Kidney Disorders
The nurse is assessing a patient suspected of having developed acute glomerulonephritis. The nurse
should expect to address what clinical manifestation that is characteristic of this health problem?
A) Hematuria
B) Precipitous decrease in serum creatinine levels
C) Hypotension unresolved by fluid administration
D) Glucosuria
Ans: A
Feedback:
The primary presenting feature of acute glomerulonephritis is hematuria (blood in the urine), which may
be microscopic (identifiable through microscopic examination) or macroscopic or gross (visible to the
eye). Proteinuria, primarily albumin, which is present, is due to increased permeability of the glomerular
membrane. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels may rise as urine output drops. Some
degree of edema and hypertension is noted in most patients.
2. The nurse is caring for acutely ill patient. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to inform
the physician that the patient may be exhibiting signs of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
A) The patient is complains of an inability to initiate voiding.
B) The patients urine is cloudy with a foul odor.
C) The patients average urine output has been 10 mL/hr for several hours.
D) The patient complains of acute flank pain.
Ans: C
Feedback:
Oliguria (<500 mL/d of urine) is the most common clinical situation seen in AKI. Flank pain and
inability to initiate voiding are not characteristic of AKI. Cloudy, foul-smelling urine is suggestive of a
urinary tract infection.
3. The nurse is caring for a patient with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus who has been recently
diagnosed with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD). The patient has an elevated phosphorus level and has
been prescribed calcium acetate to bind the phosphorus. The nurse should teach the patient to take the
prescribed phosphorus-binding medication at what time?
A) Only when needed
B) Daily at bedtime
C) First thing in the morning
D) With each meal
Ans: D
Feedback:
Both calcium carbonate and calcium acetate are medications that bind with the phosphate and assist in
excreting the phosphate from the body, in turn lowering the phosphate levels. Phosphate-binding
medications must be administered with food to be effective.
4. The nurse is working on the renal transplant unit. To reduce the risk of infection in a patient with a
transplanted kidney, it is imperative for the nurse to do what?
A) Wash hands carefully and frequently.
B) Ensure immediate function of the donated kidney.
C) Instruct the patient to wear a face mask.
D) Bar visitors from the patients room.
Ans: A
Feedback:
The nurse ensures that the patient is protected from exposure to infection by hospital staff, visitors, and other patients with
active infections. Careful handwashing is imperative; face masks may be worn by hospital staff and visitors to reduce the
risk for transmitting infectious agents while the patient is receiving high doses of immunosuppressants. Visitors may be
limited, but are not normally barred outright. Ensuring kidney function is vital, but does not prevent infection.
5. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving hemodialysis three times weekly. The patient has had surgery
to form an arteriovenous fistula. What is most important for the nurse to be aware of when providing
care for this patient?
A) Using a stethoscope for auscultating the fistula is contraindicated.
B) The patient feels best immediately after the dialysis treatment.
C) Taking a BP reading on the affected arm can damage the fistula.
D) The patient should not feel pain during initiation of dialysis.
Ans: C
Feedback:
When blood flow is reduced through the access for any reason (hypotension, application of BP
cuff/tourniquet), the access site can clot. Auscultation of a bruit in the fistula is one way to determine
patency. Typically, patients feel fatigued immediately after hemodialysis because of the rapid change in
fluid and electrolyte status. Although the area over the fistula may have some decreased sensation, a
needle stick is still painful.
6. A patient has a glomerular filtration rate (GFR) of 43 mL/min/1.73 m2. Based on this GFR, the nurse
interprets that the patients chronic kidney disease is at what stage?
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Stage 4
Ans: C
Feedback:
Stages of chronic renal failure are based on the GFR. Stage 3 is defined by a GFR in the range of 30 to
59 mL/min/1.73 m2. This is considered a moderate decrease in GFR.
7. A football player is thought to have sustained an injury to his kidneys from being tackled from behind.
The ER nurse caring for the patient reviews the initial orders written by the physician and notes that an
order to collect all voided urine and send it to the laboratory for analysis. The nurse understands that this
nursing intervention is important for what reason?
A) Hematuria is the most common manifestation of renal trauma and blood losses may be
microscopic, so laboratory analysis is essential.
B) Intake and output calculations are essential and the laboratory will calculate the precise urine
output produced by this patient.
C) A creatinine clearance study may be ordered at a later time and the laboratory will hold all urine
until it is determined if the test will be necessary.
D) There is great concern about electrolyte imbalances and the laboratory will monitor the urine for
changes in potassium and sodium concentrations.
Ans: A
Feedback:
Hematuria is the most common manifestation of renal trauma; its presence after trauma suggests renal
injury. Hematuria may not occur, or it may be detectable only on microscopic examination. All urine
should be saved and sent to the laboratory for analysis to detect RBCs and to evaluate the course of
bleeding. Measuring intake and output is not a function of the laboratory. The laboratory does not save
urine to test creatinine clearance at a later time. The laboratory does not monitor the urine for sodium or
potassium concentrations.
8. A patient admitted with nephrotic syndrome is being cared for on the medical unit. When writing this
patients care plan, based on the major clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome, what nursing
diagnosis should the nurse include?
A) Constipation related to immobility
B) Risk for injury related to altered thought processes
C) Hyperthermia related to the inflammatory process
D) Excess fluid volume related to generalized edema
Ans: D
Feedback:
The major clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome is edema, so the appropriate nursing diagnosis is
Excess fluid volume related to generalized edema. Edema is usually soft, pitting, and commonly occurs
around the eyes, in dependent areas, and in the abdomen.
9. The nurse coming on shift on the medical unit is taking a report on four patients. What patient does the
nurse know is at the greatest risk of developing ESKD?
A) A patient with a history of polycystic kidney disease
B) A patient with diabetes mellitus and poorly controlled hypertension
C) A patient who is morbidly obese with a history of vascular disorders
D) A patient with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Ans: B
Feedback:
Systemic diseases, such as diabetes mellitus (leading cause); hypertension; chronic glomerulonephritis;
pyelonephritis; obstruction of the urinary tract; hereditary lesions, such as in polycystic kidney disease;
vascular disorders; infections; medications; or toxic agents may cause ESKD. A patient with more than
one of these risk factors is at the greatest risk for developing ESKD. Therefore, the patient with diabetes
and hypertension is likely at highest risk for ESKD.
10. The nurse is caring for a patient postoperative day 4 following a kidney transplant. When assessing for
potential signs and symptoms of rejection, what assessment should the nurse prioritize?
A) Assessment of the quantity of the patients urine output
B) Assessment of the patients incision
C) Assessment of the patients abdominal girth
D) Assessment for flank or abdominal pain
Ans: A
Feedback:
After kidney transplantation, the nurse should perform all of the listed assessments. However, oliguria is
considered to be more suggestive of rejection than changes to the patients abdomen or incision.
11. The nurse is caring for a patient in acute kidney injury. Which of the following complications would
most clearly warrant the administration of polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hypomagnesemia
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Hypercalcemia
Ans: C
Feedback:
Hyperkalemia, a common complication of acute kidney injury, is life-threatening if immediate action is
not taken to reverse it. The administration of polystyrene sulfonate reduces serum potassium levels.
12. Renal failure can have prerenal, renal, or postrenal causes. A patient with acute kidney injury is being
assessed to determine where, physiologically, the cause is. If the cause is found to be prerenal, which
condition most likely caused it?
A) Heart failure
B) Glomerulonephritis
C) Ureterolithiasis
D) Aminoglycoside toxicity
Ans: A
Feedback:
By causing inadequate renal perfusion, heart failure can lead to prerenal failure. Glomerulonephritis and
aminoglycoside toxicity are renal causes, and ureterolithiasis is a postrenal cause.
13. A 45-year-old man with diabetic nephropathy has ESKD and is starting dialysis. What should the nurse
teach the patient about hemodialysis?
A) Hemodialysis is a treatment option that is usually required three times a week.
B) Hemodialysis is a program that will require you to commit to daily treatment.
C) This will require you to have surgery and a catheter will need to be inserted into your abdomen.
D) Hemodialysis is a treatment that is used for a few months until your kidney heals and starts to
produce urine again.
Ans: A
Feedback:
Hemodialysis is the most commonly used method of dialysis. Patients receiving hemodialysis must
undergo treatment for the rest of their lives or until they undergo successful kidney transplantation.
Treatments usually occur three times a week for at least 3 to 4 hours per treatment.
14. A patient with ESKD receives continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis. The nurse observes that the
dialysate drainage fluid is cloudy. What is the nurses most appropriate action?
A) Inform the physician and assess the patient for signs of infection.
B) Flush the peritoneal catheter with normal saline.
C) Remove the catheter promptly and have the catheter tip cultured.
D) Administer a bolus of IV normal saline as ordered.
Ans: A
Feedback:
Peritonitis is the most common and serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. The first sign of
peritonitis is cloudy dialysate drainage fluid, so prompt reporting to the primary care provider and rapid
assessment for other signs of infection are warranted. Administration of an IV bolus is not necessary or
appropriate and the physician would determine whether removal of the catheter is required. Flushing the
catheter does not address the risk for infection.
15. The nurse is planning patient teaching for a patient with ESKD who is scheduled for the creation of a
fistula. The nurse would include which of the following in teaching the patient about the fistula?
A) A vein and an artery in your arm will be attached surgically.
B) The arm should be immobilized for 4 to 6 days.
C) One needle will be inserted into the fistula for each dialysis treatment.
D) The fistula can be used 2 days after the surgery for dialysis treatment.
Ans: A
Feedback:
The fistula joins an artery and a vein, either side-to-side or end-to-end. This access will need time,
usually 2 to 3 months, to mature before it can be used. The patient is encouraged to perform exercises to
increase the size of the affected vessels (e.g., squeezing a rubber ball for forearm fistulas). Two needles
will be inserted into the fistula for each dialysis treatment.
16. A patient with ESKD is scheduled to begin hemodialysis. The nurse is working with the patient to adapt
the patients diet to maximize the therapeutic effect and minimize the risks of complications. The patients
diet should include which of the following modifications? Select all that apply.
A) Decreased protein intake
B) Decreased sodium intake
C) Increased potassium intake
D) Fluid restriction
E) Vitamin D supplementation
Ans: A, B, D
Feedback:
Restricting dietary protein decreases the accumulation of nitrogenous wastes, reduces uremic symptoms,
and may even postpone the initiation of dialysis for a few months. Restriction of fluid is also part of the
dietary prescription because fluid accumulation may occur. As well, sodium is usually restricted to 2 to 3
g/day. Potassium intake is usually limited, not increased, and there is no particular need for vitamin D
supplementation.
17. A patient on the critical care unit is postoperative day 1 following kidney transplantation from a living
donor. The nurses most recent assessments indicate that the patient is producing copious quantities of
dilute urine. What is the nurses most appropriate response?
A) Assess the patient for further signs or symptoms of rejection.
B) Recognize this as an expected finding.
C) Inform the primary care provider of this finding.
D) Administer exogenous antidiuretic hormone as ordered.
Ans: B
Feedback:
A kidney from a living donor related to the patient usually begins to function immediately after surgery
and may produce large quantities of dilute urine. This is not suggestive of rejection and treatment is not
warranted. There is no obvious need to report this finding.
18. A patient is scheduled for a CT scan of the abdomen with contrast. The patient has a baseline creatinine
level of 2.3 mg/dL. In preparing this patient for the procedure, the nurse anticipates what orders?
A) Monitor the patients electrolyte values every hour before the procedure.
B) Pre-procedure hydration and administration of acetylcysteine
C) Hemodialysis immediately prior to the CT scan
D) Obtain a creatinine clearance by collecting a 24-hour urine specimen.
Ans: B
Feedback:
Radiocontrast-induced nephropathy is a major cause of hospital-acquired acute kidney injury. Baseline
levels of creatinine greater than 2 mg/dL identify the patient as being high risk. Preprocedure hydration
and prescription of acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) the day prior to the test is effective in prevention. The
nurse would not monitor the patients electrolytes every hour preprocedure. Nothing in the scenario
indicates the need for hemodialysis. A creatinine clearance is not necessary prior to a CT scan with
contrast.
19. The nurse is caring for a patient with acute glomerular inflammation. When assessing for the
characteristic signs and symptoms of this health problem, the nurse should include which assessments?
Select all that apply.
A) Percuss for pain in the right lower abdominal quadrant.
B) Assess for the presence of peripheral edema.
C) Auscultate the patients apical heart rate for dysrhythmias.
D) Assess the patients BP.
E) Assess the patients orientation and judgment.
Ans: B, D
Feedback:
Most patients with acute glomerular inflammation have some degree of edema and hypertension.
Dysrhythmias, RLQ pain, and changes in mental status are not among the most common manifestations
of acute glomerular inflammation.
20. A patient is admitted to the ICU after a motor vehicle accident. On the second day of the hospital
admission, the patient develops acute kidney injury. The patient is hemodynamically unstable, but renal
replacement therapy is needed to manage the patients hypervolemia and hyperkalemia. Which of the
following therapies will the patients hemodynamic status best tolerate?
A) Hemodialysis
B) Peritoneal dialysis
C) Continuous venovenous hemodialysis (CVVHD)
D) Plasmapheresis
Ans: C
Feedback:
CVVHD facilitates the removal of uremic toxins and fluid. The hemodynamic effects of CVVHD are
usually mild in comparison to hemodialysis, so CVVHD is best tolerated by an unstable patient.
Peritoneal dialysis is not the best choice, as the patient may have sustained abdominal injuries during the
accident and catheter placement would be risky. Plasmapheresis does not achieve fluid removal and
electrolyte balance.
21. A patient has presented with signs and symptoms that are characteristic of acute kidney injury, but
preliminary assessment reveals no obvious risk factors for this health problem. The nurse should
recognize the need to interview the patient about what topic?
A) Typical diet
B) Allergy status
C) Psychosocial stressors
D) Current medication use
Ans: D
Feedback:
The kidneys are susceptible to the adverse effects of medications because they are repeatedly exposed to
substances in the blood. Nephrotoxic medications are a more likely cause of AKI than diet, allergies, or
stress.
22. An 84-year-old woman diagnosed with cancer is admitted to the oncology unit for surgical treatment.
The patient has been on chemotherapeutic agents to decrease the tumor size prior to the planned surgery.
The nurse caring for the patient is aware that what precipitating factors in this patient may contribute to
AKI? Select all that apply.
A) Anxiety
B) Low BMI
C) Age-related physiologic changes
D) Chronic systemic disease
E) NPO status
Ans: C, D
Feedback:
Changes in kidney function with normal aging increase the susceptibility of elderly patients to kidney
dysfunction and renal failure. In addition, the presence of chronic, systemic diseases increases the risk of
AKI. Low BMI and anxiety are not risk factors for acute renal disease. NPO status is not a risk, provided
adequate parenteral hydration is administered.
23. A patient is being treated for AKI and the patient daily weights have been ordered. The nurse notes a
weight gain of 3 pounds over the past 48 hours. What nursing diagnosis is suggested by this assessment
finding?
A) Imbalanced nutrition: More than body requirements
B) Excess fluid volume
C) Sedentary lifestyle
D) Adult failure to thrive
Ans: B
Feedback:
If the patient with AKI gains or does not lose weight, fluid retention should be suspected. Short-term
weight gain is not associated with excessive caloric intake or a sedentary lifestyle. Failure to thrive is not
associated with weight gain.
24. A 15-year-old is admitted to the renal unit with a diagnosis of postinfectious glomerular disease. The
nurse should recognize that this form of kidney disease may have been precipitated by what event?
A) Psychosocial stress
B) Hypersensitivity to an immunization
C) Menarche
D) Streptococcal infection
Ans: D
Feedback:
Postinfectious causes of postinfectious glomerular disease are group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal
infection of the throat that precedes the onset of glomerulonephritis by 2 to 3 weeks. Menarche, stress,
and hypersensitivity are not typical causes.
25. A patient on the medical unit has a documented history of polycystic kidney disease (PKD). What
principle should guide the nurses care of this patient?
A) The disease is self-limiting and cysts usually resolve spontaneously in the fifth or sixth decade of
life.
B) The patients disease is incurable and the nurses interventions will be supportive.
C) The patient will eventually require surgical removal of his or her renal cysts.
D) The patient is likely to respond favorably to lithotripsy treatment of the cysts.
Ans: B
Feedback:
PKD is incurable and care focuses on support and symptom control. It is not self-limiting and is not
treated surgically or with lithotripsy.
26. The nurse is providing a health education workshop to a group of adults focusing on cancer prevention.
The nurse should emphasize what action in order to reduce participants risks of renal carcinoma?
A) Avoiding heavy alcohol use
B) Control of sodium intake
C) Smoking cessation
D) Adherence to recommended immunization schedules
Ans: C
Feedback:
Tobacco use is a significant risk factor for renal cancer, surpassing the significance of high alcohol and
sodium intake. Immunizations do not address an individuals risk of renal cancer.
27. The nurse performing the health interview of a patient with a new onset of periorbital edema has
completed a genogram, noting the health history of the patients siblings, parents, and grandparents. This
assessment addresses the patients risk of what kidney disorder?
A) Nephritic syndrome
B) Acute glomerulonephritis
C) Nephrotic syndrome
D) Polycystic kidney disease (PKD)
Ans: D
Feedback:
PKD is a genetic disorder characterized by the growth of numerous cysts in the kidneys. Nephritic
syndrome, acute glomerulonephritis, and nephrotic syndrome are not genetic disorders.
28. A patient is brought to the renal unit from the PACU status post resection of a renal tumor. Which of the
following nursing actions should the nurse prioritize in the care of this patient?
A) Increasing oral intake
B) Managing postoperative pain
C) Managing dialysis
D) Increasing mobility
Ans: B
Feedback:
The patient requires frequent analgesia during the postoperative period and assistance with turning,
coughing, use of incentive spirometry, and deep breathing to prevent atelectasis and other pulmonary
complications. Increasing oral intake and mobility are not priority nursing actions in the immediate
postoperative care of this patient. Dialysis is not necessary following kidney surgery.
29. A nurse is caring for a patient who is in the diuresis phase of AKI. The nurse should closely monitor the
patient for what complication during this phase?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hypocalcemia
C) Dehydration
D) Acute flank pain
Ans: C
Feedback:
The diuresis period is marked by a gradual increase in urine output, which signals that glomerular
filtration has started to recover. The patient must be observed closely for dehydration during this phase;
if dehydration occurs, the uremic symptoms are likely to increase. Excessive losses of potassium and
calcium are not typical during this phase, and diuresis does not normally result in pain.
30. The nurse is caring for a patient status after a motor vehicle accident. The patient has developed AKI.
What is the nurses role in caring for this patient? Select all that apply.
A) Providing emotional support for the family
B) Monitoring for complications
C) Participating in emergency treatment of fluid and electrolyte imbalances
D) Providing nursing care for primary disorder (trauma)
E) Directing nutritional interventions
Ans: A, B, C, D
Feedback:
The nurse has an important role in caring for the patient with AKI. The nurse monitors for
complications, participates in emergency treatment of fluid and electrolyte imbalances, assesses the
patients progress and response to treatment, and provides physical and emotional support. Additionally,
the nurse keeps family members informed about the patients condition, helps them understand the
treatments, and provides psychological support. Although the development of AKI may be the most
serious problem, the nurse continues to provide nursing care indicated for the primary disorder (e.g.,
burns, shock, trauma, obstruction of the urinary tract). The nurse does not direct the patients nutritional
status; the dietician and the physician normally collaborate on directing the patients nutritional status.
31. A 71-year-old patient with ESKD has been told by the physician that it is time to consider hemodialysis
until a transplant can be found. The patient tells the nurse she is not sure she wants to undergo a kidney
transplant. What would be an appropriate response for the nurse to make?
A) The decision is certainly yours to make, but be sure not to make a mistake.
B) Kidney transplants in patients your age are as successful as they are in younger patients.
C) I understand your hesitancy to commit to a transplant surgery. Success is comparatively rare.
D) Have you talked this over with your family?
Ans: B
Feedback:
Although there is no specific age limitation for renal transplantation, concomitant disorders (e.g.,
coronary artery disease, peripheral vascular disease) have made it a less common treatment for the
elderly. However, the outcome is comparable to that of younger patients. The other listed options either
belittle the patient or give the patient misinformation.
32. The nurse has identified the nursing diagnosis of risk for infection in a patient who undergoes peritoneal
dialysis. What nursing action best addresses this risk?
A) Maintain aseptic technique when administering dialysate.
B) Wash the skin surrounding the catheter site with soap and water prior to each exchange.
C) Add antibiotics to the dialysate as ordered.
D) Administer prophylactic antibiotics by mouth or IV as ordered.
Ans: A
Feedback:
Aseptic technique is used to prevent peritonitis and other infectious complications of peritoneal dialysis.
It is not necessary to cleanse the skin with soap and water prior to each exchange. Antibiotics may be
added to dialysate to treat infection, but they are not used to prevent infection.
33. The nurse is caring for a patient who has returned to the postsurgical suite after post-anesthetic recovery
from a nephrectomy. The nurses most recent hourly assessment reveals a significant drop in level of
consciousness and BP as well as scant urine output over the past hour. What is the nurses best response?
A) Assess the patient for signs of bleeding and inform the physician.
B) Monitor the patients vital signs every 15 minutes for the next hour.
C) Reposition the patient and reassess vital signs.
D) Palpate the patients flanks for pain and inform the physician.
Ans: A
Feedback:
Bleeding may be suspected when the patient experiences fatigue and when urine output is less than 30
mL/h. The physician must be made aware of this finding promptly. Palpating the patients flanks would
cause intense pain that is of no benefit to assessment.
34. The critical care nurse is monitoring the patients urine output and drains following renal surgery. What
should the nurse promptly report to the physician?
A) Increased pain on movement
B) Absence of drain output
C) Increased urine output
D) Blood-tinged serosanguineous drain output
Ans: B
Feedback:
Urine output and drainage from tubes inserted during surgery are monitored for amount, color, and type
or characteristics. Decreased or absent drainage is promptly reported to the physician because it may
indicate obstruction that could cause pain, infection, and disruption of the suture lines. Reporting
increased pain on movement has nothing to do with the scenario described. Increased urine output and
serosanguineous drainage are expected.
35. The nurse is creating an education plan for a patient who underwent a nephrectomy for the treatment of a
renal tumor. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) The importance of increased fluid intake
B) Signs and symptoms of rejection
C) Inspection and care of the incision
D) Techniques for preventing metastasis
Ans: C
Feedback:
The nurse teaches the patient to inspect and care for the incision and perform other general postoperative
care, including activity and lifting restrictions, driving, and pain management. There would be no need
to teach the signs or symptoms of rejection as there has been no transplant. Increased fluid intake is not
normally recommended and the patient has minimal control on the future risk for metastasis.
36. A patient with chronic kidney disease has been hospitalized and is receiving hemodialysis on a
scheduled basis. The nurse should include which of the following actions in the plan of care?
A) Ensure that the patient moves the extremity with the vascular access site as little as possible.
B) Change the dressing over the vascular access site at least every 12 hours.
C) Utilize the vascular access site for infusion of IV fluids.
D) Assess for a thrill or bruit over the vascular access site each shift.
Ans: D
Feedback:
The bruit, or thrill, over the venous access site must be evaluated at least every shift. Frequent dressing
changes are unnecessary and the patient does not normally need to immobilize the site. The site must not
be used for purposes other than dialysis.
37. The nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned to the post-surgical unit following renal surgery.
When assessing the patients output from surgical drains, the nurse should assess what parameters? Select
all that apply.
A) Quantity of output
B) Color of the output
C) Visible characteristics of the output
D) Odor of the output
E) pH of the output
Ans: A, B, C
Feedback:
Urine output and drainage from tubes inserted during surgery are monitored for amount, color, and type
or characteristics. Odor and pH are not normally assessed.
38. The nurse is caring for a patient after kidney surgery. The nurse is aware that bleeding is a major complication of
kidney surgery and that if it goes undetected and untreated can result in hypovolemia and hemorrhagic shock in the
patient. When assessing for bleeding, what assessment parameter should the nurse evaluate?
A) Oral intake
B) Pain intensity
C) Level of consciousness
D) Radiation of pain
Ans: C
Feedback:
Bleeding is a major complication of kidney surgery. If undetected and untreated, this can result in hypovolemia and
hemorrhagic shock. The nurses role is to observe for these complications, to report their signs and symptoms, and to
administer prescribed parenteral fluids and blood and blood components. Monitoring of vital signs, skin condition, the
urinary drainage system, the surgical incision, and the level of consciousness is necessary to detect evidence of bleeding,
decreased circulating blood, and fluid volume and cardiac output. Bleeding is not normally evidenced by changes in pain
or oral intake.
39. A nurse on the renal unit is caring for a patient who will soon begin peritoneal dialysis. The family of the patient asks
for education about the peritoneal dialysis catheter that has been placed in the patients peritoneum. The nurse explains the
three sections of the catheter and talks about the two cuffs on the dialysis catheter. What would the nurse explain about
the cuffs? Select all that apply.
A) The cuffs are made of Dacron polyester.
B) The cuffs stabilize the catheter.
C) The cuffs prevent the dialysate from leaking.
D) The cuffs provide a barrier against microorganisms.
E) The cuffs absorb dialysate
Ans: A, B, C, D
Feedback:
Most of these catheters have two cuffs, which are made of Dacron polyester. The cuffs stabilize the catheter, limit
movement, prevent leaks, and provide a barrier against microorganisms. They do not absorb dialysate.
40. A patient with chronic kidney disease is completing an exchange during peritoneal dialysis. The nurse observes that
the peritoneal fluid is draining slowly and that the patients abdomen is increasing in girth. What is the nurses most
appropriate action?
A) Advance the catheter 2 to 4 cm further into the peritoneal cavity.
B) Reposition the patient to facilitate drainage.
C) Aspirate from the catheter using a 60-mL syringe.
D) Infuse 50 mL of additional dialysate.
Ans: B
Feedback:
If the peritoneal fluid does not drain properly, the nurse can facilitate drainage by turning the patient
from side to side or raising the head of the bed. The catheter should never be pushed further into the peritoneal cavity. It
would be unsafe to aspirate or to infuse more dialysate.