biochem base

Submodule 1 All proteins are divided into simple and conjugated ones. Find out the simple proteins among these ones: A. Globulin of egg B. Protamine C. Histone D. Albumin of egg *E. All the proteins presented The content of these amino acids in the composition of acidic protein Pepsin is too big in comparison with the content of other amino acids in it. Name them: A. Alanine and Glycine B. Lysine and Arginine C. Valine and Leucine D. Tyrosine and Tryptophan *E. Aspartic acid and Glutamic acid What class of proteins Albumins and Globulins are related to? A. Chromoproteins B. Glycoproteins C. Metalloproteins *D. Simple proteins E. Lipoproteins The structural proteins are involved in maintaining the shape of a cell or in the formation of matrices in the body. Point out shape of these proteins: A. Planar B. Stretch of beads C. Globular *D. Fibrous E. All the proposed Point out the type of bond allowing the formation of alpha-helix structure: A. Disulfide bond between two cysteine radicals B. Ester bond between side chain radicals *C. Hydrogen bonds between peptide fragments D. Electrostatic interaction E. Hydrogen bonds between side-chain radicals Histones are related to basic proteins. That is because there is high content of basic amino acid residues in their structure. Point out these amino acids: A. Аlanine, Glycine *B. Arginine, Lysine C. Asparagine, Glutamine D. Leucine, Valine E. Tryptophan, Tyrosine The yellow color sediment appearance after the addition of strong nitric acid to albumin solution is due to the presence of aromatic acid residues in protein composition. Choose those one: A. L-alanine B. L-serine *C. L-tyrosine D. L-proline E. L-methionine What physical-chemical property is observed for fibrous protein only? A. Solubility in water B. Solubility in lipids *C. Elasticity D. Amphoteric properties E. Denaturation and renaturation Different functional groups may be found in the structure of L-amino acid residues of proteins. Identify the group that is able to form ester bond: A. –SH B. –CONH[sub]2[/sub] C. –NH[sub]2[/sub] *D. –OH E. –CH[sub]3[/sub] What amino acid high content presence in the composition of polypeptide chain does not allow the formation of alpha-helical structure as secondary level of organization? A. Serine *B. Proline C. Threonine D. Alanine E. Glycine The solubility of proteins in saline solutions is determined by their native structure. Point out the protein, which will swell only in saline solution: A. Myoglobin B. Immunoglobulin C. Albumin *D. Elastin E. Pepsin Half saturation test using salting-out is done for: A. Albumin B. Haemoglobin *C. Globulin D. Prothrombin E. Fibrin There are many important protein functions in the human organism. Point out that of them, which isn't peculiar for proteins – to be : A. Catalyst *B. Solvent C. Structural component of a cell D. Transfer of substances E. Antibody The proteins are able to carry out the regulatory function. Find out those protein: *A. Insulin B. Immunoglobulin G C. Collagen D. Hemoglobin E. Aminopeptidase Alpha- helix and Beta -pleated sheet are examples of: *A. Secondary structure B. Primary structure C. Quaternary structure D. All positions are wrong E. Tertiary structure The molecule of simple protein insulin contains two polypeptide chains. Specify the level of protein organization, at which the insulin is able to act as hormone: A. Tertiary B. A conformation after limited proteolysis *C. Quaternary D. Secondary E. Primary How many polypeptide chains (the least number) may be represented in quaternary structure of protein molecule? A. Five B. Three *C. Two D. Four E. One Biuret test is mainly done for: A. Lipids *B. Proteins C. Dipeptides D. Any of the proposed E. Polysaccharides The isoelectric point (I.P.) of a protein depends upon the amino acids composition of the protein. Choose the amino acid which high content in protein molecule decreases its I.P. value: A. Аlanine B. Histidine *C. Aspartic acid D. Tryptophan E. Leucine Which of the following bonds are intact during denaturation of proteins: A. Hydrogen bonds B. All positions are correct C. Ionic bonds *D. Peptide bonds E. Hydrophobic bonds Proteins are obligatory components of human diet. Specify the function of proteins in this case: A. Catalytic B. Transport *C. Nutritive D. Structural E. Regulatory Protonation and deprotonation at neutral pH occurs for one amino acid from following list. Point out it: A. Alanine *B. Histidine C. Glycine D. Tryptophan E. Aspartic acid The mixture of proteins can be separated by salting-out. Specify the reagent formula that is used for this purpose: A. HNO[sub]3[/sub] B. H[sub]3[/sub]PO[sub]4[/sub] *C. NaCl D. C[sub]2[/sub]H[sub]5[/sub]OH E. C[sub]6[/sub]H[sub]6[/sub] Polypeptide chains of collagen include specific amino acids. Name one of them: A. Beta-alanine B. Ornithine C. Formyl-methyonine *D. Hydroxyproline E. Cysteine Protein properties may be changed under the influence of some factors. Find out them: A. The temperature of the environment B. Strong acidic medium C. Strong alkaline medium *D. All the factors that are present E. Organic solvent All are aromatic amino acids EXCEPT: A. Tryptophan B. All the positions are correct C. Phenylalanine *D. Lysine E. Tyrosine What type of amino acids mainly is represented as residues in proteins of human body? A. L-beta-amino acids B. D-alpha-imino acids C. D-alpha-amino acids D. D-beta-amino acids *E. Lalpha-amino acids Choose the factor that causes the sedimentation of protein in solution without denaturation: *A. Ammonia sulfate B. Toluene C. Sulfuric acid D. Nitric acid E. Sodium hydroxide The tertiary structure of protein is formed mainly due to disulfide bonds between side radicals of one amino acid, only. Point out it: A. His B. Met C. Asp D. Lys *E. Cys Primary structure of proteins is formed due to one type of bonds. Point out it: *A. Peptide bond B. Hydrogen bond C. Disulfide bond D. Metal bond E. Ester bond Ninhydrin is a reagent to prove the presence of alpha-amino group in the structure of amino acid due to change of its color (violet color is observed). Choose the amino acid whose solution changes the color of this reagent in other way – it becomes yellow: A. L-methionine B. L-alanine C. L-serine D. L-tyrosine *E. L-proline The polypeptide chain gets the globular structure after the formation of various bonds between the radicals of amino acid residues. Specify the strongest bond in the globular structure: A. Donor-acceptor bond B. Electrostatic interaction C. Hydrophobic interaction D. Sodium hydroxide E. Hydrogen bond *F. Disulfide bond The isoelectric point of simple protein equals 7.2. Propose the pH of buffer solution used for the electrophoresis method to separate this protein from the mixture with a condition to leave it on the start line of carrier: *A. pH=7.2 B. pH=7.6 C. pH=5.0 D. pH=7.0 E. pH=7.4 Choose the conjugated protein in possession of following characteristics: quaternary structure - 4 polypeptide chains; non-protein part – 4 hemes; function – oxygen transport in the blood: A. Low Density Lipoprotein B. Ceruloplasmin C. Albumin *D. Hemoglobin E. Immunoglobulin Toxic affection of liver results in dysfunction of protein synthesis. It is usually accompanied by the following kind of dysproteinemia: A. Relative hyperproteinemia B. Relative hypoproteinemia *C. Absolute hypoproteinemia D. Paraproteinemia E. Absolute hyperproteinemia Complex proteins do various functions. Find out the function of hemoglobin in erythrocytes: *A. Transport function B. Catalytic function C. Regulatory function D. Nutrition function E. Protection against viruses Which method is appropriate for the determination of total protein content in the blood serum: A. Electrophoresis B. Salting out C. Dialysis D. Fole’s test *E. Biuretic method It is in need to use the heme with iron ion for the active centers of cytochrome C oxidase (the key enzyme of tissue respiration). Name the class of this conjugated protein: *A. Chromoproteins B. Lipoproteins C. Nucleoproteins D. Glycoproteins E. Flavoproteins Name the location of deoxyribonucleoproteins in eukaryotic cell, but not in the nucleus: A. Cytoplasma B. Lisosome C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Microsome *E. Mitochondria The enzyme preparation cytochrome C is used for the improvement of tissue respiration in newborns at asphyxia state. Name the class of this conjugated protein: A. Nucleoproteins *B. Chromoproteins C. Lipoproteins D. Glycoproteins E. Flavoproteins Albumins of blood plasma are negative charged under the condition of electrophoresis method duration. What electrode type will you choose for albumins directed movement in the electric field? A. Catode B. Calomel electrode C. Silk electrode *D. Anode E. Carbon electrode There is the use of electrophoresis for separation of proteins of blood plasma to prove diagnosis of diseased persons. Name the property of proteins that is the basis for the principle of electrophoresis method: A. The ability of swelling B. Optical activity C. The big mass of the molecule D. The high viscosity of the solution *E. The net charge of the molecule All the proteins are divided into simple and conjugated ones. Find out the conjugated protein among these ones: A. Protamine *B. Myoglobin C. Histone D. Egg globulin E. Egg albumin Point out a possible cause of hypoproteinemia: A. Multiple myeloma B. Paraproteinemia *C. Affected liver cells D. Decreased permeability of the capillary wall E. Overeating The electrophoresis method is used for the separation of blood plasma proteins. Name the parameter of the protein molecule that is in need to determine the pH of buffer solution for separation of proteins in electrophoresis method: A. The diameter of the molecule B. The solubility in lipids C. The mass of the molecule *D. Isoelectric point E. The solubility in the water Proteoglycans are conjugated proteins containing different polypeptide chains of core protein and glucose aminoglycan moiety. Choose the class of conjugated protein that is related to proteoglycan: A. Nucleoprotein *B. Glycoprotein C. Lipoprotein D. Chromoprotein E. Phosphoprotein The diseased person with diagnosis acute kidney insufficiency is in urological department of hospital. Choose the method for cleaning of this person`s blood from low-molecular compounds which can cause toxic effect in the organism: A. Affine chromotography B. Salting-out C. Electrophoresis *D. Dialysis E. Hydrolysis The phosphorylation (the attraction of phosphate group to the substrate) of polypeptide chain is often used for stimulation of biological activity of a protein. Name the class of conjugated protein formed due to phosphorylation: *A. Phosphoproteins B. Glycoproteins C. Nucleoproteins D. Lipoproteins E. Chromoproteins Point out a possible cause of hyperproteinemia A. Diabetes mellitus *B. Infection (disturbed the macrophage system) C. Affected gastrointestinal tract D. Nephritic syndrome E. Increased permeability of the capillary wall The conjugated protein necessarily contains special component as a non-protein part. Choose the substance that can't carry out this function: *A. Salt of Hg[sup]2+ B. Thiamine pyrophosphate C. Glucose D. ATP E. AMP Which method is better suited to separate a mixture of compounds into its individual components and detects small amounts (microgram or even picogram) of material: A. Ultracentrifugation *B. Paper chromatography C. Dialysis D. Salting out E. Spectrophotometry Choose, please, the blood serum index used for estimation of hyperproteinemia state: A. The total activity of all the enzymes B. The amino acid concentration C. The content of albumins *D. The total content of proteins E. The content of acute phase proteins The conjugated protein necessarily contains special component as a non-protein part. Choose the substance that can't carry out this function: A. Heme B. Phosphate anion *C. HNO3 D. Fe[sup]2+ E. Monosaccharide The hormone receptors are related to the class of conjugated proteins. Name it: A. Lipoproteins *B. Glycoproteins C. Flavoproteins D. Chromoproteins E. Nucleoproteins Ceruloplasmin (the protein of blood plasma) contains copper ion and therefore has blue color. Name the class of this protein: A. Phosphoproteins B. Glycoproteins *C. Chromoproteins D. Nucleoprotein E. Lipoproteins Which group of proteins being phosphoproteins posses an activity but being dephosphorylated has lost the activity: *A. Enzymes B. Carriers through membrane C. Transfer of lipids D. Transfer of vitamins E. Hormones Triacylglycerols (TG) are synthesized in the liver but are stored in adipose tissue. Name the class of proteins promoted the transport of TG from the liver to adipocytes: A. Glycoproteins B. Metalloproteins C. Phosphoproteins *D. Lipoproteins E. Chromoproteins Flavoproteins are usually catalysts in a cell due to the presence of special vitamin fragment in their structure. Name this vitamin: A. Pantothenic acid B. Ascorbic acid C. Folic acid *D. Riboflavin E. Nicotin amide Ultracentrifugation is in need in biochemical investigations for: *A. The receiving of subcellular fractions of a cell B. The separation of low-molecular compounds C. The study of three-dimensional structure of the molecule D. The determination of primary structure of proteins E. The investigation of chemical composition of organic compound What compound serves as non-protein part of glycoproteins: *A. Galactose B. Heme C. Ferric ion D. Phospholipid E. Copper ion Name the class of proteins used for the formation of ribosome subunits: A. Phosphoproteins B. Flavoproteins *C. Ribonucleoproteins D. Lipoproteins E. Glycoproteins The catalytic site of active center of enzyme is used for: *A. Conversion of a substrate in the reaction B. Binding with the substrate C. Removal of a product of the reaction D. Binding with inhibitor E. Binding with activator ATP molecules may be used for Transferases and Ligases function. Point out the signs of ATP use for Ligases class: A. ATP is used for hydrolysis of a substrate bond *B. ATP is used for the new bond formation during the interaction of two substrates C. ATP is used for a substrate phosphorylation D. ATP is used for a substrate decarboxylation. E. ATP is used for a substrate dephosphorylation Conjugated enzymes contain cofactors in their structure. Point out the location of vitamin derivative cofactor in the structure of enzyme: A. Allosteric centre B. Hydrophilic fragment of structure C. Near the metal-ion-cofactor in the structure D. Hydrophobic fragment of structure *E. Active centre Researchers isolated five isozymes of Lactate dehydrogenase from human blood serum and studied their properties. What property of these isozymes indicates that they are genetic forms of the same enzyme? A. The same electrophoretic mobility B. They have the same molecular weight C. The same net charge of the molecule D. The same tissue localization *E. They catalyze the same reaction The pancreatic amylase is in need to cleave the alpha-1.4-glycosidic bonds in the structure of polysaccharides using the water as the substrate. Specify the class of this enzyme: A. Lyase *B. Hydrolase C. Isomerase D. Oxido reductase E. Ligase “All biological catalysts are not proteins” This statement is justified by this notion: A. Enzyme activity may be controlled by hormones B. Antibodies take part in the catalysis of many reactions *C. RNAs can act as ribozymes D. All enzymes do not follow the Michaelis-Menten hypothesis E. Metal ions are involved in attachment to enzymes Name the vitamins whose derivatives are used for the formation of oxidoreductase structure: A. H, D B. A, E C. B6, B9 *D. B2, B3 E. C, P There are different cofactors in the structure of conjugated enzymes but only one is used for transfer of amine group from amino acid to keto acid. Name it: A. FAD B. NAD+ C. Carboxybiotin *D. Pyridoxal phosphate E. Thiamine pyrophosphate The change of the temperature of environment from 0oC to 38oC can cause this effect on enzyme molecule: A. The substrate molecular charge changes B. C. The enzyme molecular charge changes *D. The probability of enzyme-substrate complex formation is increased E. Enzyme action specificity varies F. A denaturation of enzymes occurs One of the important properties of enzymes is their specificity of action. Check up a type of specificity for salivary amylase: *A. Relative group B. Absolute group C. Absolute relative D. Absolute E. Stereochemical The oxidation of a substrate may be catalyzed by enzyme - flavoprotein that contains FAD as prosthetic group. Name, please, the vitamin used for this non-protein part of enzyme formation: A. Adenosine triphosphate B. Nicotinamide C. Ascorbic acid *D. Riboflavin E. Biotin There are some factors influencing human enzyme activity. Point out one of them resulting in complete loss of enzymatic activity: A. Vitamin H B. P =101325 Pa C. Сarbon dioxide *D. T = 100o C E. Sodium chloride solution The enzyme hexokinase can catalyze the conversion of glucose or fructose in tissues. Find out the type of this enzyme specificity: *A. Relative group B. Stereochemical C. Absolute group D. Absolute relative E. Absolute A qualitative composition of product molecule is completely identical to substrate one, but the structure is different. Name the enzyme class: A. Lyase B. Hydrolase C. Oxidoreductase D. Ligase *E. Isomerase Some terms are used for the description enzyme components. Point out the term of a protein part of conjugated enzyme: A. Metal ions *B. Apoenzyme C. Prosthetic group D. Coenzyme E. Cofactor Which bond is cleaved by Alpha amylase in oral cavity? A. Alpha 1-6 glycosidic B. Ester bond in any ester structure *C. Alpha 1-4 glycosidic D. Beta 1-6 glycosidic E. Beta 1-4 glycosidic Only one factor can influence on the charge of amino acid radicals in the enzyme active centre. Name it: A. The surplus of a reaction product *B. pH medium C. Temperature D. The presence of a competitive inhibitor E. Pressure There are some characteristic sites in the enzyme structure. Choose the most important site for enzyme function: A. A site containing Asp and Glu B. Apoenzyme C. Cofactor D. Allosteric centre *E. Active centre In clinical practice tuberculosis is treated with izoniazid preparation – that is an anti-vitamin able to penetrate into the tuberculosis bacillus. Tuberculostatic effect is induced by the interference with replication processes and oxidation-reduction reactions due to the buildup of pseudo-coenzyme: A. CoQ B. FAD *C. NAD D. TDP E. FMN The relative group specificity may be found for enzymes catalyzing the digestion of proteins in the gastrointestinal tract. Find out their trivial name: *A. Peptidase B. Protein phosphatase C. Transaminase D. Urease E. Protein kinase Coenzyme forms are correctly matched to vitamins except one. Point out it: A. Pantothenic acid – CoASH B. Biotin – carboxylated biotin C. Niacin – NAD+ + NADP+ D. Vitamin B2 – FMN + FAD *E. Vitamin B1 - ATP Some terms are used for the description of non-protein part of an enzyme. Point out the term for non-protein part that easily dissociates from polypeptide chain: A. Metal ions B. Prosthetic group C. Cofactor D. Apoenzyme *E. Coenzyme Enzymes mediating transfer of a structural fragment from one molecule to another are: A. Lyases *B. Transferases C. Peptidases D. Ligases E. Oxidases Enzymes are the catalysts of protein nature. Name the property of enzymes which is not represented at the inorganic catalysts: A. Ability to lowering the energy to activate the reaction *B. Ability to the denaturation C. Big half-life D. Inert to chemical substrates E. Wide specificity LDH1 and LDH2 levels are raised in the following organ damage: A. Brain, bones, liver B. Heart, kidney, liver C. Liver, brain, kidney *D. Heart, RBC E. Brain, heart, liver The active centre of simple enzyme is composed from: A. The cofactor and prosthetic group *B. Some amino acid residues of polypeptide chain placed in the same spatial fragment C. Linear fragment of polypeptide chain D. One polypeptide chain completely E. The terminal amino acid residues Point out the factor that can cause the damage of enzyme function in a cell: A. pH medium about 7.2 B. The presence of a product of enzymatic reaction C. The presence of activator of enzyme *D. The surplus of protons in a cell E. Temperature 37oC Which of the following is the reaction that is catalyzed by lyase: *A. Dehydration B. Acetylation C. Hydrolysis D. Oxidative decarboxylation E. Oxidation Name, please, the principle base used for the classification of enzymes: A. Chemical structure of enzyme *B. Type of chemical reaction catalyzed by enzyme C. Type of energy conversion D. Chemical structure of products for enzymatic reaction E. Chemical structure of non-protein part of the enzyme Chymotrypsin is the proteolytic enzyme catalyzing the cleavage of peptide bonds in any protein molecule. Name the class of this enzyme: A. Isomerase *B. Hydrolase C. Lyase D. Ligase E. Oxidoreductase Oxidoreductase can contain prosthetic group with vitamin B2. Name it: A. Pyridoxal phosphate B. Retinal *C. Flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) D. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD+) E. Ascorbic acid In case of enterobiasis acrihine - the structural analogue of vitamin B2 - is administered. The synthesis disorder of which enzymes does this medicine cause in microorganisms? A. Aminotransferases B. Cytochromeoxidases C. Peptidases D. NAD-dependet dehydrogenases *E. FAD-dependent dehydrogenases Glycogen phosphorylase b is transformed to the active form a by the action of special kinase with the use of ATP as donor of phosphate group. Find out, please, the type of enzyme activation: *A. Covalent modification B. Activation by Ca2+ C. Competitive inhibition D. Limited proteolysis E. The change of pH medium Disopropyl phosphofluoride (DFP) reacts with serine proteases irreversibly and therefore is: A. Competitive inhibitor B. A stimulator C. Allosteric inhibitor *D. Affinity label E. Non-competitive inhibitor Name, please, the factors that must be in constant levels during the investigation of enzyme concentration influence the velocity of enzymatic reaction: *A. All the factors proposed must be in constant levels B. pH of the environment C. The temperature D. Substrate concentration E. Activator concentration Salivary amylase activity may be decreased by: *A. All the changes described may be in need B. The increase of temperature from 38oC to 65oC C. The decrease of temperature from 38o C to 25oC D. The change of pH from 6,8 to the value 5,5 E. The addition of copper sulfate Find out, please, the factor used to change the charge of functional groups both in the active centre of enzyme and in the substrate molecule: *A. The pH of environment B. The addition of activator to the environment C. All the factors proposed may be in need D. The temperature of environment E. The addition of competitive inhibitor to the environment Covalent modification of inactive form of enzyme may be catalyzed by special enzyme in a cell. Name it: A. Oxygenase B. Hydroxylase C. Ligase *D. Protein kinase E. Esterase The formation of ES complex is due to various types of bonds between E and S. Specify the type of bond, which is usually formed between charged functional groups in this case: A. Donor-acceptor bond B. Hydrophobic interaction *C. Electrostatic interaction D. Hydrogen bond E. Peptide bond Suicide type of inhibition is considered when: A. The end-product of reaction binds to the structure of the substrate to give non-soluble complex B. The end-product of reaction is not removed from the environment C. The product of reaction is the allosteric inhibitor for enzyme D. The inhibitor structure is similar to substrate one *E. There is the intermediate metabolite formation from the inhibitor which tightly binds to the active centre of enzyme to block it A majority of key enzymes contain the allosteric centre. Specify a role of this centre: A. It promotes the dissociation of a coenzyme B. It attaches the substrate *C. It attaches the regulatory factor D. It changes the structure of the substrate E. It blocks the active centre Point out the activator used for the determination of amylase activity: A. ATP B. Ca2+ *C. NaCl D. H3PO4 E. CuSO4 The affinity of enzyme molecule to a substrate may be estimated using the value of: A. The temperature *B. Km for the enzyme C. pH of the environment D. The initial velocity of the reaction E. Vmax for reaction duration Competitive inhibitor always interacts with enzyme active centre. Find out the explanation of this phenomenon: A. Inhibitor causes the denaturation of active centre *B. Inhibitor is similar to a substrate structure C. Inhibitor forms a covalent type of bonds with amino acid residues of active centre D. Inhibitor is an exact copy of a substrate structure E. Inhibitor is similar to the product's structure Choose the factor that changes the cytoplasmic enzyme conformation mainly: A. Water B. Environmental temperature value about 25o C C. Environmental pH value about 7.4 D. Suicide inhibitor *E. Allosteric inhibitor Covalent catalysis as mechanism of enzyme catalysis was studied in experimental works with one proteolytic enzyme. Find out it: A. Glucoisomerase B. Pepsin C. Decarboxylase D. Aldolase *E. Chymotrypsin Name, please, the equation for V-[S] dependence for the moment of complete saturation of all the active centers of enzyme molecules: A. V=k• [S] B. V=Vmax / Km + [S] C. V= k•Vmax D. V=Vmax •[S]/Km+[S] *E. V=Vmax Cholesterol synthesis is regulated by feed-back mechanism. Name the allosteric inhibitor of key enzyme for this synthesis: A. NADPH B. ATP *C. Cholesterol D. ADP E. Glucose Point out the probable way of proenzyme transformation to the active enzyme: A. Vitamin non-protein part dissociation from enzyme *B. Limited proteolysis C. Dehydration D. Decarboxylation E. Inhibitor action Sulfonamides are used as drugs to protect our organism from some foreign bacteria. Enzyme in bacterial cell producing folic acid from para-aminobenzoate is inhibited by this group of drugs. Choose the type of inhibition for sulfonamides: A. Noncompetitive *B. Competitive C. Suicide D. Allosteric E. Uncompetitive Heme synthesis starts from glycine and succinyl-SCoA interaction with delta-aminolevulinate synthetase help. It is inhibited by the terminal metabolic product - heme. Name the inhibition type: *A. Feedback Inhibition B. Uncompetitive Inhibition C. Limited proteolysis D. Non-competitive Inhibition E. Competitive Inhibition Choose the name of scientists whose experiments are recognized as the basis in understanding of “induced fit” theory for mechanism of enzymatic reaction: A. Fisher E. *B. Koshland D. C. Michaelis L. D. Menten M. E. Haldane R. Point out the type of bonds that are formed between Ser, Tyr and Cys residues in active centre of the enzyme and the molecule of substrate containing functional group: --COOH: A. Hydrophobic interactions, only *B. Ester and hydrogen bonds C. Disulfide and ester bonds D. Ester bond and hydrophobic interaction E. Disulfide bond and hydrophobic interaction Name, please, the inhibitor for salivary amylase: A. Sodium chloride B. Potassium cyanide C. Alanine *D. Copper sulfate E. Hydrogen peroxide E. Fisher`s theory explains the mechanism of enzyme action with the fixed type of specificity, only. Name it: *A. Absolute B. Absolute relative C. Stereochemical D. Absolute group E. Relative group The regulation of the enzymatic activity is carried out by different ways. Point out the way that is used more often in the regulation of key enzymes: A. Limited proteolysis *B. Allosteric regulation C. Competitive inhibition D. Activation by Ca2+ E. The change of pH medium The common enzymatic reaction may be represented so: E + S <-> ES <-> ES <-> EP <-> E + P. Try to name using this equation all the factors that can influence the rate of this reaction: A. The concentration of a substrate, enzyme and product, only B. The concentration of enzymesubstrate complex, only C. The concentration of a substrate, only D. The concentration of enzyme, only *E. The concentration of a substrate, enzyme, product and stability of ES-complex Succinate dehydrogenase catalyses the dehydrogenation of succinate. Malonic acid HOOC-CH2COOH is used to interrupt the action of this enzyme. Choose the inhibition type: A. Limited proteolysis B. Dephosphorylation C. Allosteric D. Non-competitive *E. Competitive Choose the method that is more often used for the determination of inhibitor type: A. Michaelis-Menten graphical method B. Briggs-Haldane graphical method *C. Lineweaver-Burk graphical method D. Nuclear magnetic resonance method E. Eadie-Hofstee graphical method The common feature of an enzyme-cascade system regulation is: A. Competitive inhibition B. Suicide inhibition *C. Feed back inhibition D. Amplification E. Counter-regulation The activity of choline esterase in the blood serum of patient equals 95 micromole/sec• L. Propose, please, the way for the transformation of this value into units [mmole/L*min]: A. Multiple this result into 60 times, only B. Divide this result into 60, only C. Multiple this result into 1000 times, only D. Divide this result into 1000, only *E. Divide this result into 1000 times, and multiple on 60 The cytoplasm fraction of tissue homogenate has been obtained for some enzyme activity determination. Point out the enzyme whose activity may be determined in this fraction: A. Trypsin B. Maltase *C. Glucokinase D. Pepsin E. Urease Total activity of enzyme depends on the: *A. All the factors described B. Temperature medium C. Substrate concentration D. Enzyme concentration E. pH medium Find out the parameter that is changed in the incubation phase of experimental test tube for the determination of choline esterase activity in the blood plasma: *A. All the positions are right B. The acetic acid content C. The acetylcholine concentration D. The pH E. The choline concentration Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) isozymes catalyze the transformation of pyruvate to lactic acid in different types of tissues. Point out the structural distinctive peculiarity of each LDH isozyme: A. Different by the quantity of subunits B. Different by the type of coenzyme in native molecule C. Different active center structure *D. Different by the combination of subunits, forming a native molecule E. Different level of structural organization in native molecule Marked increase of activity of МВ-forms of CPK (creatine phosphokinase) and LDH-1 were revealed on the examination of the patient's blood. What is the most likely pathology? A. Pancreatitis B. Cholecystitis C. Rheumatism *D. Miocardial infarction E. Hepatitis LDH1 and LDH2 levels are raised in the following organ damage *A. Heart, RBC, kidney B. Heart, kidney, liver C. Brain, heart, liver D. Liver, brain, kidney E. Brain, bones, liver Profuse foam appeared when dentist put hydrogen peroxide on the mucous of the oral cavity. What enzyme caused such activity? A. Glucose-6-phosphatdehydrogenase B. Methemoglobinreductase C. Acetyltransferase D. Cholinesterase *E. Catalase Find out the activator used for amylase activity determination in the urine of patient: A. Ammonia sulfate B. Pyruvate C. Copper sulfate D. Sodium chloride *E. Starch Point out the signs of multiple enzyme systems (MS): A. The MS enzymes form a single structural-functional complex B. The MS enzymes are united by their intracellular localization *C. All that is described is right D. The MS enzymes form several different metabolic products at once During metabolic process active forms of the oxygen including superoxide anion radical are formed in the human body. With help of what enzyme is this anion inactivated? A. Catalase B. Glutathione peroxidase C. Peroxidase D. Glutathione reductase *E. Superoxide dismutase Twelve hours after an accute attack of retrosternal pain a patient presented a jump of aspartate aminotransferase activity in blood serum. What pathology is this deviation typical for? A. Diabetes insipidus *B. Myocardium infarction C. Diabetes mellitus D. Collagenosis E. Viral hepatitis Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is multiple enzyme system because it contains: *A. Three enzymes and five coenzymes B. Two enzymes and five coenzymes C. Two enzymes and one coenzyme D. Five enzymes and five coenzymes E. Three enzymes and three coenzymes 6 hours after the myocardial infarction a patient was found to have elevated level of lactate dehydrogenase in blood. What isozyme should be expected in this case? A. LDH5 B. LDH2 C. LDH4 *D. LDH1 E. LDH3 Find out the parameters that are in need to calculate specific activity of enzyme: A. The pH value of the environment and turnover number *B. The protein content in the test sample and total activity C. The product concentration in the test sample and total activity D. The volume of the test sample and total activity E. Turnover number and total activity Patient’s amylase activity in the urine excesses the normal values in ten times as much. Point out the possible diagnosis: *A. Sharp pancreatitis B. Viral hepatitis C. Influenza D. Angina E. Diabetes mellitus Find out the pathological state associated with the decrease of choline esterase activity in the blood serum of patient A. Acute pancreatitis B. Myeloma C. Gout D. Influenza *E. Viral hepatitis A patient presents high activity of LDH1, LDH2, aspartate aminotransferase, creatine phosphokinase. In what organ (organs) is the development of a pathological process the most probable? A. In skeletal muscles (dystrophy, atrophy) B. In kidneys and adrenals C. In connective tissue D. In liver and kidneys *E. In the heart muscle (initial stage of myocardium infarction) Name, please, the key metabolite, that may be formed in catabolic pathway both for glucose and palmitic acid in aerobic condition, only: A. Oxaloacetate B. Lactate C. Malate *D. Acetyl-CoA E. Pyruvate Find out the competitive inhibitor for succinate dehydrogenase: A. Magnesium ion *B. Malonic acid C. Citric Acid D. Fumaric acid E. Malic Acid Only one dehydrogenase of Krebs Cycle has the non-protein part FAD. Name it: A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase B. Malate dehydrogenase *C. Succinate dehydrogenase D. Isocitrate dehydrogenase E. Alpha-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase How many moles of high energy bond containing compound are produced due to substrate phosphorylation in one round of Citric Acid Cycle: A. Four B. Three C. Two *D. One E. Twelve Nucleoside triphosphate is formed in Krebs Cycle. Point out its abbreviation: A. ATP *B. GTP C. CTP D. UTP E. TTP The rate limited step for Citric Acid Cycle duration is the reaction catalyzed by: A. Alpa-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase *B. Isocitrate dehydrogenase C. Citrate synthase D. Malate dehydrogenase E. Cis-Aconitase Name, please, the process that is related to the second phase of catabolic pathways in humans: A. Krebs cycle B. Gluconeogenesis *C. Glycolysis D. Proteolysis E. Ammonia utilization in Urea cycle The increase of one substrate concentration occurs the mitochondrial matrix during the inhibition of Citrate synthetase in the Krebs Cycle. Find out this substrate: *A. Acetyl ~ SCoA B. Glucose C. Malate D. Alpha-Ketoglutarate E. Fumarate Krebs cycle is regulated by the ATP/ADP ratio in aerobic cell. Point out the value of this ratio that causes the stimulation of Krebs Cycle duration: A. 5 B. 1 C. 3 *D. 0.5 E. 2.5 Oxidative decarboxylation reactions occur two times in Citric Acid Cycle, but the mechanism of these reactions is not the same. Choose the conversion that may be named as oxidative decarboxylation and catalyzed by multienzyme system: *A. Alpa-ketoglutarate is converted to Succinyl-CoA B. Isocitrate is converted to Alpa-ketoglutarate C. Malate is converted to Oxaloacetate D. Citrate is converted to Cis-Aconitate E. Succinate is converted to Fumarate Magnesium and Manganese ions are in need for the function of one enzyme from this register, only. Point out it: *A. Isocitrate dehydrogenase B. Succinate dehydrogenase C. Fumarase D. Aconitase E. Malate dehydrogenase Propose the correct continuation of the phrase: “Citric Acid Cycle is...”: A. The main producer of energy for erythrocytes *B. The main producer of reduced forms of coenzymes C. Anabolic process D. Tissue respiration phase III E. Placed in cytoplasm of a cell Name the regulatory enzyme from Citric Acid Cycle whose activity is stimulated by allosteric activator ADP at condition of its accumulation in the matrix of mitochondria: *A. Isocitrate dehydrogenase B. Cis-Aconitase C. Citrate synthase D. Succinate dehydrogenase E. Alpa-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase Name, please, the conversion of Krebs cycle regulated by inhibitor malonic acid *A. Succinate-->fumarate B. Fumarate--> malate C. Isocitrate--> alpha-ketoglutarate D. Succinyl-CoA-->succinate E. Malate--> oxaloacetate How many stages are considered in catabolic pathway for glucose up to the terminal products (carbon dioxide and water): A. Four *B. Three C. One D. Two E. Five Amphybolic process must include intermediate metabolites which are involved in both anabolic and catabolic pathways of a cell. Choose those one: A. Hexose Monophosphate Shunt B. Malate-aspartate shuttle system *C. All the proposed D. Glycolysis E. Citric Acid Cycle Energy production is due to catabolic pathways only. Name those one: A. Fatty Acid Elongation B. Hexose Monophosphate Shunt C. Glycogenesis *D. Citric Acid Cycle E. Gluconeogenesis Name, please, the organic compound formed in Krebs cycle due to substrate phosphorylation: A. Citrate B. ATP *C. GTP D. GDP E. Isocitrate All these metabolic pathways or processes take place inside the mitochondria except: A. Fatty acid beta-oxidation B. Oxidative phosphorylation *C. Glycolysis D. Krebs cycle E. Urea cycle Name, please, the initial substrates for Krebs cycle (first reaction): A. Lactate and acetyl-CoA B. Oxaloacetate, only C. Pyruvate and oxaloacetate D. Citric acid, only *E. Acetyl-CoA and oxaloacetate Exogenous substances may be involved in catabolic pathways to be used as energy sources for humans EXCEPT: A. Amino acids B. Fatty acids *C. Vitamins D. Alcohol E. Monosaccharides Vitamin B[sub]1[/sub] (coenzyme TPP) is necessary for only one dehydrogenase function in Krebs Cycle. Point out it: A. Isocitrate dehydrogenase B. Succinate dehydrogenase C. Malate dehydrogenase D. Lactate dehydrogenase *E. Alpha-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase Name, please, the class of organic compound usually used as energy source for anabolic pathways in humans: A. Carboxylic acids B. Monosaccharides C. Nucleosides D. Alcohols *E. Nucleoside triphosphates Choose, please, the transformation of intermediate metabolites of Krebs cycle required the function of multienzyme complex: A. Isocitrate --> alpha-ketoglutarate B. Malate --> oxaloacetate C. Citrate-->cis-aconitate D. Fumarate--> malate *E. Alpha-ketoglutarate--> succinyl-CoA Find out, please, the enzyme whose activity is inhibited mainly under the accumulation of ATP in the matrix of mitochondria: A. Fumarase B. Aconitase C. Malate dehydrogenase D. Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase *E. Citrate synthase Name, please, the enzyme from Krebs cycle catalyzing the substrate phosphorylation: *A. Succinyl-CoA thiokinase B. Citrate synthase C. Fumarase D. Isocitrate dehydrogenase E. Malate dehydrogenase Krebs cycle does not occur in: A. Heart *B. RBC C. Liver D. Skeletal Muscle E. All the positions are right The accumulation of NADH in the matrix of mitochondria is the signal to inhibit: *A. Isocitrate dehydrogenase B. Malate dehydrogenase C. Fumarase D. Cis-Aconitase E. Citrate lyase Two reactions of Krebs Cycle are named as oxidative decarboxylation. Point out the enzyme for this type of reaction: A. Citrate synthase *B. Isocitrate dehydrogenase C. Succinate dehydrogenase D. Succinyl~SCoA synthase E. cis-Aconitate hydratase Fluroacetate inhibits: A. Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase B. Malate dehydrogenase *C. Cis-Aconitase D. Citrate synthetase E. Succinate dehydrogenase Name substances which are really terminal products for catabolic pathways and for human organism: *A. Uric acid and Urea B. ATP and Carbon dioxide C. Carbon dioxide and Water D. Amino acids and Keto acids E. Bilirubin and Urea Isocitrate was used as an oxidized substrate in the experiment with isolated mitochondria. Specify the substance that can inhibit the isocitrate oxidative decarboxylation: A. ADP *B. ATP C. Citrate D. cAMP E. Glucose Krebs Cycle is an amphiobolic way. Choose the explanation of this sentence: A. One mole of ATP is formed in one cycle B. The process forms NADH C. The process forms CO[sub]2[/sub] and H[sub]2[/sub]O *D. Metabolites of Krebs Cycle may be used in anabolic pathways E. The process is in mitochondrion Choose, please, the value for ATP/ADP ratio at the moment when the tissue respiration has been just inhibited in the cell: *A. ATP/ADP>1,5 B. ATP/ADP=0.1 C. ATP/ADP=0.8 D. ATP/ADP=0 E. ATP/ADP=0.5 The tissue respiration is inhibited after coal gas poisoning. Point the electron transport chain enzyme whose activity abruptly reduces in these conditions: *A. Cytochrome c oxidase B. Succinate dehydrogenase C. Cytochrome b1 D. NADH-dehydrogenase E. Cytochrome c Name, please, the substrate for Cytochrome oxidase (reduced form): *A. Molecular oxygen B. Isocitrate C. Cytochrome C D. Water molecule E. Succinyl-CoA Protons gradient in the inner membrane of mitochondria may be increased under condition of incorporation of high doses of one vitamin in the body. Find out it: A. Pantothenic acid B. Cobalamin C. Retinoic acid *D. Ascorbic acid E. Folic acid The isocitrate is converted into alpha-ketoglutarate in the Krebs cycle. Choose the substance that can low the P/O ratio for this reaction: *A. Antimycin A B. Citrate C. Isocitrate dehydrogenase D. NAD+ E. ADP Uncouplers of oxidative phosphorylation may be: A. High levels of serum bilirubin B. High levels of free fatty acids *C. All the proposed D. Thermogenins E. High levels of thyroid hormones Name, please, the name of enzyme catalyzing the coupling of proton gradient use with the synthesis of ATP in mitochondria: A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase *B. ATP synthetase C. ATP/ADP-translocase D. Monoaminooxidase E. Lipase The antibiotic oligomycin has been recently used in tuberculosis treatment. Point out the process in tuberculosis bacillus that is inhibited by this drug: *A. Oxidative phosphorylation B. Translation C. Anaerobic glycolysis D. The active transport of substances across membranes E. Phagocytosis Choose, please, the P/O ratio per one mole of pyruvate involved in oxidative decarboxylation at the presence of phenobarbital in high levels in the cell: *A. Zero B. Five C. Four D. Three E. Two The complex I of electron transport chain may be inhibited by barbituric acid. Find out, please, the composition of this complex: *A. NADH-dehydrogenase and Fe-S-proteins B. FMN and Fe-S-proteins C. Succinate dehydrogenase and Fe-S-proteins D. FAD and Fe-S-proteins E. NAD and Fe-S-proteins Name the component of electron transport chain that is not related to proteins but is also acceptor of protons and electrons: A. Cytochrome b B. Cytochrome c *C. CoQ D. Cytochrome c oxidase E. Cytochrome P[sub]450[/sub] Name, please, the inhibitor for complex IV of electron transport chain: *A. Hydrogen sulfide B. Oxygen C. Carbon dioxide D. Potassium chloride E. Hydrogen peroxide Find out the enzyme of electron transport chain that is transmembrane protein and may be considered as a pump for protons from the matrix to the intra membrane space: A. CoQ B. Cytochrome b, only C. Succinate dehydrogenase *D. Cytochrome C oxidase E. Cytochrome C Name the terminal complex of respiratory chain: A. Succinate dehydrogenase B. Cytochrome b, Fe-S-proteins and cytochrome C1 *C. Cytochrome c oxidase D. Cytochrome C E. NADH-dehydrogenase and Fe-S-proteins Carbon monoxide is discussed as the suppressor of tissue respiration in muscular tissue because of its ability to be linked to: A. Myoglobin B. Hemoglobin *C. All the positions are right D. Cytochrome C oxidase ATP/ADP ratio equals 0.5 in the matrix of suspended mitochondria. What enzyme systems must be stimulated in the matrix and inner membrane to increase this value up to 1?: A. Electron transport Chain enzymes B. Citric Acid Cycle enzymes C. ATP-synthetase D. ATP/ADP-translocase *E. All the proposed Find out the property of uncoupler that helps it to penetrate across the inner membrane of mitochondria: A. High solubility in water B. All the properties proposed C. Very small shape of uncoupler molecule *D. High solubility in lipids E. High affinity to molecular oxygen Name, please, the acceptor of electrons from NADH-dehydrogenase in the electron transport chain: A. CoQ B. Cytochrome oxidase C. Cytochrome b *D. Fe-S-proteins E. Cytochrome c Which of the following inhibit complex IV of respiratory chain? A. Amobarbital B. Rotenone C. Secobarbitone D. Antipyrine *E. Cyanide Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase involved in beta-oxidation of any Fatty Acid, has the prosthetic group FAD and is placed in the inner membrane of mitochondria of cells where this process is in duration. How many moles of ATP may be synthesized due to oxidative phosphorylation per 1 mole of acyl-CoA involved in Acyl-CoA dehydrogenase reaction? A. Four B. One C. Three D. Five *E. Two Cytochromes are: *A. Iron-porphyrin proteins B. Metal containing flavoproteins C. Hemoglobin derivatives D. Pyridine nucleotides E. Peroxidases Point out the location of the processes which take part in tissue respiration the most intensively: A. EPR B. Golgi complex C. Lysosome *D. Mitochondria E. Cytoplasm Choose, please, the P/O ratio per one mole of isocitrate involved in oxidative decarboxylation at the accumulation of rotenone in the cell: A. P/O<3 B. P/O<2 *C. Zero D. 3 E. 2 Antimycin A is discussed in scientific literature as the antibiotic whose pharmacological effects are based on its ability to inhibit complex III of electron transport chain of the inner membrane of mitochondria. Choose the value for P/O ratio of succinate oxidation in Krebs Cycle at the presence of antimycin A in mitochondria: A. _0 B. Less then 3 C. _2 D. _3 *E. Less then 2 The electrochemical potential formation occurs on the inner membrane of mitochondria during the active work of the electron transport chain. Point the substance that can reduce the electrochemical potential value: A. Glucose B. Citric acid C. Malonic acid D. Succinate *E. 2,4-dinitrophenol Choose, please, the P/O ratio per one mole of pyruvate involved in oxidative decarboxylation at the accumulation of 2,4-dinitrophenol in the cell: A. Five B. Four C. Three D. Two *E. Zero Find out, please, the inhibitor for the complex III of electron transport chain in the inner membrane of mitochondria: A. Rotenone *B. Antimycin A C. ATP D. Barbituric acid E. NADH Catalase activity is very important for cells where the accumulation of one toxic compound may be. Name, please, this compound: A. Nitric acid B. Potassium cyanide C. Carbon monoxide *D. Hydrogen peroxide E. Carbon dioxide Name, please the coefficient that can show the quantity of ATP molecules formed per one mole of oxidized organic compound due to oxidative phosphorylation: *A. P/O ratio B. Respiratory control C. The electrochemical potential D. ADP/ATP ratio E. Protons gradient Name, please, the P/O ratio per one mole of pyruvate involved in oxidative decarboxylation if 1 mole of NADH is formed in this reaction: *A. Three B. Five C. Zero D. Four E. Two Choose, please, the number of complexes in the long respiratory chain: A. Four B. Five C. Two *D. Three E. One Name, please, the energy effect per one Krebs cycle due to oxidative phosphorylation: A. 8 ATP B. 1 GTP C. 12 ATP *D. 11 ATP E. 9 ATP Rotenone (the inhibitor of the first complex of the electron transport chain) changes the P/O ratio for substrates that are oxidized in Krebs Cycle. Choose the value of P/O at the presence of this inhibitor per 1 mole of malate that is oxidized: *A. Zero B. <1 C. <3 D. <2 E. <4 What type of tissue is specialized to carry out the oxidation uncoupled from phosphorylation?: A. Erythrocytes of blood B. Skeletal muscular tissue C. Myocardium tissue *D. Brown adipose tissue E. White adipose tissue Choose the enzyme of Krebs cycle that is considered as the part of Complex II of electron transport chain: A. Cytochrome b, only B. Cytochrome oxidase C. CoQ D. NaDH-dehydrogenase *E. Succinate dehydrogenase Find out, please, the name of the third stage of tissue respiration: A. Translation B. The active transport of substances across membranes C. Oxidative phosphorylation D. Aerobic glycolysis *E. Electron transport chain function Name, please, the inhibitor for complex IV of respiratory chain: *A. Carbon monoxide B. Hydrogen peroxide C. Carbon dioxide D. Potassium chloride E. Oxygen Name, please, the factor that can block tissue respiration completely: *A. Potassium cyanide B. Phenobarbital C. Malonic acid D. Valinomycin E. Oligomycin Name, please, the enzyme system promoting the ADP/ATP maintenance both in the matrix of mitochondria and in cytoplasma of the cell: *A. ATP/ADP translocase B. Succinate dehydrogenase C. NADH-dehydrogenase D. Cytochrome oxidase E. ATP synthetase Submodule 2 The vegetable oils are the obligatory components of man ration as they contain some essential fatty acids. Choose them: A. Acetic and butyric acids B. Stearic and palmitic acids *C. Linoleic and linolenic acids D. Palmitooleic and oleic acids E. Citric and fumaric acids Examination of a man who hadn’t been consuming fats but had been getting enough carbohydrates and proteins for long time revealed dermatitis, poor wound healing, vision impairment. What is the probable cause of metabolic disorder? A. Lack of oleic acid B. Low caloric value of diet C. Lack of vitamins PP, H D. Lack of palmitic acid *E. Lack of linoleic acid, vitamins A, D, E, K. Find out the values for total acidity of gastric juice associated with hypochlorhydria in patient: A. 40 mmol/L *B. 20 mmol/L C. 55 mmol/L D. 60 mmol/L E. 50 mmol/L Point out the endopeptidase that is produced by pancreas and is activated by trypsin: A. Renin B. Gastricsin C. Pepsinogen D. Alpha-Amylase *E. Proelastase Name the enzyme whose function is associated with digestion of polysaccharides in the small intestine: A. Rennin *B. Alpha-amylase C. Elastase D. Pepsinogen E. Maltase The stone of a general bile duct stopped the entrance of bile to the intestine of the patient. Specify the process, whose infringement will be observed: A. Protein digestion B. Carbohydrates digestion *C. Fats digestion D. Protein digestion E. Carbohydrates absorption Point out the class of enzymes that catalyze the digestion of proteins in gastro-intestinal tract: A. Ligases B. Lyases C. Transferases *D. Hydrolases E. Oxidoreductases The bile acids participate in: A. The cholesterol synthesis B. The activation of trypsin C. The ketone bodies synthesis *D. The lipids emulsification E. The protein transport activation A 30-year-old woman was diagnosed with insufficiency of exocrine function of pancreas. Hydrolysis of what nutrients will be disturbed? A. Proteins, only *B. Proteins, fats, carbohydrates C. Fats, carbohydrates, only D. Proteins, fats, only E. Proteins, carbohydrates, only Some carbohydrates can't be digested in the intestine. Point out one of them: *A. Cellulose B. Maltose C. Glycogen D. Sucrose E. Starch Lipase requires special conditions for its activity. Choose a factor that isn’t optimum for this purpose: A. Phospholipids B. Colipase C. Bile salts *D. pH=2.0 E. pH=8.0 Trypsin is found in functions as activator for some zymogens produced by pancreas. Choose them: A. Chymotrypsinogen *B. All that is placed C. Procarboxylase B D. Proelastase E. Procarboxylase A After intake of rich food a patient feels nausea and sluggishness; with time signs of steatorrhea there appeared. Blood cholesterol concentration is 9.2 mmole/l. That condition was caused by lack of: A. Fatty acids B. Triglycerides C. Chylomicrons *D. Bile acids E. Phospholipids Point out the group of peptidases which trypsin is belong to: A. Amino peptidase B. Carboxypeptidase C. Dipeptidase D. Exopeptidase *E. Endopeptidase A patient complains of frequent diarrheas, especially after consumption of fattening food and of the body weight loss. Laboratory examination revealed steatorrhea; hypocholic feces. What may be the cause of this condition? A. Lack of pancreatic phospholipase B. Unbalanced diet *C. Obturation of biliary tracts D. Mucous membrane inflammation of small intestine E. Lack of pancreatic lipase This disorder may be genetic or acquired. Affected infants are not able to tolerate milk, which is normally their primary food. Point out the name of disorder: A. Galactosemia *B. Lactose intolerance C. Galactose intolerance D. Fructosuria E. Glucose intolerance Point out the activator of secretin production in duodenum: A. Chymotrypsin B. Gastricsin C. Trypsin *D. Hydrochloric acid E. Pepsin Choose the enzyme that takes part in the gastric digestion of carbohydrates: A. Amylo-1,6-glycosidase B. Oligo-1,6-glycosidase *C. There's no any enzyme for carbohydrates digestion in stomach D. Salivary amylase E. Sucrase The only sugar absorbed by intestine against a concentration gradient is: A. Galactose B. Xylose *C. Glucose D. Mannose E. Fructose Point out the couple of amino acids participating in the formation of peptide bond that is cleaved by trypsin: A. Alanine, valine B. Leucine, valine C. Glycine, Glutamine D. Isoleucine, alanine *E. Arginine, lysine Point out the amino acids whose peptide bonds are hydrolyzed by pepsin and chymotrypsin: *A. Aromatic amino acids B. Alcoholic acids C. Sulfur-containing amino acids D. Diamino acids E. Amides of monocarboxylic acids Achlorhydria (achylia) state is observed in patient with stomach problems. Propose probable reason for the development of this state and probable values for free HCL content in the gastric juice of this patient: A. Colitis; [free HCL]=60 mmole/L B. Obstruction of esophagus; [free HCL]=20 mmole/L C. Extensive secretion of gastric juice; [free HCL]=60 mmole/L *D. Cancer of stomach; [free HCL]= 0 mmole/L E. Disturbed pepsinogen synthesis; [free HCL]=10 mmole/L Choose the condition in human organism which can cause the beginning of gluconeogenesis in the liver: *A. Hypoglycemia B. The decrease of diuresis C. The hypoxia of liver tissue D. Hyperglycemia E. The bile ducts obstruction The functions of gluconeogenesis are described by all of the following statements EXCEPT: A. It maintains blood sugar levels during fasting B. It allows the use of amino acids for glucose production C. It maintains blood glucose level during period of limited carbohydrate intake D. It is useful during strenuous exercises *E. It allows the use of acetyl-CoA for glucose production Which compound does not contribute to the net formation of glucose during gluconeogenesis in man? A. Glycerol B. Lactate *C. Acetyl-CoA D. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate E. Oxaloacetate Which statement about gluconeogenesis is correct? A. ATP is not required for the process B. Phosphofructokinase I is the rate-limiting enzyme of gluconeogenesis. C. It occurs primarily in skeletal muscle. D. The acetate group of acetyl-CoA is used for the net synthesis of glucose *E. Lactate and alanine can both serve as substrates. Which of the ions is the most important for glycolysis?: A. Aurum B. Cobalt *C. Magnesium D. Zink E. Calcium Which one of the following enzymes is common to both glycolysis and gluconeogenesis? A. Pyruvate carboxylase B. Pyruvate kinase C. Hexokinase D. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase *E. Phosphoglycerate kinase Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver and: A. Skeletal muscle *B. Kidney C. Spleen D. Heart E. Adipose tissue Choose the yields a net for 1 mole of glucose oxidation by anaerobic glycolysis: A. 2 moles of pyruvate, 2 moles of NADH, 2 moles of ATP B. 2 moles of lactate, 2 moles of NAD+, 2 moles of ATP C. 2 moles of pyruvate and 2 moles of ATP D. 2 moles of lactate and 6 moles of ATP *E. 2 moles of lactate and 2 moles of ATP Choose the key enzymes of gluconeogenesis: *A. Pyruvate carboxylase, phosphoenolpyruvatecarboxykinase, fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase B. Phosphohexoseisomerase, phosphoglycerate kinase, aldolase I C. Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, pyruvate kinase D. Glucokinase, phosphotrioseisomerase, lactate dehydrogenase E. Citrate synthase, isocitratedehydrohenase, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase Name the factors which are important to regulate the anaerobic glycolysis duration: A. NADH/NAD[sup]+[/sup] ratio in a cell B. Oxygen level in tissue C. Fructose-2.6-biphosphate level D. ATP/ADP ratio in a cell *E. All the factors mentioned A deficiency in the vitamin Biotin leads to a deficiency in the activity of certain enzyme of gluconeogenesis. Point out the enzyme: A. Glucose 6-phosphatase B. Phosphoenolpyruvatecarboxykinase C. Phosphoglycerate kinase D. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase *E. Pyruvate carboxylase What enzyme catalyzes the glucose-6-phosphate formation from glucose in the liver and is not inhibited by excess level of glucose-6-phosphate: A. Hexokinasehh *B. Glucokinase C. Phosphoglucomutase D. Glucose-6-phosphatase E. Pyruvate kinase Diseases of the respiratory system and circulatory disorders impair the transport of oxygen, thus leading to hypoxia. Under these conditions the energy metabolism is carried out by anaerobic glycolysis. As a result, the following substance is generated and accumulated in blood: A. Citric acid B. Glutamic acid *C. Lactic acid D. Pyruvic acid E. Fumaric acid Name the energy effect of anaerobic glycolysis per 1 mole of glucose incorporated into the process: *A. 2 ATP B. 8 ATP C. 10 ATP D. 5 ATP E. 3 ATP The gluconeogenesis is activated in the liver after intensive physical trainings .What substance is utilized in gluconeogenesis first of all in this case: A. Glucose B. Glutamate C. Alanine *D. Lactate E. Pyruvate Gluconeogenesis from lactate does not require activity of: A. Triose phosphate isomerase. B. Phosphoglycerate kinase. C. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase. *D. Phosphofructokinase. E. Aldolase. The genetic defect of pyruvate carboxylase deficiency is the cause of delayed physical and mental development and early death in children. This defect is characterized by lacticemia, lactaciduria, disorders of a number of metabolic pathways. In particular, the following processes are inhibited: A. Glycogenesis and glycogenolysis B. Pentose phosphate pathway and glycolysis *C. Citric acid cycle and gluconeogenesis D. Lipolysis and lipogenesis E. Glycolysis and glycogenolysis The intensive muscular work increases the velocity of the ATP utilization and causes the activation of glycolysis. What enzyme activity will limit its rate? A. Glucose-6-phosphate isomerase *B. Phosphofructokinase C. Phosphoglyceromutase D. Aldolase E. Phosphoglycerate kinase Which of the following compounds is an allosteric activator that enhances activity of phosphofructokinase I of the glycolytic pathway? A. Citric acid B. Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) C. Glucose-6-phosphate D. Glucose *E. Adenosine monophosphate (AMP) Which one of the following enzymes catalyzes phosphorylation with the use of inorganic phosphate? A. Pyruvate kinase B. Phosphofructokinase *C. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase D. Phosphoglycerate kinase E. Hexokinase Choose the key (regulatory) enzymes of glycolysis: A. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase, phosphoenolpyruvatecarboxykinase, pyruvate carboxylase B. Citrate synthase, isocitratedehydrohenase, alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase C. Phosphohexoseisomerase, phosphoglycerate kinase, aldolase I *D. Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase, pyruvate kinase E. Glucokinase, phosphotrioseisomerase, lactate dehydrogenase There is one organic compound in the list below to inhibit phosphofructokinase I if this compound is accumulated in cytoplasm. Name it: A. Succinate *B. ATP C. Glyceroaldehyde 3-phosphate D. Pyruvate E. Fructose-6-phosphate The activity of pyruvate carboxylase is dependent upon the positive allosteric effector: A. Isocitrate B. Citrate *C. Acetyl CoA D. Succinate E. AMP A 7-year-old girl has signs of anemia. Laboratory examination revealed pyruvate kinase deficiency in the erythrocytes. What process disturbance plays the main role in anemia development? A. Peroxide decomposition B. Oxidative phosphorylation *C. Anaerobic glycolysis D. Tissue respiration E. Amino acids desamination Find out the location of glucose-6-phosphatase in human tissues: A. Liver, only B. Gonads, only *C. Liver, kidney D. Skeletal muscular tissue E. Myocardium Name, please, the liver enzyme needed for lactate utilization in gluconeogenesis: *A. B. NAD-dependent Lactate Dehydrogenase C. Pyruvate dehydrogenase D. Glucose-6-phosphatase E. NADH-dependent Lactate Dehydrogenase F. Lactonase Choose the enzyme for the reaction of glucose formation due to dephosphorylation: A. Glucokinase *B. Glucose-6-phosphatase C. Aldolase D. Hexokinase E. Phosphofructokinase Choose the energy requirement (sum total of ATP; to think about GTP use as ATP use) for glucose synthesis from 2 moles of pyruvic acid: A. 1 ATP B. 3 ATP *C. 6 ATP D. 2 ATP E. 4 ATP A child has got galactosemia. Concentration of glucose in blood has not considerably changed. Deficiency of what enzyme caused this illness? A. Amylo-l,6-glucosidase *B. Galactose-1-phosphate uridyltransferase C. Fructokinase D. Hexokinase E. Phosphoglucomutase A child with galactosemia is referred to an opthalmologist for evaluation of developing cataracts, probably caused by the accumulation of galactose and its alcohol galactitol. Choose the enzyme catalyzing the transformation of galactose to galacitol: A. Galactokinase *B. Aldose reductase C. Galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase D. Aldolase B E. Glucokinase Choose the INCORRECT statement concerning functions of the pentose phosphate pathway: A. It is a source of NADPH for reductive pathways B. It is a source of pentoses for nucleic acids synthesis C. It is a route for conversion of pentoses from degradated nucleotides to intermediates of glycolysis D. It is a route for the use of pentoses and for their conversion to hexoses and trioses *E. It is a source of ATP for reductive pathways The aerobic oxidation of carbohydrates includes the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate. Specify the inhibitor (in high concentration) for this reaction: A. ADP B. NADP[sup]+[/sup] C. NAD[sup]+[/sup] D. FAD *E. Acetyl-SCoA Pyruvate concentration in the patient’s urine is increased 10 times than the normal level. Choose the Vitamin, the deficiency of which in the organism can be the reason of this change: A. Vitamin B[sub]6[/sub] *B. Vitamin B[sub]1[/sub] C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin C E. Vitamin A Name the second stage of aerobic glucose oxidation in tissues: A. Pyruvate formation B. Krebs Cycle C. Acetyl-SCоA carboxylation *D. Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate E. Alpha-ketoglutarate formation Point out the multienzyme system used in aerobic oxidation of glucose up to carbon dioxide and water formation: *A. Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex B. Glutamate dehydrogenase complex C. Palmitate synthetase D. Glucose-6-Phosphate dehydrogenase complex E. Succinate dehydrogenase complex Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex contains all cofactors except one. Choose it: A. FAD B. Lipoamide C. CoASH D. NAD[sup]+[/sup] *E. Biotin NADPH is used for next application EXCEPT: A. Glutathione defense system against injury by reactive oxygen species *B. Glucose synthesis C. Cholesterol synthesis D. Fatty acid biosynthesis E. Monooxygenase system linked with cytochrome P450 Immediate products of pyruvate metabolism (using one reaction only) are all EXCEPT: *A. 2-Phosphoglycerate B. Lactate C. Alanine D. Oxaloacetate E. Acetyl-CoA Point out the multienzyme system where enzymes form a single structural-functional complex: *A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex B. Enzymes of Krebs cycle C. Glucose-6-Phosphate dehydrogenase D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase *E. F. Glutamate dehydrogenase Which enzyme is present in the liver but not in muscle? A. Lactate dehydrogenase B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase C. Glycogen phosphorylase D. Hexokinase *E. Glucose 6-phosphatase Which of the following compounds is required by transketolase for maximal activity? A. Acetyl-CoA *B. Thiamine pyrophosphate C. Biotin D. Dihydroxyacetone phosphate E. Coenzyme A Biochemical test in thiamine deficiency may be: A. Histidine test B. Ferric chloride test *C. Erythrocyte transketolase test D. Cholesterol test E. Glucose test Malate-aspartate shuttle system is required for: A. Embden-Meyerhoff pathway B. Gluconeogenesis *C. Reducing equivalent (NADH) transport into mitochondria D. Alanine transport into mitochondria E. Pentose phosphate pathway Point out the substrate that is used as major energy source for brain: A. Alanine B. Phospholipid *C. Glucose D. Fatty acid E. Ketone body Sites where Hexose monophosphate shunt can occur include: A. Liver B. White Blood Cells (WBC) *C. All the proposed D. Lactating mammary gland E. Testes A child’s blood has high content of galactose, glucose concentration is low. There are such presentations as cataract, mental deficiency, adipose degeneration of liver. What disease is it? A. Lactosemia B. Fructosemia *C. Galactosemia D. Steroid diabetes E. Diabetes mellitus Insulin decreases the rate of gluconeogenesis by suppressing of one the following enzymes. Point out this enzyme: A. Pyruvate kinase B. Phosphofructokinase *C. Pyruvate carboxylase D. Glycogen synthase E. Hexokinase Which of the following statements about glycogen metabolism is true? A. Cyclic AMP–activated protein kinase stimulates glycogen synthase B. Glycogen synthesis is stimulated by glucagon C. Glycogen phosphorylase b is inactivated by phosphorylation D. Epinephrine and glucagon can low cAMP levels in cytoplasma thus stimulating glycogenolysis *E. Glycogen phosphorylase kinase is activated by phosphorylation A liver biopsy has been made for child with hepatomegaly and mild fasting hypoglycemia. Hepatocytes contant shows the accumulation of glycogen granules with single glucose residues remaining at the branch points near the periphery of the granule. The most likely genetic disorder in this child is associated with the defect in: *A. Amylo alpha-1,6 glucosidase (debranching enzyme) B. Lysosomal alpha-1,4 glucosidase C. Glycogen phosphorylase D. Glucosyl -4:6 transferase (branching enzyme) E. Phosphoglucomutase The tissue with the highest glycogen content (mg/100g of tissue) is: A. Skeletal muscle B. Brain C. Testes D. Kidney *E. Liver Inherited disease, such as mucopolysaccharidosis, is manifested in metabolic disorders of connective tissue, bone and joint pathologies. The sign of this disease is the excessive urinary excretion of the following substance: A. Lipids *B. Glycosaminoglycans C. Amino acids D. Glucose E. Urea What glycolytic enzyme synthesis is stimulated due to insulin: *A. Hexokinase IV B. Aldolase C. Glucose-6-phosphatase D. Adenylate kinase E. Phosphoglycerate kinase Point out the enzyme that breaks beta1-->4 linkages in hyaluronic acid and other glycosaminoglycans? A. Cellulase B. Lactase C. Glycogen synthase *D. Hyaluronidase E. Glycogen phosphorylase Insulin stimulates all the processes listed below in adipocytes except: A. Transport of glucose through cell membrane *B. Glycogenolysis C. Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate D. Hexose monophosphate shunt E. Catabolism of glucose Mucopolysaccharidoses are inherited storage diseases. They are caused by: *A. Defects in the degradation of proteoglycans B. All the proposed options are correct C. An increased rate of synthesis of proteoglycans D. The synthesis of polysaccharides with an altered structure E. The synthesis of abnormally small amounts of protein cores Point out the type of bonds between glucose-monomers in glycogen molecule destroyed by glycogen phosphorylase a: A. Beta(1-4)-glycosidic bond B. Alpha?(1-4), alpha ?(1-6)-glycosidic bonds *C. Only alpha?(1-4)-glycosidic bond D. ??Alpha ?(1-4),? beta(1-6) -glycosidic bonds E. Beta(1-4), alpha ?(1-6)-glycosidic bonds After meals blood glucose enters liver cells and is stored as glycogen, mainly. Which of the following compounds is the donor of new glucose residue in glycogen? A. UDP-glucose-6-phosphate B. Glucose-6-phosphate C. Glucose-4-phosphate D. UDP-glucose-1-phosphate *E. UDP-glucose WHICH one of the following enzymes is associated with glycogen synthesis? A. Debranching enzyme B. Phosphorylase kinase C. Glycogen phosphorylase D. Glucose-6-phosphatase *E. Branching enzyme Blood glucose levels cannot be augmented by mobilization of muscle glycogen due to lack of: *A. Glucose-6-phosphatase B. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase C. Glucokinase D. Hexokinase E. Aldolase Choose the hormone whose secretion may be damaged at diabetes mellitus in person: A. Cortisol B. Growth hormone *C. Insulin D. Progesterone E. Epinephrine Choose the substance that can be the terminal product of glycogenolysis in muscles: *A. Glucose-6-phosphate B. Glycogen C. Glucose D. Pyruvate E. Fructose A child is languid, apathetic. Liver is enlarged and liver biopsy revealed a significant amount of glycogen. Glucose concentration in the blood stream is below normal. What is the cause of low glucose levels: *A. Low {absent} activity of glucose 6-phosphatase B. Low {absent} activity of hexokinase C. Deficit of gene that is responsible for the synthesis of glucose 1-phosphate uridine transferase D. High activity of glycogen synthetase E. High activity of glycogen phosphorylase in liver McArdle’s disease development causes muscle cramps and muscle fatigue with increased muscle glycogen in a patient. Which of the following enzymes is deficient? A. Hepatic hexokinase *B. Muscle phosphorylase C. Muscle debranching enzyme D. Muscle glycogen synthetase E. Muscle hexokinase How does epinephrine influence the glucose level in the blood? A. Decreases, stimulating gluconeogenesis in the liver *B. Increases, stimulating glycogen breakdown in the liver C. Decreases, inhibiting the glycogen synthesis in the liver D. Does not influence E. Decreases, inhibiting the glycolysis in muscles What hormone decreases the glucose concentration in the blood, if its value is more than 6.8 mM/L: A. Thyroxin B. Testosterone *C. Insulin D. Adrenalin E. Glucagon Patient with diabetes mellitus experienced loss of consciousness and convulsions after an injection of insulin. What might be the result of biochemical blood analysis for concentration of glucose? A. 1,5 mmole/L . B. 5,5 mmole/L C. 8,0 mmole/L D. 10 mmole/L *E. 3,3 mmole/L Point out the enzyme whose deficiency can cause the Gierke's disease development: A. Glycogen phosphorylase B. Alpha-1,4-glycosidase C. Glycogen-branching enzyme D. Amylo- 1,6 -glycosidase *E. Glucose-6-phosphatase Which glycosaminoglycan is the most abundant in cartilage? A. Dermatan sulfate B. Heparan sulfate *C. Chondroitin sulfate D. Hyaluronic acid E. Keratan sulfate Which of the following metabolites is found in glycogenolysis, glycolysis, and gluconeogenesis? *A. Glucose-6-phosphate B. Uridine diphosphoglucose C. Fructose-6-phosphate D. Uridine diphosphogalactose E. Galactose-1-phosphate Which of the following alterations would be expected to occur after a substantial breakfast? *A. Decreased rate of glycogenolysis B. Decreased rate of protein synthesis C. Increased activity of phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase D. Increased activity of pyruvate carboxylase E. Decreased activity of glucokinase Point out the key enzyme of glycogen degradation in the liver: A. Glucose oxidase B. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase C. Glucose-6-phosphatase *D. Glycogen Phosphorylase E. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphatase A 50-year old patient with food poisoning is on a drip of 10 % glucose solution. It does not provide the body with necessary energy only, but also performs the function of detoxification by the production of a metabolite that participates in the following conjugation reaction: A. Methylation B. Sulfation C. Hydroxylation *D. Glucuronidation E. Glycosylation Find out the pair of enzymes providing the reciprocal control of carbohydrate metabolic pathways: A. Hexokinase and glucose 6-phosphatase B. Acetyl CoA carboxylase and pyruvate kinase C. Branching and debranching enzymes *D. Glycogen synthase and glycogen phosphorylase E. Phosphohexose isomerase ang phosphotriose isomerase A child has been diagnized for low blood glucose (hypoglycemia), enlarged liver (hepatomegaly), and excess fat deposition in the cheeks. A liver biopsy reveals excess glycogen in hepatocytes. There is hypothetically Pompe’s desease. Deficiency of which of the following enzymes might explain this phenotype? *A. Lysosomal alpha-1,4-glucosidase B. Amylo alpha-1,6 glucosidase (debranching enzyme) C. Alpha-1,4-galactosidase D. Glucosyl -4:6 transferase (branching enzyme) E. Glucose 6-phosphatase How glucocorticoids influence the carbohydrate metabolism? A. Stimulate the glycolysis from glucose B. Inhibit the glycogen phosphorolysis *C. Stimulate the gluconeogenesis D. Stimulate the glycogenesis E. Stimulate the starch hydrolysis in the small intestine The most important substances as a source of blood glucose after 48 hours of starvation are: A. Muscle and liver glycogen B. Fructose and galactose C. Liver glucoseaminoglycans *D. Amino acids E. Fructose The investigation of the blood and urine of patient with diabetes mellitus confirmed the hyperglycemia and glucosuria states. Point the available value of glucose concentration in the blood plasma of this patient: A. 2,54 mmol/l B. 4,89 mmol/l *C. 9,32 mmol/l D. 3,88 mmol/l E. 6,55 mmol/l Point out the main process maintaining the blood glucose level during fasting (8–12 hours from person’s last meal): A. Hexose monophosphate shunt B. Glycolysis C. Gluconeogenesis in the muscles *D. Glycogenolysis in the liver E. Glycogenolysis in the muscles How does adrenalin influence the glucose level in the blood? A. Decreases, inhibiting the glycolysis *B. Increases, stimulating the glycogen destruction C. Decreases, stimulating the gluconeogenesis D. Does not influence E. Decreases, inhibiting the glycogen synthesis Glycogen polysaccharide is synthesized from the active form of glucose. The immediate donor of glucose residues during the glycogenesis is: *A. UDP-glucose B. Glucose-1-phosphate C. ADP-glucose D. Glucose-3-phosphate E. Glucose-6-phosphate Choose the separation method for lipoproteins of the blood plasm: A. Photocolorimetry method B. Salting-out *C. Electrophoresis D. Extraction E. Radioimmunal Assay Certain drugs -caffeine and theophylline- inhibit phosphodiesterase activity catalyzing reaction cAMP-- >AMP. How will free fatty acid levels are altered in the blood after the drugs injection: A. Will be not altered B. Will be decreased simultaneously with glucose *C. Will be increased D. Will be decreased E. Will be increased simultaneously with galactose The largest reserve of energy in body is stored as: A. Muscle glycogen *B. Triacylglycerols in adipose tissue C. Muscle protein D. Liver glycogen E. Blood glucose Hormone-sensitive triacylglycerol lipase is activated in adipocytes under the emotional stress. Choose the substance, whose concentration is increased in adipose tissue in this state: *A. cAMP B. AMP C. Diacylglycerol D. cGMP E. Ca2+ Which statement is incorrect about phosphatidylcholine (PC)? A. PC is an important component of the surface shell of plasma lipoproteins. B. PC may be synthesized from phosphatidylserine or from diacylglycerol and CDP-choline. C. PC together with phosphatidylethanolamine and phosphatidylserine are major phospholipid components of cell membranes. D. PC can be hydrolyzed by phospholipase A2 into lysolecithin and a fatty acid. *E. PC participates in signal transmission via activated phospholipase C. Which one of the following properties is not characteristic of LDL? A. LDL have specific high affinity receptors in most cells B. LDL contains more cholesteryl esters than triacylglycerols C. LDL are more dense than chylomicrons D. LDL is smaller than both VLDL and chylomicrones *E. The major protein component of LDL is apoB-48 The liver requires a mechanism for producing phosphatidylcholine (PC) because it exports significant amounts of PC in the bile and as component of serum lipoproteins. This mechanism includes three methylation steps to produce PC from phosphatidylethanolamine. What is the methyl group donor for methylation: *A. S-adenosylmethionine (SAM) B. Cytidine diphosphate-choline (CDP-choline) C. N-guanosylmethionine (NGM) D. Uridine diphosphate-methionine (UDP-methionine) E. Homosycteine Synthesis of phospholipids is disordered under the liver fat infiltration. Indicate which of the following substances can enhance the process of methylation during phospholipids synthesis? A. Glucose B. Citrate *C. Methionine D. Glycerol E. Ascorbic acid Point out the lipoprotein class transporting cholesterol from peripheral tissues to the liver: A. LDL B. VLDL C. Cholesterol-albumin complex D. Chylomicrones *E. HDL In electrophoresis which class of lipoproteins will least migrate from start-line: *A. Chylomicrons B. LDL C. HDL D. VLDL E. IDL Which of the following is an activator of LCAT (Lecithin-cholesterol acyltransferase) *A. Apo AI B. Apo E C. Apo B 48 D. Apo B 100 E. Apo CII In man the serum lipoprotein fraction with the highest free cholesterol content is: A. Alpha-lipoprotein B. Chylomicrons *C. Beta-lipoprotein D. Pre-beta-lipoprotein E. Prealbumin Name the condition in the liver cell causing the triacylglycerol synthesis: A. The decrease of ATP/ADP ratio B. The ketone bodies accumulation *C. The accumulation of high fatty acids D. The stimulation of protein degradation E. The accumulation of carbon dioxide Vitamin F is recommended in order to prevent the cholesterol deposition inside the blood vessels at atherosclerosis. What lipid is the component of this vitamin? A. Cholesterol B. Cardiolipid *C. Linoleic acid D. Stearic acid E. Sphingomyelin If choline moiety is replaced by ethanolamine in glycerophospholipid the net product is: A. Sphingomyelin *B. Cephalin C. Cerebroside D. Plasmalogen E. Cardiolipin Free fatty acids are transported in circulation via: *A. Albumins B. Globulins C. Chylomicrons D. Triacylglycerols E. HDL Which is a lipotropic factor: A. Alanine *B. Choline C. Carnitine D. Glycerol E. Insulin Hormone sensitive triacylglycerol lipase is not activated by one hormone from following list. Point out it. A. None of above B. Epinephrine *C. Insulin D. Glucagon E. Norepinephrine Which statement is a true for the comparison of phospholipids(PL) and triacylglycerols (TAG)? A. PL contein a cyclic steroid ring, whilst triglycerides maintain a straight-chain form. *B. PL molecules have a distinctly polar 'head' and a distinctly non-polar 'tail,' whilst triglycerides are predominantly non-polar. C. Both TAG and PL are the primary storage form for fats in our bodies. D. Both molecules contain a phosphate group. E. TAG may be saturated or unsaturated, but all fatty acids in PL structure are saturated Blood plasma of patient with hyperlipoproteinemia type I remains milky even after a long fast due to markedly elevated and persistent chylomicrons. What abnormality is possible in these patients? A. Obstruction of the bile duct B. Deficient pancreatic lipase C. Deficient lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase (LCAT) *D. Deficient lipoprotein lipase E. Defective synthesis of apoB-48 All of the following statements about LDL are true except: A. It is a marker for cardiovascular disease B. It contains apo B-100 C. 25% of its content is utilized in the liver *D. It contains only one apoprotein E. It delivers cholesterol to cells What substance is not component of a lipoprotein: A. Triacylglycerol B. Cholesterol C. Phospholipid *D. Transferrin E. Apoprotein The lipids are transported by lipoproteins in the blood. Specify the lipoproteins that are formed in the small intestine wall after high lipids intake: A. IDL *B. Chylomicrons C. LDL D. VLDL E. HDL Point out the enzyme used for lysophospholipid formation during lipolysis of glycerophospholipid: A. Triacylglycerol lipase B. Monoacylglycerol lipase C. Diacylglycerol lipase D. Phospholipase D *E. Phospholipase A2 Choose the organs or tissues where lipogenesis proceeds most intensively: A. Skeletal Muscle B. Brain, pancreas gland C. Myocardium D. Kidneys, adrenal gland *E. Liver, Mammary gland Humans cannot achieve a NET synthesis of glucose from C-even fatty acids due to the inability to convert: A. Acetyl-CoA to malonyl CoA B. Methylmalonyl-CoA to succinyl-CoA *C. Acetyl-CoA to pyruvate D. Acetyl-CoA to acetoacetate E. Oxaloacetate to pyruvate An experimental animal has been given excessive amount of carbon labeled glucose for a week. In what compound can the label be found? A. Methionine B. Arachidonic acid *C. Palmitic acid D. Phenylalanine E. Vitamin A Point out the ketone body that is not utilized in human organism: A. Beta-hydroxybutyrate B. Acetoacetate C. All the substances proposed *D. Acetone E. None of the substances proposed Point out the terminal product in the last round of beta-oxidation of High Fatty Acids with odd number of carbon atoms: A. Butyryl - SCoA *B. Propionyl - SCoA C. Pyruvate D. Acetoacetyl - SCoA E. Malonyl - SCoA Choose the allosteric activator of acetyl-CoA-carboxylase (the key enzyme of HFA synthesis): A. Malate *B. Citrate C. Oxaloacetate D. Fumarate E. Succinate Point out the terminal product of beta-oxidation of Higher Fatty Acids (HFA) with even number of carbon atoms: A. Butiryl - SCoA B. Propionyl-SCoA *C. Acetyl-SCoA D. Acetoacetyl - SCoA E. Malonyl - SCoA The energy yield by stearic acid oxidation is: A. 96 *B. 146 C. 129 D. 12 E. 38 Choose the products for one round of stearic acid beta-oxidation: A. 129 ATP *B. 1 palmitoyl CoA, 1 acetyl CoA, 1 FADH2, 1 NADH C. 2 acetyl CoA, 2 FADH2, 1 ATP D. 1 Oleyl CoA, 12 ATP E. 1 stearyl CoA, 1 acetyl CoA, 1 FADH2, 1 NADH Point out the process or reaction where acetone is formed as end- product: A. Decarboxylation of beta-hydroxybutyric acid B. Synthesis of HFA *C. Decarboxylation of acetoacetic acid D. Beta-oxidation of HFA E. Condensation of two acetyl-CoA molecules There is a tissue hypoxia at myocardial ischemia in the patient. Name the process of lipid metabolism, whose rate is reduced in the myocardium at this state: A. Ketone body synthesis *B. Beta-oxidation of high fatty acids C. Cardiolipin synthesis D. Phospholipid synthesis E. Fat lipolysis Point out the biological role of carnitine in cells: A. The enzyme inhibitor B. Allosteric activator of enzymes C. The component of respiratory chain D. Antioxidant *E. Transporter of fatty acid across the mitochondrial membranes A microsomal enzyme system is responsible for the formation of some unsaturated fatty acids. Point out an enzyme of the system: A. Coenzyme Q-cytochrome c reductase B. Succinate coenzyme Q reductase C. Cytochrome oxidase D. NADH coenzyme Q reductase *E. NADH-cytochrome b5 reductase The removal of two-carbon units from a fatty acyl CoA involves four sequential reactions. Which of the following reaction sequences is correct for the pathway of beta-oxidation: A. Oxidation, dehydration, oxidation, cleavage B. Hydrogenation, dehydration, hydrogenation, cleavage C. Reduction, hydration, dehydrogenation, cleavage D. Reduction, dehydration, reduction, cleavage *E. Dehydrogenation, hydration, dehydrogenation, cleavage Find out the main substrates for the use by elongase system during the formation of stearyl CoA from palmitoyl CoA: A. Acetyl CoA, NADH, palmitoyl CoA B. Malonyl CoA, NADH, palmitoyl CoA C. Glycerol, NADPH, palmitoyl CoA *D. Malonyl CoA, NADPH, palmitoyl CoA E. Acetyl CoA, NADPH, palmitoyl CoA What compound production and utilization become more significant during starvation? A. Uric acid B. Triacylglycerols C. Fatty acids D. Glycogen *E. Ketone bodies Which of the following steps is involved in the formation of glucose from lipolysis product? A. Glycerol from lipolysis is converted to triacylglycerols B. Fatty acids from lipolysis are oxidized, producing FADH2 and stimulating gluconeogenesis *C. 2 glycerols from lipolysis are phosphorylated, converted in a few steps to fructose-1,6bisphosphate, and eventually converted to glucose D. Fatty acids from lipolysis are converted to glucose E. 2 glycerols from lipolysis are taken up by liver cells and dimerized to fructose Which of the following organs (tissues) cannot use ketone bodies: *A. Liver B. Brain C. Myocardium D. Skeletal muscle E. Kidney Point out the substrate for acyl-CoA-dehydrogenase (beta-oxidation of HFA): A. Beta-ketoacyl-SCoA B. Acetyl-SCoA *C. Butyryl-SCoA D. Beta-hydroxyacyl-SCoA E. Enoyl-SCoA It is established, that beta-oxidation of high fatty acids is carried out by multienzyme complex in cells. Choose the enzyme that is not the component of this complex: A. Thiolase *B. Aldolase C. Enoyl – CoA - hydratase D. Acyl-CoA-dehydrogenase E. 3-Hydroxy-acyl-CoA-dehydrogenase It is established, that the high fatty acid radical is lengthened in two carbon atoms by palmitate synthetase complex action each cycle. Point out the donor of these two carbon atoms during the synthesis: A. Lauryl-CoA B. Acetyl-CoA C. Stearyl-CoA D. Palmityl-CoA *E. Malonyl-CoA In uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, acetoacetic acid and beta-hydroxybutyric acid are produced in: *A. Liver B. Brain C. Kidneys D. Pancreas E. Small intestine A sportsman was recommended to take a medication that contains carnitine in order to improve his results. What process is activated by carnitine the most? A. Synthesis of steroid hormones B. Tissue respiration C. Synthesis of proteins D. Synthesis of ketone bodies *E. Fatty acids transport to mitochondria The most important source of reducing equivalents (NADPH) for fatty acid synthesis in the liver is: A. Oxidation of glucuronic acid B. Glycolysis C. The citric acid cycle D. Oxidation of acetyl CoA *E. The pentose phosphate pathway Which of the following substances is immediate precursor of acetoacetate in pathway ketogenesis? A. Beta-hydroxybutyryl CoA *B. Beta-hydroxy-beta-methylglutaryl CoA C. Acetyl CoA D. Beta-hydroxybutyrate E. Acetoacetyl CoA A 1 y.o. child with symptoms of muscle affection was admitted to the hospital. Examination revealed carnitine deficiency in muscles. Biochemical base of this pathology is disturbed process of: *A. Transporting of fatty acids to the matrix of mitochondria B. Substrate phosphorylation C. Actin and myosin synthesis D. Regulation of Ca2+ level in mitochondria E. Lactic acid utilization Which of the following statements describes correctly ketone bodies? A. They are most important nutrients for liver B. They are accumulated in children with fatty acid oxidation disorders C. They are produced by muscle but not by liver *D. They include beta-hydroxybutyrate, acetoacetate and acetone E. They are accumulated at diabetes mellitus after insulin therapy The formation of the “active form” of a fatty acid is endergonic process in which the ATP energy is consumed. But there is another necessary participant of the fatty acid activation. Choose it: *A. CoASH B. Succinyl CoA C. Acetyl CoA D. UTP E. GTP Acetyl CoA carboxylase is key enzyme in fatty acid synthesis. Point out the coenzyme of this enzyme: *A. Biotin B. CoASH C. NADH D. Phosphopantetheine E. FADH2 Point out the cellular location of saturated HFA synthesis: A. Mitochondrion B. Endoplasmic reticulum *C. Cytoplasm D. Nucleus E. Plasmolemma In Niemann-Pick`s disease the following substances accumulate in CNS in excess levels: A. Lysophosphingosides B. Triacylglycerols C. Cholesterol esters D. Phosphoinositides *E. Sphingomyelins The analysis of the blood of the patient has revealed the considerable growth of VLDL and autoimmune LDL levels. Specify the pathology that can be in the patient: A. Acromegaly B. Viral hepatitis *C. Atherosclerosis D. Phenylketonuria E. Diabetes insipidus Which of the following is found in conjugation with bile acids: A. Pregnenolone B. Hydrochloric acid C. Cholyl acetyl-CoA *D. Glycine E. Cholic acid Find out pathological state associated with hypercholesterolemia in patient: A. Hypothyroidism B. Nephritic syndrome C. Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus *D. All the answers are right E. Cholestasis Point out the drug used for the decrease of cholesterol level in the blood of patients - allosteric inhibitor for key enzyme of cholesterol synthesis: A. Barbiturate *B. Lovastatin C. Antimicin A D. Aspirin E. Indomethacin Choose the factor that can cause the 7-dehydrocholesterol conversion into vitamin D3 (in skin, only): A. Hydroxylase action B. The accumulation of cholesterol C. Low levels of oxygen in the blood *D. UV-light E. Cytochrome P450 Choose the value of Cholesterol (LDL) + Cholesterol (VLDL)/ Cholesterol(HDL) ratio which is peculiar to healthy people: A. 0.5-1.0 *B. 2.0-2.5 C. 8.0-10.0 D. 6.0-8.0 E. 4.0-6.0 The patient with diabetes mellitus has been delivered in hospital in the state of unconsciousness. Arterial pressure is low. The patient has acidosis. Point substances, which accumulation in the blood results in these manifestations: A. Amines B. Monosaccharides *C. Ketone bodies D. Cholesterol esters E. High fatty acids Cholesterol is the precursor for synthesis of all pointed below hormones except: A. Cortisol *B. Insulin C. Aldosterone D. Testosterone E. Progesterone Point out the hormone that decreases the rate of lipolysis in adipose tissue: A. Somatotropin B. Glucagon *C. Insulin D. Epinephrine E. ACTH The inhibition of one liver enzyme in cholesterol synthesis was after surplus intake of fat meat. Name this enzyme: A. Acetyl - CoA- acetyl transferase B. Mevalonate kinase C. Squalene oxygenase D. Isopentenyl pyrophosphate isomerase *E. Beta-hydroxy-beta-methyl-glutaryl-CoA-reductase A 67-year old male patient consumes eggs, pork fat, butter, milk and fatty meal. Blood test results: cholesterol – 12,3 mmol/l, total lipids – 8,2 g/l, increased low-density lipoprotein fraction (LDL). What type of hyperlipoproteinemia is observed in the patient? A. Cholesterol, hyperlipoproteinemia B. Hyperlipoproteinemia type IIb C. Hyperlipoproteinemia type IV D. Hyperlipoproteinemia type I *E. Hyperlipoproteinemia type IIa Point out the atherogenic lipoproteins: *A. Low density lipoproteins B. Fatty acid-albumins complex C. Nascent chylomicrones D. Remnant chylomicrones E. High density lipoproteins Which of the following statements explains correctly metabolic alterations that are specific for persons disposed to obesity beside people having standart weight? A. Rate of fatty acid beta-oxidation is much less *B. There is any genetic defect in leptin C. Calorie intake is much less D. Rate of Krebs cycle reactions is higher E. Coupling of respiration with oxidative phosphorylation is much more Examination of cell culture got from a patient with lysosomal pathology revealed accumulation of great quantity of lipids in the lysosomes. What of the following diseases is this disturbance typical for? A. Gout *B. Tay-Sachs disease C. Wilson disease D. Galactosemia E. Phenylketonuria All hereinafter stated compounds are products of cholesterol catabolic conversion except one. Choose it: A. Mineralocorticoids *B. Glucuronic acid C. Glucocorticoids D. Chenodeoxycholic acid E. Cholic acid What plasma lipoproteins, whose levels rise, are inversely correlated with atherosclerosis? : A. Fatty acid-albumins complex B. Remnant chylomicrones *C. Low density lipoproteins D. High density lipoproteins E. Nascent chylomicrones The rate limiting enzyme in bile acid synthesis is: A. HMG-CoA synthetase B. HMG-Co-A reductase *C. 7-Alpha hydroxylase D. 7-Beta hydroxylase E. Decarboxylase One of the factors that cause obesity is the inhibition of fatty acids oxidation due to: A. Excessive consumption of fatty foods *B. Low level of carnitine C. Impaired phospholipids synthesis D. Lack of carbohydrates in the diet E. Choline deficiency Find out the coenzyme used in some reactions of cholesterol synthesis: *A. NADPH B. NADH C. FAD D. Biotin E. Pyridoxal phosphate The synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol takes place: A. It is not synthesized in mammals B. In the intestine from cholecalciferol *C. In the kidney from 25-hydroxycholecalciferol D. In the skin under action of ultraviolet light from 7-dehydrocholesterol E. In the liver from cholecalciferol The enzyme system for cholesterol biosynthesis is located in the: A. Cytosol and mitochodrial membrane *B. Cytosol and EPR (smooth part) C. Golgi apparatus D. Plasma membrane E. Mitochodrial matrix All of the following statements regarding hypercholesterolemia (type IIa hyperlipidemia) are correct except: A. The blood serum low density lipoprotein (LDL) levels are high B. It is due to a deficiency of LDL receptors C. There is an increased risk of coronary artery disease *D. The blood serum triacylglycerol levels are elevated E. The blood serum cholesterol levels are increased Which statement is not associated with situation of fat deposition? A. Blood free fatty acid levels are elevated B. Insulin secretion is increased C. Lipoprotein lipase activity is increased *D. Hormone sensitive triacylglycerol lipase activity is increased E. Blood VLDL and chilomicrone levels are elevated Choose the incorrect statement related to biological role of cholesterol: A. It is precursor for bile salts B. It is a structural component of membrane C. It is precursor for glucocorticoids D. It is precursor for sex hormones E. It is an energy source for cells Find out the vitamin derivative that is synthesized from cholesterol in humans: A. Progesterone B. Cholesterol ester C. Testosterone *D. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol E. Estradiol The main chemical compounds for cholesterol synthesis are: A. Malonyl CoA, NADPH, ATP B. Acetyl CoA, GTP, pantothenate *C. Acetyl CoA, NADPH, ATP D. Glycerol, phosphate, choline E. Acyl CoA, carnitine, ATP The liver is major site of cholesterol biosynthesis, although other tissues are also active in this regard. The terminal products of cholesterol catabolism in the liver play the important role during lipids intake in human organism Point out these products: *A. Bile acids B. Corticosteroids C. Catecholamines D. Cholanic acid E. Acetyl - SCoA Liebermann-Burchardt reaction is used for the identification of : A. Glucose *B. Cholesterol C. Urea D. Prostaglandins E. Galactose Choose the key metabolite that combines carbohydrates catabolic pathways with anabolic processes in lipids metabolism: *A. Acetyl~SCoA B. Alanine C. Serine D. Mevalonate E. Pyruvate A 12-year old patient was found to have blood serum cholesterol at the rate of 25 mmol/l. The boy has a history of hereditary familial hypercholesterolemia, which is caused by the impaired synthesis of the following protein receptors to: A. High density lipoproteins B. Chylomicrons C. Very low density lipoproteins *D. Low density lipoproteins E. Intermediate density lipoproteins A patient underwent a course of treatment for atherosclerosis. Laboratory tests revealed an increase in the anti-atherogenic lipoprotein fraction in the blood plasma. The treatment efficacy is confirmed by the increase in: A. Chylomicrons B. VLDL C. LDL D. IDL *E. HDL The best marker for dislipidemia is: A. Serum cholesterol B. Cholesterol/HDL C. Cholesterol/TG D. Blood cholesterol *E. LDL/HDL Gaucher`s disease is due to the accumulation of: A. Sphingomyelin B. Glucose C. Galactose *D. Glucocerebroside E. Triacylglycerol The conversion of cholesterol catalyzed by 7alpha-hydroxylase is inhibited by: *A. Bile acids B. Testosterone C. Glycine and taurine D. Calcitriol E. Cortisol One of the following is scavenger of cholesterol from tissue and prevents atherosclerosis: A. Chylomicrons B. Carnitine *C. HDL D. VLDL E. LDL Which of the following descriptions related to serotonin pathway isn’t correct? A. The largest amount of serotonin is synthesized in the intestinal cells B. Serotonin synthesis lowering in the brain causes depression *C. The second enzyme of the pathway is biotin-dependent aromatic amino acid decarboxylase D. The first enzyme of the pathway is tetrahydrobiopterin-dependent hydroxylase E. Serotonin is synthesized from thyptophan An inhibitory mediator is formed by the decarboxylation of glutamate in the CNS. Name it: A. Glutathione B. Asparagine C. Serotonine D. Histamine *E. GABA The tested enzyme is related to the class of oxidoreductases and contains the coenzyme NADPH. It takes part in the oxidative deamination of one of the amino acids and in the reductive amination of alpha– ketoglutarate. Point out it: A. D-Alanine oxidase B. Alanine transaminase *C. Glutamate dehydrogenase D. Aspartate transaminase E. Arginase Choose the enzyme of the blood plasma whose activity increases in ten or more times for 3-4 hours after myocardium infarction: A. Alkaline phoshatase B. Alanine transaminase C. Leucine aminopeptidase D. Aspartate transaminase E. Arginase Direct deamination is possible for two amino acids due to dehydratases (because of those amino acids side chain hydroxyl group is a good leaving group). Point out the amino acids: A. Glutamate, aspartate B. Cysteine, methionine C. Phenylalanine, tyrosine *D. Serine, threonine E. Arginine, histidine Utilization of amino acids from the body pool is possible in all following ways except one. Choose it: A. Biogenic amine formation B. Glucose and ketone bodies synthesis *C. Pyridoxal phosphate synthesis D. Purines production E. Porphyrins production D-amino acid oxidase is important for the convertion of unnatural (for human body but regularly taken in the diet from plants) D—amino acids to L-amino acids. What prosthetic group is non-protein part of the enzyme? *A. FAD B. Pyridoxal phosphate C. NADH D. NADPH E. TPP The coenzyme that participates in transamination reaction is: A. NADPH B. Coenzyme Q C. Coenzyme A *D. Pyridoxal phosphate E. Thiamine pyrophosphate Point out the liver enzyme, which takes part in second step of transdeamination of amino acid: A. L-Alanine oxidase B. Alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase C. Tryptophan hydroxylase D. Glutamate decarboxylase *E. Glutamate dehydrogenase The most important enzyme involved in oxidative deamination is: *A. Glutamate dehydrogenase B. Histidase C. Amino acid dehydrase D. L-amino acid oxidase E. D-amino acid oxidase The carbon skeletons of amino acids finally have one or more of the following fates except: *A. Synthesis of urea B. Synthesis of glucose C. Synthesis of non-essential amino acids D. Formation of fatty acid and ketone bodies E. Oxidation via Krebs cycle to produce energy Which of the following statements related to biological role of transamination is wrong? A. Collection finally nitrogen in glutamate for subsequent deamination and urea synthesis B. Production of non-essential amino acids C. Redistribution of amino groups D. Divergence the excess amino acids towards energy generation *E. Formation of biogenic amines Point out the vitamin, whose deficiency causes the violations in the transamination and decarboxylation of amino acids: A. Vitamin B9 B. Vitamin B1 *C. Vitamin B6 D. Vitamin B2 E. Vitamin C Which of the following coenzymes serves as a non-protein part of amino acid decarboxylase? A. Coenzyme A B. NADPH C. Biotin D. NADH *E. Pyridoxal phosphate Which of the following descriptions related to serotonin pathway isn’t correct? A. The first enzyme of the pathway is tetrahydrobiopterin-dependent hydroxylase B. The second enzyme of the pathway is pyridoxal phosphate-dependent aromatic amino acid decarboxylase C. The largest amount of serotonin is synthesized in the intestinal cells D. Serotonin synthesis lowering in the brain causes depression *E. Serotonin is synthesized from tyrosine Glutamate decarboxylation results in the formation of inhibitory transmitter in CNS. Name it: A. Glutathione B. Serotonin C. Histamine *D. Gamma amino butyric acid E. Asparagine The entry point into the citric acid cycle for isoleucine, valine, and the product of odd-chain fatty acids beta-oxidation is: A. Oxaloacetate B. Pyruvate C. Fumarate D. Citrate *E. Succinyl CoA Immediate products of pyruvate metabolism (using one reaction only) are all except: A. Alanine B. Lactate C. Oxaloacetate D. Acetyl-CoA *E. 2-Phosphoglycerate Point out the liver enzyme catalyzing the reversible oxidative deamination: *A. Glutamate dehydrogenase B. Alanine transaminase C. Monoamino oxidase D. Aspartate transaminase E. Arginase Point out the enzyme, whose activity is determined in the blood plasma during the unicteric period of viral hepatitis: *A. Alanine transaminase B. Creatine phosphokinase C. Glutamate dehydrogenase D. Ornithine carbomoylphoshate transferase E. Phenylalanine hydroxylase Point out the glucogenic amino acids: A. Serine B. Aspartate C. Alanine D. Glutamate *E. All the positions are right A patient diagnosed with carcinoma of bowels was admitted to the hospital. Analysis revealed high production of serotonin. It is known that this substance is formed of tryptophan amino acid. What biochemical mechanism underlies this process? A. Desamination *B. Decarboxylation C. Microsomal oxidation D. Transamination E. Formation of paired compounds According to clinical indications a patient was administered pyridoxal phosphate. What process is this medication intended to correct? A. Synthesis of purine and pyrimidine bases. B. Protein synthesis C. Oxidative decarboxylation of ketoacids D. Deamination of purine nucleotide *E. Transamination and decarboxylation of amino acids Name the ketogenic amino acids: A. Alanine, arginine B. Cysteine, glycine *C. Leucine, lysine D. Arginine, asparagine E. Glutamate, aspartate Most amino acids undergo transamination to concentrate finally nitrogen in two amino acids, only, for subsequent urea formation. Choose these amino acids: A. Lysine, proline *B. Glutamate, aspartate C. Arginine, histidine D. Alanine, phenylalanine E. Serine, tyrosine Choose the enzyme, whose genetic defect results in the GABA (Gamma-Amino Butyric Acid) levels decrease in the brain: *A. Glutamate decarboxylase B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase C. Tryptophan decarboxylase D. Histidine decarboxylase E. Alanine hydroxylase Human Glutamate dehydrogenase is predominantly located in the: A. Outer mitochondrial membrane B. Cytosol *C. Mitochondrial matrix D. Inner mitochondrial membrane E. Endoplasmic reticulum Glutamate dehydrogenase is controlled by allosteric regulation. Point out the inhibitors of this enzyme: A. NADH, NADPH B. NAD+, NADP+ *C. ATP, GTP D. AMP, ADP E. ADP, GDP In course of histidine catabolism a biogenic amine is formed that has powerful vasodilatation effect. Name it: A. Serotonin B. Dopamine *C. Histamine D. Dioxyphenylalanine E. Noradrenalin It is known that the monoamine oxidase (MAO) enzyme plays an important part in the metabolism of catecholamine neurotransmitters. In what way this enzyme inactivates these neurotransmitters (norepinephrine, epinephrine, dopamine)? A. Carboxylation B. Addition of an amino group *C. Oxidative deamination D. Hydrolysis E. Removal of a methyl group Nor-epinephrine is produced (in mammals) from: A. Pyruvate B. Tryptamine *C. Tyrosine D. Arginine E. Tryptophan A newborn child was found to have reduced intensity of sucking, frequent vomiting, hypotonia. Urine and blood exhibit increased concentration of citrulline. What metabolic process is disturbed? A. Glyconeogenesis B. Cori cycle C. Glycolysis D. Tricarboxylic acid cycle *E. Ornithinic (Urea) cycle The child has the genetic defect of one enzyme. It was proved by the appearance of phenylpyruvate in the urine. Point out this enzyme: A. Glycine amidase B. 5-tryptophan hydroxylase C. Tyrosine hydroxylase D. Proline hydroxylase *E. Phenylalanine 4-monooxygenase If urine sample darkens on standing, most likely diagnosis for patient is: *A. Alkaptonuria B. Phenylketonuria C. Diabetes mellitus D. Albinism E. Maple syrup urine desease Phenylketonuria is due to the absence of certain enzyme. Choose the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme: A. Homogentisic acid oxidation B. Tyrosine deamination C. Tyrosine iodination *D. Phenylalanine hydroxylation E. Conversion of tyrosine to dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA) One of hereinafter stated compounds forms a connecting link between urea cycle and Krebs cycle via oxaloacetate. Point out it: A. Phenylalanine B. Alanine *C. Aspartate D. Tryptophan E. Glutamate Albinism is due to the lack of special enzyme in melanocytes. Name it: A. Homogentisate oxydase B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase C. Tyrosine decarboxylase *D. Tyrosinase E. Kynureninase Which of the following functions is not specific for glutathione: A. It protects a cell against cytotoxic H2O2 being coenzyme of glutathione peroxidase B. It serves as coenzyme for certain enzymes e.g. prostaglandine PGE2 synthase *C. It serves as a storage and transport form of NH3 D. It prevents the oxidation of sulfhydryl groups of several proteins to disulfide groups E. It is involved in the transport of amino acids across cellular membrane in the intestine and kidney Albinism is due to deficiency of the following enzyme: A. Tyrosine transaminase B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase C. Tyrosine decarboxylase D. Homohentisic acid oxidase *E. Tyrosinase Point out the pathology that is estimated in patients with genetic deficiency of dihydrobiopterin reductase: A. Diabetes mellitus B. Gout C. Classic phenylketonuria D. Ishemic heart disease *E. Phenylketonuria type II Choose the type of infringement in pathology named alkaptonuria: A. The damage of receptor synthesis B. The inhibition of amino acid formation C. The viral damage of hepatocyte *D. Genetic deficiency of enzyme E. The renal insufficiency Three biogenic amines are formed during the metabolism of tyrosine. Point out one of them: A. Serotonin B. Thiamine *C. Adrenalin D. Histamine E. Thyroxin The most direct precursor of taurine is: A. Tyrosine B. Glutathione C. Glycine D. Methionine *E. Cysteine N-acetylglutamate is activator for one enzyme involved in urea formation. Choose it: A. Argino-succinate synthase *B. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I C. Argino-succinase D. Ornithine transcarbamoylase E. Arginase Name an amino acid which is precursor in the synthesis of some hormones in human body: A. Alanine *B. Tyrosine C. Arginine D. Serine E. Lysine Melanin may be synthesized from: A. Tryptophan *B. Phenylalanine C. Serine D. Cysteine E. Methionine A 4 y.o. boy has had recently serious viral hepatitis. Now there are such clinical symptoms as vomiting, unconsciousness, fits. There is hyperammoniemia in patient, too. Disturbance of which biochemical process caused such pathological condition of the patient? A. Activation of amino acid decaboxylation B. Inhibition of transamination enzymes *C. Disturbed neutralization of ammonia in the liver D. Increased putrefaction of proteins in bowels E. Disturbed neutralization of biogenic amines Citrullinemia accompanied with vomiting, mental retardation, convulsions. Which urea cycle enzyme hereditary defect is a cause of mentioned disturbances? A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthase I B. Arginosuccinase C. Arginase D. Ornithine transcarbamoylase *E. Arginosuccinate synthase Alkaptonuria is due to the deficiency of one enzyme in human tissues. Choose it A. Tyrosinase B. Phenylalanine hydroxylase C. Dihydroxyphenylalanine (DOPA) decarboxylase D. DOPA oxidase *E. Homogentisate oxydase After a serious viral infection a 3-year-old child has repeated vomiting, loss of consciousness, convulsions. Examination revealed hyperammoniemia. What may have caused changes of biochemical blood indexes of this child? A. The increased putrefaction of proteins in intestines B. Activated processes of amino acids decarboxylation C. The inhibited activity of enzymes for transamination D. Disorder of biogenic amines neutralization *E. Disorder of ammonia neutralization in ornithine cycle Choose the hormone that is formed from tryptophan: *A. Melatonin B. Thyroxin C. Epinephrine D. Histamine E. Nor-epinephrine Point out the coenzyme used for hydroxylases structure in phenylalanine and tyrosine conversions: A. NADPH B. Dihydrobiopterin *C. Tetrahydrobiopterin D. Biotin E. FAD Maple syrup urine disease is due to a defect in the enzyme complex which catalyzes oxidative decarboxylation reaction and is similar to any other alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complexes in composition. Some patients who exhibit the symptoms of this disease respond to therapeutic doses of hereinafter stated vitamins. Point out it: *A. Thiamine B. Pyridoxine C. Cobalamine D. Biotin E. Ascorbic acid Cerebral trauma caused the increase of ammonia formation. What amino acid takes part in removal of ammonia from cerebral tissue? A. Valine *B. Glutamic acid C. Tryptophan D. Lysine E. Туrosine Nappies of a newborn have dark spots that witness the presence of homogentisic acid oxidation product. Choose the substance whose metabolic disorder is associated with accumulation of homogentisic acid in the organism: A. Cholesterol *B. Tyrosine C. Galactose D. Methionine E. Tryptophan The amino acids required for the formation of glutathione are: A. Glutamate, aspartate, arginine *B. Glycine, cysteine, glutamate C. Valine, leucine, isoleicine D. Cysteine, methionine, proline E. Serine, Tyrosine, tryptophan Glycine is used for synthesis of: *A. All the proposed options are correct B. Hemoglobin C. Glutathione D. Purine E. Creatine Try to choose the index of blood plasma used for estimation of liver function in utilization of ammonia: A. Uric acid concentration *B. Urea content C. Glucose concentration D. Pyruvic acid content E. Ketone bodies content Point out the pathologic state that may be estimated in patients with genetic defect of Phenylalanine -4- hydroxylase: A. Hypercholesterinemia *B. Aminoaciduria C. Glucosemia D. Dislipoproteinemia E. Hyperuricemia A 4 y.o. child with signs of durative proteinic starvation was admitted to the hospital. The signs were as follows: Growth inhibition, anemia, oedema, mental deficiency. Choose the cause of oedema development: *A. Reduced synthesis of albumins B. Reduced synthesis of globulins C. Reduced synthesis of glycoproteins D. Reduced synthesis of lipoproteins E. Reduced synthesis of hemoglobin Which of the following compounds is not a catabolic product of tryptophan? A. Melatonin B. Tryptamine C. Serotonin *D. Melanin E. Kynurenine Choose the blood plasma index that is used in screening of newborn for phenylketonuria estimation: A. Pyruvate B. Acetoacetate *C. Phenylalanine D. Uric acid E. Dihydroxyphenylalanine Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate? A. Two ATP may be consumed for its synthesis B. This synthesis is catalyzed by carbamoyl phosphate synthases *C. Mitochondrial carbamoyl phosphate synthase requires aspartate for its activity D. It is the key reaction for urea formation E. The nitrogen source can be either ammonia or glutamine Albinos can't stand sun impact – they don't require sun-tan but get sunburns. Disturbed metabolism of what amino acid underlies this phenomenon? A. Methionine B. Glutamic acid C. Tryptophan D. Histidine *E. Phenylalanine Point out the cofactor required for the tyrosine formation from phenylalanine: A. Coenzyme A *B. Tetrahydrobiopterin C. Lipoic acid D. Tetrahydrofolate E. Coenzyme Q The major source of ammonia in the kidneys is: A. Aspartate B. Glutamate *C. Glutamine D. Urea E. Histidine Point out the index of the blood plasma that is used for the estimation of liver parenchyma damage: *A. Urea B. Glucose C. Free amino acids D. Ca2+ E. Cholesterol ester Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning synthesis of carbamoyl phosphate? A. It is the key reaction for urea formation *B. This synthesis is catalyzed by ornithine transcarbamoylase C. Two ATP may be consumed for its synthesis D. It is mediated by different enzymes in the cytosol and mitochondria of the liver E. The nitrogen source can be either ammonia or glutamine A boy (of 10 years) complains of general weakness, dizziness, and tiredness. A mental retardation is observed. A concentration of valine, leucine, isoleucine is high in blood and urine. Urine has a specific odour. Name the probable diagnosis: *A. Maple syrup urine disease B. Histidinemia C. Tyrosinemia D. Basedow’s disease E. Addison’s disease Point out the enzyme whose deficiency causes the hyperammonemia state in patient: A. L-Alanine oxidase B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase C. Aspartate transaminase *D. Ornithine transcarbamoylase E. Arginine transaminase Find out the main important pathway for ammonia utilization in the brain: A. Amino acid decarboxylation *B. Urea formation C. Conversion into glucose D. Ammonia salts formation E. Synthesis of glutamine from alpha-ketoglutarate The brain ammonia isn’t neutralized through the formation of urea. Name the terminal product of ammonia neutralization in the brain: A. Carbamoyl phosphate B. Alanine C. Urea D. Aspartic acid *E. Glutamine Urea is produced by single enzyme. Point out it: A. Uricase B. Urease C. Glutaminase D. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase *E. Arginase Maple syrup urine disease is due to deficiency of: A. Decarboxylase B. Dehydroxylase C. Transaminase *D. Alpha-keto acid dehydrogenase complex E. Deaminase The urine of patient with alkaptonuria contains: A. None of the above B. Phenylalanine C. Acetates *D. Homogentisic acid E. Ketones Point out the vitamin derivative that may be synthesized from tryptophan: *A. NADH B. FMN C. FAD D. CoASH E. Carboxybiotin Which one of the following amino acids can be converted to an intermediate of either the Krebs cycle or urea cycle? A. Tyrosine B. Tryptophan C. Leucine *D. Aspartate E. Lysine Xanthurenic acid is a product of metabolism of: *A. Tryptophan B. Uric acid C. Xanthine D. Glucuronic asid E. Urea Human red blood cells do not contain mitochondria. What is the main pathway for ATP production in these cells? A. Creatine kinase reaction B. *Anaerobic glycolysis C. Cyclase reaction D. Aerobic glycolysis E. Oxidative phosphorylation A 67-year-old male patient consumes eggs, pork fat, butter, milk and meat. Bleed test results: cholesterol – 12.3 mmol/l, total lipids – 8.2 g/l, increased low-density lipoprotein fraction (LDL). What type of hyperlipoproteinemia is observed in the patient? A. Hyporlipoproteinemia type I. B. Hyperlipoproteinemia type IV C. Cholesterol, hyperlipoproteinemia D. Hyperlipoproteinemia type IIa E. *Hyperlipoproteinemia type IIb Feces of the patient contain high amount of undissociated fats and have grayish-white color. Specify the cause of this phenomenon: A. Hypovitaminosis B. *Obturation of bile duct C. Irritation of intestinal epithelium D. Enteritis E. Hypoactivation of pepsin by hydrochloric acid A 39-year-old female patient with a history of diabetes was hospitalized in a comatose state for diabetic ketoacidosis. This condition had been caused by an increase of the following metabolite level: A. Alpha-ketoglutarate B. Citrate C. *Acetoacetate D. Malonate E. Aspartate It has been found out that one of pesticide components is sodium arsenate that blocks lipoic acid. What enzyme activity is impaired by this pesticide? A. Glutathione reductase B. *Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex C. Glutathione peroxidase D. Methemoglovin reductase E. Microsomal oxidation Those organisms which in the process of evolution failed to protection from H2O2 can exist only in anaerobic conditions. Which of the following enzymes can break hydrogen peroxide down? A. Oxygenase and hydroxylase B. Oxygenase and catalase C. Cytochrome oxidase, cytochrome b5 D. Flavin-dependent oxidase E. *Peroxidase and catalase A child has a history of hepatomegaly, hypoglycemia, seizures, especially on an empty stomach, and in stressful situations. The child is diagnosed with Gierke’s disease. This disease is caused by the generic defect of the following enzyme: A. Glucokinase B. Glycogen phosphorulase C. Amyloid-1,6-glycosidase D. Phosphoglucomutase E. *Glucose-6-phosphatase Disruption of nerve fiber myelinogenesis causes neurological disorders and mental retardation. These symptoms are typical for hereditary and acquired alterations in the metabolism of: A. Phosphatidic acid B. Cholesterol C. *Sphingolipids D. Neutral fats E. Higher fatty acids Prolonged fasting causes hypoglycemia which is amplified by alcohol consumption, as the following process is inhibited: A. Proteolysis B. Glycogenolysis C. *Gluconeogenesis D. Lipolysis E. Glycolysis Steatosis is caused by the accumulation of triacylglycerols in hepatocytes. One of the mechanisms of this disease development is a decrease in the utilization of VLDL neutral fat. What lipotropic factors intake with food prevent the development of steatosis? A. Valine, B3, B2 B. Arginine, B2, B3 C. Alanine B1, PP D. *Methionine, B6, B12 E. Isoleucine, B1, B2 Examination of a 56-year-old female patient with a history of type 1 diabetes revealed a disorder of protein metabolism that is manifested by aminoacidemia in the laboratory blood test values, and clinically by the delayed wound healing and decreased synthesis of antibodies. Which of the following mechanisms causes the development of aminoacidemia? A. *Increased proteolysis B. Decrease in the concentration of amino acids in blood C. Albuminosis D. Increase in the oncotic pressure in the blood plasma E. Increase in low-density lipoprotein level A patient with hereditary hyperammonemia due to a disorder of Ornithine cycle has developed secondary orotaciduria. The increased synthesis of orotic acid is caused by an increase in the following metabolite of Ornithine cycle: A. *Carbamoyl phosphate B. Citrulline C. Argininosuccinate D. Urea E. Ornithine A drycleaner’s worker has been found to have hepatic steatosis. This pathology may be caused by the disruption of synthesis of the following substance: A. *Phosphatidylcholine B. Cholic acid C. Tristearateglycerol D. Urea E. Phosphatidic acid Pancreas is known as a missed gland. Endocrine functions include production of insulin by beta cells. This hormone affects the metabolism of carbohydrates. What is its effect upon the activity of glycogen phosphorylase (GP) and glycogen synthase (GS)? A. It does not affect the activity of GP and GS B. *It suppresses GP and stimulates GS C. It stimulates GP and suppresses GS D. It suppresses both GP and GS E. It stimulates both GP and GS In case of alkaptonuria, homogentisic acid is excreted in urine in large amounts. The development of this disease is associated with a disorder of metabolism of the following amino acid: A. Phenylalanine B. Methionine C. Asparagine D. Alanine E. *Tyrosine Symptoms of pellagra (vitamin PP deficiency) is particularly pronounced in patients with low protein diet, because nicotinamide precursor in humans is one of the essential amino acids, namely: A. Lysine B. Threonine C. *Tryptophan D. Arginine E. Histidine A patient has been admitted to the contagious isolation ward with signs of jaundice caused by hepatitis virus. Which of the symptoms given below is strictly specific for hepatocellular jaundice? A. Bilirubinuria B. Cholemia C. Heperbilirubinemia D. *Increase of ALT, AST level E. Urobilinuria Decarboxylation of glutamate induces production of gamme-aminobutyric acid (GABA) neurotransmitter. After breakdown, GABA is converted into a metabolite of the Citric acid cycle, that is: A. Fumarate B. *Succinate C. Oxaloacetate D. Malate E. Citric acid Increased HDL levels decrease the risk of atherosclerosis. What is the mechanism of HDL antiatherogenic action? A. They activate the conversion of cholesterol to bile acids B. They are involved in the breakdown of cholesterol C. They promote absorption of cholesterol in the intestine D. They supply tissues with cholesterol E. *They remove cholesterol from tissues Submodule 3 Porphyrin is formed by joining together four pyrrole rings by means of _?___bridges: A. Hydroxy B. Propylene C. Phosphate *D. Methylene E. Hydrogen A patient with jaundice has high bilirubin that is mainly indirect (unconjugated), high concentration of stercobilin in the stool and urine. The level of direct (conjugated) bilirubin in the blood plasma is normal. What kind of jaundice can you think about? A. Mechanical *B. Hemolytic C. Gilbert’s disease D. Neonatal jaundice E. Parenchymal (hepatic) Bilirubin is produced from: A. Stercobilinogen *B. Haemoglobin C. Glucose D. Albumin E. Uric acid Which of the following can be a homologous substitution for N-terminal valine (6) in beta-subunits of hemoglobin to form hemoglobin S? A. Isoleucine B. Lysine C. Phenylalanine D. Alanine *E. Glutamic acid A full-term newborn child has yellowish skin and mucous membranes. This might be probably caused by temporary deficiency of following enzyme: A. Uridine transferase B. Heme synthetase C. Heme oxygenase *D. UDP glucoronyltransferase E. Biliverdin reductase Which of the following is a precursor of protoporphyrin? *A. Glycine B. Histidine C. Alanine D. Leucine E. Proline Name the hemoglobin derivative whose content is increased under carbon monoxide poisoning: A. Para-amino benzoic acid B. Carbhemoglobin C. Bilirubin IX *D. Carboxyhemoglobin E. 1,25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol Unloading of oxygen to tissue cells by oxy- Hb is assisted by: A. Bohr-affect B. 2-3 diphosphoglycerate C. None of the proposed *D. All proposed E. Low PO2 and high PCO2 in tissues A denaturation of proteins can be found in some substances. Specify the substance that is used for the incomplete denaturation of hemoglobin: *A. Urea B. Toluene C. Nitric acid D. Sulfuric acid E. Sodium hydroxide A patient presents with icteritiousness of skin, sclera and mucous membranes. Blood plasma total bilirubin content is increased, stercobilin is increased in feces, urobilin is increased in the urine of this patient. What type of jaundice is this one: A. Obturational *B. Hemolytic C. Cholestatic D. Parenchymatous E. Gilbert`s disease Patients having obstructive jaundice do not excrete this at all in urine: *A. Urobilinogen B. Urea C. Bilirubin D. Urate E. Glycocholate Heme synthesis is regulated by feedback mechanism. Choose the 5-aminolevulinate synthetase allosteric inhibitor: A. Porphobilinogen B. Protoporphyrin IX C. Coproporphyrin D. Vitamin C *E. Heme Jaundice treatment involves administration of barbiturates inducing the synthesis of UDP-glucuronyl transferase. Effects of barbiturates cause the production of : A. Indirect (unconjugated) bilirubin B. Heme C. Protoporphyrin D. Biliverdin *E. Direct (conjugated) bilirubin Examination of initial molecular structure revealed substitution of the glutamic acid by valine. What inherited pathology is it typical for? A. Minkowsky-Shauffard disease B. Favism C. Hemoglobinosis *D. Sickle-cell anemia E. Thalassemia Porphobilinogen in urine produces pink color with: A. Biuretic reagent B. Fouchet’s reagent *C. Ehrlich’s aldehyde reagent D. Benedict’s reagent E. Sodium nitroprusside Bilirubin glucuronide in the urine in the absence of urobilinogen suggests: A. Hepatocellular jaundice B. Congenital erythropoetic porphyria C. Porphyria cutanea tarda C. Porphyria cutanea tarda D. Hemolytic jaundice *E. Obstructive jaundice Enzymatic jaundices are accompanied by abnormal activity of UDP-glucuronyltransferase. What compound is accumulated in blood serum in case of these pathologies A. Dehydrobilirubin B. Conjugated bilirubin *C. Unconjugated bilirubin D. Hydrobilirubin E. Choleglobin A mother consulted a doctor about her 5-year-old child who develops erythemas, vesicular rash and skin itch under the influence of sun. Laboratory studies revealed decreased iron concentration in the blood serum, increased uroporphyrinogen I excretion with the urine. What is the most likely inherited pathology in this child? A. Methemoglobinemia B. Coproporphyria C. Intermittent porphyria D. Hepatic porphyria *E. Erythropoietic porphyria Name blood plasma index whose content is increased mainly under condition of hemolytic anemia in patient: A. Free amino acids B. Uric acid *C. Unconjugated bilirubin D. Conjugated bilirubin E. Urea The enzymes that synthesize delta-amino levulinate (from succinyl CoA and glycine) and produce pyruvate (from cysteine) are both: A. Flavoproteins B. NADH dependent D. Pyridoxal phosphate dependent E. Biotin dependent A 48 y.o. patient was admitted to the hospital with complaints about weakness, irritability, sleep disturbance. Objectively: skin and scleras are yellow. In blood: conjugated bilirubin, cholamia. Feces are acholic. Urine is of dark colour (bilirubin). What jaundice is it? A. Crigler-Najjar syndrome B. Hemolytic C. Parenchymatous D. Gilbert’s syndrome *E. Mechanic (obstractive) What color compound may be produced across hemoglobin degradation in the spleen of humans: A. Urea B. Uric acid *C. Biliverdin D. UDP-glucuronic acid E. Stercobilinogen Heme to bilirubin conversion is carried out by A. Heme dehydrogenase B. Heme reductase *C. Heme oxygenase D. Heme hydrolase E. Heme isomerase True regarding conversion of deoxyhemoglobin to oxyhemoglobin in lungs is: *A. Binding of oxygen causes release of proton *A. Binding of oxygen causes release of proton B. One mole of deoxyhemoglobin binds two moles of 2,3-DPG C. Binding of oxygen causes release of phosphate D. Binding of oxygen causes increased binding of 2,3-DPG E. pH of blood has no affect on the binding of oxygen A patient who suffers from congenital erythropoietic porphyria has skin photosensitivity. The accumulation of what compound in the skin cells can cause it? A. Uroporphyrinogen II B. Protoporphyrin C. Coproporphyrinogen III D. Heme *E. Uroporphyrinogen I Patients having obstructive jaundice do not excrete this at all in urine: A. Urate B. Bilirubin C. Glycocholate *D. Urobilionogen E. Urea Bilirubin is produced from: A. Albumin *B. Haemoglobin C. Uric acid D. Glucose E. Stercobilinogen Which of the following is seen in obstructive jaundice? A. Excess of bile salts in feces B. Excess of bile salts in the urine *C. Excess of conjugated serum bilirubin D. Excess of stercobilinogen in urine E. Excess of urobilinogen in urine Bilirubin indexes may be absolutely identical in cases of hepatic and obstructive jaundices. Choose the test that can confirm the liver parenchyma damage: A. Determination of glucose in the urine *B. Determination of alanine aminotransferase activity in the blood plasma C. Uric acid determination in blood plasma D. Determination of ketone bodies in the urine E. Determination of the glucose concentration in the blood plasma Hemoglobin catabolism results in release of iron which is transported to the bone marrow by a certain transfer protein and used again for the synthesis of hemoglobin. Specify this transfer protein: A. Haptoglobin B. Transcobalamin C. Ceruloplasmin *D. Transferrin (siderophilin) E. Albumin Carbon monoxide in the body is synthesized during *A. Breakdown of hemoglobin B. Ribosomal protein synthesis C. Synthesis of carnitine D. Gluconeogenesis E. Anaerobic glycolysis A 48-year-old patient was admitted to the hospital with complaints about weakness, irritability, sleep disturbance. Objectively: skin and scleras are of yellow colour. In blood: increased concentration of total bilirubin with prevailing direct bilirubin. The feces are acholic. The urine is dark (contains bile pigments). What type of jaundice is it? A. Gilbert’s syndrome B. Crigler-Najjar syndrome *C. Mechanic D. Parenchmatous E. Haemolytic Blood analysis of a patient with jaundice reveals hyperbilirubinemia, increased concentration of bile acids in the blood plasma. There is no stercobolinogen in urine. What type of jaundice is it? A. Parenchymatous jaundice *B. Obstructive jaundice C. Cythemolytic jaundice D. Hemolytic jaundice E. Hepatocellular jaundice A patient is ill with diabetes mellitus that is accompanied with hyperglycemia of over 7,2 millimole/L on an empty stomach. The level of what blood plasma protein can estimate the hyperglycemia rate retrospectively {4-8 weeks before examination}? A. C-reactive protein B. Albumin C. Fibrinogen *D. Glycosylated haemoglobin E. Ceruloplasmin Which one of the following is the complementary sequence of 5Т-TTAAGCTAC-3Т?: A. 5ТCCGGATCGT3Т *B. 5ТGTAGCTTAA3Т C. 5ТAATTCGCATG3Т D. 5ТCATGCGAATT3Т E. 5ТTTAAGCGTAC3Т Point out products of guanosine degradation in tissues formed at first reaction: A. Guanine, pyrophosphate *B. Guanine, ribose-5-phosphate C. Guanine, phosphate D. Ribose, phosphate E. Ribose, pyrophosphate Biological membrane contains all the following except A. Cholesterol B. Na+/K+-ATPase *C. Steroid receptors D. Prostaglandins E. Cytochrome P450 Deoxyribose is different from ribose by: *A. The absence of hydroxyl group at the second carbon atom B. The presence of hydroxyl group at the second carbon atom C. The presence of amino group D. The presence of hydroxyl group at the third carbon atom E. The quantity of carbon atoms Membrane fluidity is increased by increased content of: A. Stearic acid B. Cholesterol *C. Linoleic acid D. Lauric acid E. Palmitic acid Triple hydrogen bonds are found between which base pairs: A. A-T B. C-T C. A-G *D. C-G E. C-U Which of the following is responsible for increasing the fluidity of the membrane: A. Cholesterol B. Palmitic acid *C. Linoleic acid D. Cholesterol ester E. Stearic acid The basic protein, which functions in the packaging of DNA in chromosomes, is: A. Fibrinogen *B. Histone C. Collagen type I D. Collagen type V E. Hyaluronic acid binding protein Choose the qualitative reaction on carbohydrate residue of nucleic acids: *A. Diphenylamine test B. Biuretic reaction C. Millon`s reaction D. Barfed`s reaction E. Molybdenic test Nucleic acids have acid properties due to the presence of residues in their structure: A. Ribose B. Adenosine C. Guanine D. Deoxyribose *E. Phosphoric acid According to the model of double DNA helix that was suggested by Watson and Greek, it was astablished that one of chains would not be lost during replication and the second chain would be synthesized complementary to the first one. What way of replication is it? A. Conservative B. Analogous C. Dispersed *D. Semicomservative E. Identical Point out the role of proteins located in the cellular membrane: A. Glucose transport channel B. Enzyme *C. All the positions are right D. Ion transport channel E. To be receptor for hormone Choose the correct definition of the term Уmodified baseФ: A. A purin or pyrimidine attached to a sugar by O-glycoside linkage B. A nitrogen containing ring other than a purine or pyrimidine that is part of a nucleotide C. Purine or pyrimidine attached to deoxyribose D. Purine or pyrimidine attached to ribose *E. A purine or pyrimidine that has been altered The major driving force for the formation of membrane bilayer is A. Hydrogen bonding *B. All proposed C. Van der Waals forces D. Hydrophobic interactions E. Electrostatic attractions Which of the following membrane has the highest protein content per gram of tissue: A. Outer mitochondrial membrane *B. Inner mitochondrial membrane C. Nuclear membrane D. Plasma membrane E. Myelin sheath Due to complete hydrolysis of DNA, we will get all of the following except: A. Purine bases B. Deoxyribose C. Pyrimidine bases *D. Adenosine E. Phosphoric acid Nowadays about 50 minor bases have found in the t-RNA structure besides the main four nitrogenous bases. Choose the minor nitrogenous base: A. Cytosine B. Cysteine *C. Dihydrouracil D. Uracil E. Adenine Chargaff rule states that *A. A/T=G/C B. None of the above C. A+T=G+C D. A=U=T=G=C E. A+G=T+C At the physiological pH the DNA molecules are: *A. Negatively charged B. Amphipathic C. Positively charged D. Uncharged E. Neutral In a human genome project scientists notice, that one strand of the DNA molecule contains 20 thymine (T), 25 cytosine (C), 30 guanine (G) and 22 adenine (A) residues. How many of each of the bases is found in complete double-stranded molecule A. T=44, C=60, G=50, A=40 *B. T=42, C=55, G=55, A=42 C. T=42, C=50, G=60, A=42 D. T=40, C=50, G=60, A=44 E. T=22, C=30, G=25, A=20 The pyrimidine nucleotide UMP degradation end product in human organism is: A. Aspartic acid *B. Beta-alanine C. Inosinic acid D. Beta-aminoisobutyric acid E. Uric acid Beta-alanine is a degradation product of: A. Adenosine B. Thymidylate C. Albumin *D. Uridylate E. Guanylate A gout is developed in patients when the activity of certain enzyme of purine nucleotide de novo synthesis is higher (genetic defect of enzyme) then normal. Point out it: A. Adenylate cyclase B. 5’-nucleotidase C. Adenylic acid deaminase *D. PRPP aminotransferase E. Adenylsuccinate lyase Point out the index, whose concentration is determined in the blood plasma of patients with gout: *A. Uric acid B. Alpha-Alanine C. Urea D. Beta-Aminoisobutyric acid E. Beta-Alanine Call, please, special synthesis that may be considered as the way for ammonia neutralization in humans: A. Ammonia salts formation B. AMP synthesis *C. UMP synthesis D. NAD synthesis E. Protein synthesis Two carbon atoms and the nitrogen one of the imidazole fragment in purine base skeleton are got from only one amino acid in the de novo synthesis. Name it: A. Asparagine B. Folic acid *C. Glycine D. Aspartic acid E. Glutamic acid A 42-year-old man suffering from gout has increased level of urinary acid in blood. Allopurinol was prescribed to decrease the level of urinary acid. Competitive inhibitor of what enzyme is allopurinol? *A. Xanthine oxidase B. Guanine deaminase C. Hypoxanthine phosphoribosiltransferase D. Adenine phosphoribosiltransferase E. Adenosine deaminase Increased serum uric acid levels occur in: A. Lesh-Nyhan syndrome B. Von Gierke`s disease *C. All proposed D. Leukemia E. Disturbances of PRPP synthase regulation A gout is developed in patients when the activity of certain enzyme of purine nucleotide de novo synthesis is higher (genetic defect of enzyme) then normal. Point out it: A. Adenylsuccinate lyase B. Adenylic acid deaminase *C. PRPP aminotransferase D. Adenylate cyclase E. 5’-nucleotidase Pterin derivatives (aminopterin and methotrexate) are the inhibitors of dihydrofolate reductase so that Pterin derivatives (aminopterin and methotrexate) are the inhibitors of dihydrofolate reductase so that they inhibit the regeneration of tetrahydrofolic acid from dihydrofolate. These drugs inhibit the intermolecular transfer of monocarbon groups, thus suppressing the synthesis of following polymer: *A. DNA B. Homopolysaccharides C. Protein D. Gangliosides E. Glycosaminoglycans 46-year-old patient complains of pain in joints that becomes stronger the day before the weather changes. Blood examination revealed an increased concentration of uric acid. This substance is accumulated in the blood of the patient due to intensive degradation of the following substance: A. Thymidine monophosphate B. Cytidine monophosphate C. Uridine monophosphate D. Uridine triphosphate *E. Adenosine monophosphate The pyrimidine nucleotide synthesis features are all right except: A. The initial substrate (carbamoyl phosphate) may be formed from glutamine, CO2 with ATP use B. Synthesis starts with the aspartic acid C. Carbamoyl-phosphate synthase II is activated by PRPP *D. All the UMP nitrogen atoms are got from ammonia molecules E. Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate is used What enzyme deficiency will develop in a young male X-linked recessive disorder with hyperuricemia and mild retardation? A. Branch chain amino acids metabolites deficiency *B. Hypoxanthine phosphoribosyltransferase deficiency C. Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency D. Homogentisate oxidase defective enzymes E. Hypoxanthine phosphoribosyl oxidase deficiency Severe combined immunodeficiency disease is associated with deficiency of : A. DNA polymerase III B. Glucose-6-phosphatase *C. Adenosine deaminase D. Myeloperoxidase E. HGPRTase Terminal product of purine metabolism in non-primate mammals is: A. Urea B. Carbon dioxide and water *C. Allantoin D. Ammonia E. Uric acid An oncological patient was administered methotrexate. With the lapse of time the target cells of the tumour lost sensitivity to the preparation. We can observe changes in the gene expression of the following enzyme: A. Thiaminase B. Desaminase C. Folate oxidase *D. Dihydrofolate reductase E. Folate decarboxylase The UMP degradation in human tissues is associated with formation of: A. Beta-aminoisobutyric acid *B. Beta-alanine C. Inosinic acid C. Inosinic acid D. Aspartic acid E. Uric acid The terminal product of purine nucleotides catabolic pathways in humans is: A. Beta-aminoisobutyric acid *B. Uric acid C. Pyruvate D. Oxaloacetate E. Beta-alanine Children with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome have a severe form of hyperuricemia accompanied by the formation of tophi, urate calculi in the urinary tracts, as well as serious neuro-psychiatric disorders. The cause of this disease is the reduced activity of the following enzyme: A. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase B. Xanthine oxidase C. Dihydrofolate reductase *D. Hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase E. Thymidylate synthase Point out the amino acid used both in AMP and UMP de novo synthesis: A. Glutamic acid B. Inosinic acid C. Glycine *D. Aspartic acid E. Alanine Point out the vitamin that is actively used in the purine and pyrimidine nucleotide de novo syntheses: *A. Folic acid B. Pangamic acid C. Pantothenic acid D. Linolenic acid E. Ascorbic acid A doctor administered allopurinol to a 26-year-old young man with the symptoms of gout. What pharmacological action of allopurinol ensures therapeutical effect? A. By general analgetic effect B. By inhibiting of leucocyte migration into the joint C. By increasing of uric acid excretion D. By general anti-inflammatory effect *E. By inhibiting of uric acid formation Allopurinol is a drug used in the gout treatment. Point out the enzyme of purine nucleotide metabolism that is inhibited by it: A. 5’-nucleotidase B. Phosphoribosyl pyrophosphate synthetase *C. Xanthine oxidase D. Phosphoribosyl aminotransferase E. Adenosine deaminase It was found out that some compounds for instance fungi toxins and some antibiotics can inhibit activity of RNA-polymerase II. What process will be disturbed in eukaryotic cell in a case of inhibition of this enzyme? A. Processing B. Replication C. Reparation D. Translation *E. Transcription Which of the following is an example of a reverse transcriptase? A. Helicase B. RNA Polymerase C. DNA Polymerase D. Gyrase *E. Telomerase Okazaki fragment is: *A. DNA fragment with RNA head B. RNA fragment C. DNA fragment D. None E. RNA fragment with DNA head Methotrexate (structural analogue of the folic acid which is competitive inhibitor of the dihydrofolatreductase) is prescribed for treatment of the malignant tumour. On which level does methotrexate hinder synthesis of the nucleic acids? *A. Mononucleotide synthesis B. Replication C. Processing D. Transcription E. Reparation Poly (A) tail of eukaryotic m-RNA is translated into: A. Polyglycine B. Polymethionine *C. Polylysine D. Polyproline E. PolyalanineWorking Capital Management and profitability of manufacturing companies (Case study of Nigerian pharmaceutical industry)ause both: A. Use DNA polymerase III B. Are semi conserved events *C. Involve phosphodiester bond formation with elongation occurring in the 5’-3’ direction D. Use deoxyribonucleotides as precursors E. Use RNA primers for initiation An experiment proved that UV-radiated cells of patients with xeroderma pigmentosum restore the native DNA structure slower than cells of healthy individuals as a result of reparation enzyme defection. What enzyme helps this process? A. Primase B. DNA polymerase III C. DNA gyrase *D. Endonuclease E. RNA ligase During replication of DNA, which one of the following enzymes produces the Okazaki fragments? *A. DNA Polymerase III B. DNA Polymerase I C. RNA Polymerase I D. RNA Polymerase II E. DNA Polymerase II In some regions of South Africa there is a spread sickle-shaped cell anemia, in which erythrocytes have shape od a sickle as a result of substitution of glutamine by valine in the hemoglobin molecule. What is the cause of this disease? A. Disturbance of mechanisms of genetic information realization B. Crossingover C. Transduction D. Genomic mutations *E. Gene mutation Xeroderma pigmentosum is produced as a result of a defect in: A. DNA ligase B. DNA polymerase I *C. DNA exonuclease D. DNA polymerase III E. DNA polymerase II Restriction enzymes which have revolutionized the field of genetic engineering have been found in: A. Viruses B. Animals *C. Bacteria D. Plants E. Humans One of the following mutations is potentially lethal. Point out it: A. Substitution of adenine for cytosine B. Substitution of guanine for cytosine C. Transvertion D. Substitution of methylcytosine for cytosine *E. Insertion of one base In mammals, DNA synthesis occurs in which part of the cell cycle: A. G0 phase *B. S phase C. G1 phase D. M phase E. G2 phase DNA without introns is: A. Nuclear DNA B. C DNA C. Z DNA D. B DNA *E. Mitochondrial DNA Okazaki fragments are formed during the synthesis of: A. Leading strand of DNA B. rRNA *C. Legging strand of DNA D. tRNA E. mRNA Which of the following is not a post transcriptional modification of RNA? A. Splicing B. None of the above *C. Glycosylation D. 3’-polyadenylation E. 5’-capping Excessive ultraviolet radiation is harmful to life. The damage caused to the biological systems by ultraviolet radiation is by: A. Deamination of DNA *B. Formation of thymidine dimmers C. Inhibition of DNA synthesis D. Ionization E. DNA fragmentation The sigma subunit of prokaryotic RNA polymerase: A. Specifically recognizes the operator site B. Binds the antibiotic rifampicin *C. Specifically recognizes the promoter site D. Is inhibited by Alpha-amanitin E. Is part of the core enzyme Which of the following step is not a part of Polymerase Chain Reaction: A. Primer construction *B. Use of restriction endonucleases which leave double stranded DNA C. Denature of DNA D. Use of restriction endonucleases which leave single stranded DNA E. Chain extension by DNA polymerase and deoxyribonucleoside RNA-polymerase B (II) is blocked due to amanitin poisoning (poison of death-cup). What process is disturbed: *A. Synthesis of m-RNA B. Primer synthesis C. Synthesis of t-RNA D. Reverse transcription E. Maturation of m-RNA Which one of the following is the function of small nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles (SnRNP)? A. Termination of protein synthesis B. Initiation of protein synthesis *C. Processing of RNA D. Activation of amino acids E. Replication of DNA Transcription is inhibited by: *A. Amanitin B. Puromycin C. Chloramphenicol D. Streptomycin E. Sulfonylamide RNA that contains AIDS virus penetrated into a leukocyte and by means of reverse transcriptase forced a cell to synthesize a viral DNA. This process is based upon: A. Reverse translation B. Convariant replication C. Operon repression *D. Reverse transcription E. Operon depression Choose the main place for r-RNA production: *A. Nucleolus B. Endoplasmic reticulum C. Ribosome D. Cytoplasm E. Nucleus Choose the inhibitor of DNA synthesis from following list: A. Tetracycline B. Penicillin *C. Actinomycin D. Chloramphenicol E. Polymyxins What does restriction endonuclease cleave? A. Nucleoside A. Nucleoside B. Single stranded RNA *C. Double stranded DNA D. Polypeptide E. Single stranded DNA What is the average number of high energy bonds required for the synthesis of 1 peptide bond: A. _5 B. _1 *C. _4 D. _2 E. _3 Amino acid with a single codon is: A. Alanine B. Phenylalanine *C. Tryptophan D. Threonine E. Tyrosine All stated below are true about the genetic code except one. Choose it: *A. Punctuation is present B. Universal C. Degenerate D. Non overlapping E. High specific All amino acids are translated except one. Point out it: A. Alanine B. Tyrosine C. Proline D. Threonine *E. Hydroxyproline Leucine zipper motif is a mediator for: A. Membrane attack complexes B. Cyclic GMP C. Cyclic AMP *D. Binding of regulatory proteins to DNA E. Ligand membranes You are studying functioning of a bacteria operon. The operator gene has been released from the repressor. Immediately after his the following process will start in the sell: A. Processing B. Translation C. Repression D. Replication *E. Transcription Point out the chemical nature of gene: A. Glycoprotein B. Chromoprotein C. The fragment of Ribonucleic acid D. Lipoprotein *E. The fragment of Deoxyribonucleic acid Following organelles are involved in the formation of N-glycosylated product: A. Nucleolus B. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum C. Ribosomes C. Ribosomes D. Peroxisomes *E. Golgi apparatus In the DNA molecule the coding region reads 5’-CGT- 3’. This would code in the RNA as: A. 5’-GCA-3’ B. 5’-GCU-3’ *C. 5’-CGU-3’ D. 5’-UCG-3’ E. 5’-ACG-3’ Amber codon refers to: A. Initiating codon B. Codon for Alanine C. Codon for more than one amino acid D. Mutant codon *E. Stop codon CAP (Catabolite active gene protein) in Lac operon is an example of: A. Attenuation B. Negative regulator of transcription *C. Positive regulator of transcription D. Regulatory region of DNA E. Constitutive expression Minor base in t-RNA is: A. Orotic acid B. Adenine *C. Dihydrouracil D. Cystine E. Methyl xanthine Infection diseases are treated with antibiotics (streptomycin, erythromycin, chloramphenicol). They inhibit the following stage of protein synthesis: A. Transcription B. Processing C. Replication *D. Translation E. Splicing Choose the substance that can stimulate LAC-operon expression in E.coli: *A. Lactose B. Mannose C. Fructose D. Glucose E. Sucrose The degeneration of the genetic code is explained therefore: A. Each amino acid is coded for one triplet, only B. “Punctuation marks” are absent in the genetic code *C. Two or more triplets may be for one amino acid D. The Code is single for all biologic systems E. Genetic Code is composed of various triplets Choose a codon composition from following list: A. 2 complementary base pairs B. 4 complementary base pairs on RNA C. 2 individual nucleotides *D. 3 individual nucleotides E. 4 individual nucleotides Regarding сytosolic eukaryotic translation false is: *A. N-formyl -methionyl-tRNA will be the first to come into action B. eIF2 shifts between GDP & GTP C. The ribozime peptidyltransferase catalyses the formation of peptide bond D. Releasing factor releases the polypeptide chain from the P site E. Capping helps in attachment of mRNA to 40 S Ribosome The primary role of chaperones is to help in: *A. Protein folding B. Protein degradation C. None D. Protein denaturation E. Protein synthesis The two energy rich compounds utilized for protein biosynthesis are: *A. ATP and GTP B. GTP and UTP C. ATP and UTP D. ATP and CTP E. ATP and TTP A mutation in the codon which causes a change in the coded amino acid, is known as A. Somatic mutation *B. Missense mutation C. Recombination D. Mutagenesis E. Chromosomal inversions At the stage of translation in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, the ribosome moves along the mRNA. Amino acids are joined together by peptide bonds in a specific sequence, and thus polypeptide synthesis takes place. The sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide corresponds to the sequence of: A. rRNA nucleotides B. tRNA anticodons C. tRNA nucleotides D. rRNA anticodons *E. mRNA codons In E.coli structural gene of LAC operon is stimulated in: A. Presence of lactose only B. Presence of glucose and absence of lactose C. Presence of glucose only *D. Presence of lactose and absence of glucose E. Presence of galactose only Metabolic product of epinephrine inactivation excreted in urine is: A. Dopamine B. Nor metanephrine C. Estrone *D. Metanephrine E. Androstenedione All are secondary messenger except: A. Diacylglycerol *B. mRNA C. Calcium D. cAMP E. Phosphatidyl inositol triphosphate Adenylate cyclase enzyme is inhibited by: A. Calcitonin B. Epinephrine C. Nor-epinephrine *D. Somatostatin E. Thyroxine Point out the chemical nature of hormone receptors: A. Lipids B. Nucleic acids *C. Proteins D. Vitamins E. Carbohydrates Nor-epinephrine is converted to epinephrine by: *A. N-methylation B. S-methylation C. DOPA-decarboxylase D. O-methylation E. Dopamine hydroxylase Insulin mediated glucose uptake in myocyte is through: A. GLUT 3 *B. GLUT 4 C. GLUT 2 D. GLUT 5 E. GLUT 1 A patient suffering from pheochromocytoma complains of thirst, dry mouth, hunger. Blood test for sugar revealed hyperglycemia. What type of hyperglycemia is it? A. Somatotropic B. Hypercorticoid C. Alimentary D. Hypoinsulinemic *E. Adrenal For which hormone is cGMP secondary messenger? A. Thyroxine *B. Atrial natriuretic peptide C. Growth hormone D. Epinephrine E. Cortisone Which of the following acts via cAMP A. All positions are correct B. Testosterone *C. LH D. Estrogen E. Thyroxine Tissue inositol triphosphate is generated as a result of the phosphatidylinositol diphosphate hydrolysis and act as secondary agent (mediator) in the mechanism of hormone action. It`s effect in cells is directed at: A. Protein kinase A activation B. Adenylate cyclase activation C. Protein kinase A inhibition D. Phosphodiesterase inhibition *E. Calcium ion liberation from cellular deport Which of the following acts through tyrosine kinase receptor?: A. Follicle stimulating hormone *B. Insulin C. Epinephrine D. Growth gormone E. Glucagon Find out the feature of releasing factors (RF) structure: A. RF are glycoproteins B. RF are simple proteins with quaternary structure *C. RF are short peptides D. RF are amino acid derivatives E. Both of RF contain sialic acid Which of the following acts on nuclear receptor: A. Glucagon *B. Estrogen C. Growth hormone D. Epinephrine E. TSH Thyroxine and catecholamine are derived from: A. Tryptophan *B. Tyrosine C. Alanine D. Leucine E. Isoleucine The formation of a secondary mediator is obligatory in membrane-intracellular mechanism of hormone action. Point out the substance that is unable to be a secondary mediator: A. Ca2+ B. Diacylglycerol C. Inositol-3,4,5-triphosphate D. cAMP *E. Glycerol Try to name a small Ca2+binding protein that modifies the activity of many enzymes and other proteins in response to changes of Ca2+ concentration. A. Collagen *B. Calmodulin C. Cycline D. Kinesin E. Elastin Name a membrane bound enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP from ATP: A. Lactate dehydrogenase B. RNA polymerase *C. Adenylate cyclase D. ATP synthase E. Tyrosine kinase Which of the following belongs to steroid superfamily A. ACTH B. Epinephrine C. Growth hormone *D. Calcitriol E. Insulin Which of the following hormone mechanism of action is associated with cyclic AMP formation in a target Which of the following hormone mechanism of action is associated with cyclic AMP formation in a target cell? A. Atrial natriuretic peptide *B. Vasopressin C. Aldosterone D. Angiotensinogen I E. Renin The following hormone does not have any intracellular receptor: A. Aldosterone *B. Adrenaline C. Calcitriol D. Thyroxine E. Cortisol Adenylate Cyclase is activated of : *A. GTP-dependant regulatory protein B. Nuclear receptor C. Membrane receptor D. Phosphodiesterase E. cAMP Which of the following substances acts to increase the release of Ca2+from endoplasmic reticulum in muscular cell? A. Parathyroid hormone B. 1,25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol C. Diacylglycerol D. Monoacylglycerol *E. Inositol triphosphate Find out the type of activity that is considered for insulin-receptor complex function in the intracellular space of target cell: *A. Tyrosine kinase activity B. Similar to Phospholipase C activity C. cAMP-dependent proteinkinase activity D. Tyrosine aminotransferase activity E. cAMP-dependent polymerase activity Which of the following is present intracellulary in muscular cells: A. Insulin B. Nor-epinephrine *C. Corticosteroid D. Epinephrine E. Glucagon Testosterone and its analogs increase the mass of skeletal muscles that allows to use them for treatment of dystrophy. Due to interaction of the hormone with what cell substrate is this action caused? A. Membrane receptors *B. Nuclear receptors C. Proteins-activators of transcription D. Ribosomes E. Chromatin Point out the most important function of androgens in muscles: A. To inhibit lipogenesis *B. To stimulate protein synthesis C. To stimulate lipolysis D. To stimulate protein degradation E. To stimulate muscular contraction The patient with complaints of permanent thirst applied to the doctor. Hyperglycemia, polyuria and increased concentration of 17-ketosteroids in the urine were revealed. What disease is the most likely in patient? A. Glycogen storage disease type I B. Myxedema *C. Steroidal subtype of diabetes mellitus D. Insulin- dependent diabetes mellitus E. Addison`s disease A 19-year old male was found to have an elevated level of potassium in the secondary urine. These changes might have been caused by the increase in the following hormone level: *A. Aldosterone B. Adrenalin C. Oxytocin D. Testosterone E. Glucagon To prevent the transplant rejection after organ transplantation it is required to administer hormonotherapy for the purpose of immunosuppression. What hormones are used for this purpose? A. Thyroid B. Mineralocorticoids C. Sexual hormones D. Catecholamines *E. Glucocorticoids A 19-year-old female suffers from tachycardia in rest condition, weight loss, excessive sweating, exophtalmos and irritability. What hormone would you expect to find elevated in her serum? A. ACTH B. Insulin C. Cortisol D. Mineralocorticoids *E. Thyroxine A 4 year old child with hereditary renal lesion has signs of rickets, vitamin D concentration in blood is normal. What is the most probable cause of rickets development? A. Hypofunction of parathyroid glands B. Inreased excretion of calcium C. Lack of calcium in food D. Hyperfunction of parathyroid glands *E. Impaired synthesis of calcitriol Steroid-receptor complex binds to a specific region on DNA through: A. Leucine zipper motif *B. Zinc finger motif C. Histidine D. Helix turn helix E. Histone A 2 y.o child has convulsions as a result of reduced concentration of calcium ions in the blood plasma. It is caused by the reduced function of: A. Adrenal cortex B. Thymus C. Hypophysis *D. Parathyroid glands E. Pineal gland The biochemical research of the patient's blood confirmed the hypoglycemia, abnormally high potassium concentration and low sodium concentration. Point out the hormones whose secretion is violated: A. Calcitonin B. All the hormones from anterior lobe of pituitary gland C. Thyroid hormones T3, T4 *D. Glucocorticoids, aldosterone E. Insulin Biochemical abnormalities in primary hyperparathyroidism is the change in the blood plasma: A. Decrease calcium, decrease phosphate - B. Increase calcium, increase phosphate C. None of the proposed D. Decrease calcium, increase phosphate *E. Increase calcium, decrease phosphate A 46-year-old patient suffering from the diffuse toxic goiter underwent resection of the thyroid gland. After the surgery the patient presents with appetite loss, dyspepsia, increased neuromuscular excitement. The body weight remained unchanged. Body temperature is normal. Which of the following has caused such a condition in this patient? A. Increased production of thyroxin B. Increased production of calcitonin *C. Reduced production of thyroxin D. Reduced production of parathormone E. Increased production of thyroliberin Name the precursor for calcitriol formation: A. Linolenic acid B. Citric acid *C. Cholesterol D. Stearic acid E. Arachidonic acid Inhabitants of territories with cold climate have high content of an adaptive thermoregulatory hormone. What hormone is it? A. Somatotropin *B. Thyroxin C. Insulin D. Glucagon E. Cortisol A girl has been diagnosed with adrenogenital syndrome (pseudohermaphroditism). This pathology is caused by hypersecretion of the following adrenal hormone: A. Mineralocorticoids B. Glucocorticoids C. Estrogens D. Catecholamines *E. Androgens Which of the following amino acid residues in the structure of thyroglobulin is involved in the synthesis of thyroxine? A. Threonine B. Cysteine C. Methionine D. Glycine *E. Tyrosine Point out the major sex hormone of luteal phase in females: A. Cortisol B. 17-ketosteroid *C. Progesterone D. Aldosterone E. Androstenedione A 2-year-old child experienced convulsions because of calcium ions concentration decrease in the blood plasma. Function of what structure is decreased? *A. Parathyroid glands B. Thymus C. Pineal gland D. Adrenal cortex E. Hypophysis Examination of a patient revealed hyperkalaemia and hyponatraemia. Low secretion of which hormone may cause such changes? A. Cortisol B. Atrial natriuretic peptide *C. Aldosterone D. Vasopressin E. Parathyroid hormone Some diseases reveal symptoms of aldosteronism with hypertension and edema due to sodium retention in the organism. What organ of the internal secretion is affected on aldosteronism? A. Hypophysis B. Testicle C. Ovaries D. Pancreas *E. Adrenal glands Kidneys of a man under examination show increased reabsorption of calcium ions and decreased reabsorption of phosphate ions. What hormone causes this phenomenon? A. Aldosterone B. Vasopressin C. Thyrocalcitonin D. Calcitriol *E. Parathormone A person has reduced diuresis, hypernatremia, hypokalemia. Hypersecretion of what hormone can cause such changes? A. Auricular sodiumuretic factor *B. Aldosterone C. Parathormone D. Adrenalin E. Vasopressin A 44-year-old woman complains of common weakness, heart pain, increase of body weight. Objectively: moon-like face, hirsutism, AP- 165/100 mm Hg, height -164 cm, weight -103 kg; fat is mostly accumulated in the region of neck, upper shoulder girdle, stomach. What is the main pathogenic mechanism of obesity? A. Decreased production of glucagon *B. Increased production of glucocorticoids C. Increased production of insulin D. Decreased production of thyroid hormones E. Increased production of mineral corticoids The intake of oral contraceptives containing sex hormones inhibits secretion of the hypophysial hormones. Secretion of which of the indicated hormones is inhibited while taking oral contraceptives? A. Thyrotropic B. Vasopressin *C. Follicle-stimulating D. Oxytocin E. Somatotropic The precursor of testosterone is: *A. Pregnenolone *A. Pregnenolone B. Methyl testosterone C. Estrone D. Cortisol E. Aldosterone Thyrotoxicosis leads to increased production of thyroidal hormones T3 and T4, weight loss, tachycardia, psychic excitement and so on. How do thyroidal hormones influence energy metabolism in the mitochondrion of cells? *A. Uncouple the oxidative phosphorylation B. Stop substrate phosphorylation C. Stop respiratory chain D. Activate substrate phosphorylation E. Activate oxidative phosphorylation A patient is followed up in an endocrinological dispensary on account of hyperthyroidism. Weight loss, tachycardia, finger tremor are accompanied with hypoxia similar symptoms – headache, fatigue, eye flicker. Find out the result for the influence of high level of thyroid hormones on tissue respiration causing the development of hypoxia similar symptoms: *A. Uncoupling of oxidation and phosphorylation B. Specific binding of active centers of respiratory enzymes C. Inhibition of respiratory enzymes synthesis D. Competitive inhibition of respiratory enzymes E. Intensification of respiratory enzymes synthesis Estrogen receptors are seen in: A. Microsomes B. Cytoplasmic membrane bound C. Mitochondria D. EPR rough part *E. Nucleus Parents of a 10 y.o. boy consulted a doctor about extension of hair-covering, growth of beard and moustache, low voice. Intensified secretion of which hormone must be assumed? A. Of cortisol B. Of somatotropin *C. Of testosterone D. Of progesterone E. Of oestrogen A patient has osmotic pressure of blood plasma at the rate of 350 mOsmol/l (norm is 300 mOsmol/l). This will cause hypersecretion of the following hormone: A. Vasopressin B. Adrenocorticotropin C. Aldosterone *D. Natriuretic E. Cortisol Hypocalciemia can be caused by the violation of one hormone secretion. Point out this hormone: A. Thyroxine *B. Parathyroid hormone C. Aldosterone D. Somatotropic hormone E. Corticotropic hormone A 32-year-old female patient was consulted a doctor about the absence of lactation after parturition. Such disorder might be explained by the deficit of the following hormone: A. Glucagon *B. Prolactin C. Calcitonin D. Vasopressin E. Somatotropin People adapted to high external temperatures have such pecularity: profuse sweating isn’t accompanied by loss of large volumes of sodium chloride. This is caused by the effect of the following hormone upon the respiratory glands: *A. Aldosterone B. Vasopressin C. Thyroxin D. Cortisol E. Natriuretic The Simple goiter (enlarged thyroid) may be caused by: A. Production of thyroid-stimulating IgG B. Uncontrolled production of T3 and T4 *C. Iodide deficiency D. Excessive intake of exogenous TSH E. Decrease of TSH secretion A patient with the signs of osteoporosis and urobithiasis has been admitted to the endocrinology department. Blood test revealed hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia. These changes are associated with abnormal synthesis of the following hormone: A. Calcitriol B. Calcitonin C. Cortisol *D. Parathyroid hormone E. Aldosterone In hypothyroidism the following type of hyperlipoproteinemia (according Fridricson E. classification) is evident: A. Type I *B. Type IV C. Type III D. Type II E. Type V Periodic renal colics attacks are observed in a woman with primary hyperparathyroidizm. Ultrasonic examination revealed small stones in the kidneys. What is the most plausible reason of the stones's formation? *A. Hypercalcemia B. Hyperuricemia C. Hypercholesterinemia D. Hyperphosphatemia E. Hyperkalemia Choose the hormone whose secretion is suppressed at diabetes insipidus in patient: *A. Vasopressin B. Somatotropin C. Thyrotropin D. Melatonin E. Oxytocin A 60-year old patient with a long history of stenocardia takes coronarodilator agents. He has also been administrated acetylsalicylic acid to reduce platelet aggregation. What is the mechanism of anti-platelet action of acetylsalicylic acid? A. It has membrane stabilizing effect B. It reduces the activity of phosphodiesterase C. It enhances the synthesis of prostacyclin *D. It reduces the activity of cyclooxygenase E. It enhances the activity of platelet adenylate cyclase A patient has been administrated an anti-inflammatory drug that blocks the action of cyclooxygenase. Specify this anti-inflammatory agent: A. Analgene B. Thiamin *C. Aspirin D. Creatine E. Allopurinol Acromegaly in patient is associated with excessive synthesis of a hormone: A. Thyrotropin B. Melatonin *C. Somatotropin D. Oxytocin E. Vasopressin Utilization of arachidonic acid via cyclooxygenase pathway results in formation of some bioactive substances. Name them: A. Biogenic amines B. Insulin-like growth factors C. T3 and T4 D. Somatomedins *E. Prostaglandins All increases serum glucose except: A. Cortisol B. Nor-epinephrine C. Glucagon D. Epinephrine *E. Vasopressin A patient who suffers from pneumonia has high body temperature. What biologically active substances play the leading part in origin of this phenomenon? A. Interleukin *B. Leukotrienes C. Serotonin D. Histamine E. Bradykinin A man after 1,5 liter blood loss has suddenly reduced diuresis. The increased secretion of what hormone caused this diuresis alteration? A. Cortisol B. Corticotrophin *C. Vasopressin D. Parathormone E. Natriuretic There is only one hormone among neurohormones which refers to the derivatives of amino acids according to classification. Point out it: A. Oxytocin B. Thyroliberin C. Vasopressin D. Somatotropin *E. Melatonin Hyperpigmentation is considered at patients with Addison`s disease. Propose the hormone whose high level in the blood can cause this state: A. ACTH *B. MSH C. Prolactin D. FSH E. TSH A patient who had been continuously taking drugs blocking the production of angiotensin II developed bradycardia and arrhythmia. A likely cause of these disorders is: A. Hypokalemia B. Hypernatremia *C. Hyperkalemia D. Hypocalcemia E. Hypercalcemia A middle-aged man went to a foreign country because he had been offered a job there. However he had been unemployed for quite a long time. What endocrine glands were exhausted most of all in this man? *A. Adrenal glands B. Parathyroid glands C. Substernal gland D. Seminal glands E. Thyroid gland Products of some proteins hydrolysis and modification are the biologically active substances called hormones. Lipotropin, corticotrophin, melanotropin and endorphins are synthesized in the hypophysis of the following protein: *A. Proopiomelanocortin (POMC) B. Neuroalbumin C. Neurostromin D. Thyroglobulin E. Neuroglobulin Examination of a patient revealed overgrowth of facial bones and soft tissues, tongue enlargement, wide interdental spaces in the enlarged dental arch. What changes of the hormonal secretion are the most likely? A. Hyposecretion of thyroxine B. Hypersecretion of insulin *C. Hypersecretion of the somatotropic hormone D. Hyposecretion of insulin E. Hyposecretion of the somatotropic hormone Which of the following compound antagonizes the actions of insulin in the liver? A. Neuropeptide Y B. Neuropeptide A *C. Growth hormone D. Substance P E. Vasoactive intestinal peptide Secretion of what gastrointestinal hormones will be primarily decreased as a result of duodenum removal? A. Histamine B. Gastrin and histamine C. Neurotensin D. Gastrin *E. Cholecystokinin and secretin A 26-year old woman at 40 weeks pregnant has been delivered to the maternity ward. Objectively: the uterine cervix is opened, but the contractions are absent. The doctor has administrated her a hormonal drug to stimulate the labor. Name this drug: A. Testosterone *B. Oxytocin C. ACTH D. Estrone E. Hydrocortisone For glucose entry into the cells, insulin is required in all cells except that of: A. Renal medulla A. Renal medulla *B. Red Blood Cells C. Liver D. Pancreas E. Heart Insulin stimulates all the processes except: A. Lipogenesis *B. Gluconeogenesis C. Glycolysis D. Glycogen synthesis E. Hexose monophosphate shunt Which compound does not inhibit platelet aggregation? A. Bufferin B. Benoxaprofen C. Prostacyclin D. Aspirin *E. Thromboxane A2 Prostaglandin synthesis is partially switched off by: *A. Cyclooxygenase inhibition B. Peroxidase C. Reductase activation D. HMP reductase E. Lipoxygenase inhibition Deficiency of linoleic and linolenic acids in the body leads to the skin damage, hear loss, delayed wound healing, thrombocytopenia, low resistance to infections. These changes are most likely to be caused by impaired synthesis of the following substance: A. Interleukins *B. Eicosanoids C. Catecholamines D. Corticosteroids E. Interferons Choose the true about prostaglandins: A. Present in many tissues *B. All are true C. Synthesized from arachidonic acid D. Short acting E. Some require cAMP for their action Choose the condition for stimulation of glucagon secretion by pancreas: A. High levels of pyruvic acid in the blood *B. Low levels of glucose in the blood C. High levels of calcium ions in the blood D. Low levels of calcium in the blood E. Low levels of glucocorticoids in the blood As a result of home injury, a patient suffered a significant blood loss, which led to a fall in blood pressure. Rapid blood pressure recovery after the blood loss is provided by the following hormones: *A. Adrenalin, vasopressin B. Aldosterone C. Sex hormones D. Oxytocin E. Cortisol A 32-year-old female patient consulted a doctor about the absence of lactation after parturition. Such disorder might be explained by the deficit of the following hormone: A. Vasopressin B. Glucagon C. Somatotropin D. Thyrocalcitonin *E. Prolactin Insulin increases the activities of all of the following enzymes, EXCEPT A. Glycogen synthase B. Proteinkinase C C. Glucokinase D. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase *E. Pyruvate carboxylase Which of the following is anabolic hormone: A. Aldosterone B. Somatostatin C. Epinephrine *D. Insulin E. Glucagon What pituitary gland hormone secretion will be inhibited in female after taking the oral contraceptives containing sex hormones? A. Oxytocin B. Vasopressin *C. Gonadotropin D. Thyroid stimulating hormone E. Growth hormone The shortest peptide in this list is: A. Oxytocin *B. Encephalin C. Vasopressin D. Angiotensin II E. Glucagon Name the factor of protein nature produced by T- or B-lymphocytes at viral infections in patients: *A. Interferon gamma B. Parathyroid hormone C. Calcitonin D. Calmodulin E. Calcitriol Insulin causes lipogenesis by all except: A. Increasing the rate of glucose transport into the cells B. Decreasing the intracellular cAMP level C. Increasing acetyl-CoA carboxylase activity D. Activation of phosphodiesterase *E. Inhibiting of pyruvate dehydrogenase Prostaglandin is a product of: *A. Cyclooxygenase system B. Complement system C. Lipooxygenase system D. Hydrogen peroxide myeloperoxidase halogen system E. A type of vasoactive system During cell division, DNA replication occurs by a signal from the cytoplasm, and a certain pertion of the DNA helix unwinds and splits into two individual strains. What enzyme facilitates this process? *A. Helicase *A. Helicase B. Restrictase C. RNA polymerase D. DNA polymerase E. Ligase A patient with signs of osteoporosis and urolithiasis has been admitted to the endocrinology department. Blood test has revealed hypercalcemia and hypophosphatemia. These changes are associated with abnormal synthesis of the following hormone: A. Cortisol B. Calcitriol C. Calcitonin D. Aldosterone *E. Parathyroid hormone Feces of the patient contain high amount of undissociated fats and have grayish-white color. Specify the cause of this phenomenon: A. Enteritis B. Hypovitaminosis *C. Obturation of bile duct D. Hypoactivation of pepsin by hydrochloric acid E. Irritation of intestinal epithelium Patients with erythropoietic porphyria (Gunther’s disease) have teeth that fluoresce with bright red color when subjected to ulraviolet radiation; their skin is light-sensitive, urine is red-colored. What enzyme can cause this desease, when it is deficient? A. Uroporphyrinogen decarbozylase B. Uroporphyrinogen I synthase *C. Uroporphyrinogen III cosynthase D. Delta-aminolevulinate synthase E. Ferrochelatase A patient has been admitted to the contagious isolation ward with signs of jaundice caused by hepatitis virus. Which of the symptoms given below is strictly specific for hepatocellular jaundice? A. Urobilinuria B. Bilirubinuria C. Cholemia *D. Increase of ALT, AST levels E. Heperbilirubinemia A 41-year-old male patient has a history of recurrent attacks of heartbeats (paroxysms), profuse sweating, headaches, Examination reveled hypertension, hyperglycemia, increased basal metabolic rate, and tachycardia. These clinical presentations are typical for the following adrenal pathology: A. Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex *B. Hyperfunction of adrenal medulla C. Hypofunction of adrenal medulla D. Primaty aldosteronism E. Hyperfunction of the adrenal cortex Pancreas is known as a missed gland. Endocrine functions include production of insulin by beta cells. This hormone affects the metabolism of carbohydrates. What is its effect upon the activity of glycogen phosphorylase (GP) and glycogen synthase (GS)? A. It does not affect the activity of GP and GS *B. It suppresses GP and stimulates GS C. It stimulates both GP and GS D. It suppresses both GP and GS E. It stimulates GP and suppresses GS Submodule 4 1. Examination of a patient with frequent hemorrhages from internals and mucous membranes revealed proline and lysine being a part of collagen fibers. What vitamin absence caused disturbance of their hydroxylation? A. Vitamin A B. Thiamine C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin E E. *Vitamin C 2. A woman who has been keeping to a clean-rice diet for a long time was diagnosed with polyneuritis (beriberi). What vitamin deficit results in development of this disease? A. Folic acid B. *Thiamine C. Ascorbic acid D. Riboflavin E. Pyridoxine 3. Most participants of Magellan expedition to America died from avitaminosis. This disease declared itself by general weakness, subcutaneous hemmorhages, falling of teeth, gingival hemmorhages. What is the name of this avitaminosis? A. Biermer's anemia B. Polyneuritis (beriberi) C. Pellagra D. Rachitis E. *Scurvy 4. A patient with hypochromic anemia has splitting hair and loss of hair, increased nail bottling and taste alteration. What is the mechanism of the development of these symptoms? A. Deficiency of vitamin B12 B. Decreased production of thyroid hormones C. Deficiency of vitamin A D. Decreased production of parathyrin E. *Deficiency of iron-containing enzymes 5. The structural analogue of vitamin B2 is administered (acriсhine) in a case of enterobiasis. The disorder of which enzyme synthesis is caused by this medicine in microorganisms? A. NAD-dependent dehydrogenases B. Cytochrome oxidases C. *FAD-dependent dehydrogenases D. Peptidases E. Aminotransferases 6. Concentration of pyruvate is increased in the patient's blood, the most of which is excreted with urine. What avitaminosis has the patient? A. *Avitaminosis B1 B. Avitaminosis B2 C. Avitaminosis E D. Avitaminosis B9 E. Avitaminosis B3 7. Pyruvate concentration in the patient's urine has increased 10 times from normal amount. What vitamin deficiency can be the reason of this change: A. Vitamin B6 B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin C E. *Vitamin B1 8. Hydroxylation of endogenous subrates and xenobiotics requires a donor of protons. Which of the following vitamins can play this role? A. *Vitamin C B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin P D. Vitamin A E. Vitamin B6 9. A 10-year-old girl often experiences acute respiratory infections with multi-ple hemorrages in the places of clothes friction. Hypovitaminosis of what vi¬tamin is in this girl organism? A. A B. B2 C. B1 D. B6 E. *С 10. On the ground of clinical presentations a patient was prescribed pyridoxal phosphate. This medication is recommended for correction of the following processes: A. Synthesis of purine and perimidin bases B. Oxidative decarboxylation of ketonic acids C. Protein synthesis D. Desammation of purine nucleootides E. Transamination and decarboxylation of amino acids* 11. A 9-month-old infant is fed with artifical formulas with unbalanced vitamin B6 concentration. The infant presents with pellagral dermatitis, convulsions, anaemia. Convulsions development might be caused by the disturbed formation of: A. Dopamine B. Histamine C. Serotonin D. DOPA E. GABA* 12. After the disease a 16-year-old boy is presenting with decreased function of protein synthesis in the liver as a result of vitamin K deficiency. This may cause disorder of: A. Erythropoietin production B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate C. Blood coagulation* D. Osmotic blood pressure E. Anticoagulant production 13. Choose the vitamin which is important in non-oxidative decarboxylation, transamination and transsulfuration reactions from the following list: A. Riboflavin B. Thiamine C. Pyridoxine * D. Pantothenic acid E. Folic acid 14. Point out vitamin which is the most indispensable during mitosis: A. Folic acid * B. Pantotenic acid C. Ascorbinic acid D. Aspartic acid E. Thiamine 15. Which vitamin is related to cofactor in glycine metabolism? A. Tocopherol B. Folic acid * C. Thiamine D. Cobalamin E. Pantothenic acid 16. Choose the correct definition of vitamin: A. Essential food proteins B. Food factors that cannot be synthesized in human organism* C. Essential biologic amines D. Organic compounds, containing amino group E. Essential energy sources 17. Choose the vitamin, whose oxidation results in blue fluorescing product under UV-light: A. Pyridoxine B. Rutin C. Thiamine* D. Folic acid E. Ascorbic acid 18. Choose the vitamin that contains the isoalloxazine fragment in its structure: A. Thiamine B. Riboflavin* C. Pyridoxine D. Ubiquinone E. Naphtoquinone 19. Point out the vitamin, whose deficiency leads to pellagra: A. Vitamin P B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin B3* E. Vitamin B2 20. Name the metabolic pathway which is in need for vitamins B1, B2, B3, B5 supplement at the same time: A. Pentose Phosphate Cycle B. Glycolysis C. Urea Cycle D. Krebs Cycle* E. Glycogenesis 21. Find out the Enzyme name whose activity is depended on the presence of vitamin B2: A. Pyruvate carboxylase B. Succinate dehydrogenase* C. Malate dehydrogenase D. Isocitrate dehydrogenase E. Citrate synthase 22. The avitaminosis of ascorbic acid is named as: A. Cushing`s syndrome B. Addison`s disease C. Kwashiorkor D. Hemolytic anemia E. Scurvy* 23. Propose the main food product to promote the intake of vitamin C: A. Parsley B. Black currant* C. Beef D. Milk E. Butter 24. Find out the vitamin whose deficiency is associated with damaged transamination of amino acids: A. Pyridoxine* B. Rutin C. Thiamine D. Folic acid E. Ascorbic acid 25. The glycolysis duration is in need for one vitamin, only. Name it: A. Pyridoxal phosphate B. Riboflavin C. Thiamine D. Nicotinic acid* E. Ascorbic acid 26. Examination of a man who hadn’t been consuming fats but had been getting enough carbohydrates and proteins for a long time revealed dermatitis, poor wound healing, vision impairment. What is the probable cause of metabolic disorder? A. Lack of vitamins PP, H B. Lack of oleic acid C. *Lack of linoleic acid, vitamins A, D, E, K. D. Lack of palmitic acid E. Low caloric value of diet 27. A patient suffers from vision impairment – hemeralopia (night blindness). What vitamin preparation should be administered the patient in order to restore his vision? A. Pyridoxine B. *Retinol acetate C. Vicasol D. Thiamine chloride E. Tocopherol acetate 28. There is disturbed process of Ca2+ absorption through intestinal wall after the removal of gall bladder in patient: A. K B. C C. *D3 D. PP E. B12 29. A 6 y.o child was administered vicasol to prevent postoperative bleeding. Vicasol is a synthetic analogue of vitamin K. Name post-translation changes of blood coagulation factors that will be activated by vicasol: A. *Carboxylation of glutamic acid residues B. Polymerization C. Partial proteolysis D. Glycosylation E. Phosphorylation of serine radicals 30. A patient who was previously ill with mastectomy as a result of breast cancer was prescribed radiation therapy. What vitamin preparation has marked radioprotective action caused by antioxidant activity? A. *Tocopherol acetate B. Riboflavin C. Folic acid D. Ergocalciferol E. Thiamine chloride 31. There is an inhibited coagulation in the patients with bile ducts obstruction, bleeding due to the low level of absorption of vitamin. What vitamin is in deficiency? A. *K B. E C. D D. A E. Carotene 32. A 2-year-old child has got intestinal dysbacteriosis, which results in hemorrhagic syndrome. What is the most likely cause of hemorrhage of the child? A. Activation of tissue thromboplastin B. PP hypovitaminosis C. Fibrinogen deficiency D. *Vitamin K insufficiency E. Hypocalcemia 33. After the disease a 16-year-old boy is presenting with decreased function of protein synthesis in the liver as a result of vitamin K deficiency. This may cause disorder of: A. Erythropoietin production B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate C. Blood coagulation* D. Osmotic blood pressure E. Anticoagulant production 34. A patient presents with twilight vision impairment. Which of the following vitamins should be administered? A. Cyanocobalamin B. Ascorbic acid C. Nicotinic acid D. Retinol acetate* E. Pyridoxine hydrochloride 35. During examination of an 11-month-old infant a pediatrician revealed osteoectasia of the lower extremities and delayed mineralization of cranial bones. Such pathology is usually provoked by the deficit of the following vitamin: A. Thiamin B. Riboflavin C. Bioflavonoids D. Pantothenic acid E. Cholecalciferol* 36. A patient presents with twilight vision impairment. Which of the following vitamins should be administered? A. Cyanocobalamin B. Ascorbic acid C. Nicotinic acid D. Retinol acetate* E. Pyridoxine hydrochloride 37. Point out the vitamin, which is soluble in lipids: A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin B1 C. Vitamin PP D. Vitamin K* E. Vitamin H 38. Choose the vitamin, whose precursor is named as b-carotene: A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin A* D. Vitamin B12 E. Vitamin P 39. Choose the vitamin, whose molecule structure is unsaturated cyclic alcohol (one hydroxidegroup only): A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin F C. Vitamin B5 D. Vitamin D2* E. Vitamin H 40. Choose the vitamin, whose antivitamin is named as Dicoumarol: A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D E. Vitamin K* 41. Choose the vitamin, whose deficiency leads to osteomalacia at adults: A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin D * D. Vitamin K E. Vitamin PP 42. Choose the vitamin, which is a powerful natural antioxidant: A. Retinal B. Tocopherol* C. Ergocalciferol D. Riboflavin E. Pyridoxine 43. Name the blood plasma index whose low value will prove the deficiency of vitamin K in patient: A. Urea B. Albumins C. Immunoglobulin G D. Prothrombin* E. C-reactive protein 44. Name the vitamin whose level in the blood is depended on the secretion rate of parathyroid hormone: A. Ascorbic acid B. Calcitriol* C. Thiamine D. Tocopherol E. Naphtoquinone 45. Find out the fat-soluble vitamin whose function is hormone-similar one: A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin K* E. Vitamin PP 46. Vitamin A group contains substance whose function is associated mainly with stimulation of proliferation and differentiation processes in tissues. Name it: A. Retinal B. Pantothenic acid C. Retinoic acid* D. Nicotinic acid E. Nicotine amide 47. Choose the most active form of vitamin D3: A. 25-Hydroxycholecalciferol B. 25-Hydroxyergocalciferol C. 24,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol D. 1,25-Dihydroxycholecalciferol * E. Calcidiol 48. What reaction is in need of vitamin K? A. Gamma-carboxylation * B. Oxidation C. Methylation D. Hydroxylation E. Alpha-decarboxylation 49. Choose the name of phase for vitamin K use in the formation of clotting factors: A. Posttranscription B. Post-translation * C. Transcription D. Reparation E. Replication 50. Choose the correct statement about vitamin K: A. It increases a coagulation time in infants with hemorrhagic diseases B. It is helpful in preventing thrombosis C. It is synthesized by intestinal bacteria * D. It is present in increased amount in cows and breast milk E. It is derived to coenzyme of α-decarboxylases 51. A 30 y.o. woman had been ill for a year when she felt pain in the area of joints for the first time, they got swollen, and skin above them became reddened. Provisional diagnosis is rheumatoid arthritis. One of the most probable causes of this disease is a structure alteration of a connective tissue protein: A. Ovoalbumin B. Collagen* C. Myosin D. Troponin E. Mucin 52. Increased fragility of vessels, enamel and dentine destruction resulting caused by disorder of collagen maturation. What stage of procollagen modification is disturbed under this avitaminosis? A. Hydroxylation of proline* B. Detaching of N-ended peptide C. Formation of polypeptide chains from scurvy are D. Glycosylation of hydroxylysine residues E. Removal of C-ended peptide from procollagen 53. A patient with serious damage of muscular tissue was admitted to the trauma department. What biochemical urine index will be increased in this case? A. Creatinine* B. Common lipids C. Uric acid D. Glucose E. Mineral salts 54. The high levels of creatine phosphokinase (CPK) (MB-isozyme) and lactate dehydrogenase LDH1 activity were revealed. Point out the most probable pathology in the patient: A. Hepatitis В. Myocardium infarction* С. Osteoartritis D. Pancreatitis Е. Cholecystitis 55. Name the polysaccharide represented in connective tissue: A. Collagen B. Elastin C. Laminin D. Hyaluronic acid* Е. Fibrillin 56. Name the metabolic pathway used as the main energy source for myocardium contraction at healthy humans: A. Anaerobic glycolysis B. Aerobic glycolysis C. Glycogen breakdown D. Oxidation of High Fatty Acids* Е. Pentose Phosphate cycle 57. It is established that there is specific system of energy supply in muscular cell. Point out this system: A. Renin-angiotensinogen system B. Creatine phosphate kinase system* C. Adenylate cyclase system D. Translation system of a cell Е. Palmitate synthetase complex 58. There are some proteins in muscles: actin, myosin, actomyosin, tropomyosin, troponin. Point out what a specific group of proteins they are related to: A. Enzymes B. Sarcoplasmatic proteins C. Stroma proteins* D. Calcium conjugated proteins Е. Coagulants 59. It is established that Creatine synthesis in the liver is in need for three amino acids as substrates in this process. Point out them: A. Ala, Ser, Glu B. Arg, Gly, Met* C. Tre, Ile, Val D. Phe, Trp, Val Е. Ala, Val, Leu 60. Point out the substance whose level in the blood plasma correlates with the volume of physical loading of skeletal muscular tissue: A. Ammonia B. Urea C. Creatine D. Creatinine* Е. Uric acid 61. Vitamin C deficiency causes the disorder in collagen synthesis because two enzymes in this synthesis are in need for the use of ascorbic acid. Name one of them: A. Pyruvate dehydrogenase B. Acetyl-CоА carboxylase C. Prolyl hydroxylase* D. Lactate dehydrogenase Е. Phenylalanine hydroxylase 62. The metabolism disturbance in myocardium in a case of ischemic heart disease is followed by the decrease of АТP and creatine phosphate concentrations. Point out the reason of this event: A. Glycolysis is activated in myocardium B. Hypoxia causes the inhibition of all the processes in mitochondria* C. Glucose is not destroyed in myocardium D. The oxidative phosphorylation is activated in myocardium Е. The accumulation of glucose is in myocardium 63. Point out the factors whose levels in the intracellular space of muscular cell influence the rate of muscular contraction: A. ATP levels B. Calcium ions content* C. Magnesium ions content D. Stroma proteins content Е. All the factors above are in need 64. Triple helix is seen in one compound listed bellow. Choose it: A. Collagen* B. Fibrinogen C. Histones D. Serum amylase E. F-actin 65. The cardiac muscle utilizes all of the following compounds from the blood except one. Point out it: A. Glucose B. Acetone* C. Fatty acids D. Acetoacetic acid E. Alanine 66. A deficiency of copper affects the formation of normal collagen by reducing the activity of one enzyme from following list. Choose it: A. Glucosyl transferase B. Galactosyl transferase C. Prolyl hydroxylase* D. Lysyl oxidase E. Collagenase 67. Name the immediate source of energy for muscular contraction. A. Glycogen B. ATP* C. Creatine phosphate D. Glucose E. Pyruvate 68. What does cardiac muscle prefer as source of energy? A. Fatty acids* B. Glucose C. Ketone bodies D. Glycogen E. Fructose 69. Hydroxylation of proline to hydroxyproline in collagen synthesis requires all except one. Point out it. A. Pyridoxal phosphate* B. Ascorbic acid C. O2 D. Specific hydroxylase E. Iron ion 70. What is the product of guanidoacetic acid transmethylation? A. Creatine* B. Choline C. Creatinine D. N-methyl nicotinamide E. Acetylcholine 71. Creatine is formed metabolically using one compound listed below. Choose it: A. Tryptophan B. Phenylalanine C. Lysine* D. Valine E. Leucine 72. Three residues (Gly-X-Y-) are repeated many times, and it is the absolute requirement for formation of the triple helix of collagen molecule type 1. What amino acid and its derivative mainly is represented as letters X and Y? A. Proline* B. Tryptophan C. Lysine D. Valine E. Leucine 73. Which of the following is increased in the blood plasma at myocardial infarction? A. Creatine phosphokinase BB isozyme B. Lactate dehydrogenase isozyme 5 C. Succinate dehydrogenase D. Alkaline phosphatase E. Creatine phosphokinase and aspartate aminotransferase* 74. Choose the mechanism for proline conversion to hydroxyproline: A. Vitamin C mediated hydroxylation* B. Reverse hydroxylation C. Inversion D. Post translation induction E. Vitamin K mediated hydroxylation 75. Name biochemical tests used for diagnostics of muscular dystrophy development: A. Creatine content in the blood plasma and urine B. Creatinine content in the blood plasma C. Ctreatine phosphate kinase activity in the blood plasma D. Myofibril proteins content in tissue homogenate obtained due to biopsy method E. All that is placed above* 76. Point out the major fuel for the brain after several weeks of starvation: A. Glucose B. Fatty acid C. Beta hydroxyl butyrate * D. Tyrosine E. Phenylalanine 77. Neurotransmitter serotonin is derived from one amino acid. Choose it: A. Phenylalanine B. Serine C. Tryptophan* D. Cysteine E. Proline 78. In the brain ammonia is converted to product from following list. Point out it: A. Aspartate B. Glutamine* C. Alanine D. Histidine E. Urea 79. Which substance does not cross the blood brain barrier? A. Insulin* B. Ascorbic acid C. Bilirubin D. Glucose E. Oxygen 80. The brain contains relatively high amounts of all compounds from the following list except one. Point out it: A. Glutamine B. N-Acetylaspartate C. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) D. Glycogen* E. Proteolipid 81. Point out the main pathways of catabolism in brain: A. Glycolysis and Citric Acid Cycle* B. Glycogenolysis and Glycogenesis C. Glycogenolysis and Citric Acid Cycle D. Embden-Meyerhof pathway and HMP shunt E. Oxidation of fatty acids and ketogenesis 82. Choose the neurotransmitter from following list: A. Serine B. Glutathione C. Glutamate* D. Phenylalanine E. Alanine 83. The application of drug atropine is based on its ability to block the muscarinic receptors. Name a neurotransmitter that takes place in the transmission of impulses binding with this type receptor in the autonomic nervous system: A. Acetylcholine* B. Nor-epinephrine C. Dopamine D. Serotonin E. Glycine 84. The content of certain acidic proteins is characteristic for the nervous tissue. Point out such protein: A. Histon B. Protein S-100* C. Globin D. Actin E. Tubuline 85. The content of certain substance is sharply decreased in a striate of a brain at Parcinson disease. Point out it: A. Dopamine* B. Acetylcholine C. GABA D. Histamine E. Nor-epinephrine 86. Simple and conjugated proteins are in the composition of nervous tissue. Point out the simple proteins of this tissue type: A. Albumins, globulins* B. Prolamins, glutelins C. Phosphoproteins D. Nucleoproteins E. Lipoproteins 87. Point out the amino acids which function as neurotransmitters in CNS: A. Glutamic acid B. Aspartic acid C. Glycine D. Dihydroxyphenylalanine E. All the amino acids named above* 88. There are special supportive proteins in the white matter of nervous tissue. Point out them: A. Actins B. Myosins C. Troponins D. Albumins E. Neuroscleroproteins* 89. Point out the main catabolic pathway for glucose in the brain tissue: A. Aerobic oxidation up to carbon dioxide and water* B. Anaerobic glycolysis C. Pentose Phosphate Cycle D. Glycogenesis E. Gluconeogenesis 90. The myelin substance is a complex of some compounds. What prevailing components are in it? A. Protein, lipids* B. Carbohydrates, lipids C. Nucleic acids D. Adenine-linked nucleotides, creatine phosphate E. Amino acids, mineral substances 91. Point out the lipid which is not synthesized in nervous tissue of adults: A. Sphingomyelin B. Cerebroside C. Ganglyoside D. Sulfatide E. Cholesterol* 92. Point out the neurotransmitter that is isolated from preganglionar neuron synapses of the sympathetic nervous system, mainly: A. Epinephrine B. Dopamine C. Acetylcholine* D. Glycine E. Serotonin 93. Point out the main energy source substrate for the brain: A. Glucose* B. Fatty acids C. Phospholipids D. Ketone bodies E. Amino acids 94. Point out the enzyme that catalyzes the degradation of some neurotransmitters in the brain: A. Aldolase B. Glutamate dehydrogenase C. Monoamino oxidase* D. Hexokinase E. Malate dehydrogenase 95. There is the feature of the chemical composition of neuroglia: one acidic protein has very high concentration. Name it: A. Protein S-100* B. Myosin C. Albumin D. Choline esterase E. Neuroscleroprotein 96. Depressions and emotional insanities result from the deficit of noradrenalin, serotonin and other biogenic amines in the brain. Their concentration in the synapses can be increased by means of the antidepressants that inhibit the following enzyme: A. Phenylalanine-4-monooxygenase B. Monoamine oxidase* C. D-amino-acid oxidase D. L-amino-acid oxidase E. Diamine oxidase 97. A patient suffers from hepatic cirrhosis. Examination of which of the following substances excreted by urine can characterize the state of antitoxic function of liver? A. Uric acid B. Сreatinine C. Ammonium salts D. Hippuric acid* E. Amino acids 98. A patient with symptoms of acute alcohol poisoning was brought to the hospital. What carbohydrates metabolism changes are typical for this condition? A. The anaerobic glucose metabolism predominates in muscles B. The gluconeogenesis is increased in the liver C. The breakage of glycogen is increased in the liver D. The gluconeogenesis velocity in the liver is decreased* E. The anaerobic breakage of glucose is increased in muscles 99. Desulfiram is widely used in medical practice to prevent alcoholism, it inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase. Increased level of what metabolite causes aversion to alcohol? A. Acetaldehyde* B. Ethanol C. Malonyl aldehyde D. Propionic aldehyde E. Methanol 100. A patient with encephalopathy was admitted to the neurological in patient department. There was revealed a correlation between increasing of encephalopathy and substances absorbed by the bloodstream from the intestines. What substances that are formed in the intestines can cause endotoxemia? A. Indole* B. Ornithine C. Acetacetate D. Butyrate E. Biotin 101. Liver does not produce one compound from the following list. Point out it: A. Albumin B. Gamma-globulin* C. Fibrinogen D. Prothrombin E. Haptoglobin 102. Choose the right continuation of the statement: “In mammalian bile, the bile acids are normally present____”. A. In their free form B. As cholesterol esters C. As conjugated with glycine or taurine* D. As conjugated with beta-glucuronic acid E. As conjugated with bilirubin 103. Liver synthesizes all the compounds from the following list EXCEPT: A. Clotting factor II B. Clotting factor XII C. Urea D. Stercobilin* E. Cholesterol 104. Choose the process that is not placed in the liver: A. Urea synthesis B. Bile acid synthesis C. Detoxification of xenobiotics D. Cortisol synthesis* E. Deposition of fat soluble vitamins 105. Glucose-6-Phosphate is the key metabolite of carbohydrate metabolism. Point out the pathway of its utilization which is present in liver: A. Glycogenesis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Glycolysis D. Hexose Monophosphate Shunt E. All of the above* 106. What process is stimulated in the liver at starvation: A. Glycogenolysis B. Gluconeogenesis C. Non-oxidative phase of HMP D. Ketogenesis E. All of the above* 107. The rate of high fatty acids synthesis in the liver is high. Point out the precursor for this process and its intracellular location: A. Acetyl CoA, Matrix B. Acetyl CoA, Cytoplasm* C. Glucose, Matrix D. Amino acids, Cytoplasm E. Amino acids, Matrix 108. Point out the pathways placed mainly in the liver: A. 25-hydroxycholecalciferol synthesis B. Taurine synthesis C. Cholic acid synthesis D. Sex hormone binding protein synthesis E. All of the above* 109. Liver cirrhosis in patient is accompanied with: A. Disturbed production of urea B. Accumulation of bililrubin total in the blood C. Hypoproteinemia D. Disturbed function of coagulation system of the blood E. All that is placed above* 110. Point out the process of carbohydrate metabolism which is occurred only in liver: A. Glycogenolysis B. Glycogenesis C. Heparin synthesis* D. Pentose phosphate pathway E. Aerobic glycolysis 111. Point out the conjugation agent used for conjugated bilirubin formation in the liver cell: A. Glycine B. Cysteine C. UDP-glucuronic acid* D. PAPS E. Acetyl-CoA 112. Find the protein name that is synthesized in the liver, only: A. Albumin of blood plasma B. α2-Macroglobulin C. α1-Antitrypsin D. Ceruloplasmin E. All the names above are right answers* 113. Find out the enzyme of liver tissue participating in the detoxification of cyanides: A. NАDН dehydrogenase B. Cytochrome b C. Thiosulfate transferase* D. Cytochrome c E. Cytochrome P450 114. Point out the enzyme whose activity is determined in the blood plasma of patients to estimate the liver parenchyma damage: A. Lactate dehydrogenase B. Palmitate synthase complex C. Alanine amino transferase* D. Cytochrome c1 E. Adenylate cyclase 115. Find out the enzyme name which is specific for liver tissue, only: A. Succinate dehydrogenase B. Arginase* C. Alanine amino transferase D. Aspartate amino transferase E. Isocitrate dehydrogenase 116. Point out the amino acid that is conjugative agent at Quick`s test: A. Lactic acid B. Glycine* C. Valine D. Leucine E. Histidine 117. Point out the liver enzyme participating in the neutralization of ammonia: A. Glutamine synthetase B. Glutamate dehydrogenase C. Carbomoyl phosphate synthetase D. Alanine amino transferase E. All the enzymes in A, B, C positions* 118. Point out the lipid mainly synthesized in the liver: A. Ganglyoside B. Phospatidyl ethanol amine C. Cholesterol* D. Phosphatidyl choline E. Inositol 119. This lipoprotein class is synthesized in the liver, and is in need for the transport of triacylglycerols and cholesterol from the liver to tissues. Name it: A. IDL B. HDL C. LDL D. VLDL* E. Chylomicrons 120. Point out the enzyme whose activity is decreased in the blood plasma at liver cirrhosis in patient: A. Glutamine synthetase B. Glutamate dehydrogenase C. Alanine amino transferase D. Choline esterase E. UDP-glucoronyl transferase* 121. Name the compound metabolized in the liver across conjugation reaction like xenobiotics: A. Bilirubin* B. Cholesterol C. Urea D. Acetylcholine E. Uric acid 122. Choose metabolites of methanol which may be produced due to alcohol dehydrogenase of the liver in aerobic condition: A. Acetaldehyde + Acetic acid B. Formaldehyde + Formic acid* C. Pyruvate + Pyruvic acid D. Fumarate + Fumeric acid E. Glyceroaldehyde + Glycerol 123. Point out the main enzyme in monooxygenase system of EPR responsible for modification of xenobiotics: A. Glucuronyl transferase B. Glutathione S-transferase C. NADPH reductase D. Cytochrome P450* E. Cytochrome C oxidase 124. Choose the correct statement about hepatic monooxygenases linked with cytochrome P450 enzyme. A. Located mainly in smooth EPR B. Catalyzes oxidation, reduction and hydrolysis reactions at the same time C. Certain drug inactivate and certain drug enhance their reactions D. Positions A, C are correct* E. Their action always causes the detoxification of xenobiotics 125. Which following cytochrome participates in drug metabolism? A. Cytochrome aa3 B. Cytochrome c1 C. Cytochrome c D. Cytochrome P450* E. Cytochrome b 126. Point out the conjugation agent that is in need to detoxify heterocyclic alcohols in the liver: A. Glutathione B. Glycine C. Valine D. PAPS* E. Histidine 127. Point out the liver enzyme participating in the neutralization of xenobiotics, their metabolites and harmful endogenous products: A. Glutamine synthetase B. Glutamate dehydrogenase C. Alanine amino transferase D. Carbomoyl phosphate synthetase E. UDP-glucuronyl transferase* 128. Point out the peptide participating in the conjugation of some harmful sulfur containing products in the liver: A. Glutathione* B. Methionine C. Trialanine D. Oxytocin E. Prolylproline 129. Benzoic acid causes the toxic effect at its accumulation in the liver. Choose the main conjugative agent to detoxify it: A. Glycine* B. PAPS C. S-adenosyl methionine D. Glutathione E. Acetyl-CoA 130. Point out the main place for the location of microsomal oxidation in a cell: A. Nucleus B. Cytoplasm C. EPR, smooth part* D. EPR, rough part E. Lysosomes 131. Find the correct definition of the term "xenobiotic": A. A substance that is an obligatory component of food products B. A substance that is unnatural for humans* C. A substance that is synthesized in small quantities in humans D. A substance that regulates metabolism in organism E. A substance that is a terminal product of metabolism 132. Find the enzyme participating in the function of the microsomal monooxygenase chain: A. NADH-dehydrogenase B. Cytochrome b C. Cytochrome c1 D. Cytochrome c E. Cytochrome P450* 133. Point out the enzyme of monooxygenase chain as a final electron acceptor from the reduced form of NADPН: A. Cytochrome b5 B. Cytochrome b C. Cytochrome P450* D. Cytochrome c1 E. Cytochrome aa3 134. Monooxygenase and reductase chains of EPR (smooth part) are necessary for: A. Saturated HFA synthesis B. Structure modification of endogenous substrates only C. Structure modification of xenobiotics and endogenous substrates* D. Structure modification of xenobiotics only E. Energy reception at the oxidation of xenobiotics 135. Point out the conjugation agent that is conjugative agent at the detoxification of heterocyclic alcohols in the liver: A. Glutathione B. Glycine C. Valine D. PAPS* E. Histidine 136. Point out the liver enzyme participating in the neutralization of xenobiotics, their metabolites and harmful endogenous products: A. Glutamine synthetase B. Glutamate dehydrogenase C. Alanine amino transferase D. Carbomoyl phosphate synthetase E. UDP-glucoronyl transferase* 137. Point out the peptide participating in the conjugation of some harmful products in the liver: A. Glutathione* B. Methionine C. Trialanine D. Oxytocin E. Prolylproline 138. Benzoic acid has the formula C6H5-COOH and causes the toxic effect at its accumulation in the liver. Choose the main conjugative agent for this substance: A. Glycine* B. PАPS C. S-adenosyl methionine D. Glutathione E. Urea 139. Point out the enzyme located in the cytoplasm of hepatocytes and participating in the modification of xenobiotics: A. Glutamine synthetase B. Alcohol dehydrogenase* C. Alanine amino transferase D. Carbomoyl phosphate transferase E. Glutamate dehydrogenase 140. In course of metabolic process active forms of oxygen including superoxide anion radical are formed in the human body. By means of what enzyme is this anion inactivated? A. Catalase B. Glutathione reductase C. Peroxidase D. Superoxide dismutase* E. Glutathione peroxidase 141. 12 hours after an acute attack of retrosternal pain a patient presented a jump of aspartate aminotransferase activity in blood serum. What pathology is this deviation typical for? A. Viral hepatitis B. Diabetes insipidus C. Collagenosis D. Diabetes mellitus E. *Myocardial infarction 142. A patient who had been working hard under condition of elevated temperature of the environment has now a changed quantity of blood plasma proteins. What phenomenon is the case? A. Absolute hyperproteinemia B. *Relative hyperproteinemia C. Absolute hypoproteinemia D. Disproteinemia E. Paraproteinemia 143. 62 y.o. woman complains of frequent pains in the area of her chest and backbone, rib fractures. A doctor assumed myelomatosis (plasmocytoma).What of the following laboratory characteristics will be of the greatest diagnostic importance? A. Proteinuria B. Hypoproteinemia C. Hypoglobulinemia D. Hyperalbuminemia E. *Paraproteinemia 144. A 4 y.o. child with signs of durative proteinic starvation was admitted to the hospital. The signs were as follows: Growth inhibition, anemia, oedema, mental deficiency. Choose the cause of oedema development: A. Reduced synthesis of lipoproteins B. Reduced synthesis of glycoproteins C. Reduced synthesis of hemoglobin D. Reduced synthesis of globulins E. *Reduced synthesis of albumins 145. Marked increase of activity of MB-forms of CPK (creatinephosphokinase) and LDH-1 was revealed by examination of the patient's blood. What is the most probable pathology? A. *Myocardial infarction B. Hepatitis C. Pancreatitis D. Rheumatism E. Cholecystitis 146. There is high activity of LDH1,2 , aspartate aminotransferase, creatine phosphokinase in the blood of patient. In what organs (tissues) the development of pathological process is the most probable? A. *In the heart muscle {initial stage of myocardium infraction} B. In skeletal muscle {dystrophy, atrophy} C. In kidneys and adrenals D. In liver and kidneys E. In connective tissue 147. The high level of Lactate Dehydrogenase (LDH) isozymes concentration showed the increase of LDH-1 and LDH-2 in a patient’s blood plasma. Point out the most probable diagnosis. A. Diabetes mellitus B. Skeletal muscle dystrophy C. *Myocardial infarction D. Acute pancreatitis E. Viral hepatitis 148. Analysis of blood serum of a patient revealed the increase of alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels. What cytological changes can cause such a situation? A. Disturbance of genetic apparatus of cells B. *Cellular breakdown C. Disorder of enzyme systems of cells D. Disturbance of cellular interrelations E. Disturbed energy supply of cells 149. Blood sampling for bulk analysis is recommended to be performed on an empty stomach and in the morning. What changes in blood composition can occur if to perform blood sampling after food intake? A. Reduced contents of erythrocytes B. Increased contents of erythrocytes C. Increased contents of leukocytes D. *Increased plasma proteins E. Reduced contents of thrombocytes 150. A 34-year-old patient was diagnosed with chronic glomerulonephritis 3 years ago. Edema has developed within the last 6 months. What caused the edema? A. Liver dysfunction of protein formation B. Hyperosmolarity of plasma C. *Proteinuria D. Hyperproduction of vasopressin E. Hyperaldosteronism 151. A 55 y.o. women consulted a doctor about having continuous cyclic uterine hemorrhages for a year, weakness, dizziness. Examination revealed skin pallor. Hemogram: Hb – 70 g/L, erythrocytes-3.2 x 1012/L, color index – 0.6; leukocytes – 6.0 x 109/L, reticulocytes – 1%, erythrocyte hypochromia. What anemia is it? A. *Iron-deficiency anemia B. B12-folate-deficiency anemia C. Hemolytic anemia D. Aplastic anemia E. Chronic posthemorrhagic anemia 152. A patient with hypochromic anemia has splitting hair and loss of hair, increased nail bottling and taste alteration. What is the mechanism of the development of these symptoms? A. Deficiency of vitamin B12 B. Decreased production of thyroid hormones C. Deficiency of vitamin A D. Decreased production of parathyrin E. *Deficiency of iron-containing enzymes 153. Diabetes mellitus causes ketosis as a result of activated oxidation of fatty acids. What disorders of acid-base equilibrium may be caused by excessive accumulation of ketone bodies in blood? A. Metabolic alkalosis B. *Metabolic acidosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Respiratory acidosis E. Any changes won't happen 154. A 63-year-old woman developed symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis. Their increase of which blood values indicators could be most significant in proving the diagnosis? A. R-glycosidase B. Acid phosphatase C. Lipoproteins D. General cholesterol E. *Additive glycosaminoglycans 155. A worker has decreased buffer capacity of blood due to exhausting muscular work. What acidic substance that came to blood caused this phenomenon? A. 3-phosphoglycerate B. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate C. *Lactate D. α-ketoglutarate E. Pyruvate 156. Examination of 27-year-old patient revealed pathological changes in liver and brain. Blood plasma analysis revealed an abrupt decrease in the copper concentration, urine analysis revealed an increased copper, concentration. The patient was diagnosed with Wilson’s degeneration. To confirm the diagnosis it is necessary to study the activity of the following enzyme in blood serum: A. Leucine aminopeptidase B. Xanthine oxidase C. Alcohol dehydrogenase D. Ceruloplasmin* E. Carbonic anhydrase 157. After a surgery a 36-year-old woman was given an intravenous injection of concentrated albumin solution. This has induced intensified water movement in the following direction: A. From the intercellular fluid to the capillaries* B. No changes of water movement will be observed C. From the intercellular to the cells D. From the cells to the intercellular fluid E. From the capillaries to the intercellular fluid 158. Name the enzyme which is the indicator of myocardium damage if its activity will be increased in the blood plasma in 10 times or more: A. Alkaline phosphatase B. Malate dehydrogenase C. Glutamate dehydrogenase D. Guanine transaminase E. Aspartate transaminase* 159. Point out the most probable location of the plasma proteins synthesis: A. Kidneys B. Muscle tissue C. Nervous tissue D. Liver* E. Lungs 160. Point out the blood plasma protein, participating in the blood oncotic pressure maintaining: A. Globulin B. Lipoprotein C. Ceruloplasmin D. Hemoglobin E. Albumin* 161. Point out the protein, which is not observed in the blood serum of healthy people: A. Cryoglobulin* B. Albumin C. Transferin D. Haptoglobin E. α2-Macroglobulin 162. Name the excretory enzyme of the blood plasma: A. Alkaline phosphatase* B. Malate dehydrogenase C. Glutamate dehydrogenase D. Alanine transaminase E. Aspartate transaminase 163. Blood is the tissue needed for the transport of all absorbed products in the gut after digestion processes. Name the function of the blood described above: A. Body temperature regulatory function B. Transport of hormones C. Nutrition function* D. The maintenance of acid-base balance in the organism E. Protection against microbial agents 164. Name the blood plasma protein used as inhibitor of some proteolytic enzymes: A. Albumin B. Immunoglobulin G C. C-reactive protein D. α1-Antitrypsin* E. Ceruloplasmin 165. Name the method used now as modern technique for the separation and determination of the content of some proteins in the blood plasma at the same time: A. Dialysis B. Immunoelectrophoresis* C. Spectrophotometry method D. X-ray radiation method E. Densitometry method 166. Name the factor of blood coagulation system needed for fibrin formation from fibrinogen: A. Plasmin B. Heparin C. Thrombin* D. Prothrombin E. Lysine 167. Point out the protease of blood that helps to solvate the fibrin clot: A. Plasminogen B. Lysolipase C. Plasmin* D. Antifibrinogen E. Tromboplastin 168. Point out the permissible range of the pH fluctuation in the blood: A. 8.0-8.61 B. 7.37-7.44* C. 7.81-7.94 D. 6.2-6.84 E. 6.85-7.0 169. Point out the non-protein nitrogenous component of the blood plasma that is in a level about 50% of total non-protein nitrogen: A. Uric acid B. Creatine C. Creatinine D. Amino acids E. Urea* 170. Point out the blood microelement: A. Sodium B. Copper* C. Calcium D. Potassium E. Magnesium 171. Point out the most powerful buffer system of the blood: A. The bicarbonate buffer system B. The phosphate buffer system C. The protein buffer system D. Hemoglobin buffer system* E. The acetate buffer system 172. Name the index of blood plasma which helps to recognize the change in biliary system function at cholestasis state: A. Fibrinogen B. Conjugated bilirubin* C. Uric acid D. Urea E. Creatine 173. Point out the major transport form of triacylglycerols from the intestine to the liver and other tissues: A. Chylomicrons* B. LDL C. VLDL D. IDL E. HDL 174. Creatine level is much higher then normal, creatinine level is lower then normal in the blood plasma of patient. Choose the probable diagnosis for this patient: A. Myocardium infarction B. Cholestasis C. Viral hepatitis D. Phenylketonuria E. Muscular dystrophy* 175. Metabolic acidosis is observed in patient` organism due to the accumulation of: A. Sodium ions B. Glucose C. Pyruvate* D. Fructose E. Glycerol 176. Kidney insufficiency in patient is accompanied with: A. Excess levels of urea in the blood plasma B. Excess levels of potassium ions in the blood plasma C. Disturbed clearance D. Disturbed filtration and reabsorption processes E. All that is placed above* 177. Point out the most important compensatory mechanism in metabolic acidosis: A. Hyperventilation B. Increased NH3 excretion by kidneys* C. Increased filtration of phosphates D. Increased HCO - production 3 E. Urea production in the liver 178. Point out a major source of ammonia in kidney tissue: A. Urea B. Aspartate C. Glutamine* D. Glutamate E. Uric acid 179. Guanidoacetic acid is formed in _____ from ____. Point out location of guanidoacetate synthesis and substrates for it. A. Kidney; Arginine+Glycine* B. Liver; Methionine+Glycine C. Liver; Cysteine+Arginine D. Muscle; Citrulline+Aspartate E. Brain; Methionine+Arginine 180. Choose normal amount of proteins excreted in urine/24 hours. A. Less than 150 mg* B. 200 mg - 225 mg C. 450 mg – 500 mg D. More than 800 mg E. 150 mg – 250 mg 181. Name organic compound which is terminal for humans and not reabsorbed in renal tubules: A. Globulins B. Glucose C. Albumin D. Creatinine* E. Bilirubin 182. Choose the specific gravity region (g/ml) for urine of healthy person: A. 1.005-1.015 B. 1.030-1.040 C. 1.015-1.020* D. 1.030-1.040 E. Less then 1.010 183. Creatinine levels in the urine and blood are used to test kidney function. Creatinine is useful for this test because it is not significantly reabsorbed nor secreted by kidney, and metabolically it is: A. Produced at a constant rate* B. Produced only in kidney C. A storage form of energy D. An acceptor of protons in renal tubules E. A precursor for phosphocreatine 184. Appearance of albumins in the urine of diseased person may be at: A. Acute nephritis B. Chronical nephritis C. Severe form of diabetes mellitus D. Pyelonephritis E. All that is placed above* 185. Filtration process in glomerulus proceeds due to mechanism___________and promotes formation of ________: A. Active transport due to ATPases; final urine B. Passive diffusion against gradient of substances; primary urine C. Passive diffusion due to gradient in the blood; primary urine* D. Passive diffusion due to gradient in the blood; final urine E. Active symport mechanism; primary urine 186. Choose the main biochemical tests for diagnostics of kidney diseases: A. Urea content in the blood plasma and in the urine B. Creatinine content in the blood and urine C. Sodium ions content in the blood and urine D. N-acetyl-beta-D-glucosaminidase activity (blood serum, urine) E. All that is placed above* 187. What organic compounds accumulate in final urine at severe form of diabetes mellitus? A. Albumins B. Glucose C. Ketone bodies D. Bilirubin conjugated E. All that is placed in positions A, B, C* 188. Kidney insufficiency development will cause the infringements in those processes: A. Erythropoietin synthesis and secretion B. Calcitriol synthesis C. Mineralization of bone tissue D. Creatine synthesis E. All that is placed above* 189. Point out the substance that appears in the urine in a case of alkaptonuria: A. Fructose B. Protein C. Homogentisic acid* D. Glucose E. Tryptophan 190. The diuresis in healthy adults is about: A. 400-700 ml B. 1000-2000 ml* C. 2000-3000 ml D. 700-900 ml E. 3000-4000 ml 191. Point out the pathological component of urine: A. Hemoglobin* B. Urea C. Uric acid D. Creatinine E. Amino acids 192. Point out the normal component of urine: A. Coniugated bilirubin B. Glucose C. Ketone bodies D. Uric acid* E. Albumins 193. What is the urine color when intestinal rotting processes are intensified: A. Brown B. Straw-yellow C. Red D. Green or blue* E. Beer like color 194. Choose the urine component, whose concentration increases at consuming a lot of meat food: A. Glucose B. Protein C. Uric acid* D. Ketone bodies E. Fructose 195. The concentration of what urine component will decrease in a case of viral hepatitis: A. Glucose B. Protein C. Urea* D. Lipids E. Carbohydrates 196. Point out the qualitative reaction to prove the presence of blood pigments in urine: A. Heller's test B. Benzidine test* C. Lugol's test D. Trommer's reaction E. Rozine's reaction 197. The violation of the hormone secretion is followed by polyuria. Choose this hormone: A. Adrenalin B. Insulin C. Testosterone D. Vasopressin* E. Oxytocin 198. Point out the qualitative reaction to prove the presence of proteins in urine: A. Heller's test* B. Benzidine test C. Lugol's test D. Trommer's reaction E. Rozine's reaction 199. Examination of a 43 y.o. anephric patient revealed anemia symptoms. What is the cause of these symptoms? A. Folic acid deficit B. Vitamin B12 deficit C. Reduced synthesis of erythropoietins* D. Enhanced destruction of erythrocytes E. Iron deficit 200. A patient complains about dyspnea provoked by the physical activity. Clinical examination revealed anaemia and presence of the para-protein in the zone of gamma- globulins. To confirm the myeloma diagnosis it is necessary to determine the following index in the patient’s urine: A. Ceruplasmin B. Bilirubin C. Antitrypsin D. Bence Jones protein* E. Haemoglobin 201. Human red blood cells do not contain mitochondria. What is the main pathway for ATP production in these cells? A. Creatine kinase reaction B. *Anaerobic glycolysis C. Cyclase reaction D. Aerobic glycolysis E. Oxidative phosphorylation 202. A 67-year-old male patient consumes eggs, pork fat, butter, milk and meat. Blood test results: cholesterol – 12.3 mmol/l, total lipids – 8.2 g/l, increased low-density lipoprotein fraction (LDL). What type of hyperlipoproteinemia is observed in the patient? A. Hyporlipoproteinemia type I B. Hyperlipoproteinemia type IV C. Cholesterol, hyperlipoproteinemia D. Hyperlipoproteinemia type IIa E. *Hyperlipoproteinemia type IIb 203. A 36-year-old fimale patient has a history of B2-hypovitaminosis. The most likely cause of specific symptoms (epithelial, mucosa, cutaneous, corneal lesions) is the deficiency of: A. Cytochrome oxidase B. Cytochrome B C. Cytochrome A1 D. Cytochrome C E. *FAD or FMN 204. A 53-year-old male patient is diagnosed with Paget’s disease. The concentration of oxyproline in daily urine is sharply increased, which primarily means intensified disintegration of: A. Albumin B. Hemoglobin C. *Collagen D. Fibrinogen E. Keratin 205. A patient is diagnosed with iron-dificiency sideroachrestic anemia, progression of which is characterized by skin hyperpigmentation, pigmentary cirrhosis, heart and pancreas affection. Iron level in the blood serum is increased. What disorder of iron metabolism causes this disease? A. Excessive iron intake with food B. Disorder of iron absorption in bowels C. Increased iron assimilation by body D. *Failure to assimilate iron leading to iron accumulation in tissues 206. Disruption of nerve fiber myelinogenesis causes neurological disorders and mental retardation. These symptoms are typical for hereditary and acquired alterations in the metabolism of: A. Phosphatidic acid B. Cholesterol C. *Sphingolipids D. Neutral fats E. Higher fatty acids 207. A patient complains of photoreception disorder and frequent acute viral diseases. He has been prescribed a vitamin that affects photoreception processes by producing rhodopsin, the photosensitive pigment. What vitamin is it? A. Cyanocobalamin B. Tocopherol acetate C. Pyridoxine hydrochloride D. Thiamine E. *Retinol acetate 208. Steatosis is caused by the accumulation of triacylglycerols in hepatocytes. One of the mechanisms of this disease development is a decrease in the utilization of VLDL neutral fat. What lipotropic factors intake with food prevent the development of steatosis? A. Valine, B3, B2 B. Arginine, B2, B3 C. Alanine B1, PP D. *Methionine, B6, B12 E. Isoleucine, B1, B2 209. Symptoms of pellagra (vitamin PP deficiency) is particularly pronounced in patients with low protein diet, because nicotine amide precursor in humans is one of the essential amino acids, namely: A. Lysine B. Threonine C. *Tryptophan D. Arginine E. Histidine 210. A biochemical urine analysis has been performed for a patient with progressive muscular dystrophy. In the given case muscle disease can be confirmed by the high content of the following substance in urine: A. Urea B. Porphyrin C. Hippuric acid D. *Creatine E. Creatinine 211. A 49-year-old male patient with acute pancreatitis was likely to develop pancreatic necrosis, while active pancreatic proteases were absorbed into the blood stream and tissue proteins broke up. What protective factors of the body can inhibit these processes? A. Immunoglobulin B. Ceruloplasmin, transferrin C. *a2-macroglobulin, a1-antitrypsin D. Cryoglobulin, interferon E. Hemopexin, haptoglobin 212. A patient is diagnosed with hereditary coagulopathy that is characterized by factor VIII deficiency. Specify the phase of blood clotting during which coagulation will be disrupted in the given case: A. Clot retraction B. *Thromboplastin formation C. Fibrin formation D. Thrombin formation 213. Examination of a 56-year-old female patient with a history of type 1 diabetes revealed a disorder of protein metabolism that is manifested by aminoacidemia in the laboratory blood test values, and clinically by the delayed wound healing and decreased synthesis of antibodies. Which of the following mechanisms causes the development of aminoacidemia? A. *Increased proteolysis B. Decrease in the concentration of amino acids in blood C. Albuminosis D. Increase in the oncotic pressure in the blood plasma E. Increase in low-density lipoprotein level

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