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T&D 2022
PEDIATRICS
OBSTETRICS
GUIDELINES FOR THE TEST
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There will be one paper of 60 Minutes duration containing 75 Multiple Choice
Questions (MCQs)
The questions will be single response objective type.
These questions have been selected by experts and formulated after years of
experience and research.
There is a trend in all papers in last years, towards clinical approach based
integrated questions and less number of repeat questions. In this paper you will
find significant newly framed questionsHigh yielding golden points are given in
explanations.
DAMS HAS THE HIGHEST STRIKE RATE WITH NEW QUESTIONS
Please write your ENROLMENT number, Name and Subject on the response
sheet. Papers without these will not be evaluated.
Technical Issue - hepldesk@damsdelhi.com
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6
t & d_obstetrics paper 2022 – question
Q1. A woman not currently pregnant who has
had one previous termination, one early
miscarriage and one still birth at 36 weeks.
For this description choose the most
appropriate ANSWER
A. G1P0
C. G2P1
Q5. The image represents which of the following
perineal lacerations
B. G1P1
D. G3P1
Q2. Match the column of hormones to their
effects in pregnancy
A. HCG
1. Released from posterior pituitary
B. HPL
2. Levels are 15 times higher in third
trimester than in Nonpregnant
C. OXYTOCIN
3. Utilised in triple test
D. PROLACTIN
4. Reduces insulin sensitivity
A. A2B4C1D3
B. A3B4C1D2
C. A4B3C1D2
D. A1B2C4D3
Q3. an obstetric patient at 35 weeks shows
variable decelerations on NST following
which Ultrasound is done and shows the
following. What subsequent evaluation is
recommended for this patient
A. Third degree laceration
B. Second degree laceration
C. First degree laceration
D. Fourth degree laceration
Q6. A lady after delivery was noted to have
postpartum haemorrhage. On examination
her uterine fundus was firm but lower
segment was atonic for which she was
given oxytocin and hemabate. Despite this
she continued to bleed and a whole blood
transfusion was started and bakri balloon
tamponade was put. Despite this she
continues to bleed. Her PR IS 124 bpm and
BP is 80/60mmhg. You perform a laparotomy
and see atonic uterus . which of the following
is a suitable next step in this situation
A. Internal iliac ligation
B. Uterine compression sutures
C. Bilateral uterine artery ligation
D. Hysterectomy
A. Sterile speculum examination
B. Umbilical artery Doppler
C. Sonographic measurement of fetal growth
D. All the above
Q4. Which of the following is the main advantage
to performing mediolateral episiotomy
A. Less blood loss
B. Less anal sphincter injury
C. Less dyspareunia
D. Easier to repair
Q7. A 30 year old multigravida presents with
ruptured membranes at term without labour.
following induction with miso her labour
progresses rapidly and she delivers live baby.
Immediately after delivery she complains
of complains of dyspnea. She becomes
apneic and pulseless and is unable to be
resuscitated. Photomicrograph from her
autopsy reveal fetal squamous cells within
the pulmonary vasculature. How would her
death be classified
A. Perinatal death
B. Non maternal death
C. Direct maternal death
D. Indirect maternal death
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2
t & d_obstetrics paper 2022 – question
Q8. Match the image swith correct diagnosis
A.
Q9. You performed a forceps-assisted vaginal
delivery on a 20-year-old G1 at 40 weeks
for maternal exhaustion.. A second-degree
episiotomy was cut to facilitate delivery.
Eight hours after delivery, you are called
to see the patient because she is unable
to void and complains of severe pain. On
examination the following is seen. What is
the best management for this patient?
B.
A. Apply an ice pack to the perineum.
B. Embolize the internal iliac artery.
C. Incision and evacuation of the hematoma.
D. Place a vaginal pack for 24 hours
C.
Q10.
Your patient complains of decreased
fetal movement at term. You recommend
a modified BPP test. Nonstress tesng
(NST) in your office was reactive. The
next part of the modified BPP is which of
the following?
A. Contraction stress testing
B. Amniotic fluid index evaluation
C. Ultrasound assessment of fetal movement
D. Ultrasound assessment of fetal breathing
movements
D.
Q11.
41 year old G3P2 presents at 12 weeks for
a first trimester sonographic evaluation.
The following image is seen, following
which she undergoes CVS and the fetal
karyotype is 46 XY. Her fetus still needs
to be evaluated in the second trimester
for which of the following.
1. Cystic hygroma
2. Duodenal atresia
3. Spina bifida
4. Anencephaly
A. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
B. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
C. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
D. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
3
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t & d_obstetrics paper 2022 – question
A. Aneuploidy
B. Duodenal atresia
C. Cleft palate
D. Cardiac defects
Q12.
A 28-year-old G1P0 presents to your
office at 16weeks gestational age for an
unscheduled visit secondary to rightsided groin pain. She describes the pain
as sharp and occurring with movement
and exercise. She denies any change in
urinary or bowel habits. She also denies
any fever or chills. The application
of a heating pad helps alleviate the
discomfort. As her obstetrician, what
should you tell this patient is the most
likely etiology of this pain?
Q14. An 18-year-old G1 at 8 weeks gestation
complains of nausea and vomiting
over the past week occurring on a daily
basis. Nausea and emesis are a common
symptom in early pregnancy. Which of
the following signs or symptoms would
indicate a more serious diagnosis of
hyperemesis gravidarum?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Weight gain
D. Proteinuria
Q15.
A. Round ligament pain
B. Appendicitis
C. Preterm labor
D. Urinary tract infection
Q13. Match the clinical scenario with the correct
type of abortion
A.
Uterine
bleeding
at 12 weeks gestation 1. Complete abortion
accompanied by cervical
dilation without passage of
tissue.
Which of the following is the most
appropriate next step in the management
of this patient?
B. Passage of some but not 2. Incomplete abortion
all placental tissue through
the cervix at 9 weeks
gestation.
C. Fetal death at 15 weeks 3. Threatened abortion
gestation without expulsion
of any fetal or maternal
tissue for at least 8 weeks.
D. Uterine bleeding at 7 4. Missed abortion
weeks gestation without
any cervical dilation.
E. Expulsion of all fetal and
placental tissue from the 5. Inevitable abortion
uterine cavity at 10 weeks
gestation.
A.
B.
C.
D.
A-2, B-5, C-4, D-1, E-3
A-5, B-2, C-4, D-3, E-1
A-5, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-1
A-5, B-1, C-2, D-4, E-3
A 32-year-old G2P0101 presents to
labor and delivery at 34 weeks of
gestation, complaining of regular
uterine contractions about every 5
minutes for the past several hours. She
has also noticed the passage of a clear
fluid from vagina.. On sterile speculum
examination, the cervix is visually closed.
A sample of pooled amniotic fluid seen
in the vaginal vault is fern and nitrazinepositive. The patient has a temperature
of 38.8°C, pulse 102 beats per minute,
blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg, and her
fundus is tender to deep palpation and
the FHR is normal.
A. Administer betamethasone.
B. Administer tocolytics.
C. Administer antibiotics.
D. Perform emergent caesarean section.
Q16.
A 38-year-old G1P1 comes to see you
for her first prenatal visit at 10 weeks
gestaonal age. She had a previous
term vaginal delivery without any
complications You also draw her prenatal
labs. Two weeks later, the results of the
patient’s prenatal labs come back. Her
blood type is A–, with an anti-D antibody
titer of 1:4. Which of the following is
the most appropriate next step in the
management of this patient?
A. Schedule an amniocentesis for amniotic fluid
bilirubin at 16 weeks.
B. Repeat the titer in 4 weeks.
C. Repeat the titer at 28 weeks.
D. Schedule Percutaneous Umbilical Blood
Sampling (PUBS) to determine fetal hematocrit
at 20 weeks.
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4
t & d_obstetrics paper 2022 – question
Q17.
The following anomaly is seen in the
baby, what is the likely etiology
the following results are obtained: WBC
25K, Hct 42, platelets 52000, SGOT/PT
287/350, glucose 43 s, serum ammonia
90mmol/l . Urinalysis is positive for 3+
protein and large ketones. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
C. Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy
D. Severe preeclampsia
Q20.
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Hepatitis B
C. Influenza A
D. Parvovirus
A. Pregestational diabetes
B. Gestational diabetes
C. ACEI
D. Valproate
Q18. A 29-year-old G2P1 woman at 39 weeks’
gestation had a myomectomy for
infertility previously. While pushing
during the second stage of labor, she
is noted to have fetal bradycardia
associated with some vaginal bleeding.
The fetal head, which was previously
at +2 station, is now noted to be at –3
station. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Umbilical cord prolapse
B. Uterine rupture
C. Placental abruption
D. Fetal congenital heart block
Q21.
Which of the following statements is
not true regarding antepartum and
postpartum care of patients with
cardiovascular disease
A. Vaginal delivery is preferred
B. Epidural anaesthesia is preferred
C. Switch over to warfarin at 36 weeks in women
with prosthetic heart valves
D. Invasive monitoring with pulmonary artery
catheter is required
Q22.
Q19. A 36-year-old G1P0 at 35 weeks gestation
presents
to
labor
and
delivery
complaining of a several-day history of
generalized malaise, anorexia, nausea,
and emesis. She denies any headache
or visual changes. On physical
examination, you notice that she is
mildly jaundiced and appears to be a
little confused. Her vital signs indicate a
temperature of 37.7°C (99.9°F), pulse of
70 beats per minute, and blood pressure
of 100/62 mm Hg. Blood is drawn and
5
A 20-year-old woman who works as a
kindergarten teacher presents for her
routine visit at 32 weeks. Her fundal height
measures 40 cm. An ultrasound reveals
polyhydramnios, an appropriately grown
fetus with ascites and scalp edema. The
patient denies any recent illnesses, but
some of the children at her school have
been sick recently. What is the most
likely cause of the fetal findings?
A 32-year-old G1 at 39 weeks gestation
is admitted in labor at 4 cm dilated and
completely effaced; the fetal head is at 0
station. You perform clinical pelvimetry
and find the following: the diagonal
conjugate is 10 cm, the interischial spine
distance is 11 cm with non convergent
side walls, and the intertuberous
distance is 9 cm. Those measurements
describe which of the following types of
pelvis?
A. Normal pelvis
B. Contracted pelvic inlet
C. Contracted midpelvis
D. Contracted pelvic outlet
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t & d_obstetrics paper 2022 – question
Q23. A 22-year-old G1P0 has just undergone a
spontaneous vaginal delivery. As the
placenta is being delivered, the following
is seen. Which of the following is the best
next step in management of this patient?
Q28.
In a case of recurrent abortions what is
not to be done
A. TSH
C. Usg
Q29.
High risk for preterm labour is when
cervical length is less than
A. 2cm
C. 3cm
Q30.
A. Begin intravenous oxytocin infusion
B. Call for immediate assistance from other
medical personnel
C. Continue to remove the placenta manually
D. Have
the
anesthesiologist
administer
magnesium sulfate
Q24.
Primigravida
at
32
weeks
with
intrauterine fetal growth restriction is
being monitored with Doppler studies,
the following is the finding obtained
what is the appropriate management
A. Injection dexamethasone
B. Induction of labour at 34 weeks
C. Immediate CS
D. Weekly follow up with Doppler studies
Q25.
Which of the following bishop score is
suitable for induction
A. 6-13
C. Only 13
Q26.
B. Increase PAPPA
D. Decrease AFP
Which is not correctly paired
A. Blastocyst – implantation
B. Ampulla – fertilisation
C. Amnion – trophoblast
D. Morula – 16 cell
Intradecidual ring sign
Double decidual ring sign
Double bleb sign
Ring of fire sign
Which of the following is true about down
syndrome maternal serum screening
A. Dual test done at 11-13 weeks includes NT and
PAPP-A
B. Quadruple test done between 15-22 weeks
includes UE3, Inhibin B, HCG and AFP
C. Combined test includes both first and second
trimester serum screening
D. Integrated test includes assessment of HCG,
PAPPA, UE3, AFP, INHIBIN A and NT
Q32.
Which of the following are correct about
diagnosis of diabetes in pregnancy
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q33.
Pregestational diabetes is FBS more than 126
GDM is 2hr OGTT more than 140
Overt diabetes is 2 hr OGTT more than 200
All the above
All the following can be used for ripening
of unfavourable cervix at term except
A. PGE1 tablet
C. PGE2 gel
Q34.
B. Pgf2alpha
D. Balloon catheter
Which of the following engaging
diameters is not correctly paired
A. Well flexed head- suboccipeto bregmatic
B. Deflexed head- occipetobregmatic
C. Brow – mentovertical
D. Breech-bitrochanteric
Which of the following is true with
respect to prediction of risk of IUGR
A. Increase Sflt1
C. Multiparity
Q27.
B. Less than 6
D. 3-6
B. 2.5cm
D. 3.5cm
Which of the following is the earliest
ultrasound
sign
of
intrauterine
pregnancy
A.
B.
C.
D.
Q31.
B. APLA
D. TORCH
Q35.
Which of the following is not a component
of AMTSL as per WHO
A. Delayed cord clamping
B. Uterine massage
C. Controlled cord traction
D. Injection methergin
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6
t & d_obstetrics paper 2022 – question
Q36.
Which of the following is not obstetrical
use of MgSO4
Q43.
A. Prevent seizure in preeclampsia
B. Prevent further seizure in eclampsia
C. Neuroprotection
D. Prevention of RDS
Q37.
The following types of anaesthesia are
correctly paired with the condition in
pregnancy except
A. Heart disease – epidural
B. Preeclampsia – epidural
C. Caesarean section – epidural
D. Labour - epidural
Q38.
Q39.
Q45.
Which of the following gives the best
assessment of gestational age
Most common
posterior is
cause
of
Q41.
Regarding
pregnancy
correct
occipeto
Q42.
gestational diabetes in
which statement is not
Considering the hemodynamic changes
occurring during pregnancy which is
incorrect
A. Increase in colloid oncotic pressure
B. Haematocrit is decreased
C. Pregnancy is hypercoagulable state
D. Uterine enlargement beyond 20 weeks can
cause supine hypotension syndrome
7
All the following help to diagnose
occipeto posterior position during
examination of a pregnant woman except
A. Flat abdomen below umbilicus
B. Head will be engaged
C. FHR heard in the flank away from mid line
D. Fetal limbs are easily felt near the midline
Q47.
A. Does not increase risk of chromosomal anomalies
B. Well controlled diabetes to be delivered at 38
weeks
C. level 2 usg should be done
D. Drug treatment to be started when 2 hr PP
glucose value exceeds 120
In which of the following conditions can
ECV be done for breech presentation
A. IUGR
B. Previous LSCS
C. Hyperextension of fetal head
D. Flexed breech
Q46.
A. Android pelvis
B. Gynaecoid pelvis
C. Multiparity
D. Deflexed head
Which of the following is not true for
breech at term
A. Incidence is 3%
B. Risk of anomalies is 6%
C. Extended breech can be delivered vaginally
D. Ideal EBW for breech vaginal delivery should be
less than 3.5kg
The following are true about HELLP
syndrome except
A. CRL at 7-10 weeks
B. BPD at 18-20 weeks
C. CRL at 5-7 weeks
D. MSD of gestational sac at 5-7 weeks
Q40.
A. Can be labelled as severe preeclampsia
B. Requires termination of pregnancy
C. Injection dexamethasone is to be given
D. Injection labetalol to be given
Q44.
A. Increased transaminases
B. Increased direct bilirubin
C. Incraesed LDH
D. Low platelet count
A 20 year old primigravida comes at
35 weeks with complaints of edema of
feet. On examination her blood pressure
is 170/110mmhgand urine shows
proteinuria. Which of the following
statements regarding her management
is not true
Which of the following is considered
as category 3 fetal heart rate tracing by
NICHD
A. Absent beat to beat variability with late
decelerations
B. Absent beat to beat variability with variable
decelerations
C. Sinusoidal heart rate pattern
D. All the above
Q48.
Regarding peri partum cardiomyopathy
which statement is incorrect
A. Prolactin has been implicated as etiology
B. Systolic heart failure
C. Develops within 6 weeks after delivery
D. Risk is higher in multifetal pregnancy
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t & d_obstetrics paper 2022 – question
Q49.
The following have been correctly paired
except
A. Amniotic band syndrome – oligohydramnios
B. Fetal alcohol syndrome – triad of facial features,
CNS abnormalities and growth retardation
C. Fetal warfarin syndrome- chondrodysplasia
punctata
D. Potters syndrome – polyhydramnios
Q50.
Q52.
A. Obturator muscle
B. Pudendal nerve and vessel
C. Bulbospongiosus
D. Superficial and transverse perineal muscles
Q53.
Primigavida with spontaneous onset of
labour at 37 weeks was in the second
stage of labour for last 3 hours and was
exhausted , the baby cried at birth but
has the following finding what is the
likely etiology of the finding
Q51.
A 32-year-old G1P0 woman is at 42
weeks’ gestation and being induced for
postterm pregnancy. Her cervix is closed,
3 cm long, and fi rm on consistency. The
obstetrician decides on using a cervical
ripening agent with misoprostol in the
vagina. Approximately 2 hours after
placing the misoprostol, the patient has
the following finding on CTG. Which of
the following is the most likely etiology
of the?
For women undergoing induction of
labor with a Bishop score of 5 or less,
which of the following is a commonly
used first step?
A. Nonstress test
B. Oxytocin drip
C. Cervical application of prostaglandin E 2
D. Artificial rupture of membranes
Q54.
A. Hypoxic injury
B. Shoulder dystocia
C. Forceps induced injury
D. Prematurity
Which of the following structure is not
cut in episiotomy
A 28-year-old G1P0 woman presents to
the diabetes clinic at 28 weeks with a
recent diagnosis of GDM. By 37 weeks
of gestation, she has been started on
medical treatment with insulin before
each meal. The insulin dosing has
increased until 36 weeks when her
glycemic control was excellent with all
values below threshold. You schedule
her for induction of labor at
A. 37 weeks
C. 39 weeks
E. 41 weeks
Q55.
Which are impending signs of eclampsia
( multiple correct type)
1) Epigastric pain
2) Persistent pedal edema
3) Blurred vision
4) Headache
A. 1,2 ,3 and 4
B. 1,2 and 3
C. 1,3 and 4
D. 2,3 and 4
Q56.
HCG is structurally and functionally
similar to
A. LH
C. ACTH
Q57.
A. Placental abruption
B. Sepsis
C. Umbilical cord prolapse
D. Uterine hyperstimulation
B. 38 weeks
D. 40 weeks
B. FSH
D. Oxytocin
Match the columns with their correct usg
parameter
A. Fetal growth
1) usg at 18-20weeks
B. Pregnancy dating
2) usg at 32 weeks
C. Gross congenital anomalies 3) Beyond 15 weeks
D. Placenta previa
4) CRL at 7-10 weeks
E. Amniocentesis
5) Abdominal circumference
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8
t & d_obstetrics paper 2022 – question
ANSWER using the code
A. 1&4
B. 2&3
C. 1&3
D. 2&4
A. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1, E-5
B. A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2, E-3
C. A-5, B-4, C-3, D-1, E-2
D. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4, E-5
Q58.
A 25-year-old G3P2 at 39 weeks is
admitted in labor at 6cm dilated. The
fetal heart rate tracing is reactive. Two
hours later, she is reexamined and her
cervix is unchanged at 6 cm dilated. An
IUPC is placed and the patient is noted
to have 280 Montevideo units (MUV) by
the IUPC. After an additional 2 hours
of labor, the patient is noted to still be
6cm dilated. The fetal heart rate tracing
remains reactive. Which of the following
is the best next step in the management
of this labor?
A. Continue to wait and observe the patient.
B. Perform emergency CS
C. Augment labor with Pitocin.
D. Attempt delivery via vacuum extraction.
Q59.
Q62.
1) Certified for assisting at least 15 MTP in an
authorised centre
2) Diploma or degree in OBG
3) House surgeon training for 3 months in obgy
4) Certified training for 6 months in laparoscopic
surgeries
Select the correct ANSWER using the code
given below
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1,2 and 3
D. 1,2 and 4
Q63.
Which of the following clinical conditions
is not an indication for induction of
labor?
A. Severe preeclampsia at 36 weeks
B. Complete placenta previa
C. Chorioamnionitis
D. Postterm pregnancy
Q60.
A Patient had BP of 110/72mmhg on her
first prenatal visit at 8 weeks, she then
develops hypertension in third trimester
and her BP is 148/94mmhg. Urine protein
by dipstick is 1+ and serum creatinine is
0.76. what is her correct diagnosis
A. Gestational hypertension
B. Chronic hypertension
C. Preeclampsia
D. Superimposed preeclampsia
Q61.
A 24-year-old G2P1001 woman at 39
weeks and 3 days is seen in clinic. She
has been experiencing more frequent
contractions and thinks she might be in
labor. Her last pregnancy ended with a
cesarean delivery after a stage 1 arrest.
What would be a contraindication to a
trial of labor after cesarean (TOLAC)?
A
B
C
D
9
Prior classical hysterotomy
Prior Kerr hysterotomy
large-for-gestational-age (LGA) fetus
Oligohydramnios
Which of the following is/are required for
registered medical practitioner to qualify
for performing MTP as per revised rules
of MTP act
A G3P2002 woman at 35 weeks is seen in
your office for her prenatal visit. She is
concerned because she has not felt her
baby moving as much as she used to.
Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated,
and her past two pregnancies ended in
full term, normal spontaneous vaginal
deliveries. A Biophysical profile is done
to assess which of the following fetal
parameters
1) Fetal tone
2) Amniotic fluid
3) Fetal breathing movements
4) Middle cerebral artery flow
ANSWER using the code
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1,2 and 4 only
C. 1,2 and 3 only
D. 3 & 4 only
Q64.
A 35 years old G2P1L1 has 24 weeks
of gestation. She is a known case of
rheumatic heart disease with history
of valve replacement surgery done
10 years back for which she is on oral
anti-coagulant therapy. Her PT (INR) is
2.0. What is the next best plan of action
regarding her anticoagulation?
A. Continue oral anti coagulation till active labour
B. Switch over to inj. Heparin immediately
C. Switch over to inj. Heparin at 36 weeks
D. Give vitamin k since this is overdosage of oral
anticoagulation
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t & d_obstetrics paper 2022 – question
Q65.
A 32 years old nulliparous patient had
history of 3 abortions in last 3 years. All
her abortions were spontaneous and
were of 8-9 weeks. What is the possible
cause amongst the following?
A. Cervical incompetence
B. Syphilis
C. Balanced translocation in patient and partner
D. Subserous pedunculated fibroids
Q66.
A. Plateau Hcg
B. Uterine subinvolution
C. Theca lutein cyst
D. Bleeding after S/E
Q70.
One of the following is not associated
with placenta previa:
A. Give inj. Mtx again
B. Repeat the b-HCG test after 3 days
C. Laparoscopic salpingostomy
D. Pgf2a injection
A. Primigravida
B. Twins
C. Smoking
D. Ashermann’s syndrome
Q67.
One of the following is not the clinical
feature of abruptio placenta?
Q71.
A. It is more common in hypertensive patients
B. It is more common in smokers
C. USG is diagnostic in most cases
D. PV examination can be done in abruptio placenta
Q68.
One of the following is not correct
regarding
pregnancy
with
twin
gestation?
All the following can be findings in
a woman who was followed up after
suction evacuation for molar pregnancy
and has the following chest X ray image
except
Common
clinical presentation of
moderate to severe abruption are all
except
A. Uterine tenderness
B. Fetal distress
C. Unexplained preterm labour
D. Prolonged labour
Q72.
A. Termination of monochorionic monoamniotic is
by caesarean section
B. Calorie intake of patient with twins should be
300 kcal /day more than singleton pregnancy
C. Llaser ablation is needed in stage2-4 of Quintero
classification for TTTS
D. Pregnancy with transverse- cephalic presentation
should be managed by internal podalic version
Q69.
A 25 years old primigravida with tubal
ectopic pregnancy of 6 weeks was
subjected to single dose therapy (medical
management). Her b-HCG value is 2500
IU/L. After three days of methotrexate
injection, her b-HCG is 3250 IU/L. What
is the next best line of management?
A woman comes to the physican for a
prenatal visit. Examination reveals that
her uterus is considerably larger than
her gestational age would predict. An
ultra-sound examination is ordered and
reveals that she has polyhydramnios.
Which of the following congenital
defects of the fetus would be most likely
to be associated with this abnormality?
A. Atrial septal defect
B. Esophageal atresia
C. Lung hypoplasia
D. Renal agenesis
Q73.
A 42 year old P2L2 female presents with
10 weeks amenorrhea and bleeding. On
examination the uterine size is 16 weeks,
hcg and usg were done for further
evaluation. The usg image is shown
below. What is the treatment of choice
for her
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t & d_obstetrics paper 2022 – question
A. Chemotherapy
B. Suction evacuation
C. Hysterectomy
D. Radiotherapy
Q74.
A 24-year-old G2P1001 woman is at 34
weeks’ gestation and noted to be icteric.
She also has nausea and vomiting and
malaise. A diagnosis of acute fatty liver of
pregnancy is made, and the obstetrician
recommends immediate delivery. Which
of the following is most consistent with
acute fatty liver of pregnancy?
A. Elevated serum bile acid levels
B. Hypoglycemia requiring multiple D50 injections
C. Proteinuria of 500 mg over 24 hours
D. Oligohydramnios noted on ultrasound
ANSWER 74. B: Hypoglycemia requiring multiple
D50 injections
Q75.
G2P1L1 diabetic woman well controlled
on insulin had gone into spontaneous
labour at 39 weeks after delivery of
the head there is delay in the delivery
of shoulders for 5mins, which of the
following would you want to do to aid in
the process of delivery now
1) Emergency CS
2) Episiotomy
3) Fundal pressure
4) McRoberts
ANSWER using the code given below
A. 1 only
B. 2&3
C. 2,3 and 4
D. 2&4
11
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