PATHOLOGY
MCQs &ESSAY
QUESTIONS
1st SEMESTER
‫ﻣﻊ ﺗﺤﻴﺎت ﻣﺮﻛﺰ اﻟﺨﻠﻴﺞ اﻟﻌﺮﺑﻲ‬
QUESTIONS OF CELL INJURY
MCQs-Choice the most correct answer (only one).
1. Fatty change is:
A. Irreversible cell injury. B. Reversible hydropic degeneration.
D. Seen only in liver tissue.
C. liver calcification.
E. A sequence of ribosome detachment.
2. Coagulative necrosis is seen in the following organs except:
A. Brain. B. Intestine.
C. Heart.
D. Kidney.
E. Spleen.
3. Hypertrophy results from:
A. Increased production of organelles. B. Increased proliferation of cells.
D. Decreased in cell size and organ.
C. Increased in cell size and organ.
E. Change in the cell type.
4. Which of the following is morphological change of irreversible cell injury?
A.Necrosis. B. hypertrophy. C. Fatty change. D. Swelling of cell. E. Dysplasia.
5. Free radicals injury seen in the following except:
A. Hypoxia. B. Genetic disorders. C. Immunological D. Radiation. E. Reperfusion after hypoxia.
reaction.
6. lschemic necrosis with superadded bacterial infection in foot is known as:
B. Caseous necrosis.
A. Coagulative necrosis.
D. Gangrene.
E. Fibrinoid necrosis.
C. liquefactive necrosis.
7. A 48-year-old male with a history of chronic alcoholism most often have which of the following
findings in liver:
B. Fatty change. C. Hemochromatosis.
A. Cholestasis.
E. Hypertrophy of smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
D. Coagulative necrosis.
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2. lschemic injury to the heart with myocardial cell death in a 51 year old female is indicated
microscopically by the presence of:
3. Hemorrhage into soft tissues from trauma forming a bruise on the thigh of a 15 year old male is
followed by the appearance of:
4. Russell bodies in plasma cells of the spleen of a 50 year old female are filled with:
5. Membrane damage, typical for a reperfusion injury following myocardial ischemia in a 58 year
old male, results from the action of
r� ·
A. Mitochondrial
I
swelling
Glutathione
depletion
K. Amyloid deposition
P. lmmunoglobulin
I deposition
--
,B. Cell swelling C. Heterophagocytosis D. Free radical
accumulation
,
G.ATP
depletion
L. Cyclic AMP
formation
r-­
,o. Apoptosis
I
H. Phospholipase
release
-
deposition
8
J. Lysosomal
enzyme leakage
I. lipochrome
accumulation
r
S. Ribosome
I detachment
T. Hyaline
I deposition
M. Melanin deposition N. Autophagocytosis
r; Hemosiderin
IE. Anthracotic
pigmentation
0. Bilirubin
accumulation
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QUESTIONS OF INFLAMMATION AND REPAIR
MCQs Choice the most correct answer (only one)
1. Attraction of leukocytes to the site of injury is enhanced by:
A. Chemotaxis. B. Transudation. C. Exudation. D. Phagocytosis. E. Cytokines.
2. Bradykinin is a mediator of:
A. Pain. B. Swelling and redness. C. Vasodilation. D. Vasoconstriction. E. Tissue necrosis.
3. Fusion of epithelioid cells is lead to formation of:
C. Langhans giant cells.
B. Epithelioid granuloma.
A. Granuloma.
D. Modified macrophages. E. Abscess.
4. Diagnostic feature of chronic non-specific inflammation is:
B. Lymphocytic infiltrate. C. Macrophages.
A. Exudate and necrosis.
E. Granuloma.
D. Destruction, fibrosis and angiogenesis.
5. Complement system is a mediator of:
A. Vasodilation. B. Pain. C. Increased vascular permeability. D. Vasoconstriction. E. Fever.
6. Abscess refers to:
A. Diffuse inflammatory infiltrate. B. localized suppurative inflammation.
D. Inflammatory infiltrate. E. Steatosis.
C. Neutrophilic infiltrate.
7. Diagnostic cells of acute inflammation are:
A. Neutrophils. B. Lymphocytes. C. Macrophages. D. Plasma cells. E. Mast cell
8. Ulcer means:
B. Dysplasia of lining epithelium.
A. Lose of interstitial matrix.
D. Scar formation. E. Atrophy of the cells.
C. Lose of epithelial surface.
9. The following are true about the component of granuloma except:
B. Rim of lymphocytes.
A. Epithelioid cells.
B. Reed-Sternberg cells. D. Giant cells.
E. Fibroblast.
10. Chemotaxis include the following except:
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QUESTIONS OF HEMODYNAMIC DISORDERS
MCQs Choice the most correct answer (only one)
1. The following are false about congestion except:
A. Stasis of oxygenated blood.
B. Affect lung, liver and spleen.
C. Revealing nutmeg gross picture in lung. D. Cardiac cirrhosis seen in acute liver congestion.
E. Active process.
2. Congestion may lead to the following except:
A. Abscess.
B. Hypoxia.
C. Hemorrhage.
D. Edema. E. Necrosis.
3. Anasarca is:
A. Localized edema. B. Hemothorax. C. Generalized edema. D. Ascites. E. hydrocephalus.
4. Hematamesis mean:
A. Bloody urine. B. Heavy mensis. C. Vomited blood. D. Hemoarthrosis. E. Epistaxis.
5. Heart failure cells is:
A. Alveolar hemosiderin-laden macrophage. B. Swelling pneumocytes.
C. Activated neutrophiles within alveoli.
D. Mast cells within myocardium. E. Eosinophils.
6. Collection of fluid in pleural cavity is known as:
A. Hydrothorax. B. Hemothorax. C. Chylothorax. D. Pneumothorax. E. Ascites.
7. Edema mean:
B. Extravasation of blood.
A. Movable clot within cardiovascular system.
C. Abnormal accumulation of fluid in interstitial space. D. Passive congestion.
E. Abnormal collection of fluid within the cells.
8. Periorbital edema is feature of:
A. CHF. B. Elephentiasis. C. Nephrotic syndrome. D. Hypertension. E. inflammation.
9. Hemorrhage mean:
A. Extravasation of blood.
B. Movable clot within CVS.
C. Localized dilatation of blood vessels. D. Passive congestion of blood.
E. Hemolysis of RBC.
10. Thrombosis is:
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C. A 41-year-old male with a deficiency of factor VIII.
D. An 82-year-old female following surgery for a broken hip.
E. A 20-year-old in the third trimester of pregnancy.
36. The gross finding at autopsy of a saddle pulmonary embolus is most likely to be present in a
patient.
A. Several weeks following placement of a hip prosthesis. B. With marked thrombocytopenia.
C. Who has a history of chronic alcoholism. D. Infected with the human immunodeficiency virus.
E. Infected with the mycobacterium tuberculosis.
37. The appearance of coronary artery thrombosis in a 49 year old male with sudden onset of
chest pain is least likely to be associated with:
A. A long history of diabetes mellitus. B. Hypercholesterolemia.
C. Acute myocardial infarction.
D. Recurrent pneumonia E. A history of smoking.
38. Sudden death after long period of hospitalization may caused by:
A. Passive congestion. B. Edema. C. Congestive heart failure. D. Pulmonary embolism.
E. Tuberculosis.
39. Fate of thrombosis include the following except:
A. Embolization. B. Propagation. C. Organization. D. Rupture. E. Recanalization.
40. Postmortem colt characterized by the following except:
A. Gelatinous. B. Dark red. C. Attached to the wall of blood vessels.
D. Easy to remove form the wall of blood vessels. E. Depend in the gravity.
41. Peripheral pooling of blood is seen in the following except:
A. Septic shock. B. Anaphylactic shock. C. Hypovolemic shock. D. Neurogenic shock.
E. Endotoxin shock.
42. For each of the following descriptions, select the most likely pathologic finding:
1. A Gross picture of passive congestion in liver:
2. Accumulation of blood in pleural cavity:
3. Obstruction of main pulmonary artery:
4. Observed in septic shock:
5. Play role in the pathogenesis of edema:
A. Oncotic pressure. B. Lipoprotein lipase C. Nutmeg D. Chylomicrones E. Hemothorax.
F. Malena G. Saddle embolism
H. Albumin I. Calcification J. Worm skin.
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QUESTIONS OF IMMUNE SYSTEM DISORDERS
MCQs- Choice the most correct answer (only one)
1. The following are non-specific immune response except:
A. Complement activation. B. Phagocytosis. C. Chemical mucosa I secretion.
D. Granulomatous reaction. E. Interferon production.
2. Which of the following statements is not true about specific immune response:
A. Artificial immune response produce by vaccination. B. Infections induce natural immunity.
C. Parenteral immunoglobulin consider as passive immunization.
D. Induction of lysosomal immune reaction.
E. Passive transfusion of immunoglobulin through placenta.
3. CD4 lymphocytes are least likely to play a role in:
A. Delayed HSR with granuloma formation.
B. Recognition of HLA-DR antigens in renal allograft rejection.
C. Initial infection by human immunodeficiency virus.
D. Cytotoxicity directed against cells infected with Epstein-Barr virus.
E. Release of interleukin to promote proliferation of more CD4 cells.
4. The following are true about T- lymphocytes except:
A. Thymus-derived cell. B. Triggered by free antigen and not need antigen presenting cells (APCs).
C. CD4 cell respond to antigen associated with class II MHC. D. Constitute 60-70% of lymphocytes in
blood. E. CD8 cell respond to associated with class I antigen.
5. In antigen recognition by cytotoxic T lymphocytes. The T cell receptor recognizes antigens
bound to:
A. Class I antigens. B. Class II antigens. C. Class Ill antigens. D. C3b complement. E. Fe portion of lgG.
6. The following are true about B-lymphocytes except:
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E. Diabetes mellitus.
D. Dermatomyositis.
49. The most serious long term complication of Sjogren's disease is:
A. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia. 8. Monoclonal 8-lymphocyte proliferation.
C. Malabsorbtion with diarrhea. D. Diffuse pulmonary interstitial fibrosis. E. Glomerulonephritis.
SO. A muscle biopsy from a 20-year-old female with symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness
shows acute inflammation of the muscle fibers. What additional microscopic finding would be
find in this situation:
A. Calcification. 8. Hyperplasia. C. Degeneration of muscle. D. Granuloma.
E. Amorphous eosinophilic materials.
51. An autoantibody that reacts to immunoglobulin ( eg. An anti-lgG autoantibody) is most
characteristic of:
A. Bullous pemphigoid. 8. Diabetes mellitus. C. Goodpasture's disease. D. Pemphigus vulgaris.
E. Rheumatoid arthritis.
52. A 62-year-old female complains of dry eyes and dry mouth for a number of years. She has
autoantibodies to the nuclear antigen. These findings are mostly seen in:
A. Systemic sclerosis. B. Mysthenia gravis. C. Dermatomyositis. D. Sjogren's syndrome.
E. Polyarteritis nodosa.
53. A 40-year-old female with sclerodactyly and difficulty swallowing has a skin biopsy that
shows extensive dermal fibrosis but no inflammatory cell infiltrates. This is most typical for:
A. Mixed connective tissue disease. 8. Discoid lupus erythematosus.
C. Progressive systemic sclerosis.
D. Dermatomyositis.
E. Amyloidosis.
54. A six-month-old male infant has been getting one bacterial pneumonia after another with
both H. influenzae and S. pneumoniae. You should most strongly suspect that he has:
C. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection.
A. Thymus hypoplasia.
8. lgA deficiency.
D. Acute leukemia. E. X-linked agammaglobulinemia.
SS. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome characterized by the following except:
A. Profound immunosuppression with opportunistic infection.
8. Kaposi sarcoma.
C. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia. D. Suppression of Th(CD4) cells. E. Progressive encephalopathy
56. The HIV composed of the following structures except:
A. Nucleocapsid proteins. B. Double stranded DNA. C. Reverse transcriptase. D. A lipid envelope.
E. Glycoproteins.
57. Neurological AIDS manifestations include the following except:
A. Septic meningitis. B. Aseptic meningitis. C. Dementia complex. D. Peripheral neuropathy.
E. Progressive encephalopathy.
58. Regarding early acute phase of AIDS which of the following is not true:
A. Happen within 3-6 weeks after infection. B. Self-limiting illness in 50-70% of adult.
C. Decrease CD+ cells. D. Non-specific symptoms. E. Non of above.
59. An 87-year-old male develops worsening heart failure. Two months later the patient dies.
Postmortem reveals eosinophilic Congo red-positive material. What is the correct diagnosis:
A. Amyloidosis. B. Glycogenosis. C. Sarcoidosis. D. Hemochromatosis. E. Senile atrophy.
60. Regarding the causes of secondary amyloidosis which one is not true.
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A. SLE. B.Rheumatoid artheritis. C. Tuberculosis. D. Chronic osteomyelitis. E. Renal cell carcinoma.
61. The most serious complications of amyloidosis is
A. Hepatomegaly. B. Splenomegaly. C. Renal failure. D. Endocrine disorders.
E. Tumorous mass of GIT.
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QUESTIONS OF NEOPLASMS
MCQs Choice the most correct answer (only one)
1. Neoplasm is:
A. Normal proliferation of the epithelial cell. B. Collection of abnormal fluid in intercellular spaces.
C. Autonomous, uncontrolled proliferation of the cells. D. Hyperplasia. E. Hypertrophy of the cell.
2. Carcinoma is:
B. Malignant tumor of mesenchymal tissue.
A. Malignant tumor of epithelia tissue.
C. Benign tumor of mesenchymal tissue. D. Benign tumor of surface epithelium. E. All of above.
3. Sarcoma mean:
B. Malignant neoplasm of epithelial tissue.
A. Malignant tumor of connective tissue.
D. Benign tumor. E. Tumor-like lesion.
C. Benign neoplasm of breast.
4. What is the important feature of malignancy:
A. Rapid growth. B. Metastasis. C. Local invasion. D. Unencapsulated. E. Hormonal secretion.
5. Link the following cancers with their corresponding viruses; 1) Cervical cancer 2) Burkitt's
5) T Cell Leukemia
lymphoma. 3) Nasopharyngeal carcinoma 4) Hepatocellular carcinoma.
Lymphoma. A)Epstein- Barr virus, B) Human papilloma virus C) Hepatitis B, D) RNA retrovirus
A. lA, 2A, 38, 4C, SD.
C. 18, 2A, 3A, 4C, SD.
B. 10, 2A, 3A, 4C, SB.
E. 18, 2A, 3A, 40, SC.
D. lC, 2A, 38, 4A, SD.
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5. A 45 year old male complaining of headaches for several weeks is found by computed
tomographic (CT) scan to have an ill-defined 3 to 4 cm mass in the left cerebral hemisphere:
A. Adenocarcinoma B. Choristoma
FMesothelioma
G.
Plasmacytoma
jK. Kaposi's sarcoma jL. Lipoma
P. Large cell
lymphoma
C. Carcinoma in
situ
rH. Seminoma
jM. Myxoma
F Hamartom.a rR. Hemangioma
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I
D. Astrocytoma
I. Leiomyosarcoma
,N. lntradermal nevus
S. Squamous cell
carcinoma
r:·
Basal cell
.
carcinoma
jo. Chondrosarcoma
- Mature cystic
�
teratoma
..
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43. A newborn female infant develops edema, jaundice, and trouble breathing. The blood
type of the mother is AB negative, while the baby and the father are both B positive. What is the
best diagnosis?
A. ABO hemolytic disease of the newborn.
B. Hemoglobin H disease. C. Hydrops fetalis.
D. Hyaline membrane disease of the newborn. E. Rh hemolytic disease of the newborn.
•.
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A. Vitamin A
B. Biotin
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
E. Vitamin E
F. Folic acid
G. Chocolate
H. Saturated fat
I. Iron
J. Fiber
L. Calcium
M. Protein
rK. Vitamin K
fr.
Pyridoxine
jQ. Vitamin 812
fR. Riboflavin
jN. Niacin
Is. Zinc
0. Ethanol
T. Thiamine
1
For each of the following groups of patients, select the most likely nutritional disorder:
1. Atherosclerosis among Americans is in part due to excessive consumption of foods containing:
2. Pregnant women need more of this nutrient in the diet to prevent anemia:
3. Pellagra with dermatitis of sun-exposed skin is uncommon because foods such as cereals and
bread contain sufficient:
4. Scurvy is a diseases due to deficiency of:
5. Persons with a history of chronic alcoholism are given this nutrient because they are often found
to have a prolonged prothrombin time:
IA. Vitamin A
j F. Folic acid
jK. Vitam�
fr.
Pyridoxine
�Biotin
fG. Chocolate
--IL. Calcium
-ro--
Q. Vitamin 812
fc. Vitamin C
-
fH. Saturated fat
IM. Protein
!R. Riboflavin
lo. Vitamin D
ru;on
IN. Niacin
Is. Zinc
IE. Vitamin E
,J. Fiber
fo�thanol
--
[r. Thiamine
.·
-.
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QUESTIONS OF INFECTIOUS DISEASES
MCQs- Choice the most correct answer (only one)
1. Viruses produce diseases in following ways except:
A. Transformation of host cells to malignant tumor.
B. Surviving in nonreplicating form and causing latent infection.
C. Releasing active endotoxins.
D. Causing transient diseases such as common cold.
E. Formation of intracellular inclusion bodies.
2. Schistosomiasis illness is caused by:
B. Inflammatory immune response to the eggs or larva.
A. Toxin releasing by larva.
C. Mechanical affect of adult parasite. D. Acute suppurative inflammation. E. Free radicals.
3. Microbes can enter the host through the following ways except:
A. Breaches in the skin. B. Sexual transmission. C. Inhalation D. Ingestion. E. None of above.
4. Mycobacterium tuberculosis is:
B. Acid fast spirochete. C. Acid fast bacilli. D. Gram negative bacilli.
A. Gram positive bacilli.
E. Gram positive cocci.
5. All the following statements are correct about prion (prp) except:
C. Transmitted from animal to humoan.
A. Infectious agent.
B. Causing neural damage.
D. Microorganism.
E. Transmitted from person to person.
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A. An occupational history of exposure to beryllium. B. Tuberculosis, if acid-fast bacilli are present.
C. Sarcoidosis, if cultures and special stains are negative. D. Histoplasmosis, if a fungal culture is
positive. E. Salmonellosis, if microbiologic culture is positive
31. Which of the following statements is incorrect:
A. Latency of infection is a feature of the Epstein-Barr virus.
B. Aspergillosis is often complicated by endotoxin release and shock.
C. Diagnosis of Lyme disease is aided by finding antibody to a spirochete.
D. Diphtheritic myocarditis is due to an exotoxin.
E. Miliary dissemination is a complication of secondary M. tuberculosis.
32. A GS-year-old male has an abscessing bronchopneumonia that develops a week after a stroke
leaves him incapacitated and in hospital may be due to:
A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Treponema pallidum. C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D. Herpes simplex E. Histoplasma capsulatum.
33. A 20-year-old female has noted multiple genital epithelial vesicles that have occurred
sporadically over months are result from:
A. Staphylococcus aureus. B. Treponema pallidum. C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
D. Herpes simplex. E. Histoplasma capsulatum.
34. Which of the following statements is incorrect.
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa skin infection predispose by burns.
B. Lac.k of splenic function in sickle disease result in infection with encapsulated bacteria such as
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
C. Deficiencies of the late complement component result in infection by Neisseria species.
D. Deficiencies in neutrophils function leading to infection with S. aureus.
E. T cells defect lead to infection with extracellular pathogenic virus.
35. Pathogenesis of bacteria depend in the following except:
A. Toxins. B. Superantigen. C. Hypersenetivity reaction. D. Histocompatibilty complex.
E. Coagulase enzymes.
36. Urinary tract infection is common in:
A. Adult male. B. Female in reproductive period.
C. Elder male with atherosclerosis.
D. Newborn.
E. Male with prostatic hyperplasia.
37. Respiratory infection enhance by the following except:
A. Mucous secretion. B. Impair ciliary action. C. Smoking. D. lmmunocompromise. E. AIDS.
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•
SlamousC
·,. • I
QUESTIONS OF HISTOTECHNOLOGY
MCQs Choice the correct answer (only one)
1. Techniques used to made the tissue in a thin microscopic sections is known as:
A. Cytology. B. Tissue pr_9cessing C. Histology. C. Histopathology. E. Surgical pathology.
2. Histotechnologists is:
A. A person who do the tissue processing. B. A person who do the microscopic diagnosis.
C. Who do gross examination. D. An oncologist. E. A person who do culturing of specimen.
3. To run the specimen in the tissue processing, the following data must be available:
A. Request form. B. Name of patient. C. Site of specimen. D. Biopsy serial number.
E. All of the above.
4. For tissue processing the tissue of biopsy put in the cassette along with:
A. Request form. B. Name of patient. C. Registration number .. D. Coverslippe. E. All of the above.
5. The purpose of tissue fixation is to prevent:
A. Calcification. B. Autolysis. C. Coagulation. D. Apoptosis. E. Hemolysis.
6. The following solutions are fixative material except:
A. Aldehydes. B. Mercurials. C. Normal saline. D. Alcohols. E. Oxidizing agents.
7. The standard solution for tissue fixation is:
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.l
.C.ell injury
assay questions:
1-write short account on mechanism of:
a-cellular swelling.
8-increase cytosolic calcium and its etfect (Role ofCa2 in the cell injury).
C-reversible cell injury.
D-fatty changes.
E-free radical mediated cell injury.
F-hypoxic cell injury.
g- what's pathogenesis , prognosis?
2-write short account on fatty change (definition, mechanism,
microscopic and gross study).
3-write short account on necrosis (defmition, types, microscopic and
gross appearance and fate).
4-write short account on cellular adaptation (definition,types and
types).
5-write the main differences between apoptosis and necrosis.
6-write short account on:
a-hyaline change.
B-calcification.
C-melanin pigmentation.
D-intracellular accumulation including glycogen, lipid, hemosiderin.
E-exogenous and endogenous pigments.
F-characteristic features of reversible and irreversible cell injury.
G-effect (outline) of hypoxia in reversible cell injury. (Short account on
hypoxia cell injury)
q-role of calcium in cell injury.
K-role of ATP in cell injury.
7-Mechanisms of cell injury (vulnerable organelles)
a-Enumerate cell response to injury.
9- write on Cell atrophy with example
1 O- Discuss pathological calcification
11- fvietapiasia, definition and types
12-hvperplasia, definition, and example
13- Classify and mention the clinical significance of endometrial hyperplasia?
1.t1.r3uses of liver fatty changes
15-- Short account fatty change (definition, mechanism, microscopic
gross )
16- Outline the effect of hypoxia in reversible cell injury?
17-write short account on dysplasia?
18-Write short account on Gangrene?
19- Enumerate the cause cell injury with example?
20-definition two types of adaptation and give example?
21-short account melanin pigmentation
22-short account of free radical mediated cell injury
23-short account of reversible cell injury
24-short account of cellular swelling
25- short account of metabolic calcification
�)
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fNF/ AMMA TION
� �vr
�
l·Write the definition and mechanis,
,. cf:
E�e, redness, � t�ird sign of
inflammation and chemotaxis
2-write the source and significanc
e (action) of:
C3b,[I
L
1an
dTN
F},(
LT
B4,
LT
C4,
L ysosomal enzymes and
complement mediators
3-what do you understand bv:
Chemotaxis, transudate, marginatio
n, phagocytosis, regeneration.
4-write the source and significanc
e of:
Opsonins , Thromboxane, PG ,IFN
-y and bradykinin
5-Write the definition and mecha
nism of Leukocyte transmigration
.
6- Write the definition and mecha
nism of phagocytosis.
7- Discuss why:
a) Abscess is a
loca
lize
d
Infl
am
�
ma
tory
pro
ces
s.
ra} bt l ltl", c� cJ...9{-ene
p
b) Acute inflammatory process ma
�
y change t6chronic inflammator
y process.
�
c)Transforming Growth factor is
an Important factor of healing .
d}Plasm
a
cel
l
and
ma
cro
pha
ges
are
important cell in ihronlc inflamma
tion.
e)Acute inflammation may leads
to death.
f) Gaseous necrosis Is formed In
chronic inflam)ed tissue
g)lmmune granuloma is not forme
d in foreign body type.
8-Write the main steps of vascul
ar response.
9-Write the stages (phases)of fibr
oplasia.
10-Write short account on.
a)role of macrophage in chronic infl
ammation.
b)suppurative inflammation.
c) fibrinous inflammation.
d)Exudate [definition-pathogenesi
s-type]
e)Granulation tissue [definition-pa
thogenesis-histological and gross
picture}
f)Healing of wounds by the first inte
ntion.
11-Write the
ma
in
diff
ere
nce
s between healing of wound by prim
ary and
secondary intention.
�
12 -Write the mechanism of:
-pus formation.
-Immune granuloma
-Plasma cell formation
-Transudate.
.
between acute inflammQ tion and chronic
. d'fferences
I
l3-Write the mam
!�fll?mmation.
14-Describe the granuloma in 'fB, Leprosy and. SVPhiiis.
.
15-Wrlte short account on abscess [defin,"tion types - mech tmsm - zones and
complications]
. mmation and differences between
. inffa
16-Write short account on Utcerattve
malignant and
Inflammatory ulcer.
17-Write the mpin histological diagnostic features of:
·Chronic non- specific inttammation.
-Chronic specific inflammation.
-Acute inflammation.
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