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1) Which of the following provide protection for the spinal cord?
A) vertebra
B) meninges
C) cerebrospinal fluid
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
2) Place the meninges and associated spaces in order from most
superficial to deepest:
1. subarachnoid space
2. pia mater
3. arachnoid mater
4. epidural space
5. dura mater
6. subdural space
A) 4, 5, 6, 3, 1, 2
B) 4, 5, 6, 3, 2, 1
C) 4, 5, 6, 1, 3, 2
D) 4, 5, 6, 1, 2, 3
E) 4, 5, 6, 2, 3, 1
A) 4, 5, 6, 3, 1, 2
3) Which of the following is NOT true?
A) The dura mater is composed of dense irregular connective
tissue.
B) The subdural space is filled with interstitial fluid.
C) The arachnoid mater is the most vascular meninx.
D) The subarachnoid space is filled with cerebrospinal fluid.
E) The pia mater adheres directly to the spinal cord (and brain).
C) The arachnoid mater is the most vascular meninx.
4) The spinal cord
A) is flattened somewhat laterally.
B) is characterized by thoracic and sacral enlargements.
C) is longer than the vertebral column.
D) is contiguous with the medulla oblongata.
E) is tapered into a cone called the conus medullaris at its superior
end.
D) is contiguous with the medulla oblongata.
5) CJ and Tye are studying a model of cross-section of the spinal
cord in lab. CJ is confused about which side of the model is
anterior vs. which is posterior. Tye says that it is easy to tell which
side is which. What does the Tye use to distinguish between the
sides of the model?
A) The posterior (dorsal) side will have a ganglion on the nerve
root.
B) The anterior (ventral) median fissure is deeper and wider than
the posterior median sulcus.
C) The central canal is closer to the posterior side.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
D) A and B are correct.
6) The gray matter of the spinal cord
A) is primarily found at the periphery of the cord.
B) contains the myelinated axons of motor neurons.
C) contains the cell bodies and dendrites of neurons.
D) excludes neuroglia.
E) is shaped like the letter C or a caterpillar.
C) contains the cell bodies and dendrites of neurons.
7) The gray matter of the spinal cord
A) contains groups of cell bodies called tracts
B) in the anterior horn contains somatic and autonomic sensory
C) in the posterior horn contains somatic and autonomic sensory
nuclei.
nuclei.
C) in the posterior horn contains somatic and autonomic sensory
nuclei.
D) in the lateral horn contains somatic motor nuclei.
E) All of these are correct.
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8) The white matter of the spinal cord
A) is divided into anterior, posterior and lateral columns.
B) contains ascending myelinated axons in groups called sensory
tracts.
C) contains descending myelinated axons in groups called motor
tracts.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
9) A tumor is growing in the left lateral horns of several segments
of a patient's spinal cord. How might these tumors affect the
patient?
A) The patient may not be able to feel somatic sensations from the
chest down.
C) The patient may have simple difficulty regulating cardiac and
B) The patient may not be able to move the lower extremities.
smooth muscle contractions.
C) The patient may have simple difficulty regulating cardiac and
smooth muscle contractions.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
10) The spinal nerves
A) allow communication between the spinal cord and the brain.
B) have posterior sensory roots.
C) have anterior root ganglia containing cell bodies of motor
neurons.
D) have posterior motor roots.
E) exit the vertebral column anteriorly between the intervertebral
discs and the vertebral bodies.
B) have posterior sensory roots.
11) Spinal nerves are
A) identified based on the region and level of the vertebral column
from which they emerge.
B) are mixed nerves containing both motor and sensory fibers.
C) are all aligned with their corresponding vertebrae.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
D) A and B are correct.
12) The connective tissue coverings of nerve fibers
A) are organized in a similar manner to those of muscle fibers.
B) are present only on unmyelinated nerves.
C) are identical to the meninges.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
A) are organized in a similar manner to those of muscle fibers.
13) Which of the following is NOT a branch of a spinal nerve?
A) ventral ramus
B) dorsal ramus
C) dorsal root
D) meningeal ramus
E) ramus communicante
C) dorsal root
14) A patient is transported to the emergency room after being
stabbed in the back several times with a broken ice pick. The
attacker was apparently aiming for the spinal cord, but was not
successful in penetrating the vertebrae. The physician is most
worried about one wound; he mutters something about the rami
communicantes. Why would the physician be concerned about
damaged there?
B) The rami communicantes are part of the ANS, which controls
A) The rami communicantes are part of the control of the skin and
vital functions.
the deep muscles of the back.
B) The rami communicantes are part of the ANS, which controls
vital functions.
C) The rami communicantes are part of the control of the muscles
of the limbs.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
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15) Which spinal nerves go directly to the tissues they supply
rather than forming a plexus?
A) C1 through C4
B) C4 through T1
C) T2 through T12
D) L1 through L5
E) S1 through S5
C) T2 through T12
16) Which plexus supplies the skin and muscles of the head, neck,
and superior part of the shoulders and chest?
A) brachial
B) cervical
C) coccygeal
D) lumbar
E) sacral
B) cervical
17) Which nerve does NOT arise from the cervical plexus?
A) greater auricular nerve
B) ansa cervicalis
C) transverse cervical
D) phrenic
E) axillary
E) axillary
18) Which plexus supplies the skin and muscles of the shoulders
and upper extremities?
A) brachial
B) cervical
C) coccygeal
D) lumbar
E) sacral
A) brachial
19) Which nerve arises from the brachial plexus?
A) axillary
B) suprascapular
C) musculocutaneous
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
20) Which nerve does NOT arise from the brachial plexus?
A) radial
B) perforating cutaneous
C) ulnar
D) median
E) medial pectoral
B) perforating cutaneous
21) Which plexus supplies the anterolateral abdominal wall, external genitals, and part of the lower limbs?
A) brachial
B) cervical
C) coccygeal
D) lumbar
E) sacral
D) lumbar
22) Which nerve does NOT arise from the lumbar plexus?
A) iliohypogastric
B) ilioinguinal
C) tibial
D) femoral
E) obturator
C) tibial
23) Which plexus supplies the buttocks, perineum, and lower
limbs?
A) brachial
B) cervical
C) coccygeal
D) lumbar
E) sacral
E) sacral
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24) Which nerve arises from the sacral plexus?
A) sciatic
B) superior gluteal
C) genitofemoral
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
D) A and B are correct.
25) Which plexus supplies a small area of skin in the coccygeal
region?
A) brachial
B) cervical
C) coccygeal
D) lumbar
E) sacral
C) coccygeal
26) Which of the following is true of a dermatome?
A) It is a band of skin that provides sensory input to the CNS via
one pair of spinal nerves.
B) It may overlap with another dermatome.
C) If it is stimulated but the sensation is not perceived, the nerves
supplying it are damaged.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
27) How does the spinal cord function in maintaining homeostasis?
A) Nuclei in spinal cord gray matter receive and integrate incoming
and outgoing information.
B) Ascending tracts in white matter propagate sensory impulses
toward the brain.
C) Descending tracts in white matter propagate motor impulses
toward effectors.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
28) Which of the following spinal cord tracts is a sensory tract?
A) posterior columns
B) anterior spinothalamic tract
C) rubrospinal tract
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
D) A and B are correct.
29) Which type of sensory information is NOT carried by
spinothalamic tracts?
A) proprioception
B) itch
C) pain
D) deep pressure
E) crude touch
A) proprioception
30) Which type of sensory information is NOT carried by posterior
column tracts?
A) vibration
B) warmth
C) light pressure
D) two point discrimination
E) discriminative touch
B) warmth
31) The direct motor pathways of the spinal cord
A) include the corticospinal tracts.
B) include the corticobulbar tracts.
C) control precise, voluntary movements.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
32) Which of the following is NOT a function of indirect motor
pathways in the spinal cord?
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A) coordinate automatic body movements
B) maintain skeletal muscle tone
C) coordinate body movements with olfactory stimuli
D) maintain posture
E) assist in maintenance of equilibrium
C) coordinate body movements with olfactory stimuli
33) Mark goes to visit his friend, Frank, who is home on leave from
the war. Frank doesn't hear Mark call out to him because he is
wearing headphones and listening to music. When Mark walks up
behind Frank and taps him on the shoulder, he soon finds himself
on the ground with one of Frank's hands around his neck and the
other in a fist rapidly approaching his nose. Frank's reaction is an
example of a(n)
A) innate reflex.
B) acquired reflex
C) stretch reflex
D) tendon reflex
E) withdrawal reflex
B) acquired reflex
34) Which of the following is NOT part of a spinal reflex arc?
A) visual receptor
B) sensory neuron
C) integrating center
D) motor neuron
E) effector
A) visual receptor
35) Which of the following is NOT a somatic spinal reflex?
A) stretch reflex
B) tendon reflex
C) pupillary reflex
D) flexor reflex
E) crossed extensor reflex
C) pupillary reflex
36) A stretch reflex
A) is a monosynaptic reflex.
B) occurs in response to the stretching of a muscle.
C) can be observed at the elbow, wrist, knee and ankle.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
37) Place the events that in a stretch reflex in the order in which
they occur:
1. propagation of impulse along sensory neuron
2. generation of impulse by muscle spindle
3. integration of impulse at synapse in gray matter of spinal cord
4. activation of motor neuron in anterior gray horn
5. stimulation of muscle spindle
6. propagation of motor impulse
7. release of ACh from motor neuron
8. stimulation of muscle contraction
A) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8
B) 2, 5, 1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8
C) 5, 2, 3, 1, 4, 6, 7, 8
D) 5, 2, 1, 3, 6, 4, 7, 8
E) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4, 7, 6, 8
A) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8
38) Reciprocal innervation
A) works in conjunction with the stretch reflex.
B) allows the antagonist to the reflexively contracting muscle to
relax.
C) depends on stimulation from a collateral axon of the muscle
spindle.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
39) How does a tendon reflex differ from a stretch reflex?
A) A tendon reflex adjusts length instead of tension.
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B) A tendon reflex uses Golgi tendon organs as sensory receptors
instead of muscle spindles.
B) A tendon reflex uses Golgi tendon organs as sensory receptors
C) A tendon reflex is more sensitive than a stretch reflex.
instead of muscle spindles.
D) A tendon reflex cannot override a stretch reflex.
E) A tendon reflex is contralateral instead of ipsilateral.
40) Place the events of a tendon reflex in the order in which they
occur:
1. decreased motor neuron impulse propagation
2. less ACh released
3. stimulation of tendon organ by increased tension on tendon
4. generation and propagation of impulse along sensory neuron
5. muscle relaxes reducing tension on tendon
6. activation of inhibitory interneuron
7. inhibitory interneuron hyperpolarizes motor neuron
A) 3, 4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 5
B) 7, 4, 6, 3, 1, 2, 5
C) 1, 4, 6, 7, 3, 2, 5
D) 3, 6, 4, 7, 1, 2, 5
E) 7, 4, 6, 3, 1, 5, 2
A) 3, 4, 6, 7, 1, 2, 5
41) Which of the following is NOT true of a flexor reflex?
A) It is also called a withdrawal reflex.
B) It moves a body part away from harm.
C) It is monosynaptic.
D) It is intersegmental
E) It is ipsilateral.
C) It is monosynaptic.
42) Which of the following is NOT true of the crossed extensor
reflex?
A) It occurs with the flexor reflex.
B) It allows an individual to maintain balance when withdrawing
from harm's way.
C) It is contralateral.
D) It involves only one spinal segment.
E) It is polysynaptic.
D) It involves only one spinal segment.
43) Which of the following is NOT a reflex typically used for
diagnosing neurological disorders?
A) patellar reflex
B) Babinski sign
C) crossed-extensor reflex
D) Achilles reflex
E) abdominal reflex
C) crossed-extensor reflex
44) The patellar reflex
A) helps assess the function of spinal segments L2 through L4.
B) may be absent in people with diabetes mellitus or neurosyphilis.
C) may be stronger than normal if certain motor tracts have been
injured.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
45) A man gently strokes the lateral sole of his wife's foot, and her
toes curl toward the sole. He strokes his six month old baby's foot,
and the baby's big toe flexes up toward his tibia. Should the man
be concerned about the health of either his wife or his child?
A) No, direction of toe curling has nothing to do with health.
B) No, they are both exhibiting normal Babinski signs for their
ages.
C) Yes, they are both exhibiting abnormal Babinski signs for their
ages.
D) Yes, the baby has an abnormal Babinski sign.
E) Yes, the wife has an abnormal Babinski sign.
B) No, they are both exhibiting normal Babinski signs for their
ages.
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46) A U.N. worker was part of a crew clearing land mines from
a school yard. Unfortunately one of the mines went off, sending
shrapnel into the worker's neck. Now the worker's right arm is
paralyzed, but he has retained the functions of his other limbs.
Which term describes his condition?
A) diplegia
B) hemiplegia
C) monoplegia
D) quadriplegia
E) spinal shock
C) monoplegia
47) A 3 year old fell out of a second story window. The paramedics
on the scene note that the child is areflexic below T1, with slow
heart rate, flaccid skeletal muscle paralysis, and loss of somatic
sensation. The child displays the signs of
A) diplegia
B) hemiplegia
C) monoplegia
D) quadriplegia
E) spinal shock
E) spinal shock
48) Which of the following signs would be displayed by a patient
suffering from a hemisection of the spinal cord that damaged her
right posterior column and lateral corticospinal tract but not her
spinothalamic tract at L2?
A) loss of proprioception for the right leg
B) loss of skeletal muscle contraction for the right leg
C) loss of temperature and pain sensation on the left leg
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
D) A and B are correct.
49) Which patient has the best prognosis?
A) transection of the spinal cord at C3
B) recently developed spinal cord compression due to a herniated
B) recently developed spinal cord compression due to a herniated
disc at L4
disc at L4
C) transaction of the spinal cord at T8
D) hemisection of the spinal cord at C5
E) hemisection of the spinal cord at T12
50) Which of the following is NOT true of post-polio syndrome?
A) It usually occurs within months of the initial infection.
B) It involves a slow degeneration of motor neurons that control
skeletal muscle fibers.
C) It is associated with progressive muscle weakness and loss of
muscle function.
D) It is associated with fatigue and muscle pain.
E) It is treated with exercise, drugs that enhance ACh activity and
nerve growth factors.
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A) It usually occurs within months of the initial infection.
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Chapter 14 - The brain and cranial nerves
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Which of the following parts of the brain interprets sensory impulses, controls muscular movement, and functions in emotional
and intellectual processes?
Diencephalon
Hypothalamus
Midbrain
Cerebrum
Cerebellum
Cerebrum
Which of the following structures is mianly white matter ?
CORPUS CALLOSUM
Corpus callosum
Cerebral cortex
Thalamus
Caudate nucleus
Cortex - mostly grey matter
Which of the following is not a part of the midbrain?
Inferior colliculi
Superior colliculi
Pyramids
Cerebral peduncles
Tectum
PYRAMIDS - Pyramid cells are a part of the cerebral cortex
hypothalamus
The ____________ is considered the autonomic control center of
the body due to its regulation of hormone secretion, thermoregulation, food and water intake, and circadian rhythms.
thalamus
The majority of all afferent pathways pass through and synapse
with neurons of the ____________ .
neocortex
The outermost layer of the brain in humans is referred to as the
____________ due to its recent evolutionary history.
limbic system
The ____________ represents the area of emotional control and
includes the amygdala, hippocampus, cingulate gyrus, and the
fornix.
prefrontal cortex
One of the last areas of the brain to mature fully is the
____________ which controls logic, judgment, and expression of
emotion.
midbrain
Acting mostly as a communication relay center due to the many
fiber tracts through the area, the ____________ includes the
cerebral peduncles, colliculi, and nuclei of cranial nerves III and
IV.
brainstem
Composed of three parts, the ____________ is an older region
which provides basic life support functions including roles in the
cardiovascular and respiratory systems.
reticular activating system
The alert system of the body named according to the tracts that
provide communication of lower brain with higher brain regions, is
the ____________ .
Falx cerebri
A fold of dura mater that separates the two cerebral hemispheres
The ascending sensory and descending motor tracts are found
with the _______________.
Choroid plexus
Lateral ventricle
Medulla Oblongata
Hindbrain
Postcentral gurus
Which of the following is NOT part of the midbrain
Pyramids
1/2
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Chapter 14 - The brain and cranial nerves
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Cerebral peduncles
Tectum
Superior colliculi
Inferior Colliculi
Pyramids
Which of the following parts of the brain interprets sensory impulses controls muscular movements, and functions in emotional
and intellectual processes?
Cerebrum
Midbrain
Hypothalamus
Cerebrum
Cerebellum
Diencephalon
FALSE
T/F The brain stores glucose
2/2
Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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what are the 4 major parts of the brain
cerebrum, diencephalon, cerebellum, brainstem
what 3 things make up the diencephalon
-epithalamus
-thalamus
-hypothalamus
what 3 things make up the brainstem
-midbrain
-pons
-medulla oblongata
what are 4 brain protective mechanisms
1. cranium
2. blood flow
3. blood-brain barrier
4. meninges
what is this?
-an end to end union or joining of blood vessels, lymphatic vessels, or nerves
anastomosis
O2 rich blood flows via...
internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries
O2 poor blood flows via...
dural venous sinus’ internal jugular veins
anastomosis connects what to create the Circle of Willis
internal carotid &basilar arteries
internal carotid&anterior cerebral arteries
what are the 3 meninges
dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater
what are the two layers of the dura mater
periosteal and meningeal layer
the two layers of dura mater are fused expect for where?
where they enclose a dural venous sinus, such as superior sagittal
sinus
does dura mater have an epidural space
no
what are 3 functions of dural folds
1. divides brain
2. stabilizes brain
3. houses dural venous sinuses
falx cerebri- separates two cerebral hemispheres
what are 3 dural folds and what do they separate
falx cerebelli- separates two cerebellar regions
tentorium cerebelli- separates cerebellum and cerebrum
what is this?
-space between dura mater
-contains interstitial fluid
subdural space
what is this?
-thin, avascular layer
-spider web arrangement of elastic and collagen fibers
arachnoid mater
what is this?
-space below arachnoid mater
-contains CSF
subarachnoid space
pia= ...
delicate
what is this?
-thin, transparent, vascular layer
-adheres to brain
pia mater
what is this?
clear, colorless liquid composed of mainly H2O, glucose, and O2
cerebrospinal fluid
where does CSF circulate
-ventricles of the brain
-central canal of spinal cord
-subarachnoid space around brain and spinal cord
what are 3 functions of CSF
1. mechanical protection’ shock absorber, buoy
2. chemical protection’ optimal environment for APs and PSPs
3. circulation’ minor exchange for nutrients and wastes between
blood and nervous tissue
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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where is CSF formed
choroid plexus
describe CSF circulation starting at the lateral ventricles
-2 lateral ventricles
-interventricular foramina
-3rd ventricle
-cerebral aqueduct/aqueduct of midbrain
-4th ventricle
-1 median aperture’ central canal of spinal cord
OR
-2 lateral apertures’ subarachnoid space around brain and spinal
cord
what cells are the blood-brain barrier
endothelial cells of brain capillaries
can this diffuse easily through BBB?
-lipid soluble substances (alcohol, nicotine, caffeine, water)
yes
can this diffuse easily through BBB?
-glucose
through facilitated diffusion
can this diffuse easily through BBB?
-proteins and most drugs
no
what is this?
network of capillaries within ventricles covered by ependymal
cells with tight junctions
choroid plexus
substances from the blood plasma are filtered by the capillaries
and secreted by ependymal cells to produce what
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
blood-cerebrospinal barrier controls what substances enter the...
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)
A, B, or C nerve fibers?
-very thick diameter
-myelination
-saltatory conduction
-brief absolute refractory period
-conduction at 27-290 mph
A
A, B, or C nerve fibers?
-midsize diameter
-myelination
-saltatory conduction
-longer absolute refractory period
-conduction up to 34 mph
B
A, B, or C nerve fibers?
-small diameter
-no myelination
-continuous conduction
-longest absolute refractory period
-conduction at 1-4 mph
C
is cerebral cortex gray or white matter
gray matter
what 3 things are cerebral white matter
-association tracts
-commissural tracts
-projection tracts
are deep nuclei gray or white matter
gray matter
association, commissural, or projection tracts?
-axons that conduct nerve impulses between gyri in the same
hemisphere
association tracts
association, commissural, or projection tracts?
-axons that conduct impulses from gyri in one cerebral hemisphere to corresponding gyri in other hemisphere -ex: corpus
callosum
commissural tracts
association, commissural, or projection tracts?
-axons that conduct impulses from cerebrum to lower parts of
projection tracts
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Chapter 14: The Brain and Cranial Nerves
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CNS or from lowers parts of CNS to cerebrum
ex: internal capsule
what are the 5 lobes of the brain
frontal, parietal, temporal, occipital, insula
sensory, motor, or association areas?
-involved in perception
-located posterior to central sulcus
sensory areas
sensory, motor, or association areas?
-control execution of voluntary movements
-located anterior to central sulcus
motor areas
sensory, motor, or association areas?
-integrative functions
-memory, emotions, reasoning, will, judgement, personality, intelligence
association areas
which sensory area?
-located in postcentral gyrus of each parietal lobe
-receives nerve impulses for touch, pressure, vibration, itch, tickle,
temperature, pain, and proprioception (somatic sensations)
-perception of these sensation
primary somatosensory area
sensory or motor homunculus?
-size of area receiving impulses from a particular part of body
depends on # of receptors present (not size of body part)
sensory homunculus
which sensory area?
-located in occipital lobe
-receives visual info
-involved with visual perception
primary visual area
which sensory area?
-located in temporal lobes
-receives info for sounds
-involved with auditory perception
primary auditory area
which sensory area?
-located in insula
-receives impulses for taste
-involved with gustatory perception and taste discrimination
primary gustatory area
which sensory area?
-located in temporal lobes (medial)
-receives impulses for smells
-involved with olfactory perception
primary olfactory area
which motor area?
-located in precentral gyrus of frontal lobe
-contraction of specific skeletal muscle fibers on opposite side of
body
primary motor area
sensory or motor homunculus?
-size of area represented by muscles that are involved in skilled,
complex, or delicate movements
motor homunculus
which motor area?
-located in frontal lobe (97% left cerebral hemisphere)
-planning and production of speech
-sends impulses to premotor area (controls larynx, pharynx, and
mouth muscles)
-sends impulses to primary motor area (controls breathing muscles)
Broca's speech area
which association area?
-location in L temporal and parietal lobes
-interprets meaning of speech by recognizing spoken words
Wernicke's area
which association area?
-located in frontal lobe, anterior to primary motor area
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-creates impulses that cause specific groups of muscles to contract in a specific sequences for learned activities
-memory bank for movements
premotor area
what is this?
-encircles the upper brainstem and corpus callosum
-"emotional brain"
limbic system
what are functions of the limbic system (2)
-range of emotions
-role in memory along with cerebrum
what is this?
-lateral to thalamus
-3 nuclei’ lentiform nucleus (globus pallidus, putamen), caudate
nucleus
-regulates initiation & termination of movement
-regulates muscle tone
-initiation & termination of some cognitive processes (attention,
planning, memory)
basal nuclei
what is this?
-cerebellar cortex (gray matter)
-folded surface
-10% of brain mass but 1/2 of neurons
cerebellum
what is this?
-white matter
-tracts
-evaluates coordination of movements initiated by motor areas
of cerebrum & provides feedback to cerebrum to modify the
movement so it is coordinated
-regulated posture and balance
arbor vitae
what conditions cause ataxia (cerebellar damage)
-MS
-Parkinson's disease
-trauma or tumors of cerebellum
-excessive alcohol consumption
what is this?
-contains ascending and descending tracts
-contains pyramids formed by corticospinal tracts
medulla oblongata
what is this?
-formed by corticospinal tracts
-cerebrum to/from spinal cord
-controls voluntary movement of skeletal muscles
-in medulla oblongata
pyramids
what is decussation of pyramids
-crossover of corticospinal tracts
-90% of axons cross sides
-controls opposite side of the body
which nuclei of medulla oblongata?
-regulates rate and force of heart beat; blood vessel diameter
cardiovascular center
which nuclei of medulla oblongata?
-adjusts basic breathing rythm
medullary respiratory center
which nuclei of medulla oblongata?
-controls reflexes for vomiting
vomiting center
which nuclei of medulla oblongata?
-controls reflexes for swallowing
deglutition center
what 3 nuclei are part of sensory pathways
gustatory, cochlear, and vestibular nuclei
which cranial nerves are associated with medulla oblongata
VIII, IX, X, XI, XII
what are some things that happen when the medulla oblongata is
damaged
-medullary rhythmic center damaged
-cranial nerve malfunctions on same side of body
-paralysis on opposite side of body
-heart rhythm and breathing irregularities
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what is this?
-contains connections between R and L sides of cerebellar hemispheres
-ascending and descending tracts
-connections between cerebral cortex and the opposite cerebellar
hemisphere
-coordinates voluntary motor output
pons
what nuclei is associated with pons
pontine respiratory center- controls breathing
which cranial nerves are associated with the pons
V, VI, VII, VIII
what is this?
-contains ascending and descending tracts
-corpora quadrigemina
midbrain
what nuclei is associated with midbrain
tectum (roof)
what are the functions of superior colliculi
eye reflex centers for tracking moving object, scanning stationary
objects, and moving body in response to visual stimuli
what are the functions of inferior colliculi
auditory reflex centers and startle reflex
what cranial nerves are associated with the midbrain
III, IV
what is this?
-bands of large and darkly pigmented nuclei
-release dopamine that regulates subconscious muscle movements
-loss of these neurons associated with Parkinson's disease
substantia nigra
what is this?
-netlike arrangement of white and gray matter
-extends from superior spinal cords throughout brainstem and
inferior diencephalon
-has ascending and descending portions called reticular activating system
reticular formation
ascending or descending aspect of RAS?
-sensory axons that project to cerebral cortex, both directly and
through the thalamus
-make sensory stimuli active, but no input from olfactory receptors
ascending
active, inactive, or damage to RAS?
-consciousness, arousal, attention maintenance, prevents sensory overload by filtering out insignificant info
active
active, inactive, or damage to RAS?
-sleep (partial consciousness but can be aroused)
inactive
active, inactive, or damage to RAS?
-coma (unconsciousness and cannot be aroused)
damage
ascending or descending aspect of RAS?
-connections that project to cerebellum and spinal cord
-regulation of muscle tone, heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate
descending
what nuclei is associated with the epithalamus and what is its
function
habenular nuclei’ emotional connection to olfaction
the pineal gland secretes what?
melatonin
what is this?
-released more during sleep
-promotes sleep
-regulation of circadian rhythm
melatonin
what percent of people have an intermediate mass
70%
what is this?
-white matter lateral to thalamus
-connects thalamus to cerebral cortex
internal capsule
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what is this?
-major relay center that routes input for many senses to proper
part of cerebral cortex (except olfaction)
-contributes to motor function by transmission of nerve impulses
from cerebellum & basal ganglia to primary motor area of cerebrum
thalamus
what is this?
-contains mammillary bodies
-major regulator of homeostasis
-controls ANS
-regulates circadian rhythm, states of consciousness, food & fluid
intake, body temp, and emotions
hypothalamus
what controls the pituitary gland (hypophysis)
hypothalamus
how does the hypothalamus control the pituitary gland
by secreting either releasing hormones that stimulates secretion
of anterior pituitary hormones or inhibitory hormones that inhibit
secretion of anterior pituitary hormones
where is the pituitary gland located
hypophyseal fossa of the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone
anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) or posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis)?
-composed of epithelial tissue, secretes hormones
anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis)
anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) or posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis)?
-composed of neural tissue; does not synthesis hormones; stores
and releases hormones
posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis)
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Match the following
a - oculomotor
b - trigemenal
c - abducens
d - vastibulocochlear
e - accessory
f - vagus
g - facial
h - glossopharyngeal
i - olfactory
j - trochlear
k - optic
l - hypoglossal
m - functions in sense of smell
n - functions in hearing and equilibrium
o - functions in chewing
p - functions n facial expression and seretion of saliva and tears
q - functions n movement of tongue
r - functions in secretion of digestive fluids
s - functions in secretion of saliva, taste, regulations of blood
pressure and muscle sense
t - sensory only
u - functions in eye movement by controlling extrinsic eye muscles
v - functions in swallowing and head movements
a-3 - cranial nerve 111
b- 5 - cranial nerve V
c-6 - cranial nerve v1
d-8 - cranial nerve V111
e-11 - cranial nerve X1
f-10 - cranial nerve X
g-7 - Cranial nerve V11
h-9 - cranial nerve 1X
i-1 - cranial nerve 1
j-4 - cranial nerve 1V
k-2 - cranial nerve 11
l-12 - cranial nerve X11
m- 1 - cranial nerve 1
n-8 - cranial nerve V111
o-5 - Cranial nerve V
p-7 - Cranial nerve V11
q-12 - Cranial nerve X11
r-10 - Cranial nerve X
s-9 - Cranial nerve 1X
t-1 and 2 - Cranial nerve 1 - 11
u-3,4,6 - Cranial nerve 111 - 1V - V1
v-11 - Cranial nerve X11
- Blood flows to brain via vertebral and carotid arteries and than
flows back to heart via jugular veins
- Blood Brain Barrier
. Protects brain by serving as selective barrier.
consists of tight junctions that seal together the endothelial cells
of brain blood capillaries and thick basement membranes that
Understand blood flow to the brain and how the blood brain barrier surround the capillaries.
is maintained
. Astrocytes press up against the capillaries and secrete chemicals that maintain the permeability of characteristics of the tight
junction.
. Permeable substances include - glucose, creatine, ions, oxygen,
carbon dioxide, alcohol and anesthetic agents
. Impermeable substances include: antibiotics, toxins, bacteria,
and large molecules
Know the differences between the three meningeal layers and
their functions.
- Pia Mater - innermost layer covering brain and spinal cord
. Vascular
- Arachnoid Mater - Middle layer web-like network of collagen and
elastic fibers
. Avascular
- Dura Mater- thick layer of dense connective tissue
. 2 layers : Periosteal and meningeal layer
- Functions - enclose the brain and spinal cord
- Functions - Protects from blunt trauma by acting as absorber
. Maintains health and homeostasis by monitoring pH and hormones
. Carries oxygen, glucose and other chem from blood to nerveous
tissue cells
. removes waist product
Understand the function of cerebral spinal fluid, how it is produced - Production - major production is from the Choroid Plexus netand the path it uses to circulate through the CNS
work of blood capillaries in the walls of ventricles.
. Ependymal cells cover the choroid plexus and filter substances
from the blood
. Because of tight junction between Ependymal cells, stuff entering CSF from choroid capillaries cannot leak. The Blood-Cerebrospinal Fluid Barrier allow allows some substances to enter CSF
but not others.
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- Medulla Oblongata - Superior part of the spinal cord, it forms the
inferior part of the brain stem. Starts at the foramen magnum and
extends to the inferior border of the pons. Medullas white matter
contains all sensory (ascending) and motor (descending) tracts.
. It regulates heart rate, respiratory rate, vasoconstriction, swallowing, coughing, vomiting, sneezing and hiccuping.
- Pons - (motor activity), how to move. Superior to the medulla and
anterior to the cerebellum and links parts of the brain with one
another by tracts.
. Relays nerve impulses of voluntary skeletal muscle from cerebrum to cerebellum, controls breathing.
Understand the function of the main parts of the brain stem
- Midbrain - Located superior to the medulla obligation and ex(medulla oblongata, pons, midbrain) and their structures (cerebral
tends from the pons to the diencephalon.
peduncles, superior and inferior colliculi)
. Conveys motor impulses from the cerebrum to cerenellum and
spinal cord. sends sensory impulses from spinal cord to thalamus,
regulates auditory and visual reflexes.
- Cerabral peduncles - Paired bundles of axons, conduct motor
impulses from cerebral cortex to spinal cord, medulla and pons.
- Superior Colliculi - reflex centers for certain visual activities.
Movements of the head, eyes and trunk in response to visual
stimuli.
. Pathway=neural circuits from retina to superior colliculi to extrinsic eye muscles.
- Inferior Colliculi - Auditory pathways, Startle reflex which moves
the head and trunk in response to loud noise.
CSF Circulation and Re-absorption pathway
Understand the function of reticular formation
- The broad region where white matter and grey matter exhibit a
net-like arrangement is known as the rericular formation. (extends
from spinal cord to diencephalon.
. Regulates muscle tone, alerts cortex to incoming sensory info,
regulates consciousness and awakening from sleep
Understand the function of the Cerebellum
- Occupies the inferior and posterior aspects of the cranial cavity.
- Function in the coordination of skeletal muscle contractions and
maintain normal muscle tone, posture, balance and how to use
pen.
- Diencephalon - forms central core of brain tissue just superior
to midbrain. It is composed of Thalamus, (relay station for all
but smell) Hypothalamus (Produce hormones) and Epithalamus
(promote sleep).
. The optic tracts carrying neurons from the retina enter the diencephalon.
- Thalamus - Located superior to midbrain.
. Serves as a relay station for all sensory impulses (except smell)
Understand the function of the main parts of the (diencephalon,
to the cerebral cortex.
thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus) and their accessory structures (pituitary gland, pineal gland and circumventricular organs)
- Hypothalamus - small part of diencephalon, connects to the
pituitary gland
. major regulator of hormones, controlling autonomic nervous system, produces hormones, regulates emotional and temperature,
circadian rhythms.
- Epithalamus - lies superior and posterior to the thalamus
. Contains the pineal gland
. secretes melatonin (sleep hormone)
- Grey matter with cell bodies with billions of neurons in cerebral
cortex. Includes (gyri, fissures, sulci)
- Cerebral white matter composed of tracts of neurons that con2/7
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nect part of the brain to each other and spinal cord
- Basal nuclei are groups of nuclei deep in the white matter
- Seat of intelligence - read, write, speak, calculations, compose
music, remember past and plan for future.
- Can be divided into the Frontal Lobe- Parietal lobe - Temporal
lobe - Occipital Lobe - Insula
Understand the function and structure of the cerebrum
- Longitudinal Fissure - separates the cerebrum into left and right
halfs
- Central Sulcus - separates frontal and periental lobes
- Includes part of the hypothalamus, pineal gland and the pituitary
gland
- can monitor chemical changes in the blood because they lack a
blood brain barrier
- coordinate homeostatic activities like blood pressure, fluid balance and hunger/thirst
What is the Circumventricular Organs (CVOs)
Understand Basal Nuclei and how they are related to Parkinson's
Disease.
- Located deep within each cerebral hemisphere are three nuclei
( masses of grey matter ) collectively called Basal Nuclei.
- Coordinates motor output from cortex, eye movement, subconscious contraction of skeletal muscle, attention, memory, planning, regulation of emotional behavior.
- Parkinson's Disease is the degradation of dopamine neurons in
the substantia nigra (midbrain) and an overactive globus pallucidun (basal Nuclei) inhibits nerve impulses from the motor cortex.
- Leads to slow jerky movements, tremors in face and limbs and
muscle rigidity.
- Lacated in cerebral hemispheres and diencephalon
- Role in emotion from fear and pleasure, role in memory and
smell.
- Amygdala - associates sensory experience with emotional response.
- Important in freezing, fear conditioning and autonomic nervous
system adjustments.
- If removed, Reduces fear and aggression, not able to tell if
someone is afraid.
- Stimulation of some nuclei in hypothalamus can cause rage
Understand the function of the Limbic system
Understand the organization and functionsfunctions of the sensory, motor and association areas with in the cerebrum
- primary SOMATOSENSORY area
. Located in the post central GYR US in
Sensory Areas
- Primary Somatosensory Area
. Located in the postcentral gyrus in each parietal lobe
. Receives visual information and is involved in visial perseption
- Primary Visual Area
Understand the organization and function of the sensory, motor
. Located in the occipital lobe
and association areas within the cerebrum
. Receives visual information and is involved in visual perception
- Primary Auditory Area
. Located in the temporal lobe
. receives auditory information and is involved in auditory perception
Understand the organization and function motor and association
areas within the cerebrum
Motor Areas
- Primary Motor Area
. Located in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe
. Controls voluntary contraction of muscle
- Broca's Speech Area
. Located in the frontal lobe
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. Localized on the left side in most individuals
. Planning and production of speech
. includes control of muscles in mouth, larynx and pharynx, regulating breathing in response to speech
- Somatosensory Association Area
. Located in parietal lobe
. determines shape, texture, and orientation of objects
. stores memory of past somatosensory experiences
Association Areas of the Cerebral Cortex
Somatosensory Association Area
- Visual Association Area
. Located in the occipital lobe
. relates past and present visual experiences for recognition and
evaluation
Visual Association Area
Auditory Association Area
- located in the temporal lobe
- recognizes sound as speech, music or noise
Association Areas of the Cerebral Cortex
Auditory Association Area
Wernicke's Area
Wernicke's Area
- Broad area in left temporal and parietal lobe
- Recognition and meaning of words and translation of words into
thought
Association Areas of the Cerebral Cortex
Prefrontal Cortex
- Frontal lobe
- concerned with personality, intellect, learning, recal, judgment,
conscience, mood, planning and abstract ideas
Prefrontal Cortex
Premotor Area
- Frontal lobe
- Deals with learning motor behavior that are sequential
Premotor Area
Primary and sensory motor cortex distribution
Sensory - hands, face, lips
Motor - Hands, face, lips
Understand the homunculus and its relationship to sensory and
motor neuronal distribution in the body
Association Tracts
- axons between gyri in same hemisphere
- connects areas with one side only
Commissural Tracts (corpus Callosum)
Know the difference between association, commissural and pro- - Connects axons between left and right brain
jection tracts
- always connect the right & left parts. corpus callosum is the most
important commissural tract
Projection tract
- contain axons between cerebrum to lower parts of the CNS
- Connects upper and lower areas
- asymmetry between right and left hemispheres
Understand hemispheric lateralization
Left
- spoken and written language, controls right side of body, reasoning, science and math skills
Right
- visual and spatial skills, controls left side of body, facial recognition, odor discrimination, emotional content of language
Alpha
- during wakefulness
Understand Alpha, Beta, Theta, and Delta brain waves
Beta
- sensory input and mental activity
Theta
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- emotional stress or in many brain disorders
Delta
- During sleep
- Brain damage is indicated if they show up in awake adults
understand the effect of the brain due to a cerebrovascular accident and Alzheimer's Disease
Cerebrovascular Accident (stroke)
- caused by hemorrhage, emboli and atherosclerosis of cerebral
arteries leading to tissue damage
- Paralysis or loss of sensation
- can occur after a transient ischemic attack (TIA)
Impaired blood from leading to dizziness, weakness, numbness of
paralysis of one side of the body, slurred speech, headache
-TIA normally does not have permanent neurological damage
Alzheimer's Disease
- senile dementia, loss of reasoning and ability to take care of ones
self
- caused by mutations in presenilin -1, 2 and amyloid which destroy acetylcholine neurons, generates B amyloid plaques, forms
tau filament tangles
- new data suggests that microbes may play a role in certain
individuals developing Alzheimer's versus others
Increased
If tight junctions were unable to form than what will happen to the
impermeable substances like antibiotics, toxins, bacteria and
permeability of the blood brain barrier?
large molecules would be able to pass from the blood to the brain
Increase, Decrease, No change and Why?
causing serious health concerns.
Decrease
If ependymal cells were no longer allowed to secrete products
damage to the head would increase in risk do to the inability for
than how would this affect and individual's ability to withstand a
the ependymal cells to filter substances from the blood during
head injury?
inflammation and infection of a brunt trauma to the head. Possible
Increase, Decrease, No change and Why?
brain damage
1. brain stem
- It has 3 parts;
-medulla oblongata - (heart rate, swollowing, cough, sneezing)
- pons - (Voluntary skeletal muscle, controls breathing)
- midbrain. - (auditory and visual reflexes, sends impulses from
spinal cord to thalamus
Four major regions of the brain and their functions
2. cerebellum
-Also known as the "little brain"
- (Coordination of skeletal muscle, tone, posture)
3. diencephalon
- thalamus - (relay station for all sensory impulse except smell)
- hypothalamus - (hormones, emotion, eating/drinking, body temp,
circadian rhythms)
- epithalamus (Melatonin , sleep)
4. cerebrum
- It is the largest part of the brain.
- though process and movement.
Decrease
if there was a lesion in the reticular formation than how would this . Regulates muscle tone, alerts cortex to incoming sensory info,
affect your ability to wake for school?
regulates consciousness and awakening from sleep
Increase, Decrease, No change and Why?
- no alerts would be computed, consciousness wold be difficult to
obtain, and waking from sleep would be extremely difficult.
If the epithalamus is damaged, than how would this affect your
ability to detect thirst?
Increase, Decrease, No change and Why?
No Change
- the epithalamus contains the peneal gland and secretes melatonin hormone for sleep.
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If you were in the middle of an exam, which brain wave would be
most active and why.
Beta wave
- appear during periods of sensory input and mental activity
how would your vision be affected in the superior colliculi was
lesioned?
Its upper layer would not receive signals from the retina and the
lower layers would not receive signals from other parts of the brain
The brain stem controls the flow of messages between the brain
why is the brain stem considered the most important region of the and the rest of the body, and it also controls basic body functions
brain?
such as breathing, swallowing, heart rate, blood pressure, consciousness, and whether one is awake or sleepy.
If the broca's area is lesioned, how does this affect your ability to Decrease
make a speech.
this would greatly decrease the broca's and wernicke's area to
Increase, Decrease, No change and Why?
process the word we hear that are being spoken.
1. The cerebral hemispheres are connected internally by broadband a white matter known as the?
Corpus Colossum
2. List the five loaves of the cerebrum
Frontal, temporal,. Parietal, occipital, insula,
3. What separates the cerebrum into right aand left have
Longitudinal fissure
4. True or false. The brainstem consists of the Medela oblongata,
ponds, and diencephalon
False
6. Which of the following is not a function of the thalamus?
- Relaying information from the cerebellum and basal nuclei to
primary motor areas of the cerebral cortex
- helping maintain consciousness
- playing a role in emotions and memories
- regulating body temperature
- relaying sensory impulses to the cerebral cortex
Regulating body temperature
Which of the following statements is false?
- The body supply to the brain is provided mainly by the internal
carotid and vertebral arteries
- neurons in the brain relay most exclusively on aerobic respiration
to produce ATP
In interruption of blood flow to the brain for even 20 seconds may
- and interruption of blood flow to the brain for even 20 seconds impair brain function
may impair brain function
- glucose supply to the brain must be continuous
- Low levels of glucose in the blood to the brain may result in
unconsciousness
In which of the following ways does cerebral spinal fluid contribute
to homeostasis? --Mechanical protection
- Chemical protection
- electrical protection
- circulation
- immunity
Mechanical protection, chemical protection, circulation,
In which of the following are functions of the hypothalamus?
Control of the ANS, production of hormones, regulation of emotional and behavioral patterns, regulation of eating and drinking,
control of body temperature, regulation of circadian rhythm
Which of the following statements is false?-Association tracks transmit nerve impulses between Garry. in the
same hemisphere
- commissural tracts transmit impulses from the gallery in one
cerebral hemisphere to the corresponding diary in the other hemisphere
- protection tracks from descending and ascending tracts that
transmit impulses from the cerebrum and other parts of the brain
to the spinal cord, or from the spinal cord to the brain
- The internal capsule is an example of commissural tract
- The corpus callosum is an example of commiserable tract
The internal capsule is an example of commiissural track
Which of the following statements is true?
- The right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum are completely
symmetrical
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- The left hemisphere controls the left side of the body
- The right hemisphere is more important for spoken and written
language
Hemispheric lateralization is more pronounced in males and then
- The left hemisphere is more important for musical and artistic
in females
awareness
-hemispheric lateralization is more pronounced in males than in
females
Emotional brain involved in all the action in memory
Limbic system
Bridge connecting parts of the brain with each other
Pons
Sensory relay area
Thalamus
Alert the cerebral cortex to incoming sensory signals
Reticular formation
Regulates posture and balance
Cerebellum
Lacks a blood brain barrier can monitor chemical changes in blood
Circumventricular organs
Site of decussation of pyramids
Medulla oblongata
Site for pneumotaxic and apneustic areas
Cerebrum
Responsible for maintaining consciousness and a waking from
sleep
Reticular activating system
Controls AN S
Hypothalamus
I mean plane reflex centers for movement of the eyes, head, and
Nick in response to visual and other stimuli, and reflex center for
movement of the head and trunk in response to auditory stimuli
Midbrain
Plays in a central role in awareness and in the acquisition of
knowledge
Thalamus, cerebrum
Several groups of nuclei the control large autonomic movements
of skeletal muscles and help regulate muscle tone required for
specific body movements
Basal nuclei
Produces hormones that regulate endocrine gland function
Hypothalamus
Contains the vital cardiovascular center and medullary rhythmic
center
Medulla oblongata
7/7
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secrete hormones that regulate processes such as growth, reproduction, and nutrient use (metabolism) by body cells.
-messages thru the bloodstream to body
endocrine system
chemical messengers
allow cells to *communicate* with each other to regulate body
activities
-signals used in endocrine system
Sudoriferous (sweat) gland
-exocrine, duct
which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland?
Health dependent on properly functioning homeostatic mechanisms.
-maintained by constant adjustment of biochemical and physiological pathways.
Copynlht • z011 NEURO~RC. All Rl&htJ R.,.,.,.d
.,.,
-
(,i.1:i
~
Homeostasis
- -~✓-- ..
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(long-distance) chemical signals that travel in the blood or lymph
hormones
-Acts w/ nervous system to coordinate & integrate activity of body
cells
-*Responses occur slowly tend to last longer than those of the
nervous system*
locally acting chemicals that affect cells other than those that
secrete them
-act on other cells w/in the same tissue (area)
Paracrlne secretion
paracrines
1 / 12
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chemicals that exert effects on *same cells* that secrete them
-effects on themselves
(C} Autocrln e slgnalllf'lg
0
autocrines
A. Paracrine substances act on nearby tissues without first entering the blood.
which of the following statements about paracrine substances is
correct?
B. Paracrine substances are inactivated quickly; their effects are
short-lived.
C. Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is an example of a paracrine substance.
D. All of the above are correct.
*D*
glands empty their hormonal products directly into the blood
*DUCTLESS*
most glands of ES such as the pituitary, hypothalamus, thyroid,
parathyroid, adrenal, and pineal glands
Blood In
.,- Csplllarles
endocrine glands
Hormones
are secreted
Into blood
Endocrine Gland
secrete chemical substances into ducts that lead either to other
organs or out of the body
-have a *duct*
exocrine glands
Cltemfcs/s
produced
by the gland
Exocrene Gland
produce both hormones
-endocrine & exocrine
Ex. pancreas & gonads (testes/ovaries)
mixed glands
2 / 12
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both neural and endocrine functions
controls release of hormones from anterior pituitary
-produces 2 hormones stored in/released by posterior pituitary:
-Oxytocin
-Antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
-produces *steering hormones*
hypothalamus
-part of the diencephalon
A. is a link between the endocrine and nervous systems.
B. produces oxytocin and ADH
C. is part of the diencephalon
D. is closely linked to the pituitary gland
E. All of the above are correct.
the hypothalamus
*E*
hormones produced by proteins, peptides, amines
Ex. *thyroid & growth hormone*
*norepinephrine, insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, & vasopressin*
H
amino-acid based
H
H
hormones produced by fats & synthesized from *cholesterol*
Ex. *estrogen/testosterone*
*aldosteron & cortizol*
- ;~
steroid based
__
-··--- ,,
~
target cells
'- --
cells that have receptors for a particular hormone
3 / 12
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(5J
Se<.reti ng ce ll
Only cells that have specific structures called ______________,
to which the hormone can bind, will react to a it.
- • ...- - ... -::::~ ~signal
Re.ceptof .s.ltie
-
Receptors
ReceplOf protein
target cells form more receptors in response to the hormone
-increase
up regulation
target cells lose receptors in response to the hormone
down regulation
Ex. Diabetes mellitus Type II
-insulin cannot get thru to cells
A patient has a tumor causing excessive production of parathyroid
C.His body will *down-regulate* the receptors for PTH to become
hormone (PTH). How will his body attempt to compensate for
less sensitive to that hormone.
excessive amounts of PTH?
A. It uses hormones, which are transported by the blood, to
communicate with distant tissues. B. Its hormones must bind to
specific receptor sites in order to have effects on a tissue.
Which of the following statements about the endocrine system is C. Its targets are limited to muscles.
NOT correct?
D. It may take seconds, hours, or days to respond to a stimulus
**C**
one hormone cannot exert its effects WITHOUT another hormone
being present
-signal
Ex. Reproductive system development *needs* thyroid hormone
presence
permissiveness
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more than one hormone produces the SAME EFFECTS on a
target cell
Ex. glucagon & epinephrine both cause the *liver to release glucose into the blood*; result is amplified when they act together
Synergism
one or more hormones OPPOSES the action of another hormone
Ex. insulin vs. glucagon for regulation of blood sugar
antagonism
Calcitonin and parathyroid hormones have *opposite effects* on
blood Ca2+ level, therefore they are considered to be
A. synergists
B. permissive
C. antagonists
D. repressive
**C**
A. Estrogen
B. Testosterone
C. Cortisol
D. Insulin
E. Aldosterone
Each of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone EXCEPT:
**D**, sugar based hormone
Which of the following classes of hormones is NOT water-soluble?
A. Amines
B. Peptides
C. Proteins
D. Steroids
**D**, fats don't mix w/water
(all amino acid-based hormones)
- Act on plasma membrane receptors
- Act via G protein *second messengers*
- Cannot enter cell
water soluble hormones
*LONGER PROCESS THAN LIPID SOLUBLE HORMONES*
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(steroid and thyroid hormones) act on intracellular receptors that
directly activate genes
*faster process*
fat soluble hormones
~
--
acts as a signal molecule in the cytoplasm for *water soluble
hormones*
second messenger
A. a water soluble hormone B. a lipid soluble hormone C. adenylate cyclase
Cyclic AMP and cGMP are common 2nd messengers. What is the
D. G protein
1st messenger?
**A**, WS triggers 2nd messenger
A. glucagon
B. epinephrine
C. insulin
D. thyroid hormone
Which of the following hormones is able to alter gene expression
in the mitochondria?
**D**, TH made from steriods, fats can alter DNA expression
-degrading enzymes
Hormone removal
-Metabolism in the liver.
-Excretion through the kidneys.
half-life
time required for a hormone's blood level to decrease by half.
A. There will be more hormones in the blood and fewer hormone
A patient with hepatitis B has reduced liver function. How will
by-products in the urine
reduced function of her liver affect levels of hormones in her blood
or urine?A.
-*liver is not function to get rid hormones, build up*
changing chemical/nutrients *blood level* directly triggers release
of hormone
humoral stimulus
Ex. *low Calcium levels* stimulate glands that release PTH promoting *osteoclast* activity that raises blood Calcium level
*humoral* = *humor liquid*
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nerve fibers stimulate hormone release
Ex. Sympathetic nervous system innervates *adrenal medulla* to
release *epinephrine & norepinephrine*
neural stimulus
one hormone triggers other endocrine organs to release their
hormone
hormonal stimulus
Ex. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone triggers the release of Thyroid
Hormone.
hormones that stimulate other endocrine organs are called
___________ h__________
tropic hormones
-name usually end in *tropin* such as gonadotropin
activity alters condition in internal environment & triggers response that reverses altered condition
negative feedback
Ex. increase in the blood level will *decrease* hormone release,
whereas falling blood level will lead to *increased* hormone release.
chain of events *intensifies* a change from the original condition
positive feedback
Ex. Childbirth
Some hormones are released in rhythmic 24-hour patterns
circadian rhythm
-biological clock
direct anterior pituitary to either release/inhibit a hormone
steering hormones
-TRH
-GNRH
-CRH
adenohypophysis
-gland tissue
anterior pituitary
produces 6 hormones, stimulated by the hypothalamus
-connected by hypophyseal portal veins
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- ----~ ~-
adenophypophysis
anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
1. hGH - Human growth hormone
2. TSH - Thyroid-stimulating hormone
3. FSH - Follicle-stimulating hormone
4. LH - Luteinizing hormone
5. PRL - Prolactin
6. ACTH - Adrenocoricotropic hormone
7. Melanocyte-stimulating hormone
anterior pituitary hormones
.....
__ _________
___ _
,..
.,
,::.'
The endocrine system's most *influential gland*. influence of the
hypothalamus, the pituitary regulates growth & controls other
endocrine glands.
pituitary gland
-master gland
-hypophysis
neurohypophysis
-part of the CNS
releases 2 hormones in response to nerve impulses
-oxytocin
-antidiuretic hormone
posterior pituitary
*hormones are made in hypothalamus*
neurohypophysis
posterior pituitary gland
how posterior pituitary maintains neural connection with hypothalamus to release hormones
hypothalamic-hypophyseal tract
stimulates uterine contractions during childbirth
-triggers *milk ejection* in women producing milk --> "letdown"
reflex
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-plays role in *sexual arousal & orgasm* in females/males
Oxytocin (OT)
pertaining to the uterus; the womb
uterine
in charge of *water* balance
hypothalamic receptors respond to changes in the solute concentration of the blood
antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
-osmolarity goes up, ADH is *released* & body produces *less*
pee to save water
-osmolarity goes down, ADH is *not released* & body produces
more pee = body loses more urine
*ANTI-PEE hormone*
alcohol effect on antidiuretic hormone
inhibits the secretion of ADH, which leads to more frequent urination/copious urine output and dehydration of the body.
1. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)
2. Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
3. Follicle-Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
4. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)
Tropic Hormones of Anterior Pituitary
*regulate secretory action of other endocrine glands*
Blood passes in a direct route from the hypothalamus to the
anterior pituitary gland through the _____________
hypophyseal portal veins
stimulates growth of bone& skeletal muscle by activating *insulin-like growth factors (IGFs)*
Growth Hormone (GH)
-promotes protein synthesis & encourages use of fats for fuel
gigantism in children and acromegaly in adults
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Hypersecretion of GH
pituitary dwarfism in children
Hyposecretion of GH
oversecretion of hGH during childhood
-children may grown up to 6 inches per yr
-usually result of *tumor* around or in pituitary gland
Gigantism
oversecretion of hGH during adulthood
-do not get taller bc epiphyseal plates have closed
-hands, feet, & face enlarge., *puffy*
acromegaly
lack of growth hormone, normal proportions with short stature
pituitary dwarfism
released towards end of *pregnancy* & stimulates *milk* production
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-suckling stimulates release of PRH from hypothalamus = con't
milk production
Prolactin (PRL)
t-~
~
Prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH)
outside pregnancy & breast feeding PRL release is controlled by
_________-_____________ ___________
*also known as DOPAMINE*
Dopamine
a neurotransmitter that regulates motor behavior, motivation,
pleasure, and emotional arousal
or thyrotropin
-tropic hormone
Stimulates the normal development & secretory activity of the
thyroid (T3 and T4)
-release is stimulated by thyroid hormone (TRH)
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
?•
Thyroxine
Promotes secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
hormone produced in the hypothalamus.
- It controls thyroid hormone production
stimulates secretion from adrenal cortex
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
-triggered by corticotropin-releasing hormone in daily rhythm
-levels are highest in morning
exert their effects on the *gonads* (ovaries & testes)
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
-FSH stimulates gamete (egg or sperm) production
stimulates ovaries and testes
luteinizing hormone (LH)
-promotes production of gonadal, sex hormones
gonadotropins
in pituitary release *FSH* & *LH* @ beginning of puberty under
the influence of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)
-Absent from the blood in prepubertal boys and girls
gonadal
or sex hormones suppress the release of GnRH & FSH/LH via
*negative feedback loop*
thyroid gland
Consists of two lateral lobes connected by a median mass called
the isthmus
primary effect of T3 and T4
increased metabolism
Thryoxine (T4)
has 2 tryosine molecules + *4* bound iodine atoms
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has tyrosines + *3* bound iodine atoms
Triiodothyronine (T3)
-both bind to target receptors, but T3 is *ten times more active than
T4*
binds most T3/T4 in blood; only free hormone is active.
- TBG in hepatic failure, steroids;
- TBG in pregnancy or OCP use (estrogen TBG)
Thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG)
insufficient production of thyroid hormones
Hypothyroidism
-due to lack of *iodine* in diet
caused by extreme deficiency of thyroid secretion
-in *adults*
swelling of the skin caused by deposits under the skin
Myxedema
myxedema
L.atera/
")'8brows
thin
r··
Puffy <lull
face with
dry Skin
lack of iodine
Goiter
-bc TH levels are low in blood, hypothalamus keeps releasing TRH
(Thyrotropin-releasing h.) & TSH (thyroid stimulating h.)
-constant high levels leads to *increase in thyroid gland*
lack of thyroid hormone during childhood
- condition of severely stunted physical & mental growth
-can be a result of mother not taking enough iodine during prengancy
Cretinism
hypersecretion of thyroid hormone
graves' diease
-opposite to myxedema
symptoms of myxedema
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Autonomic Nervous System
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Which of the following are true of the autonomic nervous system?
A) It operates via reflex arcs.
B) It controls contractions of smooth and cardiac muscle and
secretion by many glands.
C) It functions independently, without control from the central
nervous system.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
A and B are correct
Which of the following is characteristic of the somatic nervous
system?
A) Somatic receptors are usually specialized, e.g. the rods and
cones of the retina.
B) Somatic motor pathways usually only contain one motor neuron.
C) Somatic motor pathways are controlled largely by the cerebral
cortex.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
A, B and C are correct.
Which of the following is true of the autonomic nervous system?
A) Its sensory input comes primarily from interoceptors.
B) Most of its motor pathways include two neurons that synapse
at a ganglion.
C) All of it neurons release acetylcholine.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
A and B are correct.
Which of the following is NOT a primary regulator of autonomic
functions?
A) primary motor cortex
B) limbic system
C) hypothalamus
D) brain stem
E) spinal cord
primary motor cortex
Which of the following is NOT an example of an autonomic response?
A) increasing your heart rate as you watch a scary movie
B) dilating your pupils when you walk into a dark room
C) tapping your friend's shoulder to get her attention
D) constricting the blood vessels in your hand when you place it
in ice water
E) decreasing your respiration rate as you fall asleep
tapping your friend's shoulder to get her attention
6) Organs that have dual innervation receive motor impulses from
the
A) somatic and autonomic nervous systems.
B) parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
C) somatic and enteric nervous systems.
D) autonomic and enteric nervous systems.
E) sympathetic and enteric nervous systems
parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous systems.
Which of the following is true of a preganglionic fiber?
A) It is not myelinated.
B) It has a small diameter.
C) It lies entirely outside the CNS.
D) It terminates at a visceral effector.
E) It is classified as a class C fiber.
It has a small diameter.
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A parasympathetic preganglionic neuron
A) may have a cell body in the nucleus of cranial nerve III, VII, IX,
or X of the brain stem.
B) may have a cell body in the lateral gray horn of sacral segment
of the spinal cord.
C) synapse with a postganglionic neuron in the superior paravertebral ganglion.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
A and B are correct.
Sympathetic ganglia
A) called paravertebral ganglia are found lateral to the vertebrae.
B) called prevertebral ganglia are found anterior to the vertebrae.
C) called celiac and mesenteric ganglia control organs below the
diaphragm.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
A, B and C are correct.
Parasympathetic ganglia
A) are called terminal ganglia because they are near or in the
walls of effectors.
are called terminal ganglia because they are near or in the walls
B) synapse with short preganglionic fibers.
of effectors.
C) synapse with long postganglionic fibers.
D) include the superior, middle and inferior mesenteric ganglia.
E) All of the above are correct.
Autonomic plexuses
A) are clusters of autonomic ganglia.
B) are often associated with major veins of the body.
C) may contain sympathetic ganglia.
D) never contain autonomic sensory fibers.
E) All of the above are correct.
may contain sympathetic ganglia.
Which autonomic plexus controls the largest variety of organs?
A) cardiac
B) celiac
C) hypogastric
D) inferior mesenteric
E) superior mesenteric
celiac
Which autonomic plexus supplies the kidneys?
A) cardiac
B) celiac
C) hypogastric
D) pulmonary
E) renal
renal
Where do sympathetic preganglionic neurons synapse with postganglionic neurons?
A) in the first ganglion they enter.
B) in a prevertebral ganglion after passing through a sympathetic
trunk ganglion
C) in a higher or lower ganglion
D) in the adrenal medullae.
E) All of these are correct.
Which characteristic of sympathetic preganglionic fibers allows
them to control most structures in the body simultaneously?
A) They have many collateral axons and synapse with many
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All of these are correct.
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postganglionic neurons.
B) They lie in the walls of many organs.
C) They are long fibers reaching far into the body.
D) They are class A fibers.
E) They originate in the brain stem.
They have many collateral axons and synapse with many postganglionic neurons.
The white rami
A) connect the posterior ramus of the spinal nerve with the ganglia
of the parasympathetic trunk.
B) contain myelinated fibers.
arise from the lateral horns of cervical and sacral spinal segments.
C) arise from the lateral horns of cervical and sacral spinal segments.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
Which of the following is NOT true of sympathetic trunk ganglia?
A) They arise from cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral segments
of the spinal cord.
They arise from cervical, thoracic, lumbar and sacral segments of
B) They extend from the neck to the coccyx.
the spinal cord.
C) They lie anterior or lateral to the vertebral column.
D) They include the superior, middle and cervical ganglia.
E) They include ganglia in which presynaptic neurons do not
synapse.
Splanchnic nerves
A) arise from preganglionic fibers that do not synapse in the
sympathetic trunk.
B) contain preganglionic fibers that terminate in the prevertebral
ganglia.
C) contain postganglionic fibers that supply thoracic and abdominal viscera.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
A and B are correct.
The adrenal medullae
A) arise from the same embryonic tissue as the sympathetic
ganglia.
B) contain cells similar to sympathetic postganglionic neurons.
C) release norepinephrine, epinephrine and dopamine into the
blood when stimulated.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct. *
A, B and C are correct.
Which of the following is NOT a cranial parasympathetic ganglion?
A) ciliary
B) optic
C) otic
D) pterygopalatine
E) submandibular
optic
Which splanchnic nerves carry parasympathetic output?
A) greater splanchnic nerves
B) lesser splanchnic nerves
C) lowest splanchnic nerves
D) lumbar splanchnic nerves
E) pelvic splanchnic nerves
pelvic splanchnic nerves
Which of the following is NOT true?
A) Two general types of sympathetic ganglia and one type of
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parasympathetic ganglion exist.
B) Sympathetic preganglionic fibers are shorter than their
parasympathetic preganglionic.
C) Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers are longer than their
Parasympathetic neurons from rami communicantes, but sympasympathetic counterparts.
thetic neurons do not.
D) Parasympathetic neurons from rami communicantes, but sympathetic neurons do not.
E) Parasympathetic and sympathetic preganglionic fibers secrete
acetylcholine.
Which of the following are cholinergic neurons?
A) preganglionic sympathetic neurons
B) preganglionic and postganglionic parasympathetic neurons.
C) most postganglionic sympathetic neurons associated with
sweat glands
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
A, B and C are correct.
Which of the following does NOT receive only sympathetic innervation?
A) sweat gland
B) arrector pili muscle
C) heart
D) kidney
E) adrenal medulla
heart
If an organ receives only sympathetic innervation, how is its
function be regulated?
A) It can be regulated by changing the level of sympathetic stimIt can be regulated by changing the level of sympathetic stimulaulation it receives.
tion it receives
B) It can be regulated by the endocrine system
C) It can be regulated by the somatic nervous system
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
Which of the following will NOT usually activate a sympathetic
response?
A) exercising intensely
B) eliminating wastes
C) receiving exciting news
D) becoming extremely embarrassed
E) responding to an emergency
eliminating wastes
A major organ that receives sympathetic stimulation, but not
parasympathetic stimulation is the:
A) heart.
B) liver.
C) stomach.
D) lung.
E) kidney.
kidney.
Which of the following occurs during the fight-or-flight response?
A) increased constriction of the pupils of the eyes
B) increased production of glycogen in the liver
C) increased ATP production
D) increased bronchoconstriction
E) increased urine formation
increased ATP production
What is the effect of epinephrine and norepinephrine release from
the adrenal medullae?
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A) intensify the sympathetic response in all tissues bearing nicotinic receptors
B) intensify the sympathetic response in all tissues bearing muscarinic receptors
C) intensify the sympathetic response in all tissues bearing alpha intensify the sympathetic response in all tissues bearing alpha or
receptors
beta receptors
D) intensify the sympathetic response in all tissues bearing beta
receptors
E) intensify the sympathetic response in all tissues bearing alpha
or beta receptors
Which of the following is NOT increased by parasympathetic
activation?
A) perspiration
B) lacrimation
C) urination
D) defecation
E) digestion
perspiration
You are just about to perform a clinical procedure for the first time
and your palms begin to sweat. This is due to:
A) increased sympathetic stimulation of sweat glands possessing
alpha receptors.
B) increased sympathetic stimulation of sweat glands possessing
increased sympathetic stimulation of sweat glands possessing
beta receptors.
alpha receptors.
C) increased parasympathetic stimulation of sweat glands possessing nicotinic receptors.
D) increased parasympathetic stimulation of sweat glands possessing muscarinic receptors.
E) increased sympathetic stimulation of sweat glands possessing
muscarinic receptors.
Increased parasympathetic stimulation causes
A) decreased pupil diameter.
B) decreased heart rate.
C) decreased bronchodilation.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct
decreased heart rate.
Which of the following is NOT an example of an autonomic reflex?
A) extension of the leg when the patellar tendon is struck
B) rise in blood pressure when shifting from a sitting to a standing
position
C) increased movement of the stomach when thinking about a
favorite food
D) dryness in the mouth when extremely frightened
E) opening the urethral sphincter so that urine can drain from the
bladder
extension of the leg when the patellar tendon is struck
The main integrating centers for most autonomic reflexes are in
the
A) hypothalamus
B) brain stem
C) cerebral cortex
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
A and B are correct.
The integration centers for defecation and urination reflexes are
in the
A) hypothalamus
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B) brain stem
C) cerebral cortex
D) cerebellum
E) spinal cord
Which of the following may be an effector in an autonomic reflex?
A) smooth muscle
B) a gland
C) cardiac muscle
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
A, B and C are correct.
The hypothalamus receives sensory input related to each of the
following EXCEPT:
A) proprioception
B) emotional state
C) blood pH
D) blood osmolarity
E) body temperature
proprioception
Which autonomic centers are in the brain stem and are controlled
by the hypothalamus?
A) vomiting
B) cardiovascular
C) defecation
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
A and B are correct
Increased stimulation of the posterior and lateral nuclei of the
hypothalamus would result in
A) increased body temperature.
B) increased cardiac output.
C) increased blood pressure.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
A, B and C are correct.
Increased stimulation of the anterior and medial nuclei of the
hypothalamus would result in
A) increased cardiac output.
B) increased digestion.
C) decreased constriction of the pupils
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
decreased constriction of the pupils
How does the autonomic nervous system integrate with the reproductive system?
A) The hypothalamus helps the limbic system regulate sexual
behavior.
B) Parasympathetic impulses stimulate erection.
C) Sympathetic impulses stimulate ejaculation.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
A, B and C are correct.
The ____ nervous system regulates involuntary actions such as
smooth muscle contraction
autonomic
Increased stimulation by the ____ division of the autonomic nervous system generally increases heart rate.
sympathetic
The first motor neuron in any autonomic motor pathway is called
a ___ neuron.
preganglionic
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The ____ division of the autonomic nervous system is also called
the craniosacral division because of the cell bodies of its neurons
are located in the brain stem and sacral spinal cord.
parasympathetic
_____ ganglia include the superior, middle and inferior cervical
ganglia.
sympathetic trunk
The _____ ganglia are parasympathetic; they include the pterygopalatine and otic ganglia.
terminal
____ contain preganglionic fibers that do not synapse in sympathetic chain ganglia.
Splanchnic nerves
The _____ parasympathetic outflow consists of preganglionic
axons that extend from the brain stem in cranial nerves III, VII,
IX or X.
cranial
The balance between sympathetic and parasympathetic activity
is called _____ .
autonomic tone
The _____ controls the balance between sympathetic and
parasympathetic activity.
hypothalamus
Sympathetic activation causes a set of responses designed to
protect the body from a real or perceived threat. Collectively, these
responses are called the _____ response.
fight or flight
Parasympathetic activation allows the body to process ingested
food and store energy. The parasympathetic response is sometimes called the _____ response.
rest and digest
Responses that occur when nerve ¬impulses pass through an
autonomic reflex arc are ____.
autonomic reflexes
The distal end of an autonomic sensory neuron is a _____.
receptor
The posterior and lateral nuclei of the hypothalamus control the
_____ division of the autonomic nervous system.
posterior
The anterior and medial nuclei of the hypothalamus control the
____ division of the autonomic nervous system.
parasympathetic
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A&P II Chapter 16
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Cover the eyes while sleeping, shield the
Which of the following is a function of the eyes from debris or excessive light &
eyelids?
spread lubricating substances over the
eyeballs
The hair cells of the spiral organ (organ
of Corti) are covered with
The tectorial membrane
A 3-year-old child becomes frightened
of the "monster" in the closet and runs
Sympathetic activation of the radial musscreaming into his parents' room. What
cles of the iris dilated the child's pupils.
might the boy's mother, a neurologist,
notice about the child's pupils?
The aqueous humor
nourishes the cornea and the lens
Rods
Are able to function at low light levels
& allow gray-scale vision but not color
vision
Which of the following is correct
Static equilibrium allows maintenance of
head position relative to the force of gravity & Dynamic equilibrium allows maintenance of balance during rapid movements
The auditory tube
is also called the pharyngotympanic or
Eustachian tube, allows equalization of
pressure on both sides of the tympanic
membrane & allows microbes to colonize the interior surface of the tympanic
membrane
The tympanic membrane
is surrounded by the temporal bone
Axons from the vestibular nuclei extend
to the
Abducens, oculomotor, accessory &
trochlear
The cerebellum
receives input from the utricle, saccule
and semicircular canals & sends nerve
impulses to the motor areas of the cerebrum
The lens
focuses light on to the retina
What is the optic disc?
An area with no rods or cones
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How does gustation compare to olfaction?
The gustatory receptors are less sensitive than the olfactory receptors
''
'
''
'
'
the otoliths are pulled by gravity pushing
What happens when you tilt your head
against hair cells causing hair bundles to
back?
:bend
_ _ __
Place the events involved in hearing in
the order in which they occur.
1. Scala vestibuli movement causes
scala tympani movements.
2. Sound waves cause the tympanic
membrane to vibrate.
3. Endolymph waves cause movement
of the basilar membrane and its hair
cells.
4. The pinna conducts sound waves into
the external auditory canal.
5. Hair cells push against the tectorial membrane; stereocilia bend; impulses
generate.
6. The tympanic membrane moves the
malleus, which in turn moves the incus
and stapes.
7. Scala tympani movements create
waves in cochlear endolymph.
8. The stapes moves against the oval
window, moving the perilymp
4, 2, 6, 8, 1, 7, 3, 5
Which of the following statements is cor- Only humans express emotions by cryrect?
ing
Smell
Is a chemical sense
The vibration of the tympanic membrane
Is caused by sound vibrations
The area of highest visual acuity is the
central fovea
A gymnast competing in the floor exercise must do a rapidly executed series
The utricle, the saccule, the semicircular
of flips and twists. At the end of those
canals
movements the gymnast must land upright within the boundaries of tumbling
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mat and remain motionless for a few seconds. Which parts of the gymnast's ears
allow him to successfully complete the
floor exercise
Place the parts of the olfactory pathway
in the order in which an impulse travels
to its integration center:
1. olfactory nerve
2. olfactory integration centers (temporal
lobe, amygdala, hypothalamus, frontal
lobe)
3. olfactory bulb
4. olfactory receptor
5. olfactory tract
4, 1, 3, 5, 2
Which of the statements is NOT correct
The maculae consist of two types of
cells, otoliths and hair bundles
Pitch increases when
The frequency of sound increases
Where do first-order neurons of the
vestibulocochlear nerve terminate?
In ipsilateral cochlear nuclei of the
medulla oblongata
Which of the papillae function of gusta- All except the filiform papillae function in
tion?
gestation
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How do olfactory receptors differ from
other neurons?
A) They, like other special sense receptors,
have a lower threshold than most neurons.
B) They are able to regenerate.
C) They adapt to stimuli slowly.
D) A and B are correct.
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E) A, B and C are correct
a
anatomy 2- ch 18
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_3f77ps
1) Which of the following is true of the endocrine system but not
the nervous system?
A) directs long term processes such as pregnancy and puberty
B) communicates via chemical signals
C) regulates activities of muscles and glands
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
a
2) Which of the following statements about the endocrine system
is NOT correct?
A) It uses hormones, which are transported by the blood, to
communicate with distant tissues.
B) Its hormones must bind to specific receptor sites in order to
have effects on a tissue.
C) It targets are limited to muscles, glands and nerves.
D) It may take seconds, hours, or days to respond to a stimulus.
E) Its actions may last seconds, hours, or days.
c
3) Which mediator is considered to be both a neurotransmitter
and a hormone?
A) insulin
B) norepinephrine
C) thyroid hormone
D) somatotropin
E) aldosterone
b
4) Which of the following is NOT an endocrine gland?
A) thyroid gland
B) adrenal gland
C) sudoriferous gland
D) pituitary gland
E) parathyroid gland
c
5) Which of the following does NOT contain endocrine tissue?
A) hypothalamus
B) thymus
C) heart
D) gall bladder
E) kidney
d
6) The anterior pituitary gland responds to gonadotropin releasing
hormone (GnRH), but the posterior pituitary gland does not. Why?
A) Only anterior pituitary gland is permeable to GnRH.
B) Only the anterior pituitary gland is vascular.
C) Only the anterior pituitary gland is connected by neurons to the
hypothalamus.
D) Only the anterior pituitary gland is connected to a duct carrying
GnRH.
E) Only the anterior pituitary gland has receptors for GnRH.
e
7) A patient has a tumor causing excessive production of parathyroid hormone (PTH). How will his body attempt to compensate for
excessive amounts of PTH?
A) His body will up-regulate the receptors for PTH to become less
sensitive to that hormone.
B) His body will up-regulate the receptors for PTH to become
more sensitive to that hormone.
C) His body will down-regulate the receptors for PTH to become
less sensitive to that hormone.
D) His body will down-regulate the receptors for PTH to become
more sensitive to that hormone.
E) His body will make hormone blockers that prevent PTH from
binding to receptors.
c
8) Which of the following statements about paracrine substances
is correct?
A) Paracrine substances act on nearby tissues without first enter1/7
a
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ing the blood.
B) Paracrine substances are inactivated quickly; their effects are
short-lived.
C) Interleukin-2 (IL-2) is an example of a paracrine substance.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
e
9) A patient with hepatitis B has reduced liver function. How will
reduced function of her liver affect levels of hormones in her blood
or urine?
A) There will be more hormones in the blood and fewer hormone
by-products in the urine.
B) There will be fewer hormones in the blood and more hormone
by-products in the urine.
C) There should be no effect on blood hormone levels, but urine
hormone levels will increase.
D) There will be more hormones in the blood and more hormone
by-products in the urine.
E) There will be fewer hormones in the blood and fewer hormone
by-products in the urine.
a
10) Each of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone EXCEPT:
A) aldosterone
B) thyroid hormone
C) insulin
D) nitric oxide
E) cortisone
c
11) Which of the following classes of hormones is water-soluble?
A) eicosanoids
B) amines
C) peptides
D) proteins
E) All of these are correct.
e
12) What do T3 and T4 have in common with epinephrine and
norepinephrine?
A) They are all water-soluble.
B) They are all lipid-soluble.
C) They are all derived from the amino acid tyrosine.
D) They are all made by both the nervous and endocrine systems.
E) They are all made by the adrenal glands.
c
13) Which of the following is a function of a hormone transport
protein?
A) increase water solubility
B) decrease removal of hormone from blood by kidney
C) act as a ready reserve of hormone
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
e
14) Which of the following hormones is effective when taken
orally?
A) estrogen
B) cortisone
C) insulin
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
d
15) Which of the following is not typically caused by a hormone?
A) synthesis of new molecules
B) alteration of plasma membrane permeability
C) stimulating the contraction of skeletal muscles
D) alteration of the rate of metabolism
E) stimulation of secretion
c
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a
anatomy 2- ch 18
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16) Which of the following is NOT associated with the intracellular
mechanism of hormone action used by lipid soluble hormones?
A) diffusion through the plasma membrane
B) activation of adenylate cyclase
C) binding to a receptor on DNA
D) alteration of gene expression
E) alteration of cellular activity
b
17) Which of the following hormones is able to alter gene expression in the mitochondria?
A) glucagon
B) epinephrine
C) insulin
D) thyroid hormone
E) growth hormone
d
18) Cyclic AMP and cGMP are common 2nd messengers. What
is the 1st messenger?
A) a water soluble hormone
B) a lipid soluble hormone
C) adenylate cyclase
D) G protein
E) phosphodiesterase
a
19) Place the events of the 2nd messenger mechanism of hormone activity in the order in which they occur:
1. water soluble hormone binds to membrane receptor.
2. G protein activated
3. protein kinase activated
4. adenylate cyclase activated
5. cAMP formed
6. physiological response occurs
7. cAMP inactivated
8. gene expression altered
A) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 6, 8, but never 7
B) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 8, 7, but never 6
C) 1, 2, 4, 8, 3, 6, 7, but never 5
D) 1, 2, 8, 5, 3, 6, 7, but never 4
E) 1, 2, 4, 5, 3, 6, 7, but never 8
e
20) Which of the following is not a 2nd messenger?
A) G protein
B) IP3
C) Ca2+
D) DAG
E) cGMP
a
21) A single molecule ____ can create an amplification effect
because it acts via the 2nd messenger mechanism.
A) aldosterone
B) epinephrine
C) estrogen
D) progesterone
E) testosterone
b
22) Calcitonin and parathyroid hormones have opposite effects on
blood Ca2+ level, therefore they are considered to be
A) synergists
B) permissive
C) antagonist
D) repressive
E) agonistic
c
23) How is hormone secretion regulated?
A) by the nervous system
B) by other hormones
C) by changes in blood composition
e
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D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
24) The hypothalamus
A) is a link between the endocrine and nervous systems.
B) release oxytocin and ADH into the blood but does not produce
them.
C) regulates the posterior pituitary gland via releasing and inhibiting hormones.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
a
24) The pituitary gland
A) lies in the cribiform plate of the ethmoid bone.
B) consists of two lobes, the adenohypophysis and the neurohypophysis.
C) develops from outgrowths of endoderm.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
b
25) The anterior pituitary gland
A) contains two cell types and secretes four different hormones.
B) is regulated largely by positive feedback mechanisms and
hormones from the pineal gland.
C) regulates the function of some other endocrine glands by
secreting hormones called tropins.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
d
26) Which of the following is NOT associated with hGH?
A) secreted by the most numerous cells in the adenohypophysis
B) increase protein synthesis
C) stimulate production and release of insulin-like growth factors
D) decrease lipolysis
E) spare glucose for use by the nervous system
d
27) An activist has been fasting for ten days to protest a violation
of civil rights. His blood glucose level has fallen to 50 mg/dL. Which
of the following effects will the fast have on his endocrine system?
A) Less GHIH will be released from the hypothalamus.
B) Less GHRH will be released from the hypothalamus.
C) Less GH will be released from the anterior pituitary gland.
D) Less IGF will be released from the liver and other tissues.
E) Less glycogenolyis will occur in the liver.
a
28) Which of the following is correct?
A) Only females produce prolactin.
B) Increased levels of stress may cause increased secretion of
ACTH.
C) MSH is required for normal thyroid function in humans.
D) LH inhibits ovulation.
E) TSH stimulates calcitonin production.
b
29) The posterior pituitary gland
A) is also called the adenohypophysis.
B) contains pituicytes and the axons of neurons that originate in
the hypothalamus.
C) synthesizes ADH and OT.
D) releases ADH and OT into the hypophyseal artery.
E) All of these are correct.
b
30) Oxytocin
A) is made by females, but not males.
B) inhibits uterine contractions.
C) stimulates ejection of milk from the breast.
D) may be responsible for arousal before sexual intercourse.
c
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E) helps retain the attachment between the placenta and the
uterus.
31) ADH
A) is also called vasopressin.
B) inhibits loss of water via urination.
C) decreases loss of water via perspiration.
D) helps regulate blood pressure.
E) All of these are correct.
e
32) The thyroid gland
A) lies posterior and superior to the larynx.
B) contains follicular cells that secrete calcitonin.
C) contains parafollicular cells that secrete T3/T4.
D) helps regulate metabolism and Ca2+ levels.
E) is embedded within the parathyroid gland.
d
33) In order to synthesize thyroid hormones, which materials must
be available?
A) iodide
B) tyrosine (or its precursor, phenylalanine)
C) other amino acids required for thyroglobulin synthesis
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
e
34) Which of the following would NOT be a possible outcome of
elevated TSH secretion?
A) increased TRH synthesis
B) increased T3/T4 synthesis
C) increased body temperature
D) decreased blood cholesterol levels
E) increased lipolysis
a
35) Increased levels of thyroid hormones would
A) decrease basal metabolic rate.
B) up regulate beta receptors
C) impair body growth.
D) decrease the effects of norepinephrine on the heart and blood
vessels.
E) decrease protein synthesis.
a
36) Calcitonin
A) is synthesized by the parathyroid glands.
B) acts primarily on osteoblasts.
C) decreases blood Ca2+ levels.
D) acts synergistically with calcitriol.
E) acts permissively with PTH.
c
37) The parathyroid glands
A) are on the posterior surface of the thyroid gland.
B) contain chief cells, which secrete PTH.
C) are controlled by negative feedback mechanisms.
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
e
38) How does PTH increase blood Ca2+ levels?
A) by increasing osteoclasts activity
B) by increasing renal excretion of Ca2+
C) by decreasing renal excretion of HPO42D) by decreasing renal production of calcitriol
E) All of these are correct.
a
39) The adrenal glands
A) lie superior and medial to the kidneys.
B) have an inner medulla derived from embryonic ectoderm.
C) have an outer cortex that secretes hormones critical to maintenance of homeostasis.
e
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D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
40) Which adrenal cortex layer is correctly matched to the regulatory function of its product?
A) zona glomerulosa: female libido, axillary and pubic hair production
B) zona fasiculata: blood sugar level, inflammation, conversion of
norepinephrine to epinephrine
C) zona reticularis: blood Na+ and K+ levels; blood volume and
blood pressure
D) A and B are correct.
E) A, B and C are correct.
b
41) Aldosterone
A) is classified as a glucocorticoid.
B) is secreted in response to elevated blood pressure.
C) is responsible for increased retention of Na+ by the kidneys.
D) is responsible for increased retention of K+ by the kidneys.
E) is released from the adrenal cortex in response to direct
stimulation by renin.
c
42) Which of the following is NOT an effect of cortisol?
A) increased proteolysis in muscle fibers
B) increased gluconeogenesis in the liver
C) increased lipolysis in adipose tissue
D) increased immune response to infection
E) increased response to hormones that elevate blood pressure
d
43) The adrenal medulla
A) encloses the adrenal cortex.
B) is a modified parasympathetic ganglion.
C) contains chromaffin cells that primarily secrete norepinephrine.
D) contains an enzyme that converts epinephrine to norepinephrine if cortisol is present.
E) secretes hormones that intensify the fight-or-flight response.
e
44) A six-year old spent the day eating sweets. He ate cookies for
breakfast, ice cream for lunch and candy for supper. How did his
body maintain his blood glucose level within normal range?
A) by increasing glucagon secretion
B) by increasing cortisol secretion
C) by increasing insulin secretion
D) by increasing hGH secretion
E) by increasing ACTH secretion
c
45) Which of the following hormones is produced by both the
ovaries and the testes?
A) estrogen
B) inhibin
C) progesterone
D) testosterone
E) FSH
b
46) Which of the following hormones is correctly matched to its
source and function(s)?
A) melatonin: pituitary gland; controls mood
B) thymosin: thyroid gland; regulates metabolism
C) gastrin: kidney; controls blood pressure
D) ANP: heart; regulates blood Ca2+
E) EPO: kidney; stimulates formation of red blood cells
e
47) Which of the following is NOT correct?
A) A change in the environment that produces a stress response
is a stressor.
B) Eustress is productive stress that allows the body or mind to
meet challenges.
d
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C) Distress is stress that disrupts homeostasis.
D) The stress response is controlled primarily by the medulla
oblongata.
E) The stress response occurs in fight-or-flight, resistance and
exhaustion stages.
48) The fight-or-flight response
A) is the body's immediate response to a real or perceived threat
to survival.
B) elevates heart and respiration rates and blood glucose level.
C) decreases urinary and digestive functions.
D) activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone pathway.
E) All of these are correct.
e
49) The resistance stage of the stress response
A) precedes the fight-or-flight response.
B) is mediated primarily by CRH, GHRH, and TRH.
C) is briefer than the fight-or-flight response.
D) decreases blood glucose levels.
E) increases the inflammation response.
b
50) Which of the following disorders and hormonal imbalances is
correctly matched?
A) diabetes insipidus: decreased insulin response
B) acromegaly: excessive hGH secretion after epiphyseal plates
close
C) diabetes mellitus: decreased ADH secretion
D) pheochromocytoma: excessive thyroid hormone production
E) cretinism: excessive cortisol production
b
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