CompTIA N10-007 Network+ 100-Question Practice Exam
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1. Which of the answers listed below refers to a secure replacement for Telnet?
A. ICMP
B. FTP
C. IPv6
D. SSH
2. Which of the following answers refers to a protocol used in network management systems to monitor
network-attached devices?
A. SIP
B. SNMP
C. NetBIOS
D. RTP
3. Network cabling, hubs, and repeaters can be found at which OSI layer?
A. Physical layer
B. Layer 3
C. Session layer
D. Application layer
4. Switches and MAC addresses are defined at which of the OSI layers?
A. Data link layer
B. Layer 4
C. Application layer
D. Layer 1
5. Which of the following devices operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model?
A. Passive hub
B. Switch
C. Router
D. Active hub
6. The largest data unit expressed in bytes which may be sent over a network link is referred to as:
A. QoS
B. MX
C. Hop count
D. MTU
7. Data from multiple VLANs on a single switch is carried through a single network link between
switches. This is often referred to as: (Select two answers)
A. Routing
B. Trunking
C. VLAN multiplexing
D. Tunneling
E. Load balancing
8. What is PoE?
A. Media converter type
B. Another term for Wireless Access Point (WAP)
C. Technology that allows for supplying electrical power over Ethernet cable
D. Another term for Private Branch Exchange (PBX) system
9. A lightly protected subnet placed on the outside of the company's firewall consisting of publicly
available servers is known as:
A. VPN
B. Access Point (AP)
C. VLAN
D. DMZ
10. An IPv6 address consists of:
A. 32 bits
B. 48 bits
C. 64 bits
D. 128 bits
11. A double colon in an IPv6 address indicates that part of the address containing only zeroes has been
compressed to help make the address shorter.
A. True
B. False
12. An IP address in the range 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254 indicates a problem with what type
of service?
A. DNS
B. SNMP
C. SMTP
D. DHCP
13. Which of the following is an example of an APIPA address?
A. 127.0.0.1
B. 192.168.0.3
C. 169.254.10.20
D. 65.55.57.27
14. IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing:
A. Ethernet
B. WiMAX
C. WLANs
D. Bluetooth
15. In terms of size and reach, a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) can be placed between a LAN
(smaller type of network) and a WAN (larger type of network).
A. True
B. False
16. Personal Area Network (PAN) over Bluetooth is known as:
A. Intranet
B. Piconet
C. Extranet
D. Ethernet
17. Which of the answers listed below refer(s) to the characteristic feature(s) of the IEEE 802.11a
wireless standard amendment? (Select all that apply)
A. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps
B. 5.0 GHz frequency band
C. CSMA/CA network access method
D. 2.4 GHz frequency band
E. Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps
F. CSMA/CD network access method
18. Which of the following answers list(s) the feature(s) of the IEEE 802.11b wireless standard
amendment? (Select all that apply)
A. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps
B. 5.0 GHz frequency range
C. CSMA/CD network access method
D. 2.4 GHz frequency range
E. Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps
F. CSMA/CA network access method
19. What are the characteristics of the IEEE 802.11g wireless standard amendment? (Select all that
apply)
A. CSMA/CD network access method
B. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps
C. CSMA/CA network access method
D. 2.4 GHz frequency range
E. Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps
F. 5.0 GHz frequency range
20. The characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11n wireless standard amendment include: (Select all that
apply)
A. Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO)
B. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps
C. 2.4 GHz frequency band
D. CSMA/CD network access method
E. 5.0 GHz frequency band
F. Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)
G. Maximum data signaling rate of 600 Mbps
H. CSMA/CA network access method
21. Which of the following answers refers(s) to the feature(s) of the IEEE 802.11ac wireless standard
amendment? (Select all that apply)
A. Data signaling rate of up to 600 Mbps
B. 5.0 GHz frequency band
C. CSMA/CD network access method
D. CSMA/CA network access method
E. Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)
F. 2.4 GHz frequency band
22. Frequency ranges used in 802.11 networks include: (Select 2 answers)
A. 2.4 GHz
B. 54 Mbps
C. 11 GHz
D. 2.4 MHz
E. 5.0 GHz
23. Which of the following acronyms refers to a technology utilizing multiple antennas at both the
transmitter and receiver to increase wireless bandwidth and range?
A. OSPF
B. MIMO
C. ISAKMP
D. MMF
24. A cloud computing infrastructure type where applications are hosted over a network (typically
Internet) eliminating the need to install and run the software on the customer's own computers is
called:
A. Thick client
B. SaaS
C. Virtualization
D. IaaS
25. Which of the following cloud service types would provide the best solution for a web developer
intending to create a web app?
A. SaaS
B. API
C. PaaS
D. IaaS
26. In which of the cloud computing infrastructure types, clients, instead of buying all the hardware and
software, purchase computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain
all the necessary equipment?
A. IaaS
B. SaaS
C. P2P
D. PaaS
27. DNS database AAAA record identifies:
A. Mail server
B. IPv4 address
C. Canonical name
D. IPv6 address
28. Which of the following DNS database records maps a domain name to a list of mail servers for that
domain?
A. AAAA
B. MX
C. PTR
D. CNAME
E. A
29. Which of the DNS database records listed below allows multiple domain names to resolve to the
same IP address?
A. MX
B. CNAME
C. AAAA
D. PTR
E. A
30. A range of IP addresses assigned to hosts requesting dynamic IP address from a DHCP server is
known as:
A. DHCP relay
B. Lease
C. Scope
D. Reservation
31. The duration of time a DHCP client can use an IP address dynamically assigned by the DHCP server is
referred to as:
A. Option
B. Reservation
C. Scope
D. Lease
32. Networked clients not residing on the same subnet as the DHCP server can still obtain an IP address
from the server through a DHCP relay agent.
A. True
B. False
33. UTP cabling falls into the category of:
A. Multimode fiber-optic cabling
B. Single-mode fiber-optic cabling
C. Twisted-pair cabling
D. Coaxial cabling
34. Which of the following cabling types are used in optical-fiber communication links? (Select 2
answers)
A. Multimode
B. RG-6
C. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
D. RG-59
E. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
F. Single-mode
35. A type of cabling coated with a fire-retardant jacket placed in the space between dropped ceiling
and structural ceiling is called:
A. UTP cabling
B. Plenum
C. Multimode cabling
D. Non-plenum
36. Which of the statements listed below are true? (Select 2 answers)
A. RJ-45 is used with twisted-pair cabling
B. RJ-45 connects the cable to the phone outlet
C. RJ-45 is used with fiber-optic cabling
D. RJ-45 connects the cable to the network adapter
37. Which of the following connector types is used with coaxial cabling?
A. MT-RJ
B. LC
C. BNC
D. ST
38. Which of the following connectors are used with optical fiber cabling? (Select all that apply)
A. ST
B. SC
C. DB-9
D. LC
E. DB-25
39. The 66 block (used in telephone systems) and the 110 block (used in computer networks) are
examples of punch-down blocks used for connecting sets of wires.
A. True
B. False
40. The maximum cable segment length for Cat 5e cable is:
A. 25 meters
B. 50 meters
C. 100 meters
D. 250 meters
41. What is the minimum cabling requirement for a 10 Gbps connection over copper twisted-pair?
A. Cat 5
B. Cat 5e
C. Cat 6
D. Cat 6a
42. The Category 6 (Cat 6) cabling supports 10 Gbps data transfer rate at a limited range of up to 55
meters, whereas Cat 6A (Augmented Category 6) cabling allows for 10 Gbps data transfer rate over a
standard cable segment length of 100 meters.
A. True
B. False
43. Which of the answers listed below refer to copper cabling termination specifications? (Select 2
answers)
A. T568A xxx
B. IEEE 802.3ab
C. T568B xxx
D. IEEE 802.3af
44. Which of the following are the characteristics of 10GBaseT Ethernet? (Select all that apply)
A. Cat 6a cabling
B. RJ-45 connectors
C. Multimode fiber
D. CAT 5e cabling
E. 802.3an
45. What type of device allows for connecting copper and fiber-optic cabling?
A. Multilayer switch
B. 56k modem
C. Media converter
D. TDR
46. A device that apart from the function of an ordinary Layer 2 network switch can also provide
additional functions at higher levels of the OSI reference model (e.g. routing at Layer 3) is referred to as
a multilayer switch.
A. True
B. False
47. In computer networks, a computer system or an application that acts as an intermediary between
another computer and the Internet is commonly referred to as:
A. DHCP relay
B. Web server
C. VPN concentrator
D. Proxy
48. Which of the following acronyms refers to a network security solution combining the functionality of
a firewall with additional safeguards such as URL filtering, content inspection, or malware inspection?
A. MTU
B. STP
C. UTM
D. XM
49. A software application used to manage multiple guest operating systems on a single host system is
called:
A. ICS server
B. Hypervisor
C. UC server
D. Virtual switch
50. Which of the following acronyms refers to a dedicated storage appliance that can be added to a local
network?
A. SPS
B. NAS
C. SAN
D. NFS
51. Which of the answers listed below refers to a dedicated local network consisting of devices providing
data access?
A. VLAN
B. SAN
C. iSCSI
D. NAS
52. A single non-standard Ethernet frame that allows for larger maximum payload size is commonly
referred to as:
A. Magic packet
B. Jumbo frame
C. MTU black hole
D. Ping of death
53. T1 lines support data transfer rates of up to:
A. 1.544 Mbps
B. 2.048 Mbps
C. 34.368 Mbps
D. 44.736 Mbps
54. What is the speed of an E3 line?
A. 1.544 Mbps
B. 2.048 Mbps
C. 34.368 Mbps
D. 44.736 Mbps
55. What is the most common type of a DSL Internet access?
A. VDSL
B. ADSL
C. SDSL
D. UDSL
56. What are the characteristic features of satellite Internet connections? (Select all that apply)
A. Lack of signal interference
B. Signal latency
C. High connection speed
D. Interference (weather dependent)
E. Low connection speed
57.Which of the following solutions enables use of different types of network protocols on the same
network?
A. LWAPP
B. MPLS
C. MLPPP
D. MIBS
58. A physical point where an ISP's network ends and connects with the customer's on-premises wiring
(which also defines where the ISP's responsibility for maintenance ends and the consumer's
responsibility begins) is commonly referred to as demarcation point, or demarc in short.
A. True
B. False
59. A device providing remote line diagnostics capability placed at the joining point between an ISP's line
and customer's premises wiring is known as:
A. Smart jack
B. UTM appliance
C. Demarc
D. Line tester
60. Logical network diagram is a document that describes the detailed layout of a building and the way
devices are connected to the network through the actual cabling that transmits data.
A. True
B. False
61. A network device designed for managing the optimal distribution of workloads across multiple
computing resources is called:
A. Layer 3 switch
B. Access Point (AP)
C. Load balancer
D. Domain controller
62. Which of the following backup site types allows for fastest disaster recovery?
A. Cold site
B. Warm site
C. Alternate site
D. Hot site
63. A cold site is the most expensive type of backup site for an organization to operate.
A. True
B. False
64. Restoring data from an incremental backup requires: (Select 2 answers)
A. Copy of the last incremental backup
B. All copies of differential backups made since the last full backup
C. Copy of the last differential backup
D. All copies of incremental backups made since the last full backup
E. Copy of the last full backup
65. Which of the following terms is used to describe an average time required to repair a failed
component or device?
A. MTBF
B. MTU
C. MTTR
D. MPLS
66. Vulnerability scanning: (Select all that apply)
A. Identifies lack of security controls
B. Actively tests security controls
C. Identifies common misconfigurations
D. Exploits vulnerabilities
E. Passively tests security controls
67. Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a technology that allows for real-time analysis of
security alerts generated by network hardware and applications?
A. LACP
B. DSCP
C. SIEM
D. LWAPP
68. A type of repository associated with SNMP used for storing and managing details about monitored
devices is known as:
A. KVM
B. DMI
C. MIB
D. RDP
69. A system that uses public network (such as Internet) as a means for creating private encrypted
connections between remote locations is called:
A. Dialup
B. WAN
C. VPN
D. SOHO
70. Which of the VPN connection types listed below typically doesn't require a dedicated VPN client
application? (Select all that apply)
A. SSL VPN
B. Site-to-site
C. PSTN
D. Host-to-host
71. A network technician uses an RDP client on their Windows OS in order to remotely troubleshoot a
problem on another Windows machine. Which of the following ports needs to be opened for the built-in
Windows RDP server to allow this type of network connection?
A. 1701
B. 139
C. 3389
D. 110
72. Apart from providing the ability to log in remotely and execute commands on a remote host, SSH is
also used for secure file transfer through the SSH-based protocols such as SSH File Transfer Protocol
(SFTP) or Secure Copy (SCP).
A. True
B. False
73. A software or hardware-based security solutions designed to detect and prevent unauthorized use
and transmission of confidential information outside of a corporate network are referred to as:
A. AUP
B. DLP
C. UAT
D. LTO
74. Which of the following acronyms refers to a policy of permitting employees to bring personally
owned mobile devices and to use those devices to access privileged company information and
applications?
A. BSOD
B. BYOD
C. JBOD
D. BYOB
75. Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a set of rules enforced in a network that restrict the
use to which the network may be put?
A. OEM
B. AUP
C. UAT
D. ARO
76. A set of physical characteristics of the human body that can be used for identification and access
control purposes is known as:
A. Biometrics
B. Physical security
C. RFID badge
D. Physical token
77. Which of the following solutions provide(s) the AAA functionality? (Select all that apply)
A. MSCHAP
B. RADIUS
C. PPTP
D. TACACS+
78. An authentication subsystem that enables a user to access multiple, connected system components
(such as separate hosts on a network) after a single login at only one of the components is known as:
A. SSO
B. TLS
C. SSL
D. WAP
79. Which of the following is an example of a multifactor authentication?
A. Password and biometric scan
B. User name and PIN
C. Smart card and identification badge
D. Iris and fingerprint scan
80. 802.1x is an IEEE standard defining:
A. Token ring networks
B. Port-based network access control
C. VLAN tagging
D. Wireless networking
81. A network access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used
to determine access to the network is known as:
A. EMI shielding
B. Hardware lock
C. MAC filter
D. Quality of Service (QoS)
82. Which of the following answers refers to a solution allowing administrators to block Internet access
for users until they perform required action?
A. Access logs
B. Mantrap
C. Post-admission NAC
D. Captive portal
83. Which wireless encryption scheme offers the highest level of protection?
A. WEP
B. WPA2
C. WAP
D. WPA
84. Which of the following attacks uses multiple compromised computer systems against its target?
A. DoS
B. Botnet
C. Logic bomb
D. DDoS
85. The practice of obtaining confidential information by manipulating or deceiving people is known as:
A. Social engineering
B. Authentication
C. Spyware
D. Hacking
86. Which of the terms listed below refers to a rogue access point?
A. Computer worm
B. Backdoor
C. Evil twin
D. Trojan horse
87. The term war driving refers to:
A. Penetration test
B. Scanning for unsecured wireless networks while driving in a car
C. Vulnerability scan
D. Marking unsecured wireless networks
88. An attack against encrypted data that relies heavily on computing power in order to check all
possible keys and passwords until the correct one is found is known as a brute-force attack.
A. True
B. False
89. A protocol that provides protection against switching loops is called:
A. UTP
B. SSH
C. STP
D. HMAC
90. A lightly protected subnet placed on the outside of the company's firewall consisting of publicly
available servers is known as:
A. VPN
B. Access Point (AP)
C. VLAN
D. DMZ
91. Which of the following provide the means for checking data integrity? (Select two answers)
A. WEP
B. CHAP
C. SHA-1
D. WPA2
E. MD5
92. A monitored host or network specifically designed to detect unauthorized access attempts is known
as:
A. Botnet
B. Rogue access point
C. Honeypot
D. Flood guard
93. Which of the following actions should be the first step in the troubleshooting process?
A. Establishing a theory of probable cause
B. Implementing the solution
C. Identifying the problem
D. Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem
94. Once a plan of action to resolve a problem has been established, the next step in the
troubleshooting methodology process is to:
A. Test the theory to determine cause
B. Question users
C. Implement the solution
D. Establish a theory of probable cause
95. According to the troubleshooting theory, verification of full system functionality and implementation
of applicable preventative measures should be performed:
A. After documenting findings, actions and outcomes
B. As the first step of the troubleshooting process
C. After implementing the solution
D. As the last step of the troubleshooting process
96. The very last step of the troubleshooting process involves documenting findings, actions, and
outcomes. This step comes after verification of full system functionality and implementation of
applicable preventative measures.
A. True
B. False
97. Which of the following tools would be the best for attaching RJ-45 connector to the end of a twistedpair Ethernet cable?
A. Punchdown tool
B. Cable crimpers
C. Cable certifier
D. Needle-nose pliers
98. A type of tool used for attaching cables to a patch panel is known as:
A. Crimper
B. Toner probe
C. Punchdown tool
D. Cable tester
99. Which of the tools listed below would be used for locating faults and breaks in fiber-optic cabling?
A. Loopback adapter
B. OTDR
C. Multimeter
D. TDR
100. Netstat is a command-line utility used for:
A. Testing the reachability of a remote host
B. Displaying intermediary points on the packet route
C. Checking the TCP/IP configuration details
D. Displaying active TCP/IP connections
ANSWERS
1. Answer: D. SSH
Explanation: Secure Shell (SSH) is a tunneling protocol for secure remote login and other secure network
services designed as a replacement for Telnet and other insecure remote shells. SSH is based on a clientserver model and runs by default on TCP port 22.
2. Answer: B. SNMP
Explanation: Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a UDP-based, Application Layer protocol
used in network management systems to monitor network-attached devices. SNMP is typically
integrated into most modern network infrastructure devices such as routers, bridges, switches, servers,
printers, copiers, fax machines, and other network-attached devices. An SNMP-managed network
consists of three key components: a managed device, a network-management software module that
resides on a managed device (Agent), and a network management system (NMS) which executes
applications that monitor and control managed devices and collect SNMP information from Agents. The
manager receives notifications (Traps and InformRequests) on UDP port 162. The SNMP Agent receives
requests on UDP port 161. All SNMP-compliant devices include a virtual database called Management
Information Base (MIB) containing information about configuration and state of the device that can be
queried by the SNMP management station.
3. Answer: A. Physical layer
Explanation: Network cabling, hubs, and repeaters can be found at the Physical layer (Layer 1) of the OSI
model.
4. Answer: A. Data link layer
Explanation: Switches handle network traffic based on Media Access Control (MAC) addresses. Both,
switches and MAC addresses are terms that are defined at the Data link layer (Layer 2) of the OSI model.
5. Answer: C. Router
Explanation: Routers operate at Layer 3 (Network layer) of the OSI model. Switches operate at Layer 2
(Data link layer) of the OSI model. Hubs operate at Layer 1 (Physical layer) of the OSI model.
6. Answer: D. MTU
Explanation: The largest data unit expressed in bytes which may be sent over a network link is also
referred to as Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU). MTU values may vary depending on the protocol
used; an Ethernet frame for example has the MTU set to 1500 bytes.
7. Answers: B and C. Trunking and VLAN multiplexing
Explanation: Data from multiple VLANs on a single switch is carried through a single network link
between switches. This is often referred to as "trunking" or "VLAN multiplexing", and each of the
switches has a special port (trunk port) configured to pass all the data, regardless of the VLAN number,
between all switches on a LAN. To allow for multiple VLANs on one link, frames from individual VLANs
must be identified. The most common and preferred method, IEEE 802.1Q, adds a tag to the Ethernet
frame header labeling it as belonging to a certain VLAN.
8. Answer: C. Technology that allows for supplying electrical power over Ethernet cable
Explanation: Technology that allows for supplying electrical power over Ethernet cable is also known as
Power over Ethernet (PoE).
9. Answer: D. DMZ
Explanation: In the context of computer security, the term Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) refers to a lightly
protected subnet consisting of publicly available servers placed on the outside of the company's firewall.
10. Answer: D. 128 bits
Explanation: An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits compared to 32 bits in IPv4. IPv6 addresses are written
in eight groups of four hexadecimal digits separated by colons (IPv4 addresses are made of four groups
of decimal digits separated by dots).
11. Answer: A. True
Explanation: Double colon in an IPv6 address indicates that part of the address containing only zeroes
has been compressed to help make the address shorter.
12. Answer: D. DHCP
Explanation: An IP address in the range 169.254.0.1 through 169.254.255.254 indicates that a DHCP
service is not available. IP address in the range 169.254.x.x is also known as Automatic Private IP
Address (APIPA). Auto configuration with APIPA is a feature of Windows operating systems. Windows
clients configured with APIPA can communicate only within a private network and cannot send data on
the Internet.
13. Answer: C. 169.254.10.20
Explanation: Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) allows a Windows host to self-configure an IP
address and subnet mask when Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is unavailable. APIPA uses
an address block range between 169.254.0.0 and 169.254.254.255. APIPA-assigned addresses are valid
only for communications within a network segment that a host is connected to (a host with APIPAassigned address cannot connect to the Internet).
14. Answer: C. WLANs
Explanation: IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs).
15. Answer: A. True
Explanation: In terms of size and reach, a Metropolitan Area Network (MAN) can be placed between a
LAN (smaller type of network) and a WAN (larger type of network).
16. Answer: B. Piconet
Explanation: Personal Area Network (PAN) over Bluetooth is known as piconet.
17. Answers: A, B and C. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps, 5.0 GHz frequency band, and
CSMA/CA network access method
Explanation: The characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11a wireless standard amendment include
maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps, 5.0 GHz frequency band used by the 802.11a devices, and
Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method.
18. Answers: D, E, and F. 2.4 GHz frequency range, Maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps, and
CSMA/CA network access method
Explanation: The IEEE 802.11b wireless standard amendment features 2.4 GHz frequency range available
for 802.11b devices, maximum data signaling rate of 11 Mbps, and Carrier Sense Multiple Access /
Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method.
19. Answers: B, C, and D. Maximum data signaling rate of 54 Mbps, CSMA/CA network access method,
and 2.4 GHz frequency range
Explanation: The characteristics of the IEEE 802.11g wireless standard amendment include maximum
data signaling rate of 54 Mbps, Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network
access method, and 2.4 GHz frequency range.
20. Answers: A, C, E, G, and H. Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO), 2.4 GHz frequency band, 5.0
GHz frequency band, Maximum data signaling rate of 600 Mbps, and CSMA/CA network access method
Explanation: The characteristic features of the IEEE 802.11n wireless standard amendment include the
Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MIMO) technology, either 2.4 GHz or 5.0 GHz frequency band that can
be used by 802.11n-compliant devices, maximum data signaling rate of 600 Mbps, and Carrier Sense
Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network access method.
21. Answers: B, D, and E. 5.0 GHz frequency band, CSMA/CA network access method, and Multi-User
Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO)
Explanation: The IEEE 802.11ac wireless standard amendment features 5.0 GHz frequency band for
802.11ac-compliant devices, Carrier Sense Multiple Access / Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) network
access method, and the Multi-User Multiple Input / Multiple Output (MU-MIMO) technology.
22. Answers: A and E. 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz
Explanation: 802.11 networks (WLANs) operate in 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz frequency ranges.
23. Answer: B. MIMO
Explanation: Multiple-input and multiple-output (MIMO) is a technology utilizing multiple antennas at
both the transmitter and receiver in order to increase wireless bandwidth and range.
24. Answer: B. SaaS
Explanation: Software as a Service (SaaS) is a type of cloud computing infrastructure where applications
are hosted over a network (typically Internet) eliminating the need to install and run the software on the
customer's own computers and simplifying maintenance and support. Compared to conventional
software deployment which requires licensing fee and often investment in additional hardware on the
client side, SaaS can be delivered at a lower cost by providing remote access to applications and pricing
based on monthly or annual subscription fee.
25. Answer: C. PaaS
Explanation: Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a category of cloud computing services providing cloudbased application development tools, in addition to services for testing, deploying, collaborating on,
hosting, and maintaining applications.
26. Answer: A. IaaS
Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is one of the cloud computing infrastructure types in
which clients, instead of buying all the hardware and software, purchase computing resources as an
outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary equipment. The clients
usually pay for computational resources on a per-use basis. In IaaS, cost of the service depends on the
amount of consumed resources.
27. Answer: D. IPv6 address
Explanation: AAAA is one of the DNS record types and identifies an IPv6 address.
28. Answer: B. MX
Explanation: A type of DNS database record that maps a domain name to a list of mail servers for that
domain is called MX.
29. Answer: B. CNAME
Explanation: The CNAME DNS database record allows for resolving multiple domain names to the same
IP address.
30. Answer: C. Scope
Explanation: A range of IP addresses assigned to hosts requesting dynamic IP address from a DHCP
server is known as DHCP scope. The duration of time a DHCP client can use an IP address dynamically
assigned by the DHCP server is referred to as DHCP lease. Permanent IP address assignment from a
DHCP server is known as reservation.
31. Answer: D. Lease
Explanation: The duration of time a DHCP client can use an IP address dynamically assigned by the DHCP
server is referred to as DHCP lease.
32. Answer: A. True
Explanation: Networked clients not residing on the same subnet as the DHCP server can still obtain an IP
address from the server through a DHCP relay agent.
33. Answer: C. Twisted-pair cabling
Explanation: Unshielded Twisted-Pair (UTP) cabling falls into the category of twisted-pair copper cabling.
UTP cable consists of eight wires grouped into pairs. Each wire is covered by an insulating material, and
wires in each pair are twisted around each other to reduce signal interference from adjacent wire pairs
(effect known as crosstalk). The other type of twisted-pair copper cabling is Shielded Twisted Pair (STP).
The difference between the two is that STP cables take advantage of additional protective cover that
allows for reducing signal interference from outside sources. The general category of copper cabling
used in computer networks also includes third type of copper cabling called coaxial cabling, or coax in
short.
34. Answers: A and F. Multimode and Single-mode
Explanation: Cabling types used in optical-fiber communication links include single-mode and multimode
fiber-optic cabling. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP) and Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) are copper cabling
types. RG-6 and RG-59 are two types of coaxial copper cabling.
35. Answer: B. Plenum
Explanation: The term "Plenum" refers to an enclosed space used for airflow, such as the one between a
dropped ceiling and the structural ceiling in a building. Cabling coated with a fire-retardant jacket placed
in this space is called plenum-rated cabling. Plenum-rated cabling must meet special requirements so
that it doesn't catch on fire easily.
36. Answers: A and D. RJ-45 is used with twisted-pair cabling and RJ-45 connects the cable to the
network adapter
Explanation: RJ-45 (Registered Jack 45) is a type of twisted-pair copper cabling connector used in
Ethernet networks. Registered Jack is a series of standardized connectors and wiring patterns. RJ-45 is
one of the two RJ connectors mentioned in the N10-007 exam objectives. Another one, called RJ-11, is
smaller in size and can be found on telephones and telephone sockets.
37. Answer: C. BNC
Explanation: Bayonet Neill–Concelman (BNC) is a common type of connector used with coaxial cabling.
Mechanical Transfer Registered Jack (MT-RJ), Straight Tip (ST) connector, and Lucent Connector (LC) are
connectors used for fiber-optic cabling.
38. Answers: A, B, and D. ST, SC, and LC
Explanation: ST, SC, and LC are connectors types used with optical fiber cabling.
39. Answer: A. True
Explanation: The 66 block (used in telephone systems) and the 110 block (used in computer networks)
are examples of punch-down blocks used for connecting sets of wires.
40. Answer: C. 100 meters
Explanation: The maximum cable segment length for Cat 5e cable is 100 meters.
41. Answer: C. Cat 6
Explanation: A Category 6 (Cat 6) cable meets the minimum cabling requirement for a 10 Gbps
connection over copper twisted-pair.
42. Answer: A. True
Explanation: Category 6 (Cat 6) cabling supports 10 Gbps data transfer rate at a limited range of up to 55
meters, whereas Cat 6A (Augmented Category 6) cabling allows for 10 Gbps data transfer rate over a
standard cable segment length of 100 meters.
43. Answers: A and C. T568A and T568B
Explanation: T568A and T568B are pinout specifications for copper cabling termination defined in the
ANSI/TIA-568 (formerly known as TIA/EIA-568) family of standards.
44. Answers: A, B, and E. Cat 6a cabling, RJ-45 connectors, and 802.3an
Explanation: 10GBaseT refers to 10 gigabit Ethernet over twisted-pair copper cable. 802.3an is the IEEE
standard for implementing 10GBaseT. 10GBaseT requires Cat 6a cabling with RJ-45 connectors for
transmissions over distances up to 100 meters (Cat 6 cabling can also be used although it shortens the
available range).
45. Answer: C. Media converter
Explanation: Media converters are devices that allow for connecting different types of incompatible
media such as copper and fiber-optic cabling.
46. Answer: A. True
Explanation: A device that apart from the function of an ordinary Layer 2 network switch can also
provide additional functions at higher levels of the OSI reference model (e.g. routing at Layer 3) is
referred to as a multilayer switch.
47. Answer: D. Proxy
Explanation: In computer networks, a computer system or an application that acts as an intermediary
between another computer and the Internet is commonly referred to as a proxy.
48. Answer: C. UTM
Explanation: The term "Unified Threat Management" (UTM) refers to a network security solution
(commonly in the form of a dedicated device called UTM appliance) which combines the functionality of
a firewall with additional safeguards such as URL filtering, spam filtering, gateway antivirus protection,
intrusion detection or prevention, content inspection, or malware inspection.
49. Answer: B. Hypervisor
Explanation: A software application used to manage multiple guest operating systems on a single host
system is called hypervisor.
50. Answer: B. NAS
Explanation: The term "Network Attached Storage" refers to a dedicated storage appliance that can be
added to a network.
51. Answer: B. SAN
Explanation: Storage Area Network (SAN) is a dedicated local network consisting of devices providing
data access.
52. Answer: B. Jumbo frame
Explanation: A single non-standard Ethernet frame that allows for larger maximum payload size is
known as a jumbo frame.
53. Answer: A. 1.544 Mbps
Explanation: T1 lines support data transfer rates of up to 1.544 Mbps. 44.736 Mbps is the data transfer
rate of a T3 connection. E1 lines support data transfer rates of up to 2.048 Mbps. E3 lines support
speeds of up to 34.368 Mbps.
53. Answer: A. 1.544 Mbps
Explanation: T1 lines support data transfer rates of up to 1.544 Mbps. 44.736 Mbps is the data transfer
rate of a T3 connection. E1 lines support data transfer rates of up to 2.048 Mbps. E3 lines support
speeds of up to 34.368 Mbps.
54. Answer: C. 34.368 Mbps
Explanation: E3 lines support data transfer rates of up to 34.368 Mbps. E1 lines support data transfer
rates of up to 2.048 Mbps. 44.736 Mbps is the data transfer rate of a T3 connection. T1 lines support
data transfer rates of up to 1.544 Mbps.
55. Answer: B. ADSL
Explanation: Asynchronous Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) is the most common type of DSL technology.
ADSL download and upload speeds differ (ADSL download rates are much higher than upload rates).
ADSL modems use RJ-11 connectors and share the regular telephone line (customer's telephone line
requires special filtering device to pass both ADSL and voice communication over the same line).
56. Answers: B, D, and E. Signal latency, Interference (weather dependent), and Low connection speed
Explanation: The characteristic features of satellite Internet connections include signal latency, low
connection speed, and dependency on good weather conditions.
57. Answer: B. MPLS
Explanation: A type of data-carrying technique that enables use of different types of network protocols
on the same network is known as Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS).
58. Answer: A. True
Explanation: A physical point where an ISP's network ends and connects with the customer's onpremises wiring (which also defines where the ISP's responsibility for maintenance ends and the
consumer's responsibility begins) is commonly referred to as demarcation point, or demarc in short.
59. Answer: A. Smart jack
Explanation: A device providing remote line diagnostics capability placed at the joining point between an
ISP's line and customer's premises wiring is known as smart jack.
60. Answer: B. False
Explanation. Physical network diagram is a document that describes the detailed layout of a building and
the way devices are connected to the network through the actual cabling that transmits data.
61. Answer: C. Load balancer
Explanation: Load balancers are physical network devices or software solutions designed for managing
the optimal distribution of workloads across multiple computing resources.
62. Answer: D. Hot site
Explanation: A hot site is a type of backup site that allows for fastest disaster recovery. Hot site
constitutes a mirror copy of the original site, with all the facilities, equipment, and data readily available
for use in case of emergency.
63. Answer: B. False
Explanation: A cold site is the least expensive type of backup site for an organization to operate. It is a
type of an alternate site that offers only the basic facilities, which means that in case of an emergency all
the equipment and data must be moved to the site first to make it operational.
64. Answers: D and E. All copies of incremental backups made since the last full backup and Copy of the
last full backup
Explanation: Restoring data from an incremental backup requires a copy of the last full backup as well as
all copies of incremental backups made since the last full backup.
65. Answer: C. MTTR
Explanation: The term "Mean Time To Restore" (MTTR) is used to describe an average time required to
repair a failed component or device.
66. Answers: A, C, and E. Identifies lack of security controls, Identifies common misconfigurations, and
Passively tests security controls
Explanation: Vulnerability scanning is used for passive checks on system security. It identifies missing
security controls and common misconfigurations, but doesn't exploit detected security flaws. A type of
security check which actively tests security controls and tries to exploit detected vulnerabilities is known
as penetration test, or pentest in short.
67. Answer: C. SIEM
Explanation: Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) solutions are used for real-time
analysis of security alerts generated by network hardware and applications.
68. Answer: C. MIB
Explanation: Management Information Base (MIB) is a type of repository most often associated with
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP). The purpose of MIB is to store and manage information
related to monitored devices.
69. Answer: C. VPN
Explanation: Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a system that uses untrusted public network (such as
Internet) as a means for creating private encrypted connections between remote locations.
70. Answers: A and B. SSL VPN and Site-to-site
Explanation: The two Virtual Private Network (VPN) connection types that typically do not require a
dedicated VPN client application are SSL VPNs and site-to-site VPN connections. In SSL VPNs, the
functionality of a VPN client is provided by a web browser. In site-to-site VPNs, which are used to
connect entire networks with each other, all tasks related to VPN traffic are handled by a VPN gateway.
71. Answer: C. 3389
Explanation: Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a Microsoft-proprietary remote connection protocol that
runs by default on TCP port 3389.
72. Answer: A. True
Explanation: Apart from providing the ability to log in remotely and execute commands on a remote
host, SSH is also used for secure file transfer through the SSH-based protocols such as SSH File Transfer
Protocol (SFTP) or Secure Copy (SCP).
73. Answer: B. DLP
Explanation: Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solutions are software or hardware-based security solutions
designed to detect and prevent unauthorized use and transmission of confidential information outside
of a corporate network.
74. Answer: B. BYOD
Explanation: The term Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) refers to a policy of permitting employees to bring
personally owned mobile devices and to use those devices to access privileged company information
and applications.
75. Answer: B. AUP
Explanation: Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is a set of rules enforced in a network that restrict the use to
which the network may be put.
76. Answer: A. Biometrics
Explanation: In computer security, biometrics refers to physical characteristics of the human body that
can be used for identification and access control purposes.
77. Answers: B and D. RADIUS and TACACS+
Explanation: Authentication, Authorization and Accounting (AAA) is a security architecture framework
designed for verification of the identity of a person or process (authentication), granting or denying
access to network resources (authorization), and tracking the services users are accessing as well as the
amount of network resources they are consuming (accounting). Remote Authentication Dial-In User
Service (RADIUS) and Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus (TACACS+) are examples of
protocols providing the AAA functionality.
78. Answer: A. SSO
Explanation: An authentication subsystem that enables a user to access multiple, connected system
components (such as separate hosts on a network) after a single login at only one of the components is
known as Single Sign-On (SSO). A single sign-on subsystem typically requires a user to log in once at the
beginning of a session, and then during the session grants further access to multiple, separately
protected hosts, applications, or other system resources without further login action by the user.
79. Answer: A. Password and biometric scan
Explanation: Authentication is proving user identity to a system. Authentication process can be based on
different categories of authentication factors, including unique physical traits of each individual such as
fingerprints ("something you are"), physical tokens such as smart cards ("something you have"), or user
names and passwords ("something you know"). Additional factors might include geolocation
("somewhere you are"), or user-specific activity patterns such as keyboard typing style ("something you
do"). Multifactor authentication systems require implementation of authentication factors from two or
more different categories.
80. Answer: B. Port-based network access control
Explanation: 802.1x is an Institute Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) standard for port-based
network access control. 802.1X provides mechanisms to authenticate devices connecting to a Local Area
Network (LAN), or Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN). Due to a similar name, 802.1X is sometimes
confused with 802.11x (a general term used in reference to a family of wireless networking standards).
81. Answer: C. MAC filter
Explanation: Network Access Control (NAC) method based on the physical address (MAC address) of the
Network Interface Card (NIC) is called MAC filtering or MAC address filtering. 48-bit MAC address is a
unique number assigned to every network adapter. Devices acting as network access points can have
certain MAC addresses blacklisted or whitelisted and based on the entry on either of the lists grant or
deny access to the network.
82. Answer: D. Captive portal
Explanation: Captive portals allow administrators to block Internet access for users until they perform
required action. An example captive portal could be a web page requiring authentication and/or
payment (e.g. at a public Wi-Fi hotpot) before a user is allowed to proceed and use the Internet access
service.
83. Answer: B. WPA2
Explanation: Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) and Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) are encryption
standards designed for securing wireless networks. WEP is an older standard and due to its
vulnerabilities is not recommended. WPA was designed as an interim replacement for WEP, and WPA2
was introduced as the official standard offering the strongest security of the three.
84. Answer: D. DDoS
Explanation: As opposed to the simple Denial of Service (DoS) attacks that usually are performed from a
single system, a Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack uses multiple compromised computer
systems to perform attack against its target. The intermediary systems that are used as platform for the
attack are the secondary victims of the DDoS attack; they are often referred to as zombies, and
collectively as a botnet. The goal of DoS and DDoS attacks is to flood the bandwidth or resources of a
targeted system so that it becomes overwhelmed with false requests and in result doesn't have time or
resources to handle legitimate requests.
85. Answer: A. Social engineering
Explanation: The practice of obtaining confidential information by manipulating or deceiving people is
known as social engineering.
86. Answer: C. Evil twin
Explanation: Evil twin is another term for a rogue access point. Rogue access point will have the same
network name as the legitimate access point and can be set up by a hacker in order to steal user
credentials or for the purpose of traffic eavesdropping.
87. Answer: B. Scanning for unsecured wireless networks while driving in a car
Explanation: The term war driving refers to scanning for unsecured wireless networks while driving in a
car. Marking symbols in public places that indicate the presence of an unsecured wireless connection is
known as war chalking.
88. Answer: A. True
Explanation: An attack against encrypted data that relies heavily on computing power in order to check
all possible keys and passwords until the correct one is found is known as a brute-force attack.
89. Answer: C. STP
Explanation: Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is used to prevent switching loops. Switching loop occurs
when there's more than one active link between two network switches, or when two ports on the same
switch become connected to each other.
90. Answer: D. DMZ
Explanation: In the context of computer security, the term Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) refers to a lightly
protected subnet consisting of publicly available servers placed on the outside of the company's firewall.
91. Answers: C and E. SHA-1 and MD5
Explanation: Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA) and Message Digest (MD) are a series of hashing functions
used for checking data integrity (SHA-1 and MD5 are the most popular versions). Taking hashes ensures
that data retains its integrity. Hash functions allow for mapping large amounts of data content to small
string of characters. The result of hash function provides the exact "content in a nutshell" (in the form of
a string of characters) derived from the main content. In case there's any change to the data after the
original hash was taken, the next time when hash function is applied the resulting hash value calculated
after content modification will be different from the original hash. In computer forensics procedures
comparing hashes taken at different stages of evidence handling process ensures that the evidence
hasn't been tampered with and stays intact.
92. Answer: C. Honeypot
Explanation: A monitored host or network specifically designed to detect unauthorized access attempts
is known as a honeypot. This type of system contains no valuable data and is used to divert the
attacker's attention from the corporate network. Multiple honeypots set up on a network are known as
a honeynet.
93. Answer: C. Identifying the problem
Explanation: Problem identification should be the very first step in the troubleshooting methodology
recommended by CompTIA. This step involves questioning the user and identifying user changes to the
computer.
94. Answer: C. Implement the solution
Explanation: In troubleshooting methodology recommended by CompTIA, implementing the solution
should come after establishing a plan of action to resolve problem and identifying potential effects.
95. Answer: C. After implementing the solution
Explanation: According to the troubleshooting theory, verification of full system functionality and
implementation of applicable preventative measures should be performed after implementing solution
to the problem.
96. Answer: A. True
Explanation: The very last step of the troubleshooting process involves documenting findings, actions,
and outcomes. This step comes after verification of full system functionality and implementation of
applicable preventative measures.
97. Answer: B. Cable crimpers
Explanation: Cable crimpers are used for attaching RJ connectors to the end of a twisted-pair Ethernet
cable. Most commonly, a crimp tool also allows for cutting and stripping the cable from the outer
insulating cover.
98. Answer: C. Punchdown tool
Explanation: Attaching a cable to a patch panel requires punchdown tool.
99. Answer: B. OTDR
Explanation: A plain Time-Domain Reflectometer (TDR) allows for finding breaks in copper network
cables. Faults and breaks in fiber-optic cabling can be located with the use of an Optical Time-Domain
Reflectometer (OTDR).
100. Answer: D. Displaying active TCP/IP connections
Explanation: Netstat is a command-line utility used for displaying active TCP/IP connections. Commandline program used for testing the reachability of a remote host is called ping. Windows command-line
utility for displaying intermediary points on the packet route is called tracert. Windows command-line
program for checking TCP/IP configuration details is called ipconfig.