M He = 4 1 16 =8 4 Initial ratio of rates of effusion gives the initial composition of mixture effusing out. Therefore, n (He) : n (CH4 ) = 8 : 1 84. Number of moles = 2 × 1021 = 0.33 × 10−2 6 × 1023 p = 7.57 × 103 Nm −2 pV = nRT 7.57 × 103 × 10−3 pV T = = 276 K = nR 0.33 × 10−2 × 8.314 Now, ⇒ ⇒ Also, α = 0.14 1.22− x rHe 83. Total = 1 + α M (mix) = 62.4 71 M (mix) = = 62.4 1+ α ⇒ = 2460 L = 2.46 m 3 ⇒ urms = 3RT = M 3 × 8.314 × 276 m s−1 = 496 ms−1 28 × 10−3 umps = 0.82 urms umps = 0.82 × urms = 0.82 × 496 ms−1 = 407 ms−1 85. First we calculate partial pressure of NO and O2 in the combined system when no reaction taken place. pV = constant ⇒ p1V1 = p2V2 1.053 × 250 ⇒ p2 (NO) = = 0.752 atm 350 0.789 × 100 p2 (O2 ) = = 0.225 atm 350 Now the reaction stoichiometry can be worked out using partial pressure because in a mixture. pi ∝ ni 2NO + O2 → 2NO2 → N2O4 Initial Final 0.752 atm 0.302 0.225 atm 0 0 0 0 0.225 atm Now, on cooling to 220 K, N2O4 will solidify and only unreacted NO will be remaining in the flask. Q p∝T p1 T1 ∴ = p2 T2 0.302 300 = ⇒ p2 220 ⇒ p2 (NO) = 0.221 atm 82 States of Matter 86. Total moles of gas in final mixture = pV 6×3 = = 0.731 RT 0.082 × 300 Q Mole of H2 in the mixture = 0.70 ∴ Mole of unknown gas ( X ) = 0.031 Because both gases have been diffused for same time r (H2 ) 0.70 M = = ⇒ M = 1020 g mol −1 2 r ( X ) 0.031 87. pressure inside the bottle. When the bottle is opened, there is chances of bumping of stopper. To avoid bumping, bottle should be cooled that lowers the pressure inside. (ii) According to Avogadro’s hypothesis, “Under identical conditions of pressure and temperature, equal volume of ideal gases contain equal number of molecules.” and nRT p 5 For acetylene gas, 5 g = mol 26 740 p = 740 mm = atm 760 V = ⇒ 7.6 × 10−10 1 = × × 6.023 × 1023 760 0.082 × 273 = 2.7 × 1010 molecules T = 50° C = 323 K 93. From the given information, it can be easily deduced that in the Substituting in ideal gas equation 5 0.082 × 323 V = × × 76 = 5.23 L 26 74 88. uav (average velocity ) = 4 9 × 10 ms−1 = 100 ⇒ Hence, 8 × 8.314 T1 ⇒ 3.14 × 44 × 10−3 ⇒ 8T1 1 × = 2T2 π 4T1 πT2 4T 4 × 1682.5 = 2142 K T2 = 1 = π 3.14 T1 = 1682.5 K, T2 = 2142 K 3 89. Volume of balloon = 4 3 4 21 πr = × 3.14 × cm 3 2 3 3 = 4847 cm 3 ≈ 4.85 L Now, when volume of H2 (g ) in cylinder is converted into NTP volume, then p1V1 p2V2 20 × 2.82 1 × V2 = = ⇒ T1 T2 300 273 V2 = NTP volume ⇒ V2 = 51.324 L Also, the cylinder will not empty completely, it will hold 2.82 L of H2 (g ) when equilibrium with balloon will be established. Hence, available volume of H2 (g ) for filling into balloon is 51.324 − 2.82 = 48.504 L 48.504 = 10 ⇒ Number of balloons that can be filled = 4.85 90. urms = partial pressure of A = 1.0 atm partial pressure of B = 0.5 atm pV V nA = A = RT RT pBV 0.5 V nB = = RT RT 3 M nB 1 wB M = = × A = × A nA 2 M B wA 2 M B Also 4T1 πT2 1= ⇒ final mixture, 8RT1 πM T1 = 1682.5 K Also, for the same gas 8RT1 2RT2 uav = : = umps M πM ⇒ pV RT N (Number of molecules) n= N A (Avogadro number) pV N = nNA = N RT A 92. Number of moles (n) = 3 × 8.314 × 293 3RT = 390.2 ms−1 = M 48 × 10−3 91. (i) NH3 (l ) is highly volatile, a closed bottle of NH3 (l ) contains large number of molecules in vapour phase maintaining high ⇒ M A :M B = 1 : 3 p 94. Rate of effusion (r) ∝ M ⇒ r (NH3 ) 1 = × r (HCl ) 17 ⇒ p= 3 2 36.5 ⇒ p 40 1 = 60 p 36.5 17 36.5 = 2.20 atm 17 3 2 3 = × 1.38 × 10−23 × 300 J = 6.21 × 10−21 J/molecule 2 dp kp 96. Rate of effusion is expressed as − = dt M k = constant, p = instantaneous pressure dp k dt ⇒ − = p M p kt Integration of above equation gives ln 0 = p M k 2000 47 Using first information : ln = 1500 32 95. KE = k BT : k B = Boltzmann’s constant ⇒ k= 32 4 ln 3 47 …(i) Now in mixture, initially gases are taken in equal mole ratio, hence they have same initial partial pressure of 2000 mm of Hg each. After 74 min : States of Matter 83 2000 74 k = ln 32 pO 2 Also, the decomposition reaction is : MCO3 → MO + CO2 0.05 mol Substituting k from Eq. (i) gives 2000 74 32 4 = × ln ln 3 p 47 32 O2 Q ∴ ⇒ ⇒ Q 2000 74 4 = ln ln 3 p 47 O2 Solving gives p (O2 ) at 74 min = 1271.5 mm 2000 74 k = For unknown gas : ln 79 pg 100. The ideal gas equation : pV = nRT = Substituting k from (i) gives 2000 74 32 4 = ln ln × 3 p 47 79 g 97. First we determine empirical formula as C H Weight 10.5 1 Mole 10.5 = 0.875 12 1 Simple ratio 1 Whole no. 7 pM = ⇒ Topic 2 Liquid State 1. I (CH3OH) : Surface tension decreases as concentration increases. II (KCl) : Surface tension increases with concentration for ionic salt. III [CH3 (CH2 )11 OSO−3 Na + ] : It is an anionic detergent. There is decrease in surface tension before micelle formation, and after CMC (Critical Micelle Concentration) is attained, no change in surface tension. 1/0.875 = 1.14 8 ⇒ Empirical formula = C7H8 w From gas equation : pV = RT M wRT 2.8 × 0.082 × 400 = = 91.84 ≈ 92 pV 1× 1 Q Molar mass (M ) is same as empirical formula weight. Molecular formula = Empirical formula = C7 H8 1 98. For same p and V , n ∝ T n (gas) T (H2 ) = ⇒ n (H2 ) T (gas) 0.184 n(H2 ) = = 0.092 2 290 n(gas) = × 0.092 = 0.0895 ⇒ 298 Q 0.0895 mole of gas weigh 3.7 g 3.7 ∴ 1 mole of gas will weigh = 41.32 g 0.0895 99. Moles of CO2 can be calculated using ideal gas equation as : n= w RT M w RT = d RT where, ‘d’ is density. V pM 5 × 17 d= = = 3.42 g L−1. RT 0.082 × 303 ⇒ Solving gives : pg = 1500 mm ⇒ After 74 min, p (O2 ) : p (g ) = 1271.5 : 1500 Also, in a mixture, partial pressure ∝ number of moles ⇒ n (O2 ) : n (g ) = 1 : 1.18 M = 0.05 mol 0.05 mole MCO3 = 4.21 5 g 4.215 1.0 mole MCO3 = = 84.3 g (molar mass) 0.05 84.3 = MW of M + 12 + 48 Molecular weight of metal = 24.3 Metal is bivalent, equivalent weight Molecular weight = = 12.15 2 1 pV 700 1336 = 0.05 = × RT 760 1000 0.082 × 300 Surface tension For O2 KCl (II) CH3OH (I) − CH3(CH2)11OSO3 Na + (III) Concentration 2. Let us consider, 1.0 L of liquid water is converted into steam . Volume of H2O (l) = 1L, mass = 1000 g 1000 Volume of 1000 g steam = ⇒ cm 3 0.0006 1000 cm 3 steam = 1000 cm 3 Q Volume of molecules in 0.0006 ∴ Volume of molecules in 1000 1000 cm 3 steam = × 0.0006 × 1000 = 0.60 cm 3 1000 3. Critical temperature is directly proportional to intermolecular force of attraction. H2O is a polar molecule, has greater intermolecular force of attraction than O2, hence higher critical temperature. 4. At liquid-vapour equilibrium at boiling point, molecules in two phase posses the same kinetic energy. 6 Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium Topic 1 Chemical Equilibrium Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) - 1. Consider the following reaction: N 2O4 ( g ) q 2NO2 ( g ); ∆H ° = + 58 kJ For each of the following cases (A , B ), the direction in which the equilibrium shifts is (2020 Main, 5 Sep I) (A) temperature is decreased. (B) pressure is increased by adding N 2 at constant T. (a) (A) towards product, (B) towards reactant (b) (A) towards reactant, (B) no change (d) (A) towards product, (B) no change 2. The incorrect match in the following is (a) 10 25 (2019 Main, 12 April II) (b) ∆G ° = 0, K = 1 (d) ∆G ° < 0, K < 1 c c c c 2SO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) → 2SO3 ( g ), ∆H = − 57.2 kJ mol −1 and K c = 1.7 × 1016 . Which of the following statement is incorrect? (2019 Main, 10 April II) (a) The equilibrium constant decreases as the temperature increases (b) The addition of inert gas at constant volume will not affect the equilibrium constant (c) The equilibrium will shift in forward direction as the pressure increases (d) The equilibrium constant is large suggestive of reaction going to completion and so no catalyst is required 5. For the following reactions, equilibrium constants are given : 52 - SO (g ); K = 10 2S( s ) + 3O ( g ) - 2SO ( g ); K = 10 3 2 - 2C + D, 1 (a) 4 (c) 1 (b) 16 (d) 4 - B (g ) + C(g ); K D ( s ) - C( g ) + E ( g ); K A (s ) p1 p2 = x atm2 = y atm2 The total pressure when both the solids dissociate simultaneously is (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) 4. For the reaction, 2 (d) 10181 K 7. Two solids dissociate as follows: 2CO(g ) (a) 2C(s) + O2 (g ) H2 (g ) + I2 (g ) (b) 2HI(g ) (c) NO2 (g ) + SO2 (g ) NO(g ) + SO3 (g ) (d) 2NO(g ) N2 (g ) + O2 (g ) 1 (c) 10 the initial concentration of B was 1.5 times of the concentration of A, but the equilibrium concentrations of A and B were found to be equal. The equilibrium constant (K ) for the aforesaid chemical reaction is (2019 Main, 12 April II) 2 (2019 Main, 8 April II) 154 6. In a chemical reaction, A + 2B 3. In which one of the following equilibria, K p ≠ K c ? S( s ) + O2 ( g ) (b) 10 77 (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) (c) (A) towards reactant, (B) towards product (a) ∆G ° < 0, K > 1 (c) ∆G ° > 0, K < 1 The equilibrium constant for the reaction, 2SO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) 2SO3 ( g ) is 129 (a) x + y atm (b) x 2 + y2 atm (c) (x + y) atm (d) 2( x + y ) atm 8. Consider the reaction, N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) =2NH (g ) 3 The equilibrium constant of the above reaction is K p . If pure ammonia is left to dissociate, the partial pressure of ammonia at equilibrium is given by (Assume that (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) pNH 3 < < p total at equilibrium) (a) (c) 33/ 2 K p1/ 2P 2 4 Kp (b) 1/ 2 2 16 P (d) 33/ 2 K p1/ 2P 2 16 Kp 1/ 2 2 P 4 9. 5.1 g NH4 SH is introduced in 3.0 L evacuated flask at 327°C. 30% of the solid NH4 SH decomposed to NH3 and H2 S as gases. The K p of the reaction at 327° C is Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 85 (R = 0.082 atm mol −1 K −1 , molar mass of S = 32 g mol −1 , −1 molar mass of N = 14 g mol ) (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) (a) 0. 242 × 10−4 atm 2 (b) 0. 242 atm 2 (c) 4 . 9 × 10−3 atm 2 (d) 1 × 10−4 atm 2 10. The values of Kp KC then the value of x is (assuming ideality) (a) 1, 24.62 dm 3 atm mol −1 , 606.0 dm 6 atm 2 mol −2 (c) 24.62 dm 3 atm mol −1, 606.0 dm6 atm −2 mol 2, 1.65 × 10−3 dm −6 atm −2 mol 2 (d) 1, 4.1 × 10−2 dm −3atm −1 mol, 606 dm6 atm 2 mol −2 11. Consider the following reversible chemical reactions, K1 K2 2 2 The relation between K 1 and K 2 is (a) K 2 = K13 (c) K 2 = K1− 3 …(i) …(ii) (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) (b) K 1K 2 = 3 1 (d) K 1K 2 = 3 12. An aqueous solution contains 0.10 M H2S and 0.20 M HCl. If the equilibrium constants for the formation of HS− from H2S is 10 . × 10−7 and that of S2− from HS− ions is 12 . × 10−13 then the concentration of S2− ions in aqueous solution is : (a) 5 × 10−8 M −21 (c) 6 × 10 M (b) 3 × 10−20 M −19 (d) 5 × 10 (2018 Main) M 13. The equilibrium constant at 298 K for a reaction, A + B q C + D is 100. If the initial concentrations of all the four species were 1 M each, then equilibrium concentration of D (in mol L−1 ) will be (2016 Main) (a) 0.818 (c) 1.182 (b) 1.818 (d) 0.182 14. The standard Gibbs energy change at 300 K for the reaction, B + C is 2494. 2 J. At a given time, the composition 1 1 of the reaction mixture is [A]= , [ B ] = 2 and [C ] = . The 2 2 reaction proceeds in the (R = 8.314JK / mol, e = 2.718) (2015, Main) 2A a (a) forward direction because Q > K c (b) reverse direction because Q > K c (c) forward direction because Q < K c (d) reverse direction because Q < K c (d) CO2 , H2CO3 17. N2 + 3H2 r 2NH3 Which is correct statement if N2 is added at equilibrium condition? (2006, 3M) (b) 1, 24.62 dm 3 atm mol −1, 1.65 × 10−3 dm −6 atm −2 mol 2 -2 AB (g ) 6 AB ( g ) - 3 A ( g ) + 3B ( g ) (2006 Main) (c) HCO−3 , CO23− 3 (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) A2 ( g ) + B2 ( g ) 16. The species present in solution when CO2 is dissolved in (b) H2CO3 , CO2− 3 2 2 (d) 1 (a) CO2 , H2CO3 , HCO3− , CO32− =2NO(g ) =2NO (g ) N (g ) + 3H (g ) =2NH (g ) 2 (2014 Main) 1 (c) 2 water are −1 respectively (At 300 K, RT = 24.62 dm atm mol ) N 2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) N 2O4 ( g ) 1 (b) − 2 (a) − 1 for the following reactions at 300 K are, 3 1 SO3 ( g ) 2 if K p = K C ( RT )x where, the symbols have usual meaning, 15. For the reaction, SO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) q (a) The equilibrium will shift to forward direction because according to IInd law of thermodynamics, the entropy must increases in the direction of spontaneous reaction (b) The condition for equilibrium is G(N2) + 3G(H2) = 2G(NH3) where, G is Gibbs free energy per mole of the gaseous species measured at that partial pressure. The condition of equilibrium is unaffected by the use of catalyst, which increases the rate of both the forward and backward reactions to the same extent (c) The catalyst will increase the rate of forward reaction by α and that of backward reaction by β (d) Catalyst will not alter the rate of either of the reaction 18. Ag + + NH3 s [Ag(NH3 )]+ ; K 1 = 3. 5 × 10−3 [Ag (NH3 )]+ + NH3 s [Ag (NH3 )2 ]+ ; K 2 = 1.7 ×10−3 then the formation constant of [Ag(NH3 )2 ]+ is (a) 6.08 × 10 −6 (b) 6.08 × 10 −9 (d) None of these (c) 6.08 × 10 (2006, 3M) 6 19. Consider the following equilibrium in a closed container N2 O4 ( g ) r 2NO2 ( g ) At a fixed temperature, the volume of the reaction container is halved. For this change, which of the following statements hold true regarding the equilibrium constant ( K p ) and degree of dissociation (α ) ? (2002, 3M) (a) Neither K p nor α changes (b) Both K p and α change (c) K p changes but α does not change (d) K p does not change but α changes 20. At constant temperature, the equilibrium constant ( K p ) for the decomposition reaction, N2 O4 r 2NO2 , is expressed 4 x2 p by K p = , where, p = pressure, x = extent of (1 − x2 ) decomposition. Which one of the following statement is true? (2001, 1M) 86 Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium (a) K p increases with increase of p (b) K p increases with increase of x (c) K p increases with decrease of x (d) K p remains constant with change in p and x (c) concentration of NH3 does not change with pressure (d) concentration of hydrogen is less than that of nitrogen 28. For the reaction, H2 ( g ) + I2 ( g ) r 2HI( g ) 21. When two reactants, A and B are mixed to give products, C and D, the reaction quotient, (Q ) at the initial stages of the reaction (2000) (b) decreases with time (d) increases with time 22. For the reversible reaction, N2 ( g ) + 3H2 ( g ) r 2NH3 ( g ) at 500° C , the value of K p is 1.44 × 10–5 when partial pressure is measured in atmosphere. The corresponding value of K c with concentration in mol/L is (2000, S, 1M) 1.44 × 10−5 (0.082 × 500)−2 (b) 1.44 × 10−5 (8.314 × 773)−2 (c) 1.44 × 10−5 (0.082 × 773)2 (d) 1.44 × 10–5 (0.082 × 773)−2 Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) 29. For a reaction, A P, the plots of [A] and [P] with time at temperatures T1 and T2 are given below. 10 5 T2 T1 23. For the chemical reaction, 3 X ( g ) + Y ( g ) r X 3Y ( g ) the amount of X 3Y at equilibrium is affected by (1999, 2M) 24. For the reaction , CO( g ) + H2 O( g ) r CO2 ( g ) + H2 ( g ) , at a given temperature, the equilibrium amount of CO2 ( g ) can be increased by (1998) Time If T2 > T1 , the correct statement(s) is are (Assume ∆H s and ∆S s are independent of temperature and ratio of ln K at T1 to ln K at T2 is greater than T2 / T1 . Here H , S , G and K are enthalpy, entropy, Gibbs energy and equilibrium constant, respectively.) (2018 Adv.) (a) ∆H s < 0, ∆S s < 0 (b) ∆Gs < 0, ∆H s > 0 (c) ∆Gs < 0, ∆S s < 0 (d) ∆Gs < 0, ∆S s > 0 30. The % yield of ammonia as a function of time in the reaction, N2( g )+ 3H2( g ) w 2 NH3( g ); ∆H < 0 % yield 25. One mole of N2 O4 ( g ) at 300 K is kept in a closed container under one atmosphere. It is heated to 600 K when 20% by mass of N2 O4 ( g ) decomposes to NO2 (g). The resultant pressure is (1996, 1M) (2015 Adv.) (d) 1.0 atm If this reaction is conducted at ( p , T1 ), with T2 > T1 the % yield by of ammonia as a function of time is represented by (1985, 1M) (a) Pb(NO3 )2 (aq) + 2NaI (aq) = PbI2 (s) + 2NaNO3 (aq) (b) AgNO3 (aq) + HCl (aq) = AgCl (s) + HNO3 (aq) (c) 2Na (s) + 2H2O (l ) = 2NaOH (aq) + H2 (g ) (d) KNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) = KCl (aq) + NaNO3 (aq) (a) T2 T1 (b) Time T1 T2 (d) % yield % yield (c) T2 Time 27. Pure ammonia is placed in a vessel at a temperature where its dissociation constant (α ) is appreciable. At equilibrium, N2 + 3H2 s 2NH3 (1984, 1M) T1 % yield 26. An example of a reversible reaction is T1 Time % yield (c) 2.0 atm 5 at( p, T1 ) is given below. (a) adding a suitable catalyst (b) adding an inert gas (c) decreasing the volume of the container (d) increasing the amount of CO(g ) (b) 2.4 atm T1 T2 Time (a) temperature and pressure (b) temperature only (c) pressure only (d) temperature, pressure and catalyst (a) 1.2 atm - 10 [A]/(mol L–1) (a) (1981, 1M) (a) total pressure (b) catalyst (c) the amount of H2 and I2 present (d) temperature [P]/(mol L–1) (a) is zero (c) is independent of time the equilibrium constant K p changes with T2 T1 (a) K p does not change significantly with pressure (b) α does not change with pressure Time Time Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 87 31. The initial rate of hydrolysis of methyl acetate (1 M) by a weak acid (HA, 1M) is 1/100th of that of a strong acid (2013 Adv.) (HX, 1M), at 25°C. The K a (HA) is (a) 1 × 10−4 (b) 1 × 10−5 (c) 1 × 10−6 (d) 1 × 10−3 I 0 32. The equilibrium 2 Cu r Cu + Cu (c) SCN− (d) CN− forward reaction at constant temperature is favoured by (1991, 1M) (a) introducing an inert gas at constant volume (b) introducing chlorine gas at constant volume (c) introducing an inert gas at constant pressure (d) increasing the volume of the container (e) introducing PCl 5 at constant volume 40. The rate of an exothermic reaction increases with increasing temperature. (1993, 1M) (1987, 1M) 42. If equilibrium constant for the reaction, A2 + B2 r 2 AB, is K, then for the backward reaction 1 1 1 AB r A2 + B2 , the equilibrium constant is . 2 2 K (1984, 1M) 43. When a liquid and its vapour are at equilibrium and the pressure is suddenly decreased, cooling occurs. 34. The equilibrium SO2 Cl 2 ( g ) r SO2 ( g ) + Cl 2 ( g ) is attained at 25° C in a closed container and an inert gas, helium is introduced. Which of the following statements are correct? (1989, 1M) (a) Concentration of SO2 ,Cl 2 and SO2Cl 2 change (b) More chlorine is formed (c) Concentration of SO2 is reduced (d) None of the above 35. When NaNO3 is heated in a closed vessel, oxygen is liberated and NaNO2 is left behind. At equilibrium, (1994, 1M) True/False 41. Catalyst makes a reaction more exothermic. 33. For the reaction, PCl 5 ( g ) r PCl 3 ( g ) + Cl 2 ( g ) the (1986, 1M) (a) addition of NaNO2 favours reverse reaction (b) addition of NaNO3 favours forward reaction (c) increasing temperature favours forward reaction (d) increasing pressure favours reverse reaction 36 For the gas phase reaction, ( ∆H = −32.7 kcal) C2 H4 + H2 r C2 H6 carried out in a vessel, the equilibrium concentration of C2 H4 can be increased by (1984, 1M) (a) increasing the temperature (b) decreasing the pressure (c) removing some H2 (1984, 1M) Subjective Questions 44. (a) In the following equilibrium N2O4 (g ) r 2NO2 (g ) when 5 moles of each are taken, the temperature is kept at 298 K the total pressure was found to be 20 bar. Given that ∆G °f (N2O4 ) = 100 kJ, ∆G °f (NO2 ) = 50 kJ (i) Find ∆G of the reaction. (ii) The direction of the reaction in which the equilibrium shifts. (b) A graph is plotted for a real gas which follows van der Waals’ equation with pVm taken on Y-axis and p on X-axis. Find the (2004, 4M) intercept of the line where Vm is molar volume. 45. When 3.06 g of solid NH4 SH is introduced into a two litre evacuated flask at 27° C, 30% of the solid decomposes into gaseous ammonia and hydrogen sulphide. (i) Calculate K c and K p for the reaction at 27°C. (ii) What would happen to the equilibrium when more solid NH4SH is introduced into the flask? (1999, 7M) 46. (a) The degree of dissociation is 0.4 at 400 K and 1.0 atm for the gaseous reaction PCl 5 r PCl 3 + Cl 2. Assuming ideal behaviour of all the gases, calculate the density of equilibrium mixture at 400 K and 1.0 atm (relative atomic mass of P = 31.0 and Cl = 35.5). (b) Given, [Ag(NH3 )+2 ] r Ag+ + 2NH3 , K c = 6.2 × 10−8 and K sp of AgCl (d) adding some C2H6 = 1.8 × 10−10 at 298 K. Fill in the Blanks 37. For a gaseous reaction 2B → A, the equilibrium constant K p is …… to/than K c . (1996, 1M) equilibrium constant K p and K c are related by ..... II (2011) (b) Cl − ten-fold increase in pressure on the reaction, N2 ( g ) + 3H2 ( g ) r 2NH3 ( g ) at equilibrium, results in .............. in K p . 39. For a given reversible reaction at a fixed temperature, in aqueous medium at 25° C shifts towards the left in the presence of (a) NO −3 38. A (1997 C, 1M) If ammonia is added to a water solution containing excess of AgCl(s) only. Calculate the concentration of the complex in 1.0 M aqueous ammonia. (1998, 3M+5M) 88 Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 53. The equilibrium constant of the reaction 47. The progress of reaction, A2 ( g ) + B2 ( g ) r 2 AB ( g ) at 100°C is 50. If a one litre flask containing one mole of A2 is connected to a two litre flask containing two moles of B2 , how many moles of AB will be formed at 373 K? (1985, 4M) (Concentration/mol L 1 ) A r nB with time, is represented in fig. use given below. 0.5 54. One mole of N2 and 3 moles of PCl 5 are placed in a 100 L vessel heated to 227°C. The equilibrium pressure is 2.05 atm. Assuming ideal behaviour, calculate the degree of dissociation for PCl 5 and K p for the reaction, 0.3 0.1 PCl 5 ( g ) r PCl 3 ( g ) + Cl 2 ( g ) 1 5 3 Time/h 7 55. One mole of nitrogen is mixed with three moles of hydrogen in a four litre container. If 0.25 per cent of nitrogen is converted to ammonia by the following reaction Determine : (i) the value of n (ii) the equilibrium constant, K and (iii) the initial rate of conversion of A. (1984, 6M) N2 ( g ) + 3H2 ( g ) r 2NH3 ( g ), then (1994, 3M) 48. 0.15 mole of CO taken in a 2.5 L flask is maintained at 750 K along with a catalyst so that the following reaction can take place: CO ( g ) + 2H2 ( g ) r CH3 OH( g ) Hydrogen is introduced until the total pressure of the system is 8.5 atm at equilibrium and 0.08 mole of methanol is formed. Calculate (i) K p and K c and (ii) the final pressure if the same amount of CO and H2 as before are used, but with no catalyst so that the reaction does not take place. (1993, 5M) 49. For the reaction, CO( g ) + 2H2 ( g ) r CH3 OH( g ) hydrogen gas is introduced into a five litre flask at 327° C, containing 0.2 mole of CO( g ) and a catalyst, until the pressure is 4.92 atm. At this point 0.1 mole of CH3 OH( g ) is formed. Calculate the equilibrium constant, K p and K c . (1990, 5M) 50. The equilibrium constant K p of the reaction, 2SO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) r 2SO3 ( g ) is 900 atm at 800 K. A mixture containing SO3 and O2 having initial pressure of 1 and 2 atm respectively is heated at constant volume to equilibrate. Calculate the partial pressure of each gas at 800 K. (1989, 3M) 51. N2 O4 is 25% dissociated at 37° C and one atmosphere pressure. Calculate (i) K p and (ii) the percentage dissociation at 0.1 atm and 37° C. (1988, 4M) 52. At a certain temperature, equilibrium constant ( K c ) is 16 for the reaction; SO2 ( g ) + NO2 ( g ) r SO3 ( g ) + NO( g ) If we take one mole each of all the four gases in a one litre container, what would be the equilibrium concentrations of NO and NO2 ? (1987, 5M) calculate the equilibrium constant, K c in concentration units. What will be the value of K c for the following equilibrium? 1 3 (1981, 4M) N2 ( g ) + H2 ( g ) r NH3 ( g ) 2 2 Passage Based Questions Thermal decomposition of gaseous X 2 to gaseous X at 298 K takes place according to the following equation: X 2 (g ) s 2X (g ) The standard reaction Gibbs energy, ∆ r G°, of this reaction is positive. At the start of the reaction, there is one mole of X 2 and no X . As the reaction proceeds, the number of moles of X formed is given by β. Thus, βequilibrium is the number of moles of X formed at equilibrium. The reaction is carried out at a constant total pressure of 2 bar. Consider the gases to behave ideally. (Given, R = 0.083 L bar K −1 mol −1 ) 56. The equilibrium constant K p for this reaction at 298 K, in terms of β equilibrium is (a) (c) 8 β 2equilibrium 2 − β equilibrium 4 β 2equilibrium 2 − β equilibrium (2016 Adv.) (b) 8 β 2equilibrium 4 − β 2equilibrium (d) 4 β 2equilibrium 4 − β 2equilibrium 57. The incorrect statement among the following for this reaction, is (2016 Adv.) (a) Decrease in the total pressure will result in the formation of more moles of gaseous X (b) At the start of the reaction, dissociation of gaseous X 2 takes place spontaneously (c) β equilibrium = 0.7 (d) KC < 1 Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 89 Topic 2 Ionic Equilibrium Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1/ 6 1. 100 mL of 0.1M HCl is taken is a beaker and to it 100 mL of Ksp (a) S = 144 Ksp (b) S = 6912 0.1 M NaOH is added in steps of 2 mL and the pH continuously measured. Which of the following graphs correctly depicts the change in pH? (2020 Main, 3 Sep II) Ksp (c) S = 929 1/ 9 Ksp (d) S = 216 1/ 7 1/ 7 7. If K sp of Ag 2 CO3 is 8 × 10− 12 , the molar solubility of (a) pH 7 Ag 2 CO3 in 0.1 M AgNO3 is (b) pH 7 vol. of NaOH vol. of NaOH (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) (a) 8 × 10− 12 M (b) 8 × 10− 13 M (c) 8 × 10− 10 M (d) 8 × 10− 11 M 8. 20 mL of 0.1 M H2 SO4 solution is added to 30 mL of 0.2 M NH4 OH solution. The pH of the resultant mixture is [pK b of (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) NH4 OH = 4.7] (c) pH 7 (a) 9.3 (c) 9.0 (d) pH 7 (b) 5.0 (d) 5.2 9. An aqueous solution contains an unknown concentration of vol. of NaOH vol. of NaOH 2. The molar solubility of Cd (OH)2 is 184 . × 10−5 m in water. The expected solubility of Cd(OH)2 in a buffer solution of (2019 Main, 12 April II) pH = 12 is (a) 184 . × 10 −9 M (c) 6.23 × 10−11 M 2.49 (b) × 10−9 M 184 . (d) 2.49 × 10−10 M 3. What is the molar solubility of Al(OH)3 in 0.2 M NaOH solution? Given that, solubility product of Al(OH)3 = 2.4 × 10−24 (2019 Main, 12 April II) (a) 3 × 10−19 (c) 3 × 10−22 (b) 12 × 10−21 (d) 12 × 10−23 4. The pH of a 0.02 M NH4 Cl solution will be [Given K b (NH4 OH) = 10−5 and log 2 = 0.301] (a) 4.65 (c) 5.35 (2019 Main, 10 April II) −9 (a) 5 × 10 −9 M(b) 2 × 10 (c) 11 . × 10−9 M M (d) 10 . × 10−10 M 10. Which of the following are Lewis acids? (a) PH3 and BCl 3 (c) PH3 and SiCl 4 (2018 Main) (2018 Main) (b) AlCl 3 and SiCl 4 (d) BCl 3 and AlCl 3 11. Which of the following salts is the most basic in aqueous solution? (a) Al(CN)3 (c) FeCl 3 (2018 Main) (b) CH3COOK (d) Pb(CH3COO)2 12. pK a of a weak acid (HA) and pK b of a weak base (BOH) are (2017 Main) I. The pH of a mixture containing 400 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4 and 400 mL of 0.1 M NaOH will be approximately 1.3. II. Ionic product of water is temperature dependent. III. A monobasic acid with K a = 10−5 has a pH = 5. The degree of dissociation of this acid is 50%. IV. The Le-Chatelier’s principle is not applicable to common-ion effect. (a) I, II and IV (c) I and II original concentration of Ba 2+ ? 3.2 and 3.4, respectively. The pH of their salt (AB) solution is (b) 2.65 (d) 4.35 5. Consider the following statements. The correct statements are Ba2 + . When 50 mL of a 1 M solution of Na2SO4 is added, BaSO4 just begins to precipitate. The final volume is 500 mL. The solubility product of BaSO4 is 1 × 10−10 . What is the (2019 Main, 10 April I) (b) II and III (d) I, II and III 6. If solubility product of Zr3 (PO4 )4 is denoted by K sp and its molar solubility is denoted by S , then which of the following relation between S and K sp is correct? (2019 Main, 8 April I) (a) 7.2 (c) 7.0 (b) 6.9 (d) 1.0 13. How many litres of water must be added to 1 L of an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of 1 to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2? (2013 Main) (a) 0.1 L (c) 2.0 L (b) 0.9 L (d) 9.0 L 14. Solubility product constant ( K sp ) of salts of types MX , MX 2 and M 3 X at temperature ‘T ’ are 4.0 × 10−8 , 3.2 × 10−14 and 2.7 × 10−15 , respectively. Solubilities (mol dm− 3 ) of the salts at temperature ‘T ’ are in the order (2008, 3M) (a) MX > MX 2 > M 3 X (b) M 3 X > MX 2 > MX (c) MX 2 > M 3 X > MX (d) MX > M 3 X > MX 2 90 Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 15. 2.5 mL of 2/5 M weak monoacidic base (K b = 1 × 10− 12 at 25°C) is titrated with 2/15 M HCl in water at 25°C. The concentration of H+ at equivalence point is (K w = 1 × 10− 14 at 25°C) (2008, 3M) (a) 3.7 × 10 (c) 3.2 × 10 − 13 −2 (d) 2.7 × 10 M M (b) 10−5 M (Ag+ ) and 10−5 M (Cl − ) M (c) 10−6 M (Ag+ ) and 10−6 M (Cl − ) HCl and the solution is diluted to one litre, resulting hydrogen ion concentration is (2005, 1M) (a) 1.6 × 10− 11 (b) 8 × 10− 11 (c) 5 × 10− 5 (d) 8 × 10− 2 17. HX is a weak acid ( K a = 10−5 ). It forms a salt NaX (0.1M) on reacting with caustic soda. The degree of hydrolysis of NaX is (2004, 1M) (b) 0.0001% (c) 0.1% (d) 0.5% 18. A solution which is 10−3 M each in Mn 2+ , Fe2+ , Zn 2+ and Hg 2+ is treated with 10−16 M sulphide ion. If K sp of MnS, FeS, ZnS and HgS are 10−15 , 10−23 , 10−20 and 10−54 respectively, which one will precipitate first? (2003, 1M) (a) FeS (b) MgS (c) HgS (d) ZnS 19. Identify the correct order of solubility of Na 2 S, CuS and ZnS in aqueous medium. (a) CuS > ZnS > Na 2S (c) Na 2S > CuS > ZnS (2002) (b) ZnS > Na 2S > CuS (d) Na 2S > ZnS > CuS 20. For a sparingly soluble salt A p Bq , the relationship of its solubility product ( Ls ) with its solubility (S) is (a) Ls = S p + q ⋅ pp ⋅ qq (b) Ls = S p + q ⋅ pq ⋅ qp (c) Ls = S (d) Ls = S pq ⋅ p ⋅q p q pq ⋅ ( p. q) (2001, 1M) the order (1999, 2M) 23. Amongst the following hydroxides, the one which has the lowest value of K sp at ordinary temperature (about 25° C) is (1990, 1M) (d) Be(OH)2 24. Which of the following is the strongest acid? (d) SO2 (OH) 2 27. The compound that is not a Lewis acid is (a) BF3 (b) AlCl 3 28. The conjugate acid of (a) NH3 (c) BeCl 2 NH–2 (1985, 1M) (d) SnCl 4 is (1985, 1M) (c) NH+4 (b) NH2OH (d) N2H4 29. The best indicator for detection of end point in titration of a weak acid and a strong base is (1985, 1M) (a) methyl orange (3 to 4) (b) methyl red (5 to 6) (c) bromothymol blue (6 to 7.5) (d) phenolphthalein (8 to 9.6) 30. A certain weak acid has a dissociation constant of 1.0 × 10−4 . The equilibrium constant for its reaction with a strong base is −4 (a) 1.0 × 10 −10 10 (c) 1.0 × 10 (b) 1.0 × 10 (d) 1.0 × 1014 31. A certain buffer solution contains equal concentration of X − and HX. The K b for X − is 10−10 . The pH of the buffer is (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 14 equal volumes of which of the following are mixed? (a) 100 mL of (M/10) HCl + 100 mL of (M/10) NaOH (b) 55 mL of (M/10) HCl + 45 mL of (M/10) NaOH (c) 10 mL of (M/10) HCl + 90 mL of (M/10) NaOH (d) 75 mL of (M/5) HCl + 25 mL of (M/5) NaOH (c) SO(OH)2 (a) unionised in the small intestine and in the stomach (b) completely ionised in the small intestine and in the stomach (c) ionised in the stomach and almost unionised in the small intestine (d) ionised in the small intestine and almost unionised in the stomach 32. The precipitate of CaF2 , ( K sp = 1.7 × 10−10 ) is obtained, when (1992, 1M) (b) ClO2 (OH) gastric juice in human stomach is about 2-3 and the pH in the small intestine is about 8. Aspirin will be (1988, 1M) (a) 4 22. Which of the following solutions will have pH close to 1.0 ? (a) ClO3 (OH) 26. The pK a of acetyl salicylic acid (aspirin) is 3.5. The pH of (1984, 1M) (a) NaCl < NH4Cl < NaCN < HCl (b) HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN (c) NaCN < NH4Cl < NaCl < HCl (d) HCl < NaCl < NaCN < NH4Cl (c) Ba(OH)2 (d) 10−10 M (Ag+ ) and 10−10 M (Cl − ) (1984, 1M) (p + q) 21. The pH of 0.1 M solution of the following salts increases in (a) Mg(OH)2 (b) Ca(OH)2 (a) 10−4 M (Ag+ ) and 10−4 M (Cl − ) −2 16. CH3 NH2 (0.1 mole, K b = 5 × 10− 4 ) is added to 0.08 mole of (a) 0.01% precipitation of AgCl ( K sp = 1.8 × 10−10 ) will occur only with (1988, 1M) −7 (b) 3.2 × 10 M 25. When equal volumes of the following solutions are mixed, (1989, 1M) (1982, 1M) (a) 10 −4 M Ca 2+ −4 + 10 MF − (c) 10−5 M Ca 2+ + 10−3 M F− (b) 10 −2 M Ca 2+ + 10−3 M F− (d) 10−3 M Ca 2+ + 10−5 M F− 33. An acidic buffer solution can be prepared by mixing the solution of (1981, 1M) (a) acetate and acetic acid (b) ammonium chloride and ammonium hydroxide (c) sulphuric acid and sodium sulphate (d) sodium chloride and sodium hydroxide 34. Of the given anions, the strongest base is (a) ClO− (b) ClO−2 (c) ClO−3 (1981, 1M) (d) ClO−4 35. At 90°C, pure water has [H3 O+ ] as 10−6 mol L−1 . What is the value of K w at 90°C ? (a) 10−6 (b) 10−12 (1981, 1M) (c) 10−14 (d) 10−8 Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 91 36. The pH of 10−8 M solution of HCl in water is (a) 8 (b) −8 (c) between 7 and 8 (d) between 6 and 7 (1981, 1M) H 2S. What is the minimum molar concentration (M) of H + required to prevent the precipitation of ZnS? Use K sp ( ZnS) = 1. 25 × 10−22 Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) mol/L) of Ag 2 CrO4 in a 0.1 M AgNO3 solution is (b) 1.1 × 10−10 (c) 1.1 × 10−12 (d) 1.1 × 10−9 (2013 Adv.) CH3 COONa of identical concentrations are provided. The pair(s) of solutions which form a buffer upon mixing is(are) HNO3 and CH3COOH KOH and CH3COONa HNO3 and CH3COONa CH3COOH and CH3COONa (2010) (1999, 3M) (b) sodium acetate and HCl in water (c) ammonia and ammonium chloride in water (d) ammonia and sodium hydroxide in water (1998, 2M) (c) Autoprotolysis constant of water increases with temperature (d) When a solution of a weak monoprotic acid is titrated against 1 a strong base, at half-neutralisation point pH = pK a 2 Numerical Answer Type Questions 41. A solution of 0.1 M weak base (B) is titrated with 0.1 M of a strong acid (HA). The variation of pH of the solution with the volume of HA added is shown in the figure below. What is the pK b of the base? The neutralisation reaction is given by 12 10 pH 8 0.06 M Fe2 + ( aq ) and 0. 2 M S2 − ( aq ) solutions are mixed, the equilibrium concentration of Fe2 + ( aq ) is found by Y × 10− 17 M. The value of Y is ........... (2019 Adv.) When equal volumes of 44. The solubility of a salt of weak acid (AB) at pH 3 is ionisation constant of HB ( K a ) = 1 × 10−8 Match the Column (2020 Adv.) Note Degree of dissociation (α ) of weak acid and weak base is << 1; degree of hydrolysis of salt << 1; [H+ ] represents the concentration of H+ ions List-I (10 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 20 mL of 0.1 M acetic acid) diluted to 60 mL Q. (20 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 20 mL of 0.1 M acetic acid) diluted to 80 mL List-II 1. the value of [H+ ] does not change on dilution 2. the value of [H+ ] changes to half of its initial value on dilution R. (20 mL of 0.1M HCl + 20 3. mL of 0.1 M ammonia solution) diluted to 80 mL the value of [H+ ] changes to two times of its initial value on dilution. S. 4. 10 mL saturated solution of Ni(OH)2 in equilibrium with exces solid Ni(OH)2 is diluted to 20 mL (solid Ni(OH)2 is still present after dilution). 5. the value of [H+ ] changes 1 times of its initial to 2 value on dilution P. 6 4 (2018 Adv.) are given in List-I. The effects of dilution of the solution on [H + ] are given in List-II. (b) The conjugate base of H2PO4− is HPO2− 4 B + HA → BH+ + A − . FeS ( s ) - 45. Dilution processes of different aqueous solutions, with water, 40. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct? (a) The pH of 1.0 × 10−8 M solution of HCl is 8 K is 16 . × 1017 . Y × 10−3 mol L−1 . The value of Y is__ (Given that the value of solubility product of AB ( K sp ) = 2 × 10−10 and the value of 39. A buffer solution can be prepared from a mixture of (a) sodium acetate and acetic acid in water (2020 Adv.) 43. For the following reaction, the equilibrium constant K c at 298 Fe2 + ( aq ) + S2 − ( aq ) 38. Aqueous solutions of HNO3 KOH, CH3 COOH and (a) (b) (c) (d) and overall dissociation constant of H2 S, K net = K 1 K 2 = 1 × 10−21 . 37. The K sp of Ag 2 CrO4 is 1.1 × 10−12 at 298 K. The solubility (in (a) 1.1 × 10−11 42. An acidified solution of 0.05 M Zn 2+ is saturated with 0.1 M the value of [H+ ] changes to 2 times of its initial value on dilution Match each process given in List-I with one or more effect(s) in List-II. The correct option is (2018 Adv.) 2 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 Volume of HA (mL) (a) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 3; S → 1 (b) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 3 (c) P → 1; Q → 4; R → 5; S → 3 (d) P → 1; Q → 5; R → 4; S → 1 92 Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium Fill in the Blanks 46. In the reaction, I− + I2 → I3− , the Lewis acid is ............. (1997, 1M) 47. Silver chloride is sparingly soluble in water because its lattice energy is greater than .............. energy. (1987, 1M) 48. An element which can exist as a positive ion in acidic solution and also as a negative ion in basic solution is said to be................... (1984, 1M) 49. The conjugate base of HSO–4 in aqueous solution is …… (1982, 1M) (ii) If 6 g of NaOH is added to the above solution, determine the final pH (assuming there is no change in volume on mixing, K a of acetic acid is 1.75 × 10−5 mol/L. (1984, 1M) 59. The average concentration of SO2 in the atmosphere over a city on a certain day is 10 ppm, when the average temperature is 298 K. Given that the solubility of SO2 in water at 298 K is 1.3653 mol/L and pK a of H2 SO3 is 1.92, estimate the pH of rain on that day. (2000, 5M) 60. The solubility of Pb(OH)2 in water is 6.7 × 10−6 M. Calculate the solubility of Pb(OH)2 in a buffer solution of pH = 8. (1999, 4M) True/False 50. The following species are in increasing order of their acidic property : ZnO, Na 2 O2 , P2 O5 , MgO. (1985, 1/2M) 51. Solubility of sodium hydroxide increases with increase in temperature. (1985, 1/2M) 52. Aluminium chloride ( AlCl 3 ) is a Lewis acid because it can donate electrons. (1982, 1M) 61. (a) Find the solubility product of a saturated solution of Ag2CrO4 in water at 298 K if the emf of the cell Ag|Ag+ (saturated. Ag2CrO4 solution.) || Ag+ (0.1 M) | Ag is 0.164 V at 298 K. (1998, 6M) (b) What will be the resultant pH when 200 mL of an aqueous solution of HCl (pH = 2.0) is mixed with 300 mL of an aqueous solution of NaOH (pH = 12.0) ? (1998, 6M) 62. A sample of AgCl was treated with 5.00 mL of 1.5 M Integer Answer Type Questions 53. The molar conductivity of a solution of a weak acid HX (0.01 M) is 10 times smaller than the molar conductivity of a solution of a weak acid HY (0.10 M). If λ 0X − ≈ λ 0Y − , the difference in their pK a values, pK a (HX ) − pK a (HY ), is (consider degree of ionisation of both acids to be <<1). (2015 Adv.) 54. In 1 L saturated solution of AgCl [K sp ( AgCl ) = 1.6 × 10−10 ], 0.1 mole of CuCl [K sp ( CuCl )= 1.0 × 10−6 ] is added. The Na 2 CO3 solution to give Ag 2 CO3 . The remaining solution contained 0.0026 g of Cl – ions per litre. Calculate the solubility product of AgCl. [K sp (Ag 2 CO3 ) = 8.2 × 10−12 ] (1997, 5M) 63. An acid type indicator, HIn differs in colour from its conjugate base (In − ). The human eye is sensitive to colour differences only when the ratio [ In – ] / [ HIn ] is greater than 10 or smaller than 0.1. What should be the minimum change in the pH of the solution to observe a complete colour change? ( K a = 1.0 × 10−5 ) (1997, 2M) resultant concentration of Ag + in the solution is 1.6 × 10− x . The value of ‘x’ is (2011) 64. The ionisation constant of NH+4 in water is 5.6 × 10−10 at 55. Amongst the following, the total number of compounds 25° C. The rate constant for the reaction of NH+4 and OH− to whose aqueous solution turns red litmus paper blue is form NH3 and H2 O at 25° C is 3.4 × 1010 L/mol/s. Calculate the rate constant per proton transfer from water to NH3 . KCN Zn(NO3 )2 LiCN K 2SO4 FeCl 3 (NH4 )2 C2O4 K 2CO3 NaCl NH4NO3 (2010) 56. The dissociation constant of a substituted benzoic acid at 25°C is 1.0 × 10− 4 . The pH of 0.01 M solution of its sodium (2009) 57. 0.1 M of HA is titrated with 0.1 M NaOH, calculate the pH at end point. Given, K a (HA) = 5 × 10− 6 and α << 1. 65. What is the pH of a 0.50 M aqueous NaCN solution? (pK b of CN− = 4.70). Subjective Questions salt is (1996, 3M) (2004) 58. 500 mL of 0.2 M aqueous solution of acetic acid is mixed with 500 mL of 0.2 M HCl at 250°C. (i) Calculate the degree of dissociation of acetic acid in the resulting solution and pH of the solution. (1996, 2M) 66. Calculate the pH of an aqueous solution of 1.0 M ammonium formate assuming complete dissociation. (pK a of formic acid = 3.8 and pK b of ammonia = 4.8) (1995, 2M) – + − 67. For the reaction, [Ag(CN)2 ] r Ag + 2CN The equilibrium constant, at 25° C, is 4.0 × 10−19 . Calculate the silver ion concentration in a solution which was originally 0.10 M in KCN and 0.03 M in AgNO3 . (1994, 3M) Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 93 68. An aqueous solution of a metal bromide MBr2 (0.05 M) is saturated with H2 S. What is the minimum pH at which MS will precipitate? K sp for MS = 6.0 × 10−21 , concentration of −7 saturated H2 S = 0.1 M, K 1 = 10 H2 S. −13 and K 2 = 1.3 × 10 , for (1993, 3M) 69. The pH of blood stream is maintained by a proper balance of H2 CO3 and NaHCO3 concentrations. What volume of 5 M NaHCO3 solution should be mixed with a 10 mL sample of blood which is 2 M in H2 CO3 , in order to maintain a pH of 7.4? (K a for H2 CO3 in blood is 7.8 × 10−7 ) (1993, 2M) 70. The solubility product ( K sp ) of Ca(OH)2 at 25° C is 4.42 × 10−5 . A 500 mL of saturated solution of Ca(OH)2 is mixed with equal volume of 0.4 M NaOH. How much Ca(OH)2 in milligrams is precipitated? (1992, 4M) 71. A 40 mL solution of a weak base, BOH is titrated with 0.1N HCl solution. The pH of the solution is found to be 10.04 and 9.14 after the addition of 5.0 mL and 20.0 mL of the acid respectively. Find out the dissociation constant of the base. (1991, 6M) 72. The solubility −11 product of Ag 2 C2 O4 at 25° C is 3 −3 1.29 × 10 mol L . A solution of K 2 C2 O4 containing 0.1520 mole in 500 mL water is shaken at 25° C with excess of Ag 2 CO3 till the following equilibrium is reached Ag 2 CO3 + K 2 C2 O4 r Ag 2 C2 O4 + K 2 CO3 At equilibrium, the solution contains 0.0358 mole of K 2 CO3 . Assuming the degree of dissociation of K 2 C2 O4 and K 2 CO3 to be equal, calculate the solubility product of Ag 2 CO3 . (1991, 4M) 73. What is the pH of a 1.0 M solution of acetic acid? To what volume must one litre of this solution be diluted so that the pH of the resulting solution will be twice the original value? Given, K a = 1.8 × 10−5 (1990, 4M) 74. Freshly precipitated aluminium and magnesium hydroxides are stirred vigorously in a buffer solution containing 0.25 mol/L of NH4 Cl and 0.05 M of ammonium hydroxide. Calculate the concentration of aluminium and magnesium ions in solution. K b [NH4 OH] = 1.8 × 10−5 −12 K sp [Mg(OH)2 ] = 8.9 × 10 K sp [Al(OH)3 ] = 6 × 10−32 (1989, 3M) 75. How many gram-mole of HCl will be required to prepare one litre of buffer solution (containing NaCN and HCl) of pH 8.5 using 0.01 g formula weight of NaCN? K HCN = 4.1 × 10−10 (1988, 4M) 76. What is the pH of the solution when 0.20 mole of HCl is added to one litre of a solution containing (i) 1 M each of acetic acid and acetate ion, (ii) 0.1 M each of acetic acid and acetate ion? Assume the total volume is one litre. K a for acetic acid = 1.8 × 10−5. (1987, 5M) 77. The solubility of Mg(OH)2 in pure water is 9.57 × 10−3 g / L. Calculate its solubility (in g/L) in 0.02 M Mg(NO3 )2 solution. (1986, 5M) 78. The concentration of hydrogen ions in a 0.20 M solution of formic acid is 6.4 × 10−3 mol/L. To this solution, sodium formate is added so as to adjust the concentration of sodium formate to one mole per litre. What will be the pH of this solution? The dissociation constant of formic acid is 2.4 × 10−4 and the degree of dissociation of sodium formate is 0.75. (1985, 3M) 79. A solution contains a mixture of Ag + (0.10 M) and Hg 2+ (0.10 M) which are to be separated by selective precipitation. Calculate the maximum concentration of iodide ion at which one of them gets precipitated almost completely. What percentage of that metal ion is precipitated? (1984, 4M) K sp : AgI = 8.5 × 10−17 , HgI2 = 2.5 × 10−26 80. The dissociation constant of a weak acid HA is 4.9 × 10−8 . After making the necessary approximations, calculate (i) pH (ii) OH− concentration in a decimolar solution of the acid. (Water has a pH of 7). (1983, 2M) 81. Give reason for the statement that “the pH of an aqueous solution of sodium acetate is more than seven”. (1982, 1M) 82. 20 mL of 0.2 M sodium hydroxide is added to 50 mL of 0.2 M acetic acid solution to give 70 mL of the solution. What is the pH of this solution? Calculate the additional volume of 0.2 M NaOH required to make the pH of the solution 4.74. (Ionisation constant of CH3 COOH = 1.8 × 10−5 ). (1982, 3M) 83. How many moles of sodium propionate should be added to 1 L of an aqueous solution containing 0.020 mole of propionic acid to obtain a buffer solution of pH 4.75? What will be pH if 0.010 moles of HCl are dissolved in the above buffer solution? Compare the last pH value with the pH of 0.010 M HCl solution. Dissociation constant of propionic (1981, 4M) acid, K a at 25°C is1.34 × 10−5 . Answers Topic 1 (b) (a) (b) (b) (b) (d) (b) 29. (a,c) 33. (c, d, e) 37. smaller 2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26. 30. 34. 38. 40. T 47. (1.2) 57. (c) 41. F 53. (1.86) 42. F 54. (0.33) 43. T 56. (b) 2. (d) 6. (b) 10. (d) 3. (c) 7. (c) 11. (b) 4. (c) 8. (a) 12. (b) 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. (d) (d) (b) (b) (a) (d) (d) (b) (d) no change 3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27. 31. 35. 39. (a) 4. (d) 8. (c) 12. (b) 16. (d) 20. (a) 24. (a) 28. (a) 32. (c, d) 36. K p = Kc ( RT ) ∆n (d) (b) (b) (a) (d) (d) (d) (b, c, d) (a, b, c, d) Topic 2 1. (a) 5. (d) 9. (c) 13. 17. 21. 25. 29. 33. 37. 41. 45. 49. (d) (a) (b) (a) (d) (a) (b) (3.00) (d) SO 2− 4 14. 18. 22. 26. 30. 34. 38. 42. 46. 50. 53. (3) 54. 58. (4.75) 59. 62. (2 × 10 −8) 65. 69. (80) 71. 10 −11) 73. (27.78 × 10 3) 75. (0.177) 77. 79. (99.83) 81. (d) (c) (d) (d) (c) (a) (c, d) (0.20) I2 F 15. 19. 23. 27. 31. 35. 39. 43. 47. 51. (d) (d) (d) (c) (a) (b) (a, b, c) (8.9) hydration F (1.6 × 10 −7) (4.86) (11.5) (1.8 × 10 −5) 56. 60. 66. 72. (8) 57. (9) (1.2 × 10 −3 M) (6.50) 68. (1) (9.67 × (8.7 × 10 −4 gL −1) (>7) 16. 20. 24. 28. 32. 36. 40. 44. 48. 52. (b) (a) (a) (a) (b) (d) (b, c) (4.47) amphoteric F 78. (4.20) Hints & Solutions Topic 1 Chemical Equilibrium 1. N 2O 4 (s) r 2NO 2 (s); ∆H ° = + 58 kJ Because in case of an endothermic reaction (∆H = + ve), the equilibrium constant increases with rise in temperature and hence, the reaction moves in forward direction.On adding N 2, pressure is increased at constant T, and volume would also be constant, so no change is observed. 2. The incorrect match is ∆G ° < 0, K < 1. For an ideal gas ∆G ° = − RT ln K . ∆G ° and K = e− ∆G ° / RT ln K = − ∴ RT The above equation is helpful in predicting the spontaneity of the reaction. e.g. (i) If ∆G ° < 0, – ∆G °/ RT = + ve and e− ∆G ° / RT > 1and hence, K > 1. It means that the reaction occur spontaneously in the forward direction or products predominate over reactants. (ii) If ∆G ° > 0; − ∆G °/ RT = − ve and e− ∆G ° / RT < 1and hence, K < 1. It means that the reaction is non-spontaneous in forward direction (i.e. product side) but spontaneous in reverse direction (i.e. reactants predominate over products or the reaction occurs rarely). (iii) When K = 1, then ∆G ° = 0. This situation generally occur at equilibrium. 3. Key Idea The relationship between K p and K c is K p = K c (RT ) ∆ng where, ∆ng = nproducts − nreactants If ∆ng = 0 then K p = K c If ∆ng = + ve then K p > K c If ∆ng = − ve then K p < K c Consider the following equilibria reactions (a) 2C(s) + O2 (g ) 2CO(g ) - ∆ng = nproduct − nreactant = 2 − (1) = 1 ∆ng ≠ 0 ⇒ So, K p ≠ K c (b) 2HI(g ) H2(g ) + I2 (g ) ∆ng = nproduct − nreactant = 2 − 2 = 0 ∆ng = 0 ⇒ So, K p = K c (c) NO2 (g ) + SO2 (g ) NO(g ) + SO3 (g ) ∆ng = nproduct − nreactant = 2 − 2 = 0 ∆ng = 0 ⇒ So, K p = K c (d) 2NO(g ) N2(g ) + O2 (g ) - - - ∆ng = nproduct − nreactant = 2 − 2 = 0 ∆ng = 0 ⇒ So, K p = K c Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 95 At equilibrium K p1 = x = pB ⋅ pC = p1( p1 + p2 ) Similarly, D(s) C (g)+ E(g) 4. The explanation of given statements are as follows: (a) For the given equilibrium, ∆H is negative, so the equilibrium constant will decrease with increase in temperature and the equilibrium will shift in the backward direction. Thus, statement (a) is correct. (b) When inert gas is added at constant volume and constant temperature, an equilibrium remains undisturbed. Thus, statement (b) is correct. (c) For the equilibrium, ∆ng = 2 − (2 + 1) = − 1, i.e. (−ve) So, increase in pressure will shift the equilibrium in the forward direction. Thus, statement (c) is correct. (d) The reaction takes place in the presence of a catalyst which is V2O5 (s) in contact process or NO(g ) in chamber process. Thus, statement (d) is incorrect. 5. S + O2 SO2 , K 1 - ∴ SO2 or, 2SO2 2S + 2O2, K 1′′ = (K 1′ )2 = 1 K 12 ⇒ 2S + 3O2 2SO3 , K 2 Now, [(i) + (ii)] gives 2SO2 + O2 2SO3 , K 3 The value of equilibrium constant, 1 K 3 = K 2 × K 1′′ = K 2 × 2 K1 1 = 10129 × = 10129 − 104 = 1025 (1052 )2 - … (i) … (ii) 6. For the given chemical reaction, At, t = 0 a0 t = t eq a0 − x K w 1.5a 0 1.5a 0 − 2x or 0 x Now, substituting the values in above equation, we get (a0 )2 × (0.5a0 ) K= =4 (0.5a0 ) × (0.5a0 )2 7. The equilibrium reaction for the dissociation of two solids is given as: e B(g)+ C (g) p1 …(iii) Now, total pressure is given as pT = pB + pC + pE …(iv) = p1 + ( p1 + p2)+ p2 = 2 ( p1 + p2) On substituting the value of p1 + p2 from Eq. (iii) to Eq. (iv), we get pT = 2 x + y atm N 2 (g ) + 3H2 (g ) p1 + p 2 2NH3 (g ) = At equilibrium: pN 2 = P, pH 2 = 3P, pNH 3 = 2P ~p + p ⇒ p(total ) = pN 2 + pH 2 + pNH 3 − N2 H2 [Q P(total ) >> pNH 3 ] = p + 3p = 4 p 2 pNH p2NH 3 3 Now, = Kp = 3 pN 2 × pH2 p × (3 p)3 = Kp = pNH 3 = 2 pNH 3 27 × p 4 = 2 pNH 3 P 27 × 4 2 × 44 pNH 3 2 3 ×3×P 4 [QP = 4 p] 4 2 ⇒ pNH = 3 3 × 31/ 2 × P 2 × K p1/ 2 42 2C + D 0 2x …(ii) x + y = p1 + p2 ⇒ [x = degree of dissociation] Given, at equilibrium. [ A] =[ B] a0 − x = 15 . a0 − 2x x = 0.5a0 ∴ [A] = a0 − x = a0 − 0.5a0 = 0.5a0 [ B] = 15 . a0 − 2x = 15 . a0 − 2 × 0.5a0 = 0.5a0 [C] = 2x = 2 × 0.5a0 = a0 [D] = x = 0.5a0 [C ]2[ D] Now, K= [ A][ B]2 A(s) p1 + p2 ⋅ p2 K p 2 = y = pC ⋅ pE =( p1 + p2) p2 On adding Eq. (i) and (ii), we get. K p1 + K p 2 = x + y = p1( p1 + p2)+ p2( p1 + p2) = ( p1 + p2 )2 8. 1 S + O2 , K 1′ = K1 A + 2B At equilibrium …(i) e = 32 × 3 × P 4 × K p 44 33/ 2 × P 2 × K p1/ 2 9. Molar mass of NH4SH = 18 + 33 = 51g mol 16 −1 Number of moles of NH4SH introduced in the vessel Weight 5.1 = = = 01 . mol Molar mass 51 NH4 SH( s ) Number of moles at t = 0 At t = t eq 0.1 c 01 . (1 − 0. 03) Active mass (mol L −1) KC = ⇒ ∴ NH3 ( g ) + H2 S( g ) 0 0 30% of 01 . = 0. 03 0. 03 = 0. 01 3 30% of 0.1 = 0. 03 0. 03 = 0. 01 3 [ NH3 ][ H2S ] 0.01 × 0.01 = = 10−4 (mol L [ NH4HS(s) ] 1 K p = KC (RT ) −1 2 ) ∆ng [where, ∆ng = Σnproduct − Σnreactant ]= 2 − 0 = 2 K p = KC (RT )2 = 10− 4 × [0.082 × (273 + 327)]2 atm 2 = 0.242 atm 2 96 Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 10. We know that, the relationship between K p and KC of a chemical 14. Given, ∆G ° = 2494.2 J 1 2× [ B ][C ] 2 =4 = Q= 2 [ A ]2 1 2 equilibrium state (reaction) is K p = KC (RT ) Kp ⇒ = (RT ) KC ∆ng ∆ng = ΣnProducts − ΣnReactants N2(g ) + O2(g ) 2NO(g ) 2 − (1 + 1) 0 (RT ) = (RT ) = 1 where, (i) ⇒ (ii) ⇒ (iii) ∆ng (RT ) N2O4 (g ) 2− 1 c c c ∴ We know, ∆G = ∆G °+ RT ln Q = 2494.2 + 8.314 × 300 ln 4 = 28747.27 J (+ ve value) Q Also, we have ∆G = RT ln K If ∆G is positive, Q > KC Therefore, reaction shifts in reverse direction. 2NO2 (g ) = RT = 24.62 dm3 atmmol−1 N2 (g ) + 3H2 (g ) ⇒ (RT )2− (3 + 1) = (RT )− 2 = 2NH3 (g ) 1 (24.62 dm atm mol −1 )2 15. For the given reaction, ∆ng = nP − nR 3 where, nP = number of moles of products = 1.649 × 10−3 dm –6 atm − 2 mol 2 11. (i) A2(g )+ B2(g ) ⇒ 2AB(g ); c c K p = K c ( RT ) ∆ng = − HCO−3 r H+ + CO23− Therefore, in solution, all of the above mentioned species exist. 12. Given [H2S] = 010 . M [HCl] = 0.20 M So, [H+ ] = 0.20 M H2S + + HS− , K 1 = 10 . × 10−7 + + S2− , K 2 = 12 . × 10−13 -H HS - H − It means for, H2S + - 2H ∆G = 0 G(reactants) = G (products) G (N2 ) + 3G (H2 ) = 2G (NH3 ) 17. At equilibrium, + S2− A catalyst does not affect either equilibrium composition or equilibrium constant, it just increases rate of both forward and backward reaction but by the same factor. K = K 1 × K 2 = 10 . × 10−7 × 12 . × 10−13 Now = 12 . × 10−20 K × [ H2S] [according to the final equation] [ S2− ] = [ H+ ]2 13. [Ag(NH3 )+ ] + NH3 r [ Ag(NH3 )+2 ] K 2 = 1.7 × 10− 3 Initially at t = 0 At equilibrium −2 4 × 10 M 1 1−x K eq = or or ∴ Adding : Ag+ + 2NH3 r [ Ag(NH3 )2+ ] . × 10−20 × 1 × 10−1 M 12 A + K = K 1 × K 2 = 5.95 × 10− 6 = 3 × 10−20 M C 1 1 + 1+x 1−α D 1 pi : 1+x 1−α p 1+ α Total 2α 2α p 1+ α 1 +α Kp = 2 [C ][ D ] (1 + x)(1 + x) (1 + x) = = [ A ][ B ] (1 − x)(1 − x) (1 − x)2 1 + x 100 = 1 − x N2O4 (g ) r 2NO2 (g ) 19. B q 1−x K 1 = 3.5 × 10− 3 18. Ag+ + NH3 r [ Ag(NH3 )+ ] 12 . × 10−20 × 01 . M = (0.2M)2 = 2 or ∆ng 1 2 16. When CO2 is dissolved in water, following equilibria are established: H2O + CO2 r H2CO3 H2CO3 r H+ + HCO−3 3 A2(g ) + 3 B2 (g ); 3 [ A ] [ B2 ]3 1 1 = 3, = K2 = 2 3 [ AB ]6 K1 [ AB ]2 [ A2 ][ B2 ] K 2 = K 1−3 (ii) 6 AB(g ) n R = number of moles of reactants [ AB ]2 K1 = [ A2 ][ B2 ] 10 = 1+ x 1− x 10 − 10x = 1 + x 10 − 1 = x + 10x 9 = 11x 9 x= = 0.818 11 [ D ] = 1 + x = 1 + 0.818 = 1818 . 4α 2 1 − α2 p At constant temperature, halving the volume will change both p and α but K p remains constant. 20. N2O4 r 2NO2, K p = 1− x 2x 4 x2 p . K p is function of temperature 1 − x2 only, does not change with either p or x. [C ][ D ] 21. A + B r C + D, Q = [ A ][ B ] As time passes, amount of products ‘C’ and ‘D’ increases, hence Q increases. Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 97 ∆n = − 2 22. N2 (g ) + 3H2 (g ) r 2NH3 (g ) Ka = K p = K c ( RT )∆n Kc = Kp (RT )∆n (Rate)HA = k [ H+ ]HA 1.44 × 10− 5 = (0.082 × 773)− 2 (Rate) HX = k [ H+ ]HX (Rate) 23. Both temperature and pressure will change the equilibrium amount of X 3Y (g ). Temperature changes the value of equilibrium constant. order to restore equilibrium. Therefore, addition of CO (g) will increase the equilibrium amount of CO2. N2O4 r 2NO2 At 300 K : 1.0 atm 0 At 600 K : 2.0 – 0.40 0.80 (Rate) HX (Rate) HA ∴ 26. In reactions (a), (b) and (c), atleast one of the product is either 27. Kp for a given reversible reaction depends only on temperature. 28. Equilibrium constant of a given reversible reaction depends only on temperature. 29. For the reaction, A Given, …(i) It shows, On increasing the temperature, K decreases so reaction is exothermic i.e., ∆H o < 0 Besides, graph shows K >1 So ∆ G º< 0 Now from equation (i) T1 ln K 1 > T2 ln K 2 − ∆G º1> − ∆G º2 Likewise (− ∆H º+ T1∆S º ) > (− ∆H º+ T2 ∆S º ) or simply T1∆S º> T2∆S º So, (T2 − T1 ) ∆S ° < 0 ∴ ∆S º< 0 In other words, increase of ∆G with increase in temperature is possible only when ∆S ° < 0.Hence, options (a) and (c) are correct. 30. Since, the reaction is exothermic, there will be less ammonia at equilibrium and higher temperature. However, rate of reaction increases with rise in temperature, NH3 will be formed at faster rate in the initial stage when the temperature is high. 31. H+ PLAN RCOOR′ + H 2O → RCOOH + R′ OH Acid hydrolysis of ester is follows first order kinetics. For same concentration of ester in each case, rate is dependent on [ H+ ] from acid. Rate = k [ RCOOR′ ] Also for weak acid, HA r H+ + A − ∴ = 100 = [ H + ] HX [ H + ] HA = 1 [ H+ ]HA 1 100 HA r H+ + A − 0 x 0 x x = 0.01 [ H+ ][ A − ] 0.01 × 0.01 Ka = = = 1.01 × 10−4 [ HA ] 0.99 32. Cl − , CN − and SCN − forms precipitate with Cu (I), remove Cu (I) ion from equilibrium and reaction shifts in backward direction according to Le-Chatelier's principle. 33. If inert gas is introduced at constant pressure, volume of container will have to be increased and this will favour the forward reaction. Also adding PCl 5 (g ) at constant volume will favour forward reaction because PCl 5 (g ) is a reactant. =P T1 < T2 ln K 1 T2 > ln K 2 T1 = 100(Rate)HA [ H + ] HA = 1 (1 − x) Total pressure = 2.40 atm insoluble precipitate or a gas that drive the reaction continuously to right and do not allow equilibrium to be established. Following is the reversible reaction. KNO3 (aq) + NaCl (aq) r KCl (aq) + NaNO3 (aq) HX + ∴ Also in strong acid, [ H ] = [ HX ] = 1M 24. Adding reactant will drive the reaction in forward direction in 25. [ H+ ][ A − ] [ HA ] 34. SO2Cl 2 (g ) r SO2 (g ) + Cl 2 (g ), Adding inert gas at constant volume will not affect partial pressure of reactant or products, hence will not affect equilibrium amount of either reactant or products. 1 35. NaNO3 (s) r NaNO2 (s) + O2 (g ) , ∆H > 0 2 NaNO3 and NaNO2 are in solid state, changing their amount has no effect on equilibrium. Increasing temperature will favour forward reaction due to endothermic nature of reaction. Also, increasing pressure will favour backward reaction in which some O2 (g ) will combine with NaNO2 (s) forming NaNO3. 36. C2H4 + H2 r C2H6, ∆H = − 32.7 kcal The above reaction is exothermic, increasing temperature will favour backward reaction, will increase the amount of C2H4. Decreasing pressure will favour reaction in direction containing more molecules (reactant side in the present case). Therefore, decreasing pressure will increase amount of C2H4. Removing H2 , which is a reactant, will favour reaction in backward direction, more C2H4 will be formed. Adding C2H6 will favour backward reaction and some of the C2H6 will be dehydrogenated to C2H4. K 37. Smaller : K p = c RT 38. changing pressure has no effect on equilibrium constant. 39. K p = K c (RT )∆n, where, ∆n = Σn (products) − Σn (reactants) 40. Rate of any reaction increases on rising temperature. 41. Catalyst has no effect on thermodynamics of reaction. 98 Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 1 . K 43. Evaporation is an endothermic process. 47. Observing the graph indicates that when 0.20 mole of A is 42. It is reacted, 0.40 mole of product is formed. 44. (a) N2O4 (g ) r 2NO2 (g ) Also ∆G ° = − RT ln K = 0 , K = 1 Let the reaction shifts in forward direction. Total N2O4 (g ) r 2NO2 (g ) pi : ⇒ K = x − 0.16 0.15 – 0.08 5 + 2x 10 + x 5 + 2x × 20 10 + x 0.08 0.07 × 8.5 0.34 0.18 H2 = × 8.5 0.34 0.08 CH3OH = × 8.5 0.34 2 0.08 0.34 Kp = × = 0.056 2 8.5 (0.07) (0.18) (i) Partial pressures : CO = 81x + 405x + 450 = 0 x = − 1.66 and – 3.33 Both values of x indicates that reaction actually proceeds in backward direction. a (b) p + (Vm − b) = RT Vm2 ap2 pV − b = RT p+ ( pV )2 p 0.08 = 0.032 M 2.5 0.18 [H2 ] = = 0.072 M 2.5 0.07 [CO] = = 0.028 M 2.5 0.032 Kc = = 213.33 (0.028) (0.072)2 (ii) Concentrations : [CH3OH] = ⇒[( pV 2 ) p + ap2 ][( pV ) − b ] = p ( pV )2 RT ⇒ p ⋅ [ pV 2 + ap ] ( pV − bp) = p ( pV 2 ) RT ⇒ ( pV )3 = ( pV )2 RT 45. (i) Mole of solid NH4HS taken initially = 3.06 = 0.06 51 At equilibrium NH4HS (s) r NH3 (g ) + H2S (g ) 0.018 CO (g ) + 2H2 (g ) r CH3OH (g ) 49. 0.018 Mole : 2 0.2 – 0.10 x − 0.20 0.10 ⇒ Total moles = x 4.92 × 5 x= = 0.5 0.082 × 600 0.018 −5 Kc = = 8.1 × 10 2 ⇒ 0.018 × 0.082 × 300 = 0.22 atm 2 K p = (0.22)2 = 4.84 × 10− 2 ⇒ moles of H2 at equilibrium = x − 0.2 = 0.3 0.1 0.3 Partial pressures : CO = p, H2 = p, 0.5 0.5 0.1 CH3OH = p 0.5 p 25 25 5 = 2= Kp = = 0.11 atm − 2 2 9 (4.92)2 9p p 3 p 5 5 0.1 0.3 Concentrations : [CO] = M , [H2] = M, 5 5 0.1 (0.1/ 5) [CH3OH] = = 277.77 M −2. M ⇒ KC = 5 (0.1/ 5) (0.3 / 5)2 p (NH3 ) = (ii) Addition of solid NH4HS will have no effect on equilibrium. 46. (a) PCl 5 (g ) r PCl 3 (g ) + Cl 2 (g ) Total moles 1−α α α 1+ α 208.5 Average molar mass = = 148.9 1.4 pM 1 × 148.9 ρ (density) = = RT 0.082 × 400 = 4.54 g/L (b) AgCl (s) + 2NH3 (aq) r [ Ag(NH3 )2+ ] + Cl − −x n=2 Total moles at equilibrium = x − 0.01 8.5 × 2.5 x − 0.01 = = 0.34 ⇒ x = 0.35 0.082 × 750 2 But p = 0 Intercept = RT ⇒ CO (g ) + 2H2 (g ) r CH3OH (g ) 48. (5 + 2x )2 10 + x × × 20 = 1 5−x (10 + x )2 ⇒ nB + 0. 40 At equilibrium, [A] = 0.30 M, [B] = 0.60 M [ B ] 2 0.36 Kc = = = 1.2 [ A ] 0.30 ∆G ° = 2 ∆G f° (NO2 ) − ∆G f° (N2O4 ) = 0 5−x 5−x × 20 10 + x r A − 0.20 1 − 2x K = x = 2.9 × 10− 3 = 1 − 2 x Kc K sp x = 0.049 M x x 2 50. 2SO2 (g ) + O2 (g ) r SO3 (g ) Initial pi : 0 Equilibrium pi : 2p Kp = 900 = 2 2+ p (1 − 2 p)2 (2 + p) (2 p)2 1 1− 2p [Ignoring p in comparison to 2] Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 99 1 atm 87 p= Kc = 2 atm 87 Partial pressure of SO2 = 2 p = 1 175 atm = 87 87 Partial pressure of O2 = 2 + p = 2 + Also for : 1 85 atm Partial pressure of SO3 = 1 − 2 p = 1 − 2 = 87 87 pi : 1−α 1−α p 1+ α Kp = 4α 2 4 (0.25)2 p = = 0.26 atm 1 − α2 1 − (0.25)2 4α 2 (0.1) ⇒ α = 0.62 1 − α2 52. SO2 (g ) + NO2 (g ) r SO3 (g ) + NO (g ) 1− x 1− x x x Qc = 1 < K c , i.e. reaction proceed in forward direction to attain equilibrium. x 16 = 1 − x t=0 2 ∴ ⇒ x = 0.80 2 1 0 x 1 − 2 x K p = pX2 / pX 2 [NO] = 0.80 M, [NO2 ] = 0.20 M 53. A2 (g ) + B2 (g ) r 2 AB (g ) K = ⇒ 50 = ∆n = 0 (2x )2 [ AB ]2 (n )2 = AB = [ A2 ][ B2 ] nA2 ⋅ nB 2 (1 − x ) (2 − x ) 4 x2 ⇒ 23x 2 − 75x + 50 = 0 x 2 − 3x + 2 752 − 4 × 23 × 50 = 0.93, 2.32 46 2.32 is not acceptable because x cannot be greater than 1. ⇒ x= 75 ± Mole of AB = 2x = 2 × 0.93 = 1.86 54. Total moles of gases at equilibrium = pV 2.05 × 100 = = 5.0 RT 0.082 × 500 Out of this 5 moles, 1.0 mole is for N2 (g ) and remaining 4 moles for PCl 5 and its dissociation products. PCl 5 r PCl 3 + Cl 2 3−x x x 3+ x = 4 ⇒ x =1 1 Degree of dissociation = = 0.33 3 N2 55. + Initial : 1.0 Equilibrium 1 – 0.25 = 0.75 [N2 ] = 3H2 r 3.0 3 – 0.75 = 2.25 2 X (g ) (where, x = β eq ) x 1 − x 2 Total moles = 1 + and Mole fraction, X 2 (g ) = x 2 1 + 2 x X (g ) = and p = 2 bar 1+ x 2 x 1− 2 . p and p = p ⋅ x Partial pressure, pX 2 = X x 1+ x 1 + 2 2 At equilibrium When p = 0.10 atm 0.26 = X 2 (g ) At 1+ α 2α 2α p 1+ α = 0.468 L2 mol − 2 1 3 N2 + H2 r NH3 2 2 K ′c = K c = 0.68 56. Total N2O4 r 2NO2 51. [NH3 ]2 (0.50)2 = × 16 [N2 ][H2 ]3 (0.75) (2.25)3 = x px / 1 + 2 = (1 − x / 2) p x 1 + 2 8 β 2eq 4 px 2 = (4 − x 2 ) (4 − β 2eq ) 4 px 2 (Q 4 > > > x) = px 2 (4 − x 2 ) 1 ∴ x∝ p If p decreases, x increases. Equilibrium is shifted in the forward side. Thus, statement (a) is correct. 57. (a) Kp = (b) At the start of the reaction, Q = 0 where, Q is the reaction quotient ∆G = ∆G ° + 2.303RT log Q Since, ∆G ° > 0, thus ∆G is −ve. Hence, dissociation takes place spontaneously. Thus, (b) is correct. 4 × 2(0.7)2 (c) If we use x = 0.7 and p = 2 bar then K p = [ 4 − (0.7)2 ] = 1.16 > 1 Thus, (c) is incorrect. (d) At equilibrium, ∆G = 0 ∴ ∆G ° = − 2.303RT log K p Since, ∆G ° = + ve 2NH3 0 0.05 0.75 2.25 0.50 , [H2 ] = , [NH3 ] = 4 4 4 2 Hence, K p < 1 KC = Kp (RT ) Then KC < 1. Thus, (d) is correct. 100 Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium Ksp = [Cd 2 + ][ OH− ]2 Topic 2 Ionic Equilibrium Ksp = (S )(2S )2 = 4 S 3 = 4 (184 . × 10− 5 )3 1. Given 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl is taken in beaker and to it 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added. This is acid (HCl) and base (NaOH) titration. Here, phenolphthalein act as an indicator and colour change is pink. The correct graph that depicts the change in pH is as follows. At first HCl (acid) is take in beaker and base (NaOH) is taken in burette. When base is added drop wise then acid-base reaction is occurs and following changes are observed. Ksp = 24.9 × 10− 15 [Cd 2 + ] = [Cd 2 + ] = The expected solubility of Cd(OH)2 in a buffer solution of pH = 12 is 2.49 × 10− 10 M. 3. A Volume of NaOH pH → 0 to 7 is acidic. pH → 7 is neutral. pH → 7 to 14 is basic. Initially, the graph increases steeply but when concentration of acid becomes equal to base then no change is seen in graph. This point is called neutral point or equivalence point. Equivalence point, where pH = 7. After the equivalence point (pH = 7), base (NaOH) is continuously mixed drop by drop then pH increases by 7 and graph also increases slowly. At the point B, solution become basic, again base (NaOH) is mixed drop by drop and the solution becomes basic at point B. Following inference can be seen in the graphs. (a) According to this graph, pH = 7 is equivalence point and use of NaOH (base) drop by drop leads to basic solution as a result, value of pH increases slowly. This is correct option. (b) According to graph, it shows straight line that mean graph increases instantly but this titration show pH increases slowly because base (NaOH) is mix drop by drop. (c) After equivalence point (pH = 7) graph is constant. It is wrong because graph increases and the solution becomes pure basic then graph show constant value. (d) According to graph, equivalence point (pH = 7) graph should increase but it decreases. Key Idea The concentration of substance in a saturated solution is defined as its solubility (S). Its value depends upon the nature of solvent and temperature. - 24.9 × 10− 15 = 24.9 × 10− 15 × 10 + 4 (10− 2 )2 [Cd 2 + ] ⇒ 2.49 × 10− 10 M pH 7 Ax By [ OH− ]2 = 24.9 × 10− 11 M ⇒ B 2. Ksp xA y + + yB x − Ksp = [ A y + ]x [ B x − ] y Solubility of Cd (OH)2 (S ) = 184 . × 10− 5 M Given, pH = 12 [for Cd (OH)2 in buffer solution] So, pOH = 2 (QpH + pOH = pK w ) 12 + pOH = 14 pOH = 14 − 12 = 2 ∴ [ OH− ] = 10− 2 in buffer solution. For reaction Cd (OH)2 → Cd 2 + + 2 OH− S S2 Key Idea Concentration of substance in a saturated solution is defined as its solubility (S). Its value depends upon the nature of solvent and temperature. For reaction, AB -A + + B− + K sp = [ A ][ B − ] Al(OH)3 Initially At equilibrium 1 1− S - Al 3+ + 3OH− 0 S 0 3S + 0.2 NaOH → Na + + OH − 0. 2 0. 2 Ksp of Al(OH)3 = 2.4 × 10−24 (Given) Ksp = [ Al3+ ][ OH− ]3 2.4 × 10−24 = [ S ][ 3S + 0.2 ]3 2.4 × 10 −24 [Q 0.2 >> S ] = [ S ][ 0.008 ] [ S ] = 3 × 10−22 4. Key Idea NH4Cl is a salt of weak base (NH4OH) and strong acid (HCl). On hydrolysis, NH4Cl will produce an acidic solution (pH < 7) and the expression of pH of the solution is 1 pH = 7 − (pK b + logC ) 2 Given, K b (NH4OH) = 10−5 ∴ pK b = − log K b = − log(10−5 ) = 5 C = concentration of salt solution = 0.02 M = 2 × 10−2 M 1 Now, pH = 7 − (pK b + logC ) 2 On substituting the given values in above equation, we get 1 1 = 7 − [ 5 + log(2 × 10−2 )] = 7 − [ 5 + log 2 − 2 ] 2 2 1 = 7 − [ 5 + 0.301 − 2 ]= 7 − 165 . = 5.35 2 5. The explanation of given statements are as follows: In statement (I), millimoles of H+ = 400 × 01 . × 2 = 80 Millimoles of OH− = 400 × 01 . = 40 (Limiting reagent) Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 101 ∴ Millimoles of H+ left = 80 − 40 = 40 40 40 1 [ H+ ] = = M = M 400 + 400 800 20 1 pH = − log[ H+ ] = − log ⇒ 20 Thus, the relation between molar solubility(S) and solubility product (K sp ) will be K sp S = 6912 = − log1 + log 2 + log10 = −0 + 0.301 + 1 ⇒ 1.30 Hence, the option (a) is correct. In statement (II), ionic product of H2O is temperature dependent. K w = [ H+ ][ OH− ] ≈ 10−14 (mol / L)2 at 25ºC With increase in temperature, dissociation of H2O units into H+ and OH− ions will also increase. As a result, the value of ionic product, [H+ ] × [ OH− ]will be increased. e.g. Temperature K w (mol/L2) 5ºC 0186 . × 10−14 25ºC 1008 . × 10−14 45ºC 4.074 × 10−14 7. Let the solubility of Ag2CO3 is S. Now, 0.1 M of AgNO3 is added to this solution after which let the solubility of Ag2CO3 becomes S′. ∴ [Ag+ ] = S + 0.1 and [CO2− 3 ] = S′ K sp = (S + 0.1)2 (S ′ ) Given, Ka = 8. The reaction takes place when H2SO4 is added to NH4OH is as follows : H2SO4 αC M −5 αC × αC 10 × α = (1 − α )C 1− α 10−5 × α 1− α ⇒ α = 0.5 ⇒ α % = 50 Hence, the option (c) is correct. In statement (IV), Le-Chatelier’s principle is applicable to common ion effect. Because, in presence of common ion (given) 10−5 = ⇒ by strong electrolyte + − (say, Na A), the product of the concentration terms in RHS increases. For the weaker electrolyte, HA (say) the equilibrium shifts to the LHS, HA H⊕ + A s. - As a result dissociation of HA gets suppressed. Hence, the option (d) is incorrect. 6. Key Idea The concentration of a substance in a saturated solution is defined as its solubility(S). For Ax B y - xA y+ + yB x− ; K sp = [A y+ ] x [B x− ] y For, Zr3 (PO4 )4, Zr3 (PO4 )4 (s) -3Zr 4+ (aq) + 4 PO34− (aq) 3S M K sp = [ Zr 4+ 3 ] 4S M [ PO34− ]4 1 K sp K sp 7 = (3S ) (4 S ) = 6912 S or S = 6912 3 4 7 S′ = 8 × 10− 12 × 102 = 8 × 10− 10 M Thus, molar solubility of Ag2CO3 in 0.1 M AgNO3 is 8 × 10− 10 M. ⇒ pH of the solution is 5, i.e. [H+ ] = 10−5 M = αC ⇒ K sp = 8 × 10 8 × 10− 12 = 0.01 S ′ or - αC M ...(i) − 12 Q K sp is very small, we neglect S′ against S in Eq. (i) ∴ K sp = (01 . )2 S ′ or Hence, the option (b) is correct. In statement (III), for a weak monobasic acid HA HA H⊕ + A s (1 − α) C M 1/ 7 + 2NH4OH Strong acid Weak base Millimoles at t = 0 20 × 0.1 = 2 Millimoles at t = t 0 30 × 0.2 = 6 2 → (NH4 )2 SO4 + 2H2O Salt of strong acid + weak base 0 2 So, the resulting solution is a basic buffer [NH4OH + (NH4 )2 SO4 ]. According to the Henderson’s equation, [(NH4 )2SO4 ] pOH = pK b + log [NH4OH] 2 = 4.7 + log = 4.7 2 ⇒ pH = 14 − pOH = 14 − 4.7 = 9.3 9. Its given that the final volume is 500 mL and this final volume was arrived when 50 mL of 1 M Na 2SO4 was added to unknown Ba 2+ solution. So, we can interpret the volume of unknown Ba 2+ solution as 450 mL i.e. 450mL + 50mL → 500mL Ba 2+ solution Na 2SO 4 solution BaSO 4 solution From this we can calculate the concentration of SO2− 4 ion in the solution via M 1V1 = M 2V2 1 × 50 = M 2 × 500 (as 1M Na 2SO4 is taken into consideration) 1 M2 = = 01 . M 10 Now for just precipitation, Ionic product = Solubility product (K sp ) i.e. [Ba 2+ ][SO24− ] = K sp of BaSO4 Given K sp of BaSO4 = 1 × 10−10 So, [Ba 2+ ][0.1] = 1 × 10−10 or [Ba 2+ ] = 1 × 10−9 M 102 Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium Remember This is the concentration of Ba 2+ ions in final solution. Hence, for calculating the [Ba 2+ ] in original solution we have to use M 1V1 = M 2V2 as M 1 × 450 = 10−9 × 500 M 1 = 1.1 × 10−9 M so, CH 3COOK is the salt of strong base and weak acid. Hence, the solution of CH3COOK will be most basic because of the following reaction. CH3COOK + H2O CH3COOH + KOH - 12. For a salt of weak acid and weak base, pH = 7 + 10. Key Idea Lewis acids are defined as, ‘‘Electron deficient compounds which have the ability to accept atleast one lone pair.’’ The compound given are PH 3-Octet complete although P has vacant 3d-orbital but does not have the tendency to accept lone pair in it. Hence, it cannot be considered as Lewis acid. BCl 3-Incomplete octet with following orbital picture. 1s 2s 2p ∴ 3p 3s pH = 2 ∴ [ H+ ] = 10−2 = 0.01 M For dilution of HCl, M 1V1 = M 2V2 0.1 × 1 = 0.01 × V2 V2 = 10 L Volume of water to be added = 10 − 1= 9 L 14. MX : Vacant p-orbital 3d vacant 1 1 pH = 7 + (3.2) − (3.4) = 7 + 1.6 − 1.7 = 6. 9 2 2 13. pH = 1 ∴ [ H+ ] = 10−1 = 0.1 M B- Hence, vacant p-orbital of B can accept one lone pair thus it can be considered as Lewis acid. AlCl 3-Similar condition is visible in AlCl3 as well i.e. Al ( Valence orbital only) = 1 1 pKa − pKb 2 2 Given, pK a (HA ) = 3.2, pK a ( BOH) = 3.4 Vacant p- orbital Used in bond formation with Cl having one electron each from B and Cl (Strong base) (Weak acid) K sp = S 2 = 4 × 10− 8 ⇒ S = 2 × 10− 4 MX 2 : K sp = 4 S 3 = 3.2 × 10− 14 ⇒ S = 2 × 10− 5 M3X : K sp = 27S 4 = 2.7 × 10− 15 ⇒ S = 10− 4 MX > M 3 X > MX 2 2 15. mmol of base = 2.5 × = 1 5 mmol of acid required to reach the end point = 1 Order of solubility is Volume of acid required to reach the end point = Used in bond formation with Cl 15 + 2.5 = 10 mL 2 1 Molarity of salt at the end point = = 0.10 10 B+ + H2O r BOH + H+ Total volume at the end point = Hence this compound can also be considered as Lewis acid. SiCl 4 - Although this compound does not have incomplete octet but it shows the tendency to accept lone pair of electrons in its vacant d-orbital. This tendency of SiCl 4 is visible in following reaction. Cl Cl + H 2O Si Cl Cl Cl Cl C (1 − α ) H Cl H ⇒ Lone pair acceptance in d-orbital ⇒ Cl Si ⇒ OH + HCl Cl Cl Thus, option (b) and (d) both appear as correct but most suitable answer is (d) as the condition of a proper Lewis acid is more well defined in BCl 3 and AlCl 3. 11. Among the given salts FeCl 3 is acidic in nature i.e., have acidic solution as it is the salt of weak base and strong acid. Al(CN) 3 and Pb(CH 3COO) 2 are the salts of weak acid and weak base. Cα Cα Kw = 10−2 Kb Cα 2 0.1 α 2 = K h = 10− 2 = 1−α 1−α 10α 2 + α − 1 = 0 − 1 + 1 + 40 α= = 0.27 20 + [H ] = Cα = 0.1 × 0.27 = 0.027 M Kh = O Si Cl 15 mL 2 CH3NH2 + HCl → CH3NH3+ + Cl − 16. Initial : Final : 0.10 0.02 0.08 0 pOH = pK b + log 0 0.08 0 0.08 [CH3NH+3 ] [CH3NH2 ] = − log (5 × 10− 4 ) + log pH = 14 – pOH = 10.1 [H+ ] = 8 × 10−11 0.08 = 3.9 0.02 Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 103 17. K h ( X − ) = K w 10− 14 = − 5 = 10− 9 ⇒α = Ka 10 10− 9 Kh = = 10− 4 0.10 C 29. When a weak acid (HX) is titrated against a strong base NaOH, basic salt (NaX) is present at the end point which makes end point slightly basic with pH around 8. Hence, phenolphthalein, that changes its colour in this pH range, would be the best choice of indicator to detect the end point. % hydrolysis = 100 α = 0.01 18. Minimum S2− concentration would be required for precipitation of least soluble HgS. 30. The reaction of HA with strong base is 2− HA + OH− r H2O + A − For HgS, S required for precipitation is K sp 10−54 = −3 = 10−51 M [S2− ] = 2+ [Hg ] 10 10− 4 [ A− ] [H+ ] K × + = a = − 14 = 1010 − 10 [HA ][OH ] [H ] K w Kw 31. K a (HX ) = = 10− 4 Kb K = 19. Alkali metal salts are usually more soluble than the salts of transition metals. Also, CuS is less soluble than ZnS because of 3d 9 configuration of Cu 2+ . Therefore, solubility order is pH = pK a + log Na 2S > ZnS > CuS 20. Ap Bq r pA + qB pS 32. For precipitation reaction, qS 21. NaCN is basic salt, has highest pH while HCl has lowest pH. NaCl is neutral salt has pH = 7 while NH4Cl is acidic salt, has pH less than 7. pH : HCl < NH4Cl < NaCl < NaCN M 22. 75 mL HCl = 15 mmol HCl 5 M NaOH = 5 mmol NaOH 25 mL 5 After neutralisation, 10 mmol HCl will be remaining in 100 mL of solution. 10 Molarity of HCl in the final solution = = 0.10 100 pH = − log [H+ ] = − log (0.10) = 1 24. HClO4 is the strongest acid among these. 25. For precipitation to occur, K sp < Qsp . 10− 4 10− 4 Qsp = = 2.5 × 10− 9 > K sp 2 2 Hence, precipitate will be formed in this case. In all other case, Qsp < K sp and no precipitation will occur. 26. In stomach, pH is 2-3, i.e. strongly acidic and aspirin will be almost unionised here due to common ion effect. However, pH in small intestine is 8, basic, aspirin will be neutralised here. 33. Acidic buffer is prepared by mixing weak acid with salt of its conjugate base. Therefore, acetic acid and sodium acetate can be used to prepare acidic buffer. 34. The order of acidic strength of conjugate acids is HOCl < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 Reverse is the order of basic strength of their conjugate base, i.e. ClO− is the strongest base. 35. K w = [H3O+ ][OH− ] = 10− 6 × 10− 6 = 10− 12 36. No matter, what is the concentration of HCl, its pH will always be less than 7 at 25°C. In the present case, the solution is very dilute, pH will be between 6 and 7. 37. PLAN In presence of common ion (in this case Ag + ion) solubility of sparingly soluble salt is decreased. Let solubility of Ag2CrO4 in presence of 0.1 M AgNO 3 = x Ag2CrO4 a 2 Ag+ + CrO24− 2x AgNO3 a Cl 28. NH2− + H2O r Base Cl Cl NH3 Conjugate acid Be + OH− Cl Cl Be 0.1 0.1 Total [ Ag ] = (2x + 0.1) M ≈ 0.1 M as x <<< 0.1 M [CrO 2− 4 ]= xM Thus, [Ag+ ]2 [CrO24− ] = K sp (0.1)2 (x ) = 1.1 × 10−12 Q Cl x Ag+ + NO3− + 27. BeCl 2 exist in polymeric forms and has no electron deficiency, not a Lewis acid. 2 = 1.25 × 10− 9 > K sp , precipitate will be formed. 23. In case of hydroxides of Group II A, solubility increases down the group. Therefore, Be(OH)2 is least soluble, has lowest value of K sp . [Q [ X − ] = [HX ]] QIP > K sp . 10− 2 10− 3 QIP = [Ca 2+ ][F− ]2 = × 2 2 K sp = ( pS )p (qS )q = S (p + q) ⋅ pp ⋅ qq Be [X −] ⇒ pK a = 4 [HX ] x = 1.1 × 10−10 M 38. In HNO3 and CH3COONa combination, if HNO3 is present in limiting amount, it will be neutralised completely, leaving behind some excess of CH3COONa. CH3COONa + HNO3 → CH3COOH + NaNO3 Buffer combination 104 Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 39. CH3COOH + CH3COONa = Buffer solution KC = CH3COONa + HCl → CH3COOH + NaCl If HCl is taken in limited quantity, final solution will have both CH3COOH and CH3COONa needed for buffer solution. Ammonia and ammonium chloride forms basic buffer. 40. pH of 10− 8 M solution will be between 6 and 7 but never 8. The conjugate base of an acid is formed by removing a proton (H+ ) − from acid. Therefore, HPO2− 4 is a conjugate base of H 2PO 4 . H2O r H+ + OH− ∆H > 0 Increasing temperature will increase equilibrium constant of the above endothermic reaction. At the mid-point of titration pH = pK a 41. From the given diagram, 6 mL volume of HA used till equivalene point. At half of equivalence point, solution will be basic buffer with B and BH+ . [ BH+ ] Q pOH = pK b + log [B] At half equivalence point :[ BH+ ] = [ B ] (QpH = 11) pOH = pK b = 14 − 11 = 3 pK b = 3.00 Therefore, Q 0.05 × [ S2− ] = 125 . × 10−22 X = Y × 10−17 = 8.9 × 10−17 Y = 8.9 44. Key Idea Solubility of salt of weak acid (AB) in presence of H + ions from buffer solution can be calculated with the help of following formula. [H+ ] Solubility = K sp + 1 ka Given, pH = 3, so [H+ ] = 10−3 K a = 1× 10−8 ⇒ Ksp = 2 × 10−10 after putting the values in above formula 10−3 Solubility = 2 × 10−10 −8 + 1 ≈ 2 × 10−5 = 4.47 × 10−3M 10 NaOH + CH 3COOH −22 . × 10 125 ⇒ ⇒ 25 × 10−22 M [ S2− ]= 0.05 For H2S , H2S → 2H+ + S −2 Initial millimol Final millimol [ H+ ]2 [ S2 − ] [ H2S] 2 1 3 + + H 2O 1 For Q, i.e. (20 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 20 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH) is diluted to 80 mL [ H+ ]2 × 25 × 10−22 [ 01 . ] 1 [ H+ ]2 = 25 1 [ H+ ] = ⇒0.2 M 5 1 × 10−21 = 43. Given, equilibrium constant (KC ) at 298 K = 16 . × 1017 Fe2+ (aq) + S2− (aq) 1 1 − - CH COO Na Final volume – 30 mL (20 + 10) in which millimoles of CH3COOH and CH3COO −Na + are counted. (25 × 10−22 M) 3 Given, ∴ is diluted to 60 mL The correct match is 1, i.e. the value of[H+] does not change on dilution due to the formation of following buffer. K sp (ZnS ) = [ Zn 2+ ][ S2− ] = 125 . × 10−22 At initial concentration (Before mixing) At initial concentration (After mixing) At equilibrium (Pure solid) 1 . × 1017 = 16 X × 0.07 1 X = = 8.9 × 10−17 16 . × 1017 × 0.07 45. For P, i.e. (10 mL of 0.1 M NaOH + 20 mL of 0.1 M acetic acid) (0.05 M) K net = 1 × 10−21 = [For FeS(s) = 1mol L −1] Hence, the value of y= 4.47 42. ZnS(s) → Zn2+ (aq) + S2− (aq) (0. 1 M) 1 X × 0.07 FeS (s) 0.06 M 0.2 M – 0.03 M 0.1 M – 0.03- X 0.1 – 0.03 = 0.07 – [Here, KC >> 10 , thus limiting reagent will be consumed almost completely, 0.03 − X = 0 ∴ X = 0.03] From equilibrium constant, [FeS] KC = [Fe2+][S2− ] The correct match is 5, i.e. the value of [H+] changes to 2 times of its initial value on dilution. As per the condition given in Q the resultant solution before dilution contain 2 millimoles of CH3COO −Na+ in 40 mL solution. Hence, it is the salt of weak acid and strong base. So, KW K a [H + ]initial = C C After dilution to 80 mL, the new ‘C ’ becomes , So, 2 K wK a + + or [H ] initial × 2 [H ]new = C /2 For R, i.e. (20 mL of 0.1 M HCl + 20 mL of 0.1 M NH 3) is diluted to 80 mL 1 The correct match is 4, i.e. the value of [H+] changes to times 2 of its initial value of dilution. Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 105 As per the condition given in R the resultant solution before dilution contains 2 millimoles of NH4Cl in 40 mL of solution. Hence, a salt of strong acid and weak base is formed. For this, Kw × C [H+]initial = Kb Now on dilution upto 80 mL new conc. becomes C /2. C Kw × + 2 So, [H ]new = Kb 46. I2 : I → I2 = = [Ag+] × 10–3 ⇒ + [Ag ] = 1.6 × 10–7 55. Basic salts solution will have pH > 7, will change colour of KCN, K2CO3 and LiCN are the only basic salts among these. 56. The hydrolysis reaction is - Ni + 2OH − A − + H2O r AH + OH− Kh = Kw = 10− 10 Ka [OH− ] = K hC = 10− 6 pH = 8 and − 57. At the end-point, [ A ] = 0.05 as per the condition given it is a sparingly soluble salt. Hence, on dilution the concentration of OH− ions remains constant in saturated solution. So for this solution, [H+]new =[H+]initial − Now, for AgCl, K sp = 1.6 × 10–10 = [Ag+] [Cl – ] pOH = 6 2+ K sp (CuCl) = 10–3 M litmus paper red to blue 1 or [H+]new = [H + ]initial × 2 For S , i.e. 10 mL saturated solution of Ni(OH)2 in equilibrium with excess solidNi(OH)2 is diluted to 20 mL and solid Ni(OH)2 is still present after dilution. The correct match is 1. Ni(OH)2 (s) [ Cl – ] = I3− K b ( A − ) = K w / K a = 2 × 10− 9 [OH− ] = K bC = 2 × 10− 9 × 0.05 = 10− 5 pOH = 5 and 58. (i) CH3COOH r CH3COO C (1 − α ) − Cα pH = 9 + H+ Cα 47. Hydration energy facilitate solubility. 48. Amphoteric 49. SO2– 4 Conjugate base is formed by removing a proton from acid. If no HCl is present, 50. P2O5 is strongest acid and MgO is strongest base. The major contributor of H+ in solution is HCl. C α (0.1) Ka = = 1.75 × 10− 5 C (1− α ) 51. NaOH + H2O → NaOH (aq); ∆H < 0 52. Lewis acid accept lone pair of electron. 53. Degree of ionisation (α) = Let ⇒ Also : Λm Λ∞ α = 1.75 × 10− 4 X Λ m (HY ) = x ⇒ Λ m (HX ) = 10 Λ m (HX ) 1 α (HX ) = = [QΛ∞ (HX ) = Λ∞ (HY )] Λ m ( XY ) 10 α (HY ) K a(HX ) = (0.01) [α( HX )]2 ...(i) K a (HY ) = (010 . ) [α( HY )] 2 = 010 . [10 α (HX )]2 = 10 [α (HX )]2 ⇒ 1 K a (HX ) 0.01 = = K a (HY ) 10 1000 ⇒ log K a (HX ) − log K a (HY ) = − 3 ... (ii) ⇒ − log K a (HX ) − [ − log K a (HY )] = 3 ⇒ 0.2 = 0.10 M 2 [CH3COOH] = 0.10 M [HCl] = 6 × 1000 = 150 40 mmol of HCl = 500 × 0.2 = 100 mmol of CH3COOH = 500 × 0.2 = 100 After neutralisation, mmol of CH3COOH = 50 mmol of CH3COONa = 50 pH = pK a = 4.75 (ii) mmol of NaOH added = 59. Partial pressure of SO2 in air = 10− 5 atm [SO2 ]aq = 1.3653 × 10− 5 mol L− 1 QpK a = 1.92and concentration of H2SO3 is very low, it is almost completely ionised as H2SO3 r H+ + HSO−3 [H+ ] = 1.3653 × 10− 5 M pK a (HX ) − pK a (HY ) = 3 54. It is a case of simultaneous solubility of salts with a common ion. Here, solubility product of CuCl is much greater than that of AgCl, it can be assumed that Cl– in solution comes mainly from CuCl. pH = – log (1.3653 × 10− 5 ) = 4.86 60. In water, K sp = 4 S 3 = 4 (6.7 × 10− 6 )3 = 1.2 × 10− 15 In buffer of pH = 8, pOH = 6, [OH− ] = 10−6 106 Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium K sp = S [OH− ] 2 S = 64. K a (NH+4 ) = 5.6 × 10− 10 1.2 × 10− 15 = 1.2 × 10− 3 M 10− 12 61. (a) E = 0.164 = – 0.059 log [Ag ] anode = 1.66 × 10 i.e. NH3 + H2O r NH4+ + OH− k2 0.10 k K = 1 = 1.8 × 10− 5 k2 M [Ag+ ] = 8.3 × 10− 5 M 2 [CrO24− ] = k 1 = Kk 2 = 1.8 × 10−5 × 3.4 × 1010 = 6.12 × 105 65. CN− + H2O r HCN + OH− K sp = [Ag+ ]2 [CrO24− ] K h = 2 × 10− 5 = (1.66 × 10− 4 )2 (8.3 × 10− 5 ) = 2.3 × 10− 12 [OH− ] = K hC = 2 × 10− 5 × 0.5 = 10− 5 (b) pH of HCl = 2 ∴ [ H+ ] = 10−2 M pOH = 2.5 + −2 10−2 = × 200 = 2 × 10−3 1000 Similarly, pH of NaOH = 12 ∴ [ H+ ] = 10−12 M −2 or [OH ] = 10 + pH = 7 + [Q[H ][ OH ] = 10 M −14 m] Moles of OH ion in 300 mL of 10 M NaOH solution 10−2 = × 300 = 3 × 10−3 1000 Total volume of solution after mixing = 500 mL Moles of OH− ion left in 500 mL of solution = (3 × 10−3 ) − (2 × 10−3 ) = 10−3 1 = 2.5 × 1018 4 × 10− 19 0.03 K = 2.5 × 1018 = (0.04)2 x ⇒ x = 7.50 × 10− 18 M Ag+ 68. For H2S, H2S r 2H+ + S2− Minimum [S2− ] required to begin precipitation of 6 × 10− 21 = 1.2 × 10− 19 0.05 [H+ ]2 [S2− ] (1.2 × 10− 19 ) K = 1.3 × 10− 20 = = [H+ ] 2 [H2S] 0.10 MS = 62. 2AgCl (s) + CO23− r Ag2CO3 (s) + 2Cl − K = − 2 + 2 [H+ ] = 0.10 M 2 [ K sp (AgCl)] [Cl ] [Cl ] [Ag ] = × = [CO32− ] [CO23− ] [Ag+ ]2 K sp (Ag2CO3 ) 0.0026 [Cl ] = M = 7.3 × 10− 5 M 35.5 The above concentration of Cl − indicates that [CO2− 3 ] remains almost unchanged. 2 7.3 × 10− 5 [K sp (AgCl)] = − 12 1.5 8.2 × 10 − K sp (AgCl) = 2 × 10− 8 63. pH = pK In + log 10 = pK In + 1 = pK In + log (0.1) = pK In pH range is pK In −1 to pK In −1 + 1. [In − ] = 10 [HIn] [In − ] When = 0.1 [HIn] When 0 0.03 K = pH = 14 − 2.699 = 11.301 − 2 0.10 0.10 – 0.06 K = K 1 × K 2 = 1.3 × 10− 20 Molar concentration of OH− ions in the resulting 10−3 solution = × 1000 = 2 × 10−3 M 500 pOH = − log (2 × 10−3 ) ~ 103 = 2.699 = − log 2 + 3 log10 = − 0.3 − ∴ 1 1 (pK a − pK b ) = 7 + (3.8 − 4.8) = 6.50 2 2 Initial : 0.03 Equilibrium : x −2 − pH = 11.5 Ag+ + 2CN− r Ag(CN)−2 67. − and 66. For salts of weak acid and weak base . Moles of H ions in 200 mL of 10 M HCl solution − 10− 14 = 1.8 × 10− 5 5.6 × 10− 10 k1 [Ag+ ] anode −4 + K b (NH3 ) = K w / K a = ⇒ pH = 1 69. Mixing H2CO3 with NaHCO3 results in buffer solution. pH = pK a + log [NaHCO3 ] n (NaHCO3 ) = pK a + log [H2CO3 ] n (H2CO3 ) 7.4 = – log (7.8 × 10− 7 ) + log ⇒ ⇒ x 20 x = 400 mmol NaHCO3 = 5 × V 3 ⇒ V = 80 mL −5 70. K sp = 4 S = 4.42 × 10 S = 0.022 M mmol of Ca(OH)2 in 500 mL saturated solution = 11 mmol of NaOH in 500 mL 0.40 M solution = 200 Total mmol of OH− = 200 + 2 × 11 = 222 [OH− ] = 0.222 M Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium 107 = Also, desired pH = 2 × 2.37 = 4.74 K sp Solubility in presence of NaOH = [OH− ]2 [H+ ] = 1.8 × 10− 5 = x α 1.8 × 10− 5 α 1−α α = 0.5 and x = 3.6 × 10− 5 M 4.42 × 10− 5 = 9 × 10− 4 M (0.222)2 mmol of Ca 2+ remaining in solution = 0.9 mmol of Ca(OH)2 precipitated = 10.1 mg of Ca(OH)2 precipitated = 10.1 × 7.4 = 747.4 mg K a = 1.8 × 10− 5 = Volume (final) = 1/3.6 × 10− 5 = 27.78 × 103 L. 74. pOH of buffer solution = pK b + log 71. Let 40 mL of base contain x mmol of BOH. BOH + HCl → BCl + H2O x − 0.5 x− 2 Subtracting Eq. (i) from Eq. (ii) gives 2 x − 0.5 0.90 = log × x − 2 0.5 ⇒ = − log (1.8 × 10− 5 ) + log 0.5 When 5 mL acid is added 2.0 When 20 mL of acid is added When pH is 10.04, pOH = 3.96 and when pH is 9.14, pOH is 4.86. Therefore, 0.50 3.96 = pK b + log …(i) x − 0.5 2.0 …(ii) 3.96 = pK b + log x− 2 4 (x − 0.5) ⇒ 28 = x−2 x = 3.5, substituting in equation (i) gives 0.5 3.96 = pK b + log 3 K b = 1.8 × 10− 5 72. Initial concentration of K2C2O4 = [Al 3+ ] = [Mg2+ ] = x K sp (Ag2CO3 ) = K × K sp (Ag2C2O4 ) = 7.5 × 1.29 × 10− 11 = 9.675 × 10− 11 73. CH3COOH r CH3COO− + H+ When concentration of CH3COOH is 1.0 M, ‘α’ is negligible, [H+ ] = K aC = 4.24 × 10− 3 M pH = − log (4.24 × 10− 3 ) = 2.37 Now, let us assume that solution is diluted to a volume where concentration of CH3COOH (without considering ionisation) is x. CH3COOH r CH3COO− + H+ xα Ka = 1−α xα [OH ] K sp − 2 [OH ] = 6 × 10− 32 = 1.28 × 10− 15 M (3.6 × 10− 6 )3 = 8.9 × 10− 12 = 0.68 M (3.6 × 10− 6 )2 NaCN + HCl → NaCl + HCN 0.01 mmol of NaCN present initially = × 1000 = 0.2 49 8.5 = − log (4.1 × 10− 10 ) + log 0.2 − x x x = 0.177 mmol 76. (i) 0.20 mole HCl will neutralise 0.20 mole CH3COONa, producing 0.20 mol CH3COOH. Therefore, in the solution moles of CH3COOH = 1.20 Moles of CH3COONa = 0.80 [Salt] pH = pK a + log [Acid] (0.80) = 4.56 = − log (1.8 × 10− 5 ) + log (1.20) Given, 0.304 – x = 0.0358 ⇒ x = 0.2682 0.2682 ⇒ K = = 7.5 0.0358 xα − 3 75. HCN for buffer will be formed by the reaction [CO23− ] [Ag+ ]2 K sp (Ag2CO3 ) × = K = [C2O24− ] [Ag+ ]2 K sp (Ag2C2O4 ) 2 K sp Let x mmol of HCl is added so that x mmol of NaCN will be neutralised forming x mmol of HCN. [NaCN] pH = pK a + log [HCN] Also for the following equilibrium: Ag2CO3 (s) + K2C2O4 (aq) r Ag2C2O4 (s) + K2CO3 x (1 − α ) 0.25 = 5.44 0.05 [OH− ] = 3.6 × 10− 6 M 0.152 = 0.304 M, 0.50 0.304 − x [NH+4 ] [NH4OH] CH3COONa + HCl → CH3COOH + NaCl (ii) Initial Final 0.10 0 0.20 0.10 0 0.10 0 0.10 Now, the solution has 0.2 mole acetic acid and 0.1 mole HCl. Due to presence of HCl, ionisation of CH3COOH can be ignored (common ion effect) and H+ in solution is mainly due to HCl. [H+ ] = 0.10 pH = – log (0.10) = 1.0 77. In pure water, solubility = 9.57 × 10− 3 M = 1.65 × 10− 4 M 58 K sp = 4 S 3 = 4 (1.65 × 10− 4 )3 = 1.8 × 10− 11 In 0.02 M Mg(NO3 )2; 108 Chemical and Ionic Equilibrium solubility of Mg(OH)2 = K sp 2+ [Mg ] × pH = 4.15 1 2 [OH− ] = = 1.5 × 10− 5 mol L− 1 = 1.43 × 10− 10 M = 1.5 × 10− 5 × 58 g L− 1 = 8.7 × 10− 4 g L− 1 81. Sodium acetate (CH3COONa) is a basic salt (salt of strong base and weak acid) therefore, its aqueous solution has pH > 7. 78. HCOOH r H+ + HCOO− 82. mmol of NaOH = 20 × 0.2 = 4 HCOONa r Na + + HCOO− 1 − 0.75 mmol of acetic acid = 50 × 0.2 = 10 0.75 [H+ ] (0.75) [HCOOH] After neutralisation, buffer solution is formed which contain 6 mmol CH3COOH and 4 mmol CH3COONa. [CH3COONa] pH = pK a + log [CH3COOH] 4 = − log (1.8 × 10− 5 ) + log = 4.56 6 2.4 × 10− 4 × 0.20 = 6.4 × 10− 5 0.75 Now, let x mmol of NaOH is further added so that pH of the resulting buffer solution is 4.74. In the above buffer solution, the significant source of formate ion (HCOO− ) is HCOONa. Hence, K a = 2.4 × 10− 4 = [H+ ] = Now, the buffer solution contains (4 + x ) mmol CH3COONa and (6 − x ) mmol of CH3COOH. 4+x 4.74 = − log (1.8 × 10− 5 ) + log 6−x pH = – log (6.4 × 10−5 ) = 4.20 79. K sp (AgI) = 8.5 × 10− 17 = [Ag+ ][I− ] [I− ] required to start precipitation of AgI 8.5 × 10− 17 = 8.5 × 10− 16 M 0.10 (HgI2 ) = 2.5 × 10− 26 = [Hg2+ ][I− ]2 = K sp Kw 10− 14 = + [H ] 7 × 10− 5 ⇒ ⇒ − [I ] required to start precipitation of HgI2 = ⇒ 2.5 × 10− 26 = 5 × 10− 13 M 0.10 − The above calculation indicates that lower [I ] is required for precipitation of AgI. When [I− ] reaches to 5 × 10− 13 , AgI gets precipitated almost completely. When HgI2 starts precipitating, 8.5 × 10− 17 = 1.70 × 10− 4 M [Ag+ ] = 5 × 10− 13 1.70 × 10− 4 × 100 = 0.17 0.10 % Ag+ precipitated = 100 – 0.17 = 99.83 % Ag+ remaining = 80. Molarity (C ) = 0.10 [H+ ] = K a ⋅ C = 7 × 10− 5 M (α is negligible) 4+x =1 6−x x = 1.0 mmol = 0.2 × V V = 5.0 mmol NaOH. 83. For acidic buffer, the Henderson’s equation is pH = pK a + log (mole of salt) (mole of acid) 4.75 = – log (1.34 × 10− 5 ) + log x 0.02 ⇒ x = 0.015 mole of sodium propionate. Addition of 0.01 mole HCl will increase moles of propionic acid by 0.01 and moles of sodium propionate will decrease by same amount. New moles of acid = 0.02 + 0.01 = 0.03 New moles of salt = 0.015 – 0.01 = 0.005 0.005 pH = – log (1.34 × 10− 5) + log = 4.09 0.030 pH of 0.01 HCl = 2, just half of the pH of final buffer solution. 7 Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry Topic 1 Thermodynamics Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. An ideal gas is allowed to expand from 1 L to 10 L against a constant external pressure of 1 bar. The work done in kJ is (2019 Main, 12 April I) (a) − 9.0 (b) + 10.0 (c) − 0.9 (d) − 2.0 2. The difference between ∆H and ∆U ( ∆H − ∆U ), when the combustion of one mole of heptane (l) is carried out at a temperature T, is equal to (2019 Main, 10 April II) (a) − 4 RT (b) 3 RT (c) 4 RT (d) − 3 RT 3. A process will be spontaneous at all temperature if (2019 Main, 10 April I) (a) ∆H > 0 and ∆S < 0 (c) ∆H < 0 and ∆S < 0 (b) ∆H < 0 and ∆S > 0 (d) ∆H > 0 and ∆S > 0 (a) (b) (c) (d) 8. For Cyclic process : q = − W Adiabatic process : ∆U = − W Isochoric process : ∆U = q Isothermal process : q = − W C p ( J K −1 mol −1 ) = 23 + 0.01 T. silver, If the temperature (T) of 3 moles of silver is raised from 300 K to 1000 K at 1 atm pressure, the value of ∆H will be close to (2019 Main, 8 April I) (a) 62 kJ (c) 21 kJ (b) 16 kJ (d) 13 kJ 9. For a diatomic ideal gas in a closed system, which of the following plots does not correctly describe the relation between various thermodynamic quantities? (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) 4. During compression of a spring the work done is 10 kJ and 2 kJ escaped to the surroundings as heat. The change in internal energy, ∆U (in kJ) is (2019 Main, 9 April II) (a) 8 (b) −12 (c) 12 (d) −8 (a) Cp (C) W (D) H − TS (b) (A), (B) and (C) (d) (B) and (C) reversible compression till its temperature becomes 200 K. If CV = 28 JK −1 mol −1 , calculate ∆U and ∆pV for this process. ( R = 8.0 JK −1 mol−1 ) ∆U ∆U ∆U ∆U T (2019 Main, 9 April I) 6. 5 moles of an ideal gas at 100 K are allowed to undergo (a) (b) (c) (d) Cv p 5. Among the following the set of parameters that represents path functions, is (A) q + W (B) q (a) (A) and (D) (c) (B), (C) and (D) (b) (2019 Main, 8 April II) = 2.8 kJ; ∆ ( pV ) = 0.8 kJ = 14 J; ∆ ( pV ) = 0.8 J = 14 kJ; ∆ ( pV ) = 4 kJ = 14 kJ; ∆ ( pV ) = 18 kJ 7. Which one of the following equations does not correctly represent the first law of thermodynamics for the given processes involving an ideal gas ? (Assume non-expansion work is zero) (2019 Main, 8 April I) (c) (d) U Cv T V 10. The standard electrode potential E O− and its temperature − dE O −4 −1 coefficient for a cell are 2V and − 5 × 10 VK at dT 300 K respectively. The cell reaction is Zn( s ) + Cu2 + ( aq ) → Zn2 + ( aq ) + Cu( s ) − The standard reaction enthalpy (∆ r H O ) at 300 K in kJ mol −1 is, [Use, R = 8 JK −1 mol−1 and F = 96,000 C mol−1 ] (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) (a) − 412.8 (c) 206.4 (b) − 384.0 (d) 192.0 110 Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 11. The reaction, MgO( s ) + C( s ) → Mg ( s ) + CO( g ), for which ∆ r H º = + 491.1 kJ mol −1 of ice at 273 K to water vapours at 383 K is and ∆ r S º = 198.0 JK − 1 mol − 1 , is not feasible at 298 K. Temperature above which reaction will be feasible is (a) 2040.5 K (b) 1890.0 K (c) 2380.5 K (d) 2480.3 K 12. The standard reaction Gibbs energy for a chemical reaction at an absolute temperature T is given by, ∆ r G º = A − BT Where A and B are non-zero constants. Which of the following is true about this reaction? (2019 Main, 11 Jan II) (a) (b) (c) (d) Endothermic if, A < 0 and B > 0 Exothermic if, B < 0 Exothermic if, A > 0 and B < 0 Endothermic if, A > 0 13. For the chemical reaction, X 18 The entropy change associated with the conversion of 1 kg (Specific heat of water liquid and water vapour are 4.2 kJ K −1kg−1 and 2.0 kJK −1 kg−1; heat of liquid fusion and vapourisation of water are 334 kJ kg−1 and 2491 kJkg−1 respectively). (log 273 = 2.436, log 373 = 2.572, (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) log 383 = 2.583 ) (a) 9.26 kJ kg −1 K −1 (b) 8.49 kJ kg −1 K −1 (c) 7.90 kJ kg −1 K −1 19 Consider the reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas in a closed system at two different temperatures T1 and T2 (T1 < T2 ). The correct graphical depiction of the dependence of work done (W) on the final volume (V) is (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) - Y , the standard reaction Gibbs energy depends on temperature T (in K) as 3 ∆ rG ° (in kJ mol–1 ) = 120 − T 8 The major component of the reaction mixture at T is T2 |W| |W| (b) X if T = 350 K (d) Y if T = 300 K (b) O T + T2 (d) 2 C p ln 1 2T1T2 15. The process with negative entropy change is (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) (a) synthesis of ammonia from N 2 and H 2 (b) dissociation of CaSO4 ( s ) to CaO( s ) and SO3 ( g ) (c) dissolution of iodine in water (d) sublimation of dry ice T2 |W| −2 17 A process has ∆H = 200 J mol −1 and ∆S = 40 JK −1 mol −1 . Out of the values given below, choose the minimum temperature above which the process will be spontaneous (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) (b) 4 K (c) 5 K T2 T1 T1 (c) (d) O ln V O (d) 12 K ln V 20. The combustion of benzene ( l ) gives CO2 ( g ) and H2 O( l ). Given that heat of combustion of benzene at constant volume is −3263.9 kJ mol −1 at 25° C; heat of combustion (in kJ mol −1 ) of benzene at constant pressure will be (R = 8.314 JK −1 mol −1 ) (2018 Main) (b) −452.46 (d) −3267.6 (a) 4152.6 (c) 3260 (a) isochoric work (c) adiabatic work to 1 m against a constant external pressure of 4 Nm . Heat released in this process is used to increase the temperature of 1 mole of Al. If molar heat capacity of Al is 24 J mol−1 K −1 , the temperature of Al increases by (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) 3 2 (a) K (b) 1K (c) 2 K (d) K 2 3 (a) 20 K ln V 21. ∆U is equal to 16. An ideal gas undergoes isothermal compression from 5 m 3 3 O ln V 14. Two blocks of the same metal having same mass and at (T + T2 )2 (c) C p ln 1 4T1T2 T1 (a) |W| temperature T1 and T2 respectively, are brought in contact with each other and allowed to attain thermal equilibrium at constant pressure. The change in entropy, ∆S , for this process is (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) 1/ 2 ( T T ) + T + T2 2 (b) 2 C p ln 1 (a) 2 C p ln 1 T1T2 4T1T2 T2 T1 (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) (a) Y if T = 280 K (c) X if T = 315 K (d) 2.64 kJ kg −1 K −1 (2017 Main) (b) isobaric work (d) isothermal work 22. The standard state Gibbs free energies of formation of C(graphite) and C(diamond) at T = 298 K are ∆ f G ° [C(graphite)] = 0 kJ mol −1 ∆ f G ° [C(diamond)] = 2.9 kJ mol −1 The standard state means that the pressure should be 1 bar, and substance should be pure at a given temperature. The conversion of graphite [C(graphite)] to diamond [C(diamond)] reduces its volume by 2 × 10−6 m 3 mol −1 . If C(graphite) is converted to C(diamond) isothermally at T = 298K, the pressure at which C(graphite) is in equilibrium with C(diamond), is (2017 Adv.) Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 111 [Useful information : 1 J = 1kg m 2 s −2 , 1 Pa = 1kg m (a) 58001 bar (c) 14501 bar −1 −2 ∆S ( A → C ) = 50 eu ∆S (C → D ) = 30 eu ∆S (D → B ) = –20 eu where, eu is entropy unit Given that 5 s ; 1 bar = 10 Pa] (b) 1450 bar (d) 29001 bar 23. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K in thermal contact with surroundings expands isothermally from 1.0 L to 2.0 L against a constant pressure of 3.0 atm. In this process, the change in entropy of surroundings ( ∆S surr ) in JK −1 is (1 L atm = 101.3 J) (2016 Adv.) (a) 5.763 (c) − 1.013 (b) 1.013 (d) − 5.763 24. The following reaction is performed at 298K 2NO( g ) + O2 ( g ) r 2NO2 ( g ) The standard free energy of formation of NO(g) is 86.6 kJ/mol at 298 K. What is the standard free energy of formation of NO2 ( g ) at 298 K? ( K p = 1.6 × 1012 ) (2015 Main) (a) R( 298 ) ln (1. 6 × 1012 ) – 86600 (b) 86600 + R( 298 ) ln (1. 6 × 1012 ) (c) 86600 – ln (1. 6 × 1012 ) R ( 298 ) (2006, 3M) (b) +60 eu (d) –60 eu 30. A monoatomic ideal gas undergoes a process in which the ratio of p to V at any instant is constant and equals to 1. What is the molar heat capacity of the gas ? (2006, 3M) 4R 3R 5R (a) (b) (c) (d) 0 2 2 2 31. One mole of monoatomic ideal gas expands adiabatically at initial temperature T against a constant external pressure of 1 atm from 1 L to 2 L. Find out the final temperature (R = 0.0821 L atm K − 1 mol − 1 ) (2005, 1M) T (a) T (b) ( 2 )5 / 3 − 1 2 2 (c) T − (d) T + 3 × 0.082 3 × 0.082 32. 2 moles of an ideal gas expanded isothermally and (d) 0. 5 [ 2 × 86600 – R ( 298 ) ln (1. 6 × 1012 )] 25. For the process, H2 O ( l ) → H2 O ( g ) at T = 100° C and 1 atmosphere pressure, the correct choice is (a) ∆S system > 0 and ∆S surrounding > 0 (2014 Adv.) (b) ∆S system > 0 and ∆S surrounding < 0 (c) ∆S system < 0 and ∆S surrounding > 0 (d) ∆S system < 0 and ∆S surrounding < 0 26. A piston filled with 0.04 mole of an ideal gas expands reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a constant temperature of 37.0°C. As it does so, it absorbs 208 J of heat. The values of q and W for the process will be (2013 Main) (R = 8.314 J / mol K, ln 7.5 = 2.01) (a) q = + 208 J, W = − 208 J (b) q = − 208 J, W = − 208 J (c) q = − 208 J, W = + 208 J (d) q = + 208 J, W = + 208 J 27. For the process H2 O( l ) (1 bar, 373 K) → H2 O( g ) (1 bar, 373 K), the correct set of thermodynamic parameters is (2007, 3M) (a) ∆G = 0, ∆S = + ve (b) ∆G = 0, ∆S = − ve (c) ∆G = + ve, ∆S = 0 (d) ∆G = − ve, ∆S = + ve 28. The value of log 10 K for a reaction A r B is (Given : ∆ r H ° 298 K = − 54.07 kJ mol −1 , ∆ r S ° 298 K = 10 JK −1 mol −1 and R = 8.314 JK−1 mol−1 ; 2. 303 × 8. 314 × 298 = 5705) (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 95 (2007, 3M) (d) 100 29. The direct conversion of A to B is difficult, hence it is carried out by the following shown path C → D ↑ ↓ A Then, ∆S ( A → B ) is (a) + 100 eu (c) –100 eu B reversibly from 1 L to 10 L at 300 K. What is the enthalpy change? (2004, 1M) (a) 4.98 kJ (b) 11.47 kJ (c) –11.47 kJ (d) 0 kJ 33. Spontaneous adsorption of a gas on solid surface is an exothermic process because (2004, 1M) (a) ∆H increases for system (b) ∆S increases for gas (c) ∆S decreases for gas (d) ∆G increases for gas 34. One mole of a non-ideal gas undergoes a change of state (2.0 atm, 3.0 L, 95 K) → (4.0 atm, 5.0 L, 245 K) with a change in internal energy, ∆E = 30.0 L-atm. The change in enthalpy ( ∆H ) of the process in L-atm is (2002, 3M) (a) 40.0 (b) 42.0 (c) 44.0 (d) not defined, because pressure is not constant 35. Which of the following statements is false? (2001, 1M) (a) Work is a state function (b) Temperature is a state function (c) Change in the state is completely defined when the initial and final states are specified (d) Work appears at the boundary of the system 36. In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible when (2001, 1M) (a) surroundings and system change into each other (b) there is no boundary between system and surroundings (c) the surroundings are always in equilibrium with the system (d) the system changes into the surroundings spontaneously 37. For an endothermic reaction, where ∆H represents the enthalpy of the reaction in kJ/mol, the minimum value for the energy of activation will be (1992, 1M) (a) less than ∆H (b) zero (c) more than ∆H (d) equal to ∆H 112 Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 38. The difference between heats of reaction at constant pressure and constant volume for the reaction 2C6 H6 ( l ) + 15O2 → 12CO2 ( g ) + 6H2 O( l ) at 25° C in kJ is (a) − 7.43 (c) − 3.72 42. An ideal gas is expanded form ( p1 , V1 , T1 ) to ( p2 , V2 , T2 ) under different conditions. The correct statement(s) among the following is (are) (2017 Adv.) (1991, 1M) (b) + 3.72 (d) + 7.43 Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) 39. In thermodynamics, the p-V work done is given by w = − ∫ dV pext For a system undergoing a particular process, the work done is RT a − 2 w = − ∫ dV V − b V (a) The work done by the gas is less when it is expanded reversibly from V1 to V2 under adiabatic conditions as compared to that when expanded reversibly form V1 to V2 under isothermal conditions. (b) The change in internal energy of the gas is (i) zero, if it is expanded reversibly with T1 = T2, and (ii) positive, if it is expanded reversibly under adiabatic conditions with T1 ≠ T2 (c) If the expansion is carried out freely, it is simultaneously both isothermal as well as adiabatic (d) The work done on the gas is maximum when it is compressed irrversibly from ( p2 , V2 ) to ( p1, V1 ) against constant pressure p1 43. For a reaction taking place in a container in equilibrium This equation is applicable to a (2020 Adv.) (a) system that satisfies the van der Waals’ equation of state (b) process that is reversible and isothermal (c) process that is reversible and adiabatic (d) process that is irreversible and at constant pressure 40. Choose the reaction(s) from the following options, for which the standard enthalpy of reaction is equal to the standard enthalpy of formation. (2019 Adv.) (a) 2C( g ) + 3 H2 ( g ) → C2 H6 ( g ) (b) 2H2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) → 2H2 O( l ) 3 (c) O2 ( g ) → O3 ( g ) 2 1 (d) S8 ( s ) + O2 ( g ) → SO2 ( g ) 8 with its surroundings, the effect of temperature on its equilibrium constant K in terms of change in entropy is described by (2017 Adv.) (a) With increase in temperature, the value of K for endothermic reaction increases because unfavourable change in entropy of the surroundings decreases (b) With increase in temperature, the value of K for exothermic reaction decreases because favourable change in entropy of the surrounding decreases (c) With increase in temperature, the value of K for endothermic reaction increases because the entropy change of the system is negative (d) With increase in temperature, the value of K for exothermic reaction decreases because the entropy change of the system is positive 44. An ideal gas in thermally insulated vessel at internal 41. A reversible cyclic process for an ideal gas is shown below. Here, p , V and T are pressure, volume and temperature, respectively. The thermodynamic parameters q , w , H and U are heat, work, enthalpy and internal energy, respectively. pressure = p1 , volume = V1 and absolute temperature = T1 expands irreversibly against zero external pressure, as shown in the diagram. The final internal pressure, volume and absolute temperature of the gas are p2 , V2 and T2 , respectively. For this expansion (2018 Adv.) Volume (V) pext=0 A(p1, V1, T1) C ( p 2 , V 1 , T2 ) B(p2, V2, T1) Irreversible pext=0 p1,V1,T1 p2,V2,T2 Thermal insulation Temperature (T) The correct options is (are) (a) q AC = ∆U BC and w AB = p2 (V2 − V1 ) (b) wBC = p2 (V2 − V1 ) and qBC = ∆H AC (c) ∆HCA < ∆UCA and q AC = ∆U BC (d) qBC = ∆H AC and ∆HCA > ∆UCA (2014 Adv.) (a) q = 0 (b) T2 = T1 (c) p2V2 = p1V1 (d) p2V2γ = p1V1γ 45. Benzene and naphthalene form an ideal solution at room temperature. For this process, the true statement(s) is (are) (2013 Adv.) (a) ∆G is positive (c) ∆S surroundings = 0 (b) ∆S system is positive (d) ∆H = 0 Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 113 46. The reversible expansion ob an ideal gas under adiabatic and isothermal conditions is shown in the figure. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct? (2012) What is the ratio of the standard Gibbs energy of the reaction at 1000 K to that at 2000 K? (2020 Adv.) Partial pressure of B (bar) 115 (p1,V1,T1) Iso the rma l ia ba tic p Ad (p2,V2,T2) (p3,V3,T3) V (a) T1 = T2 (b) T3 > T1 (c) Wisothermal > Wadiabatic (d) ∆U isothermal > ∆U adiabatic t′ p(atmosphere) initial state X to the final state Z. The final state Z can be reached by either of the two paths shown in the figure. Y X Z V(litre) [Take ∆S as change in entropy and W as work done]. Which of the following choice(s) is (are) correct? (a) ∆S X → Z = ∆S X → Y + ∆S Y → Z (b) W X → Z = W X → Y + WY → Z (c) W X → Y → Z = W X → Y (d) ∆S X → Y → Z = ∆S X → Y (2012) Assertion and Reason Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below : (a) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true; Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true 52. Statement I There is a natural asymmetry between converting work to heat and converting heat to work. Statement II No process is possible in which the sole result is the absorption of heat from a reservoir and its complete conversion into work. (2008, 3M) standard Gibbs energy of reaction is zero. (2010) (b) electromotive force (d) heat capacity Statement II At constant temperature and pressure, chemical reactions are spontaneous in the direction of decreasing Gibbs energy. (2008, 3M) 54. Statement I The heat absorbed during the isothermal 49. Among the following, the state function(s) is(are) (a) internal energy (b) irreversible expansion work (c) reversible expansion work (d) molar enthalpy (2009) expansion of an ideal gas against vacuum is zero. Statement II The volume occupied by the molecules of an ideal gas is zero. (2000, S, 1M) Passage Based Questions 50. Identify the intensive quantities from the following. (1993, 1M) (b) temperature (d) refractive index A fixed mass m of a gas is subjected to transformation of states from K to L to M to N and back to K as shown in the figure. (2013 Adv.) Numerical Answer Type Questions 51. Consider the reaction, A B at 1000 K. At time t’, the temperature of the system was increased to 2000 K and the system was allowed to reach equilibrium. Throughout this experiment the partial pressure of A was maintained at 1 bar. Given, below is the plot of the partial pressure of B with time. q Time 53. Statement I For every chemical reaction at equilibrium, 48. Among the following, extensive property is (properties are) (a) enthalpy (c) volume 50 10 47. For an ideal gas, consider only p -V work in going from (a) molar conductivity (c) resistance 100 K L N M Pressure Volume 55. The pair of isochoric processes among the transformation of states is (a) K to L and L to M (c) L to M and M to N (b) L to M and N to K (d) M to N and N to K 114 Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 56. The succeeding operations that enable this transformation of states are (a) heating, cooling, heating, cooling (b) cooling, heating, cooling, heating (c) heating, cooling, cooling, heating (d) cooling, heating, heating, cooling 67. One mole of an ideal gas is taken from a to b along two paths denoted by the solid and the dashed lines as shown in the graph below. If the work done along the solid line path is Ws and that along the dotted line path is Wd , then the integer (2010) closest to the ratio Wd / Ws is 4.5 Match the Columns 4.0 57. Match the thermodynamic processes given under Column I with the expressions given under Column II. Column I Column II q=0 B. Expansion of 1 mole of an ideal gas into a vacuum under isolated conditions q. W =0 Mixing of equal volumes of two ideal gases at constant temperature and pressure in an isolated container r. D. Reversible heating of H2 ( g ) at 1 atm from 300 K to 600 K, followed by reversible cooling to 300 K at 1 atm s. ∆S sys < 0 options in Column II. Column I V (L) ∆G = 0 Column II p. Phase transition r. ∆H is positive D. P(white, solid) → P(red, solid) s. ∆S is positive t. ∆S is negative Fill in the Blanks 59. Enthalpy is an ............... property. (1997, 1M) 60. When Fe(s) is dissolved in aqueous hydrochloric acid in a closed vessel, the work done is ................ . (1997) 61. The heat content of the products is more than that of the (1993, 1M) 62. A system is said to be ........ if it can neither exchange matter (1993, 1M) (1984, 1M) 64. The total energy of one mole of an ideal monatomic gas at (1984, 1M) True/False 65. First law of thermodynamics is not adequate in predicting (1982, 1M) 66. Heat capacity of a diatomic gas is higher than that of a monoatomic gas. 0.0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0 5.5 6.0 moles of CO and one mole of O2 are taken in a container of volume 1 L. They completely form two moles of CO2 , the gases deviate appreciably from ideal behaviour. If the pressure in the vessel changes from 70 to 40 atm, find the magnitude (absolute value) of ∆U at 500 K. (1 L-atm = 0.1 kJ) C. 2H• → H2 ( g ) the direction of a process. b 68. For the reaction, 2CO + O2 → 2CO2 ; ∆H = − 560 kJ. Two B. CaCO3 ( s ) → CaO( s ) + CO2 ( g ) q. Allotropic change 27° C is ..............cal. 0.5 ∆U = 0 (2011) 63. C p − CV for an ideal gas is ................. 1.0 Subjective Questions 58. Match the transformations in Column I with appropriate nor energy with the surroundings. 2.0 0.0 t. reactants in an .............. reaction. p 2.5 (atm) 1.5 p. A. CO2 ( s ) → CO2 ( g ) a 3.5 3.0 A. Freezing of water at 273 K and 1 atm C. Integer Answer Type Question (1985, 1/2 M) (2006, 3M) 69. 100 mL of a liquid contained in an isolated container at a pressure of 1 bar. The pressure is steeply increased to 100 bar. The volume of the liquid is decreased by 1 mL at this constant pressure. Find the ∆H and ∆U . (2004, 2M) 3R 3R 70. CV value of He is always but CV value of H2 is at low 2 2 5R at moderate temperature and more than temperature and 2 5R at higher temperature. Explain in two or three lines. 2 (2003, 2M) 71. Two moles of a perfect gas undergo the following processes : (a) a reversible isobaric expansion from (1.0 atm, 20.0 L) to (1.0 atm, 40.0 L) (b) a reversible isochoric change of state from (1.0 atm, 40.0 L) to (0.5 atm, 40.0 L) (c) a reversible isothermal compression from (0.5 atm, 40.0 L) to (1.0 atm, 20.0 L) (i) Sketch with labels each of the processes on the same p-V diagram. (ii) Calculate the total work (W) and the total heat change (Q) involved in the above processes. (iii) What will be the values of ∆ U, ∆H and ∆S for the overall process? (2002, 5M) 72. When 1-pentyne (A) is treated with 4 N alcoholic KOH at 175° C, it is converted slowly into an equilibrium mixture of 1.3% 1-pentyne (A), 95.2% 2-pentyne (B) and 3.5% of Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 115 1, 2-pentadiene (C). The equilibrium was maintained at 175° C. Calculate ∆G° for the following equilibria. A, ∆G°1 = ? B r C, ∆G° 2 = ? B r Calculate the enthalpy change in this process CV m for argon is 12.49 JK −1 mol −1 . (2000, 4M) 75. A gas mixture of 3.67 L of ethylene and methane on From the calculated value of ∆G°1 and ∆G° 2 indicate the order of stability of (A), (B) and (C). Write a reasonable reaction mechanism showing all intermediates leading to (A), (B) and (C). (2001, 10M) 1 O2 ( g ) → CO2 ( g ) at 2 300 K, is spontaneous and exothermic, when the standard entropy change is − 0.094 kJ mol −1 K −1 . The standard Gibbs’ free energies of formation for CO2 and CO are –394.4 and –137.2 kJ mol −1 , respectively. (2000, 3M) 73. Show that the reaction, CO( g ) + 74. A sample of argon gas at 1 atm pressure and 27° C expands reversibly and adiabatically from 1.25 dm3 to 2.50 dm3 . complete combustion at 25° C produces 6.11 L of CO2 . Find out the amount of heat evolved on burning 1 L of the gas mixture. The heat of combustion of ethylene and methane are − 1423 and − 891 kJ mol −1 at 25°C. (1991, 5M) 76. An athlete is given 100 g of glucose (C6 H12 O6 ) of energy equivalent to 1560 kJ. He utilizes 50 per cent of this gained energy in the event. In order to avoid storage of energy in the body, calculate the weight of water he would need to perspire. The enthalpy of evaporation of water is 44 kJ/mol. (1989, 2M) 77. Following statement is true only under some specific conditions. Write the conditions for that in not more than two sentences “The heat energy q, absorbed by a gas is ∆H.’’ (1984, 1M) Topic 2 Thermochemistry Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. Lattice enthalpy and enthalpy of solution of NaCl are 788 kJ mol −1 and 4 kJ mol −1 , respectively. The hydration enthalpy of NaCl is (2020 Main, 5 Sep II) (a) −780 kJ mol −1 (b) 780 kJ mol −1 (c) −784 kJ mol −1 (d) 784 kJ mol −1 2. The variation of equilibrium constant with temperature is given below: Temperature (2020 Main, 6 Sep I) Equilibrium constant −1 at 200°C. If specific heat ofI2( s) andI2 (vap.) are 0.055 and 0.031 cal g −1 K −1 respectively, then enthalpy of sublimation of iodine at 250°C in cal g −1 is (2019 Main, 12 April I) 3. Enthalpy of sublimation of iodine is 24 cal g (c) 22.8 (b) x = y − z (d) x = y + z 5. Given, C(graphite) + O2 ( g ) → CO2 ( g ); ∆ r H ° = − 393.5 kJ mol − 1 Based on the above thermochemical equations, the value of (2017 Main) ∆ r H ° at 298 K for the reaction, C(graphite) + 2 H2 ( g ) → CH4 ( g ) will be [use R = 8.314 JK −1 mol −1 ] (a) 28.4, − 714 and − 5.71 . (b) 0.64, − 714 and − 5.71 . (c) 28.4, − 5.71 and − 14. 29 (d) 0.64, − 5.71 and − 14. 29 (b) 5.7 (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) (a) y = 2 z − x (c) z = x + y 1 H2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) → H2 O( l ); ∆ r H ° = − 285.8 kJ mol −1 2 CO2 ( g ) + 2 H2 O( l ) → CH4 ( g ) + 2O2 ( g ); ∆ r H ° = + 890.3 kJ mol −1 T1 = 25° C K 1 = 10 T2 = 100° C K 2 = 100 The values of ∆H °, ∆G° at T1 and ∆G° at T2 (in kJ mol −1 ) respectively, are close to (a) 2.85 1 (iii) CO ( g ) + O2 ( g ) → CO2 ( g ); ∆ r H È = z kJ mol− 1 2 Based on the above thermochemical equations, find out which one of the following algebraic relationships is correct? (d) 11.4 4. Given : (i) C(graphite) + O2 ( g ) → CO2 ( g ); ∆ r H È = x kJ mol− 1 1 (ii) C(graphite) + O2 ( g ) → CO2 ( g ); 2 ∆ r H È = y kJ mol− 1 (a) + 78 .8 kJ mol − 1 (b) + 144.0 kJ mol − 1 (c) − 74 .8 kJ mol − 1 (d) − 144.0 kJ mol − 1 6. The heats of combustion of carbon and carbon monoxide are − 393.5 and − 283.5 kJ mol−1 , respectively. The heat of formation (in kJ) of carbon monoxide per mole is (2016 Main) (a) 676.5 (c) −110.5 (b) −676.5 (d) 110.5 7. For the complete combustion of ethanol, C2 H 5 OH( l ) + 3O2 ( g ) → 2CO2 ( g ) + 3H2 O( l ), the amount of heat produced as measured in bomb calorimeter, is 1364.47 kJ mol −1 at 25°C. Assuming 116 Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry ideality the enthalpy of combustion, ∆C H, for the reaction will be (R = 8.314 J K–1 mol –1 ) (2014 Main) (a) − 1366. 95 kJ mol −1 (b) − 1361. 95 kJ mol −1 (c) − 1460. 50 kJ mol −1 (d) − 1350. 50 kJ mol −1 8. The standard enthalpies of formation of CO2 ( g ), H2 O( l ) and glucose(s) at 25°C are − 400 kJ/mol, − 300 kJ/mol and − 1300 kJ/mol, respectively. The standard enthalpy of combustion per gram of glucose at 25°C is (2013 Adv.) (a) + 2900 kJ (b) − 2900 kJ (c) − 16. 11 kJ (d) + 16.11kJ 9. Using the data provided, calculate the multiple bond energy −1 (kJ mol ) of a C≡≡ C bond C2 H2 . That energy is (take the bond energy of a C H bond as 350 kJ mol −1 ) (a) 1165 (2012) ∆H = 225 kJ mol −1 2C( s ) + H2 ( g ) → C2 H2 ( g ) ; 2C( s ) → 2C( g ) ; ∆H = 1410 kJ mol −1 H2 ( g ) → 2H( g ) ; ∆H = 330 kJ mol −1 (b) 837 (c) 865 (d) 815 10. The species which by definition has zero standard molar enthalpy of formation at 298 K is (a) Br2 ( g ) (b) Cl 2 ( g ) (c) H2 O( g ) (2010) (d) CH4 ( g ) 11. The bond energy (in kcal mol −1 ) of C— C single bond is approximately (a) 1 (b) 10 (2010) (c) 100 (d) 1000 12. ∆H vap = 30 kJ/mol and ∆S vap = 75 Jmol –1 K –1 . Find the temperature of vapour, at one atmosphere (2004, 1M) (a) 400 K (b) 350 K (c) 298 K (d) 250 K 13. Which of the following reactions defines ∆H f° ? (a) C(diamond) + O2 ( g ) → CO2 ( g ) 1 1 (b) H2 ( g ) + F2 ( g ) → HF( g ) 2 2 (c) N2 ( g ) + 3H2 ( g ) → 2NH3 ( g ) 1 (d) CO ( g ) + O2 ( g ) → CO2 ( g ) 2 (2003, 1M) − 393.5, − 110.5 and −241.8 kJ mol −1 respectively. The −1 standard enthalpy change (in kJ mol ) for the reaction CO2 ( g ) + H2 ( g ) → CO( g ) + H2 O( g ) is (2000, 1M) (b) + 41.2 (d) − 41.2 Objective Question II (One or more than one correct option) 15. The following is/are endothermic reaction(s) (a) Combustion of methane (b) Decomposition of water (c) Dehydrogenation of ethane to ethylene (d) Conversion of graphite to diamond studied under different conditions. CaCO3 ( s ) r CaO( s ) + CO2 ( g ) (2013 Adv.) For this equilibrium, the correct statement(s) is/are (a) ∆H is dependent on T (b) K is independent of the initial amount of CaCO3 (c) K is dependent on the pressure of CO2 at a given T (d) ∆H is independent of the catalyst, if any Subjective Questions 17. In a constant volume calorimeter, 3.5 g of a gas with molecular weight 28 was burnt in excess oxygen at 298.0 K. The temperature of the calorimeter was found to increases from 298.0 K to 298.45 K due to the combustion process. Given that the heat capacity of the calorimeter is 2.5 kJ K − 1 , the numerical value for the enthalpy of combustion of the gas in kJ mol − 1 is (2009) 18. Diborane is a potential rocket fuel which undergoes combustion according to the reaction B2 H6 ( g ) + 3O2 ( g ) → B2 O3 ( s ) + 3H2 O ( g ) From the following data, calculate the enthalpy change for the combustion of diborane. (2000, 2M) 3 2B ( s ) + O2 ( g ) → B2 O3 ( s ) ; ∆H = − 1273 kJ mol −1 2 1 H2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) → H2 O ( l ) ; ∆H = − 286 kJ mol –1 2 H2 O ( l ) → H2 O ( g ) ; ∆H = 44 kJ mol −1 2B ( s ) + 3H2 ( g ) → B2 H6 ( g ) ; ∆H = 36 kJ mol −1 19. Estimate the average S–F bond energy in SF6 . The values of standard enthalpy of formation of SF6 (g), S( g ) and F( g ) are : – 1100, 275 and 80 kJ mol –1 respectively. (1999, 3M) 20. From the following data, calculate the enthalpy change for the combustion of cyclopropane at 298 K. The enthalpy of formation of CO2 ( g ), H2 O ( l ) and propane (g) are –393.5, −285.8 and 20.42 kJ mol −1 respectively. The enthalpy of isomerisation of cyclopropane to propene is −33.0 kJ mol −1 . (1998, 5M) 14. The ∆H f° for CO2 ( g ),CO( g ) and H2 O ( g ) are (a) 524.1 (c) −262.5 16. The thermal dissociation of equilibrium of CaCO3 ( s ) is 21. Compute the heat of formation of liquid methyl alcohol in kJ mol −1 , using the following data. Heat of vaporisation of liquid methyl alcohol = 38 kJ/mol. Heat of formation of gaseous atoms from the elements in their standard states : H = 218 kJ/mol, C = 715 kJ/mol, O = 249 kJ/mol. Average bond energies: (1997, 5M) C— H = 415 kJ/mol, C— O = 356 kJ/mol, O— H = 463 kJ/mol 22. The (1999, 3M) standard molar enthalpies of formation of cyclohexane (l) and benzene (l) at 25° C are −156 and + 49 kJ mol −1 respectively. The standard enthalpy of hydrogenation of cyclohexene (l) at 25° C is −119 kJ mol −1 . Use these data to estimate the magnitude of the resonance energy of benzene. (1996, 2M) Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 117 23. The polymerisation of ethylene to linear polyethylene is represented by the reaction, ]n n [CH2 == CH2 ] → [ CH2 — CH2 where, n has large integral value. Given that the average enthalpies of bond dissociation for C == C and C C at 298 K are +590 and +311 kJ/mol respectively, calculate the enthalpy of polymerization per mole of ethylene at 298 K. (1994, 2M) 24. In order to get maximum calorific output, a burner should have an optimum fuel to oxygen ratio which corresponds to 3 times as much oxygen as is required theoretically for complete combustion of the fuel. A burner which has been adjusted for methane as fuel (with x litre/hour of CH4 and 6x litre/hour of O2 ) is to be readjusted for butane, C4 H10 . 29. The standard molar heat of formation of ethane, carbon dioxide and liquid water are −21.1, −94.1 and − 68.3 kcal respectively. Calculate the standard molar heat of combustion of ethane. (1986, 2M) 30. The bond dissociation energies of gaseous H2 ,Cl 2 and HCl are 104, 58 and 103 kcal/mol respectively. Calculate the enthalpy of formation of HCl gas. (1985, 2M) 31. Given the following standard heats of reactions (i) heat of formation of water = − 68.3 kcal (ii) heat of combustion of acetylene = − 310.6 kcal (iii) heat of combustion of ethylene = − 337.2 kcal Calculate the heat of reaction for the hydrogenation of acetylene at constant volume (25° C). (1984, 4M) In order to get the same calorific output, what should be the rate of supply of butane and oxygen? Assume that losses due to incomplete combustion etc., are the same for both fuels and that the gases behave ideally. Heats of combustions: 32. The molar heats of combustion of C2 H2 ( g ), C (graphite) and CH4 = − 809 kJ/mol, C4 H10 = − 2878 kJ/mol 33. The standard heats of formation of CCl 4 ( g ), H2 O( g ), (1993, 3M) 25. Determine the enthalpy of the reaction, C3 H8 ( g ) + H2 ( g ) → C2 H6 ( g ) + CH4 ( g ), at 25° C, using the given heat of combustion values under standard conditions. Compound : H2 ( g ) CH4 ( g ) C2 H6 ( g ) C(graphite) ∆H ° (kJ/mol): −285.8 − 890.0 −1560.0 −393.0 The standard heat of formation of C3 H8 ( g ) is −103 kJ/mol. (1992, 3M) 26. Using the data (all values are in kilocalories per mol at 25° C) given below, calculate the bond energy of C C and C H bonds. C( s ) → C( g ); ∆H = 172 H2 ( g ) → 2H ( g ); ∆H = 104 1 H2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) → H2 O( l ); ∆H = − 68.0 2 ∆H = − 94.0 C( s ) + O2 ( g ) → CO2 ( g ); Heat of combustion of C2 H6 = −372.0 Heat of combustion of C3 H8 = −530.0 (1990, 5M) 27. The standard enthalpy of combustion at 25° C of hydrogen, cyclohexene (C6 H10 ) and cyclohexane (C6 H12 ) are − 241, − 3800 and − 3920 kJ/mol respectively. Calculate the heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene. (1989, 2M) 28. An intimate mixture of ferric oxide, Fe2 O3 , and aluminium, Al, is used in solid fuel rockets. Calculate the fuel value per gram and fuel value per cc of the mixture. Heats of formation and densities are as follows: H f (Al 2 O3 ) = − 399 kcal/mol H f (Fe2 O3 ) = − 199 kcal/mol Density of Fe2 O3 = 5.2 g/cc, Density of Al = 2.7 g/cc (1989, 2M) H2 ( g ) are 310.62 kcal, 94.05 kcal and 68.32 kcal respectively. Calculate the standard heat of formation of (1983, 2M) C2 H2 ( g ) . CO2 ( g ) and HCl( g ) at 298 K are −25.5, −57.8 , −94.1 and −22.1 kcal/mol respectively. Calculate ∆H ° (298 K) for the reaction CCl 4 ( g ) + 2H2 O ( g ) → CO2 ( g ) + 4 HCl ( g ) (1982, 2M) 34. The enthalpy for the following reactions ( ∆H ° ) at 25°C are given below 1 1 (i) H2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) → OH( g ) ∆H ° = − 10.06 kcal 2 2 (ii) H2 ( g ) → 2H( g ) ∆H ° = 104.18 kcal (iii) O2 ( g ) → 2O( g ) ∆H ° = 118.32 kcal Calculate the O — H bond energy in the hydroxyl radical. (1981, 2M) Passage Based Questions When 100 mL of 1.0 M HCl was mixed with 100 mL of 1.0 M NaOH in an insulated beaker at constant pressure, a temperature increase of 5.7°C was measured for the beaker and its contents (Expt. 1). Because the enthalpy of neutralisation of a strong acid with a strong base is a constant ( −57.0 kJ mol−1 ), this experiment could be used to measure the calorimeter constant. In a second experiment (Expt. 2), 100 mL of 2.0 M acetic acid ( K a = 2.0 × 10−5 ) was mixed with 100 mL of 1.0 M NaOH (under identical conditions to Expt. 1) where a temperature rise of 5.6°C was measured. 35. Enthalpy of dissociation (in kJ mol−1 ) of acetic acid obtained from the Expt. 2 is (a) 1.0 (b) 10.0 (c) 24.5 (d) 51.4 36. The pH of the solution after Expt. 2 is (a) 2.8 (b) 4.7 (c) 5.0 (d) 7.0 Answers Topic 1 Thermodynamics 59. (extensive)60. (zero) 61. (exothermic reaction) 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 62. (isolated) 63. (R) 64. (900) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 66. (T) 67. (2) 68. (−563 kJ) 73. (−285.4 kJ) 74. (− 116.4 J) 75. (49.82 kJ) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a, b, c) 40. (c, d) 41. (b,c) 42. (a, c, d) 43. (a, b) 44. (a,b,c) 45. (b,c,d) 46. (a,c,d) 47. (a,c) 48. (c,d) 49. (a,c,d) 50. (b, d) 51. (0.25) 52. (b) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. A → r, t; B → p, q, s; C → p, q, s; D → p,q, s, t 58. A → p, r, s; B → r, s; C → t; D → p, q, t 65. (T) 72. (12.3 kJ) 76. (318.96 g) Topic 2 Thermochemistry 1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b,c,d) 16. (a, b, c, d) 17. (9 kJ) 18. (−2035 kJ) 19. (309.16 kJ) 20. (−2091.32 kJ) 21. (−116.4 kJ) 22. (−152 kJ/mol) 23. (−32 kJ/mol) 25. (−55 kJ) 24. (5.46 xL/h) 27. (−121kJ/mol) 29. (−372 kcal/mol) 30. (−22 kcal/mol) 31. (−41.7 kcal) 32. (54.2 kcal) 33. (−41.4 kcal) 34. (121.31 kcal) 35. (1 kJ/mol) 36. (4.7) Hints & Solutions Topic 1 Thermodynamics 3. A process will be spontaneous when its free energy (Gibb’s Key Idea Work done during isothermal expansion of an ideal gas is given by the equation. W = − pext (V2 − V1 ) 1. According to the given conditions, the expansion is against constant external pressure. So, the work done is given by following formula; W = − pext (V2 − V1 ) = − 1bar (10L − 1L)= − 9 L bar 2. (Q1Lbar =100J) energy) change will be negative, i.e. ∆G < 0. Spontaneity of a process is decided by the value of ∆G, which can be predicted from the Gibb’s equation, ∆G = ∆H − T∆S for positive/negative signs of ∆H and ∆S at any/higher/lower temperature as: ∆H ∆S Comment on temperature (T) ∆G Comment on the process <0 >0 at any temp. <0 spontaneous = −9 × 100 J = −0.9 kJ >0 <0 at any temp. >0 non-spontaneous Key Idea The relation between ∆H and ∆U is ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT where, ∆ng = Σnp − ΣnR = number of moles of gaseous products − number of moles of gaseous reactants. <0 <0 at lower temp. <0 spontaneous >0 >0 at higher temp. <0 spontaneous 4. In the given system, during the compression of a spring the workdone is 10 kJ and 2 kJ of heat is escaped to the surroundings. So, q = − 2 kJ and W = 10 kJ The general combustion reaction of a hydrocarbon is as follows : y y CxH y + x + O2 → xCO2 + H2O 4 2 According to the first law of thermodynamics, For heptane, x = 7, y = 16 ⇒ C7H16 (l ) + 11O2(g ) → 7CO2(g ) + 8H2O(l ) The change in internal energy, ∆U (in kJ) is 8 kJ. ∴ ∆ng = 7 − 11 = − 4 Now, from the principle of thermochemistry, ⇒ ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT ∆H − ∆U = ∆ngRT = − 4RT ∆U = q + W = − 2 kJ + 10 kJ ∆U = 8 kJ 5. q (heat) and W (work) represents path functions. These variables are path dependent and their values depends upon the path followed by the system in attaining that state. They are inexact differentials whose integration gives a total quantity depending upon the path. Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 119 Option (a), i.e. q + W and option (d), i.e. H–TS are state functions. The value of state functions is independent to the way in which the state is attained. All the state functions are exact differentials and cyclic integration involving a state functions is zero. 6. Given, n = 5 mol, T2 = 200 K, T1 = 100 K CV = 28 JK −1mol−1 ∆U = nCV ∆T = nCV (T2 − T1 ) = 5 mol × 28 JK −1mol−1 × (200 − 100) K = 14 ,000 J = 14 kJ ∆pV = nR∆T = nR (T2 − T1 ) = 5 mol × 8 JK −1mol−1 × (200 − 100) K = 4000 J = 4 kJ 7. From the 1st law of thermodynamics, ∆U = q + W where, ∆U = change in internal energy q = heat W = work done The above equation can be represented for the given processes involving ideal gas as follows: (a) Cyclic process For cyclic process, ∆U = 0 ∴ q = −W Thus, option (a) is correct. (b) Adiabatic process For adiabatic process, q=0 ∴ ∆U = W Thus, option (b) is incorrect. (c) Isochoric process For isochoric process, ∆V = 0. Thus, (QW = p∆V ). W =0 ∴ ∆V = q Thus, option (c) is correct. (d) Isothermal process For isothermal process, ∴ q = −W Thus, option (d) is correct. ∆U = 0 9. For diatomic ideal gases, CV = where, f = degree of freedom f = translational degree of freedom + rotational degree of freedom = 3 + 2 = 5 [at normal temperature] The explanation of various plots are as follows. (a) We know that, C p is heat capacity at constant pressure. Thus, it does not vary with the variation in pressure. Hence, plot given in option (a) is incorrect. (b) In this plot, CV first increases slightly with increase in temperature and then increases sharply with temperature. The sharp increase is due to increase in degree of freedom. Thus, plot given in option (b) is correct. (c) For ideal gases, Internal energy (U ) ∝ T Thus, as temperature increases internal energy also increases. As temperature increases further degree of freedom also increases thus, there is slight variation in the graph. First translational degree of freedom is present followed by rotational and vibrational degree of freedom. Hence, plot given in option (c) is also correct. (d) CV is heat capacity at constant volume. Thus, it does not vary with variation in volume. Hence, plot given in option (d) is correct. 10. Given, dE ° −4 −1 E° = 2V, = − 5 × 10 VK dT T = 300K, R = 8JK −1mol −1, F = 96000Cmol −1 According to Gibbs-Helmholtz equation, Also, = − 4 × 96000J mol −1 …(i) where, ∆H = Change in enthalpy. C p = Heat capacity at constant pressure. Given, n = 3 moles, T1 = 300 K, T2 = 1000 K, C p = 23 + 0.01 T On substituting the given values in Eq. (i), we get 1000 ∫ (23 + 0.01 T )dT = 3 300 ∫ 23dT + 0.01T dT 300 2 1000 0.01 T = 3 23T + 2 300 0.01 (10002 − 3002 ) = 3 23 (1000 − 300) + 2 = 3 [16100 + 4550 ] = 61950 J ≈ 62 kJ …(ii) [Q n = 2 for the given reaction] = − 384000J mol −1 T1 1000 …(i) ∆G = − nFE °cell ∆G = − 2 × 96000 C mol−1 × 2 V T2 ∆H = 3 ∆ G = ∆ H − T∆ S On substituting the given values in equation (ii), we get 8. According to Kirchoff’s relation, ∆H = n ∫ C p dT f f R and C p = + 1 R 2 2 Now, dE ° ∆S = nF dT or ∆S = 2 × 96000 C mol−1 × (−5 × 10−4 VK −1 ) = − 96 JK −1 mol −1 Thus, on substituting the values of ∆G and ∆S in Eq. (i), we get − 384000Jmol−1 = ∆H − 300 K × (−96 JK −1mol−1 ) ∆H = − 384000 − 28800 Jmol−1 = − 412800J mol −1 = − 412.800 kJ mol −1 120 Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 11. According to Gibbs-Helmholtz equation, ∆ rG ° = ∆ r H ° − T∆ r S ° For a reaction to be feasible (spontaneous) ∆ r G° < 0 ∆ r H °−T∆ r S ° <0 Given, ∆ r H ° = + 491.1kJ mol − 1 , ∆ r S ° = 198 JK − 1 mol − 1 (a) N2(g ) + 3H2(g ) → 2NH3 (g ), ∆ng = 2 − (1 + 3) = − 2 So, ∆S is also negative (entropy decreases) 3 491.1 × 10 = 2480.3 K 198 ∴Above 2480.3 K reaction will become spontaneous. 12. According to Gibb’s Helmholtz equation, ∆ rG ° = ∆ r H ° − T∆ r S ° Given, ∆ rG ° = A − BT On comparing above two equations, we get, A = ∆H ° and ∆S ° = B We know that, if ∆H ° is negative, reaction is exothermic and when it is positive, reaction is endothermic. ∴ If A > 0, i.e. positive, reaction is endothermic. 13. For a given value of T , (i) If ∆ rG ° becomes < 0, the forward direction will be spontaneous and then the major and minor components will be Y and X respectively. (ii) If ∆ rG ° becomes > 0, the forward direction will be non-spontaneous and then the major and minor components will be X and Y respectively. 3 (a) ∆ rG ° = 120 − × 280 = 15 8 i.e. ∆ rG ° > O 0, major component = X ; 3 (b) ∆ rG ° = 120 − × 350 = − 1125 . 8 i.e. ∆ rG ° < 0, major component = Y 3 (c) ∆ rG ° = 120 − × 315 = 1875 . 8 i.e. ∆ rG ° > 0, major component = X 3 (d) ∆ rG ° = 120 − × 300 = 7.5 8 i.e. ∆ rG ° > 0, major component = X 14. At the thermal equilibrium, final temperature T f = T1 + T2 2 ⇒ for the 1st block, ∆S I = C p ln ⇒ for the 2nd block, ∆S II T1 + T2 2 (T + T2 )2 2 = C p ln 1 = C p ln T1T2 4T1T2 15. The explanation of all the options are as follows : ∴ 491.1 × 103 − T × 198 < 0 T> T f2 Tf Tf = C p ln × = C p ln T1 T2 T1T2 Tf T1 Tf = C p ln T2 When brought in contact with each other, Tf Tf + C p ln ∆ S = ∆S I + ∆S II = C p ln T2 T1 ∆ (b) CaSO4 (s) → CaO(s) + SO3 (g ), ∆ng = (1 + 0) − 0 = + 1 So, ∆S = + ve (c) In dissolution, ∆S = + ve because molecules/ions of the solid solute (here, iodine) become free to move in solvated/dissolved state of the solution, I2 (s) Water → I2 (aq) (KI) (d) In sublimation process, molecules of solid becomes quite free when they become gas, CO2(s) → CO2 (g ) Dry ice So, ∆S will be positive. 16. It is an irreversible isothermal compression of an ideal gas. (i) dE = dq + p(V f − Vi ) where, dE = Internal energy change dq = amount of heat released ⇒ 0 = dq + p (V f − Vi ) [Q dE = 0 for an isothermal process] ⇒ dq = − 4 (1 − 5) = 16 J (ii) dq = n × C × ∆T (for Al) ⇒ 16 J = 1mol × 24 J mol − 1 K −1 × ∆T 16 2 K= K ⇒ ∆T = 24 3 17. ∆G = ∆H − T∆S The process will be spontaneous, when ∆G = − ve, i.e. |T∆S | > | ∆ H | Given : ∆H = 200 Jmol−1 and ∆S = 40 JK −1mol−1 | ∆ H | 200 T > = =5K ⇒ 40 | ∆S | So, the minimum temperature for spontaneity of the process is 5 K. 18. The conversion of 1 kg of ice at 273 K into water vapours at 383 K takes place as follows: H2O(s) 273K ∆S1 H2O(l) ∆S2 H2O(l) 373K 273K ∆S3 H2O(g) 383K ∆S4 H2O(g) 373K Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 121 ∆S 1 = ∆H Fusion 334 kJ kg −1 = 122 . kJ kg −1K −1 = ∆TFusion 273 K ∆S 2 = C ln 373 K T2 = 4.2 kJ K −1kg −1 ln 273 K T1 = 4.2 × 2.303 (log 373 − log 273)kJ K −1kg −1 = 4.2 × 2.303 (2.572 − 2.436) = 131 . kJ K −1kg −1 − 1 ∆H vap. 2491 kJ kg = 6.67 kJ kg −1K −1 ∆S 3 = = 373 K ∆Tvap. ∆S 4 = Cln 383 K T2 = 2 kJ K −1kg −1 ln 373 K T1 = 2 × 2.303 (log 383 − log 373) kJ K −1kg −1 = 2 × 2.303 (2.583 − 2.572) kJ K −1kg −1 = 0.05 kJ K −1kg −1 ∆S Total = ∆S 1 + ∆S 2 + ∆S 3 + ∆S 4 = 122 . + 131 . + 6.67 + 0.05 = 9.26 kJ kg −1K −1 19. For isothermal reversible expansion, | W | = nRT ln Vf Vi = nRT ln V Vi where, V = final volume, Vi = initial final. or | W | = nRT ln V − nRT ln Vi On comparing with equation of straight line, y = mx + c, we get slope = m = + nRT intercept = − nRT ln Vi Thus, plot of |W | with lnV will give straight line in which slope of 2(T2 ) is greater than slope of 1(T1 ) which is given in all options. Now, if Vi < 1then y intercept (− nRT Vi ) becomes positive and if it is positive for one case then it is positive for other case also. Thus, it is not possible that one y-intercept goes above and other y-intercept goes below. Thus, option (b) and (d) are incorrect. If we extent plot given in option (a) it seems to be merging which is not possible because if they are merging they give same +ve y-intercept. But they cannot give same y-intercept because value of T is different. Now, if we extent the line of T1 and T2 given in option (c) it seems to be touching the origin. If they touch the origin then y-intercept becomes zero which is not possible. Thus, it is not the exactly correct answer but among the given options it is the most appropriate one. 20. Key idea Calculate the heat of combustion with the help of following formula ∆H p = ∆U + ∆ngRT where, ∆H p = Heat of combustion at constant pressure ∆U = Heat at constant volume (It is also called ∆E) ∆ng = Change in number of moles (In gaseous state). R = Gas constant; T = Temperature. From the equation, 15 C6H6( l ) + O2( g ) → 6CO2( g ) + 3H2O( l ) 2 Change in the number of gaseous moles i.e. 15 3 ∆ng = 6 − = − or −15 . 2 2 Now we have ∆ng and other values given in the question are ∆U = − 3263.9 kJ/mol T = 25° C = 273 + 25 = 298 K R = 8.314 JK−1mol −1 So, ∆H p = (−3263.9) + (−15 . ) × 8.314 × 10−3 × 298 = − 3267.6 kJ mol −1 21. According to first law of thermodynamics, ∆ U = q + W = q − p∆ V In isochoric process (∆V = 0), ∆U = q In isobaric process (∆p = 0), ∆U = q In adiabatic process (q = 0), ∆U = W In isothermal process (∆T = 0) and ∆U = 0 ∴ ∆U is equal to adiabatic work. 22. G = H − TS = U + pV − TS ⇒ dG = dU + pdV + Vdp − TdS − SdT = Vdp − SdT [Q dU + pdV = dq = TdS ] ⇒ dG = Vdp if isothermal process (dT = 0) ⇒ ∆G = V∆p Now taking initial state as standard state …(i) Ggr − Ggr ° = Vgr ∆p …(ii) G d − G d ° = Vd ∆p Now (ii)-(i) gives, ° − G° (Vd − Vgr )∆p = Gd − Ggr + (Ggr d At equilibrium, Gd = Ggr ⇒ (Vgr − Vd )∆p = Gd ° − Ggr ° = 2.9 × 103 J 29 29000 2.9 × 103 bar Pa = × 108 Pa = 2 2 2 × 10−6 29000 29000 p = p0 + =1+ = 14501bar 2 2 ∆p = ⇒ ∆E = Q + W 23. By first law, For isothermal expansion, ∆E = 0 ∴ Q = −W − Qirrev = W irrev = p∆V = 3(2 − 1) = 3 L atm Q (− 3 × 101.3) J 303.9 Also, ∆S surr = irrev = =− = − 1.013JK−1 T 300 K 300 24. For the given reaction, 2NO(g ) + O2 (g ) s 2NO2 (g ) ∆G ° (NO) = 86.6 kJ/mol Given, f ∆G °f (NO2 ) = ? K p = 1.6 × 1012 Now, we have, ∆G ° = 2∆G ° f f (NO ) 2 − [ 2∆G f°(NO) + ∆G f°(O ) ] 2 = − RT lnK p = 2∆G °f (NO ) − [ 2 × 86,600 + 0 ] 2 ∆G °f (NO 2) ∆G °f (NO 2) 1 = [ 2 × 86600 − R × 298 ln (1.6 × 1012 )] 2 = 0.5 [ 2 × 86,600 − R × (298)ln (1.6 × 1012 )] 122 Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 25. PLAN This problem is based on assumption that total entropy change of universe is zero. 32. In case of reversible thermodynamic process, ∆H = nC p ∆T ∴ Process is isothermal, ∆T = 0 ⇒ ∆H = 0 At 100°C and 1 atmosphere pressure, H2O (l ) r H2O(g ) is at equilibrium. For equilibrium, ∆S total = 0 and ∆S system + ∆S surrounding = 0 Also; ∆G = ∆H − T∆S As we know during conversion of liquid to gas entropy of system increases, in a similar manner entropy of surrounding decreases. ∴ ∆S system > 0 and ∆S surrounding < 0 26. The process is isothermal expansion, hence q= −W ∆E = 0 V2 V1 335 = − 208J 50 (expansion work) 35. Work is not a state-function, it depends on path followed. 36. In a reversible thermodynamic process, system always remains with vapour phase, therefore ∆G = 0. As vaporisation occur, degree of randomness increases, hence ∆S > 0. 3 3 38. ∆H = ∆E + ∆ngRT ⇒ ∆H − ∆E = ∆ngRT = − 3RT 39. Given, w = − ∫ pext dV = – 57.05 × 10 J ∆G ° = − 2.303 RT log K − ∆G ° 57.05 × 103 log K = = = 10 2.303 RT 5705 For 1 mole van der Waals’ gas RT a − p= V − b V 2 29. Entropy is a state function hence, For reversible process, pext = pgas RT a − w=−∫ dV V − b V 2 ∆ S A → B = ∆ S A → C + ∆ SC → D + ∆ S D → B ...(i) Also from first law : dq = CV dT + pdV For one mole of an ideal gas : pV = RT ⇒ pdV + Vdp = RdT From (i) pdV = Vdp Substituting in Eq. (ii) gives R 2pdV = RdT ⇒ pdV = dT 2 R ⇒ dq = CV dT + dT 2 dq R 3 R ⇒ ∫ dT = CV + 2 = 2 R + 2 = 2R Minimum value of activation energy must be greater than ∆H . = − 3 × 8.314 × 298 = − 7433 J = – 7.43 kJ 28. ∆G ° = ∆H ° − T∆S ° = – 54.07 × 10 J – 298 × 10 J = 50 eu + 30 eu + (– 20 eu) = 60 eu p 30. Given, = 1 ⇒ p = V V ∆H > 0 E Reaction coordinates 27. At transition point (373 K, 1.0 bar), liquid remains in equilibrium ⇒ 34. ∆H = ∆U + ∆ ( pV ) = 30 + 2(5 − 3) + 5(4 – 2) = 44 L atm. 37. = − 2.303 × 0.04 × 8.314 × 310 × log Also, For adsorption of gas on solid surface, ∆S < 0. Therefore, in order to be ∆G < 0, ∆H must be negative. in equilibrium with surroundings. W = – 2.303 nRT log q = + 208 J W = − 208 J 33. For a spontaneous process ∆ G < 0 ...(ii) 31. For an irreversible, adiabatic process; 0 = CV (T2 − T1 ) + pe (V2 − V1 ) Substituting the values CV (T − T2 ) = 1(2 − 1)atm L 1 2 2 T − T2 = = ⇒ ⇒ T2 = T − CV 3R 3 × 0.082 But, it is not applicable for irreversible process which are carried out very fast. So, work done is calculated assuming final pressure remains constant throughout the process. Thus, statement (a), (b) and (c) correct while statement (d) is incorrect. 40. The standard enthalpy of formation is defined as standard enthalpy change for formation of 1 mole of a substance from its elements, present in their most stable state of aggregation. 3 O 2 (g ) → O 3 (g ) ; 2 1 S8 (s) + O 2 (g ) → SO 2 (g ) 8 In the above two reactions standard enthalpy of reaction is equal to standard enthalpy of formation. 41. In the given curve AC represents isochoric process as volume at both the points is same i.e., V1 Similarly, AB represents isothermal process (as both the points are at T1 temperature) and BC represents isobaric process as both the points are at p2 pressure. Now (i) for option (a) qAC = ∆U BC = nCV (T2 − T1 ) Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 123 where, n= number of moles Cv = specific heat capacity at constant volume However, W AB ≠ p2 (V2 − V1 ) instead V W AB = nRT1 ln 2 V1 43. ∆S surr = For endothermic reaction, if Tsurr increases, ∆Ssurr will increase. For exothermic reaction, if Tsurr increases, ∆Ssurr will decrease. 44. So, this option is incorrect. qBC = ∆H AC = nC p (T2 − T1 ) where, C p = specific heat capacity at constant pressure Likewise, W BC = − p2 (V1 − V2 ) Hence, this option is correct. The change in internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on temperature and change in internal energy (∆U ) = 0 therefore, ∆T = 0 hence, process is isothermal and (iii) For option (c) nC p (T2 − T1 ) < nCV (T2 − T1 ) so ∆HCA < ∆UCA T2 = T1 and reversible process. Hence, only (a), (b) and (c) are correct choices. (iv) For option (d) Although qBC = ∆H AC 45. but ∆HCA >/ ∆UCA Hence, this option is incorrect. 42. (a) p2 p1 –Wirr V1 p2 –Wrev p2 V2 Irreversible compression V1 p2 V2 (b) A B C V1 PLAN When an ideal solution is formed process is spontaneous thus According to Raoult’s law, for an ideal solution ∆H = 0, ∆Vmin = 0 From the relation ∆ G = ∆ H − T∆ S Since, ∆H = 0 ∴ ∆G = − ve i.e. less than zero. and ∆S surroundings = 0 Therefore, ∆S sys = + ve i.e. more than zero. 46. (a) Since, change of state ( p1 , V1 , T1 ) to ( p2 , V2 , T2 ) is isothermal therefore, T1 = T2. Reversible compression Maximum work is done on the system when compression occur irreversibly and minimum work is done is reversible compression. p1 p2V2 = p1V1 (d) p2V2γ = p1V1γ is incorrect, it is valid for adiabatic and qAC = ∆U BC Hence, this option is also correct. p1 PLAN This problem includes concept of isothermal adiabatic irreversible expansion. Process is adiabatic because of the use of thermal insolution therefore, q = 0 Q pext = 0 w = pext ⋅ ∆V = 0 × ∆V = 0 Internal energy can be written as ∆U = q + W = 0 (ii) For option (b) as − ∆H Tsurr V2 AB is isothermal and AC is adiabatic path. Work done is area under the curve. Hence, (b) Since, change of state ( p1 , V1 , T1 ) to ( p3 , V3 , T3 ) is an adiabatic expansion it brings about cooling of gas, therefore, T3 < T1. (c) Work done is the area under the curve of p-V diagram. As obvious from the given diagram, magnitude of area under the isothermal curve is greater than the same under adiabatic curve, hence Wisothermal > Wadiabatic (d) ∆U = nCv ∆T In isothermal process, ∆U = 0 as ∆T = 0 In adiabatic process, ∆U = nC v (T3 − T1 ) < 0 as T3 < T1 . ⇒ NOTE ∆U isothermal > ∆U adiabatic Here only magnitudes of work is being considered otherwise both works have negative sign. 47. (a) Entropy is a state function, change in entropy in a cyclic process is zero. (c) It is incorrect. In adiabatic expansion cooling is observed, hence ∆U = nCv∆T < 0. Therefore, ∆S X → Y + ∆S Y → Z + ∆S Z → (d) q = 0 (adiabatic), W = 0 (Free expansion) Hence, ∆U = 0, ∆T = 0 (Isothermal) Analysis of options (b) and (c) ⇒ X =0 − ∆S Z → X = ∆S X → Y + ∆SY → Z = ∆S X → Z Work is a non-stable function, it does depends on the path followed. WY → Z = 0 as ∆V = 0. 124 Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry Therefore, W X → Y → Z = W X → Y. Also, work is the area under the curve on p-V diagram. X Y X Z p Y WX→Y PLAN By Boyle’s law at constant temperature, p ∝ 1 V By Charles’ law at constant pressure, V ∝ T Process taking place at Constant temperature — isothermal Constant pressure — isobaric Constant volume — isochoric Constant heat — adiabatic WX → Y = WX→Y→Z p 56. Z K → L At constant p, volume increases thus, heating As shown above W X → Y + WY → Z = W X → Y = W X → Y→ Z but not equal to W X → Z. L → M At constant V, pressure decreases thus, cooling 48. Resistance and heat capacity are mass dependent properties, M → N At constant p, volume decreases thus, cooling N → K At constant V, pressure increases thus, heating V V hence they are extensive. 49. Internal energy, molar enthalpy are state function. Also, reversible expansion work is a state function because between given initial and final states, there can be only one reversible path. 50. Intensive properties are those property which do not depends on amount of sample. Both temperature and refractive index are intensive properties while enthalpy and volumes are extensive properties as they depends on amount of sample. 51. Given : A q B (p A = 1bar) Using ∆G = ∆G ° + RT ln K p At equilibrium : ∆G ° = − RT ln K p ∆G °1 = − RT1 ln K p1 ∆G2° = − RT2 ln K p 2 … (i) … (ii) From Eqs. (i) and (ii), ln K p1 ∆G1° T 1000 ln(10) 1 = 1× = × = = 0.25 T2 ln K p 2 2000 ln(100) 4 ∆G2° 52. Statement I is true, it is statement of first law of thermodynamics. Statement II is true, it is statement of second law of thermodynamics. However, Statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I. 53. Statement I is false. At equilibrium ∆G = 0, G ≠ 0. Statement II is true, spontaneous direction of reaction is towards lower Gibbs free energy. 54. Statement I is true. ∴ ∴ dq = dE + pext dV = 0 ∆T = 0 dE = 0 ; pext = 0 pext dV = 0 Statement II is true. According to kinetic theory of gases, volume occupied by molecules of ideal gas is zero. However, Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. 55. L → M At constant V — isochoric, N→K 57. (A) → r, t ; (B) → p, q, s ; (C) → p, q, s ; (D) → q, s, t 0° C (A) H2O(l ) s 1 atm H2O(s) q< 0, W < 0 (expansion) ∆S sys < 0 (solid state is more ordered than liquid state) ∆U < 0 ; ∆G = 0 (At equilibrium) (B) q = 0 (isolated), W = 0 (pext = 0) ∆ Ssys > 0 QV2 > V1 ∆U = 0 Q q = W = 0 ∆G < 0 Q p2 < p1 (C) q = 0 (isothermal mixing of ideal gases at constant p) W = 0Q ∆U = 0; q = 0, ∆S sys > 0 Q V2 > V1, ∆U = 0 Q∆ T = 0 ∆ G < 0Q mixing is spontaneous. (D) q = 0 (returning to same state and by same path) W =0 ∆S sys = 0 (same initial and final states) ∆U = 0 Q Ti = T f , ∆ G = 0 58. (A) CO2 (s) → CO2 (g ) It is just a phase transition (sublimation) as no chemical change has occurred. Sublimation is always endothermic. Product is gas, more disordered, hence ∆S is positive. (B) CaCO3 (s) → CaO(s) + CO2 (g ) It is a chemical decomposition, not a phase change. Thermal decomposition occur at the expense of energy, hence endothermic. Product contain a gaseous species, hence, ∆S > 0. (C) 2H → H2 (g ) A new H—H covalent bond is being formed, hence, ∆H < 0. Also, product is less disordered than reactant, ∆S < 0. Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 125 (D) Allotropes are considered as different phase, hence P(white, solid) → P(red, solid) is a phase transition as well as allotropic change. Also, red phosphorus is more ordered than white phosphorus, ∆S < 0. 71. (i) 1 1 2 p 0.5 3 59. Extensive : Enthalpy is an extensive property while molar enthalpy is an intensive property. 20 L 60. Zero : − W = p∆V = 0Q ∆V = 0 61. Exothermic reaction. 62. Isolated This system neither exchange matter nor energy with surroundings. 63. R : For an ideal gas, C p − CV = R 3 2 64. 900 cal : E = RT = 3 × 2 × 300 cal 2 65. True First law deals with conservation of energy while second law deals with direction of spontaneous change. 66. True Diatomic gases have more degree of freedom than a monatomic gas. 67. Work done along dashed path |− W | = Σp∆V = 4 × 1.5 + 1 × 1 + 2 × 2.5 = 8.65 L atm 3 Work done along solid path − W = nRT ln = 2 × 2.3 log ⇒ V2 V = p1V1 ln 2 V1 V1 5.5 = 2 × 2.3 log 11 = 4.79 0.5 W d 8.65 = = 1.80 ≈ 2 W s 4.79 68. ∆H = ∆U + ∆ ( pV ) = ∆U + V∆p ⇒ − W 1 = p ∆V = 20 L atm W 2 = 0 Q ∆V = 0 40 = 20 ln 2 W 3 = nRT ln 20 Total work done = W 1 + W 2 + W 3 = − 20 L atm + 0 + 20 ln 2 = – 6.14 atm From first law : q = ∆E + (− W ) = − W (Q ∆E = 0for cyclic process) ⇒ q = 6.14 L atm = 622.53 J (ii) (iii) All the states function, ∆U , ∆H and ∆S are zero for cyclic process. 72. At equilibrium : ⇒ K1 = ⇒ = – 8.314 × 448 × 2.303 log 70. He is monatomic, so it has only three degree of freedom (translational only) at all temperature hence, CV value is 3 always R. 2 Hydrogen molecule is diatomic, has three translational, two rotational and one vibrational degree of freedom. The energy spacing between adjacent levels are in the order of : translational < rotational < vibrational At lower temperature only translational degree of freedom contribute to heat capacity while at higher temperature rotational and vibrational degree of freedom starts contributing to heat capacity. 13 = 16 kJ 952 ∆G2° = − RT ln K 2 = – 8.314 × 448 × 2.303 log 35 = 12.3 kJ 952 73. ∆ rG ° = ∆ f G ° (products) – ∆ f G ° (reactants) ∆H = ∆U + ∆ ( pV ) ∆pV = p2V2 − p1V1 3.5% ∆G1° = − RT ln K 1 For adiabatic process, q = 0, hence ∆U = W where, 13 952 35 K2 = 952 ⇒ 69. ∆U = q + W W = − p (∆V ) = − p (V2 − V1 ) 1.3% B r C 95.2% ∆U = ∆H − V∆p ∆U = − 100 (99 − 100) = 100 bar mL B r A 95.2% = – 560 – 1 × 30 × 0.1 = – 563 kJ ⇒ 40 L V = – 394.4 – (– 137.2) = – 257.2 kJ < 0 The above negative value of ∆G indicates that the process is spontaneous. Also, ∆G ° = ∆H ° − T∆S ° ⇒ ∆ H ° = ∆ G ° + T∆ S ° = – 257.2 + 300 (– 0.094) = – 285.4 kJ < 0 74. Given : CV = 12.49 ⇒ C p = 20.8 ⇒ Cp CV = γ = 1.66 In case of reversible adiabatic expansion : TV γ− 1= constant 126 Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry γ−1 ⇒ T2 V1 = T1 V2 V T2 = T1 1 V2 0.66 ⇒ 1 = 300 2 0.66 V = 1 V2 0.66 2. T1 = 298 K, T2 = 373 K, K 1 = 10, K 2 = 100 K 1 ∆H ° 1 log 2 = − K 1 2.303R T1 T2 ∴ ∴ ∆H ° = 28.4 kJ/mol We know that, ∆G ° = − RT ln K ∴∆G ° at T1 = − 8.314 × 298 × 2.303 × log(10) ⇒ −5.71 kJ/mol ∆G ° at T2 = − 8.314 × 373 × 2.303 × log(100) ⇒ −14.29 kJ/mol Hence, the correct option is (c). = 189.86 K ⇒ ∆H = nCp ∆T 1 × 1.25 = × 20.8 × (189.86 − 300) J 0.082 × 300 = – 116.4 J 75. Let the mixture contain x litre of CH4 and 3.67 − x litre of ethylene. 3. CH4 + O2 → CO2 x C2H4 3.67 − x x + O2 → 2CO2 2 (3.67 − x) ∆H ° 1 1 100 − log = 10 2.303 × 8.314 298 373 Key Idea When q is the amount of heat involved in a system then at constant pressure q = qp and C p ∆T = ∆H Given reaction : Given : x + 2 (3.67 − x ) = 6.11 L ⇒ x = 1.23 L Volume of ethylene = 2.44 L pV 1×1 Total moles of gases in l litre = = = 0.04 RT 0.082 × 298 I2 (s) → I2 (g ) Specific heat of I2 (s) = 0.055 cal g −1 K −1. Also, CH4 and ethylene are in 1 : 2 volume (or mole) ratio, moles 0.04 2 × 0.04 and moles of ethylene = of CH4 = 3 3 0.04 ⇒ Heat evolved due to methane = × 891= 11.88 kJ 3 2 × 0.04 Heat evolved due to ethylene = × 1423 = 37.94 kJ 3 ⇒ Total heat evolved on combustion of 1.0L gaseous mixture at 25°C is 11.88 + 37.94 = 49.82 kJ If q is the amount of heat involved in a system then at constant pressure q = qp and ∆H = C p ∆T 76. Moles of H2O needs to perspire = 1560 = 17.72 2 × 44 Weight of water needs to perspire = 17.72 × 18 = 318.96 g 77. At constant pressure, q = ∆H . Topic 2 Thermochemistry 1. The enthalpy of solution of an ionic solid is numericlly equal to the sum of its hydration and lat energies, ° ° ° i.e. ∆H sol = ∆H hydration + ∆H lattice ∴ ∆H = 4 NaCl (s) NaCl (aq) ∆H° =788 ∆H° + – Na (g) + Cl (g) ∆sol H ° = ∆ latticeH ° + ∆ hydH ° 4 = 788 + ∆ hydH ° ∆H hydH ° = − 784 kJ/mol hyd Specific heat of I2 (vap) = 0.031 cal g –1K –1. Enthalpy (H 1 ) of sublimation of iodine = 24 cal g –1 H 2 − H 1 = C p (T2 − T1 ) H 2 = H 1 + ∆C p (T2 − T1 ) H 2 = 24 + (0.031 − 0.055) (250 − 200) H 2 = 24 + (−0.024 ) (50) = 24 − 12 . = 22. 8 cal/g Thus, the enthalpy of sublimation of iodine at 250°C is 22.8 cal/g. 4. Second equation given in this question is wrong. Hence, No answer in correct. If corrected second equation is given, 1 i.e. C(graphite) + O2 (g ) → CO (g ) 2 and if we take the above reaction in consideration then x = y + z will be the answer as: 1 (ii) C(graphite) + O2 (g ) → CO(g ), ∆ r H ° = y kJ/mol 2 1 (iii) CO(g ) + O2 (g ) → CO2 (g ), ∆ r H ° = z kJ/mol 2 Summing up both the equation you will get equation (i): C(graphite) + O2 (g ) → CO2 (g ), ∆ r H °= x kJ/mol Hence, x, y and z are related as: x =y+ z 5. Based on given ∆ rH ° ° = − 393.5 kJ mol − 1 ∆ f H ° = H CO 2 …(i) ∆ f H ° = H H° 2 O = − 285.8 kJ mol − 1 …(ii) Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 127 ∆ f H ° = H °O 2 = 0.00 (elements) (8.314 J K−1 mol −1) in JK−1 mol −1 must be converted into kJ by dividing the unit by 1000. …(iii) Required thermal reaction is for ∆ f H ° of CH4 9. For calculation of C ≡≡ C bond energy, we must first calculate Thus, from III 890.3 = [ ∆ f H ° (CH4 ) + 2 ∆ f H ° (O2 )] dissociation energy of C2H2 as …(i) C2H2 (g ) → 2C(g ) + 2H(g ) Using the given bond energies and enthalpies : …(ii) C2H2 (g ) → 2C (g ) + 2H (g ) ; ∆H = − 225 kJ …(iii) 2C( s) → 2C(g ); ∆H = 1410 kJ …(iv) H2 (g ) → 2H(g ) ; ∆H = 330 kJ Adding Eqs. (ii), (iii) and (iv) gives Eq. (i). ⇒ C2H2 (g ) → 2C(g ) + 2H(g ) ; ∆H = 1515 kJ ⇒ 1515 kJ = 2 × (C H) BE + (C ≡≡ C) BE = 2 × 350 + (C ≡≡ C) BE − [ ∆ f H ° (CO2 ) + 2 ∆ f H ° (H2O)] = ∆ f H ° (CH4 ) + 0] − [ − 393.5 − 2 × 285.5] ∴ ∆ f H ° (CH4 ) = − 74.8 kJ / mol 6. C(s)+ O2 (g ) → CO2 (g ) ; ∆H = − 393.5 kJ mol −1 …(i) 1 CO+ O2 → CO2( g ); ∆H = − 283.5kJ mol −1 2 On subtracting Eq. (ii) from Eq. (i), we get 1 C (s) + O2 (g ) → CO(g ); 2 ∆H = (− 393.5 + 283.5)kJ mol −1 …(ii) = − 110 kJ mol−1(approx.) 7. C2H5OH ( l ) + 3O2 (g ) → 2CO2 (g ) + 3H2O(l ) ∆U = − 1364.47 kJ/mol ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT ∆ng = − 1 − 1 × 8.314 × 298 ∆H = − 1364.47 + 1000 [Here, value of R in unit of J must be converted into kJ] = − 1364.47 − 2. 4776 = − 1366.9476 kJ/mol or = − 1366.95 kJ/mol 8. PLAN ∆ c H ° (Standard heat of combustion) is the standard enthalpy change when one mole of the substance is completely oxidised. Also standard heat of formation (∆ f H ° ) can be taken as the standard of that substance. H °CO 2 = ∆ f H ° (CO2 ) = − 400 kJ mol −1 H H° 2 O = ∆ f H ° (H2O ) = − 300 kJ mol −1 ° Hglucose = ∆ f H ° (glucose) = − 1300 kJ mol −1 H O° 2 = ∆ f H ° (O2 ) = 0.00 C6H12O6 (s) + 6 O2 (g ) → 6 CO2 (g ) + 6H2O(l ) ∆ cH ° (glucose) = 6[ ∆ f H ° (CO2 ) + ∆ f H °(H2O )] − [ ∆ f H ° (C6H12O6 ) + 6∆ f H ° (O 2 )] = 6[ −400 − 300 ] − [ −1300 + 6 × 0 ] = − 2900 kJ mol −1 Molar mass of C 6H12O6 = 180 g mol −1 Thus, standard heat of combustion of glucose per gram −2900 = = − 16.11 kJ g−1 180 To solve such problem, students are advised to keep much importance in unit conversion. As here, value of R ⇒ (C ≡≡ C) BE = 1515 − 700 = 815 kJ / mol 10. Elements in its standard state have zero enthalpy of formation. Cl 2 is gas at room temperature, therefore ∆H °f of Cl 2 (g ) is zero. 11. C—C bond energy is approximately 100 kcal. 12. T = 13. ∆H vap ∆S vap = 30,000 = 400 K 75 1 1 H2 (g ) + F2 (g ) → HF(g ) 2 2 Here ∆H ° = Standard molar enthalpy of formation of HF(g). 14. CO2 (g ) + H2 (g ) → CO(g ) + H2O(g ) ∆H = Σ∆ f H ° (products) − Σ∆ f H ° (reactants) = – 110.5 – 241.8 – (– 393.5) = + 41.20 kJ 1 2 It is reverse of combustion of H2 (g ), hence endothermic. C2H6 → C2H4 + H2; ∆H > 0 15. H2O → H2 + O2, ∆H > 0 Here, more stable (saturated) hydrocarbon is being transformed to less stable (unsaturated) hydrocarbon, hence endothermic. C(gr) → C(d) , ∆H > 0 More stable allotrope is being converted to less stable allotrope. 16. PLAN Heat of reaction is dependent on temperature (Kirchhoff’s equation) in heterogeneous system, equilibrium constant is independent on the molar concentration of solid species. Heat of reaction is not affected by catalyst. It lowers activation energy. CaCO3 (s) r CaO(s) + CO2 (g ) By Kirchhoff’s equation, ∆H °2 (at T2 ) = ∆H °1 ( at T1 ) + ∆C p (T2 − T1 ) ∆H ° varies with temperature. Thus, (a) is correct. K = pCO2 K is dependent on pressure of CO2 but independent of molar concentration of CaCO3. Thus, (b) and (c) are correct. At a given temperature, addition of catalysis lowers activation energy, ∆H remaining constant. Thus, (d) is also correct. 128 Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 22. + H2 Ea CaO + CO2 T E'a CaCO3 ⇒ ∆H° – 357 kJ = ∆H °f (cyclohexane) − ∆H °f (C6H6 ) ⇒ ∆H °f (C6H6 )Theoretical = – 156 + 357 = 201 kJ Ea′ = Activation energy in presence of catalyst 17. Temperature rise = T2 − T1 = 298.45 – 298 = 0.45 K ⇒ Resonance energy = ∆H °f (exp.) − ∆H °f (Theoretical) q = heat capacity × ∆T = 2.5 × 0.45 = 1.125 kJ 1.125 ⇒ Heat produced per mole = × 28 = 9 kJ 3.5 18. ∆H r° = ∆H °f (B2O3 ) + 3∆H °f (H2O) – ∆H °f (B2H6 ) ∆H °f (H2O)(g ) = ∆H °f (H2O)(l ) + 44 = – 242 kJ = 49 – 201 = – 152 kJ/mol 23. Per mole of ethylene polymerized, one C == C bond is broken and two C—C bonds are formed. ∆H ° (Polym.) = 590 − 2 × 311 = – 32 kJ/mol 24. At same temperature and pressure, equal volumes contain equal moles of gases. Let 1.0 L of CH4 contain ‘n’ mol ∆H r° = – 1273 – 3 × 242 – 36 = – 2035 kJ 19. SF6 (g ) → S (g ) + 6F (g ) ∆H = Σ ∆H °f (products) − Σ ∆H °f (reactants) = 275 + 6 × 80 + 1100 = 1855 kJ 1855 = 309.16 kJ/mol ⇒ Average S—F bond energy = 6 ⇒ x L of CH4 contain nx mol ⇒ Heat evolved in combustion by x L CH4 = 809 nx kJ 1 Now, 2878 kJ energy is evolved from 1 mole L C4H10. n ⇒ 809 nx kJ energy will be evolved from 20. Given : Cyclopropane →Propene (C3H6 ); ∆H = − 33 kJ 9 Propene (C3H6 ) + O2 → 3CO2 (g ) + 3H2O (l ); 2 ∆H = – 3 (393.5 + 285.8) – 20.42 = – 2058.32 kJ Adding : 9 O2 (g ) → 3CO2 (g ) + 3H2 (g ) ; 2 ∆H = H 1 + H 2 = −33 + (−2058.32)kJ ∆H = − 2091.32 kJ Cyclopropane + 21. Given : CH3OH (g ) → CH3OH (l ); ; + 3H2 ∆H = –119 × 3 = – 357 kJ (Theoretical) E'a <E a Ea = Activation energy in absence of catalyst ⇒ ∆H = –119 ; ∆H = − 38 kJ C (g ) + 4H (g ) + O (g ) → CH3OH (g ); ∆H = − (3 × 415 + 356 + 463) Q H = H 1 + H 2 = − 2064 kJ C(g ) → C(g ); ∆H = 715 kJ 2H2 (g ) → 4H (g ); ∆H = 2 × 2 × 218= 872kJ 1 O2 (g ) → O (g ); ∆H = 249 kJ 2 1 Adding : C (gr) + 2H2 (g ) + O2 (g ) → CH3OH (l ) 2 ∆H = − 266 kJ/mol 1 × 1.25 = × 20.8 × (189.86 − 300) J = −116.4 J 0.082 × 300 809 nx L of C4H10 2878 n =0.28 x L of C4H10 Also, the combustion reaction of butane is 13 C4 H10 + O2 → 4CO2 + 5H2O 2 13 × 0.28 x × 3 = 5.46 x L/h ⇒ Rate of supply of oxygen = 2 25. First we need to determine heat of combustion of C3H8 . 3C(gr) + 4 H2 (g ) → C3H8 (g ) ∆H °f = − 103 kJ ° ⇒ – 103 kJ = – 3 × 393 – 4 × 285.80 – ∆ H comb (C3H8 ) ° ⇒ ∆ H comb (C3H8 ) = – 2219.20 kJ ° ° (reactants) − Σ ∆ H comb (products) ⇒ ∆H r° = Σ ∆ H comb = – 2219.20 – 285.80 + 1560 + 890 = – 55 kJ 26. Let x kcal be the C—C bond energy and y kcal be the C—H bond energy per mole. ⇒ 2C(gr) + 3H2 (g ) → C2H6 (g ) ; ∆H ° = – 2 × 94 – 3 × 68 + 372 ⇒ = – 20 kcal – 20 kcal = 2 × 172 + 3 × 104 − BE (C2H6 ) ⇒ BE (C2H6 ) = 676 kcal Thermodynamics and Thermochemistry 129 = – 310.6 – 68.3 – (– 337.2) = – 41.7 kcal Similarly, 3C(gr) + 4 H2 (g ) → C3H8 (g ) ; ∆H ° = – 3× 94 – 4 × 68 + 530 = – 24 kcal ⇒ 32. The standard state formation reaction of C2H2 (g ) is : – 24 kcal = 3 × 172 + 4 × 104 − BE (C3H8 ) 2C(g ) + H2 (g ) → C2H2 (g ); ∆H °f ⇒ BE (C3H8 ) = 956 kcal BE (C2H6 ) = 676 kcal = x + 6 y BE (C3H8 ) = 956 kcal = 2x + 8 y Also, …(i) ° ° ∆H r° = Σ ∆ H comb (reactants) − Σ ∆ H comb (products) = – 2 × 94.05 – 68.32 – (– 310.62) …(ii) = 54.2 kcal = ∆H °f (C2H2 ) Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii) gives y = 99 kcal (C—H) BE 33. ∆H r° = Σ ∆ f H ° (products) − Σ ∆ f H ° (reactants) x =82 kcal (C—C) BE = – 94.1 + 4 (– 22.1) – (– 25.5 – 2 × 57.8) = – 41.4 kcal + H2 27. ° ° ∆H = Σ ∆ H comb (reactants) − Σ ∆ H comb (products) = – 3800 – 241 – (– 3920) = – 121 kJ/mol 28. Fe2O3 (s) + 2Al (s) → Al 2O3 (s) + 2Fe(s) ∆H r° = ∆H °f (products) − ∆H °f (reactants) = – 399 – (– 199) = – 200 kcal Mass of reactants = 56 × 2 + 16 × 3 + 27 × 2 = 214 g 200 ⇒ Fuel value/gram = = 0.93 kcal/g 214 160 54 cc + Volume of reactants = cc = 50.77 cc 5.2 2.7 200 Fuel value/cc = = 3.94 kcal/cc ⇒ 50.77 29. ∆H = Σ ∆H °f (products) − Σ ∆H °f (reactants) = – 2 × 94.1 – 3 × 68.3 – (– 21.1) = – 372 kcal/mol 1 1 30. H2 (g ) + Cl 2 (g ) → HCl (g ); ∆H °f 2 2 ∆H °f = Σ BE (reactants) − Σ BE (products) = 1 (104 + 58) − 103 = – 22 kcal/mol 2 31. C2H2 + H2 → C2H4 ° ° ∆H ° = Σ ∆ H comb (reactants) − Σ ∆ H comb (products) 34. ∆H ° = Σ BE (reactants) − Σ BE (products) 1 1 (104.18) + (118.32) − BE (O H) 2 2 BE (O—H) = 121.31 kcal ⇒ − 10.06 = 35. Let C JK−1 be the heat capacity of calorimeter. Mass of solution = 200 mL × 1 g mL−1 = 200 g Heat evolved in Expt.1 = 57 × 1000 × 0. 1(mol ) = 5700 J ⇒ 5700 J = (200 × 4.2 + C ) × 5.7 …(i) ⇒ 1000 = 200 × 4.2 + C Let x kJ/mol is heat evolved in neutralisation of acetic acid. ⇒ x × 1000 × 010 . = (200 × 4.2 + C ) × 5.6 x × 100 …(ii) = 200 × 4.2 + C ⇒ 5.6 From (i) and (ii) : x = 56 kJ/mol ⇒ Enthalpy of ionisation of acetic acid = − 56 − (− 57) = 1 kJ/mol 36. CH3COOH + NaOH → CH3COONa + H2O 200 mmol 100 mol 0 100 mmol 0 100 mmol 0 A buffer is now formed. [H+ ][ CH3COO− ] Ka = = [ H+ ] [CH3COOH] [Q [ CH3COOH] = [ CH3COO− ]] ⇒ pH = pK a = − log (2 × 10−5 ) = 5 − log 2 = 4.7 8 Solid State Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. A crystal is made up of metal ions M 1 and M 2 and oxide ions. Oxide ions form a ccp lattice structure. The cation M 1 occupies 50% of octahedral voids and the cation M 2 occupies 12.5% of tetrahedral voids of oxide lattice. The oxidation numbers of M 1 and M 2 are, respectively (2020 Main, 6 Sep II) (a) +2, + 4 (c) +3, + 1 (b) +1, + 3 (d) +4 , + 2 2. A diatomic molecule X 2 has a body-centred cubic (bcc) structure with a cell edge of 300 pm. The density of the molecule is 6.17 g cm −3 . The number of molecules present in 200 g of X 2 is (Avogadro constant ( N A ) = 6 × 1023 mol −1 ) (2020 Main, 5 Sep I) (b) 2N A (a) 40N A (c) 8N A (d) 4N A 3. The ratio of number of atoms present in a simple cubic, body centered cubic and face centered cubic structure are, respectively. (2019 Main, 12 April II) (a) 8 : 1 : 6 (b) 1 : 2 : 4 (c) 4 : 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 2 : 3 4. An element has a face-centred cubic (fcc) structure with a cell edge of a. The distance between the centres of two nearest tetrahedral voids in the lattice is (2019 Main, 12 April I) a 3 (a) 2a (d) a (b) a (c) 2 2 5. Consider the bcc unit cells of the solids 1 and 2 with the position of atoms as shown below. The radius of atom B is twice that of atom A. The unit cell edge length is 50% more is solid 2 than in 1. What is the approximate packing efficiency in solid 2? (2019 Main, 8 April II) A A A A A A A A B A A A A A A (b) 90% A Solid 2 Solid 1 (a) 65% A A (c) 75% (d) 45% 6. The statement that is incorrect about the interstitial compounds is (a) they are very hard (b) they have metallic conductivity (c) they have high melting points (d) they are chemically reactive (2019 Main, 8 April II) 7. Element ‘B ’ forms ccp structure and ‘A ’ occupies half of the octahedral voids, while oxygen atoms occupy all the tetrahedral voids. The structure of bimetallic oxide is (2019 Main, 8 April I) (a) A2BO4 (c) A2B2O (b) AB2O4 (d) A4B2 O 8. The radius of the largest sphere which fits properly at the centre of the edge of a body centred cubic unit cell is (Edge length is represented by ‘a’) (2019 Main, 11 Jan II) (a) 0.134 a (b) 0.027 a (c) 0.047 a (d) 0.067 a 9. A solid having density of 9 × 103 kgm −3 forms face centred cubic crystals of edge length 200 2 pm. What is the molar mass of the solid? [Avogadro constant = 6 × 1023 mol−1 , π = 3] (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) (a) 0.03050 kg mol−1 (c) 0.0432 kg mol−1 (b) 0.4320 kg mol−1 (d) 0.0216 kg mol−1 10. A compound of formula A2B3 has the hcp lattice. Which atom forms the hcp lattice and what fraction of tetrahedral voids is occupied by the other atoms ? (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) 2 (a) hcp lattice- A, tetrahedral voids-B 3 1 (b) hcp lattice-A, tetrahedral voids-B 3 1 (c) hcp lattice-B, tetrahedral voids-A 3 2 (d) hcp lattice-B, tetrahedral voids-A 3 11. Which primitive unit cell has unequal edge lengths ( a ≠ b ≠ c ) and all axial angles different from 90°? (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) (a) Hexagonal (c) Tetragonal (b) Monoclinic (d) Triclinic Solid State 12. At 100°C, copper (Cu) has FCC unit cell structure with cell edge length of x Å. What is the approximate density of Cu (in g cm −3 ) at this temperature? [Atomic mass of Cu = 63.55 u] (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) 211 205 (b) 3 (a) 3 x x 105 422 (c) 3 (d) 3 x x 13. The one that is extensively used as a piezoelectric material is (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) (a) quartz (c) amorphous silica (b) tridymite (d) mica 131 21. A compound M p X q has cubic close packing (ccp) arrangement of X . Its unit cell structure is shown below. The empirical formula of the compound, is (2012) M X (a) MX (b) MX 2 (c) M 2 X (d) M 5 X 14 22. The packing efficiency of the two-dimensional square unit cell shown below is (2010) 14. Which type of ‘defect’ has the presence of cations in the interstitial sites? (a) Schottky defect (c) Frenkel defect (2018 Main) (b) Vacancy defect (d) Metal deficiency defect l 15. A metal crystallises in a face centred cubic structure. If the (a) 39.27% (b) 68.02% (c) 74.05% (d) 78.54% edge length of its unit cell is ‘a’, the closest approach between two atoms in metallic crystal will be (2017 Main) a (a) 2 a (b) 2 2 a (c) 2 a (d) 2 23. Which of the following fcc structure contains cations in 16. Sodium metal crystallises in a body centred cubic lattice with 24. A substance Ax B y crystallises in a face centred cubic (fcc) a unit cell edge of 4.29Å. The radius of sodium atom is approximately (2015 Main) (a) 1.86Å (b) 3.22Å (c) 5.72Å (d) 0.93Å 17. CsCl crystallises in body centred cubic lattice. If ‘a’ its edge length, then which of the following expressions is correct? (2014 Main) (a) r Cs (c) r + Cs + + rCl − = 3a + rCl − = 3 a 2 (b) r Cs (d) r + Cs + + rCl − = 3a 2 + rCl − = 3a 18. The arrangement of X − ions around A + ion in solid AX is given in the figure (not drawn to scale). If the radius of X − is 250 pm, the radius of A + is (2013 Adv.) alternate tetrahedral voids? (a) NaCl (b) ZnS (c) Na 2 O (2005, 1M) (d) CaF2 lattice in which atoms A occupy each corner of the cube and atoms B occupy the centres of each face of the cube. Identify the correct composition of the substance Ax B y (2002, 1M) (b) A4 B3 (c) A3 B (a) AB3 (d) composition cannot be specified 25. In a solid AB having the NaCl structure, A atoms occupy the corners of the cubic unit cell. If all the face centred atoms along one of the axes are removed, then the resultant stoichiometry of the solid is (2001, S, 1M) (a) AB2 (b) A2 B (c) A4 B3 (d) A3 B4 26. The coordination number of a metal crystallising in a hexagonal close-packed structure is (a) 12 (b) 4 (c) 8 (1999, 2M) (d) 6 Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) – X A+ 27. The cubic unit cell structure of a compound containing cation (a) 104 pm (c) 183 pm M and anion X is shown below. When compared to the anion, the cation has smaller ionic radius. Choose the correct statement(s). (2020 Adv.) (b) 125 pm (d) 57 pm 19. Experimentally it was found that a metal oxide has formula M 0.98O. Metal M, present as M 2+ and M 3 + in its oxide. Fraction of the metal which exists as M 3+ would be (a) 7.01% (b) 4.08% (2013 Main) (c) 6.05% (d) 5.08% 20. Which of the following exists as covalent crystals in the solid state? (a) Iodine (c) Sulphur (2013 Main) (b) Silicon (d) Phosphorus M X 132 Solid State (a) The empirical formula of the compound is MX. (b) The cation M and anion X have different coordination geometries. (c) The ratio of M — X bond length of the cubic unit cell edge length is 0.866. (d) The ratio of the ionic radii of cation M to anion X is 0.414. 28. The correct statement(s) for cubic close packed (ccp) three dimensional structure is (are) (2016 Adv.) (a) The number of the nearest neighbours of an atom present in the topmost layer is 12 (b) The packing efficiency of atom is 74% (c) The number of octahedral and tetrahedral voids per atom are 1 and 2, respectively (d) The unit cell edge length is 2 2 times the radius of the atom 29. If the unit cell of a mineral has cubic close packed (ccp) array of oxygen atoms with m fraction of octahedral holes occupied by aluminium ions and n fraction of tetrahedral holes occupied by magnesium ions, m and n respectively, are (2015 Adv.) 1 (a) , 2 1 (c) , 2 1 8 1 2 1 (b) 1 , 4 1 1 (d) , 4 8 30. The correct statement(s) regarding defects in solids is/are (a) Frenkel defect is usually favoured by a very small difference in the sizes of cation and anion (1999) (b) Frenkel defect is a dislocation defect (c) Trapping of an electron in the lattice leads to the formation of F-centre (d) Schottky defects have no effect on the physical properties of solids 31. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (a) The coordination number of each type of ion in CsCl crystal is 8 (1998, 2M) (b) A metal that crystallises in bcc structure has a coordination number of 12 (c) A unit cell of an ionic crystal shares some of its ions with other unit cells (d) The length of the unit cell in NaCl is 552 pm. (rNa + = 95 pm; rCl − =181pm) Numerical Answer Type Question Assertion and Reason Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below : (a) Statement I is correct Statement II is correct Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Statement I is correct Statement II is correct Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is correct Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect Statement II is correct 33. Statement I In any ionic soid (MX ) with Schottky defects, the number of positive and negative ions are same. Statement II Equal numbers of cation and anion vacancies are present. (2001, 1M) Passage Based Questions Passage In hexagonal systems of crystals, a frequently encountered arrangement of atoms is described as a hexagonal prism. Here, the top and bottom of the cell are regular hexagons and three atoms are sandwiched in between them. A space-filling model of this structure, called hexagonal close-packed (hcp), is constituted of a sphere on a flat surface surrounded in the same plane by six identical spheres as closely as possible. Three spheres are then placed over the first layer so that they touch each other and represent the second layer. Each one of these three spheres touches three spheres of the bottom layer. Finally, the second layer is covered with a third layer that is identical to the bottom layer in relative position. Assume radius of every sphere to be ‘r ’. 34. The number of atoms in one of this hcp unit cell is (2008, 3 × 4M = 12M) (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) 17 35. The volume of this hcp unit cell is (a) 24 2 r3 (b) 16 2 r3 (c) 12 2 r3 (d) 3 3 36. The empty space in this hcp unit cell is (a) 74 % (b) 47.6 % (c) 32 % (d) 26 % Match the Column 37. Match the crystal system / unit cells mentioned in Column I with their characteristic features mentioned in Column II. (2007, 6M) 32. Consider an ionic solid MX with NaCl structure. Construct a new structure (Z) whose unit cell is constructed from the unit cell of MX following the sequential instruction given below. Neglect the charge balance. (2018 Adv.) (a) Remove all the anions (X ) except the central one (b) Replace all the face centered cations (M ) by anions (X ) (c) Remove all the corner cations (M ) (d) Replace the central anion (X ) with cation (M ) Number of anions The value of in Z is ___ Number of cations 64 r3 Column I A. Simple cubic and face centred cubic Column II p. have these cell parameters a = b = c and α = β = γ = 90° B. Cubic and rhombohedral q. are two crystal systems C. Cubic and tetragonal r. have only two crystallographic angles of 90° Hexagonal and D. s. belong to same crystal monoclinic system Solid State 133 44. (i) Marbles of diameter 10 mm are to be put in a square area Integer Answer Type Questions of side 40 mm so that their centres are within this area. 38. A crystalline solid of a pure substance has a face-centred cubic structure with a cell edge of 400 pm. If the density of the substance in the crystal is 8 g cm −3 , then the number of atoms present in 256 g of the crystal is N × 1024 . The value of N is (2017 Adv.) 39. The number of hexagonal faces that are present in a truncated octahedron is (2011) −1 40. Silver (atomic weight = 108 g mol ) has a density of 10.5 g cm−3 . The number of silver atoms on a surface of area 10−12 m2 can be expressed in scientific notation as y × 10 x. The value of x is (2010) Subjective Questions 41. The edge length of unit cell of a metal having molecular weight 75 g/mol is 5 Å which crystallises in cubic lattice. If the density is 2 g/cc then find the radius of metal atom. (N A = 6 × 1023 ). Give the answer in pm. (2006, 3M) 42. An element crystallises in fcc lattice having edge length 400 pm. Calculate the maximum diameter of atom which can be placed in interstitial site without distorting the structure. (2005, 2M) 43. The crystal AB (rock salt structure) has molecular weight 6.023 y u. Where, y is an arbitrary number in u. If the minimum distance betweeen cation and anion is y1 / 3 nm and the observed density is 20 kg / m3 . Find the (i) density in (2004, 2M) kg / m3 and (ii) type of defect. (ii) Find the maximum number of marbles per unit area and deduce an expression for calculating it. (2003, 4M) 45. The figures given below show the location of atoms in three crystallographic planes in a fcc lattice. Draw the unit cell for the corresponding structures and identify these planes in your diagram. (2000) 46. A metal crystallises into two cubic phases, face centred cubic (fcc) and body centred cubic (bcc), whose unit cell lengths are 3.5 and 3.0 Å, respectively. Calculate the ratio of densities of fcc and bcc. (1999, 3M) 47. Chromium metal crystallises with a body centred cubic lattice. The length of the unit edge is found to be 287 pm. Calculate the atomic radius . What would be the density of chromium in g/cm 3 ? (1997, 3M) 48. A metallic element crystallises into a lattice containing a sequence of layers of ABABAB…… Any packing of layers leaves out voids in the lattice. What percentage of this lattice is empty space? (1996, 3M) 49. Sodium crystallises in a bcc cubic lattice with the cell edge, a = 4.29 Å. What is the radius of sodium atom? (1994, 2M) Answers 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (a,c) 28. (b,c,d) 29. (a) 30. (b,c) 31. (a,c,d) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (d) 38. (2) 39. (8) 40. (7) 41. (217 pm) 42. (117 pm) 37. A → p, s; B → q; C → q; D → q, r 46. (1.26) 47. (7.3 g/cm 3) 48. (0.74) 49. (1.86 Å) Hints & Solutions 1. So, formula is (M 1 )2 (M 2 ) O4. This must be neutral. Both metals must have + 8charge on total. From given options : Oxidaion number of M 1 = + 2 Oxidaion number of M = + 4 2 ∴ (2 × + 2) + (1 × + 4 ) = + 8 Hence, correct option is (a). Number of O2− ions in ccp = 4 Total charge on oxide = − 8 Number of tetrahedral voids = 8 Number of voids = 4 Number of cation M 1 occupies 50% of octahedral voids, 50 ×4=2 100 Number of cation M 2 occupies 12.5% of tetrahedral voids of oxide lattice, 12.5 × 8=1 100 2. We know that, d= Z×M a3 × N A Given, density d = 6 . 17 g, 134 Solid State edge length a = 300 pm = 3 × 10− 8 cm, 23 N A = 6 × 10 [As the atoms A are present at the edges only zA = −1 mol 2×M ∴6 . 17 = (3 × 10− 8 )3 × 6 × 1023 ⇒ M = 50 g / mol atom B is present only at the body centre zB = 1] (For bcc, Z = 2) ∴ Hence, number of molecules present in 200 g of X 2 is w 200 N = × N A = 4N A × NA = M 50 4. In fcc unit cell, two tetrahedral voids are formed on each of the four non-parallel body diagonals of the cube at a distance of 3a / 4 from every corner along the body diagonal. One of the body diagonal of cubic unit cell A √3 a — 4 1 — AB 4 A′ 1 —(AB) 2 B′ B Position of 2 TVs on one of the body diagonal of the unit cell 1 —(AB) 4 √3 a — 4 The angle between body diagonal and an edge is cos−1 (1/ 3 ). So, the projection of the line on an edge is a/ 4. Similarly, other tetrahedral void also will be a/4 away. So, the distance between a a a these two is a − − = . 4 4 2 5. Key Idea Packing efficiency Volume occupied by sphere = × 100 Volume of cube 4 3 4 3 πrA × 1 + πrB × 1 3 3 PE 2 = a23 4 3 4 3 4 πrA × 9 πrA + π (2rA )3 π 3 3 = = = 3 3 8 × 3 3 rA3 2 3 (2 3 rA ) 3. The ratio of number of atoms present in simple cubic, body centred cubic and face centered cubic structure are 1 : 2 : 4 respectively. 1 × 8 = 1, 8 = 90.72% ≈ 90% 6. Interstitial compounds are formed when a neutral atom with a small radius occupies in an interstitial hole (tetrahedral or octahedral voids) in a transition metal’s hcp or ccp lattices (host lattice). Examples of small atoms (guest atom) are H, B, C and N. Interstitial compounds are non-stoichiometric (Birtholide) in composition. They are very hard with very high melting points. The electrical conductivity of interstitial compounds are comparable to that of the pure metal. These are chemically unreactive in nature. 7. The number of element ‘B ’ in the crystal structure = 4 N Number of tetrahedral voids = 2N Number of octahedral voids = N N 4 = =2 ∴Number of ‘A’ in the crystal = 2 2 Number of oxygen (O) atoms = 2N = 2 × 4 = 8 ∴The structure of bimetallic oxide = A2 B4 O8 = AB2 O4 8. For body centred cubic bcc structure, 3 ...(i) a 4 Where, a = edge length According to question, the structure of cubic unit cell can be shown as follows: radius (R ) = 2r R R Given, rB = 2rA a2 = a1 + 50 a1 = 15 . a1 100 For bcc lattice 4 rA = 3 a1 rA = ∴ 3 a1 4 a ⇒ a1 = 4r 3 . A = a2 = 15 3 2 4 rA 3 4 rA 3 a2 = 2 3 rA 4 3 4 πrA × zA + πrB3 × zB 3 3 Packing efficiency = a23 ...(ii) ∴ a = 2(R + r) On substituting the value of R from Eq. (i) to Eq. (ii), we get 3 a = a+ r 2 4 3 a 2a − 3a r= − a= 2 4 4 a(2 − 3 ) r= 4 r = 0.067a Solid State 9. Density of a crystal 14. It is the ‘‘Frenkel defect’’ in which cations leave their original site and occupy interstitial site as shown below. M ×Z d × N A × a3 ⇒M = d= 3 Z NA × a 3 Given, d = 9 × 10 kg m + – + – + – + – −3 M = Molar mass of the solid Z = 4 (for fcc crystal) N A = Avogadro’s constant = 6 × 1023 mol −1 a = Edge length of the unit cell = 200 2 pm = 200 2 × 10−12 m (9 × 103 ) kg m −3 × (6 × 1023 ) mol −1 × (200 2 × 10−12 )3 m 3 = 4 = 0.0305 kg mol −1 10. Total effective number of atoms in hcp unit lattice = Number of octahedral voids in hcp = 6 ∴Number of tetrahedral voids (TV) in hcp = 2 × Number of atoms in hcp lattice = 2 × 6 = 12 As, formula of the lattice is A2 B3 . Suppose, A B 1 (hcp) × TV 3 ⇒ So, A = – + – + + – + – – + – + – + – – + – + + + – + – – + – + + – + – + – + – + – + – 3 3 a= × 4.29Å = 1.85Å 4 4 r = 1.85Å ≈ 1.86Å r= 17. In CsCl, Cl − lies at corners of simple cube and Cs+ at the body centre. Hence, along the body diagonal, Cs+ and Cl − touch each other so rCs + + rCl − = 2r Calculation of r In ∆EDF, G B H r c A a r 3 C F a 1 tetrahedral voids, B = hcp lattice 3 E 11. Triclinic primitive unit cell has dimensions as, a ≠ b ≠ c and b a D Body centred cubic unit cell α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 90° . Among the seven basic or primitive crystalline systems, the triclinic system is most unsymmetrical. In other cases, edge length and axial angles are given as follows : Hexagonal : a = b ≠ c and α = β = 90°, γ = 120° Monoclinic : a ≠ b ≠ c and α = γ = 90°, β ≠ 90° FD = b = a2 + a2 = 2 a In ∆AFD, c2 = a2 + b2 = a2 + ( 2 a)2 = a2 + 2 a2 c2 = 3 a2 ⇒ c = 3 a As ∆ AFD is an equilateral triangle. ∴ 3a = 4r Tetragonal : a ≠ b ≠ c and α = β = γ = 90° 12. For fcc, rank of the unit cell (Z ) = 4 ⇒ Mass of one Cu-atom, M = 63.55 u Avogadro’s number, N A = 6.023 × 1023 atom electric current when they are placed under mechanical stress. Crystalline solids can be used as piezoelectric material hence, quartz is a correct answer. Cation in interstitial site 3 a = 4a 16. For bcc unit cell, 1 13. Piezoelectric materials are those materials that produce an Original vacant site of cation 2a a = 2 2 ∴ Closest distance = 2 r = 6 Edge length, a = x Å = x × 10−8 cm Z×M density (d ) = N A × a3 4 × 63.55 422.048 g cm−3 = = 6.023 × 1023 × (x × 10−8 )3 x3 – + – + – + – + where, r = radius and a = edge length 2r ⇒ 1 × 12 3 2 3 2 – + – + – + – + 15. For fcc arrangement, 4 r = 2a On substituting all the given values, we get ⇒ 135 r= 3a 4 Hence, rCs + + rCl− = 2 r = 2 × 18. [QC = 3r + r + r] 3 3 a= a 4 2 PLAN Given arrangement represents octahedral void and for this r+ (cation) = 0.414 r− (anion) r( A + ) = 0.414 r( X − ) r( A + ) = 0.414 × r( X − ) = 0.414 × 250pm = 103.5 pm ≈ 104 pm 136 Solid State Number of B is removed because it is not present on face centres. ⇒ A remaining = 4 − 1 = 3, B remaining = 4, 19. From the valency of M 2+ and M 3+ , it is clear that three M 2+ ions will be replaced by M 3+ causing a loss of one M 3+ ion. Total loss of them from one molecule of MO = 1 − 0.98 = 0.02 Total M 3+ present in one molecule of MO = 2 × 0.02 = 0.04 That M 2+ and M 3+ = 0.98 0.04 × 100 Thus, % of M 3+ = = 4.08% 0.98 Formula = A3 B4 26. Three consecutive layers of atoms in hexagonal close packed lattice is shown below: A 20. Silicon exists as covalent crystal in solid state. (Network like structure, as seen in diamond). B X 21. Contribution of atom from the edge centre is 1/4. Therefore, number of 1 M = × 4 (from edge centre) + 1(from body centre) = 2 4 1 1 Number of X = × 8 (from corners) + × 6 8 2 (from face centre) = 4 ⇒ Empirical formula = M 2 X 4 = MX 2 1 22. Contribution of circle from corner of square = 4 ⇒ Effective number of circle per square 1 = × 4 + 1(at centre) = 2 4 ⇒ Area occupied by circle = 2πr2, r = radius. Also, diagonal of square 4 r = 2 L, where L = side of square. Area occupied by circles ⇒ Packing fraction = Area of square 2πr2 2πr2 π = 2 = = = 0.785 4 L 8r2 ⇒ % packing efficiency = 78.5%. 2− 23. In ZnS, S (sulphide ions) are present at fcc positions giving four sulphide ions per unit cell. To comply with 1 : 1 stoichiometry, four Zn 2+ ions must be present in four alternate tetrahedral voids out of eight tetrahedral voids present. In NaCl, Na + ions are present in octahedral voids while in Na 2O, Na + ions are present in all its tetrahedral voids giving the desired 2 : 1 stoichiometry. In CaF2 , Ca 2+ ions occupies fcc positions and all the tetrahedral voids are occupied by fluoride ions. 1 24. In cubic system, a corner contribute th part of atom to one unit 8 1 cell and a face centre contribute part of atom to one unit cell. 2 Therefore, 1 Number of A per unit cell = × 8 = 1 8 1 Number of B per unit cell = × 6 = 3 2 Formula = AB3 ⇒ + 25. In NaCl, Na occupies body centre and edge centres while Cl − occupies corners and face centres, giving four Na + and four Cl − per unit cell. In the present case A represent Cl − and B represents Na + . Two face centres lies on one axis. 1 ⇒ Number of A removed = 2 × = 1 2 A Atom X is in contact of 12 like atoms, 6 from layer B and 3 from top and bottom layers A each. 27. (a) The empirical formula of the compound: Contribution of M and X : M 1 2× 2 X 1 4× 4 ⇒ MX (b) Coordination number of both M and X is 8. (c) Distance between M and X = a2 a2 + = 4 2 3 3 a= a 4 2 ⇒ 0.866a (d) rM : rX = ( 3 − 1) : 1 ⇒ 0.732:1, thus statement (d) is incorrect. 28. (a) Nearest neighbour in the topmost layer of ccp structure is 9 thus, incorrect. (b) Packing efficiency is 74% thus, correct. (c) Tetrahedral voids = 2 Octahedral voids = 1 per atom thus, correct. A a B (d) Edge length, a = a 4 r = 2 2r 2 thus, correct Explanation Edge length = a Radius = r AC 2 = AB 2 + BC 2 (4 r)2 = a2 + a2 = 2a2 4 r = 2a C Solid State 2 a a= 4 2 2 ⇒ r= ⇒ a=2 2 r 137 32. The unit cell of initial structure of ionic solid MX looks like Cl– (at face centre) Cl– (at corner) In ccp structure, number of spheres is 4. 4 Hence, volume of 4 spheres = 4 πr3 3 Na+ (at face) Total volume of unit cell = a3 = (2 2r)3 Na+ (at corner edge) % of packing efficiency Volume of 4 spheres = Volume of unit cell 4 4 πr3 3 = × 100 [ 2( 2r)]3 ~ 74% = 74.05% − In NaCl type of solids cations (Na + ) occupy the octahedral voids while anions (Cl − ) occupy the face centre positions. However, as per the demand of problem the position of cations and anions are swapped. We also know that (for 1 unit cell) (A) Total number of atoms at FCC = 4 (B) Total number of octahedral voids = 4 (as no. of atoms at FCC = No. of octahedral voids) Now taking the conditions one by one 29. Oxide ions are at ccp positions, hence 4O2– ions. Also, there are four octahedral voids and eight tetrahedral voids. Since ‘m’ fraction of octahedral voids contain Al 3+ and ‘n’ fraction of tetrahedral voids contain Mg2+ ions, to maintain etectroneutrality 2(2Al 3+ = + 6charge) and (Mg2+ = + 2charge), will make unit cell neutral 2 1 1 Hence: m = = , n= 4 2 8 (i) If we remove all the anions except the central one than number of left anions. = 4 −3 = 1 (ii) If we replace all the face centred cations by anions than effective number of cations will be = 4 − 3 = 1 Likewise effective number of anions will be = 1+ 3 = 4 30. (a) Wrong statement. A small difference in sizes of cation and anion favour Schottky defect while Frenkel defect is favoured by large difference in sizes of cation and anion. (b) Correct statement. In Frenkel defect the smaller atom or ion gets dislocated from its normal lattice positions and occupies the interstitial space. (c) Correct Statement In F-centre defect, some anions leave the lattice and the vacant sites hold the electrons trapped in it maintaining the overall electroneutrality of solid. (d) Wrong statement : In Schottky defect, some of the atoms or ions remaining absent from their normal lattice points without distorting the original unit cell dimension. This lowers the density of solid. (iii) If we remove all the corner cations then effective number of cations will be 1− 1= 0 (iv) If we replace central anion with cation then effective number of cations will be 0 + 1= 1 Likewise effective number of anions will be 4 − 1= 3 Thus, as the final outcome, total number of cations present in Z after fulfilling all the four sequential instructions = 1 Likewise, total number of anions = 3 Number of anions 3 Hence, the value of = =3 Number of cations 1 33. In ionic solid MX (1 : 1 solid) same number of M n+ and X n− ions are lost in Schottky defect to maintain electroneutrality of solid. 31. (a) The unit cell of CsCl has bcc arrangement of ions in which each ion has eight oppositely charged ions around it in the nearest neighbours as shown below : A 34. Cs+ B Q Cl– M C P Unit cell of CsCl (b) In bcc, coordination number of atom is 8. (c) In an unit cell, a corner is shared in eight unit cells and a face centre is shared between two adjacent unit cells. (d) In NaCl unit cell; 2(rNa+ + rCl − ) = a ⇒ a = 2 (95 + 181) = 552 pm Hence, a, c, d are correct. R S N A hcp unit cell Contribution of atoms from corner = 1/ 6 Contribution from face centre = 1 / 2 ⇒ Total number of atoms per unit cell = 12 × 1 1 + 2 × + 3= 6 6 2 138 Solid State ⇒ a3 (Volume of unit cell) = 6.83 × 10−23 cm 3 35. In close packed arrangement, side of the base = 2r ⇒ RS = r Also MNR is equilateral triangle, ∠ PRS = 30° 3 RS In triangle PRS , cos 30° = = 2 PR 2 2 ⇒ PR = RS = r 3 3 In right angle triangle PQR : PQ = QR 2 − PR 2 = 2 ⇒ a = 4 × 10−8 cm = 4 × 10−10 m ⇒ Surface area of unit cell = a2 = 1.6 × 10−19 m 2 ⇒ Number of unit cells on 10−12 m 2 surface = 2 r 3 2 r ⇒ Height of hexagon = 2PQ = 4 3 ⇒ Volume = Area of base × height = 6 3 2 (2r)2 × 4 r 4 3 = 24 2 r3 Volume occupied by atoms Volume of unit cell 4 1 = 6 × πr3 × = 0.74 3 24 2 r3 36. Packing fraction = ⇒ Fraction of empty space = 1 − 0.74 = 0.26 = 26% 37. A. Simple cubic and face centred cubic both have cell parameters a = b = c and α = β = γ = 90°. Also both of them belongs to same, cubic, crystal system. B. The cubic and rhombohedral crystal system belongs to different crystal system. C. Cubic and tetragonal are two different types of crystal systems having different cell parameters. D. Hexagonal and monoclinic are two different crystal system and both have two of their crystallographic angles of 90°. 4×M 38. Density (ρ) = 8 = N A (4 × 10−8 cm )3 ⇒ −24 M = 128 × 10 = NA 256 ⇒ No. of atoms = × NA M 256 × N A = 2 × 1024 128 × 10−24 N A 39. The truncated octahedron is the 14-faced Archimedean solid, with 14 total faces : 6 squares and 8 regular hexagons. The truncated octahedron is formed by removing the six right square pyramids one from each point of a regular octahedron as : 10−12 = 6.25 × 106 1.6 × 10−19 Q There are two atoms (effectively) on one face of unit cell Number of atoms on 10−12 m 2 surface = 2 × number of unit cell [Q y × 10x ] = 1.25 × 107 . ⇒ x = 7 ⇒ y = 125 . 41. From the given information, the number of atoms per unit cell and therefore, type of unit cell can be known as NM ρ= NA a3 ρ N A a3 2 × 6 × 1023 × (5 × 10−8 cm )3 = = 2 ( bcc) M 75 ⇒ In bcc, 4 r = 3a N = ⇒ 3 3 a= × 5 × 10−10 m 4 4 = 2.17 × 10−10 m = 217 pm ⇒ r= 42. In a cubic crystal system, there are two types of voids known as octahedral and tetrahedral voids. If r1 is the radius of void and r2 is the radius of atom creating these voids then r1 = 0.414 r2 octa and r1 = 0.225 r2 tetra The above radius ratio values indicate that octahedral void has larger radius, hence for maximum diameter of atom to be present in interstitial space : r1 = 0.414 r2 Also in fcc, 4 r2 = 2a ⇒ Diameter required (2r1 ) = (2r2 ) × 0.414 a = × 0.414 2 400 × 0.414 = = 117 pm 2 43. (i) In rock salt like crystal AB, there are four AB units per unit cell. Therefore, density (d ) is 4 × 6.023 y d= 6.023 × 1023 × 8 y × 10−27 Truncated octahedron Truncated octahedron unfolded in two-dimension 40. Ag crystallises in fcc unit cell with 4 atoms per unit cell. ρ= 4 × 108 = 10.5 g cm −3. 6.023 × 1023 × a3 [Q a = 2 y1/ 3 nm = 2 y1/ 3 × 10−9 m ] = 5 × 103 g/m 3 = 5 kg/m 3 (ii) Since, observed density is greater than expected, theoretical density, there must be some excess metal occupying interstitial spaces. This type of defect is known as metal excess defect. Solid State 44. (i) Side of square = 40 mm Diameter of marble = 10 mm Number of marble spheres along an edge of square with their centres within the square = 5 (shown in diagram) 10 mm 46. Density ∝ N a3 3 3 d1 N 1 a2 4 3 = = = 1.26 d2 N 2 a1 2 3.5 ⇒ 47. In bcc unit cell, 4 r = 3a ⇒ r (Cr) = Density of solid = 3a 3 = × 287 pm = 124.3 pm 4 4 NM N A ⋅ a3 N = Number of atoms per unit cell, 3 a = Volume of cubic unit cell, 40 mm Maximum number of marbles per unit area = 5 × 5 = 25 (ii) If x mm is the side of square and d is diameter of marble then maximum number of marbles on square area with centres within square area can be known by the following general formula : 2 x N = + 1 d 139 M = Molar mass N A = Avogadro’s number 3 2 × 52 g 1 × = = 7.3 g / cm 3 6.023 × 1023 2.87 × 10−8 cm 48. The given arrangement : ABABAB...... represents hexagonal close-packed unit cell in which there are six atoms per unit cell. Also, volume of unit cell = 24 2r3. Volume occupied by atoms Volume of unit cell 4 1 = 6 × πr3 × = 0.74 3 24 2 r3 ⇒ Packing fraction = ⇒ Percent empty space = 100 (1 − 0.74) = 26% 45. 49. In bcc arrangement of atoms : 4 r = 3a, atoms on body diagonal remain in contact 3a 3 × 4.29 r= = = 1.86 Å ⇒ 4 4 9 Solutions and Colligative Properties Topic 1 Solution and Vapour Pressure of Liquid Solutions Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. Henry’s constant (in kbar) for four gasesα, β, γ and δ in water at 298 K is given below : 5. For the solution of the gases w , x, y and z in water at 298 K, the Henry’s law constants ( K H ) are 0.5, 2, 35 and 40 K bar, respectively. The correct plot for the given data is 50 2 2 × 10−5 0.5 3 −3 (density of water = 10 kg m at 298 K) This table implies that (2020 Main, 3 Sep I) (a) α has the highest solubility in water at a given pressure (b) solubility of γ at 308 K is lower than at 298 K (c) The pressure of a 55.5 molal solution of γ is 1 bar (d) The pressure of a 55.5 molal solution of δ is 250 bar (a) (2019 Main, 12 April I) (a) 13.88 × 10−2 (b) 13.88 × 10−1 −3 (d) 13.88 × 10 (c) 13.88 3. What would be the molality of 20% (mass/mass) aqueous solution of KI? (Molar mass of KI = 166 g mol −1 ) (2019 Main, 9 April I) (a) 1.48 (b) 1.51 (c) 1.35 (d) 1.08 4. Liquid M and liquid N form an ideal solution. The vapour pressures of pure liquids M and N are 450 and 700 mmHg, respectively, at the same temperature. Then correct statement is (2019 Main, 9 April I) x M = mole fraction of M in solution; x N = mole fraction of N in solution; y M = mole fraction of M in vapour phase; y N = mole fraction of N in vapour phase x y x y (b) M = M (a) M > M xN yN xN yN xM yM (c) (d) ( x M − y M ) < ( x N − y N ) < xN yN z y x w (0, 0) Mole fraction of water z y x w (0, 0) Mole fraction of water z 2. The mole fraction of a solvent in aqueous solution of a solute is 0.8. The molality (in mol kg −1 ) of the aqueous solution is (b) Partial pressure δ (c) z y (d) x w (0, 0) Mole fraction of water Partial pressure γ Partial pressure KH β Partial pressure (2019 Main, 8 April II) α y xw (0, 0) Mole fraction of water 6. The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and B are 400 and 600 mmHg, respectively at 298 K. On mixing the two liquids, the sum of their initial volumes is equal to the volume of the final mixture. The mole fraction of liquid B is 0.5 in the mixture. The vapour pressure of the final solution, the mole fractions of components A and B in vapour phase, respectively are (2019 Main, 8 April I) (a) 450 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6 (c) 450 mmHg, 0.5,0.5 (b) 500 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5 (d) 500 mmHg, 0.4,0.6 7. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution in the entire composition range. At 350 K, the vapour pressures of pure A and pure B are 7 × 103 Pa and 12 × 103 Pa, respectively. The composition of the vapour in equilibrium with a solution containing 40 mole percent of A at this temperature is (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) Solutions and Colligative Properties (a) (b) (c) (d) xA xA xA xA = 0.76; xB = 0.24 = 0.28; xB = 0.72 = 0.4; xB = 0.6 = 0.37; xB = 0.63 Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) 15. For a solution formed by mixing liquids L and M , the vapour 8. Which one of the following statements regarding Henry’s law is not correct? (2019 Main, 8 Jan I) (a) Different gases have different K H (Henry’s law constant) values at the same temperature (b) Higher the value of K H at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas in the liquids (c) The value of K H increases with increase of temperature and K H is function of the nature of the gas (d) The partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is proportional to the mole fraction of the gas in the solution 9. 18 g of glucose (C6 H12 O6 ) is added to 178.2 g water. The vapour pressure of water (in torr) for this aqueous solution is (2016 Main) (a) 76.0 (c) 759.0 (b) 752.4 (d) 7.6 10. The vapour pressure of acetone at 20°C is 185 torr. When 1.2 g of a non-volatile substance was dissolved in 100 g of acetone at 20°C, its vapour pressure was 183 Torr. The molar mass of the substance is (2015, 1M) (a) 32 (b) 64 (a) 128 (b) 488 11. The Henry’s law constant for the solubility of N2 gas in water at 298 K is 1.0 × 105 atm. The mole fraction of N2 in air is 0.8. The number of moles of N2 from air dissolved in 10 moles of water of 298 K and 5 atm pressure is (2009) (b) 4.0 × 10− 5 (a) 4.0 × 10− 4 (c) 5.0 × 10− 4 (d) 4.0 × 10− 6 12. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in (1986, 1M) (a) 1000 g of the solvent (c) 1 L of the solution 141 (b) 1 L of the solvent (d) 22.4 L of the solution 13. For a dilute solution, Raoult’s law states that (1985, 1M) (a) the lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute (b) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute (c) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is proportional to the amount of solute in solution (d) the vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the mole fraction of solvent 14. An azeotropic solution of two liquids has boiling point lower than either of them when it (a) shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law (b) shows no deviation from Raoult’s law (c) shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law (d) is saturated (1981, 1M) pressure of L plotted against the mole fraction of M in solution is shown in the following figure. Here xL and x M represent mole fractions of L and M , respectively, in the solution. The correct statement(s) applicable to this system is (are) (2017 Adv.) Z pL 1 XM 0 (a) The point Z represents vapour pressure of pure liquid M and Raoult’s law is obeyed from xL = 0 to xL = 1 (b) Attractive intermolecular interactions between L - L in pure liquid L and M - M in pure liquid M are stronger than those between L - M when mixed in solution (c) The point Z represents vapour pressure of pure liquid M and Raoult’s law is obeyed when xL → 0 (d) The point Z represents vapour pressure of pure liquid L and Raoult’s law is obeyed when xL → 1 16. Mixture(s) showing positive deviation from Raoult’s law at 35°C is (are) (a) carbon tetrachloride + methanol (b) carbon disulphide + acetone (c) benzene + toluene (d) phenol + aniline (2016 Adv.) Numerical Answer Type Questions 17. Liquids A and B form ideal solution for all compositions of A and B at 25°C. Two such solutions with 0.25 and 0.50 mole fractions of A have the total vapour pressure of 0.3 and 0.4 bar, respectively. What is the vapour pressure of pure liquid B in bar? (2020 Adv.) 18. The mole fraction of urea in an aqueous urea solution containing 900 g of water is 0.05. If the density of the solution is 1.2 g cm −3 , then molarity of urea solution is …… (Given data : Molar masses of urea and water are 60 g mol −1 and 18 g mol −1 , respectively) (2019 Adv.) 19. Liquids A and B form ideal solution over the entire range of composition. At temperature T, equimolar binary solution of liquids A and B has vapour pressure 45 torr. At the same temperature, a new solution of A and B having mole fractions x A and xB , respectively, has vapour pressure of 22.5 torr. The value of x A / xB in the new solution is ____. (Given that the vapour pressure of pure liquid A is 20 Torr at temperature T) (2018 Adv.) 142 Solutions and Colligative Properties True/False 20. Following statement is true only under some specific conditions. Write the condition for it. “Two volatile and miscible liquids can be separated by fractional distillation into pure components.” (1994) the solution is 600 mm Hg. What is the molecular weight of the solid substance? (1990, 3M) 26. The vapour pressure of a dilute aqueous solution of glucose (C6 H12 O6 ) is 750 mm of mercury at 373 K. Calculate (i) molality and (ii) mole fraction of the solute. (1989, 3M) Subjective Questions 21. The vapour pressure of two miscible liquids A and B are 300 27. The vapour pressure of ethanol and methanol are 44.5 and and 500 mm of Hg respectively. In a flask 10 moles of A is mixed with 12 moles of B. However, as soon as B is added, A starts polymerising into a completely insoluble solid. The polymerisation follows first-order kinetics. After 100 min, 0.525 mole of a solute is dissolved which arrests the polymerisation completely. The final vapour pressure of the solution is 400 mm of Hg. Estimate the rate constant of the polymerisation reaction. Assume negligible volume change on mixing and polymerisation and ideal behaviour for the final solution. (2001, 4M) 28. An organic compound (Cx H2 y O y ) was burnt with twice the 22. The molar volume of liquid benzene (density = 0.877 g/mL) increases by a factor of 2750 as it vaporises at 20° C and that of liquid toluene (density = 0.867 g mL−1 ) increases by a factor of 7720 at 20° C. A solution of benzene and toluene at 20° C has a vapour pressure of 45.0 torr. Find the mole fraction of benzene in the vapour above the solution. (1996, 3M) 23. What weight of the non-volatile solute urea (NH2 — CO —NH2 ) needs to be dissolved in 100 g of water, in order to decrease the vapour pressure of water by 25%? What will be the molality of the solution? (1993, 3M) 24. The degree of dissociation of Ca(NO3 )2 in a dilute aqueous solution, containing 7.0 g of the salt per 100 g of water at 100° C is 70%. If the vapour-pressure of water at 100° C is 760mm, calculate the vapour pressure of the solution. (1991, 4M) 25. The vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain temperature is 640 mm Hg. A non-volatile, non-electrolyte solid weighing 2.175 g is added to 39.0 g of benzene. The vapour pressure of 88.7 mm Hg respectively. An ideal solution is formed at the same temperature by the mixing 60 g of ethanol with 40 g of methanol. Calculate the total vapour pressure of the solution and the mole fraction of methanol in the vapour. (1986, 4M) amount of oxygen needed for complete combustion to CO2 and H2 O. The hot gases when cooled to 0°C and 1 atm pressure, measured 2.24 L. The water collected during cooling weight 0.9 g. The vapour pressure of pure water at 20°C is 17.5 mm Hg and is lowered by 0.104 mm when 50 g of the organic compound are dissolved in 1000 g of water. Give the molecular formula of the organic compound. (1983, 5M) 29. Two liquids A and B form ideal solution. At 300 K, the vapour pressure of a solution containing 1 mole of A and 3 moles of B is 550 mm of Hg. At the same temperature, if one more mole of B is added to this solution, the vapour pressure of the solution increases by 10 mm of Hg. Determine the vapour pressure of A and B in their pure states. (1982, 4M) 30. The vapour pressure of pure benzene is 639.70 mm of Hg and the vapour pressure of solution of a solute in benzene at the same temperature is 631.9 mm of Hg. Calculate the molality of the solution. (1981, 3M) 31. What is the molarity and molality of a 13% solution (by weight) of sulphuric acid with a density of 1.02 g/mL ? To what volume should 100 mL of this solution be diluted in order to prepare a 1.5 N solution ? (1978, 2M) Topic 2 Colligative Properties Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. A solution is prepared by dissolving 0.6 g of urea (molar mass = 60 g mol −1 ) and 1.8 g of glucose (molar mass = 180 g mol −1 ) in 100 mL of water at 27°C. The osmotic pressure of the solution is ( R = 0.08206 L atm K −1 mol −1 ) (2019 Main, 12 April II) (a) 8.2 atm (c) 4.92 atm (b) 2.46 atm (d) 1.64 atm 2. 1 g of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute is dissolved in 100 g of two different solvents A and B, whose ebullisocopic constants are in the ratio of 1 : 5. The ratio of the elevation in ∆T ( A ) their boiling points, b , is ∆Tb ( B ) (2019 Main, 10 April II) (a) 5 : 1 (b) 10 : 1 (c) 1 : 5 (d) 1 : 0.2 3. At room temperature, a dilute solution of urea is prepared by dissolving 0.60 g of urea in 360 g of water. If the vapour pressure of pure water at this temperature is 35 mm Hg, lowering of vapour pressure will be (Molar mass of urea = 60 g mol −1 ) (2019 Main, 10 April I) (a) 0.027 mmHg (b) 0.031 mmHg (c) 0.017 mmHg (d) 0.028 mmHg Solutions and Colligative Properties 143 4. Molal depression constant for a solvent is 4.0 K kg mol −1 . 12. For 1 molal aqueous solution of the following compounds, The depression in the freezing point of the solvent for 0.03 mol kg −1 solution of K 2SO4 is (Assume complete dissociation of the electrolyte) which one will show the highest freezing point? (2018 Main) (a) [Co(H2 O)6 ]Cl 3 (b) [Co(H2 O)5 Cl]Cl 2 ⋅ H2 O (c) [Co(H2 O)4 Cl 2 ]Cl ⋅ 2H2 O (d) [Co(H2 O)3 Cl 3 ] ⋅ 3H2 O (2019 Main, 9 April II) 13. The freezing point of benzene decreases by 0.45°C when 0.2 g (c) 0.12 K (d) 0.24 K 5. The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution of an ionic compound XY in water is four times that of a solution of 0.01 M BaCl2 in water. Assuming complete dissociation of the given ionic compounds in water, the concentration of XY (in mol L−1 ) in solution is (2019 Main, 9 April I) −2 −4 (b) 16 × 10 (a) 4 × 10 −4 −2 (c) 4 × 10 (d) 6 × 10 6. Molecules of benzoic acid (C6H5COOH) dimerise in benzene. ‘w’ g of the acid dissolved in 30 g of benzene shows a depression in freezing point equal to 2 K. If the percentage association of the acid to form dimer in the solution is 80, then w is of acetic acid is added to 20 g of benzene. If acetic acid associates to form a dimer in benzene, percentage association of acetic acid in benzene will be . K kg mol − 1) (K f for benzene = 512 (2017 Main) (a) 64.6 % (b) 80.4 % of ethanol to 500 g of water changes the freezing point of the solution. Use the freezing point depression constant of water as 2 K kg mol −1 . The figures shown below represent plots of vapour pressure (V.P.) versus temperature (T ). [Molecular weight of ethanol is 46 g mol −1 ] (2017 Adv.) Among the following, the option representing change in the freezing point is (b) 1.0 g (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) (c) 2.4 g (a) (d) 1.5 g V.P./bar (a) 1.8 g (c) 3A (d) A 8. K 2HgI4 is 40% ionised in aqueous solution. The value of its van’t Hoff factor (i) is (a) 1.6 (b) 1.8 (c) 2.2 1 (d) Water+Ethanol 270 273 T/K Water+Ethanol 271 273 T/K Water Ice Ice 1 T/K Water Ice Water+Ethanol 271 273 T/K 15. Consider separate solution of 0.500 M C2 H5 OH (aq), (d) 2.0 −0.2° C, while it should have been −0.5°C for pure milk. How much water has been added to pure milk to make the diluted sample? (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) (a) 2 cups of water to 3 cups of pure milk (b) 1 cup of water to 3 cups of pure milk (c) 3 cups of water to 2 cups of pure milk (d) 1 cup of water to 2 cups of pure milk 10. Elevation in the boiling point for 1 molal solution of glucose is 2 K . The depression in the freezing point for 2 molal solution of glucose in the same solvent is 2 K. The relation between K b and K f is (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) (b) K b = 0.5 K f (a) K b = 15 . Kf (c) K b = K f (d) K b = 2K f 11. A solution contain 62 g of ethylene glycol in 250 g of water −1 is cooled upto –10º C. If K f for water is 1.86 K kg mol , then amount of water (in g) separated as ice is (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) (b) 48 Water+Ethanol Water 1 (2019 Main, 11 Jan II) 9. The freezing point of a diluted milk sample is found to be (a) 32 (c) V.P./bar (b) 2A Ice (b) 270 273 freezing point of 12% aqueous solution of Y . If molecular weight of X is A, then molecular weight of Y is (a) 4A Water 1 7. Freezing point of a 4% aqueous solution of X is equal to (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) (d) 94.6 % 14. Pure water freezes at 273 K and 1 bar. The addition of 34.5 g (Given that K f = 5 K kg mol− 1 , molar mass of benzoic acid = 122 g mol− 1 ) (c) 74.6 % V.P./bar (b) 0.36 K V.P./bar (a) 0.18 K (c) 64 (d) 16 0.100 M Mg 3 (PO4 )2 (aq), 0.250 M KBr (aq) and 0.125 M Na 3 PO4 (aq) at 25°C. Which statement is true about these solution, assuming all salts to be strong electrolytes? (a) They all have the same osmotic pressure (2014 Main) (b) 0.100 M Mg 3 (PO4 )2 (aq) has the highest osmotic pressure (c) 0.125 M Na 3 PO4 (aq) has the highest osmotic pressure (d) 0.500 M C2 H5 OH (aq) has the highest osmotic pressure 16. For a dilute solution containing 2.5 g of a non-volatile non-electrolyte solute in 100 g of water, the elevation in boiling point at 1 atm pressure is 2°C. Assuming concentration of solute is much lower than the concentration of solvent, the vapour pressure (mm of Hg) of the solution is (take K b = 0.76 K kg mol −1 ). (2012) (a) 724 (b) 740 (c) 736 (d) 718 17. The freezing point (in° C) of solution containing 0.1 g of K 3 [Fe(CN)6 ] (mol. wt. 329) in 100 g of water ( K f = 1.86 K kg mol −1 ) is (a) − 2.3 × 10−2 (b) −5.7 × 10−2 (c) −5.7 × 10−3 (d) −1.2 × 10−2 (2011) Solutions and Colligative Properties (a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 19. The elevation in boiling point, when 13.44 g of freshly prepared CuCl 2 are added to one kilogram of water, is. [Some useful data, K b = 0.52 K kg mol − 1 , molecular weight of (2005, 1M) CuCl 2 =134.4 g]. (a) 0.05 (b) 0.1 (c) 0.16 (d) 0.21 20. 0.004 M Na 2 SO4 is isotonic with 0.01 M glucose. Degree of dissociation of Na 2 SO4 is (2004, S, 1M) (a) 75% (b) 50% (c) 25% (d) 85% 21. During depression of freezing point in a solution the 22. 23. 24. 25. following are in equilibrium (2003) (a) liquid solvent, solid solvent (b) liquid solvent, solid solute (c) liquid solute, solid solute (d) liquid solute, solid solvent The molecular weight of benzoic acid in benzene as determined by depression in freezing point method corresponds to (a) ionisation of benzoic acid (1996, 1M) (b) dimerisation of benzoic acid (c) trimerisation of benzoic acid (d) solvation of benzoic acid The freezing point of equimolal aqueous solutions will be highest for (1990, 1M) (a) C6 H5 NH3 Cl (aniline hydrochloride) (b) Ca(NO3 )2 (c) La(NO3 )3 (d) C6 H12 O6 (glucose) Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solution will have the lowest freezing point? (1989, 1M) (a) Potassium sulphate (b) Sodium chloride (c) Urea (d) Glucose When mercuric iodide is added to the aqueous solution of potassium iodide (1987, 2M) (a) freezing point is raised (b) freezing point is lowered (c) freezing point does not change (d) boiling point does not change Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) 26. In the depression of freezing point experiment, it is found that the (1999, 3M) (a) vapour pressure of the solution is less than that of pure solvent (b) vapour pressure of the solution is more than that of pure solvent (c) only solute molecules solidify at the freezing point (d) only solvent molecules solidify at the freezing point 27. The osmotic pressure of a solution of NaCl is 0.10 atm and that of a glucose solution is 0.20 atm. The osmotic pressure of a solution formed by mixing 1 L of the sodium chloride solution with 2 L of the glucose solution is x × 10−3 atm. x is ……… (nearest integer). (2020 Main, 4 Sep II) 28. On dissolving 0.5 g of a non-volatile non-ionic solute to 39 g of benzene, its vapour pressure decreases from 650 mmHg to 640 mmHg. The depression of freezing point of benzene (in K) upon addition of the solute is ............ (Given data : Molar mass and the molal freezing point depression constant of benzene are 78 g mol − 1 and 512 . K kg mol − 1 , respectively). (2019 Adv.) 29. The plot given below shows p −T curves (where p is the pressure and T is the temperature) for two solvents X and Y and isomolal solution of NaCl in these solvents. NaCl completely dissociates in both the solvents. 1 2 3 4 760 1. Solvent X 2. Solution of NaCl in solvent X 3. Solvent Y 4. Solution of NaCl in solvent Y 367 368 (2007, 3M) Numerical Answer Type Questions 362 of benzene (K f = 1.72 K kg mol − 1 ), a freezing point depression of 2 K is observed. The van’t Hoff factor ( i ) is 360 18. When 20 g of naphthoic acid (C11 H8 O2 ) is dissolved in 50 g Pressure (mmHg) 144 Temperature (K) On addition of equal number of moles of a non-volatile solute S in equal amount (in kg) of these solvents, the elevation of boiling point of solvent X is three times that of solvent Y. Solute S is known to undergo dimerisation in these solvents. If the degree of dimerisation is 0.7 in solvent Y , the degree of dimerisation in solvent X is ____. (2018 Adv.) Subjective Questions 30. 75.2 g of C 6 H5 OH (phenol) is dissolved in a solvent of K f = 14. If the depression in freezing point is 7 K, then find the percentage of phenol that dimerises. (2006, 2M) 31. 1.22 g C6 H5 COOH is added into two solvents and data of ∆Tb and K b are given as : (i) In 100 g CH3COCH3 ∆Tb = 0.17, K b = 1.7 K kg/mol (ii) In 100 g benzene, ∆Tb = 0.13 and K b = 2.6 K kg/mol Find out the molecular weight of C6 H5 COOH in both the cases and interpret the result. (2004, 2M) Solutions and Colligative Properties 32. Consider the three solvents of identical molar masses. Match their boiling point with their K b values Solvents Boiling point Kb values X 100°C 0.92 Y 27°C 0.63 Z 283°C 0.53 145 Freezing point depression constant of ethanol ( K ethanol ) = 2.0 K kg mol −1 f Boiling point elevation constant of water ( K bwater ) = 0.52 K kg mol −1 Boiling point elevation constant of ethanol ( K bethanol ) = 1.2 K kg mol −1 Standard freezing point of water = 273 K (2003) 33. To 500 cm3 of water, 3.0 × 10–3 kg of acetic acid is added. If 23% of acetic acid is dissociated, what will be the depression in freezing point? K f and density of water are 1.86 K kg –1 mol –1 and 0.997 g cm−3 , respectively. (2000, 3M) 34. Nitrobenzene is formed as the major product along with a minor product in the reaction of benzene with a hot mixture of nitric acid and sulphuric acid. The minor product consists of carbon : 42.86%, hydrogen : 2.40%, nitrogen : 16.67% and oxygen : 38.07%, (i) Calculate the empirical formula of the minor product. (ii) When 5.5 g of the minor product is dissolved in 45 g of benzene, the boiling point of the solution is 1.84°C higher than that of pure benzene. Calculate the molar mass of the minor product then determine its molecular and structural formula. (Molal boiling point elevation constant of benzene is 2.53 K kg mol − 1 ). (1999) 35. A solution of a non-volatile solute in water freezes at − 0.30° C.The vapour pressure of pure water at 298 K is 23.51 mm Hg and K f for water is 1.86 K kg mol −1 . Calculate the vapour pressure of this solution at 298 K. (1998, 4M) Standard freezing point of ethanol = 155.7 K Standard boiling point of water = 373 K Standard boiling point of ethanol = 351.5 K Vapour pressure of pure water = 32.8 mm Hg Vapour pressure of pure ethanol = 40 mm Hg Molecular weight of water = 18 g mol −1 Molecular weight of ethanol = 46 g mol −1 In answering the following questions, consider the solutions to be ideal dilute solutions and solutes to be non-volatile and non-dissociative. (2008, 3 × 4M = 12M) 37. The freezing point of the solution M is (a) 268.7 K (c) 234.2 K (b) 268.5 K (d) 150.9 K 38. The vapour pressure of the solution M is (a) 39.3 mm Hg (c) 29.5 mm Hg (b) 36.0 mm Hg (d) 28.8 mm Hg 39. Water is added to the solution M such that the mole fraction of water in the solution becomes 0.9. The boiling point of this solution is (a) 380.4 K (b) 376.2 K (c) 375.5 K (d) 354.7 K 36. Addition of 0.643 g of a compound to 50 mL of benzene (density : 0.879 g/mL) lowers the freezing point from 5.51° C to 5.03° C. If K f for benzene is 5.12, calculate the molecular weight of the compound. (1992, 2M) Passage Based Questions Passage 1 Properties such as boiling point, freezing point and vapour pressure of a pure solvent change when solute molecules are added to get homogeneous solution. These are called colligative properties. Applications of colligative properties are very useful in day-to-day life. One of its examples is the use of ethylene glycol and water mixture as anti-freezing liquid in the radiator of automobiles. A solution M is prepared by mixing ethanol and water. The mole fraction of ethanol in the mixture is 0.9. Given, freezing point depression constant of water ( K water ) = 1.86 K kg mol −1 f Fill in the Blank 40. Given that ∆T f is the depression in freezing point of the solvent in a solution of a non-volatile solute of molality, m, the quantity lim ( ∆T f / m ) is equal to ...... (1994, 1M) m→ 0 Integer Answer Type Question 41. If the freezing point of a 0.01 molal aqueous solution of a cobalt (III) chloride-ammonia complex (which behaves as a strong electrolyte) is − 0.0558°C, the number of chloride(s) in the coordination sphere of the complex is [ K f of water = 186 . K kg mol −1 ] (2015 Adv.) 42. MX 2 dissociates into M 2+ and X − ions in an aqueous solution, with a degree of dissociation (α ) of 0.5. The ratio of the observed depression of freezing point of the aqueous solution to the value of the depression of freezing point in the absence of ionic dissociation is (2014 Adv.) Answers Topic 1 Topic 2 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b, d) 16. (a, b) 17. (0.2) 18. (2.98 M) 19. (19) 20. (T) 22. (0.72) 23. (18.5) 24. (746.32 mm) 25. (65.25) 26. (0.75) 27. (0.657) 30. (0.158) 31. (180.40 mL) 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. 29. 36. 40. (c) (d) (c) (d) (a) (a) (a) (0.05) (156 g/mol) (K f ) 2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26. 30. 37. 42. (c) (c) (d) (b) (a) (b) (a,d) (75%) (d) (2) 3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27. 32. 38. (c) (c) (c) (a) (c) (d) (167.00) (0.23°C) (a) 4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. 28. 35. 39. (b) (b) (d) (a) (a) (a) (1.02) (23.44 mm) (b) Hints & Solutions Topic 1 Solution and Vapour Pressure 2. of Liquid Solutions 1. Henry’s equation for solubility (S ) of a gas (β) in a liquid is expressed in terms of mole- fraction of the gas (χ B ) at a given temperature, p = KH × χ B = KH × S 1 So, solubility of gas, S ∝ at T (K) and given pressure. KH Order of solubility of the gases (high the value of K H , lower is the solubility) : γ >δ >β >α So, option (a) is not correct. Again, K H ∝ temperature, i.e. solubility of the gas will decrease with increase in temperature also. But this conclusion cannot be drawn from table. So, option (b) is not correct. We know, mole-fraction of a solute ( B ) in a binary aqueous solution, 18 m [Qm = molality] χB = 1000 + 18 m and also, X solvent = 0.8 (Given) It means that nsolvent (n1 ) = 0.8 and nsolute (n2 ) = 0.2 1000 1000 Using formula m = n2 × = 0.2 × = 13.88 mol kg n1 × M 1 0.8 × 18 −1 3. The molality of 20% (mass/mass) aqueous solution of KI can be calculated by following formula. w × 1000 m= 2 Mw2 × w1 18 × 55.5 p = K Hγ × m = (2 × 10−5 ) × 1000 + 18 × 55.5 20% aqueous solution of KI means that 20 gm of KI is present in 80 gm solvent. 20 1000 m= × = 1. 506 ≈ 1. 51mol/kg 166 80 = 1. 81 × 10−5 K bar = 1. 8 × 10−2 bar So, option (c) is not correct. For δ at m = 55.5 molal So, option (d) is correct. Key Idea Molality is defined as number of moles of solute per kg of solvent. w2 1000 m = × Mw2 w1 w2 = mass of solute, Mw2 = molecular mass of solute w1 = mass of solvent. For γ at m = 55.5 molal 18 × 55.5 p = K Hδ = (0.5) × 1000 + 18 × 55.5 ~ 250bar = 0.2498k bar − Mass of solute (w2 ) × 1000 Molar mass of solute (M 2 ) × mass of solvent (w1 ) w2 1000 m= × M2 w1 1000 m = n2 × n1 × M1 Key Idea Molality ( m) = 4. Key Idea For a solution of volatile liquids the partial vapour pressure of each component of the solution is directly proportional to its mole fraction present in solution. This is known as Raoult’s law. Liquid M and N form an ideal solution. Vapour pressures of pure liquids M and N are 450 and 700 mm Hg respectively. Solutions and Colligative Properties ∴ pºN > pºM So, by using Raoult’s law yN > xN and xM > yM Multiplying (i) and (ii) we get yN xM > yM xN xM yM ∴ > xN yN 147 p°A = 7 × 103 Pa, p°B = 12 × 103 Pa …(i) …(ii) On substituting the given values in Eq. (i), we get p = 0.4 × 7 × 103 + 0.6 × 12 × 103 = 10 × 103 Pa = 1 × 104 Pa In vapour phase, 0.4 × 7 × 103 p x′ p° = 0.28 xA = A = A A = p p 1 × 104 Thus, correct relation is (a). ∴ 5. According to Henry’s law (at constant temperature) pgas = K H × χ gas (solute) = K H × [1 − χ H 2 O (solvent) ] pgas = K H − K H χ H 2 O pgas = partial pressure of the gas above its solution with a liquid (solvent) say water. χ gas = mole fraction of the gas (solute) in the solution. χ H 2 O = mole fraction of water (solvent). xB = 1 − 0.28 = 0.72 [Q xA + xB = 1] 8. At constant temperature, solubility of a gas (S ) varies inversely with Henry’s law constant (K H ) Pressure P KH = = Solubility of a gas in a liquid S Thus, higher the value of K H at a given pressure, the lower is the solubility of the gas in the liquid. 9. Key Idea Vapour pressure of water ( p° ) = 760 torr pgas KH Mass (g) Molecular mass (g mol −1 ) 18 g = = 0.1 mol 180 gmol −1 Number of moles of glucose = pgas KH Molar mass of water = 18 g/mol χH2O=0 χgas=1 χH2O=0 χgas=0 [ i.e. pgas = K H ] Higher the value of K H, higher will be the partial pressure of the gas ( pgas ), at a given temperature. The plot of pgas vs χ H2O gives a (−ve) slope. pgas = K H − K H × χ H2O Comparing the above equation with the equation of straight line y = mx + c Slope = − K H , intercept = K H So, (i) Higher the value of K H, more (−ve) will be the slope and it is for z (K H = 40 K bar ) (ii) Higher the value of K H, higher with the value of intercept, i.e. partial pressure and it is also for z. 6. (d) According to Dalton’s law of partial pressure ptotal = pA + pB = pA° χ A + pB° χ B Given, pAº = 400 mm Hg, pBº = 600 mm Hg χ B = 0.5, χ A + χ B = 1 ∴ χ A = 0.5 On substituting the given values in Eq. (i). We get, ptotal = 400 × 0.5 + 600 × 0.5 = 500 mm Hg Mole fraction of A in vapour phase, pAº χ A 0.5 × 400 p YA = A = = = 0.4 ptotal ptotal 500 Mole of B in vapour phase, YA + YB = 1 YB = 1 − 0. 4 = 0.6 7. For ideal solution, Q p = x′ A p°A + x′ B p°B x′ A = 0.4, x′ B = 0.6 …(i) Mass of water (given) = 178.2g Number of moles of water Mass of water 178. 2g = = = 9.9 mol Molar mass of water 18 g / mol Total number of moles = (0.1 + 9.9) moles = 10 moles Now, mole fraction of glucose in solution = Change in pressure with respect to initial pressure ∆p 01 . or ∆p = 0.01p° = 0.01 × 760 = 7.6 torr i.e. = p° 10 ∴ Vapour pressure of solution = (760 − 7.6) torr = 752.4 torr 10. Given, p° = 185 Torr at 20°C ps = 183 Torr at 20°C Mass of non-volatile substance, m = 1.2 g Mass of acetone taken = 100g M =? p° − ps n As, we have = ps N Putting the values, we get, 1.2 185 − 183 M 2 1.2 × 58 = ⇒ = 100 183 183 100 × M 58 183 × 1. 2 × 58 M = ∴ 2 × 100 M = 63.684 = 64 g/mol 11. Give, K H = 1 × 105 atm, χ N 2 = 0.8 nH 2 O = 10 moles, ptotal = 5 atm pN 2 = ptotal × χ N 2 = 5 × 0.8 = 4 atm 148 Solutions and Colligative Properties According to Henry’s law, pN 2 = K H × χ N 2 4 = 105 × χ N 2 χ N 2 = 4 × 10 nN 2 nN 2 + nH 2 O nN 2 nN 2 + 10 17. Using Raoult’s law equation for a mixture of volatile liquids. pT = p°A χ A + pB° χ B −5 = 4 × 10−5 nN 2 = 4 × 10−4 12. Molality = moles of solute present in 1.0 kg of solvent. 13. The relative lowering of vapour pressure : (mole fraction of solute) 14. In case of positive deviation from Raoult's law, the observed vapour pressure is greater than the ideal vapour pressure and boiling point of azeotrope becomes lower than either of pure liquid. Z Real = 88157 . mL Now, molarity = Number of moles of solute × al Ide = xM … (ii) nurea = 2.6315 moles wurea = nurea × (M ⋅ wt )urea = (2. 6315 × 60)g 2.6315 × 60 + 900 Mass of solution V= Q Density = 12 . Volume of solution because the observed vapour pressure of L is greater than the ideal pressure 1 0.4 = 0.5 χ p°A + 0.5 χpB° Thus, the vapour pressure of pure liquid B in bar is 0.2. Number of moles of solute × 1000 18. Key Idea Molarity (M ) = Volume of solution (in mL) Mass Also, volume = Density Given, mole fraction of urea (χ urea ) = 0.05 Mass of water = 900g Density = 12 . g/cm 3 nurea 900 [Q Moles of water = χ urea = = 50] nurea + 50 18 nurea 0.05 = ⇒ 19nurea = 50 nurea + 50 15. The graph shown indicates that there is positive deviation pL … (i) By solving equation (i) and (ii) p°A = 0.6 bar and pB° = 0.2 bar = 4 × 10−5 − ∆p = χ2 p° 0.3 = 0.25 χ pA° + 0.75 χpB° 0 Since, deviation is positive, the intermolecular force between L and M is smaller than the same in pure L and pure M. Also as xL → 1, xM → 0, the real curve approaching ideal curve where Raoult’s law will be obeyed. 16. When intermolecular attraction between two components A and B in the mixture is same as between A and A or B and B, hence it is a case of ideal solution. When intermolecular attraction between A and B in a mixture is smaller than that between A and A or B and B, then mixture is more vaporised, bp is lowered. It is a case of positive deviation from Raoult’s law. When intermolecular attraction between A and B is higher than that between A and A or B and B, then mixture is less vaporised, bp is increased. It is a case of negative deviation. (a) Methanol molecules (CH3OH) are hydrogen bonded. In a mixture of CCl 4 and CH3OH, extent of H-bonding is decreased. Mixture is more vaporised thus, positive deviation from Raoult’s law. (b) Acetone molecules have higher intermolecular attraction due to dipole-dipole interaction. With CS2, this interaction is decreased thus, positive deviation. (c) Mixture of benzene and toluene forms ideal solution. (d) Phenol and aniline have higher interaction due to intermolecular H-bonding. Hence, negative deviation. 1000 Volume of solution (mL) 2.6315 × 1000 = 2.98 M 88157 . 19. Key Idea Use the formula pTotal = pA° × χ A + pB° × χ B 1 and for equimolar solutions χ A = χ B = 2 Given, pTotal = 45 torr for equimolar solution pA° = 20 torr 1 1 1 So, 45 = pA° × + pB° × = ( pA° + pB° ) 2 2 2 or pA° + pB° = 90 torr …(i) But we know pA° = 20 torr so, pB° = 90 − 20 = 70torr (From Eq. (i)) Now, for the new solution from the same formula Given, pTotal = 22 . 5 torr (As χ A + χ B =1) So, 22 . 5 = 20χ A + 70 (1− χ A ) or 22.5 = 70 − 50χ A 70 − 22 . 5 So, χA = = 0.95 50 Thus (as χ A + χ B =1) χ B = 1 − 0.95 = 0.05 Hence, the ratio χ A 0.95 = = 19 χ B 0.05 Solutions and Colligative Properties 20. It will be true only if boiling points of two liquids are significantly different. n1 n1 + in2 100 18 = 0.982 = 7 100 + 2.4 × 18 164 ⇒ Mole fraction of solvent = 21. Let after 100 min, x moles of A are remaining unpolymerised moles of B = 12 Moles of non-volatile solute = 0.525 Mole fraction of A = ⇒ Mole fraction of B = ⇒ χ χ + 12 + 0.525 ⇒ χ = 9.9 ⇒ Moles of A polymerised in 100 min = 10 – 9.9 = 0.10 1 10 1 10 k = ln = ln min −1 ⇒ t 9.9 100 9.9 = 1.005 × 10−4 min −1 78 mL = 88.94 mL 22. Volume of 1.0 mole liquid benzene = 0.877 ⇒ Molar volume of benzene vapour at 20°C 88.94 × 2750 L = 244.58 L = 1000 0.082 × 293 × 760 mm ⇒ VP of pure benzene at 20°C = 244.58 = 74.65 mm Similarly; molar volume of toluene vapour 92 7720 = L = 819.2L × 0.867 1000 0.082 × 293 ⇒ VP of pure toluene = × 760 mm = 22.3mm 819.2 Now, let mole fraction of benzene in the liquid phase = χ ⇒ 4.65 χ + 22.3 (1 – χ ) = 45 ⇒ χ = 0.43 ⇒ Mole fraction of benzene in vapour phase Partial vapour pressure of benzene = Total vapour pressure 74.65 × 0.43 = = 0.72 45 23. Vapour pressure of solution = 0.75 × VP of water ⇒ 75 = 100 χ 1 : χ 1 = mole fraction of solute 1 3 χ 1 = and χ 2 = 1 − χ 1 = 4 4 100 n χ 2 n2 1 = 1.85 = = ⇒ n2 = 1 = 3 18 × 3 χ 1 n1 3 ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ Weight of urea = 1.85 × 60 = 111 g n 1000 1 1000 Molality = 2 × = 18.5 = × n1 M1 3 18 24. Ca(NO3 )2 r Ca 2+ + 2NO3− 1−α α ⇒ 2α i = 1 + 2α where, α = 0.7 ⇒ i = 1 + 2 × 0.7= 2.4 p = p0 χ1 = 760 × 0.982 (VP of H2O at 100°C = 760 mm of Hg) = 746.32 mm 12 χ + 12 + 0.525 12 χ 400 = × 300 + × 500 χ + 12.525 χ + 12.525 149 25. According to Raoult’s law : p = p0 χ1 n1 600 = 640 n1 + n2 ⇒ n2 64 1 = −1= n1 60 15 39 1 × = 0.033 n2 = 78 15 2.175 = 0.033 M M = 65.25 ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ 26. At 373 K (bp) of H2O, Vapour pressure = 760 mm VP of solution at 373 K = 750 mm ⇒ p = p0χ 1 or 750 =760 χ 1 75 ⇒ χ1 = = mole fraction of H2O 76 75 1 χ2 = 1 − = = mole fraction of solute ⇒ 76 76 n2 1 Now = n1 + n2 76 n1 = 75 n2 ⇒ ⇒ Molality = n2 1000 × 1000 = = 0.74 molal n1M 1 75 × 18 60 = 1.3 46 40 Moles of methanol = = 1.25 32 27. Moles of ethanol = 1.3 = 0.51 1.3 + 1.25 ⇒ Vapour pressure of solution = pethanol + pmethanol = 0.51 × 44.5 + 0.49 × 88.7 = 66.16 mm Mole fraction of methanol in vapour phase pmethanol 43.463 = = = 0.657 Total vapour pressure 66.16 ⇒ Mole fraction of ethanol = 28. From lowering of vapour pressure information : ⇒ 0.104 n2 = χ2 = 17.5 n1 + n2 n1 + 1 = 168.27 n2 150 Solutions and Colligative Properties ⇒ n1 = 167.27 n2 ⇒ 1000 M × = 167.27 18 50 For the relation, π = CRT = Given, mass of urea = 0.6 g ⇒ M = 150 g/mol Also, the combustion reaction is : CxH2 yO y + xO2 → xCO2 + yH2O Q 18 y g of H2O is produced from 1.0 mole of compound. 0.9 1 = mol ∴0.9 g of H2O will be produced from 18 y 20 y x ⇒ At the end, moles of O2 left = 20 y x moles of CO2 formed = 20 y 2x 2.24 = ⇒ Total moles of gases at STP = 20 y 22.4 Molar mass of urea = 60 g mol− 1 Mass of glucose = 1.8 g Molar mass of glucose = 180 g mol− 1 [ n (urea ) + n2 (glucose)] π= 2 RT V . 0.6 18 + 60 180 = × 1000 × 0.0821 × 300 100 = (0.01 + 0.01) × 10 × 0.0821 × 300 π = 4 . 92 atm 2. The expression of elevation of boiling point, ⇒ x= y ⇒ Molar mass; 150 = 12x + 2x + 16x = 30x 150 ⇒ x= =5 30 Formula = C5H10O5 ⇒ ∆Tb = K b × m × i = k b × When 1.0 mole of A is mixed with 4 moles of B. 560 = 0.20 pA° + 0.80 pB° …(i) …(ii) Now, solving (i) and (ii) pA° = 400 mm pB° = 600mm. 30. According to Raoult’s law : ⇒ ⇒ p = p0χ 1 ⇒631.9 = 639.7 χ 1 χ 1 = 0.9878 ⇒ χ 2 = 0.0122 0.0122 Molality = × 1000 = 0.158 0.9878 × 78 31. Let us consider 1.0 L of solution. Weight of solution = 1000 × 1.02 = 1020 g 13 = 132.60 g Weight of H2SO4 = 1020 × 100 Weight of H2O = 1020 – 132.60 = 887.40 g 132.60 Molarity = ⇒ = 1.353 M 98 132.60 1000 Molality = × = 1.525 m 98 887.40 Normality = 2 × M = 2.706 2.706 × 100 = 1.5 V ⇒ V = 180.40 mL ⇒ Topic 2 Colligative Properties 1. Key Idea Osmotic pressure is proportional to the molarity (C) of the solution at a given temperature (T). Thus, π ∝ C, π = CRT (for dilute solution) n π = RT V w2 × 1000 ×i M 2 × w1 where, m = molality i = van’t Hoff factor = 1(for non-electrolyte/non-associable) w2 = mass of solute in g = 1g (present in both of the solutions) M 2 = molar mass of solute in g mol −1 (same solute in both of the solutions) w1 = mass of solvent in g = 100 g (for both of the solvents A and B) K b = ebullioscopic constant So, the expression becomes, ∆Tb ∝ K b ∆Tb ( A ) K b ( A ) 1 K b ( A) 1 = = ⇒ Given K ( B ) = 5 ∆Tb ( B ) K b ( B ) 5 b 29. When 1.0 mole of A is mixed with 3 moles of B. 550 = 0.25 pA° + 0.75 pB° n RT V 3. Key Idea For dilute solution, lowering of vapour pressure ∆p p0 which is a colligative property of solutions. ∆p = χ B × i ⇒ ∆p = χ B × i × p0 p0 (∆p) = p0 − p and relative lowering of vapour pressure = where, p0 = vapour pressure of pure solvent i = van’t Hoff factor χ B = mole fraction of solute Given, p° = vapour pressure of pure water of 25º C = 35 mm Hg χ B = mole fraction of solute (urea) 0.60 nB 0.01 0.01 60 = = = = = 0.0005 360 0 . 60 nA + nB 20 + 0.01 20.01 + 18 60 i = van’t Hoff factor = 1 (for urea) Now, according to Raoult’s law ∆p = χ B × i × pº On substituting the above given values, we get ∆p = 0.0005 × 1 × 35 = 0.0175 mm Hg Solutions and Colligative Properties 4. Key Idea Depression in freezing point (∆ Tf ) is given by ∆Tf = iK f m i = vant Hoff factor K f = molal depression constant m = molality K f = 4.0 K kg mol −1 m = 0.03 mol kg (Given) −1 (Given) ∆T f = ? For K 2SO4, i = 3 It can be verified by the following equation : K 2SO4 2K + + SO2− 4 - Using formula ∆T f = iK f × m ∆T f = 3 × 4 × 0.03 = 0.36 K 5. Key Idea Osmotic pressure is proportional to the molarity (C) of the solution at a given temperature, π = CRT Concentration of BaCl2 = 0.01M π XY = 4 π BaCl 2 i × CRT = 4 × i × CRT For the calculation of i, XY → X + + Y − BaCl2 → Ba 2+ + 2Cl− On substituting all the given values in Eq. (i), we get 0.6 × 5 × w × 1000 , w = 2.44 g 2= 122 × 30 Thus, weight of acid (w) is 2.4 g. 7. Given, Freezing point of 4% aqueous solution of X . = Freezing point of 12% aqueous solution of Y [Q∆T f = T f° − T f ] or (∆T f )X = (∆T f )Y K f × mX = K f mY where, mX and mY are molality of X and Y, respectively. or mX = mY Number of moles of solute (n) Now, molality = Mass of solvent (in kg) Weight n= Molecular mass wX wY = M X × (wsolvent )1 MY × (wsolvent )2 Given, (Given) (Given) …(i) (Here, i = 2) (Here, i = 3) ∴ Thus, Putting the values of i in (i) 2 × [ XY ] = 4 × 3 × [ BaCl2 ] 2 × [ XY ] = 12 × 0.01 12 × 0.01 [ XY ] = 2 So, the concentration of XY = 0.06 mol L−1 = 6 × 10−2 mol L−1 6. Molecules of benzoic acid dimerise in benzene as: - 2(C6H5COOH) (C6H5COOH)2 Now, we know that depression in freezing point (∆T f ) is given by following equation: i × K f × wsolute × 1000 ...(i) ∆T f = i × K f × m = Mwsolute × wsolvent Given, wsolute (benzoic acid) = w g wsolvent (benzene) = 30g Mw Solute (benzoic acid) = 122 g mol− 1, ∆T f = 2 K K f = 5 Kkg mol− 1, %α = 80 or α = 0.8 2(C6H5COOH) Initial 1 Final 1−α = 1 − 0. 8 = 0. 2 - (C6H5COOH)2 0 α/2 0. 8 / 2 = 0. 4 Total number of moles at equilibrium = 0.2 + 0.4 = 0.6 Number of moles at equilibrium i= Number of moles present initially 0.6 i= = 0.6 1 151 wX = 4 and w(solvent )1 =96 wY = 12and w(solvent )2 = 88 MX = A 4 × 1000 12 × 1000 = M X × 96 MY × 88 12 × 1000 × M X × 96 MY = 4 × 1000 × 88 96 × 12 = × A = 3.27A ≈ 3A 4 × 88 8. The ionisation of K2HgI4 in aqueous solution is as follows: K 2 [ HgI4 ] - 2K + + [ HgI4 ]2 − van’t Hoff factor (i) for ionisation reaction is given as, i = 1 + α ( n − 1) where, n = number of ions, α = degree of ionisation or dissociation From above equation, it is clear that n = 3 i = 1 + 0.4 (3 − 1) [Given, % α = 40% or α = 0.4] = 1.8 9. We know that, Depression in freezing points (∆T f ) T ° f − Tf = K f × m × i where, K f = molal depression constant wsolute × 1000 m = molality = M solute × wsolvent (in g) i = van’t Hoff factor For diluted milk ∆T f1 = K f × m1 × i wmilk × 1000 ⇒ 0 − (0.2) ⇒ 0.2 = K f × ×1 M milk × w1 (H2O) For pure milk ∆T f2 = K f × m2 × i 152 Solutions and Colligative Properties ⇒ 0 − (−0.5) = 0.5 = K f × wmilk × 1000 ×1 M milk × w2 (H2O) [Co(H2O)5 Cl]Cl 2 ⋅ H2O 2 wmilk × 1000 M × w2 (H2O) w2 (H 2O) 0.2 K f So, × milk = × = M milk × w1 (H2O) wmilk × 1000 0.5 K f w1 (H2O) ⇒ 1 Moles at equilibrium ‘i’ is 3 − 2 ‘i’ is 2 (CH3 COOH)2 0 1−α α 2 α α α or i = 1 − =1− 2 2 2 Now, depression in freezing point (∆T f ) is given as ∆T f = i K f m where, K f = molal depression constant or cryoscopic constant. m = molality K b = 2K f …(i) K(i) number of moles of solute 0.2 1000 = × 20 weight of solvent (in kg) 60 Molality = = 0°C, T f = − 10°C Putting the values in Eq. (i) wB = mass of ethylene glycol = 62 g M B = molar mass of ethylene glycol ∴ wA = mass of water in g as liquid solvent, i = van’t-Hoff factor = 1 (for ethylene glycol in water) K f = 1.86 K kg mol −1 On substituting in Eq. (i), we get 62 × 1000 0 − (− 10) = 186 . × ×1 62 × wA 186 . × 62 × 1000 ⇒ wA = = 186 g 10 × 62 ⇒ ∴ α 0.2 1000 0.45 = 1 − (512 . ) × 60 2 20 1− 0.45 × 60 × 20 α = 2 512 . × 0.2 × 1000 1− α = 0.527 2 ⇒ α = 1 − 0.527 2 α = 0.946 Thus, percentage of association = 94.6% 34.5 14. −∆T f = ik f m 2 = 1 × 2 × × 1000 = 3 46 × 500 Vapour pressure curves shown in (b) is in agreement with the calculated value of −∆T f . (a) is wrong, vapour pressure decreases on cooling. So, amount of water separated as ice (solid solvent) = 250 − wA = (250 − 186)g = 64 g 15. 12. Key idea ‘‘Addition of solute particles to a pure solvent results to depression in its freezing point.’’ All the compounds given in question are ionic in nature so, consider their van’t Hoff factor (i ) to reach at final conclusion. The solution with maximum freezing point must have minimum number of solute particles. This generalisation can be done with the help of van’t Hoff factor (i ) i.e. Number of solute particles ∝ van’t Hoff factor (i ) Thus, we can say directly Solution with maximum freezing point will be the one in which solute with minimum van’t Hoff factor is present 3+ Now, for Co(H2 O)6 ]Cl 3 [Co(H2 O)6 ] van’t Hoff factor ( i ) is 4. Similarly for, - 4 + ∴ Total moles = 1 − α + ∆T f = K f × m × i wB × 1000 T f° − T f = K f × ×i M B × wA (in g ) = 62 g mol 2 2CH3 COOH q a solution, CH2 — CH2 OH OH −1 2 Initial moles 11. Considering the expression of the depression in freezing point of Here, T f° − benzene is α, then Depression is freezing point (∆T f ) = K f × m × i where, m = molality For the glucose solution (van’t Hoff factor, i = 1), ∆Tb1m = ∆T f2m = 2K Kb × 1 × 1 = K f × 2 × 1 ⇒ 2 5 13. Let the degree of association of acetic acid (CH3COOH) in 10. Elevation in boiling point (∆Tb ) = K b × m × i So, 4 2 and for [Co(H2O)3 Cl 3 ]⋅ 3H2O, ‘i’ is 1 as it does not show ionisation. Hence, [Co(H2O)3 Cl 3 ]⋅ 3H2O have minimum number of particles in the solution. So, freezing point of its solution will be maximum. 2 w2 (H2O) (in pure milk) = w1 (H2O) (in diluted milk) 5 i.e. 3 cups of water has to be added to 2 cups of pure milk. 2+ -[Co(H O) Cl] + 2Cl [Co(H O) Cl ]Cl ⋅ 2H O -[Co(H O) Cl ] + Cl + 3Cl − PLAN This problem includes concept of colligative properties (osmotic pressure here) and van’t Hoff factor. Calculate the effective molarity of each solution. i.e. effective molarity = van’t Hoff factor × molarity 0.5 M C2H5OH (aq) i=1 Effective molarity = 0 .5 0.25 M KBr (aq) i=2 Effective molarity = 0 .5 M i=5 0.1 M Mg3 (PO4 )2(aq) Effective molarity = 0 . 5 M i=4 0.125 M Na 3PO4 (aq) Effective molarity = 0. 5 M Molarity is same hence, all colligative properties are also same. NOTE This question is solved by assuming that the examiner has taken Mg 3(PO 4 )2 to be completely soluble. However, in real it is insoluble (sparingly soluble). Solutions and Colligative Properties 16. The elevation in boiling point is n ∆Tb = K b ⋅ m : m =molality = 2 × 1000 w1 [n2 = Number of moles of solute, w1 = Weight of solvent in gram] 5 n2 2 = 0.76 × × 1000 ⇒ n2 = ⇒ 19 100 Also, from Raoult’s law of lowering of vapour pressure : − ∆p n2 n = x2 = ≈ 2 [Q n1 >> n2 ] p° n1 + n2 n1 5 18 − ∆p = 760 × × = 36 mm of Hg ⇒ 19 100 ⇒ p = 760 − 36 = 724 mm of Hg 3– 17. van’t Hoff factor (i) = 4 {3K++ [Fe(CN)6 ] Molality = ⇒ 0.1 1000 1 × = 329 100 329 – ∆T f = iK f . m 1 = 2.3 × 10–2 329 T f = –2 .3 × 10–2 ° C = 4 × 1.86 × ⇒ (As % freezing point of water is 0ºC) 18. Molality = 20 1000 = 2.325 m × 172 50 ⇒ − ∆T f = 2 = iK f ⋅ m 2 = 0.5 i= 1.72 × 2.325 ⇒ 19. Molality = 13.44 = 0.1 134.1 i=3 ∆Tb = iK b ⋅ m = 3 × 0.52 × 0.1 = 0.156 ⇒ 20. For isotonic solutions, they must have same concentrations of ions, Therefore, 0.004 i (Na 2SO4) = 0.01 0.01 = 2.5 ⇒ i= 0.004 Also Na 2SO4 r 2Na + + SO24− 2α 1− α ⇒ α i = 1 + 2α = 2.5 α = 0.75 = 75% 21. During freezing, liquid solvent solidify and solid solvent remains in equilibrium with liquid solvent. 22. In benzene, benzoic acid dimerises as : C6H5COOH r 23. C6 H5 NH3 Cl : i = 2; Ca(NO3 )2 : i=3 La(NO3 )3 : C6H12O6 : i = 4; i=1 1 (C H COOH)2 2 6 5 153 Lower the value of i, smaller will be the depression in freezing point, higher will be the freezing temperature, if molalities are equal. Hence, glucose solution will have highest freezing temperature. i=3 NaCl : i = 2 Urea : i = 1 Glucose : i = 1 Greater the value of i, greater the lowering in freezing point, lower will be the freezing temperature, if molarity in all cases are same. Therefore, K2SO4 solution has the lowest freezing point. 24. K2SO4 : 25. Addition of HgI2 to KI solution establishes the following equilibrium : HgI2 + 2KI r K2[HgI4 ] The above equilibrium decreases the number of ions (4 ions on left side of reactions becomes three ions on right side), hence rises the freezing point. 26. In depression of freezing point experiment, vapour pressure of solution is less than that of pure solvent as well as only solvent molecules solidify at freezing point. 27. Osmotic pressure, π = i × C × RT Here, i = van’t Hoff factor, T = temperature C = concentration and R = gas constant. For NaCl, i = 2 So, π NaCl = i × C NaCl × RT 01 . = 2 × C NaCl × RT 0.05 C NaCl = RT For glucose, i = 1because it cannot ionise So, π glucose = i × Cglucose × RT 0.2 = 1 × Cglucose × RT 0.2 Cglucose = RT (Q nNaCl = numbers of moles NaCl) nNaCl in 1 L = C NaCl × Vlitre 0.05 = (nglucose = number of moles of glucose) RT 0.4 nglucose in 2 L = Cglucose × Vlitre = RT Vtotal = 1 + 2 = 3L 0.05 So, final conc. NaCl = 3RT 0.4 Final conc. glucose = 3RT π total = π NaCl + π glucose = [ i × C NaCl + Cglucose ] RT 0.4 0.5 2 × 0.05 atm = + × RT = 3RT 3RT 3 atm = 166.6 × 10−3 atm = 167.00 × 10−3 atm = 01666 . So, x = 167.00 154 28. Solutions and Colligative Properties Key Idea First calculate, molar mass of solute using the p° − ps nsolute formula, and then calculate ∆T f = p° nsolute + nsolvent by applying the formula; ∆T f = K f × m. When 0.5 g of non-volatile solute dissolve into 39 gm of benzene then relative lowering of vapour pressure occurs. Hence, vapour pressure decreases from 650 mmHg to 640 mmHg. Given, vapour pressure of solvent ( p° ) = 650 mmHg Vapour pressure of solution ( ps ) = 640 mmHg Weight of non-volatile solute = 0.5 g Weight of solvent (benzene) = 39 g From relative lowering of vapour pressure, p° − ps nsolute = xSolute = p° nsolute + nsolvent 0.5 650 − 640 molar mass = 0.5 39 650 + molar mass 78 0.5 10 molar mass = 0.5 650 + 0.5 molar mass 0.5 + 0.5 × molar mass = 65 × 0.5 ∴ Molar mass of solute = 64 g From molal depression of freezing point, K f × wsolute ∆T f = K f × molality = (MW )solute × wsolvent 0.5 × 1000 ∆T f = 512 . × ⇒ ∆T f = 102 . K 64 × 39 29. From the graph we can note ∆Tb for solution X i.e., ∆Tb (X) = 362 − 360 = 2 Likewise, ∆Tb for solution Y i.e., ∆Tb (Y) = 368 − 367 = 1 Now by using the formula ∆Tb = i × molality of solution× K b For solution X …(i) 2 = i × mNaCl × K b (X) Similarly for solution y ……(ii) 1= i × mNaCl × K b (Y) from Eq. (i) and (ii) above K b (X) 2 = or 2 or K b (X) = 2K b (Y) K b (Y) 1 For solute S 2 S → S 2 Initial α Final (1 − α) So, here (given due to dimerisation) 0 α 2 α i = 1− 2 α ∆Tb [ X ](s) = 1 − 1 K b (X) 2 α ∆Tb [Y] (s) = 1− 2 K b (Y) 2 Given, ∆Tb (X)(s) = 3∆Tb (Y)(s) α α1 1− K b (X) = 3 × 1− 2 × K b (Y) 2 2 or α α 2 1− 1 = 3 1− 2 2 2 [Q K b (X) = 2K b (Y) ] or 0.7 α 2 1− 1 = 3 1− 2 2 (as given, α 2 = 0.7) 4 − 2α 1 = 6 − 2.1 or 2α 1 = 01 . α 1 = 0.05 1000 × K f × W B 30. Molar mass of solute (M B ) = W A × ∆T f or so, MB = ⇒ 1000 × 14 × 75.2 1000 × 7 M B = 150.4 g per mol Actual molar mass of phenol = 94 g/mol Calculated molar mass Now, van’t Hoff factor, i = Observed molar mass 94 i= = 0.625 ∴ 150.4 Dimerisation of phenol can be shown as : 2C6H5OH r (C6 H5OH)2 Initial 1 At equilibrium 0 α 2 1–α Total number of moles at equilibrium, i = 1 − α + i =1− α 2 α 2 α 2 α /2 = 1 − 0.625 α = 0.75 Thus, the percentage of phenol that dimerises is 75%. But i = 0.625, thus, 0.625 = 1 − 31. (i) ∆Tb = K b ⋅ m2 1.22 1000 × ⇒ M = 122 M 100 1.22 1000 (ii) 0.13 = 2.6 × × ⇒ M = 244 M 100 0.17 = 1.7 × ⇒ The above molar masses suggests thapt benzoic acid is monomeric in acetone while dimeric in benzene. 32. Higher the value of K b of a solvent suggest that there is larger polarity of solvent molecules, which in turn implies higher boiling point due to dipole-dipole interaction. Therefore, the correct order of K b values of the three given solvents is Solvents Boiling point Kb X Y Z 100°C 27°C 283°C 0.63 0.53 0.92 Solutions and Colligative Properties 33. Mass of water = 500 × 0.997 g = 498.5 g Also CH3COOH r CH3COO− + α 1−α ⇒ ⇒ H+ ⇒ α 3 1000 ⇒ − ∆T f = iK f ⋅ m = 1.23 × 1.86 × × = 0.23°C 60 498.5 H 2.40 2.40 2 M = 156 g/mol Therefore, molality of H2O = N 16.67 1.19 1 O 38.07 2.38 2 ⇒ Empirical formula = C3H2NO2 5.5 1000 (ii) ∆Tb = 1.84 = 2.53 × × M 45 ⇒ M = 168 Q Empirical formula weight (84) is half of molar mass, molecular formula is C6H4N2O4 a dinitrobenzene : NO2 0.1 × 1000 = 2.4 0.9 × 46 − ∆T f = K fethanol × 2.4 = 2 × 2.4 = 4.8 ⇒ 34. (i) Empirical formula determination C 42.86 3.57 3 0.643 1000 × M 50 × 0.879 37. In the given solution ‘M’, H2O is solute. i = 1 + α = 1.23 Elements Weight % Moles Simplest ratio 0.48 = 5.12 × 155 ⇒ T f = 155.7 – 4.8 = 150.9 K 38. Vapour pressure = p (H2O) + p(ethanol ) = 32.8 × 0.1 + 40 × 0.9 = 3.28 + 36 = 39.28 mm 39. Now ethanol is solute. Molality of solute = ⇒ ⇒ 40. 0.1 × 1000 = 6.17 0.9 × 18 ∆Tb = 6.17 × 0.52 = 3.20 Tb = 373 + 3.2 = 376.2 K ∆T f lim = K f (Cryoscopic constant) m→ 0 m 41. 1+ ∆T f = iK f m (C6H4N2O4) NO2 35. − ∆T f = K f ⋅ m2 ⇒ Also, 0.3 = 0.1613 1.86 n 1000 = 0.1613 m2 = 2 × n1 M1 m2 = ⇒ n2 0.1613 × 18 = 2.9 × 10−3 = n1 1000 ⇒ n2 n + n1 + 1= 2 = 2.9 × 10−3 + 1 n1 n1 ⇒ ⇒ n1 1 = 0.997 = χ1 = n1 + n2 1 + 2.9 × 10−3 p = p0χ 1 = 23.51 × 0.997 = 23.44 mm 36. − ∆T f = 5.51 − 5.03 = 0.48 ⇒ − ∆T f = 0.48 = K f ⋅ m ∆T f = 0 – (–0 .0558° C) = 0.0558° C 0.0558 ⇒ i (vant Hoff’s factor) = =3 186 . × 0.01 This indicates that complex upon ionisation produces three ions as: [Co(NH3 )5 Cl]Cl 2 → [Co(NH3 )5 Cl]2+ (aq) + 2Cl − (aq) Thus, only one Cl is inside the coordination sphere. 42. MX 2 → M 2+ + 2 X − van’t Hoff factor for any salt can be calculated by using equation i = 1 + α (n − 1) where, n = number of constituent ions ∴ i (MX 2 ) = 1 + α (3 − 1) = 1 + 2α (∆T f )observed = i = 1 + 2α (∆T f )theoretical ∴ i = 1 + 2 × 0.5 ⇒ i = 2 10 Electrochemistry Topic 1 Electrochemical Cells Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. Given, . Co 3 + + e− → Co 2 + ; E ° = + 181V 4+ − 2+ Pb + 2e → Pb ; E ° = + 167 . V Ce4 + + e− → Ce3 + ; E ° = + 161 . V Bi 3+ + 3e− → Bi; E ° = + 0.20 V Oxidising power of the species will increase in the order (2019 Main, 12 April I) (a) (b) (c) (d) 4+ 4+ 3+ 3+ Ce < Pb < Bi < Co Bi 3 + < Ce4 + < Pb 4 + < Co 3 + Co 3 + < Ce4 + < Bi 3 + < Pb 4 + Co 3 + < Pb 4 + < Ce4 + < Bi 3 + electrodes using 0.1 Faraday electricity. How many mole of (2019 Main, 9 April II) Ni will be deposited at the cathode? (a) 0.20 (b) 0.10 (c) 0.15 (d) 0.05 3. Calculate the standard cell potential (in V) of the cell in which following reaction takes place E ° Ag + / Ag = x V E ° Fe3 + / Fe = z V (2019 Main, 8 April II) (b) x − y (d) x − z 4. Given, that EOs2 / H 2O = +1.23V; 2 8 4 2 / Br s s = +1.09V, EAu 3+ / Au = +1.4V The strongest oxidising agent is (a) Au 3+ (b) O2 (c) S2 O2− 8 (2019 Main, 8 April I) 5. Consider the following reduction processes: Zn 2+ + 2e− → Zn (s); E ° = − 0.76 V Ca 2+ 6. The anodic half-cell of lead-acid battery is recharged using electricity of 0.05 Faraday. The amount of PbSO4 electrolysed in g during the process is (Molar mass of PbSO4 = 303g mol −1 ) (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) (a) 11.4 (b) 7.6 (c) 15.2 (d) 22.8 7. How long (approximate) should water be electrolysed by passing through 100 amperes current so that the oxygen released can completely burn 27.66 g of diborane? (Atomic weight of B = 10.8 µ) (2018 Main) (a) 6.4 hours (b) 0.8 hours (c) 3.2 hours (d) 1.6 hours 2 /Cl − ° 3+ = 1.36 V, ECr = − 0.74 V /Cr ° 2 − 3 + = 1.33 V, E ° − = 1.51 V ECr O /Cr MnO / Mn 2 + 2 7 4 Among the following, the strongest reducing agent is (2017 Main) (a) Cr (b) Mn 2+ (c) Cr 3+ (d) Cl − Pt ( s ) | H2 ( g , 1bar ) | H+ ( aq , 1 M) | | M 4 + ( aq ), M 2 + ( aq ) | Pt ( s ) [ M ( aq )] Ecell = 0.092 V when = 10x [ M 4 + ( aq )] RT Given : E °M 4+ / M 2+ = 0.151 V; 2.303 = 0.059 V F The value of x is (2016 Adv.) (a) − 2 (b) − 1 (c) 1 (d) 2 2+ E ° Fe 2+ / Fe = y V s E sS O 2− / SO 2− = 2.05V; EBr (b) Ni < Zn < Mg < Ca (d) Ca < Mg < Zn < Ni 9. For the following electrochemical cell at 298 K, Fe2+ ( aq ) + Ag+ ( aq ) → Fe3 + ( aq ) + Ag( s ) (a) x + 2 y − 3 z (c) x + y − z (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) (a) Zn < Mg < Ni < Ca (c) Ca < Zn < Mg < Ni ° 8. Given, ECl 2. A solution of Ni(NO3 )2 is electrolysed between platinum Given that, The reducing power of the metals increases in the order − + 2e → Ca (s); E ° = − 2.87 V Mg2+ + 2e− → Mg(s); E ° = − 2.36 V Ni2+ + 2e− → Ni(s); E ° = − 0.25 V (d) Br2 10. Two Faraday of electricity is passed through a solution of CuSO4 . The mass of copper deposited at the cathode is (at. mass of Cu = 63.5 u) (2015 Main) (a) 0 g (b) 63.5 g (c) 2 g (d) 127 g ° 3+ = − 0.74 V; E ° − 11. Given, ECr = 1.51 V MnO /Mn 2+ /Cr 4 ° 2− 3+ = 1.33 V; E ° − = 1.36 V ECr Cl /Cl O /Cr 2 7 Based on the data given above strongest oxidising agent will be (2013 Main) (a) Cl (b) Cr 3+ (c) Mn 2+ (d) MnO −4 Electrochemistry 157 12. Electrolysis of dilute aqueous NaCl solution was carried out by passing 10 mA current. The time required to liberate 0.01 mole of H2 gas at the cathode is (1 F = 96500 C mol −1 ) (a) 9.65 × 104 s (b) 19.3 × 104 s (2008, 3M) 4 4 (c) 28.95 × 10 s (d) 38.6 × 10 s 13. In the electrolytic cell, flow of electrons is from (2003, 1M) (a) cathode to anode in solution (b) cathode to anode through external supply (c) cathode to anode through internal supply (d) anode to cathode through internal supply 14. Standard electrode potential data are useful for understanding the suitability of an oxidant in a redox titration. Some half-cell reactions and their standard potentials are given below : MnO−4 ( aq) + 8H+ ( aq ) + 5e− → Mn 2+ ( aq ) + 4H2 O( l ), E° = 1.51 V Cr2 O27 − ( aq ) + 14 H+ ( aq ) + 6e− → 2Cr 3+ ( aq ) + 7H2 O( l ) , E° = 1.38 V E° = 0.77 V Fe3+ ( aq ) + e− → Fe2+ ( aq ) Cl 2 ( g ) + 2e − − → 2Cl ( aq ) E° = 1.40 V Identify the incorrect statement regarding the quantitative estimation of aqueous Fe(NO3 )2 (2002, 3M) (a) MnO−4 can be used in aqueous HCl (b) Cr2 O2− 7 can be used in aqueous HCl − (c) MnO4 can be used in aqueous H2 SO4 (d) Cr2 O2− 7 can be used in aqueous H2 SO4 15. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make ‘salt-bridge’ because (a) velocity of K + is greater than that of NO–3 (b) velocity of NO−3 is greater than that of K + (2001, 1M) (c) velocities of both K + and NO−3 are nearly the same (d) KNO3 is highly soluble in water 16. The gas X at 1 atm is bubbled through a solution containing a mixture of 1 M Y − and 1 M Z − at 25° C . If the order of reduction potential is Z > Y > X , then (1999, 2M) (a) Y will oxidise X and not Z (b) Y will oxidise Z and not X (c) Y will oxidise both X and Z (d) Y will reduce both X and Z 17. The standard reduction potential values of three metallic cations, X, Y, Z are 0.52, − 3.03 and − 1.18 V respectively. The order of reducing power of the corresponding metals is (a) Y > Z > X (b) X > Y > Z (1998, 2M) (c) Z > Y > X (d) Z > X > Y 18. The standard reduction potentials E°, for the half reactions are as Zn = Zn 2+ + 2e− , E° = + 0.76 V Fe = Fe2+ + 2e− , E° = 0.41 V The emf for the cell reaction, Fe2+ + Zn → Zn 2+ + Fe is (a) – 0.35 V (b) + 0.35 V (c) + 1.17 V (d) − 1.17 V 19. When a lead storage battery is discharged (1989, 1M) (1986, 1M) (a) SO2 is evolved (b) lead is formed (c) lead sulphate is consumed (d) sulphuric acid is consumed 20. The reaction, 1 H2 ( g ) + AgCl( s ) r H+ ( aq ) + Cl − ( aq ) + Ag ( s ) 2 occurs in the galvanic cell (1985, 1M) (a) Ag |AgCl ( s )|KCl(soln) | AgNO3 |Ag (b) Pt|H2 ( g )|HCl(soln) | AgNO3 (soln)|Ag (c) Pt |H2 ( g )HCl (soln) | AgCl ( s )|Ag (d) Pt | H2 ( g ) | KCl (soln) | AgCl( s )|Ag 21. The electric charge for electrode deposition of one gram equivalent of a substance is (1984, 1M) (a) one ampere per second (b) 96,500 coulombs per second (c) one ampere for one hour (d) charge on one mole of electrons 22. A solution containing one mole per litre of each Cu (NO3 )2 , AgNO3 ,Hg 2 (NO3 )2 and Mg(NO3 )2 is being electrolysed by using inert electrodes. The values of standard electrode potentials in volts (reduction potential) are Ag + / Ag = + 0.80, Hg 2+ 2 / 2Hg = + 0.79 Cu 2+ / Cu = + 0.34, Mg 2+ / Mg = − 2.37 With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will be (1984, 1M) (a) Ag, Hg, Cu, Mg (b) Mg, Cu, Hg, Ag (c) Ag, Hg, Cu (d) Cu, Hg, Ag 23. Faraday’s laws of electrolysis are related to the (1983, 1M) (a) atomic number of the cation (b) atomic number of the anion (c) equivalent weight of the electrolyte (d) speed of the cation 24. The standard reduction potentials at 298K for the following half cells are given : Zn 2 + ( aq ) + 2e− r Zn ( s ) ; E° = −0.762 V Cr 3 + ( aq ) + 3e− r Cr ( s ) ; E° = −0.740 V 2H+ ( aq ) + 2e− r H2 ( g ); E° = 0.000 V Fe3 + ( aq ) + e− r Fe2 + ( aq ); E° = 0.770 V Which is the strongest reducing agent? (1981, 1M) (a) Zn( s ) (b) Cr( s ) (c) H2 ( g ) (d) Fe2+ ( aq ) 158 Electrochemistry Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) Passage Based Questions 25. In a galvanic cell, the salt-bridge (a) (b) (c) (d) (2014 Adv.) does not participate chemically in the cell reaction stops the diffusion of ions from one electrode to another is necessary for the occurrence of the cell reaction ensures mixing of the two electrolytic solutions 26. For the reduction of NO–3 ion in an aqueous solution E° is + 0.96 V. Values of E° for some metal ions are given below E° = − 1.19 V V2+ ( aq ) + 2e– → V; Fe3+ ( aq ) + 3e– → Fe; E° = − 0.04V E° = + 1.40 V Au 3+ ( aq ) + 3e– → Au; Hg 2+ ( aq ) + 2e– → Hg ; E° = + 0.86V The pair(s) of metals that is/are oxidised by NO–3 in aqueous solution is (are) (2009) (a) V and Hg (b) Hg and Fe (c) Fe and Au (d) Fe and V 27. Consider a 70% efficient hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell working under standard conditions at 1 bar and 298 K. Its cell reaction is 1 H 2( g )+ O 2( g ) → H 2O( l ) 2 The work derived from the cell on the consumption of . × 10−3 mole of H2 ( g ) is used to compress 1.00 mole of a 10 monoatomic ideal gas in a thermally insulated container. What is the change in the temperature (in K) of the ideal gas? The standard reduction potentials for the two half-cells are given below: O 2 (g) + 4H+ (aq) + 4 e− → 2H 2O(), l E° = 1.23 V, 2H+ ( aq ) + 2e− → H 2 ( g ), Use, F = 96500 C mol , R = 8.314 J mol E° = 0.00 V −1 −1 K . (2020 Adv.) 28. For the electrochemical cell, Mg( s )|Mg 2 + ( aq, 1 M) || Cu 2 + ( aq , 1 M) | Cu( s ) The standard emf of the cell is 2.70 V at 300 K. When the concentration of Mg 2+ is changed to x M, the cell potential changes to 2.67 V at 300 K. The value of x is _____. F (Given, = 11500 K V−1 , where F is the Faraday constant R and R is the gas contant, In (10) = 2.30) (2018 Adv.) 29. Consider A( s ) | A n+ (2007, 3 × 4M = 12M) 30. The total number of moles of chlorine gas evolved is (a) 0.5 (c) 2.0 Numerical Answer Type Questions −1 Chemical reactions involve interaction of atoms and molecules. A large number of atoms/molecules (approximately 6.023 × 1023 ) are present in a few grams of any chemical compound varying with their atomic/molecular masses. To handle such large numbers conveniently, the mole concept was introduced. This concept has implications in diverse areas such as analytical chemistry, biochemistry, electrochemistry and radiochemistry. The following example illustrates a typical case, involving chemical/electrochemical reaction, which requires a clear understanding of the mole concept. A 4.0 M aqueous solution of NaCl is prepared and 500 mL of this solution is electrolysed. This leads to the evolution of chlorine gas at one of the electrodes (atomic mass : Na = 23, Hg = 200 , 1F = 96500 C). an electrochemical cell : ( aq , 2M )|| B 2 n + ( aq ,1M)| B( s ). The value of ∆H s for the cell reaction is twice of ∆Gs at 300 K. If the emf of the cell is zero, the ∆S s (in J K −1 mol −1 ) of the cell reaction per mole of B formed at 300 K is …… . (Given : ln( 2 ) = 0.7, R (universal gas constant) = 8.3 J K −1 mol −1 . H , S and G are enthalpy, entropy and Gibbs energy, respectively.) (2018 Adv.) (b) 1.0 (d) 3.0 31. If the cathode is a Hg electrode, the maximum weight (in gram) of amalgam formed from this solution is (a) 200 (b) 225 (c) 400 (d) 446 32. The total charge (coulombs) required for complete electrolysis is (a) 24125 (c) 96500 (b) 48250 (d) 193000 Subjective Questions 33. The following electrochemical cell has been set-up : Pt (1) | Fe3+ , Fe2+ ( a = 1) | Ce4+ , Ce3+ ( a = 1) | Pt (2) E° (Fe3+ , Fe2+ ) = 0.77 V and E° (Ce4+ , Ce3+ ) = 1.61 V If an ammeter is connected between the two platinum electrodes, predict the direction of flow of current, will the current increases or decreases with time? (2000, 2M) 34. Copper sulphate solution (250 mL) was electrolysed using a platinum anode and a copper cathode. A constant current of 2 mA was passed for 16 min. It was found that after electrolysis the absorbance of the solution was reduced to 50% of its original value. Calculate the concentration of copper sulphate in the solution to begin with. (2000, 3M) 35. A cell, Ag | Ag + || Cu 2+ | Cu , initially contains 1 M Ag + and 1 M Cu 2+ ions. Calculate the change in the cell potential after the passage of 9.65 A of current for 1 h. (1999, 6M) 36. How many grams of silver could be plated out on a serving tray by electrolysis of a solution containing silver in +1 oxidation state for a period of 8.0 h at a current of 8.46 A? What is the area of the tray, if the thickness of the silver plating is 0.00254 cm? Density of silver is 10.5 g/cm3 . (1997, 3M) Electrochemistry 159 44. An acidic solution of Cu 2+ salt containing 0.4 g of Cu 2+ is 37. The Edison storage cell is represented as: Fe ( s ) / FeO( s) / KOH( aq ) /Ni 2 O3 ( s ) / Ni( s ) The half-cell reactions are : Ni 2 O3 ( s ) + H2 O ( l ) + 2e− r 2NiO( s ) + 2OH− , E° = + 0.40 V FeO ( s ) + H2 O( l ) + 2e− r Fe( s ) + 2OH− , E° = −0.87 V (i) What is the cell reaction? (ii) What is the cell emf ? How does it depend on the concentration of KOH? (iii) What is the maximum amount of electrical energy that can be obtained from one mole of Ni 2O3? (1994, 4M) 38. The standard reduction-potential for the half-cell NO−3 ( aq ) + 2H+ + e− → NO2 ( g ) + H2 O is 0.78 V electrolysed until all the copper is deposited. The electrolysis is continued for seven more minutes with the volume of solution kept at 100 mL and the current at 1.2 A. Calculate the volume of gases evolved at NTP during the entire electrolysis. (1989, 5M) 45. In a fuel cell hydrogen and oxygen react to produces electricity. In the process hydrogen gas is oxidised at the anode and oxygen at the cathode. If 67.2 L of H2 at STP react in 15 min, what is the average current produced? If the entire current is used for electro deposition of copper from copper (II) solution, how many grams of copper will be deposited? Anode reaction : H2 + 2OH− → 2H2 O + 2e− Cathode reaction : O2 + 2H2 O + 2e− → 4OH− (1988, 4M) 46. A cell contains two hydrogen electrodes. The negative electrode (i) Calculate the reduction-potential in 8M H+ . (ii) What will be the reduction-potential of the half-cell in a neutral solution? Assume all the other species to be at unit (1993, 2M) concentration. is in contact with a solution of 10−6 M hydrogen ions. The emf of the cell is 0.118 V at 25° C . Calculate the concentration of hydrogen ions at the positive electrode. (1988, 2M) 39. Chromium metal can be plated out from an acidic solution 47. A 100 watt, 110 V incandecent lamp is connected in series with containing Cr O3 according to the following equation. Cr O3 ( aq ) + 6H+ ( aq ) + 6e− → Cr ( s ) + 3H2 O Calculate (i) How many grams of chromium will be plated out by 24,000 C and (ii) How long will it take to plate out 1.5 g of chromium by using 12.5 A current? (1993, 2M) 40. An aqueous solution of NaCl on electrolysis gives H2 ( g ), Cl 2 ( g ) and NaOH according to the reaction. 2Cl – ( aq ) + 2H2 O r 2OH− ( aq ) + H2 ( g ) + Cl 2 ( g ) A direct current of 25 A with a current efficiency of 62% is passed through 20 L of NaCl solution (20% by weight). Write down the reactions taking place at the anode and cathode. How long will it take to produce 1kg of Cl 2 ? What will be the molarity of the solution with respect to hydroxide ion? (Assume no loss due to evaporation) (1992, 3M) an electrolyte cell containing cadmium sulphate solution. What weight of cadmium will be deposited by the current flowing for 10 h? (1987, 5M) 48. During the discharge of a lead storage battery, the density of sulphuric acid fell from 1.294 to 1.139 g/mL. Sulphuric acid of density 1.294 g/mL is 39% H2 SO4 by weight and that of density 1.139 g/mL is 20% H2 SO4 by weight. The battery holds 3.5 L of the acid and the volume remained practically constant during the discharge. Calculate the number of ampere-hours for which the battery must have been used. The charging and discharging reactions are Pb + SO24 − = PbSO4 + 2e− (charging) − PbO2 + 4H+ + SO2− 4 + 2e = PbSO4 + 2H2 O (discharging) (1986, 5M) 49. How long a current of 3 A has to be passed through a solution 41. For the galvanic cell, Ag | AgCl( s ) , KCl (0.2 M) || KBr (0.001 M), AgBr (s) | Ag Calculate the emf generated and assign correct polarity to each electrode for a spontaneous process after taking into account the cell reaction at 25° C. [ K sp (AgCl) = 2.8 × 10−10 , K sp (AgBr) = 3.3 × 10−13] (1992, 4M) 42. A current of 1.70 A is passed through 300.0 mL of 0.160M solution of a ZnSO4 for 230 s with a current efficiency of 90%. Find out the molarity of Zn 2+ after the deposition Zn. Assume the volume of the solution to remain constant during the electrolysis. (1991, 4M) 43. Calculate the quantity of electricity that would be required to reduce 12.3 g of nitrobenzene to aniline, if the current efficiency for the process is 50%. If the potential drop across the cell is 3.0 V, how much energy will be consumed? (1990, 3M) of silver nitrate to coat a metal surface of 80 cm2 with a 0.005 mm thick layer? Density of silver is 10.5 g/cm3 . (1985, 3M) 50. In an electrolysis experiment current was passed for 5 h through two cells connected in series. The first cell contains a solution of gold and the second contains copper sulphate solution. 9.85 g of gold was deposited in the first cell. If the oxidation number of gold is +3, find the amount of copper deposited on the cathode of the second cell. Also calculate the magnitude of the current in ampere. (Atomic weight of Au = 197 and atomic weight of Cu = 63.5) (1983, 3M) 51. A current of 3.7 A is passed for 6 h between nickel electrodes in 0.5 L of a 2.0 M solution of Ni(NO3 )2 . What will be the molarity of solution at the end of electrolysis? (1978, 2M) Topic 2 Conductivity of Electrolytic Solutions and their Measurement and Nernst Equation Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. Molar conductivity ( Λ m ) of aqueous solution of sodium stearate, which behaves as a strong electrolyte, is recorded at varying concentrations (C ) of sodium stearate. Which one of the following plots provides the correct representation of micelle formation in the solution? (critical micelle concentration (CMC) is marked with an arrow in the figures) (2019 Adv.) Λm Λm (a) CMC (b) 4. Consider the statements S1 and S 2 : S 1 : Conductivity always increases with decrease in the concentration of electrolyte. S 2 : Molar conductivity always increases with decrease in the concentration of electrolyte. The correct option among the following is (2019 Main, 10 April I) (a) (b) (c) (d) S1 is correct and S2 is wrong S1 is wrong and S2 is correct Both S1 and S2 are wrong Both S1 and S2 are correct 5. The standard Gibbs energy for the given cell reaction in kJ CMC √C √C mol−1 at 298 K is Zn( s ) + Cu2 + ( aq ) → Zn2 + ( aq ) + Cu( s ), E° = 2Vat 298 K (Faraday’s constant, F = 96000 C mol−1 ) (2019 Main, 9 April I) CMC Λm (c) Λm CMC (d) (a) 384 (b) 192 (c) −384 (d) −192 6. Λ°m for NaCl, HCl and NaA are 126.4, 425.9 and 100.5 S cm 2 mol− 1 , respectively. If the conductivity of 0.001 M HA is 5 × 10− 5 S cm − 1 , degree of dissociation of HA is √C √C (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) (a) 0.25 2. The decreasing order of electrical conductivity of the following aqueous solution is 0.1 M formic acid (A), 0.1 M acetic acid (B), 0.1 M benzoic acid (C). (2019 Main, 12 April II) (a) A > C > B (b) C > B > A (c) A > B > C (d) C > A > B 3. Which one of the following graphs between molar conductivity (Λ m ) versus C is correct? (2019 Main, 10 April II) (b) 0.50 (d) 0.125 7. Given the equilibrium constant ( K C ) of the reaction : Cu( s ) + 2Ag+ ( aq ) → Cu2 + ( aq ) + 2Ag( s ) ° is 10 × 1015 , calculate the Ecell of this reaction at 298 K. RT 2.303 F at 298 K = 0.059 V (2019 Main, 11 Jan II) (a) 0.4736 V (b) 0.04736 mV (c) 0.4736 mV (d) 0.04736 V 8. For the cell, Zn( s)|Zn2+ ( aq )||M x+ ( aq )|M ( s), different half cells and their standard electrode potentials are given below. Na Cl KC l (b) Λ m Cl Na l KC (a) Λ m (c) 0.75 √C (d) Λ m Na l KC Cl Na √C √C Au 3+ (aq)/ Au(s) Ag + (aq)/ Ag(s) Fe 3+ (aq)/ Fe 2+ (aq) Fe 2+ (aq)/ Fe(s) E ° M x + / M /V 1.40 0.80 0.77 − 0.44 If E° Zn 2+ / Zn = − 0.76 V, which cathode will give a maximum value of E° cell per electron transferred? (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) Ag+ Fe2+ Au3+ Fe3 + (b) (c) (d) (a) Ag Fe Au Fe2+ √C l KC (c) Λ m M x+ (aq)/M(s) Cl 9. In the cell, Pt(s) H 2 ( g , 1 bar) HCl( aq )|AgCl( s ) Ag( s ) Pt( s ) the cell potential is 0.92 V when a 10−6 molal HCl solution is used. Electrochemistry 161 The standard electrode potential of ( AgCl/ Ag,Cl− ) 2.303RT electrode is Given, = 0.06 V at 298 K F (a) 0.40 V (b) 0.20 V (c) 0.94 V (d) 0.76 V Match E° of the rebox pair in Column I with the values given in Column II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. (2013 Adv.) Column I 10. If the standard electrode potential for a cell is 2V at 300 K, the equilibrium constant (K) for the reaction, Zn( s ) + Cu2+ ( aq ) - Zn 2+ ( aq ) + Cu( s ) 3+ Column II P. E° (Fe / Fe) Q. E° ( 4H2 O r 4H+ + 4OH− ) 2+ + + Cu → 2 Cu ) at 300 K is approximately R. E° ( Cu ( R = 8 JK −1 mol−1 , F = 96000 C mol−1 ) S. E° (Cr 3 + , Cr 2 + ) (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) (a) e−160 (c) e−80 (b) e160 Codes P (a) 4 (c) 1 (d) e320 11. For the following cell, Zn ( s )| ZnSO4 ( aq )||CuSO4 ( aq )|Cu( s ) when the concentration of Zn2+ is 10 times the concentration of Cu2+ , the expression for ∆G (in J mol −1 ) is [F is Faraday constant; R is gas constant; T is temperature; E° (cell) = 11 . V] (a) 2.303 RT +11 (b) 1.1 F . F (c) 2.303 RT − 2.2 F (d) −2.2 F (b) Cu (c) Zn R 2 3 S 3 4 P 2 3 (b) (d) (2014 Main) Mn 2 + + 2e− → Mn ; E° = − 1.18 eV P. (C2 H5 )3 N + CH3 COOH Q. X Y KI(0.1 M) + AgNO3 (0.01 M) 2. X Y R. CH3 COOH + KOH X S. 1. NaOH + HI (c) 5 × 103 (d) 5 × 102 16. The standard reduction potential data at 25°C is given below. E° (Fe3 + / Fe2 + ) = + 0.77 V; E° (Fe2 / Fe) = −0.44 V; E° (Cu 2 + / Cu) = + 0.34 V; E° (Cu + / Cu) = + 0.52 V; − E ° ( O2 ( g ) + 4H + 4 e ) → 2H2 O) = + 1.23 V; Q 4 3 E° (Cr 3 + / Cr) = −0.74 V; E° (Cr 2 + / Cr) = +0.91 V S 1 2 4. Conductivity does not change much and then increases S 1 1 (b) (d) P 4 1 Q 3 4 R 2 3 S 1 2 18. Consider the following cell reaction, 2Fe( s ) + O2 ( g ) + 4H+ ( aq ) → 2Fe2+ ( aq ) + 2H2 O ( l ), E ° = 1.67 V At [Fe2+ ] = 10−3 M, P(O 2 ) = 0.1 atm and pH = 3, the cell potential at 25° C is (2011) (a) 1.47 V (b) 1.77 V (c) 1.87 V (d) 1.57 V 19. AgNO3 (aqueous) was added to an aqueous KCl solution gradually and the conductivity of the solution was measured. The plot of conductance (Λ) versus the volume of AgNO3 is Λ × × × × × − E ° ( O2 ( g ) + 2H2 O + 4 e ) → 4OH) = + 0.40 V R 2 4 Volume (P) (a) (P) ×Λ × ×× Volume (Q) (b) (Q) Λ Λ × ×× × + R 4 1 Conductivity increases and then does not change much × × × × (b) 5 × 10−3 Codes P (a) 3 (c) 2 ×× (a) 5 × 10−4 – 0.83 V 3. Y × specific conductance of the solution of 0.5 M solution of same electrolyte is 1.4 S m−1 and resistance of same solution of the same electrolyte is 280 Ω . The molar conductivity of 0.5 M solution of the electrolyte in Sm 2mol−1 is (2014 Main) 4. Conductivity decreases and then does not change much Y X 15. Resistance of 0.2 M solution of an electrolyte is 50 Ω . The – 0.04 V Conductivity decreases and then increases 14. The equivalent conductance of NaCl at concentration C and at infinite dilution are λ C and λ ∞ , respectively. The correct relationship between λ C and λ ∞ is given as (where, the constant B is positive) (2014 Main) (a) λ C = λ ∞ + ( B ) C (b) λ C = λ ∞ − ( B ) C (d) λ C = λ ∞ + ( B ) C (c) λ C = λ ∞ − ( B ) C 3. Column II 2 (Mn 3+ + e− → Mn 2+ ) ; E° = + 1.51eV The E ° for 3Mn 2 + → Mn + 2Mn 3+ will be (a) − 2. 69 V; the reaction will not occur (b) − 2. 69 V; the reaction will occur (c) − 0. 33 V; the reaction will not occur (d) − 0. 33 V; the reaction will occur – 0.4 V solution of Y as shown in Column I. The variation in conductivity of these reactions is given in Column II. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Columns. (2013 Adv.) (d) Pb 13. Given below are the half-cell reactions 2. Q 3 4 Column I (2016 Main) − 0.18 V 17. An aqueous solution of X is added slowly to an aqueous (2017 Adv.) 12. Galvanisation is applying a coating of (a) Cr Q 1 2 1. Volume (R) (c) (R) ××× × × × × Volume (S) (d) (S) (2011) 162 Electrochemistry At 1250 K : 2Cu( s)+ 1 / 2 O 2 ( g ) → Cu 2O( s); 20. The half cell reactions for rusting of iron are : 1 2H + 2e + O2 → H2 O( l ); 2 Fe2 + + 2e− → Fe( s ); + − E° = − 0.44 V ∆G° (in kJ) for the reaction is (a) – 76 (b) – 322 (2005, 1M) (c) – 122 ∆Gs = − 78,000 J mol −1 E° = + 1.23V (d) – 176 21. Zn | Zn 2+ ( a = 0.1M ) || Fe2+ ( a = 0.01M) | Fe. The emf of the above cell is 0.2905 V. Equilibrium constant for the cell reaction is (2004, 1M) (a) 100.32/ 0.059 (b) 100.32/ 0.0295 (c) 100.26/ 0.0295 (d) 100.32/ 0.295 1 H 2( g )+ O2 ( g ) → H 2O ( g ); 2 ∆Gs = − 1,78,000 J mol −1 ; G is the Gibbs energy (2018 Adv.) Passage Based Questions Passage I The electrochemical cell shown below is a concentration cell. M | M 2+ (saturated solution of a sparingly soluble salt, 22. The correct order of equivalent conductance at infinite MX 2 )||M 2+ (0.001 mol dm −3 )|M . The emf of the cell depends dilution of LiCl, NaCl and KCl is (2001, 1M) (a) LiCl > NaCl > KCl (b) KCl > NaCl > LiCl (c) NaCl > KCl > LiCl (d) LiCl > KCl > NaCl on the difference in concetration of M 2+ ions at the two electrodes. The emf of the cell at 298K is 0.059 V. + 23. For − the electrochemical cell, ( M |M )||( X | X ), E° ( M + / M ) = 0.44 Vand E° ( X / X − ) = 0.33 V. From this data one can deduce that (2000, 1M) (a) M + X → M + + X − is the spontaneous reaction (b) M + + X – → M + X is the spontaneous reaction (c) Ecell = 0.77 V (d) Ecell = − 0.77 V (2012) 28. The solubility product (K sp : mol 3 dm −9 ) of MX 2 at 298 based on the information available the given concentration cell is (take 2.303 × R × 298/ F = 0.059 V) (a) 1 × 10−15 (b) 4 × 10−15 (c) 1 × 10−12 (d) 4 × 10−12 29. The value of ∆G (kJ mol −1 ) for the given cell is (take 1 F = 96500 C mol −1 ) (a) − 5.7 (b) 5.7 (c) 11.4 24. The standard reduction potentials of Cu 2+ /Cu and Cu 2+ / Cu + are 0.337 V and 0.153 V respectively. The standard electrode potential of Cu + /Cu half-cell is (1997, 1M) (a) 0.184 V (b) 0.827 V (c) 0. 521 V (d) 0.490 V Numerical Answer Type Questions 25. For the disproportionation reaction 2Cu+ ( aq ) Cu ( s ) + Cu 2 + ( aq ) at 298 K, In K (where K is the equilibrium constant) is ………× 10−1 . c ° 2+ Given : ( ECu . V, = 016 / Cu + RT = 0.025) F (2020 Main, 2 Sep II) 26. An oxidation-reduction reaction in which 3 electrons are transferred has a ∆G° of 17.37 kJ mol −1 at 25° C. The value of ° (in V) is …… ×10−2 . Ecell ° + ECu = 0.52 V and / Cu (1 F = 96,500 C mol −1 ) (2020 Main, 5 Sep I) 27. The surface of copper gets tarnished by the formation of copper oxide. N 2 gas was passed to prevent the oxide formation during heating of copper at 1250 K. However, the N 2 gas contains 1 mole % of water vapour as impurity. The water vapour oxidises copper as per the reaction given below 2Cu( g )+ H 2O( g ) → Cu 2O( s)+ H 2( g ) pH 2 is the minimum partial pressure of H 2 (in bar) needed to prevent the oxidation at 1250 K. The value of ln( pH 2 ) is …… . (Given : total pressure = 1 bar, R (universal gas constant) = 8 J K −1 mol −1 , ln(10 ) = 2.30 Cu ( s ) and Cu 2O ( s ) are mutually immiscible.) (d) –11.4 Passage II The concentration of potassium ions inside a biological cell is at least twenty times higher than the outside. The resulting potential difference across the cell is important in several processes such as transmission of nerve impulses and maintaining the ion balance. A simple model for such a concentration cell involving a metal M is : M ( s ) | M + ( aq; 0.05 molar) || M + ( aq; 1 molar) | M ( s ) For the above electrolytic cell the magnitude of the cell potential | Ecell | = 70 mV. (2010) 30. For the above cell (a) Ecell < 0; ∆G > 0 (c) Ecell < 0; ∆G° > 0 (b) Ecell > 0; ∆G < 0 (d) Ecell > 0; ∆G° < 0 31. If the 0.05 molar solution of M + is replaced by a 0.0025 molar M + solution, then the magnitude of the cell potential would be (a) 35 mV (b) 70 mV (c) 140 mV (d) 700 mV Passage III Redox reaction play a pivotal role in chemistry and biology. The values of standard redox potential ( E° ) of two half-cell reactions decide which way the reaction is expected to proceed. A simple example is a Daniell cell in which zinc goes into solution and copper gets deposited. Given below are a set of half-cell reactions (acidic medium) along with their E ° (V with respect to normal hydrogen electrode) values. Using this data obtain the correct explanations to Questions 17–19. (2007, 4 × 3M = 12M) Electrochemistry 163 I2 + 2e− → 2I− E° = 0.54 Cl 2 + 2e → 2Cl − E° = 1.36 Mn 3+ + e− → Mn 2+ E° = 1.50 − 3+ Fe − 2+ + e → Fe O2 + 4H+ + 4e− → 2H2O Subjective Questions 38. We have taken a saturated solution of AgBr, K sp is 12 × 10− 14 . If 10− 7 M of AgNO3 are added to 1 L of this solution, find conductivity (specific conductance) of this solution in terms of 10 − 7 Sm− 1 units. (2006, 6M) ° −3 2 −1 Given, λ (Ag + ) = 6 × 10 Sm mol , E° = 0.77 E° = 1.23 32. Among the following, identify the correct statement. (a) Chloride ion is oxidised by O2 (b) Fe2+ is oxidised by iodine (c) Iodide ion is oxidised by chlorine (d) Mn 2+ is oxidised by chlorine λ °(Br − ) = 8 × 10− 3 Sm2 mol −1 , λ °(NO – ) = 7 × 10− 3 Sm2 mol −1 . 3 39. Calculate 33. While Fe3+ is stable, Mn 3+ is not stable in acid solution (a) Ag (aq) + Cl − (aq) → AgCl (s) Given 37. Ammonia is always added in this reaction. Which of the following must be incorrect? (a) NH3 combines with Ag + to form a complex (b) Ag(NH3 ) 2+ is a stronger oxidising reagent than Ag + (c) In the absence of NH3 silver salt of gluconic acid is formed (d) NH3 has affected the standard reduction potential of glucose/gluconic acid electrode ∆G °f (Cl )− −129kJ /mol ∆G ° (Ag+ ) 77kJ /mol (b) 6.539 × 10−2 g of metallic Zn(u = 65.39) was added to 100 mL of saturated solution of AgCl. Calculate [ Zn 2+ ] . Given that log10 [ Ag+ ]2 Ag+ + e− → Ag; E° = 0.80V 2+ E° = −76V Zn − + 2e → Zn; Also find how many moles of Ag will be formed? 40. Find the equilibrium constant for the reaction Cu 2+ + In 2 + r Cu + + In 3+ Given that E°Cu 2+ /Cu + = 0.15V, E° In 2+ / In + = − 0.4V, ° Ered Ag(NH 3 )+2 + e− → Ag ( s) + 2NH 3; = 0.337 V RT F [Use 2.303 × = 0.0592 and = 38.92 at 298 K] F RT Find ln K of this reaction. (a) 66.13 (b) 58.38 (c) 28.30 (d) 46.29 36. When ammonia is added to the solution, pH is raised to 11. Which half-cell reaction is affected by pH and by how much? ° (a) Eoxi will increase by a factor of 0.65 from Eoxi ° (b) Eoxi will decrease by a factor of 0.65 from Eoxi ° (c) E red will increase by a factor of 0.65 from E red (d) E red will decrease by a factor of 0.65 from E °red −109 kJ /mol Represent the above reaction in form of a cell. Calculate E° of the cell. Find log10 K sp of AgCl. (2005, 6M) C 6 H12 O6 + H2 O → C 6 H12 O7 + 2H+ + 2e− ; ° Gluconic acid = − 0.05 V Eoxi (2006, 3 × 4M = 12M) ∆G °f (AgCl ) f Passage IV 35. 2Ag + + C 6 H12 O6 + H2 O → 2Ag ( s) + C 6 H12 O7 + 2H+ of the following reaction: + because (a) O2 oxidises Mn 2+ to Mn 3+ (b) O2 oxidises both Mn 2+ to Mn 3+ and Fe2+ to Fe3+ (c) Fe3+ oxidises H2 O to O2 (d) Mn 3+ oxidises H2 O to O2 34. Sodium fusion extract, obtained from aniline, on treatment with iron (II) sulphate and H2 SO4 in the presence of air gives a Prussian blue precipitate. The blue colour is due to the formation of (a) Fe4 [Fe (CN)6 ] 3 (b) Fe3 [Fe(CN)6 ] 2 (c) Fe4 [Fe(CN) 6 ] 2 (d) Fe3 [Fe(CN)6 ] 3 Tollen’s reagent is used for the detection of aldehydes. When a solution of AgNO3 is added to glucose with NH4 OH, then gluconic acid is formed. ° = 0.80 V Ag + + e− → Ag; Ered ∆Gr° E° In 3+ / In + 41. = −0.42 V (2004, 4M) (a) Will pH value of water be same at temperature 25°C and 4°C? Justify in not more than 2 or 3 sentences. (b) Two students use same stock solution of ZnSO4 and a solution of CuSO4. The emf of one cell is 0.03 V higher than the other. The concentration of CuSO4 in the cell with higher emf value is 0.5 M. Find out the concentration of CuSO4 in the other cell. Given : 2.303 RT /F = 0.06V . (2003, 2M) 42. The standard potential of the following cell is 0.23 V at 15° C and 0.21 V at 35° C. Pt | H2 ( g ) | HCl( aq ) | AgCl ( s ) | Ag ( s ) (i) Write the cell reaction. (ii) Calculate ∆H ° and ∆S ° for the cell reaction by assuming that these quantities remain unchanged in the range 15° C to 35° C. (iii) Calculate the solubility of AgCl in water at 25° C. Given, the standard reduction potential of the (Ag+ (aq)/Ag (s) is 0.80 V at 25° C. (2001, 10M) 164 Electrochemistry 43. Find the solubility product of a saturated solution of Ag 2 CrO4 in water at 298 K, if the emf of the cell Ag | Ag + (Saturated Ag 2 CrO4 solution. ) ||Ag + (0.1 M) | Ag is 0.164 V at 298 K. 2H2 O + 2e− r H2 + 2OH− , is −0.8277 V. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction, 2H2 O r H3 O+ + OH− at 25° C. (1998, 6M) 44. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction, 2Fe3+ + 3I− r 2Fe2+ + I3− . The standard reduction potentials in acidic conditions are 0.77 V and 0.54 V respectively for Fe3+ / Fe2+ and I−3 / I− couples. (1998, 3M) 45. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction Fe2+ + Ce4+ r Fe3+ + Ce3+ 4+ Given, E° ( Ce /Ce 3+ 3+ ) = 1.44 V, E° ( Fe /Fe 2+ ) =0.68 V 46. The standard reduction potential for Cu 2+ /Cu is +0.34 V. Calculate the reduction potential at pH = 14 for the above couple. K sp of Cu (OH)2 is 1.0 × 10−19 . (1996, 3M) 47. An excess of liquid mercury is added to an acidified solution of 1.0 × 10−3 M Fe3+ . It is found that 5 % of Fe3+ remains at equilibrium at 25° C. Calculate E° (Hg 2+ / Hg ) assuming that the only reaction that occurs is 2+ 2Hg + 2Fe3+ → Hg 2+ 2 + 2Fe E° (Fe3+ / Fe2+ ) = 0.77 V (1989, 3M) 52. The emf of a cell corresponding to the reaction. Zn( s ) + 2H+ ( aq ) → Zn 2+ (0.1M) + H2 , ( g ,1atm) is 0.28 V at 25° C. Write the half-cell reactions and calculate the pH of the solution at the hydrogen electrode. E° ( Zn 2+ / Zn ) = −0.76 V E ° + =0 H /H2 (1997, 2M) Given, 51. The standard reduction potential at 25° C of the reaction, (1995, 4M) (1986, 4M) 53. Give reasons in one or two sentences. “Anhydrous HCl is a bad conductor of electricity but aqueous HCl is a good conductor.” (1985, 1M) 54. Consider the cell, Zn | Zn 2 + ( aq ) (1.0 M ) || Cu 2 + ( aq ) (1.0 M ) | Cu The standard reduction potentials are 0.350 V for Cu 2 + ( aq ) + 2e− → Cu and −0.763 V for Zn 2 + ( aq ) + 2e− → Zn (i) Write down the cell reaction. (ii) Calculate the emf of the cell. (iii) Is the cell reaction spontaneous or not? (1982, 2M) + 48. The standard reduction potential of the Ag /Ag electrode at 298 K is 0.799 V. Given that for AgI, K sp = 8.7 × 10−17 , evaluate the potential of the Ag + / Ag electrode in a saturated solution of AgI. Also calculate the standard reduction potential of the I− / AgI/Ag electrode. (1994, 3M) 49. Zinc granules are added in excess to a 500 mL of 1.0 M nickel nitrate solution at 25° C until the equilibrium is reached. If the standard reduction potential of Zn 2+ / Zn and Ni 2+ / Ni are – 0.75 V and – 0.24 V respectively. Find out the concentration of Ni 2+ in solution at equilibrium. (1991, 2M) 50. The standard reduction potential of Cu 2+ + / Cu and Ag / Ag electrodes are 0.337 and 0.799 V respectively. Construct a galvanic cell using these electrodes so that its standard emf is positive. For what concentration of Ag + will the emf of the cell, at 25° C, be zero if the concentration of Cu 2+ is 0.01 M? (1990, 3M) Integer Answer Type Questions 55. The conductance of a 0.0015 M aqueous solution of a weak monobasic acid was determined by using a conductivity cell consisting of platinised Pt electrodes. The distance between the electrodes is 120 cm with an area of cross section of 1 cm 2 . The conductance of this solution was found to be 5 × 10−7 S. The pH of the solution is 4. The value of limiting molar conductivity ( Λ°m ) of this weak monobasic acid in aqueous solution is Z × 102 S cm −1 mol −1 . The value of Z is (2017 Adv.) 56. All the energy released from the reaction X → Y , ∆ r G ° = − 193 kJmol −1 is used for oxidising M + as M + → M 3 + + 2e− , E ° = − 0.25 V. Under standard conditions, the number of moles of M + oxidised when one mole of X is converted to Y is [F = 96500 C mol − ] (2015 Adv.) Answers Topic 1 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. (b) (b) (d) (c) (a) (d) 25. (a, b) 2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. (d) (b) (b) (a) (b) (c) 3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. (a) (c) (d) (c) (d) (c) 4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. (c) (a) (b) (a) (c) (a) 26. (a,b,d) 29. (–11.62 JK mol −1) 32. (d) 27. (13.32) 28. (10) 30. (b) 31. (d) 34. (8 × 10 −5 M) 35. (0.01 V) 36. (300 cm 2) 37. (−245.11 kJ) 40. (1.4085 M) 41. (−0.037 V) 42. (0.154 M) 43. (347.40 kJ) 45. (190.50 g) 46. (10 −4 M) 47. (19.1 g) 48. (265 Ah) 49. (125 s) 50. (0.80 A) 51. (1.172 M) Electrochemistry 165 29. (d) Topic 2 1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (c) 30. (b) 31. (c) 32. (c) 4. (b) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (d) 38. (55) 40. (1010) 41. (0.05 M) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (c) 43. (2.45 × 10 −12) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (d) 45. (6.88 × 1012) 46. (− 0.222 V) 47. (0.7926 V) 49. (1.7 × 1017) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (b) 50. (1.57 × 10 −9) 51. (1.04 × 10 −14 ) 55. (6 × 10 S cm 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (c) 25. (144) 26. (–6) 27. (–14.16) 28. (b) 2 44. (5.89 × 10 7) −1 −1 mol ) 52. (8.6) 56. (4 mol) Hints & Solutions Topic 1 Electrochemical Cells ⇒ Eº Fe3+ / Fe2 + Key Idea Negative E ° means that redox couple is weaker oxidising agent than H+ /H2 couple. Positive E° means that 1. redox couple is a stronger oxidising agent than H+ / H2 couple So, from equation (i) º Ecell = xV − (3z − 2 y) V = (x − 3z + 2 y) V 4. Higher the standard reduction potential (E ºMn + / M ), better is oxidising agent. Among the given, E °S2O 82− / SO 24− is highest, hence Given, Co3+ + e− → Co2+ ; E ° = + 1.81 V Pb 4+ − S2O82− is the strongest oxidising agent. The decreasing order of oxidising agent among the given option is as follows: S2O82− > Au 3+ > O2 > Br2 2+ + 2e → Pb ; E ° = + 1.67 V Ce4+ + e− → Ce3+ ; E ° = + 1.61 V Bi3+ + 3e− → Bi; E ° = + 0.20 V Oxidising power of the species increases in the order of Bi3 + < Ce4+ < Pb4+ < Co3+ . Higher the emf value, stronger the oxidising power. The maximum value of emf is possessed by Co3+ . Hence, it has maximum oxidising power. Whereas Bi3+ possess the lowest emf value. Hence, it has minimum oxidising power. 5. Reducing power of an element ∝ Here, E ° M2 + / M Metals electrodes using 0.1 Faraday electricity. It means that 0.1 equivalent of Ni2+ will be discharged. + Ag /Ag − Eº 3+ Fe 2+ / Fe = xV − E º 3+ Fe 2+ / Fe … (i) Now, for two half-cells º (i) Fe2+ + 2e− → Fe; EFe = E1º = yV ∆G2º = − 2FE1º 2+ / Fe º (ii) Fe3 + + 3e− → Fe ; EFe = E2º = zV ∆G2º = − 3FE2º 3+ / Fe So, Fe3 + + e– → Fe2+ ; E º Again, ⇒ ⇒ Fe3+ / Fe2 + º ; ∆G3 = − 1 × FE3º º º ∆G3 = ∆G2 − ∆G1º − FE3º = − 3FE2º − (− 2FE1º ) − E3º = 2E1º − 3E2º ⇒ E3º = 3E2º = E3º = ? − 2E1º Zn Mg Ca Thus, the correct order of increasing reducing power of the given metal is, Ni < Zn < Mg < Ca. Ni2+ + 2e− → Ni (Atomic mass of Ni = 58.7) 3. Fe2+ (aq) + Ag + (aq) → Fe3 + (aq) + Ag(s) values of the given metals are as, Reducing power Electrolysis of Ni(NO3 )2 gives Number of equivalents = Number of moles × number of electrons. 01 . = Number of moles × 2 01 . ∴Number of moles of Ni = = 0.05 2 Ni 1 Standard reduction potential E°( V ) − 0.25 − 0.76 − 2.36 − 2.87 → 2. A solution of Ni(NO3 )2 is electrolysed between platinum º = Eº ∴ Ecell = (3z − 2 y) V 6. Key Idea This question is based upon Faraday’s first law which states that “Mass of any substance deposited or liberated at any electrode is directly proportional to the quantity of electricity passed.” During charging: Pb + SO24 − → PbSO4 + 2e− ⇒ 1 F ≡ 1g-equiv. of PbSO4 1 303 g PbSO4 = mol of PbSO 4 ⇒ 2 2 303 ∴ 0.05 F ≡ × 0.05 g of PbSO4 = 7.575 g of PbSO4 2 7. Given that, i = 100 amp. also, 27.66 g of diborane (B2H6 ) Molecular mass of B2 H6 = 10.8 × 2 + 6 = 27.6 Given mass 27.66 Number of moles of B2 H6 in 27.66 g = = ≈1 Molar mass 27.6 Now consider the equation B2H6 + 3O2 → B2O3 + 3H2O 166 Electrochemistry From the equation we can interpret that 3 moles of oxygen is required to burn 1 mole (i.e. 27.6 g) B2 H6 completely. Also consider the electrolysis reaction of water i.e. H2O s 2H+ + O−− 12. 0.01 mol of H2 = 0.02 g equivalent ⇒ Coulombs required = 0.02 × 96500 = 1930 C ⇒ Q = It = 1930 C 1930 ⇒ t= = 19.3 × 104 s 10 × 10− 3 +2e − 2H+ → 2H → H2 ↑ Cathode 2 such O−− → O → O2 ↑ − atoms Anode 13. In electrolytic cell electrolysis occur at the cost of electricity : At cathode : M n+ + ne → M −2e From the above equation it can be easily interpreted that in electrolysis of water for the production of 1 mole of oxygen from 1 mole of H2O at anode 4 moles electrons are required. Likewise for the production of 3 moles of O2 12(3 × 4 ) moles of electrons will be needed. So, the total amount of charge required to produce 3 moles of oxygen will be 12 × F or 12 × 96500 We know Q = it So, 12 × 96500 = 100 × tin seconds 12 × 96500 or = tin hours = 3.2 hours 100 × 3600 8. The substances which have lower reduction potentials are At anode : Net: M 4+ (aq) + H2 (g ) → M 2+ (aq) + 2H+ (aq); ∴ ∴ [ M 2+ ] [ H+ ] 2 [ M 2+ ] ° = 0.151 V )= (Ecell K= 4+ [ M ] pH 2 [ M 4+ ] 0.059 ° − Ecell = Ecell log K 2 0.059 [ M 2+ ] 0.092 = 0151 . − log 4+ 2 [M ] 0.059 x 0.059 = log10 2 x log10 = 2 x=2 10. Given, Q = 2F Atomic mass of Cu = 63.5u Valency of the metal Z = 2 We have, CuSO4 → Cu 2+ + SO24− because the following reaction is spontaneous : MnO−4 + Cl − → Mn 2+ + Cl 2; 2mol 2F 1mol =63.5g Alternatively. E 2 × 63.5 = 63.5 ⋅ 2F = 2E = F 2 11. Higher the standard reduction potential, better is oxidising agent. ° Among the given EMnO is highest, hence MnO −4 is the − / Mn 2+ W = ZQ = 4 strongest oxidising agent. E° = 1.51 − 1.40 = 0.11 V In all other cases, the redox process between oxidising agent and medium (HCl or H2SO4) are non-spontaneous, would not interfere oxidation of Fe2+ . 15. One of the requirement for electrolyte used in salt-bridge is, both cation and anion must have comparable size so that they migrate towards electrodes of opposite polarity at comparable speeds. 16. Higher the value of reduction potential, stronger the oxidising agent. E° : Z > Y > X Q ⇒ Y will oxidise X but not Z. 17. Lower the value of E° , stronger the reducing agent. Reducing power: Y (E ° = − 3.03 V) > Z (E ° = − 1.18 V) > X (E ° = 0.52 V). 18. Fe2+ + 2e− → Fe ; ⇒ Fe 2+ Zn → Zn 2+ + Zn → Zn 2+ E° = − 0.41V − + 2e ; E° = + 0.76V E° = + 0.35V + Fe ; 19. In a lead storage battery, sulphuric acid is consumed as : Pb + PbO2 + 2H2SO4 → 2PbSO4 + 2H2O 20. In a galvanic cell, oxidation occur in the left hand electrode chamber and reduction in right hand electrode chamber. In the following cell. Pt | H2 (g ) | HCl (l )||AgCl (s) | Ag(s) The cell reactions are : 1 H (g ) → H+ 2 2 + e− − AgCl(s) + e → Ag + Cl Cu 2+ + 2 e− → Cu 1mol → X + ne− 14. MnO−4 cannot be used for oxidation of Fe2+ in HCl medium 9. Oxidation at anode ° = 0.00 V H2 (g ) → 2H+ (aq)+ 2e−; ESHE Reduction at cathode M 4+ (aq)+ 2e− → M 2+ (aq); EM° 4+ / M 2+ = 0.151 V (electron gone in solution) (electron supplied to anode) Therefore, electron is moving from cathode to anode via internal circuit. ° 3 + / Cr = − 0.74 V) is stronger reducing agents. Therefore, Cr (ECr the strongest reducing agent among all the other given options. X n− Net : − At anode At cathode 1 H2 (g ) + AgCl (s) → H+ + Ag(s) + Cl − 2 21. One gram equivalent of an electrolyte required 1.0 mole of electronic charge for discharging. 22. In aqueous solution, only those ions who are less electropositive than hydrogen (E° > 0) would be deposited. Therefore, in the present case, only Ag, Hg and Cu would be deposited on passing electricity through aqueous solution of these ions, Mg will not be deposited. Electrochemistry 167 Also, higher the value of E°, easier will be their reduction, therefore, the sequence in which ions will be deposited on increasing voltage across the electrodes is : Ag, Hg, Cu. 23. Faraday’s law of electrolysis is related to equivalent weight of electrolytes as “the number of Faraday’s passed is equal to the number of gram equivalent of electrolytes discharged.” 24. Lower the value of E°, stronger the reducing agent. 25. PLAN This problem is based on characteristics of salt-bridge. Functions of salt-bridge are (i) It connects the two half-cells and completes the cell circuit. (ii) It keeps the solutions of two half-cells and complete the cell circuit but does not participate chemically in the cell reaction. (iii) It maintains the diffusion of ions from one electrode to another electrode. (iv) A cell reaction may also occur in the absence of salt-bridge. Sometimes, both the electrodes dip in the same electrolyte solution and in such cases we do not require a salt-bridge.” So, option (c) is incorrect. (v) This prevent mixing of two electrolytic solutions hence, option (d) is incorrect choice. Hence, correct choices are (a), (b). 26. Metals with E° value less than 0.96 V will be able to reduce NO−3 in aqueous solution.Therefore, metals V (E° = − 1.19 V), Fe (E° = – 0.04 V), Hg (E° = 0.86 V) will all reduce NO−3 but Au (E° = 1.40 V) cannot reduce NO−3 in aqueous solution. 27. Vessel is insulated, thus q = 0 For the given reaction : H2 (g ) + 1/ 2 O2 (g ) → H2O(l ); E° = 123 . − 0.00 = 123 . V ∆G ° = − nFE ° = − 2 × 96500 × 123 . J / mol Therefore, work derived from this fuel cell using 70% efficiency and on consumption of 10 . × 10− 3 mol of H2 (g ) = 2 × 96500 × 123 . × 0.7 × 1 × 10− 3 = 16617 . J This work done = change in internal energy (for monoatomic gas, CV , m = 3R / 2 ) , 16617 . ×2 166.17 = nCV , m∆T ⇒ ∆T = ⇒ 13.32 K 1 × 3 × 8.314 28. Equation of cell reaction according to the cell notation given, is Reduction Mg(s) + Cu2+(aq) Mg2+(aq) + Cu(s) Oxidation ° = 2.70 V, T = 300 K Given, Ecell with [Mg 2+ (aq)]=1 M and [Cu 2+ (aq)]=1 M and n= 2 Further, with Ecell = 2 . 67 V [Cu 2+(aq) ]=1M [Mg 2+ (aq)]= xM and F = 11500 KV −1 R where F = Faraday constant, R = gas constant From the formula, 2+ RT [Mg (aq)] ° − Ecell = Ecell ln nF [Cu 2+ (aq)] and After putting the given values RT x 2.67 = 2.70 − ln 2F 1 R × 300 or 2.67 = 2.70 − × ln x 2F − R × 300 −0.03 = × ln x 2F 0.03 × 2 × 11500 0.03 × 2 F or ln x = = 2.30 × = R 300 300 So, ln x = 2.30 or x =10 (as given ln (10) = 2.30) 29. Given, A (s)| A n+ (aq, 2 M ) || B 2n+ (aq, 1 M ) | B (s) So, reactions at respective electrode will be Anode A (s)→ A n+ + ne− × 2 Cathode B 2n+ + 2 ne− → B (s) Overall reaction 2 A (s) + B 2n+ (aq) → 2 A n+ (aq) + B (s) Further, ∆H ° = 2∆G ° and Ecell = 0 is also given Now by using the Nernst equation RT [Product] Ecell = E°cell − ln nF [Reactant] After putting the values RT [ A n+ ]2 ln 0 = Ecell ° − 2nF [ B 2n+ ] or E° = RT [ 2 ]2 RT ln = ln 4 2 nF [1] 2nF …(i) Further from the formula, ∆G ° = − nFE ° ⇒ ∆G ° = − 2nFE ° Now putting the value of E° from eq. (i) RT …(ii) ∆G ° = − 2nF × ln 4 2nF ∆G ° = − RT ln 4 Finally, using the formula ∆ G ° = ∆ H ° − T∆ S ° (as ∆H ° = 2∆G °, given) ∆G ° = 2∆G ° − T∆S ° ∆ G ° = T∆ S ° ∆G ° − RT ln 4 or ∆S ° = = T T (from eq. (ii), ∆G ° = − RT ln 4) = − R ln 4 = − 8.3 × 2 × 0.7 (as all values given) = − 1162 . J/K-mol 168 Electrochemistry 30. Moles of NaCl electrolysed = 4 × 500 = 2.0 1000 ⇒ moles of Cl 2 produced = 1.0 2Cl − → Cl 2 + 2e− Hg 31. At cathode Na + + e− → Na(Hg) Amalgam Two moles of Na formed during electrolysis would produce two moles of Na(Hg) amalgam. ⇒ mass of amalgam = 2 × (23 + 200) = 446 g 32. Two Faraday of electric charge would be required for electrolysis of 2.0 moles of NaCl. ⇒ total coulombs = 2 × 96500 = 193000 C ° . Also, left 33. Since, activities of all the ions are unity, Ecell = Ecell hand electrode is at lower reduction potential, it act as anode and E ° = E ° (Ce4+ , Ce3+ ) − E ° (Fe3+ , Fe2+ ) = 0.84 i.e. electrons will flow from left to right hand electrode and current from right hand electrode [Pt (2)] to left hand electrode [Pt(1)]. [Fe3+ ][Ce3+ ] Also, E = E ° − 0.0592 log [Fe2+ ][Ce4+ ] As electrolysis proceeds, E will decrease and therefore, current. 2 × 10− 3 × 16 × 60 96500 =1.99 × 10− 5 34. The number of Faraday’s passed = ⇒ number of gram equivalent of Cu 2+ deposited = 1.99 × 10− 5 ⇒ number of moles of Cu 2+ deposited = 1.99 × 10− 5 ≈ 10− 5 2 Absorbance is directly proportional to [Cu 2+ ]. Therefore, if ‘C’ be the initial molarity, 0.5 C will be the final molarity. 0.5 C × 0.25 = 10− 5 ⇒ C = 8 × 10− 5 M ⇒ 35. The number of Faraday’s passed = 9.65 × 60 × 60 = 0.36 F 96500 After electrolysis : [Ag+ ] = 1.36 M [Cu 2+ ] = 1 – 0.36 = 0.82 M 2 E1 (before electrolysis) = E ° E2 (after electrolysis) = E ° − ⇒ E1 − E2 = 0.0592 [Ag+ ]2 log 2 [Cu 2+ ] 0.0592 (1.36)2 = 0.01 V (decreased) log 2 0.82 36. Coulombs passed = 8.46 × 8 × 60 × 60 = 243648 C 243648 = 2.52 96500 63.5 Weight of Cu plated = 2.52 × g = 80.01 g 2 80.01 Volume of Cu plated = = 7.62 cm 3 10.5 7.62 = 3000 cm 2 ⇒ Area plated out = 0.00254 Number of Faraday’s passed = 37. Given, FeO (s)/Fe (s) and Ni 2O3 /NiO (s) E° = – 0.87 V E° = + 0.40 V Electrode at lower reduction potential act as anode and that at higher reduction potential act as cathode. (i) Electrodes reaction : Fe(s) + 2OH− → FeO (s) + H2O (l ) E° = + 0.87 V Ni 2O3 (s) + H2O (l ) + 2e− → 2NiO (s) + 2OH− E° = 0.40 V Net : Fe (s) + Ni 2O3 (s) → 2NiO (s) + FeO (s) E° = 1.27 V (ii) Emf is independent of concentration of KOH. (iii) Maximum amount of energy that can be obtained = ∆G ° ⇒ ∆G ° = − nE ° F = – 2 × 1.27 × 96500 J = – 245.11 kJ i.e. 245.11 kJ is the maximum amount of obtainable energy. 1 38. (i) E = 0.78 – 0.0592 log 2 = 0.887 V 8 1 = – 0.0488 V (ii) E = 0.78 – 0.0592 log (10− 7 )2 39. Molar mass of Cr = 52 g 52 g 6 (i) Mass of Cr deposited on passing 24000 Coulombs 24000 52 = × g = 2.15 g 96500 6 1.5 9 (ii) Number of gram equivalent of Cr = ×6= 52 52 9 × 96500 = It ⇒ Coulombs required for 1.5 g Cr = 52 9 × 96500 s = 22.27 min ⇒ t= 52 × 12.5 Equivalent mass of Cr = 40. At anode 2Cl − → Cl 2 + 2e− At cathode 2H2O + 2e− → H2 + 2OH− 1000 1 kg Cl 2 = equivalent of Cl 2 = 28.17 equivalent 35.5 ⇒ Theoretical electricity requirement = 28.17 F Q Efficiency is only 62% ∴ Electricity requirement (experimental) 28.17 × 100 = F = 45.44 F 62 45.44 × 96500 = 25 t (in second) ⇒ t = 48.72 h ⇒ Also, gram equivalent of HO− produced = 28.17 28.17 ⇒ Molarity of HO− = = 1.4085 M 20 41. [Ag+ ] in left hand electrode chamber = = 1.4 × 10− 9 M 2.8 × 10− 10 0.2 [Ag+ ] in right hand electrode chamber = = 3.3 × 10− 10 M 3.3 × 10− 13 0.001 Electrochemistry 169 emf = 0 – 0.0592 log [Ag+ ] anode [Ag+ ] cathode 1.4 × 10− 9 = – 0.0592 log = – 0.037 V 3.3 × 10− 10 Therefore, the cell as written is non-spontaneous and its reverse will be spontaneous with emf = 0.037 V. 1.7 × 230 42. Faraday’s passed = = 4.052 × 10− 3 F 96500 Faradays used for reduction of Zn 2+ = 4.052 × 10− 3 × 0.9 = 3.65 × 10− 3 ⇒ Meq. of Zn 2+ reduced = 3.65 Initial meq. of Zn 2+ = 300 × 0.16 × 2 = 96 ⇒ Meq. of Zn 2+ remaining = 96 − 3.65 = 92.35 ⇒ Molarity of Zn 2+ = 43. NO2 92.35 1 × = 0.154 M 2 300 NH2 46. Q Emf = 0.118 V > 0, it is galvanic cell and anode is negative electrode : At anode : H2 (g ) → 2H+ (10− 6 M ) + 2e− At cathode : 2H+ (x ) + 2e− → H2 Cell reaction : H+ (x ) → H+ (10− 6 M ) Emf = 0.118 V = 0 – 0.0592 log 10− 6 x ⇒ x = 10− 4 M 47. 100 W lamp will produce 100 Js − 1. 10 Coulombs 11 Therefore, total Coulomb passed in 10 h 10 = × 10 × 60 × 60 = 32727.27 C 11 ⇒ 100 J = 110 × C ⇒ C= Number of gram equivalent of Cd 2+ deposited 32727.27 = 0.34 = 96500 112.4 Weight of Cd deposited = 0.34 × g = 19.1 g 2 48. For 1.0 L H2SO4 : 39 = 504.66 g 100 20 Final mass of H2SO4 = 1139 × = 227.80 g 100 Initial mass of H2SO4 = 1294 × Change in oxidation number at nitrogen = 4 − (− 2) = 6 123 Equivalent weight of nitrobenzene = g 6 12.3 × 6 = 0.60 ⇒ gram equivalent of nitrobenzene = 123 ⇒ Theoretical requirement = 0.60 × 96500 C = 57900 C ⇒ Actual requirement of electricity = 2 × 57900 = 115800 C Q V ×C = J ⇒ Energy consumed = 115800 × 3 J = 347.40 kJ 44. If the salt is CuSO4 During deposition of Cu at cathode, O2 (g ) will evolve at anode 0.4 × 2 gram-equivalent of Cu deposited = = 0.0126 63.5 Volume of O2 liberated at NTP at anode = 0.0126 × 5600 mL = 70.56 mL In the next 7 min, H2 at cathode and O2 at anode would be produced. 1.2 × 7 × 60 Faraday’s passed = = 5.22 × 10− 3 96500 ⇒ Volume of H2 (at NTP) = 5.22 × 10− 3 × 11200 mL = 58.46 mL Volume of O2 (at NTP) = 5.22 × 10− 3 × 5600 mL = 29.23 mL Therefore, O2 (g) at NTP = 70.56 + 29.23 = 99.79 mL H2 (g ) at NTP = 58.46 mL 67.2 45. Total number of gram equivalent of H2 used = =6 11.2 ⇒ 6 × 96500 = 15 × 60 × I ⇒ I = 643.33A 63.5 g = 190.50 g Mass of Cu deposited = 6 × 2 ⇒ H2SO4 consumed/litre = 504.66 – 227.80 = 276.86 g ⇒ Total H2SO4 used up = 276.86 × 3.5 = 969.01 g 969.01 mol = 9.888 mol = 98 Q 1 mole of H2SO4 is associated with transfer of 1.0 mole of electrons, total of 9.888 moles of electron transfer has occurred. Coulomb produced = 9.888 × 96500 9.888 × 96500 Ampere-hour = = 265 Ah 3600 0.005 49. Volume of Ag coating = 80 cm 2 × cm = 0.04 cm 3 10 ⇒ mass of Ag coating = 0.04 × 10.5 g = 0.42 g 0.42 = number of Faraday’s ⇒ gram equivalent of Ag = 108 0.42 × 96500 C = 3 × t ⇒ t = 125 s ⇒ 108 9.85 50. Moles of Au deposited = = 0.05 197 ⇒ gram equivalent of Au deposited = 0.05 × 3 = 0.15 Now, according to Faraday’s law of electrolysis, if same quantity of electricity is passed through different cells connected in series, same number of gram equivalents of electrolytes are discharged at respective electrodes. ⇒ gram equivalent of Cu deposited = 0.15 63.5 ⇒ amount of Cu deposited = 0.15 × = 4.7625 g 2 Also, Coulombs passed = 0.15 × 96500 = I × 5 × 60 × 60 0.15 × 96500 ⇒ I= = 0.80 A 5 × 3600 170 Electrochemistry 51. During electrolysis, Ni 2+ will be reduced at cathode and H2O will be oxidised at anode. Number of Faraday’s passed = 3.7 × 6 × 60 × 60 = 0.828 96500 ⇒ 0.828 g equivalent of Ni 2+ will be deposited at cathode. Initial moles of Ni 2+ ion = 2 × 0.5 = 1.0 Moles of Ni 2+ ion remaining after electrolysis = 1.0 – ⇒ Molarity of Ni 2+ 0.828 2 = 0.586 0.586 in final solution = = 1.172 M 0.50 3. NaCl and KCl are strong electrolytes. So, the study of their molar conductances (λ m ) can be experimentally verified by Debye-Huckel Onsagar equation, Λcm = Λ0m − B C Λcm = molar conductance at concentration. Λ0m = molar conductance at infinite dilution. i.e. C → 0 B = Debye-Huckel Onsagar constant. For (both NaCl and KCl) a strong binary electrolyte like AB, the nature of the plot of Λ m vs C will be Λm Topic 2 Conductivity of Electrolytic Solutions and their Measurement and Nernst Equation 1. Key Idea The aqueous solution of ionic surfactant, i.e. – + sodium stearate (C17H35COONa) acts as a strong univalent type of electrolyte in the concentration range below the CMC and the linear function of dependence of Λ m on C has a small negative slope. √C ⊕ Size of Na is being smaller than K ⊕ and Na ⊕ will remain in more hydrated state, i.e. larger sized in aqueous solution. As a result, ionic mobility as well as ionic conductance of Na ⊕ (or NaCl as ClÈ is common to NaCl and KCl) will be lower than K ⊕ (or KCl). Thus, the plot of Λ m vs C for NaCl and KCl is as follows : CMC of Lm on ÖC has a small negative slope. Lm Λm ¾ √C At normal or low concentration, sodium stearate [CH3(CH2)16COO −Na+ ] behaves as strong electrolyte and for strong electrolyte, molar conductance (Λm ) decreases with increase in concentration. Above particular concentration, sodium stearate forms aggregates known as micelles. The concentration is called as CMC. Since, number of ions decreases and hence Λm also decreases. Hence, option (b) is correct. 2. Electrical conductivity of the given aqueous solutions depends on the degree of ionisation. Degree of ionisation is directly proportional to the acidic strength. Electron withdrawing groups (EWGs) increases the stability of the carboxylate ion by dispersing the negative charge through resonance effect on the conjugate while electron donating groups (EDGs) decreases the stability of the carboxylate ion by intensifying the negative charge. O C s O EWG O EDG C s O Acidity of carboxylic acids decreases due to the presence of electron donating groups Acidity of carboxylic acids increases due to the presence of electron withdrawing groups (EWGs) The correct order of acidic strength and electrical conductivity is as follows: HCOOH > PhCOOH > CH3COOH A C B Na KC l Cl √C 4. The explanation of statements (S 1 and S 2) are as follows : In conductivity cell, conductivity (κ ) is equal to the sum of ionic conductances (c), of an electrolytic solution present is unit volume of the solution enclosed by two electrodes of unit area (a ≠ 1) separated by a unit length (l = 1). l κ = c× a ⇒ κ = cwhen l = 1, a = 1 So, with decrease in the concentration of electrolyte, number of ions in the given unit volume also decreases, i.e. κ [conductivity] also decreases. Thus, statement S 1 is wrong. S 2 : Molar conductivity (λ m ) is defined as the conducting power of all the ions present in a solution containing 1 mole of an electrolyte. 1000 λ m = κ × VmL = κ × M where, VmL = volume in mL containing 1 mole of electrolyte m = molar concentration (mol/L) So, in a conductivity cell 1 λm ∝ M i.e. molar conductivity increases with decrease in the concentration (M) of electrolyte. Thus, statement S 2 is correct. Electrochemistry 171 5. Key Idea Gibbs energy of the reaction is related to E°cell by the following formula ∆Gº = − nFE °cell ∆G º = Gibbs energy of cell nF = amount of charge passed E = EMF of a cell Given reaction is, Zn + Cu 2+ → Zn 2+ + Cu Eºcell = 2.0 V F = 96000 C n=2 To find the value of ∆G º (kJ mol), we use the formula ∆G º = − nFE ºcell ∆G º = −2 × 96000 × 2 = −384000 J/mol −384000 In terms of kJ/mol, ∆G º = = −384 kJ/mol 1000 6. According to Kohlrausch’s law, the molar conductivity of HA at infinite dilution is given as, Λ°m (HA ) = [ Λ°m (H+ ) + Λ°m (Cl− ) ] + [ Λ°m (Na + ) + Λ°m ( A − ) ] − [ Λ°m (Na + ) + Λ°m (Cl− ) ] = 425.9 + 100.5 − 126.4 = 400 S cm 2 mol − 1 Also, molar conductivity at given concentration is given as, 8. 1000 × κ M Given, κ = conductivity ⇒ 5 × 10− 5 S cm − 1 Λm = M = Molarity ⇒ 0.001 M 1000 × 5 × 10− 5 S cm− 1 = 50 S cm 2 mol − 1 Λm = 10− 3 M ∴ Therefore, degree of dissociation (α), of HA is, Λ 50 S cm2mol− 1 = 0.125 α= m = ° Λ m 400 S cm2mol− 1 7. According to Nernst equation, Ecell = E °cell − Given, 2.303 RT log Q nF 2.303 RT = 0.059 V F Ecell = E °cell − ∴ 0.059 log Q n At equilibrium, Ecell = 0 0.059 log KC E °cell = n For the given reaction, n = 2 [given] Also, KC = 10 × 1015 0.059 E°cell = log (10 × 1015 ) = 0.472V ≈ 0.473V ∴ 2 Cell Anode (A) Cathode (C) E °cell (SRP) = E °C − E ° A Ag Zn 1. [Zn + 2Ag+ → Zn2+ + 2Ag] 0.80 − (−0.76) = + 156 . V for 2e− + 156 . = + 0.78 V 2 Fe Zn 2. [Zn + Fe 2+ → Zn2+ + Fe] − 0.44 − (− 0.76) = + 0.32 V for 2e− + 0.32 = + 016 . V 2 Au Zn 3. [ 3Zn + 2Au 3+ → 3Zn 2+ + 2Au] 1.40 − (−0.76) = + 2.4 V for 6e− + 216 . = + 0.36 V 6 Fe Zn 4. [ 3Zn + 2Fe3+ → Zn 2+ + 2Fe2+ ] 0.77 − (−0.76) = + 153 . V for 2e− + 153 . = + 0.765 V 2 9. It is an electrochemical cell. The overall cell reaction can be written, as H 2 ( g ) + 2AgCl( s ) → 2HCl( aq ) + 2Ag(s) (1 bar) (10−6 M) (i) According to Nernst equation, 2.303 × RT [HCl]2 [ Ag]2 ° ° Ecell = ( Ecathode − Eanode )− log n×F pH [ AgCl]2 2 ° ° Here, (i) Ec° = EAgCl/ = Ecathode Ag, Cl − ° ° (ii)Eanode = E2H = 0.00 V + /H 2 (Standard hydrogen electrode) ⇒ E°cell free e transfer 0.92 = ( Ec° − 0 ) − 0.06 × log (10−6 )2 × 12 1 × 12 = Ec° + 0.06 × 6 × 2 ⇒ Ec° = 0.92 − 0.72 = 0.20 V Note 10 −6 molal HCl is a very dilute solution. So, 10 −6 m ~ − 10 −6 M 10. The relationship between standard electrode potential (E° ) and equilibrium constant (K ) of the cell reaction, Zn(s)+ Cu 2+(aq) Zn 2+(aq)+ Cu(s) c can be expressed as, RT E° = ln K ⇒ K = enFE ° / RT nF 172 Electrochemistry Given, n = 2, F = 96000 C mol −1 −1 E° = 2 V, R = 8 JK mol Now, molar conductivity κ λm= 1000 × m 1/ 4 1 = = 1000 × 0 .5 2000 −1 T = 300 K ∴ K =e 2 × 96000 × 2 8 × 300 = e160 11. The redox reaction is : Zn(s) + Cu 2+ → Zn 2+ + Cu 2.303 RT log10 2F 2.303RT = 11 . − 2F 2.303 RT Also, ∆G = − nEF = −2F 11 . − 2F The Nernst equation is E = E ° − = − 2.2F + 2.303RT = 2.303RT − 2. 2F 12. Zinc metal is the most stable metal to cover iron surfaces. The process of coating the iron surface by zinc is called galvanisation. 13. Standard electrode potential of reaction [ E° ]can be calculated as o =E − E Ecell R P where, ER = SRP of reactant , EP = SRP of product o If Ecell = +ve, then reaction is spontaneous otherwise non-spontaneous. E ° = 1.51 V 1 → Mn 2+ Mn 3+ Mn ∴ For Mn 2+ E 2° = − 1.18 V → Mn 2+ disproportionation, E° = − 1. 51 V − 1.18 V = − 2. 69 V < 0 Thus, all reaction will not occur. = 5 × 10−4 S m 2 mol −1 16. PLAN When different number of electrons are involved in a redox reaction ° = ∆G °1 + ∆G °2 ∆Gnet − n3FE °3 = − n1FE °1 − n2FE °2 n E ° + n2E °2 E °3 = 1 1 n3 ∴ (P) E3° Fe3+ / Fe Net reaction Fe3+ → Fe is obtained from Fe Fe 3+ 2+ where, λ C = limiting equivalent conductivity at concentration C λ ∞ = limiting equivalent conductivity at infinite dilution C = concentration 15. In order to solve the problem, calculate the value of cell constant of the first solution and then use this value of cell constant to calculate the value of k of second solution. Afterwards, finally calculate molar conductivity using value of k and m. For first solution, k =1.4 Sm −1, R = 50 Ω, M = 0.2 1 l Specific conductance (κ ) = × R A 1 l 1.4 Sm −1 = × 50 A l = 50 × 1.4 m −1 ⇒ A l For second solution, R = 280, = 50 × 1.4 m −1 A 1 1 κ= × 1.4 × 50 = 280 4 + e → Fe n 2+ E° d ° E1 = 0.77 V n1 = 1 − + 2e → Fe n2 = 2 E2° = − 0.44 V 3+ n3 = 3 E3° = ? Q Fe E °3 = − + 3e → Fe n1E °1 + n2E °2 0.77 + 2(−0.44) −0.11 = = = −0.04 V n3 3 3 Thus, P — (3) Net reaction 4 H2O r 4 H+ + 4 OH− is obtained from n 2H2O → O 2 + 4 H+ + 4 e− n1 = 4 2H2O + O 2 + 4 e− → 4OH− + − 4H2O → 4H + 4 e 14. According to Debye Huckel Onsager equation, λC = λ ∞ − B C − E °3 = ? n1E °1 + n2E °2 = E °1 + E °2 n3 Cu → Cu + + e− Cu E3 ° = 2+ − + e → Cu + n 2 E° 0.34 V 1 − 0.52 V E°3 ? n1E1 ° + n2E2 ° 2 × 0.34 + 1 × (−0.52) = = 0.16 V n3 1 Also, Cu → Cu + + e− Cu 2+ + e− → Cu + Cu + 0.40 V n3 = 4 = − 1.23 + 0.40 = −0.83 V Thus, Q — (4) (R) Cu 2+ + Cu → 2Cu + For thus E° of Cu 2+ → Cu + is also required. Cu 2+ + 2e− → Cu 2+ n2 = 4 E° −1.23 V + Cu → 2Cu n n1 = 1, n2 = 1 + E° = − 0.52 + 0.16 = − 0.36 V Thus, (R) — (1) E° − 0.52 V 0.10 V Electrochemistry 173 (S) Cr 3+ → Cr 2+ is obtained from Cr 3+ + 3e− → Cr n 3 E° − 0.74 V 2 + 0.91V 1 ? Cr → Cr 2+ + 2e− Cr 3+ + e− → Cr 2+ IV. In burette acid Weak [(C 2H 5) 3N] V. − 0.74 × 3 + 2 × 0.91 = −0.4 V 1 Thus, S = (2) P — (3), Q — (4), R — (1), S — (2) E3 ° = In flask base Weak Conductivity increases due (CH 3COOH) to formation of ions and then remains constant due to addition of weak base. KX AgNO3 17. The variation is conductivities in general can be seen as : In flask base Curve Strong (NaOH) Conductance first decreases due to formation of H2O and then increases due to addition of strong electrolyte. Volume of acid added II. Strong (CH 3COOH) Weak (KOH) Insoluble salt AgX is formed, hence conductance remains constant. It increases due to addition of KX. 18. The half reactions are Fe( s ) → Fe2+ ( aq ) + 2e– × 2 O2 (g ) + 4H+ + 4 e– → 2H2O 2Fe(s) + O2 (g ) + 4H+ → 2Fe2+ (aq) + 2H2O(l ) ; E = E º– 0.059 (10–3 )2 = 1.57V log 4 (10–3 )4 (0.1) 19. As AgNO3 is added to solution, KCl will be displaced according to following reaction. AgNO3 (aq) + KCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + KNO3 (aq) Conductance I. In burette acid Strong (HI) Curve Conductance increases slightly as NH+4 (salt) is hydrolysed forming HCl. After neutral point, it acid increases rapidly due to addition of strong For every mole of KCl displaced from solution, one mole of KNO3 comes in solution resulting in almost constant conductivity. As the end point is reached, added AgNO3 remain in solution increasing ionic concentration, hence conductivity increases. 20. The net reaction is 1 O2 + Fe → H2O + Fe2+ ; E° = 1.67 V 2 2 × 1.67 × 96500 kJ = – 322.31 kJ ∆G ° = − nE ° F = − 1000 2H+ + 21. The cell reaction is : Conductance Zn + Fe2+ r Zn 2+ + Fe ; Ecell = 0.2905 V ⇒ ⇒ Volume of acid added Weak (CH 3COOH) Strong (KOH) Conductivity decreases due to neutralisation of conducting strong base and then remains constant due to addition of weak acid. Also ⇒ ⇒ 22. In LiCl, NaCl and KCl, anions are same. Cations have same charge but different size. Smaller cations are more heavily hydrated in aqueous solution giving larger hydrated radius and thus smaller ionic speeds and equivalent conductance. Conductance III. 0.059 [Zn 2+ ] log 2 [Fe2+ ] 0.059 0.1 E° = 0.2905 + = 0.32 V log 2 0.01 0.059 E° = log K n 2E ° 0.32 log K = = 0.059 0.0295 K = (10)0.32/ 0.0295 E = E° − ⇒ Weak acid added to strong base Equivalent conductance : KCl > NaCl > LiCl 23. The spontaneous cell reaction is X − + M + → M + X ; E° = 0.11V 174 Electrochemistry 24. E° is an intensive property : (i) Cu 2+ + 2e− 2+ E° ∆G ° = − nE ° F 0.337 V → Cu − – 0.674 F + (ii) Cu + e → Cu 0.153 V – 0.153 F Subtracting (ii) from (i) gives : Cu + + e− → Cu ∆G ° = − 0.521 F = − nE ° F ⇒ E° = 0.521 V Q n=1 25. 2Cu+ (aq) For the cell reaction, ° ° ° ECell = ECu − ECu = (0.52 − 016 . ) V = 0.36 V + 2+ / Cu / Cu+ ⇒ ⇒ ° ∆G ° = − nF ECell ° − RT ln K = − nF ECell E 1 ° ln K = n × × ECell =1× × 0.36 RT 0.025 = 14.4 = 144 × 10−1 º 26. ∴ ∆G º = − nFEcell Here, ∆G º = 17.37 kJ mol − 1 n = number of electrons F = Faraday constant = 96500 C /mol = 17.37 × 1000 J mol − 1 or ln pH 2 ≥ −10 + ln pH 2O or ln pH 2 ≥ −10 + 2.3 log (0.01) (as pH 2O = 1%) ≥ −10 − 4.6 so ln pH 2 ≥ −14.6 M → M 2 + at left hand electrode. M 2+ → M at right hand electrode ⇒ M 2+ (RHS electrode) → M 2+ (LHS electrode) E° = 0 Applying Nernst equation 0.059 [ M 2 + ] at LHS electrode Ecell = 0.059 = 0 − log 2 0.001 [ M 2 + ] at LHS electrode =−2 ⇒ log 0.001 ⇒ [ M 2+ ] at LHS electrode = 10−2 × 0.001 = 10−5 M The solubility equilibrium for MX 2 is MX 2 (s) r M 2+ (aq) + 2 X − (aq) Solubility product, K sp = ][ M 2+ ][ X − ]2 º 17.37 × 1000 = − 3 × 96500 × Ecell 17. 37 × 1000 º Ecell = 3 × 96500 º Ecell = − 0.06 = − 6 × 10− 2 = 10−5 × (2 × 10−5 )2 = 4 × 10−15 [Q In saturated solution of MX 2 , [ X − ] = 2 [ M 2+ ]] 2 × 0.059 × 96500 kJ = − 11.4 kJ 1000 30. M (s) + M + (aq, 1 M ) → M + (aq, 0.05 M ) + M (s) 2.303 RT 0.05 Ecell = 0 − log >0 F 1 Hence, | Ecell | = Ecell = 0.70 V and ∆G < 0 for spontaneity of reaction. 0.0538 31. Ecell = E ° − log 0.0025 = 0.139 V ≈ 140 mV 1 29. ∆G = − nEF = − 27. Given 1 (i) 2Cu(s)+ O 2 (g ) → Cu 2O(s); 2 or 28. For the given concentration cell, the cell reaction are Cu(s)+ Cu 2+(aq) c ⇒ pH 105 + 104 ln 2 ≥ 0 pH 2O 4 10 (ln pH 2 − ln pH 2O) ≥ −105 or ∆G º= −78000 J mol −1 =−78 kJ mol −1 1 (ii) H2 (g ) + O 2 (g ) → H2O(g ); ∆G º= −178000 J mol −1 2 = −178 kJ mol −1 So, net reaction is (By (i)-(ii)) 2Cu(s)+H2O(g) → Cu 2O(s)+H2(g); ∆G =100000 J/ mol or 105 J/mol = 100 kJ mol −1 Now , for the above reaction pH ∆G = ∆G º+ RT ln 2 pH 2O and to prevent above reaction, ∆G ≥ 0 So, pH ∆G º + RT ln 2 ≥ 0 pH 2O After putting the values, pH 105 + 8 × 1250 ln 2 ≥ 0 pH 2O ° >0 32. For spontaneous redox reaction : Ecell 2I− + Cl 2 → 2Cl − + I2 E° = 1.36 – 0.54 = 0.82 V > 0 i.e. Cl 2 will spontaneously oxidise I− . For ° < 0, they are non-spontaneous. In other cases Ecell 33. For the reaction : (i) 4Fe3+ + 2H2O → 4Fe2+ + 4H+ + O2; E° = − 0.46 V (ii) 4Mn 3+ + 2H2O → 4Mn 2+ + 4H+ + O2;E° = + 0.27 V As evidenced above, reaction (i) is non-spontaneous, therefore, Fe3+ is stable in acid solution. However, reaction (ii) is spontaneous Mn 3+ oxidises H2O to O2 and itself reduced to Mn 2+ in acidic medium. 34. Sodium fusion extract from aniline produces NaCN which reacts with Fe2+ to form [Fe(CN)6 ] 4− . The complex ion then reacts with Fe3+ to give blue precipitate of prussian blue. Fe3+ + [Fe(CN)6 ]4− r Fe4[Fe(CN)6 ]3 Prussian blue Electrochemistry 175 35. E° for 2Ag+ + C6H12O6 + H2O r 2Ag(s) 40. Given, + C6H12O7 + 2H+ is 0.75 V 0.0592 2E ° Also E ° = = 25.33 log K ⇒ log K = 2 0.0592 ⇒ ln K = 2.303 log K = 58.35 36. On increasing concentration of NH3 , the concentration of H+ ion decreases, therefore, ° − 0.0592 log [ H+ ]2 = 0 − 0.0592 × 2 log 10− 11 Ered = Ered 2 2 = 0.65 V i.e. Ered increases by 0.65 V. In 2+ + e− → In + 38. The solubility of AgBr in10 M AgNO3 solution is determined as AgBr r Ag+ + Br − S S + 10− 7 In 3+ + 2e− → In + −14 K sp = 14 × 10 In 3+ + e → In 2+ ; ⇒ Now, for : = S (S + 10 ) K w = [H+ ][OH− ] Q K w is a function of temperature, [H+ ] will change with temperature. (b) Let the emf of first cell be X volt. ⇒ emf of 2nd cell = (X + 0.03) volt [Cu 2+ ] in 2nd cell = 0.50 M [NO−3 ] = 10− 7 M ⇒ κ (sp. conductance) = κ Br − + κ Ag + + κ NO − = [8 × 10 −7 × 3 × 10 −3 + 6 × 10 = 0.15 – (– 0.44) = 0.59 V E° = 0.0590 log K E° log K = = 10 ⇒ K = 1010 0.059 Also In pure water, [H+ ] depends on value of K w which is [Ag+ ] = 4 × 10−7 M, −3 3 [Cu 2+ ] in 1st cell = ? −7 × 4 × 10 −3 + 7 × 10 E1 = E1° − −7 × 10 ] 1000 = 24 × 10−7 + 24 × 10−7 + 7 × 10−7 −7 = 55 × 10 S m −1 −7 = 55 (in terms of 10 Sm ) = – 109 – (– 129 + 77) kJ = – 57 kJ Ag | AgCl, Cl − || Ag+ | Ag For K sp ; reaction is AgCl (s) r Ag+ + Cl − ∆G ° = + 57 kJ ⇒ ∆G ° = − RT ln K sp ∆G ° 57 × 1000 log K sp = − =− = − 10 2.3 RT 2.3 × 8.314 × 298 ⇒ E° of Ag+ + Cl − r AgCl Now, ∆G ° 57000 = = 0.59 V nF 96500 (b) The cell reaction is : Zn + 2Ag+ r Zn 2+ + 2Ag; E ° = 1.56 V E° = − 0 = E° − ⇒ ⇒ log 0.059 [Zn 2+ ] log 2 [Ag+ ] 2 2 × 1.56 2E ° [Zn 2+ ] = = 52.88 = 0.059 [Ag+ ] 2 0.059 Moles of Zn added = 6.539 × 10− 2 = 10− 3 65.39 ⇒ Moles of Ag formed = 2 × 10− 3. 2.303 RT [Zn 2+ ] log 2F [Cu 2+ ] 2.303 RT [Zn 2+ ] log E2 = E1° − 2F [Cu 2+ ]2 −1 39. (a) ∆G ° = Σ ∆G °f (products) − Σ ∆G °f (reactants) Cell : Cu 2+ + In 2+ ∆G ° = 0.44 F = – E ° F E° = − 0.44 V → Cu + + In 3+ E ° = E ° (Cu 2+ / Cu + ) − E ° (In 3+ / In 2+ ) −7 [Br − ] = 3 × 10−7 M, ⇒ …(ii) 41. (a) pH = – log [H+ ] S = 3 × 10−7 M Solving for S gives : E° = – 0.42 ⇒ ∆G ° = 0.84 F Subtracting (i) from (ii) ⇒ Ag+ + NO−3 S + 10− 7 10−7 AgNO3 → …(i) ⇒ ∆G ° = 0.40 F 37. NH3 has no effect on the E° of glucose/gluconic acid electrode. −7 E° = – 0.40 ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ 42. At anode 2.303 RT [Cu 2+ ]2 log 2F [Cu 2+ ]1 0.50 0.03 = 0.03 log [Cu 2+ ]1 E2 − E1 = 0.50 = 10 [Cu 2+ ]1 ⇒ [Cu 2+ ]1 = 0.05 M 1 H2 → H+ + e− ; E° = 0 2 AgCl (s) + e− → Ag + Cl − ; E° = ? 1 (i) Cell reaction : H2 + AgCl (s) → Ag + H+ + Cl − 2 (ii) ∆G ° = − nE ° F = ∆H ° − T ∆S ° At 15°C : – 0.23 × 96500 = ∆H ° − 288 ∆S ° …(i) At 35°C : – 0.21 × 96500 = ∆H ° − 308 ∆S ° …(ii) ⇒ 96500 (0.23 − 0.21) = − 20 ∆S ° 96500 × 0.02 ⇒ ∆S ° = − = − 96.5 J 20 Substituting value of ∆S ° in (i) ∆H ° = 288 × (− 96.5) − 0.23 × 96500 = – 49.987 kJ At cathode 176 Electrochemistry (iii) At 25°C − E ° × 96500 = − 49987 − 298 (− 96.5) E° = 0.22 V − AgCl (s) + e → Ag + Cl − ; E° = 0.22 V ⇒ ⇒ Ag → Ag+ + e− ; Adding : ⇒ ⇒ 43. E = 0 − ⇒ 2+ 2Hg + 2Fe3+ r Hg2+ 2 + 2Fe AgCl (s) → Ag+ + Cl − ; K = E° = – 0.58 V = Q E° = [Fe2+ ]2 [Hg2+ 2 ] [Fe3+ ]2 (9.5 × 10− 4 )2 (4.75 × 10− 4 ) = 0.17 (5 × 10− 5 )2 0.0592 log K 2 = E ° (Fe3+ / Fe2+ ) − E ° (Hg22+ / Hg) [Ag+ ]anode 0.10 ⇒ [Ag+ ]anode = 1.7 × 10− 4 M In saturated Ag2CrO4 solution present in anode chamber : Ag2CrO4 (s) r 2Ag+ + CrO24− −4 1.7 × 10 M 1.7 × 10− 4 M 2 K sp = [Ag+ ]2 [CrO24− ] ⇒ E° (Hg2+ 2 / Hg) = 0.77 + 0.0226 = 0.7926 V 48. In a saturated AgI solution; [Ag+ ] = 8.7 × 10− 17 M = 9.32 × 10− 9 M EAg +/ Ag = E ° − 0.0592 log ⇒ 1.7 = (1.7 × 10− 4 )2 × 10− 4 = 2.45 × 10− 12 2 E ° = E ° (Fe3+ / Fe2+ ) − E ° (I−3 / I− ) = 0.77 – 0.54 = 0.23 V 0.0592 E° = log K (n = 2) 2 2E ° 2 × 0.23 = 7.77 log K = = 0.0592 0.0592 K = 5.89 × 107 Q ⇒ 4+ E° = E° (Ce Q ⇒ ⇒ 3+ 3+ / Ce ) – E° (Fe 2+ / Fe ) = 1.44 – 0.68 = 0.76 V E° = 0.0592 log K E° 0.76 log K = = = 12.83 0.0592 0.0592 12 K = 6.88 × 10 46. pH = 14 ⇒ pOH = 0 ⇒ [OH− ] = 1.0 M K sp = 10− 19 = [Cu 2+ ][OH− ]2 ⇒ [Cu 2+ ] = 10− 19 = 10− 19 [OH− ]2 For reaction : Cu 2+ + 2e− → Cu; E° = 0.34 V E = E° − = 0.34 – 0.0592 1 log 2 [Cu 2+ ] 0.0592 log 1019 = – 0.222 V 2 1 9.32 × 10− 9 = 0.324 V Also, for AgI r Ag+ + I− ; E° = 0.0592 log K sp = – 0.95 V Ag → Ag+ + e− ; E° = – 0.799 V AgI + e− → Ag + I− Adding : ⇒ Fe2+ + Ce4+ r Fe3+ + Ce3+ 45. 1 [Ag+ ] = 0.799 – 0.0592 log 2 Fe3+ + 3I− r 2Fe2+ + I−3 44. For 0 0 4.75 × 10 − 4 9.5 × 10 − 4 = − 0.0226 V 0.0592 [Ag + ]anode log 1 [Ag + ]cathode 0.164 = − 0.0592 log 10 − 3 M 5 × 10 − 5 Initial : Equilibrium : E° = – 0.80 V E° = 0.0592 log K sp − 0.58 log K sp = = − 9.79 0.0592 K sp = 1.6 × 10−10 ⇒ 47. For reaction, E° = x AgI → Ag+ + I− ; E° = – 0.95 V = x – 0.799 x = − 0.151 V 49. The redox reaction is Zn + Ni 2+ r Zn 2+ + Ni E° = + 0.51 V 0.0592 ⇒ E° = log K 2 0.51 × 2 log K = = 17.23 ⇒ 0.0592 17 ⇒ K = 1.7 × 10 Such a high value of equilibrium constant indicates that the reaction is almost complete. Therefore, concentration of Zn 2+ in solution will be equal to initial concentration of Ni 2+ ion, i.e. 1.0 M. 50. The galvanic cell is : Cu | Cu 2+ || Ag + | Ag Cell reaction : Cu + 2Ag+ r Cu 2+ + 2Ag; E° = 0.462 V 0.0592 (0.01) log E = 0 = 0.462 − 2 [Ag+ ]2 ⇒ [Ag+ ] = 1.57 × 10− 9 M Electrochemistry 177 H2 O + e− r 51. 1 H2 + HO− ; E° = – 0.8277 V 2 1 H2 + H2O r H3O+ + e− ; 2 2H2O r H3O+ + HO− E° = – 0.8277 V ⇒ 52. At anode Zn → Zn 2+ + 2e− E° = 0.76 V At cathode 2H+ + 2e− → H2 (g ) ⇒ For + Zn + 2H → Zn 2+ ⇒ ⇒ Therefore, the cell reaction is spontaneous. 55. pH = Cα = 10−4 10−4 0.0015 A Also, conductance (G ) = κ l ⇒ α= ⇒ 120 l κ = G = 5 × 10−7 × A 1 E° = 0.00 V + H2 (g ) E° = 0.76 V 0.0592 [Zn 2+ ] log 2 [H+ ]2 2 (E − E ° ) 1 = − log [Zn 2+ ] − 2 log + 0.0592 [H ] E = E° − ⇒ Ecell = 1.113 V > 0 ∆G = − nEF < 0 E° = 0 V E° = 0.0592 log K − 0.8277 log K = = − 13.98 0.0592 − 14 K = 1.04 × 10 . ⇒ (iii) Q − 16.2 = – log (0.1) – 2 pH 1 + 16.2 pH = = 8.6 2 ⇒ ⇒ 56. Energy obtained as one mole X is converted into Y is 193 kJ. 53. For conductivity, the charge carriers are required. In anhydrous state, HCl is not ionised and no charge carrier ions are available, hence bad conductor. However, in aqueous solution, HCl is fully ionised producing H+ and Cl − and conducts electricity. 54. (i) The cell reaction is Zn + Cu 2+ → Zn 2+ + Cu ° = Ecathode ° ° = 0.350 – (– 0.763) = 1.113 V (ii) Ecell − Eanode Q Both Zn 2+ and Cu 2+ are at unit concentrations, E = E ° = 1.113 V = 6 × 10−5 κ × 1000 Λc = C 6 × 10−5 × 1000 = 0.0015 Λc 6 × 10−5 × 1000 0.0015 ∞ = × Λ = α 0.0015 10−4 2 −1 −1 = 600 = 6 × 10 S cm mol H(1s1) Ground state 3s 3p 3d Second excited state of H-atom All are degenerate degeneracy = 9 Energy consumed in converting one mole of M + to M 3+ 96500 J = − nE ° F = 2 × 96500 × 0.25 J = 2 96500 ⇒ 193 × 103 = n ⇒ n = 4 mol 2 11 Chemical Kinetics Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. Consider the following reactions A → P1; B → P2; C → P3; D → P4, The order of the above reactions are a , b , c and d, respectively. The following graph is obtained when log[rate] vs log[conc.] are plotted: [D] 4. For the reaction of H 2 with I2 , the rate constant is . dm 3 mol− 1 s− 1 2.5 × 10− 4 dm3 mol− 1 s− 1 at 327ºC and 10 at 527ºC. The activation energy for the reaction, in kJ mol− 1 is (R = 8.314 JK − 1 mol− 1 ) (2019 Main, 10 April II) (a) 59 (c) 150 (b) 72 (d) 166 5. A bacterial infection in an internal wound grows as [B] log [rate] [A] [C] N ′ ( t ) = N0 exp ( t ), where the time t is in hours. A dose of antibiotic, taken orally, needs 1 hour to reach the wound. Once it reaches there, the bacterial population goes down as dN N = − 5N 2 . What will be the plot of 0 vs t after 1 hour ? dt N (2019 Main, 10 April I) log [conc.] (a) N0 N Among the following, the correct sequence for the order of the reactions is (2020 Main, 6 Sep I) (a) D > A > B > C (c) C > A > B > D (b) A > B > C > D (d) D > B > A > C (c) decomposition of N2 O5 in CCl 4 as per the equation, The initial concentration of N2 O5 is 3.00 mol L−1 and it is 2.75 mol L is −1 after 30 minutes. The rate of formation of NO2 (a) 4167 . × 10−3 mol L −1 min −1 (b) 1667 . × 10 −2 mol L −1 min t(h) t(h) 6. Consider the given plot of enthalpy of the following reaction between A and B. A + B → C+D Identify the incorrect statement. Enthalpy 15 (kJ mol–1)10 (d) 2.083 × 10−3 mol L −1 min −1 5 3. In the following reaction; xA → yB d [ B ] d [ A ] + 0.3010 = log 10 log 10 − dt dt n-butane and iso-butane C2H2 and C6 H6 C2H4 and C4 H8 N2O4 and NO2 N0 N (d) (2019 Main, 9 April II) 20 (c) 8.333 × 10−3 mol L −1 min −1 (a) (b) (c) (d) N0 N (2019 Main, 12 April II) −1 A and B respectively can be t(h) t(h) 2. NO2 required for a reaction is produced by the 2N2 O5 ( g ) → 4NO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) N0 N (b) (2019 Main, 12 April I) D A +B C Reaction coordinate (a) (b) (c) (d) D is kinetically stable product. Formation of A and B from C has highest enthalpy of activation. C is the thermodynamically stable product. Activation enthalpy to form C is 5 kJ mol −1 less than that to form D. Chemical Kinetics 179 7. The given plots represent the variation of the concentration of a reaction R with time for two different reactions (i) and (ii). The respective orders of the reactions are 13. If a reaction follows the Arrhenius equation, the plot lnk vs 1/(RT) gives straight line with a gradient (− y) unit. The energy required to activate the reactant is (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) (2019 Main, 9 April I) (i) (ii) In [R] [R] y unit R (a) (b) − y unit (c) yR unit (d) y unit 14. For an elementary chemical reaction, k1 time (a) 1, 1 (c) 0, 1 A2 time k −1 (2019 Main, 10 Shift II) (b) 0, 2 (d) 1, 0 k1 = 2A , the expression for d[dtA ] is k2 8. For a reaction scheme, A → B → C , if the rate of formation of B is set to be zero then the concentration of B is given by (2019 Main, 8 April II) (a) k1k2[ A ] k (b) 1 [ A ] k2 (c) (k1 − k2 )[ A ] (d) (k1 + k2 )[ A ] (a) 2k1[ A2 ] − k−1[ A ]2 (b) k1[ A2 ] − k−1 [ A ]2 (c) 2k1[ A2 ] − 2k−1 [ A ]2 (d) k1[ A2 ] + k−1[ A ]2 15. Consider the given plots for a reaction obeying Arrhenius equation (0°C < T < 300°C) : ( k and E a are rate constant and activation energy, respectively) (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) k k 9. For the reaction, 2 A + B → C , the values of initial rate at different reactant concentrations are given in the table below. The rate law for the reaction is (2019 Main, 8 April I) [A](mol L−1 ) [B](mol L−1 ) 0.05 0.05 0.045 0.10 0.05 0.090 0.20 Initial rate (mol L−1s−1 ) 0.10 0.72 (a) rate = k [A ][B ] (b) rate = k [A ] [B ] (c) rate = k [A ][B ] (d) rate = k [A ]2[B ] 2 2 2 10. For a reaction, consider the plot of ln k versus1/ T given in the figure. If the rate constant of this reaction at 400 K is 10− 5 s − 1 , then the rate constant at 500 K is (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) Ea I T(°C) II Choose the correct option. (a) Both I and II are wrong (b) Both I and II are correct (c) I is wrong but II is right (d) I is right but II is wrong 16. For the reaction, 2A + B → products When concentration of both (A and B) becomes double, then rate of reaction increases from 0.3 mol L −1 s −1 to 2.4 mol L −1 s −1 . When concentration of only A is doubled, the rate of reaction increases from 0.3 mol L −1 s −1 to 0.6 mol L −1 s −1 . Which of the following is true? (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) (a) The whole reaction is of 4th order (b) The order of reaction w.r.t. B is one (c) The order of reaction w.r.t. B is 2 (d) The order of reaction w.r.t. A is 2 Slope = –4606 ln k 17. The following results were obtained during kinetic studies of the reaction; 1/ T (a) 4 × 10− 4 s− 1 (c) 10 −4 −1 (d) 2 × 10 s 2A + B → Products (b) 10− 6 s− 1 −4 −1 s 11. Decomposition of X exhibits a rate constant of 0.05 µg/year. (b) 25 (c) 40 [B] (in mol L−1) I. 0.10 0.20 6.93 × 10−3 II. 0.10 0.25 6.93 × 10−3 III. 0.20 0.30 1386 . × 10−2 (d) 50 12. The reaction, 2 X → B is a zeroth order reaction. If the initial concentration of X is 0.2 M, the half-life is 6 h. When the initial concentration of X is 0.5 M, the time required to reach its final concentration of 0.2 M will be (2019 Main, 11 Jan II) (a) 7.2 h (b) 18.0 h (c) 12.0 h (d) 9.0 h Initial rate of reaction (in mol L−1 min −1) [A] (in mol L−1 ) Experiment How many years are required for the decomposition of 5 µg of X into 2.5 µg? (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) (a) 20 (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) The time (in minutes) required to consume half of A is (a) 5 (c) 100 (b) 10 (d) 1 180 Chemical Kinetics 18. Which of the following lines correctly show the temperature dependence of equilibrium constant, K , for an exothermic reaction? (2018 Main) In K A B 1 T(K) (0, 0) dC = k[ A ][ B ] dt dC (c) = k[ A ][ B ] 2 dt dC = k[ A ] 2[ B ] dt dC (d) = k[ A ] dt (a) (b) 25. In the reaction, P + Q → R + S , the time taken for 75% reaction of P is twice the time taken for 50% reaction of P. The concentration of Q varies with reaction time as shown in the figure. The overall order of the reaction (2013 Adv.) is ×× ×× ×× C ×× ×× ×× D (a) A and B (c) C and D The rate law for the formation of C is (b) B and C (d) A and D [Q]0 19. At 518°C, the rate of decomposition of a sample of gaseous acetaldehyde, initially at a pressure of 363 Torr, was 1.00 Torr s −1 when 5% had reacted and 0.5 Torr s −1 when 33% had reacted. The order of the reaction is : (2018 Main) (a) 2 (c) 1 factors. Activation energy of R1 exceeds that of R2 by 10 kJ mol− 1 . If k1 and k2 are rate constants for reactions R1 and R2 , k respectively at 300 K, then ln 2 is equal to k1 (2017 Main) ( R = 8.314 J mol − 1K − 1 ) (c) 6 (d) 4 21. Decomposition of H2 O2 follows a first order reaction. In 50 min, the concentration of H2 O2 decreases from 0.5 to 0.125 M in one such decomposition. When the concentration of H2 O2 reaches 0.05 M, the rate of formation of O2 will be (2016 Main) (a) 6.93 × 10−4 mol min −1 (c) 1.34 × 10−2 mol min −1 disappearance of M increases by a factor of 8 upon doubling the concentration of M . The order of the reaction with respect to M is (2014 Adv.) (b) 3 (d) 1 24. For the non-stoichiometric reaction, 2 A + B → C + D, the following kinetic data were obtained in three separate experiments, all at 298 K. (2014 Main) (i) 0.1 M (d) 1 (b) 48.6 kJ mol −1 (2013 Main) (d) 60.5 kJ mol −1 27. Plots showing the variation of the rate constant ( k ) with temperature (T ) are given below. The plot that follows Arrhenius equation is (2010) (a) k (b) k T (2015 Main) 23. For the elementary reaction, M → N , the rate of Initial concentration [A] (a) 53.6 kJ mol −1 (c) 58.5 kJ mol −1 T (a) low probability of simultaneous collision of all the reacting species (b) increase in entropy and activation energy as more molecules are involved (c) shifting of equilibrium towards reactants due to elastic collisions (d) loss of active species on collision (a) 4 (c) 2 (c) 0 changes from 300 K to 310 K. Activation energy of such a reaction will be ( R = 8.314 JK −1 mol −1 and log 2 = 0.301) (b) 2.66 L min −1 at STP (d) 6.93 × 10−2 mol min −1 22. Higher order (>3) reactions are rare due to (b) 3 26. The rate of a reaction doubles when its temperature 20. Two reactions R1 and R2 have identical pre- exponential (b) 12 Time (a) 2 (b) 3 (d) 0 (a) 8 [Q] Initial concentration [B] Initial rate of formation of C (mol L −1s −1) 0.1 M 1. 2 × 10−3 −3 (ii) 0.1 M 0.2 M 1. 2 × 10 (iii) 0.2 M 0.1 M 2. 4 × 10−3 (c) k (d) T k T 28. For a first order reaction, A → P, the temperature (T ) dependent rate constant ( k ) was found to follow the equation : 2000 log k = + 6.0 T the pre-exponential factor A and the activation energy Ea , respectively, are (2009) (a) 1.0 × 106 s− 1 and 9.2 kJ mol − 1 (b) 6.0 s− 1 and 16.6 kJ mol − 1 (c) 1.0 × 106 s− 1 and 16.6 kJ mol − 1 (d) 1.0 × 106 s− 1 and 38.3 kJ mol − 1 29. Under the same reaction conditions, initial concentration of 1.386 mol dm −3 of a substance becomes half in 40 s and 20 s through first order and zero order kinetics Chemical Kinetics 181 ( k1 ) and zero order ( k0 ) of the reaction is −1 (a) 0.5 mol dm (c) 1.5 mol dm −3 −3 3 (2008, 3M) (b) 1.0 mol dm (d) 2.0 mol −1 dm 3 aG + bH → products. When concentration of both the reactants G and H is doubled, the rate increases by eight times. However, when concentration of G is doubled keeping the concentration of H fixed, the rate is doubled. The overall order of the reaction is (2007, 3M) 30. Consider a reaction, (a) 0 (c) 2 (b) 1 (d) 3 31. Which one of the following statement(s) is incorrect about order of reaction? (2005, 1M) (a) Order of reaction is determined experimentally (b) Order of reaction is equal to sum of the power of concentration terms in differential rate law (c) It is not affected with stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants (d) Order cannot be fractional 32. (A) follows first order reaction, ( A ) → product. Concentration of A, changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M in 40 min. Find the rate of reaction of A when concentration of A is 0.01 M. (2004, 1M) (a) 3.47 × 10–4 M min –1 (b) 3.47 × 10−5 M min –1 (c) 1.73 × 10−4 M min –1 (d) 1.73 × 10−5 M min –1 33. In a first order reaction the concentration of reactant decreases from 800 mol/dm3 to 50 mol/dm3 in 2 × 104 s. The rate constant of reaction ins −1 is (a) 2 × 104 (b) 3.45 × 10−5 (c) 1.386 × 10−4 (d) 2 × 10−4 (2003, 1M) 34. Consider the chemical reaction, N2 ( g ) + 3H2 ( g ) → 2NH3 ( g ) The rate of this reaction can be expressed in terms of time derivatives of concentration of N2 ( g ), H2 ( g ) or NH3 ( g ). Identify the correct relationship amongst the rate expressions d [N2 ] 1 d [H2 ] 1 d[NH3 ] =− = dt 2 dt 3 dt d [N2 ] d [H2 ] d [NH3 ] (b) Rate = − = −3 =2 dt dt dt d [N2 ] 1 d [H2 ] 1 d [NH3 ] (c) Rate = = = dt 2 dt 3 dt d [N2 ] d [H2 ] d [NH3 ] (d) Rate = − =− = dt dt dt (a) Rate = − (2002, 3M) 35. If I is the intensity of absorbed light and C is the concentration of AB for the photochemical process. AB + hν → AB* , the rate of formation of AB* is directly proportional to (2001, 1M) (a) C (c) I 2 (b) I (d) C ⋅ I 36. The rate constant for the reaction, 2N2 O5 → 4NO2 + O2 is 3.0 × 10−5 s −1 . If the rate is 2.40 × 10−5 mol L − 1 s − 1 , then the concentration of N2 O5 (in mol L − 1 ) is (a) 1.4 (c) 0.04 (2000, 1M) (b) 1.2 (d) 0.8 37. The half-life period of a radioactive element is 140 days. After 650 days, one gram of the element will reduce to (a) 1 g 2 (b) 1 g 4 (c) 1 g 8 (d) 38. A catalyst is a substance which 1 g 16 (1986) (1983, 1M) (a) increases the equilibrium concentration of the product (b) changes the equilibrium constant of the reaction (c) shortens the time to reach equilibrium (d) supplies energy to the reaction 39. The specific rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the (1983, 1M) (a) concentration of the reactant (b) concentration of the product (c) time (d) temperature 40. The rate constant of a reaction depends on (a) (b) (c) (d) (1981, 1M) temperature initial concentration of the reactants time of reaction extent of reaction Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) 41. Which of the following plots is(are) correct for the given reaction? (2020 Adv.) ([ P ]0 is the initial concentration of P) CH3 CH3 H3C OH + NaBr H3C Br + NaOH CH3 CH3 (P) ( Q) (a) t 1/2 (b) Initial rate k respectively. Ratio 1 of the rate constants for first order k0 [P]0 (c) [Q] [P]0 [P]0 (d) In [P] [P]0 Time Time 42. For a first order reaction, A( g ) → 2B( g )+ C ( g ) at constant volume and 300 K, the total pressure at the beginning ( t = 0 ) and at time t are p0 and pt , respectively. 182 Chemical Kinetics (b) t1/3 (a) In(3p0–pt) Initially, only A is present with concentration [ A ]0 , and t1 / 3 is the time required for the partial pressure of A to reach 1/3 rd of its initial value. The correct option(s) is (are) (Assume that all these gases behave as ideal gases) (2018 Adv.) (d) Time (1984, 1M) increases the average kinetic energy of reacting molecules decreases the activation energy alters the reaction mechanism increases the frequency of collisions of reacting species Numerical Answer Type Questions [A ] 0 49 If 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 90 minutes, 43. In a bimolecular reaction, the steric factor P was experimentally determined to be 4.5. the correct option(s) among the following is(are) (2017 Adv.) (a) The activation energy of the reaction is unaffected by the value of the steric factor (b) Experimentally determined value of frequency factor is higher than that predicted by Arrhenius equation (c) The value of frequency factor predicted by Arrhenius equation is higher than that determined experimentally (d) Since P = 4.5, the reaction will not proceed unless an effective catalyst is used 44. According to the Arrhenius equation, (2016 Adv.) (a) a high activation energy usually implies a fast reaction (b) rate constant increases with increase in temperature. This is due to a greater number of collisions whose energy exceeds the activation energy (c) higher the magnitude of activation energy, stronger is the temperature dependence of the rate constant (d) the pre-exponential factor is a measure of the rate at which collisions occur, irrespective of their energy 2N2 O5 ( g ) → 4NO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) (Take : log 2 = 0.30; log 2.5 = 0.40) (2020 Main, 4 Sep I) 50. Consider the kinetic data given in the following table for the reaction A + B + C → Product Experiment [A] [B] [C] No. (mol dm − 3 ) (mol dm − 3 ) (mol dm − 3 ) Rate of reaction (mol dm − 3s− 1 ) 1 0.2 0.1 0.1 6.0 × 10− 5 2 0.2 0.2 0.1 6.0 × 10− 5 3 0.2 0.1 0.2 12 . × 10− 4 4 0.3 0.1 0.1 9.0 × 10− 5 The rate of the reaction for [ A ] = 015 . mol dm − 3 , . mol dm − 3 is found to [ B ] = 0. 25 mol dm − 3 and [C ] = 015 be Y × 10− 5 mol dm − 3s − 1 . The value of Y is ............ (2019 Adv.) ∆ (2011) (a) the concentration of the reactant decreases exponentially with time (b) the half-life of the reaction decreases with increasing temperature (c) the half-life of the reaction depends on the initial concentration of the reactant (d) the reaction proceeds of 99.6% completion in eight half-life duration 46. The following statement (s) is are correct 60% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately (in minutes) ........... . 51. The decomposition reaction 45. For the first order reaction, (1999, 3M) 1 is linear T (b) A plot of log [X] vs time is linear for a first order reaction, x→ p 1 (c) A plot of log p vs is linear at constant volume T 1 (d) A plot of p vs is linear at constant temperature V (a) A plot of log K p vs (b) a plot of reciprocal concentration of the reactant vs time gives a straight line (c) the time taken for the completion of 75% reaction is thrice the 1 of the reaction 2 (d) the pre-exponential factor in the Arrhenius equation has the dimension of time, T −1 (a) (b) (c) (d) Rate constant In(p0–pt) (c) (1998, 2M) (a) the degree of dissociation is equal to (1 − e− kt ) 48. A catalyst [A ] 0 Time 47. For the first order reaction, 2N 2O 5 ( g ) → 2N 2O 4 ( g ) + O 2 ( g ) is started in a closed cylinder under isothermal isochoric condition at an initial pressure of 1 atm. After Y × 103 s, the pressure inside the cylinder is found to be 1.45 atm. If the rate constant of the reaction is 5 × 10−4 s −1 , assuming ideal gas behaviour, the value of Y is ……… (2019 Adv.) 52. Consider the following reversible reaction, A( g )+ B( g ) - AB( g ) The activation energy of the backward reaction exceeds that of the forward reaction by 2RT (in J mol −1 ). If the pre-exponential factor of the forward reaction is 4 times that of the reverse reaction, the absolute value of ∆Gs (in J mol −1 ) for the reaction at 300 K is ……… . (Given ; ln( 2 ) = 0.7 RT = 2500 J mol −1 at 300 K and G is the Gibbs energy) (2018 Adv.) Chemical Kinetics 183 57. For the reaction : N2 ( g ) + 3H2 ( g ) → 2NH3 ( g ) Passage Based Questions Carbon-14 is used to determine the age of organic material. The procedure is based on the formation of 14 Cby neutron capture in the upper atmosphere. 14 7 N + 0 n1 → 14 6 C + 1 1p 14 C is absorbed by living organisms during photosynthesis. The 14 C content is constant in living organism once the plant or animal dies, the uptake of carbon dioxide by it ceases and the level of 14 C in the dead being, falls due to the decay which C-14 underoges 14 14 − 6 C → 7 N + β The half-life period of 14 C is 5770 yr. The decay constant ( λ ) can be calculated by using the following 0.693 formula λ = . t1 / 2 The comparison of the β − activity of the dead matter with that of the carbon still in circulation enables measurement of the period of the isolation of the material from the living cycle. The method however, ceases to be accurate over periods longer than 30,000 yr. The proportion of 14 C to 12 C in living matter is 1 : 1012. (2006, 3 × 4M = 12M) 53. Which of the following option is correct? (a) In living organisms, circulation of 14 C from atmosphere is high so the carbon content is constant in organism (b) Carbon dating can be used to find out the age of earth crust and rocks (c) Radioactive absorption due to cosmic radiation is equal to the rate of radioactive decay, hence the carbons content remains constant in living organisms (d) Carbon dating cannot be used to determine concentration of 14 C in dead beings 54. What should be the age of fossil for meaningful determination of its age? (a) (b) (c) (d) concentration of C14 in nearby areas. C14 concentration is C1 in nearby areas and C 2 in areas far away. If the age of the fossil is determined to be T1 and T2 at the places respectively then (a) the age of fossil will increase at the place where explosion has C 1 taken place and T1 − T2 = ln 1 λ C2 (b) the age of fossil will decrease at the place where explosion has C 1 taken place and T1 − T2 = ln 1 λ C2 (c) the age of fossil will be determined to be the same T C (d) 1 = 1 T2 C 2 Fill in the Blanks as the rate constant at ......... order reaction. (1986, 1M) 59. The rate of chemical change is directly proportional to ............. (1985, 1M) True/False 60. For a first order reaction, the rate of the reaction doubles as the concentration of the reaction (s) doubles. . A may be termed (1997, 1M) (1986, 1M) Integer Answer Type Questions 61. An organic compound undergoes first order decomposition. The time taken for its decomposition to 1/8 and 1/10 of its initial concentration are t1 / 8 and t1 / 10 respectively. What is the [t ] value of 1 / 8 × 10 ? (log 10 2 = 0.3) [ t1 / 10 ] (2012) 62. The concentration of R in the reaction R → P was measured as a function of time and the following data is obtained : [ R ] (molar) t (min) 1.0 0.0 0.75 0.05 0.40 0.12 0.10 0.18 The order of the reaction is (2010) Subjective Questions 63. 2 X ( g ) → 3Y ( g ) + 2 Z ( g ) Partial pressure of X (in mm of Hg) 55. A nuclear explosion has taken place leading to increase in (− E a / RT ) 58. The hydrolysis of ethyl acetate in ........... medium is a .......... Time (in min) 6 yr 6000 yr 60,000 yr It can be used to calculate any age 56. In Arrhenius equation, k = A exp Under certain conditions of temperature and partial pressure of the reactants, the rate of formation of NH3 is 0.001 kg/h−1. The rate of conversion of H2 under the same condition is .... (1994, 1M) kg /h −1 . 0 100 200 800 400 200 Assuming ideal gas condition. Calculate (a) order of reaction (b) rate constant (c) time taken for 75% completion of reaction (d) total pressure when px = 700 mm (2005, 4M) 64. For the given reaction, A + B → Products Following data are given Initial conc. (m/L) Initial conc. (m/L) [ A ]0 [ B ]0 0.1 0.1 0.2 0.1 0.1 0.1 0.2 0.05 (a) Write the rate equation. (b) Calculate the rate constant. Initial rate [mL–1s –1 ] 0.05 (2004, 2M) 184 Chemical Kinetics Cu (half-life = 12.8 h) decays by β emission (38%), β + emission (19%) and electron capture (43%). Write the decay products and calculate partial half-lives for each of the decay processes. (2002) (i) the order of the reaction with respect to A and with respect to B. (ii) the rate constant at 300 K. (iii) the pre-exponential factor. (1994, 5M) 66. The rate of first order reaction is 0.04 mol L–1s –1 at10 min and 74. The gas phase decomposition of dimethyl ether follows first 0.03 mol L–1s –1 at 20 min after initiation. Find the half-life of the reaction. (2001, 5M) 67. A hydrogenation reaction is carried out at 500 K .If the same reaction is carried out in the presence of a catalyst at the same rate, the temperature required is 400 K. Calculate the activation energy of the reaction if the catalyst lowers the activation barrier by 20 kJ mol −1 . (2000, 3M) order kinetics CH3 — O— CH3 ( g ) → CH4 ( g ) + H2 ( g ) + CO ( g ) The reaction is carried out in a constant volume container at 500° C and has a half-life of 14.5 min. Initially only dimethyl ether is present at a pressure of 0.40 atm. What is the total pressure of the system after 12 min? Assume ideal gas behaviour. (1993, 4M) 75. A first order reaction, A → B, requires activation energy of 70 kJ mol −1 . When a 20% solution of A was kept at 25° C for 20 min, 25% decomposition took place. What will be the percentage decomposition in the same time in a 30% solution maintained at 40°C ? Assume that activation energy remains constant in this range of temperature. (1993, 4M) 65. 64 68. The rate constant for an isomerisation reaction, A → B is 4.5 × 10−3 min. If the initial concentration of A is 1 M, calculate the rate of the reaction after 1 h. (1999, 4M) 69. (i) The rate constant of a reaction is 1.5 × 107 s−1 at 50° C and 4.5 × 107 s−1 at 100° C. Evaluate the Arrhenius parameters A and Ea . (1998, 5M) 1 (ii) For the reaction, N2O5 (g ) → 2NO2 (g ) + O2 (g ), 2 calculate the mole fraction N2O5 (g ) decomposed at a constant volume and temperature, if the initial pressure is 600 mm Hg and the pressure at any time is 960 mm Hg. Assume ideal gas behaviour. 70. The rate constant for the first order decomposition of a certain 76. Two reactions (i) A → products (ii) B → products, follow first order kinetics.The rate of the reaction (i) is doubled when the temperature is raised from 300 K to 310 K. The half-life for this reaction at 310 K is 30 min. At the same temperature B decomposes twice as fast as A. If the energy of activation for the reaction (ii) is half that of reaction (i), calculate the rate constant of the reaction (ii) at 300 K. (1992, 3M) 77. The nucleidic ratio, − 18 reaction is described by the equation 1.25 × 104 K log k (s −1 ) = 14.34 − T (i) What is the energy of activation for the reaction? (ii) At what temperature will its half-life period be 256 min? (1997, 5M) 3 1H to 1 1H in a sample of water is : 1. Tritium undergoes decay with a half-life 8.0 × 10 period of 12.3 yr. How many tritium atoms would 10.0 g of such a sample contain 40 yr after the original sample is collected. (1992, 4M) 78. The decomposition of N2 O5 according to the equation, Sr 90 and its subsequent incorporation in bones. This nucleide has a half-life of 28.1 yr. Suppose one microgram was absorbed by a new-born child, how much Sr 90 will remain in his bones after 20 yr. (1995, 2M) 2N2 O5 ( g ) → 4NO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) is a first order reaction. After 30 min from the start of the decomposition in a closed vessel, the total pressure developed is found to be 284.5 mm of Hg. On complete decomposition, the total pressure is 584.5 mm of Hg. Calculate the rate constant of the reaction. (1991, 6M) 72. At 380° C, the half-life period for the first order 79. In Arrhenius equation for a certain reaction, the value of A and 71. One of the hazards of nuclear explosion is the generation of decomposition of H2 O2 is 360 min. The energy of activation of the reaction is 200 kJ mol −1 . Calculate the time required for 75% decomposition at 450° C. (1995, 4M) 73. From the following data for the reaction between A and B [A], (mol/L) 2. 5 × 10−4 5.0 × 10−4 1. 0 × 10−3 Calculate [B], (mol/L) Initial rate (mol L–1s–1) at 300 K 320 K 3. 0 × 10−5 5. 0 × 10−4 2.0 × 10−3 6.0 × 10−5 4.0 × 10−3 — 6. 0 × 10−5 1. 6 × 10−2 — Ea (activation energy) are 4 × 1013 s −1 and 98.6 kJ mol –1 respectively. If the reaction is of first order, at what temperature will its half-life period be 10 min? (1990, 3M) 80. An experiment requires minimum beta activity produced at the rate of 346 beta particles per minute. The half-life period of 42 Mo 99 , which is a beta emitter, is 66.6 h. Find the minimum amount of 42 Mo 99 required to carry out the experiment in 6.909 h. (1989, 5M) −6 81. A first order gas reaction has k = 1.5 × 10 per second at 200° C. If the reaction is allowed to run for 10 h, what percentage of the initial concentration would have change in the product? What is the half-life of this reaction? (1987, 5M) Chemical Kinetics 185 82. While studying the decomposition of gaseous N2 O5 , it is observed that a plot of logarithm of its partial pressure versus time is linear. What kinetic parameters can be obtained from this observation? (1985, 2M) 85. Rate of reaction, A + B → products is given below as a function of different initial concentrations of A and B [A] mol/L [B] (mol/L) Initial rate (mol L–1 min –1 ) 0.01 0.01 0.005 0.02 0.01 0.010 0.01 0.02 0.005 83. Radioactive decay is a first order process. Radioactive carbon in wood sample decays with a half-life of 5770 yr. What is the rate constant (in yr − 1 ) for the decay? What fraction would remain after 11540 yr? (1984, 3M) 84. A first order reaction is 20% complete in 10 min. Calculate (i) the specific rate constant of the reaction, and (ii) the time taken for the reaction to go to 75% completion. Determine the order of the reaction with respect to A and B. What is the half-life of A in the reaction ? (1982, 4M) (1983, 2M) Answers 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 49. (60) 50. (6.75) 51. (2.3) 52. (+8500J/ mol) 55. (a) 56. T = ∞ 61. (9) 62. (0) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 53. (c) 54. (b) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (b) 57. 0.0015 60. T 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c) 63. (950 mm Hg) 66. (25 min) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (d) 68. (3.26 × 10 −3 mol L −1 min −1) (20.74 min) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (d) 74. (0.75 atm) 29. (a) 30. (d) 31. (d) 32. (a) 77. (5.6 × 10 ) 33. (c) 34. (a) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (a) 79. (311.34 K) (128.33 h) 41. (a) 42. (a,d) 43. (a,c) 44. (b,c,d) 45. (a,b,d) 46. (a,b,d) 47. (a,d) 48. (b,c) 5 82. (128.33 h) 71. (6.1 × 10 −7g) −3 min −1 −1 ) ) 80. (3.56 × 10 −16 g) 83. (0.25) 72. 76. (3.26 × 10 −2 min 75. (67 %) 78. (5.2 × 10 67. (100 kJ mol −1) 81. 85. (1.386 min) Hints & Solutions Given, [N2O5 ]initial = 3.00 mol L− 1 1. We know that, Rate = k (concentration) n [n = order of reaction and k = rate constant] Taking log both side, log (Rate) = log k + n log [concentration] Slope of graph is the order of reaction greater the slope, greater is the order of reaction. ∴Correct sequence for the order of reaction is D > B > A > C. Hence, the correct option is (d). 2. Key Idea The rate of a chemical reaction means the speed with which the reaction takes place. For R → P Rate of disappearance of R Decrease in conc.of R ∆[ R] = =− Time taken ∆t Rate of appearance of P Increase in conc. of P ∆[ P] = =+ Time taken ∆t After 30 min, [N2O5 ] = 2 .75 mol L− 1 2N2O5 (g ) → 4NO2 (g ) + O2 (g ) t= 0 3.0 M t = 30 2.75 M From the equation, it can be concluded that 1 − ∆[N2O5 ] 1 ∆[NO2 ] × = × 2 4 ∆t ∆t 0.25 − ∆[N2O5 ] − (2.75 − 3.00) mol L− 1 ⇒ = 30 ∆t 30 ∆[NO2 ] 0.25 ∆[NO2 ] ∆ (N2O5 ) and ⇒ =− 2 × =−2 ∆t 30 ∆t ∆t = − 1667 . × 10− 2 mol L− 1 min − 1 = 3. In the given reaction; x A → y B − d[ A ] d[ B ] = log10 + 0.3010 dt dt Value of log 2 = 0.3010 log10 186 Chemical Kinetics Substituting 0.3010 by log2 d[ A ] d[ B ] log10 − = log10 + log 2 dt dt Using logarithm rules, 1 d [ A ] d[ B ] − d[ A ] d[ B ] = 2× ⇒− = 2 dt dt dt dt …(i) On comparing the above equation with equation of straight line, y = mx + c 1 We get m = 5N 0, c = − 5N 0 e N0 vs t is shown aside. ∴ Plot of N Using the rate equation (i) to determine the reaction involved is 2A → B Option that fits correct in the above reaction is (c). 2C2H4 → C4H8 . 4. N0 — N t(h) Key Idea The Arrhenius equation for rate constants at two different temperatures is k Ea T2 − T1 [where, T2 > T1] log 2 = k 1 2.303R T1T2 where, k 1 and k 2 are rate constants at temperatures T1 and T2, respectively. R = Gas constant, Ea = Activation energy For the reaction, H2 + I2 → 2HI Given k 1 = 2.5 × 10−4 dm3mol−1s −1 T1 = (273 + 327) K = 600 K k 2 = 1 dm 3mol −1 s −1 at T2 = (273 + 527) K = 800 K Now, log ⇒ log k2 Ea T2 − T1 = k 1 2.303R T1T2 800 − 600 Ea 1 = 2.5 × 10−4 2.303 × 8.314 × 10−3 600 × 800 E (10 × 103 ) 200 = a × 2.5 0.019 48 × 104 ~ E × 0.022 ⇒ log 4 + 3 log10 − ⇒ log a ⇒ 2 × log 2 + 3 3.6 ~ Ea = = – 163.6kJ mol −1 0.022 0.022 5. The expression for bacterial growth is ∫eN 0 t N −2dN = −5 ∫ dt 1 ‘‘Activation enthalpy to form C is 15 kg mol −1 more than 5 kg mol −1 that is required to form D.’’ It can be easily explained by following graph. 20 15 Enthalpy (kJ mol–1) 10 5 Activation enthalpy D A+B C Reaction coordinate Activation enthalpy (or energy) is the extra energy required by the reactant molecules that result into effective collision between them to form the products. 7. In first order reaction, the rate expression depends on the concentration of one species only having power equal to unity. nR → products − d[ R ] = k [R ] dt On integration, − ln[ R ] = kt − ln[ R0 ] or N = N 0et N0 = e− t N From 0 to 1 hour N ′ (t ) = N 0et dN From 1 hour onwards, = −5N 2 dt On differentiating the above equation from N ′ to N we get. N 6. Only statement (d) is incorrect. Corrected statement is ln(R ) = ln (R0 ) − kt y = c + mx m = slope = −k (negative) c = intercept = ln (r0 ) The graph for first order reactions is ln (R) [QAt 1 hour, N ′ = eN 0] 1 1 N − eN = 5(t − 1) 0 Multiply both sides by N 0, we get N0 1 N 1 − = 5N 0 (t − 1) or, 0 = 5N 0 (t − 1) + N e N e N0 1 = 5N 0t + − 5N 0 e N t In zero order reaction, [ R ] → product − d[ R ]t = k or − d[ R ]t = kdt ∴ dt On integrating, −[ R ]t = kt + c If t = 0,[ R ]t = [ R ]0 Chemical Kinetics 187 ∴ −[ R ]t = kt − [ R ]0 10. The temperature dependence of a chemical reaction is expressed [ R ]t = [ R ]0 − kt Thus, the graph plotted between [ r ]t and t gives a straight line with negative slope (−k ) and intercept equal to [ R ]0. The graph for zero order reaction is [R] t 8. K1 K2 A → B → C Rate of formation of B is d[ B ] = k 1[ A ] − k 2[ B ] dt ⇒ ⇒ d[ B ] Q Given, =0 dt 0 = k 1[ A ] − k 2[ B ] k 2[ B ] = k 1[ A ] ⇒ Concentration of B, [ B ] = k1 [A] k2 9. Let the rate equation be k [ A ]x [ B ]y From Ist values, 0.045 = k [ 0.05 ]x [ 0.05 ]y …(i) From 2nd values, 0.090 = k [ 010 . ]x [ 0.05 ]y …(ii) From 3rd values, 0.72 = k [ 0.20 ] [ 010 . ] x y On dividing equations (i) by (ii), we get 0.045 0.05 = 0.09 010 . x 1 x 0.05 0.05 = 010 . . 010 ∴ x =1 Similarly on dividing Eq. (ii) by (iii) we get x 0.09 01 . 0.05 = 0.72 0.2 010 . 0.01 01 . 0.05 = 0.08 0.2 01 . 0.25 = 0.05 010 . y y 0.25 = [ 0.5 ]y [ 0.5 ]2 = [ 0.5 ]y ∴ y=2 Hence, the rate law for the reaction Rate = k [ A ][ B ]2 y …(iii) by Arrhenius equation, k = Ae− E a$ / RT …(i) Taking natural logarithm on both sides, the Arrhenius equation becomes, E ln k = ln A − a RT E where, − a is the slope of the plot and ln A gives the intercept. R Eq. (i) at two different temperatures for a reaction becomes, k E 1 1 …(ii) ln 2 = a − k1 R T1 T2 ⇒ In the given problem, T1 = 400K, T2 = 500 K k 1 = 10− 5 s − 1, k 2 = ? E − a (Slope) = − 4606 R On substituting all the given values in Eq. (ii), we get k 1 1 ln −2 5 = 4606 − 400 500 10 k ln −2 5 = 2.303 10 k2 = 10 ⇒ k 2 = 10− 4 s − 1 10− 5 Therefore, rate constant for the reaction at 500 K is 10− 4s − 1. 11. Given, rate constant (k) = 0.05 µg/year Thus, from the unit of k, it is clear that the reaction is zero order. Now, we know that a half-life (t1/ 2 ) for zero order reaction = o 2k where, ao = initial concentration, k = rate constant 5 µg t1/ 2 = = 50 years 2 × 0.05 µg/year Thus, 50 years are required for the decomposition of 5 µg of X into 2.5 µg. 12. For zero order reaction, [ A0 ] − [ At ] = kt where, [ A0 ] = initial concentration [ At ] = final concentration at time ‘t’ k = rate constant [A ] Also, for zero order reaction, t1/ 2 = 0 2k Given, t1/ 2 = 6 h and [ A0 ] = 0.2 M 0.2 6= ∴ 2k 0.2 1 or, k= = 2 × 6 60 Now, from Eq. (i) [ A0 ] − [ At ] = kt ...(i) 188 Chemical Kinetics Given, [ A0 ] = 0.5 M, [ At ] = 0.2 M 1 ∴ 0.5 − 0.2 = ×t 60 1 0.3 = × t ⇒ t = 0.3 × 60 = 18h 60 a 1 Qk = 60 13. The temperature dependence of rate of a chemical reaction is expressed by Arrhenius equation as, k = Ae− E α / RT …(i) where, A = Arrhenius factor or frequency factor or pre-exponential factor R = Gas constant, Ea = Activation energy Taking log on both sides of the Eq. (i), the equation becomes E ln/k ln k = ln A − a RT On comparing with equation of straight line 1/RT ( y = mx + c), the nature of the 1 plot of lnk vs will be: RT (i) Intercept = C = ln A (ii) Slope/gradient = m = − Ea = − y ⇒ Ea = y So, the energy required to activate the reactant, (activation energy of the reaction, Ea is = y ) 14. The elementary reaction, A2 k1 2A c k −1 follows opposing or reversible kinetics, (i) Rate of the reaction, r = rforward − rbackward = k 1[ A2 ] − k − 1[ A ]2 … (i) (ii) Again, rate of the reaction can be expressed as, r= − 1 d[ A ] d [ A2 ] =+ 2 dt dt Expt 2 ⇒ ∴ ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ r2 2 A B = r1 A B b 0.6 = 2a × 1 ⇒ 21 = 2 a ⇒ a = 1 0.3 From Eq. (i), 1 + b = 3 ⇒ b = 2 Order of the reaction (n) = a + b = 1 + 2 = 3 Order of the reaction wrt. A = 1 Order of the reaction wrt. B = 2 17. Let, the rate expression is r ∝ [ A ]a [ B ] b . From experiment I, r2 0.1 6.93 × 10− 3 5 0.25 =1 × = ⇒ × 4 0.20 r1 0.1 6.93 × 10− 3 a ⇒ 5 1= 4 b b 0 5 5 ⇒ = 4 4 b ⇒ b =0 a From experiment II, ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ So, r3 0.2 0.30 = × 0.20 r1 0.1 b 1.386 × 10− 2 = (2)a × (1.5)0 0.693 × 10− 2 2 = 2a × 1 ⇒ 21 = 2a ⇒ a =1 r ∝ [ A ]1[ B ]0 ⇒ r ∝ [ A ] Order of the reaction (n) = 1 ⇒ Now, let for the 1st experiment, r1 = k ⋅ [ A ] r1 6.93 × 10− 3 ⇒ k= = 6.93 × 10− 2 s− 1 = [A] 0.1 0.693 0.693 t50 = = = 10 s ⇒ k 6.93 × 10− 2 −∆H ° ∆S ° …(i) + RT R Mathematically, the equation of straight line is …(ii) y = c + mx After comparing Eq. (ii) with (i) we get, − ∆H ° ∆S ° slope = and intercept = R R Now, we know for exothermic reaction ∆H is negative (−)ve. But here, −∆H ° is positive Slope = R So, lines A and B in the graph represent temperature dependence of equilibrium constant K for an exothermic reaction as shown below ln k = 15. The Arrhenius equation is, k = A. e− E a / RT where, k = rate constant, A = Arrhenius constant, Ea = activation energy, and T = temperature in K From the equation, it is clear that k decreases exponentially with Ea . So, the plot-I is correct. In the plot-II, k is plotted with temperature (in °C but not in K). So, at 0°C, k ≠ 0 and k will increase exponentially with temperature upto 300°C. Therefore, the plot-II is also correct. 16. For the reaction, 2A + B → products. Let, the rate expression is r ∝ [ A ]a [ B ]b a ⇒ ln K r2 2 A 2 B = r1 A B 2.4 = 2a × 2b ⇒ 23 = 2a + `b 0.3 b ⇒ 3=a+ b b 18. From thermodynamics, So, the rate of appearance of A, i.e. d[ A ] = 2r = 2k 1[ A2 ] − 2 k − 1 [ A ]2 [from Eq. (i)] dt Expt 1 …(ii) A B (0, 0) … (i) 1 T(K) Chemical Kinetics 189 Let order of reaction with respect to CH3CHO is m. Its given, r1 = 1 torr/sec. when CH3CHO is 5% reacted i.e. 95% unreacted. Similarly, r2 = 0.5 torr/sec when CH3CHO is 33% reacted i.e., 67% unreacted. Use the formula, r ∝ (a − x )m Alternative Method In fifty minutes, the concentration of H2O2 decreases from 0.5 to 0.125 M or in one half-life, concentration of H2O2 decreases from 0.5 to 0.25 M. In two half-lives, concentration of H2O2 decreases from 0.5 to 0.125 M or 2 t1/ 2 = 50 min t1/ 2 = 25 min 0.693 −1 k = ∴ min 25 where (a − x ) = amount unreacted or 19. For the reaction, Decomposes CH3CHO( g ) → CH4 + CO r1 a − x1 = r2 a − x2 r1 (a − x1 ) or = r2 (a − x2 )m m so, m d [O2 ] 1 d [H2O2 ] k [H2O2 ] =− = = 6.93 × 10−4 mol min −1 2 dt 2 dt 22. The main conditions for the occurrence of a reaction is proper orientation and effective collision of the reactants. Now putting the given values Since, the chances of simultaneous collision with proper orientation between two species in high order reactions are very rare, so reaction with order greater than 3 are rare. m 1 0.95 = . )m or m = 2 ⇒ 2 = (141 0.5 0.67 23. For the elementary reaction, M → N 20. According to Arrhenius equation Rate law can be written as Rate ∝ [ M ] n k = Ae− E a / RT where, A = collision number or pre-exponential factor. Rate = k [ M ] n R = gas constant, T = absolute temperature Ea = energy of activation − E a1 / RT For reaction R1, k 1 = Ae When we double the concentration of [ M ], rate becomes 8 times, hence new rate law can be written as …(ii) 8 × Rate = k [ 2M ] n …(i) − E a2 / RT For reaction R2, k 2 = Ae …(ii) Rate k [M ]n ⇒ = 8 × Rate k [ 2M ] n On dividing Eq. (ii) by Eq. (i), we get − k2 =e k1 (E a 2 − Ea ) 1 RT ⇒ …(iii) [Q Pre-exponential factor ‘A’ is same for both reactions] ∴ 10,000 J mol − 1 k2 =4 = k 1 8.314 J mol − 1K− 1 × 300 K 21. For first order reaction, k = 2.303 a log t a−x M t = 50 min, a = 0.5 M, a − x = 0125 . 2.303 0.5 −1 ∴ k= = 0.0277 min log 50 0125 . Now, as per reaction As shown above, rate of reaction remains constant as the concentration of reactant (B) changes from 0.1 M to 0.2 M and becomes double when concentration of A change from 0.1 to 0.2, (i.e. doubled). Given, 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2 1 d [H2O2 ] 1 d [H2O] d [O2 ] − = = 2 dt 2 dt dt d [H2O2 ] Rate of reaction, − = k [H2O2 ] dt d [O2 ] 1 d [H2O2 ] 1 …(i) ∴ =− = k [H2O2 ] dt dt 2 2 When the concentration of H2O2 reaches 0.05 M, d [O2 ] 1 [from Eq. (i)] = × 0.0277 × 0.05 dt 2 d [O2 ] or = 6.93 × 10−4 mol min −1 dt [2]n = 8 = [2]3 ⇒ n = 3 w.r.t. each reactant and then writing rate law equation of the given equation accordingly as dC R= = k [ A ]x [ B ] y dt where, x = order of reaction w.r.t A y = order of reaction w.r.t B 1. 2 × 10−3 = k (0 .1)x (0 .1) y 1. 2 × 10−3 = k (01 . )x (0.2) y −3 2.4 × 10 = k (0.2)x (01 . )y 1 0 R = k [ A] [ B] E a 1 = E a 2 + 10 kJ mol − 1 = Ea 2 + 10,000 J mol − 1 ln 1 1 = 8 [2]n 24. This problem can be solved by determining the order of reaction Taking ln on both the sides of Eq. (iii), we get k E a1− E a 2 ln 2 = k1 RT Given, …(i) 25. PLAN Time of 75% reaction is twice the time taken for 50% reaction if it is first order reaction w.r.t. P. From graph, [Q ] decreases linearly with time, thus it is zeroth order reaction w.r.t. Q dx = bk[ P ]a[Q ]b dt Order w.r.t P = a=1 Order w.r.t Q =b=0 Thus, overall order of the reaction = 1 + 0 = 1 26. From Arrhenius equation, log Given, k2 − Ea 1 1 = − k1 2.303 R T2 T1 k2 = 2 T2 = 310 K k1 T1 = 300 K 190 Chemical Kinetics ⇒ For On putting values, ⇒ 1 − Ea 1 log 2 = − 2.303 × 8.314 310 300 ⇒ Ea = 53.603 kJ/mol 35. Rate will be directly proportional to both concentration and 27. According to Arrehnius equation, rate constant increases exponentially with temperature : k = Ae− E a / RT Ea 2.303 RT 2000 Given : log k = 6 − T Comparing the above two equations : log A = 6 ⇒ A = 106 Ea and = 2000 2.303 R log k = log A − Ea = 2000 × 2.303 × 8.314 J= 38.3 kJ mol 38. A catalyst increases the rate of reaction but by the same factor to both forward and backward directions. Hence, a catalyst shorten the time required to reach the equilibrium. −1 …(i) …(ii) 30. Rate ∝ [G ] m [ H ] n Q Rate is double on doubling the concentration of G and maintaining H constant, m = 1, i.e. R ∝ [G ]. Also, when both concentration of G and H are doubled, rate increases by a factor of 8. Here rate is increasing by a factor of 2 due to G (first order in G), therefore, factor due to H is 4. ⇒ R ∝ [ H ]2 ⇒ Overall order = m + n = 1 + 2 = 3 31. Order of a reaction can take any real value, i.e. negative, integer, fraction etc. 32. For first order reaction, 2.303 a 2.303 0.1 log = = 3.46 × 10−2 log t a−x 40 0.025 Rate = [ k ] A = 3.46 × 10−2 × 0.01 = 3.46 × 10−4 ⇒ 4 n ln 2 = 40 s k1 [ A ]0 For zero order reaction t1/ 2 = = 20 s 2k 0 1 [ A ]0 k = = × 1 ⇒ Eq. (ii)/(i) 2 2k 0 ln 2 k 1 ln 2 0.693 ⇒ = = 0.5 = k 0 [ A ]0 1.386 33. For a first order reaction, kt = ln 36. The unit of rate constant (t − 1) indicating that the decomposition 1 1 1 g = × initial amount = × 1.0 g = 2 2 16 29. For first order reaction t1/ 2 = k= intensity, i.e. rate of formation of AB * ∝ C ⋅ I . reaction following first order kinetics. Rate = k[ N2O5 ] ⇒ Rate 2.40 × 10−5 = 0. 8 M = [ N2O5 ] = k 3 × 10−5 560 37. 560 days = = 4 half-lives. 140 Amount of reactant remaining after n-half-lives 28. The logarithmic form of Arrhenius equation is ⇒ N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3 d [ N2 ] 1 d [ H2 ] 1 d [ NH3 ] Rate = − =− = dt 3 dt 2 dt [ A ]0 [A] 1 [ A ]0 1 800 4 ln 2 − 1 ln s k = ln = = 4 t [ A ] 2 × 10 50 2 × 104 = 1.386 × 10− 4 s− 1 34. For any general reaction, aA + bB → cC + dD 1 d [A] 1 d [ B ] 1 d [C ] 1 d [ D ] Rate = − =− = = a dt b dt c dt d dt 39. Specific rate constant of reaction depends on temperature. 40. The rate constant (k ) of all chemical reactions depends on temperature. k = Ae− E a / RT where, A = pre-exponential factor, Ea = activation energy. SN 1 41. (CH3 )3 C Br + NaOH → ( First order reaction) (CH3 )3C OH+ NaBr 0.693 This is first order reaction and for first order reaction t1/ 2 = k So, half-life is independent of initial concentration. Therefore, the plot (a) correct. For first order reaction, (r) = k [ (CH3 )3 C Br ]; P P ln 0 = k x t or ln = − k x t P P0 Hence, plot (b) and (d) are incorrect. For first order reaction, [Q ] = (1 − ekt ) Q = [ P0 ](1 − ekt ) or [ P0 ] Hence, plot (c) is incorrect. 42. Given for the reaction (at T= 300 K and constant volume = V) at t = 0 at t = t at t = t1/ 3 A ( g ) → 2B ( g ) + C ( g ) p0 p0 − x p − 2 p0 = p0 0 3 3 – 2x 4 p0 3 – x 2 p0 3 We can calculate, pt = p0 − x + 2x + x = p0 + 2x p − p0 or 2x = pt − p0 or x = t 2 Now for first order reaction, 1 p0 t = ln k ( p0 − x ) Chemical Kinetics 191 Putting the value of x in the equation, 1 p0 1 2 p0 t = ln = ln k 2 p 0 − pt + p 0 p − p0 k p0 − t 2 or kt = ln 2 p0 or kt = ln 2 p0 − ln ( 3 p0 − pt ) ( 3 p 0 − pt ) ln ( 3 p0 − pt ) = − kt + ln 2 p0 or It indicates graph between ln (3p0 − pt ) vs ‘t’ will be a straight line with negative slope , so option (a) is correct t1/3 = 1 p0 1 = ln 3 ln k p0 / 3 k 43. If steric factor is considered, the corrected Arrhenius equation will be k= where A = frequency factor by Arrhenius. Q p > 1, pA > A hence, (a) is correct. Activation energy is not related to steric factor. 44. Rate constant, k = Ae− E a / RT where, Ea = activation energy and A = pre-exponential factor (a) If Ea is high, it means lower value of k hence, slow reaction. Thus, incorrect. (b ) On increasing temperature, molecules are raised to higher energy (greater than Ea ), hence number of collisions increases. Thus, correct. E d (log k ) E (c) log k = log A − a ⇒ = a2 RT dT RT Thus, when Ea is high, stronger is the temperature dependence of the rate constant. Thus, correct. (d) Pre-exponential factor (A) is a measure of rate at which collisions occur. Thus, correct. concentration of reactant remaining after time t is given by [A] [ A ] = [ A ] 0 e– kt Therefore, concentration of reactant t decreases exponentially with time. (b) Rise in temperature increases rate constant (k) and therefore decreases half-life (t1/ 2) as ln 2 t 1/ 2 = k (c) Half-life of first order reaction is independent of initial concentration. (d) For a first order reaction, if 100 moles of reactant is taken initially, after n half-lives, reactant remaining is given by ⇒ n i.e. log [ X ] vs ‘t’ will give a straight line. Also at constant temperature, pV = constant 1 ⇒ Plot of p vs will give a straight line. V kt = ln 8 1 = 100 = 0.3906 2 A reacted = 100 – 0.3906 = 99.6% 1 1−α where, α = degree of dissociation. 1 − α = e− kt ⇒ α = 1 − e− kt ⇒ Also ekt 1 , i.e. plot of reciprocal of concentration of = [ A ] [ A ]0 reactant vs time will be exponential. 1 100 2 ln 2 Time for 75% = ln = = 2 (t1/ 2 ) k k 100 − 75 The Arrhenius equation is : Ea RT The dimensions of k and A must be same. For first order reaction, dimensions of k is t − 1. ln k = ln A − 48. A catalyst lowers the activation energy by enabling the reaction to continue through an alternative path, i.e. catalyst changes the reaction mechanism. However, catalyst does not affect either average kinetic energies of reactants or the collision frequency. 49. Given, first order reaction, t75 = 90 minute t60 = ? Consider the following reaction, A → B (Reactant) Time, t15% = 90 min 45. (a) For a first order reaction, the 1 % A = 100 2 ∆H 2.3 RT ⇒ Plot of log K p vs 1/ T will be a straight line. For the first order reaction X → P [ X ]0 kt kt , log = ⇒ log [ X ] = log [ X 0 ] − 2.3 [ X ] 2.3 log K p = constant − 47. For a first order reaction : It indicates t1/ 3 is independent of initial concentration so, option (b) is incorrect. Likewise, rate constant also does not show its dependence over initial concentration. Thus, graph between rate constant and [ A ]0 will be a straight line parallel to X-axis. −Ea pAe RT 46. Equilibrium constant is related to temperature t 60% = ? (Product) t = 0 100 (100 − 75) = 25 (100 − 60) = 40 For first order reaction, 2 . 303 a0 a0 = Initial concentration t= log a a = Concentration k For 75%, t75% = 2 . 303 100 Initial conc.= 100 log …(i) Conc. = 100 − 75 = 25 25 k For 60%, t60% = 2 . 303 100 Initial conc.= 100 log …(ii) Conc. = 100 − 60 = 40 40 k On equating Eqs. (i) and (ii), 2 . 303 100 log 40 t60% k = t75% 2 . 303 100 log 25 k 192 Chemical Kinetics 0.3979 t60% = t75% × 0.602 t60% t60° 52. For the reaction, 0.3979 = 90 × 0.602 = 59.48 minute ≈ 60 min 50. Rate = k [ A ]x[ B ]y[C ]z - AB(g ) Af A f = 4 Ab or Ea b − Ea f = 2RT or Ab =4 − E a f / RT k f = Af e ⇒ y=0 6 × 10−5 (Rate)1 [ 0.2 ]x [ 01 . ]y [ 01 . ]z = = z x y (Rate)3 [ 0.2 ] [ 01 . × 10−4 . ] [ 0.2 ] 12 ⇒ z =1 (Rate)1 [ 0.2 ]x [ 01 . ]y [ 01 . ]z 6 × 10−5 = = (Rate)4 [ 0.3 ]x [ 01 . ]y [ 01 . ]2 9 × 10−5 Likewise, rate constant for backward reaction, − E ab / RT k b = Ab e At equilibrium, Rate of forward reaction = Rate of backward reaction kf i.e., k f = k b or = k eq kb − E a f / RT ⇒ x =1 So, rate = k [ A ]1[C ]1 k eq = so Af e − E ab / RT Ab e = Af Ab − (E a f − E ab ) / RT e After putting the given values From exp-Ist, Rate = 6.0 × 10−5 mol dm −3 s −1 k eq = 4 e2 (as Ea b − Ea f = 2RT and 6.0 × 10−5 = k [ 0.2 ]1[ 01 . ]1 Now, k = 3 × 10−3 Af Ab = 4) ∆G ° = − RT ln K eq = − 2500 ln(4 e2 ) = − 2500 (ln 4 + ln e2 ) = − 2500 (1.4 + 2) [ A ] = 015 . mol dm −3 = − 2500 × 3.4 = − 8500J/mol Absolute value = 8500 J/mol [ B ] = 0.25 mol dm −3 [C ] = 015 . mol dm −3 53. Living plants maintain an equilibrium between the absorption of ∴Rate = (3 × 10−3 ) × [ 015 . ]1[ 0.25 ]0[ 015 . ]1 = 3 × 10−3 × 015 . × 015 . −5 Rate = 6.75 × 10 mol dm −3 s −1 Thus, Y = 6.75 51. At constant V , T ∆ 2N 2O 5 (g ) → 2N 2O 4 (g ) + O 2 (g ) At initial t = 0 1 t = Y × 103 sec 1 − 2 p A (g ) + B (g ) Ea b = Ea f + 2RT Now, rate constant for forward reaction, (Rate)1 [ 0.2 ]x [ 01 . ]y [ 01 . ]z 6 × 10−5 = = x y (Rate)2 [ 0.2 ] [ 0.2 ] [ 01 . ]z 6 × 10−5 Given, Given Further 0 0 2p p pTotal = 1 − 2 p + 2 p + p 1. 4 = 1 + p p = 0.45 atm According to first order reaction, 2.303 pi log k= t pi − 2 p pi = 1atm (given) 2 p = 2 × 0.45 = 0.9 atm On substituting the values in above equation, 1 2k ⋅ t = 2.303 log 1 − 0.9 1 −4 3 2 × 5 × 10 × y × 10 = 2.303 log 01 . y = 2.303 = 2.3 Note Unit of rate constant (k ), i.e. s−1 represents that it is a first order reaction. C14 (produced due to cosmic radiation) and the rate of decay of C14 present inside the plant. This gives a constant amount of C14 per gram of carbon in a living plant. 54. Fossil whose age is closest to half-life of C-14 (5770 yr) will yield the most accurate age by C-14 dating. N 55. λT = ln 0 N where N 0 = Number of C14 in the living matter and N = Number of C14 in fossil. Due to nuclear explosion, amount of C14 in the near by area increases. This will increase N 0 because living plants are still taking C-14 from atmosphere, during photosynthesis, but N will not change because fossil will not be doing photosynthesis. ⇒ T (age) determined in the area where nuclear explosion has occurred will be greater than the same determined in normal area. C C C 1 Also, λT1 = ln 1 ⇒ λT2 = ln 2 ⇒ T1 − T2 = = ln 1 C C C2 λ C = Concentration of C-14 in fossil. 56. k = A e− Ea / RT : At T = ∞ , k = A 57. − 1 d [ H2 ] 1 d [ NH3 ] = 3 dt 2 dt ⇒ − d [ H2 ] 3 d [ NH3 ] 3 = × 0.001 = 0.0015 kg h − 1 . = dt 2 dt 2 58. acidic, first or basic, second. 59. Rate is directly proportional to concentration of reactants. Chemical Kinetics 193 60. R ∝ [Reactant] 100T 100 = × 12.8 = 33.68 h 38 38 T2 = 2T1 = 67.36 h 38T1 38 × 33.68 T3 = = = 29.76 h 43 43 ⇒ T1 = On doubling the concentration of reactant, rate would be double. [ A ]0 61. For a first order process kt = ln [A] where, [ A ]0 = initial concentration. [ A ] = concentration of reactant remaining at time “t”. [ A ]0 …(i) kt1/ 8 = ln = ln 8 ⇒ [ A ]0 / 8 [ A ]0 and …(ii) kt1/ 10 = ln = ln 10 [ A ]0 /10 t1/ 8 ln 8 Therefore, = = log 8 = 3 log 2 = 3 × 0.3 = 0.9 t1/ 10 ln 10 t1/ 8 × 10 = 0.9 × 10 = 9 ⇒ t1/ 10 66. R = k [ A ] ⇒ R1 = k [ A ]1 and R2 = k [ A ]2 R1 4 [ A ]1 ⇒ = = R2 3 [ A ]2 4 ln 2 [ A ]1 4 Also k (t2 − t1 ) = ln × 10 = ln = ln ⇒ t1/ 2 3 [ A ]2 3 10 log 3 3 ⇒ t1/ 2 = = = 25 min log 4 − log 3 0.6 − 0.48 67. k 500 = A e− E1 / RT1 62. Rate of reaction is constant with time. Q 63. (a) Partial pressure becomes half of initial in every 100 min, ⇒ therefore, order = 1. 800 (b) k × 100 = ln = ln 2 ⇒ k = 6.93 × 10−3 min − 1 400 (c) For 75% reaction; time required = 2 × half-life = 200 min (d) 2 X (g ) → 3Y (g ) + 2 Z (g ) 800 − x (3 / 2 ) x a (Rate)1 0.05 1 1 = = = ⇒ a = 1; order w.r.t A. (Rate)2 0.10 2 2 64 38% k1 19% 64 → 29 Cu k2 29 Cu 64 + 0 + 0 + 1β + 0 − 1e Rate = k [ A ] = 4.5 × 10− 3 × 0.76 ⇒ = 3.42 × 10−3 mol L−1 min −1 k 2 Ea T2 − T1 = k1 R T1T2 Ea RT 22 × 1000 7 At 50°C : ln A = ln (1.5 × 10 ) − = 8.33 8.314 × 323 ln k = ln A − Also − 1β → ⇒ 4.5 × 107 Ea 50 ⇒ ln = ⇒ Ea = 22 kJ 1.5 × 107 8.314 323 × 373 (a) Rate = k [ A ] Rate 0.05 (b) k = = = 0.5 s− 1 [ A ] 0.10 29 Cu ⇒ 43% → k3 30Zn E2 T2 400 4 = = = E1 T1 500 5 E1 = E2 + 20000 J E1 − 20,000 4 = ⇒ E1 = 100,000 J = 100 kJ mol −1 E1 5 [ A ]0 kt = ln [A] 1 4.5 × 10− 3 × 60 = ln ⇒ [ A ] = 0.76 M [A] 69. (i) ln Order w.r.t B = 0 65. Also 68. 3 x 2 Also 800 − x = 700 ⇒ x = 100 3 ⇒ Total pressure = 800 + × 100 = 950 mm Hg 2 64. k 500 = k 400 E1 E = 2 ⇒ RT1 RT2 x Total pressure = 800 + k 400 = A e− E 2 / RT2 64 ⇒ 64 28 Ni A = 4.15 × 103 s− 1 (ii) N2O5 (g ) → 2NO2 (g ) + 64 28 Ni 600 − p 64 Above are the parallel reactions occurring from Cu . k 1 38 T k 1 38 T3 = = 2 = 2 and = = k 2 19 T1 k 3 43 T1 T1 , T2 and T3 are the corresponding partial half-lives. Also k = k1 + k2 + k3 ln 2 ln 2 ln 2 ln 3 ⇒ = + + T T1 T2 T3 1 1 43 1 1 1 1 = + + = + + ⇒ T T1 T2 T3 T1 2T1 38T1 100 1 1 43 1 38 + 19 + 43 = = 1 + + = 38T1 38 T1 2 38 T1 2p 1 O2 (g ) 2 p/ 2 3 Total pressure = 960 = 600 + p ⇒ p = 240 mm 2 ⇒ Partial pressure of N2O5 (g ) remaining = 600 – 240 = 360 mm 360 = 0.375 ⇒ Mole fraction = 960 70. (i) The Arrhenius equation is log k = log A − Ea 2.303 RT Comparing with the given equation : Ea 1.25 × 104 = ⇒ Ea = 239.33 kJ mol −1 2.303 R 194 Chemical Kinetics (ii) When half-life = 256 min, ln 2 0.693 − 1 k= = s = 4.5 × 10− 5 s− 1 t1/ 2 256 × 60 74. CH3 O CH3 (g ) → CH4 (g ) + H2 (g ) + CO (g ) At 12 min : 0.40 − p 1.25 × 104 = 14.34 – log 4.5 × 10− 5 = 16.68 T 1.25 × 104 ⇒ T = = 669 K 16.68 ⇒ 71. k t = ln k∝ k ln k ⇒ ln t1/ 2 ⇒ (450° C) = ln (380° C) 1 t1/ 2 t1/ 2 (380° C) Ea 450 − 380 = t1/ 2 (450° C) R 727 × 653 200 × 103 360 70 × = 3.54 = (450° C) 8.314 727 × 653 ⇒ t1/ 2 (450°C) =10.37 min ⇒ Time for 75% reaction at 450°C = 2 × t1/ 2 = 2 × 10.37 = 20.74 min k kB (ii) B → Product ⇒ m = 2, order w.r.t. A Now comparing the data of experiment number 1 and 2 : 2 n 8 = (2)2 (2)n ⇒ n = 1, order w.r.t. B. ⇒ (i) Order with respect to A = 2, order with respect to B = 1. (ii) At 300 K, R = k [ A ]2 [ B ] k= ⇒ 15 70 × 1000 15 k (40° C) Ea × = 1.35 = = 8.314 298 × 313 k (25° C) R 298 × 313 k (40° C) ⇒ = 3.87 k (25° C) 1 100 1 4 Also k (25°C) = = ln ln 20 75 20 3 ⇒ k (40° C) = 3.87 × k (25°C) 1 4 = 3.87 × ln = 55.66 × 10− 3 min − 1 20 3 100 Now k (40°C) × 20 = ln 100 − x 100 55.66 × 10− 3 × 20 = ln ⇒ ⇒ x = 67% 100 − x 75. ln m R2 4 × 10−3 5 × 10− 4 6.0 × 10− 5 = = R1 5 × 10− 4 2.5 × 10− 4 3.0 × 10− 5 R 5.0 × 10− 4 = 2 [ A ] [ B ] (2.5 × 10− 4 )2 (3.0 × 10− 5 ) = 2.66 × 108 s− 1 L2 mol −2 (iii) From first experiment : Rate (320 K) = k (320 K) (2.5 × 10− 4 )2 (3.0 × 10− 5 ) 2 × 10−3 ⇒ k (320 K) = (2.5 × 10− 4 )2 (3.0 × 10− 5 ) = 9300 R ln 2 = 53.6 kJ E (i ) = a = 26.8 kJ ⇒ Ea (ii) 2 At 310 K t1/ 2 (i) = 30 min Q Rate of (ii) = 2 rate of (i) ⇒ t1/ 2 (ii) = 15 min Now for reaction (ii) : t1/ 2 (300) Ea (ii ) k (310) 10 ln B = = ln R 300 × 310 t1/ 2 (310) k B (300) ⇒ Ea (i) ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ 1.066 × 109 Ea 20 ln = 2.66 × 108 8.314 300 × 320 ⇒ At 300 K : ln (2.66 × 108 ) = ln A − Solving : 55.42 × 103 8.314 × 300 ln A = 41.62 ⇒ A = 1.2 × 1018 10 20 × 2 × 6 × 1023 = × 1023 8 3 N (1 H1 ) 20 × 1023 1+ = N (1 H3 ) 3N (1 H3 ) N (1 H3 + 1H1 ) = k (320 K) Ea T2 − T1 ln = k (300 K) R T1T2 Now t (300) ln 2 ⇒ t1/ 2 (300) = 21.2 min ln 1/ 2 = 2 15 ln 2 0.693 k B (300) = = = 3.26 × 10− 2 min − 1 t1/ 2 21.2 77. Initially : ⇒ Ea = 55.42 kJ mol −1 E ln k = ln A − a RT 10 Ea = ln 2 R 300 × 310 For (i) = 1.066 × 109 s− 1 L2 mol − 2. ⇒ p A Product 76. (i) A → 73. Comparing the data of experiment number 2 and 3 : R3 1.6 × 10− 2 1.0 × 10− 3 = = R2 4 × 10− 3 5 × 10− 4 p ⇒ Total pressure = 0.4 + 2p = 0.4 + 2 × 0.175 = 0.75 atm w0 ln 2 10− 6 g ⇒ ⇒ w = 6.1 × 10− 7 g × 20 = ln w 28.1 w 72. For 1st order reaction : p Total pressure = 0.4 + 2p 0.40 ln 2 Also k × 12 = ln = × 12 = 1.77 ⇒ p = 0.175 0.40 − p 14.5 1+ 1 20 × 1023 = ≈ 1.25 × 1017 − 18 8 × 10 3N (1 H3 ) ⇒ N (1 H 3 ) = ⇒ kt = ln ⇒ 20 × 1023 = 5.33 × 106 3 × 1.25 × 1017 N0 5.33 × 106 ln 2 × 40 = ln ⇒ 12.3 N N N = 5.6 × 105 Chemical Kinetics 195 78. For the reaction : 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2 If p0 is the initial pressure, the total pressure after completion of 5 reaction would be p0. 2 5 584.5 = p0 ⇒ p0 = 233.8 mm ⇒ 2 Let the pressure of N2O5 decreases by ‘p’ amount after 30 min. Therefore, 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2 p0 − p At 30 min : Total pressure = p0 + 2p 3 p = 284.5 2 p 2 2 (284.5 − 233.8) = 33.8 3 p0 kt = ln p0 − p 1 233.8 k= ln min − 1 = 5.2 × 10− 3 min − 1 30 233.8 − 33.8 ⇒ p= Now, ⇒ 79. Arrhenius equation is : Ea 2.303 RT ln 2 0.693 when t1/ 2 = 10 min, k = = = 1.115 × 10− 3 s− 1 t1/ 2 10 × 60 Ea A 4 × 1013 = log A − log k = log = log ⇒ 2.303 RT k 1.115 × 10− 3 log k = log A − = 16.54 Ea 98.6 × 1000 = = 311.34 K ⇒T = 2.303 R × 16.54 2.303 × 16.54 × 8.314 80. The minimum rate of decay required after 6.909 h is 346 particles min − 1. Rate = kN ⇒ Rate 346 × 66.6 × 60 ⇒ N = = = 1.995 × 106 atoms k 0.693 N ln 2 N kt = ln 0 ⇒ ⇒ × 6.909 = ln 0 = 0.0715 N 66.6 N N0 = 1.074 ⇒ N ⇒ N 0 = 1.074 × N = 1.074 × 1.995 × 106 = 2.14 × 106atoms of Mo ⇒ Mass of Mo required = 2.14 × 106 × 99 = 3.56 × 10− 16 g 6.023 × 1023 81. k = 1.5 × 10− 6 s− 1 kt = ln ⇒ ln 100 100 − x 100 = 1.5 × 10− 6 s− 1 × 10 × 60 × 60 s = 0.0054 100 − x ⇒ 100 = 1.055 100 − x ⇒ x = 5.25% reactant is converted into product. 0.693 ln 2 Half-life = = = 462000 s = 128.33 h k 1.5 × 10− 6 [ A ]0 82. For a first order process : ln = kt ⇒ ln [ A ] = ln [ A ]0 − kt [A] If the reactant is in gaseous state [ A ]0 and kt1/ 10 − ln = ln 10 [ A ]0 / 10 t ln 8 Therefore, 1/ 8 = = log 8 = 3 log 2 = 3 × 0.3 = 0.9 t1/ 10 ln 10 t1/ 8 ⇒ × 10 = 0.9 × 10 = 9 t1/ 10 …(ii) …(i) ln p = ln p0 − kt where p is the partial pressure of reactant remaining unreacted at instant ‘t’ and p0 is its initial partial pressure. Also, from equation (i), ln p vs t would give a straight line. Therefore, decomposition of N2O5 following first order kinetics. ln 2 0.693 − 1 83. k = = yr = 1.2 × 10− 4 yr − 1 t1/ 2 5770 1 ln 2 1 Also kt = ln = × 11540 = ln 4 ⇒ f = = 0.25 f 5770 4 84. For a first order reaction, kt = ln [ A ]0 [A] where [ A ]0 = Initial concentration of reactant [ A ] = Concentration of reactant remaining unreacted at time t. 1 [ A ]0 1 100 1 5 (i) ⇒ k = ln = = ln ln t [ A ] 10 100 − 20 10 4 2.303 (log 5 − 2 log 2) = min − 1 = 0.023 min –1 10 1 100 2 ln 2 2 × 0.693 (ii) t = ln = = = 60 min k k 25 0.023 85. Looking at the rate data of experiment number 1 and 2 indicates that rate is doubled on doubling concentration of A while concentration of B is constant. Therefore, order with respect to A is 1. Similarly, comparing data of experiment number 1 and 3, doubling concentration of B, while concentration of A is constant, has no effect on rate. Therefore, order with respect to B is zero. Rate = k [ A ] ⇒ 0.005 0.693 k= = 0.5 min − 1 = ⇒ t1/ 2 0.010 0.693 ⇒ t1/ 2 = = 1.386 min 0.5 12 Nuclear Chemistry Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. Bombardment of aluminium by α-particle leads to its artificial disintegration in two ways, (i) and (ii) as shown. Products X , Y (2011) and Z respectively, are 27 13Al 30 15P (ii) Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) 9. In the decay sequence. 238 92 U 30 14Si +X 2. A positron is emitted from (b) x2 is β − 23 11 Na. (c) x1 will deflect towards negatively charged plate (d) x3 is γ-ray 10. A plot of the number of neutrons (n) against the number of protons (p) of stable nuclei exhibits upward deviation from linearity for atomic number, Z > 20. For an unstable nucleus having n/p ratio less than 1, the possible mode(s) of decay is (2016 Adv.) (are) (b) 22/11 (d) 23/12 23 Na is the more stable isotope of Na. Find out the process by which 24 11 Na can undergo radioactive decay. (2003, 1M) − (a) β -emission (b) α-emission (c) β + -emission (d) K-electron capture 4. The number of neutrons accompanying the formation of 139 54 Xe 235 92 U, and 94 38 Sr from the absorption of a slow neutron by followed by nuclear fission is (1999, 2M) 27 13 Al (b) 2 is a stable isotope. (c) 1 29 13 Al (a) α-emission (c) positron emission (d) 3 (1996, 1M) (1984, 1M) (a) Ge77 32 (b) As77 33 (c) Se77 34 (d) Se78 34 8. If uranium (mass number 238 and atomic number 92) emits an α-particle, the product has mass number and atomic number (1981, 1 M) (b) 234 and 90 (d) 236 and 90 (d) β + -decay (positron emission) 9 4 Be + X → 84 Be + Y (2013 Adv.) (b) ( p, D) (d) (γ , p) (c) (n, D) 12. Decrease in atomic number is observed during (a) alpha emission (c) positron emission (1998, 2M) (b) beta emission (d) electron capture 13. The nuclear reactions accompanied with emission of neutron(s) are (b) definitely beta rays (d) either alpha rays or beta rays 7. An isotope of Ge76 32 is (c) neutron emission X and Y are as seen after deflection by a magnet in one direction,(1984, are 1M) (a) definitely alpha rays (c) both alpha and beta rays (b) orbital or K-electron capture (a) (γ , n) is expected to decay by (b) β-emission (d) proton emission (a) β − - decay (β - emission) 11. In the nuclear transmutation, 6. The radiation from a naturally occurring radioactive substance, (a) 236 and 92 (c) 238 and 90 230 90 Th (a) Z is an isotope of uranium +Z (b) neutron, positron, proton (d) positron, proton, neutron (a) 22/10 (c) 23/10 5. − x3 234 → 91 Pa − x4 234 Z → The ratio of the atomic mass and atomic number of the resulting nuclide is (2007, 3M) (a) 0 − x2 → x1 , x2 , x3 and x4 are particles/radiation emitted by the respective isotopes. The correct option(s) is(are) (2019 Adv.) (a) proton, neutron, positron (c) proton, positron, neutron 3. 234 90 Th +Y (i) 30 14Si − x1 → (1988, 1 M) (a) 27 13 Al (c) 30 15 P + 4 2He → → 30 14Si + 30 15P 0 1e (b) 12 6 C (d) 241 96 Cm + 1 1H + → 4 2He 13 7N → 244 97Bk + 01e Numerical Answer Type Questions 14. 238 92 U is known to undergo radioactive decay to form 206 82 Pb by emitting alpha and beta particles. A rock initially contained 68 × 10−6 g of 238 92 U. If the number of alpha particles that it would emit during its radioactive decay of 18 238 206 92 U to 82 Pb in three half-lives is Z × 10 , then what is the value of Z? (2020 Adv.) Nuclear Chemistry 197 15. During the nuclear explosion, one of the products is 90Sr with half-life of 6.93 years. If 1 µg of 90Sr was absorbed in the bones of a newly born baby in place of Ca, how much time, in years, is required to reduce it by 90% if it is not lost metabolically ……… . (2020 Main, 7 Jan I) 21. Elements of the same mass number but different atomic number are known as ……… (1983, 1M) 22. An element Z M A undergoes an α-emission followed by two successive β -emissions. The element formed is …… (1982, 1M) Assertion and Reason Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below: (a) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is true; Statement II is false (d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true Integer Answer Type Questions 23. The periodic table consists of 18 groups. An isotope of copper, on bombardment with protons, undergoes a nuclear reaction yielding element X as shown below. To which group, element (2012) X belongs in the periodic table? 63 29 Cu controlled nuclear fission to reaction 26. → 2 92 X 234 is (2010) 92 U 238 → 82Pb 214 is ..... . (2009) − 7α → Y. Find out atomic number, mass number of Y −6β and identify it. 27. (2004) 238 is radioactive and it emits α and β particles to form 92 U 206 . Calculate the number of α and β particles emitted in this conversion. 82 Pb 1 18. (a) 235 92 U + 0n → (b) undergoes 25. The total number of α and β particles emitted in the nuclear Fill in the Blanks 82 34 Se 90 142 54 Xe and 38 Sr Subjective Questions 30 13 Al is less stable than 40 20 Ca. Statement II Nuclides having odd number of protons and neutrons are generally unstable. (1998) 17. Statement I Nuclide 235 92 U 24. The number of neutrons emitted when 16. Statement I The plot of atomic number ( y-axis) versus number of neutrons (x-axis) for stable nuclei shows a curvature towards x-axis from the line of 45° slope as the atomic number is increased. Statement II Proton-proton electrostatic repulsions begin to overcome attractive forces involving protons and neutrons and neutrons in heavier nuclides. (2008) + 11 H → 610 n + 42α + 211 H + X 0 − 1e 137 52 A + 97 40 B + ...... + ...... An ore of 238 is found to contain 92 U 238 and weight ratio of 1 : 0.1. The half-life period of 92 U yr. Calculate the age of the ore. (2005, 1M × 2 = 2M) 19. A radioactive nucleus decays by emitting one alpha and two 82 Pb 238 20. The number of neutrons in the parent nucleus which gives N 14 (1985, 1M) is 4.5 × 109 (2000) α-particle. 29. disintegrates to give 82 Pb206 as the final product. How many alpha and beta particles are emitted during this process? 90 Th 234 (1986, 2M) Answers 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 8. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 10. (b, d) 11. (a, b) 12. (a, c, d) 13. (a, d) 14. (1.2) 15. (23.03) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. 2 0n1, 9. (a, b, c) 36 Kr 82 in the 14 (1989, 1M) 1. (a) 206 28. Write a balanced equation for the reaction of N with beta particles, the daughter nucleus is.... of the parent. on beta emission is ........... 92 U 19. isotope 20. eight 21. isobars 24. 3 25. (8) 27. (7.12 × 10 yr) 8 12. 26. ZM A−4 84 Po 29. (13) 206 23. (8) Hints & Solutions 1. (i) 27 13 Al + 42He (α) → 30 14Si (a) By β − - decay, 10 n → 11 p + −01e neutron changes to proton. Thus, (n/ p) ratio further decreases below 1. Thus, this decay is not allowed. + 11X X is proton 11H. (ii) 27 13 Al + 42He (α ) → Y is neutron, Z is positron , 1 0 n. 30 15 P 0 +1e. 30 15P → + 10Y (b) By orbital or K- electron capture, 11 p + 30 14Si + 10Z 23 → 0 +1e + 10Na proton changes to neutron. Hence, n/ p ratio increases. Thus correct. 23 3. In stable isotope of Na, there are 11 protons and 12 neutrons. In the given radioactive isotope of sodium (Na 24 ), there are 13 neutrons, one neutron more than that required for stability. A neutron rich isotope always decay by β-emission as → −1β 0 120 + 1H1 4. The balanced nuclear reaction is 20 n1 + 5. 92U 235 → 139 54Xe + 38 Sr 94 29 is neutron rich isotope, will decay by β-emission converting some of its neutron into proton as 1 0 1 0 n → −1β + 1H 13 Al Neutron-rich nuclei 100 Number of neutrons 1 0n 60 1.2 40 1.1 ratio Neutron poor nuclei 20 0 20 40 60 Number of protons 7. Isotopes have same atomic number (Z ) but different mass 76 32 Ge and 77 32 Ge are isotopes. 9. 238 → 2He4 (α ) + 90Th 234 Key Idea The lose of one α-particle will decrease the mass number by 4 and atomic number by 2. On the other hand, loss of β-particle will increase the atomic number by 1. 11. PLAN 94 Be + ba X → 84 Be + dc Y Atomic number same 4 + a=4 + c 9+ b=8+ d In decay sequence, 92U 238 234 90Th + 2He4 (or a) If X = 00 γ a=0 b=0 Y = 10 n c=0 d =1 If X = 11 p a=1 b=1 Y = 12 D c=1 d=2 X1 particle 234 + 92U 234 Z is isotope of uranium (b– or –1e0) 91Pa 234 + (b– or –1e0) X2 particle X3 particle 230 90Th + 2He4 (or a) X4 particle 9 4 Be 9 4 Be X 1 particle will deflect towards negatively charged plate due to presence of positive charge on α- particles. Hence, options (a, b, c) are correct. 10. For the elements with atomic number (Z ) larger than 20, Neutrons (n) > Protons (p); Thus, n/ p > 1 Thus, there is upward deviation from linearity. If n < p, Thus n/ p < 1, then 80 Plot of the number of neutrons against the number of protons in stable nuclei (shown by dots). 8. The nuclear reaction is 92 U 1.5 1.4 80 6. Both α-rays and β - rays are deflected by magnetic field. number ( A ). Therefore, → 10n proton changes to neutron, hence, (n/ p) ratio increases. Thus stability increases. Thus correct. (c) Neutron emission further decreases n/p ratio. (d) By β + -emission, 11 p → 10n + +01e 2. The required nuclear reaction is 11 Na 0 −1e + 00 γ → 84 Be + 10n + 11 p → 84 Be + 21D 12. In the following nuclear reactions, there occur decrease in atomic number (Z ) A → 2He4 + ZX ZX A + ZX 0 −1e A 0 +1e A Z − 1Y , → → + A− 4 , α - emission Z − 2Y A Z − 1Y , positron emission electron capture Nuclear Chemistry 199 n 17 (13 Al 30 ) = = 1.3 > 1, unstable, β-emitters. p 13 n 20 ( Ca 40 ) = = 1, stable. p 20 20 In beta emission, increase in atomic number is observed. ZX A → 0 −1e + Z + 1Y , β -emission A 13. If sum of mass number of product nuclides is less than the sum of parent nuclides, then neutron emission will occur. In both (a) and (d), sum of mass number of product nuclides is one unit less than the sum of parent nuclides, neutron emission will balance the mass number. 14. 238 92 U → 206 82 Pb 238 92 U present −6 68 × 10 = 238 After three half-lifes, moles of = = 23.03 (yr) + 842 He + 6 0− 1β Number of moles of 68 × 10 238 −6 Also, nuclei with both neutrons and protons odd are usually unstable but it does not explain the assertion appropriately. 18. (a) initially (b) 1 + 0n 82 34 Se → 52 A → 2 −1e0 + 137 36Kr + 40 B 97 + 2 0n1 82 19. Isotope : Z X A → 2He4 + 2 −1e0 + ZY A − 4 238 92 U decayed −6 1 68 × 10 × 1 − 3 = 2 238 20. 8 : 6 C14 → 7 N14 + × 7 8 22. ZM A−4 : Z M A → 2He4 + 2 −1e0 + ZM A − 4 23. Balancing the given nuclear reaction in terms of atomic number (charge) and mass number: 63 29 Cu Thus, the correct answer is 1.2. + 1 H1 → 60 n1 + 2 He4 (α ) + 21 H1 + 26 X 52 The atomic number 26 corresponds to transition metal Fe which belongs to 8th group of modern periodic table. 15. Radioactive decay follows first order kinetics. ∴Time taken for decay from N 0 to N t is (N = number of nuclei) 1 N t = ln 0 λ Nt N 1 t = × 2.303 log 0 Nt λ 0.693 Also, we know λ = (decay constant) = t1/ 2 0 −1e 21. Isobars have same mass number but different atomic number. Therefore, number of α-particles emitted 68 × 10− 6 7 = × × 8 × 6.023 × 1023 238 8 = 1204 . × 1018 ≈ 12 . × 1018 24. 92 U 235 → 142 54Xe + 25. 92 U 238 → 214 82Pb + 6 2He4 + 2 38 Sr 90 + 30 n1 0 −1e ⇒ Number of (α + β ) = 6 + 2 = 8 26. …(i) 27. Also, we know 90% nuclei are decayed N 0 100 ∴ = = 10 Nt 10 N Put the values of λ and 0 in Eq. (i), we get Nt 6.93 ∴ t= × 2.303 × log10 0.693 16. After atomic number 20, proton-proton repulsion increases immensely, more neutrons are required to shield this electrostatic repulsion, curve of stability incline towards neutron axis. 17. Upto atomic number of 20, stable nuclei possess neutron to 92 X 234 → 7 2He4 + 6 −1e0 + Y is 84 Po 92 U 238 84Y 206 206 . → 206 82Pb + 8 2He4 + 6−1 e0 Present : N 0 − N N w (U) 1 Given, = = 10 w (Pb) 0.1 N (U) 10 206 N 0 − N = × = ⇒ N (Pb) 238 N 1 N N0 238 2298 238 ⇒ =1+ = = ⇒ N 0 − N 2060 N0 − N 2060 2060 where, t1/ 2 = 6.93 yr (given) proton ratio (n/ p) = 1. 92 U 235 Now, applying first order rate law ln 2 N0 N0 (t ) t = ln ⇒ t = 1/ 2 log log 2 t1/ 2 N0 − N N0 − N = 14 28. 7N 29. 90 Th 4.5 × 109 2298 log = 7.12 × 108 yr 0.3 2060 + 2He4 → 234 → 82Pb 9F 206 18 + 7 2He4 + 6 −1e0 13 Surface Chemistry Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. Simplified absorption spectra of three complexes [(i), (ii) and (iii)] of M n+ ion are provided below; their λ max values are marked as A, B and C respectively. The correct match between the complexes and their λ max values is (2020 Main, 2 Sep II) (b) brownian motion in colloidal solution is faster if the viscosity of the solution is very high. (c) addition of alum to water makes it unfit for drinking. (d) colloidal particles in lyophobic sols can be precipitated by electrophoresis. 5. A gas undergoes physical adsorption on a surface and follows the given Freundlich adsorption isotherm equation Adsorption of the gas increases with (a) (b) (c) (d) Absorption C A B x = Kp 0. 5 m (2019 Main, 10 April I) increase in p and increase in T increase in p and decrease in T decrease in p and decrease in T decrease in p and increase in T 6. Match the catalysts Column I with products Column II. (2019 Main, 9 April I) λmax Column I (Catalyst) λmax λmax Wavelength (nm) (i) [ M (NCS)6 ](− 6 + n) (ii) [ M F6 ](− 6 + n) (iii) [ M (NH3 )6 ]n + (a) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii) (c) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i) (b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii) (d) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii) 2. Among the following, the incorrect statement about colloids is (2019 Main, 12 April II) (a) They can scatter light (b) They are larger than small molecules and have high molar mass (c) The osmotic pressure of a colloidal solution is of higher order than the true solution at the same concentration (d) The range of diameters of colloidal particles is between 1 and 1000 nm 3. Peptisation is a (a) (b) (c) (d) (2019 Main, 12 April I) process of bringing colloidal molecule into solution process of converting precipitate into colloidal solution process of converting a colloidal solution into precipitate process of converting soluble particles to form colloidal solution 4. The correct option among the following is (2019 Main, 10 April II) (a) colloidal medicines are more effective, because they have small surface area. Column II (Product) (A) V2O5 (i) Polyethlyene (B) TiCl 4 / Al(Me)3 (ii) Ethanal (C) PbCl 2 (iii) H2SO4 (D) Iron oxide (iv) NH3 (a) (b) (c) (d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) (A)-(iii), (B)-(i), (C)-(ii), (D)-(iv) (A)-(iii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(ii) 7. The number of water molecule(s) not coordinated to copper ion directly in CuSO4 ⋅ 5H 2O, is (a) 2 (c) 1 (2019 Main, 9 April I) (b) 3 (d) 4 8. The aerosol is a kind of colloid in which (2019 Main, 9 April I) (a) gas is dispersed in liquid (b) gas is dispersed in solid (c) liquid is dispersed in water (d) solid is dispersed in gas 9. Adsorption of a gas follows Freundlich adsorption isotherm. x is the mass of the gas adsorbed on mass m of the adsorbent. x x The plot of log versus log p is shown in the given graph. m m is proportional to (2019 Main, 8 April I) Surface Chemistry 201 17. Which of the salt-solution is most effective for coagulation of arsenious sulphide? x log — m (a) BaCl 2 (c) Na 3PO4 2 3 18. Adsorption of a gas follows Freundlich adsorption isotherm. log p (a) p2 / 3 (b) p3/ 2 (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) (b) AlCl 3 (d) NaCl (c) p3 (d) p2 In the given plot,x is the mass of the gas adsorbed on mass m x of the adsorbent at pressure p ⋅ is proportional to m (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) 10. Among the following, the false statement is (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) (a) Tyndall effect can be used to distinguish between a colloidal solution and a true solution (b) It is possible to cause artificial rain by throwing electrified sand carrying charge opposite to the one on clouds from an aeroplane (c) Lyophilic sol can be coagulated by adding an electrolyte (d) Latex is a colloidal solution of rubber particles which are positively charged 11. Given, Gas : H2 , CH4 , CO2 , SO2 Critical temperature/K 33 190 304 630 On the basis of data given above, predict which of the following gases shows least adsorption on a definite amount of charcoal? (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) (a) CH4 (b) SO2 (c) CO2 (d) H2 12. Among the colloids cheese (C), milk (M) and smoke (S), the correct combination of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium, respectively is (2019 Main, 11 Jan II) (a) (b) (c) (d) C : liquid in solid; M : liquid in liquid; S : solid in gas C : solid in liquid; M : liquid in liquid; S : gas in solid C : liquid in solid; M : liquid in solid; S : solid in gas C : solid in liquid; M : solid in liquid; S : solid in gas 13. An example of solid sol is (a) gem stones (c) butter (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) (b) hair cream (d) paint 14. Haemoglobin and gold sol are examples of (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) (a) (b) (c) (d) negatively and positively charged sols, respectively negatively charged sols positively charged sols positively and negatively charged sols, respectively 15. Which of the following is not an example of heterogeneous catalytic reaction? (a) (b) (c) (d) (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) Haber’s process Combustion of coal Hydrogenation of vegetable oils Ostwald’s process 16. The correct match between item-I and Item-II is (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) A. Benzaldehyde B. Alumina C. Acetonitrile P. Dynamic phase Q. Adsorbent R. Adsorbate (a) (A) → (R) ; (B) → (Q); (C) → (P) (b) (A) → (P); (B) → (R); (C) → (Q) (c) (A) → (Q); (B) → (P); (C) → (R) (d) (A) → (Q); (B) → (R); (C) → (P) x log m 2 unit 4 unit log p (a) p2 (c) p 1/ 2 (b) p1/ 4 (d) p 19. The Tyndall effect is observed only when following conditions are satisfied (2017 Main) 1. The diameter of the dispersed particles is much smaller than the wavelength of the light used. 2. The diameter of the dispersed particle is not much smaller than the wavelength of the light used. 3. The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium are almost similar in magnitude. 4. The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium differ greatly in magnitude. (a) 1 and 4 (c) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3 20. For a linear plot of log ( x / m ) versus log p in a Freundlich adsorption isotherm, which of the following statements is correct? (k and n are constants) (2016 Main) (a) 1/n appears as the intercept (b) Only 1/n appears as the slope 1 (c) log appears as the intercept n (d) Both k and 1/n appear in the slope term 21. Methylene blue, from its aqueous solution, is adsorbed on activated charcoal at 25°C. For this process, the correct statement is (2013 Adv.) (a) (b) (c) (d) the adsorption requires activation at 25°C the adsorption is accompanied by a decreases in enthalpy the adsorption increases with increase of temperature the adsorption is irreversible 22. The coagulating power of electrolytes having ions Na + , Al 3+ and Ba 2+ for arsenic sulphide sol increases in the order (2013 Main) (a) (b) (c) (d) Al 3+ < Ba 2+ < Na + Na + < Ba 2+ < Al 3+ Ba 2+ < Na 2+ < Al 3+ Al 3+ < Na + < Ba 2+ 202 Surface Chemistry the electrolytes Na 2 SO4 , CaCl 2 , Al 2 (SO4 )3 and NH4 Cl, the most effective coagulating agent for Sb 2 S3 sol is 31. The given graph/data I, II, III and IV represent general trends observed for different physisorption and chemisorption processes under mild conditions of temperature and pressure. Which of the following choice(s) about I, II, III and IV is (are) correct? (2012) (2009, 1M) (b) CaCl 2 (d) NH4Cl 24. Among the following, the surfactant that will form micelles in (a) CH3 (CH2 )15 N+ (CH3 )3 Br − (I) (b) CH3 (CH2 )11 OSO3− Na + (c) CH3 (CH2 )6 COO− Na + (d) CH3 (CH2 )11 N+ (CH3 )3 Br − (II) (III) T 200 K 250 K (IV) 0 p 26. Spontaneous adsorption of a gas on solid surface is an exothermic process, because Amount of gas absorbed (2005, 1M) (a) irreversible sols (b) prepared from inorganic compounds (c) coagulated by adding electrolytes (d) self-stabilising (2004, 1M) (a) ∆H increases for system (b) ∆S increases for gas (c) ∆S decreases for gas (d) ∆G increases for gas (a) (b) (c) (d) Eads Distance of molecule from the surface Dhads = 150 kJ mol–1 I is physisorption and II is chemisorption I is physisorption and III is chemisorption IV is chemisorption and II is chemisorption IV is chemisorption and III is chemisorption 32. Choose the correct reason(s) for the stability of the 27. Rate of physisorption increases with (2003, 1M) (b) increase in temperature (d) decrease in surface area 28. When the temperature is increased, surface tension of water (2002, 1M) (a) increases (c) remains constant p constant T 25. Lyophilic sols are (a) decrease in temperature (c) decrease in pressure Amount of gas absorbed p constant aqueous solution at the lowest molar concentration at ambient conditions, is (2008, 3M) Potential energy (a) Na 2SO4 (c) Al 2 (SO4 )3 Amount of gas absorbed 23. Among (b) decreases (d) shows irregular behaviour lyophobic colloidal particles. (2012) (a) Preferential adsorption of ions on their surface from the solution (b) Preferential adsorption of solvent on their surface from the solution (c) Attraction between different particles having opposite charges on their surface (d) Potential difference between the fixed layer and the diffused layer of opposite charges around the colloidal particles Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) 29. The correct statement(s) about surface properties is(are) (2017 Adv.) (a) The critical temperatures of ethane and nitrogen are 563 K and 126 K, respectively. The adsorption of ethane will be more than that of nitrogen of same amount of activated charcoal at a given temperature 33. The correct statement(s) pertaining to the adsorption of a gas on a solid surface is (are) (2011) (a) Adsorption is always exothermic (b) Physisorption may transform into chemisorption at high temperature (b) Cloud is an emulsion type of colloid in which liquid is dispersed phase and gas is dispersion medium (c) Physisorption increases with increasing temperature but chemisorption decreases with increasing temperature (c) Adsorption is accompanied by decrease in enthalpy and decrease in entropy of the system (d) Chemisorption is more exothermic than physisorption, however it is very slow due to higher energy of activation (d) Brownian motion of colloidal particles does not depend on the size of the particles but depends on viscosity of the solution 30. When O2 is adsorbed on a metallic surface, electron transfer occurs from the metal to O 2 . The true statement(s) regarding this adsorption is (are) (2015 Adv.) (a) O2 is physisorbed (b) heat is released (c) occupancy of π ∗ 2 p of O2 is increased (d) bond length of O2 is increased Numerical Answer Type Questions 34 The mass of gas adsorbed, x per unit mass of adsorbate, m was measured at various pressures, p. A graph between x log and log p gives a straight line with slope equal to 2 m x and the intercept equal to 0.4771. The value of at a m pressure of 4 atm is (Given, log 3 = 0.4771) (2020 Main, 2 Sep I) Surface Chemistry 203 (c) Statement I is true; Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true. Assertion and Reason Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below: (a) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is a correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. 35. Statement I Micelles are formed by surfactant molecules above the critical micelle concentration (CMC). Statement II The conductivity of a solution having surfactant molecules decreases sharply at the CMC. (2007) Answers 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. (a) (b) (a) (a) (b) 2. 6. 10. 14. 18. (c) (c) (d) (d) (c) 3. 7. 11. 15. 19. (b) (c) (d) (b) (b) 4. 8. 12. 16. 20. (d) (d) (a) (a) (b) 21. 25. 29. 33. (b) (d) (a, c) (a, b, d) 22. 26. 30. 34. (b) (c) (b, c, d) (48) 23. 27. 31. 35. (c) (a) (a, c) (b) 24. (a) 28. (b) 32. (a, d) Hints & Solutions 1. Here, same metal ion, M n+ form three homoleptic octahedral complexes (i), (ii) and (iii) on separate combination with È È three mono-dentate ligands–N CS,F and NH3 respectively. So, we have to compare their CFSE (∆ 0 ) as well as wavelength (λ) values, where hc 1 or, ∆ 0 ∝ ∆E(CFSE) = λ λ Again, ∆ 0 value will depend on power of ligand as placed in spectrochemical series. 1 Power of ligand ∝ ∆ 0 ∝ , λ − − F − < NCS− < NH3, F >NC S>NH3 → Power of Ligand ← λ → ∆ 0 So, for the given complexes, it is evidented from the plot (Absorption vs λ) ii ) i) iii ) > λ (max > λ (max λ (max (C ) [F − ] (B ) [NCS− ] (A ) [NH 3 ] 2. Statement (c) is incorrect about colloids. Colligative properties such as relative lowering of vapour pressure, elevation in boiling point, depression in freezing point and osmotic pressure of a colloidal solution is of low order than the true solution at the same concentration. 3. Peptisation is a process of converting precipitate into colloidal solution. This process involves the shaking of precipitate with the dispersion medium in the presence of small amount of electrolyte. The electrolyte added is called peptising agent. During peptisation, the precipitate adsorbs one of the ions of the electrolyte on its surface. This causes the development of positive or negative charge on precipitates, which ultimately breakup into smaller particles of the size of a colloid. 4. The explanation of the given statements are as follows : (a) Colloidal medicines are more effective because they (dispersed phase) have larger surface area. Thus, option (a) is incorrect. (b) Brownian motion of dispersed phase particles in colloidal solution is faster if the viscosity of the solution is very low. Thus, option (b) is incorrect. (c) Addition of alum(K 2SO4 ⋅ Al2(SO4 )3 ⋅ 24H2O), an electrolyte to water makes it fit for drinking purposes because alum coagulates mud particles from water. Thus, option (c) is incorrect. (d) Precipitation of lyophobic solution particles by electrophoresis is called cottrell precipitation. Thus, option (d) is correct. 5. For physisorption or physical adsorption, Adsorption isotherm (Temperature, T = constant) is shown below: x — m x Moderate pressure zone, — ∝ p1/n m p where, x = amount of adsorbate, m = amount of adsorbent, x = degree of adsorption m 1 1 = order of the reaction, where, 0 < < 1 and so, 1< n < ∞ n n x Here, = Kp1/ 2, m x i.e. ∝ p1/ 2 m 204 Surface Chemistry Adsorption isobar (Pressure, p = constant) The logarithm equation of Freundlich adsorption isotherm is x 1 log = log K + log p m n On comparing the above equation with straight line equation, ( y = mx + c) x — m we get m =slope = T From the given plot, So, the rate of physical adsorption of the gas, increases with p (when,T is constant) and decreases withT (when pis constant). m= 6. Correct match is (A) → (iii); (B) → (i); (C) → (ii); (D) → (iv) (i) TiCl4 + AlCl3 (Ziegler- Natta catalyst) is used to prepare polyethylene from ethene. CH2 nCH2 Zieglar-Natta catalyst CH2 CH2 ∴ V 2O 5 It is the key step in the manufacture of H2SO4. (iii) Fe (Iron) is used as catalyst in Haber’s process for the manufacture of ammonia. The closest synthetic latex that can be associated with the properties of natural latex is SBR, i.e. Styro Butane Rubber. Rest of all the statements are correct. 11. Same adsorbant (charcoal in this case) at same temperature will adsorb different gases to different extent. The extent to which gases are adsorbed is proportional to the critical temperature of gas. 8a Q Tc = 27Rb Fe( s ) N2 (g ) + 3H2 (g ) → 2NH3 (g ) (iv) Pd (Palladium) is used to prepare ethanal. Reaction involved is PdCl 2/CuCl 2 H 2C == CH 2 + O2 → CH 3CHO H 2O where, a is the magnitude of intermolecular forces between gaseous molecules. This reaction is also known as Wacker’s process. 7. In CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2O, one molecule of water is indirectly connected Thus, higher the cirtical temperature more is the gas adsorbed. Among the given gases, H2 has the minimum critical temperature, i.e. 33K thus, it shows least adsorption on a definite amount of charcoal. to Cu. In this molecule, four water molecules form coordinate bond with Cu 2+ ion while one water molecule is associated with H-bond with SO2− 4 . Structure of CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2 O H H 12. H δ– Cu2+ δ+ O H δ– δ+ O O H H H H O– H O– O S O O [Cu(H 2O)4 ] SO4 ⋅ H 2O 8. The aerosol is a kind of colloid in which solid is dispersed in gas. e.g. smoke, dust. 9. y2 − y1 1 2 = = x2 − x1 n 3 x = Kp2 / 3 m These microparticles belong to rubber and are negatively charged in nature. Natural latex contains some amount of sugar, resin, protein and ash as well. 2SO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g ) → 2SO3 ( g ) O c = log K dispersion, i.e. emulsion of polymer microparticles in an aqueous medium. n (ii) V2O5 (Vanadium pentoxide) is used as catalyst to prepare H2SO4 from contact process. Reaction involved is H and 10. Statement given as statement (d) is incorrect. Latex is a stable Polyethylene Ethene 1 n Key Idea According to Freundlich, x = Kp1/n [ n > 1] m where, m = mass of adsorbent, x = mass of the gas x adsorbed, = amount of gas adsorbed per unit mass of m solid adsorbent, p = pressure, K and n = constants. Dispersed phase Liquid Dispersion medium Solid Type of colloid Gel Liquid Solid Liquid Gas Emulsion Aerosol Examples Cheese (C), butter, jellies Milk (M), hair cream Smoke (S), dust Thus, C : liquid in solid, M : liquid in liquid and S : solid in gas. 13. Solid sol consists of solid as both dispersed phase and dispersion medium. In gemstones, metal crystals (salt and oxides of metals) are dispersed in solid (stone) medium. Hair cream is an emulsion (liquid in liquid). Butter is a colloidal solution of liquid in solid. Paint is also sol (solid in liquid). 14. Haemoglobin and gold sol both are colloids and always carry an electric charge. Haemoglobin is a positively charged sol, because in haemoglobin, Fe2+ ion is the central metal ion of the octahedral complex. All metal sols like, Au-sol, Ag-sol etc; are negatively charged sols. Surface Chemistry 205 15. In heterogeneous catalytic reactions, physical state of reactants and that of catalyst(s) used are different. Haber’s process, hydrogenation of vegetable oils and Ostwald’s process all are heterogeneous process. Combustion of coal is not a heterogeneous catalytic reaction. l In Haber’s process (i) The diameter of the colloids should not be much smaller than the wavelength of light used. (ii) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase and dispersion medium should differ greatly in magnitude. 20. According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm, x = kp1/ n m Fe( s), Mo( s) N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2( g ) → 2NH 3 ( g ) Hydrogenation of vegetable oils, [(Ph P) Rh] Cl 3 3 → Vanaspati (s) Vegetable oil (l ) or Ni ( s) (Unsaturated) l log p Pt( s) V 2 O5 (s) No catalyst is used in combustion of coal. The reaction is highly spontaneous in nature. C + O2 → CO2 (Coal) 16. Using the principle of adsorption chromatography, qualitative and quantitative analysis of benzaldehyde can be done from its mixture with acetonitrile. Here, a mobile phase moves over a stationary phase (adsorbent). Adsorbents used are alumina (Al 2O 3 ) and silica gel. The sample solution of benzaldehyde and acetonitrile when comes in contact with the adsorbent, benzaldehyde gets adsorbed on the surface of the adsorbent. So, benzaldehyde acts as absorbate whereas acetonitrile starts moving as mobile phase over the stationary phase of the adsorbate. Hence, act as dynamic phase. 2− 17. Arsenious sulphide sol is a negative colloid, As2S3.(S ). So, it will be coagulated by the cation of an electrolyte. According to the Hardy-Schulze rule, the higher the charge of the ion, the more effective it is in bringing about coagulation. Here, the cations available are Al 3+ (from AlCl 3), Ba 2+ (from BaCl 2) and Na + (from Na 3PO 4 and NaCl). So, their power to coagulate As2S3. (S2− ) will follow the order as Al 3+ > Ba 2+ > Na+ 18. According to Freundlich adsorption isotherm, x x ∝ p1/ n ⇒ = Kp1/ n m m On taking log on both sides, we get 1 x log = log K + log p m n On comparing with equation of straight line, y = mx + c, plot of x log vs log p gives, m Slope ∴ Slope = 1 n log k Ostwald’s process, 4NH3 (g ) + 5O 2 (g ) → 4NO(g ) + 6H2O(g ) l θ log x/m l ( y2 − y1 ) 1 2 1 = ⇒ = ( x2 − x1 ) n 4 2 x 1/ 2 ∝p m 19. Colloidal solutions show Tyndall effect due to scattering of light by colloidal particles in all directions in space. It is observed only under the following conditions. On taking logarithm of both sides, we get x log = log k + log p1 / n m 1 x or log = log k + log p m n y = c + mx x y = log , m c = intercept = log k 1 m = slope = and x = log p n 21. Physical adsorption takes place with decrease in enthalpy thus exothermic change. It is physical adsorption and does not require activation. Thus, (a) is incorrect. Being physical adsorption ∆H < 0 thus, (b) is correct. Exothermic reaction is favoured at low temperature thus (c) is incorrect. Physical adsorption is always reversible, thus (d) is incorrect. 22. According to Hardy Schulze rule, greater the charge on oppositely charged ion, greater is its coagulating power. Since arsenic sulphide is a negatively charged sol, thus, the order of coagulating power is Na + < Ba 2+ < Al 3+ . 23. Sb2S3 is a negative (anionic) sol. According to Hardy Schulze rule, greater the valency of cationic coagulating agent, higher its coagulating power. Therefore, Al 2 (SO4 )3 will be the most effective coagulating agent in the present case. 24. Larger the hydrophobic fragment of surfactant, easier will be the micellisation, smaller the crticial micelle concentration. Therefore, CH3 (CH2 )15 N+ (CH3 )3 Br − will have the lowest crticial micelle concentration. 25. Lyophilic sols are reversible, not easily coagulated because it is self-stabilising. 26. ∆G = ∆H − T∆S As gas is adsorbed on surface of solid, entropy decreases, i.e. ∆S < 0. Therefore, for ∆G < 0, ∆H must be negative. 27. It is an exothermic process, according to Le-Chatelier’s principle, lowering temperature drive the process in forward direction. 28. As temperature increases surface tension of liquid decreases. 29. (a) Higher the critical temperature, greater the extent of adsorption. (c) P (s) + Q (g ) → PQ (s) Adsorbent Adsorbate 206 Surface Chemistry As gaseous adsorbate is adsorbed on solid surface, entropy decreases, ∆S < 0. Also formation of bond between P and Q results in release of energy, hence ∆H < 0. 30. Since, adsorption involves electron transfer from metal to O2, it is chemical adsorption not physical adsorption, hence (a) is incorrect. Adsorption is spontaneous which involves some bonding between adsorbent and adsorbate, hence exothermic. The last occupied molecular orbital in O2 is π * 2p. Hence, electron transfer from metal to oxygen will increase occupancy of π * 2p molecular orbitals. Also increase in occupancy of π * 2p orbitals will decrease bond order and hence increase bond length of O2. 31. Graph-I represents physisorption as in physisorption, absorbents are bonded to adsorbate through weak van der Waals’ force. Increasing temperature increases kinetic energy of adsorbed particles increasing the rate of desorption, hence amount of adsorption decreases. Graph-II represents chemisorption as it is simple activation energy diagram of a chemical reaction. Graph-III also represents physical adsorption as extent of adsorption increasing with pressure. Graph-IV represents chemisorption as it represents the potential energy diagram for the formation of a typical covalent bond. 32. Lyophobic sol, which is otherwise unstable, gets stabilised by preferential adsorption of ions on their surface, thus developing a potential difference between the fixed layer and the diffused layer. Thus, option (a) and (d) are correct. 33. (a) In the process of adsorption, a bond is formed between adsorbate and adsorbent, hence always exothermic. (b) Physisorption require very low activation energy while chemisorption require high activation energy. Therefore a physisorption may transform into chemisorption but only at high temperature. (c) It is wrong statement as at higher temperature, physically adsorbed substance starts desorbing. (d) In physical adsorption, van der Waals' force hold the adsorbate and adsorbent together which is a weak electrostatic attraction. In chemisorption, strong chemical bond binds the adsorbate to the adsorbent. Therefore, chemisorption is more exothermic than physical adsorption. 34. From Freundlich adsorption isotherm equation, log x 1 = log K + log p m n x log m θ log p When we plot log x / m vs log p, we get a straight line of 1 1 (i) slope = = 2 ⇒ n = n 2 (ii) intercept = log K = 0.4771 ⇒ log K = log 3 ⇒ K = 3 So, x = Kp1/ n = 3 × 4 2 = 48.00 m (Q p = 4 atm) 35. Both statements are independently correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I. Critical micelle concentration is the minimum concentration of surfactant at which micelle formation commences first. At critical micelle concentration, several molecules of surfactant coalesce together to form one single micelle molecule. This decreases the apparent number of molecule suddenly lowering conductivity sharply. 14 s-Block Elements 4. HF and CH4 are called as molecular hydrides. Topic 1 Group I Elements Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. Which of the following liberates O 2 upon hydrolysis? (2020 Adv.) (a) Pb3O4 (c) Na 2O2 (b) KO2 (d) Li 2O2 (2020 Main, 6 Sep II) the reaction of Zn with dilute HCl the electrolysis of acidified water using Pt electrodes the electrolysis of brine solution the electrolysis of warm Ba(OH)2 solution using Ni electrodes. 3. In the following reactions, products (A ) and ( B ), respectively, are (2020 Main, 7 Jan II) NaOH + Cl2 → ( A ) + side products (hot and conc.) Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 → ( B ) + side products (dry) (a) NaClO3 and Ca(OCl)2 (c) NaOCl and Ca(OCl)2 (b) NaClO3 and Ca(ClO3 )2 (d) NaOCl and Ca(ClO3 )2 4. The temporary hardness of a water sample is due to compound X . Boiling this sample converts X to compound (2019 Main, 12 April II) Y . X and Y , respectively, are (a) Mg(HCO3 )2 and Mg(OH)2 (b) Ca(HCO3 )2 and Ca(OH)2 (c) Mg(HCO3 )2 and MgCO3 (d) Ca(HCO3 )2 and CaO 5. The incorrect statement is (b) 34% (2019 Main, 8 April II) (c) 13.6% (d) 3.4% 9. The correct order of hydration enthalpies of alkali metal ions is (2019 Main, 8 April I) (a) Li + > Na + > K + > Cs+ > Rb+ (b) Na + > Li + > K + > Rb+ > Cs+ (c) Na + > Li + > K + > Cs+ > Rb+ (d) Li + > Na + > K + > Rb+ > Cs+ 10. The correct statement(s) among I to III with respect to potassium ions that are abundant within the cell fluids is/are (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) I. They activate many enzymes. II. They participate in the oxidation of glucose to produce ATP. III. Along with sodium ions, they are responsible for the transmission of nerve signals. (a) I, and III only (c) I and II only (b) I, II and III (d) III only hydrolysis with water yields H2 O2 and O2 along with another product. The metal is (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) (2019 Main, 12 April II) 6. The metal that gives hydrogen gas upon treatment with both acid as well as base is molar mass of H = 1g mol −1 and O = 16 g mol −1 ] 11. A metal on combustion in excess air forms X . X upon (a) lithium is the strongest reducing agent among the alkali metals. (b) lithium is least reactive with water among the alkali metals. (c) LiNO3 decomposes on heating to give LiNO2 and O2. (d) LiCl crystallise from aqueous solution as LiCl ⋅ 2H2O. (a) magnesium (c) zinc (b) (1), (2) and (3) only (d) (1), (3) and (4) only 8. The strength of 11.2 volume solution of H 2O2 is [Given that (a) 1.7% 2. Dihydrogen of high purity (> 99.95%) is obtained through (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (c) (3) and (4) only (2019 Main, 12 April I) (a) Li (b) Mg (c) Rb (d) Na 12. The hardness of a water sample (in terms of equivalents of CaCO3 ) containing is (Molar mass of CaSO4 = 136 g mol −1 ) (a) 100 ppm (b) 10 ppm (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) (c) 50 ppm (d) 90 ppm 13. The hydride that is not electron deficient is (2019 Main, 11 Jan II) (b) mercury (d) iron (a) AlH3 7. The correct statements among (a) to (d) are: (2019 Main, 8 April II) 1. Saline hydrides produce H2 gas when reacted with H2O. 2. Reaction of LiAlH4 with BF3 leads to B2H6. 3. PH3 and CH4 are electron rich and electron precise hydrides, respectively. (b) B2H6 (d) GaH3 (c) SiH4 14. The correct statements among (a) to (d) regarding H2 as a fuel are : (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) I. It produces less pollutants than petrol. II. A cylinder of compressed dihydrogen weights ~ 30times more than a petrol tank producing the same amount of energy. 208 s-Block Elements III. Dihydrogen is stored in tanks of metal alloys like NaNi 5 . IV. On combustion, values of energy released per gram of liquid dihydrogen and LPG are 50 and 142 kJ, respectively. (a) I, II and III only (c) II and IV only blue solution due to the formation of (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) (a) sodium ammonia complex (b) sodium ion-ammonia complex (c) sodamide (d) ammoniated electrons 17. The total number of isotopes of hydrogen and number of radioactive isotopes among them, respectively, are (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) (b) 3 and 2 (d) 3 and 1 (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) (a) oxidising and reducing agent in both acidic and basic medium (b) oxidising and reducing agent in acidic medium, but not in basic medium (c) reducing agent in basic medium, but not in acidic medium (d) oxidising agent in acidic medium, but not in basic medium 19. The metal that forms nitride by reacting directly with N 2 of air, is (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) (b) K (d) Li (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) (a) (b) (c) (d) (c) region 4 (d) region 1 25. Which one of the following statements about water is false? (2016 Main) (a) Water can act both as an acid and as a base (b) There is extensive intramolecular hydrogen bonding in the condensed phase (c) Ice formed by heavy water sinks in normal water (d) Water is oxidised to oxygen during photosynthesis 26. The main oxides formed on combustion of Li, Na and K in excess of air respectively are (2016 Main) (b) Li 2O2, Na 2O2 and KO2 (d) Li 2O , Na 2O and KO2 27. Which of the following atoms has the highest first ionisation energy? (a) Na (2016 Main) (b) K (c) Sc (d) Rb 28. Hydrogen peroxide in its reaction with KIO4 and NH2 OH respectively, is acting as a (a) (b) (c) (d) (2014 Adv.) reducing agent, oxidising agent reducing agent, reducing agent oxidising agent, oxidising agent oxidising agent, reducing agent agent? (b) CaCl 2 (d) Ca(HCO 3) 2 21. The isotopes of hydrogen are (b) region 3 29. In which of the following reactions H2 O2 acts as a reducing 20. What is reason of temporary hardness of water? (a) Na 2SO 4 (c) NaCl (a) region 2 (a) LiO2, Na 2O2 and K 2O (c) Li 2O, Na 2O2 and KO2 18. The chemical nature of hydrogen peroxide is (a) Rb (c) Cs (2016 Main) Region 4 Region 3 Region 2 Region 1 (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) (b) electron-rich hydride (d) molecular hydride 16. Sodium metal on dissolution in liquid ammonia gives a deep (a) 2 and 1 (c) 2 and 0 below is (b) II, III and IV only (d) I and III only 15. NaH is an example of (a) metallic hydride (c) saline hydride 24. The hottest region of Bunsen flame shown in the figure given (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) deuterium and tritium only protium and deuterium only protium, deuterium and tritium tritium and protium only 22. Hydrogen peroxide oxidises [Fe(CN)6 ]4− to [Fe(CN)6 ]3− in acidic medium but reduces [Fe(CN)6 ]3− to [Fe(CN)6 ]4− in alkaline medium. The other products formed are, respectively. (2018 Main) (a) (H2O + O2 ) and H2O (b) (H2O + O2 ) and (H2O + OH− ) (c) H2O and (H2O + O2 ) (d) H2O and (H2O + OH− ) 23. Both lithium and magnesium display several similar properties due to the diagonal relationship; however, the one which is incorrect is (2017 Main) (a) Both form basic carbonates (b) Both form soluble bicarbonates (c) Both form nitrides (d) nitrates of both Li and Mg yield NO2 and O2 on heating (2014 Main) I. H2O2 + 2H+ + 2e− → 2H2O II. H2O2 − 2e− → O2 + 2H+ III. H2O2 + 2e− → 2OH− IV. H2O2 + 2OH− − 2e− → O2 + 2H2O (a) I and II (b) III and IV (c) I and III (d) II and IV 30. A sodium salt of an unknown anion when treated with MgCl 2 gives white precipitate only on boiling. The anion is (a) SO2− 4 (b) HCO−3 (2004, 1M) (c) CO2− 3 (d) NO−3 31. A dilute aqueous solution of Na 2 SO4 is electrolysed using platinum electrodes. The products at the anode and cathode are respectively (1996, 1M) (a) O2 , H2 (b) S2O2– 8 , Na (c) O2 , Na (d) S2O82– , H2 32. Hydrolysis of one mole of peroxodisulphuric acid produces (a) two moles of sulphuric acid (1996, 1M) (b) two moles of peroxomono sulphuric acid (c) one mole of sulphuric acid and one mole of peroxomono sulphuric acid (d) one mole of sulphuric acid, one mole of peroxomono sulphuric acid and one mole of hydrogen peroxide 33. The species that do not contain peroxide ions, is (a) PbO2 (b) H2O2 (c) SrO2 (1992, 1M) (d) BaO2 s-Block Elements 209 34. The metallic lustre exhibited by sodium metal is explained by (1987, 1M) lattice energy 35. A solution of sodium sulphate in water is electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products at cathode and anode are respectively (1987, 1M) (b) O2 , H2 (c) O2 , Na (d) O2 , SO2 36. Nitrogen dioxide cannot be obtained by heating (a) KNO3 (b) Pb(NO3 )2 (c) Cu(NO3 )2 (1985, 1M) (d)AgNO3 37. The oxide that gives H2 O2 on treatment with a dilute acid is (a) PbO2 (c) MnO2 (b) Na 2O2 (d) TiO2 (1985, 1M) 38. Molecular formula of Glauber’s salt is (1985, 1M) 39. Heavy water is (1983, 1M) (a) MgSO4 ⋅ 7H2O (c) FeSO4 ⋅ 7H2O (b) CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2O (d) Na 2SO4 ⋅ 10H2O (a) H2O18 (b) water obtained by repeated distillation (c) D2O (d) water at 4°C (1981, 1M) (b) sodium hydride (d) solvated electrons 41. The temporary hardness of water is due to calcium bicarbonate can be removed by adding (b) Ca(OH)2 (c) CaCl 2 (b) Na 2O (b) K and excess of O2 (d) O2 and 2-ethylanthraquinol (2007, 2M) (c) NaO2 (d) NaOH 44. Sodium nitrate decomposes above ≈ 800°C to give (a) N2 (c) NO2 (b) O2 (d) Na 2 O (1998, 2M) (1998, 2M) 46. When zeolite, which is hydrated sodium aluminium silicate, is treated with hard water, the sodium ions are exchanged with (1990, 1M) (a) H+ ions (b) SO2– 4 ions (c) Mg2+ ions 50. Statement I The alkali metals can form ionic hydrides which contain the hydride ion, H− . Statement II The alkali metals have low electronegativity, their hydrides conduct electricity when fused and liberate hydrogen gas at the anode. (1994, 2M) Fill in the Blanks (1987, 1M) 52. Sodium dissolved in liquid ammonia conducts electricity because of …… (1985, 1M) 53. The adsorption of hydrogen by palladium is commonly known as …… (1983, 1M) 54. Iodine reacts with hot NaOH solution. The products are NaI and …… (1980, 1M) True/False 55. Sodium when burnt in excess of oxygen gives sodium oxide. (1987, 1M) 45. Highly pure dilute solution of sodium in liquid ammonia (a) shows blue colour (b) exhibits electrical conductivity (c) produces sodium amide (d) produces hydrogen gas (2007, 3M) concentrated solution of ……… . 43. The compound(s) formed upon combustion of sodium metal (a) Na 2O2 blue solution. Statement II Alkali metals in liquid ammonia give solvated species of the type [ M ( NH 3 )n ]+ (M = alkali metals). 51. Hydrogen gas is liberated by the action of aluminium with 42. The pair(s) of reagents that yield paramagnetic species is/are in excess air is (are) 48. Statement I Alkali metals dissolve in liquid ammonia to give (1979, 1M) (d) HCl Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) (a) Na and excess of NH3 (c) Cu and dilute HNO3 Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below : (a) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct; Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct; Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct Statement II Electronegativity difference between Li and Cl is too small. (1998, 2M) reducing due to the presence of (a) CaCO3 Assertion and Reason 49. Statement I LiCl is predominantly a covalent compound. 40. A solution of sodium metal in liquid ammonia is strongly (a) sodium atoms (c) sodium amide hydration energy (c) the lattice energy has no role to play in solubility (d) the hydration energy of sodium sulphate is less than its (a) diffusion of sodium ions (b) oscillation of loose electron (c) excitation of free protons (d) existence of body centred cubic lattice (a) H2 , O2 (b) the lattice energy of barium sulphate is more than its (d) OH− ions 47. Sodium sulphate is soluble in water, whereas barium sulphate is sparingly soluble because (1989, 1M) (a) the hydration energy of sodium sulphate is more than its lattice energy Subjective Questions 56. A white solid is either Na 2 O or Na 2 O2 . A piece of red litmus paper turns white when it is dipped into a freshly made aqueous solution of the white solid. (i) Identify the substance and explain with balanced equation. (ii) Explain what would happen to the red litmus if the white solid were the other compound. (1999, 4M) 57. Hydrogen peroxide acts both as an oxidising and as a reducing agent in alkaline solution towards certain first row transition metal ions. Illustrate both these properties of H2 O2 using chemical equations. (1998, 4M) 210 s-Block Elements 58. Element A burns in nitrogen to give an ionic compound B. Compound B reacts with water to give C and D. A solution of C becomes ‘milky’ on bubbling carbon dioxide gas. Identify A, B, C and D. (1997, 3M) 59. Complete and balance the following chemical reaction. Anhydrous potassium nitrate is heated with excess of metallic potassium (1992, 1M) KNO3 ( s ) + K ( s ) → K + K 60. Give reasons in one or two sentences for the following: “H2 O2 is a better oxidising agent than H2 O.” (1986, 1M) 61. Sodium carbonate is prepared by Solvay process but the same process is not extended to the manufacture of potassium carbonate, explain. (1981, 1M) 62. Water is a liquid, while H2 S is a gas at ordinary temperature. Explain . (1978, 1M) Topic 2 Group II Elements Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. Match the following compounds (Column -I) with their uses (Columns -II). (2020 Main, 6 Sep II) Column -I Column - II (I) Ca(OH)2 (A) Casts of statues (II) NaCl (B) White wash (III) 1 CaSO 4 ⋅ H2O 2 (C) Antacid (IV) CaCO 3 (D) Washing soda preparation (a) (I)-(D), (II)-(A), (III)-(C), (IV)-(B) (b) (I)-(B), (II)-(D), (III)-(A), (IV)-(C) (c) (I)-(B), (II)-(C), (III)-(D), (IV)-(A) (d) (I)-(C), (II)-(D), (III)-(B), (IV)-(A) 2. In comparison to boron, berylium has (a) (b) (c) (d) (2019 Main, 12 April II) lesser nuclear charge and lesser first ionisation enthalpy greater nuclear charge and lesser first ionisation enthalpy greater nuclear charge and greater first ionisation enthalpy lesser nuclear charge and greater first ionisation enthalpy 3. The correct sequence of thermal stability of the following carbonates is (a) (b) (c) (d) (2019 Main, 12 April I) BaCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 < MgCO3 MgCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 < BaCO3 MgCO3 < SrCO3 < CaCO3 < BaCO3 BaCO3 < SrCO3 < CaCO3 < MgCO3 (b) CaX 2 (c) MgX 2 (d) BeX 2 9. Match the following items in Column I with the corresponding items in Column II. (2019 Main, 11 Jan II) Column I Column II (i) Na 2CO3 ⋅ 10H2O A. Portland cement ingredient (ii) Mg(HCO3 )2 B. Castner-Kellner process (iii) NaOH C. Solvay process (iv) Ca 3Al 2O6 D. Temporary hardness (a) (b) (c) (d) (i) - (D); (ii) - (A); (iii) - (B); (iv) - (C) (i) - (B); (ii) - (C); (iii) - (A); (iv) - (D) (i) - (C); (ii) - (B); (iii) - (D); (iv) - (A) (i) - (C); (ii) - (D); (iii) - (B); (iv) - (A) 10. The amphoteric hydroxide is (a) Be(OH)2 (b) Ca(OH)2 (b) Be (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) (c) Sr(OH)2 (d) Mg(OH)2 (c) Mg (d) Ca 12. The alkaline earth metal nitrate that does not crystallise with water molecules, is (a) Ca(NO3 )2 (c) Ba(NO3 )2 (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) (b) Sr(NO3 )2 (d) Mg(NO3 )2 13. Which one of the following alkaline earth metal sulphates has its hydration enthalpy greater than its lattice enthalpy? (a) CaSO 4 (c) BaSO 4 5. The alloy used in the construction of aircrafts is (2019 Main, 10 April I) (b) Mg-Mn (d) Mg-Al 6. The structures of beryllium chloride in the solid state and vapour phase, respectively are (2019 Main, 8 April II) (a) SrX 2 (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) baking soda and soda ash washing soda and soda ash baking soda and dead burnt plaster washing soda and dead burnt plaster (a) dimeric and dimeric (c) dimeric and chain (b) Mg (NO3 )2 and Mg 3N2 (d) MgO and Mg (NO3 )2 8. The covalent alkaline earth metal halide ( X = Cl, Br, I) is (a) Na on heating initially gives a monohydrated compound Y . Y upon heating above 373 K leads to an anhydrous white powder Z. X and Z, respectively, are (2019 Main, 10 April II) (a) Mg-Zn (c) Mg-Sn (a) MgO and Mg 3N2 (c) MgO only 11. The metal used for making X-ray tube window is 4. A hydrated solid X (a) (b) (c) (d) 7. Magnesium powder burns in air to give (2019 Main, 9 April I) (2019 Main, 9 April II) (b) chain and chain (d) chain and dimeric (b) BeSO 4 (d) SrSO 4 (2015 Main) 14. The following compounds have been arranged in order of their increasing thermal stabilities. Identify the correct order. K 2 CO3 (I), MgCO3 (II), CaCO3 (III), BeCO3 (IV) (a) I < II < III < IV (c) IV < II < I < III (b) IV < II < III < I (d) II < IV < III < I (1996, 1M) 15. The oxidation state of the most electronegative element in the products of the reaction, BaO2 with dil. H2 SO4 are (a) 0 and –1 (c) –2 and 0 (b) –1 and –2 (d) –2 and –1 (1991, 1M) s-Block Elements 211 16. Calcium is obtained by (1980, 1M) (a) electrolysis of molten CaCl 2 (b) electrolysis of solution of CaCl 2 in water (c) reduction of CaCl 2 with carbon (d) roasting of limestone 21. MgCl 2 ⋅ 6H2 O on heating gives anhydrous MgCl 2 . 22. Identify (X) in the following synthetic scheme and write their structures. * 17. The reagent(s) used for softening the temporary hardness of water is(are) (2010) (b) Ca(OH)2 (d) NaOCl white crystalline precipitate. What is its formula? (2006, 3M) (b) Mg3 (PO4 )3 (d) MgSO4 (b) Si (c) Sn (1993, 1M) (d) Ti Fill in the Blank 20. Anhydrous MgCl 2 is obtained by heating the hydrated salt with …… (2001, 1M) 23. Give reasons for the following in one or two sentences only : (1999, 2M) 24. The crystalline salts of alkaline earth metals contain more water of crystallisation than the corresponding alkali metal salts. Why? (1997, 2M) 25. Calcium burns in nitrogen to produce a white powder which 19. The material used in solar cells contains (a) Cs Ba CO3 + H2 SO4 → X (gas) (C* denotes C14 ) “BeCl 2 can be easily hydrolysed.” 18. MgSO 4 on reaction with NH4 OH and Na 2 HPO4 forms a (a) Mg(NH4 )PO4 (c) MgCl 2 ⋅ MgSO4 (1982, 1M) Subjective Questions Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) (a) Ca 3 (PO4 )2 (c) Na 2CO3 True/False dissolves in sufficient water to produce a gas A and an alkaline solution. The solution on exposure to air produces a thin solid layer of B on the surface. Identify the compounds A and B. (1996, 3M) 26. Arrange the following in increasing order of basic strength : MgO, SrO, K 2 O, NiO, Cs2 O (1980 , 1M) (1991, 1M) Answers Topic 1 45. (a, b) 46. (a, d) 47. (a, b) 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 49. (c) 50. (a) 51. NaOH 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 52. (solvated electrons) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (b) 31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (d) 41. (b) 42. (a, b, c) 43. (a, b) 44. (a, b, d) 48. (b) 53. (occlusion) 54. (NaIO 3) 55. (F) Topic 2 1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (b, c, d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. dry HCl 21. F Hints & Solutions Topic 1 Group I Elements 1. (a) Pb3O4 + H2O → No reaction Pb3O4 is insoluble in water or do not react with water. (b) KO2 + 2H2O → KOH + H2O2 + 1/2 O2 Potassium superoxide is a strong oxidant, able to convert oxides into peroxides or molecular oxygen. Hydrolysis gives oxygen gas, hydrogen peroxide and potassium hydroxide. (c) Na 2O2 + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2O2 When sodium peroxide dissolves in water, it is hydrolysed and forms sodium hydroxide and hydrogen peroxide. The reaction is highly exothermic. (d) Li 2O2 + 2H2O → 2LiOH + H2O2 The reactivity of Li 2O2 toward water differs from LiO2, in Li 2O2 results in H2O2 as a product. Hence, the correct option is (b). 2. Electrolysis of warm aqueous Ba(OH)2 solution between nickel electrodes is a commercial method to obtain highly pure (> 99.95%) dihydrogen. In the presence of Ba(OH)2, water dissociates into ions easily and quickly and H+ ions are produced, which go on cathode, gets discharged there and liberate hydrogen gas. 212 s-Block Elements ∴34 g of H2O2 is present in 1000 g of solution 34 ∴% w/w = × 100 = 3.4% 1000 3. 6 NaOH + 3Cl2 → NaClO3 + 5NaCl +3H2O (Hot and conc.) ( A) 2Ca(OH)2 + 2Cl2 → Ca(OCl)2 +CaCl2 +2H2O ( B) (Dry) 9. Thus, A : NaClO3 B : Ca (OCl)2 4. The temporary hardness of a water sample is due to compound X [i.e. Mg(HCO3 )2]. Boiling of this sample converts X [i.e. Mg(HCO3 )2] to compound Y[i.e. Mg(OH)2 ]. Generally, temporary hardness is due to presence of magnesium and calcium hydrogen carbonates. It can be removed by boiling. During boiling, the soluble Mg(HCO3 )2 is converted into insoluble Mg(OH)2 and Ca(HCO3 )2 changed to insoluble CaCO3 . These precipitates can be removed by filteration. Heating Mg(HCO3 )2 → Mg(OH)2 ↓ + 2CO2 ↑ Heating Ca(HCO3 )2 → CaCO3 ↓ + H2O + CO2 ↑ 5. Statement (c) is incorrect. LiNO3(Lithium nitrate) on heating gives a mixture of Li 2O, NO2 and O2. ∆ 4LiNO3 → 2Li 2O + 4NO2 ↑ + O2 ↑ Among the alkali metals, lithium is the strongest reducing agent. 6. Metal that gives hydrogen gas upon treatment with both acid as well as base is zinc. Hence, it is amphoteric in nature. Reactions involved are as follows: Zn + Dil. NaOH → Na 2 ZnO2 + H2 ↑ Key Idea The amount of energy released when one mole of gaseous ions combine with water to form hydrated ions is called hydration enthalpy. The correct order of hydration enthalpies of alkali metal ions is Li + > Na + > K+ > Rb+ > Cs+ Li+ possesses the maximum degree of hydration due to its small size. As a consequence of hydration enthalpy, their mobility also get affected. Cs+ has highest and Li + has lowest mobility in aqueous solution. 10. All the statements are correct. K+ being metallic unipositive ions work as enzyme activators. These also participate in many reactions of glycolysis and Kreb’s cycle to produce ATP from glucose. Being unipositive these are also equally responsible for nerve signal transmission along with Na + . (Na + ion-pump theory) 11. Metal (A) is rubidium (Rb). In excess of air, it forms RbO2( X ). X is a superoxide that have O−2 ion. It is due to the stabilisation of large anion by large cations through lattice energy effects. RbO2 (X ) gets easily hydrolysed by water to form the hydroxide, H2O2 and O2. The reaction involved are as follows: Rb + O2 → RbO2 (superoxide) Zn + 2HCl(dil.) → ZnCl 2 + H2 ↑ 7. The explanation of given statements are as follows : 1. Saline or ionic hydrides produce H2 with H2O. ⊕ È M H + H2O → H2 ↑ + MOH Thus, statement (1) is correct. Ether 2. 3LiAlH4 + 4BF3 → 2B2H6 + 3LiF + 3AlF3 (Diborane) Thus, statement (2) is correct. 3. PH3 and CH4 are covalent hydrides and in both of the hydrides, octet of P and C have been satisfied. But P in PH3 has one lone pair of electrons and C in CH4 does not have so PH3 (group 15) and CH4 (group 14) are electron rich and electron precise hydrides, respectively. Thus, statement (3) is correct. 4. HF and CH4 are called as molecular hydrides because of their discrete and sterically symmetrical structure. Thus, statement (4) is also correct. 8. 11.2 volume of H2O2 means that 1 mL of this H2O2 will give 11.2 mL of oxygen at STP. 2H2O2 (l ) → 2 × 34 g O2 (g ) 22.4 L at STP + 2H2O(l ) 22.4 L of O2 at STP is produced from H2O2 = 68 g ∴ 11.2 L of O2 at STP is produced from 68 H2O2 = × 112 . = 34 g 22.4 (X) 2RbO2 + 2H2O → 2RbOH + H2O2 + O2 (X) 12. Hardness of water sample can be calculated in terms of ppm concentration of CaCO3. Given, molarity = 10−3M i.e. 1000 mL of solution contains 10−3 mole of CaCO3. ∴Hardness of water = ppm of CaCO3 10−3 × 1000 = × 106 = 100ppm 1000 13. GaH3, AlH3 and B2H6 are the hydrides of group-13 (ns2np1 ), whereas SiH4 is an hydride of group 14. H H sp2 Ga Al sp2 H H H H 6e – around 6e – around Al 3+ <8e – (octet) Ga 3+ <8e – (octet) (AlH3) (GaH3) 3c–2e – bridge bond H sp3 H H B B H H H B is sp3, but cannot satisfy octet due to the attachment of two 3c-2e – bridge bonds (B–H–B) So, B2H6, AlH3 and GaH3 are electron deficient hydrides. s-Block Elements 213 But, SiH4 is an electron precise hydride of group-14 (ns2np2 ), i.e. these hydrides can have the required number of electrons to write their conventional Lewis structures. H 8e– around Si (Octet gets satisfied) Si H Only tritium (T) is radioactive, because of its very high n value, p n = 2 . p 18. H2O2 can act as both oxidising and reducing agents in both acidic and basic medium. H H H2 O2 as oxidising agent 14. (I) H2 is a 100% pollution free fuel. So, statement (I) is correct. (II) Molecular weight of H2(2u). 1 = × molecular weight of butane, 29 C 4H10 (LPG) [58u]. In acidic medium: H2 O2 + 2H+ + 2e− → 2H2 O l In basic medium : H2 O2 + 2O H + 2e− → 2H2 O + 2O2 − − H2 O2 as reducing agent So, compressed H2 weighs ~30 times more than a petrol tank and statement (II) is correct. (III) NaNi 5, Ti - TiH2 etc. are used for storage of H2 in small quantities. Thus, statement (III) is correct. (IV) On combustion values of energy released per gram of liquid dihydrogen (H2 ) : 142 kJ g −1, and for LPG : 50 kJ g −1. So, staement (IV) is incorrect. r l l In acidic medium : H2 O2 → O2 + 2H+ + 2e− In basic medium : H2O2 + 2OH− → O2 + 2H2O + 2e− 19. Among the group-1 metals, only Li is able to form its nitride, Li 3N. [All alkaline earth metals of group-2 form their nitride, M 3N2] 6Li + N 2 → 2Li 3N (Ruby red solid) (Air) s 15. Na H is an example of ionic or saline hydride. These hydrides are formed when hydrogen combines with metals having less electronegativity and more electropositive character with respect to hydrogen. Except Be and Mg, all s-block metals form saline hydrides. Hydrides of p-block elements are covalent in nature, viz, electron deficient hydrides (by group-13 elements), electron-precise hydrides (by group-14 elements), and electron-rich hydrides (by group 15-17 elements). Hydrides of d , f -block metals are called interstitial or metallic hydrides. 16. Sodium metal on dissolution in liquid ammonia gives a deep blue solution due to the formation of ammoniated electrons. The reaction is represented as follows: Na (s) + (x + y) NH3 (l ) → [Na(NH)x ]+ + [ e(NH 3 ) y ] [Ammoniated Na + or expanded Na] [Ammoniated electrons] Ammoniated (solvated) electrons show electronic transition in visible region and the solution becomes deep blue coloured. This deep blue solution also shows the following properties due to the presence of ammoniated electrons. (i) It is strongly reducing in nature. (ii) It is paramagnetic. (iii) It is a good conductor of electricity. 17. Hydrogen has three isotopes: 1 1H 2 1H 3 1 H Protium (P) Deuterium (D) Tritium (T) p 1 1 1 n 0 1 2 n p 0 1 2 I II [ 3M + N 2 → M 3N 2 ] Li ⊕ is the smallest metal ion of group-1. Smaller size of Li ⊕ and larger size of nitride ion, N 3− , enable Li ⊕ to polarise the spherical electron cloud of N 3− and it gives higher stability to Li 3N. 20. Temporary hardness of water is due to presence of soluble Ca(HCO3 )2 or Mg(HCO3 )2. Permanent hardness of water is due to the presence of CaCl 2 or CaSO4 or MgCl 2 or MgSO4. Temporary hardness of water is also called carbonate hardness which can be easily removed by boiling or by treatment with Ca(OH)2 (Clark’s method). 21. There are three known isotopes of hydrogen, each possessing an atomic number 1 and atomic masses 1, 2 and 3 respectively. These are named as protium (1 H), deuterium (2 H or D) and tritium (3 H or T) The most common isotope is the ordinary hydrogen usually called protium. It consists of one proton in the nucleus and an electron revolving around it. The second isotope of hydrogen is called heavy hydrogen or deuterium. It consists of one proton and one neutron in the nucleus and an electron revolving around it. The third isotope of hydrogen is called tritium. It consists of one proton and two neutrons in the nucleus and an electron revolving around it. 22. Both reactions in their complete format are written below (i) In acidic medium, −2 −1 [Fe2+ (CN)6 ]4− + H2 O2 + 2H+ → [Fe3+ (CN)6 ]3− + 2H2 O (ii) In alkaline medium, −1 [Fe3+ (CN)6 ]3− + H2 O2 + 2OH− → [Fe2+ (CN)6 ]4− + O2 + 2H2O Hence, H2O (for reaction (i)) and O2 + H2O (for reaction (ii)) are produced as by product. 214 s-Block Elements O O HO S − O O − S OH → 2H2SO4 + H2O2 HO H H OH O O 23. Mg can form basic carbonate while Li cannot. 5 Mg 2+ +6 CO2– 3 + 7H2O → 4MgCO3 ⋅ Mg(OH)2 ⋅5H2O + 2 HCO−3 24. Region 1 (Pre-heating zone) On partial hydrolysis, it gives one mole of H2SO4 and one mole of peroxomonosulphuric acid as O O HO S O O S OH → H2SO4 H OH O O O + HO S O O H O Region 2 (Primary combustion zone, hottest zone) Region 3 (Internal zone) Region 4 (Secondary reaction zone) 25. There is extensive intermolecular H-bonding in the condensed phase. 1 26. 2Li + O2 (g ) → Li 2O 2 (Excess) 2Na + O2 (g ) → Na 2O2; K + O2 (g ) → KO2 ( Excess) (Excess) 27. Order of first ionisation energy is Sc > Na > K > Rb. Due to poor shielding effect, removal of one electron from 4s orbital is difficult as compared to 3s-orbital. 28. PLAN This problem can be solved by using concept of oxidant and reductant. Peroxomonosulphuric acid 33. In PbO2 , Pb is in +4 oxidation state and oxygen is in –2 oxidation state. In all other case, peroxide ion (O2− 2 ) is present. 34. Metallic lustre of any metal is due to oscillation of free electrons present in the metal. Oxidant Oxidant increases the oxidation number of the species with which it is reacted. 35. H2O is reduced as well as oxidised giving H2 (g ) at cathode and Reductant Reductant decreases the oxidation number of the species with which it is reacted. 36. KNO3 and other nitrates of alkli metals (except LiNO3) are H2O2 reacts with KIO4 in the following manner: 37. Sodium peroxide on treatment with dilute acid gives H2O2 +7 O2 (g ) at anode. thermally stable. Na 2O2 + H2SO4 → Na 2SO4 + H2O2 +5 KIO4 + H2O2 → KIO3 + H2O + O2 On reaction of KIO4 with H2O2, oxidation state of I varies from +7 to +5, i.e. decreases. Thus, KIO4 gets reduced hence, H2O2 is a reducing agent here. With NH2OH, it given following reaction: +3 −1 N H2OH + H2O2 → N 2 O3 + H2O In the above reaction, oxidation state of N varies from –1 to +3. Here, oxidation number increases, hence H2O2 is acting as an oxidising agent here. Hence, (a) is the correct choice. 29. Release of electron is known as reduction. So, H2O2 acts as reducing agent when it releases electrons. Here, in reaction (II) and (IV), H2O2 releases two electron, hence reaction (II) and (IV) is known as reduction. In reaction (I) and (III), two electrons are being added, so (I) and (III) represents oxidation. 30. Mg(HCO3 )2 on boiling decomposes to give white precipitate of 38. Glauber’s salt is Na 2SO4 ⋅ 10H2O. 39. D2O is commonly known as heavy water. 40. Presence of solvated electrons makes solution of alkali metal in liquid ammonia makes them strongly reducing agent. 41. Lime treatment remove bicarbonate hardness by forming insoluble CaCO3 as Ca(HCO3 )2 + Ca(OH)2 → 2CaCO3 ↓ + 2H2O 42. PLAN Paramagnetic character of species can be easily explained on the basis of presence of unpaired electrons, i.e. compounds containing unpaired electron(s) is/are paramagnetic. Reaction of alkali metals with ammonia depends upon the physical state of ammonia whether it is in gaseous state or liquid state. If ammonia is considered as a gas then reaction will be 1 (a) Na + NH3 → NaNH2 + H2 2 (Excess) (NaNH2 + 1/2 H2 are diamagnetic) If ammonia is considered as a liquid then reaction will be M + (x + y)NH3 → [ M (NH3 )x ]+ + [ e(NH 3 ) y ]− • Ammoniated electron • Blue colour • Paramagnetic • Very strong reducing agent MgCO3 as: Heat Mg(HCO3 )2 (aq) → MgCO3 ↓ + H2O + CO2 ↑ 31. Electrolysis of aqueous Na 2SO4 gives H2 (g ) at cathode and O2 (g ) at anode. 32. Peroxodisulphuric acid (H2S2O8 ) on complete hydrolysis gives two moles of H2SO4 and one mole of H2O2 as (b) K + O2 → KO2 (K+ , O−2 ) (Excess) Potassium superoxide paramagnetic (c) 3Cu + 8HNO3 → 3Cu(NO3 )2 + Paramagnetic 2NO Paramagnetic + 4H2O s-Block Elements 215 OH H2O2 → H2O + O Et Et O2 (d) + H 2O 2 OH (ii) If the compound is Na 2O, it will hydrolyse to form NaOH. Na 2O + H2O → 2NaOH NaOH solution formed above will change colour of red litmus paper into blue. O 2-ethylanthraquinol 2-ethylanthraquinone Hence, option (a), (b) and (c) are correct choices. 43. When sodium metal is burnt in excess of air, mainly sodium 57. KMnO4 + H2O2 → MnO2 + KOH + O2 OA RA 44. NaNO3 when heated, it decomposes in two stages as: 1 O2 2 T > 800° C → Na 2O + N2 + O2 A B C H+ and Mg2+ ions present in hard water. 47. Solubility of a salt is influenced by two major factors, lattice energy and hydration energy. For greater solubility, there should be smaller lattice energy and greater hydration energy. 48. Both statements are correct but blue colour is due to presence of solvated electron NH3 (e− ). D Milkyness M can be either Ca or Ba but essentially not Mg because Mg(OH)2 is very sparingly soluble in water. Na + NH3 → Na + + NH3 (e− ) 46. Zeolite acts as ion exchange resin and its Na + is exchanged with C M (OH)2 + CO2 → MCO3 are present whose emission spectrum gives blue colouration to solution. Also, presence of solvated electrons and solvated Na + ion makes solution highly conducting. B M 3N2 + 6H2O → 3M (OH)2 + 2NH3 45. In dilute solution of Na in liquid ammonia, solvated electrons Solvated electron OA 3M + N2 → M 3 N2 58. NaNO3 → NaNO2 + NaNO2 RA FeSO4 + H2O2 → Fe3+ + H2O peroxide (Na 2O2 ) with little sodium oxide (Na 2O) are formed. T < 500° C [O] Bleaches colour of red litmus 59. 2KNO3 (s) + 10K(s) → 6K2O (s) + N2 (g ) 60. In H2O2 , the peroxide ion (O2− 2 ) is unstable, has tendency to pass into stable oxide state (O2− ). Hence, H2O2 is a good oxidising agent while H2O is stable. 61. In Solvay process, NaHCO3 is extracted from the solution by fractional crystallisation, which is then heated to convert it into Na 2CO3 ⋅ KHCO3 , being more soluble than NaHCO3 , cannot be extracted by fractional crystallisation. Hence, Solvay process fails in production of K2CO3. 62. Water forms stronger intermolecular H-bonds, therefore it is liquid at room temperature while H2S cannot form such strong intermolecular bonds, gas at room temperature. 49. Statement I is correct. Small size of Li + makes it highly polarising, introduces predominant covalency in LiCl. Statement II is incorrect, there is very large difference in electronegativity of Li and Cl. 50. Alkali metal forms MH in which hydrogen is in –1 oxidation state. Both statements are correct and statement –2 is correct explanation of statement I. 51. Al + conc. NaOH → NaAlO2 + H2 ↑ 52. Na in liquid ammonia contain NH3 (e− ) which possesses charge and conduct electricity. 53. Occlusion is a phenomena in which particles are physically trapped in voids. Topic 2 Group II Elements 1. Correct match is I → (B), II → (D), III → (A), IV → (C) (I) Ca(OH)2 used in white wash. (II) NaCl is used in the preparation of washing soda. 2NH3 + H2O + CO2 → (NH4 )2 CO3 (NH4 )2CO 3 + H2O + CO 2 → 2NH4HCO 3 NH4HCO 3 + NaCl → NH4Cl + NaHCO 3 (s) ∆ 2NaHCO 3 → Na 2CO 3 + CO 2 + H2O (III) CaSO4 ⋅ 54. I2 disproportionate in alkali giving NaI and NaIO3. 55. Sodium when burnt in excess of oxygen, gives sodium peroxide as major product. ∆ Na + O2 → Na 2O2 + Na 2O Major Minor 56. The substance is Na 2O2. When Na 2O2 is dissolved in water, it forms NaOH and H2O2. In this case, NaOH is a strong base while H2O2 is a weak acid. (i) Na 2O2 + 2H2O → 2NaOH + H2O2 H2O2 decolourises red litmus paper due to its bleaching action which is due to its oxidising character. 1 H2O (plaster of Paris) is used for making casts of 2 statues. (IV) CaCO 3 is used as an antacid. 2. In comparison to boron, beryllium has lesser nuclear charge and greater first ionisation enthalpy. Electronic configuration of Be(4 ) = 1s2 , 2s2. It possess completely filled s-orbitals. Hence, high amount of energy is required to pull the electron from the gaseous atom. Beryllium (4) lies left to the boron (5) and on moving from left to right an electron is added due to which nuclear charge increases from Be to B. 216 s-Block Elements 3. The correct sequence of thermal stability of carbonates is MgCO3 < CaCO3 < SrCO3 < BaCO3 On moving down the group, i.e. from Mg to Ba, atomic radius generally increases. It is due to the addition of shell. As a result, the atomic size increases. CO2− 3 is a large anion. Hence, more stabilised by Ba 2+ (large cation) and less stabilised by Mg2+ . Therefore, BaCO3 has highest thermal stability followed by SrCO3, CaCO3 and MgCO3. 4. Baking soda (NaHCO3 ) is not a hydrated solid. Thus, ( X ) is not baking soda. Thus, option (a) and (c) are incorrect. Dead burnt plaster (CaSO4 ) is obtained from gypsum via the formation of plaster of Paris. 1 > 393K CaSO4 ⋅2H2O → CaSO4 ⋅ H2O → CaSO4 1 −1/ 2 H 2 O 2 − H 2 O Dead burnt plaster Gypsum 380-393 K Plaster of Paris 2 (anhydrous) Therefore, the reaction takes place as follows : < 373K > 373K Na 2CO3 ⋅ 10H2O → Na 2CO3 ⋅ H2O → Washing soda (X ) −9H 2 O Monohydrate (Y ) −H 2 O Na 2CO3 Anhydrous white powder (soda ash) (Z ) 5. Names of magnesium alloys are given by two letters followed by two numbers. The common alloying elements are A (Aluminium), Z (zinc), T (tin), M (manganese) etc. Numbers indicate respective nominal compositions of main alloying elements, e.g. ‘AZ 91’ implies the composition of the alloy as : Al = 9%, Zn = 1% and Mg = 100 – (9 + 1) = 90% Among the alloys given, Mg – Al (Magnalium ; Mg = 5%, Al = 95%) is being light, tough and strong, hence it is used in aircrafts. 6. The structures of beryllium chloride in the solid state and vapour phase, respectively are dimeric and chain. In vapour phase at above 900°C, BeCl2 is monomeric having a linear structure Cl BeCl. The bonding in BeCl2 is covalent and Be atom accommodates 2 + 2 = 4 electrons in the two sp-hybrid orbitals. Below 900°C, beryllium chloride in vapour phase exists as a mixture of monomer BeCl2 and dimer Be2Cl4. 7. Magnesium powder burns in air to give MgO and Mg 3N2. MgO does not combine with excess oxygen to give any superoxide. Mg reacts with nitrogen to form magnesium nitride (Mg 3N2 ). Mg + O2 → MgO 3Mg + N2 → Mg3N2 8. Key Idea According to Fajan’s rule, degree of covalency (ionic potential), φ ∝-polarisation power of the cation ∝ charge on the cation 1 . ∝ size of the cation Alkaline earth metals contains bipositive (H2+ ) ions in their compounds. So, here (i) Charge on cation, i.e. + 2 is constant. (ii) Halide present (X − ) is also constant. So, the covalent character depends on the size of alkaline earth metal. As we move down the group, size of metal ion increases. Be2+ < Mg2+ < Ca 2+ < Sr 2+ < Ba 2+ So, Be2+ readily forms covalent compounds like BeX 2, because of very high positive charge density over its small size, so that it readily polarises anionic spherical electron cloud. 9. (i) Washing soda (Na 2CO3 ⋅ 10H2O) is manufactured in Solvay process. In this method, CO2 gas is passed through a conc. solution of NaCl saturated with NH3. It gives ammonium carbonate followed by ammonium hydrogen carbonate. The obtained NH4HCO3 is treated with solution of NaCl which result in the formation of NaHCO3. The crystal obtained are heated to obtain Na 2CO3. NaCl + NH3 + CO 2 + H2O → NaHCO3 + NH4Cl ∆ Crystallisation 2NaHCO3 →Na 2CO3 → Na 2CO3 ⋅ 10H2O − H2O, CO2 (ii) Mg(HCO3 )2 and Ca(HCO3 )2 cause temporary hardness to water that can be easily removed by boiling. (iii) NaOH is manufactured by Castner-Kellner process. In this reaction, Na amalgam flows out and treated with water to give NaOH and H2 gas. During electrolysis, hydrogen is evolved at cathode and chlorine is evolved at anode, which are the by product of this process. – Cl2 Carbon anode 2Cl –2e Electrolysis 2NaCl(aq) + Hg cathode 2Na +2e 2Na (Na/Hg) H2O 2NaOH(aq) +H2 (iv) Portland cement constitutes, tricalcium aluminosilicate, 3CaO ⋅Al 2O3. SiO2, i.e. Ca 3Al 2O6 ⋅ SiO2. 10. For group-2 metal hydroxides, basicity increases down the group, as: Be(OH)2 < Mg(OH)2 < Ca(OH)2 < Sr(OH)2 < Ba(OH)2 This is because as the size of metal atom increases, M—OH bond length increases or M—OH bond become weaker thus readily breaks to release OH − ions which are responsible for the basicity of these solutions. But Be(OH)2 shows amphoteric (basic as well as acidic) character as it reacts with acid and alkali both which is shown in the following reactions. Be(OH)2 as a base : Be(OH)2 + 2HCl → BeCl 2 + 2H2O Be(OH)2 as an acid : Be(OH)2 + 2NaOH → Na 2[Be(OH)4 ] 11. Among the four elements given, Na, Be, Mg and Ca, Be has highest IE value because of its smallest size and 2s2 valence shell configuration. So, X-ray cannot cause ionisation from the material used, i.e. Be in the tube window, which may cause interference in the study. I 12. A saturated aqueous solution of M (NO3 )2 on crystallisation II will produce hydrated crystal, M (NO3 )2 ⋅ nH2O only when hydration enthalpy (∆H °hyd ) of M 2 + ion will be appreciably more negative. s-Block Elements 217 Hydration of an ion depends on its size. Smaller the size of an ion, higher will be its charge density and as a result it will remain more solvated (hydrated) through ion dipole interaction. Size of group-2 metal ions increases on going down the group. So, their ability to form hydrated crystals follows the order: Be2 + >> Mg 2 + >> Ca 2 + >> Sr 2 + >> Ba 2 + Thus, Ba(NO3 )2 is slightly or almost insoluble in water. 13. As we move down the group, size of metal increases. Be has SO2− 4 has bigger size, that’s why BeSO 4 breaks lower size while easily and lattice energy becomes smaller but due to lower size of Be, water molecules are gathered around and hence hydration energy increases. On the other hand, rest of the metals, i.e. Ca, Ba, Sr have bigger size and that’s why lattice energy is greater than hydration energy. Time saving technique In the question of finding hydration energy only check the size of atom. Smaller sized atom has more hydration energy. Thus, in this question Be is placed upper most in the group has lesser size and not comparable with the size of sulphates. Hence, BeSO 4 is the right response. 14. Thermal stability of salts with common anion depends on polarising power of cation. Greater the polarising power, lower be their thermal stability. Hence, BeCO3 (IV) < MgCO3 (II) < CaCO3 (III) < K2CO3 (I) BaO2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + H2O2 The most electronegative atom, oxygen, in BaSO4 and H2O2 has −2 and −1oxidation state respectively. 16. Electrolysis of molten CaCl 2 gives calcium at cathode − Ca + 2e → Ca (at cathode) In case of electrolysis in aqueous medium, less electropositive H+ is reduced at cathode rather than Ca 2+. 17. Ca(OH)2 + Ca(HCO3 )2 → 2CaCO3 ↓ + HO− + HCO3− → CO23− + H2O Ca(HCO3 )2 + Na 2CO3 → CaCO3 ↓ + 2NaHCO3 18. Magnesium ammonium phosphate is precipitated out. MgSO4 + NH4OH + Na 2HPO4 → Mg(NH4 )PO4 ↓ + Na 2SO4 19. Si is used in solar cells, because of its semi-conductor properties. 20. Anhydrous MgCl 2 is obtained by heating hydrated salt in stream of dry HCl. 21. Heating MgCl 2 ⋅ 6H2O brings about partial dehydration as ∆ MgCl 2 ⋅ 6H2O → Mg(OHCl) + HCl + 5H2O * * 22. BaCO 3 + H 2SO 4 → BaSO 4 + H 2O + CO 2 * (C = C14) 23. Be in BeCl 2 is electron deficient, short of two lone pair of electrons from stable octet. H2O has lone pair of electrons, reacts with BeCl 2. 24. Alkaline earth metal salts have M 2+ ions which has very high polarising power compared to polarising power of monovalent metal ion (M + ) of alkali metal. Due to high polarising power of M 2+ , it associate more water than M + . 25. A = NH3 , B = CaCO3. 15. The reaction involved is 2+ NaOCl + H2 → NaOH + HOCl 2H2O (Clark’s method) Reactions involved are : Heat 3Ca + N2 → Ca 3N2 Ca 3N2 + 6H2O → 3Ca(OH)2 + 2NH3 A Ca(OH)2 + CO2 (From air) → CaCO3 + H2O B 26. Basic strength (i) decreases from left to right in period and (ii) increases from top to bottom in group. Therefore, NiO < MgO < SrO < K2O < Cs2O Basic strength 15 p-Block Elements-I Topic 1 Group 13 Elements Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. The reaction of H3N3 B3Cl3 (A) with LiBH 4 in tetrahydrofuran gives inorganic benzene (B). Further, the reaction of (A) with (C) leads to H3N3 B3 (Me)3 . Compounds (B) and (C) respectively, are (2020 Main, 9 Jan II) (a) (b) (c) (d) diborane and MeMgBr boron nitride and MeBr borazine and MeBr borazine and MeMgBr (2019 Adv.) (b) CrB (d) Cr2 (B4O7 )3 3. The correct statements among I to III regarding group 13 element oxides are: (2019 Main, 9 April II) I. Boron trioxide is acidic. II. Oxides of aluminium and gallium are amphoteric. III. Oxides of indium and thallium are basic. (b) I and III only (d) II and III only 4. Diborane (B2 H6 ) reacts independently with O2 and H2 O to produce, respectively. (2019 Main, 8 April I) (a) B2O3 and H3BO3 (b) B2O3 and [BH4 ]− (c) H3BO3 and B2O3 (d) HBO2 and H3BO3 5. The relative stability of + 1 oxidation state of group 13 elements follows the order (a) (b) (c) (d) (2019 Main, 11 Jan II) Al < Ga < Tl < In Al < Ga < In < Tl Tl < In < Ga < Al Ga < Al < In < Tl 9. The increasing order of atomic radii of the following Group 10. B(OH) 3 + NaOH w (2016 Adv.) (b) Ga < Al < In < Tl (d) Al < Ga < Tl < In NaBO2 + Na[B(OH) 4 ] + H2 O How can this reaction is made to proceed in forward direction? (2006, 3M) (a) (b) (c) (d) Addition of cis 1, 2-diol Addition of borax Addition of trans 1, 2-diol Addition of Na 2HPO4 11. H3 BO3 is (a) (b) (c) (d) (2003, 1M) monobasic acid and weak Lewis acid monobasic and weak Bronsted acid monobasic and strong Lewis acid tribasic and weak Bronsted acid 12. In compounds of type ECl 3 , where E = B , P, As or Bi, the angles Cl E Cl for different E are in the order (1999, 2M) (a) B > P = As = Bi (c) B < P = As = Bi (a) silica (c) diamond bonds in B2 H6 , respectively, are (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) (b) 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 1 (b) B > P > As > Bi (d) B < P < As < Bi (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) (b) carbon (d) boron (1982, 1M) (b) graphite (d) None of these Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) 14. Among the following, the correct statement(s) is(are) 7. The electronegativity of aluminium is similar to (a) lithium (c) beryllium (b) lanthanoid contraction (d) diagonal relationship 13. Moderate electrical conductivity is shown by 6. The number of 2-centre-2-electron and 3-centre-2-electron (a) 4 and 2 (c) 2 and 2 (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) (a) lattice effect (c) inert pair effect 13 elements is chromium (III) salt is due to (a) I, II and III (c) I and II only thallium exists in +1and +3 oxidation states. This is due to (a) Al < Ga < In < Tl (c) Al < In < Ga < Tl 2. The green colour produced in the borax bead test of a (a) Cr 2O 3 (c) Cr(BO2 )3 8. Aluminium is usually found in +3 oxidation state. In contrast, (2017 Adv.) (a) Al (CH3 )3 has the three-centre two-electron bonds in its dimeric structure (b) The Lewis acidity of BCl 3 is greater than that of AlCl 3 p-Block Elements-I 219 (c) AlCl 3 has the three-centre two-electron bonds in its dimeric structure (d) BH3 has the three-centre two-electron bonds in its dimeric structure 15. The crystalline form of borax has (2016 Adv.) (a) tetranuclear [ B4O5 (OH)4 ]2 − unit (b) all boron atoms in the same plane (c) equal number of sp2 and sp3 hybridised boron atoms (d) one terminal hydroxide per boron atom 16. The correct statement(s) for orthoboric acid is/are (2014 Adv.) (a) It behaves as a weak acid in water due to self ionisation (b) Acidity of its aqueous solution increases upon addition of ethylene glycol (c) It has a three-dimensional structure due to hydrogen bonding (d) It is a weak electrolyte in water + 17. In the reaction, 2 X + B2 H6 → [BH2 ( X )2 ] [BH4 ] the amine(s) X is/are − (2009) (a) NH3 (b) CH3NH2 (c) (CH3 )2 NH (d) (CH3 )3 N Match the Column 22. Match the following. (2006, 6M) Column I Column II A. Bi 3 + → (BiO)+ p. Heat B. [AlO2 ]− → Al(OH)3 q. Hydrolysis C. SiO44 − → r. Acidification D. (B4O72 − ) → [B(OH)3 ] s. Dilution by water Si 2O67 − Fill in the Blank 23. The two types of bonds present in B2 H6 are covalent and ……… (1994, 1M) True/False 24. The basic nature of hydroxide of group 13 (group IIIA) decreases progressively down the group. (1993, 1M) 25. All the Al Cl bonds in Al 2 Cl 6 are equivalent. (1989, 1M) Integer Answer Type Questions 26. Three moles of B2 H6 are completely reacted with methanol. The number of moles of boron containing product formed is (2015 Adv.) Numerical Answer Type Question 27. The value of n in the molecular formula Ben Al2 Si6 O18 is 18. Among B 2H 6, B 3N 3H 6, N 2O, N 2O 4, H 2S2O 3 and H 2S2O 8, the total number of molecules containing covalent bond between two atoms of the same kind is .............(2019 Adv.) Assertion and Reason Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below : (a) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct 19. Statement I Boron always forms covalent bond. Statement II The small size of B3+ favours formation of covalent bond. (2007, 3M) 20. Statement I In water, orthoboric acid behaves as a weak monobasic acid. Statement II In water, orthoboric acid acts as a proton donor. (2007, 3M) 21. Statement I Al(OH)3 is amphoteric in nature. Statement II Al O and O H bonds can be broken (1998 , 2M) with equal ease in Al (OH)3 . (2010) Subjective Questions 28. AlF3 is insoluble in anhydrous HF but when little KF is added to the compound it becomes soluble. On addition of BF3, AlF3 is precipitated. Write the balanced chemical equations. (2004, 2M) 29. (i) How is boron obtained from borax? Give chemical equations with reaction conditions. (ii) Write the structure of B2H6 and its reaction with HCl. (2002) 30. Compound X on reduction with LiAlH4 gives a hydride Y containing 21.72% hydrogen alongwith other products. The compound Y reacts with air explosively resulting in boron trioxide. Identify X and Y. Give balanced reactions involved in the formation of Y and its reaction with air. Draw the structure of Y. (2001, 5M) 31. Aluminium sulphide gives a foul odour when it becomes damp. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction. (1997, 2M) 32. Anhydrous AlCl 3 is covalent. From the data given below, predict whether it would remain covalent or become ionic in aqueous solution. (Ionisation energy for Al = 5137 kJ mol –1 ∆H hydration for Al 3+ = – 4665 kJ mol –1 ∆H hydration for Cl − = − 381 kJ mol −1 (1997, 2M) 220 p-Block Elements-I Topic 2 Group 14 Elements Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. The C C bond length is maximum in (a) graphite (c) C60 (2019 Main, 12 April II) (b) C70 (d) diamond 2. The basic structural unit of feldspar, zeolites, mica and asbestos is (2019 Main, 12 April I) (a) (SiO3 )2− (b) SiO2 R (d) ( Si O ) (R = Me) n R (c) (SiO4 )4− (a) CO (2019 Main, 10 April I) (b) Si > Sn > C > Ge (d) Ge > Sn > Si > C (2019 Main, 9 April I) (d) Pb 7. The element that shows greater ability to form pπ- pπ multiple bonds, is (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) (b) Si (c) Sn (d) C 8. The chloride that cannot get hydrolysed is (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) (a) SnCl 4 (c) PbCl 4 (b) CCl 4 (d) SiCl 4 9. Correct statements among (I) to (IV) regarding silicones are: (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) IV. Usually, they are resistant to oxidation and used as greases. (b) I, II, III only (d) I, II and IV only are shared is (a) pyrosilicate (c) linear chain silicate (a) SnCl 2 ⋅ 2H2O is a reducing agent. (b) SnO2 reacts with KOH to form K 2[Sn(OH)6 ]. (c) A solution of PbCl 2 in HCl contains Pb2+ and Cl − ions. (d) The reaction of Pb3O4 with hot dilute nitric acid to give PbO2 is a redox reaction. (2005, 1M) (b) sheet silicate (d) three-dimensional silicate 11. Me2 SiCl 2 on hydrolysis will produce (a) (Me)2 Si(OH)2 (b) (Me)2 Si ==O (c) [ O (Me)2 Si O ]n (d) Me2SiCl(OH) (2012) (a) Graphite is harder than diamond (b) Graphite has higher electrical conductivity than diamond. (c) Graphite has higher thermal conductivity than diamond. (d) Graphite has higher C C bond order than diamond Assertion and Reason (a) Statement I is correc;t Statement II is correct Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct Statement II The higher oxidation states for the group 14 elements are more stable for the heavier members of the group due to ‘inert pair effect’. (2008, 3M) 18. Statement I Between SiCl 4 and CCl 4 , only SiCl 4 reacts 10. Name the structure of silicates in which three oxygen atoms of [ SiO4 ] Objective Question II (One or more than one correct option) agents than Sn 2+ compounds. III. In general, they have high thermal stability and low dielectric strength. 4− (d) PbI4 17. Statement I Pb 4+ compounds are stronger oxidising I. They are polymers with hydrophobic character. II. They are biocompatible. (a) I and II only (c) I, II, III and IV (1996, 1M) (c) SnI4 statement(s) given below is/are correct? (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) (c) Si (b) GeI4 16. With respect to graphite and diamond, which of the 6. The element that does not show catenation is (a) Ge (1996, 1M) (d) SiO2 (2020 Adv.) (2019 Main, 9 April II) (b) kieselguhr (d) quartz (b) Sn (c) ZnO 15. Choose the correct statement(s) among the following: 16 hexagons and 16 pentagons 20 hexagons and 12 pentagons 12 hexagons and 20 pentagons 18 hexagons and 14 pentagons (a) Ge (b) SnO2 doubtful existence? 5. C60 an allotrope of carbon contains (a) (b) (c) (d) (2002, 3M) 13. Which one of the following oxides is neutral ? (a) CCl 4 4. The amorphous form of silica is (a) tridymite (c) cristobalite CO2 , CuO, CaO, H2 O. (a) CaO < CuO < H2O < CO2 (b) H2O < CuO < CaO < CO2 (c) CaO < H2O < CuO < CO2 (d) H2O < CO2 < CaO < CuO 14. Which of the following halides is least stable and has 3. The correct order of catenation is (a) C > Sn > Si ≈ Ge (c) C > Si > Ge ≈ Sn 12. Identify the correct order of acidic strength of (2003, 1M) with water. Statement II SiCl 4 is ionic and CCl 4 is covalent. (2001, S, 1M) Fill in the Blanks 19. A liquid which is permanently supercooled is frequently called ……… . (1997, 1M) p-Block Elements-I 221 20. The recently discovered allotrope of carbon (e.g. C60 ) is commonly known as ……… . (1994, 1M) 21. The hydrolysis of trialkyl chlorosilane R3 SiCl, yields ……… . (1994, 1M) 22. The hydrolysis of alkyl substituted chlorosilanes gives ……… . (1991, 1M) 28. Draw the structure of a cyclic silicate, (Si 3 O9 )6– with proper labelling. (1998, 4M) 29. Write the balanced equation for the preparation of crystalline silicon from SiCl 4 . columns Y and Z. Match the appropriate entries. X True/False Z Fermentation Ethanol (1993, 1M) Mica Graphite Abrasive (1993, 1M) Superphosphate Crystalline cubic Insulator Carbon fibres Layer structure Fertiliser Rock salt Diamond structure Reinforced plastics Carborundum Bone ash Preservative 25. Graphite is a better lubricant on the moon than on the earth. (1987, 1M) 26. Carbon tetrachloride burns in air when lighted to give phosgene gas. Y Yeast 23. The tendency for catenation is much higher for C than for Si. 24. Diamond is harder than graphite. (1990, 1M) 30. Each entry in column X is in some way related to the entries in (1983, 1M) Subjective Questions (1989, 3M) 27. Starting from SiCl 4 , prepare the following in steps not exceeding the number given in parenthesis (give reactions only). (i) Silicon (ii) Linear silicon containing methyl group only (2001, 5M) (iii) Na 2SiO3 31. Give reasons for the following in one or two sentences : “Graphite is used as a solid lubricant.” (1985, 1M) 32. Give reason for the following in one or two sentences : “Solid carbon dioxide is known as dry ice.” (1983, 1M) 33. Carbon acts as an abrasive and also as a lubricant, explain. (1981, 1M) Answers Topic 2 Topic 1 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (a) 1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (a, b, c) 15. (a, c, d) 16. (b, d) 17. (a, b, c) 18. (4.00) 19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (A → q; B → r; C → p ; D → q, r) 23. (Three centre two electron bond or banana bond) 24. (F) 25. (F) 27. (3) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (a,c) 16. (b, d) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (glass) 20. (Buckminster) 21. ( R3SiO) 2 22. (silicones) 23. (T) 25. (T) 26. (F) 24. (T) Hints & Solutions Topic 1 Group 13 Elements inflammable nature, it catches fire spontaneously when exposed to air and burns in oxygen releasing an enormous amount of energy as: B2H6 + 3O2 → B2O3 + 3H2O + 1976 kJ/mol It gets hydrolysed readily to give boric acid. B2H6 + 6H2O → 2H3BO3 + 6H2 ↑ 1. Road map of the given reactions is as follows: +LiBH4 (THF) H3N3B3Cl3 (A) + (C) (B), Inorganic benzene Borane H3N3B3(Me)3 Cl H H MeMgBr (C) H H H H N N B N B N B N H B B Cl N H H H H +LiBH4 (THF) The presence of two oxidation states in p-block elements is due to the inert pair effect. Because of the presence of poor shielding d and f -orbitals, as we move from Ga to Tl, effective nuclear charge of these elements increases so as to hold the valence ns2 electrons tightly. It causes difficulty to the ionisation of ns2-electrons and it remains inert, only np1-electron ionises to give + 1oxidation state. H H + B– – + N N B (B3N3H6) (Borazine) H elements will be: B3 + > Al 3 + > Ga 3 + > In 3 + >>Tl 3+ (order of + 3oxidation state) B+ <<Al + < Ga + < In + < Tl + (order of + 1 oxidation state) H Cl H H H B Dihydrogen 5. The stability order of + 3 and + 1 oxidation states of group 13 Complete reactions are as follows : B3N3H3(Me)3 Orthoboric acid B N+ + H H 6. The structure of B2H6 can be shown as : B Sodium metaborate acidic nature of oxides decreases and the basic nature of oxides increases on moving from B to Tl. This is because as we move down the group, the atomic size of elements goes on increasing, whereas the ionisation energy decreases, due to which the strength of metal oxide (MO) bond goes on decreasing. Thus, boron trioxide or boron oxide is acidic and reacts with basic oxides to give metal borates. Aluminium and gallium oxides are amphoteric while oxides of indium and thallium are basic in nature. 4. Diborane (B2H6 ) reacts independently with O2 and H2O to produce B2O3 and H3BO3 respectively. Diborane is a colourless, highly toxic gas, having boiling point 180 K. Because of its H B sp H H elements, Group-1 Group-2 Group-13 Group-19 Period 2 ⇒ Li Boric anhydride is non-volalite. When it react with Cr(III) salt then deep green complex is formed. 2Cr 3+ + 3B 2O 3 → 2Cr(BO 2)3 3. All the given statements are correct. For group 13 elements, the H B e H –2 2c 3 7. Let, us consider the electronegativity values of the given glassy bead Hence, option (c) is correct. H 3c–3e In B2H6, four 2-centre-2-electron (2c − 2e) bonds are present in the same plane and two 3-centre-2-electron (3c − 2e) bonds are present in another plane. 14442444 3 Deep green Þ H ∆ Boric anhydride B H Na2B 4O 7 ⋅10H2O → Na2B 4O 7 +10H2O ↑ ∆ H H (sodium pyroborate), Na2B 4O 7 ⋅10H2O on heating gets fused and lose water of crystallisation. It swells up into fluffy white porous mass which melts into a colourless liquid which later form a clear transparent glassy bead consisting of boric anhydride and sodium metaborate. Na2B 4O 7 → B 2O 3 + 2NaBO 2 H H 2. Borax bead test is performed only for coloured salt. Borax (1 . 0) Period 3 ⇒ Be B (2 . 0) (1 . 5) C (2 . 5) Al (1. 5) Be and Al show diagonal relationship which is based on their Z∗ same value (Z* is effective nuclear charge, r = atomic r radius). So, they have similar electronegativity. 8. Due to inert pair effect, group-13 elements (ns2np1 ) show + 3and + 1 oxidation states in their compounds. Stability order of these oxidation states will be as, + 3 oxidation states l B3+ > Al3+ > Ga 3+ > In3+ > Tl3+ B3+ does not exist in free states. All B(III) compounds are covalent. l + 1 oxidation states B+ < Al+ < Ga + < In + < Tl+ B+ does not exist in ionic as well covalent compounds. p-Block Elements-I 223 9. Due to poor shielding of d-orbital in Ga, atomic radius of Ga is smaller than that of Al. Thus, Ga < Al < In < Tl. 10. Orthoboric acid is a very weak acid, direct neutralisation does 15. Na 2B4O7 ⋅ 10H2O (borax) is actually made of two tetrahedral and two triangular units, and is actually written as Na 2[B4O5 (OH)4 ]⋅ 5H2O. not complete. However, addition of cis-diol allow the reaction to go to completion by forming a stable complex with [B(OH)4 ]− as: HO HO B OH OH OH sp3 s sp2 O—B O HO—B B—OH O O—B O 2 s sp sp3 OH CH2 OH 2 → CH2 OH + H2C O H2C O B O CH2 + 2H2O O CH2 11. Orthoboric acid is a weak, monobasic, Lewis acid. OH has deficiency of a lone-pair (Lewis acid) HO—B OH pπ - pπ backbonding between ‘B’ and ‘O’ decreases acid strength greatly : pπ–p π HO—B—OH OH 12. In BCl 3, bond angle = 120°. In PCl 3 , AsCl 3 and BiCl 3 , central atom is sp3 hybridised. Since P, As and Bi are from the same group, bond angle decreases down the group. Hence, overall order of bond angle is : B > P > As > Bi (a) Thus, correct. (b) Boron atoms are in different planes thus, incorrect. (c) Two sp2 and two sp3-hybridised B atoms thus, correct. (d) Each boron has one OH group thus, correct. 16. (a) It does not undergo self ionisation in water but accepts an electron pair from water, so it behaves as weak monobasic acid. H3BO3 + H2O r B(OH)4− + H+ Hence, (a) is incorrect. (b) When treated with 1, 2-dihydroxy or polyhydroxy compounds, they form chelate (ring complex) which effectively remove [ B(OH)4 ]− species from solution and thereby produce maximum number of H3O+ or H+ ions, i.e. results in increased acidity. (c) Boric acid crystallises in a layer structure in which planar triangular BO3− 3 ` ions are bonded together through hydrogen bonds. One trigonal planar B(OH)3 unit H H H 13. Graphite has layered structure and conducted electricity moderately. Silica and diamond have 3-dimensional network structures and non-conducting. 14. (a) CH3 B Al H H Al C CH3 (b) BCl 3 is stronger Lewis acid than AlCl 3 due to greater extent of pπ − pπ back bonding in AlCl 3. (c) Three centre four electron bond Cl Cl Al Cl (d) B H B H H B H H H H H (d) In water the pK a value of H3BO3 is 9.25. H3BO3 + H2O r B(OH)−4 + H+ ; pKa = 9.25 So, it is a weak electrolyte in water. primary and secondary amine while tertiary amine brings about symmetrical cleavage of B2H6 as : B H H Cl H H H 17. Diborane (B2H6 ) undergoes unsymmetric cleavage with NH3 , Three centre two electron bond H H Cl Al Cl B H H H H H B H H H H H H H CH3 C CH3 H H B H Three centre two electron bond H H H H H H H H H H + B B H H Unsymmetric cleavage NH3 or 1° amine or 2° amine X + – [BH2(X)2] [BH4] 224 p-Block Elements-I H H H H 23. Three centred two electron bonds. + 2R3N B B 2H3B(R3N) H H H Symmetrical cleavage H 18. N 2O, N 2O 4 , H2S2O 3 and H2S2O 8 molecules are containing covalent bond between two atoms. O S , O O (N2O4) O O S O¾O HO O (H2S2O8) OH H O B H (B2H6) H Cl Therefore, from 3 moles of B2H6 , 6 moles of B(OCH3 )3 will be 28. 3KF + AlF3 → B2H5Cl + H2 K3AlF6 + 3BF3 → AlF3 ↓ + 3KBF4 29. (i) Na 2B4O7 + HCl → NaCl + H3BO3 B B N H (B3N3H6) B 2H6 and B 3N 6H6 have polar bond, but do not have same kind of atom. 19. Small size and high charge on B3+ makes it highly polarising. Therefore, in most of its compounds, boron forms covalent bonds. Hence, both statement I and statement II are correct and statement II is a correct explanation of statement I. 20. Orthoboric acid is a weak, monobasic, Lewis acid and the poor acidic character is due to pπ − pπ backbondings as: pπ–pπ Backbonding decreases electron deficiency at boron, decreases HO—B—OH its Lewis acid strength. OH 21. Due to small size and high charge on Al in Al(OH)3 the fission ability of Al—O and O—H bonds become comparable and compound can give both H+ and HO− under appropriate reaction conditions as: Al(OH)3 + 3HCl → AlCl 3 + 3H2O Base Al(OH)3 + NaOH → Na[Al(OH)4 ] Acid Therefore, both statements are correct and statement II is a correct explanation of statement I. 22. (A) Bi Cl ppt H 3+ Cl The bridged Al—Cl bonds are different from terminal Al—Cl bonds. Al 26. B2H6 + 6 CH3OH → 2[B(OCH3 )3 ] + 6H2 H N N Cl Cl 27. BenAl 2Si6O18 , 2n + 6 + 24 − 36 = 0 ⇒ n = 3 H | B H H H B , 25. In Al 2Cl6 , Al–Cl bonds are not equivalent : Al H S bottom due to increase in electropositive character. Cl (H2S2O3) O H H 24. The basic nature of hydroxide of group-13 increases from top to O N¾N OH HO Covalent bonds B Three centred two electron bridged B—H—B bonds S N ºº N ¾® O , (N2O) H H B ∆ H3BO3 + HCl → BCl 3 + H2O ∆ BCl 3 + Al → B + AlCl 3 H H H (ii) B2H6 : B B H H H It has 4 terminal B—H bonds. There are two B—H—B, three centred two electron bridged bonds. B2H6 + HCl → B2H5Cl + H2 LiAlH4 30. Compound X → Y a hydride + other compound. Hydride Y contains 21.72% hydrogen. ∆ Y + O2 → B2O3 + H2O Therefore, Y is a hydride of boron and it is obtained by reduction of X with LiAlH4. So, X is either BCl 3 or BF3. 4BCl 3 + LiAlH4 → B2H6 + 3AlCl 3 + 3LiCl 1442443 X Y Y Structure of Y (B2H6 ) + hydrolysis to (BiO) q. (B) [AlO2 ]− exist in basic medium, on acidification gives Al(OH)3 r. (C) Orthosilicate (SiO4− 4 ) on heating changes into pyrosilicate Si 2O6− p. 7 (D) Tetraborate ion [B4O72− ] on treatment with dil. acid hydrolysis gradually to orthoboric acid q, r. Other products Molar mass of B2H6 = 2 × 11 + 6 = 28 6 % of H in B2H6 = × 100 = 21.5 ≈ 21.72 28 B2H6 + 3O2 → B2O3 + 3H2O + Heat 3 1.3 H B Å H 97° 1.1 B 9ÅH 122° H H H 1.77 Å p-Block Elements-I 225 (a) There are 4 terminal B—H bonds. (b) There are two 3-centre-2-electron B—H—B bridged bonds. (c) Terminal H—B—H planes are perpendicular to bridged B—H—B bonds. 31. Al 2S3 + 6H2O → 2Al(OH)3 ↓ + 3H2S(g ) ↑ Foul odour Foul odour on damping of Al 2S3 is due to the formation of H2S gas as shown above. 32. The total hydration energy of AlCl 3 = Hydration energy of Al 3+ + 3 × Hydration energy of Cl − = − 4665 + 3 (− 381) kJ/mol = − 5808 kJ/mol The above hydration energy is more than the energy required for ionisation of AlCl 3 into Al 3+ and 3Cl − . Due to this reason, AlCl 3 becomes ionic in aqueous solution. In aqueous solution, it is ionised completely as AlCl 3 + 6H2O → [Al(H2O)6 ]3+ + 3Cl − Topic 2 Groups 14 Elements 1. The C C bond length is maximum in diamond having value 154 pm. Here, each carbon atom undergoes sp3 hybridisation and linked to four other carbon atoms by using hybridised orbitals in tetrahedral fashion. It has a rigid three-dimensional network of carbon atoms. C C bond length within the layers of graphite is 141.5 pm. In C60, C C distances between single and double bonds are 143.5 pm and 138.3 pm respectively. 2. The basic structural unit of feldspar, zeolites, mica and asbestos is (SiO4 )4− . These all are silicates. All silicates involve two types of Si O bonds. (i) Terminal Si O bonds in which oxygen is bonded to a silicon and not other atom. (ii) Bridging Si O Si bonds in which oxygen is bonded to two silicon atoms. s O– O– Si O– O– s s In SiO4− 4 ion, each Si atom is bonded to four oxygen atoms tetrahedrally. 3. Catenation property is an unique property of group 14 elements. Down the group 14, catenation power decreases as: C > Si > Ge ≈ Sn Pb does not show catenation. 4. Silica occurs in nature in several amorphous and crystalline forms. Kieselguhr is the amorphous form of silica. Quartz, tridymite and cristobalite are crystalline forms of silica. 5. C60 is aromatic allotrope of carbon containing 12 pentagons and 20 hexagons. It is a fullerene having a shape like soccer ball and called Buckminster fullerene. 6. The property of self-linking of atoms of an element through covalent bonds to form straight or branched chains and rings of different sizes is called catenation. Down the group, catenation tendency decreases due to decrease in element bond strength. Carbon (C), silicon (Si), germanium (Ge), tin (Sn), lead (Pb) are group-14 elements. Catenation tendency is highest in carbon while silicon has second highest tendency of catenation among all elements of family due to higher bond energy. The decreasing tendency of catenation among group 14 elements is as follows: C >> Si > Ge ≈ Sn However, Pb does not show catenation. 7. Carbon (C) has greatest ability to form stable pπ-pπ multiple bonds. 2p-orbitals of this element participate in the process. The stability of multiple bonds of C is attributed to their closeness with C-nucleus. Thus, the smaller size of C plays a significant role in the process. 8. The compounds given are the tetrahalides (MCl 4) of group 14 elements. For the hydrolysis, (nucleophilic substitution) of MCl 4 the nature of the M—Cl bond should be as: δ+ δ– M——Cl It must expand its covalency beyond 4 by the use of its vacant d-orbital which will accommodate the lone pair of electrons of H2O (the–nucleophile). sp3 Cl3 M——Cl d + d – OH2 d0 sp3d Cl3 M——Cl H O H Transition state M(OH)4 3H2O –3HCl –HCl sp3 Cl3 M—(OH) Here, M can be Si, Sn and Pb because they have vacant nd-orbital. But, carbon is a member of second period (n = 2, l = 0, 1), it does not have d-orbital (l = 2). So, CCl 4 will not be hydrolysed and correct option is (b). 9. Silicones are polysiloxanes with general chemical formula, [R2SiO]n, where R is an organic group such as: CH3, C2H5, C6H5 etc. Silicones have many useful properties: (i) They repel water and form watertight seals. (ii) They are heat resistant because of constancy of properties over a wide range of temperature (− 100° to 250° C). (iii) Silicones are non-toxic. (iv) Silicones are biocompatible because these do not support microbiological growth and these have high gas permeability at room temperature. (v) They are resistant to O2, O3 and UV-radiation. (vi) Silicones are formulated to be electrically insulative. 226 p-Block Elements-I (vii) Silicone grease is typically used as a lubricant for brake components in automobiles, since it is stable at high temperature, is not water soluble and is a odourless viscous liquid. 10. In sheet silicates, three out of four oxygen of SiO4− 4 unit are shared as shown below : – II II PbCl 2 + 2HCl → H2[ PbCl 4 ] Hence, statement (c) is incorrect. +2 +4 (d) Pb3O4 is a mixture of (2 PbO + PbO2 ) – +4 +2 Pb3O4 + 4 HNO3 → 2Pb(NO3 )2 + PbO2 + 2H2O – It is not a redox reaction. Thus, the statement (d) is incorrect. – – – (c) In conc. HCl, PbCl 2 exists as chloroplumbous acid, H2[PbCl 4 ] – – – – – Three oxygens of every tetrahedra are shared with others – – – – – – – – – – In pyrosilicates, there is only one shared oxygen, in linear chain silicates, two oxygen per tetrahedra are shared while in three-dimensional silicates, all four oxygens are shared. 11. Me2SiCl 2 on hydrolysis yields a linear chain silicone as : CH3 CH3 Cl Si Cl + 2H2O → HO Si OH + 2HCl CH3 CH3 16. Diamond has a three-dimensional network structure, a hard substance where graphite is soft due to layered structure. In graphite, only three valence electrons are involved in bonding and one electron remain free giving electrical conductivity. In diamond, all the four valence electrons are covalently bonded hence, insulator. Diamond is better thermal conductor than graphite. Electrical conductivity is due to availability of free electrons, thermal conduction is due to transfer of thermal vibrational energy from one atom to another atom. A compact and precisely aligned crystals like diamond thus facilitate better movement of heat. In graphite C C bond acquire some double bond character, hence, higher bond order than in diamond. 17. In group 13, 14, 15 as we descend down in group, the higher oxidation state becomes less tenable due to inert pair effect. Therefore, lead show +2 as stable oxidation state. Hence, Pb4+ act as a strong oxidising agent, itself reduced to Pb2+ very easily. Both statement I and statement II are correct and statement II is a correct explanation of statement I. 18. SiCl 4 reacts with water due to vacant d-orbitals available with Si as: CH3 Polymerisation nHO Si OH → CH3 CH3 [ O Si O ]n CH3 12. CO2 is acidic oxide, H2O is neutral, CaO is strongly basic and CuO is weakly basic. Therefore, order of acid strength is : CaO < CuO < H2O < CO2 13. Carbon monoxide is a neutral oxide, all others are amphoteric : H2O SiCl4 No such vacant d-orbitals are available with carbon, hence CCl 4 does not react wtih water. Otherwise, both SiCl 4 and CCl 4 are covalent. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect. SnO2 + 4HCl → SnCl 4 + 2H2O 19. Glass is commonly known as supercooled liquid. ZnO + 2HCl → ZnCl 2 + H2O 20. Buckminster fullerene is the name of recently discovered SiO2 + 2NaOH → Na 2SiO3 + H2O SnO2 and ZnO also react with NaOH. SiO2 is also attacked by H3PO4. 14. PbI4 is least stable, has doubtful existence. It is due to inert pair effect, the stable oxidation state of lead is + 2. 15. (a) Sn 2+ of stannous chloride dihydrate (SnCl 2 ⋅ 2H2O) tends to convert into Sn 4+ . Hence, statement (a) is correct. (b) SnO2 reacts with KOH and gives K2SnO3 ⋅ 3H2O or K2[ Sn(OH)6 ]because it is amphoteric in nature. SnO2 + KOH → K2SnO3 + H2O or K2[ Sn(OH)6 ] Hence, statement (b) is correct. allotrope of carbon. 21. After dimerisation, no reactive function group remains. R R2SiCl + H2O → R Si OH − HCl R R R → R Si O Si R R R Dimeric silicone p-Block Elements-I 227 22. Silicones are organosilicon polymers, obtained by hydrolysis of heat Si(OH)4 → SiO2 + 2H2O alkyl substituted chlorosilanes. ∆ SiO2 + Na 2CO3 → Na 2SiO3 + CO2 23. Due to smaller size of carbon than silicon, C—C bond is stronger than Si—Si bond, hence former is more likely to extend than later. 24. Graphite has a layered structure of hexagonal carbon rings O– – stacked one over other which makes it slippery. O On the other hand, in diamond, each carbon is tetrahedrally bond to other four carbons extended in three dimensional space, giving a giant, network structure. Due to this reason, diamond is harder than graphite. 25. Graphite is better lubricant on moon than on earth because of absence of gravitational pull on the moon. 26. Phosgene gas is obtained by treatment of CCl 4 with superheated steam : CCl 4 + H2O (vapour) → COCl 2 + 2HCl 27. ∆ 3Si + 4AlCl ; (i) 3SiCl 4 + 4Al → 3 Mg or Zn can also be used. (ii) SiCl 4 + 2CH3MgCl → (CH3 )2 SiCl 2 + 2MgCl 2 OH − HCl (CH3 )2 SiCl 2 + H2O → CH3 Si CH3 OH CH3 CH3 CH3 → O Si O Si O Si O CH3 CH3 CH3 (iii) SiCl 4 + 4H2O → Si(OH)4 + 4HCl Unstable O = Oxygen = Silicon 28. 6– O Si3O9 O O 29. 3SiCl 4 + 4Al Vapour 30. Molten X ∆ → O 4AlCl 3 + Volatilizes 3Si Crystalline Y Z Yeast Fermentation Ethanol Mica Layered structure Insulator Superphosphate Bone ash Fertiliser Carbon fibres Graphite Reinforced plastics Rock salt Crystalline cubic Preservative Carborundum Diamond structure Abrasive 31. Graphite has layered structure and the adjacent layers are weakly associated giving slippery nature, used as solid lubricant. 32. Carbon dioxide solidifies at very low temperature, hence solid CO2 is very cold, commonly known as dry ice. Also solid carbon dioxide sublime, without passing through liquid state. 33. The two common allotropes of carbon are diamond and graphite. Diamond is the hardest, natural, substance, used as an abrasive while graphite is soft, used as a lubricant. 16 p-Block Elements-II Topic 1 Elements and Compounds of Group 15 and 16 Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. The correct statement among the following is (2019 Main, 12 April I) (a) (SiH3 )3 N is planar and less basic than (CH3 )3 N. (b) (SiH3 )3 N is pyramidal and more basic than (CH3 )3N. (c) (SiH3 )3 N is pyramidal and less basic than (CH3 )3 N. (d) (SiH3 )3 N is planar and more basic than (CH3 )3 N. 2. The number of pentagons in C60 and trigons (triangles) in white phosphorus, respectively, are (a) 20 and 3 (c) 20 and 4 (2019 Main, 10 April II) (b) 12 and 4 (d) 12 and 3 (a) H2S2O3 (c) H2S2O7 (2019 Main 10 April I) (b) H2S2O4 (d) H2S4O6 4. The correct order of the oxidation states of nitrogen in NO, NO2 , NO2 and N2 O3 is (2019 Main, 9 April I) (a) NO2 < NO < N2O3 < N2O (b) N2O < NO < N2O3 < NO2 (c) O2 < N2O3 < NO < N2O (d) N2O < N2O3 < NO < NO2 5. The pair that contains two PH bonds in each of the oxoacids is (a) H4P2O5 and H4P2O6 (c) H4P2O5 and H3PO3 (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) (b) H3PO3 and H3PO2 (d) H3PO2 and H4P2O5 6. When the first electron gain enthalpy (∆ e g H ) of oxygen is − 141 kJ/ mol, its second electron gain enthalpy is (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) (a) a positive value (b) a more negative value than the first (c) almost the same as that of the first (d) negative, but less negative than the first 7. Good reducing nature of H3 PO2 is attributed to the presence of (a) two P H bonds (c) two P OH bonds thermal decomposition is (a) Ba(N3 )2 (c) NH4NO2 (2018 Main) (b) (NH4 )2 Cr2O7 (d) (NH4 )2 SO4 9. The order of the oxidation state of the phosphorus atom in H3 PO2 , H3 PO4 , H3 PO3 and H4 P2 O6 is (2017 Adv.) (a) H3PO4 > H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H4P2O6 (b) H3PO4 > H4P2O6 > H3PO3 > H3PO2 (c) H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H4P2O6 > H3PO4 3. The oxoacid of sulphur that does not contain bond between sulphur atoms is 8. The compound that does not produce nitrogen gas by the (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) (b) one P H bond (d) one P OH bond (d) H3PO3 > H3PO2 > H3PO4 > H4P2O6 10. The species in which the N-atom is in a state of sp hybridisation is (2016 Main) (a) NO−2 (b) NO−3 (c) NO2 (d) NO+2 11. The pair in which phosphorus atoms have a formal oxidation state of +3 is (2016 Main) (a) pyrophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids (b) orthophosphorous and hypophosphoric acids (c) pyrophosphorous and pyrophosphoric acids (d) orthophosphorous and pyrophosphorous acids 12. The product formed in the reaction of SOCl 2 with white phosphorus is (a) PCl 3 (c) SCl 2 (2014 Adv.) (b) SO2Cl 2 (d) POCl 3 13. Which of the following properties is not shown by NO? (a) It is paramagnetic in liquid state (2014 Main) (b) It is a neutral oxide (c) It combines with oxygen to form nitrogen dioxide (d) Its bond order is 2.5 14. Concentrated nitric acid upon long standing, turns yellow-brown due to the formation of (a) NO (c) N 2O (b) NO2 (d) N 2O4 (2013 Main) p-Block Elements-II 15. Which of the following is the wrong statement? (2013 Main) (a) (b) (c) (d) ONCl and ONO − are not isoelectronic O3 molecule is bent Ozone is violet-black in solid state Ozone is diamagnetic gas 27. Polyphosphates are used as water softening agents because they 16. The reaction of white phosphorus with aqueous NaOH gives 229 (2002, 3M) (a) form soluble complexes with anionic species (b) precipitate anionic species (c) form soluble complexes with cationic species (d) precipitate cationic species phosphine alongwith another phosphorus containing compound. The reaction type, the oxidation states of phosphorus in phosphine and the other product respectively are (2012) 28. The number of S S bonds in sulphur trioxide trimer, (a) (b) (c) (d) 29. Ammonia can be dried by redox reaction, − 3 and − 5 redox reaction, 3 and + 5 disproportionation reaction, − 3 and + 5 disproportionation reaction, − 3 and + 3 decreasing order of the oxidation state of nitrogen? (2012) (b) HNO3 , NO, N2 , NH4Cl (d) NO, HNO3 , NH4Cl, N2 18. Extra pure N 2 can be obtained by heating (a) NH3 with CuO (c) (NH4 )2 Cr2O7 (2011) (b) NH4NO3 (d) Ba(N3 )2 (a) dry O2 (b) a mixture of O2 and N2 (c) moist O2 (2009) (d) 75 (2005, 1M) (b) FeSO4 (d) K 2MnO4 concentrated HNO3? (2005) (b) O2 (d) N2O 23. A pale blue liquid obtained by equimolar mixture of two gases at – 30°C is (2005, 1M) 32. The number of P O P bonds in cyclic metaphosphoric (2000, 1M) thermodynamically most stable? 25. Which of the following has —O—O— linkage? (2005, 1M) (d) four (1999, 2M) (1996, 1M) (a) reducing Na 2SO4 solution with H2S (b) boiling Na 2SO3 solution with S in alkaline medium (c) neutralising H2S2O3 solution with NaOH (d) boiling Na 2SO3 solution with S in acidic medium 35. There is no S S bond in (a) S 2O42– (b) S 2O52– (1991, 1M) (c) S2O32– (d) S2O72– (b) NH3 (c) PH3 (d) SbH3 37. Amongst the trihalides of nitrogen, which one is least basic? (b) NCl 3 (d) NI3 (a) NF3 (c) NBr3 (1987, 1M) 38. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is a coloured gas ? (2004, 3M) (b) H2S2O8 (d) H2S4O6 (a) H3PO3 is dibasic and reducing (b) H3PO3 is dibasic and non-reducing (c) H3PO4 is tribasic and reducing (d) H3PO3 is tribasic and non-reducing (c) three (a) one mole of phosphine (b) two moles of phosphoric acid (c) two moles of phosphine (d) one mole of phosphorus pentaoxide (a) AsH3 (b) White (d) Yellow 26. For H3PO3 and H3PO4, the correct choice is (b) two 36. Which one of the following is the strongest base? (1989, 2M) (b) N2O3 (d) N2O5 24. Which of the following isomers of phosphorus is (a) H2S2O6 (c) H2S2O3 (2000, 1M) (b) CO2 > N2O5 > SO3 (d) K 2O > CaO > MgO 34. Sodium thiosulphate is prepared by 22. Which gas is evolved when PbO2 is treated with (a) Red (c) Black (a) Cl 2O7 > SO2 > P4O10 (c) Na 2O > MgO > Al 2O3 water gives (2007, 3M) (c) 50 21. Which of the following is not oxidised by O3 ? (a) N2O (c) N2O4 (2000, 1M) 33. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess P—P bonds in P4 is (a) NO2 (c) N2 highest boiling point is (a) H2O because of hydrogen bonding (b) H2Te because of higher molecular weight (c) H2S because of hydrogen bonding (d) H2Se because of lower molecular weight acid is 20. The percentage of p-character in the orbitals forming (a) KI (c) KMnO4 30. Amongst H2 O, H2 S, H2 Se and H2 Te, the one with the (a) zero (d) O2 in the presence of aqueous NaOH (b) 33 (2000, 1M) (b) P4O10 (d) anhydrous CaCl 2 31. The correct order of acidic strength is 19. The reaction of P4 with X leads selectively to P4 O6 . The X, is (a) 25 (2001, 1M) (b) two (d) zero (a) conc. H2SO4 (c) CaO 17. Which ordering of compounds is according to the (a) HNO3 , NO, NH4Cl, N2 (c) HNO3 , NH4Cl, NO, N2 (S3 O9 ) is (a) three (c) one (b) NO (d) NO2 (a) N2O (c) N2O4 39. The bonds present in N2 O5 are (2003, 1M) (a) only ionic (c) only covalent (b) O2 (1986, 1M) (b) covalent and coordinate (d) covalent and ionic 40. A gas that cannot be collected over water is (a) N2 (1987,1M) (c) SO2 (1985, 1M) (d) PH3 230 p-Block Elements-II 41. Ammonia gas can be dried by (a) conc H2SO4 (c) CaCl 2 (1978, 1M) (b) P2O5 (d) quicklime 42. Which of the following is incorrect statement? 51. The total number of compounds having at least one bridging (1978, 1M) (a) NO is heavier than O2 (b) The formula of heavy water is D2O (c) N2 diffuses faster than oxygen through an orifice (d) NH3 can be used as a refrigerant (2018 Adv.) Assertion and Reason Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below: 43. The compound(s) which generate (s) N2 gas upon thermal decomposition below 300°C is (are) (2018 Adv.) (b) (NH4 )2 Cr2O7 (d) Mg3N2 44. Based on the compounds of group 15 elements, the correct statement(s) is (are) (2018 Adv.) (a) Bi 2O5 is more basic than N2O5 (b) NF3 is more covalent than BiF3 (c) PH3 boils at lower temperature than NH3 (d) The N—N single bond is stronger than the P—P single bond 45. The nitrogen containing compound produced in the reaction of HNO 3 with P4 O10 (2016 Adv.) (a) (b) (c) (d) (d) Ν 2Ο 5 53. Statement I The electronic structure of O3 is ⊕ Os O (2013 Adv.) O O (1998, 2M) 54. Statement I HNO3 is a stronger acid than HNO2 . (2009) (c) N2 O4 in the atmosphere but these do not react to form oxides of nitrogen. Statement II The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen requires high temperature. (1998, 2M) Statement II The following structure is not allowed because octet around O cannot be expanded. 47. The nitrogen oxide(s) that contain(s) N—N bond(s) is/are (b) N2O3 52. Statement I Nitrogen and oxygen are the main components O O — O bond lengths are equal thermal decomposition of O3 is endothermic O3 is diamagnetic in nature O3 has a bent structure (a) N2O (a) Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct, Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I (b) Statement I is correct, Statement II is correct, Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I (c) Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect (d) Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is correct O (a) can also be prepared by reaction of P4 and HNO 3 (b) is diamagnetic (c) contains one NN bond (d) reacts with Na metal producing a brown gas 46. The correct statement(s) about O 3 is/are oxo group among the molecules given below is ……… . N 2O 3, N 2O 5, P4O 6, P4O7 , H 4 P2O 5 , H 5P3O10, H 2S 2O 3, H 2S 2O 5 Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) (a) NH4NO3 (c) Ba(N3 )2 Integer Answer Type Question Statement II In HNO3 , there are two nitrogen to oxygen bonds whereas in HNO2 there is only one. (1998, 2M) 55. Statement I Although PF5 , PCl 5 and PBr5 are known, the pentahalides of nitrogen have not been observed. 48. Ammonia, on reaction with hypochlorite anion, can form Statement II Phosphorus has lower electronegativity than nitrogen. (1994, 2M) (1999, 3M) (a) NO (b) NH4Cl (c) N2H4 (d) HNO2 49. White phosphorus (P4 ) has Passage Based Questions Passage 1 (1998, 2M) (a) six P P single bonds (b) four P P single bonds (c) four lone pairs of electrons (d) PPP angle of 60° 50. Nitrogen (I) oxide is produced by (a) thermal decomposition of NH4NO3 (b) disproportionation of N2O4 (c) thermal decomposition of NH4NO2 (d) interaction of hydroxylamine and nitrous acid Upon heating KClO 3 in presence of catalytic amount of MnO 2 , a gas W is formed. Excess amount of W reacts with white phosphorus to give X . The reaction of X with pure HNO 3 gives Y and Z. (2017 Adv.) 56. Y and Z are, respectively (1989, 1M) (a) N2O4 and HPO3 (c) N2O3 and H3PO4 (b) N2O4 and H3PO3 (d) N2O5 and HPO3 57. W and X are, respectively (a) O2 and P4O10 (c) O3 and P4O6 (b) O2 and P4O6 (d) O3 and P4O10 p-Block Elements-II Codes Passage 2 There are some deposits of nitrates and phosphates in earth’s crust. Nitrates are more soluble in water. Nitrates are difficult to reduce under the laboratory conditions but microbes do it easily. Ammonia forms large number of complexes with transition metal ions. Hybridisation easily explains the ease of sigma donation capability of NH3 and PH3 . Phosphine is a flammable gas and is prepared from white phosphorus. (2008, 3 × 4M = 12M) (a) Phosphates have no biological significance in humans (b) Between nitrates and phosphates, phosphates are less abundant in earth’s crust (c) Between nitrates and phosphates, nitrates are less abundant in earth’s crust (d) Oxidation of nitrates is possible in soil 59. Among the following, the correct statement is (a) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies spherical ‘s’ orbital and is less directional (b) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies sp3-orbital and is more directional (c) Between NH3 and PH3, NH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies sp3-orbital and is more directional (d) Between NH3 and PH3, PH3 is a better electron donor because the lone pair of electrons occupies spherical ‘s’ orbital and is less directional 60. White phosphorus on reaction with NaOH gives PH3 as one of the products. This is a (b) disproportionation reaction (d) precipitation reaction 61. The unbalanced chemical reactions given in Column I show missing reagent or condition (?) which are provided in Column II. Match Column I with Column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Columns. (2013 Adv.) Column I Column II ? PbO2 + H 2SO4 → PbSO4 + O2 + 1. NO 2. I2 other product Q. P Q R S (b) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 4 2 1 Fill in the Blanks 62. The lead chamber process involves oxidation of SO2 by atomic oxygen under the influence of ………as catalyst. (1992, 1M) phosphorus atom is ……… . (1992, 1M) 64. The basicity of phosphorus acid (H3 PO3 ) is ……… (1990, 1M) 65. ……… phosphorus is reactive because of its highly strained tetrahedral structure. (1987, 1M) True/False 66. Nitric oxide, though an odd electron molecule, is diamagnetic in liquid state. (1991, 1M) 67. The H N H bond angle in NH3 is greater than the H As H bond angle in AsH3 . (1984, 1M) 68. In aqueous solution, chlorine is a stronger oxidising agent than fluorine. (1984, 1M) 2+ 69. Dilute HCl oxidises metallic Fe to Fe . (1983, 1M) Numerical Answer Type Questions 70. The amount of water produced (in g) in the oxidation of 1 mole of rhombic sulphur by conc. HNO 3 to a compound with the highest oxidation state of sulphur is …… (Given data : Molar mass of water = 18 g mol −1 ) (2019 Adv.) 71. The total number of lone pair of electrons in N2O3 is (2015 Adv.) Match the Column P. P Q R S (a) 4 2 3 1 (c) 1 4 2 3 63. In P4 O10 , the number of oxygen atoms bonded to each 58. Among the following, the correct statement is (a) dimerisation reaction (c) condensation reaction 231 ? NaHSO + Na2S2O3 + H 2O → 4 72. Among the following, the number of compounds that can react with PCl 5 to give POCl 3 is O2 , CO2 , SO2 , H2 O, (2011) H2 SO4 , P4 O10 . 73. The total number of diprotic acids among the following is H3PO4 H2CO3 H3PO2 H2SO4 H2S2O7 H2CrO4 H3PO3 H3BO3 H2SO3 (2010) Subjective Questions 74. Draw the structure of P4O10. other product R. ? N + other product N 2H 4 → 2 3. Warm S. ? Xe + other product XeF2 → 4. Cl 2 (2005) 75. Arrange the following oxides in the increasing order of Bronsted basicity. Cl2O7, BaO, SO3, CO2, B2O3 (2004) 76. Identify the compounds A, B, C, D SO Na 2CO3 Elemental S I2 2 Na 2 CO3 → A → B → C → D ∆ and give oxidation state of sulphur in each compounds. (2003, 4M) 232 p-Block Elements-II 77. Write the balanced equations for the reactions of the following compounds with water: (i) Al 4C3 (ii) CaNCN (iii) BF3 (iv) NCl 3 (v) XeF4 (iii) Manufacture of phosphoric acid from phosphorus. (iv) Reaction of aluminium with aqueous sodium hydroxide. (2002, 5M) (1997, 1M × 4 = 4M) 78. Give reason(s), why elemental nitrogen exists as a diatomic 85. Draw the structure of P4 O10 and identify the number of molecule whereas elemental phosphorus is a tetra atomic molecule? (2000, 2M) 79. The Haber’s process can be represented by the following scheme. + CO2 NH3.H2O H2O B NaHCO3 sentences only. (ii) Mg 3 N2 when reacted with water gives of NH3 but HCl is not obtained from MgCl 2 on reaction with water at room temperature. (1995, 2M × 3 = 6M) NaCl 87. Complete and balance the following reactions. (1994, 1M) Heat K + 5CaSO ⋅ 2H O + K Ca 5 (PO4 )3 F + H2SO4 + H2O → 4 2 C + H2O NH3 + H2O + E Identify A, B, C, D and E . 88. In the following reaction, identify the compounds A and B PCl 5 + SO2 → A + B (1999, 5M) (1994, 1M) 89. Complete and balance the following reaction. 80 (a) In the following equation A + 2B + H2 O → C + 2D (A = HNO2 , B = H2SO3 , C = NH2OH). Identify D. Draw the structures of A, B, C and D. (b) In the contact process for industrial manufacture of sulphuric acid, some amount of sulphuric acid is used as a starting material. Explain briefly. What is the catalyst used in the oxidation of SO2? (1999, 10M) 81. Complete and balance the following chemical equations. (i) P4O10 + PCl 5 → (ii) SnCl 4 + C2H5Cl + Na → 86. Account for the following. Write the answers in four or five (iii) (SiH3 )3 N is a weaker base than (CH3 )3 N. +D A (1996, 3M) (i) The experimentally determined N F bond lengths in NF3 is greater than the sum of the single bond covalent radii of N and F. CaCO3 CaO single and double P O bonds. (1998, 1 M × 2 = 2M) 82. (a) Thionyl chloride can be synthesised by chlorinating SO2 using PCl5. Thionyl chloride is used to prepare anhydrous ferric chloride starting from its hexahydrated salt. Alternatively, the anhydrous ferric chloride can also be prepared from its hexahydrated salt by treating with 2,2-dimethoxypropane. Discuss all this using balanced chemical equations. (b) Reaction of phosphoric acid with Ca3(PO4)2 yields a fertiliser “triple superphosphate” represent the same through balanced chemical equation. (1998, 5M) Red phosphorus is reacted with iodine in the presence of water. (1992, 1M) P + I2 + H2 O → K + K 90. Give reasons in two or three sentences only.Sulphur dioxide is a more powerful reducing agent in the alkaline medium than in acidic medium. (1992, 2M) 91. Draw the two resonance structures of ozone which satisfy the octet rule. (1991, 1M) 92. Give reasons in one or two sentences. Ammonium chloride is acidic in liquid ammonia solvent. (1991, 1M) 93. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following. (i) Sodium nitrite is produced by absorbing the oxides of nitrogen in aqueous solution of washing soda. (ii) Nitrogen is obtained in the reaction of aqueous ammonia with potassium permanganate. (iii) Elemental phosphorus reacts with concentrated HNO3 to give phosphoric acid. (iv) Sulphur is precipitated in the reaction of hydrogen sulphide with sodium bisulphite solution. (i) Phosphorus is treated with concentrated nitric acid. (v) Carbon dioxide is passed through a suspension of limestone in water. (1991, 1 × 5 = 5M) 94. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following reactions. (i) Aqueous solution of sodium nitrate is heated with zinc dust and caustic soda solution. (ii) Sodium iodate is added to a solution of sodium bisulphite (ii) Oxidation of hydrogen peroxide with potassium permanganate in acidic medium. 95. Write the two resonance structures of N2 O that satisfy the 83. A soluble compound of a poisonous element M, when heated with Zn / H2 SO4 , gives a colourless and extremely poisonous gaseous compound N, which on passing through a heated tube gives a silvery mirror of element M. Identify M and N. (1997, 2M) 84. Write balanced equations for the following. (1990, 2M) octet rule. (1990, 2M) p-Block Elements-II 233 105. Write down the balanced equation for the reactions when 96. Draw balanced equations for (i) the preparation of phosphine from CaO and white phosphorus. (ii) the preparation of ammonium sulphate from gypsum, ammonia and carbon dioxide. (1990, 2M) 97. Explain the following (1989, 2M) (i) H3 PO3 is a dibasic acid. (ii) Phosphine has lower boiling point than ammonia. 98. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following. (i) Hypophosphorous acid is heated. (ii) Sodium chlorate reacts with sulphur dioxide in dilute sulphuric acid medium. (i) calcium phosphate is heated with a mixture of sand and carbon. (ii) ammonium sulphate is heated with a mixture of nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide. (1985, 2M) 106. Draw the resonance structures of nitrous oxide. (1985, 90, 2M) 107. Show with balanced chemical reaction what happens when following are mixed? Aqueous solution of ferric sulphate and potassium iodide. (1984, 1M) 108. Write the matched set (of three) for each entry in Column A 99. Arrange the following as indicated. CO2 , N2 O5 , SiO2 , SO3 in the order of increasing acidic character. 100. Give balanced equations for the following. (i) Phosphorus reacts with nitric acid to give equimolar ratio of nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide. (ii) Carbon dioxide is passed through a concentrated aqueous solution of sodium chloride saturated with ammonia. (1988, 3M) 101. Give reason for “valency of oxygen is generally two, whereas sulphur shows valency of two, four and six.” (1988, 1M) 102. Explain the following in one or two sentences. (i) Magnesium oxide is used for the lining of steel making furnace. (ii) The mixture of hydrazine and hydrogen peroxide with a copper (II) catalyst is used as a rocket fuel. (iii) Orthophosphorous acid is not tribasic acid. (iv) The molecule of magnesium chloride is linear, whereas that of stannous chloride is angular. (1987, 4M) 103. Write balanced equations for the following. (1987, 2M) (i) Phosphorus is reacted with boiling aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide in an inert atmosphere. (ii) Dilute nitric acid is slowly reacted with metallic tin. 104. Complete and balance the following reactions. A B Asbestos Paramagnetic Air pollutant C Lithium metal Silicates of Ca and Mg Electron donor Nitric oxide Reducing agent (1984, 2M) 109. Complete and balance the following reactions. (i) HNO3 + HCl → NO + Cl 2 4+ (ii) Ce3+ +S2O82– → SO2– 4 + Ce (iii) Cl 2 + OH– → Cl – + ClO– (1983, 3M) 110. Explain, “orthophosphoric acid, H3 PO4 is tribasic but phosphorous acid, H3 PO3 is dibasic”. (1982, 1M) 111. Give structural formula for the following. (i) Phosphorous acid, H3 PO3 (ii) Pyrophosphoric acid, H4 P2 O7 (1981, 2M) 112. Sulphur melts to a clear mobile liquid at 119°C, but on further heating above 160° C, it becomes viscous, explain. (1981, 1M) 113. Explain the following in not more than two sentences . (i) Conc. HNO3 turns yellow in sunlight. (i) S + OH– → S2– + S2 O2– 3 + ...... (ii) ClO–3 + I– + H2 SO4 → Cl – + HSO–4 + ...... + ...... (ii) Bleaching powder loses its bleaching properties when it is kept in an open bottle for a long time. (1980, 2M) (1986, 2M) Topic 2 Elements and Compounds of Group 17 and 18 Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. The electron gain enthalpy (in kJ/mol) of fluorine, chlorine, bromine and iodine, respectively, are (a) −333, −325, −349 and −296 (b) −296, −325, −333 and −349 (c) −333, −349, −325 and −296 (d) −349, −333, −325 and −296 (2020 Main, 7 Jan I) 2. The number of bonds between sulphur and oxygen atoms in and the number of bonds between sulphur and S2O2− 8 sulphur atoms in rhombic sulphur, respectively, are (2020 Main, 8 Jan I) (a) 4 and 6 (b) 8 and 8 (c) 4 and 8 (d) 8 and 6 3. The noble gas that does not occur in the atmosphere is (2019 Main, 10 April II) (a) Ra (b) Kr (c) He (d) Ne 234 p-Block Elements-II 4. Chlorine on reaction with hot and concentrated sodium hydroxide gives (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) (a) Cl − and ClO− (b) Cl − and ClO3− (c) ClO3− and ClO−2 (d) Cl − and ClO−2 other products. The oxidation state of iodine in Y , is (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) (b) 3 (c) 7 (a) H2 + Cl 2 → 2HCl (c) H2 + F2 → 2HF (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) (b) H2 + I2 → 2HI (d) H2 + Br2 → 2HBr 7. The type of hybridisation and number of lone pair(s) of electrons of Xe in XeOF 4 , respectively, are (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) (a) sp3d 2 and 1 (b) sp3d and 2 (c) sp3d and 1 (d) sp3d 2 and 2 8. Which of the following reactions is an example of a redox reaction? (2017 Main) (a) XeF4 + O2F2 → XeF6 + O2 (d) XeF6 + 2H2O → XeO2F2 + 4HF (a) ClO− and ClO−3 (b) ClO−2 and ClO−3 (c) Cl − and ClO− (d) Cl − and ClO−2 (2017 Main) 10. Which among the following is the most reactive? (2015 Main) (c) I2 (d) ICl 11. Which one has highest boiling point? (a) He (b) Ne (c) Kr (2015 Main) (d) Xe 12. Under ambient conditions, the total number of gases released as products in the final step of the reaction scheme shown below is (2014 Adv.) XeF6 Complete hydrolysis of acidic strength is HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4 HClO4 > HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl HClO2 > HClO4 > HClO3 > HOCl (2001, 1M) (a) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 (b) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO (c) HClO < HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 (d) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO 18. Which one of the following species is not a pseudo halide? (a) CNO– (b) RCOO− (c) OCN− (1997, 1M) (d) NNN− (b) II > I > III (d) I > III > II 20. KF combines with HF to form KHF2 . The compound contains the species (1996, 1M) (a) K + , F − and H+ (b) K + , F – and HF (c) K + and [HF2 ] – (d) [KHF]+ and F – 21. Bromine can be liberated from potassium bromide solution by the action of (a) iodine solution (c) sodium chloride (1987, 1M) (b) chlorine water (d) potassium iodide 22. Chlorine acts as a bleaching agent only in the presence of (1983, 1M) (a) dry air (c) sunlight (b) moisture (d) pure oxygen (1981, 1M) (b) KMnO4 (d) None of these Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) 24. With respect to hypochlorite, chlorate and perchlorate ions, (d) 3 choose the correct statement(s). 13. Among the following oxoacids, the correct decreasing order (a) (b) (c) (d) 17. The set with correct order of acidic strength is and HF can reduce Products (c) 2 (d) IO− (a) H2SO4 (c) K 2Cr2O7 Slow disproportionation in HO–/H2O (b) 1 (c) IO−4 23. HBr and HI reduce sulphuric acid, HCl can reduce KMnO4 P + Other product HO–/H2O Q (a) 0 (2004, 1M) (b) I2 (a) I > II > III (c) III > II > I 9. The products obtained when chlorine gas reacts with cold and (b) Br2 converts into (a) IO−3 decreasing acidic strength. Identify the correct order. (1996, 1M) ClOH (I), BrOH (II), IOH (III) (c) XeF6 + H2O → XeOF4 + 2HF (a) Cl 2 (2008, 3M) (b) NaHSO4 (d) NaOH (a) Na 2S4O6 (c) NaCl 19. The following acids have been arranged in the order of (b) XeF2 + PF5 → [XeF] + PF6− dilute aqueous NaOH are (2012) (b) square planar (d) see-saw 16. When I− is oxidised by KMnO4 in alkaline medium, I− (d) 5 6. Among the following reactions of hydrogen with halogens, the one that requires a catalyst is (a) trigonal bipyramidal (c) tetrahedral 15. Aqueous solution of Na 2 S2 O3 on reaction with Cl 2 gives 5. Iodine reacts with concentrated HNO3 to yield Y along with (a) 1 14. The shape of XeO2 F2 molecule is (2014 Main) (2020 Adv.) (a) The hypochlorite ion is the strongest conjugate base. (b) The molecular shape of only chlorate ion is influenced by the lone pair of electrons of Cl. (c) The hypochlorite and chlorate ions disproportionate to give rise to identical set of ions. (d) The hypochlorite ion oxidises the sulphite ion. p-Block Elements-II 25. The correct statement(s) about the oxoacids, HClO4 and HClO, is (are) (2017 Adv.) (a) The central atom in both HCl O4 and HClO is sp3-hybridised (b) HCl O4 is formed in the reaction between Cl 2 and H2O (c) The conjugate base of HCl O4 is weaker base than H2O (d) HCl O4 is more acidic than HClO because of the resonance stabilisation of its anion 26. The colour of the X 2 molecules of group 17 elements changes gradually from yellow to violet down the group. This is due to (2017 Adv.) (a) decrease in π * − σ * gap down the group (b) decrease in ionisation energy down the group (c) the physical state of X 2 at room temperature changes from gas to solid down the group (d) decreases in HOMO-LUMO gap down the group 27. The compound(s) with two lone pairs of electrons on the central atom is (are) (a) BrF5 (2016 Adv.) (b) ClF3 (c) XeF4 (d) SF4 28. The correct statement(s) regarding, (i) HClO, (ii) HClO2 , (iii) HClO3 and (iv) HClO4 is (are) (a) the number of Cl == O bonds in (ii) and (iii) together is two (b) the number of lone pair of electrons on Cl in (ii) and (iii) together is three (c) the hybridisation of Cl in (iv) is sp3 (d) amongst (i) to (iv), the strongest acid is (i) Passage 1 The reactions of Cl 2 gas with cold-dilute and hot-concentrated NaOH in water give sodium salts of two (different) oxoacids of chlorine, P and Q, respectively. The Cl 2 gas reacts with SO2 gas in the presence of charcoal, to give a product R. R reacts with white phosphorus to give a compound S. On hydrolysis, S gives an oxoacid of phosphorus T. (2013 Adv.) 29. P and Q respectively, are the sodium salts of (a) (b) (c) (d) 32. Bleaching powder contains a salt of an oxoacid as one of its components. The anhydride of that oxoacid is hypochlorous and chloric acids hypochlorous and chlorous acids chloric and perchloric acids chloric and hypochlorous acids Passage 3 The noble gases have closed-shell electronic configuration and are monoatomic gases under normal conditions. The low boiling points of the lighter noble gases are due to weak dispersion forces between the atoms and the absence of other interatomic interactions. The direct reaction of xenon with fluorine leads to a series of compounds with oxidation numbers + 2, + 4 and + 6. XeF4 reacts violently with water to give XeO3 . The compounds of xenon exhibit rich stereochemistry and their geometries can be deduced considering the total number of electron pairs in the valence shell. (2007, 3 × 4M = 12 M) 33. Argon is used in arc welding because of its (a) low reactivity with metal (b) ability to lower the melting point of metal (c) flammability (d) high calorific value 34. The structure of XeO3 is (a) linear (c) pyramidal (b) SO2Cl 2 , PCl 3 and H3PO3 (d) SOCl 2 , PCl 5 and H3PO4 Bleaching powder and bleach solution are produced on a large scale and used in several household products. The effectiveness of bleach solution is often measured by iodometry. (2012) 31. 25 mL of household bleach solution was mixed with 30 mL of 0.50 M KI and 10 mL of 4 N acetic acid. In the titration of the liberated iodine, 48 mL of 0.25 N Na 2 S2 O3 was used to reach the end point. The molarity of the household bleach solution is (b) 0.96 M (c) 0.24 M (b) reducing (d) strongly basic Match the Column 36. All the compounds listed in Column I react with water. Match the result of the respective reactions with the appropriate options listed in Column II. (2010) Column I Column II A. (CH3 )2 SiCl 2 p. Hydrogen halide formation B. XeF4 q. Redox reaction C. Cl 2 r. Reacts with glass D. VCl5 s. Polymerisation t. O2 formation Fill in the Blank 37. The increase in solubility of iodine in aqueous solution of KI Passage 2 (a) 0.48 M (b) planar (d) T-shaped 35. XeF4 and XeF6 are expected to be 30. R, S and T, respectively, are (a) SO2Cl 2 , PCl 5 and H3PO4 (c) SOCl 2 , PCl 3 and H3PO2 (d) Cl 2O6 (c) ClO2 (b) Cl 2O7 (a) Cl 2O (a) oxidising (c) unreactive Passage Based Questions 235 (d) 0.024 M is due to the formation of ….. (1982, 94, 1M) True/False 38. HBr is a stronger acid than HI because of hydrogen bonding. (1993, 1M) Numerical Answer Type Questions 39. At 143 K, the reaction of XeF4 with O 2F2 produces a xenon compound Y . The total number of lone pair(s) of electrons present on the whole molecule of Y is ............ (2019 Adv.) 236 p-Block Elements-II 40. Reaction of Br2 with Na 2 CO3 in aqueous solution gives sodium bromide and sodium bromate with evolution of CO2 gas. The number of sodium bromide molecules involved in the balanced chemical equation is (2011) 41. Write the balanced equation for the reaction of the following compound with water. XeF4 (2002, 5M) 42. Draw molecular structures of XeF2 , XeF4 and XeO2 F2 , indicating the locations of lone pair(s) of electrons. (2000, 3M) 43. Give an example of oxidation of one halide by another 45. 46. 47. “Chlorine gas is bubbled through a solution of ferrous bromide.” (1986, 2M) 51. Complete and balance the following reaction: ClO–3 + I– + H2SO4 → Cl – + HSO–4 + ......+ ...... Subjective Questions 44. 50. Mention the products formed in the following halogen. Explain the feasibility of the reaction. (2000, 2M) Work out the following using chemical equations “Chlorination of calcium hydroxide produces bleaching powder.” (1998, 2M) Complete the following chemical equations: (i) KI + Cl 2 → (ii) KClO3 + I2 → (1996, 2M) Give reasons in two or three sentences only for (i) Bond dissociation energy of F2 is less than that of Cl 2 . (ii) Sulphur dioxide is a more powerful reducing agent in the alkaline medium than in acidic medium. (1992, 2M) Write the balanced chemical equation for the following: Sodium bromate reacts with fluorine in the presence of alkali. 48. Arrange the following as indicated. HOCl, HOClO2 , HOClO3 , HOClO in increasing order of thermal stability (1988, 2M) 49. Give balanced equation for the following: Iodate ion reacts with bisulphite ion to liberate iodine. (1988, 3M) (1986, 2M) 52. Arrange the following in the order of (i) increasing bond strength HCl, HBr, HF, HI (ii) increasing oxidation number of iodine I2 , HI, HIO4 , ICl (1986, 2M) 53. Give reason in one or two sentences. Fluorine cannot be prepared from fluorides by chemical reduction method. (1985, 1M) 54. Complete and balance the following reaction. Cl 2 + OH– → Cl – + ClO– (1983, 3M) 55. Explain the following in not more than two sentences. Bleaching powder loses its bleaching properties when it is kept in an open bottle for a long time. (1980, 2M) 56. Give reasons for the following in one or two sentences. (i) Hydrogen bromide cannot be prepared by the action of conc. sulphuric acid on sodium bromide. (ii) When a blue litmus paper is dipped into a solution of hypochlorous acid, it first turns red and then later gets decolourised. (1979, 2M) 57. Write the balanced equations involved in the preparation of (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) bleaching powder from slaked lime (1979, 10M) nitric oxide from nitric acid chlorine from sodium chloride anhydrous aluminium chloride from alumina Answers Topic 1 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 65. (white) 66. (T) 67. (T) 68. (F) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (d) 69. (T) 70. (288) 71. (8) 72. (4) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (a) 73. (6) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (a) 31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (c) 41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (b,c) 44. (a,b,c) 45. (b, d) 46. (a, c, d) 47. (a, b, c) 48. (c) 49. (a, c, d) 50. (a, d) 51. (6) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b) 61. (d) 62. (NO2 ) 63. (Four) 64. (Two) Topic 2 1. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (a,b,d) 25. (a, c, d) 26. (b, c) 27. (b, c) 28. (b, c) 29. (a) 30. (a) 31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (a) 36. (A → p, s 37. (KI3 ) B → p, q, r, t 38. (F) C → p, q, t 39. (19) D → p) 40. (5) Hints & Solutions Topic 1 Elements and Compounds of Group 15 and 16 H2 S 2 O3 (thiosulphuric acid), H2 S 2 O4 (hyposulphurous or dithionous acid) and H2 S 4 O6 (tetrathionic acid) contains SS bonds. 1. The correct statement is that (SiH3 )3 N is planar and less basic O than (CH3 )3 N. The compounds trimethylamine (CH3 )3 N and trisilylamine (SiH3 )3 N have similar formulae, but have totally different structures. In trimethylamine the arrangement of electrons is as follows : Electronic structure of nitrogen atom (ground state) 1s 2s S H2S2O4 ⇒ 2p N N O nitrogen oxides is +1 +2 +4 +3 N 2 O< N O < N 2 O3 < N O2 l l 2. In C60 (Buckminster fullerene) twenty hexagons and twelve pentagons are present which are interlocked resulting a shape of soccer ball. Every ring in this structure is aromatic. O O 4. The correct increasing order of oxidation state of nitrogen for SiH3 N(SiH3)3 molecule CH3 HO O CH3 N(CH3)3 molecule OH S——S H2S4O6 ⇒ HO—S—S—S—S—OH SiH3 H3Si O O Three unpaired electrons form bonds with CH3 groups tetrahedral arrangements of three bond pairs and one lone pair In trisilylamine, three sp2 orbitals are used for σ -bonding, giving a plane triangular structure. H 3C H2S2O3 ⇒ HO—S—OH l l Oxidation state of N in N2O is 2(x ) − 2 = 0 2 x = + = +1 2 Oxidation state of N in NO is x−2= 0 x = +2 Oxidation state of N in N2O3 is 2x + 3(−2) = 0 6 x= =3 2 Oxidation state of N in NO2 is x + 2(−2) = 0 x−4 = 0 x = +4 5. Let us consider the structure of the phosphorus oxyacids, Phosphorus has large atomic size and less electronegativity, so it forms single bond instead of pπ-pπ multiple bond. So, it consists of discrete tetrahedral P4 molecule as shown below : H H OH H3PO2 Hypophosphorus acid (P—H bonds=2) P P P P HO P H OH H3PO3 Orthophosphorus acid (P—H bond=1) P ∴ Number of trigons (triangles) = 4 H 3. S S bond is not present in H2 S 2 O7 (pyrosulphuric acid or O H2S2O7 ⇒ HO—S—O—S—OH O O While the other given oxoacids of sulphur, i.e. O HO P H OH H 4P 2O 5 Pyrophosphorus acid (P—H bonds=2) oleum). O P O P P OH OH OH H4P2O6 Hypophousphoric acid (P—H bond=0) 6. As given, the first electron gain enthalpy of oxygen can be shown as, O(g )+ e− → O − (g ), ∆egH 1 = − 141kJ/mol 238 p-Block Elements-II The expression of second electron gain enthalpy of oxygen will be, O − (g )+ e− → O 2− (g,) ∆egH 2 = + ve ∆egH 2 of oxygen is positive, i.e. endothermic, because a strong electrostatic repulsion will be observed between highy negative O − and the incoming electron (e− ). A very high amount of energy will be consumed (endothermic) by the system to overcome the electrostatic repulsion. 7. The structure of H3PO2 (hypophosphorous) acid is O White phosphorus on reaction with thionyl chloride (SOCl 2 ) produces phosphorus trichloride. P4 (s) + 8SOCl 2 (l ) → 4PCl 3 (l ) + 4SO2 (g ) + 2S2Cl 2 (g ) But if amount of thionyl chloride (SOCl 2 ) is in excess then it produces phosphorus pentachloride. P4 + 10SOCl 2 (l ) → 4PCl 5 + 10SO2 it has one unpaired electron. Total number of electrons present = 7 + 8 = 15 e − H H Due to the presence of two P H bonds, H3 PO 2 acts a strong reducing agent. e.g. +1 PLAN This problem is based on chemical properties of phosphorus. 13. NO is paramagnetic in gaseous state because in gaseous state, P HO 12. +1 0 +5 4 Ag NO 3 + H3PO 2 + 2H2O → 4 Ag ↓ + H3 PO 4 + 4 HNO 3 8. The thermal decomposition of given compounds is shown below ∆ (NH4 )2 Cr2O7 → N2 + 4H2O + Cr2O3 ∆ NH4NO2 → N2 + 2H2O Hence, there must be the presence of unpaired electron in gaseous state while in liquid state, it dimerises due to unpaired electron. 14. NO 2 is a brown coloured gas and imparts this colour to concentrated HNO 3 during long standing. 4 HNO 3 → 2H2O + 2NO 2 + 3O 2 − 15. (a) ONCl = 8 + 7 + 17 = 32 e ONO− = 8 + 7 + 8 + 1 = 24 e− (correct) ∆ (NH4 )2 SO4 → 2NH3 +H2SO4 Ba(N3 )2 → Ba + 3N2 Thus, only (NH4 )2 SO4 does not gives N2 on heating (It give NH3 ). While rest of the given compounds gives N2 on their thermal decomposition. +5 +4 +3 +1 9. H3 P O 4 > H4 P2 O6 > H3 P O 3 > H3 P O 2 10. Species Hybridisation O (b) O O Central O-atom is sp 2 -hybridised with 1 lone pair, so bent shape (correct). (c) In solid state, ozone is violet-black. Ozone does not exist in solid state, thus incorrect. (d) O 3 has no unpaired electrons, so diamagnetic (correct). Hence, (c) is the correct. – O – sp2 N O O N O O 16. The reaction of white phosphorus with aqueous alkali is P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → PH3 + NaH2PO2 sp2 In the above reaction, phosphorus is simultaneously +1 oxidised [P4 (0) → NaH2 P O2 ] as well as reduced −3 N sp2 O O + O N O sp O 11. Orthophosphorous acid, H3PO3 : HO P OH H x H3 PO3 = 3 + x + 3( −2 ) = 0 or x = + 3 Pyrophosphorous acid, H 4 P2 O 5 : O O HO P O P OH H H x H4 P2 O5 = 4 + 2x + 5 ( − 2) = 0 4 + 2x − 10 = 0, x = + 3 [P4 (0) → P H3 ]. Therefore, this is an example of disproportionation reaction. Oxidation number of phosphorus in PH3 is − 3 and in NaH2PO2 is + 1. However, + 1 oxidation number is not given in any option, one might think that NaH2PO2 has gone to further decomposition on heating. +5 ∆ 2NaH2PO2 → Na 2H P O4 + PH3 17. Let oxidation number of N be x. In HNO3, + 1 + x + 3 (− 2) = 0 ⇒ x = + 5 In NO, x−2=0 ⇒ x=+ 2 In N2, x=0 In NH4Cl, x + 4 −1= 0 ⇒ x = − 3 18. Ba(N3 )2 Heat → Ba(s) + 3N2 (g ) Azide salt of barium can be obtained in purest form as well as the decomposition product contain solid Ba as by product p-Block Elements-II alongwith gaseous nitrogen, hence no additional step of separation is required. Other reactions are 28. The structure of S3O9 is S Heat O Heat 2NH3 + 3CuO → 3Cu + 3H2O + N2 O O O S S O O O Heat (NH4 )2 Cr2O7 → Cr2O3 + 4H2O + N2 lower oxide P4O6 while excess of oxygen gives P4O10. A mixture of O2 and N2 is used for controlled oxidation of phosphorus into P4O6. O O NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O 19. In limited supply of oxygen, phosphorus is oxidised to its It has no S—S linkage. 29. CaO, a basic oxide, is most suitable for drying of basic ammonia. 30. H2O, due to its ability to form intermolecular H-bonds. 31. Corresponding acids are HClO4, H2SO3 and H3PO4. Hence, the order of acidic strength is Cl 2 O7 > SO2 > P4 O10 3 20. In P4, all phosphorus are sp -hybridised and has 75% p-character. 32. The structure of cyclic metaphosphate is P – sp3 P P – 21. In KMnO4, Mn is already in its highest oxidation state (+7), O O O O P P O P P O O O O – There is three P—O—P bonds. cannot be oxidised by any oxidising agent. 22. PbO2 + HNO3 → Pb(NO3 )2 + H2O + O2 33. Ca 3P2 + 6H2O → 3Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3 23. Equimolar amounts of NO and NO2 at –30°C gives N2O3 (l ) OH 34. Na 2SO3 + S → Na 2S2O3 which is a blue liquid. ( Blue) 24. Black phosphorus is thermodynamically most stable allotrope of phosphorus. It is due to three dimensional, network structure of polymeric black phosphorus. 25. H2S2O8 is a peroxy acid, has—O—O—linkage O O HO— S — O— O— S — OH O O Peroxodisulphuric acid 26. H3PO3 is a dibasic, reducing acid. H3PO4 is tribasic, Dibasic, reducing − ∆ 35. −30 ° C NO( g ) + NO2 ( g ) → N2 O3( l ) non-reducing acid. O H— P— OH OH 239 O HO— P— OH OH Tribasic, non -reducing 27. Polyphosphates are used as water softening agents because they form soluble complexes with cationic species of hard water. Na 2[Na 4 (PO3 )6 ]+ CaSO4 → Na 2[(Ca 2 (PO3 )6 ] + Na 2SO4 Soluble complex S2O27 − has no S—S linkage. O O − O— S — O— S — O− O O All others have atleast one S—S linkage. 36. Amongst XH3 where ‘X ’ is group-15 elements, basic strength decreases from top to bottom. Hence, NH3 is strongest base. 37. The electron withdrawing inductive effect of halogen decreases electron density on nitrogen, lowers basic strength. Since, fluorine is most electronegative, NF3 is least basic. 38. NO2 (g ) is deep brown coloured. 39. In N2O5, there are σ (sigma) covalent bonds, π (pi) bonds and coordinate covalent bonds as O N O O O N O 40. SO2 cannot be collected over water because it reacts with water forming H2SO3. SO2 + H2 O → H2 SO3 41. Quicklime (CaO) is used for drying NH3 gas because both are basic, do not react. On the other hand, H2SO4 and P2O5 are acidic, reacts with ammonia forming salts. CaCl 2 forms complex with ammonia. 240 p-Block Elements-II (b) N2O5 has no unpaired electron and is thus, diamagnetic thus, (b) is correct. (c) O O N O N O O 42. NO is lighter than O2. D2O is commonly known as heavy water. N2 is lighter than O2, effuse at faster rate under identical experimental conditions. NH3 liquefies at very low temperature. Therefore, liquid NH3 is used as a refrigerant. 43. Among the given compounds, those which generate N2 on thermal There is no N—N bond, thus, (c) is incorrect. (d) N2O5 + Na → NaNO3 + NO2 N2O5 vapours are of brownish colour. Thus, (d) is correct. decomposition below 300°C are ammonium dichromate i.e., (NH4 )2Cr2 O7 and barium azide or nitride i.e., Ba(N3 )2 . Reactions of their thermal decomposition are given below It is an exothemic reaction with ∆H = − 429.1 ± 3 kcal/ mol. ∆ (ii) Ba(N3 )2 → Ba + 3N2 ↑ 46. Plan Due to resonance, bond lengths between two atoms are equal. Species is said to be diamagnetic if all electrons are paired. Process is endothermic if it takes place with absorption of heat. Around 160 ° and above below 300 °C However, on rapid heating or explosion (i.e. above 300°C) it gives off nitrogen as Rapid heating 2NH4NO3 → 2N2 + O2 + 4H2O or explosion 44. Statement wise explanation is s O O Exothermic Thus, (b) is incorrect. (a, c, d) are correct. 47. The structures of these oxides are O N N O → O N N (b) O (a) O O O N N O O N O O N O → P4O10 + 6H2O → 4H3PO4 (a) P4 + 20HNO3 → 4H3PO4 + 20NO2 + 4H2O Thus, (a) is incorrect. →→ O r 2HNO3 → N2O5 + H2O O bent molecule all electrons paired thus, diamagnetic 2 O 3 → 3 O 2 ∆H ° = − 142 kJ mol −1 → 45. P4O10 is a dehydrating agent and converts HNO3 into N2O5 r O O (i) Statement (a) Bi 2O5 is a metallic oxide while N2O5 is a non-metallic oxide. Metallic oxides being ionic are basic in nature while non metallic oxides being covalent are acidic in nature. This confirms more basic nature of Bi 2O5 in comparison to N2O5. Hence, this is a correct statement. (ii) Statement (b) The electronegativity difference between N(3) and F(4) is less as compared to the electronegativity difference between Bi (1.7) and F(4). More electronegativity difference leads to ionic compounds. Thus, NF3 must be more covalent in nature as compared to BiF3. Hence, this statement is also correct. (iii) Statement (c) In NH3 intermolecular hydrogen bonding is present, which is altogether absent in PH3. Thus, PH3 boils at lower temperature than NH3. Hence, this is also a correct statement. (iv) Statement (d) Due to smaller size of N the lone pair-lone pair repulsion is more in N—N single bond as compared to O—P single bond. This results to weaker N—N single bond as compared to P—P single bond. Hence, this statement is incorrect. O O s → Magnesium nitride (Mg3N2 ) does not decompose at lower temperatures being comparatively more stable. Its thermal decomposition requires a minimum temperature of 700°C and proceeds as − 1500° C Mg3N2 700 → 3Mg + N2 ↑ 116.80° pm ∆ NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O O 218 → Ammonium nitrate (NH4NO 3) on heating below 300°C gives N 2O as Below 300 °C → ∆ (i) (NH4 )2 Cr2O7 → N2 ↑ + Cr2O3 + 4H2O O (d) (c) (a), (b), (c) have N—N bonds. 48. 2NH3 + OCl − → H2N— NH2 + H2O + Cl − 49. The structure of P4 is P P P P It has six P—P single bonds. There are four lone pairs on four phosphorus. P—P—P bond angles are of 60°. Heat 50. NH4NO3 → N2O + 2H2O NH2OH ⋅ HCl + NaNO2 → NaCl + 2H2O + N2O However, NH4 NO2 on heating gives N2 . p-Block Elements-II 51. The structures of various molecules given in problem are 8. H2S 2 O5 discussed below— 1. N 2 O3 It is the tautomeric mixture of following two structures— O N O N N O O N O O N Bridging oxo group P O O O 52. Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is correct explanation of Statement I. explains the Statement I appropriately. Nitrate ion (NO−3 ) is more stable than nitrite ion : − O O − O— N→ O ←→ O == N→ O (Resonance structure) •• O P P O O P O O Phosphorus has vacant 3d-orbitals, it can expand its valence shell beyond eight electrons, its both trihalides and pentahalides exist. O Passage 1 MnO 2 KClO3 → KCl + O2 Conclusion 6 bridging oxo groups are present in the compound. 5. H4 P2 O5 O P P O H OH O− but reason is not the correct explanation of Statement I. Nitrogen does not has any vacant d-orbitals, it cannot expand its valence shell beyond eight electrons, i.e. it cannot violate octet. Therefore, nitrogen forms only trihalides (NX 3 with eight electrons in valence shell of N). P O (Resonance structure) N O 55. Both Statement I and Statement II are independently correct Conclusion 6 bridging oxo groups are present in the compound. 4. P4 O7 O O O •• ←→ N − O P Conclusion This compound also does not contain any bridging oxo group. P O O OH 54. Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II Conclusion 1 bridging oxo group is present in the compound. 3. P4 O6 P S correct explanation of Statement I. O O S 53. Both Statement I and Statement II are true and Statement II is O N O HO O Conclusion 1 bridging oxo group is present in the compound. 2. N 2 O5 It has following structure. O O O Bridging oxo group 241 ∆ W HNO 3 ∆ O2 + P4 → P4O10 → N2O5 + HPO3 X 56. (a) H OH Conclusion 1 bridging oxo group is present in the compound. Y Z 57. (b) Passage 2 58. Due to greater solubility in water and prone to microbial attack, nitrates are less abundant in earth’s crust. 6. H 5P3O 10 O O O 59. NH3 is stronger Lewis base than PH3. In a group of hydrides, P P P 60. White phosphorus undergo disproportionation in alkaline O HO OH O OH basic strength decreases down the group. OH OH Conclusion 2 bridging oxo groups are present in the compound. 7. H2S 2 O3 P4 + NaOH → PH3 + NaH2 PO2 Warm (3) 61. (P) 2PbO2 + 2H2SO4 → 2PbSO4 + O2 + 2H2O Cl 2 ( 4 ) (Q) Na 2S2O3 + H2O → NaHSO4 + HCl S S HO medium. OH O Conclusion This compound does not contain any bridging oxo group. I2 (2 ) (R) N2H4 → N2 + Hl NO(1) (S) XeF2 → Xe + NOF Thus, P—(3), Q—(4), R—(2), S—(1) 242 p-Block Elements-II Oxides of N2 62. NO2 : 2SO2 (g ) + O2 (g ) → 2SO3 (g ) 72. PCl5 produces POCl3 with the following reagents PCl 5 + SO2 → POCl 3 + SOCl 2 PCl 5 + H2O → POCl 3 + 2HCl 2PCl 5 + H2SO4 → SO2Cl 2 + 2POCl 3 + 2HCl 6PCl 5 + P4O10 → 10POCl 3 (NO2 ) 63. O O O O HO—S—OH P O — — — — HO—Cr—OH HO—S—OH O O O O HO—S—O—S—OH 64. H3PO3 [O == PH(OH)2 ] is a dibasic acid. OH O — — Here four oxygen atoms are bonded to each phosphorus atom. H HO—C—OH — O O O Others are 65. White phosphorus has highly strained, tetrahedral O — — O structure, therefore highly reactive. P 66. In liquid state, nitric oxide (NO) dimerises into (NO)2 and odd electrons disappear giving diamagnetic property. → O == N— N== O ( l ) 2NO Paramagnetic P——OH O O O O — P — P 73. Diprotic acids = 6 O O — — O O P H H OH HO OH OH Triprotic Monobasic Lewis acid Diamagnetic 67. Both ‘N’ and ‘As’ in corresponding hydrides are P HO—B—OH 74. OH Monoprotic O sp3-hybridised. If central atoms are from same group, bond angle decreases from top to bottom if all other things are similar. Hence, H—N—H bond angle in NH3 is greater than H—As—H bond angle in AsH3. P O O O P O O P O 68. Halogens are all good oxidising agent and their oxidising power decreases from top to bottom (F2 to I2) in group. Any halogen above in group oxidises halides down in group from their aqueous solution. Hence, Cl 2 can oxidise Br − to Br2, I− to I2 but cannot oxidise F− to F2 rather F2 can oxidise Cl − to Cl 2. 69. Fe is more electropositive than hydrogen, displaces H+ ions from acid solution as : Fe + 2HCl → FeCl 2 + H2 ↑ 70. When rhombic sulphur (S8 ) is oxidised by conc. HNO 3 then H2SO 4 is obtained and NO 2 gas is released. S8 + 48HNO 3 → 8H2SO 4 + 48NO 2 + 16 H2O 1 mole of rhombic sulphur produces = 16 moles of H2O ∴ Mass of water = 16 × 18 (molar mass of H2O) = 288 g •• •• •• •• •• •• •• •• •• O •• (P4O10) 75. Cl 2O7 < SO3 < CO2 < B2O3 < BaO +4 +4 +2 +2.5 76. A = NaH SO3 ; B = Na 2 SO3 ; C = Na 2 S2O3; D = Na 2 S4 O6 (ii) CaNCN + 5H2O (iii) 4BF3 + 3H2O (iv) NCl 3 + 3H2O (v) 2XeF4 + 3H2O → → → → CaCO3 + 2NH4OH H3BO3 + 3HBF4 NH3 + 3HOCl Xe + XeO3 + F2 + 6HF 78. Nitrogen in N2 are bonded by one sigma and two pi bonds. Phosphorus and other elements of this period, due to larger size, are very less likely to form pi bonds, hence P4 is formed in which there is no pi bonds. 79. In given scheme : A = Ca (OH)2 B = NH4HCO3, C = Na 2CO3 71. N2O3 has two proposed structures. O == N O N == O and O O 77. (i) Al 4C3 + 12H2O → 4Al(OH)3 + 3CH4 Key Idea Rhombic sulphur (S8 ) gets oxidised into sulphuric acid and water, NO2 gas is released on reaction with conc. HNO3. •• P O •• O• • •• N N D = NH4Cl and E = CaCl 2 80. (a) HNO2 + 2H2SO3 + H2O → NH2OH + 2H2SO4 A •• O •• In both cases, number of lone pair of electrons are eight. B C D (b) In SO3 + H2O → H2SO4, sulphuric acid is obtained in misty form and the reaction is explosive. By adding H2SO4, above reaction is prevented : p-Block Elements-II H2SO4 + SO3 → H2S2O7 (oleum) H2S2O7 + H2O → 2H2SO4 In the contact process, V2O5 is used as catalyst. P4O10 + 6PCl 5 → 10 POCl 3 81. (i) (ii) SnCl 4 + 2C2H5Cl + 2Na → Na 2SnCl 4 + C4H10 Heat 87. Ca 5 (PO4 )3 F + 5H2SO4 + 10H2O → 3H3PO4 + 5CaSO4 ⋅ 2H2 O + HF 88. PCl 5 + SO2 → POCl 3 + SOCl 2 A (b) Ca 3 (PO4 )2 + 4H3PO4 → 3Ca(H2PO4 )2 triple superphosphate form H3PO3 and HI as– 2P + 3I2 + 6H2 O → 2H3PO3 + 6HI 90. SO2 acts as reducing agent on account of following reaction : SO2 + 2OH − → SO42 − + 2H + + 2e− 83. The poisonous element M may be As. On the basis of given information Hence, the above reaction proceeds in forward direction on increasing concentration of HO− ion. H+ is on product side, adding H+ retards the reaction by sending it in backward direction. Zn /HCl AsCl 3 + 6H → AsH3 + 3HCl N ∆ 2AsH3 → 2As + 3H2 M 84. (i) P4 + 20HNO3 → 4H3PO4 + 20NO2 + 4H2O (ii) 3KMnO4 + 5H2O2 + 3H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 5O2 + 8H2O (iii) P4 + 20HNO3 → 4H3PO4 + 20NO2 + 4H2O (iv) 2Al + 2NaOH + 2H2O → 2NaAlO2 + 3H2 85. O O O P 4 P==O bonds O O P P O O B 89. Red phosphorus reacts with iodine in the presence of water to PCl 5 + SO2 → POCl 3 + SOCl 2 82. (a) 243 + 91. + O O O O – – O O 92. Ammonia, in liquid state undergo self-ionisation as : 2NH3 q NH4+ + NH2− Thus, addition of NH4 Cl to liquid ammonia increases concentration of NH4+ in solution and NH4 Cl act as acid. 93. (i) Na 2CO3 + NO + NO2 → 2NaNO2 + CO2 (ii) 2KMnO4 + 2NH3 → 2MnO2 + 2KOH + 2H2 O + N2 (iii) P4 + 20HNO3 → 4H3PO4 + 20NO2 + 4H2 O (iv) 2H2 S + NaHSO3 + H+ → 3S + 3H2 O + Na + O P O O 86. (i) The size of both nitrogen and fluorine are very small as well as they have very high electron density. Thus in NF3, N and F repel each other stretching the N—F bond. Hence, in NF3, N—F bond lengths are greater than the sum of their single bond covalent radii. (ii) Mg 3N2 + 6H2 O → 3Mg(OH)2 + 2NH3 MgCl 2 is a salt of strong acid HCl and strong base Mg(OH)2 and therefore, not hydrolysed in aqueous solution. (iii) In (SiH3 )3 N, the lone pair of nitrogen is involved in pπ - dπ bonding, less available on nitrogen for donation to a Lewis acid, a weaker Lewis base pπ-dπ H3Si—N——SiH3 SiH3 Carbon does not have any vacant d-orbitals, no such pπ -dπ bonding occur in trimethyl amine, lone pair of nitrogen is available for donation to Lewis acid, hence a stronger Lewis base. (v) CaCO3 + CO2 + H2 O → Ca(HCO3 )2 94. (i) NaNO2 + Zn + NaOH → 3Na 2ZnO2 + NH3 + H2O (ii) 2NaIO3 + 5NaHSO3 → 3NaHSO4 + 2Na 2 SO4 + I2 + H 2 O + − − + 95. N ≡≡ N— O ←→ N == N == O 96. (i) ∆ 15CaO + 4P4 → 5Ca 3P2 + 3P2O5 ↑ [Ca 3P2 + 6H2 O → 3Ca(OH)2 + 2PH3 ↑ ] × 5 15CaO + 4P4 + 30H2 O → 15Ca(OH)2 + 3P2 O5 ↑ + 10PH3 ↑ (ii) 2NH3 + CO2 + H2 O → (NH4 )2 CO3 CaSO4 + (NH4 )2 CO3 → CaCO3 ↓ + (NH4 )2 SO4 gypsum CaSO4 + 2NH3 + CO2 + H2O → CaCO3 ↓ + (NH4 )2 SO4 97. (i) In H3PO3, there is only two replaceable H, hence dibasic O H— P — OH H—of OH are acidic, dibasic. OH (ii) NH3 molecules are associated by intermolecular H—bonds. 244 p-Block Elements-II 98. (i) 2H3PO2 ∆ → PH3 + H3PO4 (Disproportionation) 109. (ii) NaClO3 + SO2 → NaCl + S + 5H2O 110. Orthophosphoric acid (H3PO4 ) has three replaceable (acidic) 99. SiO2 < CO2 < N2O5 < SO3 hydrogen while orthophosphorus acid (H3PO3 ) has only two replaceable hydrogen. O O O— P — OH HO— P — OH OH OH 100. (i) 4P + 10HNO3 + H2O → 5NO + 5NO2 + 4H3PO4 (ii) NaCl + NH4OH + CO2 → NH4Cl + NaHCO3 101. Oxygen lacks empty d-orbitals in its valence shell, cannot violate octet rule, hence in most of its compound it show only divalency. On the other hand, sulphur has vacant 3d-orbitals in its valence shell, can violate octet rule, show di, tetra and hexa valency. (i) MgO is used for the lining of steel making furnace because it forms slag with impurities, and thus helps in removing them from iron. (ii) The mixture of N2 H4 and H2 O2 (in presence of Cu(II) catalyst) is used as a rocket propellant because the reaction is highly exothermic and large volumes of gases is evolved. N2H4 (l ) + 2H2O2 (l ) → N2 (g ) + 4H2O (g ) (iii) In orthophosphorus acid (H3PO3 ) only two of the three H are replaceable as O H— P — OH OH (Only H of —OH are acidic) (iv) In MgCl 2, Mg is sp-hybridised while in SnCl 2, Sn is sp2-hybridised with a lone pair at Sn. Hence, MgCl 2 is linear while SnCl 2 is angular. Inert atm. 103. (i) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → 3NaH2PO2 + PH3 (phosphine) (ii) 4Sn + 10HNO3 → 4Sn(NO3 )2 + NH4 NO3 + 3H2 O dil 104. (i) 4S + 6OH− → 2S2 − + S2O32− + 3H2O (ii) ClO3– + 6I– + 6H2SO4 → Cl – + 6HSO–4 +3I2 + 3H2O ∆ 105. (i) 2Ca 3 (PO4 )2 + 6SiO2 + 10C → 6CaSiO3 + 10CO + P4 (white) (ii) (NH4 )2 SO4 + NO + NO2 → 2N2 + 3H2 O + H2 SO4 + − − + 106. N ≡≡ N— O ←→ N== N ==O 107. Fe2 (SO4 )3 + 2KI → 2FeSO4 + K2SO4 + I2 In the above reaction, strong reducing agent, iodide, reducing ferric salt into ferrous salt. 108. A Asbestos Lithium metal Nitric oxide B Silicates of Ca and Mg Reducing agent Paramagnetic Cl 2 + 2OH− → Cl − + ClO− + H2 O (iii) 10 H + 102. (i) 2HNO3 + 6HCl → 2NO + 3Cl 2 + 4H2O (ii) 2Ce3 + + S2 O28 − → 2SO24 − + 2Ce4 + hypophosphorus acid C Donar Electron donor Air pollutant orthophosphoric acid (it has three acidic H) orthophosphorus acid (only two acidic H, H directly bonded to P is not acidic) O 111. O O (i) (ii) H P HO HO OH OH phosphorus acid (P is sp3-hybridised) P P O OH OH (pyrosphosphoric acid) 112. Rhombic sulphur has a eight membered puckered ring structure. On heating ring tends to break and linear chain sulphur is formed. When sulphur melts, the S8 rings slip and roll over one another very easily. It gives rise to a clear mobile liquid. When liquid sulphur is further heated to higher temperature, rings are broken giving long chain sulphur molecules. This long chain molecules of sulphur gets entangled into one another increasing viscosity of melt. 113. (i) In the presence of sunlight, concentrated nitric acid decomposes partially as hν Conc. HNO3 → NO2 + H+ + O2 It is the NO2 which impart yellow colouration to nitric acid. (ii) The bleaching action of bleaching powder is due to presence of available chlorine, but in contact of moisture, it releases chlorine decreasing the amount of available chlorine. Hence, bleaching property decreases gradually as bleaching powder is kept in open container for long time. Topic 2 Elements and Compounds of Group 17 and 18 1. Electron gain enthalpy (∆ eg H ) is the enthalpy change for converting 1 mol of isolated atoms to anions by adding electrons. All halogens have negative ∆ eg H (exothermic) values. Generally, ∆ eg H becomes less negative when comparing elements of the same group from top to bottom. But among fluorine and chlorine there is an anomaly because inter-electron repulsion is stronger in fluorine due to its extra small size. ∴ ∆ e g H is less exothermic than expected for F-atom. Thus, the correct values of electron gain enthalpies F < Cl > Br > I kJ mol −1 ( −333) ( −349) ( −325) ( −296 ) p-Block Elements-II 2. S 2O2− 8 is 245 8. The reaction in which oxidation and reduction occur simultaneously are termed as redox reaction. + 1 +4 O—S—O—O—S—O Total number of S O or S==O bond = 8 S Rhombic sulphur is S S S S S S 9. Cl 2, Br2 and I2 form a mixture of halide and hypohalites when react with cold dilute alkalies while a mixture of halides and haloate when react with concentrated cold alkalies. S Cl 2 + 2NaOH → NaCl + NaClO + H2O Cold and dilute ∴ Cl − and ClO− are obtained as products when chlorine gas reacts with cold and dilute aqueous NaOH. 3. Radium (Ra) is a radioactive element. Ra belongs to group 2 (alkaline earth metals), it is not a noble gas. Note In question noble gas which does not exist in the atmosphere is asked and answer is Ra. But Ra (radium) is an alkaline earth metal and not noble gas. It can be Rn (radon) and is misprint in JEE Main Paper. 4. Halogens form halates and halides with hot and concentrated solution of NaOH as : 3 X 2 + 6NaOH → 5NaX + NaXO3 + 3H2 O So, Cl2 will also give Cl− (as NaCl) and ClO3− (as NaClO3 ) in the above reaction. Thus, option (b) is correct. Note When halogens react with cold and dilute solution of NaOH, hypohalites and halides are produced as: X 2 + 2NaOH → NaX + NaXO + H 2O 5. Iodine reacts with concentrated HNO 3to yield HIO 3 along with NO 2 and H2 O. The reaction involved in as follows : I2 + 10HNO3 → 2HIO3 + 10NO2 + 4H2O The oxidation state of ‘I’ in HIO 3 is + 5 as calculated below : 1 + x + 3(−2) = 0 x − 5 = 0, x = + 5 10. Interhalogen compounds are generally more reactive than halogens (except fluorine). 11. Xe has highest boiling point. 12. PLAN This problem can be solved by using concept involved in chemical properties of xenon oxide and xenon fluoride. XeF6 on complete hydrolysis produces XeO3. XeO3 on reaction with OH− produces HXeO−4 which on further treatment with OH− undergo slow disproportionation reaction and produces XeO64− along with Xe(g ), H2O(l ) and O2 (g ) as a by-product. Oxidation half-cell in basic aqueous solution HXeO− + 5OH− → XeO4− + 3H O + 2e– 4 6 4 2 Balanced overall disproportionation reaction is 4HXeO−4 + 8OH− → 3XeO64− + Xe + 6H2O 14 4244 3 2 products Complete sequence of reaction can be shown as XeF6+3H2O The chemical reactivity follows the order. XeO3+ 3H2F2 – OH F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2. The highest reactivity of fluorine is attributed to two factors: (i) The low dissociation energy of F F bond (which results in low attraction energy for the reaction). (ii) Very strong bonds which are formed. Both properties arise from, small size of fluorine. I2 is being the least reactive halogen, it requires a catalyst for the reaction. H2 + I2 → 2HI 7. In XeOF4 , Xe is sp3d 2-hybridised. Geometry of the molecule is octahedral, but shape of the molecule is square pyramidal. According to VSEPR, theory it has one π bond. Remaining six electron pairs form an octahedron with one position occupied by a lone pair. HXeO–4 OH–/H2O (disproportionation) XeO64-(s) + Xe(g) + H2O(l ) + O2(g) Thus, (c) is the correct answer. 13. Decreasing order of strength of oxoacids HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl Reason Consider the structures of conjugate bases of each oxyacids of chlorine. O O Number of bp = 5 Xe F Cl F Number of lp = 1 F Here, Xe contains one lone pair of electrons. 2 Reduction half-cell in basic aqueous solution HXeO− + 3H O + 6e− → Xe + 7OH− 6. Chemical reactivity of halogens decreases down the group. F 0 Since, Xe undergoes oxidation while O undergoes reduction. So, it is an example of redox reaction. Total number of S S bond = 8 Thus, the correct answer is (b). ∴ + 6 XeF4 + O2 ( F2 ) → X eF6 + O 2 O O O – O Cl O O – Cl O O– Cl—O – Negative charge is more delocalised on ClO4− due to resonance, hence, ClO−4 is more stable (and less basic). 246 p-Block Elements-II Hence, we can say as the number of oxygen atom(s) around Cl-atom increases as oxidation number of Cl-atom increases and thus, the ability of loose the H+ increases. Weak acid have strong conjugate base thus hypochlorite ion has strongest conjugate base. Therefore, statement (a) is correct. (b) Hypochlorite ion is linear and perchlorate ion is tetrahedral and there is no effect of lone pair on hypochlorite ion. Thus statement (b) is correct. 14. In XeO2F2, the bonding arrangement around the central atom Xe is Xe O F 4σ bonds + 1.0 l p = 5 Hybridisation of Xe = sp3d O F Cl—O– sp3d-hybridisation corresponds to trigonal bipyramidal geometry. Remove lone-pair F O See-saw shape 15. Sodium thiosulphate, Na 2S2O3 gets oxidised by chlorine water as Na 2S2O3 + 4Cl 2 + 5H2O → 2NaHSO4 + 8HCl FeCl 3 oxidises Na 2S2O3 to Na 2S4O6. Thus, statement (d) is correct. 25. (a) ClO−4 is more stable than ClO− . (b) Incorrect : Cl 2 + H2O → HCl + HOCl (c) O 17. Amongst oxyacids of a given halogen, higher the oxidation number of halogen, stronger the acid. Hence, HO HOCl < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4. 18. Pseudo halides must contain atleast one nitrogen atom. 19. Among oxyacids of halogens, if there are same number of oxygens bonded to central atom, higher the electronegativity of halogen, stronger the acid. Hence, IOH < BrOH < ClOH 20. All others has at least one S-S linkage. KF + HF → K+ + HF2− 21. Among halogens, oxidising power decreases from top to bottom. Hence, the upper halogen oxidises lower halides from aqueous solution. Chlorine will oxidise bromide into bromine. 22. Moist chlorine gives nascent oxygen, act as oxidising agent : Cl 2 + H2 O → HCl + HOCl HOCl → HCl + Cl O 23. Fluorine, being the most electronegative, its size is very small. 24. (a) Order of acid strength different oxyacids of chlorine are : HClO (Hypochlorous acid) < HClO3 < (Chloric acid) (+7) HClO4 (Perchloric acid) Cl HO sp3 (d) HClO4 is stronger acid than H2 O. 26. Colour of halogen arises due to transition from HOMO to LUMO in the visible region. On moving down a group, the difference in energy between HOMO and LUMO decreases electronic transition occur more easily and colour intensity increases. 27. Compounds Hydridisation BrF5 sp3d 2 Lone pair on central atom Structures F F Br F F 1 F F ClF3 F sp3d Therefore, it does not have a tendency to loose electrons. Hence, HF does not act as a reducing agent. (+5) O sp3 [O] nascent oxygen (bleaching action) (+1) Perchlorate ion Thus, statement (c) is incorrect. (d) The hypochlorite ion oxidises the sulphite ion to sulphate ion, because HOCl is the strongest oxidising Cl oxyacids, ClO − + SO 23− → SO 24− + Cl − NOTE According to Bent’s rule, the more electronegative atoms must be present on axial position. Hence, F are kept on axial positions. 2KMnO4 + KI + H2O → 2KOH + 2MnO2 + KIO3 Chlorate ion O—Cl==O While in hypochlorite ion, chlorite ion Cl(+ 1) is oxidised to chlorate, Cl(+ 5) and reduced to chloride, Cl(− 1) ion. 3ClO− → ClO3− + 2 Cl − O 16. I– is oxidised by MnO–4 in alkaline medium to form IO–3 – (c) In the disproportionation reaction, chlorate ion Cl(+ 5 ) is oxidised to perchlorate, Cl(+ 7) and reduced to chloride, Cl (−1). 4ClO −3 → 3ClO 4− + Cl − Xe F O—Cl==O Hypochlorite ion Also, in trigonal bipyramidal geometry, lone pairs remain present on equatorial positions in order to give less electronic repulsion. F F O O Xe – 2 Cl F XeF4 sp3d 2 F F SF4 sp3d F 2 Xe F 1 p-Block Elements-II H O Cl == O H O Cl == O ⇒ m mol of OCl − = the same manner. 32. Bleaching powder is Ca(OCl)Cl. Therefore, the oxoacid whose salt is present in bleaching powder is HOCl. Anhydride of HOCl is Cl 2O as O (iv) (iii) 2 HOCl → Cl 2O + H2O − (a) Number of Cl == O bonds in (ii) and (iii) together is three. Hence, wrong. (b) Number of Lone Pair on Cl in (ii) and (iii) together is three. Hence, correct. (c) In (iv), Cl is sp3-hybridised. Hence, correct. (d) Amongst (i) to (iv), the strongest acid is (iv). Hence, wrong. Passage 1 Q. Nos. (29-30) Q 33. Ar, being inert, provide inert atmosphere in arc welding, and prevent from undesired oxidation. •• 34. O == Xe == O 35. Both XeF4 and XeF6 are strong oxidising agent. NaOH → NaOCl 36. (CH3 )2 SiCl 2 + H2O → (CH3 )2 Si(OH)2 + 2HCl P CH3 NaOH HClO3 → NaClO3 chloric acid Passage 3 Q.Nos. (33 to 35) Xe is sp3-hybridised with one lone pair. Hence, molecule of XeO3 has pyramidal shape. P hot 6NaOH + 3Cl 2 → 5NaCl + NaClO3 + 3H2O hypochlorous acid NOTE The oxidation number of element in anhydride and oxoacid remains the same. O Cold 2NaOH + Cl 2 → NaCl + NaOCl + H2O HOCl 12 = 6 m mol. Remaining part is solved in 2 == H O Cl == O (ii) O == H O Cl (i) O == 28. Polymerisation Q CH3 R 10 SO2Cl 2 + P4 → 4PCl 5 + 10 SO2 Passage 2 Q.Nos. (31-32) 31. The involved redox reactions are : I2 + − → 2I + S4O62− Also the n-factor of S2O32− is one as 2S2O32− → S4O62− + 2e− [one ‘e’ is produced per unit of S2O32− ] CH3 …(i) 37. KI + I2 → KI3 …(ii) 38. Among HX, acidic strength increases from HF to HI. 39. XeF4 reacts with O 2F2 to form XeF6 ⋅ O 2F2 is fluoronating reagent. 143 K XeF4 + O 2F2 → XeF6 + O 2 ⇒ Molarity of Na 2S2O3 = 0.25 N × 1 = 0.25 M ⇒ m mol of Na 2S2O3 used up = 0.25 × 48 = 12 Now from stoichiometry of reaction (ii) 12 m mol of S2O2− 3 would have reduced 6 m mol of I2. From stoichiometry of reaction (i) m mol of OCl − reduced = m mol in I2 produced = 6 ⇒ Molarity of household bleach solution = CH3 silicone 3 O2 2 1 Cl 2 + H2O → HCl + HOCl → HCl + O2 2 VCl 5 + H2O → VOCl 3 + 2HCl T 2H+ + OCl − + 2I− → Cl − + I2 + H2O Cl 3XeF4 + 6H2O → XeO3 + 2Xe + 12HF + S PCl 5 + 4H2O → H3PO4 + 5 HCl 2S2O2− 3 CH3 —Si—O—Si—O—Si—O Cl 2 + SO2 → SO2Cl 2 R 247 6 = 0.24 M 25 Shortcut Method Milliequivalent of Na 2S2O3 =milliequivalent of OCl − = 0.25 × 48 =12 Also n-factor of OCl − = 2 [Cl + → Cl − , gain of 2e− ] (Y) The structore of XeF6 is F F F Xe F F F Y compound (XeF6 ) has 3 lone pair in each fluorine and one lone pair in xenon. Hence, total number of lone pairs electrons is 19. 40. Br2 is disproportionated in basic medium as 3Br2 + 3Na 2CO3 → 5NaBr + NaBrO3 + 3CO2 41. 2XeF4 + 3H2O → Xe + XeO3 + F2 + 6HF 248 p-Block Elements-II 42. F F F Xe Xe linear O Xe F F F F square planar F 49. 2IO−3 + 5HSO−3 → I2 + H2O + 3HSO−4 + 2SO24− 50. Cl 2 + FeBr2 → FeCl 3 + Br2 51. ClO−3 + 6I− + 6H2SO4 → Cl − + 6HSO−4 + 3I2 + 3H2O O see-saw shaped 43. Halogen above in the group oxidises halide below to it from their aqueous solution, e.g. Cl 2 + 2I− (aq) → 2Cl − + I2 40 ° C 44. Ca(OH)2 + Cl 2 → CaOCl 2 + H2O 45. (i) 2KI + Cl 2 → 2KCl + I2 (ii) 2KClO3 + I2 → 2KIO3 + Cl 2 46. (i) Due to small size and high electron density of fluorine atom, there exist a significant repulsions between fluorine atoms in F2 , they have greater tendency to get apart. Hence, bond energy of F2 is less than that of Cl 2 . This is against to bond-length bond-energy relationship,. (ii) Sulphur dioxide is a more powerful reducing agent in alkaline medium because nascent hydrogen is produced in the presence of moisture i.e. SO2 + 2H2O → H2SO4 + 2H And alkaline solution neutralises the acid i.e. H2SO4 and shift the equilibrium in the forward direction producing more nascent hydrogen. But in acidic medium the equilibrium will suppressed resulting in a lesser amount of nascent hydrogen. 52. (i) Bond strength is inversely related to bond length. Hence, bond energy : HI < HBr < HCl < HF (ii) HI(– 1) < I2 (0) < ICl(+1) < HIO4 (+7) 53. F2 itself, is the strongest oxidising agent. Therefore, chemical reagent cannot oxidise fluoride to fluorine. 54. Complete and balance the following reactions Cl 2 + 2OH− → Cl − + ClO− + H2O 55. The bleaching action of bleaching powder is due to presence of available chlorine, but in contact of moisture, it releases chlorine decreasing the amount of available chlorine. Hence, bleaching property decreases gradually as bleaching powder is kept in open container for long time. 56. (i) HBr is a stronger reducing agent, reduces cencentrated H2SO4 to SO2. Hence, HBr cannot be prepared by heating bromide salts with concentrated H2SO4. (ii) Hypochlorous acid is acidic in nature, therefore it turns blue litmus paper into red. However, HOCl is also an oxidising acid (bleaching), it bleaches red colour to finally colourless. 40 ° C 57. (i) Ca(OH)2 + Cl 2 → CaOCl 2 + H2 O (ii) 3Cu + 8HNO3 (dil) → 3Cu(NO3 )2 + 4H2 O + 2NO (iii) 2NaCl + 2H2 SO4 + MnO2 → Na 2 SO4 + MnSO4 47. NaBrO3 + 3F2 → 3F2O + NaBr 48. HOCl < HOClO < HOClO2 < HOClO3 + 2H2O + Cl 2 ∆ (iv) Al 2 O3 + 3C + 3Cl 2 → 2AlCl 3 + 3CO 17 Transition and Inner-Transition Elements Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) − 1. The shape/structure of [ XeF5 ] and XeO 3F2, respectively, are (2020 Main, 2 Sep II) (a) pentagonal planar and trigonal bipyramidal (b) octahedral and square pyramidal (c) trigonal bipyramidal and pentagonal planar (d) trigonal bipyramidal and trigonal bipyramidal 8. The maximum number of possible oxidation states of actinoides are shown by (2019 Main, 9 April II) (a) berkelium, (Bk) and californium (Cf) (b) nobelium (No) and lawrencium (Lr) (c) actinium (Ac) and thorium (Th) (d) neptunium (Np) and plutonium (Pu) 9. The lanthanide ion that would show colour is 2. The incorrect statement(s) among (1)-(3) is (are) (2020 Main, 4 Sep II) 1. W(VI) is more stable than Cr(VI). 2. in the presence of HCl, permanganate titrations provide satisfactory results. 3. some lanthanoid oxides can be used as phosphors. (a) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) 1 and 2 only 3. Thermal decomposition of a Mn compound (X ) at 513 K results in compound (Y ), MnO2 and a gaseous product. MnO2 reacts with NaCl and concentrated H2 SO4 to give a pungent gas Z. X , Y and Z, respectively, are (2019 Main, 12 April II) (a) K 3MnO4 , K 2MnO4 and Cl 2 (b) K 2MnO4 , KMnO4 and SO2 (c) KMnO4 , K 2MnO4 and Cl 2 (d) K 2MnO4 , KMnO4 and Cl 2 4. The pair that has similar atomic radii is (a) Mn and Re (c) Sc and Ni (b) Ti and Hf (d) Mo and W 5. The correct order of the first ionisation enthalpies is (2019 Main, 10 April II) (a) Mn < Ti < Zn < Ni (c) Zn < Ni < Mn < Ti (b) Ti < Mn < Zn < Ni (d) Ti < Mn < Ni < Zn 6. The highest possible oxidation states of uranium and plutonium, respectively, are (a) 7 and 6 (c) 6 and 4 (2019 Main, 10 April II) correct order of their spin-only magnetic moment is (2019 Main, 10 April I) 3+ 2+ 2+ (a) Sc < Ti < Ti < V (c) Ti 3+ < Ti 2+ < Sc3+ < V2+ 3+ (b) Sm 3+ (c) La 3+ 10. The correct order of atomic radii is (a) Ho > N > Eu > Ce (c) Eu > Ce > Ho > N (b) Sc < Ti 3+ < V2+ < Ti 2+ (d) V2+ < Ti 2+ < Ti 3+ < Sc3+ (d) Lu3+ (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) (b) N > Ce > Eu > Ho (d) Ce > Eu > Ho > N 4 KOH, O 2 11. A → 2B + 2H 2O (Green) 4 HCl 3B → 2C + MnO2 + 2H 2O (Purple) H 2O, KI 2C → 2 A + 2KOH + D In the above sequence of reactions, A and D, respectively, are (2019 Main, 11 Jan II) (a) KI and KMnO4 (c) KI and K2MnO4 (b) MnO2 and KIO3 (d) KIO3 and MnO2 12. The element that usually does not show variable oxidation states is (a) Sc (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) (b) Cu (c) Ti (d) V st 13. The 71 electron of an element X with an atomic number of 71 enters into the orbital (a) 4 f (b) 6p (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) (c) 5d (d) 6s 14. The effect of lanthanoid contraction in the lanthanoid series of elements by and large means (b) 6 and 7 (d) 4 and 6 7. Consider the hydrated ions of Ti 2 + , V2 + , Ti 3 + and Sc3+ . The 3+ (2019 Main, 8 April I) (a) Gd3+ (a) (b) (c) (d) (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) increase in atomic radii and decrease in ionic radii decrease in both atomic and ionic radii increase in both atomic and ionic radii decrease in atomic radii and increase in ionic radii 15. The transition element having least enthalpy of atomisation is (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) (a) Zn (b) V (c) Fe (d) Cu 250 Transition and Inner-Transition Elements 16. In the following reactions, ZnO is respectively acting as a/an 25. Consider the following reaction, (2013 Main) (i) ZnO + Na2O → Na2 ZnO2 (ii) ZnO + CO2 → ZnCO3 z H2 O 2 The values of x, y and z in the reaction are, respectively (a) base and acid (c) acid and acid (a) 5, 2 and 16 (c) 2, 5 and 16 (2017 Main) (b) base and base (d) acid and base 17. Sodium salt of an organic acid ‘X ’ produces effervescence with conc. H2SO4 . ‘X ’ reacts with the acidified aqueous CaCl2 solution to give a white precipitate which decolourises acidic solution of KMnO4 . ‘X ’ is (2017 Main) 18. Which of the following combination will produce H 2 gas? (2017 Adv.) (a) Fe metal and conc. HNO3 (b) Cu metal and conc. HNO3 (c) Au metal and NaCN (aq) in the presence of air (d) Zn metal and NaOH (aq) (b) VO2 (d) TiO2 respectively, produce (2016 Main) (b) NO and N2O (d) N2O and NO2 Zn 2+ , respectively, are (2016 Main) (a) octahedral, square planar and tetrahedral (b) square planar, octahedral and tetrahedral (c) tetrahedral, square planar and octahedral (d) octahedral, tetrahedral and square planar 23. Which series of reactions correctly represents chemical relations related to iron and its compound? O2 , Heat (b) Fe → FeO Cl , Heat H SO ,O Dil. H 2 SO4 → Heat, air 2 (c) Fe → FeCl 3 → FeCl 2 CO, 600°C 2 (d) Fe → Fe3O4 → FeO O , Heat (2014 Main) Heat Fe2 (SO4 ) 3 FeSO4 Heat → Zn → Fe (2005) (d) K 2MnO4 colour in solution? (a) VOCl 2 ; FeCl 2 (c) MnCl 2 ; FeCl 2 (2005, 1M) (b) CuCl 2 ; VOCl 2 (d) FeCl 2 ; CuCl 2 I − converts into (a) IO−3 (b) I2 (2004) (c) IO−4 (d) IO− oxidation state is (2004, 1M) (a) MnO2 , FeCl 3 (b) [MnO4 ]− , CrO2 Cl 2 (c) [Fe(CN)6]3− , [Co(CN)3] (d) [NiCl 4 ]2 − , [CoCl 4 ]− → Fe listed below with atomic numbers. Which one of them is expected to have the highest E °M 3+ / M 2+ value? (2013 Main) (b) Mn (Z = 25) (d) Co (Z = 27) (b) heating NH4NO3 (d) Na(comp.) + H2O2 33. When MnO2 is fused with KOH, a coloured compound is (a) K 2MnO4, purple green (c) Mn 2O3, brown (2003, 1M) (b) KMnO4, purple (d) Mn 3O4, black 34. Amongst the following, identify the species with an atom in + 6 oxidation state (a) MnO−4 (b) Cr(CN)63− (a) oxygen (c) nitrous oxide Fe CO, 700° C → (a) heating NH4NO2 (c) Mg3N2 + H2O (2000, 1M) (c) NiF62 − (d) CrO2Cl 2 35. On heating ammonium dichromate, the gas evolved is Fe 24. Four successive members of the first row transition elements (a) Cr (Z = 24) (c) Fe (Z = 26) (c) KMnO4 formed, the product and its colour is (b) K 3 [ Co (NO2 )6 ] (d) BaCrO 4 2 4 2 → (b) FeSO4 (2004, 1M) (2015 Main) FeSO4 (2012) (d) violet 32. (NH4 ) 2 Cr2 O7 on heating gives a gas which is also given by 22. Which of the following compounds is not yellow coloured? Dil. H SO CuSO4 is (a) orange-red (b) blue-green (c) yellow 31. The pair of compounds having metals in their highest 21. The geometries of the ammonia complexes of Ni 2 + , Pt 2 + and 2 4 → 27. The colour of light absorbed by an aqueous solution of 30. When I − is oxidised by MnO−4 in alkaline medium, 20. The reaction of zinc with dilute and concentrated nitric acid, (a) Fe (2013 Main) 29. Which of the following pair is expected to exhibit same (2016 Main) (a) Zn 2 [ Fe (CN)6 ] (c) (NH4 )3 [ As (Mo3O10 )4 ] correct order of the property stated against it? (a) V2+ < Cr 2+ < Mn 2+ < Fe2+ : paramagnetic behaviour (b) Ni 2+ < Co2+ < Fe2+ < Mn 2+ : ionic size (a) KI ferromagnetic? (a) NO2 and NO (c) NO2 and N2O 26. Which of the following arrangements does not represent the 28. Which of the following will not be oxidised by O3 ? 19. Which of the following compounds is metallic and (a) CrO2 (c) MnO2 (b) 2, 5 and 8 (d) 5, 2 and 8 (c) Co3+ < Fe3+ < Cr 3+ < Sc3+ : stability in aqueous solution (d) Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn : number of oxidation states (b) HCOONa (d) Na 2C2O4 (a) C6H5COONa (c) CH3COONa xMnO−4 + y C2 O42 − + zH+ → xMn 2+ + 2 y CO2 + (b) ammonia (d) nitrogen 36. In the dichromate dianion (a) (b) (c) (d) (1999, 2M) (1999, 2M) 4 Cr—O bonds are equivalent 6 Cr—O bonds are equivalent all Cr—O bonds are equivalent all Cr—O bonds are non-equivalent 37. Which of the following compounds is expected to be coloured? (a) Ag 2 SO4 (1997, 1M) (b) CuF2 (c) MgF2 (d) CuCl Transition and Inner-Transition Elements 251 38. Ammonium dichromate is used in some fireworks. The green coloured powder blown in the air is (a) CrO3 (b) Cr2 O3 (1997, 1M) (c) Cr (d) CO 39. The reaction which proceed in the forward direction is (a) Fe2 O3 + 6HCl → 2FeCl 3 + 3H 2 O (1991, 1M) (b) NH 3 + H 2 O + NaCl → NH 4 Cl + NaOH 46. Consider the following reactions (unbalanced). (c) SnCl 4 + Hg 2 Cl 2 → SnCl 2 + 2HgCl 2 (d) 2CuI + I2 + 4H + → 2Cu 2 + + 4KI 40. Zinc-copper couple that can be used as a reducing agent is obtained by (a) (b) (c) (d) (1984, 1M) mixing of zinc dust and copper gauge zinc coated with copper copper coated with zinc zinc and copper wires welded together (b) 2 (d) 8 (1981, 1M) (b) Cu (c) Mg (1980, 1M) (d) Al 43. Which of the following dissolves in concentrated NaOH solution? (1980, 1M) (a) Fe (b) Zn (c) Cu (d) Ag Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) (a) Aqua-regia is prepared by mixing conc. HCl and conc. HNO3 in 3 : 1 (v / v) ratio (b) The yellow colour of aqua-regia is due to the presence of NOCl and Cl 2 (c) Reaction of gold with aqua-regia produces an anion having Au in +3 oxidation state (d) Reaction of gold with aqua regia produces NO2 in the absence of air 48. The correct statement(s) about Cr 2+ and Mn 3+ is/are [atomic 44. In an experiment, mgrams of a compound X (gas/liquid/solid) taken in a container is loaded in a balance as shown in figure I below. (I) Balanced; Magnetic field absent 47. With reference to aqua-regia, choose the correct option(s). (2019 Adv.) 42. One of the constituent of German silver is (a) Ag Zn + Hot conc. H 2SO 4 → G + R + X Zn + conc. NaOH → T + Q G + H 2S + NH 4OH → Z (a precipitate) + X + Y Choose the correct option(s). (2019 Adv.) (a) The oxidation state of Zn in T is +1 (b) R is a V-shaped molecule (c) Bond order of Q is 1 in its ground state (d) Z is dirty white in colour 41. How many unpaired electrons are present in Ni 2 + ? (a) 0 (c) 4 (a) Both Y and Z are coloured and have tetrahedral shape (b) Y is diamagnetic in nature while Z is paramagnetic (c) In both Y and Z, π-bonding occurs between p-orbitals of oxygen and d-orbitals of manganese (d) In aqueous acidic solution, Y undergoes disproportionation reaction to give Z and MnO2 (II) Upward deflection; Magnetic field present (III) Downward deflection; Magnetic field present number of Cr = 24 and Mn = 25] (2015 Adv.) (a) Cr 2+ is a reducing agent (b) Mn 3+ is an oxidising agent (c) Both Cr 2+ and Mn 3+ exhibit d 4 electronic configuration (d) when Cr 2+ is used as a reducing agent, the chromium ion attains d 5 electronic configuration 49. Fe3+ is reduced to Fe2+ by using (2015 Adv.) (a) H2O2 in presence of NaOH (b) Na 2O2 in water (c) H2O2 in presence of H2SO4 (d) Na 2O2 in presence of H2SO4 m 50. Which of the following halides react(s) with AgNO3 ( aq ) to X N S N S give a precipitate that dissolves in Na 2 S2 O3 ( aq ) ? (a) HCl (b) HF (c) HBr (d) HI 51. Reduction of the metal centre in aqueous permanganate ion Magnet In the presence of a magnetic field, the pan with X is either deflected upwards (figure II), or deflected downwards (figure III), depending on the compound X. Identify the correct statement(s). (2020 Adv.) (a) If X is H2O(l ) , deflection of the pan is upwards. (b) If X is K 4 [Fe(CN)6 ](s), deflection of the pan is upwards. (c) If X is O 2 (g ), deflection of the pan is downwards. (d) If X is C 6H6 (l ), deflection of the pan is downwards. 45. Fusion of MnO 2 with KOH in presence of O 2 produces a salt W . Alkaline solution of W upon electrolytic oxidation yields another salt X . The manganese containing ions present in W and X , respectively, areY and Z. Correct statement(s) is (are) (2019 Adv.) involves (a) (b) (c) (d) (2011) three electrons in neutral medium five electrons in neutral medium three electrons in alkaline medium five electrons in acidic medium 52. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct? (1998) (a) The electronic configuration of Cr is [Ar] 3d 5 4s1 (Atomic number of Cr = 24) (b) The magnetic quantum number may have a negative value (c) In silver atom, 23 electrons have a spin of one type and 24 of the opposite type (Atomic number of Ag = 47) (d) The oxidation state of nitrogen in HN 3 is – 3 252 Transition and Inner-Transition Elements 53. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct when a mixture of NaCl and K 2 Cr2 O7 is gently warmed with (1998, 2M) conc. H2 SO4 ? (a) A deep red vapours is formed (b) Vapours when passed into NaOH solution gives a yellow solution of Na 2 CrO4 (c) Chlorine gas is evolved (d) Chromyl chloride is formed 54. Which of the following alloys contains Cu and Zn? (a) Bronze (c) Gun metal (b) Brass (d) Type metal (1993, 1M) 63. Mn 2 + can be oxidised to MnO−4 by ……… (SnO2 , PbO2 , BaO2 ) True/False 64. Dipositive zinc exhibit paramagnetism due to loss of two electrons from 3d-orbitals of neutral atom. 65. Copper metal reduces Fe (d) CrCl 3 56. Potassium manganate (K 2 MnO4 ) is formed when 67. An acidified solution of potassium chromate was layered with an equal volume of amyl alcohol. When it was shaken after the addition of 1 mL of 3% H2 O2 , a blue alcohol layer was obtained. The blue colour is due to the formation of a chromium (VI) compound ‘X’. What is the number of oxygen atoms bonded to chromium through only single bond in a molecule of X ? (2020 Adv.) (1988, 2M) (a) chlorine is passed into aqueous KMnO4 solution (b) manganese dioxide is fused with KOH in air (c) formaldehyde reacts with potassium permanganate in the presence of strong alkali (d) potassium permanganate reacts with conc. H 2 SO4 68. In neutral or faintly alkaline solution, 8 moles of Assertion and Reason Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below : (a) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true; Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true. Statement II form Zn 2 + . 2+ is diamagnetic. The electrons are lost from 4s orbital to permanganate anion quantitative oxidise thiosulphate anions to produce X moles of a sulphur containing product. The magnitude of X is ... . (2016 Adv.) 69. In 59. The compound Y Ba 2 Cu 3 O7 which show super conductivity has copper in oxidation state …… assuming that the rare earth element Yttrium in its usual +3 oxidation state. (1994, 1M) 60. The outermost electronic configuration of Cr is …… (1994, 1M) 61. Fehling’s solution A consists of an aqueous solution of copper sulphate while Fehling’s solution B consists of an alkaline solution of …… (1990, 1M) 62. The salts ……… and …… are isostructural. (FeSO4 ⋅7H2 O, (1990, 1M) the complex MnO–4 . + For this H2 SO4 change of [MnO−4 ] is (2015 Adv.) 70. Consider the following list of reagents, acidified K 2 Cr2 O7 , alkaline KMnO4 , CuSO4 , H2 O2 , Cl 2 , O3 , FeCl 3 , HNO3 and Na 2 S2 O3 . The total number of reagents that can oxidise aqueous iodide to iodine is (2014 Adv.) Subjective Questions 71. (B ) W hite fumes with pungent smell Fill in the Blanks aqueous reaction, the ratio of the rate of change of [H ] to the rate of (1998, 2M) strong acid is added, it changes its colour from yellow to orange. Statement II The colour change is due to the change in oxidation state of potassium chromate. (1988, 2M) dilute diaquadioxalatoferrate (II) is oxidised by 58. Statement I To a solution of potassium chromate if a CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2 O,MnSO4 ⋅ 4H2 O,ZnSO4 ⋅ 7H2 O in an acidic medium. (1982, 1M) of KMnO4 and KI in weakly basic solution, what is the number of moles of I2 released for 4 moles of KMnO4 consumed? (2020 Adv.) (1990, 1M) 57. Statement I Zn (1987, 1M) 66. In the chemical reaction between stoichiometric quantities in case of (c) Co(NO3 )2 2+ Numerical Answer Type Questions 55. The aqueous solution of the following salts will be coloured (a) Zn(NO3 )2 (b) LiNO3 (e) potash alum (1981, 1M) Moist air ← MCl 4 ( M = Transition element colourless) Zn → (A) (purple colour) Identify the metal M and hence MCl 4 . Explain the difference in colours of MCl 4 and A. (2005) 72. Give reasons : CrO3 is an acid anhydride. (1999, 2M ) 73. A compound of vanadium has a magnetic moment of 1.73 BM. Work out the electronic configuration of the vanadium ion of the compound. (1997) 74. Write balanced equations for the following (i) Oxidation of hydrogen peroxide with potassium permanganate in acidic medium. (1997, 2M) (ii) Reaction of zinc with dilute nitric acid. Transition and Inner-Transition Elements 253 75. Complete and balance the following reactions (i) [MnO4 ] 2− +H + 79. Give reason in one or two sentences − “Most transition metal compounds are coloured.”(1986, 1M) → ..... + [MnO4 ] + H2 O (ii) SO2 ( aq) + Cr2 O72 − + 2H+ → … + … + (1994, 2M) 80. Show with balanced equations for the reactions when (1993, 1M) (i) potassium permanganate interacts with manganese dioxide in the presence of potassium hydroxide. (ii) potassium ferricyanide is heated with concentrated (1985, 2M) sulphuric acid. 77. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following 81. State the conditions under which the following 76. Complete and balance the following reaction. (NH4 ) 2 S2 O8 + H2 O + MnSO4 → …… + …… + …… reactions. preparations are carried out. Give necessary equations which need not be balanced. “Potassium permanganate from manganese dioxide” (i) A mixture of potassium dichromate and sodium chloride is heated with concentrated H2 SO4 . (ii) Potassium permanganate is added to a hot solution of manganous sulphate. (1990, 2M) (1983, 1M) 82. Complete and balance the following reactions 78. Complete and balance the following reactions. (1983, 2M) (i) Zn + NO−3 → Zn 2+ + NH+4 (i) Mn 2 + + PbO2 → MnO4− + H2 O (ii) Cr2 O27 − + C2 H4 O → C2 H4 O2 + Cr 3+ (ii) Ag + + AsH3 → H3AsO3 + H+ (1987, 2M Answers 1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (a) 40. (b) 41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (a,b,c) 46. 50. 54. 58. 62. 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (c) 45. 49. 53. 57. 61. 29. (b) 30. (a) 31. (b) 32. (a) 63. PbO 2 64. F 65. F 66. (6) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (b) 67. (4) 68. (6) 69. (8) 70. (7) (a,c,d) (a, b) (a, b, d) (b) Rochelle salt (b,c,d) 47. (a,b,c) 48. (a, b, c) (a, c, d) 51. (a, c, d) 52. (a, b, c, d) (b, c) 55. (c, d) 56. (b, c) (c) 59. x = +7 / 3 60. 3d 5 4s 1 FeSO 4 ⋅ 7 H 2O and ZnSO 4 ⋅ 7H 2O Hints & Solutions 3. Thermal decomposition of Mn compound (X), i.e. KMnO4 at 1. [XeF5 ] F F s Xe F F F Xe : sp3d3-hybridised Geometry = Pentagonal bipyramidal Shape/Structure = Pentagonal planar F Xe O 2. F K 2KMnO4 513 → K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2 (g ) ( X) ∆ (Y ) MnO2 + 4NaCl + 4 H2SO4 → MnCl 2 + 4NaHSO4 + 2H2O + Cl 2 (g ) XeO3F2 O 513 K results in compound Y(i.e. K 2MnO4), MnO2 and a gaseous product. MnO2 reacts with NaCl and concentrated H2SO4 to give a pungent gas Z(i.e. Cl2). The reactions involved are as follows : Xe: sp3d-hybridised Geometry = Shape/ structure O = Trigonal bipyramidal [because, Xe in XeO3F2 does not have pair of electrons] Only statement 2 is incorrect, whereas 1 and 3 are correct. KMnO4 will not give satisfactory result when it is titrated by HCl, because same amount of KMnO4 is consumed to oxidise HCl into Cl 2. (Z ) Pungent gas. 4. The pair that has similar atomic radii is Mo and W. It is due to lanthanoid contraction. The factor responsible for lanthanoid contraction is the imperfect shielding of one electron by another in the same set of orbitals. Shielding of 4 f is very less due to its diffused shape. As a result, nuclear charge increases. Hence, Mo and W have similar atomic radii. 254 Transition and Inner-Transition Elements 5. The 3d-transition series is Atomic number Sc Ti V Cr Mn Fe Co Ni 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 Cu Zn 28 29 30 ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ Outermost Electronic Configuration 10. The correct order of atomic radii is 3d24s2 3d54s2 3d84s2 3d104s2 In 1st ionisation, one electron will be removed from 4 s2 subshell/orbital. With increase in atomic number (Z ), i.e. with increase in number of protons in the nucleus, effective nuclear charge (Z* ) also increases from Sc to Zn. IE ∝ Z* So, IE order of the given elements will be, Ti < Mn < Ni < Zn 6. Actinoids show a variety of oxidation states due to comparable energies of 5 f , 6d and 7s energy levels. In the actinoids family (5 f -block), uranium (U) neptunium (Np), plutonium (Pu) and americium (Am) have highest possible oxidation states of +6, + 7, + 7 and +6 respectively. 7. The spin only magnetic moment (µ ) of each ion can be calculated Europium (Eu) > Cerium (Ce) > Holmium (Ho) > Nitrogen (N) 199 pm 183 pm Note (i) N being the member of p-block and second period, have the smallest radii. (ii) Rest of all the 3 members are lanthanides with Eu having stable half-filled configuration thus with bigger size than rest two. (iii) Among Ce and Ho, Ce has larger size which can be explained on the basis of “Lanthanoid contraction”. 11. When MnO2(A) is fused with alkali in presence of air then potassium manganate (B) is formed. Potassium manganate (B) is of green colour which disproportionate in a neutral or acidic solution to produce potassium permanganate (C). Potassium permanganate (C) in presence of acidic medium oxidises iodide to iodate. The reaction can be shown as: 0 + 4 ∆ (A ) +6 [Q n = No. of unpaired electron(s)] ⇒ µ ∝ n, i.e. higher the number of unpaired electron, higher will be the value of µ. Metal ion Z n (for metal ion) M (BM) 2 22 2 (3d ) 8 Paramagnetic V2+ 23 3 (3d 3 ) 15 Paramagnetic Ti 3+ 22 1 (3d 1 ) 3 Paramagnetic Ti 3+ Sc 21 0 0 (3d ) 0 Diamagnetic Thus, the correct order of spin only magnetic moments of given hydrated ions will be Sc3+ < Ti 3+ < Ti 2+ < V2+ 8. The maximum number of possible oxidation states of actinoids are shown by neptunium (Np) and plutonium (Pu). These actinoids exhibit oxidation states of +3, +4, +5 and +6. 3+ 9. The lanthanide ion that would show colour is Sm . Colour of a compound depends on the number of electrons in 4 f -orbitals. Electronic configuration of given lanthanides are as follows: Gd 3+ = 4 f 7 Sm 3+ = 4 f 5 La 3+ = 4 f 0 Lu 3+ = 4 f 14 Gd 3+ have half-filled 4 f -orbitals. La 3+ have no electron in 4 f -orbitals. Lu 3+ have fully-filled 4 f -orbitals. Only Sm 3+ contain 4 f 5. The electrons can easily undergoes excitation. That result in a formation of colour. 2K 2 Mn O4 + 2H2O (B ) Potassium manganate (Green) + 7 4 HCl +7 (ii) 3K2 Mn O4 → 2K Mn O4 + Mn O2 + 2H2O + 4KCl (B ) (C ) Potassium permanganate (purple) Nature 2+ −2 +6 −2 4 KOH, O2 (i) 2 Mn O2 → as : µ = n (n + 2) BM 65 pm 176 pm + 7 −1 K I , H2O + 4 +5 (iii) 2K MnO4 → 2 MnO2 + 2KOH + K IO3 (C ) (A ) (D) Thus, A and D are MnO2 and KIO3 respectively. 12. The most stable oxidation states in the compounds of the given transition metals of 3d-series are, Sc : + 3; Ti : + 3, + 4; V : +2, + 3, + 4 , + 5; Cu : + 1, + 2 The electronic configuration of Sc (Z = 21) is [Ar] 3d 1 , 4 s2. Due to the presence of only one 3d-electron (no pairing energy) and two 4s-electrons, they easily ionise to achieve most stable +3 oxidation state. 13. In the lanthanoid series, atomic number of fourteen 4 f -block elements ranges from 58 (Ce) to 71 (Lu). Ytterbium, Yb(Z = 70) has electronic configuration : [ Xe ] 4 f 14 6s2. So, the 71nth electron of lutetium, Lu (Z = 71) should enter into 5d orbital and its (here, Lu is ‘X ’) electronic configuration will be : [ Xe ]4 f 14 5d 1 6s2. It happens so, because f -block elements have general electronic configuration, (n − 2) f 1 − 14 (n − 1)d 1− 10ns2. Therefore, option (c) is correct. 14. Lanthanoid contraction in the lanthanoid series takes place due to the presence of electron(s) in the 4 f -orbitals. f -orbitals have poor shielding effect. As a result, the effective nucleur charge will be more experienced by the 5d and 6s- electrons and it will cause contraction or decrease in both atomic and ionic radii. 15. For transition metals, ° ∆H Atomisation ∝ Strength of metallic bonding ∝ Number of unpaired electrons in the metal atom Transition and Inner-Transition Elements 255 For the given 3d-transition metals, V Fe Cu Zn 3d 34 s2 3d64 s2 3d 104 s1 3d 104 s0 n=3 n=4 n=0 n=0 [Q n = no. of unpaired electrons] The correct reactions are as follows: (a) Fe + dil. H2SO4 → FeSO4 + H2 1 H2SO4 + 2FeSO4 + O2 → Fe2 (SO4 )3 + H2O 2 ∆° H Atomisation (kJ mol −1) = 515 418 The given reaction is incorrect in question ∆ Fe2 (SO4 )3 → Fe2O3 (s) + 3SO3 ↑ 339 130 So, absence of unpaired d-electrons and larger size of Zn atoms, make the crystal lattice of Zn less closely packed. 24. SRP value normally increases from left to right in the period of d-block elements. Some SRP value are exceptionally higher due to stability of product ion. e.g. = + 1.97 V E° = + 1.57 V; E° 16. Zinc oxide (ZnO) when react with Na 2O it act as acid while with Mn 3+ / Mn 2+ CO2 it act as base. Therefore, it is an amphoteric oxide. Thus, EM° 3+ / M2+ is highest for Co. ZnO + Na 2 O → Na 2 ZnO2 Acid Base Salt 25. The half equations of the reaction are ZnO + CO2 → ZnCO3 Base Acid MnO −4 → Mn 2+ Salt C2O42− → CO2 17. The reaction takes place as follows Na 2C2O4 + H2SO4 → Na2 SO4 + H2O (X) (Conc.) The balanced half equations are MnO−4 + 8H+ + 5e− → Mn 2+ + 4H2O + CO ↑ + CO2 ↑ Effervescence C2O24− → 2CO2 + 2e− Na 2C2O4 + CaCl 2 → CaC2O4 + 2NaCl White ppt. (X) On equating number of electrons, we get 2MnO−4 + 16H+ + 10e− → 2Mn 2+ + 8H2O 5CaC2O4 + 2KMnO4 + 8H2SO4 → K2SO4 + 5CaSO4 Purple 5C2O42− → 10CO2 + 10e− + 2MnSO4 + 10CO2 + 8H2O On adding both the equations, we get Colourless Hence, X is Na 2C2O4. 18. Zn Amphoteric 2MnO−4 + 5C2O−4 + 16H+ → 2Mn 2+ + 2 × 5CO2 + + 2NaOH → Na 2ZnO2 + H2 19. Only three elements iron (Fe), cobalt (Co) and nickel (Ni) show 26. (a) V2+ = 3 unpaired electrons Cr 2+ = 4 unpaired electrons Mn 2+ = 5 unpaired electrons Fe2+ = 4 unpaired electrons Hence, the order of paramagnetic behaviour should be V2+ < Cr 2 + < Fe2 + < Mn 2 + (b) Ionic size decreases from left to right in the same period. (c) (As per data from NCERT) 20. Zn + 4HNO3 → Zn (NO3 )2 + 2H2O + 2NO2 (Conc.) 4Zn +10HNO3 → 4Zn (NO3 )2 + N2O + 5H2O (Dil.) 21. [Ni(NH3 )6 ] 2+ sp3d 2 octahedral Co3+ / Co2+ = 1.97; [Pt(NH3 )4 ] 2+ dsp2 square planar Fe3+ /Fe2+ = 0.77; [Zn(NH3 )4 ] 2+ sp3 tetrahedral Cr 3+ / Cr 2+ = − 0.41 22. Zn 2[ Fe(CN)6 ], K3[ Co(NO2 )6 ] and (NH4 )3As [ Mo3O10 ] 4 show colour due to d-d transition while BaCrO4 is coloured due to charge transfer phenomenon. Further according to spectrochemical series the strong ligand possessing complex has higher energy and hence lower wavelength. Therefore, complexes containing NO2 , NH+4 , O2− etc., ligands show yellow colour while CN− forces the complex to impart white colour. Spectrochemical series I− < Br − < S2− < SCN− < Cl − < NO3− < N3− < F− < OH− < C2O42− ≈ H2O < NCS− < CH3CN < py < NH3 < en < bipy < Phen < NO−2 < PPh 3 < CN− ≈ CO PLAN Analyse each reaction given in the question and choose the correct answer on the basis of oxidation state and stability of iron compounds. Use the concept of Ellingham diagram to solve this problem. 16 H2O 2 Thus x , y and z are 2, 5 and 16 respectively. ferromagnetism at room temperature. CrO2 is also a metallic and ferromagnetic compound which is used to make magnetic tapes for cassette recorders. 23. Co3+ / Co2 + 3+ Sc is highly stable (It does not show + 2). (d) The oxidation states increases as we go from group 3 to group 7 in the same period. 27. The aqueous solution of CuSO4 consist of the complex [Cu(H2O)4 ]2+ ion which absorbed in orange-red region and impart deep blue colouration to solution. 28. KMnO4 is itself a very strong oxidising agent, O3 cannot oxidise it. 29. In CuCl 2, Cu 2 + has d 9 configuration, exhibit d-d transition and show colour. Similarly in VOCl 2, V 4 + has d 1 configuration, can exhibit d-d transition and show colour. 30. MnO−4 + I− + OH− → MnO42− + IO−3 256 Transition and Inner-Transition Elements is in highest oxidation state possible for Cr. 32. Ammonium dichromate on heating produces N2 (g). NH4NO2 also gives N2 on heating : ∆ (NH4 )2 Cr2O7 → N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O ∆ NH4NO2 → N2 + 2H2O 33. K2MnO4 (purple green) is formed which is the first step of (c) X = O2 (g) [Here, O2 (g ) is paramagnetic due to two-unpaired electrons present in π * (antibonding orbitals). Hence, statement (c) is correct. (d) X = C6H6(l) (Here, C6H6 is diamagnetic due to presence of 0 unpaired electrons). Hence, statement (d) is incorrect. 1 2 ∆ 45. MnO 2 + 2KOH+ O 2 → K 2MnO 4 + H2O preparation of KMnO4. 2MnO2 + 4KOH + O2 → K2MnO4 + 2H2O K2MnO4 (aq) Purple green (W) O é – oxygen is in (–2) oxidation states. O Cr O O O – Cr O – O Green coloured complex O é MnO 2− 4 ion has one unpaired electrons, therefore it gives d-d transition to form green colour. Y complex has paramagnetic nature due to presence of one unpaired electron. In aqueous solution, Electrolytic oxidation (W) (X) O KMnO4(aq) 9 37. Cu (3d ) undergo d-d transition, exhibit colour. D + K + MnO4 (Z) - é producing green powder of Cr2O3 and N2 (g ) is evolved. 39. Fe2O3 is a basic oxide, neutralised by HCl spontaneously forming FeCl 3 and water. sp3, tetrahedral (purple coloured complex ion) O Mn O 38. Ammonium dichromate [(NH4 )2 Cr2O7 ] on heating decomposes é O MnO −4 ions gives charge transfer spectrum in which a fraction of electronic charge is transferred between the molecular entities. Electrolytic 40. Zinc coated with copper is used as a reducing agent. 41. The valence shell electronic configuration of Ni 2+ is : [Ar] 4s0 ; two unpaired electrons 42. German silver is an alloy of copper (56%), Zn (24%) and Ni(20%). 43. Zn being amphoteric, dissolves in both acid and base : Zn + 2NaOH → Na 2ZnO2 + H2 44. Paramagnetism is a form of magnetism whereby some materials are attracted by an externally applied magnetic field, and form internal, induced magnetic fields in the direction of the applied magnetic field. So, magnetic balance shows downward deflection. While diamagnetic substance shows repulsion in magnetic field and magnetic balance shows upward deflection. (a) X = H2O (l) (Water has no unpaired electrons and is thus diamagnetic). Hence, statement (a) is correct. (b) X = K4[Fe(CN)6 ](s) (CN is a strong field ligand which forces the d-orbital electrons to pair up (t2g6eg0 ) and making it diamagnetic). Hence, statement (b) is correct (aq) sp- hybridisation, tetrahedral (manganate ion) O Exhibit resonance phenomena. Except the bridged Cr—O—Cr, all Cr—O bonds are equivalent. 3d 8 2– K 2MnO 4 + H2O → H2 + KOH+ KMnO 4 Cr2O72– 2+ 4 3 Mn O Heat 35. (NH4 )2 Cr2O7 → N2 + Cr2O3 + 4H2O 36. The structure of dichromate ion is : + 92K (aq) + MnO (Y) 34. In CrO2Cl 2 , Cr is in + 6 oxidation state because Cl is in (–1) and, O (W ) potassium manganate é CrO2Cl 2, Cr 6+ é 31. In MnO−4 , Mn 7+ is in highest oxidation state possible for Mn. In MnO 24− → MnO 4− + e− Q oxidation (Y) ( Z) In acidic medium, Y undergoes disproportionation reaction. 3MnO 24− (aq) + 4H+ → 2MnO 4− + MnO 2 + 2H2O (Y ) (Z ) − MnO 2− 4 and MnO 4 both ions form π-bonding between p-orbitals (Y) (Z) of oxygen and d-orbitals of manganese. Thus, options (a, c, d) are correct. 46. When Zn react with hot conc. H2SO 4 then SO 2 is released and ZnSO 4 is obtained. Zn + 2H2SO 4 → ZnSO 4 + SO 2 ↑ + 2H2O (Hot + Conc.) (G) (R) (X) R(SO 2 ) molecule is V-Shaped S O O Thus, option (b) is correct. When Zn is react with conc. NaOH then H2 gas is evolved and Na 2ZnO 2 is obtained. Zn + 2 NaOH (conc.) → Na 2ZnO 2 + H2 ↑ (T ) (Q) Transition and Inner-Transition Elements 257 In ground state, H—H (Q) (bond order = 1) Thus, option (c) is correct. The oxidation state of Zn in T (Na2ZnO 2 ) is +2 Thus, option (a) is incorrect. ZnSO 4 + H2S + NH4OH → ZnS↓ + 2H2O + (NH4 )2SO 4 (Z) (G) (X) (Y) ZnS (Z) compound is dirty white coloured. Thus, option (d) is correct. 47. The explanation of given statements are as follows: (a) Aqua-regia is prepared by mixing conc. HCl and conc. HNO 3 in 3:1 (v/v) ratio and is used in oxidation of gold and platinum. Hence, option (a) is correct. (b) Yellow colour of aqua-regia is due to its decomposition into NOCl (orange yellow) and Cl 2 (greenish yellow). Hence, option (b) is correct. (c) When gold reacts with aqua-regia then it produces AuCl −4 anion complex in which Au has +3 oxidation state. +3 0 Na 2S2O3 solution dissolve all three, AgCl, AgBr, AgI by forming complex [Ag(S2O3 )2 ]3− as S2O2− 3 is a stronger complexing agent than ammonia. 51. In neutral medium MnO–4 → MnO2 (Mn 7 + + 3e– → Mn 4+ ) In alkaline medium MnO–4 → MnO2 (Mn 7 + + 3e– → Mn 4+ ) In acidic medium MnO–4 → Mn2+ (Mn7 + + 5e– → Mn2+ ) 52. Cr : [Ar]3d 5 4 s1 Magnetic quantum number : – l……0……+ l. Ag(4 d 10 5s1 ) All paired electrons have opposite spin. The last one has unpaired spin. 53. 4NaCl + K2Cr2O7 + 6H2SO4 → 2CrO2Cl 2 Chromyl chloride (red vapour) + 4NaHSO4 + 2KHSO4 + 3H2O CrO2 Cl 2 + 4NaOH → Na 2 CrO4 + 2NaCl + 2H2 O Au + HNO3 +4HCl → Au Cl –4 + H3O+ + NO + H2O yellow solution Oxidation Hence, option (c) is correct. (d) Reaction of gold with aqua-regia produces NO gas in absence of air. Hence, option (d) is incorrect. 2+ 4 48. In aqueous solution Cr (3d )acts as a reducing agent, oxidising 3+ 3 itself to Cr (3d ) that gives a completely half-field t2g level in octahedral ligand field of H2O. (b) Mn 3+ (3d 4 ) is an oxidising agent as it is reduced to Mn 2+ (3d 5 ) , a completely half-filled stable configuration. (c) Both Cr 2+ and Mn 3+ have d 4 configuration. A (d) 3d 4 Cr 2+ (aq) R. → Cr 3+ (aq)+ e– 54. Brass = Cu and Zn Bronze = Cu and Sn Gun metal = Cu, Sn, Zn Type metal = Pb, Sn, Sb 55. Co2+ (3d 7 ) and Cr 3+ (3d 3 ) have allowed d-d transition, therefore produces coloured aqueous solution. ∆ 56. 2KOH + MnO2 + O2 → K2MnO4 + H2O HCHO + KMnO4 + 2KOH → K2MnO4 + H2O + HCOOH 57. Both Statement I and Statement II are independently true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. Diamagnetism is due to lack of unpaired electron in Zn 2+ (3d 10 ). 58. Statement I is true but Statement II is false : K2CrO4 + H2SO4 → K2Cr2 O7 + K2SO4 + H2O Hence (d) is wrong statement. Yellow 49. H2O2 is alkaline medium acts as reducing agent, reduces Fe3+ to 2+ 2+ Fe . In acidic medium the same H2O2 oxidises Fe 3+ to Fe . 50. Solubilities of silver halides in water decreases from fluoride (AgF) to iodide (AgI). Silver fluoride is readialy soluble in water, hence when AgNO3 solution is added to HF solution (HF being weak acid, its solution maintain very low concentration of F − ) no precipitate of AgF is formed. HCl, HBr and HI being all strong acid, forms precipitates of AgCl, AgBr and AgI when AgNO3 solution is added to their aqueous solution. HCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) → AgCl(s)+ HNO3(aq) Curdy white HBr (aq) + AgNO3(aq) → AgBr (s) + HNO3(aq) Pale yellow Hl (aq) + AgNO 3(aq) → AgI (s) + HNO 3(aq) Yellow The solubilities decreases from AgCl to AgI, AgCl dissolves in aqueous ammonia, AgBr dissolves only slightly in concentrated ammonia while AgI does not dissolve in ammonia solution. Orange In both K2CrO4 and K2Cr2O7 , chromium is in +6 oxidation state. 59. Y = +3, 2Ba = 2 × 2 = 4 7 ‘O’ = 7 × (−2) = − 14 3 + 4 + (−14 ) + 3x = 0 ⇒ x = + 7 3 60. 3d 5 4 s1 61. Rochelle salt. 62. FeSO4 ⋅ 7H2O and ZnSO4 ⋅ 7H2O 63. PbO2, a strong oxidising agent, oxidises Mn 2+ to MnO−4 . 64. Zn 2+ (3d 10 ) has no unpaired electron–diamagnetic. 65. Cu cannot reduce Fe2+ 66. In alkaline medium : Iodide is oxidised to iodate 2MnO −4 + H2O + I− → 2MnO 2 + 2OH− + IO 3− But, in weakly basic solution : +7 −1 +4 0 K Mn O4 + KI → Mn O2 + I2 Eq. of KMnO4 = Eq. of I2 4 ×3=n×2 ⇒ n=6 258 Transition and Inner-Transition Elements 67. When a solution of K2CrO4 is treated with amyl alcohol and 71. A = [Ti(H2O)6 ]3+ and M = Ti, B = TiO2, Ti(IV) has no electron acidified H2O2, the layer of amyl alcohol turns blue because acidified H2O2 converts K2CrO4 to CrO5 to given the blue colouration, + 3H2O CrO24− + 2H + 2H2O2 → CrO5 in 3d-orbital, no d-d transition is possible, therefore MCl 4 is colourless. In A, there is one electron in 3d-orbital and its d-d transition is responsible for colour. (Blue coloured compound) CrO3 + H2O → O O O CrO5 ⇒ 1.73 = n (n + 2) ⇒ n = 1; V 4+ = 3d 1 O Number of oxygen atom bonded with chromium with single bond is (4). 68. In neutral or faintly alkaline solution, MnO−4 is reduced to MnO2 and S2O32− is oxidised to SO2− 4 . – MnO4 or 8MnO−4 2– + SO 4 MnO2 +4 +6 +2 Change in ON = 3 units Thus, 4MnO4− + + Thus, moles of SO2− 4 → 6SO24− (ii) 3SO2 (aq) + Cr2O72− + 2H+ → 3SO24− + 2Cr 3+ + H2O 76. (NH4 )2 S2O8 + 2H2O + MnSO4 → MnO2 + 4NaHSO4 + 3H2 O + 2KHSO4 MnO−4 =6 69. The balanced redox reaction is MnO−4 + [Fe(H2O)2 (C2O4 )2 ]2 − + 8H+ → Mn 2+ + Fe3+ ⇒ (ii) 4Zn + 10HNO3 → 4Zn(NO3 )2 + N2 O + 5H2 O 77. (i) K2Cr2O7 + 4NaCl + 6H2SO4 → 2CrO2Cl 2 + 8MnO2 formed by 8 moles of 8 r [ H+ ] = =8 r [ MnO 4– ] 1 + 2MnSO4 + 5O2 + 8H2O + 2H2SO4 + (NH4 )2 SO4 3 S2O23− → 3SO24− + 4 MnO2 2 3S2O32− 74. (i) 2KMnO4 + 5H2O2 + 3H2SO4 → K2SO4 75. (i) 3MnO24− + 4H+ → MnO2 + 2MnO4− + 2H2O Change in ON = 4 units 2– + 1/2 S2 O3 +7 H2CrO4 Chromic acid 73. µ = n (n + 2) BM where ‘n’ is number of unpaired electrons. Cr O 72. CrO3 is anhydride of chromic acid : + 4CO2 + 6H2O 70. Acidified K2Cr2O7 , CuSO4 , H2O2, Cl 2, O3, FeCl 3 and HNO3 oxidise aq. iodide to iodine. Alkaline KMnO4 oxidise aq. iodide to IO−3 . Na 2S2O3 is a strong reducing agent which on reaction with I 2 produces I − . Na 2S2O3 + I2 → 2I− + Na 2S4O6 Therefore, no reaction takes place between Na 2S2O3 and iodide ion. Hence, correct integer is (7). (ii) 2KMnO4 + 3MnSO4 + 2H2 O → 5MnO2 + K 2 SO4 + 2H2 SO4 78. (i) 2Mn 2+ + 5PbO2 + 4H+ → 2MnO−4 + 2H2O + 5Pb2+ (ii) 6Ag + + AsH3 + 3H2 O → 6Ag + H3AsO3 + 6H+ 79. Most transition metals have partially filled d-orbitals which absorb in visible region and undergo d-d transition, which is responsible for colour. 80. (i) 2KMnO4 + 4KOH + MnO2 → 3K2MnO4 + 2H2O (ii) K 4 Fe(CN)6 + 6H2 SO4 + 6H2 O → 2K 2 SO4 + FeSO4 + 3(NH4 )2 SO4 + 6CO 81. Potassium permanganate can be prepared from MnO2 under the following conditions : Heat MnO2 + KOH + O2 → K 2 MnO4 + H2 O K 2 MnO4 + Cl 2 → KMnO4 + KCl 82. (i) 4Zn + NO3− + 10H+ → 4Zn 2+ + NH+4 + 3H2O (ii) Cr2O27 − + 3C2H4O + 8H+ → 3C2H4O2 + 2Cr 3+ + 4H2O 18 Coordination Compounds Topic 1 Nomenclature and Isomerism of Coordination Compounds Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. If AB4 molecule is a polar molecule, a possible geometry of AB4 is (a) square pyramidal (c) rectangular planar (2020 Main, 2 Sep I) (2019 Main, 12 April II) (c) 6 and 6 (d) 5 and 6 3. The species that can have a trans-isomer is (en = ethane -1, 2-diamine, ox = oxalate) (2019 Main, 10 April I) (a) [Pt(en)Cl 2 ] (b) [Cr(en)2 (ox)] (c) [Pt(en)2 Cl 2 ]2+ (d) [Zn(en)Cl 2 ] + 4. The maximum possible denticities of a ligand given below towards a common transition and inner-transition metal ion, respectively, are (2019 Main, 9 April II) sOOC COOs N N sOOC (a) 8 and 8 (b) 8 and 6 N COOs COOs (c) 6 and 6 (d) 6 and 8 5. The one that will show optical activity is (en = ethane-1, 2-diamine) (2019 Main, 9 April I) A A (a) B (b) M A B B [Co(NH3 )4 Br2 ]+ + Br − → [Co(NH3 )3 Br3 ] + NH3 I. Two isomers are produces if the reactant complex ion is a cis-isomer. II. Two isomers are produced if the reactant complex ion is a trans-isomer. III. Only one isomer is produced if the reactant complex ion is a trans-isomer. IV. Only one isomer is produced if the reactant complex ion is a cis-isomer. The correct statements are (2018 Main) (a) (I) and (II) (c) (III) and (IV) B en (d) en (2016 Main) M en (b) 3 6. The following ligand is NEt2 (2015 Main) (d) 6 (2013 Main) (a) [Co(en)3 ]3+ (b) [Co(en)2 Cl 2 ]+ (c) [Co (NH3 )3Cl 3 ] (d) [Co(en)(NH3 )Cl 2 ]+ 13. As per IUPAC nomenclature, the name of the complex [Co (H2 O)4 (NH3 )2 ]Cl 3 is N – (c) 4 12. Which of the following complex species is not expected to exhibit optical isomerism? A O– (b) trans [Co(en)2 Cl 2 ]Cl (d) [Co(NH3 )3 Cl 3 ] [Pt(Cl)(py)(NH3 )(NH2 OH)]+ is (py = pyridine). B B (b) (I) and (III) (d) (II) and (IV) 11. The number of geometric isomers that can exist for square planar A (a) 2 M (2018 Main) (b) +3, +2 and +4 (d) +3, 0 and +4 9. Consider the following reaction and statements : isomerism? A (c) (d) 8 K 2 [Cr(CN)2 (O)2 (O2 )(NH3 )] respectively are (a) +3, +4 and +6 (c) +3, 0 and +6 (a) cis [Co(en)2 Cl 2 ]Cl (c) [Co(NH3 )4 Cl 2 ]Cl A A (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) (c) 4 8. The oxidation states of Cr, in[Cr(H2 O)6 ]Cl 3 ,[Cr(C6 H6 )2 ], and B M B (b) 16 10. Which one of the following complexes shows optical A B 7. The total number of isomers for a square planar complex (a) 12 K 3 [Al(C2 O4 )3 ], respectively, are (en = ethane-1, 2-diamine) (b) 3 and 3 (b) tetradentate (d) tridentate [M(F)(Cl)(SCN)(NO 2 )] is (b) square planar (d) tetrahedral 2. The coordination numbers of Co and Al in [CoCl(en)2 ]Cl and (a) 5 and 3 (a) hexadentate (c) bidentate O (2019 Main, 8 April I) (a) (b) (c) (d) tetraaquadiaminecobalt (III) chloride tetraaquadiamminecobalt (III) chloride diaminetetraaquacobalt (III) chloride diamminetetraaquacobalt (III) chloride (2012) 260 Coordination Compounds 14. Geometrical shapes of the complexes formed by the reaction of Ni 2+ with Cl − , CN− and H2 O, respectively, are (2011) 21. Statement I The geometrical isomers of the complex (a) octahedral, tetrahedral and square planar (b) tetrahedral, square planar and octahedral (c) square planar, tetrahedral and octahedral (d) octahedral, square planar and octahedral [ M (NH3 )4 Cl 2 ] are optically inactive. Statement II Both geometrical isomers of the complex (2008, 3M) [ M (NH3 )4 Cl 2 ] possess axis of symmetry. 15. The correct structure of ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) is (a) (b) (c) (d) N — CH == CH — N HOOCCH2 N — CH — CH — N HOOCCH2 HOOCCH2 CH2COOH HOOC—H2C H H 2C NiCl 2 + KCN (excess) → A (cyano complex) COOH COOH NiCl 2 + conc. HCl (excess) → B (chloro complex) 22. The IUPAC name of A and B are CH2COOH CH2 CH2COOH H CH2—COOH 16. The ionisation isomer of [Cr(H2 O)4 Cl(NO2 )]Cl is (a) [Cr(H2O)4 (O2N)]Cl 2 (c) [Cr(H2O)4 Cl(ONO)]Cl (2010) (b) [Cr(H2O)4 Cl 2 ](NO2 ) (d) [Cr(H2O)4 Cl 2 (NO2 )] ⋅ H2O 17. The IUPAC name of [Ni(NH3 )4 ][NiCl 4 ] is [CoL2 Cl 2 ]− ( L= H2 NCH2 CH2 O− ) is (are) ... (2016 Adv.) 25. Among the complex ions, [Co(NH2 CH2 CH2 NH2 )2 Cl 2 ]+ , [CrCl 2 (C2 O4 )2 ]3− , [Fe(H2 O)4 (OH)2 ]+ , [Fe(NH3 )2 (CN)4 ]− , (b) Optical and ionisation (d) Geometrical only [Co(NH2 CH2 CH2 NH2 )2 (NH3 ) Cl]2+ and [Co(NH3 )4 (H2 O)Cl]2+ the number of complex ion(s) that show(s) cis-trans isomerism is (2015 Adv.) Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) 19. The pair(s) of coordination complexes/ions exhibiting the (2013 Adv.) [Cr(NH3 )5 Cl]Cl 2 and [Cr(NH3 )4 Cl 2 ]Cl [Co(NH3 )4 Cl 2 ]+ and [Pt(NH3 )2 (H2O)Cl]+ [CoBr2Cl 2 ]2− and [PtBr2Cl 2 ]2− [Pt(NH3 )3 (NO3 )]Cl and [Pt(NH3 )3 Cl]Br 26. The volume (in mL) of 0.1 M AgNO3 required for complete precipitation of chloride ions present in 30 mL of 0.01 M solution of [Cr(H2 O)5 Cl]Cl 2 , as silver chloride is close to (2011) 27. Total number of geometrical isomers for the complex [RhCl(CO)(PPh 3 )(NH3 )] is 20. The compound(s) that exhibit(s) geometrical isomerism is/are (1994, 1M) 24. The possible number of geometrical isomers for the complex (2005, 1M) (a) [Pt(en)Cl2] (c) [Pt(en)2Cl2]Cl2 23. The type of magnetism exhibited by [Mn(H2 O)6 ]2+ ion is … Integer Answer Type Questions 18. Which kind of isomerism is shown by Co(NH3 )4 Br2 Cl? same kind of isomerism is/are Fill in the Blank (2008, 3M) (a) Tetrachloronickel (II)-tetraamminenickel (II) (b) Tetraamminenickel (II)-tetrachloronickel (II) (c) Tetraamminenickel (II)-tetrachloronickelate (II) (d) Tetrachloronickel (II)-tetraamminenickelate (0) (a) Geometrical and ionisation (c) Geometrical and optical (2006, 3 × 4M =12M) (a) potassium tetracyanonickelate (II), potassium tetrachloronickelate (II) (b) tetracyanopotassiumnickelate (II), tetrachloropotassiumnickelate (II) (c) tetracyanonickel (II), tetrachloronickel (II) (d) potassium tetracyanonickel (II), potassium tetrachloronickel (II) COOH N—CH—CH—N Passage The coordination number of Ni 2 + is 4. CH2COOH N — CH2 — CH2 — N HOOC (a) (b) (c) (d) Passage Based Question (2010) HOOCCH2 HOOC HOOC (c) Statement I is true; Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true. (2009) (b) [Pt(en)2]Cl2 (d) [Pt(NH3)2]Cl2 Assertion and Reason Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below : (a) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (2010) Subjective Questions 28. Write the formulae of the following complexes : (i) Pentamminechlorocobalt (III) ion (ii) Lithium tetrahydridoaluminate (III) 29. Write the IUPAC name for [Cr(NH3 )5 CO3 ]Cl. (1997, 2M) (1996, 1M) 30. Write the IUPAC name of the following compounds : (i) [Co(NH3 )5 ONO] Cl 2 (ii) K 3[Cr(CN)6 ] (1995, 2M) Topic 2 Bonding and Important Property of Coordination Compounds Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 6 1. Consider that a d metal ion ( M 7. The incorrect statement is 2+ ) forms a complex with aqua ligands and the spin only magnetic moment of the complex is 4.90 BM. The geometry and the crystal field stabilisation energy of the complex is (2020 Main, 2 Sep I) (a) (b) (c) (d) tetrahedral and −1.6∆ t + 1 P octahedral and −2.4 ∆ 0 + 2 P octahedral and −1.6 ∆ 0 tetrahedral and −0.6 ∆ t (d) the spin only magnetic moment of [Ni(NH3 )4 (H2O)2 ]2 + is 2.83 BM d-electron configuration [Fe(H 2O)6 ]Cl2 , respectively are of [ Ru(en)3 ]Cl2 and (2020 Main, 3 Sep II) (a) t62g eg0 and t62geg0 (b) t62g eg0 and t24geg2 (c) t24g eg2 and t62geg0 (d) t24g eg2 and t24geg2 3. The compound used in the treatment of lead poisoning is (2019 Main, 12 April II) (b) desferrioxime-B (d) EDTA 4. Complete removal of both the axial ligands (along the z-axis) from an octahedral complex leads to which of the following splitting patterns? (relative orbital energies not on scale). (2019 Main, 12 April I) dxy (b) E [CoCl(NH3 )5 ]2+ 3+ [Co(NH3 )6 ] (I), [Co(NH3 )5 H2 O]3+ (II) and (III) absorb light in the visible region. The correct order of the wavelength of light absorbed by them is (2019 Main, 10 April I) (a) II > I > III (c) III > I > II (b) I > II > III (d) III > II > I 9. The degenerate orbitals of [Cr(H2 O)6 ]3+ are (2019 Main, 9 April I) (a) d 2 and dxz z (c) d 2 2 and dxy x − y (b) dxz and d yz (d) d yz and d 2 z 10. The calculated spin only magnetic moments (BM) of the anionic and cationic species of [Fe(H2 O)6 ]2 and [Fe(CN)6 ], respectively, are (2019 Main, 8 April II) dx2 – y2 (a) 0 and 4.9 (c) 0 and 5.92 dz2 dxz, dyz dxz, dyz dxy dx2 – y2 dx2 – y2 dz2 dz2 (c) E 8. Three complexes, dz2 dx2 – y2 (a) E light (c) the spin only magnetic moments of Fe(H2O)6 ]2 + and [Cr(H2O)6 ]2 + are nearly similar 2. The (a) D-penicillamine (c) cis-platin (2019 Main, 10 April II) (a) the gemstone, ruby, has Cr 3 + ions occupying the octahedral sites of beryl (b) the color of [CoCl(NH3 )5 ]2 + is violet as it absorbs the yellow (d) E (b) 2.84 and 5.92 (d) 4.9 and 0 11. The compound that inhibits the growth of tumors is (2019 Main, 8 April II) (a) trans-[Pt(Cl)2 (NH3 )2 ] (b) cis-[Pd(Cl)2 (NH3 )2 ] (c) cis-[Pt(Cl)2 (NH3 )2 ] (d) trans-[Pd(Cl)2 (NH3 )2 ] 12. The correct order of the spin only magnetic moment of metal dxy dyz, dxz ions in the following low spin complexes, [V(CN)6 ]4− , dxz, dyz dxy [Fe(CN)6 ]4− , [Ru(NH3 )6 ]3+ , and [Cr(NH3 )6 ]2+ , is (2019 Main, 8 April I) 5. The complex ion that will lose its crystal field stabilisation energy upon oxidation of its metal to +3 state is (a) Cr 2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+ > V2+ (b) V2+ > Cr 2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+ (c) V2+ > Ru3+ > Cr 2+ > Fe2+ (d) Cr 2+ > V2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+ 13. The magnetic moment of an octahedral homoleptic Mn(II) complex is 5.9 BM. The suitable ligand for this complex is (a) CN− (c) NCS− (Phen = N Ignore pairing energy (a) [Co(phen)3 ] 2+ (c) [Zn(phen)3 ]2+ N (2019 Main, 12 April I) (b) [Ni(phen)3 ] 2+ (d) [Fe(phen)3 ]2+ 6. The crystal field stabilisation energy (CFSE) of [Fe(H2 O)6 ]Cl 2 and K 2 [NiCl 4 ], respectively, are (2019 Main, 10 April II) (a) − 0.4 ∆ o and − 12 . ∆t (c) − 2.4 ∆ o and − 12 . ∆t (b) − 0.4 ∆ o and − 0.8 ∆ t (d) − 0.6 ∆ o and − 0.8 ∆ t (b) ethylenediamine (d) CO 14. The pair of metal ions that can given a spin-only magnetic moment of 3.9 BM for the complex [M (H2 O)6 ]Cl 2 , is (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) (a) Co2+ and Fe2+ (c) V2+ and Co2+ (b) Cr 2+ and Mn 2+ (d) V2+ and Fe2+ 15. The metal d-orbitals that are directly facing the ligands in K 3 [Co(CN)6 ] are (a) dxz , d yz and d 2 z (c) dxy , dxz and d yz (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) (b) d 2 2 and d 2 x − y z (d) dxz and d 2 2 x − y 262 Coordination Compounds 16. Mn 2 (CO)10 is an organometallic compound due to the presence of (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) (a) Mn C bond (c) C O bond (b) Mn O bond (d) Mn Mn 17 The number of bridging CO ligand(s) and Co Co bond(s) in Co2 (CO )8 , respectively are (a) 2 and 0 (b) 0 and 2 (2019 Main, 11 Jan II) (c) 4 and 0 (d) 2 and 1 18. The coordination number of Th in K 4 [Th(C2 O4 )4 (OH2 )2 ] is ( C2O24 − = Oxalato) (a) 14 (2019 Main, 11 Jan II) (b) 10 (c) 8 (d) 6 19. Match the metals (Column I) with the coordination compound(s)/enzyme(s) (Column II). Column I (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) Column II 26. Two complexes [Cr(H 2O)6 ]Cl3 (A) and [Cr(NH3 )6 ]Cl3 (B) are violet and yellow coloured, respectively. The incorrect statement regarding them is (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) (a) ∆ o value for (A) is less than that of (B) (b) both absorb energies corresponding to their complementary colours (c) ∆ o values of (A) and (B) are calculated from the energies of violet and yellow light, respectively (d) both are paramagnetic with three unpaired electrons 27. The recommended concentration of fluoride ion in drinking water is up to 1 ppm as fluoride ion is required to make teeth enamel harder by converting [3Ca 3 (PO4 )2 ⋅ Ca(OH)2 ] to : (2018 Main) (a) [CaF2 ] (c) [3Ca 3 (PO4 )2 ⋅ CaF2 ] (b) [3(CaF2 ) ⋅ Ca(OH)2 ] (d) [3{Ca 3 (PO4 )2} ⋅ CaF2 ] (A) Co (i) Wilkinson catalyst (B) Zn (ii Chlorophyll (C) Rh (iii) Vitamin B 12 CoCl3 .6H2O with excess of AgNO3 ; 1.2 × 1022 ions are precipitated. The complex is (2017 Main) (D) Mg (iv) Carbonic anhydrase (a) [Co(H2O)4 Cl 2 ] Cl ⋅ 2H2O (b) [Co(H2O)3 Cl 3 ] ⋅ 3H2O (c) [Co(H2O)6 ]Cl 3 (d) [Co(H2O)5 Cl] Cl 2 ⋅ H2O A (a) (i) (b) (iv) (c) (iii) (d) (ii) B (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) C (iii) (i) (i) (iv) D (iv) (ii) (ii) (iii) 29. The pair having the same magnetic moment is [at. no. Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26 and Co = 27] (a) [Cr(H2O)6 ]2+ and [Fe(H2O)6 ]2+ 20. The difference in the number of unpaired electrons of a metal ion in its high-spin and low-spin octahedral complexes is two. The metal ion is (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) (a) Mn 2+ 2+ (b) Fe (c) Ni 2+ (d) Co 2+ 21. A reaction of cobalt (III) chloride and ethylene diamine in a 1 : 2 mole ratio generates two isomeric products A (violet coloured) and B (green coloured). A can show optical activity, but B is optically inactive. What type of isomers does A and B represent ? (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) (a) Ionisation isomers (c) Geometrical isomers (b) Coordination isomers (d) Linkage isomers 22. Wilkinson catalyst is (a) [(Et 3P)3 RhCl] (c) [(Ph 3P)3 RhCl] 28. On treatment of 100 mL of 0.1 M solution of (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) (b) [(Et 3P)3 IrCl](Et = C2H5) (d) [(Ph 3P)3 IrCl] 23. Homoleptic octahedral complexes of a metal ion ‘M 3 + ’ with (2016 Main) (b) [Mn(H2O)6 ]2+ and [Cr(H2O)6 ]2+ (c) [CoCl 4 ]2− and [Fe(H2O)6 ]2+ (d) [Cr(H2O)6 ]2+ and [CoCl 4 ]2− [Ni(CO)4 ], [ NiCl 4 ]2 − , [ Co(NH3 )4 Cl 2 ] Cl, Na 3 [ CoF6 ], Na 2 O2 and CsO2 , the total number of paramagnetic compounds is (2016 Adv.) 30. Among (a) 2 (c) 4 (b) 3 (d) 5 31. The colour of KMnO4 is due to (2015 Main) (a) M → L charge transfer transition (b) d → d transition (c) L → M charge transfer transition (d) σ → σ∗ transition 32. The equation which is balanced and represents the correct product(s) is three monodentate ligands L1 , L2 and L3 absorb wavelengths in the region of green, blue and red respectively. The increasing order of the ligand strength is (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) (a) Li 2O + 2KCl → 2LiCl + K 2O (a) L1 < L2 < L3 (c) L3 < L1 < L2 (c) [Mg(H2 O)6 ]2+ + (EDTA)4 − → (b) L2 < L1 < L3 (d) L3 < L2 < L1 ( ∆ ), is (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) (b) [Co(NH3 )5 (H2O)]Cl 3 (d) K 2[CoCl 4 ] 25. The highest value of the calculated spin only magnetic moment (in BM) among all the transition metal complexes is (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) (a) 5.92 (c) 6.93 (b) 3.87 (d) 4.90 (b) [CoCl(NH3 )5 ]+ + 5H+ → Co2+ + 5NH4+ + Cl − Excess NaOH 24. The complex that has highest crystal field splitting energy (a) [Co(NH3 )5 Cl] Cl 2 (c) K 3[Co(CN)6 ] (2014 Main) [Mg(EDTA)]2+ + 6H2 O (d) CuSO4 + 4KCN → K 2 [Cu(CN)4 ] + K 2SO4 33. The octahedral complex of a metal ion M 3+ with four monodentate ligands L1 , L2 , L3 and L4 absorb wavelengths in the region of red, green, yellow and blue, respectively. The increasing order of ligand strength of the four ligands is (2014 Main) (a) L4 < L3 , L2 < L1 (c) L3 < L2 < L4 < L1 (b) L1 < L3 < L2 < L4 (d) L1 < L2 < L4 < L 3 Coordination Compounds 34. Consider the following complex ions, P, Q and R. 3− 2+ 2+ P = [ FeF6 ] , Q = [ V(H 2O )6 ] and R = [ Fe(H 2O )6 ] The correct order of the complex ions, according to their spin-only magnetic moment values (in BM) is (2013 Adv.) (a) R < Q < P (c) R < P < Q (b) Q < R < P (d) Q < P < R tetrahedral and tetrahedral square planar and square planar tetrahedral and square planar square planar and tetrahedral 36. Among the following complexes (K-P), (2011) K 3 [Fe(CN)6 ] (K), [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl 3 (L), 2.82 BM is (2010) (d) [Ni(CN)4 ]2− units) of Cr(CO)6 is (b) 2.84 (2009) (c) 4.90 (d) 5.92 39. Among the following, the coloured compound is (a) CuCl (c) CuF2 (2008, 3M) (b) K 3[Cu(CN)4 ] (d) [Cu(CH3CN)4 ]BF4 hybridisations of nickel in these complexes respectively, are 2 (c) dsp , sp (b) sp3 , dsp2 3 (2008, 3M) (d) dsp2 , dsp2 41. Among the following metal carbonyls, the C—O bond order is lowest in (2007, 3M) (a) [Mn(CO)6 ]+ (d) [V(CO)6 ] − then what is the value of CO bond length in Fe(CO)5? (2006) (b) 1.128 Å (c) 1.72 Å (d) 1.118 Å is (2004, 1M) (b) 15 (c) 24 (d) 8 44. The compound having tetrahedral geometry is (a) [Ni(CN)4 ] (c) [PdCl 4 ] 2– 2– (b) [Pd(CN)4 ] (d) [NiCl 4 ]2– 47. The geometry of Ni(CO)4 and Ni(PPh 3 )2 Cl 2 are (1999, 2M) (a) both square planar (b) tetrahedral and square planar, respectively (c) both tetrahedral (d) square planar and tetrahedral, respectively 48. Which of the following is formed when excess of KCN is added to aqueous solution of copper sulphate? (1996, 1M) (b) K 2[Cu(CN)4 ] (d) K 3[Cu(CN)4 ] (1993, 1M) (a) [Cr(H2O)6 ]3+ (b) [Fe(H2O)6 ]2+ (c) [Cu(H2O)6 ]2+ (d) [Zn(H2O)6 ]2+ 50. Amongst Ni(CO)4 , [Ni(CN)4 ]2– and NiCl 2– 4 (1991, 1M) 2– (a) Ni(CO)4 and NiCl 2– is 4 are diamagnetic and [Ni(CN)4 ] paramagnetic (c) Ni(CO)4 and [Ni(CN)4 ]2– are diamagnetic and [NiCl 4 ]2− is paramagnetic (d) Ni(CO)4 is diamagnetic and [NiCl 4 ]2− and [Ni(CN)4 ]2– are paramagnetic per mole of the compound at 298 K will be shown by (1988, 2M) (a) MnSO4 ⋅ 4H2O (c) FeSO4 ⋅ 6H2O (b) CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2O (d) NiSO4 ⋅ 6H2O Objective Question II (One or more than one correct option) 2– (2020 Adv.) (b) [Co(en)(NH3 )2 Cl 2 ]+ has 2 geometrical isomers. (c) [FeCl 4 ]− has higher spin-only magnetic moment than [Co(en)(NH3 )2 Cl 2 ]+ . 43. Spin only magnetic moment of the compound Hg[Co(SCN)4 ] (a) 3 (d) [Cr(H2O)6 ]3+ (a) [FeCl 4 ]− has tetrahedral geometry. 42. If the bond length of CO bond in carbon monoxide is 1.128 Å, (a) 1.15 Å (c) [Fe(CN)6 ] 52. Choose the correct statement(s) among the following: (b) [Fe(CO)5 ] (c) [Cr(CO)6 ] (b) [Co(NH3 )6 ] 3– 51. Amongst the following, the lowest degree of paramagnetism 40. Both [Ni(CO)4 ] and [Ni(CN)4 ]2− are diamagnetic. The (a) sp3 , sp3 (2001, 1M) 3+ paramagnetic (b) [NiCl 4 ]2− and [Ni(CN)4 ]2– are diamagnetic and Ni(CO)4 is 38. The spin only magnetic moment value (in Bohr magneton (a) 0 (a) [MnO4 ] – paramagnetism? 37. The complex showing a spin only magnetic moment of (c) Ni(PPh 3 )4 (2003) (d) 0.02, 0.02 49. Among the following ions, which one has the highest (b) K, M, O, P (d) L, M, N, O (b) [NiCl 4 ]2− (c) 0.01, 0.02 metal atom is (a) Cu (CN)2 (c) K[Cu(CN)2 ] Na 3 [Co (ox)3 ] (M), [Ni(H2 O)6 ] Cl 2 (N), K 2 [Pt(CN)4 ](O), [Zn(H2 O)6 ](NO3 )2 (P) the diamagnetic complexes are (a) Ni(CO)4 [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4 was prepared in 2 L of solution. 1 L of mixture X + excess AgNO3 → Y 1 L of mixture X + excess BaCl2 → Z Number of moles of Y and Z are 46. The complex ion which has no ‘d’-electrons in the central magnetic behaviour (paramagnetic/diamagnetic) the coordination geometries of Ni 2+ in the paramagnetic and diamagnetic states respectively, are (2012) (a) K, L, M, N (c) L, M, O, P 45. Mixture X = 0.02 mole of [Co(NH3)5SO4]Br and 0.02 mole of (a) 0.01, 0.01 (b) 0.02, 0.01 35. NiCl 2 {P(C2 H5 )2 (C6 H5 )}2 exhibits temperature dependent (a) (b) (c) (d) 263 (d) The cobalt ion in [Co(en)(NH3 )2 Cl 2 ]+ has sp3d 2 hybridisation. 53. A tin chloride Q undergoes the following reactions (not balanced) (2004, 1M) Q + Cl − → X Q + Me3N → Y Q + CuCl 2 → Z + CuCl 264 Coordination Compounds X is a monoanion having pyramidal geometry. Both Y and Z are neutral compounds. (2019 Adv.) Choose the correct option(s). (a) There is a coordinate bond in Y (b) The central atom in Z has one lone pair of electrons (c) The oxidation state of the central atom in Z is + 2 (d) The central atom in X is sp3 hybridised 54. The correct statement (s) regarding the binary transition metal carbonyl compounds is (are) (Atomic numbers : (2018 Adv.) Fe = 26, Ni = 28) (a) Total number of valence shell electrons at metal centre in Fe(CO)5 or Ni(CO) 4 is 16 (b) These are predominantly low spin in nature (c) Metal-carbon bond strengthens when the oxidation state of the metal is lowered (d) The carbonyl C—O bond weakens when the oxidation state of the metal is increased 55. The correct option(s) regarding the complex [Co(en)(NH3 )3 (H2 O)]3+ (en = H2 NCH2 CH2 NH2 ) is (are) (a) It has two geometrical isomers (2018 Adv.) (b) It will have three geometrical isomers, if bidentate ‘en’ is replaced by two cyanide ligands (c) It is paramagnetic (d) It absorbs light at longer wavelength as compared to [Co(en)(NH3 )4 ]3+ 56. Addition of excess aqueous ammonia to a pink coloured aqueous solution of MCl 2 ⋅ 6H2 O( X ) and NH4 Cl gives an octahedral complex Y in the presence of air. In aqueous solution, complex Y behaves as 1 : 3 electrolyte. The reaction of X with excess HCl at room temperature results in the formation of a blue colured complex Z. The calculated spin only magnetic moment of X and Z is 3.87 B.M., whersas it is zero for complex Y . Among the following options, which statement(s) is (are) correct? (2017 Adv.) (a) The hybridisation of the central metal ion in Y is d 2sp3 (b) Addition of silver nitrate to Y given only two equivalents of silver chloride (c) When X and Y are in equilibrium at 0°C, the colour of the solution is pink (d) Z is a tetrahedral complex Numerical Answer Type Question 57. Total number of cis N Mn Cl bond angles (that is Mn N and Mn Cl bonds in cis positions) present in a molecule of cis [Mn(en)2 Cl 2 ] complex is ……… (2019 Adv.) (en = NH 2CH 2CH 2NH 2 ) Assertion and Reason Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below : (a) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Statement I is true; Statement II is true; Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is true; Statement II is false. (d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true. 58. Statement I [Fe(H2 O)5 NO]SO4 is paramagnetic. Statement II The Fe in [Fe(H2 O)5 NO]SO4 has three unpaired electrons. (2008, 3M) Passage Based Questions The coordination number of Ni 2 + is 4. NiCl 2 + KCN (excess) → A (cyano complex) NiCl 2 + conc. HCl (excess) → B (chloro complex) 59. Predict the magnetic nature of A and B. (a) Both are diamagnetic (b) A is diamagnetic and B is paramagnetic with one unpaired electron (c) A is diamagnetic and B is paramagnetic with two unpaired electrons (d) Both are paramagnetic 60. The hybridisation of A and B are (a) dsp2 , sp3 (b) sp3 , sp3 (c) dsp2 , dsp2 (d) sp3d 2 , d 2sp3 Match the Columns 61. Match each set of hybrid orbitals from List–I with complexes given in List-II. List–I P. dsp Q. sp3 2 List–II 1. [FeF6 ] 4− 2. [Ti(H2O)3 Cl 3 ] R. 3 2 sp d 3. [Cr(NH3 )6 ]3+ S. d 2sp3 4. [FeCl 4 ]2− 5. [Ni(CO)4 ] 6. [Ni(CN)4 ]2− The correct option is (2018 Adv.) (a) P → 5; Q → 4, 6; R → 2, 3; S → 1 (b) P → 5,6; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 1,2 (c) P → 6; Q → 4, 5; R → 1; S → 2, 3 (d) P → 4,6; Q → 5, 6; R → 1,2; S → 3 62. Match each coordination compound in Column I with an appropriate pair of characteristics from Column II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Columns (en = H2 NCH2 CH2 NH2 ; atomic numbers : Ti = 22; Cr = 24; Co = 27; Pt = 78) (2014 Adv.) Column I Column II (A) [Cr(NH3 )4 Cl 2 ]Cl 1. Paramagnetic and exhibits ionisation isomerism (B) [Ti(H2O)5 Cl](NO3 )2 2. Diamagnetic and exhibits cis-trans isomerism (C) [Pt(en)(NH3 )Cl]NO3 3. Paramagnetic and exhibits cis-trans isomerism (D) [Co(NH3 )4 (NO3 )2 ]NO3 4. Diamagnetic and exhibits ionisation isomerism Coordination Compounds Codes A B C D (a) 4 2 3 1 (c) 2 1 3 4 (a) Draw its structure and show H-bonding (b) Give oxidation state of Ni and its hybridisation (c) Predict whether it is paramagnetic or diamagnetic A B C D (b) 3 1 4 2 (d) 1 3 4 2 in Column II. (2007, 6M) (2003, 4M) (A) [Co(NH3 )4 (H2O)2 ]Cl 2 p. Geometrical isomers (B) [Pt(NH3 )2 Cl 2 ] q. Paramagnetic (C) [Co(H2O)5 Cl]Cl r. Diamagnetic (D) [Ni(H2O)6 ]Cl 2 s. Metal ion with +2 oxidation state 64. The IUPAC name of [Co(NH3 )6 ] Cl 3 is …… (1994, 1M) True/False 65. Both potassium ferrocyanide and potassium ferricyanide are diamagnetic. (1989, 1M) y2 orbital is zero. (1986, 1M) Integer Answer Type Questions in SCN− − (thiocyanato-S) and in CN ligand environments, the difference between the spin only magnetic moments in Bohr magnetons (when approximated to the nearest integer) is [atomic number of Fe = 26 ] (2015 Adv.) 67. For the octahedral complexes of Fe3+ 68. In the complex acetylbromidodicarbonylbis (triethylphosphine) iron (II), the number of Fe C bond (s) is 2– 72. Deduce the structures of [NiCl 4 ] and [Ni(CN)4 ]2– considering the hybridisation of the metal ion. Calculate the magnetic moment (spin only) of the species. (2002, 5M) Fill in the Blank 69. EDTA the IUPAC name of the compound K 2 [Cr(NO)(CN)4 (NH3 )] . Spin magnetic moment of the complex µ = 1.73 BM. Give the structure of anion. Column II 66. The electron density in the xy plane in 3dx 2 − (2004, 4M) 71. Write 63. Match the complexes in Column I with their properties listed Column I 265 (2015 Adv.) 4− is ethylenediaminetetraacetate ion. The total number of N Co O bond angles in [Co(EDTA)] − complex ion is (2013 Adv.) 73. A metal complex having composition Cr(NH3 )4 Cl 2 Br has been isolated in two forms A and B. The form A reacts with AgNO3 to give a white precipitate readily soluble in dilute aqueous ammonia, whereas B gives a pale yellow precipitate soluble in concentrated ammonia. Write the formula of A and B and state the hybridisation of chromium in each. Calculate their magnetic moments (spin-only value). (2001, 5M) 74. Draw the structures of [Co (NH3 )6 ]3+ , [Ni(CN)4 ]2– and [Ni(CO)4 ] . Write the hybridisation of atomic orbitals of the transition metal in each case. (2000, 4M) 75. A, B and C are three complexes of chromium (III) with the empirical formula H12 O6 Cl 3 Cr. All the three complexes have water and chloride ion as ligands. Complex A does not react with concentrated H2 SO4 , whereas complexes B and C lose 6.75% and 13.5% of their original mass, respectively, on treatment with concentrated H2 SO4 . Identify A, B and C. (1999, 2M) 76. Identify the complexes which are expected to be coloured. Explain (1994, 2M) (i) [Ti(NO3 )4 ] (iii) [Cr(NH3 )6 ] Cl3 (ii) [Cu(NCCH3 )]+ BF4 (iv) K3 [VF6 ] 77. Give reasons in two or three sentences only for the Subjective Questions 70. NiCl 2 in the presence of dimethyl glyoxime (DMG) gives a complex which precipitates in the presence of NH4 OH, giving a bright red colour. following : “The species[CuCl 4 ]2– exists, while[CuI4 ]2– does not exist.” (1992, 1M) Answers Topic 1 Topic 2 1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b,d) 20. (c,d) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (paramagnetism) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 24. (5) 25. (6) 26. (6) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (c) 32. (b) 27. (3) 266 Coordination Compounds 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (c) 57. (6) 58. (a) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (c) 41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (b) 45. (a) 46. (a) 49. (b) 53. (a, d) 59. (c) 40. (b) 61. (c) 62. (b) 44. (d) 63. (A → p, q, s B → p, r, s C → q, s D → q, s) 47. (c) 48. (d) 64. (hexaammine cobalt (III) chloride) 65. (F) 50. (c) 51. (b) 52. (a,c) 66. (F) 69. (8) 54. (b, c) 55. (a, b, d) 56. (a, b, d) 67. (4) 60. (a) 68. (3) Hints & Solutions Topic 1 Nomenclature and Isomerism of Coordination Compounds In first complex, ‘en’ is a didentate ligand and ‘Cl’ is a unidentate ligand. [Co(Cl)(en)2]Cl, coordination number = 1 + 2 × 2 = 1 + 4 ⇒ 5 1. If AB4 molecule is a polar moelcule, a possible geometry of AB4 So, the coordination number is 5. is square pyramidal. All possible structure of AB4 molecule are as follows: (i) AB4 ⇒ L = 0 ⇒ A is sp3 (tetrahedral) or For K 3 [Al(C2O4 )3 ], ‘C2O24 − ’ is a didentate ligand. Coordination number = 3 × 2 = 6. Hence, coordination number is 6. Ais dsp2 (square planar) ⇒ Dipole moment, µ = 0(Non-polar) (ii) AB4L2 ⇒ L = 2 ⇒ A is sp3d 2 (octahedral) 3. ⇒µ = 0(Non-polar), because B B ⇒ µnet = 0 (Non-polar) A B Key Idea Square planar complexes of general formulae : [ M(a − a)b2 ] and [ M(a − a) (b − b) ] do not show geometrical isomerism. Whereas, an octahedral complex of general formula [ M (a − a)2 b2 ] can show geometrical (cis-trans) isomerism. [ Pt(en)2 (Cl 2 )]2+ with formula [ M (a − a)2 b2 ] will show geometrical isomerism as follows: 2+ Cl 2+ B en (Assuming, B is more electronegative than A) (iii) AB4L ⇒ L = 1 ⇒ A is sp3d (square pyramidal or trigonal bipyramidal) ⇒µ ≠ 0 (polar), because B B B µplane = 0 µaxis ≠ 0 µnet ≠ 0 (polar) [Square pyramidal] en Cl en Cl cis(optically active) trans(optically inactive) (I) common transition and inner transition metal ion, are 6 and 8 respectively. B B µplane ≠ 0 µaxis ≠ 0 µnet ≠ 0 (polar) [Trigonal pyramidal] So, it can be seen that when AB4 molecule is a polar molecule then possible geometry of AB4 is square pyramidal. 2. Pt en Pt 4. The maximum possible denticities of given ligand towards a A A B B B Cl Key Idea The total number of ligands to which the metal is directly attached is called coordination number. The coordination numbers of Co and Al in [Co(Cl)(en)2]Cl and K 3[ Al(C2O4 )3 ]are 5 and 6 respectively. –OOC COO– N N N –OOC COO– COO– The given ligand act as hexadentate ligand in transition metal ion because the common oxidation state shown by them is +3. Whereas in case of inner transition metal ion, its denticity is 8 because their common oxidation state is +4. 5. Optical activity is the ability of a chiral molecule to rotate the plane of polarised light, measured by a polarimeter. A chiral molecule does not have any plane of symmetry. If a molecule possess any plane of symmetry, then it is an achiral molecule. Given options (a), (b) and (d) possess plane of symmetry. Coordination Compounds A A B B en M M en or 2 + x − 2 − 4 − 2 = 0 or x − 6 = 0 hence x = + 6 Thus, +3, 0 and +6 is the answer. 9. If the reactant is cis isomer than following reaction takes place. NH3 B Br Br Br– A (b) NH3 B NH3 NH3 Br Br NH3 Cis-isomer NH3 NH3 Br Facial Meridonial i.e. two isomers are produced. If the reactant is trans isomer than following reaction takes place. M A B Br NH3 + NH3 B A Br NH3 NH3 NH3 Br NH3 Br– A (a) NH3 Only molecule (c) does not possess any plane of symmetry. Hence, it is a chiral molecule and shows optical activity. 6. Br NH3 Br B A (d) 267 Key Idea Denticity of ligand is defined as donor sites or number of ligating groups. The given ligand is tetradentate. It contains four donor atoms. It can bind through two nitrogen and two oxygen atom to the central metal ion. Ligand bound to the central atom or ion through coordinate bond in the coordination entity. It act as a Lewis base. The attacking site of the given ligand is given in bold. Br Br Br Trans Meridonial i.e. only 1 isomer is produced. Thus, statement (I) and (III) are correct resulting to option (b) as the correct answer. Cl 10. Cl Cl en en Co en cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl (optically active) NEt2 en Co Cl trans-[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl (optically inactive due to plane of symmetry) [Co(NH3 )4 Cl 2 ]Cl can exist in both cis and trans forms that are given below: N O– NH3 NH3 + Cl –O H3N NH3 H 3N Co 7. A square planar complex of general formula, M abcd gives three geometrical isomers only. Let, a = F− , b = Cl − , c = S CN− , d = NO−2 SCN− and NO−2 are ambidentate ligands and they also show linkage isomerism (structural). Considering both linkage and geometrical isomerism. Total number of possible isomers given by the complex, = 3 × (2 + 2) = 12 H3N Cl Co NH3 Cl H 3N NH3 Cl trans-[Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (optically inactive) cis-[Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (optically inactive) [Co(NH3 )3 Cl 3 ]exists in fac and mer-isomeric forms and both are optically inactive. NH3 Cl 8. Let the oxidation state of Cr in all cases is ‘ x’ (i) Oxidation state of Cr in [Cr(H2O)6 ]Cl 3 x + (0 × 6) + (−1 × 3 ) = 0 or x + 0 − 3 = 0 or x = + 3 (ii) Oxidation state of Cr in [Cr(C6H6 )2 ] x + (2 × 0) = 0 or x = 0 (iii) Oxidation state of Cr in K2[Cr(CN)2 (O)2 (O2 )(NH3 )] 1 × 2 + x + (−1 × 2 ) + (−2 × 2 ) + (−2 ) + 0 = 0 + NH3 NH3 NH3 Cl Co Cl NH3 Cl fac-isomer (optically inactive) NH3 Co Cl Cl NH3 mer-isomer (optically inactive) 11. [Pt(Cl)(py)(NH3 )(NH2OH)]+ is square planar complex. The structures are formed by fixing a group and then arranging all the groups. 268 Coordination Compounds Py Py NH3 NH3 Pt Pt Cl NH2OH HOH2N Py 16. Ionisation isomers are the complexes that produces different ions in solution, i.e. they have ions interchanged inside and outside the coordination sphere. [Cr(H2O)4 Cl(NO2 )]Cl and [Cr(H2O)4 Cl 2 ](NO2 ) have different ions inside and outside the coordinate sphere and they are isomers. Cl Cl Therefore, they are ionisation isomers. 17. [Ni(NH3 )4 ]2 + = tetraamminenickel (II) Pt HOH2N [NiCl 4 ]2− = tetrachloronickelate (II) Cationic part is named first, hence : tetraamminenickel (II)-tetrachloronickelate(II) NH3 Hence, this complex shows three geometrical isomers. 12. Optical isomerism is exhibited by only those complexes which lacks elements of symmetry. [Co(NH3 )3 Cl 3] shows facial as well as meridional isomerism. But both the forms contain plane of symmetry. Thus, this complex does not exhibit optical isomerism. 18. [Co(NH3 )4 Br2 ]Cl and [Co(NH3 )4 BrCl]Br are ionisation isomers. H 3N Br NH3 + Br Br + H 3N Co Co 13. First of all, the compound has complex positive part ‘‘[Co(H2O)4 (NH3 )2 ]3+ therefore, according to IUPAC conventions, positive part will be named first. Secondly, in writing name of complex, ligands are named first in alphabetical order, irrespective of its charge, hence “ammine” will be written prior to “aqua”. Therefore, name of the complex is [Co(H2O)4 (NH3 )2 ]Cl 3.Diamminetetraaqua cobalt (III) chloride. NOTE In alphabetical order, original name of ligands are considered not the initials of prefixes. Also, special precaution should be taken in spelling name of NH3 ligand as it is ammine. 14. Ni 2+ + 4 CN– → [ Ni(CN)4 ]2– Here, Ni 2+ has d 8 -configuration with CN– as strong ligand. 4s 4p 3d H 3N Br H3N NH3 Geometrical isomers 19. PLAN Depending on the structure of the complex,different types of isomerism are shown. Complex A. B. Isomerism Neither of structural nor stereoisomerism [Cr(NH3 )5 Cl]Cl 2 [Cr(NH3 )4 Cl 2 ] Cl [Co (NH3 )4 Cl 2 ]+ H3N : : : : H3N Cl H3N H3N [Pt(H2O) ⋅ (NH3 )2 Cl] Cl H2O NH3 Pt : : : : : : : : 4p cis : : : : : : Therefore, [Ni(H 2O)6] 2+ has octahedral geometry. N—CH2CH2—N CH2COOH CH2COOH NH3 H2O NH3 Pt H3N C. 4d sp3d2 Cl NH3 Cl sp d 8 -configuration in weak ligand field gives sp 3-hybridisation, hence tetrahedral geometry. Ni 2+ with H 2O forms [Ni(H 2O)6] 2+ complex and H 2O is a weak ligand. 3d NH3 cis w.r.t. Cl + 2 HOOCH2C NH3 Co Here, Ni 2+ has d 8 -configuration with Cl – as weak ligand. 3d 15. NH3 trans w.r.t. Cl d 8 -configuration in strong ligand field gives dsp2-hybridisation, hence square planar geometry. Ni 2+ + 4Cl – → [NiCl 4 ]2– HOOCH2C Cl Co dsp2 4s NH3 NH3 D. Cl trans [Co Br2Cl 2 ]2− sp3 tetrahedral [PtBr2Cl 2 ]2− dsp2 square planar [Pt (NH3 )3 (NO3 )]Cl [ Pt (NH3 )3 (NO3 )Cl ] [Pt(NH3 )3 Cl]Br [ Pt (NH3 )3 Cl ] NO3 ] ionisation [ Pt (NH3 )3 Cl ] Br [ Pt (NH3 )3 Br ] ionisation Coordination Compounds 20. Both [Pt(en)2 Cl 2 ]Cl 2 and [Pt(NH3 )2 Cl 2 ] are capable of showing 25. All six complex will show cis-trans isomerism geometrical isomerism. en Cl Cl + Pt en en Cl Pt H 3N cis O Pt Cl Cl trans O Cl NH3 O Cl NH3 H3N Cl M H 3N M NH3 H3N Cl NH3 Cl Trans 2+ CN H 3N 23. Paramagnetism : In [Mn(H2O)6 ] , Mn(II) has 3d configuration. Co3+ Cl NH2 O Cis O Cl 3+ O and en en Co3+ Cl en NH3 trans 2+ 2+ Cl H3N Cl Co3+ and OH2 NH3 NH3 H 3N OH2 trans ⇒ mmol of Cl – ion produced from its 0.3 mmol = 0.6 Hence, 0.6 mmol of Ag+ would be required for precipitation. NH2 NH2 Co 2+ Cl [Cr(H2O)5 Cl]Cl 2 → [Cr(H2O)5 Cl]2+ + 2Cl – Geometrical isomers are Co and NH3 Also, 1 mole of complex [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2 gives only two moles of chloride ion when dissolved in solution CH2 — NH2 CH2 O Cl Fe3+ 26. mmol of complex = 30 ×0.01 = 0.3 (weak ligand field) 3+ NH3 NH3 cis Mn(II) : NH2 2+ Co3+ – NH3 CN cis cis H3N Since, H2O is a weak ligand, all five d-electrons are unpaired : 4p 4d 4s 3d OH2 OH trans NH3 5 O NC en CN A : Potassium tetracyanonickelate (II) Cl – NH3 trans B = K2[NiCl 4 ] OH2 NC H2O OH NC O CN Fe3+ OH2 cis NC + H2O and Fe Cis Cl OH OH Fe3+ NH3 B : Potassium tetrachloronickelate (II) 24. Ligand is + 3+ Both have several planes of symmetry 22. A = K2[Ni(CN)4 ] ; H 2O O trans OH2 H2O O O O NH3 O Cl 3– O Cr3+ and O 21. Both statements are true. However, axis of symmetry is not a O O Cr3+ criteria of optical isomerism. Optical inactivity of the two geometrical isomers of [ M (NH3 )4 Cl 2 ] is due to the presence of plane of symmetry. Cl 3– O Square planar complex H 3N Cl trans O H3N Cl en Co3+ cis cis H3N + Cl en en Cl and en Co3+ Pt trans Cl + Cl + Cl en 269 O NH2 Trans NH2 O ⇒ 0.60 mmol of Ag+ = 0.1M × V(in mL) ⇒ V = 6 mL O Co3+ Cl Cl Cis 27. PPh3 Cl CO Cl Rh Rh H 3N CO PPh3 H 3N Cl PPh3 Rh OC 28. (i) [Co(NH3 )5 Cl]2+ H 3N (ii) Li[AlH4 ] 270 Coordination Compounds 3. The compound used in the treatment of lead poisoning is EDTA. 29. [Cr(NH3 )5 CO3 ]Cl Medication occurs through chelation therapy. Calcium disodium ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid chelates divalent metal ion such as Pb2 + from plasma and interstitial body fluids. : pentaamminecarbonatochromium (III) chloride. 30. (i) [Co(NH3 )5 ONO]Cl 2 : pentaamminenitritocobalt (III) chloride. (ii) K3[Cr(CN)6 ] : potassium hexacyanochromate (III) The metal displaces Ca and is chelated, mobilised and usually excreted. Less then 5% CaNa 2EDTA is absorbed in the gastrointestinal tract and it possibly increases the absorption of Pb present in the tract. Therefore, it is not recommended for oral use. It is usually given intravenously. Topic 2 Bonding and Important Property of Coordination Compounds 1. M 2+ + mH2O → [ M (H2O)m ]2+ (d 6 ) 4. Complete removal of both the axial ligands (along the z-axis) from an octahedral complex leads to the following splitting pattern. Here, H2O is a weak field ligand and it should give a high spin paramagnetic (µ = 4.90 BM) complex ion. dx2–y 2 We know, µ = n ( n + 2 ) BM = 4.90 BM (n = 4) [∴n = Number of unpaired electrons in the complex] ns0 dxy Energy (n–1)d6 np0 M 2+ = (d6) dz2 t2g H2O H2O H2O H2O n=4 M2+ is sp3 hybridised, i.e. it is a tetrahedral complex ion [M(H2O)4]2+ [∴ M = 4] dxzdyz The single electron in the dx2 − y2 orbital is being repelled by four ligands, while the electron in the dz2 orbital is only being repelled by two ligands. Thus, the energy of the dx2 − y2 increases relative to that of dz2 . A more stable arrangement arises when both the eg electrons pair up and occupy the lower energy dz2 orbital. This leaves the dx2 − y2 orbital empty. Thus, four ligands can now approach along + x , − x, + y and − y directions without any difficulty as dx2 − y2 orbital is empty. However, ligands approaching along + z and −z directions meet very strong repulsive forces from filled dz2 orbitals. Thus, only four ligands succeed in bonding to the metal. A square planar complex is formed, the attempt to form an octahedral complex being unsuccessful. (n −1) d -orbitals in tetrahedral field. t2 +0.4 ∆ t –0.6 ∆ t e CFSE = [(− 0.6) × 3 + (0.4 ) × 3 ]∆ t = − 0.6 ∆ t Number of electrons in e set. Number of electrons in t2 set. So, the geometry and the crystal field stabilisation energy of the complex is tetrahedral and − 0.6 ∆ t respectively. 2. The d-electron configuration [Ru(en) 3]Cl 2 and [ Fe(H2O)6 ]Cl 2 respectively are t62geg0 and t24geg2. 5. Key Idea Crystal field splitting occurs due to the presence of ligands in a definite geometry. In octahedral complexes the energy of two, eg orbitals will increase by (0.6) ∆ o and that of three t2g will decrease by (0.4) ∆ o . The complex ion that will lose its crystal field stabilisation energy upon oxidation of its metal to +3 state is[ Fe(phen)3 ]2+ . [Ru(en)3 ]Cl2 Ru = 4d series en = bidentate ligand (strong field ligand) C.N. = 6 Oxidation number = +2 Ru 2+ = [Kr] 4 d6 5s0 −e− [Fe(phen)3 ]2+ → [Fe(phen)3 ]3+ In [Fe(phen)3 ]2+ , electronic configuration of Fe2+ is 3d6 4 s0. Phenanthrene is a strong field symmetrical bidentate ligand. The splitting of orbital in Fe2+ is as follows: Fe2+ = eg [Fe(H 2O) 6 ]Cl2 = eg 0.6∆0 (n–1)d (3d) eg ∆0 t 4 , e 2 2g g 0.4∆0 +0.6 ∆o Fe2+ –0.4 ∆o t2g CFSE = 6 × −0.4 ∆ o = −2.4 ∆ o . t2g Coordination Compounds [Cr(H2O)6 ]2+ , (n = 5), The splitting of orbital and arrangement of electrons in Fe3+ is as follows : +0.6 ∆o Fe3+ –0.4 ∆o t2g CFSE = 5 × −0.4 ∆ o = −2. 0 ∆ o Fe upon oxidation of its metal to +3 state lose its CFSE from −2.4 ∆ o to −2.0∆ o . 6. Key Idea Crystal field stabilisation energy (CFSE) for octahedral complexes = (−0.4 x + 0.6 y)∆ o where, x = number of electrons occupying t2g orbital. y = number of electrons occupying eg orbital. CFSE for tetrahedral complexes = (−0.6x + 0.4 y)∆ t where, x = number of electrons occupying e orbital. y = number of electrons occupying t orbital. In [Fe(H2O)6 ]Cl2, H2O is a weak field ligand, so it is a high spin (outer orbital) octahedral complex of Fe2+ . eg Fe2+(3d6) = t2g ∴ CFSE = (−0.4 x + 0.6 y)∆ o = [ −0.4 × 4 + 0.6 × 2 ]∆ o = − 0.4 ∆o In K2[NiCl 4 ], Cl − is a weak field ligand, so it is a high spin tetrahedral complex of Ni2+ . t Ni2+(3d6) = e µ 2 = 5(5 + 2) = 35 = 5.92 BM So, µ 1 ≈ µ 2.Thus, statement (c) is correct. (d) [Ni(NH3 )4 (H2O)2 ]2+ is also a high-spin octahedral complex of Ni2+ (3d 8 , n = 2) µ = 2(2 + 2) = 8 = 2.83 BM Thus, statement (d) is correct. eg 2+ 8. Key Idea The wavelength (λ ) of light absorbed by the complexes is inversely proportional to its ∆ 0 CFSE (magnitude). ∆ 0 (CFSE) ∝ 1 / λ The complexes can be written as: I. [CoCl(NH3 )5 ]2+ ≡ [Co(NH3 )5 (Cl)]2+ ] II. [Co[NH3 ]5 H2O]3+ ≡ [Co(NH3 )5 (H2O)]3+ III. [Co(NH3 )5 ]3+ ≡ [Co(NH3 )5 (NH3 )]3+ So, the differentiating ligands in the octahedral complexes of Co (III) in I, II and III are Cl s, H2O and NH3 respectively. In the spectrochemical series, the order of this power for crystal field splitting is Cl − < H2O < NH3. So, the crystal field splitting energy (magnitude) order will be ∆CFSE (I) < ∆CFSE (II) < ∆CFSE (III) 0 0 0 and the order of wavelength (λ ) of light absorbed by the complexes will be 1 Q Energy (∆CFSE )∝ λ (I) > λ (II) > λ (III) 0 λ 9. The degenerate orbitals of [Cr(H2O)6 ]3+ are dxz and d yz. Electronic configuration of Cr3 + is 3d 5 4 s1. The five d-orbitals in an isolated gaseous atom or ion have same energy, i.e. they are degenerate. This degeneracy has been removed due to the ligand electron–metal electron repulsions in the octahedral complex to yield three orbitals of lower energy, t2g set and two orbitals of higher energy, eg set. (e g ) ∴CFSE = (−0.6 × 4 + 0.4 × 4 )∆ t = − 0.8∆ t dx 2–y2 dz2 7. The explanation of given statements are as follows : (a) Ruby, a pink or blood-red coloured gemstone belongs to corundum (Al 2O3 , alumina) system which has trigonal crystalline lattice containing the repeating unit of Al 2O3 – Cr 3+ . So, ruby does not belong to beryl lattice (Be3Al 2Si6O18 ). Thus, statement (a) is incorrect. (b) [Co(Cl)(NH3 )5 ]2+ is a low spin octahedral complex of Co3+ . It absorbs low energy yellow light and high energy complementary violet light will be shown off. Thus, statement (b) is correct. (c) [Fe(H2O)6 ]2+ and [Cr(H2O)6 ]2+ are the high-spin octahedral complexes of Fe2+ (3d6 , n = 4 ) and Cr 2+ (3d 5 , n = 5) ions and weak field ligand, H2O respectively. So, spin-only magnetic moment = n(n + 2) of the complexes. [Fe(H2O)6 ]2+ , (n = 4 ), µ 1 = 4 (4 + 2) = 24 = 4.89 BM 271 Free metal ion ∆0 (t2g) dxy dxz dyz 10. [ Fe(H2O)6 ]2 ⇒ It will form 2 cationic species. i.e. II I. (i)As [ Fe(H2O)6 ]2+ ⇒ High spin octahedral complex of Fe2+ . Fe2+ : 3d6 , x = 4 (unpaired electrons) µ = 4 (4 + 2) BM = 4.9 BM III or (ii) as[ Fe(H2O)6 ]3+ = High spin octahedral complex of Fe3+ . Fe3 + : 3d5 , x = 5, µ = 5 (5 + 2) = 5.92 BM [H2O is a neutral weak field ligand] So, [ Fe(H2O)6 ]2+ will be the cationic specie, µ = 4.9 BM. [ Fe(CN)6 ] will have two anionic complexes II II. (i) [ Fe(CN)6 ]4– ⇒ Low spin, octahedral complex of Fe2+ . As CN− is a strong ligand it will pair up the electrons. 272 Coordination Compounds The octahedral homoleptic complex sp3d 2-hybridisation in the complex, i.e. d2sp3 Fe2+(3d6) sp3d2-hybridisation n=0, µ=0 Mn2+= III or, (ii) [ Fe(CN)6 ]3– ⇒ Low spin octahedral complex of Fe3+ . 3d n=1, µ=√1(1+2) =1.73 BM Metal Configuration Number of ions unpaired electrons Thus, the calculated spin only magnetic moments (BM) of the anionic and cationic species of [ Fe(H2O)6 ]2 and [ Fe(CN)6 ] respectively are 4.9 and 0. 11. cis-[Pt(Cl)2 (NH3 )2 ] is known as cis-platin. It is a σ-bonded organo-metallic compound and is used as an anti-tumor agent in the treatment of cancer. Cl 12. Key Idea In presence of strong field ligands, ∆ 0 > p, for fourth electron it is more energetically favourable to occupy t2 g orbital with configuration t24geg0and form low spin complexes. The correct order of the spin only magnetic moment of metal ions in the given low-spin complexes is V2+ > Cr 2+ > Ru 3+ > Fe2+ . All the given complexes possess strong field ligands (CN, NH3 ). Hence, readily form low spin complexes. No. of unpaired electrons Orbital splitting eg [V(CN)6]4– V 2+ 3 0 t2g eg 3 t2g eg [Cr(NH3)6]2+ Cr2+ 4 t2g eg0 2 t2g 3 Fe2+ (d6 ) = t2g4eg2 4 4.9 Cr2+ (d 4 ) = t23geg1 4 4.9 t23geg2 5 5.9 (d 3 ) = t23geg0 3 3.9 5 2+ (d ) = Therefore, Co 2+ and V 2+ contains same value of magnetic moment (3.9 BM). 15. In K3 [Co(CN)6 ], Co have +3 oxidation state and electronic configuration of Co3 + is [Ar ] 18 3d 6. 3d6 4p0 4s0 Co3+= As, CN − is a strong field ligands so it pairs up the de− s ∴ 3d6 [Co(CN)6]3–= Inner orbital complex XX XX XX XX XX XX d2sp3 -hybridised (6e− pairs donated by 6 CN− ligands) In an octahedral complex, the metal is at the centre of the octahedron and the ligands are at the six corners. The lobes of the eg orbitals (dx2 − y2 and dz2 ) point along the axes x , y and z under the influence of an octahedral field, the d- orbitals split as follow. eg [Ru(NH3)6]3+ Ru3+ (d 7 ) = t25geg2 V2+ Cl Complex Oxidation Configuration state Co2+ Spin only Magnetic moment (in BM) = n (n + 2) 3.9 Mn Pt H3 N 4d complexes. In[M (H2O)6 ]Cl2, M exist in +2 oxidation state. The arrangement of electrons in the given metal ions are as follows: (Not in options) II 4p 14. As H2O is a weak field ligand. It readily forms high spin [CN − is an anionic strong field ligand] So,the anionic species is [Fe(CN)6 ]4− , µ = 0 H3 N 4s Thus, 5 unpaired electrons are present in the complex which suggest the presence of a weak ligand like NCS − . d2sp3 Fe3+ ⇒ (3d5) suggests t25g eg0 dx2-y2, dz 2 1 t2g eg [Fe(CN)6]4– Fe2+ t26g eg0 0 t2g 13. The magnetic moment of the magnitude 5.9 BM suggest the presence of 5 unpaired electrons in Mn(II). This can be cross verified by putting the value (5) of unpaired electrons in the formula, µ = n(n + 2) BM Thus, the valence electronic configuration of Mn(II) in the complex is Mn2+= 3d 4s 4p 4d Average d-orbitals energy of in free ion the d-orbitals in a spherical crystal field dxy, dyz, dxz Splitting of d-orbitals in an octahedral crystal field As the d-orbitals, i.e. dx2 − y2 and dz2 are vacant. Hence, these both orbitals are directly facing the ligands in K3 [Co(CN)6 ]. 16. Mn 2 (CO)10 is an organometallic compound due to the presence of MnC bond. The metal-carbon bond in organometallic compounds possess both σ and-π character. The MC σ bond is formed by the donation of lone pair of electrons from the carbonyl carbon into a vacant orbital of the metal. The MC π-bond is formed by the donation of pair of Coordination Compounds Here, C2O24 − is a bidentate ligand, electrons from a filled d-orbital of metal into vacant antibonding π * orbital of CO. The M L bonding creates a synergic effect which strengthens the bond between CO and the metal. ¾ O¾ CO CO CO CO Mn Mn CO CO CO ¾ ¾ M (Metal) M C2O24 − So, total number of sites offered by and H2O ligands around Th(IV) = Coordination number of Th (IV) CO written as: = 4 × 2(by C2O24 −) + 2 × 1(by H2O) = 10 19. (A) Co is present in vitamin B12 (iii) having molecular formula, II O C63H88 CoN14O14P. C CO (B) Zn is present in carbonic anhydrase (iv) in which three histidine units and the —OH group coordinate with one Zn (II) ion. OC——Co——–Co——CO OC C¾O ¾ O ¾ and H2 O is a monodentate ligand, H2O CO 17. The structure of Co2 (CO)8 (a polynuclear metal carbonyl) can be OC C¾O ¾ The structure of Mn 2(CO)10 is shown below : CO 273 CO C (C) Rh is present in Wilkinson catalyst (i) having molecular formula [(Ph 3P)3 RhCl] . O Total number of bridging CO ligands = 2 and the Co Co bond = 1 (D) Mg is present in chlorophyll (ii) having molecular formula II 18. Coordination number is defined as the total number of ligands to C55H70O6N4 Mg (chlorophyll-b). which the metal is directly attached. 20. The difference in the number of unpaired electrons of different metal ions in their high spin and low spin octahedral complexes are given in the table below : Metal ion Mn Fe Ni Number of e− in high spin complex ( n1 ) 2+ 3d 2+ 4s 3d 3d 4d 4d n1=5 n2=1 3d 2+ 4p Number of e− in low spin complax ( n2 ) 4s 4p 3d 4d 4d n1=4 n2=0 4s n2 − n1 4s 4p 5 −1 = 4 4s 4p 4−0 = 4 4p 4d n1=2 Ni 2+ does not form low spin octahedral complexes. Co2+ 3d 4s 4p III III CoCl3 + 2en → [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl 4s 4d 4d ∴ n1=3 ∴ n1=1 21. According to the situation given in question, reactions are as follows: 3d 4p •• CH2 — N H2 en = ethylene-1, 2-diamine, CH2 — NH2 •• 3 −1 = 2 274 Coordination Compounds ∆(CFSE) is measured with help of wavelength of the colour absorbed by the given coordination compound, as c ∆ O = hν = h × λ Both the complexes contain three unpaired electrons. Therefore, both are paramagnetic. Cl en Cl Co Cl III en Cl en en Cl Co Cl ‘B’ Optically inactive (trans-form) (Green) ‘A’ Optically active (cis-form) (Violet) 27. Fluoride ions help in making teeth enamel harder by converting i.e. Hydroxy apatite to [3Ca 3 (PO4 )2 ⋅ Ca(OH)2 ] [3Ca 3 (PO4 )2 ⋅ CaF2 ] i.e., Fluorapatite (Harder teeth enamel) via following reaction: 22. Wilkinson’s catalyst is a σ-bonded organometallic compound [(Ph 3P)3 RhCl] . It is commercially used for hydrogenation of alkenes and vegetable oils (unsaturated). IUPAC name Chloridotris (triphenylphosphene) rhodium (I). [3Ca 3 (PO4 ) 2 ⋅ Ca(OH) 2 ] + 2F − → [3Ca 3 (PO4 ) 2 ⋅ CaF2 ] + 2OH− From drinking water 28. Molarity (M) = 23. In homoleptic complexes, the metal atom/ion is linked to only ∴ Number of moles of complex one type of ligand. Assuming, ligands are neutral, the octahedral complexes of M 3+ can be, [ M (L1 )6 ]3+ ,[ M (L2 )6 ]3+ and [ M (L3 )6 ]3+ (I) (II) Green λ Absorption L3 So, λ III > λLI1 > λLII2 ∴∆°absorption : ∆LII2 > ∆LI1 > ∆LIII3 = (III) Blue We know, ligand strength ∝ ∆°absorption ∴2 Cl − are present outside the square brackets, i.e. in ionisation sphere. Thus, the formula of complex is So, the increasing order of the ligand strength will be, L3 < L1 < L2 [Co(H2 O) 5 Cl]Cl 2 ⋅H2 O. 29. 4 Q ∆t = ∆o 9 So, the octahedral complexes (a, b, c) have higher ∆ o values than that of tetrahedral, K2[CoCl 4 ]. Now, for the complexes, a, b and c, the magnitude of ∆ o ∝ ligand strength, which is based on their positions in the spectrochemical series. Cl − < H2O < NH3 < CN− We know, ∆t < ∆o Hence, K3[Co(CN)6 ] will have the highest ∆ value. 25. The spin only magnetic moment (µ) (in BM) is given by µ(in BM) = n(n + 2) where, n = number of unpaired electrons The highest value of n in transition metal complex is 5 in its d 5-configuration. ∴ µ = 5(5 + 2)BM = 5.916BM 26. ‘A’ absorbs yellow light of less energy and emits violet light of high energy (complementary colour) because H2O is a weak field ligand. But in case of ‘B’, due to presence of strong field ligand (NH3 ), it absorbs high energy violet light and emits low energy complementary yellow colour. . × 1022 12 = 0.02 moles 6.02 × 1023 ∴Number of Cl − present in ionisation sphere Number of moles of ions precipitated 0.02 = =2 = 0.01 Number of moles of complex 1 [QEnergy (∆, CFSE) ∝ ] λ except K 2[CoCl 4], which is a tetrahedral complex of Co (II) (sp3-hybridised). Molarity × volume (in mL) 01 . × 100 = = 0.01 mole 1000 1000 Number of moles of ions precipitate = Red (wavelength) 24. All of the complex given are the octahedral complexes of Co (III) Number of moles of solute Volume of solution (in L) Complex ion Electronic configuration of metal ion [Cr(H2O)6 ]2+ Cr 2+ ; [Ar] 3 d 4 ;4 [Fe(H2O)6 ]2+ Fe 2+ ; [Ar] 3 d6 ; 4 [Mn(H2O)6 ]2+ Mn2+ ; [Ar] 3 d 5 ;5 [CoCl 4 ]2− Co 2+ ; [Ar] 3 d 7 ;3 Number of unpaired electrons (n) 30. Compounds Hybridisation Unpaired electron(s) Ni(CO)4 [NiCl 4 ] 2− [Co(NH3 )4 Cl 2 ]Cl sp3 Magnetic character No Diamagnetic 3 two Paramagnetic 3 2 No Diamagnetic sp sp d 3 2 three Paramagnetic Na 2O2 — No Diamagnetic (O22 − ) CsO2 — One Paramagnetic Na 3[CoF6 ] sp d O−2 (superoxide ion is paramagnetic) 32. This problem is based on conceptual mixing of properties of lithium oxide and preparation, properties of coordination compounds. To answer this question, keep in mind that on adding acid, ammine complexes get destroyed. (a) Li 2O + KCl → 2LiCl + K2O This is wrong equation, since a stronger base K2O cannot be generated by a weaker base Li 2O. (b) [CoCl(NH3 )5 ]+ + 5H+ → Co2+ ( aq) + 5 NH4+ + Cl − +2 26 +2 [Ar]3d 5 5 35 BM 3 15 BM 4 24 BM weak ligand Q : [V(H2O)6 ]2+ [Ar] weak ligand R :[Fe(H2O)6 ]2+ [Ar]3d6 Thus, order of spin-only magnetic moment = Q < R < P 35. In the given complex, NiCl 2 {P (C2H5 )2 (C6H5 )}2 nickel is in + 2 oxidation state and the ground state electronic configuration of Ni 2+ ions in free gaseous state is 4s0 3d 8 4p0 2+ Ni For the given four coordinated complex to be paramagnetic, it must possess unpaired electrons in the valence shell. To satisfy this condition, four lone pairs from the four ligands occupies the four sp3-hybrid orbitals as : Therefore, geometry of paramagnetic complex must be tetrahedral. On the otherhand, for complex to be diamagnetic, there should not be any unpaired electrons in the valence shell. This condition can be fulfilled by pairing electrons of 3d-orbitals against Hund’s rule as λ L1 L2 L3 L4 Absorbed light Red Green Yellow Blue Wavelength of absorbed light decreases. ∴ Increasing order of energy of wavelengths absorbed reflect greater extent of crystal field splitting, hence, higher field strength of the ligand. Energy blue (L4 ) > green (L 2 ) > yellow (L 3 ) > red (L 1 ) ∴ L4 > L2 > L3 > L1 in field strength of ligands. 34. 36. For a diamagnetic complex, there should not be any unpaired electron in the valence shell of central metal. In K3[Fe(CN)6], Fe (III) has d 5-configuration (odd electrons), hence it is paramagnetic. In [Co(NH3)6]Cl3, Co (III) has d 6-configuration in a strong ligand field, hence all the electrons are paired and the complex is diamagnetic. In Na3[Co(ox)3], Co (III) has d 6-configuration and oxalate being a chelating ligand, very strong ligand and all the six electrons remains paired in lower t2g level, diamagnetic. In [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2, Ni (II) has 3d 8 -configuration and H2O is a weak ligand, hence 3d sp3d 2 : : : : : In the presence of strong ligand (as CN− , CO, NH3 , en) electrons are paired and electrons from ligands are filled in available inner orbitals dsp2 The above electronic arrangement gives dsp2-hybridisation and therefore, square planar geometry to the complex. : PLAN Spin only magnetic moment have the formula n( n + 2) BM, where N is the number of unpaired electrons. In the presence of weak ligand (as H 2O, Cl − , F − ) there is no pairing of electrons, and electrons donated by ligands are filled in outer vacant orbitals. : L4, according to wavelength of their absorbed light, then use of the following relation to answer the question. Ligand field strength ∝ Energy of light absorbed 1 ∝ Wavelength of light absorbed : 3d 8 33. Arrange the complex formed by different ligands L 1 , L 2 , L 3 and : Ni2+ : (d) The 4th reaction is incorrect. It can be correctly represented as 2CuSO4 + 10KCN → 2K3[Cu(CN)4 ] + 2K2SO4 + (CN)2 ↑ : sp3 (c) [Mg (H2O)6 ]2+ + EDTA4− → [ Mg( EDTA)]2+ + 6H2O This is wrong, since the formula of complex must be [Mg(EDTA)]2+ as EDT. : : Ni2+ OH− Excess Magnetic moment 23 Unpaired electrons +3 275 E.C. 26 : This is correct. All ammine complexes can be destroyed by adding H ⊕ . Hence, on adding acid to [CoCl(NH3 )5 ], it gets converted to Co2+ ( aq)+ NH+4 and Cl − . P : [FeF6 ]3 − O.N. ∴ In MnO−4 , Mn has + 7 oxidation state having no electron in d-orbitals. It is considered that higher the oxidation state of metal, greater is the tendency to occur L →M charge transfer, because ligand is able to donate the electron into the vacant d-orbital of metal. Since, charge transfer is laporate as well as spin allowed, therefore, it shows colour. Time saving Technique There is no need to check all the four options. Just find out the oxidation state of metal ion. If oxidation state is highest and ligand present there is of electron donating nature, gives LMCT, which shows more intense colour. Atomic number of 31. KMnO4 → K + + MnO4− Complex Coordination Compounds Paramagnetic 276 Coordination Compounds NiCl 2 (PPh 3 )2 , Ni 2+ has 3d 8 -configuration. Due to weak ligand field, Ni is sp3-hybridised and complex is tetrahedral. In K2[Pt(CN)4], Pt(II) has d 8 -configuration and CN– is a strong ligand, hence all the eight electrons are spin paired . Therefore, complex is diamagnetic. In [Zn(H2O)6](NO3)2, Zn (II) has 3d 10configuration with all the ten electrons spin paired, hence diamagnetic. 37. Magnetic moment = 2.83 BM indicates that there is two unpaired 48. Cu 2+ + CN− → CuCN ↓ CuCN + 3CN− → [Cu(CN)4 ]3 − 49. Fe in [Fe(H2O)6 ]2+ has maximum (four) unpaired electrons, has highest paramagnetism. electrons. u = n(n + 2) BM = 8 BM = 2.82 BM − 8 2− In [NiCl 4 ] , Ni has d configuration and Cl is a weak ligand : 3d : Ni : : : 2+ 4s 4p 3 sp -hybridisation 6 38. In Cr(CO)6 : 3d , has no unpaired electrons, zero magnetic moment. 39. CuF2 : Cu 2+ has 3d 9 -configuration, allowed d-d transition, hence, coloured. 40. In Ni(CO)4, Ni is sp3-hybridised while in [Ni(CN)4 ] 2− , Ni 2+ is dsp2-hybridised. 41. Greater the extent of dπ - pπ back bonding, smaller will be the 50. In Ni (CO)4, Ni has 3d 10-configuration, diamagnetic. In Ni (CN)4 ]2− , Ni has 3d 8 -configuration but due to strong ligand field, all the d-electrons are spin paired giving dsp2-hybridisation, diamagnetic. In [NiCl 4 ]2− , Ni has 3d 8 -configuration and there is two unpaired electrons (weak chloride ligand do not pair up d - electrons), hence paramagnetic. 51. Salt with least number of unpaired electrons in d - orbital of central metal will show lowest degree of paramagnetism Mn 2+ (3d 5, 5 unpaired electrons) Cu 2+ (3d 9 , 1 unpaired electrons) Fe2+ (3d6, 4 unpaired electrons) Ni 2+ (3d 8 , 2 unpaired electrons) Hence, CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2O has lowest degree of paramagnetism. 52. (a) In [FeCl 4 ]− , oxidation number of Fe atom = + 3 Electronic configuration of Fe in ground state = 3d6 4 s2 bond order of CO bond in metal carbonyls. In Fe(CO)5, there is maximum number of valence shell electrons (d-electrons), greatest chances of pπ - dπ back bonding, lowest bond order of CO bond. Electronic configuration of Fe3+ = 3d 5 4 s0 4 p0 Cl 42. In CO, bond order = 3. In metal carbonyls like Fe(CO)5, due to dπ - pπ back-bonding, bond order of CO decreases slightly therefore, bond length increases slightly. 43. In Hg [Co(SCN)4 ], Co2+ has 3d 7 configuration. SCN − produces weak ligand field, no pairing of electrons in d-orbitals occurs against Hund’s rule, hence : Co2+ : µ = 3 (3 + 2) BM = 15 BM 3d7 Cl Cl Cl sp 3-hybridisation Thus, [FeCl 4] − has tetrahedral geometry. (b) [Co(en)(NH3 )2 Cl 2 ]+ have three geometrical isomers. Thus, statement (b) is incorrect. NH3 Cl NH3 en Co3+ Cl en Co3+ Cl Tetrahedral sp3-hybridisation 3d 8 4s Under influence of weak ligand field In all other complexes, hybridisation at central metal is dsp2 and complexes have square planar geometries. 45. In 1 L solution, there will be 0.01 mole of each [Co(NH3 )5 SO4 ] Br and [Co(NH3 )5 Br]SO4. Addition of excess of AgNO3 will give 0.01 mole of AgBr. Addition of excess of BaCl 2 will give 0.01 mole of BaSO4. 46. In MnO−4 , Mn + 7 has 3d 0 configuration. by CO. Hence, Ni is sp3-hybridised and complex is tetrahedral. In Co3+ NH3 Cl NH3 (c) Fe 3+ in [FeCl 4 ]− is sp3-hybridised with 5 unpaired electrons. (higher spin-only magnetic moment in While = n(n + 2 ) = 5.92 BM ). Co3+ [Co(en)(NH3 )2 Cl 2 ]+ is d 2sp3-hybridised with zero unpaired electrons (low spin-only magnetic moment = n(n + 2 ) = 0 BM). Thus, the statement (c) is correct. (d) Co3+ [Co(en)(NH3 )2 Cl 2 ]+ eg ∆0>P Co3+ : [Ar]3d6 10 47. In Ni (CO)4, Ni is in 3d state due to strong ligand field produced Cl en Cl NH3 44. [NiCl 4 ]2 − : Ni 2+ (3d 8 ) NH3 t2g Coordination Compounds Co3+ in [Co(en)(NH3 )2 Cl 2 ]+ is d 2sp3-hybridised and has octahedral geometry with 0 unpaired electron. Thus, statement (d) is incorrect. 53. SnCl2 + Cl – Tin chloride (Q) 55. Statement wise explanation is Statement (a) [Co(en)(NH3 )3 H2O ]3+ have following 2 geometrical isomers. NH3 Sn Cl Cl Cl – SnCl3 (X ) en Me N Me Me (3°amine) (Q) (Y ) Cl Cl +2 +4 [ M ( AA )b3 c] type complex Hence, this is correct statement. Statement (b) If bidentate ligand ‘en’ is replaced by two cyanide ligands then [Co(NH3 )3 (H2O)(CN)2 ]+ is formed. It is [ Ma3 b2 c ] type complex which has following 3 geometrical isomers. +1 NH3 SnCl4 + 2CuCl (Q) (Z ) N Oxidation Z is oxidised product and oxidation state of Sn is +4 in Z compound. Structure of SnCl 4 (Z ) is Cl Sn Cl NH3 NH3 C N C NH3 NH3 C N Valence shell having 8 electrons in complex formation Ni(3d8,4s2) 4p [Fe(CO)5] 3d 4s 4p H2O NH3 C NH3 (Mer) Hence, this statement is also correct. Statement (c) Co metal has [ Ar ]3d 7 4 s2 configuration while in [Co(en)(NH3 )3 (H2O )]3+ it is in +3 oxidation state. Thus, Co 3+ has [Ar]3d6 configuration. 3d Rearrangement dsp3 4s 3d Co3+ = As en is a strong ligand, so pairing will occur [Ni(CO)4] Rearrangement CN Fac with respect to NH3 and Mer with respect to —CN Co (i) Statement (a) The total number of valence shell electrons at metal centre in Fe(CO)5 or Ni(CO)4 is 8 instead of 16 as shown below 4s NH3 H2O H2O (Fac) N NH3 C Co 54. Statement wise explanation is 3d N Co Cl Cl Thus, options (a, d) are correct. Fe(3d6,4s2) NH3 NH3 Mer H2O Fac Sn Reduction +2 Co NH3 Y complex has coordinate bond in between nitrogen and Sn metal. SnCl2 + 2CuCl2 H2O en Co SnCl −3 has (3σ + 1lp) and exist in pyramidal structure. SnCl2 × NMe3 NH3 NH3 sp3 (pyramidal) SnCl2+Me3N 277 sp3 Hence, this statement is incorrect. (ii) Statement (b) Carbonyl complexes are predominantly low spin complexes due to strong ligand fields. Hence, this statement is correct. (iii) Statement (c) For central metal lowering of oxidation state results to increase in electron density on it. This in turn results to increase in extent of synergic bonding. Thus, we can say ‘‘metal carbonyl bond strengthens, when oxidation state of metal is lowered’’. Hence, it is a correct statement. (iv) Statement (d) Increase in positive charge on metal (i.e., increase in oxidation state) results to decrease in synergic bonding strength. This in turn makes C—O bond stronger instead of weaker. Hence this statement is also incorrect. 4s Due to the presence of all paired electrons it show diamagnetic behaviour rather than paramagnetic. Hence, this statement is incorrect. Statement (d) According to CFT, absorption of light by coordination complexes depends upon CFSE i.e., crystal field splitting energy (∆ 0 )as 1 ∆0 ∝ λ Among the complexes given [Co (en) (NH3)4 ]3+ has more ∆ 0 value as compared to complex [Co(en) (NH3)3(H2O) ]3+ . Thus, [Co (en) (NH3)3(H2O) ]3+ absorbs the light at longer wavelength for d-d transition. Hence, this statement is also correct. Note : For any complex, the value of ∆ 0 can be calculated via the difference or gap between eg and t2g values. 278 Coordination Compounds 61. For, P i.e. dsp2, It is seen in [Ni(CN)4 ]2 − Excess NH 4 OH / NH 4 Cl 56. [Co(H2O) 6 ] Cl 2 → Co(NH3 ) 6 ]Cl 3 O 2 (Air) Pink (X) Ni [Ar]3d 8 4 s2 Y 2+ [Co(H2 O) 6 ] + 4Cl − 2− (Excess) X → [CoCl 4 ] Ni2+ [Ar]3d 8 blue Z 3d (a) Since NH3 is moderately strong ligand, hybridisation of cobalt in Y is d 2sp3. (b) Cobalt is sp3-hybridised in [CoCl 4 ]2− . (c) [Co(NH 3 ) 6 ]Cl 3 + 3AgNO3 (aq) → 3AgCl ↓ Y (d) [CoCl 4 ]2− + 6H2O q Blue [Co(H2O)6 ] 2+ + 4Cl − ; ∆H < 0 Cl (a) Cl N1 en N2 (b ) Mn en Cl (a) dsp2-hybridisation 3d 4s 4p Ni2+ CN– CN– CN– CN– Cl (b) Structure : Square planar So correct match for P is 6. For Q i.e., sp3 Mn N 4p as CN − is a strong ligand so when it approaches towards central metal pairing of unpaired electrons takes place. Thus, in[Ni(CN)4 ]2 − Pink 57. The structure of cis-[ Mn (en )2 Cl 2 ] complex is 4s Ni2+ N4 3 Bond angles (Mn—N and Mn—Cl bond in cis positions) Cl (a) —— Mn —— N(1) Cl (a) —— Mn —— N(2) Cl (a) —— Mn —— N(4) Cl (b) —— Mn —— N1 Cl (b) —— Mn —— N3 Cl (b) —— Mn —— N4 Number of cis Cl—Mn—N = 6 58. In the complex [Fe(H2O)5 NO]SO4, Fe is in +1 oxidation state It is seen in [FeCl4 ]2 − and Ni(CO)4 Fe − [Ar]3d6 4 s2 Fe 2+ − [Ar]3d6 3d 4s 4p Fe2+ As Cl − is a weak ligand so when it approaches towards central metal pairing of unpaired electrons does not take place. Thus, in[FeCl4 ]2 − because NO is in +1 state. Also NO is a strong ligand, complex has 3d 7 -configuration at Fe(I) as : sp3 hybridisation 3d 4s 4p Cl– Cl– Cl– Cl– 4s 4p Fe2+ 3d7 Structure-Tetrahedral Likewise in Ni(CO)4 Ni [Ar]3d 8 4 s2 Strong ligand field 3d Ni Three unpaired electrons 59. A is diamagnetic, square planar complex because of strong ligand field of CN− . Ni(CN)42 –(Ni2+) : As CO is a strong ligand, hence when it approaches towards central metal atom pairing of unpaired electron of central atom takes place. Thus, in Ni(CO)4 sp3 hybridisation dsp2 Diamagnetic 3d B is paramagnetic, tetrahedral complex because of weak ligand field of Cl − . NiCl42 –(Ni2+) : sp 3 Paramagnetic 60. Described in 2, A has dsp2 hybridisation while B has sp3-hybridisation of Ni. 4s 4p CO CO CO CO Ni Structure Tetrahedral So, for Q-4 and 5 are correct match. For R i.e., sp3d 2 It is seen in [FeF6]4− Fe [Ar]3d6 4 s2 Fe 2+ [Ar]3d6 Coordination Compounds 3d 4s Coordination compounds of [MA4 B2 ] type show geometrical isomerism. Molecular orbital electronic configuration (MOEC) for various coordination compound can be drawn using VBT as 4d 4p Fe2+ As F − is a weak field ligand hence, when it approaches towards central metal atom, pairing of its electrons does not take place. Thus, in[FeF6 ]4 − A. MO EC for [Cr(NH3 )4 Cl 2 ]Cl is 3d 4s 4p F– F– F– F– NH3NH3 NH3 NH3Cl Cl Number of unpaired electrons (n) = 3 Magnetic properties = paramagnetic Geometrical isomers of [Cr(NH3 )4 Cl 2 ]+ are 4d Fe2+ F– F– Structure : Octahedral So, 1 is the correct match for R. For S i.e., d 2 sp 3 Cl H 3N It is seen in [Ti(H2O)3 Cl3 ] and[Cr(NH3 )6 ]3+ 2 Ti [Ar]3d 4 s 4s B. 4p 4s NH3 Cr H2O H2O H2O Cl– Cl– Cl– Structure Octahedral Likewise in [Cr(NH3)6]3+ Cr [Ar]3d 5 4 s1 NH3 H3N Cl 4s C. MOEC of [Pt(en)(NH3 )Cl]NO3 is ×× ×× en en ×× ×× ×× NH3 Cl n=0 Magnetic property = diamagnetic Ionisation isomers are [Pt(en)2 (NH3 )Cl]NO3 and [Pt(en)2 NH3 (NO3 )]Cl ×× ×× 4p Cr3+ Here, NH 3 is also a weak field ligand so due to its approach no pairing takes place in Cr. Thus, In[Cr(NH3 )6 ]3+ NO3 4p NH3 NH3 NH3 NH3 So for, S-2 and 3 are the correct match. PLAN This problem is based on concept of VBT and magnetic properties of coordination compound. Draw VBT for each coordination compound. If unpaired electron is present then coordination compound will be paramagnetic otherwise diamagnetic. ×× ×× ×× n=0 Magnetic property = Diamagnetic Geometrical isomers are H3N Cr3+– ×× NH3NH3 NH3 NH3NO3NO3 d2sp3 hybridisation 4s Trans D. MOEC of [Co(NH3 )4 (NO3 )2 ]NO3 Cr 3+ [Ar]3d 3 4 s0 3d + n=1 Magnetic properties = paramagnetic Ionisation isomers of [Ti(H2O)5 Cl](NO3 )2 are 4p Ti3+ 62. and NH3 [Ti(H2O)5 Cl](NO3 )2 and [Ti(H2O)5 (NO3 )]Cl(NO3 ) d2sp3 hybridisation NH3 NH3 Cr NH3 Here, both H2O and Cl are weak ligands So, in[Ti(H2O)3 Cl3 ] 3d H3 N Cl Cis Ti3+ 3d Cl + H 3N 2 Ti3+ [Ar]3d 1 3d 4p 4s ×× ×× ×× ×× ×× ×× sp3d2 hybridisation 3d 279 NH3 NH3 CO NH3 H3N NO3 Trans NO3 and CO NH3 NH3 NO3 NH3 Cis Thus, magnetic property and isomerism in given coordination compound can be summarised as (P) [Cr(NH3 )4 Cl 2 ]Cl → Paramagnetic and exhibits cis-trans isomerism (3) (Q) [Ti(H2O)5 Cl](NO3 )2 → Paramagnetic and exhibits ionisation isomerism (1) Coordination Compounds (R) [Pt(en)(NH3 )Cl]NO3 → Diamagnetic and ionisation isomerism (4) (S) [Co(NH3 )4 (NO3 )2 ]NO3 → Diamagnetic and cis-trans isomerism (2) ∴ P → 3, Q → 1, R → 4, S → 2 Hence, (b) is the correct choice. exhibits 3d d2sp3 exhibits Spin only magnetic moment (µ s ) = 1 (1 + 2) BM = 3 BM Hence, difference in spin only magnetic moment 63. (A) [Co(NH3 )4 (H2O)2 ]Cl 2:Co2+ , 3d 7 show geometrical isomerism, paramagnetic. (B) Pt(NH3 )2 Cl 2:Pt 2+ has d 8 -configuration with all paired electrons. Show geometrical isomerism, diamagnetic. (C) [Co(H2O)5 Cl]Cl : Co2+ , 3d 7 Cannot show geometrical isomerism, paramagnetic. (D) [Ni(H2O)6 ]Cl 2: Ni 2+ , 3d 8 , weak ligand, has two unpaired electrons. Paramagnetic but cannot show geometrical isomerism. 64. Complex part is cationic, named first : [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl 3 : hexaammine cobalt (III) chloride. − 65. False : Cyanide (CN ) is a strong ligand, brings about pairing of 3d electrons. = 35 − 3 ≈ 4 BM (II) Et3P C O CH2COO – The structure of a chelate of a divalent Co2+ with EDTA is shown as H2C H2C CH2 CH2 CO H 2C O Potassium ferrocyanide N — No unpaired electron, diamagnetic Has one unpaired electron, paramagnetic 66. False : Lobes of 3dx2 − y2 orbitals lies in X Y plane on the X and Y coordinate axes, therefore electron density of dx2 − y2 orbital in X Y plane is non-zero. 2 3+ H3C C C 5 4s 3d 5(n-5) 4d sp3d2 Spin only magnetic moment (µ s ) = 5 (5 + 2) BM = 35 BM In case of CN− ligand, carbon is the donor atom , it produces strong ligand field and forms low spin complex as 5 [Fe(CN)6 ] : Fe (3d ) 3 O CO O N N H N N O 4p 4 Co CO C CH 3 Ni H3C [ Fe(SCN)6 ] : Fe (3d ) = CH2 Each N has four N Co O bonds thus total eight N Co O bonds. 70. H H O O 67. When S is donor atom of SCN−, it produces weak ligand field and forms high spin complex as N 1 CO O 3+ 2 N—CH2CH2—N OOCCH2 3− acetylbromidodicarbonylbis (triethylphosphine)iron (II) PLAN EDTA is a multidentate ligand as it can donate six pairs of electrons – two pair from the two nitrogen atoms and four pair from the four terminal oxygens of the COO − groups. – CH COO – OOCCH2 Potassium ferrocyanide O C CH 3 Fe Et3P 69. O Br C 68. – 3− 4p 4s == 280 H C CH 3 O Ni-DMG complex Oxidation state of Ni is +2 and hybridisation is dsp2. µ = 0 (no unpaired electron) hence, diamagnetic. 71. The spin-only magnetic moment (µ) of the complex is 1.73 BM. It indicates that nucleus of complex, chromium ion has one unpaired electron. So, the ligand NO is unit positively charged. Coordination Compounds 281 In both A and B, hybridisation of chromium is d 2sp3 and magnetic moment : µ = n (n + 2) BM = 0 K2[Cr(NO) (CN)4 (NH3 )] potassium amminetetracyanonitrosoniumchromate (I) Cr+1 : (3d6, strong ligand, no unpaired electron) 3d 5 4s0 Cr(I) “under influence of strong ligand field”. NH3 74. 3+ H3N NC NH3 d 2sp3 H3N CN NC d 2sp3-octahedral 2– CN dsp2-square planar CO Cr NC NC NH3 NH3 NO 2– Ni Co Octahedral CN Ni NH3 OC CN CO CO sp3-tetrahedral Octahedral geometry 75. A has no water molecules of crystallisation. 72. [NiCl 4 ] 2 − : Ni 2+ (3d 8 ), weak ligand field. Hence, A is [Cr(H2O)6 ]Cl 3. Both B and C loses weight with concentrated H2SO4, therefore, both B and C have some water molecules of crystallisation. Moreover, weight loss with C is just double of the same with B indicates that number of water molecules of crystallisation of C is double of the same for B. Therefore, B has one and C has two water molecules of crystallisation. B = [Cr(H2O)5 Cl]Cl 2 ⋅ H2O, C = [Cr(H2O)4 Cl 2 ]Cl ⋅ 2H2O Ni2+(3d 8) : sp3 µ = n (n + 2) ΒΜ = 8 ΒM [Ni(CN)4 ]2 − : Ni 2+ (3d 8 ) , strong ligand field. Ni2+(3d 8) : dsp2 Square planar µ = 0 (no unpaired electron) 73. In complexes A and B, one halide (Cl − or Br − ) is outside coordination sphere, i.e. complexes are : [Cr(NH3 )4 Br2 ]Cl and [Cr(NH3 )4 BrCl]Br A gives white precipitate AgCl with excess of AgNO3 which dissolve in excess ammonia. Therefore, A must be [Cr(NH3 )4 Br2 ]Cl. B gives a pale yellow precipitate with excess of AgNO3, which dissolve in concentrated ammonia solution. Therefore, precipitate is AgBr and complex B is [Cr(NH3 )4 ClBr]Br. 76. (i) [Ti(NO3 )4 ]: Ti 4+ (3d 0 ) No d-electron, no d-d transition possible, colourless. (ii) [Cu(NCCH3 )]BF4 : Cu + (3d 10 ) All d-orbitals are completely filled, no d-d transition possible, colourless. (iii) [Cr(NH3 )6 ]Cl 3 : Cr 3+ (3d 3 ) Complex has allowed d-d-transitions from t2g to eg level, hence coloured. (iv) K3[VF6 ]: V3+ (3d 2 ) Complex has allowed d-d-transitions from t2g to eg level, hence coloured. 77. I− is a strong reducing agent, reduces Cu 2+ to Cu + and precipitate out as stable CuI. 19 Extraction of Metals Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 7. Match the refining methods Column I with metals Column II. 1. The processes of calcination and roasting in metallurgical industries, respectively, can lead to Column I (Refining Methods) (2020 Main, 4 Sep II) (a) global warming and acid rain (b) global warming and photochemical smog (c) photochemical smog and ozone layer depletion (d) photochemical smog and global warming 2. An Ellingham diagram provides information about (2020 Main, 5 Sep I) (a) the kinetics of the reduction process. (b) the pressure dependence of the standard electrode potentials of reduction reactions involved in the extraction of metals. (c) the temperature dependence of the standard Gibbs energies of formation of some metal oxides. (d) the conditions of pH and potential under which a species is thermodynamically stable. 3. Calamine, malachite, magnetite and cryolite, respectively, are (a) ZnCO3 , CuCO3 , Fe2 O3 , Na 3 AlF6 (b) ZnSO4 , CuCO3 , Fe2 O3 , AlF3 (c) ZnSO4 , Cu(OH)2 , Fe3 O4 , Na 3 AlF6 (2019 Adv.) (d) ZnCO3, CuCO3 ⋅ Cu(OH)2, Fe3O4, Na 3AlF6 4. The correct statement is (a) leaching of bauxite using concentrated NaOH solution gives sodium aluminate and sodium silicate. (2019 Main, 12 April II) (b) the hall-heroult process is used for the production of aluminium and iron. (c) pig iron is obtained from cast iron. (d) the blistered appearance of copper during the metallurgical process is due to the evolution of CO2. 5. The idea of froth floatation method came from a person X and this method is related to the process Y of ores. X and Y , respectively, are (2019 Main, 12 April I) (a) (b) (c) (d) fisher woman and concentration washer woman and concentration fisher man and reduction washer man and reduction 6. The correct statement is (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d) Column II (Metals) I. Liquation (A) Zr II. Zone refining (B) Ni III. Mond process (C) Sn IV. van Arkel method (D) Ga I- (C) ; II-(D); III-(B) ; IV-(A) I- (B) ; II-(C); III-(D) ; IV-(A) I- (C) ; II-(A); III-(B) ; IV-(D) I- (B) ; II-(D); III-(A) ; IV-(C) 8. The one that is not a carbonate ore is (a) siderite (b) calamine (c) malachite (2019 Main, 10 April I) (2019 Main, 9 April II) (d) bauxite 9. Assertion For the extraction of iron, haematite ore is used. Reason Heamatite is a carbonate ore of iron. (2019 Main, 9 April II) (a) Only the reason is correct. (b) Both the assertion and reason are correct explanation for the assertion. (c) Both the assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation for the assertion. (d) Only the assertion is correct. 10. The ore that contains the metal in the form of fluoride is (2019 Main, 9 April I) (a) magnetite (b) sphalerite (c) malachite 11. The Mond process is used for the (d) cryolite (2019 Main, 8 April II) (a) purification of Ni (b) extraction of Mo (c) purification of Zr and Ti (d) extraction of Zn 12. With respect to an ore, Ellingham diagram helps to predict the feasibility of its (a) electrolysis (c) vapour phase refining (2019 Main, 8 April I) (b) zone refining (d) thermal reduction 13. The pair that does not require calcination is (2019 Main, 12 Jan II) (2019 Main, 10 April II) zone refining process is used for the refining of titanium. zincite is a carbonate ore. sodium cyanide cannot be used in the metallurgy of silver. aniline is a froth stabiliser. (a) ZnO and MgO (c) ZnCO3 and CaO (b) ZnO and Fe2O3 ⋅ xH2O (d) Fe2O3 and CaCO3 ⋅ MgCO3 14. In the Hall-Heroult process, aluminium is formed at the cathode. The cathode is made out of (a) platinum (c) pure aluminium (2019 Main, 12 Jan I) (b) carbon (d) copper Extraction of Metals 283 22. From the following statements regarding H2 O2 choose the 15. The reaction that does not define calcination is ∆ (a) Fe2O3 ⋅ XH2O → Fe2O3 + XH2O (2019 Main, 11 Jan II) ∆ (b) ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2 ∆ (c) CaCO3 ⋅ MgCO3 → CaO + MgO + 2CO2 ∆ (d) 2Cu2S + 3O2 → 2Cu2O + 2SO2 Column A A. B. C. D. Column B Metals Zinc Copper Iron Aluminium P. Q. R. S. aqueous solution of its salts is (b) A - R; B- S; C - P; D- Q (d) A - R; B- S; C - Q; D- P 17. The electrolytes usually used in the electroplating of gold and silver, respectively, are (2019 Main, 10 Jan II) (a) [Au(OH) 4 ] − and [Ag(OH) 2 ] − (b) [Au(NH3 ) 2 ] + and [Ag(CN) 2 ] − − (c) [Au(CN) 2 ] and [Ag(CN) 2 ] − − (d) [Au(CN) 2 ] and [AgCl 2 ] 18. Hall-Heroult’s process is given by − (2019 Main, 10 Jan I) Coke, 1673 K (a) ZnO + C → Zn + CO (b) Cr2O3 + 2Al → Al 2O3 + 2Cr (c) 2Al 2O3 + 3C → 4Al + 3CO2 is (2019 Main, 9 Jan II) +O 2 4Cu → O 2Cu 2 ∆Gº (kJ/mol) 2C (a) (b) (c) (d) +O →2 2 26. In the cyanide extraction process of silver from argentite ore, the oxidising and reducing agents used are (a) (b) (c) (d) (2012) O2 and CO respectively O2 and Zn dust respectively HNO3 and Zn dust respectively HNO3 and CO respectively (a) (b) (c) (d) (2011) II, III in haematite and III in magnetite II, III in haematite and II in magnetite II in haematite and II, III in magnetite III in haematite and II, III in magnetite (a) electrolytic reduction (b) roasting followed by reduction with carbon (c) roasting followed by reduction with another metal (d) roasting followed by self-reduction O3 3 Al 2 → 2/ 500ºC 800ºC Temperature (ºC) 2000ºC (2019 Main, 9 Jan I) (b) azurite (d) copper pyrites 21. Which one of the following ores is best concentrated by froth floatation method? (2016 Main) (b) Galena (d) Magnetite (b) oxygen (d) argon (2008, 3M) 29. Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by CO 20. The ore that contains both iron and copper is (a) Siderite (c) Malachite (2013 Adv.) (b) Ag, Cu and Sn (d) Al, Cu and Pb dilute aqueous solution of NaCN in the presence of At 800°C, Cu can be used for the extraction of Zn from ZnO At 1400°C, Al can be used for the extraction of Zn from ZnO At 500°C, coke can be used for the extraction of Zn from ZnO Coke cannot be used for the extraction of Cu from Cu 2O (a) malachite (c) dolomite (a) Ag, Cu and Pb (c) Ag, Mg and Pb (a) nitrogen (c) carbon dioxide l+O 2 4/3 A –1050 25. Sulphide ores are common for the metals 28. Native silver metal forms a water soluble complex with a –300 O2 2Zn+ (2014 Main) (b) Ca (d) Cr magnetite, respectively, are 19. The correct statement regarding the given Ellingham diagram –600 (a) Ag (c) Cu 27. Oxidation states of the metal in the minerals haematite and (d) Cu2+ (aq) + H2 (g ) → Cu(s) + 2H+ (aq) nO → 2Z Al, which of the following statements is false? (2015 Main) (a) CO and CO2 are produced in this process (b) Al 2O3 is mixed with CaF2 which lowers the melting point of the mixture and brings conductivity (c) Al 3+ is reduced at the cathode to form Al (d) Na 3AlF6 serves as the electrolyte 24. The metal that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of an (2019 Main, 11 Jan I) (a) A - P; B- Q; C - R; D- S (c) A - Q; B- R; C - S; D- P (2015 Main) 23. In the context of the Hall-Heroult process for the extraction of 16. Match the ores ( Column A ) with the metals (Column B). Ores Siderite Kaolinite Malachite Calamine incorrect statement. (a) It can act only as an oxidising agent (b) It decomposed on exposure to light (c) It has to be stored in plastic or wax lined glass bottles in dark (d) It has to be kept away from dust 30. Which ore contains both iron and copper? (a) Cuprite (c) Chalcopyrite (2007, 3M) (2005, 1M) (b) Chalcocite (d) Malachite 31. The methods chiefly used for the extraction of lead and tin from their ores are respectively (2004, 1M) (a) self-reduction and carbon reduction (b) self-reduction and electrolytic reduction (c) carbon reduction and self-reduction (d) cyanide process and carbon reduction 32. In the process of extraction of gold, O2 Roasted gold ore + CN– + H2O → [ X ] + HO [ X ] + Zn → [Y ] + Au 284 Extraction of Metals Identify the complexes [X] and [Y]. (2003, 1M) (a) X = [Au(CN)2 ] − , Y = [Zn(CN)4 ] 2− (c) X = [Au(CN)2 ] − , Y = [Zn(CN)6 ] 4− (d) X = [Au(CN)4 ] − , Y = [ Zn(CN)4 ] 2− 43. In metallurgy of iron, when limestone is added to the blast 33. Anhydrous ferric chloride is prepared by (2002) (a) heating hydrated ferric chloride at a high temperature in a stream of air (b) heating metallic iron in a stream of dry chlorine gas (c) reaction of ferric oxide with hydrochloric acid (d) reaction of metallic iron with hydrochloric acid 34. Which of the following process is used in extractive metallurgy of magnesium? (2002, 3M) Fused salt electrolysis Self-reduction Aqueous solution electrolysis Thermite reduction smelting process in the extraction of copper is (2001, 1M) 36. Electrolytic reduction of alumina to aluminium by 37. The chemical process in the production of steel from (2000, 1M) (a) reduction (b) oxidation (c) reduction followed by oxidation (d) oxidation followed by reduction 38. In the commercial electrochemical process for aluminium extraction, the electrolyte used is (1999, 2M) (a) Al(OH)3 in NaOH solution (b) an aqueous solution of Al 2 (SO4 )3 (c) a molten mixture of Al 2O3 and Na 3AlF6 (d) a molten mixture of AlO(OH) and Al(OH)3 (a) as a catalyst (b) to make the fused mixture very conducting (c) to increase the temperature of the melt (d) to decrease the rate of oxidation of carbon at the anode (1985, 1M) (b) heated ferric oxide (d) heated aluminium oxide 41. In the alumino-thermite process, aluminium acts as (a) an oxidising agent (c) a reducing agent (b) a flux (d) a solder (b) H3PO4 (d) HNO3 (1982) Objective Questions II (One or more than one correct option) (2020 Adv.) (a) Hydrated Al 2O3 precipitates, when CO2 is bubbled through a solution of sodium aluminate. (b) Addition of Na 3AlF6 lowers the melting point of alumina. (c) CO2 is evolved at the anode during electrolysis. (d) The cathode is a steel vessel with a lining of carbon. 46. Extraction of copper from copper pyrite (CuFeS 2 ) involves (2016 Adv.) (a) crushing followed by concentration of the ore by froth-floatation (b) removal of iron as slag (c) self reduction step to produce ‘blister copper’ following evolution of SO2 (d) refining of ‘blister copper’ by carbon reduction 47. Copper is purified by electrolytic refining of blister copper. The correct statement(s) about this process is/are (2015 Adv.) (a) impure Cu strip is used as cathode (b) acidified aqueous CuSO4 is used as electrolyte (c) pure Cu deposits at cathode (d) impurities settle as anode-mud 48. Upon heating with Cu 2 S, the reagent(s) that give copper metal is/are (a) CuFeS2 (2014 Adv.) (b) CuO (c) Cu2O extraction of amount in the electrolytic reduction of alumina dissolved in fused cryolite (Na 3 AlF6 ) is (1993, 1M) (a) heated cupric oxide (c) heated stannic oxide (a) H2SO4 (c) HCl (d) CuSO4 49. The carbon-based reduction method is not used for the 39. The major role of fluorspar (CaF2 ) which is added in small 40. Hydrogen gas will not reduce 44. Iron is rendered passive by treatment with concentrated (2000, 1M) (a) in the presence of NaCl (b) in the presence of fluorite (c) in the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with lower melting temperature (d) in the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with higher melting temperature haematite ore involve (1982) (b) gangue (d) calcium carbonate extraction of aluminium from bauxite? (b) FeSiO3 (d) Cu2S + FeO Hall-Heroult process is carried out furnace, the calcium ion ends up in (a) slag (c) metallic calcium 45. Which among the following statement(s) is(are) true for the 35. The chemical composition of ‘slag’ formed during the (a) Cu2O + FeS (c) CuFeS2 (1983) (a) electrovalent and covalent (b) electrovalent and coordinate covalent (c) electrovalent, covalent and coordinate covalent (d) covalent and coordinate covalent (b) X = [Au(CN)4 ] 3 – ,Y = [Zn (CN)4 ] 2– (a) (b) (c) (d) 42. Type of bonds present in CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2O are only (1983, 1M) (a) (b) (c) (d) (2013 Adv.) tin from SnO2 iron from Fe2O3 aluminium from Al 2O3 magnesium from MgCO3 , CaCO3 50. Extraction of metal from the ore cassiterite involves (a) (b) (c) (d) (2011) carbon reduction of an oxide ore self-reduction of a sulphide ore removal of copper impurity removal of iron impurity 51. Addition of high proportions of manganese makes steel useful in making rails (a) gives hardness to steel (b) helps the formation of oxides of iron (c) can remove oxygen and sulphur (d) can show highest oxidation state of + 7 (1998) Extraction of Metals 285 52. Of the following, the metals that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of the aqueous solution of their salts are (a) Ag (d) Al (b) Mg (e) Cr (c) Cu 53. In the electrolysis of alumina, cryolite is added to S ° [ C( s )] = 6.0 J K −1 mol −1 (1990, 1M) S ° [ CO2 ( g )] = 210.0 JK −1 mol −1 (1986, 1M) Assume that, the enthalpies and the entropies are temperature independent. (2020 Adv.) (a) lower the melting point of alumina (b) increase the electrical conductivity (c) minimise the anode effect (d) remove impurities from alumina Match the Columns 59. Match the anionic species given in Column I that are present in the ore (s) given in Column II. Assertion and Reason Column I Read the following questions and answer as per the direction given below : (a) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct; Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. (b) Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct; Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I. (c) Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect. (d) Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is true. 54. Statement I Al(OH)3 is amphoteric in nature. Statement II Al—O and O—H bonds can be broken with (1998) equal ease in Al(OH)3 . Passage Based Questions Passage Copper is the most noble of the first row transition metals and occurs in small deposits in several countries. Ores of copper include chalcanthite (CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2 O), atacamite (Cu 2 Cl(OH)3 ), cuprite (Cu 2 O), copper glance (Cu 2 S) and malachite (Cu 2 (OH)2 CO3 ). However, 80% of the world copper production comes from the ore chalcopyrite (CuFeS2 ). The extraction of copper from chalcopyrite involves partial roasting, removal of iron and self-reduction. (2010) 55. Partial roasting of chalcopyrite produces (a) Cu 2S and FeO (c) CuS and Fe2O3 (b) Cu 2O and FeO (d) Cu 2O and Fe2O3 56. Iron is removed from chalcopyrite as (a) FeO (b) FeS (c) Fe 2O3 (d) FeSiO3 (a) S (b) O (c) S 2− (d) SO2 the data given below to determine the minimum temperature (in K) at which the reduction of cassiterite by coke would take place. −1 At 298 K : ∆ f H ° [ SnO2 ( s )] = − 5810 . kJ mol , S ° [ Sn ( s )] = 52.0 JK −1 mol −1 Carbonate p. Siderite B. Sulphide q. Malachite C. Hydroxide r. Bauxite D. Oxide s. Calamine t. Argentite corresponding product(s) given in Column II. Column I (2009) Column II A. Cu + dil. HNO3 p. NO B. Cu + conc. HNO3 q. NO2 C. Zn + dil. HNO3 r. N2 O D. Zn + conc. HNO3 s. Cu(NO3 )2 Zn(NO3 )2 t. 61. Match the conversions in Column I with the type(s) of reaction(s) given in Column II. (2008, 6M) Column I Column II A. PbS → PbO p. Roasting B. CaCO3 → CaO q. Calcination C. ZnS → Zn r. Carbon reduction D. Cu 2 S → Cu s. Self-reduction 62. Match the extraction processes listed in Column I with metals listed in Column II. (2006, 6M) Column II A. Self-reduction p. Lead B. Carbon reduction q. Silver C. Complex formation and displacement by metal r. Copper D. Decomposition of iodide s. Boron 58. Tin is obtained from cassiterite by reduction with coke. Use S ° [ SnO2 ( s )] = 56.0 J K −1 mol −1 A. Column I Numerical Answer Type Questions ∆ f H ° [(CO 2 )( g )] = − 394.0 kJ mol −1 Column II 60. Match each of the reactions given in Column I with the 57. In self-reduction, the reducing species is 2− (2015 Adv.) 63. Each entry in Column X is in some way related to the entries in Columns Y and Z. Match the appropriate entries. Column X Column Y (1988, 3M) Column Z A. Invar p. Co, Ni m. Cutlery B. Nichrome q. Fe, Ni n. Heating element o. Watch spring C. Stainless steel r. Fe, Cr, Ni 286 Extraction of Metals 64. Match the following choosing one item from Column X and the appropriate item from Column Y. Column X Al p. Calamine B. Cu q. Cryolite C. Mg r. Malachite D. Zn s. Carnalite metal centre in CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2O. white photographic film. Also give reason, why the solution of sodium thiosulphate on acidification turns milky white and give balance equation of this reaction. (2005, 2M) 81. A1 and A2 are two ores of metal M . A1 on calcination gives black precipitate, CO2 and water. 65. Match the following metals listed in Column I with extraction processes listed in Column II. Column I (1979, 2M) A1 Column II A. Silver p. Fused salt electrolysis B. Calcium q. Carbon reduction C. Zinc r. Carbon monoxide reduction D. Iron s. Amalgamation E. Copper t. Self-reduction n atio lcin a C Dil. H Cl KI Black solid + CO2 + H2O ; A2 Roasting I2 + ppt. Metal + gas K 2Cr2O7 + H2SO4 Green colour Identify A1 and A2 . (2004, 4M) 82. Which of the two, anhydrous or hydrated AlCl3 is more soluble in diethyl ether? Justify using the concepts of bonding in not more than 2 or 3 sentences. (2003) Fill in the Blanks 66. Silver jewellery items tarnish slowly in the air due to their reaction with………… (2009, 2M) 80. Write balanced chemical equation for developing a black and Column Y A. 79. Give the number of water molecule (s) directly bonded to the (1983, 2M) 83. Write the balanced chemical reactions involved in the extraction of lead from galena. Mention oxidation state of lead in litharge. (2003, 2M) (1997) 67. In the extractive metallurgy of zinc, partial fusion of ZnO with coke is called …… and reduction of the ore to the molten metal is called …… (smelting, calcining, roasting, sintering). 84. Write the balanced chemical equation for developing photographic films. (2000) (1988, 1M) 85. Write the chemical reactions involved in the extraction of 68. Silver chloride is sparingly soluble in water because its lattice silver from argentite. (2000, 2M) Work out the following using chemical equations. In moist air, copper corrodes to produce a green layer on the surface. (1998) When the ore haematite is burnt in air with coke around 2000°C along with lime, the process not only produces steel but also produces a silicate slag, that is useful in making building materials such as cement. Discuss the same and show through balanced chemical equations. (1998, 4M) Give balance equation for the reaction of aluminium with aqueous sodium hydroxide. (1997) Write a balanced equation for the reaction of argentite with KCN and name the products in the solution. (1996) Give reasons for the following “Although aluminium is above hydrogen in the electrochemical series, it is stable in air and water.” energy greater than ……….. energy. 69. Galvanisation of iron denote coating with …… 70. Cassiterite is an ore of …… (1987) 86. (1983) (1980, 1M) 71. In the thermite process …… is used as a reducing agent. 87. (1980, 1M) 72. In the basic Bessemer process for the manufacture of steel, the lining of the converter is made up of … . The slag formed consists of …… (1980, 1M) 88. 73. AgCl dissolve in excess of KCN solution to give ………… complex compound. (1980) True/False 74. Cu + disproportionate to Cu 2+ and elemental copper in solution. 89. 90. (1991) 75. Silver chloride is more soluble in very concentrated sodium chloride solution than in pure water. (1984, 1M) 76. Dilute HCl oxidises metallic Fe to Fe2+ . (1983, 1M) 77. Silver fluoride is fairly soluble in water. (1982) Subjective Questions 78. Give the coordination number of Al in the crystalline state of AlCl3. (2009, 2M) (1994, 1M) 91. Complete the following reaction : Sn + 2KOH + 4H2 O → ...... + ....... (1994) 92. Give briefly the isolation of magnesium from sea water by the Dow’s process. Give equations for the steps involved. (1993, 3M) 93. Complete and balance the following reaction : Copper reacts with HNO3 to give NO and NO2 in the molar ratio of 2:1 (1992) Cu + HNO3 → KK + NO + NO2 + KK Extraction of Metals 287 94. Write balanced equation for the extraction of “Copper from 98. Each of the following statement is true, only under some copper pyrites by self reduction.” (1990, 2M) 95. Give balanced equations for the extraction of “Silver from silver glance by cyanide process.” (1988, 1M) 96. Answer the following questions briefly specific conditions. Write the condition for each subquestion in not more than 2 sentences. (i) Metals can be recovered from their ores by chemical methods (i) What is the actual reducing agent of haematite in blast furnace? (ii) Give the equation for the recovery of lead from galena by air reduction. (iii) Why is sodium chloride added during electrolysis of fused anhydrous magnesium chloride? (iv) Zinc, not copper is used for the recovery of metallic silver from complex [Ag(CN)2 ]– , explain. (v) Why is chalcocite roasted and not calcinated during recovery of copper? (1987, 5M) 97. Write balanced chemical equation for the following “Gold is dissolved in aqua regia.” (ii) High purity metals can be obtained by zone refining method. (1984, 2M) 99. Give reason for the following in one or two sentences : “Silver bromide is used in photography.” (1983) 100. State the conditions under which the preparation of alumina from aluminium is carried out. Give the necessary equations which need not be balanced. (1983, 2M) 101. Write the chemical equations involved in the extraction of lead from galena by self reduction process. (1979, 2M) 102. Write balanced equation involved in the preparation of tin metal from cassiterite. (1979) (1987) Answers 1. 5. 9. 13. 17. 21. 25. 29. 33. 37. 41. 45. 49. 53. (a) (b) (d) (a) (c) (b) (a) (b) (b) (a) (c) (a,b,c,d) (c,d) (a,b) 2. 6. 10. 14. 18. 22. 26. 30. 34. 38. 42. 46. 50. 54. (c) (d) (d) (b) (c) (a) (b) (c) (a) (c) (c) (a,b,c) (a,d) (b) 3. 7. 11. 15. 19. 23. 27. 31. 35. 39. 43. 47. 51. 55. (d) (a) (a) (d) (b) (d) (d) (a) (b) (b) (a) (b,c,d) (a,c) (b) 4. 8. 12. 16. 20. 24. 28. 32. 36. 40. 44. 48. 52. 56. (a) (d) (d) (d) (d) (b) (b) (a) (c) (d) (d) (b,c,d) (b,d) (d) 57. (c) 58. (935) 59. A → p, q, s; B → t; C → q; D → r 60. A → p, s; B → q, s; C → r, t; D → q, t 51. A → p; B → q; C → r, s; D → p, s 62. A → p, r; B → p; C → q; D → s 63. A → q, o; B → p, n; C → r, m 64. A → q; B → r; C → s; D → p 65. A → s; B → p; C → q; D → q, r; E → t 66. (H 2S) 67. (Sintering, Smelting) 68. (Hydration) 69. (Zn) 72. (Lime, calcium phosphate) 70. (Sn) 71. (Al) 73. K [Ag(CN) 2 ] 74. (T) 78. (6) 76. (T) 83. (2) 75. (T) 79. (4) 77. (T) Hints & Solutions 1. Due to industrial process, CO2 release from calcination and SO2 release from roasting respectively which is responsible for global warming and acid rain. Calcination It involves heating where the volatile matter escapes leaving behind the metal oxide. In this process, the ore is heated below its melting point in the absence of air or in the limited supply of air. ∆ e.g. CaCO3 (s) → CaO(s) + CO2 ↑ (Carbon dioxide) Responsible for global warming Roasting In this process the ore is heated in a regular supply of air in a furnace at a temperature below the melting point of the metal. e.g. 2ZnS + 3O2 → 2ZnO + 2. 2SO2 ↑ (Sulphur dioxide) Responsible for acid rain Ellingham diagram provides information about temperature dependence of the standard Gibbs energies of formation of some metal oxides. It predicts the feasibility of thermal reduction of the ore. The criterion of feasibility is that at given temperature, Gibbs energy of the reaction must be negative. 3. ZnCO3-Calamine (zinc ore) CuCO3 ⋅ Cu(OH)2-Malachite (copper ore) Fe3O4-Magnetite (iron ore) Na 3AlF6-Cryolite (aluminium ore) Thus, option (d) is correct. 4. The correct statement is ‘‘leaching of bauxite using concentrated NaOH solution gives sodium aluminate and sodium silicate’’. Bauxite usually contains SiO2, iron oxides and titanium oxide (TiO2 ) as impurities. Concentration is carried out by digesting the powdered ore with a concentrated solution of NaOH at 473-523 K and 35-36 bar pressure. Al2O3 is leached out as sodium aluminate (and SiO2 too as sodium silicate) leaving the impurities behind. Al 2O3 (s) + 2NaOH(aq) + 3H2O(l ) → 2Na[Al(OH)4 ](aq) 288 Extraction of Metals The aluminate in solution is neutralised by passing CO2 gas and hydrated Al 2O3 is precipitated. Here, the solution is seeded with freshly prepared samples of hydrated Al 2O3 which induces precipitation. 2Na[Al(OH)4 ](aq) + CO2 (g ) → Al 2O3 ⋅ xH2O(s) + 2NaHCO3 (aq) The sodium silicate remains in the solution and hydrated alumina is filtered, dried and heated to give back pure Al 2O3. 1470 K Al 2O3 ⋅ xH2O(s) → Al 2O3 (s) + xH2O(g ) 5. The idea of froth floatation method came from a person ‘washer woman’ ( X ) and this method is related to the process concentration (Y ) of ores. This method is based upon the preferential wetting properties with the frothing agent (collector) and water. 6. The explanation of given statements are as follows: (a) Zone refining process is used for the refining of B, Ga, In, Si and Ge. Ti is refined by van Arkel method. Thus, statement (a) is incorrect. (b) Zincite (ZnO) is an oxide ore of Zn. Thus, statement (b) is incorrect. (c) NaCN is used in the hydrometallurgy of silver. It is known as Mc. Arthur Forrest process. The reactions occuring during the process are as follows: Ag2S + 4NaCN → 2Na[Ag(CN)2 ] + Na 2S 4Na 2S + 2H2O + 5O2 → 2Na 2SO4 + 4NaOH + 2S 2Na[Ag(CN)2 ] + Zn → Na 2[Zn(CN)4 ] + 2Ag Thus, statement (c) is incorrect. (d) Aniline and cresol help in stabilising the froth in froth floatation process. Thus, statement (d) is correct. 8. Bauxite is not a carbonate ore. Its chemical formula is Al 2O3 or AlOx(OH)3 − 2x , where 0 < x < I. Chemical formula of other ores given in options are as follows: Siderite-FeCO3 Calamine-ZnCO3 Malachite-CuCO3 ⋅ Cu(OH)2 9. Only assertion is correct and reason is incorrect. Haematite is not a carbonate ore. It is an oxide ore, i.e. Fe2O3. Cast iron is extracted chiefly from its oxide ore (haematite) by heating in the presence of coke and limestone in a blast furnace. 10. Cryolite ore (Na 3AlF6, sodium hexafluoroaluminate) contain fluorine while other given options such as malachite (Cu 2 (CO)3 (OH)2 ), sphalerite ((Zn,Fe)S) and bauxite (Al 2O3 ) does not contain fluorine. 11. Mond process is used in the purification of Ni. It is a vapour phase refining process. It is based on the principle that Ni is heated in the presence of carbon monoxide to form nickel tetracarbonyl, which is a volatile complex. This complex is then decomposed by subjecting it to a higher temperature (450-470 K) to obtain pure nickel metal. Crude nickel (s) + 4 CO (g) (Impure) 330-350 K [Ni (CO)4] (g) 450-470 K (Volatile compound) Crude nickel (s) + 4CO(g) 330-350 K (Impure) 450-470 K Ni(CO)4(g) (Volatile compound) Recycled 4CO(g) + feasibility of its thermal reduction. It is a graph representation of Gibbs energy change versus absolute temperature. 0 (Crude metal) 500-600 K MI4(g) 1700-1800 K (Volatile compound) Recycled 2I2(g) + –100 ∆Gº/kJ mol–1 of O2 –300 –400 –500 –600 –700 +O 2 2CO +O 2 2Zn 2CO 2 O 2Zn –800 –900 –1000 2Cu 2O 4Cu+O 2 2FeO O 2 + 2Fe –200 4/3 O2 Al+ 2 Mg –1100 C+O2 2C+O 2 CO2 2CO l +O 3 2/3 A 2 O 2Mg +O 2 –1200 Ni(s) (Pure) IV. van Arkel method M (s) + 2I2 (g) Ni (s) Pure + 4 CO (g) 12. With respect to an ore, Ellingham diagram helps to predict the 7. Refining of crude metals results pure metals and its impurities get separated out. I. Liquation In this method low melting metals like Sn, Pb, Bi and Hg can be made to flow down through a sloping surface leaving behind the higher melting impurities on the hearth. II. Zone refining The basic principle of the method is, impurities are more soluble in the molten metal than in the solid state of the metal. This method is useful to produce semiconductors and ultra-pure metals like B, Ga, In,Si and Ge. III. Mond process Recycled M(s) (Ultra-pure) Here, M = Zr, Hf, Ti Hence, the correct matching is I→ (C), II→(D), III →(B), IV → (A). 0°C 273 K 400°C 673 K 800°C 1200°C 1600°C 2000°C 1073 K 1473 K 1873 K 2273 K Temperature Gibbs energy (∆Gº) versus T plots (schematic) for the formation of some oxides (Ellingham diagram) Generally, the diagram consists of plots of ∆G ° versus T for the formation of oxides of elements 2xM (s) + O2 (g ) → 2M x O(s) Thermal reduction product In this reaction, amount of gas decreases thus, randomness decreases. Hence, ∆S becomes negative. Therefore, the value of Extraction of Metals 289 free energy increases with increase in temperature. There is a point in a curve below which ∆G is negative. So, M xO is stable. Above this point, M xO will decompose on its own. 18. Hall-Heroult’s process is an electro-reduction process by which pure alumina (Al 2O3 ) is reduced to crude Al. In this process, electrolysis of a fused mixture of Al 2O3, Na 3[AlF6 ] (cryolite) and CaF2 (fluorspar) is carried out at carbon cathode and graphite anode. The overall reaction is represented as: 2Al 2O3 + 3C → 4Al + 3CO2 13. The hydroxide, hydrated oxides and carbonate ores, after concentration, are subjected to calcination. In the process, the ore is heated below its melting point in the limited supply or absence of air. As the result, these are converted into their oxides. So, among the given options, the options having either carbonates (e.g. ZnCO3 and CaCO3 ⋅ MgCO3) or hydrated oxide (e.g. Fe2O3 ⋅ xH2O), require calcination while pair of option (a), i.e. ZnO and MgO does not require calcination. 19. From the Ellingham diagram, we can say that any oxide with lower value of ∆G ° is more stable than a oxide with higher value of ∆G °. We can also predict that the oxide placed higher in the diagram can be reduced by the element involved in the formation of its oxide placed lower at that temperature in the diagram. It is happening in case of ZnO for its reduction by Al at 1400°C. 14. In the Hall - Heroult’s process, aluminium in formed at the cathode. The cathode is made out of carbon. In this method, Al 2O3 is melted with cryolite, Na 3[AlF6 ] and electrolysed in a graphite lined steel tank, which serves as the cathode. The anode is also made of graphite. The cell runs continuously and at intervals molten aluminium is drained from the bottom of the cell and more bauxite is added. The electrolytic reactions are as follows: At cathode Al3+ + 3e− → Al At anode C(s) + O 2− (melt) → CO(g)+ 2e− 2− 20. The formulae of the given ores are as follows: Malachite Copper pyrites Dolomite Azurite 21. Sulphide ores are concentrated by froth floatation method e.g. Galena (PbS) − C(s) + 2O (melt) → CO2(g)+ 4 e 15. Calcination is one of the pyrometallurgical process, like roasting by which a concentrated ore gets converted into its oxide. In calcination, a hydrated carbonate or bicarbonate ore or a hydrated ore is heated at lower temperature (compared to roasting) in absence of air to give its oxide as in options (a), (b) and (c). Here, volatile non-metallic oxides like H2O, CO2, are also produced. Roasting is valid mainly for sulphide ores like option (d), where SO2 gets liberated. In this reaction, calcination cannot be used. 22. H2O2 acts as an oxidising as well as reducing agent, because oxidation number of oxygen in H2O2 is −1. So, it can be oxidised to oxidation state 0 or reduced to oxidation state –2. H2O2 decomposes on exposure to light. So, it has to be stored in plastic or wax linked glass bottles in dark for the prevention of exposure. It also has to be kept away from dust. 23. (a) In Hall-Heroult process for extraction Al, carbon anode is oxidised to CO and CO2. (b) When Al 2O3 is mixed with CaF2, it lowers the melting point of the mixture and brings conductivity. (c) Al 3+ is reduced at cathode to form Al. (d) Here, Al 2O3 is an electrolyte, undergoing the redox process. Na 3AlF6 although is an electrolyte but serves as a solvent, not electrolyte. 16. The correct match is: A → R; B → S; C → Q; D → P. (A) Siderite is an ore of iron with molecular formula FeCO 3 (R). (B) Kaolinite is an ore of aluminium with molecular formula Al 2Si 2(OH)2O 5 (S). (C) Malachite is an ore of copper with molecular formula CuCO 3 ⋅ Cu(OH)2 (Q). (D) Calamine is an ore of zinc with molecular formulaZnCO 3 (P). 24. Higher the position of element in the electrochemical series more difficult is the reduction of its cations. If Ca 2+ (aq) is electrolysed, water is reduced in preference to it. Hence, it cannot be reduced electrolytically from their aqueous solution. Ca 2+ ( aq) + H2O → Ca 2+ + OH− + H2 ↑ 17. Electroplating is a process of coating one metal or metal object with a very thin layer of another metal typically applying a direct electric current. Electrolytes used in the electroplating of gold and silver are given in the table below: Process (a) (b) Gold plating Silver plating 25. Pure metal block Article to acts an anode Electrolyte be plated by which out acts as electroplating (aqueous solution) cathode will be done Article Au(s) I Na[A u(CN)2 ] (Sodium auro-cyanide) Article Ag(s) : CuCO3 ⋅ Cu(OH)2 : CuFeS2 : CaMg(CO3 )2 : Cu 3 (CO)3 (OH)2 I Na[A g(CN)2 ] (Sodium argento cyanide) Element Ores Ag Ag 2 S Name Cu CuFeS2 Pb Sn PbS SnO2 Galena Cassiterite Mg MgCO3 ⋅ CaCO3 Dolomite Al Al 2 O3 ⋅ xH2 O Argentite Copper pyrites Bauxite 26. The reactions involved in extraction of silver by cyanide process are Ag2S + CN− + O2 → [Ag(CN)2 ]− + SO2 …(i) 290 Extraction of Metals [Ag (CN)2 ]− + Zn → [Zn (CN)4 ]2− + Ag …(ii) In reaction (i), sulphide is oxidised to SO2 by oxygen. In the reaction (ii), silver ion (Ag+ ) is reduced to Ag by Zn. Therefore, O2 is oxidising agent and Zn is reducing agent. 27. Haematite is Fe2O3, in which oxidation number of iron is III. Magnetite is Fe3O4 which is infact a mixed oxide (FeO ⋅ Fe2O3), hence iron is present in both II and III oxidation state. 28. A water soluble complex with silver and dilute aqueous solution of NaCN is Na[Ag(CN)2 ]. In the cyanide process, the native silver is crushed and treated with aqueous NaCN solution and aerated. 4Ag + 8NaCN + 2H2 O + O2 → 4Na [Ag(CN)2 ] + 4NaOH 29. Zinc blende contain ZnS which is first roasted partially and then subjected to reduction with carbon ZnS + O2 → ZnO + SO2 Roasting ∆ ZnO + C → Zn + CO ↑ Carbon reduction 30. Chalcopyrite contain both iron and copper. 31. Lead is mainly extracted by self-reduction process while tin is extracted by carbon reduction method. Au + 2CN− → [Au(CN)2 ]− 32. X 2Au(CN)−2 + Zn → [Zn(CN)4 ]2 − + 2Au Y 33. Heating iron in stream of dry chlorine gas gives FeCl 3 in anhydrous form. In all other cases (a and c) hydrated FeCl 3 is obtained while in (d), FeCl 2 is formed. 34. Mg is extracted by electrolysis of molten MgCl 2 . 35. Iron present in copper pyrite is removed by forming FeSiO3 as slag. (b) The electrolysis of alumina by Hall-Heroult’s process is carried by using a fused mixture of alumina and cryolite (Na2AlF6 ) along with minor quantities of aluminium fluoride and fluorspar. The addition of cryolite and fluorspar increases the electrical conductivity of alumina and lowers the fusion temperature. Hence, the statement (b) is true. (c) At anode, alumina reacts with fluorine to liberate oxygen and evolved oxygen reacts with carbon to form carbon dioxide and hence, statement (c) is true. (d) Steel cathode with carbon lining and graphite anode are used and hence,the statement (d) is true. 46. CuFeS2 (copper pyrite) is converted into copper into following steps: Step I Crushing (grinding ) followed by concentration by froth-floatation process. Step II Roasting of ore in the presence of SiO2 which removes iron as slag (FeSiO3). 2CuFeS2 + O2 → Cu 2S + 2FeS + SO2 2FeS + 3O2 → 2SO2 + 2FeO FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3 (Slag) Step III Self-reduction in Bessemer converter 2Cu 2S + 3O2 → 2Cu 2O + 2SO2 2Cu 2O + Cu 2S → 6Cu + SO2 Copper obtained is blister copper (98% pure). Step IV Refining of blister copper is done by electrolysis Impure copper—Anode Pure copper— Cathode At anode : Cu → Cu 2+ + 2e− At cathode : Cu 2+ + 2e− → Cu Carbon-reduction method is not used. Thus, (d) is incorrect. 47. (a) is wrong statement. Impure copper is set as anode where 36. Cryolite is added to alumina in order to lower the melting point. 37. Haematite ore contain Fe2 O3 which is reduced by CO in the blast furnace as Fe2 O3 + CO → Fe + CO2 38. Al 2 O3 mixed with cryolite Na 3[AlF6 ] is fused and electrolysed in copper is oxidised to Cu 2+ and goes into electrolytic solutions. (b) CuSO4 is used as an electrolyte in purification process. (c) Pure copper is deposited at cathode as: (At cathode) Cu 2+ + 2e– → Cu : (d) Less active metals like Ag, Au etc settle down as anode mud. the extraction of Al. 39. Fluorspar (CaF2 ) improve the electrical conductivity during electrolytic reduction of alumina. 40. Al itself is a very strong reducing agent. 41. In thermite welding, Al acts as a reducing agent 2Al + Fe2 O3 → Al 2 O3 + 2Fe + Heat 42. The actual representation of CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2 O (blue vitriol) is [Cu(H2 O)4 ]SO4 ⋅ H2 O and it has covalent, ionic and coordinate covalent bonds. 43. Ca 2 + end up in CaSiO3 (slag). 44. Iron is rendered passive by concentrated HNO3 due to formation of a thick protective layer of Fe3O4 . 45. (a) 2Na[Al(OH)4 ](aq) + CO2 → Na 2CO3 + H2O + 2Al(OH)3 ↓ or Al 2O3.2H2O (ppt.) Hence, the statement (a) is true. 1100 °C 48. (b) 4CuO → 2Cu 2O + O2 ∆ 2Cu 2O + Cu 2S → 6Cu + SO2 ∆ (c) Cu 2S + 2Cu 2O → 6Cu + SO2 720 ° C (d) CuSO4 → CuO + SO2 + 1 O2 2 1100 ° C 4CuO → 2Cu 2O + O2 ∆ 2Cu 2O + Cu 2S → 6Cu + SO2 Reaction is believed to proceed as Cu 2S r 2Cu + + S2− 2Cu 2O r 4 Cu + + 2O2− S + 2O2− → SO2 + 6e− o 6Cu + + 6e− → 6Cu ; Ecell = 0.52 2− Extraction of Metals 291 Here, copper sulphide is reduced to copper metal. Solidified copper has blistered appearance due to evolution of SO2 and thus obtained copper is known as blister copper. 57. Cu 2S + 2Cu 2O → 6Cu + SO2 In Cu 2S, sulphur is S2− and in SO2, sulphur is in +4 state. Hence, S2− is acting as reducing agent. Other compounds which give Cu are 58. Tin is obtained from cassiterite by reduction with coke and the 1100 °C (i) CuO as 4CuO → 2Cu 2O + O2 balanced chemical reaction is SnO2 (s) + C (s) → Sn (s) + CO2 (g ) Standard enthalpy of reaction, ∆ 2Cu 2O + Cu 2S → 6Cu + SO2 720 °C (ii) CuSO4 as CuSO4 → CuO + SO2 + 1 O2 2 ∆H R°n = (∆H °f CO2 (g )) − (∆H f° SnO2 (s)) ∆ ∆H R°n = − 394 − (− 581) ⇒187 kJ 4CuO → 2Cu 2O + O2 ∆ ° ° Standard entropy of reaction, ∆S R°n = ∆S Products − ∆S Reactants 2Cu 2O + Cu 2S → 6Cu + SO2 While CuFeS2 will not give Cu on heating. The heating in the presence of O2 gives Cu 2S and FeS with the evolution of SO 2. ∆S R°n = [ S ° (Sn (s)) + S ° (CO2 (g ))] − [ S ° (SnO2 (s)) + S ° (C(s))] 49. Al has greater affinity for oxygen, hence oxide is not reduced by ∆S R°n = [ 52 + 210 ] − [ 56 + 6 ] ⇒ 200 JK −1 mol −1 carbon. MgO and CaO (formed in the calcination from carbonates) are stable species and not reduced by carbon. We know that, ∆H ° = T∆S ° ∆H ° 187 × 1000 ∴ T = = ⇒ 935 K ∆S ° 200 For the reaction to be spontaneous, the temperature should be greater than 935 K. 1300 °C During Smelting SnO2 + C → Sn + CO ∆ 4Fe + 3 CO 2Fe2O3 + 3 C → 2 50. The important ore of tin is cassiterite (SnO2). Tin is extracted from cassiterite ore by carbon reduction method in a blast furnace. SnO2 + 2C → Sn + 2CO The product often contain traces of iron which is removed by blowing air through the melt to oxidise to FeO which then floats to the surface. 59. Siderite = FeCO3, Malachite = CuCO3 ⋅ Cu(OH)2 Bauxite = Al 2O3 ⋅ 2H2O2 consisting some Al (OH)3 Calamine = ZnCO3, Argentite = Ag2S 60. A. 3Cu + 8HNO3 → 3Cu(NO3 )2 + 2NO + 4H2 O Dil. 2Fe + O2 → 2FeO B. Cu + 4HNO3 → Cu(NO3 )2 + 2NO2 + 2H2 O Conc. 51. Addition of manganese to iron improve hardness of steel as well as remove oxygen and sulphur. C. 4Zn + 10HNO3 → 4Zn(NO3 )2 + N2 O + 5H2 O Dil. 52. Magnesium and aluminium are both highly electropositive, more electropositive than water cannot be obtained by electrolysis of aqueous solution of their salts. 53. Alumina (Al 2 O3 ) has very high melting point and it is poor D. Zn + 4HNO3 → Zn(NO3 )2 + 2NO2 + 2H2 O Conc. O2 61. A. PbS → PbO + SO2 , roasting B. CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 ↑; calcination conductor of electricity. Both these factors posses difficulty in electrolysis of molten alumina. Cryolite, Na 3AlF6, when mixed with alumina, lowers melting point as well as improve electrical conductivity, hence helps in electrolysis of Al 2 O3. 54. Al(OH)3 is amphoteric Al(OH)3 + 3HCl → AlCl 3 + 3H2 O Base Al(OH)3 + NaOH → Na[Al(OH)4 ] Acid C. ZnS → Zn, can be done by carbon reduction or self reduction D. Cu 2 S → Cu, roasting followed by self reduction 62. Extraction methods A. B. C. Self reduction Carbon reduction Complex formation and displacement by metal D. Decomposition of iodide High charge and small size of Al 3+ makes Al—O and O—H bonds equally ionisable. 55. 2CuFeS2 + O2 → Cu 2S + 2FeS + SO2 ↑ 2Cu 2S + 3O2 → 2Cu 2O + 2SO2 ↑ 2FeS + 3O2 → 2FeO + 2SO2 ↑ 56. FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3 (Slag) Metals extracted r. Copper, (P) Lead p. Lead q. Silver : Ag 2 S + NaCN → Na[Ag(CN)2 ] Na[Ag(CN)2 ] + Zn → Na 2 [Zn(CN)4 ] + Ag s. Boron : ∆ 3 BI 3 → B + I2 2 292 Extraction of Metals 63. Column X Column Y Column Z Invar Fe, Ni Watch spring Nichrome Co, Ni Heating element Stainless steel Fe, Cr, Ni Cutlery Column X (Metals) 64. A. Al Column Y (Ores) q. 76. True Iron is more electropositive than hydrogen Fe + 2HCl → FeCl 2 + H2 ↑ 77. True : Solubility of silver halides decreases down in the group Solubility : AgF > AgCl > AgBr > AgI 78. In crystalline state, AlCl 3 has rock-salt like structure with coordination number of Al = 6. Cryolite 79. Four, the complex has formula [Cu(H2 O)4 ] SO4 ⋅ H2 O 80. (a) 2AgBr + C6H4 (OH)2 → 2Ag + 2HBr + C6 H4 O2 B. Cu r. Malachite C. Mg s. Carnalite D. Zn p. Calamine 65. A. Silver is extracted by amalgamation process Hydroquinone (developer) Quinone AgBr + 2Na 2 S2 O3 → Na 3[Ag(S2 O3 )2 ] + NaBr (b) Na 2 S2 O3 + 2H+ → 2Na + + H2 SO3 + S ↓ Colloidal sulphur Distillation Ag + Hg → Ag(Hg) → Ag( s) + Hg( v ) ↑ Amalgam B. Calcium is extracted by electrolysis of fused CaCl 2 . C. Zinc is extracted by carbon reduction method ZnO + C → Zn + CO D. Iron is extracted by both carbon reduction method and CO reduction methods Fe2 O3 + 3C → 2Fe + 3CO Fe2 O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 E. Copper is extracted by self reduction methods Cu 2 S + O2 → Cu 2 O + SO2 Cu 2 O + Cu 2 S → Cu + SO2 66. H 2S Ag 2 S (black) is formed on the surface. ∆ 67. ZnO + C → Zn + CO = Smelting 81. A1 is basic copper carbonate (Cu(OH)2 ⋅ CuCO3 ) while A2 is Cu 2S. The confirmatory reactions are : ∆ (i) CuCO3 ⋅ Cu(OH)2 → CuO + CO2 ↑ + H2O Black HCl (ii) CuCO3 ⋅ Cu(OH)2 → CuCl 2 + CO2 ↑ + H2O KI CuCl 2 → Cu 2 I2 ↓ + KCl + I2 D Roasting A2 → Cu 2 O + SO2 ↑ Cu 2 S + Cu 2 O → Cu + SO2 ↑ SO2 is a reducing gas that gives green colour with acidified K 2 Cr2 O7 as 3SO2 + K 2 Cr2 O7 + H2 SO4 → K 2 SO4 + Cr2 (SO4 )3 Green sintering + 4H2 O 68. Hydration energy Energy required to break the crystal lattice during dissolving process comes from hydration. If lattice energy is very high and hydration energy is low, salt becomes sparingly soluble. 69. Zn Galvanisation involves coating of iron with zinc metal in order to prevent if from rusting. 70. Sn Cassiterite is an ore of tin. 71. Al Aluminium reduces Fe2 O3 to Fe. 72. Lime, calcium phosphate In basic Bessemer process, the Bessemer converter is lined with lime but in acid Bessemer process, it is lined with silica. In basic Bessemer process, phosphorus is slagged off as calcium phosphate : P4 + 5O2 → P4 O10 6CaO + P4 O10 → 2Ca 3(PO4 )2 Thomas slag 73. K [Ag(CN)2 ] : AgCl + 2KCN → K[Ag(CN)2 ] + KCl 74. True: Cu + is unstable H+ 2Cu + → Cu 2 + + Cu 75. True Complex (Na[AgCl 2 ]) formation increases solubility of otherwise sparingly soluble AgCl. 82. Anhydrous AlCl 3 is more soluble in diethyl ether as the oxygen atom of ether donate its lone-pair of electrons to the vacant orbital of Al in electron deficient AlCl 3. In case of hydrated AlCl 3, Al is not electron deficient as oxygen of water molecule has already donated its lone-pair of electrons to compensate electron deficiency of Al. Cl Cl •• •• Cl — Al ← OEt 2 Cl — Al ← OH2 •• •• Cl Cl hydrated anhydrous 83. The reactions involved in the extraction of lead from galena (PbS) by self reduction are 2PbS + 3O2 → 2PbO + 2SO2 PbS + 2PbO → 3Pb + SO2 PbS + 2O2 → PbSO4 (side reaction) PbSO4 + PbS → 2Pb + 2SO2 In litharge (PbO), the oxidation state of Pb is +2 84. The common photographic film is coated with AgBr and during developing of photographic film, the unreacted AgBr is removed by Na 2S2O3 as AgBr + 2Na 2S2O3 → Na 3[Ag(S2O3 )2 ] + NaBr Extraction of Metals 293 85. 4NaCN + Ag2S → 2Na[Ag(CN)2 ] + Na 2S 96. (i) Carbon monoxide : 2Na[Ag(CN)2 ] + Zn → Na 2[Zn(CN)4 ] + 2Ag 86. 2Cu + H2O + CO2 + O2 → Cu(OH)2 ⋅ CuCO3 (ii) Green (basic copper carbonate) 87. 2PbO + PbS → 3Pb + SO2 (iii) To improve electrical conductivity of melt. (iv) A metal which is much more electropositive than Ag can only replace Ag + completely from [Ag(CN)2 ] − as 2000 ° C C + O2 → CO 3CO + Fe2O3 → 2Fe + 3CO2 CaCO3 → CaO + CO2 Zn + 2[Ag(CN)2 ]− → [Zn(CN)4 ]2− + 2Ag CaO + SiO2 → CaSiO3 (v) Chalcocite is a sulphide ore of copper, during roasting, SO2 is liberated, which is not possible in calcination. Slag H2O 88. Al + NaOH → NaAlO2+ 32 H2 89. 4KCN + Ag2S → 97. 2Au + 3HNO3 + 11HCl → 2HAuCl 4 + 6H2O + 3NOCl 2K[Ag(CN)2 ] + K2S 98. Potassium dicyanoargentate (I) 90. Due to formation of protective, inert layer of Al 2O3 on surface. 91. Sn + 2KOH + 4H2O → K2[Sn(OH)6 ] + 2H2 92. Sea water (contain MgCl 2) + Ca(OH)2 → Mg(OH)2 ↓ + CaCl 2 ( aq ) (i) Mg(OH)2 + 2HCl → MgCl 2 + 2H2O Heat to → MgCl 2 ( s ) Dryness electrolysis Fusion NaCl (ii) MgCl 2 (s) → Mg2+ + 2Cl − → Mg (At cathode) 93. 7Cu + 20HNO3 → 7Cu(NO3 )2 + 4NO + 2NO2 + 10H2O 94. 2CuFeS2 Copper pyrite Flux 95. (Al 3+ , Mg2+ ) and they are obtained by electrolytic reduction of their molten salt. (ii) Metals like Ge is required in high purity, can be readily melted and can easily crystallise out from the melt form. 99. AgBr is sensitive to visible light. 1 Br2 2 A photographic plate coated with AgBr, when exposed to light, gets blackened due to the above reaction. hν AgBr → Ag + 100. Al + NaOH(aq) → NaAlO2 + H2 ∆ Al(OH)3 → Al 2 O3 + H2 O Roasting 101. In the first step, galena is heated in presence of O2 (limited quantity) in a reverberatory furnace, where PbS is partially oxidised to PbO : Slag 2Cu 2O + Cu 2S → 6Cu + SO2 (i) If the metal is moderately electropositive, e.g. Fe, Sn, Pb or Cu, they can be obtained from their ore by chemical reduction methods. However, if the metal is highly electropositive, e.g. Al, Mg etc., no reducing agent exist for reduction of their ions NaAlO2 + CO2 ( aq) → Na 2 CO3 + Al(OH)3 ↓ + O2 → Cu 2S + 2FeS + SO2 2Cu 2S + 3O2 → 2Cu 2O + 2SO2 2FeS + 3O2 → 2FeO + 2SO2 FeS + SiO2 → FeSiO3 C + O2 → CO CO + Fe2O3 → CO2 + Fe 2PbS + 3O2 → 2PbO + 2SO2 Bessemerisation Ag2S + 2NaCN → 2AgCN + Na 2S AgCN + NaCN → Na[Ag(CN)2 ] 2Na[Ag(CN)2 ] + Zn → Na 2[Zn(CN)4 ] + 2Ag 3 PbS + 2 O2 → PbO + SO2 In the second step, more PbS is added and heated in absence of O2 , where the following self reduction takes place PbS + 2PbO → 3Pb + SO2 102. SnO2 + 2C → Sn + 2CO( g ), Carbon reduction method. 20 Qualitative Analysis Objective Questions I (Only one correct option) 1. A colourless aqueous solution contains nitrates of two metals, X and Y. When it was added to an aqueous solution of NaCl, a white precipitate was formed. This precipitate was found to be partly soluble in hot water to give a residue P and a solution Q. The residue P was soluble in aqueous NH 3 and also in excess sodium thiosulphate.The hot solution Q gave a yellow precipitate with KI. The metals X and Y , respectively, are (2020 Adv.) (a) Ag and Pb (c) Cd and Pb (b) Ag and Cd (d) Cd and Zn generates compound Y . Reaction of Y with NaOH gives X . Further, the reaction of X with Y and water affords compound Z. Y and Z respectively, are (2020 Main, 6 Sep II) (b) SO3 and NaHSO3 (d) S and Na2 SO3 3. Among (A) - (D), the complexes that can display geometrical isomerism are + (A) [Pt(NH3 )3 Cl] (2020 Main, 8 Jan II) (B) [Pt(NH3 )Cl5 ]− (C) [Pt(NH3 )2Cl(NO2 )] (D) [Pt(NH3 )4ClBr]2+ (a) (D) and (A) (c) (A) and (B) (b) (C) and (D) (d) (B) and (C) 4. An organic compound X showing the following solubility profile is (2019 Main, 8 April I) Water 5% HCl X 10% NaOH 10% NaHCO3 (a) o -toluidine (c) m-cresol Insoluble S2 O23 − → Ag X (Clear solution) + → Y (White ppt.) With time → Z (Black ppt.) (b) [Ag(S2O3 )3 ]5− , Ag2SO3 , Ag2S (c) [Ag(SO3 )2 ]3− , Ag2S2O3 , Ag (d) [Ag(SO3 )3 ]3− , Ag2SO4 , Ag organic compound gave 141 mg of AgBr. The percentage of bromine in the compound is (atomic mass Ag = 108, Br = 80) (2015 Main) (a) 24 (b) 36 (c) 48 precipitates as a sulphide is (a) Fe (III) (c) Mg (II) (2013 Adv.) (b) Al (III) (d) Zn(II) 9. Passing H2 S gas into a mixture of Mn 2+ , Ni 2+ , Cu 2+ and Hg 2+ ions in an acidified aqueous solution precipitates (a) CuS and HgS (c) MnS and NiS (b) MnS and CuS (d) NiS and HgS (2011) 10. A solution of a metal ion when treated with KI gives a red precipitate which dissolves in excess KI to give a colourless solution. Moreover, the solution of metal ion on treatment with a solution of cobalt (II) thiocyanate gives rise to a deep blue crystalline precipitate. The metal ion is (2007, 3M) Soluble (c) Cu2+ (d) Co2+ Insoluble (d) 60 8. Upon treatment with ammoniacal H 2S , the metal ion that (b) Hg2+ 11. MgSO4 on reaction with NH4 OH and Na 2 HPO4 forms a white crystalline precipitate. What is its formula? precipitate ‘X ’ is obtained, which is soluble in excess of NaOH. Compound ‘X ’ when heated strongly gives an oxide which is used in chromatography as an adsorbent. The metal ‘M ’ is (2018 Main) (c) Al (2016 Adv.) (a) [Ag(S2O3 )2 ]3− , Ag2S2O3 , Ag2S (a) Pb2+ (b) oleic acid (d) benzamide (b) Ca Ag + Insoluble 5. When metal ‘M ’ is treated with NaOH, a white gelatinous (a) Zn species X, Y and Z, respectively, are 7. In Carius method of estimation of halogens 250 mg of an 2. Reaction of an inorganic sulphite X with dilute H 2SO 4 (a) SO2 and Na2 SO3 (c) SO2 and NaHSO3 6. In the following reaction sequence in aqueous solution, the (d) Fe (a) Mg(NH4 )PO4 (b) Mg3 (PO4 )2 (c) MgCl 2 ⋅ MgSO4 (d) MgSO4 (2006) 12. CuSO4 decolourises on addition of KCN, the product is (a) [Cu(CN)4 ]2 − (b) Cu2 + get reduced to form [Cu(CN)4 ]3 − (c) Cu(CN)2 (d) CuCN (2006, 3M) Qualitative Analysis 295 13. A solution when diluted with H2 O and boiled, it gives a white precipitate. On addition of excess NH4 Cl / NH4 OH, the volume of precipitate decreases leaving behind a white gelatinous precipitate. Identify the precipitate which dissolves in NH4 OH / NH4 Cl. (2006, 3M) (a) Zn(OH)2 (b) Al(OH)3 (c) Mg(OH)2 (d) Ca(OH)2 which on addition of excess of KI convert into orange colour solution. The cation of metal nitrate is (2005, 1M) (b) Bi 3+ (d) Pb2+ (c) Sn 2+ 15. (NH4 )2 Cr2 O7 on heating gives a gas which is also given by (2004, 1M) (a) Heating NH4NO2 (c) Mg3N2 + H2O (b) Heating NH4NO3 (d) Na(comp. ) + H2O2 16. A sodium salt of an unknown anion when treated with MgCl 2 gives white precipitate only on boiling. The anion is (2004, 1M) (a) SO2– 4 (b) HCO–3 (d) NO−3 (c) CO2− 3 [Fe(H2 O)5 (NO)+ ] SO4 . The oxidation state of iron is (1987, 1M) (a) 1 (b) 2 [Y ] + K 2 Cr2 O7 + H2 SO4 → green solution (a) SO23− , SO2 2− (c) S , H2S (2003, 1M) (b) Cl − , HCl (d) CO23− , CO2 The aqueous solution on treatment with silver nitrate gives a white precipitate. The saturated aqueous solution also dissolves magnesium ribbon with evolution of a colourless gas Y. Identify X and Y. (2002, 3M) (b) X = Cl 2 , Y = CO2 (d) X = H2 , Y = Cl 2 19. An aqueous solution of a substance gives a white precipitate on treatment with dilute hydrochloric acid, which dissolves on heating. When hydrogen sulphide is passed through the hot acidic solution, a black precipitate is obtained. The substance is a (2000, 1M) (a) Hg2+ 2 salt (b) Cr 2+ salt (c) Ag+ salt (1986, 1M) (a) Bi 3+ , Sn 4+ (b) Al 3+ , Hg2+ (c) Zn 2+ , Cu2+ (d) Ni 2+ , Cu2+ 24. The compound insoluble in acetic acid is (a) calcium oxide (c) calcium oxalate (1986, 1M) (b) calcium carbonate (d) calcium hydroxide 25. The ion that cannot be precipitated by both HCl