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A Programmed Learning Approach
to the Language of Health Care
Second Edition
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A Programmed Learning Approach
to the Language of Health Care
Second Edition
Marjorie Canfield Willis, CMA-AC
Program Director
Medical Assisting/Medical Transcription Programs
Orange Coast College
Costa Mesa, California
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Acquisitions Editor: Julie K. Stegman
Senior Managing Editor: Heather A. Rybacki
Managing Editor: Linda Francis
Marketing Manager: Hilary Henderson
Manufacturing Coordinator: Margie Orzech
Designer: Risa Clow
Compositor: Aptara, Inc.
Printer: RR Donnelley
Copyright © 2008 Marjorie Canfield Willis
Lippincott Williams & Wilkins
351 West Camden Street
Baltimore, MD 21201
530 Walnut St.
Philadelphia, PA 19106
All rights reserved. This book is protected by copyright. No part of this book may be reproduced
or transmitted in any form or by any means, including as photocopies or scanned-in or other
electronic copies, or utilized by any information storage and retrieval system without written permission from the copyright owner, except for brief quotations embodied in critical articles and
reviews. Materials appearing in this book prepared by individuals as part of their official duties as
U.S. government employees are not covered by the above-mentioned copyright. To request permission, please contact Lippincott Williams & Wilkins at 530 Walnut Street, Philadelphia, PA
19106, via email at permissions@lww.com or via our website at lww.com (products and services).
DISCLAIMER
Care has been taken to confirm the accuracy of the information presented and to
describe generally accepted practices. However, the authors, editors, and publisher are
not responsible for errors or omissions or for any consequences from application of the
information in this book and make no warranty, expressed or implied, with respect to
the currency, completeness, or accuracy of the contents of the publication. Application of
this information in a particular situation remains the professional responsibility of the
practitioner; the clinical treatments described and recommended may not be considered
absolute and universal recommendations.
Printed in the United States of America
First Edition, 2002
Library of Congress Cataloging-in-Publication Data
Willis, Marjorie Canfield.
Medical terminology : a programmed learning approach to the language of health care /
Marjorie Canfield Willis. – 2nd ed.
p. cm.
Includes index.
ISBN-13: 978-0-7817-9283-7
1. Medicine–Terminology. I. Title.
R123.W4758 2007
610.1’4–dc22
2007004818
The publishers have made every effort to trace the copyright holders for borrowed material. If they have
inadvertently overlooked any, they will be pleased to make the necessary arrangements at the first opportunity.
To purchase additional copies of this book, call our customer service department at (800) 638-3030
or fax orders to (301) 223-2400. International customers should call (301) 223-2300.
Visit Lippincott Williams & Wilkins on the Internet: http://www.LWW.com. Lippincott Williams
& Wilkins customer service representatives are available from 8:30 am to 5:00 pm, EST.
07
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Dedicated to the memory of
Dell A. Canfield,
my father, my inspiration
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Preface to the Student
SUMMARY OF OBJECTIVES
Upon completion of this text, you will be able to:
Describe the origin of medical language.
Analyze the component parts of a medical
term and use basic prefixes, suffixes, and
combining forms to build medical terms.
completion. Follow the study path that this text
and/or your instructor provides, and work the
necessary study time into your personal
schedule.
MEDICAL
TERMINOLO
GY
Explain the common rules for proper medical term formation, pronunciation, and
spelling of medical terms.
Define basic terms and abbreviations used
in documenting health records.
Identify common pharmaceutical terms and
abbreviations used in documenting medical
records.
Identify the common forms used in documenting the care of a patient.
Identify common anatomical terms related
to the major systems of the body.
Identify common terms related to symptoms, diagnoses, surgeries, therapies, and
diagnostic tests related to the major systems
of the body.
Explain common terms and abbreviations
used in documenting medical records
related to the major systems of the body.
GETTING STARTED
Goals and Planning
To reach the goal of learning the language of
health care, you’ll need a reasonable plan for
Organizing the Starter Set of Flash Cards
A “starter set” of common prefixes, suffixes, and
a selected number of combining forms are provided on flash cards at the back of the text.
These cards are a base on which to build, and
you should review them often. Each component in the starter set is numbered and colors
coded according to division: prefixes are
printed on peach cards, combining forms
appear on purple cards, and suffixes are
found on green cards. The term component is
printed on the front of the card, and its meaning, including a term example, is on the back.
Reinforce your learning by drawing lines to
separate the components in each of the term
examples, and write definitions for each in the
margins.
Using a punch, put a hole in the top of each
flash card. Loop each card through a key chain
or ring holder to make a “rotary file.” This
method keeps groups of cards together and
prevents them from becoming lost or scattered.
Within this file, group together associated cards
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PREFACE TO THE STUDENT
for components related to color, size, position,
direction, and so on.
Making Additional Flash Cards
It is highly recommended that you make flash
cards for all of the additional term components
introduced in each body system chapter. You can
even extend the use of the flash cards to include
abbreviations, symbols, and terms found throughout the text. The act of writing out your own cards
gives you an added memory boost.
To create additional flash cards, you can follow the example of the cards provided in the
starter set (using 3 5 cards). If your stack of
flash cards becomes large and cumbersome,
you may want to try the frugal flash card
method illustrated below, so named because it
consolidates paper and is inexpensive.
the definition appears on the other side of
the paper. This allows you to flip from one
side to the other, “flashing” and reinforcing the meanings of the terms. Use the
other side of the paper in the same way.
Snatching Moments!
Carry your flash cards with you at all times.
During most days, there are times when you
can snatch a moment to use your flash cards.
You will feel less stress when waiting in a line or
for an appointment if you know that you can
use that time for studying.
STUDY TIPS
Using Your Senses
An effective memory depends on intricate
processes that recall mental images of sights,
sounds, feelings, tastes, and smells. For this reason, try to include as many senses as possible in
the process of reinforcing learning.
To create frugal flash cards:
1. Fold a piece of 812 11 lined paper in
half lengthwise, creating two columns.
2. Write the word component, symbol, or
term on the first line of the first column,
and write its definition on the same line
in the second column.
3. Skip a line and write the next word component, symbol, or term, and write its definition on the same line in the second
column.
4. Continue listing terms with their corresponding definitions until you reach the
bottom of the paper.
5. Fold the paper at the lengthwise crease so
that the word component, symbol, or
term is listed on one side of the paper and
SEE IT
Employ your visual sense (sight)
by making and repeatedly reviewing your flash cards.
SAY IT
Pronounce each component out
loud three times as you flash
each card to reinforce your auditory sense (hearing).
WRITE IT
Write and rewrite responses to
programmed review sections
before highlighting the correct
answers. Make flash cards by
hand using pleasant colored
paper and ink to satisfy your
kinesthetic sense (feeling).
Mnemonics Can Help
Mnemonics, referring to any device for aiding
memory, is named for the goddess of memory
in Greek mythology. Mnemonic techniques
link things to be remembered with clues for
their recall using the stimulus of images,
sounds, smell, touch, etc. Consider the following applications:
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PREFACE TO THE STUDENT
• Make up rhymes or stories that help to
differentiate between meanings. For
example: peri-, the prefix meaning
“around,” is often confused with para-,
the prefix meaning “along side of.” Use
the two components in a sentence to
compare their meanings; for example, I sat
para (alongside of) Sarah on the merryperi-go-around. Often the most absurd
associations can help you to remember. It
doesn’t matter if they don’t make sense to
anyone but you!
• Make up songs and rhythms to help
remember facts. Take a song you are
familiar with like “Row, row, row, your
boat . . .” and insert words with definitions
that are in tune with the song.
• Draw pictures depicting term components
for reinforcement.
Memory Drill
Give yourself a memory drill by listing word components, symbols, or terms on one side of a paper
and then filling in the definitions from memory.
Write corrections in red ink. Make a list of the
incorrectly defined components on a separate
paper, and complete the drill again. Repeat this
process until you have identified which terms you
most frequently get incorrect. Spend additional
time studying those troublesome terms.
ix
ADDITIONAL RESOURCES
Take advantage of the many fun and interactive
learning activities provided on the CD-ROM
included with this text. You’ll find a variety of
exercises to help you remember medical terminology and to reinforce what you’ve learned in
the text, including:
• Exercises by Chapter – unscored exercises allow you to choose the types of
activities that best suit your learning style,
including:
multiple choice, fill-in-the-blank, and true/
false questions to support learning
figure-labeling exercises to reinforce your
knowledge of both medical terms and
basic anatomy
matching games in which you match
combining forms or terms with definitions
spelling bee to help you recognize and
correctly spell medical terms
case studies that use actual medical
records so you can apply your learning
to real-world examples
• Review or Test Mode – study a single
chapter or multiple chapters in a Review or
Test environment to test your knowledge;
question types are randomized and
include multiple choice, fill-in-the-blank,
true/false, and spelling bee
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PREFACE TO THE STUDENT
• Pronunciation Drill – audio pronunciations organized both A-to-Z and by chapter; select individual terms to hear the
pronunciation, or “play all” terms from a
chapter sequentially
• Dictionary – electronic glossary of all key
terms from the book organized both A-toZ and by chapter; definitions provided
by Stedman’s
• Flash Cards – interactive flash cards that
can be reviewed electronically
• Answers to Medical Records For Additional Study questions
READY, SET, GO!
Everything is laid out for you to proceed with
your study. The techniques employed here have
proven beneficial in learning and are geared
toward efficient memorization. Be creative and
enjoy the learning process!
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Preface to the Instructor
The second edition of Medical Terminology: A
Programmed Learning Approach to the Language of
Health Care provides a sequential, programmed
process for learning medical language that is
intended to meet the needs of students working
independently or within a classroom. The approach is self-directed. Learning segments are
presented in self-study increments followed by
programmed review frames for immediate feedback and reinforcement. Diagrams, illustrations, and term tips support learning segments,
and practice exercises at the end of each
chapter provide additional reinforcement.
Learning builds from an understanding of the
origin of medical terms and basic term construction, to the comprehension of more difficult terms and concepts encountered in relation to the body systems and medical specialty
areas. The process culminates in applying the
knowledge to understanding selected medical
records.
TEXT OVERVIEW
The first two chapters deliver the basics for
understanding the language of health care.
Chapter 1 introduces basic term components
(prefixes, suffixes, and a selected number of
combining forms) and shows how these structures are combined to form medical terms.
Rules of pronunciation, spelling, and formation
of singular and plural forms are included.
Medical word components introduced in this
chapter are used repeatedly throughout the
text. They are included in the starter set of flash
cards for medical term components in the back
of the text. Chapter 2 explains how medical
terms will be learned and reinforced throughout the text using health records. Common
forms, formats, abbreviations, symbols, and
methods of documenting patient care are introduced. This helps students understand basic
communication between professionals, including physician/provider orders and prescriptions. This chapter prepares students for medical record analyses in succeeding chapters.
Chapters 3 through 15 cover terms related
to body systems. Additional combining forms
are introduced along with terms related to
symptoms, diagnoses, tests, procedures, surgeries, and therapies. After mastering the programmed portions and review exercises, completion of medical record analyses provides
further reinforcement of learning through
application of knowledge.
The Student CD-ROM included with the
text contains additional activities to reinforce
learning. The Exercises by Chapter module
presents a variety of activities, including multiple choice, true/false, figure-labeling, fill-inthe-blank questions, spelling bees, and matching games, so the student may choose those
that that best match his or her learning style.
The Review or Test Modes option allows the
student to simulate a true testing environment,
and allows them to study a single chapter at a
time or to study content from multiple chapters. Other activities include a pronunciation
drill with 2,000 terms (organized both alphabetically and by chapter), a glossary of terms
from Stedman’s Medical Dictionary, electronic
flash cards, and answers to the Medical Record
Analyses: For Additional Study included in the
text.
NEW TO THIS EDITION
• Chapter Checklists at the beginning of
each chapter outline learning tasks related
to the text and accompanying CD
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PREFACE TO THE INSTRUCTOR
• Summary of Chapter Abbreviations and
Acronyms at the end of each chapter
• Summary of Chapter Terms with pronunciations and page references at the end of
each chapter
• New and revised photographs illustrating
pathologies and the latest health care
technology
• Addition and clarification of pertinent
terms throughout the text
• Expanded programmed review sections
• Addition of up-to-the-minute information regarding medical abbreviations and
symbols that are deemed to be error prone
and dangerous
SPECIAL FEATURES
• A Student CD-ROM with a variety of learning activities to reinforce understanding
• An online Faculty Resource Center for
instructors at thepoint.lww.com, with
PowerPoint slides, a ready-made testbank,
and additional activities and ideas for use
in the classroom
• A starter set of common medical term
components on flash cards
• Self-study instructional increments followed by programmed reinforcement
• A unique health record orientation in
Chapter 2
• Medical Record Analyses at the end of
each body system chapter
• Relevant, full-color illustrations
• Practice Exercises for each chapter to meet
all learning styles and needs
• Anatomy review with labeling exercises
• Term Tips related to spelling, common
pitfalls, and more
• Three valuable appendices, including:
a glossary of medical term components
(prefixes, suffixes, and combining forms)
listed both from term component to
English definition and from English
definition to term component
a glossary of medical abbreviations and
symbols
commonly prescribed drugs, including
therapeutic classifications
INSTRUCTOR RESOURCE CENTER
AT thePOINT
Visit
at http://thepoint.lww.com/
WillisProgrammed2e to access resources
designed specifically to help instructors teach
more effectively and save time. There you’ll
find:
• Instructor’s test generator with more than
500 questions, encompassing individual
chapter tests and a comprehensive exam
• PowerPoint slides for each chapter organized
by learning objectives
• Lesson plans for each chapter
• Sample course schedules
• Body system overviews
• Suggestions for classroom enhancement
• Our unique LiveAdvise tutoring service
• Image bank
• Customized course content for use with
your learning management system, such as
thePoint LMS (LWW’s exclusive learning
management system), WebCT, or
Blackboard
• and more!
A solid understanding of medical terminology
provides an essential foundation for any career
in health care. The Medical Terminology: A
Programmed Learning Approach to the Language of
Health Care, 2nd Edition, product suite makes
learning and teaching medical terminology a
rewarding and exciting process.
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User’s Guide
Medical Terminology: A Programmed Learning Approach to the Language of Health Care, Second Edition, is
not just a textbook – it is a complete learning resource that will help you understand and master
medical terminology. To achieve this, the author and publisher have included tools throughout the
text to help you work through the material presented. Please take a few moments to look through
this User’s Guide to familiarize yourself with the features that will enhance your learning
experience.
INTRODUCTORY CHAPTERS
The first two chapters set the stage for
learning throughout the text. Chapter 1
provides analysis of basic term components
and rules for forming, spelling, and
pronouncing medical terms.
Chapter 2 introduces the framework of
health care documents so that real-life
medical records can be used to reinforce the
understanding of terms presented in the
subsequent body system chapters.
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USER’S GUIDE
CHAPTER CHECKLIST
Use the chapter checklists at the beginning of
each chapter to orient you to the materials
and to help you set learning goals.
BODY SYSTEM OVERVIEW
Chapters 3 through 15 open with a body
system overview. The overview establishes
a basis for each chapter, introducing the
body system and laying the foundation
for your work.
Detailed illustrations present a visual
overview of each body system being
presented.
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USER’S GUIDE
xv
FRAMES
This book is broken into learning frames.
Two types of frames are used: SelfInstruction frames and Programmed
Review frames.
The Self-Instruction frames help you
memorize key terms and their
components.
The Programmed Review frames
feature fill-in-the-blank exercises to
help you apply what you’ve
memorized.
Use the Reveal Card to hide
material in the left column while
you complete the exercises in the
right column.
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USER’S GUIDE
Beautiful full-color art throughout the book
brings the content to life, illustrates the most
important information, and makes complex
details easy to understand.
CHAPTER ACRONYMS
AND ABBREVIATIONS
A comprehensive list of acronyms and
abbreviations appear at the end of each
chapter. Use this guide as a quick reference
as you work through each chapter.
SUMMARY OF
TERMS LISTS
Every term introduced in a
specific chapter is listed at
the end of that chapter.
Each is accompanied by
its written pronunciation,
abbreviation or acronym
(if applicable), and the
page number on which it
was introduced.
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USER’S GUIDE
xvii
PRACTICE EXERCISES
Practice Exercises are included at the end of
every chapter to help you completely understand
the content, assess your progress, and review and
prepare for quizzes and tests. Put your knowledge
to the test with word building, figure-labeling,
fill-in-the-blank, matching,
spelling, and medical record
exercises found throughout
the book.
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USER’S GUIDE
FLASH CARDS
A starter set of flash cards is
included to help you maximize your
study time. Use this system to make
additional flash cards as you learn
new term components and words
through the text.
CD-ROM
Have fun while you learn with the BONUS CD-ROM
packaged with this text! You’ll find additional exercises for every chapter (including multiple choice
questions, figure labeling, fill-in-the-blank questions,
spelling bees, case studies and much more!), pronunciation drills, a STEDMAN’S glossary, and electronic flash
cards. Use this interactive learning resource to test your
knowledge, assess your progress, and study and review for
quizzes and tests.
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Acknowledgments
It is very gratifying to know that the first edition
of this text was so well-received. The experience working with the programmed approach
to learning has made me a believer in the
method and its effectiveness, and has inspired
the work on this second edition.
I want to acknowledge the hard work and
dedication of the Lippincott Williams and
Wilkins staff members who were involved with
this revision. So many bright minds and careful
hands have transformed the material into the
informative pages of this text. It was exciting to
watch the teamwork in action. John Goucher,
the Executive Editor for the first edition, was
instrumental in organizing the revision plan,
and Julie Stegman, the Senior Publisher for this
edition, has capably guided its final phase.
Linda Francis was at the helm early in the
process, and worked tirelessly on organizing
materials. Behind the scenes, Jennifer Clements
was there for support in the search for quality
images, and Paul Montgomery did an exemplary job of updating permissions for them. It
has been amazing to observe the talent and skill
of Heather Rybacki, Senior Managing Editor.
She is detailed and dedicated to excellence, and
I consider myself very fortunate to have her
guidance. To all, I extend my heart-felt thanks!
I am also thankful for the continued support of my colleagues on the faculty of the
Orange Coast College School of Allied
Health Professions, and for my medical terminology students who inspire me with their
enthusiasm for learning and commitment to
worthy healthcare goals.
The reviewers for the second edition were
outstanding. My thanks go out to each of them
listed below. I especially want to recognize
Margaret Stinner for her extraordinary feedback and excellent suggestions.
M.C.W.
Reviewers
The author and publisher acknowledge the
contributions of the following reviewers for
their valuable comments and suggestions:
Diane L. Casdorph, RPh, PharmD, BCPS
University of Colorado at Denver and Health
Sciences Center
Denver, CO
Frances Fulton, MS, CAS, CASE
Loyola College of Maryland
Community College of Baltimore County
Baltimore, MD
LaToya Marsh, MSN, RN, BSN
North Carolina A&T State University
Greensboro, NC
Cora Newcomb
Technical College of the Lowcountry
Beaufort, SC
Patricia Nigro
Wright College
Chicago, IL
Margaret Stinner, RN, MS
Mount Carmel College of Nursing
Columbus, OH
Carla White-Harris, BS, RPh
University of North Carolina School of
Pharmacy at Chapel Hill
Chapel Hill, NC
xix
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Contents
Preface to the Student ........................................................................................................ vii
Preface to the Instructor ...................................................................................................... xi
User’s Guide .................................................................................................................... xiii
Acknowledgments .............................................................................................................. xix
CHAPTER 1
Basic Term Components ............................................................................ 1
CHAPTER 2
Health Care Records .................................................................................. 41
CHAPTER 3
Integumentary System .............................................................................. 99
CHAPTER 4
Musculoskeletal System.......................................................................... 145
CHAPTER 5
Cardiovascular System............................................................................ 207
CHAPTER 6
Blood and Lymphatic Systems................................................................ 273
CHAPTER 7
Respiratory System ................................................................................ 317
CHAPTER 8
Nervous System and Psychiatry ............................................................ 371
CHAPTER 9
Endocrine System .................................................................................. 441
CHAPTER 10
The Eye .................................................................................................... 481
CHAPTER 11
The Ear .................................................................................................... 525
CHAPTER 12
Gastrointestinal System ........................................................................ 559
CHAPTER 13
Urinary System ........................................................................................ 621
CHAPTER 14
Male Reproductive System .................................................................... 667
CHAPTER 15
Female Reproductive System ................................................................ 703
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CONTENTS
APPENDIX A
Glossary of Prefixes, Suffixes, and Combining Forms .............. 773
APPENDIX B
Abbreviations and Symbols .......................................................... 783
APPENDIX C
Commonly Prescribed Drugs ........................................................ 789
FIGURE CREDITS
INDEX
...................................................................................................... 799
...................................................................................................................... 803
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CHAPTER
1
Basic Term
Components
✓ Chapter 1 Checklist
LOCATION
Read Chapter 1: Basic Term Components and complete all programmed review
segments.
pages 1-30
Review the starter set of flash cards presenting term components.
back of book
Complete the Chapter 1 Practice Exercises.
pages 31-37
Complete the Chapter 1 Exercises by Chapter.
CD-ROM
Complete the Chapter 1 Review and Test Modes.
CD-ROM
Review the Pronunciation Drill for the Chapter 1 terms.
CD-ROM
INTRODUCTION
Most medical terms have Greek or Latin origins. These terms date back to the founding of modern
medicine by the Greeks and the influence of Latin when it was the universal language in the
Western world. Other languages, such as German and French, also have influenced medical terms.
Many new terms are derived from English, which is considered to be the universal language today.
Most of the terms related to diagnosis and surgery have Greek origin, and most anatomic terms
come from Latin.
Once you understand the basic medical term structure and know the commonly used prefixes,
suffixes, and combining forms, you can learn the meaning of most medical terms by analyzing their
component parts. Those mysterious words, which are almost frightening at first glance, will soon
seem commonplace. You will learn to analyze each term you encounter with your newfound
knowledge and the help of a good medical dictionary.
This chapter includes the most common prefixes and suffixes and a selection of common combining forms. More combining forms and other pertinent prefixes and suffixes are added in following chapters as you learn terms related to specific body systems. This chapter also provides basic
rules for proper medical term formation, pronunciation, and spelling.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
START NOW
Remove the starter set of flash cards at the back of the text and organize them as recommended in
the Getting Started section. Make the most of each moment of study time available to you. The key
to success in building a medical vocabulary is memorizing the basic structures in this chapter.
How to Use Programmed Learning Segments
Take time to study the material in each self-instruction frame before starting a review segment. Key
term components included in the flash card starter set are identified by letter and number. Locate
and use them for additional reinforcement.
Remove the Reveal Card from the back cover of the text. Place the card over the left column of
the page to hide the responses to the questions in the learning material in the right column. Slide
the card down the page to reveal the answer only after you have written your response in the fill-in
space on the right. Use a pencil so that you can quickly erase any inappropriate response and
replace it with the correct one. Go over all the correct responses with a highlighter for additional
reinforcement.
You can move at your own pace given the time allotted. Between study periods, use the Reveal
Card as a bookmark.
TERM COMPONENTS
Study the flash cards for the term components listed below in preparation for the programmed
review that follows.
Self-Instruction: Term Components
Study the following:
TERM COMPONENT
CATEGORY
MEANING
FLASH CARD ID#
lip
root
fat
lip/o
combining form
fat
CF-28
-emia
suffix
blood condition
S-10
hyper-
prefix
excessive
P-19
protein
root
protein
ROOT
PREFIX
SUFFIX
Most medical terms have three basic component parts: the root, the suffix, and the prefix. Each
term is formed by combining at least one root (the foundation or subject of the word) and a suffix
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
3
(the word ending that modifies and gives essential meaning to the root). A prefix is placed at the
beginning of a term only when needed to further modify the root or roots.
Programmed Review: Three Basic Components
ANSWERS
REVIEW
THE ROOT AND SUFFIX
fat
1.1
foundation or subject
_________________ of the term. It is modified and given essential
blood condition
meaning by the suffix -emia, meaning ___________ _______________.
1.2
In the word lipemia, lip (meaning __________) is the root and
Breaking down and defining the key components in a term often
defines the term or gives clues to its meaning. In the term lipemia,
root, fat
lip is the _________ that means _________, and -emia is the
suffix, blood condition
_____________ that means ____________ ___________________.
Memorizing key medical term components makes it possible to
fat
decipher that the term refers to the condition of __________ in the
blood
______________. Note that lipemia is synonymous with lipidemia
(formed from lip, -oid, and -emia).
THE PREFIX
1.3
The prefix is a term component placed at the beginning of a
term when needed to further modify the root or roots. For example,
prefix
in the term hyperlipemia, hyper- is a ___________ placed at the
beginning, modify
_________________ of the term to further ____________ the meaning
excessive
of the term to denote _______________ fat in the blood.
ADDITIONAL ROOTS
1.4
Often, a medical term is formed from two or more roots. For
example, in the term hyperlipoproteinemia, the addition of the
root
_________ protein further defines the word to indicate an excessive
protein
amount of fat and ____________ in the blood.
Combining Forms and Combining Vowels
When a medical term has more than one root, the roots are joined together by a vowel, usually an
“o.” As shown in hyper/lip/o/protein/emia, the “o” is used to link the two roots, and it provides easier pronunciation. This vowel is known as a combining vowel. “O” is the most common combining vowel (“i” is the second most common) and is used so frequently to join root to root or root to
suffix that it is routinely attached to the root and presented as a combining form.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Programmed Review: Combining Forms and Combining Vowels
ANSWERS
REVIEW
root, combining
1.5
form, o
___________ (a root with a combining vowel attached). The vowel ___
combining vowel
is the most common ________________ ____________ , and
i
____ is the second most common.
In lip/o, lip is the ____________ and lip/o is the ________________
This text uses combining forms rather than roots for easier term analysis. Each is presented with a
slash between the root and the combining vowel. Hyphens are placed after prefixes to indicate their
placement at the beginning of a medical term, and hyphens are placed before suffixes to indicate
their link at the end of a term.
Programmed Review: Overview of Term Components
ANSWERS
REVIEW
1.6
Most medical terms have three basic component parts:
root, suffix, prefix
the ___________, _____________, and ____________.
foundation or subject
1.7
The root is the ____________________ of the term.
suffix
1.8
The ____________ is the word ending that modifies and gives
essential meaning to the root.
prefix
1.9
The ____________ is the component at the beginning of a
term that is used when needed to further modify the root.
two
1.10 Often, a medical term is formed by _________ or more roots.
1.11 When a medical term has more than one root, it is joined
combining vowel, o
together by a ___________________ __________, usually an _____.
root, vowel
1.12 A combining form is a __________ with a ____________
attached.
Note that each component depends upon the other to express the meaning of the term. Few components can stand alone.
CONNECTING TERM COMPONENTS TO CONSTRUCT
MEDICAL TERMS
Study the flash cards for the term components listed below in preparation for the instruction and
review that follows.
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
5
Self-Instruction: Rules for Constructing Terms
Study the following:
COMBINING FORM
MEANING
FLASH CARD ID#
angi/o, vas/o, vascul/o
cardi/o
enter/o
esophag/o
gastr/o
hem/o, hemat/o
hepat/o
oste/o
ur/o, urin/o
vessel
heart
small intestine
esophagus
stomach
blood
liver
bone
urine
CF-5
CF-8
CF-15
CF-17
CF-20
CF-23
CF-24
CF-40
CF-56
SUFFIX
MEANING
FLASH CARD ID#
-al, -eal
-ectasis
-ectomy
-ia
-itis
-logy
-megaly
-stomy
-tomy
pertaining to
expansion or dilation
excision (removal)
condition of
inflammation
study of
enlargement
creation of an opening
incision
S-1
S-8
S-9
S-13
S-17
S-19
S-22
S-40
S-41
PREFIX
MEANING
FLASH CARD ID#
oligoparaperi-
few or deficient
alongside of, abnormal
around
P-28
P-30
P-8
Once you understand the basics of constructing medical terms, the next steps are to memorize
common term components and to learn the rules for joining medical term components correctly.
Study the following five basic rules, and use them to construct words using the components provided in the Rules for Constructing Terms Self Instruction box above.
Programmed Review: Five Basic Rules for Constructing Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
1.13 A combining vowel is used to join root to root as well
as root to any suffix beginning with a consonant (any letter
except a, e, i, o, or u): hepat/o -megaly is spelled hepatomegaly
enlargement of the liver
and is defined as _______________________________________.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
1.14 A combining vowel is not used before a suffix that
begins with a vowel: vas/o -ectomy is spelled vasectomy
excision (removal) of a
and is defined as ____________________________________
vessel
_______________.
1.15 If the root ends in a vowel and the suffix begins with the
same vowel, drop the final vowel from the root and do not use
a combining vowel: cardi/o -itis is spelled carditis and is
inflammation of the heart
defined as ______________________________________________.
1.16 Most often, a combining vowel is inserted between two
roots even when the second root begins with a vowel: cardi/o esophag/o -eal is spelled cardioesophageal and is defined as
pertaining to the heart
_______________________________________________________
and esophagus
_______________________________________________________.
1.17 Occasionally, when a prefix ends in a vowel and the
root begins with a vowel, the final vowel is dropped from the
prefix: para- enter/o -al is spelled parenteral and is
pertaining to alongside of
defined as _______________________________________________
the small intestine
________________________________________________________.
Note that all these rules have exceptions. Follow the basic guidelines set forth in this text, but be
prepared to accept the exceptions as you encounter them. Rely upon your medical dictionary for
additional guidance.
In the following review, construct words using the rules previously provided and give the meaning for each term.
Programmed Review: Putting the Rules into Practice
ANSWERS
REVIEW
angiectasis
1.18 angi/o -ectasis is spelled __________________________
expansion or dilation of
and means _____________________________________________
a vessel
_________________.
gastrotomy
1.19 gastr/o -tomy is spelled __________________________
incision in the stomach
and means ____________________________________________.
hematology
1.20 hemat/o -logy is spelled _______________ and means
study of blood
________________________________.
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
ANSWERS
REVIEW
gastroenterostomy
1.21 gastr/o enter/o -stomy is spelled ________________
creation of an opening
and means ___________________________________________
(between) the stomach
_____________________________________________________
and small intestine
_____________________________________________________.
oliguria
1.22 oligo- ur/o -ia is spelled __________________ and
condition of deficient
means _______________________________________________
urine
________________.
ostectomy
1.23 oste/o -ectomy is spelled _______________ and means
excision (removal) of bone
______________________________________________________.
pericarditis
1.24 peri- cardi/o -itis is spelled ______________________
inflammation around
and means ______________________________________________
the heart
________________________________________________________.
7
DEFINING MEDICAL TERMS THROUGH WORD
STRUCTURE ANALYSIS
You can usually define a term by interpreting the suffix first, then the prefix (if one is present), and
then the root or roots.
EXAMPLE:
peri / card / itis
|
|
|
PREFIX
ROOT
SUFFIX
|
|
|
around
heart inflammation
pericarditis inflammation around the heart
You sense the basic meaning of the term pericarditis by understanding its components; however,
the dictionary clarifies that the term refers to inflammation of the pericardium, the sac that encloses
the heart.
Beginning students often have difficulty differentiating between prefixes and roots (or combining forms) because the root appears first in a medical term when a prefix is not used. It is important
to memorize the most common prefixes (those in your starter flash card set) so that you can tell the
difference. Also, keep in mind that a prefix is used only as needed to further modify the root or
roots.
THE FORMATION OF MEDICAL TERMS
Study the flash cards for the term components listed next to prepare for the review that follows.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Self-Instruction: Patterns of Term Formation
Study the following:
COMBINING FORM
MEANING
FLASH CARD ID#
cardi/o
vascul/o
heart
vessel
CF-8
CF-5
SUFFIX
MEANING
FLASH CARD ID#
-ac, -al, -ar
-dynia
-ium
-logy
-rrhaphy
-rrhexis
pertaining to
pain
structure or tissue
study of
suture
rupture
S-1
S-2
S-18
S-19
S-34
S-36
PREFIX
MEANING
FLASH CARD ID#
endoepisub-
within
upon
below or under
P-15
P-16
P-36
All medical terms are built from the root. Prefixes and suffixes are attached to the root to modify its
meaning. Two or more roots are often linked together before being modified.
The following examples show the common patterns of medical term formation using the root
cardi (heart) as a base. Using the term components listed earlier, define the term as you examine
each pattern. Also, make a note of the rule used for forming each term.
Programmed Review: Patterns of Term Formation
ANSWERS
REVIEW
1.25 Root/Suffix
pertaining to the heart
cardi/ac means _______________________________________________.
1.26 Prefix/Root/Suffix
structure or tissue
epi/card/ium means ___________________________________________
upon the heart
____________________________________________________________.
1.27 Prefix/Prefix/Root/Suffix
pertaining to below
sub/endo/cardi/al means ________________________________________
or under and within
____________________________________________________________
the heart
____________________________________________________________.
1.28 Root/Combining Vowel/Root/Suffix
pertaining to the
cardi/o/vascul/ar means ________________________________________
heart and vessels
____________________________________________________________.
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
ANSWERS
9
REVIEW
1.29 Root/Combining Vowel/Suffix
study of the heart
cardi/o/logy means ____________________________________________.
1.30 Root/Combining Vowel/Suffix (Symptomatic) [page 18]
pain in the heart
cardi/o/dynia means ___________________________________________.
1.31 Root/Combining Vowel/Suffix (Diagnostic) [page 19]
rupture of the heart
cardi/o/rrhexis means __________________________________________.
1.32 Root/Combining Vowel/Suffix (Operative) [page 19]
suture of the heart
cardi/o/rrhaphy means _________________________________________.
Acceptable Term Formations
As you learn medical terms, you can have fun experimenting with creating words, such as glyco
(sweet) cardio (heart) sweetheart! However, in the real medical world, a term must be accepted
by the medical community for it to be considered a legitimate word. Often, there seems to be no
reason why a particular word form became acceptable. If in doubt, always check your medical dictionary for the correct spelling, formation, or precise meaning of a term.
A FEW EXCEPTIONS
Most medical terms are formed by the combination of a root or roots that are modified by suffixes
and prefixes, as shown earlier in this section. Occasionally, terms are formed by a root alone or by
a combination of roots.
EXAMPLES:
duct
|
ROOT
|
to lead
ovi
|
/ duct
|
ROOT
ROOT
|
|
egg
to lead
oviduct the uterine tube
Sometimes, a term is formed by the combination of a prefix and suffix.
EXAMPLE:
meta
|
PREFIX
/
stasis
|
SUFFIX
|
|
beyond, after, stop or stand
or change
metastasis the spread of a disease, such as cancer, from one location to another
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
SPELLING MEDICAL TERMS
Correct spelling of medical terms is crucial for communication among health care professionals.
Careless spelling causes misunderstandings that can have serious consequences. The following list
shows some of the pitfalls to avoid.
1. Some words sound the same but are spelled differently and have different meanings. Context is
the clue to spelling. For example:
ileum (part of the intestine)
ilium (part of the hip bone)
sitology (study of food)
cytology (study of cells)
2. Other words sound similar but are spelled differently and have different meanings. For example:
abduction (to draw away from)
adduction (to draw toward)
hepatoma (liver tumor)
hematoma (blood tumor)
aphagia (inability to swallow)
aphasia (inability to speak)
3. When letters are silent in a term, they risk being omitted when spelling the word. For example:
“pt” has a “t” sound if found at the beginning of a term (e.g., pterygium), but both the “p” and
“t” are pronounced when found within a term (e.g., nephroptosis [nĕf-rop-tōsis])
“ph” has an “f” sound (e.g., diaphragm)
“ps” has an “s” sound (e.g., psychology)
4. Some words have more than one accepted spelling. For example:
orthopedic
orthopaedic
leukocyte
leucocyte
5. Some combining forms have the same meaning but different origins that compete for usage.
For example, there are three combining forms that mean uterus:
hyster/o (Greek)
metr/o (Greek)
uter/o (Latin)
RULES OF PRONUNCIATION
When you are beginning to learn how to pronounce medical terms, the task can seem insurmountable. Saying a term out loud for the first time can be a tense moment! The best way to make
sure you get it right is through preparation: study the basic rules of pronunciation found in this
chapter; repeat the words after hearing them pronounced on the CD-ROM accompanying this text
or after your instructor has said them; and to try to keep the company of others who use medical
language. You’ll soon discover that there is nothing quite like the validation you feel when you
correctly say something “medical” and no one flinches! Your confidence will build with every word
you use.
Use these helpful shortcuts to master the pronunciation of medical terminology:
SHORTCUTS TO PRONUNCIATION
CONSONANT
EXAMPLE
c (before a, o, u) k
cavity, colon, cure
c (before e, i) s
cephalic, cirrhosis
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
CONSONANT
EXAMPLE
ch k
cholesterol
g (before a, o, u) g
gallstone, gonad, gurney
g (before e, i) j
generic, giant
ph f
phase
pn n
pneumonia
ps s
psychology
pt t
ptosis, pterygium
rh, rrh r
rhythm, hemorrhoid
x (as first letter in a word) z
xerosis
11
Phonetic spelling for the pronunciation of most medical terms in this text is provided in parentheses below the term. The phonetic system used here is basic and has only a few standard rules. The
macron and breve are the two diacritical marks used. The macron ( ¯ ) is placed over vowels that
have a long sound:
ā in day
ē in bee
ı̄ in pie
ō in no
ū in unit
The breve ( ˘ ) is placed over vowels that have a short sound:
ă in alone
ĕ in ever
ı̆ in pit
ŏ in ton
ŭ in sun
Vowels that are not accented have a flat sound:
a in mat
e in bed
i in hip
o in got
u in put
The primary accent ( ) is placed after the syllable that is stressed when saying the word.
Monosyllables do not have a stress mark. Other syllables are separated by hyphens.
SINGULAR AND PLURAL FORMS
Plurals are usually formed by adding “s” or “es” to the end of a singular form. The following are
common exceptions for forming plurals of Latin and Greek derivatives. Study the exceptions to
prepare for the review that follows.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Self-Instruction: Singular and Plural Forms
SINGULAR ENDING
EXAMPLE
PLURAL ENDING
EXAMPLE
-a
vertebra
vĕrtĕ-bră
-ae
vertebrae
vĕrtĕ-brā
-is
diagnosis
dı̄-ag-nōsis
-es
diagnoses
dı̄-ag-nōsēz
-ma
condyloma
kon-di-lōmă
-mata
condylomata
kondi-lō-mahtă
-on
phenomenon
f ĕ-nomĕ-non
-a
phenomena
f ĕ-nomĕ-nǎ
-um
bacterium
bak-tērē-yŭm
-a
bacteria
bak-tērē-ǎ
-us*
fungus
f ŭnggŭs
-i
fungi
f ŭnjı̄
-ax
thorax
thōraks
-aces
thoraces
thō-rāsēz
-ex
apex
āpeks
-ices
apices
api-sēs
-ix
appendix
ă-pendiks
-ices
appendices
ǎ-pendi-sēz
-y
myopathy
mı̄-opă-thē
-ies
myopathies
mı̄-opǎ-thēz
*The words virus and sinus follow the usual rule of adding “s” or “es” to form the plural (viruses and sinuses) instead of
using the Latin plural ending -i.
Programmed Review: Singular and Plural Forms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
t
1.33 The pt in pterygium has a/an ____ sound.
1.34 An ovum is an egg produced by an ovary. There are two
ovaries, ova
________________ in the female that produce eggs or _____________.
k
1.35 The ch in chronic has a/an ____ sound.
1.36 The spread of cancer to a distant organ is called metastasis.
metastases
The spread of cancer to more than one organ is ___________________.
s
1.37 The c in cirrhosis has a/an ____ sound.
1.38 A verruca is a wart. The term for several warts is
verrucae
_________________.
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
ANSWERS
REVIEW
z
1.39 The x in xerosis has a/an ____ sound.
13
1.40 Condylomata are genital warts. One genital wart is a
condyloma
___________________.
j
1.41 The g in genital has a/an ___ sound.
index
1.42 Indices is a plural form of ______________.
thrombi
1.43 A thrombus is a clot. Several clots are termed _______________.
n
1.44 The pn in pneumatic has a/an ____ sound.
BUILDING A VOCABULARY
The key to building a medical vocabulary is to know and understand the basic term components.
To start you on your way, study and memorize the following lists of common prefixes, suffixes, and
combining forms used in medical language. Each of these term components is included on a flash
card in the starter set. Organize the flash cards as suggested in each section. Draw lines to separate
the components in each of the example terms found on the cards, and write definitions in the margins to prepare for review exercises.
Refer to Appendix A for a summary list of prefixes, suffixes, and combining forms.
Common Prefixe
Prefixes are term components found at the beginning of a term when needed to further modify the
root or roots. A list of commonly used prefixes organized into categories follows. Each is included
on a flash card in the starter set. Organize the cards into the categories listed here. Draw lines to
separate the components in each of the example terms shown on the cards, and write definitions in
the margins in preparation for the review exercises.
Self-Instruction: Common Prefixe
Study the following:
PREFIX
MEANING
FLASH CARD ID#
a-, an-
without
P-1
anti-, contra-
against or opposed to
P-5
de-
from, down, or not
P-10
ab-
away from
P-2
ad-
to, toward, or near
P-3
NEGATION
POSITION/DIRECTION
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
PREFIX
MEANING
FLASH CARD ID#
circum-, peri-
around
P-8
dia-, trans-
across or through
P-11
e-, ec-, ex-
out or away
P-13
ecto-, exo-, extra-
outside
P-14
en-, endo-, intra-
within
P-15
epi-
upon
P-16
inter-
between
P-21
meso-
middle
P-23
meta-
beyond, after, or change
P-24
para-
alongside of or abnormal
P-30
retro-
backward or behind
P-35
sub-, infra-
below or under
P-36
QUANTITY OF MEASUREMENT
bi-
two or both
P-6
hemi-, semi-
half
P-18
hyper-
above or excessive
P-19
hypo-
below or deficient
P-20
macro-
large or long
P-22
micro-
small
P-25
mono-, uni-
one
P-26
oligo-
few or deficient
P-28
pan-
all
P-29
poly-, multi-
many
P-31
quadri-
four
P-33
super-, supra-
above or excessive
P-37
tri-
three
P-39
ultra-
beyond or excessive
P-40
ante-, pre-, pro-
before
P-4
brady-
slow
P-7
tachy-
fast
P-38
post-
after or behind
P-32
re-
again or back
P-34
TIME
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
PREFIX
MEANING
FLASH CARD ID#
con-, syn-, sym-
together or with
P-9
dys-
painful, difficult, or faulty
P-12
eu-
good or normal
P-17
neo-
new
P-27
15
GENERAL PREFIXES
Study the flash cards for the prefixes listed above in preparation for the following review.
Programmed Review: Common Prefixe
ANSWERS
REVIEW
1.45 Several prefixes modify position or direction when used in
away
a term. Abduction is used to describe movement ___________ from
to, toward, or near
the body, and adduction describes movement _______________ the
around
body. Circumduction is movement that is ____________. A diagonal
across or through
is an angle that moves ______________. Inversion refers to
out or away
turning in, and eversion means to turn __________. Unilateral
one, bi
refers to _______ side, whereas ______lateral means both sides.
below or under
1.46 Subcutaneous pertains to ____________ the skin. Epidermal
upon
refers to something ___________ the skin, whereas transdermal
across or through
pertains to _____________ the skin. Intradermal pertains to
within, intra
_____________ the skin. That which is within a cell is _______cellular.
outside
Extracellular pertains to _______________ a cell. Inter-, a prefix
between
meaning _________________, is used in the term describing that which
inter, out
is between cells: __________cellular. Eccentric is situated __________
away, below or under
or __________ from center. Infra-, a prefix meaning ____________ ,
is used to indicate a position below the part to which it is joined. For
infra
example, _______umbilical refers to a position below or under the
umbilicus (navel).
1.47 Layers of embryonic tissue are named for their position.
within
Endo-, meaning _______________, is used to describe the innermost
endo, middle
layer, or _______derm. Meso-, meaning _____________, is used to
meso
name the middle layer, or ________derm. Ecto-, meaning
outside, ecto
____________, is used to identify the outer layer, or ________derm.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
1.48 Glands that secrete within the body are the endocrine glands,
exo
and those that secrete outside are the _________crine glands. An
endo
instrument to examine within the body is an _______scope. When
within
something is encapsulated, it is held ______________.
deficient
1.49 Hypo- means below or ________________, and hyper- means
excessive
above or ______________________. A patient with a deficient level of
hypo
blood glucose (sugar) has a condition of __________glycemia.
hyper
A condition of excessive blood glucose is ___________glycemia.
Hypothermia is a condition in which the body temperature is
below
____________ normal, whereas hyperthermia is a condition of
above
body temperature well _____________ normal. Like hyper-, super- and
above, excessive
supra- are prefixes meaning _____________ or ____________________.
above
Suprarenal pertains to a location _____________ the kidney.
Supernumerary pertains to numbers that are above or
excessive
___________________ (too many to count). Ultra- is a prefix meaning
beyond
_________________ or excessive. The term describing high-frequency
sound beyond that which can be heard by humans is known
ultra
as _________sound.
large
1.50 Macro- refers to something ____________ or long, and
small
micro- refers to something ___________. A large cell is called a
macro, micro
____________cyte. A small cell is called a _____________cyte.
mono-, one
1.51 Uni- and ___________ are prefixes meaning _________.
bi-, tri-
The prefix for two is _______, three is _______, and four is
quadri-, many
_____________. Multi- and poly- mean _________.
one
Mononeuropathy describes the disease of _______ nerve, whereas
many
polyneuropathy involves __________ nerves. A triangle has
three
____________ sides. Quadriplegia is a condition of paralysis of
four
all _________ limbs.
all
1.52 Pan- is a prefix meaning ________. A panacea is a cure-all.
Pan
________sinusitis refers to an inflammation of all of the sinuses.
semi-
1.53 The two prefixes meaning one-half are hemi- and __________.
Semilunar pertains to a half-moon shape. Hemicephalic pertains to
one-half
_______-__________ of the head.
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
17
ANSWERS
REVIEW
without
1.54 A- and an- are prefixes meaning _______________. An- is used
an
before a vowel. For example, aerobic pertains to air, and _____aerobic
pertains to without air. A patient without the ability to speak has a
a, painful,
condition called ___phasia. Dys- is a prefix meaning ______________
difficult, or faulty
____________________________. Dysphasia is a condition of difficult
dys
speech. A condition of difficulty swallowing is termed ______phagia.
a
The patient without the ability to swallow has _____phagia.
1.55 Two prefixes meaning against or opposed to are anti- and
contra-, against or opposed to
___________. A contraceptive is __________________________
anti
conception. An _______inflammatory drug acts against or opposed to
inflammation by reducing it.
from, down, or not
1.56 Deactivated refers to something that is _____________ active.
again
When something is reactivated, it is made active __________. Proactive
before
refers to an action made ___________. Retroposition refers to a
backward or behind
structure that is ___________________.
fast
1.57 Tachy- is a prefix meaning ____________, and brady- means
slow, tachy
___________. A condition of fast heart is ____________cardia.
brady
A condition of slow heart is ___________cardia. Bradypnea refers
slow
to ___________ breathing, whereas tachypnea refers
fast
to __________ breathing.
before
1.58 Natal pertains to birth. Antenatal is the time ___________ birth,
pre
also known as the ________natal period. Perinatal is the time
around, after
_____________ birth, and postnatal is the time __________ birth.
Neo
_______natal pertains to newborn.
1.59 Toc/o is a combining form meaning labor. Eutocia is a
good or normal
condition of ________________ labor, and dystocia is a condition of
painful, difficult, or faulty
___________________ labor.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
together
1.60 Con-, syn-, and sym- are prefixes meaning _______________ or
with
__________. A congenital disorder is one that an infant is born
with
__________. Dactyl/o is a combining form meaning finger or toe.
Syndactylism is a condition of fingers or toes that are fused
together
_______________. Syn- appears as sym- before b, p, ph, or m.
For example, the term describing the condition in which different
sym
species are able to live together is _______biosis.
Common Suffixe
Suffixes are endings that modify the root. These endings give the root essential meaning by forming a noun, verb, or adjective. The two basic types of suffixes are simple and compound. Simple
suffixes form basic terms. For example, the simple suffix -ic (pertaining to) combined with the root
gastr (stomach) forms the term gastric (pertaining to the stomach). Compound suffixes are formed
by a combination of basic term components. For example, the root tom (to cut) combined with the
simple suffix -y (a process of) forms the compound suffix -tomy (incision); the compound suffix
-ectomy (excision or removal) is formed by a combination of the prefix ec- (out) with the root tom (to
cut) and the simple suffix -y (a process of).
Compound suffixes are added to roots to provide a specific meaning. For example, combining
the root hyster (uterus) with -ectomy forms hysterectomy (excision of the uterus). Noting the differences between simple and compound suffixes will help you to analyze medical terms.
Suffixes in this text are divided into four categories:
1. Symptomatic suffixes, which describe the evidence of illness
2. Diagnostic suffixes, which provide the name of a medical condition
3. Surgical (operative) suffixes, which describe a surgical treatment
4. General suffixes, which have general application
A listing of commonly used suffixes follows. Each suffix is included on a flash card in the starter set.
Organize the cards into the four categories of suffixes. Draw lines to separate the components in
each of the example terms found on the cards, and write definitions in the margins to prepare for
the review exercises.
Self-Instruction: Common Suffixe
Study the following:
SUFFIX
MEANING
FLASH CARD ID#
SYMPTOMATIC SUFFIXES
(Word Endings That Describe Evidence of Illness)
-algia, -dynia
pain
S-2
-genesis
origin or production
S-11
-lysis
breaking down or dissolution
S-20
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
SUFFIX
MEANING
FLASH CARD ID#
-megaly
enlargement
S-22
-oid
resembling
S-24
-penia
abnormal reduction
S-27
-rrhea
discharge
S-35
-spasm
involuntary contraction
S-38
DIAGNOSTIC SUFFIXES
(Word Endings That Describe a Condition or Disease)
-cele
pouching or hernia
S-4
-ectasis
expansion or dilation
S-8
-emia
blood condition
S-10
-iasis
formation or presence of
S-15
-itis
inflammation
S-17
-malacia
softening
S-21
-oma
tumor
S-25
-osis
condition or increase
S-26
-phil, -philia
attraction for
S-29
-ptosis
falling or downward displacement
S-32
-rrhage, -rrhagia
to burst forth (usually blood)
S-33
-rrhexis
rupture
S-36
SURGICAL (OPERATIVE) SUFFIXES
(Word Endings That Describe a Surgical [Operative] Treatment)
-centesis
puncture for aspiration
S-5
-desis
binding
S-6
-ectomy
excision (removal)
S-9
-pexy
suspension or fixation
S-28
-plasty
surgical repair or reconstruction
S-30
-rrhaphy
suture
S-34
-tomy
incision
S-41
-stomy
creation of an opening
S-40
GENERAL SUFFIXES
(Simple or Compound Suffixes That Have General Application)
Noun Endings (suffixes that form a noun when combined with a root)
-ation
process
S-3
-e
general indicator that a word is a
person, place, or thing
S-7
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SUFFIX
MEANING
FLASH CARD ID#
-ia, -ism
condition of
S-13
-y
condition or process of
S-42
-ium
structure or tissue
S-18
Adjective Endings (suffixes that form an adjective when combined
with a root)
-ac, -al, -ar, -ary, -eal,
-ic, -ous, -tic
pertaining to
S-1
Diminutive Endings (suffixes meaning small)
-icle, -ole, -ula, -ule
small
S-16
-gram
record
S-12
-graph
instrument for recording
S-12
-graphy
process of recording
S-12
-iatrics, -iatry
treatment
S-14
-logy
study
S-19
-logist
one who specializes in the study
or treatment of
S-19
-ist
one who specializes in
S-19
-meter
instrument for measuring
S-23
-metry
process of measuring
S-23
-poiesis
formation
S-31
-scope
instrument for examination
S-37
-scopy
process of examination
S-37
-stasis
stop or stand
S-39
Other General Suffixes
Don’t be rolled over by the
rr's
rr
We have the Greeks to thank for the suffixes with double rr’s. Take a careful look at each so that
you will spell them correctly in a term!
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
Suffix
-rrhea
-rrhage or -rrhagia
Meaning
discharge
to burst forth (usually blood)
-rrhexis
-rrhaphy
rupture
suture
21
Example
pyorrhea (a discharge of pus)
hemorrhage (a burst forth of blood)
menorrhagia (a burst forth of
blood during menstruation)
angiorrhexis (a rupture of a vessel)
nephrorrhaphy (a suture of the
kidney)
Each component also has an h, and -rrhaphy has two!
Study the flash cards for the suffixes listed on the previous pages in preparation for the following
review.
Programmed Review: Common Suffixe
ANSWERS
REVIEW
stomach
1.61 Gastr/o is a combining form meaning _______________.
prefix, upon
In epigastrium, epi- is the ______________ meaning ___________, and
-ium, suffix
__________ is the _____________, a noun ending meaning
structure, tissue
__________________ or _______________. The noun endings -ia and
-ism, as seen in the terms pneumonia and hypothyroidism, refer
condition of
to a _________________ ____. The -y ending in atrophy indicates a
process of
condition or _____________ ____. The suffix in extravasation denotes
process, noun
a _____________. The -e in erythrocyte is a _________ marker.
-ic
1.62 In epigastric, use of the suffix ______ forms an adjective that
pertaining to
means _______________ _____ the stomach—specifically referring to
upon, epigastrium
the tissue region ________ the stomach known as the _______________.
-eal
In gastroesophageal, ________ is the adjective ending that modifies
pertaining to
the term to mean ________________ _____ the stomach and
esophagus
_____________. Several other suffixes form adjectives, as noted in the
terms cardiac, pedal, glandular, pulmonary, esophageal, hypnotic,
pertaining to
and fibrous, and also mean _____________ _____.
ending
1.63 A symptomatic suffix is a term ______________ used to describe
pain
evidence of illness. The suffixes -algia or -dynia (meaning ________),
enlargement
-megaly (meaning _____________________), -rrhea (meaning
discharge, involuntary
_____________________), and -spasm (meaning _________________
contraction
____________________) are examples of suffixes used to form
symptomatic, illness
__________________ terms that describe evidence of ____________.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
1.64 The symptomatic term that describes stomach pain is
gastralgia or gastrodynia
____________________. Pain located in the tissue upon the stomach
epigastralgia
is termed __________________. Involuntary contraction of the stomach
gastrospasm
is called _________________, and the discharge of gastric juice from
rrhea
the stomach is termed gastro__________. Enlargement of the stomach
gastromegaly
is termed __________________.
1.65 Physical examination and test procedures are key to
identifying the cause of symptoms in order to make a diagnosis. A
diagnosis is the name of a condition or disease. In evaluating the
pain
cause of a symptom such as gastrodynia, or _________ in the
examination
stomach, a gastroscopy or ____________________ of the
stomach
_______________ may be performed. The specific endoscope
within
(instrument to examine ______________) used in gastroscopy
gastroscope
is called a ______________________.
endings
1.66 Diagnostic suffixes are word _____________ used to describe
diagnosis
a condition or name of a disease, called a _________________.
If, on gastroscopic examination, the physician notes an inflammation
gastritis
of the stomach, a diagnosis of _____________ is made. The presence
iasis
of a stone in the stomach is termed gastrolith________. A finding of
gastromalacia
softening of the stomach wall is referred to as ____________________.
pouching, hernia
The suffix -cele, meaning _________________ or ____________, is
used in the term describing a pouching or hernia of the stomach:
gastrocele
__________________. Hemorrhage, a term referring to bleeding, was
formed by the link of hem/o, a combining form meaning
blood, burst
_____________, with -rrhage, a suffix meaning to ___________
forth
_____________, usually in reference to blood. Using the suffix
-rrhagia, the condition of bursting forth of blood from the stomach
gastrorrhagia
is called ______________________. The suffix meaning stop or stand
is used in the term describing efforts to stop hemorrhaging blood:
stasis
hemo_________.
1.67 Gastroenterology, a term formed by a link of gastr/o (meaning
stomach
_____________), enter/o (meaning small intestine), and -logy (a
suffix, study of
___________ meaning ____________ _____), is the name of the
medical specialty involved with the study of gastrointestinal
conditions. Using the suffix referring to one who specializes in the
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
ANSWERS
23
REVIEW
study or treatment of, the physician who specializes in the treatment
gastroenterologist
of the stomach and intestines is called a _________________________.
1.68 Many symptomatic and diagnostic terms use the suffix -osis
condition, increase
to indicate a _______________ or _____________. For example, when
combined with sten/o, a combining form meaning narrow, the term
stenosis
for a condition or increase of narrowing is ___________. A narrowed
gastrostenosis
condition of the stomach is therefore called _____________________.
1.69 Once a diagnosis is made, treatment follows. Some treatments
endings
require surgery. Operative suffixes are term _______________ that
operative
describe a surgical or _______________ treatment. The first step in a
surgical procedure is to make an incision, the suffix for which is
-tomy, gastrotomy
_________. An incision in the stomach is called a _____________________.
Given a diagnosis of stomach tumor, a surgical remedy might involve
gastrectomy
a partial or complete removal of the stomach, called a _____________.
downward
Gastroptosis, defined as a falling or ___________________
displacement, stomach
__________________ of the _____________, may necessitate a surgical
pexy
suspension or fixation, called a gastro_________. The operative term
gastroplasty
describing a surgical repair of the stomach is ____________________.
In some cases, the creation of an opening is required, such as to
bypass a diseased part. The creation of a new opening in the stomach
gastrostomy
is called _________________. Perforation of the stomach requires
gastrorrhaphy
suturing, the operative term for which is ____________________.
When fluid builds up within the abdominal cavity as a result of
illness or injury, a puncture for aspiration is required. The suffix
-centesis
meaning puncture for aspiration is ______________. The surgical
-desis
suffix specifically referring to binding of tissue is ___________.
1.70 Other general suffixes are commonly seen in health records.
-icle
Those referring to diminutives (something small) are _________,
-iole, -ula, -ule
__________, _________, and _________, as seen in the terms ventricle,
bronchiole, macula, and venule.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
1.71 You’ll find several general suffixes describing diagnostic
record
testing. For example, -gram is a suffix meaning ______________. An
electrocardiogram (ECG) is a record of the electrical conduction
of the heart. The instrument for recording an ECG is called an
graph
electrocardio__________ machine. This process of recording is
electrocardiography
referred to as _________________________. The suffix -metry is a suffix
measuring
referring to the process of __________________. A thermometer is
instrument
an _________________ for measuring temperature.
Common Combining Forms
The following table shows selected combining forms (roots with vowels attached) to give you a start
toward building medical terms. Each is included on a flash card in the starter set. Organize the
cards into categories such as the ones in the following list. Review the cards by drawing lines to separate the components in each example term, and write definitions in the margins in preparation for
the review exercises. Additional combining forms are introduced at the beginning of Chapters 3
through 15 on the body systems, and Appendix A contains a summary list of combining forms.
Study the entire starter set of flash cards in preparation for the next review.
Self-Instruction: Common Combining Forms
Study the following:
COMBINING FORM
MEANING
FLASH CARD ID#
cyan/o
blue
CF-12
erythr/o
red
CF-16
leuk/o
white
CF-27
melan/o
black
CF-30
aer/o
air, gas
CF-4
hem/o, hemat/o
blood
CF-23
hydr/o
water
CF-26
lip/o
fat
CF-28
py/o
pus
CF-49
ur/o, urin/o
urine
CF-56
COLORS
SUBSTANCES
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
COMBINING FORM
MEANING
FLASH CARD ID#
abdomin/o, lapar/o
abdomen
CF-1
acr/o
extremity or topmost
CF-2
aden/o
gland
CF-3
angi/o, vas/o, vascul/o
vessel
CF-5
arthr/o
joint
CF-6
cardi/o
heart
CF-8
cephal/o
head
CF-9
col/o, colon/o
colon
CF-10
cyt/o
cell
CF-13
derm/o, dermat/o, cutane/o
skin
CF-14
enter/o
small intestine
CF-15
esophag/o
esophagus
CF-17
gastr/o
stomach
CF-20
hepat/o
liver
CF-24
hist/o
tissue
CF-25
my/o, muscul/o
muscle
CF-32
nas/o, rhin/o
nose
CF-33
nephr/o, ren/o
kidney
CF-35
neur/o
nerve
CF-36
or/o
mouth
CF-38
oste/o
bone
CF-40
pneum/o, pneumon/o
air or lung
CF-47
ORGANS/STRUCTURES
GENERAL COMBINING FORMS
carcin/o
cancer
CF-7
crin/o
to secrete
CF-11
esthesi/o
sensation
CF-18
fibr/o
fiber
CF-19
gen/o
origin or production
CF-21
gynec/o
woman
CF-22
lith/o
stone
CF-29
morph/o
form
CF-31
necr/o
death
CF-34
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COMBINING FORM
MEANING
FLASH CARD ID#
onc/o
tumor or mass
CF-37
orth/o
straight, normal, or correct
CF-39
path/o
disease
CF-41
ped/o
child or foot
CF-42
phag/o
eat or swallow
CF-43
phas/o
speech
CF-44
phob/o
exaggerated fear or sensitivity
CF-45
plas/o
formation
CF-46
psych/o
mind
CF-48
scler/o
hard
CF-50
son/o
sound
CF-51
sten/o
narrow
CF-52
therm/o
heat
CF-53
tox/o, toxic/o
poison
CF-54
troph/o
nourishment or development
CF-55
Programmed Review: Common Combining Forms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
kidney
1.72 Nephr is a Greek root meaning _____________. Combined
combining, form
with an “o”, it becomes nephr/o, a ________________ __________.
Nephr/o cannot stand alone as a term. At the least, it needs a
suffix
___________ to give it essential meaning. In the term nephrology,
the addition of the suffix -logy forms a term with a specific meaning:
study, kidney
___________ of the _____________.
1.73 In nephrolithiasis, the link of nephr/o to lith, a root meaning
stone, -iasis
_________, and the suffix ___________ forms the term referring to the
presence or formation
___________________________________________________________
of kidney stones, o
_________________. The combining vowel for lith is ___. Notice that
the vowel was not used when linked to -iasis, because the
suffix
_____________ began with a vowel. Nephrolithiasis is a renal disease.
ren/o
Renal is a term formed using ___________, the Latin combining form
meaning kidney.
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
ANSWERS
REVIEW
combining form
1.74 Abdomin/o is a ________________ _________ meaning
abdomen
______________, the central part of the body trunk. Note that the
27
spelling of abdomin/o is different from the anatomic part it represents.
lapar/o
Another combining form meaning abdomen is _____________.
A laparoscope is an instrument used to examine the
abdomen
________________.
water
1.75 Hydr/o is a combining form meaning ___________. A person
with hydrocephaly has a condition of water (fluid) within the
head
_____________.
acro
1.76 An enlarged extremity is called _______megaly. Acr/o also
topmost, acro
means _______________. A person with _______phobia has a fear of
high places.
1.77 The suffix meaning origin or production is -genesis. The
gen/o
combining form meaning origin or production is ___________. The
origin or production
suffix -genic pertains to ___________________. Carcinogenic pertains
cancer
to the origin or production of ____________.
1.78 Several combining forms are listed in the starter set related
melan/o, leuk/o
to color: black is ______________, white is _________, red is
erythr/o, cyan/o
_______________, and blue is __________. Melanoma, referring to a
black
____________ tumor, is a common cutaneous cancer, or
skin, white
__________ cancer. A leukocyte is a __________ cell. Erythroderma
red
refers to _______ skin. When the skin turns blue from lack of
cyan
oxygen, it is termed ________osis.
LEVELS OF ORGANIZATION IN THE BODY
(Fig. 1-1)
Study the entire starter set of flash cards to prepare for the review that follows.
Programmed Review: Cells/Tissues/Organs/Systems
ANSWERS
REVIEW
1.79 The term cell, meaning small room, was used to describe the
structures first observed in 1665 by Robert Hooke as he examined
cork using a microscope, an instrument to examine something
small
_________. He noted that the small cells were part of a larger web of
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Levels of organization
Atom
Molecule
Body system
Cell
Organ
Organism
Tissue
FIGURE 1-1 ■
Levels of organization in the body.
ANSWERS
REVIEW
cell
woven tissue. Using cyt/o, a combining form meaning ________, the
study of cells that comprise the human body became known as
cyto, histology
________logy and the study of tissue as _______________. Morph/o,
form
a combining form meaning __________, is used to name the study of
morphology
the form and shape of cells and tissue: ___________________.
1.80 Body cells combine to form tissues, and combinations of
tissues compose the organs necessary for body functions. Organs
larger
act together as part of the ___________ body systems. For example,
organs
the kidneys are ___________ that function to filter blood as part of
urine
the urinary system (urin/o means ______________ and -ary means
pertaining to
_______________ _____).
1.81 The Greek combining form for kidney is nephr/o, and the Latin
ren/o
is ________. The medical specialty concerned with the study and
urology
treatment of the urinary tract is called ________________. The
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29
REVIEW
physician who particularly specializes in the study and treatment of
nephro
the kidneys is known as a __________logist.
1.82 Examination of body cells and tissues is part of the medical
patho
specialty concerned with the study of disease, known as ________logy.
The physician who is a specialist in the study of disease is called
pathologist
a __________________.
formation
1.83 Plas/o is a combining form meaning _________________, and
faulty
dys- is a prefix meaning bad, difficult, or _____________. Dysplasia is
the term used to describe abnormal cell and tissue development,
new
and neoplasia, referring to a condition of ________ formation, is the
term used to describe the formation of cells and tissue into tumor.
-oma
The suffix for tumor is _________. A cancerous tumor is called a
carcinoma
______________. The specialty concerned with the study of tumors
oncology
and cancers is ________________.
1.84 The largest organ of the body is the skin. Cutane/o is the
dermat/o
Latin combining form, and derm/o and _____________ are the Greek
skin
combining forms, that mean ___________. Dermatology is the
study
specialty involved with the ____________ and treatment of skin
dermatologist
diseases. The specialist is called a __________________.
1.85 The musculoskeletal system provides support and gives
shape to the body. Bones, which form the skeleton, are covered
with muscle to supply the forces that make movement possible.
Oste/o
____________ is the combining form for bone, and arthr/o is the
joint
combining form meaning __________, the hinge between bones.
muscle
My/o and muscul/o are the combining forms for ___________. Orth/o,
correct
meaning straight, normal, or ____________, and ped/o, meaning child
foot
or __________, were combined to form the term orthopedic
(pertaining to the specialty related to the musculoskeletal
system).
heart,
1.86 The cardiovascular system consists of the ___________ and
vessels
________________ that transport blood throughout the body. Blood
provides transport for oxygen, nutrients, wastes, etc. Hem/o and
blood
hemat/o are combining forms meaning _____________. The study of
hematology
blood is called _________________. It includes analysis of blood and
cell
its cellular components. Cyt/o means ___________. Cells of the
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
red
blood include erythrocytes, or _________ cells, and
leukocytes
__________________, or white cells. Hemopoiesis is a term referring
blood, suffix
to the formation of ____________, and -emia is the ___________ that
poison
means blood. Toxemia is a condition of blood _____________.
Leukocytes are blood cells that fight infection. They are present in
pus, the fluid produced by inflammation of tissue. The combining
py/o, formation
form for pus is _________. Pyopoiesis describes the ________________
pus
of ______.
air or lung
1.87 Pneum/o, meaning __________, is the key combining form of
the respiratory system, the body system responsible for the exchange
of gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) within the body. The nose is
the first structure to receive oxygen. Rhin/o is the Greek combining
nose
form meaning _________. The Latin combining form with the same
nas/o
meaning is _________.
1.88 The nervous system is a complicated network of nerves and
Neur/o
fibers that control all functions of the body. ____________ is the
combining form for nerve.
1.89 The ductless glands of the endocrine system affect the
function of organs by the secreting hormones. Endo means
within, to secrete
_____________, and crin/o means ____ ____________.
1.90 The gastrointestinal system provides for digestion and
elimination. Combining forms related to key structures of the
mouth
tubular digestive tract are or/o (meaning ____________), esophag/o
esophagus, stomach
(meaning ________________), gastr/o (meaning _____________), enter/o
small, large
(meaning _________ intestine), and col/o or colon/o (meaning _________
liver
intestine). Hepat/o is the combining form for _________, the organ
that produces bile necessary for digestion.
1.91 The male and female reproductive systems produce the sex
cells and maintain the organs necessary for production of human
offspring. The physician who specializes in the treatment of the male
and female urinary system, as well as the male reproductive system,
logist
is called a uro__________. Treatment of the female reproductive system
gynecology
involves two medical specialties: obstetrics and _________________
(study of woman).
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PRACTICE EXERCISES
Circle the correct meaning for the following term components:
1. intera. difficult
b. between
c. within
d. out, away
e. behind
b. excessive
c. against
d. around
e. without
b. outside
c. against
d. around
e. away from
b. both
c. two
d. without
e. against
b. upon
c. excessive
d. two
e. back, again
b. out
c. toward
d. before
e. after
b. few
c. above
d. before
e. after
b. death
c. origin
d. new
e. disease
b. all
c. alongside of
d. attraction for
e. around
b. after
c. beyond
d. excessive
e. deficient
b. cancer
c. tumor
d. excision
e. incision
b. tumor
c. fixation
d. enlargement
e. softening
b. condition
c. abnormal reduction
d. formation
e. inflammation
b. suture
c. rupture
d. burst forth
e. repair
b. fixation
c. rupture
d. reduction
e. suspension
b. death
c. black
d. tumor
e. large
b. poison
c. pus
d. swallow
e. black
2. ultraa. across
3. antia. beside
4. aa. double
5. bia. without
6. prea. against
7. polya. many
8. neoa. birth
9. peria. many
10. hypera. below
11. -plasty
a. surgical repair
12. -megaly
a. development
13. -itis
a. excision
14. -rrhagia
a. discharge
15. -penia
a. discharge
16. necr/o
a. fear
17. toxic/o
a. development
31
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
18. acr/o
a. gland
b. blue
c. air
d. extremity
e. red
b. heart
c. vessel
d. red
e. gland
b. sac
c. blue
d. colon
e. cell
b. disease
c. black
d. dissolution
e. large
19. angi/o
a. artery
20. cyt/o
a. color
21. melan/o
a. death
*After verifying that you have circled the correct answers, go back over questions 1-21 and write
the correct term component for each of the meanings listed.
Circle the correct term component for the following meanings:
22. kidney
a. enter/o
b. gastr/o
c. ren/o
d. hepat/o
e. necr/o
b. -malacia
c. -oma
d. hyper-
e. macro-
b. -metry
c. -gram
d. -graph
e. -graphy
b. -plasia
c. -penia
d. -pexy
e. -plasty
b. -iasis
c. -osis
d. -ium
e. -ous
b. -stomy
c. -ectomy
d. -centesis
e. -cele
23. large
a. poly24. record
a. -meter
25. surgical fixation
a. -ptosis
26. condition or increase
a. -itis
27. excision
a. -tomy
*After verifying that you have circled the correct answers, go back over questions 22-27 and write
the meaning for each term component listed.
Circle the correct plural for the following words:
28. vertebra
a. vertebray
b. vertebras
c. vertebrae
d. vertebrus
e. vertebraes
b. bullia
c. bullae
d. bullas
e. bullata
b. speculumes c. specula
d. speculae
e. speculuma
b. fungae
c. funges
d. funguses
e. fungea
b. stomatae
c. stomes
d. stomatus
e. stomatum
29. bulla
a. bulli
30. speculum
a. speculata
31. fungus
a. fungi
32. stoma
a. stomata
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
33
33. macula
a. maculus
b. maculas
c. maculi
d. maculae
e. maculies
b. radiusos
c. radiuses
d. radia
e. radiis
b. diagnoses
c. diagnosses d. diagnosi
34. radius
a. radii
35. diagnosis
a. diagnosa
e. diagnosae
Circle the operative term in each of the following:
36. a. nephroptosis
b. hemolysis
c. angiectasis
d. colostomy
e. necrosis
37. a. vasorrhaphy
b. hematoma
c. gastrocele
d. endoscope
e. cardiorrhexis
38. a. morphologic
b. adenolysis
c. abdominocentesis
d. osteomalacia
e. polyrrhea
*After verifying that you have circled the correct answers, go back over questions 36-38 and define
each of the terms.
Circle the correct spelling:
39. a. nephroraphy
b. nephrorrapy
c. nephrorrhaphy
d. nephrorrhapy
40. a. abdominoscopy
b. abdemenoscopi
c. abdomenscopy
d. abdominoschope
41. a. perrycardium
b. pericardium
c. periocardium
d. paracardium
For each of the following words, identify the term components (prefixes [P], combining forms
[CF], roots [R], and suffixes [S]) by writing them on the lines below the word. Then, define the
word according to the meaning of its components.
EXAMPLE:
hyperlipemia
hyper /______
lip /______
emia
_______
P
R
S
DEFINITION: above or excessive/fat/blood condition
42. microlithiasis
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
43. sympathy
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
44. toxoid
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
45. mesomorphic
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
46. pancytopenia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
47. metastasis
___________ / ___________
P
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
48. acrodynia
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
49. tachycardia
___________ / ___________/ ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
50. pyogenesis
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
51. adenitis
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
52. macrocephalous
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
53. paracentesis
___________ / ___________
P
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
54. ultrasonography
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
55. orthopedic
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
56. angiomegaly
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
35
57. psychiatry
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
58. carcinophobia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
59. endocrinologist
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
60. rhinostenosis
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
61. hypoesthesia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
62. aerophagia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
63. fibroma
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
64. necrophilia
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
65. sclerosis
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
66. hemolysis
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
67. hydrocephaly
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
68. cytometer
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
69. cyanotic
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
70. extravasation
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
71. hypertrophy
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
Circle the prefix that will complete the following terms:
72. _________nasal above the nose
a. para-
b. peri-
c. supra-
d. infra-
e. sub-
c. pro-
d. re-
e. hyper-
c. pre-
d. peri-
e. circum-
c. post-
d. pro-
e. retro-
c. ec-
d. dys-
e. contra-
d. tri-
e. meta-
c. intra-
d. epi-
e. trans-
c. super-
d. oligo-
e. pan-
d. para-
e. pre-
73. _________activate make active again
a. de-
b. retro-
74. _________operative before surgery
a. intra-
b. post-
75. _________partum after labor
a. ante-
b. anti-
76. _________hydrated not watered
a. anti-
b. de-
77. _________morphic pertaining to one form
a. bi-
b. micro-
c. mono-
78. _________dermal across or through the skin
a. ecto-
b. endo-
79. __________acute excessively severe
a. sub-
b. hypo-
80. __________umbilical below or under the navel
a. hyper-
b. infra-
c. peri-
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
37
81. __________cardia outside the heart
a. exo-
b. endo-
c. retro-
d. para-
e. peri-
c. ante-
d. anti-
e. re-
c. a-
d. eu-
e. para-
c. ecto-
d. pro-
e. ante-
c. post-
d. peri-
e. anti-
c. macro-
d. pan-
e. ultra-
c. brady-
d. hyper-
e. dys-
d. circum-
e. endo-
d. hyper-
e. dys-
c. tri-
d. quadri-
e. poly-
c. hemi-
d. bi-
e. mono-
82. __________flexion bend before
a. retro-
b. de-
83. __________phonia difficult speech
a. ab-
b. dys-
84. __________duction to turn away from
a. ad-
b. ab-
85. __________phylaxis to guard before
a. retro-
b. pro-
86. __________arthritis inflammation of many joints
a. meta-
b. poly-
87. __________cardia slow heart
a. hypo-
b. tachy-
88. __________vascular around a blood vessel
a. intra-
b. inter-
c. para-
89. __________aerobic pertaining to life without air
a. an-
b. a-
c. hypo-
90. __________sexual pertaining to both sexes
a. uni-
b. bi-
91. __________plegia half paralysis
a. quadri-
b. peri-
*After verifying that you have circled the correct answers, go back over questions 72-91 and write
the meaning of each prefix listed.
Write the letter of the matching term component in the space after the meaning:
92. black
_____
a. tri-
93. three
_____
b. leuk/o
94. red
_____
c. cyan/o
95. four
_____
d. bi-
96. white
_____
e. uni-
97. one
_____
f. melan/o
98. blue
_____
g. quadri-
99. two
_____
h. erythr/o
100. few
_____
i. oligo-
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38
MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS TO PRACTICE EXERCISES
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
b. between
b. excessive
c. against
d. without
d. two
d. before
a. many
d. new
e. around
d. excessive
a. surgical repair
d. enlargement
e. inflammation
d. burst forth
d. reduction
b. death
b. poison
d. extremity
c. vessel
e. cell
c. black
c. ren/o
e. macroc. -gram
d. -pexy
c. -osis
c. -ectomy
c. vertebrae
c. bullae
c. specula
a. fungi
a. stomata
d. maculae
a. radii
b. diagnoses
d. colostomy
a. vasorrhaphy
c. abdominocentesis
c. nephrorrhaphy
a. abdominoscopy
b. pericardium
micro
lith_/____
iasis
_____/___
P
R
S
small/stone/presence or
formation of
43. sym
path
y
____/___
__/__
P
R
S
together or with/
disease/condition or
process of
44. tox
oid
___/___
R
57. psych
iatry
_____ /____
S
poison/resembling
45. meso
morph /__
ic
_____/______
P
R
S
CF
S
all/cell/abnormal
reduction
47. meta
stasis
_____ /_____
P
S
beyond, after, or
change/stop or stand
48. acro
dynia
____/_____
CF
S
extremity/pain
49. tachy
card ia
_____/_____/___
P
R
S
pus/origin or production
51. aden
itis
____ /___
R
S
gland/inflammation
52. macro
cephal ous
_____ /______/____
P
R
S
large or long/head/
pertaining to
53. para
____ / centesis
_______
P
S
CF
S
beyond or excessive/
sound/process of
recording
55. ortho
ped ic
_____/____/___
CF
R
S
straight, normal, or
correct/foot/
pertaining to
56. angio
megaly
_____/_______
CF
P
S
vessel/enlargement
S
CF
S
within/to secrete/one
who specializes in the
study or treatment of
60. rhino
sten/____
osis
_____/____
CF
R
S
nose/narrow/condition
or increase
61. hypo
esthes /__
ia
_____ /______
R
S
below or deficient/
sensation/condition of
62. aero
phag ia
____/_____/__
CF
R
S
air or gas/eat or
swallow/condition of
63. fibr
oma
___ /____
R
S
fiber/tumor
64. necro
philia
_____/_____
CF
S
death/attraction for
65. scler
osis
____/____
R
alongside of/puncture
for aspiration
54. ultra
sono /_______
graphy
____ /____
P
R
cancer/fear or
sensitivity/condition
of
59. endo
crino logist
____ /_____/_____
P
S
fast/heart/condition of
50. pyo
genesis
___ /_______
CF
S
CF
middle/form/
pertaining to
46. pan
cyto penia
___ /____/_____
P
R
mind/treatment
58. carcino
phob ia
______ /_____/__
S
hard/condition or
increase
66. hemo
lysis
_____/____
CF
S
blood/breaking down
or dissolution
67. hydro
cephal y
_____/_______/__
CF
R
S
water/head/condition
or process of
68. cyto
meter
____ /______
CF
S
cell/instrument for
measuring
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CHAPTER 1 • BASIC TERM COMPONENTS
69. cyano
tic
_____/___
CF
S
blue/pertaining to
70. extra
vas ation
____ /___/______
P
R
S
outside/vessel/process
71. hyper
troph/__
y
_____/_____
P
R
S
above or excessive/
nourishment or
development/
condition or process
of
72. c. supra-
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
d. rec. prec. postb. dec. monoe. transc. superb. infraa. exoc. anteb. dysb. abb. prob. poly-
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
c. bradyd. circuma. anb. bic. hemif. melan/o
a. trih. erythr/o
g. quadrib. leuk/o
e. unic. cyan/o
d. bii. oligo-
39
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GRBQ206-2892G-C02[41-98].qxd 24/01/2007 09:46 Page 41 P-MAC232 27A:GRBQ206:Chapters:CH02: Teckbooks (PPG-Quark)
CHAPTER
2
Health Care
Records
✓ Chapter 2 Checklist
Read Chapter 2: Health Care Records and complete all programmed review
segments.
LOCATION
pages 41-80
Review the starter set of flash cards and term components related to Chapter 2. back of book
Complete the Chapter 2 Practice Exercises and Medical Record Analysis 2-1
and 2-2.
pages 87-93
Complete Medical Record Analysis 2-3 For Additional Study.
pages 94-96
Complete the Chapter 2 Exercises by Chapter.
CD-ROM
Complete the Chapter 2 Review and Test Modes.
CD-ROM
Review the Pronunciation Drill for the Chapter 2 terms.
CD-ROM
COMMON RECORDS USED IN DOCUMENTING
THE CARE OF A PATIENT
To put your knowledge of medical terminology into use, you need to see how this language is used
in everyday communication about patients. Learning the common abbreviations, symbols,
forms, and formats used in recording patient care will help you to comprehend medical record
documentation.
The History and Physical
The record that serves as a cornerstone for patient care is the history and physical (H&P)
(Fig. 2-1). The H&P documents the patient’s medical history and findings from the physical examination. It is usually the first document to be generated when a patient presents for care, and is
most often recorded at a new patient visit or as part of a consultation.
41
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
H&P
Hx
CC
HPI
c/o
UCHD
PMH
NKDA
FH
L&W
SH
OH
ROS
PE
NAD
PERRLA
A
IMP
DX
P
FIGURE 2-1 ■
History and physical (H&P).
The first portion of the H&P, the history (Hx), documents subjective information from the
patient’s personal statement about his or her medical history and includes information regarding
past injuries, illnesses, operations, defects, and habits. It begins with the chief complaint (CC), the
patient’s reason for seeking medical care. The chief complaint is usually brief, and is often recorded
in the patient’s own words, which are indicated by quotation marks (e.g., CC: “flu”). Often, especially in handwritten notes, the abbreviation c/o (complains of) is used. Details of the complaint
are documented in the present illness (PI), or history of present illness (HPI), noting the
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CHAPTER 2 • HEALTH CARE RECORDS
43
duration and severity of the complaint (i.e., how long the patient has had the complaint, and how
bad it is). Notations about the patient’s symptoms (Sx), which are subjective evidence of illness,
indicate what the patient is experiencing.
Information about the patient’s past history (PH), or past medical history (PMH), is recorded
next. This includes a record of information about the patient’s past illnesses, starting with childhood, and it includes surgical operations, injuries, physical defects, medications, and allergies. The
abbreviation UCHD (usual childhood diseases) is used here to record that the patient had all the
“usual” or commonly contracted illnesses during childhood. The abbreviation NKA (no known
allergies), or NKDA (no known drug allergies), indicates that the patient has had no known allergic reaction to a previously administered drug. The family history (FH) includes the state of health
of the immediate family members (mother, father, and siblings), and the social history (SH) notes
the patient’s recreational interests, hobbies, and use of tobacco and drugs, including alcohol. A
record of work habits that may involve health risks is included in the occupational history (OH).
The history is complete after documenting the patient’s answers to questions related to the
review of systems (ROS), or a systems review (SR), a head-to-toe review of the functions of all
body systems. This review makes it possible to evaluate other symptoms that may not have been
previously mentioned.
After the subjective data are recorded, the provider begins a physical examination (PE), or a
physical (Px), to obtain objective information, facts that can be seen or detected by testing.
Signs, or objective evidence of disease, are documented, and selected diagnostic tests are performed or ordered when further evaluation is necessary. Several abbreviations are used to document the findings of the physical examination, such as HEENT (head, eyes, ears, nose, and
throat), PERRLA (pupils equal, round, and reactive to light and accommodation), NAD (no
acute distress), and WNL (within normal limits).
The identification of a disease or condition is recorded in the impression (IMP), diagnosis
(Dx), or assessment (A), which is made after the evaluation of all subjective and objective data.
Often, when one or more diagnoses are in question, a differential diagnosis is made using the
abbreviation R/O (rule out). The possible conditions are identified, and further investigation, often
involving diagnostic tests and procedures, is done to rule out or eliminate each suspect and to verify the final diagnosis.
Final notations include the health care provider’s plan (P), also called the recommendation or
disposition. Here, the provider outlines strategies designed to remedy the patient’s condition,
including instructions to the patient and orders for medications, diagnostic tests, or therapies.
Often, physicians are required to dictate a current H&P before admitting a patient to the
hospital (e.g., for elective surgery). When the patient is to have surgery, this report is often called a
preoperative H&P.
Progress Notes
After the initial H&P is recorded, progress notes are used to document the patient’s continued
care. The SOAP method of documenting a patient’s progress is most common. The letters represent the order in which progress is noted as each complaint or problem is addressed (Fig. 2-2):
S:
Subjective
that which the patient describes
O:
Objective
observable information (e.g., test results and blood pressure readings)
A:
Assessment
patient’s progress and evaluation of the plan’s effectiveness; any newfound
problem or diagnosis is also noted here
P:
Plan
decision to proceed or to alter the plan strategy
Make flash cards and memorize the following abbreviations used in documenting a history and
physical examination and progress notes so that you will recognize them in the health records
found throughout this text.
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Subjective
WNL
Objective
Assessment
(Impression, Diagnosis)
Rule out
Plan
(Disposition, Recommendation)
FIGURE 2-2 ■
SOAP note.
Self-Instruction: Common Abbreviations Used in the History and
Physical and Progress Notes
Study the following:
ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
A
assessment
A&W
alive and well
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ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
CC
chief complaint
c/o
complains of
Dx
diagnosis
FH
family history
HEENT
head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat
H&P
history and physical
HPI, PI
history of present illness, present illness
Hx
history
IMP
impression
L&W
living and well
NAD
no acute distress
NKA, NKDA
no known allergies, no known drug allergies
O
objective information
OH
occupational history
P
plan (recommendation, disposition)
PE, Px
physical examination
PERRLA
pupils equal, round, and reactive to light and accommodation
PH, PMH
past history, past medical history
R/O
rule out
ROS, SR
review of systems, systems review
S
subjective information
SH
social history
Sx
symptom
UCHD
usual childhood diseases
WNL
within normal limits
Programmed Review: Common Abbreviations Used in the
History and Physical and Progress Notes
ANSWERS
REVIEW
history and physical
2.1
The H&P, or _____________ ______ ______________, is the first
document generated in the care of a patient. It is divided into
history
two categories: the Hx, or ______________, which provides all
subjective
______________ information obtained from the patient, including his
physical
or her own perceptions; and the Px, or _____________, or PE,
physical examination
or ______________ __________________, which records all
objective
____________ information that can be seen or verified by the examiner.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
2.2
The first thing that is noted in the history is the CC, or
chief complaint
____________ _______________, or what the patient c/o, or
complains of
_________________ _____. It is a brief explanation of why the
patient is seeking medical care. Further details about the
present illness
complaint are noted in the PI, or ___________ ____________, or
history, present illness
HPI, or _____________ of _____________ ______________, to
report how long the patient has had the complaint and how bad
it is. All subjective evidence of disease that the patient reports
symptoms
is noted as Sx, or ________________.
2.3
The history continues by gathering information
regarding past injuries, illnesses, operations, physical defects,
past
medications, and allergies in the PH, or __________
history, past medical
______________, or PMH, or _________ _______________
history
_______________. UCHD notes that the patient had the
usual childhood diseases
______________ _______________ ______________, or commonly
no known
contracted illnesses during childhood. NKA, or _____ _________
allergies, no known drug
_____________, and NKDA, or _____ __________ ________
allergies
_____________, indicate that the patient has had no known
allergic reaction to a previously administered drug.
2.4
family history
“Father, age 58, mother, age 54, brother, age 32, all L&W”
is an example of an FH, or ____________ ____________. Notes
about recreational interests, hobbies, and use of tobacco and
social
drugs, such as alcohol, are noted in the SH, or ____________
history
____________. Work habits that may involve health risks are
occupational history
included in the OH, or ________________ ____________. The
history is complete after the patient answers questions
related to a review of the functions of the body systems in
review of systems
the ROS, or ____________ _____ ______________, or
systems review
SR, ______________ ____________.
physical
2.5
physical examination
or PE, or ______________ _________________. Objective evidence
signs
of disease, called __________, are documented, and selected tests
The second portion of the H&P is the Px, or ____________,
are ordered and the findings recorded. Common abbreviations
head, eyes, ears
include HEENT, which means _________, ________, __________,
nose, throat, pupils
___________, and ___________; PERRLA, which means ________
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
equal, round, reactive, light
__________, ___________, and ______________ to __________ and
accommodation, within
______________________; WNL, which means _____________
normal limits
_____________ ___________; and NAD, which indicates
no acute distress
______ ____________ ______________.
2.6
The identification of a disease or condition is recorded in
impression, diagnosis
the IMP, or ________________; the Dx, or _________________; or
assessment
the A, or _______________. This is made after all subjective and
objective data are evaluated. When one or more diagnoses are in
question, a differential diagnosis is made using the abbreviation
rule out
R/O, or __________ ________.
2.7
An outline of strategies designed to remedy the patient’s
plan
condition is noted in the provider’s P, or ____________, which is
recommendation, disposition
also called a ___________________ or _________________. This
section includes the provider’s instructions to the patient and
orders for medications, diagnostic tests, or therapies.
2.8
progress
After the initial history and physical is recorded,
_____________ notes are used for further documentation of
the patient’s care. The letters “SOAP” represent the order
in which progress is noted:
subjective
S: _______________; that which the patient describes
objective
O: _______________; observable information (e.g., test results or
blood pressure readings)
assessment
A: _________________; patient’s progress and evaluation of the
effectiveness of the plan
plan
P: __________; decision to proceed or alter the plan strategy
Hospital Records
The history and physical (Fig. 2-3) is often the first document entered into the patient’s hospital
record and is commonly required before elective admission for surgery. Physician’s orders (Fig. 24) list the directives for care prescribed by the doctor who is attending to the patient. The nurse’s
notes (Fig. 2-5) and physician’s progress notes (Fig. 2-6) chronicle the care throughout the
patient’s stay. In a difficult case, a specialist may be called in by the attending physician, and a consultation report is filed. If a surgical remedy is indicated, a narrative operative report (Fig. 2-7) is
required of the primary surgeon. In this report, a detailed account of the operation is given, including the method of incision, technique, instruments used, types of suture, method of closure, and the
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patient’s responses during the procedure and at the time of transfer to recovery. The anesthesiologist,
who is in charge of life support during surgery, must file an anesthesiologist’s report, which covers
the anesthesia details, including the drugs used, the dose and time given, and the patient’s vital status
throughout the procedure. When a surgery or procedure involves a reasonable risk to the patient, an
informed consent form must be signed by the patient to show that he or she has been advised of the
risks and benefits of the proposed treatment as well as any alternatives. Ancillary reports note any
additional procedures and therapies, including diagnostic tests and pathology reports (Fig. 2-8).
The final hospital document, which is recorded at the time of discharge, is the discharge summary (also termed the clinical resume, clinical summary, or discharge abstract). It is a summary of the patient’s hospital care, including the date of admission, diagnosis, course of treatment,
final diagnosis, and date of discharge (Fig. 2-9).
The sample medical records in Figures 2-3 through 2-9 chronicle the medical care of Carleen
Perron, a 28-year-old woman who was seen in consultation by Dr. Patrick Rodden, an ear, nose,
and throat (ENT) specialist who recommended a surgical remedy for the repeated infections she
has had over the past 6 months.
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FIGURE 2-3 ■ Preoperative history and physical (H&P) submitted to the hospital before
surgical admission.
49
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FIGURE 2-3 ■
Continued.
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FIGURE 2-4 ■ Physician’s orders: orders written by the anesthesiologist and surgeon and noted
by the nursing staff during the patient’s surgical care.
51
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FIGURE 2-4 ■
Continued.
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CHAPTER 2 • HEALTH CARE RECORDS
FIGURE 2-5 ■ Nurse’s notes: a recording by the nursing staff of the patient’s progress made
during general care and treatment.
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FIGURE 2-6 ■ Physician’s progress notes: physician’s notations of the patient’s progress
throughout care.
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FIGURE 2-7 ■
Operative report: surgeon’s account of surgical procedure.
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FIGURE 2-8 ■
Pathology report.
COMMON DIAGNOSTIC TESTS AND PROCEDURES
Diagnostic tests and procedures are an integral part of patient care. Analyses of urine, stool, and
blood specimens are found among the earliest recorded efforts to understand conditions of disease.
The advance of technology has led to the development of many highly sophisticated laboratory
tests, examples of which will be introduced in this text as they pertain to a specific body system. The
two most common laboratory tests that are performed as part of a general health inquiry or to rule
out a particular condition are the complete blood count, or CBC (see Fig. 6-7), and urinalysis, or UA
(see Fig. 13-8).
It is valuable for health care professionals to recognize common diagnostic tests and procedures as well as the types of technology used to produce them.
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FIGURE 2-9 ■ Discharge summary (abstract): final report documented at time of discharge. This abstract is
more commonly seen in outpatient surgery. See Medical Record 13-2 (page 662) for an example of a typical
inpatient summary.
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Diagnostic Imaging Modalities
Methods of diagnostic imaging have rapidly expanded since Wilhelm Roentgen discovered x-rays
in 1885. By using x-rays, physicians and scientists could see through the body to produce images
of the skeleton and other body structures. However, the radiation used to produce x-rays was found
to be ionizing, a process that changes the electrical charge of atoms and has a possible effect on
body cells. Overexposure to ionizing radiation can have harmful side effects (e.g., cancer), but over
the years, researchers and scientists have found new ways to produce images that require significantly lower doses of radiation and minimize the risk to the patient.
Further advancement has led to the discovery and use of other imaging modalities (or techniques) that fall under the umbrella of the medical specialty known as radiology. Common ionizing
modalities include radiography (x-ray), computed tomography (CT), and nuclear medicine.
Common nonionizing modalities that present no apparent risk include magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and sonography (US).
IONIZING IMAGING
Radiography (X-ray)
Radiography is an imaging modality that uses x-rays (ionizing radiation) to produce images of the
body’s anatomy for the diagnosis of a condition or impairment. An image is created when a small
amount of radiation is passed through the body to expose a sensitive film. The image is called a
radiograph (Fig. 2-10).
TERM TIP
In radiology, -graph is the preferred suffix used to refer to an x-ray record. It is taken
by a radiologic technologist, also known as radiographer, and is interpreted or read
by a radiologist, a physician specializing in the study of radiology.
FIGURE 2-10 ■ First published radiograph,
showing the hand and signet ring of Professor
Roentgen’s wife, produced on December 22, 1895.
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Computed Tomography or Computed Axial Tomography
Computed tomography (CT), also known as computed axial tomography (CAT), is a radiologic
procedure that uses a machine, called a scanner, to examine a body site by taking a series of cross-sectional (tomographic) x-ray films in a full-circle rotation. A computer then calculates and converts the
rates of absorption and density of the x-rays into a three-dimensional picture on a screen (Fig. 2-11).
Nuclear Medicine Imaging or Radionuclide Organ Imaging
Nuclear medicine imaging, or radionuclide organ imaging, uses an injected or ingested
radioactive isotope (also called a radionuclide), or a chemical that has been tagged with radioactive
compounds that emit gamma rays. A gamma camera detects and produces an image of the distributed gamma rays in the body. This technique is useful in determining the size, shape, location, and
function of body organs, such as the brain, lungs, bones, and heart (Fig. 2-12).
NONIONIZING IMAGING
Magnetic Resonance Imaging
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is a nonionizing imaging technique using magnetic fields
and radiofrequency waves to visualize anatomic structures within the body. A large magnet surrounds
X-ray source moving around
a stationary patient
Patient
X-ray detector moving
around the patient
A
B
FIGURE 2-11 ■ A. Principles of computed tomography (CT). Inset: CT showing multiple open fractures
(arrows) of skull. B. CT imaging process.
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FIGURE 2-12 ■ Nuclear medicine image. A. Gamma camera used to produce the image.
B. Radionuclide whole-body bone scan.
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Radiowave detector
Radiowave pulses
Magnet
A
FIGURE 2-13 ■ A. Principles of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). Patient is positioned within a magnetic
field as radiowave signals are conducted through the selected body part. Energy is absorbed by tissues and
then released. A computer processes the released energy and formulates the image. Inset, MRI of the knee
(lateral view) identifying a torn meniscus. B. MRI unit.
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Transducer
Skin
surface
Internal
organ
or fetus
Sound
waves
A
Energy in the form of sound waves is reflected
off internal organs, or off the fetus during
pregnancy, and transformed into an image on
a TV-type monitor.
FIGURE 2-14 ■
B
A. Principles of sonography. B. Obstetrical sonography.
the patient as a scanner subjects the body to a radio signal that temporarily alters the alignment of the
hydrogen atoms in the patient’s tissue. As the radio signal is turned off, the atoms realign, and the
energy produced is absorbed by detectors and then interpreted using computers to provide detailed
anatomic images of the body part. This modality is particularly useful in examining soft tissues,
joints, and the brain and spinal cord (Fig. 2-13).
Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) applies magnetic resonance technology in the
study of blood flow (see Figure 8-15).
Sonography
Sonography, which is also known as diagnostic ultrasound (U/S or US), is the use of high-frequency sound waves (ultrasound) to visualize body tissues. Ultrasound waves sent through a scanning device, called a transducer, are reflected off structures within the body and then analyzed by a
computer to produce moving images on a monitor. Sonography is used to examine many parts of
the body, including the abdomen, male and female reproductive organs, thyroid and parathyroid
glands, and the cardiovascular system (Fig. 2-14).
USE OF CONTRAST
Some imaging procedures require the internal administration of a contrast medium to enhance
the visualization of anatomic structures. There are many different kinds of contrast media, including barium, iodinated compounds, gases (such as air or carbon dioxide), and other chemicals that
are known to increase visual clarity. Depending on the contrast medium, it may be injected, swallowed, or introduced through an enema or catheter. (Compare Figs. 13-5 and 13-7 [x-rays of the
urinary tract], which show images taken with and without contrast.)
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Imaging
ANSWERS
REVIEW
ionizing
2.9
The diagnostic modality using ______________ radiation
(x-rays) to produce images of the body’s anatomy is called
radiology
_______________, a term derived from the combining form radi/o,
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
study of
meaning radiation, and the suffix -logy, meaning ___________ _____.
radiograph
The x-ray image is called a _________________. It is taken by a
radiologic technologist
radiographer or ________________ _________________ and then
interpreted by a physician who specializes in the study of
radiologist
radiology, called a _________________. Ionizing radiation has an
effect on body tissue, and overexposure can have harmful side
cancer
effects, such as ____________.
2.10 The application of computer technology to medical
imaging was first applied with the development of computed
CT
tomography, which is abbreviated as ______. Tom/o, a combining
form meaning to cut, and the suffix -graphy, meaning
process of recording
____________ _____ ______________, give clues to how the CT
scanner operates. The scanner is used to take a series of
tomo
cross-sectional or ________graphic x-ray films that are
computer
converted by a _______________ into a three-dimensional
picture on a screen.
radionuclide
2.11 Nuclear medicine imaging, or _________________
organ
___________ imaging, is another modality using
ionizing
______________ radiation. The technique involves the injection
isotope
or ingestion of a radioactive _____________ that emits gamma
gamma
rays. An image is produced using a ___________ camera to
detect the distribution of the gamma rays. Radionuclide organ
images are useful in determining the size, shape, location, and
function
_____________ of body organs.
2.12 Two major nonionizing imaging modalities have shown
risk, magnetic
no apparent ________ to patients: MRI, or _____________
resonance imaging
_________________ ____________, and ultrasound, or
sonography, magnet
________________. MRI uses a large ____________ and
radio
_________waves to visualize anatomic structures within the body,
soft
especially __________ tissues. Sonography, from the combining
sound
form son/o, meaning _____________, and the suffix -graphy,
recording
meaning a process of _______________, uses high-frequency
sound waves to produce body images.
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COMMON MEDICAL RECORD TERMS
RELATED TO DISEASE
The following terms related to disease are common in medical records. Learn them as a foundation
on which you will build as your vocabulary expands.
Self-Instruction: Disease Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
acute
ă-kyūt sharp; having intense, often severe symptoms and a short course
chronic
kronik
a condition that develops slowly and persists over a period of time
benign
bē-nı̄n
mild or noncancerous
malignant
mă-lignănt
harmful or cancerous
degeneration
dē-jen-ĕr-āshŭn
gradual deterioration of normal cells and body functions
degenerative disease
dē-jenĕr-ă-tiv di-zēz
any disease in which deterioration of the structure or function of
tissue occurs
diagnosis
dı̄-ag-nōsis
determination of the presence of a disease based on an evaluation
of symptoms, signs, and test findings (results) (dia through;
gnosis knowing)
etiology
ē-tē-olŏ-jē
study of the cause of a disease (etio cause)
exacerbation
ek-zas-ĕr-bāshŭn
increase in the severity of a disease, with aggravation of symptoms
(ex out; acerbo harsh)
remission
rē-mishŭn
a period in which symptoms and signs stop or abate
febrile
febril
relating to a fever (elevated temperature)
idiopathic
idē-ō-pathik
a condition occurring without a clearly identified cause (idio one’s own)
localized
lōkăl-ı̄zd
limited to a definite area or part
systemic
sis-temik
relating to the whole body rather than to only a part
malaise
mă-lāz
a feeling of uneasiness or discomfort; often the first indication of
illness
marked
markt
significant
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TERM
MEANING
morbidity
mōr-bidi-tē
sick; a diseased state
mortality
mōr-tali-tē
the state of being subject to death
prognosis
prog-nōsis
foreknowledge; prediction of the likely outcome of a disease based
on the general health status of the patient along with knowledge of
the usual course of the disease; often noted in one word (e.g.,
“Prognosis: good”)
progressive
prō-gresiv
pertaining to the advance of a condition as the signs and
symptoms increase in severity
prophylaxis
prō-fi-laksis
a process or measure that prevents disease (pro before; phylassein
guard)
recurrent
rē-kŭrĕnt
to occur again; describes a return of symptoms and signs after a
period of quiescence (rest or inactivity)
sequela
sē-kwelă
a disorder or condition usually resulting from a previous disease or
injury
sign
sı̄n
a mark; objective evidence of disease that can be seen or verified by
an examiner
symptom
simptŏm
subjective evidence of disease that is perceived by the patient and
often noted in his or her own words
syndrome
sindrōm
a running together; combination of symptoms and signs that give a
distinct clinical picture indicating a particular condition or disease
(e.g., menopausal syndrome)
noncontributory
non-kŏn-trı̆byū-tōr-ē
not involved in bringing on the condition or result
unremarkable
ŭn-rē-markă-bel
common; not out of the ordinary or significant
Programmed Review: Disease Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
sign
2.13 Originating from the Latin word for a mark, the term _________
is used to describe objective evidence of disease that can be seen or
verified by an examiner. The subjective evidence of disease that is
symptom
perceived by the patient is a ________________. Many different signs
malaise
and symptoms manifest disease in the body. The term _____________ is
used to describe a patient who feels unwell. A patient is considered to
febrile
be ____________ if he or she has an increase in body temperature, and
a
to be ___febrile if he or she is without a fever. Conditions limited to a
localized
definite area or part are considered to be _____________, whereas those
systemic
that are ________________ affect the whole body.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
acute
2.14 Some conditions have intense, often severe or _________ onset,
chronic
whereas others that are ___________ develop slowly and persist over
progressive
time. A condition is considered to be _______________ when the
symptoms and signs advance with increased severity. A flare-up, or
exacerbation
__________________, occurs when there is an increase in the severity
remission
of symptoms. A condition is said to be in _______________ during the
period in which signs and symptoms have stopped. The term
recurrent
_______________ describes a return of symptoms and signs after a
period of inactivity.
2.15 Degenerative disease occurs as a result of gradual deterioration
of tissue with loss of function. The prefix de-, meaning from, down, or
not
________, is used in the term describing this process:
degeneration
_________________________.
etiology
2.16 The cause or ______________ of a disease is often unknown. A
idiopathic
condition is considered to be _______________ when there is no clear
identifying cause. If a condition is cancerous, it is termed
malignant, benign
________________, and if it is noncancerous, it is ____________. A patient
marked
with significant weakness can be said to have ____________ weakness.
diagnosis
2.17 The doctor makes a _______________ when naming a disease
prognosis
and gives a ________________ when predicting its likely outcome.
prophylaxis
2.18 A _______________ is a process or measure that prevents disease.
2.19 The term describing a combination of symptoms and signs that
give a distinct clinical picture is called a syndrome. For example, hot
flashes, weight gain, mood swings, and irregular menstruation are
signs and symptoms that indicate a woman is going through
syndrome
menopause, a condition known as menopausal ________________.
2.20 A sequel is something that follows something else. The medical
term that refers to a disorder or condition that results from a previous
sequela
disease or injury is called ______________. The plural of sequela is
sequelae
______________.
2.21 When patient care data are not related to bringing on or
noncontributory
causing a condition, they are said to be _____________________.
Similarly, information that is not significant or out of the ordinary
unremarkable
is said to be __________________.
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MEDICAL RECORD ABBREVIATIONS
The following table lists common medical abbreviations used in patient care documentation. They
represent “acceptable” terms that are used extensively throughout this text. Remember that individual medical facilities provide their own list of acceptable terms and abbreviations that may not
be used elsewhere. Memorize the terms and abbreviations from this list, and plan to adapt them to
the variations you encounter.
ERROR PRONE ABBREVIATIONS AND SYMBOLS
Medical errors caused by illegible writing and misinterpretations of medical abbreviations and symbols have led health care agencies, such as the Joint Commission on
Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO), to require that medical facilities
publish lists of authorized abbreviations for use by all personnel, including a list of
abbreviations and symbols that are unacceptable.
In this text, the abbreviations and symbols that have been identified as error
prone are in red and the preferred use noted in brackets ([ ]). Depending on the
medical facility, the use of these abbreviations and symbols may or may not be
deemed to be acceptable; therefore, it is very important to study them so that you
can properly interpret their meaning if they are used in a medical record. Those
included on the official JCAHO “Do Not Use” list are marked by an asterisk (*).
Self-Instruction: Medical Facilities and Patient Care Abbreviations
Study the following:
ABBREVIATION
MEANING
MEDICAL CARE FACILITIES
CCU
coronary (cardiac) care unit
ECU
emergency care unit
ER
emergency room
ICU
intensive care unit
IP
inpatient (a registered bed patient)
OP
outpatient
OR
operating room
PACU
postanesthetic care unit
PAR
postanesthetic recovery
post-op or postop
postoperative (after surgery)
pre-op or preop
preoperative (before surgery)
RTC
return to clinic
RTO
return to office
PATIENT CARE
B
bilateral
BRP
bathroom privileges
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ABBREVIATION
MEANING
CP
chest pain
DC or D/C
discharge, discontinue [spell out discharge or discontinue]
ETOH
ethyl alcohol
L
left
R
right
m
murmur
pt
patient
RRR
regular rate and rhythm
SOB
shortness of breath
Tr
treatment
Tx
treatment or traction
VS
vital signs
T
temperature
P
pulse
R
respiration
BP
blood pressure
Ht
height
Wt
weight
WDWN
well-developed and well-nourished
y/o or y.o.
year old
#
number or pound; if used before a numeral, it means number
(e.g., #2 number 2); if used after a numeral, it means pound
(e.g., 150# 150 pounds)
C
Celsius, centigrade
F
Fahrenheit
female
male
°
degree, or hour
c
increased
T
decreased
none or negative
standing
sitting
lying
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Programmed Review: Medical Facilities and
Patient Care Abbreviations
ANSWERS
REVIEW
2.22 The patient seeking emergency care is often seen in the ECU,
emergency care unit
or _______________ __________ _________, most commonly known as
ER
the hospital ______. Depending on the circumstances of the accident
outpatient
or illness, the patient is treated as an OP, or ________________, or is
inpatient
admitted as an IP, or _______________. Sometimes, in a critical case,
intensive
the patient is transferred directly to the ICU, or ________________
care unit
__________ _________. If surgery is necessary, it is performed in the
operating room
OR, or _______________ _________, after which a period of recovery
postanesthetic care
is made in the PACU, or ________________________ ________
unit
_________.
patient
2.23 While hospitalized, the pt, or ____________, is seen by the
attending physician and is cared for by the nursing staff. The doctor
treatment
writes orders for all Tx, or ______________, including how
vital signs, temperature
often the VS, or ___________ ___________ (T, or ________________;
pulse, respiration, blood
P, or __________; R, or ________________; and BP, or ___________
pressure
_____________), are to be taken and whether the patient
bathroom privileges
is to have BRP, or ______________ _______________. The nurses must
document the care and report any abnormal findings, such as
chest pain, shortness
CP, or ___________ __________, and SOB, or _______________
of breath
_____ ____________. The doctor usually asks the patient to
return to office
RTO, or ___________ _____ ___________ within a few days
discharge
of DC, or ______________, from the hospital.
PHARMACEUTICAL ABBREVIATIONS AND SYMBOLS
Pharmaceutical abbreviations and symbols are frequently used in documenting patient care. They
are found throughout the medical record. Efficient medical record keeping and effective communication among health care workers depends on knowledge of commonly used pharmaceutical
abbreviations and symbols.
Units of Measure
Both the metric and apothecary systems are used to express pharmaceutical units of measure.
Consult your medical dictionary for a complete listing of units of measurement and conversion
formulas.
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THE METRIC SYSTEM
Metric is the most commonly used system of measurement in health care. It is a decimal system
based on the following units:
meter (m)
length (39.37 inches)
liter (L)
volume (1.0567 U.S. quarts)
gram (g or gm)
weight (15.432 grains)
THE APOTHECARY SYSTEM
The apothecary system is a method of liquid and weight measures that was used by the earliest
chemists and pharmacists. The liquid measure was based on one drop. The weight measure was
based on one grain of wheat. Although the small apothecary measures are rarely used, the larger
ones (e.g., fluid ounces) are still common.
Self-Instruction: Units of Measure
Study the following:
ABBREVIATION
MEANING
METRIC
cc
cubic centimeter; 1 cc 1 mL [use the metric equivalent mL]
cm
centimeter; 2.5 cm 1 inch
g or gm
gram
kg
kilogram; equal to 1,000 grams or 2.2 pounds
L
liter
mg
milligram; equal to one-thousandth (0.001) of a gram
mL or ml
milliliter; equal to one-thousandth (0.001) of a liter
mm
millimeter; equal to one-thousandth (0.001) of a meter
cu mm or mm3
cubic millimeter
APOTHECARY
fl oz
fluid ounce
gr
grain
gt
drop (gutta drop)
gtt
drops
dr
dram; equal to 1/8 ounce
oz
ounce
lb or #
pound; equal to 16 ounces
qt
quart; equal to 32 ounces
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Programmed Review: Units of Measure
ANSWER
REVIEW
Metric
2.24 ____________ is the most commonly used system of
measurement in health care.
gm
2.25 Gram, abbreviated g or ______, is a weight measure. Kilo- is a
kg
prefix meaning one thousand. Therefore, a kilogram, or _____,
one
contains _______ thousand grams (2.2 pounds). Body weight is often
measured in kilograms instead of pounds. Milli- is a prefix signifying
mg
one-thousandth. Therefore, a milligram, or _____, is one-thousandth
gram
of a ________.
L
2.26 Liter, abbreviated ____, is a volume measure. One liter is equal
quart
to 1.0567 U.S. qt, or _________. A milliliter, which is abbreviated as
mL, liter
ml or _____, is one-thousandth of a _________.
length
2.27 Meter is a measure of __________. There are 39.37 inches in a
mm
meter. A millimeter, which is abbreviated as _____, is one-thousandth
meter
of a _________. Centi- is a prefix meaning one hundred. A centimeter,
cm
which is abbreviated as _____, is one-hundredth of a meter. There are
centimeters
2.5 cm or __________________ in an inch. The diameter of a lesion is
commonly measured in centimeters.
cubic centimeter
2.28 The measure 1 cc, or ___________ _______________, is equal
1, milliliter, 3
to ____ mL, or ________________. A 3-cc syringe holds ____ mL.
cu mm
Cubic millimeter is abbreviated _____ _____, or as mm3.
2.29 The larger measures of the apothecary system (such as
fluid ounce, drop
fl oz, or ___________ ___________; gt, or _________; gtt, or
drops, pound, quart
__________; #, or ___________; and qt, or ___________) are still
commonly used.
Medication Administration
Prescribed medications can be administered to a patient in a variety of ways, depending on the indication for the drug and the patient’s status. The following table gives an overview of drug forms and
routes of administration, including abbreviations and symbols.
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Self-Instruction: Routes of Medication Administration
Study the following:
DRUG FORM
ROUTE OF ADMINISTRATION
MEANING
SOLID AND SEMISOLID FORMS
tablet (tab)
oral [per os (p.o.)]
by mouth
capsule (cap)
sublingual (SL)
under the tongue
buccal
in the cheek
vaginal [per vagina (PV)]
inserted in the vagina
rectal [per rectum (PR)]
inserted in the rectum
inhalation
inhaled through the nose
or mouth
suppository (suppos)
LIQUID FORMS
fluid
parenteral
aerosol
spray
nebulizer
device used to produce a
fine spray or mist, often in a
metered dose
by injection
intradermal (ID)
within the skin
intramuscular (IM)
within the muscle
intravenous (IV)
within the vein
subcutaneous (SC, SQ,
or sub-Q)
under the skin [write out
subcut or subcutaneous]
cream, lotion, ointment
topical
applied to the surface of the
skin
other delivery systems
transdermal
absorption of drug through
unbroken skin
implant
a drug reservoir imbedded
in the body to provide
continual infusion of a
medication (e.g., insulin
pump)
Programmed Review: Routes of Medication Administration
ANSWER
REVIEW
2.30 Drugs are administered in many ways. The most common
tablet
form is the tab, or ____________, which is usually taken p.o., or
by mouth, sublingual
______ ____________, under the tongue, or ______________ (SL),
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ANSWER
REVIEW
buccal
and sometimes in the cheek, or ____________. The word per
73
means by or through. Suppositories are inserted PR, or
through rectum, through
______________ ___________, or PV, or _____________
vagina
____________. The parenteral route of administration is
injection, intradermal
by _______________: ID, or _________________; IM, or
intramuscular, intravenous
____________________; IV, or ____________________; or sub-Q,
subcutaneous
or ____________________. Transdermal pertains to penetration
through
______________ the skin.
THE PRESCRIPTION
A prescription is a written direction by a physician for dispensing or administering a medication
to a patient. It is an order to supply a named patient with a particular drug of a specific strength and
quantity, along with precise instructions for administration. The prescription is a legal document
that must be written in a specific format that includes the name, strength, and amount of the drug,
its indications for use, and the Sig:, a label with instructions to the patient (Fig. 2-15).
Drug Names
Every drug is assigned a chemical name at the time it is invented in the laboratory. It is the formula
for the drug and is written exactly according to its chemical structure. The generic name is the
official, nonproprietary name given to a drug. The trade or brand is the manufacturer’s name for
a drug.
FIGURE 2-15
■
Sample prescription.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
For example:
chemical name
1-[[3-(6,7-dihydro-1-methyl-7-oxo-3-propyl-1H-pyrazolo[4,3d]pyrimidin-5-yl)-4-ethoxyphenyl]sulfonyl]-4-methylpiperazine
citrate
generic name
sildenafil
brand or trade name Viagra (Pfizer Pharmaceutical Company)
Appendix C lists commonly prescribed drugs, including their classifications and common therapeutic uses.
Programmed Review: The Prescription and Drug Names
ANSWER
REVIEW
prescription
2.31 Rx is a symbol meaning recipe or ____________________. A
prescription is a direction by a physician for dispensing a
medication or drug
____________________ to a patient. It includes the name, strength, and
quantity of a drug along with the indication for its use and the Sig:, or
instruction
the label that provides specific _______________ for administration.
Brand and generic names must be provided on all medication orders.
generic
The _____________ name is the official, nonproprietary name for a
brand
drug, and the trade or __________ name is given to a drug by the
manufacturer. Related to drug formulation, 8-chloro-1-methyl6-phenyl-4H-s-triazolo[4,3-a] [1,4]benzodiazepine is a
chemical
________________ name.
Prescription Abbreviations
Historically, prescriptions were written in Latin and the words were abbreviated for convenience. For
example, quarter in die, which is Latin for four times a day, is abbreviated as q.i.d. The periods indicated the abbreviation of three words. In health care practice today, you will find variations that include
or exclude the periods and that use uppercase instead of lowercase letters (e.g., QID vs qid). To assist
with readability and recognition, the periods are included in the Latin prescription abbreviations in
this text. The trend, however, is to discourage their use, especially in handwritten documentation,
because they can be misinterpreted. Roman numerals were used exclusively in the early days and are
still being used today, but most pharmacy organizations now promote the use of Arabic numerals only.
Self-Instruction: Common Prescription Abbreviations and Symbols
Study the following:
ABBREVIATION
MEANING
LATIN†
ā
before
ante
a.c.
before meals
ante cibum
TIME AND FREQUENCY
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CHAPTER 2 • HEALTH CARE RECORDS
ABBREVIATION
MEANING
LATIN†
a.m.
before noon
ante meridiem
b.i.d.
twice a day
bis in die
d
day
h
hour
hora
h.s.
at the hour of sleep (bedtime)
[spell out bedtime]
hora somni
noc.
–
p
night
noctis
after
post
p.c.
after meals
post cibum
p.m.
after noon
post meridiem
p.r.n.
as needed
pro re nata
q
every
quaque
q.d. (*)
every day [NEVER USE:
spell out every day or daily]
quaque die
qh
every hour
quaque hora
q2h
every 2 hours
q.i.d.
four times a day
quarter in die
q.o.d. (*)
every other day [NEVER USE:
spell out every other day]
quaque altera die
STAT
immediately
statium
t.i.d.
three times a day
ter in die
wk
week
yr
year
MISCELLANEOUS
AD
right ear [spell out right ear]
auris dextra
ad lib.
as desired
ad libitum
amt
amount
aq
water
aqua
AS
left ear [spell out left ear]
auris sinistra
AU
c–
both ears [spell out both ears]
auris unitas
with
cum
NPO
nothing by mouth
non per os
OD
right eye [spell out right eye]
oculus dexter
OS
left eye [spell out left eye]
oculus sinister
OU
both eyes [spell out both eyes]
oculi unitas
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ABBREVIATION
MEANING
LATIN†
per
by or through
p.o.
by mouth
per os
PR
through rectum
per rectum
PV
through vagina
per vagina
Rx
–s
recipe; prescription
without
sine
Sig
label; instruction to the patient
signa
ss
one-half [spell out one-half or
use 1/2]
semis
wa
while awake
x
times or for; x6 means six times
while x2d means for two days
greater than [spell out greater
than]
less than [spell out less than]
one (modified lowercase
Roman numeral i)
two (modified lowercase
Roman numeral ii)
three (modified lowercase
Roman numeral iii)
four (modified lowercase
Roman numeral iv)
I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VII,
VIII, IX, X
uppercase Roman numerals
from 1 to 10
The original Latin is supplied when applicable.
†
Programmed Review: Common Prescription
Abbreviations and Symbols
ANSWERS
REVIEW
before, ā
2.32 Ante, meaning ___________, is abbreviated as ____. Before
a.m., before meals
after, –p
noon is abbreviated ______, and a.c. stands for ___________ _________.
Post, meaning _________, is abbreviated ____. After noon is
p.m., after meals
abbreviated ______, and p.c. stands for ___________ ____________.
d, noc, h.s.
Day is abbreviated _____, night as ________, and bedtime as ________.
STAT
Some medications must be taken immediately or ________. If a
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CHAPTER 2 • HEALTH CARE RECORDS
ANSWERS
REVIEW
as needed
medication is taken p.r.n., it is taken ______ ____________. If the
lib.
patient can have as much as desired, the abbreviation is ad ______.
77
Sometimes, such as before surgery, the doctor wants the patient to
NPO
take nothing by mouth, or __________. Some drugs are taken twice
b.i.d., t.i.d.
a day, or _________; three times a day, or _________; or q.i.d., or
four, wk
_________ times a day. Week is abbreviated ______, and year
yr, q
is abbreviated ______. The abbreviation for every is ____.
qh
Every hour is abbreviated _____. Every 2 hours is abbreviated
q2h, for
_______. The symbol x, meaning times or _______, is used to
x7d
abbreviate the words “for seven days” as ___________ and “ten
x10, every day
times” as ___________. Use of q.d., meaning __________ _______, and
every other day
of q.o.d., meaning ___________ ___________ _______, are error-prone
Do Not Use
abbreviations on the official “____ ________ ________” list provided
NEVER
by JCAHO and should ___________ be used. They should be
spelled
_____________ out instead.
I, II, III
2.33 Roman numerals 1 through 10 are written as ____, ____,____,
IV, V, VI, VII,VIII, IX, X
____, ____, ____, ____, ____, ____, and ____, respectively. The modified
,
lowercase Roman numeral that means one is ____. Two is ____,
,
, s̄s̄
c̄, s̄
three is _____, and four is _____. The symbol for one-half is _____, for
with is ____, and for without is ____.
2.34 Sinister, meaning left, and dexter, meaning right, are
referenced in abbreviations for the eyes and ears. The right eye, or
OD
oculus dexter, is abbreviated as ______. The left eye, or oculus
OS
sinister, is abbreviated ______. Oculi unitas, referring to both eyes,
OU
is abbreviated _____. Auris refers to ear. The right ear is abbreviated
AD, AS, AU
as ______, the left ear as ______, and both ears as ______. Because
abbreviations related to the eyes and ears have been misinterpreted, it
spelled
is recommended that they be ____________ out instead. The symbols
, for greater than (___) and less than (___) have also been confused with
spelled
each other, and it is recommended that they also be ____________
out instead.
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Examples of Error-Prone Abbreviations and Symbols
Listed below is a sampling of abbreviations and symbols deemed to be error-prone, including the
risk for misinterpretation and the preferred use. Those included on the official “Do Not Use” List
published by the Joint Commission of Accreditation on Healthcare Organizations (JCAHO) are
marked by an asterisk (*).
A comprehensive list of error-prone abbreviations, symbols, and dose designations is available
through the Institute for Safe Medication Practices (http://www.ismp.org/). JCAHO provides the
official “Do Not Use” List on their website (http://www.jointcommission.org/).
ERROR PRONE
ABBREVIATION
MEANING
RISK
PREFERRED USE
AD, AS, AU
right ear, left
ear, both ears
mistaken as OD,
OS, OU (right eye,
left eye, both eyes)
spell out right ear,
left ear, or both ears
OD, OS, OU
right eye, left
eye, both eyes
mistaken as AD, AS,
AU (right ear, left
ear, both ears)
spell out right eye,
left eye, or both eyes
cc
cubic centimeter mistaken as units
DC, D/C
discharge,
discontinue
mistaken for
spell out discontinue
“discontinue”
or discharge
when followed by
medications prescribed
at the time of discharge
h.s.
bedtime
mistaken as “halfstrength”
spell out bedtime
q.d. (*)
every day
mistaken for q.i.d.
when the period after
the “q” is sloppily
written to look like
an “i”
NEVER USE – spell out
every day or daily
use the metric
equivalent mL
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ERROR PRONE
ABBREVIATION
MEANING
RISK
PREFERRED USE
q.o.d. (*)
every other day
mistaken for q.d when
the “o” is mistaken
for a period
NEVER USE – spell out
every other day
SC, SQ,
sub-Q
subcutaneous
mistaken for SL
(sublingual) or 5Q
(“5 every”)
spell out subcut or
subcutaneously
s̄s̄
one half
mistaken as “55”
use one-half or 1⁄2
>, <
greater than,
less than
mistaken for each
other
spell out greater than
or less than
79
RECORDING DATE AND TIME
The date and time are usually required in entries in a medical record. Always include the month,
day of the month, and the year (e.g., 12/25/xx); sometimes eight digits are required (e.g.,
01/08/20xx). Military time is often used to indicate the exact time of day (Fig. 2-16).
STANDARD MILITARY
STANDARD
MILITARY
1:00 a.m.
0100 (zero one hundred hours)
1:00 p.m.
1300 (thirteen hundred hours)
2:00 a.m.
0200 (zero two hundred hours)
2:00 p.m.
1400 (fourteen hundred hours)
2:15 a.m.
0215 (zero two fifteen hours)
2:15 p.m.
1515 (fifteen hundred fifteen hours)
3:00 a.m.
0300 (zero three hundred hours)
3:00 p.m.
1500 (fifteen hundred hours)
4:00 a.m.
0400 (zero four hundred hours)
4:00 p.m.
1600 (sixteen hundred hours)
4:30 a.m.
0430 (zero four thirty hours)
4:30 p.m.
1630 (sixteen hundred thirty hours)
5:00 a.m.
0500 (zero five hundred hours)
5:00 p.m.
1700 (seventeen hundred hours)
6:00 a.m.
0600 (zero six hundred hours)
6:00 p.m.
1800 (eighteen hundred hours)
7:00 a.m.
0700 (zero seven hundred hours)
7:00 p.m.
1900 (nineteen hundred hours)
8:00 a.m.
0800 (zero eight hundred hours)
8:00 p.m.
2000 (twenty hundred hours)
9.00 a.m.
0900 (zero nine hundred hours)
9:00 p.m.
2100 (twenty-one hundred hours)
10:00 a.m.
1000 (ten hundred hours)
10:00 p.m.
2200 (twenty-two hundred hours)
11:00 a.m.
1100 (eleven hundred hours)
11:00 p.m.
2300 (twenty-three hundred
hours)
12:00 p.m.
(noon)
1200 (twelve hundred hours)
12:00 a.m.
(midnight)
2400 (twenty-four hundred
hours)
REGULATIONS AND LEGAL CONSIDERATIONS
Medical record documentation is created by physicians caring for the patient and by other authorized health care professionals involved with patient care. State, federal, and private accrediting
agencies (e.g., JCAHO) provide specific guidelines that regulate how medical records are kept,
including proper format for all forms, use of appropriate terminology and accepted abbreviations,
protocol for personnel having access to records, and responsibilities for documentation.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
2400
1300
2300
1400
2200
2100
1500
1600
2000
1900
FIGURE 2-16
1800
1700
■ Military and standard time.
CORRECTIONS
Sometimes mistakes are made when making an entry in a medical record. Careful clarification of
the error is essential. The format may vary according to specific facility or organizational guidelines.
Generally, if a mistake is made in a handwritten entry, it should be identified by drawing a single
line through it, then writing the correction in the margin above or immediately after the mistake.
Include the date and the initials of the person making the correction. The use of correction fluid is
forbidden!
The medical record often becomes evidence in medical malpractice cases. Obliterations and
signs of possible tampering can be construed as trying to withhold information or covering up negligent wrongdoing. Complete and accurate record keeping is your best defense against any possible legal action (Fig. 2-17).
Wrong
Right
FIGURE 2-17 ■ Proper correction of a
handwritten chart entry.
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CHAPTER 2 • HEALTH CARE RECORDS
CHAPTER 2 ACRONYMS AND ABBREVIATIONS
ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
A
assessment
ā
before
a.c.
before meals
AD
right ear
ad lib.
as desired
a.m.
before noon
amt
amount
aq
water
AS
left ear
AU
both ears
A&W
alive and well
B
bilateral
b.i.d.
twice a day
BP
blood pressure
BRP
bathroom privileges
C
Celsius, centigrade
c̄
with
cap
capsule
CAT
computed axial tomography
CBC
complete blood count
CC
chief complaint
cc
cubic centimeter
CCU
coronary (cardiac) care unit
cm
centimeter
c/o
complains of
CP
chest pain
CT
computed tomography
cu mm or mm3
cubic millimeter
d
day
DC or D/C
discharge; discontinue
dr
dram
Dx
diagnosis
ECU
emergency care unit
ER
emergency room
ETOH
ethyl alcohol
81
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ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
F
Fahrenheit
FH
family history
fl oz
fluid ounce
g or gm
gram
gr
grain
gt
drop
gtt
drops
h
hour
HEENT
head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat
H&P
history and physical
HPI
history of present illness
h.s.
hour of sleep (bedtime)
Ht
height
Hx
history
ICU
intensive care unit
ID
intradermal
IM
intramuscular
IMP
impression
IP
inpatient
IV
intravenous
JCAHO
Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations
kg
kilogram
L
liter
L
left
lb
pound
L&W
living and well
m
murmur
mg
milligram
mL or ml
milliliter
mm
millimeter
MRA
magnetic resonance angiography
MRI
magnetic resonance imaging
NAD
no acute distress
NKA
no known allergies
NKDA
no known drug allergies
noc.
night
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CHAPTER 2 • HEALTH CARE RECORDS
ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
NPO
nothing by mouth
O
objective information
OD
right eye
OH
occupational history
OP
outpatient
OR
operating room
OS
left eye
OU
both eyes
oz
ounce
P
plan; pulse
p̄
after
PACU
postanesthetic care unit
p.c.
after meals
PE
physical examination
per
by or through
PERRLA
pupils equal, round, and reactive to light and accommodation
PH
past history
PI
present illness
p.m.
after noon
PMH
past medical history
p.o.
by mouth
post-op or postop
postoperative (after surgery)
PR
through rectum
pre-op or preop
preoperative (before surgery)
p.r.n.
as needed
pt
patient
PV
through vagina
Px
physical
q
every
q.d.
every day
qh
every hour
q2h
every two hours
q.i.d.
four times a day
q.o.d.
every other day
qt
quart
R
respiration
83
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
R
right
R/O
rule out
ROS
review of systems
RRR
regular rate and rhythm
RTC
return to clinic
RTO
return to office
Rx
recipe; prescription
S
subjective information
s̄
without
SC, SQ, or sub-Q
subcutaneous
SH
social history
Sig
label; instruction to the patient
SOB
shortness of breath
SR
systems review
ss
¯¯
one-half
STAT
immediately
suppos
suppository
Sx
symptom
T
temperature
tab
tablet
t.i.d.
three times a day
Tr
treatment
Tx
treatment; traction
UA
urinalysis
UCHD
usual childhood diseases
US or U/S
ultrasound (sonography)
VS
vital signs
wa
while awake
WDWN
well-developed and well-nourished
wk
week
WNL
within normal limits
Wt
weight
x
times or for
x-ray
radiology
y/o or y.o.
year old
yr
year
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CHAPTER 2 • HEALTH CARE RECORDS
ABBREVIATION
85
EXPANSION
none or negative
standing
sitting
lying
one
two
three
four
I, II, III, IV, V, VI,
VII, VIII, IX, X
uppercase Roman numerals 1–10
<
less than
>
greater than
#
number; pound
female
male
°
degree; hour
c
increased
T
decreased
CHAPTER 2 SUMMARY OF DISEASE TERMS
The disease terms introduced in chapter 2 are listed below, followed by the page number on which
each term can be found and its written pronunciation. For additional practice and reinforcement,
write the definition of each term on a separate piece of paper.
acute/64
ă-kyūt
exacerbation/64
ek-zas-ĕr-bāshŭn
benign/64
bē-nı̄n
febrile/64
febril
chronic/64
kronik
idiopathic/64
idē-ō-pathik
degeneration/64
dē-jen-ĕr-āshŭn
localized/64
lōkăl-ı̄zd
degenerative disease/64
dē-jenĕr-ă-tiv di-zēz
malaise/64
mă-lāz
diagnosis/64
dı̄-ag-nōsis
malignant/64
mă-lignănt
etiology/64
ē-tē-olŏ-jē
marked/64
markt
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
morbidity/65
mōr-bidi-tē
remission/64
rē-mishŭn
mortality/65
mōr-tali-tē
sign/65
sı̄n
noncontributory/65
non-kŏn-trı̆byū-tōr-ē
sequela/65
sē-kwelă
prognosis/65
prog-nōsis
symptom/65
simptŏm
progressive/65
prō-gresiv
syndrome/65
sindrōm
prophylaxis/65
prō-fi-laksis
systemic/64
sis-temik
recurrent/65
rē-kŭrĕnt
unremarkable/65
ŭn-rē-markă-bel
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PRACTICE EXERCISES
Write the abbreviation for each of the highlighted terms in the space provided below:
1.
2.
3.
4.
13.
14.
5.
15.
6.
16.
7.
8.
9.
10.
17.
18.
11.
12.
1.
7.
13.
2.
8.
14.
3.
9.
15.
4.
10.
16.
5.
11.
17.
6.
12.
18.
87
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Write the term or abbreviation for each of the highlighted notations in the space provided below:
19.
21.
20.
22.
23.
24.
19.
22.
20.
23.
21.
24.
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CHAPTER 2 • HEALTH CARE RECORDS
89
Write out the expanded term or meaning for each abbreviation:
25. CC _______________________________________________________________________________
26. OH ______________________________________________________________________________
27. PR _______________________________________________________________________________
28. BRP ______________________________________________________________________________
29. PACU ____________________________________________________________________________
30. PH _______________________________________________________________________________
31. D/C_______________________________________________________________________________
32. Sig: _______________________________________________________________________________
33. ER _______________________________________________________________________________
34. ICU ______________________________________________________________________________
35. R/O ______________________________________________________________________________
36. NPO _____________________________________________________________________________
37. L&W _____________________________________________________________________________
38. BP________________________________________________________________________________
39. AU _______________________________________________________________________________
40. Sx ________________________________________________________________________________
41. VS _______________________________________________________________________________
42. ROS ______________________________________________________________________________
43. pt ________________________________________________________________________________
44. OD_______________________________________________________________________________
45. H&P _____________________________________________________________________________
46. Tx________________________________________________________________________________
47. Dx _______________________________________________________________________________
48. HPI ______________________________________________________________________________
Match the following terms with their meanings:
49. febrile
______
a. period in which symptoms stop
50. syndrome
______
b. probable outcome of a disease
51. chronic
______
c. name of a disease based on history, examination, and testing
52. remission
______
d. elevated temperature
53. etiology
______
e. set of symptoms characteristic of a particular disease or
condition
54. malignant
______
f. increase in severity with aggravation of symptoms
55. prognosis
______
g. developing slowly over time
56. diagnosis
______
h. limited to a definite area or part
57. exacerbation ______
i. cancerous
58. localized
j. the study of the cause of a disease
______
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Match each definition with its corresponding abbreviation or term:
59. the route of oral medications ______
a. preop
60. place for surgery
______
b. p.r.n.
61. as desired
______
c. parenteral
62. progress note
______
d. p.o.
63. after surgery
______
e. STAT
64. pound
______
f. ad lib.
65. as needed
______
g. postop
66. by injection
______
h. OR
67. before surgery
______
i. SOAP
68. immediately
______
j. #
Write the meaning for the following pharmaceutical phrases:
69. VS q h 4h, then q2h
________________________________________________
70.
________________________________________________
p.o. q.i.d. p.c. h.s.
71. aspirin (ASA) gr
ss
¯¯
________________________________________________
72. 650 mg p.o. q4h p.r.n. temp 101
________________________________________________
73.
________________________________________________
suppos PR q noc. p.r.n.
74. gt
75. cap
OU t.i.d. 7d
________________________________________________
p.o. STAT, then
p.o. q6h
76. 15 mL p.o. q 6 h p.r.n. pain
________________________________________________
________________________________________________
Write the standard pharmaceutical abbreviations for the following:
77. one suppository in the vagina at bedtime
__________________________________________________________________________________
78. two drops in left ear every 3 hours
__________________________________________________________________________________
79. one capsule by mouth two times a day, morning and evening
__________________________________________________________________________________
80. two by mouth immediately, then one by mouth every 6 hours
__________________________________________________________________________________
81. five hundred milligrams by mouth four times a day for 10 days
__________________________________________________________________________________
Give the meaning for the following error-prone abbreviations, identify why each abbreviation is
commonly misinterpreted, and list the preferred term for each:
Abbreviation
Meaning
Mistaken for
Preferred Term
82.
q.d.
________________
________________
__________________________
83.
q.o.d.
________________
________________
__________________________
84.
OS
________________
________________
__________________________
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CHAPTER 2 • HEALTH CARE RECORDS
91
85.
AD
________________
________________
__________________________
86.
AU
________________
________________
__________________________
87.
________________
________________
__________________________
88.
D/C
________________
________________
__________________________
89.
cc
________________
________________
__________________________
Give the military times for the following standard times:
90. 1:00 a.m.
______________________
91. 2:30 p.m.
______________________
92. midnight
______________________
93. 1:00 p.m.
______________________
94. 7:00 p.m.
______________________
95. 4:50 p.m.
______________________
Match the following chart entries with the corresponding health record abbreviation :
96. works as a security officer
______
a. UCHD
97. advised to lower salt intake
______
b. HPI
98. father, age 88, L&W; mother, age 78, died, stroke
______
c. PE
99. quit smoking 2 years ago, drinks alcohol socially
______
d. CC
100. Diagnosis: tonsillitis
______
e. OH
101. c/o lower back pain
______
f. SH
102. pain in lower back for 2 weeks, worse at night
______
g. FH
103. no reaction to any previously administered drug
______
h. P
104. had all commonly contracted childhood diseases
______
i. A
105. Lungs: clear. Heart: regular rate and rhythm
______
j. NKA
From the following list of diagnostic imaging modalities, identify which use ionizing radiation
and which use nonionizing radiation by circling the correct choice:
106. computed tomography
ionizing radiation
nonionizing radiation
107. magnetic resonance imaging
ionizing radiation
nonionizing radiation
108. radiography
ionizing radiation
nonionizing radiation
109. radionuclide organ imaging
ionizing radiation
nonionizing radiation
110. sonography
ionizing radiation
nonionizing radiation
Match the following imaging modalities with their descriptions:
111. computed tomography
______
a. standard x-rays
112. magnetic resonance imaging ______
b. gamma rays
113. radiography
______
c. ultrasound waves
114. radionuclide organ imaging
______
d. radio waves
115. sonography
______
e. three-dimensional x-rays
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MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 2-1
PROGRESS NOTE
CC: 37 y.o. c̄ diabetes c/o swelling of the R foot and calf 3d
S:
There is no Hx of trauma, pain, SOB, or cardiac Sx, smoker 12 yr, ss
¯¯ pkg q.d., denies
ETOH consumption
Meds: parenteral insulin q.d. NKDA
O:
Pt is afebrile, BP 140/84, P 72, R 16, lungs are clear; abdomen is benign s̄ organomegaly;
muscle tone and strength are WNL; there is swelling of the R calf but s̄ erythema or
tenderness
A:
Edema of R calf of unknown etiology
P:
Schedule STAT vascular sonogram of lower extremities; pt is to keep the leg elevated d, then RTC for follow-up and test results on Thursday (or sooner if c edema, SOB,
or CP)
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 2-1
1. What is the sex of the patient?
a. male
b. female
2. Where was the patient seen?
a. emergency room
b. outpatient office or clinic
c. inpatient hospital
d. not stated
3. What is the condition of the patient’s
abdomen?
a. shows signs of cancer
b. internal organs are enlarged
c. internal organs are not enlarged
d. muscle tone and strength are weak
4. How much does the patient smoke per day?
a. one package
b. two packages
c. half a package
d. none; patient quit smoking 12 years ago
5. How is the patient’s insulin administered?
a. orally
b. transdermally
c. infusion through implant
d. by injection
6. What is the cause of the patient’s complaint?
a. unknown
b. fever
c. shortness of breath
d. trauma
7. When should the sonogram be performed?
a. immediately
b. within 2 days
c. at the time of follow-up
d. only if symptoms persist
8. How long should the patient’s leg be kept
elevated?
a. 1 week
b. 2 weeks
c. 1 day
d. 2 days
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CHAPTER 2 • HEALTH CARE RECORDS
93
Medical Record 2-2
POSTOP MEDS FOR LAPAROTOMY
1. Vicodin (hydrocodone and acetaminophen),
q3h p.r.n. moderate pain
tab p.o. q3h p.r.n. mild pain, or
tab p.o.
2. Demerol (meperidine), 100 mg IM q3h p.r.n. severe pain
3. Tylenol (acetaminophen), 650 mg p.o. q4h p.r.n. oral temp c 100.4F
4. Ambien (zolpidem), 10 mg p.o. h.s. p.r.n. sleep
5. Mylicon (simethicone), 80 mg,
6. Dulcolax (bisacodyl) suppos,
tab, chewed and swallowed q.i.d.
PR in a.m.
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 2-2
1. How is the Demerol to be administered?
a. by mouth
b. within the vein
c. under the skin
d. within the muscle
2. What is the Sig: on the Mylicon?
a. one every other day
b. one twice a day
c. one three times a day
d. one four times a day
3. What is the Sig: on the Dulcolax?
a. one suppository in the rectum in the
morning
b. one suppository taken orally before noon
c. two suppositories before breakfast
d. one suppository as needed in the
morning
4. When should the Ambien be administered?
a. each night
b. at bedtime
c. as needed
d. every hour
5. What are the instructions for administering
Vicodin in the case of moderate pain?
a. one tablet every three hours
b. three tablets every hour
c. two tablets every three hours
d. three tablets every three hours
6. How should Tylenol be administered?
a. one dose every four hours as needed
b. one dose every four hours only if patient
has a temperature of 100.4F or higher
c. one dose every four hours as long as the
patient’s temperature does not go over
100.4F
d. one dose every hour up to four per day
7. Laparotomy refers to which of the
following?
a. a puncture in the abdomen
b. excision of the stomach
c. a puncture of the stomach
d. an incision in the abdomen
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Medical Record 2-3
FOR ADDITIONAL STUDY
Michael Marsi has had chronic health problems in the last 2 years and has been seeing Dr.
Spaulding, his personal physician, regularly during recent months. Dr. Spaulding uses problemorientated medical records and writes a new SOAP progress note at each patient visit. Mr. Marsi
has come to see Dr. Spaulding today because he feels worse than usual. Medical Record 2-3 is the
progress note from today’s appointment. Dr. Spaulding handwrote it herself during the patient’s
visit.
Read Medical Record 2-3 (page 96) for Michael Marsi, then write your answers to the following questions in the spaces provided.
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 2-3
1. How old is Mr. Marsi?
______________________________________________________________
2. Where was the treatment rendered? ____________________________________________________
3. List the three elements of the patient’s complaint.
a. __________________________________________________________________________________
b. __________________________________________________________________________________
c. __________________________________________________________________________________
4. In your own words, not using medical terminology, briefly summarize Mr. Marsi’s history:
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
5. Which of the following is not mentioned at all in this history?
a. the prescription medication Mr. Marsi takes
b. Mr. Marsi’s smoking habit
c. Mr. Marsi’s activity level at work
d. Mr. Marsi’s consumption of alcohol
6. Dr. Spaulding and Mr. Marsi talked at length about Mr. Marsi’s symptoms and how they have
changed recently, and then Dr. Spaulding examined Mr. Marsi. List three objective findings
that she noted in this examination.
a. __________________________________________________________________________________
b. __________________________________________________________________________________
c. __________________________________________________________________________________
7. Dr. Spaulding’s assessment is that Mr. Marsi has ________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________.
However, she also wants to make sure Mr. Marsi does not have ____________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________.
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CHAPTER 2 • HEALTH CARE RECORDS
95
8. Dr. Spaulding’s treatment plan involves four areas. List the specific plan(s) for each of these.
a. Diagnostic tests ordered:
__________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
b. Instruct the patient to change his personal habits (and how): ____________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
c. Drug prescribed (including how much and when): ____________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
d. Future diagnostic check and/or action to take: ________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
9. When is Dr. Spaulding expecting to see Mr. Marsi again? ________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Medical Record 2-3
FOR ADDITIONAL STUDY
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CHAPTER 2 • HEALTH CARE RECORDS
97
ANSWERS TO PRACTICE EXERCISES
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
H&P
Hx
CC
HPI
PMH
FH
SH
OH
ROS
PE
A, IMP, or Dx
P
c/o
UCHD
NKDA
L&W
NAD
PERRLA
subjective
objective
WNL
assessment (impression,
diagnosis)
rule out
plan (disposition,
recommendation)
chief complaint
occupational history
per rectum
bathroom privileges
postanesthetic care unit
past history
discontinue or discharge
instructions to patient
emergency room
intensive care unit
rule out
nothing by mouth
living and well
blood pressure
both ears
symptom
vital signs
review of systems
patient
right eye
history and physical
treatment or traction
diagnosis
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
history of present illness
d
e
g
a
j
i
b
c
f
h
d
h
f
i
g
j
b
c
a
e
vital signs every hour for
4 hours, then every 2
hours
one by mouth, four
times a day, after meals
and at bedtime
two and one-half grains
of aspirin
650 milligrams by
mouth every 4 hours as
needed for temperature
greater than 101F
one suppository
through the rectum
every night as needed
one drop in both eyes
three times a day for 7
days
two capsules by mouth
immediately, then one
by mouth every 6 hours
fifteen milliliters by
mouth every six hours
as needed for pain
suppos PV h.s. or
suppos PV h.s.
gtt AS q3h or gtt
AS q3h
79. cap p.o. b.i.d. a.m. and
p.m. or cap p.o. b.i.d.
a.m. and p.m.
80.
p.o. STAT, then p.o.
q6h
81. 500 mg p.o. q.i.d. x10d
82. every day, mistaken for
q.i.d. (four times a day);
spell out “every day” or
“daily”
83. every other day, mistaken for q.d. (daily) or
q.i.d. (four times a day);
spell out “every other
day”
84. left eye, mistaken for
opposite eye or ears;
spell out “left eye”
85. right ear, mistaken for
opposite ear or eyes;
spell out “right ear”
86. both ears, mistaken for
both eyes or right or left
ear/eye; spell out “both
ears”
87. greater than, mistaken
as less than; spell out
“greater than”
88. discharge or discontinue, mistaken for each
other; spell out either
“discharge” or “discontinue”
89. cubic centimeter, mistaken as “units”; use
metric equivalent “ml”
or “mL”
90. 0100 hours
91. 1430 hours
92. 2400 hours
93. 1300 hours
94. 1900 hours
95. 1650 hours
96. e
97. h
98. g
99. f
100. i
101. d
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
b
j
a
c
ionizing radiation
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
nonionizing radiation
ionizing radiation
ionizing radiation
nonionizing radiation
e
112.
113.
114.
115.
ANSWERS TO MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 2-1: Progress Note
1. a
2. b
3. c
4. c
5. d
6. a
7. a
Medical Record 2-2: Postop Meds for Laparotomy
1. d
2. d
3. a
4. b
5. c
6. b
Medical Record 2-3: For Additional Study
See CD-ROM for answers.
7. d
8. d
d
a
b
c
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CHAPTER
3
Integumentary
System
✓ Chapter 3 Checklist
Read Chapter 3: Integumentary System and complete all programmed review
segments.
LOCATION
pages 99-128
Review the starter set of flash cards and term components related to Chapter 3. back of book
Complete the Chapter 3 Practice Exercises and Medical Record Analysis 3-1.
pages 133-140
Complete Medical Record Analysis 3-2 For Additional Study.
pages 141-142
Complete the Chapter 3 Exercises by Chapter.
CD-ROM
Complete the Chapter 3 Review and Test Modes.
CD-ROM
Review the Pronunciation Drill for the Chapter 3 terms.
CD-ROM
INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM OVERVIEW
The integumentary system (Fig. 3-1) consists of the following tissues:
Skin (also called the integument)
Hair
Nails
Sweat glands
Sebaceous glands
There are four functions of the integumentary system:
Protects the body from injury
Protects the body from intrusion of microorganisms
Helps to regulate body temperature
Houses receptors for the sense of touch, including pain and sensation
99
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Squamous cell carcinoma
Hair shaft
Squamous layer
(stratum corneum)
Receptor for
touch
Basal layer
(stratum germinativum)
Pore
Epidermis
Dermis
Pilomotor muscle
Sebaceous gland
Subcutaneous tissue
Sweat gland
Hair follicle
Free nerve
ending
Adipose tissue
Basal cell carcinoma
Receptor for
pressure
Venule
Arteriole
Nerve
Normal nevus (mole) (Fig. 1)
Malignant melanoma
showing asymmetry (Fig. 2)
Malignant melanoma showing
border irregularity (Fig. 3)
Malignant melanoma showing
uneven pigmentation (Fig. 4)
Signs of melanoma
FIGURE 3-1 ■
The skin.
A
Asymmetry: One half does not match the other half
(Fig. 2).
B
Border irregularity: The edges are ragged, notched,
or blurred (Fig. 3).
C
Color: The pigmentation is not uniform. Shades of tan,
brown, and black are present. Red, white, and blue may
add to the mottled appearance (Fig. 4).
D
Diameter greater than 6 millimeters: Any sudden or
continuing increase in size should be of special concern
(not shown).
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
101
The skin has three layers:
The epidermis consists of several layers of stratified squamous (scale-like) epithelium.
1. Cells are produced in the innermost (basal) layer, moving the older cells up toward the surface.
2. Cells that are pushed up flatten, fill with a hard protein substance called keratin, and die.
3. Layers of packed dead cells accumulate in the outermost (squamous) layer, where they are
sloughed off.
The dermis, which is the connective tissue layer, contains blood vessels, nerves, and other
structures (see Fig. 3-1). Collagen fibers make the skin tough and elastic.
The subcutaneous layer below the dermis is composed of loose connective tissue and adipose
(fatty) tissue.
Self-Instruction: Combining Forms
Study the following:
COMBINING FORM
MEANING
adip/o, lip/o, steat/o
fat
derm/o, dermat/o, cutane/o
skin
erythr/o
red
hidr/o
sweat
hist/o, histi/o
tissue
kerat/o
hard
leuk/o
white
melan/o
black
myc/o
fungus
onych/o
nail
plas/o
formation
purpur/o
purple
scler/o
hard
seb/o
sebum (oil)
squam/o
scale
trich/o
hair
xanth/o
yellow
xer/o
dry
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Programmed Review: Combining Forms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
3.1
Derm/o and dermat/o are Greek combining forms meaning
skin
__________. The medical field specializing in the study of the skin is
dermatology
____________________. The physician who specializes in the study
dermatologist
and treatment of the skin is called a ____________________. Cutane/o is
skin
a Latin combining form meaning __________. Subcutaneous therefore
under
pertains to ____________ the skin.
cell
3.2
Recall that cyt/o means ________. Cells with specialized functions
combine to form varying types of tissue. Hist/o is a combining form
tissue, histology
meaning ____________. The study of tissues is called _______________.
production
Histiogenic pertains to the origin or ___________________ of
tissue
________________.
plas/o
3.3
faulty
prefix meaning painful, difficult, or ___________, and -ia refers to a
condition of
_______________ _____. Therefore, the term used to describe a
dysplasia
condition of (faulty) abnormal development of tissue is _____________.
upon
3.4
epi
tissue layer of the skin, called the _______dermis. The combining
scale, pertaining
form squam/o means __________. The suffix -ous means _____________
to
____. The flat, scale-like cells of the epidermis are aptly called
squamous
____________ cells.
3.5
The combining form meaning formation is __________. Dys- is a
The prefix epi-, meaning __________, is used in naming the outer
The pigment called melanin is found in the basal layer of the
black
epidermis. The combining form melan/o means __________, and people
darker
with more melanin have _______________ skin. Melanocytes are the
cells
_________ in the basal layer that produce melanin.
Kerat/o
3.6
skin
the hard protein substance found in the basal layer of the _________.
___________ is the combining form that means hard. Keratin is
Keratosis is a condition characterized by an overgrowth of cells
keratin
having a large amount of ______________.
3.7
Hair follicles are found in the dermis layer of the skin. The
trich/o
combining form for hair is ___________. Combined with the suffix
hair
meaning rupture, trichorrhexis is the term describing ________ that is
broken or split.
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
ANSWERS
103
REVIEW
3.8
Sebaceous glands, which open to the hair follicles in the skin,
sebum, seb/o
produce ____________ (oil). The combining form is _________.
sebum
Seborrhea refers to an overproduction of __________ by these glands.
water
3.9
Hydr/o, a combining form meaning ___________, stems from the
Greek word hydros. A similar component, hidr/o, stemming from the
sweat
Greek word hidros, means ____________. The formation of sweat is
hidro
termed __________poiesis.
fungus
3.10 Mycosis refers to any condition caused by a ___________. The
myc/o
term was coined using the combining form __________.
3.11 The combining form onych/o refers to the fingernail or
nail, softening
toe________. Recall that -malacia is a suffix meaning ________________.
onycho
An abnormal softening of the nails is therefore called ________malacia.
fungus or fungal
Onychomycosis refers to a _________ infection (condition) of the nails.
3.12 Several combining forms refer to body fat. The term lipid is
lip/o
from the combining form _________. Liposuction therefore refers to
fat
the procedure for suctioning _________ from body tissues. The
adjective adipose, meaning fatty, is from the combining form
adip/o
_________. Adipose tissue is found below the dermis in the
sub
_____cutaneous layer of the skin. A third combining form, steat/o, also
fat, inflammation, fat
refers to _______. Steatitis refers to an __________________ of _______.
white
3.13 The combining form leuk/o means __________. It is used to
form the term for a partial or total absence of pigment in the skin,
leuko
known as ___________derma.
erythr/o
3.14 The combining form ____________ means red. Erythema
red
therefore refers to skin that is _______. Erythroderma is another term
red skin
referring to ________ _________.
3.15 The meaning of the combining form purpur/o is easy to
purple
remember, because it sounds like the color ___________. Purpuric
purple
lesions are ___________ because they result from hemorrhages, or the
blood
bursting forth of __________ into the skin.
xanth/o
3.16 The combining form ___________ refers to the color yellow. A
yellow
xanthoma is a ____________ skin tumor.
skin
3.17 Xeroderma is a term meaning dry ______. The combining form
xer/o, dry
for dry is _______. Xerosis is a condition of pathologically _______ skin.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Self-Instruction: Anatomic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
epithelium
ep-i-thēlē-ŭm
cells covering external and internal surfaces of the body
epidermis
ep-i-dermis
thin outer layer of the skin
squamous cell layer
skwāmŭs sel lāĕr
flat, scale-like epithelial cells comprising the outermost epidermis
basal layer
bāsăl lāĕr
deepest layer of epidermis
melanocyte
melă-nō-sı̄t
cell in the basal layer that gives color to the skin
melanin
melă-nin
dark brown to black pigment contained in melanocytes
dermis
dĕrmis
dense, fibrous connective tissue layer of the skin, also known
as corium
sebaceous glands
sē-bāshŭs glanz
oil glands in the skin
sebum
sēbŭm
oily substance secreted by the sebaceous glands
sudoriferous glands
sŭ-dō-rif ĕr-ŭs glanz
sweat glands (sudor sweat; ferre to bear)
subcutaneous layer
sŭb-kyū-tānē-ŭs lāer
connective and adipose tissue layer just under the dermis
collagen
kolă-jen
protein substance in skin and connective tissue (koila glue;
gen producing)
hair
hār
outgrowth of the skin composed of keratin
nail
nāl
outgrowth of the skin, composed of keratin, at the end of each
finger and toe
keratin
keră-tin
hard protein material found in the epidermis, hair, and nails
Programmed Review: Anatomic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
3.18 The name for the cells covering the external and internal
epithelium
surfaces of the body is the __________________. Recall that the prefix
upon, -ium
epi- means __________, and that the suffix _________ means structure
or tissue.
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
ANSWERS
105
REVIEW
3.19 The thin, outer cellular layer of the skin is called the
epidermis, epi-
________________, which is formed from the prefix ________ and the
skin
combining form derm/o, meaning _________. The middle layer of skin
dermis
is called the ___________ and is where nerves and blood vessels are
located.
squamous
3.20 The _______________ cell layer is the outermost layer of the
scale
epidermis. The combining form squam/o means ___________, and this
layer is so named because the dead skin cells in the outermost layer
scale off.
basal
3.21 Below the squamous cell layer is the __________ cell layer. Recall
pertaining to
that the suffix -al means _______________ ____. This layer is therefore
epidermis
the deepest (or base) layer of the __________________.
cyt/o
3.22 Recall that the combining form for cell is __________. A
melanin
melanocyte therefore is a cell containing ________________, the dark
black
pigment of the skin. Melan/o means ___________.
sebum
3.23 The sebaceous glands produce ____________, an oily
substance. The suffix -ous is added to a combining form to create an
adjective
________________. These glands are located in the skin layer called
dermis
the _____________.
sudoriferous
3.24 The sweat glands are called the ___________________ glands,
from sudor (sweat) and ferre (to bear). They are located in the skin layer
dermis
called the ______________.
subcutaneous
3.25 Beneath the dermis is the _______________________ layer. The
sub-
prefix __________ means below or under, and the combining form
skin
cutane/o means ___________.
3.26 Formed from the roots koila (glue) and gen (producing),
collagen
______________ is a protein substance found in skin and
connective tissue.
keratin
3.27 Hair is an outgrowth of the skin composed of ______________.
nails
The _________ on the fingers and toes also are composed of keratin.
hard
The combining form kerat/o means __________.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Self-Instruction: Symptomatic Terms
(Primary and Secondary Lesions)
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
lesion (Fig. 3-2)
lēzhŭn
an area of pathologically altered tissue; the two types of
lesions are primary and secondary
PRIMARY LESIONS
Flat discolored, nonpalpable changes in skin color
Macule
Patch
Elevated, palpable solid masses
Papule
Plaque
Nodule
Tumor
Elevation formed by fluid in a cavity
Vesicle
Bulla
Pustule
Ulcer
Excoriation
Crust
Keloid
Telangiectasia
Petechia
SECONDARY LESIONS
Loss of skin surface
Erosion
Fissure
Material on skin surface
Scale
VASCULAR LESIONS
Cherry angioma
FIGURE 3-2 ■
Ecchymosis
Types of primary, secondary, and vascular lesions.
Wheal
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
TERM
107
MEANING
PRIMARY LESIONS
primary lesions
prı̄mār-ē lēzhŭnz
lesions arising from previously normal skin
Flat, Nonpalpable Changes in Skin Color
macule or macula (Fig. 3-3, A)
maky ūl
a flat, discolored spot on the skin up to 1 cm across
(e.g., a freckle)
patch (Fig. 3-3, B)
pach
a flat, discolored area on the skin larger than 1 cm
(e.g., vitiligo)
Elevated, Palpable Solid Masses
papule (Fig. 3-3, C)
papyūl
a solid mass on the skin up to 0.5 cm in diameter (e.g., a
nevus [mole])
plaque (Fig. 3-3, D)
plak
a solid mass greater than 1 cm in diameter and limited to the
surface of the skin
nodule (Fig. 3-3, E)
nodyūl
a solid mass greater than 1 cm that extends deeper into the
epidermis
tumor (Fig. 3-3, F)
t ūmŏr
a solid mass larger than 1–2 cm
PRIMARY LESIONS
A Macule
B Patch
C Papule
D Plaque
E Nodule
F Tumor
G Wheal
H Vesicle
I Bulla
J Pustule
FIGURE 3-3 ■
Primary skin lesions.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
TERM
MEANING
wheal (Fig. 3-3, G)
wēl
an area of localized skin edema (swelling) (e.g., a hive)
Elevations Formed by Fluid Within a Cavity
vesicle (Fig. 3-3, H)
vesı̆-k ĕl
little bladder; an elevated, fluid-filled sac (blister) within or
under the epidermis up to 0.5 cm in diameter (e.g., a fever
blister)
bulla (Fig. 3-3, I)
bulă
a blister larger than 0.5 cm (e.g., a second-degree burn)
(bulla bubble)
pustule (Fig. 3-3, J)
pŭstyūl
a pus-filled sac (e.g., a pimple)
SECONDARY LESIONS
secondary lesions
sekŏn-dār-ē lēzhŭnz
lesions that result in changes in primary lesions
Loss of Skin Surface
erosion (Fig. 3-4, A)
ē-rōzhŭn
gnawed away; loss of superficial epidermis, leaving an area of
moisture but no bleeding (e.g., area of moisture after rupture
of a vesicle)
ulcer (Fig. 3-4, B)
ŭlsĕr
an open sore on the skin or mucous membrane that can
bleed and scar; sometimes accompanied by infection
(e.g., decubitus ulcer)
excoriation (Fig. 3-4, C)
eks-kōrē-āshŭn
a scratch mark
fissure (Fig. 3-4, D)
fishŭr
a linear crack in the skin
SECONDARY LESIONS
A Erosion
B Ulcer
E Scale
F Crust
C Excoriation
FIGURE 3-4 ■
D Fissure
Secondary skin lesions.
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
TERM
109
MEANING
Material on Skin Surface
scale (Fig. 3-4, E)
skāl
a thin flake of exfoliated epidermis (e.g., dandruff)
crust (Fig. 3-4, F)
krŭst
a dried residue of serum (body liquid), pus, or blood on the
skin (e.g., as seen in impetigo)
VASCULAR LESIONS
vascular lesions
vaskyūl-lǎr lēzhŭnz
lesions of a blood vessel
cherry angioma (Fig. 3-5, A)
chārē an-jē-ōmă
a small, round, bright red blood vessel tumor on the skin,
often on the trunk of the elderly
telangiectasia (Fig. 3-5, B)
tel-anjē-ek-tāzē-ă
spider angioma
spı̄dĕr an-jē-ōmă
a tiny, red blood vessel lesion formed by the dilation of a
group of blood vessels radiating from a central arteriole, most
commonly on the face, neck, or chest (telos end)
PURPURIC LESIONS
purpuric lesions
pŭr-p ūrik lēzhŭnz
purpura; lesions resulting from hemorrhages into the skin
petechia (Fig. 3-5, C)
pe-tēkē-ă
spot; reddish-brown, minute hemorrhagic spots on the skin
that indicate a bleeding tendency; a small purpura
ecchymosis (Fig. 3-5, D)
ek-i-mōsis
bruise; a black and blue mark; a large purpura
(chymo juice)
SCAR FORMATIONS
cicatrix of the skin
sikă-triks
a mark left by the healing of a sore or wound, showing
the replacement of destroyed tissue by fibrous tissue
(cicatrix scar)
keloid (Fig. 3-6)
kēloyd
an abnormal overgrowth of scar tissue that is thick and
irregular (kele tumor)
PURPURIC LESIONS
VASCULAR LESIONS
A Cherry angioma
FIGURE 3-5 ■
B Telangiectasia
(spider angioma)
Vascular and purpuric skin lesions.
C Petechia
D Ecchymosis
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110
MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
FIGURE 3-6 ■
FIGURE 3-7 ■
Keloid.
TERM
Verrucae on a knee.
MEANING
EPIDERMAL TUMORS
epidermal tumors
ep-i-d ĕrmǎl t ūmŏrz
skin tumors arising from the epidermis
nevus (see Fig. 3-1)
nēvŭs
a congenital malformation on the skin that can be epidermal
or vascular; also called a mole
dysplastic nevus
dis-plastik nēvŭs
a mole with precancerous changes
verruca (Fig. 3-7)
vĕ-r ūkă
an epidermal tumor caused by a papilloma virus, also called
a wart
Programmed Review: Symptomatic Terms
(Primary and Secondary Lesions)
ANSWERS
REVIEW
lesion
3.28 A ___________ is an area of pathologically altered tissue.
secondary
There are primary and ___________________ types. Lesions that arise
primary
from previously normal skin are called ______________ lesions,
whereas those that result in changes in primary lesions are called
secondary
_________________ lesions.
macule or macula
3.29 A freckle is an example of a ____________, which is a flat,
discolored spot on the skin up to 1 cm across. A larger, flat, discolored
patch, maculae
spot is called a ____________. The plural of macula is _______________.
solid
3.30 A papule is a __________ mass on the skin up to 0.5 cm in
plaque
diameter, such as a mole. A _____________ is like a papule but is
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
ANSWERS
111
REVIEW
greater than 1 cm in diameter and is limited to the surface of the
nodule
skin. A ____________, like a papule, is greater than 1 cm in diameter
but extends deeper into the epidermis. Recall that the suffix -ule is a
small
diminutive that means ____________.
tumor
3.31 Another type of solid mass is a ___________, which is larger
edema
than 1–2 cm. A wheal is an area of localized skin ___________
(swelling).
3.32 There are three types of elevated skin lesions containing
fluid within a cavity. A small, elevated blister up to 0.5 cm, such as a
vesicle
fever blister, is a ______________. A larger blister (more than 0.5 cm)
bulla
is a ___________, such as may occur with a second-degree burn.
-ae
The plural form ends in _____. A pus-filled sac, like a pimple, is
pustule
called a ______________.
3.33 Some secondary lesions result in a loss of skin surface. If
skin is lost, leaving an area of moisture but no bleeding, it is called
erosion, sore
an ______________. An ulcer is an open __________ on the skin or
mucous membrane that can bleed. A scratch mark is called an
excoriation, out or away
_________________. Recall that the prefix ex- means __________, and
-ation
that the suffix __________ refers to a process. A crack in the skin is
fissure
called a _______________.
scale
3.34 A thin flake of dead epidermis is called a _____________. On
crust
the other hand, a ___________ on the skin is a dried residue of
blood
serum, pus, or ____________.
3.35 A healed sore or wound leaves a scar, which is called a
cicatrix
_____________ of the skin. An abnormal overgrowth of scar tissue,
keloid
from the root kele (tumor), is a _____________. Recall that the
suffix -oid means resembling, which in this case implies that a keloid
tumor
is not actually a ____________.
vascular
3.36 Lesions of a blood vessel are called ______________ lesions.
cherry
A ___________ angioma is a small, bright red blood vessel tumor on
spider
the skin. A ____________ angioma is a tiny, red blood vessel lesion
in a group of vessels radiating from a central arteriole. The suffix
tumor
-oma means ____________. Another term for a spider angioma is
telangiectasia
______________________.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
Purpuric
3.37 _______________ lesions look purple because of hemorrhages
purple
into the skin. The combining form purpur/o means ____________.
A small purpura appearing as a tiny, reddish-brown spot on the skin
petechia, iae
is called a _____________. The plural form is petech_____. A bruise is
ecchymosis, es
called an ___________________; the plural form is ecchymos____.
3.38 Epidermal tumors are skin tumors arising from the
epidermis, nevus
________________. A mole is called a ___________. A dysplastic nevus
mole
is a __________ with precancerous changes. The prefix dys-
painful, difficult, or faulty
means _______________. A verruca is an epidermal
tumor, wart
___________ caused by a papilloma virus and is also called a ________.
verrucae
The plural of verruca is ______________.
Self-Instruction: General Symptomatic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
alopecia
al-ō-pēshē-ă
baldness; natural or unnatural deficiency of hair
comedo ( pl. comedos,
comedones) (Fig. 3-8)
komē-dō
a plug of sebum (oil) within the opening of a hair follicle
closed comedo
klōsd komē-d ō
a comedo below the skin surface, with a white center
(whitehead)
open comedo
ōpĕn komē-d ō
a comedo open to the skin surface, with a black center caused
by the presence of melanin exposed to air (blackhead)
eruption
ē-rŭpshŭn
appearance of a skin lesion
erythema
er-i-thēmă
redness of skin
FIGURE 3-8 ■
Open and closed comedones.
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
TERM
MEANING
pruritus
prū-rı̄tŭs
severe itching
rash
răsh
a general term for skin eruption, most often associated with
communicable disease
skin pigmentation
skin pig-men-tāshŭn
skin color resulting from the presence of melanin
113
depigmentation
dē-pig-men-tāshŭn
loss of melanin pigment in the skin
hypopigmentation
hı̄pō-pig-men-tāshŭn
areas of skin lacking color because of deficient amounts of
melanin
hyperpigmentation
hı̄pĕr-pig-men-tāshŭn
darkened areas of skin caused by excessive amounts of melanin
suppuration
sŭpyŭ-rāshŭn
production of purulent matter (pus)
urticaria (see Fig. 3-3, G)
ŭrti-kari-ă
hives; an eruption of wheals on the skin accompanied by
itching (urtica stinging nettle)
xeroderma
zērō-dĕrmă
dry skin
Programmed Review: General Symptomatic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
alopecia
3.39 Baldness, or a deficiency of hair, is called ______________.
3.40 A plug of sebum (oil) within the opening of a hair follicle is
comedo
called a _____________. The plural form is comedos or
comedones
_____________. A comedo below the skin surface with a white center
whitehead
is called a closed comedo or _______________. A comedo open to the
skin surface with center caused by the presence of melanin exposed
blackhead
to air is called a black ________________.
lesion
3.41 An eruption is the appearance of a skin _____________. A
rash
_________ is a general term for a skin eruption, often associated with
a communicable disease. An eruption of wheals on the skin (hives)
urticaria
accompanied by itching is called ______________. Remember that the
condition of
suffix -ia means a ________________ ____.
pruritus
3.42 Any severe itching is called _________________. Using the
adjective form of pruritus, a pruritic eruption is one that is marked
itching
by severe _____________.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
erthry/o
3.43 The combining form for red is ____________. Redness of the
erythema
skin is called _______________. The adjective erythematous means
pertaining to
________________ ____ redness of the skin.
black
3.44 Melan/o is the combining form meaning __________. Melanin is
color
the pigment that gives _________ to the skin. Pigmentation describes
the process of skin coloration. Recall the meaning of the following
not
prefixes: de- means from, down, or _______; hypo- means below or
deficient, excessive
_______________; and hyper- means above or ______________. Each is
used to describe a different pigmentation of the skin. Using the prefix
meaning from, down, or not, the total loss or absence of melanin is
de
called _____pigmentation. Too little or deficient melanin causes
hypo
_______pigmentation, and too much or excessive deposits of melanin
hyper
cause ________pigmentation.
xer/o
3.45 The combining form meaning dry is ________. The Greek
skin
word derma means ________. Therefore, the term for dry skin is
xeroderma
__________________.
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
acne (Fig. 3-9)
aknē
inflammation of the sebaceous glands and hair follicles of the
skin, evidenced by comedones (blackheads), pustules, or
nodules on the skin (acne point)
albinism
albi-nizm
a hereditary condition characterized by a partial or total lack
of melanin pigment (particularly in the eyes, skin, and hair)
burn
bĕrn
injury to body tissue caused by heat, chemicals, electricity,
radiation, or gases
first-degree
(or 1st-degree) burn
first-dĕ-grēbĕrn
a burn involving only the epidermis; characterized by erythema
(redness) and hyperesthesia (excessive sensation)
second-degree
(or 2nd-degree) burn
sekŭnd-dĕ-grēbĕrn
a burn involving the epidermis and the dermis; characterized
by erythema, hyperesthesia, and vesications (blisters)
third-degree
(or 3rd-degree) burn
thı̆rd-dĕ-grēbĕrn
a burn involving all layers of the skin; characterized by
the destruction of the epidermis and dermis, with damage or
destruction of subcutaneous tissue
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
FIGURE 3-9 ■ Acne lesions.
Inflammatory papules, pustules, and
closed comedones are present on the face
of a patient diagnosed with acne vulgaris.
FIGURE 3-10 ■
keratoses.
115
Actinic (solar)
TERM
MEANING
dermatitis
d˘ĕr-mă-tı̄tis
inflammation of the skin characterized by erythema, pruritus
(itching), and various lesions
dermatosis
dĕr-mă-tōsis
any disorder of the skin
exanthematous
viral disease
ek-zan-themă-t ŭs vı̄răl di-zēz
an eruption of the skin caused by a viral disease (exanthema eruption)
rubella
r ū-belă
reddish; German measles
rubeola
rū-bēō-lă
reddish; 14-day measles
varicella
var-i-selă
a tiny spot; chickenpox
eczema
ekzĕ-mă
to boil out; often used interchangeably with dermatitis to
denote a skin condition characterized by the appearance of
inflamed, swollen papules and vesicles that crust and scale,
often with sensations of itching and burning
furuncle
f ūrŭng-kel
boil; a painful nodule formed in the skin by inflammation
originating in a hair follicle; caused by staphylococcosis
carbuncle
karbŭng-kel
a skin infection consisting of clusters of furuncles (carbo small, glowing embers)
abscess
abses
a localized collection of pus in a cavity formed by the
inflammation of surrounding tissues, which heals when drained
or excised (abscessus a going away)
gangrene
ganggrēn
an eating sore; death of tissue associated with loss of blood
supply
herpes simplex virus
type 1 (HSV-1)
hĕrpēz simpleks vı̄rŭs
transient viral vesicles (e.g., cold sores or fever blisters) that
infect the facial area, especially the mouth and nose (herpes creeping skin disease)
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
TERM
MEANING
herpes simplex virus
type 2 (HSV-2) (see Fig.
15-8)
hĕrpēz simpleks vı̄rǔs
sexually transmitted, ulcer-like lesions of the genital and
anorectal skin and mucosa; after initial infection, the virus lies
dormant in the nerve cell root and may recur at times of stress
herpes zoster
hĕrpēz zostĕr
a viral disease affecting the peripheral nerves characterized by
painful blisters that spread over the skin following affected
nerves, usually unilateral; also known as shingles (zoster girdle)
impetigo
im-pe-tı̄gō
a highly contagious, bacterial skin inflammation marked by
pustules that rupture and become crusted, most often around
the mouth and nostrils
keratoses
ker-ă-tōsēz
thickened areas of epidermis
actinic (or solar)
keratoses (Fig. 3-10)
ak-tinik (sōlăr) ker-ă-tōsēz
localized thickening of the skin caused by excessive exposure
to sunlight, a known precursor to cancer (actinic ray; solar
sun)
seborrheic keratoses
(Fig. 3-11)
seb-ō-rēik ker-ă-tōsēz
benign, wart-like tumors; more common on elderly skin
lupus
lūpŭs
a chronic autoimmune disease characterized by inflammation
of various parts of the body (lupus wolf)
cutaneous lupus
kyū-tānē-ŭs lūpŭs
limited to the skin; evidenced by a characteristic rash,
especially on the face, neck, and scalp
systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE)
sis-temı̆k lūpŭs ĕr-ithēmă-tōsŭs
a more severe form of lupus involving the skin,
joints, and often vital organs (e.g., lungs or kidneys)
malignant cutaneous
neoplasm
mĕ-lignănt kyū-tānē-ŭs
nēō-plazm
squamous cell carcinoma
(SCC) (see Fig. 3-1)
skwāmŭs sel kar-si-nōmă
skin cancer
malignant tumor of the squamous epithelium
FIGURE 3-11 ■ Seborrheic keratoses. A. Lesion with a warty, stuck-on
appearance. B. Multiple lesions showing various colors and sizes.
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
FIGURE 3-12
sarcoma.
TERM
■
Lesions of the AIDS-related Kaposi
MEANING
basal cell carcinoma
(BCC) (see Fig. 3-1)
bāsăl sel kar-si-nōmă
malignant tumor of the basal layer of the epidermis; the
most common type of skin cancer
malignant melanoma
(see Fig. 3-1)
mă-lignănt melă-nōmă
malignant tumor composed of melanocytes
Kaposi sarcoma
(Fig. 3-12)
kă-pōsē sar-cōmă
malignant tumor of the walls of blood vessels, appearing as
painless, dark bluish-purple plaques on the skin; often
spreads to the lymph nodes and internal organs; commonly
seen in patients with HIV/AIDS (human immunodeficiency
virus/acquired immunodeficiency syndrome)
onychia
ō-nikē-ă
inflammation of the fingernail or toenail
paronychia (Fig. 3-13)
par-ō-nikē-ă
inflammation of the nail fold
pediculosis (Fig. 3-14)
pĕ-dikyū-lōsis
infestation with lice that causes itching and dermatitis
( pediculo louse)
pediculosis capitis
pĕ-dikyū-lōsis kapi-tis
head lice (capitis head)
FIGURE 3-13
■ Chronic paronychia.
117
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Pubic louse
FIGURE 3-14
■
Head louse
Pediculosis.
TERM
FIGURE 3-15 ■ Psoriasis
lesions on arm and elbow.
MEANING
pediculosis pubis
pĕ-dikyū-lōsis pyūbis
lice that generally infect the pubic region and sometimes also
hair of the axilla, eyebrows, eyelashes, beard, or other hairy
body surfaces; also called crabs (pubis groin)
psoriasis (Fig. 3-15)
sō-rı̄ă-sis
itching; a chronic, recurrent skin disease marked by silvery
scales covering red patches, papules, and/or plaques on the
skin that result from overproduction and thickening of skin
cells; common sites of involvement are the elbows, knees,
genitals, arms, legs, scalp, and nails
scabies
skābēz
a contagious disease caused by a parasite (mite) that invades
the skin, causing an intense itch, most often at articulations
between the fingers or toes, elbow, etc. (scabo to scratch)
seborrhea
seb-ō-rēă
a skin condition marked by the hypersecretion of sebum from
the sebaceous glands
tinea
tinē-ă
a group of fungal skin diseases identified by the body part
affected, including tinea corporis (body), commonly called
ringworm, and tinea pedis (foot), also called athlete’s foot
vitiligo
(see Fig. 3-3, B)
vit-i-lı̄gō
a condition caused by the destruction of melanin that results
in the appearance of white patches on the skin (commonly
the face, hands, legs, and genital areas)
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
condition
3.46 The suffix -osis refers to an increase or ______________.
skin
Dermat/o means ________. Therefore, the general term meaning skin
dermatosis
condition is ________________. The suffix meaning inflammation is
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
119
ANSWERS
REVIEW
-itis
________. An inflammation of the skin is therefore called
dermatitis
________________. There are many forms of dermatitis or
inflammation, skin
__________________ of the _________. A term that is interchangeable
with dermatitis, characterized by inflamed skin with various lesions
eczema
accompanied by itching and burning is ______________. Eczematous
is the adjective form of the term.
3.47 An inflammation of the sebaceous glands and hair follicles,
comedos or comedones
often evidenced by ________________ (blackheads or whiteheads),
acne
pustules, or nodules on the skin, is called _________.
condition of
3.48 The suffix -ism refers to a _________________ ____.
Albinism is a hereditary condition characterized by a partial or total
melanin
lack of _____________ pigment in the body. The condition caused
by the destruction of melanin that results in the appearance of
vitiligo
white patches on the skin is called _____________.
first-degree or 1st-degree
3.49 A _________-____________ burn involves only the epidermis.
epidermis
A 2nd-degree burn involves both the ______________ and the dermis.
subcutaneous
A 3rd-degree burn involves damage to the ___________________layer.
viral
3.50 Exanthematous _________ disease is an eruption of the skin
caused by a viral infection. One such viral disease, also called German
rubella
measles, is _____________. A similar-sounding but different form of
rubeola
measles is ______________. Varicella, another viral disease, is
chickenpox
commonly called _____________________.
3.51 A painful nodule from inflammation in a hair follicle
furuncle
caused by staphylococcosis is called a boil, or a ________________.
A skin infection consisting of clusters of furuncles is a
carbuncle
______________, from carbo (“small, glowing embers”).
3.52 Pus that collects in a cavity formed by the inflammation of
abscess
surrounding tissues is called an ____________. It usually heals
when drained or excised.
3.53 Gangrene is an eating sore in which tissue dies because of a
blood
loss of ___________ supply.
3.54 There are several forms of herpes disease, which are caused by
virus
a __________. Herpes simplex virus type 1 causes transient
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
vesicles or blisters
______________, such as cold sores or fever blisters. Type 2 is
genital or anorectal
sexually transmitted and causes lesions in ________________ skin.
Herpes
____________ zoster affects the peripheral nerves and is characterized
vesicles or blisters
by painful ________________ that spread over the skin.
Impetigo
3.55 ______________ is a highly contagious, bacterial skin
inflammation usually occurring around the mouth and nose.
scabies
Another contagious skin disease, called ____________, is caused by a
mite that invades the skin and causes intense itching. Tinea is a
different group of contagious skin diseases caused by a
fungus
____________. Lice also can cause an infestation on the skin, called
pediculosis, capitis
_______________. Head lice are called pediculosis ____________, and
pubis
lice infesting the pubic region are called pediculosis __________.
hard
3.56 Putting the combining form kerat/o, meaning ________, with
condition of
the suffix -osis, meaning a ______________ ____, makes the word
keratosis
_______________, a condition of thickened epidermis. The plural
keratoses
form of this term is ________________. Solar keratoses, or
actinic
____________ keratoses, are caused by excessive exposure to the
sun, seborrheic
_______. Benign, wart-like tumors are called ______________ keratoses.
3.57 An autoimmune disease involving inflammation of various
lupus
parts of the body was named after the Latin word for wolf, _________.
skin
Cutaneous lupus is limited to the ________ and causes a characteristic
systemic
rash. A more serious form, called ______________ lupus
erythematosus
________________ (SLE), affects many body organs.
condition
3.58 In the term onychia, the suffix -ia (meaning ________________
of
_____ inflammation), is joined with onych/o (meaning a
fingernail or toenail, alongside
____________________). The suffix para-, meaning _______________
of
____, combined with onych/o and the suffix -ia form the term denoting
paronychia
a condition of inflammation of the nail fold, or _______________.
(Remember the rules of spelling: drop the final vowel from the prefix
before joining it to a combining form that begins with a vowel.)
discharge
3.59 Recall that the suffix -rrhea means _______________. A skin
condition marked by the hypersecretion and discharge of sebum is
seborrhea
called ________________.
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ANSWERS
121
REVIEW
3.60 A condition in which the skin has silvery scales covering red
psoriasis
patches, papules, and/or plaques is ______________.
new
3.61 Neoplasia is a term describing a condition of _______
malignant
formation of tissue that is either cancerous (_______________) or
benign
noncancerous (____________). Several different forms of malignant
squamous cell
neoplasia can involve the skin. A ______________ ________
carcinoma is a tumor of the squamous epithelium. A malignant
basal cell
tumor of the basal layer of the epidermis is a __________ ________
carcinoma
_________________. A tumor composed of melanocytes is a
melanoma
malignant _______________. Remember that the suffix -oma means
tumor, sarcoma
__________. Kaposi _____________ is a tumor of the walls of blood
vessels, commonly seen in patients with HIV/AIDS.
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
Study the following:
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
biopsy (Bx) (Fig. 3-16)
bı̄op-sē
removal of a small piece of tissue for microscopic pathologic
examination
excisional biopsy
ek-sizhŭn-al bı̄op-sē
removal of an entire lesion
incisional biopsy
in-sizhŭn-ǎl bı̄ op-sē
removal of a selected portion of a lesion
shave biopsy
shāv bı̄op-sē
a technique using a surgical blade to “shave” tissue from the
epidermis and upper dermis
FIGURE 3-16
■
Collection of biopsy specimen.
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TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
culture and sensitivity
(C&S)
kŭlchŭr and sen-si-tivi-tē
a technique of isolating and growing colonies of
microorganisms to identify a pathogen and to determine
which drugs might be effective for combating the infection it
has caused
frozen section (FS)
frōzen sekshŭn
a surgical technique that involves cutting a thin piece of tissue
from a frozen specimen for immediate pathologic examination
skin tests
skin testz
methods for determining the reaction of the body to a given
substance by applying it to, or injecting it into, the skin;
commonly used in treating allergies
scratch test
skrach test
a test in which a substance is applied to the skin through a
scratch
patch test
pach test
a test in which a substance is applied topically to the skin on
a small piece of blotting paper or wet cloth
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
ANSWERS
REVIEW
3.62 In many different body systems, small samples of tissue are
removed for a diagnostic test involving microscopic examination.
biopsy
This is called a ___________ (Bx). An excisional biopsy involves
lesion
removal of the entire ____________. Remember that the prefix
out or away, incisional
ex- means _________. An ________________ biopsy, in contrast,
portion
removes only a _____________ of the lesion. Another type, called a
shave
___________ biopsy, uses a surgical blade to “shave” tissue from the
epidermis and upper dermis.
3.63 A technique for isolating and growing a colony of
culture
microorganisms to identify a pathogen is called a ____________ and
sensitivity
________________ (C&S). This helps to determine which drugs may
be effective in fighting the infection.
3.64 A tissue specimen may be frozen and cut thin for
frozen section
examination. This is called a ____________ ____________ and is
FS
abbreviated ______.
3.65 Skin tests are commonly used to identify substances to which
scratch
a person may be allergic. In the ___________ test, a small amount of
the substance is applied to the skin through a scratch. Applying the
substance topically to the skin with a small piece of paper or cloth
patch
is called a __________ test.
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123
Jagged tears
OPERATIVE REPORT
PREOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS:
Complex lacerations of the nose and upper lip due to a dog bite.
POSTOPERATIVE DIAGNOSIS: Complex lacerations of the nose and upper lip due to a dog bite.
OPERATION:
Revision and closure of complex lacerations of the nose and upper lip.
ANESTHESIOLOGIST:
H. Vaughn, M.D.
INDICATIONS:
This 33-year-old female sustained a dog bite to her face while she was handling a dog at a veterinary clinic.
Because of the complexity of her injuries, a plastic surgery consultation was requested.
PROCEDURE:
The patient’s face was prepped and draped in the usual sterile fashion. A copious amount of dilute Betadine
and saline were used to irrigate out all the lacerations. Subcutaneous tissues in the vicinity of the lacerations
were infiltrated with 0.5% Xylocaine with 1:200,000 concentration epinephrine. Attention was directed to the
patient’s upper lip. There was a laceration approximately 1.5 cm oriented parallel to the mucocutaneous
junction. There was another diagonal laceration measuring approximately 1.0 cm. The devitalized tissues
were debrided sharply. The laceration was closed in layers with 5-0 Vicryl sutures and then with 6-0 and 7-0
Prolene on the skin. Attention was directed to the patient’s nose. There are two major lacerations. There is
a 2 cm laceration to the left ala. This was a full thickness laceration through the entire alar cartilage into the
nose as well as the entire alar rim. First, the devitalized cartilage was debrided sharply. The intranasal
incision was closed with 4-0 chromic catgut suture. The alar rim was meticulously reapproximated with a few
tacking sutures to produce perfect anatomic continuity. The remainder of the laceration was closed with 6-0
and 7-0 Prolene sutures in interrrupted and running fashion. At this time, attention was directed to another
laceration measuring approximately 2.5 cm located in the right nasal sill area extending to the columella and
lip junction. The columella was detached. Again, all devitalized tissues were debrided sharply. Deep
subcutaneous tissues were approximated with 5-0 chromic catgut sutures in such a fashion so as to
meticulously reapproximate the columella into its normal anatomic position. The nasal sill was
reapproximated with 6-0 Prolene sutures meticulously reapproximating the detailed anatomy of this area.
The remainder of the wounds were closed with 6-0 and 7-0 Prolene sutures in a running and interrupted
fashion. A few smaller lacerations were closed with Prolene sutures on the bridge of the nose. All the wounds
were covered with Neosporin ointment, Adaptic, and appropriate bandages.
Dead tissue
removed from
the wound
A type of
nonabsorbable
thread used to
sew up surface
layers of tissue,
removed after
healing
Brought
together again
The patient was given intravenous antibiotics; and she will be started on Keflex 250 mg p.o. t.i.d. The patient
will be seen in my office in 24 hours for follow-up.
Topical
antibiotic
Anesthetic
A type of
absorbable
thread used to
sew up deeper
layers of
tissue
Absorbable
suture made of
sheep or beef
intestine coated
with salt to
prolong holding
strength
Oral
antibiotic
T. Romero, M.D.
TR:kf
D: 10/19/20xx
T: 10/20/20xx
OPERATIVE REPORT
A
Agents used to
clean the wound
PT. NAME:
ID NO:
SURGEON:
SMITH, WILMA
OPS-167480621
T. ROMERO, M.D.
B
C
Continuous sutures are several stitches
from a single length of suture material,
knotted at each end
Interrupted sutures are groups of
individual stitches, each of which
is knotted
R
PE 7
TACTjhd
kg
J
glf
LK
lfk
KJ
fdh
dfl
dh
Kj
fgj
LS
dfl
KJ
Kj
LS
KJ
N
O
IC
H
T
E
Removing suture from sterile
package with needle holder
FIGURE 3-17 ■
Typical documentation of a surgical procedure. Suturing is also depicted.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Self-Instruction: Operative Terms (Fig. 3-17)
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
chemosurgery
kemō-s ŭr-jĕr-ē
removal of tissue after it has been destroyed by chemical
means
chemical peel
kĕmi-kǎl pēl
a technique for restoring wrinkled, scarred, or blemished
skin by applying an acid solution to “peel” away the top
layers of the skin
cryosurgery
krı̄-ō-sŭrjĕr-ē
destruction of tissue by freezing with application of an
extremely cold chemical (e.g., liquid nitrogen)
dermabrasion
dĕr-mă-brāzhŭn
surgical removal of epidermis frozen by aerosol spray using
wire brushes and emery papers to remove scars, tattoos,
and/or wrinkles
debridement
dā-brēd-mon
removal of dead tissue from a wound or burn site to
promote healing and to prevent infection
curettage
kyū-rĕ-tahzh
cleaning; scraping a wound using a spoon-like cutting
instrument called a curette; used for debridement
electrosurgical procedures
ē-lek-trō-sŭrji-căl prō-cējŭrz
use of electric current to destroy tissue; the type and
strength of the current and method of application vary
electrocautery (Fig. 3-18)
ē-lektrō-kawtĕr-ē
use of an instrument heated by electric current (cautery) to
coagulate bleeding areas by burning the tissue (e.g., to sear a
blood vessel)
electrodesiccation
ē-lektrō-des-i-kāshŭn
use of high-frequency electric currents to destroy tissue by
drying it; the active electrode makes direct contact with the
skin lesion (desiccate to dry up)
fulguration
ful-gŭ-rāshŭn
to lighten; use of long, high-frequency, electric sparks to
destroy tissue; the active electrode does not touch the skin
incision and drainage
(I&D)
in-sizhŭn and drānăj
incision and drainage of an infected skin lesion (e.g., an
abscess)
FIGURE 3-18 ■ Electrocautery. A cautery device is used to perform
hemostasis during a surgical procedure.
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
125
TERM
MEANING
laser
lāzĕr
an acronym for light amplification by stimulated emission of
radiation; an instrument that concentrates high frequencies
of light into a small, extremely intense beam that is precise
in depth and diameter; applied to body tissues to destroy
lesions or for dissection (cutting of parts for study)
laser surgery
l āzĕr sŭrjĕr-ē
surgery using a laser in various dermatologic procedures to
remove lesions, scars, tattoos, etc.
Mohs surgery
mōz sŭrjĕr-ē
a technique used to excise tumors of the skin by removing
fresh tissue, layer by layer, until a tumor-free plane is reached
skin grafting
skin grafting
transfer of skin from one body site to another to replace
skin that has been lost through a burn or injury
autograft
awtō-graft
graft transfer to a new position in the body of the same
person (auto self)
heterograft or xenograft
heter-ō-graft, zenō-graft
graft transfer between different species, such as from animal
to human (hetero different; xeno strange)
homograft or allograft
hōmō-graft, alō-graft
donor transfer between persons of the same species, such as
human to human (homo same)
Programmed Review: Operative Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
chemical
3.66 A special form of chemosurgery, called a _______________
peel
________, uses an acid to peel away the top layers of skin.
freezing
3.67 Cryosurgery destroys tissue by _______________ it, usually
with an extremely cold chemical, such as liquid nitrogen.
3.68 Another way to remove skin tissue, particularly scars, tattoos,
or wrinkles, is to surgically scrape off the skin using a wire brush or
dermabrasion
emery paper. This is called ______________________.
from, down, or not
3.69 Recall that the prefix de- means _________. When dead tissue
is removed from a wound or burn site, this is called
debridement
____________________. This is often done with a cutting instrument
curettage
called a curette, and the technique is thus called _________________.
3.70 Electricity is used in many dermatologic procedures to destroy
unwanted tissue. The general term for such operative procedures is
electrosurgery
___________________. The use of an electrically heated instrument to
coagulate a bleeding area by burning the tissue is called
electrocautery
__________________. Electrodesiccation, in contrast, applies an
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
electrical current directly to a skin lesion to destroy the tissue by
drying
___________ it. A process using electrical sparks to destroy tissue is
fulguration
called _________________. In both terms, the suffix -ation means a
process
_____________.
3.71 An infected lesion, such as an abscess, may undergo the
incision, drainage
surgical procedure called ______________ and ______________ (I&D).
laser
3.72 An amplified, intense light beam, called a __________, is used
to remove various kinds of lesions during an operative procedure
laser
called __________ surgery.
3.73 Mohs surgery is a technique for removing a tumor one
layer
_________ at a time until a tumor-free layer is reached.
graft
3.74 A skin _________ is used to replace skin at a burn or injury site
by transferring it from another site. If the graft is transferred from
autograft
elsewhere on the same person, this is called an _______________
self
(auto _________). A homograft is a graft transferred to one human
human
from another ____________ (homo same). This is also called an
allograft
________________. A heterograft, in contrast, is transferred from a
species, different
different ____________ (hetero means ______________). The synonym
xenograft, strange
for heterograft is ________________ (xeno ___________).
Self-Instruction: Therapeutic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
chemotherapy
k ēmō-thāră-pē
treatment of malignancies, infections, and other diseases with
chemical agents that destroy selected cells or impair their
ability to reproduce
radiation therapy
rādē-āshŭn thāră-pē
treatment of neoplastic disease using ionizing radiation to
deter the proliferation of malignant cells
sclerotherapy
sklērō-thāră-pē
use of sclerosing agents in treating diseases (e.g., injection of a
saline solution into a dilated blood vessel tumor in the skin,
resulting in hardening of the tissue within and eventual
sloughing away of the lesion)
ultraviolet therapy
ŭl-tră-vı̄ō-let thāră-pē
use of ultraviolet light to promote healing of a skin lesion
(e.g., an ulcer)
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
TERM
127
MEANING
COMMON THERAPEUTIC DRUG CLASSIFICATIONS
anesthetic
an-es-thetik
a drug that temporarily blocks transmission of nerve
conduction to produce a loss of sensations (e.g., pain)
antibiotic
antē-bı̄-otik
a drug that kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms
antifungal
antē-f ŭnggăl
a drug that kills or prevents the growth of fungi
antihistamine
an-tē-histă-mēn
a drug that blocks the effects of histamine in the body
histamine
histă-mēn
a regulating body substance released in excess during allergic
reactions, causing swelling and inflammation of tissues (e.g.,
in urticaria [hives], hay fever, etc.)
antiinflammatory
antē-in-flamă-tōrē
a drug that reduces inflammation
antipruritic
antē-prū-ritik
a drug that relieves itching
antiseptic
an-ti-septik
an agent that inhibits the growth of infectious
microorganisms
Programmed Review: Therapeutic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
3.75 Several different types of therapy are used to treat
tumors and other skin lesions. The use of chemical agents as
chemotherapy
a treatment is called ____________________. Ionizing
radiation
________________ is also used on tumors, and this is called radiation
therapy
______________. In another form of therapy, sclerosing agents are
injected into a lesion to harden the tissue within; this is called
sclerotherapy
_____________________. Finally, ultraviolet therapy is the use of
light
ultraviolet ____________ to promote healing of a skin lesion
(e.g., an ulcer).
anesthetic
3.76 An _______________ agent (using the suffix -tic, which means
pertaining to) produces a loss of sensation so that the person
undergoing a procedure does not feel pain.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
3.77 Recall that tinea is a group of skin diseases caused by a
fungus
____________. A drug that kills or prevents the growth of such
antifungal
infections is called an __________________, using the prefix
against or opposed to
anti-, which means ________________.
3.78 A different sort of drug kills or inhibits the growth of bacteria.
antibiotic
A drug of this class is known as an _________________.
3.79 Histamine is a body substance that is released in excess during
an allergic reaction. A drug that blocks the effects of this substance is
antihistamine
called an ___________________. This type of drug is used to combat
allergic reactions (e.g., hives or hay fever).
3.80 Many drug classifications are named according to what they
work against, using the prefix anti-, meaning against or opposed to.
The term for itching is pruritus, and a drug that relieves itching is
antipruritic
called an _______________. Sepsis is an infection by microorganisms;
a drug that inhibits the growth of such microorganisms is called an
antiseptic
_________________. Similarly, a drug that reduces inflammation is
antiinflammatory
called an _________________________.
CHAPTER 3 ACRONYMS AND ABBREVIATIONS
ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
AIDS
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
BCC
basal cell carcinoma
Bx
biopsy
C&S
culture and sensitivity
FS
frozen section
HIV
human immunodeficiency virus
HSV-1
herpes simplex virus type 1
HSV-2
herpes simplex virus type 2
I&D
incision and drainage
SCC
squamous cell carcinoma
SLE
systemic lupus erythematosus
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
129
CHAPTER 3 SUMMARY OF TERMS
The terms introduced in chapter 3 are listed below, followed by the page number on which each
term can be found and its written pronunciation. For additional practice and reinforcement, write
the definition of each term on a separate piece of paper.
abscess/115
abses
carbuncle/115
karbŭng-kel
acne/114
aknē
chemical peel/124
kemi-k ăl pēl
actinic keratoses/116
ak-tinik ker-ă-t ōsez
chemosurgery/124
k ēmō-sŭr-jĕr-ē
albinism/114
albi-nizm
chemotherapy/126
k ēmō-thār-ă-pē
allograft/125
alō-graft
cherry angioma/109
cherō an-jē-ōmă
alopecia/112
al-ō-pēshē-ă
cicatrix/109
sikă-triks
anesthetic/127
an-es-thetik
closed comedo/112
kl ōsd komē-d ō
antibiotic/127
antē-bı̄-otik
collagen/104
kolă-jen
antifungal/127
antē-f ūnggăl
comedo/112
komē-do
antihistamine/127
an-tē-histă-mēn
crust/109
kr ŭst
antiinflammatory/127
antē-in-flamă-t ō-rē
cryosurgery/124
krı̄-ō-sŭrjĕr-ē
antipruritic/127
antē-prū-ritik
culture and sensitivity (C&S)/122
k ŭlch ŭr and sen-si-tivi-tē
antiseptic/127
an-ti-septik
curettage/124
kyŭ-rē-tahzh
autograft/125
awt ō-graft
cutaneous lupus/116
kyū-t ān ē-ŭs lūp ŭs
basal cell carcinoma (BCC)/117
bāsăl sel kar-si-nōmă
debridement/124
dā-brēd-mon
basal layer/104
bāsăl lāer
depigmentation/113
d ē-pig-men-t āshŭn
biopsy (Bx)/121
bı̄op-sē
dermabrasion/124
dĕr-m ă-brāzh ŭn
bulla/108
bulă
dermatitis/115
d ĕr-mă-t ı̄tis
burn/114
bĕrn
dermatosis/115
d ĕr-m ă-t ōsis
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dermis/104
d ĕrmis
gangrene/115
ganggrēn
dysplastic nevus/110
dis-plastik n ēv ŭs
hair/104
hār
ecchymosis/109
ek-i-mōsis
herpes simplex virus (HSV)/115–116
herpēz simpleks vı̄rŭs
eczema/115
ekzĕ-mă
herpes zoster/116
herpēz zostĕr
electrocautery/124
ē-lektr ō-kawtĕr-ē
heterograft/125
hetĕr-ō-graft
electrodesiccation/124
ē-lektr ō-des-i-kāshŭn
histamine/127
histă-mēn
electrosurgical procedures/124
ē-lek-tr ō-s ŭrji-c ăl pr ō-c ējŭrz
homograft/125
hōmō-graft
epidermal tumors/110
ep-i-dĕrm ǎl t ūm ŏrz
hyperpigmentation/113
hı̄-pĕr-pig-men-tāshŭn
epidermis/104
ep-i-dĕrmis
epithelium/104
ep-i-thēlē-ŭm
erosion/108
ē-rōzhŭn
eruption/112
ē-rŭpshŭn
erythema/112
er-i-thēmă
exanthematous viral disease/115
ek-zan-themă-tŭs vı̄răl di-zēz
excisional biopsy/121
ek-sizhŭn-ăl bı̄op-sē
excoriation/108
eks-kōrē-āshŭn
first-degree (or 1st-degree) burn/114
first-dĕ-grēbĕrn
fissure/108
fishŭr
hypopigmentation/113
hı̄pō-pig-men-tāshŭn
impetigo/116
im-pe-tı̄gō
incisional biopsy/121
in-sizhŭn-ăl bı̄op-sē
incision and drainage (I&D)/124
in-sizhŭn and drānăj
Kaposi sarcoma/117
ka-pōsē sar-kōmă
keloid/109
kēloyd
keratin/104
keră-tin
keratoses/116
ker-ă-tōsēz
laser/125
lāzĕr
frozen section (FS)/122
frōzĕn sekshŭn
laser surgery/125
lāzĕr sŭrjĕr-ē
fulguration/124
ful-gŭ-rāshŭn
lesion/106
lēzhŭn
furuncle/115
f ūrŭng-kĕl
lupus/116
lūpŭs
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
macule or macula/107
makyūl
primary lesions/107
prı̄mār-ē l ēzhŭnz
malignant cutaneous neoplasm/116
mă-lignănt kyū-tānē-ŭs nēō-plazm
pruritus/113
prū-rı̄tŭs
malignant melanoma/117
mă-lignănt melă-nōmă
psoriasis/118
sō-rı̄ă-sis
melanin/104
melă-nin
purpuric lesions/109
pŭr-pūrik l ēzhŭnz
melanocyte/104
melă-nō-sı̄t
pustule/108
pŭstyūl
Mohs surgery/125
mōz sŭrj ĕr-ē
radiation therapy/126
rād ē-āshŭn thārǎ-pē
nail/104
nāl
rash/113
rash
nevus/110
nēv ŭs
rubella/115
r ū-belă
nodule/107
nodyūl
rubeola/115
rū-bēō-l ă
onychia/117
ō-nikē-ă
scabies/118
skāb ēz
open comedo/112
ōp ĕn komē-d ō
scale/109
skāl
paronychia/117
par-ō-nikē-ă
sclerotherapy/126
sklērō-thār-ă-pē
patch/107
pach
scratch test/122
skrach test
patch test/122
pach test
sebaceous glands/104
sē-bāshŭs glanz
papule/107
papyūl
seborrhea/118
seb-ō-rēă
pediculosis/117
pĕ-dikyū-lōsis
seborrheic keratoses/116
seb-ō-r ēik ker-ă-tōsēz
pediculosis capitis/117
pĕ-dikyū-lōsis kapi-tis
sebum/104
sēbŭm
pediculosis pubis/118
pĕ-dikyū-l ōsis pyūbis
secondary lesions/108
sekŏn-dār-ē lēzhŭnz
petechia/109
pe-tē kē-ă
second-degree (or 2nd-degree) burn/114
sekŭnd-dĕ-grē bĕrn
plaque/107
plak
shave biopsy/121
shāv bı̄op-sē
131
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skin grafting/125
skin grafting
tinea/118
tinē-ă
skin pigmentation/113
skin pig-men-t āshŭn
tumor/107
tūmŏr
skin tests/122
skin testz
solar keratoses/116
sō l ăr ker-ă-t ōsez
ulcer/108
ŭls ĕr
spider angioma/109
spı̄d ĕr an-j ē-ōmă
urticaria/113
ŭr-ti-kari-ă
squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)/116
skwāmŭs sel kar-si-nōm ă
varicella/115
var-i-selă
squamous cell layer/104
skwāmŭs sel l āĕr
vascular lesions/109
vaskyū-l ăr l ēzhŭnz
subcutaneous layer/104
sŭb-ky ū-t ānē-ŭs l āĕr
verruca/110
vĕ-rūkă
sudoriferous glands/104
sŭ-d ō-rif ĕ r-ŭs glanz
vesicle/108
vesi-kĕl
suppuration/113
sŭpyŭ-rāshŭn
vitiligo/118
vit-i-lı̄g ō
systemic lupus erythematosus
(SLE)/116
sis-temik l ūpŭs ĕ r-i-thē m ă-t ō-sı̆s
wheal/108
wēl
telangiectasia/109
tel-anj ē-ek-t āzē-ă
third-degree (or 3rd-degree) burn/114
thı̆rd-d ĕ-gr ē b ĕrn
ultraviolet therapy/126
ŭl-tră-vı̄ō-let thār ă-pē
xenograft/125
zenō-graft
xeroderma/113
zēr ō-dĕrmă
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PRACTICE EXERCISES
For each of the following words, write out the term components (prefixes [P], combining forms [CF], roots [R], and suffixes [S]) on the lines below the word. Then define
the term according to the meaning of its components.
EXAMPLE
hypodermic
hypo
derm / __
ic
____ /_____
P
R
S
DEFINITION: below or deficient/skin/pertaining to
1. onychomalacia
____________ / ____________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
2. mycotic
____________ / ____________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
3. dermatologist
____________ / ____________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
4. histotrophic
____________ / ____________ / ____________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
5. paronychia
____________ / ____________ / ____________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
6. hyperkeratosis
____________ / ____________ / ____________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
7. leukotrichia
____________ / ____________ / ____________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
133
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8. mycology
____________ / ____________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
9. epidermal
____________ / ____________ / ____________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
10. lipoma
____________ / ____________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
11. subcutaneous
____________ / ____________ / ____________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
12. anhidrosis
____________ / ____________ / ____________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
13. histopathology
____________ / ____________ / ____________
CF
CF
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
14. dysplasia
____________ / ____________ / ____________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
15. adiposis
____________ / ____________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
16. squamous
____________ / ____________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
135
17. erythrodermatitis
____________ / ____________ / ____________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
18. desquamation
____________ / ____________ / ____________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
19. histotoxic
____________ / ____________ / ____________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
20. melanocyte
____________ / ____________ / ____________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
21. xerosis
____________ / ____________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
22. purpuric
____________ / ____________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
23. seborrhea
____________ / ____________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
24. xanthoma
____________ / ____________
R
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
25. asteatosis
____________ / ____________ / ____________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Write the correct medical term for each of the following definitions:
26. _____________________________ death of tissue associated with loss of blood supply
27. _____________________________ transfer of skin to a new position in the body of the same
person
28. _____________________________ black and blue mark
29. _____________________________ severe itching
30. _____________________________ a cluster of furuncles
31. _____________________________ fungal skin disease
32. _____________________________ hives
33. _____________________________ a graft transfer from one animal species to one of another
species
34. _____________________________ pubic lice
35. _____________________________ a boil
36. _____________________________ freckle
37. _____________________________ flake of exfoliated epidermis
38. _____________________________ head lice
39. _____________________________ baldness
40. _____________________________ virus that causes cold sores
41. _____________________________ study of tissue
42. _____________________________ redness of skin
43. _____________________________ a blackhead
44. _____________________________ mark left by a healed wound
45. _____________________________ a linear crack in the skin
46. _____________________________ surgery that freezes tissue
47. _____________________________ excision of tissue for microscopic study
48. _____________________________ appearance of a skin lesion
49. _____________________________ abnormal scar formation
Complete each medical term by writing the missing word or word part:
50. ________ oma black tumor
51. sebo________ discharge of oil
52. ________coriation scratch mark on skin
53. ________derma white skin
54. ____________ section type of microscopic study of fresh tissue
55. ________derma red skin
56. ________derma hard skin
57. ____________ keratoses thickened skin tumors seen in old age
58. ________oma fat tumor
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
137
59. ________derma yellow skin
60. ________osis presence of fungus
61. ________dermic pertaining to below the skin
62. ____________ angioma bright red, round blood vessel tumor
63. ________derma dry skin
Give the medical term for the following viral diseases:
64. German measles
_________________________________________________________________
65. chickenpox
_________________________________________________________________
66. 14-day measles
_________________________________________________________________
Write the letter of the matching definition for each of the primary lesions described:
67. vesicle
_____
a. a tiny, flat discolored spot on the skin up to 1 cm in
diameter
68. pustule
_____
b. a large, flat discolored area on the skin larger than 1
cm in diameter
69. papule
_____
c. a raised spot on the skin less than 0.5 cm in diameter
70. bulla
_____
d. a solid mass greater than 1 cm that extends into the
epidermis
71. nodule
_____
e. a solid mass greater than 1 cm limited to the skin’s
surface
72. wheal
_____
f. a small blister
73. macule
_____
g. an area of localized skin edema, such as a hive
74. tumor
_____
h. a large blister
75. patch
_____
i. a pus-filled sac
76. plaque
_____
j. a solid mass larger than 1–2 cm in diameter
Write out the expanded term for each abbreviation:
77. HSV-2 ___________________________________________________________________________
78. Bx
___________________________________________________________________________
79. FS
___________________________________________________________________________
80. I&D
___________________________________________________________________________
Write the plural for each of the following terms:
81. keratosis
_______________________________________________
82. ecchymosis _______________________________________________
83. bulla
_______________________________________________
84. macula
_______________________________________________
85. nevus
_______________________________________________
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Match the following terms with their meanings:
86. scabies
_____
a. chemical peel
87. cryosurgery
_____
b. crabs
88. telangiectasia
_____
c. mites
89. nevus
_____
d. freezing treatment
90. cicatrix
_____
e. intense light
91. actinic keratoses
_____
f. desiccation
92. radiation therapy _____
g. spider angioma
93. petechia
_____
h. mole
94. liposis
_____
i. scar
95. verruca
_____
j. cancer treatment
96. chemosurgery
_____
k. wart
97. electrosurgery
_____
l. solar keratoses
98. pediculosis
_____
m. purpuric lesion
99. laser
_____
n. adiposis
Circle the correct spelling:
100. cicatrix
scicatrix
cicatrex
101. puritis
purritis
pruritus
102. petechia
patechia
petecchia
103. veruca
verucca
verruca
104. eckamosis
ecchymosis
eckemyosis
105. excission
excisison
excision
106. soriasis
psoreyeasis
psoriasis
107. impetigo
infantiego
impatiego
108. eggszema
eczema
ecczema
109. debridemant
debridement
debreedment
Give the noun that is used to form each adjective:
110. keratotic
__________________
111. bullous
__________________
112. nodular
__________________
113. seborrheic
__________________
114. petechial
__________________
115. ecchymotic
__________________
116. urticarial
__________________
117. eczematous
__________________
118. macular
__________________
119. suppurative
__________________
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
Identify the parts of the skin’s anatomy by writing the missing words in the spaces provided:
Hair shaft
Receptor for
touch
Pore
120.
(stratum corneum)
layer
121.
(stratum germinativum)
layer
122.
123.
Pilomotor muscle
Sebaceous gland
124.
tissue
Sweat gland
Hair follicle
Free nerve ending
Adipose tissue
Receptor for pressure
Venule
Arteriole
Nerve
120.
layer (stratum corneum)
123.
121.
layer (stratum germinativum) 124.
tissue
122.
Circle the combining form that corresponds to the meaning given:
125. fat
leuk/o
steat/o
seb/o
126. black
necr/o
trich/o
melan/o
127. fungus
seb/o
myc/o
onych/o
128. nail
onych/o
trich/o
squam/o
129. red
xanth/o
purpur/o
erythr/o
130. hair
trich/o
histi/o
fibr/o
131. dry
kerat/o
xer/o
xanth/o
132. oil
py/o
hidr/o
seb/o
139
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 3-1
PROGRESS NOTE
S: This is a 30 y.o. presenting with an erythematous and scaly eruption on the face and ears
6 mo. Stress and emotional tensions aggravate the rash. Over-the-counter remedies
provide no relief.
O: Patchy erythema with greasy, yellowish scaling appears over the nose and along the
eyebrows. The external ears are similarly affected. Erythematous papules are scattered
across the face, and there is c oiliness around the nose.
A: Seborrheic dermatitis.
P: Rx: hydrocortisone cream, ss
¯¯ oz tube
Sig: apply to affected areas t.i.d.
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 3-1
1. What is the sex of the patient?
a. male
b. female
c. not stated
2. What is the patient’s CC?
a. stress and emotional tension
b. appearance of raised, yellow, pus-filled
lesions on the skin
c. appearance of red areas on the skin with
flaking of the outer layers of the skin
d. appearance of red areas on the skin with
open sores
e. appearance of a communicable rash on
the face and ear
3. What is the diagnosis?
a. inflammation of the sebaceous glands
and hair follicles of the skin, as
evidenced by comedones
b. fungus of the skin
c. inflammation of the skin with excessive
secretion of sebum from the sebaceous
glands
d. highly contagious bacterial skin inflammation marked by pustules that rupture
and become crusted
e. transient, viral cold sores that infect the
facial area
4. How much hydrocortisone cream was
prescribed?
a. one ounce
b. two ounces
c. one-half dram
d. one dram
e. one-half ounce
5. What is the Sig: on the prescription?
a. apply to affected areas twice a day
b. apply to affected areas three times a day
c. apply to affected areas four times a day
d. apply to affected areas every two hours
e. apply to affected areas every three hours
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
141
Medical Record 3-2
FOR ADDITIONAL STUDY
After ignoring various skin problems for months, Robert Fuller consulted his doctor in October,
when he became alarmed by what he saw happening on his right hand. His doctor referred him to
Dr. Luong, a dermatologist, who then diagnosed and treated Mr. Fuller. Medical Record 3–2 is a
SOAP progress note dictated by Dr. Luong immediately after the treatment of Mr. Fuller and transcribed the next day by his assistant.
Read Medical Record 3–2 (page 142), then write your answers to the following questions in the
spaces provided.
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 3-2
1. Below are medical terms used in this record that you have not yet encountered in this text.
Underline each where it appears in the record, and define the term below:
vulgaris _____________________________________________________________________________
verruciform__________________________________________________________________________
2. In your own words, not using medical terminology, briefly describe Mr. Fuller’s complaint:
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
3. In your own words, not using medical terminology, briefly describe Dr. Luong’s three objective
findings:
a. __________________________________________________________________________________
b. __________________________________________________________________________________
c. __________________________________________________________________________________
4. Define the three diagnoses for those three objective findings:
a. __________________________________________________________________________________
b. __________________________________________________________________________________
c. __________________________________________________________________________________
5. Briefly describe the treatments for those three diagnoses:
a. __________________________________________________________________________________
b. __________________________________________________________________________________
c. __________________________________________________________________________________
6. What did Dr. Luong tell Mr. Fuller might occur in the future? Check all that apply:
_____
scarring where the lesions were
_____
nausea and possible vomiting from the nitrogen
_____
red, freckle-like spots appearing on the right hand
_____
possible regrowth of lesions
_____
self-desiccating tissue destruction
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Medical Record 3-2: For Additional Study
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CHAPTER 3 • INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
143
ANSWERS TO PRACTICE EXERCISES
1. onycho
malacia
______ /_______
CF
S
P
nail/softening
2. myco
tic
_____/___
CF
S
fungus/pertaining to
3. dermato
logist
_______ /_____
CF
S
skin/one who specializes
in the study or treatment of
4. histo
troph ic
____/_____/__
CF
R
P
R
S
R
S
above or excessive/
hard/condition or
increase
7. leuko
trich ia
_____/____/__
CF
R
S
R
S
upon/skin/pertaining to
10. lip
oma
__/____
S
fat/tumor
11. sub
cutane ous
___/______/___
P
R
S
below or under/skin/
pertaining to
12. an
hidr/___
osis
__/___
P
R
S
without/sweat/condition
or increase
13. histo
patho logy
____ /_____/____
CF
CF
S
fat/condition or increase
16. squam
ous
______/___
R
S
scale/pertaining to
17. erythro
dermat itis
______ /______/___
S
tissue/disease/study of
R
S
red/skin/inflammation
18. de
squam /_____
ation
__/______
P
R
S
from, down, or
not/scale/process
19. histo
tox ic
____ /___/__
CF
R
S
tissue/poison/pertaining
to
20. melano
cyt e
______ /___/_
CF
R
S
black/cell/noun marker
21. xer
osis
___/____
R
fungus/study of
9. epi
derm al
___/_____/__
P
R
S
white/hair/condition of
8. myco
logy
_____/____
CF
S
CF
alongside of/nail/condition of
6. hyper
kerat/____
osis
_____/____
P
R
painful, difficult, or
faulty/formation/condition of
15. adip
osis
____/____
S
tissue/nourishment or
development/pertaining
to
5. par
onych ia
___/______/__
R
14. dys
plas ia
___/____/__
S
dry/condition or
increase
22. purpur
ic
______/__
R
S
purple/pertaining to
23. sebo
rrhea
____/_____
CF
S
sebum (oil)/discharge
24. xanth
oma
_____/____
R
S
yellow/tumor
25. a_/____/___
steat osis
P
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
R
S
without/fat/condition or
increase
gangrene
autograft
ecchymosis
pruritus
carbuncle
tinea
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
urticaria
heterograft
pediculosis pubis
furuncle
macule or macula
scale
pediculosis capitis
alopecia
herpes simplex virus
type 1
histology
erythema
open comedo
cicatrix
fissure
cryosurgery
biopsy
eruption
keloid
melanoma
seborrhea
excoriation
leukoderma
frozen section
erythroderma
keratoderma or scleroderma
seborrheic keratoses
lipoma or steatoma
xanthoderma
mycosis
hypodermic
cherry angioma
xeroderma
rubella
varicella
rubeola
f
i
c
h
d
g
a
j
b
e
herpes simplex virus
type 2
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144
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
biopsy
frozen section
incision and drainage
keratoses
ecchymoses
bullae
maculae
nevi
c
d
g
h
i
l
j
m
n
k
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
a
f
b
e
cicatrix
pruritus
petechia
verruca
ecchymosis
excision
psoriasis
impetigo
eczema
debridement
keratosis
bulla
nodule
seborrhea
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
130.
131.
132.
ANSWERS TO MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 3-1: Progress Note
1. b
2. c
3. c
4. e
5. b
Medical Record 3-2: For Additional Study
See CD-ROM for answers.
petechia
ecchymosis
urticaria
eczema
macule
suppuration
squamous
basal
epidermis
dermis
subcutaneous
steat/o
melan/o
myc/o
onych/o
erythr/o
trich/o
xer/o
seb/o
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CHAPTER
4
Musculoskeletal
System
✓ Chapter 4 Checklist
Read Chapter 4: Musculoskeletal System and complete all programmed
review segments.
LOCATION
pages 145-185
Review the starter set of flash cards and term components related to Chapter 4. back of book
Complete the Chapter 4 Practice Exercises and Medical Record Analysis 4-1.
pages 190-200
Complete Medical Record Analysis 4-2 For Additional Study.
pages 201-203
Complete the Chapter 4 Exercises by Chapter.
CD-ROM
Complete the Chapter 4 Review and Test Modes.
CD-ROM
Review the Pronunciation Drill for the Chapter 4 terms.
CD-ROM
MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM OVERVIEW
Functions of the skeleton (Fig. 4-1):
Provides support and shape to the body through a framework of bones and cartilage
Stores calcium and other minerals
Produces certain blood cells within bone marrow
Functions of the muscles (Fig. 4-2):
Supply the forces that make body movements possible
Provide a protective covering for the internal organs
Produce body heat
Orthopedics is the specialty most involved with the study and treatment of the musculoskeletal system. The spelling orthopaedic (the British form of the term) is frequently used, as in the name
of the American Board of Orthopaedic Surgery.
145
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Cranium
Skull
Face
Hyoid
1
Clavicle
2
3
Manubrium
Scapula
Sternum
Ribs
Xiphoid process
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
Humerus
Vertebral column
Iliac crest
Ilium
Ischium
Ulna
Radius
Carpals
Metacarpals
Trochanter
Pubic bone
Phalanges
Femur
Sacrum
Coccyx
Patella
Tibia
Fibula
Tarsals
Metatarsals
Phalanges
Anterior view
Color key: Appendicular skeleton
Axial skeleton
FIGURE 4-1 ■
The skeleton.
Calcaneus
Posterior view
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CHAPTER 4 • MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
Frontalis
Temporalis
Orbicularis oculi
Zygomaticus
Galea aponeurotica
Occipitalis
Sternocleidomastoid
Trapezius
Deltoid
Pectoralis major
Latissimus dorsi
Triceps brachii
External oblique
Brachialis under biceps
Anconeus
Flexor carpi radialis
Flexor carpi ulnaris
Brachioradialis
Extensor carpi
radialis longus
Extensor digitorum
Extensor carpi
radialis brevis
Extensor carpi
ulnaris
Orbicularis oris
Masseter
Buccinator
Coracobrachialis
Serratus
anterior
Biceps
brachii
Rectus
abdominis
Linea
alba
Removed
external
oblique
Internal
oblique
Teres minor
Teres major
Palmar
aponeurosis
Iliotibial band
Iliopsoas
Pectineus
Adductor longus
Adductor magnus
Vastus lateralis
Rectus femoris
Vastus medialis
Biceps femoris
Adductor magnus
Semimembranosus
Transversus
abdominis
Tensor fasciae
latae
Gracilis
Sartorius
Peroneus longus
Tibialis anterior
Gluteus
medius
Gluteus
maximus
Calcaneus
tendon
Soleus
Peroneus longus
Semitendinosus
Plantaris
Gastrocnemius
Extensor hallucis
longus
Anterior view
FIGURE 4-2 ■
147
Skeletal muscles.
Peroneus brevis
Posterior view
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148
MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Self-Instruction: Combining Forms
Study the following:
COMBINING FORM
MEANING
ankyl/o
crooked or stiff
arthr/o, articul/o
joint
brachi/o
arm
cervic/o
neck
chondr/o
cartilage (gristle)
cost/o
rib
crani/o
skull
dactyl/o
digit (finger or toe)
fasci/o
fascia (a band)
femor/o
femur
fibr/o
fiber
kyph/o
humped-back
lei/o
smooth
lord/o
bent
lumb/o
loin (lower back)
my/o, myos/o, muscul/o
muscle
myel/o
bone marrow or spinal cord
oste/o
bone
patell/o
knee cap
pelv/i
pelvis (basin) or hip bone
radi/o
radius
rhabd/o
rod-shaped or striated (skeletal)
sarc/o
flesh
scoli/o
twisted
spondyl/o, vertebr/o
vertebra
stern/o
sternum (breastbone)
ten/o, tend/o, tendin/o
tendon (to stretch)
thorac/o
chest
ton/o
tone or tension
uln/o
ulna
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CHAPTER 4 • MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
149
Programmed Review: Combining Forms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
straight, normal, or correct
4.1
foot
__________, are combined to form the term orthopedic, meaning
Orth/o, meaning __________________, and ped/o, meaning
pertaining to the medical specialty related to the
musculoskeletal system. The British spelling for this specialty
orthopaedic
is ___________________.
oste/o
4.2
-itis
suffix ________ means inflammation. Osteitis therefore refers to
The combining form meaning bone is __________. The
inflammation of bone. Inside most bones is bone marrow; the
myel/o
combining form meaning bone marrow is ___________, as in the
adjective myeloid.
4.3
myos/o
The three combining forms for muscle are muscul/o, my/o,
and ___________. The musculoskeletal system involves both
muscles and bones. Recalling that the suffix -algia means pain,
muscle
myalgia must mean _____________ pain. Myositis is an
inflammation
___________________ of muscle.
skull
4.4
crani/o
combining form that means skull is ______________. Neck
cervical
bones are referred to as the _______________ vertebrae, from the
neck
combining form cervic/o, meaning __________.
4.5
The cranial bones comprise the ____________. The
The two combining forms for vertebrae, the bones of the
spondyl/o
spine, are vertebr/o and _______________. Spondylitis is
vertebrae
inflammation of the ________________. Scoli/o means
twisted
______________, and when combined with the suffix -osis, which
condition or increase
means __________________, it forms the word scoliosis, which
refers to a condition of having a twisted spine. The combining
lord/o
form meaning bent is ___________, and a spine that is bent
forward is called lordosis. The condition of a humped back is
kyph/o
called kyphosis, from the combining form __________, meaning
humped-back. The lower back is the lumbar spine, from the
lumb/o
combining form ____________. Lumbodynia refers to
pain, lower
_________ in the ___________ back.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
sternum
4.6
The breastbone is also called the _____________, from
the combining form stern/o. Most of the ribs connect to the
breastbone in the front of the body. The combining form cost/o
means rib. The sternocostal area, therefore, is where the
sternum or breastbone, ribs
_________________ is connected to the _________.
chest
4.7
thorac/o
formed from the combining form _____________, which means
-ic
chest, and the adjective-forming suffix ______.
4.8
Thoracic is the adjective referring to the ____________,
Below the ribs and spine are the bones of the
pelvis
___________, from the combining form pelv/i. A pelviscope is
pelvis
used to examine the interior of the ____________. Pelvimetry is
measurement
the ____________________ of the diameters of the pelvis.
4.9
femor/o
Below the pelvis is the longest bone in the body, the
femur. The combining form for this term is ____________. The
femur joins the tibia at the knee joint, where a small bone called
the kneecap covers the joint. The medical term for the kneecap
patell/o
is patella, from the combining form _____________.
4.10 The two bones of the forearm are the radius and the
ulna, radi/o
________, from the combining forms ___________ and uln/o.
radius
Radioulnar is an adjective referring to both the _____________
and the ulna.
digit
4.11 The combining form dactyl/o refers to __________ (either
pain
a finger or a toe). Dactylalgia therefore means __________ of the
fingers or toes.
brachi/o
4.12 The combining form for arm is _____________. The
arm
brachial artery, for example, runs through the ________.
4.13 A joint is where two or more bones join together. This
is also called an articulation, from the combining form
articul/o
______________. Another combining term for joint is
arthr/o
____________, which is used to form the term arthritis, meaning
inflammation
_____________________ of a joint.
4.14 Ankyl/o is a combining form meaning crooked or
stiff
__________. Ankylosis therefore is a stiffened joint.
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ANSWERS
151
REVIEW
4.15 Cartilage is a gristle-like substance that covers bones
where they articulate at joints. Chondroma is a tumor that arises
chondr/o
from cartilage, the combining form for which is _____________.
4.16 Muscle fibers have the ability to contract, allowing them
to move bones and, thus, body parts. The combining form for
fibr/o
fiber is __________, and a common adjective form is fibrous.
Muscles are composed of either smooth (lei/o) or striated
smooth
(rhabd/o) muscle tissues. A leiomyoma is a tumor of ____________
tumor, striated
muscle. A rhabdomyoma is a ____________ of ______________
(skeletal) muscle.
ton/o
4.17 The combining form for tone is __________. Therefore,
muscle tone
myotonia refers to a condition of _____________ __________.
4.18 A tendon connects muscle to bone. Three combining
tend/o
forms for tendon are ten/o, __________, and tendin/o. Tendinitis is
inflammation
___________________ of a tendon.
4.19 Fascia is a band or sheet of fibrous tissue that encloses
muscles or groups of muscles. It comes from the combining
fasci/o
form ___________.
flesh
4.20 Sarc/o means ___________ or a muscular substance. A
tumor
sarcoma, for example, is a fleshy ____________.
Self-Instruction: Anatomic Terms Related to Bones
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
appendicular skeleton
apen-dikyū-lăr skelĕ-tŏn
bones of the shoulder, pelvis, and upper and lower extremities
axial skeleton
aksē-ăl skelĕ-tŏn
bones of the skull, vertebral column (Fig. 4-3), chest, and
hyoid bone (U-shaped bone at the base of the tongue)
bone
bōn
specialized connective tissue composed of osteocytes (bone
cells); forms the skeleton
TYPES OF BONE TISSUE
compact bone
kompakt bōn
tightly solid bone tissue that forms the exterior of bones
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C1
C2
C3
C4
C5
C6
C7
Cervical
C1–C7
T1
T2
T3
T4
T5
T6
Thoracic
T1–T12
T7
T8
T9
T10
T11
T12
L1
L2
Lumbar
L1–L5
L3
L4
L5
Sacrum
(5 fused
pieces)
Coccyx
(3–4 fused
pieces)
FIGURE 4-3 ■
The vertebrae.
TERM
MEANING
spongy bone
spŏnjē bōn
cancellous bone
kansĕ-lŭs bōn
mesh-like bone tissue found in the interior of bones, and
surrounding the medullary cavity
CLASSIFICATION OF BONES
long bones
long bōnz
bones of the arms and legs
short bones
short bōnz
bones of the wrist and ankles
flat bones
flat bōnz
bones of the ribs, shoulder blades, pelvis, and skull
irregular bones
ir-regyū-lăr bōnz
bones of the vertebrae and face
sesamoid bones
sesă-moyd bōnz
round bones found near joints (e.g., the patella)
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Articular
cartilage
Epiphysis
Epiphyseal line
Compact bone
Diaphysis
Medullary cavity
containing marrow
Cancellous
(spongy) bone
Epiphysis
FIGURE 4-4 ■
TERM
Parts of a long bone.
MEANING
PARTS OF A LONG BONE (Fig. 4-4)
epiphysis
e-pifi-sis
wide ends of a long bone ( physis growth)
diaphysis
dı̄-af i-sis
shaft of a long bone
metaphysis
mĕ-tafi-sis
growth zone between the epiphysis and the diaphysis during
development of a long bone
endosteum
en-dostē-ŭm
membrane lining the medullary cavity of a bone
medullary cavity
medŭl-ār-ē kavi-tē
cavity within the shaft of the long bones; filled with bone
marrow
bone marrow
bōn marō
soft connective tissue within the medullary cavity of bones
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TERM
MEANING
red bone marrow
rĕd bōn marō
functions to form red blood cells, some white blood cells,
and platelets; found in the cavities of most bones in infants
and in the flat bones in adults
yellow bone marrow
yelō bōn marō
gradually replaces red bone marrow in adult bones; functions
as storage for fat tissue and is inactive in the formation of
blood cells
periosteum
per-ē-ost ē-ŭm
a fibrous, vascular membrane that covers the bone
articular cartilage
ar-tikyu-lăr karti-lij
a gristle-like substance on bones where they articulate
Programmed Review: Anatomic Terms Related to Bones
ANSWERS
REVIEW
4.21 The skeleton as a whole is divided into the appendicular
axial, appendicular
skeleton and the __________ skeleton. The ___________________
skeleton includes the shoulders and arms and the pelvis and legs. The
skull
axial skeleton includes the spine, chest, and ___________.
osteo
4.22 Bone cells, or ________cytes, form the skeleton. The tightly
solid bone tissue that forms the exterior of bones is called
compact, Cancellous
_____________ bone. __________________ bone is the spongy,
mesh-like bone tissue found in the interior of bones, and surrounding
the medullary cavity.
arms, legs
4.23 Long bones are found in the _________ and _________.
Short
____________ bones are found in the wrists and ankles. The ribs,
flat
shoulder blades, and pelvis are _________ bones. Bones of the
vertebrae and face are called irregular bones. Sesamoid bones are
round
____________ bones (e.g., the patella) near joints.
4.24 Long bones have several parts. Several of these parts are named
with terms from the root physis (growth), referring to how the bones
end
grow. The epiphysis is the wide ________ of a long bone. The
dia, physis
______physis is the shaft. The meta__________ is the growth zone
between the epiphysis and the diaphysis.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
within
4.25 The prefix endo- means ______________. The endosteum is a
bone
membrane lining the medullary cavity within a _________. Inside the
marrow, Red
medullary cavity is bone ______________. ________ bone marrow
marrow
makesred blood cells, whereas yellow bone _______________ stores
fat
_______ tissue. The membrane that covers a bone is called the
periosteum
_________________, from the combining term for bone (oste/o) and the
around
prefix peri-, meaning ______________.
4.26 The kind of cartilage that is found where bones articulate is
articular
called _______________ cartilage.
Self-Instruction: Anatomic Terms Related to Joints and Muscles
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
articulation (Fig. 4-5)
artik-yū-lāshŭn
a joint; the point where two bones come together
bursa
bŭrsă
a fibrous sac between certain tendons and bones that is lined with a
synovial membrane that secretes synovial fluid
Bursa
Joint cavity filled
with synovial fluid
Extracapsular
ligament
Intracapsular
ligament
Joint capsule
Fat pad
Meniscus
FIGURE 4-5 ■
Lateral view of the knee joint.
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Lateral view
Spinal cord in neural canal
L3
Spinous
process
L4
Transverse
process
Nucleus
pulposus
Intervertebral
disk (disc)
L5
Laminae
FIGURE 4-6 ■
Lateral view of the lower lumbar vertebrae.
TERM
MEANING
disk or disc (Fig. 4-6)
disk
a flat, plate-like structure composed of fibrocartilaginous tissue
between the vertebrae that reduces friction
nucleus pulposus
nūklē-ŭs pōl-pōsŭs
the soft, fibrocartilaginous, central portion of intervertebral disk
ligament
ligă-mĕnt
a flexible band of fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone
synovial membrane
si-nōvē-ăl membrān
membrane lining the capsule of a joint
synovial fluid
si-nōvē-ăl fl ūid
joint-lubricating fluid secreted by the synovial membrane
muscle
mŭsĕl
tissue composed of fibers that can contract, causing movement of
an organ or part of the body
striated muscle
strı̄āt-ĕd mŭsĕl
skeletal muscle
skele-tăl mŭsĕl
voluntary muscle attached to the skeleton
smooth muscle
smūth mŭsĕl
involuntary muscle found in internal organs
cardiac muscle
kardē-ak mŭsĕl
muscle of the heart
origin of a muscle
ōri-jin of a mŭsĕl
muscle end attached to the bone that does not move when the
muscle contracts
insertion of a muscle
in-sĕrshŭn of a mŭsĕl
muscle end attached to the bone that moves when the muscle
contracts
tendon
tendŏn
a band of fibrous tissue that connects muscle to bone
fascia
fashē-ă
a band or sheet of fibrous connective tissue that covers, supports,
and separates muscle
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Programmed Review: Anatomic Terms Related to
Joints and Muscles
ANSWERS
REVIEW
Muscle
4.27 ____________ tissue can contract, causing movement of an
organ or body part. There are three types of muscle tissue.
Smooth
____________ muscle is found in internal organs and is also called
involuntary muscle, because you cannot will it to contract. Cardiac
muscle, heart
___________ is an involuntary muscle found only in the ___________.
striated
Skeletal muscle, or _____________ muscle, is under voluntary control.
4.28 Skeletal muscle is attached to bone at both ends of the muscle.
The end attached to the bone that does not move when the muscle
origin
contracts is called the ___________ of the muscle. The other end,
which is attached to the bone and that moves with contraction, is
insertion
called the ______________ of the muscle. Muscles are connected to
tendons
bones by ____________. The band or sheet of fibrous tissue that covers
fascia
muscles is called ____________.
4.29 The point where two muscles come together is called a joint
articulation
or an ___________________. A fibrous band that connects bone
ligament
to bone is a _______________. The joint capsule is lined with a
synovial
______________ membrane, which secretes a lubricating fluid called
fluid
synovial ___________.
4.30 The fibrous sac between certain tendons and bones is a
bursa
___________; an inflammation of this tissue is called bursitis. The
inflammation
suffix -itis means ____________________.
4.31 The flat, plate-like structures between the vertebrae are called
disks, discs
____________, which sometimes is also spelled ____________. The
pulposus
nucleus ______________ is a soft fibrocartilaginous tissue in the center
of intervertebral disks.
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Self-Instruction: Anatomic Position and Terms of Reference
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
anatomic or
anatomical position
an-ah-tŏmik or
an-ah-tŏmik-ăl
pō-zı̆shŭn
a term of reference that health professionals use when noting body
planes, positions, or directions: the person is assumed to be standing
upright (erect), facing forward, feet pointed forward and slightly
apart, with arms at the sides and palms facing forward; the patient is
visualized in this pose when applying any other term of reference
body planes (Fig. 4-7)
bodē plānz
reference planes for indicating the location or direction of body parts
BODY PLANES
coronal plane
kōrŏ-năl plān
frontal plane
frŏntăl plān
vertical division of the body into front (anterior) and back (posterior)
portions
sagittal plane
saji-tăl plān
vertical division of the body into right and left portions
transverse plane
trans-vĕrs plān
horizontal division of the body into upper and lower portions
DIRECTIONAL TERMS
anterior (A)
an-tērē-ŏr
ventral
ventrăl
front of the body
Superior
(cephalic)
Anterior
(ventral)
Lateral
Posterior
(dorsal)
Medial
Inferior
(caudal)
Sagittal plane
FIGURE 4-7 ■
Coronal or frontal plane
Anatomic position with body planes.
Transverse plane
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159
TERM
MEANING
posterior (P)
pos-tēr ē-ŏr
dorsal
dōrsăl
back of the body
anterior-posterior
(AP)
from front to back, as in reference to the direction of an x-ray
beam
posterior-anterior
(PA)
from back to front, as in reference to the direction of an x-ray
beam
superior
sū-pērē-ŏr
cephalic
se-falik
situated above another structure, toward the head
inferior
in-fēr ē-ŏr
caudal
kawdăl
situated below another structure, away from the head
proximal
proksi-măl
toward the beginning or origin of a structure; for example, the
proximal aspect of the femur (thigh bone) is the area closest to where
it attaches to the hip
distal
distăl
away from the beginning or origin of a structure; for example, the
distal aspect of the femur (thigh bone) is the area at the end of the
bone near the knee
medial
mēdē-ăl
toward the middle (midline)
lateral
later-ăl
toward the side
axis
aksis
the imaginary line that runs through the center of the body or a body
part
BODY POSITIONS
erect
ē-rĕkt
normal standing position
decubitus
dē-kyūbi-t ŭs
lying down, especially in a bed; lateral decubitus is lying on the side
(decumbo to lie down)
prone
prōn
lying face down and flat
recumbent
rē-kŭmbĕnt
lying down
supine (Fig. 4-8)
sū-pı̄n
horizontal recumbent; lying flat on the back (“on the spine”)
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FIGURE 4-8 ■ Supine (horizontal recumbent) position.
Patient lies on back with the legs extended.
TERM
MEANING
BODY MOVEMENTS (Fig. 4-9)
flexion
flekshŭn
bending at the joint so that the angle between the bones is decreased
Flexion
Extension
Abduction
Adduction
Additional movements of the feet
Rotation
Additional movements
of the hands and arm
Eversion
Inversion
Pronation Supination
Additional movements of the feet
Dorsiflexion
Plantar flexion
FIGURE 4-9 ■
Body movements.
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TERM
MEANING
extension
eks-tenshŭn
straightening at the joint so that the angle between the bones is
increased
abduction
ab-dŭkshŭn
movement away from the body
adduction
ă-dŭkshŭn
movement toward the body
rotation
rō-tāshŭn
circular movement around an axis
eversion
ē-verzhŭn
turning outward, i.e., of a foot
inversion
in-vĕrzhŭn
turning inward, i.e., of a foot
supination
sūpi-nāshŭn
turning of the palmar surface (palm of the hand) or plantar surface
(sole of the foot) upward or forward
pronation
prō-nāshŭn
turning of the palmar surface (palm of the hand) or plantar surface
(sole of the foot) downward or backward
dorsiflexion
dōr-si-flekshŭn
bending of the foot or the toes upward
plantar flexion
plantăr flekshŭn
bending of the sole of the foot by curling the toes toward the ground
range of motion
(ROM)
rānj of mōshŭn
total motion possible in a joint, described by the terms related to
body movements (i.e., ability to flex, extend, abduct, or adduct);
measured in degrees
goniometer
(Fig. 4-10)
gō-n ē-omĕ-t ĕr
instrument used to measure joint angles ( gonio angle)
FIGURE 4-10 ■
digital motion.
Dorsal placement of goniometer used when measuring
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Programmed Review: Anatomic Position and Terms of Reference
ANSWERS
REVIEW
4.32 Health professionals describe body part locations relative to
anatomic
the _______________ position, in which one is standing upright, or
erect, forward
__________, and is facing ______________, with the feet pointed
sides
forward and slightly apart, the arms at the _________, and the palms
forward
facing ______________.
planes
4.33 Body ___________ help one to understand directional and
positional terms. The body is vertically divided into front (anterior)
coronal
and back (posterior) portions by the _____________, or frontal, plane.
sagittal
The _____________ plane divides the body vertically into right and
left portions. The transverse plane divides the body
horizontally
__________________ into upper and lower portions.
before
4.34 Recall that the prefix ante- means ___________ and the prefix
after
post- means __________. Using these word parts, the front of the body
anterior
is _______________ (also called ventral), and the back of the body is
posterior
________________ (also called dorsal).
4.35 The direction of an x-ray beam from front to back is
anterior-posterior
designated ______________-_______________, whereas the direction
posterior-anterior
from back to front is designated ______________-_______________.
superior
4.36 The head is ________________ to, or above, the shoulders,
inferior
whereas the feet are _______________ to, or below, the knees.
closest
4.37 The proximal aspect of a structure is the area ___________ to
distal
its origin or attachment. The __________ aspect of a structure is the
proximal
area away from its origin or attachment. The ______________ aspect
of the femur (thigh bone) is the area closest to where it attaches to
the hip. The distal aspect of the femur (thigh bone) is the area at the
end
_______ of the bone near the knee.
medial
4.38 Toward the middle or midline is called _____________, whereas
side
lateral means toward the _________.
4.39 An imaginary line that runs through the center of the body or
axis
a body part is called an ________. For example, you can rotate your
wrist on its axis.
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163
ANSWERS
REVIEW
erect
4.40 The normal standing position is _________ (as in the anatomic
position). Several terms describe different ways the body lies down.
recumbent
The general term for lying down is ________________. Lying down,
decubitus
especially in bed, is called _______________. A patient lying on one
lateral
side in bed is in a ____________ decubitus position. Prone means
face, supine
lying ________ down and flat, and ____________ means lying face up,
flat on the back.
4.41 Many different terms are used to describe body movements at
decreases
joints. Flexing a joint (flexion) ______________ the angle between the
bones; the opposite movement (increasing the angle) is
extension, away
_______________. Movement _________ from the body is called
away from
abduction (the prefix ab- means _________ ________); the opposite
adduction
movement is called _________________ (the prefix ad- means
toward
_____________).
rotation
4.42 A circular movement around an axis is called ______________.
For example, you can rotate your feet inward and outward. The term
for inward rotation is inversion; the term for outward rotation begins
eversion
with the prefix e- (out or away): ______________.
4.43 Turning the palm of the hand upward or forward is called
supination, pronation
________________; the opposite movement is called ______________.
Note the relationship of these terms to the terms for the body lying
supine or prone.
dorsiflexion
4.44 The foot and toes bend upward in _________________ and
plantar flexion
downward in _____________ ______________.
range
4.45 The total amount of motion in a joint is called its __________
of motion. In certain musculoskeletal conditions, the range of motion
may decrease. The instrument used to measure a joint angle is a
goniometer
__________________.
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Self-Instruction: Symptomatic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
arthralgia
ar-thraljē-ă
joint pain
atrophy
at rō-f ē
shrinking of muscle size
crepitation
krep-i-tāshŭn
crepitus
krepi-tŭs
grating sound sometimes made by the movement of a joint or
broken bones
exostosis
eks-os-tōsis
a projection arising from a bone that develops from cartilage
flaccid
flası̆d
flabby, relaxed, or having defective or absent muscle tone
hypertrophy
hı̄-pĕrtrō-f ē
increase in the size of tissue, such as muscle
hypotonia
hı̄pō-tōnē-ă
reduced muscle tone or tension
myalgia
mı̄-aljē-ă
myodynia
mı̄ō-dinē-ă
muscle pain
ostealgia
os-tē-aljē-ă
osteodynia
os-tē-ō-dinē-ă
bone pain
rigor
rigŏr
rigidity
ri-jidi-tē
stiffness; stiff muscle
spasm
spazm
drawing in; involuntary contraction of muscle
spastic
spastik
uncontrolled contractions of skeletal muscles, causing stiff and
awkward movements (resembles spasm)
tetany
tetă-nē
tension; prolonged, continuous muscle contraction
tremor
tremŏr
shaking; rhythmic muscular movement
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Programmed Review: Symptomatic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
4.46 Broken bones rubbing together may produce a grating sound,
crepitation
which is called crepitus or __________________. This sound may also
occur in a joint.
outside
4.47 Recall that the prefix exo- means ____________. A term for a
exostosis
cartilage projection growing outside a bone is _______________.
-algia
4.48 Two suffixes for pain are -dynia and _________. Using the
combining form for bone, two terms for bone pain are
osteodynia, ostealgia
________________ and ______________. Two similarly formed terms
myodynia, myalgia
for muscle pain are _______________ and ______________. Using the
arthralgia
combining form arthr/o, the term for joint pain is ________________.
above or excessive
4.49 The prefix hyper- means _______________. Hypertrophy refers
increased
to ________________ muscle size. Shrinking muscle size is called
atrophy
______________.
deficient
4.50 The prefix hypo- means below or ______________. A condition
hypotonia
of reduced muscle tension or tone is called ________________. In
flaccid
such a case, the muscle can be said to be flabby or ____________.
rhythmic
4.51 Tremor, from the Latin word for shaking, is a _____________
muscular movement. This may result from certain neurologic
conditions.
rigor
4.52 A stiff muscle is called __________ or rigidity.
spasm
4.53 An involuntary contraction of a muscle is called a ___________.
A prolonged, continuous muscle contraction is a condition called
tetany, condition
____________. Recall that the suffix -y means a _______________ or
process.
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
ankylosis
angki-lōsis
stiff joint condition
arthritis
ar-thrı̄tis
inflammation of the joints characterized by pain, swelling,
redness, warmth, and limitation of motion; there are more than
100 different types of arthritis
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Normal hip
Spine
Hip with mild arthritis
Cartilage
Shoulder
Hip
Hip with moderate arthritis
Hip with severe arthritis
Knee
FIGURE 4-11 ■
affects the hip.
Osteoarthritis. A. Common sites of osteoarthritis. B. How osteoarthritis
TERM
MEANING
osteoarthritis
(OA) (Fig. 4-11)
ost ē-ō-ar-thrı̄tis
degenerative arthritis
d ē-jenĕr-ă-tiv ar-thrı̄tis
degenerative joint
disease (DJD)
dē-jenĕr-ă-tiv joynt di-zēz
most common form of arthritis, especially affecting the
weight-bearing joints (e.g., knee or hip), characterized by the
erosion of articular cartilage
rheumatoid arthritis
(RA) (Fig. 4-12)
r ūm ă-toyd ar-thrı̄tis
most crippling form of arthritis; characterized by chronic,
systemic inflammation, most often affecting joints and synovial
membranes (especially in the hands and feet) and causing
ankylosis and deformity
gouty arthritis
gowt ē ar-thrı̄tis
acute attacks of arthritis, usually in a single joint (especially the
great toe), caused by hyperuricemia (an excessive level of uric
acid in the blood)
bony necrosis
bōnē n ĕ-krōsis
sequestrum
s ē-kwestrŭm
bone tissue that has died from loss of blood supply, such as
can occur after a fracture (sequestrum something laid aside)
bunion
bŭnyŭn
swelling of the joint at the base of the great toe caused by
inflammation of the bursa
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CHAPTER 4 • MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
Cartilage
Synovial membrane
Bone atrophy
FIGURE 4-12 ■ Joints of the hand affected by rheumatoid arthritis. A. Radiograph of a
normal hand. B. Radiograph of a hand with rheumatoid arthritis.
TERM
MEANING
bursitis
ber-sı̄tis
inflammation of a bursa
chondromalacia
kondrō-m ă-l āsh ē-ă
softening of cartilage
epiphysitis
e-pif-i-sı̄tis
inflammation of the epiphyseal regions of the long bone
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TERM
MEANING
fracture (Fx) (Fig. 4-13)
frakchūr
broken or cracked bone
closed fracture
klōsd frakchūr
broken bone with no open wound
open fracture
ōpen frakchūr
compound fracture; broken bone with an open wound
simple fracture
simpĕl frakchūr
nondisplaced fracture with one fracture line that does not
require extensive treatment to repair (e.g., hairline fracture,
stress fracture, or a crack)
complex fracture
kompleks frakchūr
displaced fracture that requires manipulation or surgery to repair
fracture line
frakchūr lı̄n
the line of the break in a broken bone (e.g., oblique, spiral,
or transverse)
comminuted fracture
komi-nyū-t ĕd frakchūr
broken in many small pieces
greenstick fracture
grēnstik frakchūr
bending and incomplete break of a bone; most often seen
in children
herniated disk
h ĕrn ē-ā-t ĕd disk
protrusion of a degenerated or fragmented intervertebral disk
so that the nucleus pulposus protrudes, causing compression
on the nerve root (see Chapter 8, Fig. 8-8)
myeloma
mı̄-ĕ-lōmă
bone marrow tumor
myositis
mı̄-ō-sı̄tis
inflammation of muscle
myoma
mı̄-ōmă
muscle tumor
leiomyoma
lı̄ō-mı̄-ōmă
smooth muscle tumor
leiomyosarcoma
lı̄ō-mı̄ō-sar-k ōmă
malignant smooth muscle tumor
rhabdomyoma
rabdō-mı̄-ōmă
skeletal muscle tumor
rhabdomyosarcoma
rabdō-mı̄ō-sar-kōmă
malignant skeletal muscle tumor
muscular dystrophy
mŭsky ū-l ăr distrō-f ē
a category of genetically transmitted diseases characterized by
progressive atrophy of skeletal muscles; Duchenne type is most
common
osteoma
os-tē-ōmă
bone tumor
osteosarcoma
ost ē-ō-sar-kōmă
type of malignant bone tumor
osteomalacia
ost ē-ō-m ă-lāshē-ă
disease marked by softening of the bone caused by calcium
and vitamin D deficiency
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A
B
Comminuted
Greenstick
Spiral
Oblique
169
Transverse
C
FIGURE 4-13 ■ A. Types of common fractures. B. Anterior-posterior radiograph of a lower leg demonstrating open fractures of the tibia and fibula (arrows). C. Lateral-view radiograph demonstrating a closed
spiral fracture of the tibia (arrows).
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TERM
MEANING
rickets
rikets
osteomalacia in children; causes bone deformity
osteomyelitis
ost ē-ō-mı̄-ĕ-lı̄tis
infection of bone and bone marrow, causing inflammation
osteoporosis (Fig. 4-14)
ost ē-ō-pō-rōsis
condition of decreased bone density and increased porosity,
causing bones to become brittle and to fracture more easily
( porosis passage)
spinal curvatures
(Fig. 4-15)
spı̄năl kervă-ch ūrz
curvatures of the spine (backbone) or spinal column (vertebral
column)
kyphosis
kı̄-f ōsis
abnormal posterior curvature of the thoracic spine
(humped-back condition)
Normal bone
Osteoporotic bone
Normal spine in premenopausal
woman
FIGURE 4-14 ■
Osteoporosis.
Spine compression and loss
of height due to osteoporosis in
postmenopausal woman
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Normal
FIGURE 4-15 ■
Kyphosis
Lordosis
Scoliosis
Spinal curvatures.
TERM
MEANING
lordosis
lōr-dōsis
abnormal anterior curvature of the lumbar spine (sway-back
condition)
scoliosis (Fig 4-16)
skō-l ē-ōsis
abnormal lateral curvature of the spine (S-shaped curve)
spondylolisthesis
(Fig. 4-17)
spondi-lō-lis-thēsis
forward slipping of a lumbar vertebra (listhesis slipping)
spondylosis
spon-di-lōsis
stiff, immobile condition of vertebrae caused by joint
degeneration
sprain
sprān
injury to a ligament caused by joint trauma but without joint
dislocation or fracture
subluxation
sŭb-lŭk-sāshŭn
partial dislocation (luxation dislocation)
tendinitis or tendonitis
ten-di-nı̄tis or ten-dŏ-nı̄tis
inflammation of a tendon
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FIGURE 4-16 ■ Anterior-posterior thoracic spine
radiograph demonstrating scoliosis.
L3
Defect
Anterior
displacement
of L5 vertebra
L4
5
Sacral
canal
L5
S1
S2
S3
Dotted line follows posterior vertebral
margins of L5 and the sacrum
A
B
FIGURE 4-17 ■ Spondylolisthesis. A. Drawing illustrates forward slipping of L5 vertebra. B. X-ray
showing displacement.
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173
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
4.54 Formed from the combining form for stiff and the suffix -osis,
condition or increase
meaning ________________, a stiff joint condition is called
ankylosis
________________.
4.55 Formed from the combining form for joint and the suffix -itis,
inflammation
meaning __________________, the term for inflammation of joints
arthritis
characterized by pain and swelling is _______________. The most
common form of arthritis, which is formed using the combining
osteoarthritis
form for bone, is _____________________. This is also called
joint
degenerative arthritis or degenerative ____________ disease. The
most crippling type of arthritis, which is characterized by chronic
rheumatoid, Gouty
systemic inflammation, is __________________ arthritis. __________
arthritis attacks a single joint (e.g., the great toe) because of too
hyper
much uric acid in the blood, or _________uricemia.
-itis
4.56 Recall that the suffix ________ refers to inflammation. Bursitis
bursa
is inflammation of a __________. Inflammation of the epiphyseal
epiphysitis
regions of a long bone is called _________________. Myositis is
muscle
inflammation of a _____________. Inflammation of a tendon is called
tendonitis or tendinitis
__________________. Osteomyelitis is an infection and inflammation
bone marrow
of bone and ________ ______________.
swelling
4.57 A bunion is a ______________ at the joint at the base of the
great toe caused by inflammation of the bursa.
death
4.58 The combining form necr/o means __________, and the suffix
condition, increase
-osis means ________________ or ______________. The term for the
condition or increase of dead bone tissue caused by a loss of blood
necrosis, sequestrum
supply is bony ____________, which is also called __________________.
chrondr/o
4.59 Recall that the combining form for cartilage is ______________.
cartilage
The term chondromalacia refers to a softening of ________________.
fracture
4.60 A broken bone, or ______________, can happen in various
closed
ways. The skin is not broken in a ____________ fracture, whereas there
open
is an open wound with an _________ fracture. If the fracture has only
one fracture line and the bones are not displaced, this is a
simple
_____________ fracture, whereas a displaced fracture that requires
manipulation to put the bone pieces in correct position is a
complex, Fx
______________ fracture. The abbreviation for fracture is ______.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
4.61 A fracture involving a bone that is broken in many small pieces
comminuted
is a ________________ fracture. An incomplete fracture, which usually
is seen in children and is named for how a living tree branch may
greenstick
break when you bend it, is a ________________ fracture.
4.62 A degenerated or fragmented intervertebral disk that protrudes
herniated
and compresses a nerve is called a _______________ disk.
tumor
4.63 Recall that the suffix -oma means ___________. Using the
combining forms for muscle and bone, a muscle tumor is a
myoma, osteoma
_____________, and a bone tumor is an ________________. A
bone marrow
myeloma is a tumor of the _________ _____________. An
malignant
osteosarcoma is a type of ________________ bone tumor.
4.64 There are several types of muscle tumors. The suffix -oma
refers to any tumor, but a sarcoma is a malignant tumor. Recall the
meanings of the combining forms lei/o and rhabd/o. A smooth muscle
leiomyoma
tumor is a __________________, whereas a skeletal muscle tumor is a
rhabdomyoma
____________________. A malignant smooth muscle tumor is a
leiomyosarcoma, and a malignant skeletal muscle tumor is a
rhabdomyosarcoma
_________________________.
dystrophy
4.65 Muscular _______________ is a group of diseases that are
characterized by progressive atrophy of skeletal muscles. Recall that
shrinking
atrophy means _________________ of muscle size, and the prefix
painful or faulty
dys- means ________________.
4.66 Recall that chondromalacia means softening of cartilage. The
osteomalacia
term for softening of bone is ___________________. This is caused by
a deficiency of calcium and vitamin D. In children, this is called
rickets
_____________.
condition or increase
4.67 The suffix -osis means ________________. The condition in
which bones become less dense and more porous is called
osteoporosis
____________________.
4.68 Joints can be injured by trauma in various ways. If the bones
are partially dislocated from their usual position in a joint, this is
subluxation
called ___________________. An injury to a ligament without a
sprain
dislocation or fracture is called a ____________.
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ANSWERS
175
REVIEW
4.69 Several abnormal spinal curvatures are common. Kyphosis is
posterior
an abnormal _______________ curvature of the thoracic region. From
the combining form meaning bent, an abnormal anterior curvature
lordosis
of the lumbar region is called ______________. From the combining
form meaning twisted, an abnormal lateral curvature is called
scoliosis
_________________.
vertebra
4.70 Recall that spondyl/o is the combining form for _____________.
The term for a stiff, immobile condition of the vertebrae is
spondylosis
___________________. The term for forward slipping of lumbar
spondylolisthesis
vertebra is _________________________.
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
Study the following:
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
electromyogram (EMG)
ē-lek-trō-mı̄ō-gram
a neurodiagnostic, graphic record of the electrical activity of
muscle both at rest and during contraction; used to diagnose
neuromusculoskeletal disorders (e.g., muscular dystrophy);
usually performed by a neurologist
magnetic resonance
imaging (MRI)
mag-netik rezō-nănts imă-jing
a nonionizing (no x-ray) imaging technique using magnetic
fields and radiofrequency waves to visualize anatomic
structures; useful in orthopedic studies to detect joint,
tendon, and vertebral disk disorders (see MRI of knee in
Chapter 2, Fig. 2-13)
nuclear medicine imaging
nūklē-ăr medi-sin imă-jing
radionuclide organ imaging
rādē-ō-nūklı̄d ōr găn imă-jing
an ionizing imaging technique using radioactive isotopes
bone scan
bōn skan
radiography
rād ē-ogră-f ē
arthrogram
arthrō-gram
a nuclear scan (radionuclide image) of bone tissue to detect
a tumor, malignancy, etc. (see Fig. 2-12B, whole body bone
scan)
an imaging modality using x-rays (ionizing radiation);
commonly used in orthopedics to visualize the extremities,
ribs, back, shoulders, and joints (see Fig. 2-10)
a radiograph of a joint taken after the injection of a contrast
medium
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FIGURE 4-18 ■ Three-dimensional computed
tomographic reconstruction of a skull showing
traumatic injury to facial bones suffered as the
result of a motor vehicle accident.
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
computed tomography
(CT) (Fig. 4-18)
kom-py ūt ĕd tō-mogră-f ē
computed axial
tomography (CAT)
kom-py ūt ĕd aksē-ăl
tō-mogră-f ē
a specialized x-ray procedure producing a series of crosssectional images that are processed by a computer into a
two-dimensional or three-dimensional image (see Fig. 2-11
for an explanation of the principles of CT technology)
sonography
sŏ-nogră-f ē
ultrasound imaging; a nonionizing technique that is useful
in orthopedics to visualize muscles, ligaments,
displacements, and dislocations or to guide a therapeutic
intervention, such as that performed during arthroscopy
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
ANSWERS
REVIEW
4.71 The combining form electr/o refers to electricity, and the
record
suffix -gram means a ______________. Join these word parts with the
combining form for muscle to create the word for the diagnostic
electromyogram
record of the electrical activity of a muscle: _______________________.
4.72 The imaging technique using magnetic fields and radiofrequency
magnetic
waves to visualize bone and joint structures is called ________________
resonance imaging
__________________ _____________ (MRI).
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
process
4.73 The suffix -graphy refers to the ____________ of
recording
________________. Radi/o is the combining term for radiation, from
177
the Latin word for ray. The general imaging modality that records
radiography
images produced by x-rays is called _________________. Recall that
record
the suffix -gram means a _____________. Using the combining form
for joint, an x-ray of a joint, usually taken using a contrast
arthrogram
medium, is an _________________.
4.74 A special imaging modality using an x-ray scanner and a
computed
computer to produce cross-sectional images is called ______________
tomography, axial
_________________ (CT). This is also called computed __________
tomography (CAT), because the scanner rotates around the axis of
the body to make the image.
4.75 The Latin word nucleus refers to a little nut, or the inside of a
thing. In modern physics, nucleus refers to the inside of an atom and
radiation using subatomic particles. Nuclear medicine imaging, also
radionuclide
called ____________________ organ imaging, is a diagnostic technique
bone scan
using radioactive isotopes instead of x-rays. A _________ _________ is
a nuclear scan of bone tissue to detect abnormalities.
4.76 The combining form meaning sound is son/o. The imaging
modality using high-frequency sound (ultrasound) is called
sonography
__________________.
Self-Instruction: Operative Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
amputation
am-pyū-tāshŭn
partial or complete removal of a limb (AKA above-knee
amputation; BKA below-knee amputation)
arthrocentesis
arthrō-sen-tēsis
puncture for aspiration of a joint
arthrodesis
ăr-thrō-dēsı̆s
binding or fusing of joint surfaces
arthroplasty
arthrō-plas-tē
repair or reconstruction of a joint
arthroscopy (Fig. 4-19)
ar-throskŏ-pē
procedure using an arthroscope to examine, diagnose, and repair a
joint from within
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Tiny incisions, known as
portals, are made for insertion
of arthroscope and other
instruments
Insertion of fiberoptic,
camera-equipped arthroscope
provides illumination and
magnified examination of
joint interior, which is also
projected on a video monitor
FIGURE 4-19
monitor.
■
Portal for insertion of a
cannula for flow of saline
solution to expand joint
space or rinse away
blood or debris
Operating portal for
insertion of specialized
instruments and motorized
equipment used to repair
structures and remove
damaged tissue
Arthroscopic knee surgery, showing projection of surgeon’s view on video
TERM
MEANING
bone grafting
bōn grafting
transplantation of a piece of bone from one site to another to
repair a skeletal defect
bursectomy
ber-sektō-mē
excision of a bursa
myoplasty
mı̄ō-plas-tē
repair of muscle
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FIGURE 4-20 ■ Radiograph taken after open reduction, internal fixation (ORIF) of right ankle (see Medical
Record 4-1).
TERM
MEANING
open reduction,
internal fixation
(ORIF) of a fracture
(Fig. 4-20)
ōpen rē-dukshŭn,
in-tĕr năl fik-sāshŭn of a
frakchūr
internal surgical repair of a fracture by bringing bones back into
alignment and fixing them in place with devices such as plates,
screws, and pins
osteoplasty
ostē-ō-plas-tē
repair of bone
osteotomy
os-tē-otŏ-mē
an incision into bone
spondylosyndesis
spondi-lō-sin-d ēsis
spinal fusion
tenotomy
te-notŏ-mē
division of a tendon by incision to repair a deformity caused by
shortening of a muscle
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Programmed Review: Operative Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
4.77 Several different operative procedures are performed on joints.
Often, the term for these procedures is formed using the combining
joint
form arthr/o, meaning ___________. Recall that the suffix -desis means
binding; the term for binding or fusing of joint surfaces is therefore
arthrodesis
__________________. The suffix meaning a puncture for aspiration
-centesis
is ______________; the term for puncture of a joint for aspiration is
arthrocentesis
therefore ___________________. The procedure using an instrument
arthroscopy
to examine a joint from within is called _________________. The
repair
suffix -plasty means surgical ____________ or reconstruction, and
arthroplasty
the repair or reconstruction of a joint is called __________________.
amputation
4.78 A partial or complete removal of a limb is an _______________.
4.79 Recall that the suffix -ectomy means a surgical
excision or removal
________________. The excision of a bursa is therefore called a
bursectomy
__________________.
4.80 Transplantation of a piece of bone from one site to another is
grafting
called bone _______________. This is done, for example, to repair a
skeletal defect.
-plasty
4.81 The suffix for surgical repair or reconstruction is __________.
myoplasty
The repair of a muscle is therefore called _______________. The repair
osteoplasty
of a bone is called _________________.
incision
4.82 The suffix -tomy refers to a surgical _______________. An
osteotomy
incision into bone is therefore called _________________, and an
tenotomy
incision into a tendon is called _________________.
binding
4.83 The suffix -desis means ______________ or fusing. From the
combining form for vertebrae, the term for surgical spinal fusion is
spondylosyndesis
_________________________.
4.84 Some fractures, particularly comminuted fractures, must be
surgically repaired by internal (open) surgery using devices such as
screws and pins to hold the bone fragments in place. This procedure
open reduction, internal
is called _________ _________________, ______________
fixation
________________ (ORIF).
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CHAPTER 4 • MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
FIGURE 4-21 ■
FIGURE 4-22
Short arm cast.
■
181
Finger splint.
Self-Instruction: Therapeutic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
closed reduction, external
fixation of a fracture
klōsd rē-dŭkshŭn, eks-tĕrnăl
fik-sāshŭn of a frakchūr
external manipulation of a fracture to regain alignment
along with application of an external device to protect and
hold the bone in place while healing
casting (Fig. 4-21)
kasting
use of a stiff, solid dressing around a limb or other body part
to immobilize it during healing
splinting (Fig. 4-22)
splinting
use of a rigid device to immobilize or restrain a broken bone
or injured body part; provides less support than a cast, but
can be adjusted more easily to accommodate swelling from
an injury
traction (Tx) (Fig. 4-23)
trakshŭn
application of a pulling force to a fractured bone or
dislocated joint to maintain proper position during healing
closed reduction,
percutaneous fixation of
a fracture (Fig. 4-24)
klōsd rē-d ŭkshŭn,
pĕr-ky ū-t ān ē-ŭs fik-sāshŭn of
a frakch ūr
external manipulation of a fracture to regain alignment,
followed by insertion of one or more pins through the skin
to maintain position; often includes use of an external
device called a fixator to keep the fracture immobilized
during healing
orthosis (Fig. 4-25)
ōr-thōsis
use of an orthopedic appliance to maintain a bone’s position
or to provide limb support (e.g., back, knee, or wrist brace)
physical therapy (PT)
fizi-kăl thāră-pē
treatment to rehabilitate patients disabled by illness or
injury; involves many different modalities (methods), such as
exercise, hydrotherapy, diathermy, and ultrasound
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FIGURE 4-23 ■
FIGURE 4-24 ■ Radiograph taken after
closed reduction, percutaneous fixation of an
open comminuted distal tibia/fibula fracture,
showing placement of an external fixator to
maintain pin placement during the healing
process. The injury was the result of a gun
shot to the lower extremity.
Cervical traction.
TERM
MEANING
prosthesis (Fig. 4-26)
prosthē-sis
an artificial replacement for a missing body part or a device
used to improve a body function, such as an artificial limb,
hip, or joint
COMMON THERAPEUTIC DRUG CLASSIFICATIONS
analgesic
an-ăl-jēzik
narcotic
nar-kotik
a drug that relieves pain
a potent analgesic with addictive properties
antiinflammatory
ant ē-in-flamă-tō-r ē
a drug that reduces inflammation
antipyretic
ant ē-pı̄-retik
a drug that relieves fever
nonsteroidal
antiinflammatory drug
(NSAID)
non-st ēr-oyd ăl
ant ē-in-flamă-tōr-ē drŭg
a group of drugs with analgesic, antiinflammatory, and
antipyretic properties (e.g., ibuprofen and aspirin)
commonly used to treat arthritis
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CHAPTER 4 • MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
FIGURE 4-25 ■
knee, and wrist.
Examples of orthoses: back,
FIGURE 4-26 ■ A. Prosthetist holding an above-the-knee prosthesis, with an array of prostheses on table in foreground. B. A prosthetic leg makes it possible for an above-the-knee amputee
to lead an active life.
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Programmed Review: Therapeutic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
4.85 Recall that some fractures require open reduction, internal
fixation (ORIF). Other fractures can be reduced (the bone pieces
brought into alignment) without surgery and held in place externally.
closed reduction, external
This procedure is called ___________ ______________, ______________
fixation
______________. If the fracture is reduced and one or more pins are
inserted through the skin (cutane/o) to maintain the bone position, this
percutaneous fixation
is called closed reduction, ___________________ ______________.
4.86 With closed reduction, external fixation, the fractured bone
must be held immobile. The use of a stiff, solid dressing around a
casting
limb to immobilize it during healing is called ___________. The use of
a rigid device to immobilize a limb with a fracture or injury that can be
splinting
adjusted to accommodate swelling is called ________________.
Sometimes, it is necessary to maintain a pulling force on a fractured
bone or dislocated joint for proper positioning during healing; this is
traction
called ________________.
4.87 The combining form orth/o means straight. An orthopedic
device used to maintain limb support or the position of bones is
orthosis
called an ________________.
4.88 Patients with musculoskeletal injuries or illnesses often receive
physical
rehabilitative therapy, called _____________ therapy (PT), that
combines exercise and other modalities.
prosthesis
4.89 An artificial limb is an example of a _______________.
without
4.90 The prefix an- means ______________. The Greek word algesis
means sensation of pain. A drug that relieves pain is an
analgesic
________________. The combining form narc/o means to benumb or
deaden; a type of potent, addictive analgesic drug is called a
narcotic
_______________.
4.91 Many drugs are named according to their action against a
against
condition or symptom. The prefix anti- means ____________. The
Greek word pyr means heat or fire, and a drug that relieves fever is an
antipyretic
_________________. A drug that reduces inflammation is an
antiinflammatory
________________________.
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CHAPTER 4 • MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
ANSWERS
185
REVIEW
4.92 There are several types of analgesic and antiinflammatory
drugs. The group that includes aspirin and ibuprofen is called
nonsteroidal antiinflammatory
________________ _______________________ drugs (NSAIDs).
CHAPTER 4 ACRONYMS AND ABBREVIATIONS
ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
A
anterior
AKA
above-knee amputation
AP
anterior-posterior
BKA
below-knee amputation
CAT
computed axial tomography
CT
computed tomography
DJD
degenerative joint disease
EMG
electromyogram
Fx
fracture
MRI
magnetic resonance imaging
NSAID
nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug
OA
osteoarthritis
ORIF
open reduction, internal fixation
P
posterior
PA
posterior-anterior
PT
physical therapy
RA
rheumatoid arthritis
ROM
range of motion
Tx
traction
CHAPTER 4 SUMMARY OF TERMS
The terms introduced in chapter 4 are listed below, followed by the page number on which each
term can be found and its written pronunciation. For additional practice and reinforcement, write
the definition of each term on a separate piece of paper.
abduction/161
ab-dŭkshŭn
analgesic/182
an-ăl-jēzik
adduction/161
ă-dukshŭn
anatomic or anatomical position/158
an-ăh-tomik or an-ăh-tomik-ăl pō-zı̄shŭn
amputation/177
am-pyū-tāshŭn
ankylosis/165
angki-lōsis
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anterior (A)/158
an-tērē- ŏr
bony necrosis/166
bōnē nĕ-krōsis
anterior-posterior (AP)/159
an-tērē-ŏr-pos-tērē- ŏr
bunion/166
bŭnyŭn
antiinflammatory/182
antē-in-flamă-tō-rē
bursa/155
bŭrsă
antipyretic/182
antē-pı̄-retik
bursectomy/178
ber-sektō-mē
appendicular skeleton/151
apen-dikyū-lăr skelĕ-tŏn
bursitis/167
ber-sı̄tis
arthralgia/164
ar-thraljē-ă
cancellous bone/152
kansĕ-lŭs bōn
arthritis/165
ar-thrı̄tis
cardiac muscle/156
kardē-ak mŭsĕl
arthrocentesis/177
arthrō-sen-tēsis
casting/181
kasting
arthrodesis/177
ăr-thrō-dēsı̆s
caudal/159
kawdăl
arthrogram/175
arthrō-gram
cephalic/159
se-falik
arthroplasty/177
arthrō-plas-tē
chondromalacia/167
kondrō-mă-lāshē-ă
arthroscopy/177
ar-throskŏ-pē
closed fracture/168
klōsd frakchūr
articular cartilage/154
ar-tikyū-lăr karti-lij
closed reduction, external fixation of a
fracture/181
klōsd rē-dŭkshŭn, eks-tĕrnăl fik-sāshŭn of a
frakchūr
articulation/155
artik-yū-lāshŭn
atrophy/164
atrō-fē
axial skeleton/151
aksē-ăl skelĕ-tŏn
axis/159
aksis
body planes/158
bodē plānz
bone/151
bōn
closed reduction, percutaneous fixation
of a fracture/181
klōsd rē-dŭkshŭn, per-kyū-tānē-ŭs fik-sāshŭn
of a frakchūr
comminuted fracture/168
komi-nyū-tĕd frak-chūr
compact bone/151
kompakt bōn
complex fracture/168
kompleks frakchūr
bone grafting/178
bōn grafting
computed axial tomography
(CAT)/176
kom-pyūtĕd aksē-ăl tō-mogră-f ē
bone marrow/153
bōn marō
computed tomography (CT)/176
kom-py ūted tō-mogră-f ē
bone scan/175
bōn skan
coronal plane/158
kōr ŏ-năl plān
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crepitation/164
krep-i-tāshŭn
fracture (Fx)/168
frakchūr
crepitus/164
krepi-tŭs
fracture line/168
frakchūr lı̄n
decubitus/159
dē-ky ūbi-tŭs
frontal plane/158
frŏntăl plān
degenerative arthritis/166
dē-jenĕr-ă-tiv ar-thrı̄tis
goniometer/161
gō-nē-omĕ-ter
degenerative joint disease (DJD)/166
dē-jenĕr-ă-tiv joynt di-zēz
gouty arthritis/166
gowtē ar-thrı̄tis
diaphysis/153
d ı̄-af i-sis
greenstick fracture/168
grēnstik frakchūr
disk or disc/156
disk
herniated disk/168
hĕrnē-ā-tĕd disk
distal/159
distăl
hypertrophy/164
hı̄-pĕrtrō-f ē
dorsal/159
dōrsăl
hypotonia/164
hı̄pō-tōnē-ă
dorsiflexion/161
dōr-si-flekshŭn
inferior/159
in-fērē-ŏr
electromyogram (EMG)/175
ē-lek-trō-mı̄ō-gram
insertion of a muscle/156
in-s ĕrshŭn of a mŭsĕl
endosteum/153
en-dost ē-ŭm
inversion/161
in-vĕrzhŭn
epiphysis/153
e-pif i-sis
irregular bones/152
ir-regyū-lăr bōnz
epiphysitis/167
e-pif-i-sı̄tis
kyphosis/170
kı̄-fōsis
erect/159
ĕ-r ĕkt
lateral/159
later-ăl
eversion/161
ē-verzhŭn
leiomyoma/168
lı̄ō-mı̄-ōmă
exostosis/164
eks-os-tōsis
leiomyosarcoma/168
lı̄ō-mı̄o-sar-kōmă
extension/161
eks-tenshŭn
ligament/156
ligă-m ĕnt
fascia/156
fashē-ă
long bones/152
long b ōnz
flaccid/164
flası̆d
lordosis/171
lōr-dōsis
flat bones/152
flat bōnz
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)/175
mag-netik rezō-nănts imă-jing
flexion/160
flekshŭn
medial/159
mēdē-ăl
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medullary cavity/153
medul-ăr-ē kavi-tē
osteodynia/164
os-tē-ō-dinē-ă
metaphysis/153
mĕ-taf i-sis
osteoma/168
ostē-ōmă
muscle/156
mŭsĕl
osteomalacia/168
ostē-ō-mă-lāshē-ă
muscular dystrophy/168
mŭsky ū-lăr distrō-f ē
osteomyelitis/170
ostē-ō-mı̄-ĕ-lı̄tis
myalgia/164
mı̄-alj ē-ă
osteoplasty/179
ostē-ō-plas-tē
myeloma/168
mı̄-ĕ-lōmă
osteoporosis/170
ostē-ō-pō-rōsis
myodynia/164
mı̄ō-dinē-ă
osteosarcoma/168
ostē-ō-sar-kōmă
myoma/168
mı̄-ōmă
osteotomy/179
os-tē-otō-mē
myoplasty/178
mı̄ō-plas-tē
periosteum/154
per-ē-ostē-ŭm
myositis/168
mı̄-ō-sı̄tis
physical therapy (PT)/181
fizi-kăl theră-pē
narcotic/182
nar-kotik
plantar flexion/161
plantăr f lekshŭn
nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug
(NSAID)/182
non-stēr-oydăl antē-in-flamă-tōr-ē drŭg
posterior (P)/159
pos-t ērē-ŏr
nuclear medicine imaging/175
nūklē-ăr medi-sin imă-jing
nucleus pulposus/156
nuklē-ŭs pŭl-pōsŭs
open fracture/168
ōpen frakchūr
open reduction, internal fixation (ORIF)
of a fracture/179
ōpen rē-dŭkshŭn, in-tĕrnăl fik-sāshŭn of a
frakchūr
posterior-anterior (PA)/159
pos-tērē-ŏr-an-t ēr ē-ŏr
pronation/161
prō-nāshŭn
prone/159
prōn
prosthesis/182
prosthē-sis
proximal/159
proksi-măl
origin of a muscle/156
ōri-jin of a mŭsĕl
radiography/175
rādē-ogră-fē
orthosis/181
ōr-th ōsis
radionuclide organ imaging/175
rādē-ō-nūklı̄d ōrgăn imă-jing
ostealgia/164
os-tē-aljē-ă
range of motion (ROM)/161
rānj of mōshŭn
osteoarthritis (OA)/166
ostē-ō-ar-thrı̄tis
recumbent/159
rē-kŭmbĕnt
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red bone marrow/154
red bōn marō
spondylolisthesis/171
spondi-lō-lis-thēsis
rhabdomyoma/168
rabdō-mı̄-ōmă
spondylosis/171
spon-di-lōsis
rhabdomyosarcoma/168
rabdō-mı̄ō-sar-kōmă
spondylosyndesis/179
spondi-lō-sin-dēsis
rheumatoid arthritis (RA)/166
rūmă-toyd ar-thrı̄tis
spongy bone/152
spŏnjē bōn
rickets/170
rikets
sprain/171
sprān
rigidity/164
ri-jidi-tē
striated muscle/156
strı̄ā-ted mŭsĕl
rigor/164
rigŏr
subluxation/171
sŭb-lŭk-sāshŭn
rotation/161
rō-tāshŭn
superior/159
sū-pērē-ŏr
sagittal plane/158
saji-tăl plān
supination/161
s ūpi-nāshŭn
scoliosis/171
skō-lē-ōsis
supine/159
sū-pı̄n
sequestrum/166
sē-kwestrŭm
synovial fluid/156
si-nōvē-ăl flūid
sesamoid bones/152
sesă-moyd bōnz
synovial membrane/156
si-nōvē-ăl membrān
short bones/152
short bōnz
tendinitis or tendonitis/171
ten-di-nı̄tis or ten-dŏ-nı̄tis
simple fracture/168
sı̆mpel frakchūr
tendon/156
tendŏn
skeletal muscle/156
skele-t ăl mŭsĕl
tenotomy/179
te-notō-mē
smooth muscle/156
smūth mŭsĕl
tetany/164
tetă-nē
sonography/176
sŏ-nogră-f ı̆
traction (Tx)/181
trakshŭn
spasm/164
spazm
transverse plane/158
trans-vĕrs plān
spastic/164
spastik
tremor/164
tremŏr
spinal curvatures/170
spı̄năl kervă-chūrz
ventral/158
ventrăl
splinting/181
splinting
yellow bone marrow/154
yelō bōn marō
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PRACTICE EXERCISES
For each of the following words, write out the term components (prefixes [P],
combining forms [CF], roots [R], and suffixes [S]) on the lines below the word. Then
define the term according to the meaning of its components.
EXAMPLE:
hypertrophy
hyper / _____/
troph __
y
_____
P
R
S
DEFINITION: above or excessive/nourishment or development/condition or process of
1. hemipelvectomy
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
2. thoracic
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
3. myofascial
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
4. arthropathy
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
5. spondylolysis
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION:________________________________________________________________________
6. osteogenic
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
7. chondrectomy
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
8. myonecrosis
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
190
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CHAPTER 4 • MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
191
9. ostealgia
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
10. periosteitis
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
11. leiomyosarcoma
___________ / ___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
12. myelocyte
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
13. costovertebral
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION:________________________________________________________________________
14. spondylomalacia
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
15. osteoarthritis
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
16. intercostal
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
17. orthosis
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION:________________________________________________________________________
18. myotonia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
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19. kyphosis
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION:________________________________________________________________________
20. craniectomy
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION:________________________________________________________________________
21. arthrodesis
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION:________________________________________________________________________
22. fibromyalgia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
23. rhabdomyoma
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
24. sternocostal
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
25. intraarticular
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
26. syndactylism
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
27. lumbodynia
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION:________________________________________________________________________
28. cervicobrachial
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
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CHAPTER 4 • MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
193
29. arthroscopy
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
30. lordosis
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
Write the correct medical term for each of the following definitions:
31. ___________________________
lateral curvature of the spine
32. ___________________________
joint pain
33. ___________________________
bone tumor
34. ___________________________
muscle tumor
35. ___________________________
grating sound made by the movement of broken bones
36. ___________________________
bone pain
37. ___________________________
x-ray of a joint
38. ___________________________
plane that divides the body into right and left halves
39. ___________________________
surgical reconstruction of bone
40. ___________________________
plane that divides the body into front and back
portions
41. ___________________________
opposite of hypertrophy
42. ___________________________
striated (skeletal) muscle tumor
43. ___________________________
test to record muscle response to electrical stimulation
44. ___________________________
smooth muscle tumor
45. ___________________________
application of a pulling force to a fractured or dislocated joint to maintain proper position during healing
46. ___________________________
flabby or relaxed muscle
47. ___________________________
lying flat on the back
48. ___________________________
bone marrow tumor
49. ___________________________
arthritis caused by hyperuricemia
50. ___________________________
horizontal plane that divides the body into superior
and inferior portions
51. ___________________________
turning the palm of the hand or sole of the foot downward or backward
52. ___________________________
stiff joint condition
53. ___________________________
a partial dislocation
54. ___________________________
toward the beginning or origin of a structure
55. ___________________________
lying face down and flat
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56. ___________________________
an artificial replacement for a missing body part
57. ___________________________
diagnostic test that uses nuclear imaging techniques to
visualize bone tissue
58. ___________________________
above another structure or toward the head
59. ___________________________
bending of the foot or the toes upward
60. ___________________________
internal surgical repair of a fracture by bringing bones
into alignment
61. ___________________________
osteomalacia in children
62. ___________________________
diagnostic imaging technique using high-frequency
sound waves to visualize body tissues and structures
63. ___________________________
physician specializing in x-ray technology
64. ___________________________
stiff muscle
Complete each medical term by writing the missing word or word part:
65. inter___________al pertaining to between the ribs
66. ___________myosarcoma malignant striated or skeletal muscle tumor
67. hyper___________ excessive nourishment or development; increase in the size of a muscle
68. myo___________ suture of a muscle
69. spondylosyn___________ binding together of vertebrae
70. ___________myoma smooth muscle tumor
71. osteo___________ softening of bone
72. ___________listhesis slipping of vertebra
73. arthro___________ radiograph of a joint
74. ___________tomy incision into bone
75. epiphys___________ inflammation of the ends of the long bones
76. ___________al pertaining to the neck
77. bony ___________osis dead bone tissue
78. ___________oma tumor of cartilage
79. arthro___________ puncture for aspiration of a joint
Write the letter of the matching definition for each body movement:
80. flexion
_____
a. movement toward the body
81. inversion
_____
b. straightening
82. adduction
_____
c. bending
83. extension
_____
d. to turn inward
84. abduction
_____
e. to turn outward
85. eversion
_____
f. movement away from the body
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CHAPTER 4 • MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
Write out the expanded term or meaning for each abbreviation:
86. CT _______________________________________________________________________________
87. PT _______________________________________________________________________________
88. Tx _______________________________________________________________________________
89. ROM _____________________________________________________________________________
90. Fx________________________________________________________________________________
Circle the correct spelling:
91. spondelosis
spandalosis
spondylosis
92. scholiosis
scoliosis
scoleosis
93. arthrodynia
arthradynia
arthrodenia
94. osteoalgia
ostealgia
osstealgia
95. sagital
saggittal
sagittal
96. flaccid
flacid
flascid
97. sekquestrum
sequestrom
sequestrum
98. anklylosis
ankylosis
anklosis
99. chondral
chrondral
chondrel
100. dorsaflexion
dorsiflexion
dorsflexion
101. osteoparosis
osteoporosis
osteophorosis
102. rabdomyoma
rrhabdomyoma
rhabdomyoma
Identify the planes of the body by writing the missing words in the spaces provided:
108.
Lateral
(cephalic)
107.
105.
(dorsal)
(ventral)
103.
109.
(caudal)
104.
plane
106. Coronal or
plane
103.
107.
104.
108.
105.
109.
106.
110.
110.
plane
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Identify the movements of the body by writing the missing words in the spaces provided:
111.
112.
113.
115.
114.
Additional movements of the feet
Additional movements
of the hands and arm
116.
117.
118.
119.
Additional movements of the feet
120.
121.
111.
117.
112.
118.
113.
119.
114.
120.
115.
121.
116.
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CHAPTER 4 • MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
Identify the parts of the skeleton by writing the missing words in the spaces provided:
123.
122.
Face
Hyoid
125.
1
Ribs
2
3
Manubrium
126.
127.
Ribs
128.
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
129.
Vertebral column
Iliac crest
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
Pubic bone
124.
144.
137.
145.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
146.
Anterior view
Posterior view
Color key: Appendicular skeleton
Axial skeleton
122.
131.
140.
123.
132.
141.
124.
133.
142.
125.
134.
143.
126.
135.
144.
127.
136.
145.
128.
137.
146.
129.
138.
130.
139.
197
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Circle the combining form that corresponds to the meaning given:
147. cartilage
crani/o
cost/o
chondr/o
148. vertebra
myel/o
spondyl/o
lumb/o
149. bone marrow
my/o
myel/o
muscul/o
150. neck
thorac/o
crani/o
cervic/o
151. joint
oste/o
arthr/o
ankyl/o
152. chest
thorac/o
cervic/o
spondyl/o
153. muscle
my/o
myel/o
lei/o
154. rib
stern/o
chondr/o
cost/o
Give the noun that is used to form each adjective:
155. orthotic
__________________
156. hypertrophic
__________________
157. radial
__________________
158. kyphotic
__________________
159. bursal
__________________
160. dystrophic
__________________
161. necrotic
__________________
162. osteoporotic
__________________
163. lordotic
__________________
164 ulnar
__________________
165. scoliotic
__________________
166. prosthetic
__________________
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CHAPTER 4 • MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
199
MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 4-1
HISTORY AND PHYSICAL EXAMINATION
CC:
“attacks” of right knee discomfort and instability
HPI:
This 19 y/o presents with “attacks” of right knee pain and instability. Three years
ago, while playing basketball, he turned sharply and felt his kneecap pop in and out.
It was acutely swollen and painful and required manipulation to reduce it. He had a
course of PT and did reasonably well for a few months until resuming athletic activities. Since then, he has had recurrent episodes of the knee slipping in and out, all
related to twisting and turning while surfing and playing basketball. His primary complaint is the episodic discomfort and the inability to trust the knee. He is asymptomatic at this time.
PMH:
NKDA. Hx of right ankle Fx in 20xx. Meds: none. Operations: none.
SH:
Alcohol rarely used. FH: Father, age 49, Mother, age 43, both L&W.
ROS:
Noncontributory.
PE:
The patient is a cooperative male in NAD.
VS:
T 97.2º F, P 64, R 14, BP 118/66
HEENT: WNL. Neck: supple, no tenderness, full ROM, no adenopathy.
Lungs, heart, abdomen: WNL. Back: no tenderness or deformity.
Extremities: unremarkable except for involved knee. Knee ROM is 0–45 degrees equally. There
is no parapatellar tenderness.
Neurologic: Negative.
Radiographs show subluxation of the right knee.
IMP:
RECURRENT RIGHT KNEE PATELLAR INSTABILITY
RECOMMENDATION: Patelloplasty is being discussed, and the risks and benefits of the
procedure have been explained. The patient will return with his parents for further
consultation before deciding whether to proceed with treatment.
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 4-1
1. Which describes the patient’s symptoms at
the time of the initial injury?
a. severe pain over a short course
b. pain that comes and goes
c. pain that progressively gets worse
d. pain that develops slowly over time
e. no pain
2. What treatment was provided 3 years ago?
a. puncture for aspiration of a joint
b. transplantation of a piece of bone from
one site to another
c. examination of a joint from within
d. physical rehabilitation including exercise
e. binding or fusing joint surfaces
3. Which best describes the patient’s symptoms at the time of this visit?
a. severe pain
b. moderate pain
c. progressive pain
d. mild pain
e. no pain
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4. Describe the orthopedic condition noted in
the past history:
a. forward slipping of a vertebra
b. broken bone
c. arthritis
d. bone pain
e. dislocation
5. What does full ROM indicate?
a. swelling
b. spasm
c. inflammation
d. bruising
e. mobility
6. What did the radiographs indicate?
a. no radiographs were mentioned
b. patellar instability
c. partial dislocation
d. inflammation
e. joint stiffness
7. What treatment did the physician recommend?
a. surgical reconstruction of the kneecap
b. physical therapy
c. surgical repair of bone
d. excision of the patella
e. examination and repair of a joint from
within using an endoscope
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CHAPTER 4 • MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
201
Medical Record 4-2
FOR ADDITIONAL STUDY
As Alice Toohey was playing with her young granddaughter, she stepped on a toy dump truck and
fell down her porch steps, wrenching her ankle violently. Because of the sharp pain and immediate
swelling, Ms. Toohey was taken immediately to the hospital. After being seen by the emergency
room physician, she was admitted and scheduled for surgery. Medical Record 4-2 is the operative
report dictated by the surgeon, Dr. Ricardo Rodriguez, immediately after the operation and
processed by a medical transcriptionist.
Read Medical Record 4-2 (page 203), then write your answers to the following questions in the
spaces provided.
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 4-2
1. Below are medical terms used in this record that you have not yet encountered in this text.
Underline each term where it appears in the record, and define the term below.
malleolus
__________________________________________________________________________
oblique ____________________________________________________________________________
sterile ______________________________________________________________________________
2. In your own words, not using medical terminology, briefly describe the preoperative diagnosis
for Ms. Toohey:
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
3. Put the following operative steps in correct order by numbering them from 1 to 10:
________
radiograph of the screws that were too long
________
incision on the outer side of the ankle
________
plate placed onto fibula
________
sewing the incisions
________
radiograph of satisfactory screw position
________
towel clip positioned
________
removal of medial hematoma
________
removal of lateral hematoma
________
placement of screw into lower tibia
________
incision on the inner side of the right ankle
4. In this operation, the surgeon redid one step after using a diagnostic procedure to check
whether that step was as effective as possible. In your own words, explain what Dr. Rodriguez
changed and why:
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
5. Describe the fracture line: ____________________________________________________________
6. When Dr. Rodriguez examined the ankle after making the first incision, he found a problem he
could not and did not repair. In your own words, what had been destroyed in Ms. Toohey’s
injury?
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
7. Which of the following actions did not occur in this operation?
a. washing the wound with antibiotic
b. taping the fracture line
c. drilling holes in the bone
d. stapling the skin closed
8. Describe Ms. Toohey’s condition when transferred to postanesthesia recovery (PAR) after the
operation:
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
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CHAPTER 4 • MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
Medical Record 4-2
FOR ADDITIONAL STUDY
203
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS TO PRACTICE EXERCISES
1. hemi
pelv /______
ectomy
_____/____
P
R
S
CF
half/pelvis (basin) or hip
bone/excision (removal)
2. thorac
ic
______/___
R
CF
S
muscle/fascia (a
band)/pertaining to
4. arthro
path y
______/______/__
R
S
joint/disease/condition
or process of
5. spondylo
lysis
________/_____
CF
S
vertebra/breaking down
or dissolution
6. osteo
gen /___
ic
_____/____
CF
R
S
S
bone/pain
10. peri
oste /____
itis
____/____
S
CF
R
S
smooth/muscle/flesh/
tumor
12. myelo
cyt e
______/____/__
CF
R
S
straight, normal, or
correct/condition or
increase
18. myo
ton /___
ia
_____/____
R
S
S
S
bone marrow or spinal
cord/cell/noun marker
S
skull/excision (removal)
21. arthro
desis
______/______
CF
S
joint/binding
22. fibro
my_ /_____
algia
____/____
CF
around/bone/
inflammation
11. leio
myo /____/
sarc oma
___/_____
____
CF
R
R
S
fiber/muscle/pain
23. rhabdo
my /______
oma
_______/____
CF
R
S
rod-shaped or striated
(skeletal)/muscle/tumor
24. sterno
cost /____
al
______/_____
CF
P
R
S
sternum
(breastbone)/rib/
pertaining to
R
S
within/joint/
pertaining to
26. syndactylism
syn
dactyl /_____
ism
____/_______
P
R
S
together or with/digit
(finger or toe)/
condition of
27. lumbo
dynia
______/______
CF
S
between/rib/pertaining
to
17. orth
osis
____/___
R
S
R
R
humped-back/condition
or increase
20. crani
ectomy
_____/_______
muscle/death/condition
or increase
9. oste
algia
____/_____
P
P
R
cartilage/excision
(removal)
8. myo
necr/____
osis
____/____
R
S
muscle/tone/condition
of
19. kyph
osis
_____/____
S
R
R
bone/joint/inflammation
16. inter
cost /___
al
_____/_____
CF
bone/origin or
production/
pertaining to
7. chondr
ectomy
_______/_______
R
S
vertebra/softening
15. osteo
arthr /____
itis
_____/_____
CF
25. intra
articul /___
ar
_____/_______
S
CF
R
CF
R
rib/vertebra/
pertaining to
14. spondylo
malacia
_________/_______
S
chest/pertaining to
3. myo
fasci /___
al
____/_____
CF
13. costo
vertebr/____
al
_____/______
S
loin (lower back)/pain
28. cervico
brachi /__
al
_______/______
CF
R
S
neck/arm/pertaining to
29. arthro
scopy
______/______
CF
S
joint/process of
examination
30. lord
osis
____/____
R
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
S
bent/condition or
increase
scoliosis
arthralgia or arthrodynia
osteoma
myoma
crepitation or crepitus
ostealgia or osteodynia
arthrogram
sagittal
osteoplasty
coronal or frontal
atrophy
rhabdomyoma
electromyogram
leiomyoma
traction
flaccid
horizontal recumbent or
supine
myeloma
gouty arthritis
transverse
pronation
ankylosis
subluxation
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CHAPTER 4 • MUSCULOSKELETAL SYSTEM
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
proximal
prone
prosthesis
bone scan
superior or cephalic
dorsiflexion
open reduction, internal
fixation (ORIF) of a
fracture
rickets
sonography
radiologist
rigor or rigidity
intercostal
rhabdomyosarcoma
hypertrophy
myorrhaphy
spondylosyndesis
leiomyoma
osteomalacia
spondylolisthesis
arthrogram
osteotomy
epiphysitis
cervical
bony necrosis
chondroma
arthrocentesis
c
d
a
b
f
e
computed tomography
physical therapy
traction or treatment
range of motion
fracture (broken bone)
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
129.
spondylosis
scoliosis
arthrodynia
ostealgia
sagittal
flaccid
sequestrum
ankylosis
chondral
dorsiflexion
osteoporosis
rhabdomyoma
medial
sagittal
anterior
frontal
posterior
superior
inferior
transverse
flexion
extension
abduction
adduction
rotation
eversion
inversion
pronation
supination
dorsiflexion
plantar flexion
skull
cranium
phalanges
clavicle
scapula
sternum
xiphoid process
humerus
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
136.
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
159.
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
ANSWERS TO MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 4-1: History and Physical Examination
1. a
2. d
3. e
4. b
5. e
6. c
Medical Record 4-2: For Additional Study
See CD-ROM for answers.
7. a
ilium
ischium
ulna
radius
carpals
metacarpals
trochanter
femur
patella
tibia
fibula
tarsals
metatarsals
phalanges
sacrum
coccyx
calcaneus
chondr/o
spondyl/o
myel/o
cervic/o
arthr/o
thorac/o
my/o
cost/o
orthosis
hypertrophy
radius
kyphosis
bursa
dystrophy
necrosis
osteoporosis
lordosis
ulna
scoliosis
prosthesis
205
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CHAPTER
5
Cardiovascular
System
✓ Chapter 5 Checklist
Read Chapter 5: Cardiovascular System and complete all programmed
review segments.
LOCATION
pages 207-250
Review the starter set of flash cards and term components related to Chapter 5. back of book
Complete the Chapter 5 Practice Exercises and Medical Record Analysis 5-1.
pages 256-262
Complete Medical Record Analysis 5-2 For Additional Study.
pages 263-264
Complete the Chapter 5 Exercises by Chapter.
CD-ROM
Complete the Chapter 5 Review and Test Modes.
CD-ROM
Review the Pronunciation Drill for the Chapter 5 terms.
CD-ROM
CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM OVERVIEW
The cardiovascular system consists of the heart (Fig. 5-1) and blood vessels, which work together
to transport blood throughout the body.
The heart is a muscular organ that pumps blood throughout the body.
The heart consists of four chambers: the right atrium and left atrium (upper chambers), and
the right ventricle and left ventricle (lower chambers).
The heart is divided into right and left portions by the interatrial septum and the interventricular septum.
Heart valves open and close to maintain the one-way flow of blood through the heart.
The heart has three layers: the endocardium, which lines the interior cavities of the heart; the
myocardium, which is the thick, muscular layer; and the epicardium, which is the outer
membrane.
Enclosing the heart is a loose, protective sac called the pericardium.
207
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
STRUCTURES OF THE HEART (arrows indicate path of blood flow)
Superior vena cava
Aortic arch
Interatrial septum
Aorta
Pulmonary
artery
Pulmonary
veins
Pulmonary veins
Left atrium
Mitral valve
Aortic valve
Right atrium
Pulmonary
semilunar valve
Left ventricle
Tricuspid valve
Interventricular
septum
Endocardium
Right ventricle
Myocardium
Epicardium
Inferior vena cava
ECHOCARDIOGRAM
Normal, two-dimensional, apical four-chamber view
Pericardium
BLOOD CIRCULATION
Upper extremity
Vein
Lung
Capillaries
FIGURE 5-1 ■
Structures of the heart.
Artery
Lung
Lower extremity
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
209
Blood, which transports essential elements within the body, flows through the heart as follows:
Deoxygenated blood from the body enters the heart through the superior vena cava and
inferior vena cava into the right atrium.
During atrial contraction, the tricuspid valve opens to allow blood to flow into the right ventricle.
Contraction of the ventricle pushes blood through the pulmonary semilunar valve into the pulmonary artery.
The pulmonary artery carries the blood to the lungs and through the pulmonary circulation
(a network of arteries, capillaries, air sacs, and veins in the lung), where it is oxygenated.
Oxygenated blood returns to the heart via the pulmonary veins into the left atrium.
With atrial contraction, the mitral (or bicuspid) valve opens to allow blood to flow into the left
ventricle.
Contraction of the left ventricle pushes blood through the aortic valve into the aorta and on to
all parts of the body through the systemic circulation (a network of arteries, arterioles, capillaries, and veins throughout the body).
The heart is the first to receive oxygenated blood via the right and left coronary arteries, which
distribute blood throughout the entire heart (Fig. 5-2).
Self-Instruction: Combining Forms
Study the following:
COMBINING FORM
MEANING
angi/o, vas/o, vascul/o
vessel
aort/o
aorta
arteri/o
artery
ather/o
fatty (lipid) paste
atri/o
atrium
cardi/o
heart
coron/o
circle or crown
my/o
muscle
pector/o, steth/o
chest
sphygm/o
pulse
thromb/o
clot
ven/o, phleb/o
vein
varic/o
swollen, twisted vein
ventricul/o
ventricle (belly or pouch)
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANTERIOR VIEW OF
CORONARY ARTERIES
POSTERIOR VIEW OF
CORONARY ARTERIES
Superior vena
cava
Arch of aorta
Superior vena
cava
Pulmonary trunk
Sinoatrial
nodal
artery
Left coronary artery
Circumflex branch
Right
pulmonary
veins
Left anterior
descending
artery
Right
coronary
artery
Left marginal artery
Diagonal artery
Atrioventricular
nodal artery
Right marginal
artery
Left anterior
descending
artery
Posterior
interventricular
artery
PERCUTANEOUS TRANSLUMINAL CORONARY ANGIOPLASTY (PTCA)
Predilation angiogram revealing 99%
stenosis of the right coronary artery (RCA).
PTCA procedure showing catheter
placement and straddling of the balloon
at the occluded site.
Post-PTCA angiogram showing
successful dilation.
Catheter and wire placement
with balloon inflation.
FIGURE 5-2 ■
Coronary arteries and angiograms illustrating angioplasty.
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
211
Programmed Review: Combining Forms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
5.1
A cardiologist is a physician who specializes in the study of
heart
the __________.
angiogram
5.2
Formed from angi/o, an ______________ is an x-ray record of a
blood vessel.
vessel
5.3
A vasospasm is an involuntary contraction of a blood _________.
Cardiology
5.4
___________________ is the medical specialty dealing with the
study of the heart.
Thromb/o
5.5
breaking down or dissolution
of thrombolysis, a term referring to the ______________ __________
____________, the combining form meaning clot, is the subject
of a clot or clots.
5.6
Someone with a congenital ventricular defect is born with an
ventricle
imperfection of a _____________ in the heart. (The combining form
ventricul/o
in this term is _______________.) That person would likely be under
cardiologist
the care of a _________________.
fatty or lipid
5.7
paste
____________ builds up inside blood vessels.
5.8
Atherosclerosis is a condition in which hardened ____________
A phlebotomist is someone trained to draw blood samples
veins
from the ___________. This term comes from the combining form
phleb/o, vein
_____________, meaning __________.
varic/o
5.9
Varicose veins, from the combining form ______________,
are so named because they are swollen and twisted.
ven/o
5.10 Veins (named from the combining form __________) return
blood to the heart from all around the body. Based on the root arteri/o,
arteries
________________ carry blood in the other direction (from the heart
to the body or lungs).
5.11 The heart is located in the chest, behind the area of the
pectoral muscle. The pectoral muscles get their name from the
pector/o
combining form ______________, which means chest. Another
steth/o
combining form that means chest is ___________, which is the subject
of the term stethoscope, an instrument used to listen to the heart or
to breathing within the chest.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
atria
5.12 The heart has four chambers: two ventricles and two ________,
which is the plural form of atrium. Atrium comes from the
atri/o
combining form __________, and ventricle comes from the combining
ventricul/o
form _________________.
aorta
5.13 The __________, from the combining form aort/o, is the large
blood vessel through which blood leaves the heart for delivery to all
parts of the body. The coronary arteries branch from the aorta and
myocardium
supply the heart’s muscular tissue, or the ________________, with
circle or crown
blood. The original meaning of coron/o refers to a _____________.
coronary
The _________________ arteries are so named because they seem to
encircle the heart like a crown.
5.14 Each beat of the heart produces a pulse. The combining form
sphygm/o
that means pulse is ________________. This is the key combining
form in the term sphygmomanometer, an instrument that measures
blood pressure (BP) based on its pressurized pulse through an artery.
veins
Arteries and _________ are the two types of larger blood vessels. Along
with the capillaries, they are sometimes referred to collectively as the
vascul/o
vasculature, from the combining form _______________, meaning
vessel.
Self-Instruction: Anatomic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
SEPTA AND LAYERS OF THE HEART (see Fig. 5-1)
atrium
ātrē-ŭm
upper right or left chamber of the heart
endocardium
en-dō-kardē-ŭm
membrane lining the cavities of the heart
epicardium
ep-i-kardē-ŭm
membrane forming the outer layer of the heart
interatrial septum
in-tĕr-ātrē-ăl septŭm
partition between the right and left atria
interventricular septum
in-tĕr-ven-trikyū-lăr sept ŭm
partition between the right and left ventricles
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
TERM
MEANING
myocardium
mı̄ō-kardē-ŭm
heart muscle
pericardium
per-i-kardē-ŭm
protective sac enclosing the heart composed of two layers
with fluid between
visceral pericardium
visĕr-ăl per-i-kardē-ŭm
layer closest to the heart (visceral pertaining to organ)
parietal pericardium
pă-rı̄ĕ-tăl per-i-kardē-ŭm
outer layer ( parietal pertaining to wall)
pericardial cavity
per-i-kardē-ăl kavi-tē
fluid-filled cavity between the pericardial layers
ventricle
ventri-kĕl
213
lower right or left chamber of the heart
VALVES OF THE HEART AND VEINS (see Fig. 5-1)
heart valves
hart valvz
structures within the heart that open and close with the
heartbeat to regulate the one-way flow of blood
aortic valve
ā-ōrtik valv
heart valve between the left ventricle and the aorta
mitral valve
mı̄trăl valv
bicuspid valve
bı̄-kŭspid valv
heart valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle
(cuspis point)
pulmonary semilunar valve
pulmō-nār-ē sem-ē-lūnăr valv
heart valve opening from the right ventricle to the pulmonary
artery (luna moon)
tricuspid valve
trı̄-kŭspid valv
valve between the right atrium and the right ventricle
valves of the veins
valvz of the vānz
valves located at intervals within the lining of veins, especially
in the legs, which constrict with muscle action to move the
blood returning to the heart
BLOOD VESSELS (Fig. 5-3)
arteries (Fig. 5-4)
artĕr-ēz
vessels that carry blood from the heart to the arterioles
aorta
ā-ōrtă
large artery that is the main trunk of the arterial system
branching from the left ventricle
arterioles
ar-tērē-ōlz
small vessels that receive blood from the arteries
capillaries
kapi-lār-ēz
tiny vessels that join arterioles and venules
venules
venūlz
small vessels that gather blood from the capillaries into
the veins
veins (Fig. 5-5)
vānz
vessels that carry blood to the heart from the venules
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TERM
MEANING
CIRCULATION
systemic circulation
sis-temik sı̆r-kyū-lāshŭn
circulation of blood throughout the body via arteries,
arterioles, capillaries, venules, and veins to deliver oxygen and
nutrients to body tissues
coronary circulation
kōrŏ-nār-ē sı̆r-kyū-lāshŭn
circulation of blood through the coronary blood vessels to
deliver oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscle tissue
(see Fig. 5-2)
pulmonary circulation
pulmō-nār-ē sı̆r-kyū-lāshŭn
circulation of blood from the pulmonary artery through the
vessels in the lungs and back to the heart via the pulmonary
vein, providing for the exchange of gases
Lungs
Artery
Vein
Heart
Valve
Venule
Venule
Arteriole
Arteriole
Lymph node
Valve
Lymph vessels
Lymph
capillaries
Tissue cells
Blood capillaries
Deoxygenated blood
Oxygenated blood
FIGURE 5-3 ■
Blood and lymph circulation.
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215
ARTERIAL BLOOD CIRCULATION
Arteries (carry blood from the heart)
Carotid artery
Tunica media
Arch of
aorta
Tunica externa
Pulmonary
artery
Brachial
artery
Endothelium
Subendothelial layer
Artery
Tunica
intima
Internal elastic lamina
Normal Doppler color flow study of
internal carotid artery
Femoral
artery
Abnormal Doppler color flow study
showing occlusion of carotid artery
FIGURE 5-4 ■
Arteries.
Aorta
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
VENOUS CIRCULATION
Veins (carry blood to the heart)
Jugular vein
Tunica
externa
Subclavian vein
Tunica media
Superior
vena cava
Endothelium
Subendothelial
layer
Internal elastic
lamina
Vein
Tunica
intima
Inferior
vena cava
Cephalic
vein
FEMORAL THROMBUS
Artery
Vein
Femoral
vein
Thrombus
Color flow Doppler showing femoral vein thrombus
FIGURE 5-5 ■
Veins.
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
217
Programmed Review: Anatomic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
atri/o
5.15 The term atrium is from the combining form __________.
atria
The plural form of this word is __________. The right and left atria
upper
are the ______________ chambers of the heart.
within
5.16 Recall that the prefix endo- means ____________. Combined
heart
with cardi/o, it refers to something within the ___________. The
tissue
endocardium is the structure or _____________ that lines the cavities
-ium
of the heart. The suffix denoting structure or tissue is _______.
epi-
5.17 A common prefix that means upon is ________. Combined
suffix
with cardi/o and the ___________ -ium, it forms the term epicardium,
structure, tissue
which is the ________________ or _____________ forming the outer
layer of the heart.
muscle
5.18 My/o is a combining form meaning ____________. The term
myocardium
for heart muscle tissue is ________________.
around
5.19 Peri- is a prefix that means _____________. The pericardium
heart
is a protective sac that encloses the ___________. It has two layers
with fluid between. Using the term that means pertaining to organ,
the layer closest to the heart is called the visceral pericardium. The
outer layer uses the term that means pertaining to wall and is called
pericardium
the parietal ________________. Using the term that means pertaining
to the pericardium, the fluid-filled space between these two layers is
pericardial
called the _______________ cavity.
5.20 The ventricles of the heart are so named from the combining
ventricul/o
form ________________, meaning belly or pouch. The ventricles are
lower
the two __________ chambers of the heart.
5.21 The term septum refers to an anatomic partition. The
between
interatrial septum is the partition ______________ the left and right
atria
__________. Between the left and right ventricles is the
interventricular
_____________________ septum. The two atria and two ventricles are
chambers
the four _____________ of the heart.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
5.22 The one-way blood flow from one heart chamber to another,
or from a heart chamber to an artery, is regulated by heart
valves
____________, which open and close as the heart beats. The valve
aortic
between the left ventricle and the aorta is called the ____________
valve.
bicuspid
5.23 The mitral, or _______________, valve is between the left
atrium and the left ventricle. The tricuspid valve is between the
right, right
____________ atrium and the ____________ ventricle.
5.24 The pulmonary semilunar valve is between the right ventricle
pulmonary
and the _________________ artery.
5.25 Other valves that open and close with muscle action to move
veins
blood back to the heart are known as the valves of the ___________.
5.26 The names of blood vessels are easy to remember because
arteries
they are similar to the combining forms. The ______________, which
carry blood from the heart, get their name from the combining form
arteri/o. The veins, which carry blood to the heart, are so named from
ven/o
the combining form __________.
arterioles
5.27 The ________________, also from the combining form arteri/o,
are the small vessels that receive blood from the arteries. The blood
capillaries
then flows to the ____________________, the tiniest vessels. Next, the
venules
blood is gathered from the capillaries into the _____________,
which are small vessels that connect to the veins. The suffixes -ole
small
and -ule are used to indicate something __________.
5.28 As blood leaves the heart to be distributed to the rest of the
aorta
body, it first passes through the __________, a large artery that leads
to the arteries that will carry the blood throughout the body.
5.29 The term circulation refers to the flow of blood through the
vessels. Blood flow through the body (except the lungs) is called
systemic
_______________ circulation. Pulmonary circulation is blood flow
lungs
through the ____________. Blood flow to the heart muscle, based on
coronary
the combining form coron/o, is called _________________
circulation.
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
Self-Instruction: Blood Pressure Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
diastole
dı̄-astō-lē
to expand; period during the cardiac cycle when blood enters
the relaxed ventricles from the atria
systole
sistō-lē
to contract; period during the cardiac cycle when the heart is
in contraction and blood is ejected through the aorta and the
pulmonary artery
normotension
nōr-mō-tenshŭn
normal blood pressure
hypotension
hı̄pō-tenshŭn
low blood pressure
hypertension (HTN)
hı̄pĕr-tenshŭn
high blood pressure
Programmed Review: Blood Pressure Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
BP
5.30 Blood pressure, which is abbreviated as _________, is a
measurement of the pressure on the walls of the arteries during
systole, diastole
contraction (_____________) and relaxation (________________) of
the heart (Fig. 5-6).
FIGURE 5-6 ■
Blood pressure determination.
219
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
blood pressure
5.31 When BP, or ____________ _____________, is recorded, the
systole
contraction phase, or ____________, is written first, followed by a
diastole
slash, followed by the relaxation phase, or ______________. The
suffix, pertaining
____________ -ic is used to modify the terms to mean _______________
to
____. The term that means pertaining to the contraction phase is
systolic
_____________, and the term that means pertaining to the relaxation
diastolic
phase is _______________.
5.32 A blood pressure of 120/80 or below is considered to be a
normo
normal blood pressure and is termed _________tension. The numbers
120, 80
reflect a systolic reading of ______ and a diastolic reading of ______.
hyper
High blood pressure is called __________tension, and low blood
hypo
pressure is called __________tension.
CARDIAC CONDUCTION
Cardiac conduction provides the electrical stimulus that is necessary to cause the heart muscle to
pump blood by the continual contraction (systole) and relaxation (diastole) of myocardial cells
(Fig. 5-7).
Repeated electrical impulses are conducted:
from the sinoatrial (SA) node (the pacemaker of the heart)
T
to the atrioventricular (AV) node
T
to the bundle of His
T
to the left and right bundle branches
T
to the Purkinje fibers
The impulses cause each myocardial cell to change:
from a resting state (polarized)
T
to a state of contraction (depolarized)
T
then back to a resting state by recharging (repolarizing)
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
221
SA node
AV node
Left bundle
Bundle of His
Right bundle
Purkinje fibers
A
SA
node
AV node
Bundle of His
Purkinje
fibers
Firing from SA node across atria
(contraction of atria) to AV node
Firing from AV node to bundle of His,
down right and left bundle branches
Firing of Purkinje fibers showing
contraction of ventricles
B
FIGURE 5-7 ■ Cardiac conduction. A. Anatomy. B. Path of conduction. (AV atrioventricular;
SA sinoatrial.)
Self-Instruction: Cardiac Conduction Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
sinoatrial (SA) node
sı̄nō-ātrē-ăl nōd
the pacemaker; highly specialized, neurological tissue
impeded in the wall of the right atrium; responsible for initiating electrical conduction of the heartbeat, causing the atria to
contract and firing conduction of impulses to the AV node
atrioventricular (AV) node
ātrē-ō-ven-trikyū-lăr nōd
neurological tissue in the center of the heart that receives and
amplifies the conduction of impulses from the SA node to the
bundle of His
bundle of His
bŭndĕl of hiz
neurological fibers extending from the AV node to the right
and left bundle branches that fire the impulse from the AV
node to the Purkinje fibers
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TERM
MEANING
Purkinje fibers
pĕr-kinjē fı̄bĕrz
Purkinje network
pĕr-kinjē netwŏrk
fibers in the ventricles that transmit impulses to the right and
left ventricles, causing them to contract
polarization
pōlăr-i-zăshŭn
resting; resting state of a myocardial cell
depolarization
dē-pōlăr-i-zāshŭn
change of a myocardial cell from a polarized (resting) state to
a state of contraction (de not; polarization resting)
repolarization
rēpō-lăr-i-zāshŭn
recharging of the myocardial cell from a contracted state back
to a resting state (re again; polarization resting)
normal sinus rhythm (NSR)
nōrmăl sı̄nŭs rithŭm
regular rhythm of the heart cycle stimulated by the SA node
(average rate of 60–100 beats/minute) (see Fig. 5-11)
Programmed Review: Cardiac Conduction Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
5.33 Review Figure 5-7. The term SA node refers to the
sinoatrial
______________ node, which is where the heart’s electrical impulse
originates. This impulse is conducted to the atrioventricular, or
AV, atri/o
_____, node, a term made from the combining forms _________
ventricul/o
and ________________.
5.34 The impulse then moves from the bundle of His down the
Purkinje
right and left bundle branches to the ________________ fibers, which
contract
transmit impulses to the ventricles and cause them to _____________.
This rhythmic contraction is the heartbeat.
muscle
5.35 The combining form my/o means ___________, and the
heart
combining form cardi/o means _____________. Myocardial cells
heart muscle
comprise the __________ _______________.
5.36 The resting state of the myocardial cells is called polarization.
depolarization
When each cell contracts, it changes to a state of __________________.
repolarization
The stage of _________________ is the change back to a resting state.
5.37 The normal regular heart rhythm produced by this continued
simulation of heart muscle by electrical impulses originating in
sinoatrial, normal
the ______________, or SA, node is called _____________
sinus
___________ rhythm, or NSR.
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
223
Self-Instruction: Symptomatic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
aneurysm (Fig. 5-8)
anyū-rizm
a widening; a bulging of the wall of the heart, aorta, or artery
caused by a congenital defect or acquired weakness
saccular aneurysm
sak-yū-lăr anyū-rizm
a sac-like bulge on one side
fusiform aneurysm
fyūsi-fōrm anyū-rizm
a spindle-shaped bulge
dissecting aneurysm
di-sekting anyū-rizm
a split or tear of the vessel wall
angina pectoris
anji-nă pektō-ris
chest pain caused by a temporary loss of oxygenated blood to
heart muscle; often caused by narrowing of the coronary
arteries (angina to choke)
arteriosclerosis
ar-tērē-ō-skler-ōsis
thickening, loss of elasticity, and calcification (hardening) of
arterial walls
atherosclerosis
ather-ō-skler-ōsis
a form of arteriosclerosis characterized by the buildup of fatty
substances that harden within the walls of arteries
atheromatous plaque
(Fig. 5-9, A)
ath-ĕr-ōmă-tŭs plak
a swollen area within the lining of an artery caused by the
buildup of fat (lipids)
claudication
klaw-di-kāshŭn
to limp; pain in a limb (especially the calf) while walking that
subsides after rest; caused by inadequate blood supply
constriction (see Fig. 5-9, A)
kon-strikshŭn
compression of a part that causes narrowing (stenosis)
diaphoresis
dı̄ă-fō-rēsis
profuse sweating (perspiration)
Common types of aneurysms
Saccular
Normal artery
FIGURE 5-8 ■
Artery with aneurysm
Common types of aneurysms.
Fusiform
Dissecting
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A
Constriction
Atheromatous
plaque
Thrombus
Embolus
B
Ischemia
Infarction
Obstruction
Oxygenated
tissue cells
Occlusion
Oxygen-deficient
tissue cells
Oxygenated
tissue cells
Dead tissue cells
FIGURE 5-9 ■ A. Examples of conditions causing a reduction in blood flow.
B. Effects of reduced blood flow.
TERM
MEANING
embolus (see Fig. 5-9, A)
embō-lŭs
a clot (e.g., air, fat, or a foreign object) carried in the
bloodstream that obstructs the flow of blood when it lodges
(embolus a stopper)
heart murmur
hart mŭrmŭr
an abnormal sound from the heart produced by defects in the
chambers or valves
infarct (see Fig. 5-9, B)
infarkt
to stuff; a localized area of necrosis (condition of tissue death)
caused by ischemia resulting from occlusion of a blood vessel
ischemia (see Fig. 5-9, B)
is-kēmē-ă
to hold back blood; decreased blood flow to tissue caused by
constriction or occlusion of a blood vessel
perfusion deficit
pĕr-fyūzhŭn def i-sit
lack of flow through a blood vessel caused by narrowing,
occlusion, etc.
occlusion (see Fig. 5-9, B)
ŏ-klūzhŭn
plugging; an obstruction or a closing off
palpitation
pal-pi-tāshŭn
subjective experience of pounding, skipping, or racing
heartbeats
stenosis
ste-nōsis
condition of narrowing of a part
thrombus (see Fig. 5-9, A)
thrombŭs
a stationary blood clot
vegetation (Fig. 5-10)
vej-ĕ-tāshŭn
to grow; an abnormal growth of tissue around a valve,
generally as a result of infection
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
225
FIGURE 5-10 ■ The mitral valve shows destructive
vegetations, which have eroded through the free margins of the valve leaflets in a patient with bacterial
endocarditis.
Programmed Review: Symptomatic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
hard
5.38 Scler/o, a combining form meaning __________, is a key
component in the term arteriosclerosis, which refers to thickening,
artery or arterial
loss of elasticity, and hardening of ____________ walls. Ather/o, a
fatty or lipid
combining form meaning ___________ paste, is used in the term that
specifically describes a condition or increase of hardened fatty
atherosclerosis
substances built up within the walls of arteries: ____________________.
embolus
5.39 An ____________ is a clot of any sort carried in the bloodstream
that obstructs the flow of blood when it lodges. A thrombus, on the
stationary
other hand, is a _______________ blood clot.
5.40 Blood flow through a vessel can be affected by various kinds
of restrictions. A condition or increase of narrowing is called
stenosis
___________. Stenotic conditions can be the result of a compression
constriction
or ______________of a vessel. A buildup of atherosclerotic substances
narrowing
can also cause stenosis, a condition of _______________. An
plugging or obstruction
occlusion, which is the ________________ of a vessel, also might occur.
ischemia
5.41 If blood flow is reduced to tissue, ____________ occurs. When
diagnostic tests detect the lack of blood flow from a vessel to tissue
deficit
cells, it is called a perfusion ___________. Perfusion refers to tissues
with an adequate circulation of blood.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
5.42 A heart condition of chest pain may occur when a temporary
or transient restriction of blood flow to heart muscle occurs, which is
angina
called ____________ pectoris. Recall that the combining form
pector/o
_____________ refers to the chest. Therefore, this chest pain is called
angina pectoris.
5.43 When prolonged or total ischemia occurs in an area, tissue
death
necrosis or _________ results. The area of scarring from necrosis is
infarct
called an ____________.
5.44 An aneurysm can occur in the heart or a blood vessel because
bulge or widen
of a weakness in the wall. This causes the wall to ___________. The
saccular
type of aneurysm with a sac-like bulge is called a ______________
aneurysm. If the bulge causes a split or tear of the vessel wall, it is
dissecting, fusiform
called a _______________ aneurysm. The bulge of a ______________
aneurysm is spindle-shaped.
5.45 Various symptoms help cardiologists to determine what
pain
condition a patient is experiencing. Claudication is ________ in a
limb, sometimes causing a limp, that results during movement
because of an inadequate blood supply to the limb.
5.46 The subjective symptom of the heart pounding, skipping,
palpitation
or racing is called _________________. Be careful not to confuse
this term with palpation, the word meaning to touch or feel.
5.47 Sweating brought on by physical activity or a hightemperature environment is perfectly normal; however, profuse
diaphoresis
sweating, known as ________________, accompanied by chest pain,
shortness of breath, or heart palpitations, is a significant symptom
of heart disease.
5.48 The physician, when listening to the heart through a
stethoscope, might hear an abnormal sound, called a
murmur
heart ___________, which is produced by a defect in the heart
chambers or valves.
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
227
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
RELATED TO THE HEART AND ARTERIES
acute coronary
syndrome (ACS)
ă-kyūt kōrŏ-nār-ē sindrōm
signs and symptoms indicating an active process of
atherosclerotic plaque buildup or formation of a thrombus,
or spasm within a coronary artery, causing a reduction or loss
of blood flow to myocardial tissue; includes unstable angina
and other pathological events leading to myocardial infarction
(MI); early diagnosis and rapid treatment are critical to avoid
or minimize damage to heart muscle
arrhythmia (Fig. 5-11)
ă-rithmē-ă
dysrhythmia
dis-rithmē-ă
any of several kinds of irregularity or loss of rhythm of the
heartbeat
bradycardia
brad-ē-kardē-ă
slow heart rate (less than 60 beats/minute)
fibrillation
fi-bri-lāshŭn
chaotic, irregular contractions of the heart, as in atrial or
ventricular fibrillation
premature ventricular
contraction (PVC)
prē-mă-tūr ven-trikū-lăr
kon-trakshŭn
a ventricular contraction preceding the normal impulse
initiated by the SA node (pacemaker)
tachycardia
tak-i-kardē-ă
fast heart rate (greater than 100 beats/minute)
bacterial endocarditis
bak-tērē-ăl endō-kar-dı̄tis
a bacterial inflammation that affects the endocardium or the
heart valves
cardiac tamponade
kardē-ak tam-pŏ-nād
compression of the heart produced by the accumulation of
fluid in the pericardial sac, as results from pericarditis or
trauma, causing rupture of a blood vessel within the heart
(tampon a plug)
cardiomyopathy
kardē-ō-mı̄-opă-thē
a general term for disease of the heart muscle, such as
alcoholic cardiomyopathy (damage to the heart muscle caused
by excessive consumption of alcohol)
congenital anomaly of
the heart
kon-jenı̆-tăl ah-nomah-lē
of the hart
malformations of the heart that are present at birth
(congenital born with; anomaly irregularity)
atrial septal defect (ASD)
ātrē-ăl septăl dēfekt
an opening in the septum separating the atria
coarctation of the aorta
kō-ark-tāshŭn of the ā-ōrtă
narrowing of the descending portion of the aorta, resulting in
a limited flow of blood to the lower part of the body
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Normal sinus rhythm (NSR)
Bradycardia
Fibrillation (ventricular)
Flutter (atrial)
Premature ventricular contraction (PVC)
Tachycardia (sinus)
FIGURE 5-11 ■
of arrhythmia.
Electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) tracings showing common types
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
TERM
229
MEANING
patent ductus arteriosus
(PDA)
pātent dŭktŭs ar-tē’rē-ōsŭs
an abnormal opening between the pulmonary artery and the
aorta caused by failure of the fetal ductus arteriosus
to close after birth ( patent open)
ventricular septal defect
(VSD)
ven-trikyū-lăr septăl dēfekt
an opening in the septum separating the ventricles
congestive heart failure
(CHF)
kon-jestiv hart fālyūr
left ventricular failure
left ven-trikyū-lăr fālyūr
failure of the left ventricle to pump an adequate amount of
blood to meet the demands of the body, resulting in a
“bottleneck” of congestion in the lungs that may extend to
the veins, causing edema in lower portions of the body
cor pulmonale
kōr pul-mō-nālē
right ventricular failure
rı̄t ven-trikyū-lăr fālyūr
enlargement of the right ventricle, resulting from chronic
disease within the lungs, that causes congestion within the
pulmonary circulation and resistance of blood flow to the
lungs (cor heart)
coronary artery disease
(CAD) (Fig. 5-12)
kōrŏ-nār-ē artĕr-ē di-zēz
a condition affecting arteries of the heart that reduces the flow
of blood and the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the
myocardium; most often caused by atherosclerosis
hypertension (HTN)
hı̄pĕr-tenshŭn
persistently high blood pressure
essential hypertension
ĕ-senshăl hı̄pĕr-tenshŭn
primary hypertension
prı̄mār-ē hı̄pĕr-tenshŭn
high blood pressure attributed to no single cause;
risks include smoking, obesity, increased salt intake,
hypercholesterolemia, and hereditary factors
secondary hypertension
sĕkŏn-dārē hı̄pĕr-tenshŭn
high blood pressure caused by the effects of another
disease (e.g., kidney disease)
Left anterior
descending
artery
Plaque buildup in
arterial wall
FIGURE 5-12
■
Coronary artery disease (CAD).
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
TERM
MEANING
mitral valve prolapse
(MVP)
mı̄trăl valv prōlapz
protrusion of one or both cusps of the mitral valve back into
the left atrium during ventricular contraction, resulting in
incomplete closure and backflow of blood
myocardial infarction
(MI) (Fig. 5-13)
mı̄-ō-kardē-ăl in-farkshŭn
heart attack; death of myocardial tissue (infarction) caused by
ischemia (loss of blood flow) as a result of an occlusion
(plugging) of a coronary artery; usually caused by
atherosclerosis; symptoms include pain in the chest or upper
body (shoulders, neck, and jaw), shortness of breath,
diaphoresis, and nausea
myocarditis
mı̄ō-kar-dı̄tis
inflammation of myocardium; most often caused by viral or
bacterial infection
pericarditis
peri-kar-dı̄tis
inflammation of the pericardium
rheumatic heart disease
rū-matik hart di-zēz
damage to heart muscle and heart valves by rheumatic fever
(a streptococcal infection)
sudden cardiac arrest
(SCA)
sŭddĕn kardē-ak ă-rest
the abrupt cessation of any cardiac output (CO), most
commonly as the result of ventricular fibrillation; causes
sudden death unless defibrillation is initiated immediately
RELATED TO THE VEINS
deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
dēp vān throm-bōsis
formation of a clot in a deep vein of the body, occurring most
often in the femoral and iliac veins
phlebitis
fle-bı̄tis
inflammation of a vein
thrombophlebitis
thrombō-fle-bı̄tis
inflammation of a vein associated with a clot formation
varicose veins (Fig. 5-14)
varı̆-kōs vāns
abnormally swollen, twisted veins with defective valves; most
often seen in the legs
FIGURE 5-13 ■ Anterolateral myocardial infarction (MI) (darkened
area), caused by occlusion of anterior descending branch of the left
coronary artery.
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
Valve
closed
231
Valve
opened
Valve
closed
Valve open
Valve closed
Defective valve
in varicose vein
causing pooling
of blood
B
A
FIGURE 5-14 ■ Varicose veins. A. Function of valves in
venous system. B. Contraction of skeletal muscle causes
valves to open and close, preventing backflow of blood
returning to heart. C. Varicose veins.
C
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
inflammation
5.49 The suffix -itis refers to an ____________________. Myocarditis
myocardium
therefore means an inflammation of the ___________________.
pericarditis
Inflammation of the pericardium is called _________________.
Bacterial endocarditis is a bacterial inflammation affecting the
endocardium
_________________ and heart valves.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
5.50 The condition of reduced blood flow through the arteries
coronary artery
that supply the heart muscle is called _______________ _____________
disease
____________ (CAD). It most commonly results from a hardened
buildup of fatty substances within the lining of the arteries, a
atherosclerosis
condition known as _____________________.
5.51 Atherosclerotic buildup within the wall of one or more
coronary arteries can lead to a partial or total obstruction, which is
occlusion
called an ________________. The resulting loss of blood flow, or
ischemia
______________, deprives the affected heart muscle of the oxygen it
needs to survive. Prolonged ischemia leads to necrosis, the
death
____________ of myocardial tissue. The term describing the death
myocardial infarction
of myocardial tissue is ___________________ _________________ (MI),
heart attack
which is commonly known as a ____________ ______________.
chest
Symptoms of myocardial infarction include angina (__________
pain
_________), shortness of breath, nausea, and profuse sweating
diaphoresis
(_________________). The abbreviation ACS, which stands for
acute coronary syndrome
_______________ ______________ _____________, includes the signs
and symptoms that indicate an active process of the pathological
events leading to myocardial infarction.
muscle
5.52 Myopathy refers to a condition of diseased ____________. The
general term for a condition of diseased heart muscle is
cardiomyopathy
__________________.
5.53 The word root tampon means a plug (obstruction), and the
term tamponade refers to an obstruction. A compression of the heart
produced by accumulated fluid in the pericardial sac is called a
tamponade
cardiac ________________.
5.54 Another word root that means heart is cor. The condition
pulmonale
called cor _______________ is caused by congestion in the pulmonary
circulation that results in right ventricular failure. The right ventricle
enlarged
becomes _______________ because of the increased effort to pump
blood to the diseased lungs.
heart
5.55 Congestive _________ failure (CHF) is a failure of the left
ventricle to pump enough blood to the body. This condition is also
failure
called left ventricular _______________.
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
ANSWERS
233
REVIEW
5.56 The term anomaly means irregularity (not normal). The term
with
congenital pertains to something a person is born ________. There are
several congenital anomalies of the heart. An atrial septal defect
partition
(ASD) is an irregularity in the septum, or ______________, which
atria, ventricular
separates the __________. A _________________ septal defect (VSD)
is an opening in the septum separating the ventricles.
5.57 A narrowing of the descending portion of the aorta that
coarctation
restricts blood flow to the lower body is called a ________________ of
the aorta.
5.58 Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is an abnormal opening
between the pulmonary artery and the aorta. The term patent means
close
open. PDA results if the fetal ductus arteriosus fails to ___________
after birth.
5.59 The prefix a- means without. An arrhythmia is a heartbeat
without
_____________ a normal rhythm. The synonym for arrhythmia, which
is formed using the prefix describing painful, difficult, or faulty, is
dysrhythmia
_______________. There are several types of heart arrhythmias or
brady-
dysrhythmias. The prefix meaning slow is __________. Therefore,
slow
bradycardia is a condition of _________ heart rate. Tachy- is the prefix
fast, tachycardia
meaning _________, so _________________ is a condition of fast
heart rate.
5.60 Fast, chaotic, irregular contractions of the heart occur in a
fibrillation
condition called _____________________.
5.61 Another common arrhythmia is a premature ventricular
contraction
__________________ (PVC). In this case, the contraction precedes the
node
normal impulse initiated by the sinoatrial (SA) _________.
5.62 Ventricular fibrillation is a lethal arrhythmia that causes the
ventricles to quiver rapidly (to fibrillate) instead of contracting and to
be unable to pump blood. The term describing the abrupt cessation
of any cardiac output (CO) as caused by ventricular fibrillation is
sudden cardiac arrest
____________ _____________ ____________ (SCA).
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
5.63 The condition of persistently high blood pressure is called
hypertension, HTN
______________________ and is abbreviated as _______. Primary, or
essential
______________, hypertension cannot be attributed to a single cause.
Secondary
_________________ hypertension, however, is caused by another
condition, such as kidney disease.
5.64 Rheumatic fever can cause damage to heart muscle and valves.
rheumatic
This is called _______________ heart disease.
vein
5.65 Phleb/o is a combining form for ________. Combined with the
phlebitis
suffix for inflammation, this forms the term _________________,
which means inflammation of a vein. If that inflammation is
associated with a clot formation, the condition is called
thrombophlebitis
____________________.
5.66 The condition of a formed clot in a deep vein of the body is
deep vein thrombosis
called __________ __________ ________________ (DVT). The
thrombus
danger of any clot (_____________) formation in a vein is that it can
embolus
break loose to become a traveling ______________.
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
Study the following:
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
auscultation (Fig. 5-15)
aws-kŭl-tāshŭn
physical examination method of listening to sounds within
the body with a stethoscope (e.g., auscultation of the chest
for heart and lung sounds)
gallop
galŏp
abnormal heart sound that mimics the gait of a horse; related
to abnormal ventricular contraction
FIGURE 5-15
■
Auscultating heart sounds.
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
235
R
S-T
segment
P
T
U
Q
S
QRS
P-R
complex
interval
Q-T interval
A
FIGURE 5-16
B
■
A. Electrocardiographic conduction. B. Resting electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG).
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
electrocardiogram (ECG
or EKG) (Fig. 5-16;
see Fig. 5-11)
ē-lek-trō-kardē-ō-gram
an electrical picture of the heart represented by positive and
negative deflections on a graph labeled with the letters P, Q,
R, S, and T, which correspond to events of the cardiac cycle
stress electrocardiogram
(stress ECG or EKG)
(Fig. 5-17)
stres ē-lek-trō-kardē-ō-gram
electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) of the heart recorded during
the induction of controlled physical exercise using a treadmill
or ergometer (bicycle); useful in detecting heart conditions
(e.g., ischemia or infarction)
Holter ambulatory
monitor
hōlter ambyū-lă-tōr-ē
moni-tŏr
portable electrocardiograph worn by the patient that monitors
electrical activity of the heart over 24 hours; useful in
detecting periodic abnormalities
intracardiac
electrophysiological
study (EPS)
intră-kardē-ak
ē-lektrō-fizē-ō-loji-kăl stŭdē
intracardiac catheter
ablation
intră-kardē-ak kathĕ-tĕr
ab-lāshŭn
invasive procedure involving placement of catheter-guided
electrodes within the heart to evaluate and map the electrical
conduction of cardiac arrhythmias; intracardiac catheter
ablation may be performed at the same time to treat the
arrhythmia
use of radiofrequency waves sent through a catheter within
the heart to treat arrhythmias by selectively destroying
myocardial tissue at sites that generate abnormal electrical
pathways
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
FIGURE 5-17 ■
Stress electrocardiography.
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
magnetic resonance
angiography (MRA)
mag-netik rezŏ-nǎnts
an-jē-ogră-fē
magnetic resonance imaging of the heart and blood vessels
for evaluation of pathology (see Fig. 8-15)
nuclear medicine imaging
nūklē-ǎr medi-sin imă-jing
radionuclide organ imaging of the heart after administration
of radioactive isotopes to visualize structures and to analyze
functions
myocardial radionuclide
perfusion scan
mı̄-ō-kardē-ăl rādē-ō-nūklı̄d
pĕr-fyūzhŭn skan
scan of the heart made after an intravenous (IV) injection of
an isotope (e.g., thallium) as it is absorbed by myocardial cells
in proportion to blood flow throughout the heart; useful in
evaluating coronary artery disease (CAD)
myocardial
radionuclide
perfusion stress scan
mı̄-ō-kardē-ăl
rādē-ō-nūklı̄d
pĕr-fyūzhŭn stres skan
nuclear perfusion scan of the heart that is made before and
after the induction of controlled physical exercise (treadmill
or bicycle) or a pharmaceutical agent that produces the effect
of exercise stress in patients who are unable to ambulate
multiple-gated
acquisition (MUGA) scan
mŭlti-pul-gātĕd
ak-wi-zishŭn skan
nuclear image of the beating heart in motion made as
radioactive isotopes are injected in the bloodstream and
traced through the heart’s chambers; useful in evaluating
the pumping function of the ventricles
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
TEST OR PROCEDURE
positron-emission
tomography (PET) scan
of the heart
pozi-tron-ē-mishǔn
tō-mogră-fē skan of the hart
radiology
rā-dē-olŏ-jē
237
EXPLANATION
use of specialized nuclear isotopes and computed
tomographic techniques to produce perfusion (blood flow)
images and to study the cellular metabolism of the heart; can
be performed at rest or with stress
x-ray imaging
angiography
an-jē-ogră-fē
process of x-ray imaging a blood vessel after injection of
contrast medium, most commonly after catheter placement
angiogram
anjē-ō-gram
record obtained by angiography
coronary angiogram
kōrŏ-nār-ē anjē-ō-gram
x-ray image of the blood vessels of the heart using a
catheter to inject contrast (see Fig. 5-2)
arteriogram
ar-tērē-ō-gram
x-ray image of a particular artery (e.g., coronary arteriogram
or renal arteriogram)
aortogram
ā-ōrtō-gram
x-ray image of the aorta
venogram
vēnō-gram
x-ray image of a vein
cardiac catheterization
(Fig. 5-18)
kardē-ak kathĕ-ter-ı̆-zāshŭn
introduction of a flexible, narrow tube (or catheter) through
a vein or artery into the heart to withdraw samples of blood,
to measure pressures within the heart chambers or vessels,
and to inject contrast media for fluoroscopic radiography
and cine film (motion picture) imaging of the chambers of the
heart and coronary arteries; often includes interventional procedures, such as angioplasty and atherectomy (see percutaneous coronary intervention [PCI] procedures listed under
Self-Instruction: Operative Terms)
left heart catheterization
left hart kathĕ-ter-ı̆-zāshŭn
x-ray imaging of the left ventricular cavity and coronary
arteries
right heart
catheterization
rı̄t hart kathĕ-ter-ı̆-zāshŭn
measurement of oxygen saturation and pressure readings of
the right side of the heart
ventriculogram
ven-trikū-lō-gram
x-ray image of the ventricles
stroke volume (SV)
strōk volyŭm
measurement of the amount of blood ejected from a ventricle
in one contraction
cardiac output (CO)
kǎrdē-ak owtput
measurement of the amount of blood ejected per minute
from either ventricle of the heart
ejection fraction
ē-jekshŭn frakshŭn
measurement of the volume percentage of left ventricular
contents ejected with each contraction
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A
Femoral vein
Femoral artery
Antecubital
vein
Brachial artery
Upper thigh insertion
Arm insertion
B
C
FIGURE 5-18 ■ Cardiac catheterization. A. Possible insertion sites for cardiac catheterization. B. Angiographic catheters. (Photo courtesy of Cook Incorporated, Bloomington, IN.)
C. Cardiac catheterization laboratory.
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
computed tomographic
angiography (CTA)
(Fig. 5-19)
kom-pyūtĕd tō-mo-grăfik
an-jē-ogră-fē
specialized, noninvasive, three-dimensional (3-D) computed
tomographic scan of the heart and circulation of the
“greater” blood vessels, such as the coronary arteries, aorta,
and pulmonary veins; performed with or without contrast
sonography
sŏ-nogră-fē
sonographic imaging
239
echocardiography
(echo) (Fig. 5-20)
ekō-kar-dē-ogră-fē
recording of sound waves through the heart to evaluate
structure and motion (see Fig. 5-1)
stress echocardiogram
(stress echo)
stres ek-ō-kardē-ō-gram
echocardiogram of the heart recorded during the induction of
controlled physical exercise (treadmill or bicycle) or a
pharmaceutical agent that produces the effect of exercise
stress in patients who are unable to ambulate; useful in
detecting conditions such as ischemia or infarction
transesophageal
echocardiogram (TEE)
trans-e-sofăj-ē-ăl
ek-ō-kardē-ō-gram
echocardiogram of the heart after placement of an ultrasonic
transducer at the end of an endoscope inside the esophagus
Doppler sonography
doplĕr sŏ-nogră-fē
ultrasound technique used to evaluate blood flow to
determine the presence of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) or
carotid insufficiency, or to determine flow through the heart,
chambers, valves, and so on (see Figs. 5-4 and 5-5)
FIGURE 5-19 ■ Computed tomographic angiography (CTA) of normal
heart. Arrows point to right coronary artery (RCA), left main coronary
artery, diagonal artery, and left anterior descending artery (LAD)
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FIGURE 5-20
■
Echocardiography (echo).
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Tests and Procedure
ANSWERS
REVIEW
chest
5.67 Recall that the combining form steth/o means ____________,
stethoscope
and that a __________________ is an instrument for listening to
sounds within the chest or elsewhere in the body. This procedure,
auscultation
from the Greek word meaning to listen, is called __________________.
5.68 Auscultation can be used to detect a heart murmur or other
abnormal heart sound, such as that which mimics the gait of a horse,
gallop
called a ____________.
record
5.69 The suffix -gram refers to a ____________. The combining
heart
form cardi/o refers to the ____________. A record of the electrical
electrocardiogram
conductivity of the heart is called an _________________________
(ECG or EKG). A special kind of electrocardiogram obtained during
stress
the physical stress of exercise is called a ____________
electrocardiogram
________________________.
vessel
5.70 The combining form angi/o refers to a _____________. The
suffix -graphy refers to the diagnostic process of making a record,
such as by x-ray imaging. The process of x-ray imaging a blood
angiography
vessel is called __________________, and the record itself is called an
angiogram
__________________. A coronary angiogram is an x-ray image of
heart
the blood vessels encircling the _____________.
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
ANSWERS
241
REVIEW
5.71 An x-ray of a particular artery is called an arteriogram. An
aortogram
x-ray image of the aorta is called an ________________. An x-ray
venogram
image of a vein is called a ________________.
5.72 A catheter can be introduced into the heart for diagnostic
cardiac catheterization
purposes. This process is called ____________ ____________________.
Left heart catheterization is usually done to obtain a radiograph of
right
the left ventricular cavity and coronary arteries, and _________ heart
oxygen
catheterization is usually done to measure ____________ saturation
and pressure.
ventriculogram
5.73 An x-ray image of the ventricles is called a _________________,
-gram
from the combining form ventricul/o and the suffix _________.
5.74 Cardiac catheterization also allows for measurement of stroke
volume (SV), or how much blood is ejected from a ventricle in one
contraction, output
________________. Cardiac ____________ (CO) measures the amount
of blood ejected per minute from either ventricle; ejection fraction
left
measures the volume percentage of the ________ ventricular contents
ejected
_____________ with each contraction.
magnetic
5.75 The abbreviation MRI stands for _______________
resonance imaging
_________________ _____________. The abbreviation MRA stands
angiography
for magnetic resonance __________________, which is specialized
imaging of the heart and blood vessels. The abbreviation CT stands
computed tomography
for ______________ _________________. The process abbreviated as
three-dimensional or 3-D
CTA provides a specialized __________-_________________________
heart
x-ray image of the ___________ and greater vessels.
radionuclide
5.76 Nuclear medicine imaging, or _________________
organ imaging
___________ ______________, uses radioactive isotopes to visualize
function
body structures and to analyze ______________. A myocardial
radionuclide
__________________ perfusion scan is made of the
heart, intravenous
___________ after __________________ (IV) injection of an isotope
myo, blood
is absorbed by ______cardial cells in proportion to ___________ flow.
A MUGA scan provides a nuclear image of the beating heart in
motion, pumping
__________ and is useful in evaluating the ____________ function of
positron
the ventricles. The abbreviation PET stands for ______________
emission tomography
________________ __________________, which is a nuclear scan that
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
isotopes
uses radioactive ______________ and computed tomographic (CT)
technology. PET is used in cardiology to study the cellular
metabolism of the heart. These scans can be made with the patient
stress
at rest or after exercise or ___________.
ultrasound
5.77 Sonography, or diagnostic _________________, is the imaging
sound
modality using high-frequency ____________ waves to visualize body
tissues. The recording of sound waves through the heart to evaluate
echo
structure and motion is called _______cardiography.
5.78 A record of the heart made with echocardiography (echo) is
echocardiogram
called an __________________________. If made during controlled
stress
exercise, it is called a _____________ echocardiogram. If made after
passing the transducer through the esophagus, it is called a
transesophageal
________________________ echocardiogram (TEE).
5.79 The type of sonography that uses ultrasound to evaluate
Doppler
blood flow is called _______________ sonography.
within, heart
5.80 Intracardiac means pertaining to ____________ the __________.
Physiological means pertaining to function. The invasive procedure
involving the placement of a catheter within the heart to map the
arrhythmias
electrical conduction of cardiac dysrhythmias, or _________________,
electrophysiological
is abbreviated as EPS, which stands for intracardiac _________________
study
___________. The myocardial tissue generating abnormal electrical
pathways can be treated at the time of an intracardiac
electrophysiological study by using high-frequency waves sent
through a catheter to ablate or destroy myocardial tissue responsible
for generating the abnormal conduction. This treatment is called
intracardiac, ablation
_________________ catheter _______________.
Self-Instruction: Operative Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
PROCEDURES PERFORMED IN THE TRADITIONAL OPERATING ROOM
coronary artery bypass
graft (CABG) (Fig. 5-21)
kōrŏ-nār-ē artĕr-ē bı̄pas graft
grafting a portion of a blood vessel retrieved from another
part of the body (e.g., a length of saphenous vein from the leg
or mammary artery from the chest wall) to bypass an occluded
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
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A. Common sites for bypass grafts
Aorta
Internal mammary
artery graft
Saphenous
vein grafts
B. Bypass process
Internal mammary
artery graft
Blocked artery
Chest
incision
Saphenous vein
Bypass graft
1. Bypass incisions
An incision is made in the chest,
dividing the sternum to allow
access to the heart.
2. Bypass vessels
The long saphenous vein in the
leg can be used to make several
bypasses, if needed. The internal
mammary artery may also be used
as a graft. Both are “excess” blood
vessels the body does not need.
3. Bypass grafting
Grafting is performed under
magnification using extremely
fine sutures. Each graft is sewn
to the aorta, except for the
internal mammary artery, which
already originates from a branch
of the aorta. The other end is
sewn to the artery below
the blockage.
FIGURE 5-21 ■ Traditional method of coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). A. Common sites for
bypass grafts. B. Bypass grafting.
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TERM
MEANING
coronary artery, restoring circulation to myocardial tissue; the
traditional method includes temporary arrest of the heart with
circulation (bypass) of the patient's blood through a heartlung machine during the procedure; an alternative, off-pump
approach uses a stabilizer to perform the procedure on the
beating heart; the abbreviation CABG is pronounced
“cabbage”
anastomosis
ă-nastō-mōsis
opening; the joining of two blood vessels to allow flow
from one to the other
endarterectomy
end’ar-tĕr-ektŏ-mē
surgical removal of the lining of an artery to clear a blockage
caused by a clot or atherosclerotic plaque buildup
valve replacement
valv rē-plāsment
surgery to replace a diseased heart valve with an artificial
valve; there are two types of artificial valves: tissue valves, most
commonly made from animal tissue (e.g., porcine [pig] or
bovine [cow]), and mechanical valves, made from synthetic
material
valvuloplasty
valvyū-lō-plas-tē
surgical repair of a defective heart valve
PROCEDURES PERFORMED IN A CATHETERIZATION LABORATORY
percutaneous coronary
intervention (PCI)
(Fig. 5-22)
pĕr-kyū-tānē-yŭs kōrŏ-nārē
intĕr-venshǔn
interventional procedures used to treat coronary artery
disease (CAD) performed at the time of cardiac
catheterization in a specialized laboratory setting (or “cath
lab”) instead of the traditional operating room
angioscopy
an-jē-oskō-pē
vascular endoscopy
vaskyū-lăr en-doskŏ-pē
use of a flexible fiberoptic angioscope (accompanied by an
irrigation system, camera, video recorder, and monitor) that
is guided through a specific blood vessel to visually assess
a lesion and to select the mode of therapy
atherectomy
(see Fig. 5-22, A)
ath-e-rektō-mē
excision of atheromatous plaque from within an artery
utilizing a device housed in a flexible catheter that
selectively cuts away or pulverizes tissue buildup
percutaneous
transluminal coronary
angioplasty (PTCA)
(see Fig. 5-2)
pĕr-kyū-tānē-ŭs
tranzlū-menăl kōrŏ-nār-ē
anjē-ō-plas-tē
a method for treating the narrowing of a coronary artery by
inserting a specialized catheter with a balloon attachment,
then inflating the balloon to dilate and open the narrowed
portion of the vessel and restore blood flow to the
myocardium; most often includes the placement of a stent
intravascular stent
placement
(see Fig. 5-22, B)
intrǎ-vaskyū-lăr stent
plāsment
implantation of a device used to reinforce the wall of a
vessel and assure its patency (openness); most often used to
treat a stenosis or a dissection (a split or tear in the wall of
a vessel) or to reinforce patency of a vessel after angioplasty
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A
Atheromatous
debris
Drive cable
Diamondcoated burr
Cutting blade
Nose cone
(collection
chamber)
Balloon
Cutter
Guide wire
Guide wire
Rotational catheter
Transluminal
extraction catheter
Guide wire
Directional catheter
B
Stent delivered
Stent expanded
Stent in place
FIGURE 5-22 ■ Examples of devices used in percutaneous coronary interventional procedures. A. Atherectomy devices. B. Intravascular stent.
Programmed Review: Operative Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
5.81 The suffix -scopy refers to the process of examination.
vessel
Angioscopy is the examination of a blood ___________ using a
angioscope
fiberoptic _________________.
-ectomy
5.82 The suffix ___________ refers to removal or excision. Removal
atherectomy
of an atheromatous plaque is called an ____________________. Using
the prefix endo-, the term for the surgical removal of the lining of an
endarterectomy
artery is an ____________________.
bypass
5.83 CABG is the abbreviation for a coronary artery ___________
graft
__________, in which a portion of a blood vessel is grafted in place to
bypass an occluded coronary artery.
vessels
5.84 An anastomosis is the joining of two blood _____________ to
allow flow from one to the other.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
5.85 The suffix -plasty refers to a surgical repair or reconstruction.
valvuloplasty
A __________________ is the repair of a defective heart valve. Valve
replacement describes the replacement of a diseased heart valve with
an artificial valve. Types of artificial valves include mechanical ones,
tissue
made from synthetic material, and ___________ valves made from
pig, cow
animal tissue, such as porcine (_______) or bovine (________).
vessel
5.86 An angioplasty is the surgical repair of a blood ___________.
A specialized procedure called a percutaneous transluminal
coronary angioplasty
___________________ _____________________ (PTCA) is a treatment
for a narrowed coronary artery.
stent
5.87 An intravascular ___________ is implanted to keep a blood
vessel open and to reinforce the vessel’s wall.
Self-Instruction: Therapeutic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
defibrillation (Fig. 5-23)
d ē-fib-ri-lāshŭn
termination of ventricular fibrillation by delivering an
electrical stimulus to the heart; most commonly, this is done
by applying the electrodes of the defibrillator externally to the
chest wall, but it can also be performed internally, such as
during open heart surgery or via an implanted device
defibrillator
d ē-fibri-lā-tŏr
device that delivers the electrical stimulus in defibrillation
cardioversion
kard ē-ō-verzhŭn
restoration of a fast or irregular heart rate to a normal rhythm,
either by pharmaceutical means or by delivery of electrical
energy
implantable cardioverter
defibrillator (ICD)
im-plantǎ-bĕl
kardē-ō-verter
dē-fibri-lā-t ŏr
an implanted, battery-operated device with rate-sensing leads;
the device monitors cardiac impulses and initiates an
electrical stimulus as needed to stop ventricular fibrillation or
tachycardia
pacemaker (Fig. 5-24)
pāsmā-kĕr
a device used to treat slow heart rates (bradycardia) by
electrically stimulating the heart to contract; most often, it is
implanted with lead wires and battery circuitry under the skin,
but it can also be placed on a temporary basis externally with
lead wires inserted into the heart via a vein
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FIGURE 5-23 ■ A. External defibrillation. B. Internal defibrillation performed in
the operating room.
TERM
MEANING
COMMON THERAPEUTIC DRUG CLASSIFICATIONS
angiotensin-converting
enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
an-jē-ō-tensin-kon-verting
enzı̄m in-hibi-tŏr
drug that suppresses the conversion of angiotensin in the
blood by the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE); used in
the treatment of hypertension
antianginal
antē-anji-năl
drug that dilates coronary arteries, restoring oxygen to the
tissues to relieve the pain of angina pectoris
antiarrhythmic
antē-ă-rithmik
drug that counteracts cardiac arrhythmia
anticoagulant
antē-kō-agyū-lant
drug that prevents clotting of the blood; commonly used in
the treatment of thrombophlebitis and myocardial infarction
antihypertensive
antē-hı̄-per-tensiv
drug that lowers blood pressure
beta-adrenergic
blocking agents
bātă-ad-rĕ-nĕrjik
bloking ājentz
beta-blockers
bātă-blokĕrz
agents that inhibit responses to sympathetic adrenergic nerve
activity, causing a slowing of electrical conduction and heart
rate and a lowering of the pressure within the walls of the
vessels; used to treat angina pectoris and hypertension; the
Greek small letter beta is commonly used in the names of
these agents (i.e., -blockers)
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Small incision
Pacemaker
Leads
Pacemaker
Right
atrium
Right
ventricle
A small incision is made in the upper
chest, below the clavicle, to access
a large vein nearby.
The pacemaker leads are then guided
through the vein and into the heart.
After proper placement is determined,
the leads are secured in position.
A
A small “pocket” to house the pacemaker
is created just under the skin at the
incision site. The leads are connected
to the pacemaker that is secured in
the “pocket.” Finally, the incision is closed
with a few sutures.
B
FIGURE 5-24 ■ Pacemaker. A. Endocardial pacemaker.
radiographs on screen show pacemaker placement.
B. Teleradiology/critical care workstation chest
TERM
MEANING
calcium-channel blockers
kalsē-ŭm-chanĕl blokĕrz
agents that inhibit the entry of calcium ions into heart muscle
cells, causing a slowing of the heart rate, a lessening of the
demand for oxygen and nutrients, and a relaxing of the
smooth muscle cells of the blood vessels to cause dilation;
used to prevent or treat angina pectoris, some arrhythmias,
and hypertension
cardiotonic
kardē-ō-tonik
drug that increases the force of myocardial contractions in
the heart; commonly used to treat congestive heart failure
(CHF)
diuretic
dı̄-yū-retik
drug that increases the secretion of urine; commonly
prescribed in treating hypertension
hypolipidemic
hı̄-pō-lipi-dēmik
drug that reduces serum fat and cholesterol
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TERM
MEANING
thrombolytic agents
throm-bō-litik ājentz
drugs used to dissolve thrombi (blood clots) (e.g.,
streptokinase or tissue plasminogen activator [TPA or tPA]);
used in acute management of myocardial infarction (MI) and
ischemic stroke; commonly called “clot busters”
vasoconstrictor
vāsō-kon-striktŏr
drug that causes a narrowing of the blood vessels, thereby
decreasing blood flow
vasodilator
vāsō-dı̄-lātŏr
drug that causes dilation of the blood vessels, thereby
increasing blood flow
Programmed Review: Therapeutic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
bradycardia
5.88 The term for a condition of slow heart is __________________.
A device that is surgically implanted to make a slow heart maintain
pacemaker
an adequate pace is called a __________________.
fast
5.89 Tachycardia is a condition of _________ heart rate.
Version is a process of turning. The method of turning an
abnormally fast or irregular heart rate back to normal by use of a
cardioversion
drug or delivery of electrical energy is called _________________.
5.90 Chaotic, irregular contractions of the heart are called
fibrillation, not
_________________. The prefix de- means from, down, or _______.
A device used on a patient to stop ventricular fibrillation is called a
defibrillator
_________________. The process of doing so is called defibrillation.
5.91 An implantable device that initiates an electrical stimulus to
implantable
stop ventricular fibrillation or tachycardia is called an ______________
cardioverter defibrillator
_______________________ _____________________ (ICD).
against or opposed to
5.92 The prefix anti- means ______________. Drugs in the class
coagulation or clotting
known as anticoagulants work to prevent ________________. A drug
hypertensive
that lowers high blood pressure is called an anti_________________.
chest pain
5.93 Recall that angina pectoris is ___________ _________. Drugs
antianginal
that treat this pain are classified as ________________ drugs.
Nitroglycerin is a common antianginal medication. It acts as a
dilator
vaso__________, causing the coronary arteries to expand and, thereby,
increasing the flow of blood to the heart muscle tissue, also known
myocardium
as the ___________________.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
5.94 A drug that counteracts a cardiac arrhythmia is called an
arrhythmic
anti_________________.
5.95 A number of different drug classifications are used to treat
hypertension. Beta-adrenergic blocking agents, also called, more
beta-blockers
simply, _________-______________, work by inhibiting responses to a
nerve activity and slowing electrical conduction and heart rate.
5.96 Another type of antihypertensive drug works by inhibiting the
entry of calcium ions into heart muscle cells, thereby slowing the
calcium-
heart and causing other changes. These are called _______________-
channel
______________ blockers.
5.97 Another antihypertensive drug, called a diuretic, works by
urine
increasing the secretion of ___________ from the body.
5.98 Congestive heart failure (CHF) is often treated with drugs that
increase the force of ventricular contractions. These drugs are
tonic
called cardio__________ agents.
5.99 Recall that lipids are fats. Using the prefix hypo-, the term for a
drug that lowers the amount of fat in the blood is a
hypolipid
________________emic agent.
breaking down or dissolution
5.100 The suffix -lysis means _______________ _________. Drugs
clots
that work to dissolve thrombi or ________ in the blood are called
thrombo
___________lytic agents. Thrombolytics, commonly known as
clot busters
________ ____________, are used in acute management of ischemic
myocardial infarction
stroke and ________________ _______________ (MI).
CHAPTER 5 ACRONYMS AND ABBREVIATIONS
ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
ACE
angiotensin-converting enzyme
ACS
acute coronary syndrome
ASD
atrial septal defect
AV
atrioventricular
BP
blood pressure
CABG
coronary artery bypass graft
CAD
coronary artery disease
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
CHF
congestive heart failure
CO
cardiac output
CTA
computed tomographic angiography
DVT
deep vein thrombosis
ECG or EKG
electrocardiogram
ECHO
echocardiography
EPS
electrophysiological study
HTN
hypertension
ICD
implantable cardioverter defibrillator
IV
intravenous
MI
myocardial infarction
MRA
magnetic resonance angiography
MUGA
multiple-gated acquisition (scan)
MVP
mitral valve prolapse
NSR
normal sinus rhythm
PCI
percutaneous coronary intervention
PDA
patent ductus arteriosus
PET
positron-emission tomography
PTCA
percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
PVC
premature ventricular contraction
SA
sinoatrial
SCA
sudden cardiac arrest
SV
stroke volume
TEE
transesophageal echocardiogram
tPA or TPA
tissue plasminogen activator
VSD
ventricular septal defect
251
CHAPTER 5 SUMMARY OF TERMS
The terms introduced in chapter 5 are listed below, followed by the page number on which each
term can be found and its written pronunciation. For additional practice and reinforcement, write
the definition of each term on a separate piece of paper.
acute coronary syndrome (ACS)/227
ă-kyūt kōrŏ-nār-ē sindrōm
aneurysm/223
anyū-rizm
anastomosis/244
ă-nastō-mōsis
angina pectoris/223
anji-nă pektō-ris
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angiogram/237
anjē-ō-gram
atrium/212
ātrē-ŭm
angiography/237
an-jē-ogră-fē
auscultation/234
aws-k ŭl-tāshŭn
angioscopy/244
an-jē-oskō-pē
bacterial endocarditis/227
bak-tērē-ăl endō-kar-dı̄tis
angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE)
inhibitor/247
an-jē-ō-tensin-kon-verting enzı̄m in-hibi-tŏr
beta-adrenergic blocking agents/247
bātă-ad-rĕ-nĕrjik bloking ājentz
antianginal/247
antē-anji-năl
antiarrhythmic/247
antē-ă-rithmik
anticoagulant/247
antē-kō-agyū-lant
antihypertensive/247
antē-hı̄-per-tensiv
aorta/213
ā-ōrtă
aortic valve/213
ă-ōrtik valv
aortogram/237
ā-ōrtō-gram
arrhythmia/227
ă-rithm ē-ă
arteries/213
artĕr-ēz
arteriogram/237
ar-tērē-ō-gram
arterioles/213
ar-tērē-ōlz
arteriosclerosis/223
ar-tērē-ō-skler-ōsis
atherectomy/244
ath-e-rektō-mē
atheromatous plaque/223
ath-ĕr-ōmă-tŭs plak
beta-blockers/247
bātă-blokĕrz
bicuspid valve/213
bı̄-k ŭspid valv
bradycardia/227
brad-ē-kard ē-ă
bundle of His/221
bŭndĕl of hiz
calcium-channel blockers/248
kalsē-ŭm-chanĕl blokĕrz
capillaries/213
kapi-lār-ēz
cardiac catheterization/237
kard ē-ak kathĕ-ter-ı̄-zāsh ŭn
cardiac output (CO)/237
kǎrd ē-ak owtput
cardiac tamponade/227
kard ē-ak tam-p ŏ-nād
cardiomyopathy/227
kardē-ō-mı̄-opă-thē
cardiotonic/248
kard ē-ō-tonik
cardioversion/246
kar d ē-ō-verzh ŭn
claudication/223
klaw-di-kāsh ŭn
coarctation of the aorta/227
kō-ark-tāshŭn of the ā-ōrtă
atherosclerosis/223
ather-ō-skler-ōsis
computed tomographic angiography
(CTA)/239
kom-pyūtĕd tō-mo-graf ik an-jē-ogră-f ē
atrial septal defect (ASD)/227
ātrē-ăl septăl dēfekt
congenital anomaly of the heart /227
kon-jenı̆-tăl ah-nomah-lē of the hart
atrioventricular (AV) node/221
ătrē-ō-ven-trikyū-lăr nōd
congestive heart failure (CHF)/229
kon-jestiv hart f ālyūr
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
constriction/223
kon-strikshŭn
endocardium/212
en-dō-kardē-ŭm
cor pulmonale/229
kōr pul-mō-nālē
epicardium/212
ep-i-kardē-ŭm
coronary angiogram/237
kōrŏ-nār-ē anjē-ō-gram
essential hypertension/229
ĕ-senshăl hı̄pĕr-tenshŭn
coronary artery bypass graft
(CABG)/242
kōr ŏ-nār-ē artĕr-ē bı̄pas graft
fibrillation/227
fi-bri-lāshŭn
coronary artery disease (CAD)/229
kōr ŏ-nār-ē ar tĕr-ē di-zēz
coronary circulation/214
kōrŏ-nār-ē ser-kyū-lāshŭn
deep vein thrombosis (DVT)/230
d ēp vān throm-bōsis
defibrillation/246
d ē-fib-ri-lāshŭn
defibrillator/246
dē-fibri-lā-tŏr
depolarization/222
d ē-pōlăr-i-zāshŭn
diaphoresis/223
d ı̄ă-f ō-rēsis
diastole/219
dı̄-astō-lē
fusiform aneurysm/223
fyūsi-form anyū-rizm
gallop/234
galŏp
heart murmur/224
hart mǔrmǔr
heart valves/213
hart valvz
Holter ambulatory monitor/235
hōlter ambyū-lă-tōr-ē moni-tŏr
hypertension (HTN)/219, 229
hı̄pĕr-tenshŭn
hypolipidemic/248
hı̄-pō-lipi-dēmik
hypotension/219
hı̄pō-tenshŭn
dissecting aneurysm/223
di-sekting anyū-rizm
implantable cardioverter defibrillator
(ICD)/246
im-plantă-bel kardē-ō-verter dē-fibri-lā-tŏr
diuretic/248
d ı̄-yū-retik
infarct/224
infarkt
Doppler sonography/239
dopl ĕr sŏ-nogră-f ē
interatrial septum/212
intĕr-ātrē-ăl septŭm
dysrhythmia/227
dis-rithmē-ă
interventricular septum/212
intĕr-ven-trikyū-lăr septŭm
echocardiography (echo)/239
ekō-kar-dē-ogră-f ē
intracardiac catheter ablation/235
intră-kardē-ak kathĕ-tĕr ab-lāshun
ejection fraction/237
ē-jekshŭn frakshŭn
electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG)/235
ē-lek-trō-kardē-ō-gram
intracardiac electrophysiological study
(EPS)/235
intră-kardē-ak ē-lektrō-fizē-ō-loji-kăl
stŭdē
embolus/224
embō-lŭs
intravascular stent placement/244
intra-vaskyū-lăr stent plāsment
endarterectomy/244
endar-tĕr-ektŏ-mē
ischemia/224
is-kēmē-ă
253
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left heart catheterization/237
left hart kathĕ-ter- ı̆-zāshŭn
left ventricular failure/229
left ven-trikyū-lăr f ālyūr
magnetic resonance angiography
(MRA)/236
mag-netik rezŏ-nǎnts an-jē-ogră-f ē
mitral valve/213
mı̄trăl valv
mitral valve prolapse (MVP)/230
mı̄trăl valv prōlaps
multiple-gated acquisition (MUGA)
scan/236
mŭlti-pul-gātĕd ak-wi-zishŭn skan
myocardial infarction (MI)/230
mı̄-ō-kardē-ăl in-farkshŭn
myocardial radionuclide perfusion
scan/236
mı̄-ō-kardē-ăl rādē-ō-nūklı̄d pĕr-fyūzhŭn skan
myocardial radionuclide perfusion stress
scan/236
mı̄-ō-kardē-ăl rādē-ō-nūklı̄d pĕr-fyūzhŭn stres
skan
myocarditis/230
mı̄ō-kar-dı̄tis
myocardium/213
mı̄ō-kardē-ŭm
normal sinus rhythm (NSR)/222
nōrmăl sı̄nŭs rithŭm
normotension/219
nōr-mō-tenshŭn
percutaneous coronary intervention
(PCI)/244
pĕr-kyū-tānē-yŭs kōrŏ-nār-ē
intĕr-venshŭn
percutaneous transluminal coronary
angioplasty (PTCA)/244
pĕr-kyū-tānē-yŭs tranzlū-menăl kōrŏ-nār-ē
anjē-ō-plas-tē
perfusion deficit/224
pĕr-fyūzhŭn def i-sit
pericardial cavity/213
per-i-kard ē-ăl kavi-tē
pericarditis/230
peri-kar-dı̄tis
pericardium/213
per-i-kard ē-ŭm
phlebitis/230
f le-bı̄tis
polarization/222
pōlăr-i-zāshŭn
positron-emission tomography (PET)
scan of the heart/237
pozi-tron ē-mishŭn tō-mogră-fē skan of the hart
premature ventricular contraction
(PVC)/227
prē-mă-t ūr ven-trikū-lăr kon-trakshŭn
primary hypertension/229
prı̄mār-ē hı̄pĕr-tenshŭn
pulmonary circulation/214
pulmō-nār-ē sı̆r-kyū-lāshŭn
pulmonary semilunar valve/213
pulmō-năr-ē sem-ē-l ūnăr valv
nuclear medicine imaging/236
n ūklē-ǎr medi-sin imă-jing
Purkinje fibers/222
pĕr-kinjē f ı̄bĕrz
occlusion/224
ŏ-klūzhŭn
Purkinje network/222
pĕr-kinjē netwŏrk
pacemaker/246
pāsmā-kĕr
radiology/237
rā-dē-olŏ-jē
palpitation/224
pal-pi-tāshŭn
repolarization/222
rēpō-lăr-i-zāshŭn
parietal pericardium/213
pă-rı̄ĕ-tăl per-i-kardē-ŭm
rheumatic heart disease/230
rū-matik hart di-zēz
patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)/229
pātent dŭktŭs ar-tērē-ōsus
right heart catheterization/237
rı̄t hart kathĕ-ter-ı̆-zāshŭn
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
right ventricular failure/229
rı̄t ven-trikyū-lăr f ālyūr
tricuspid valve/213
trı̄-kŭspid valv
saccular aneurysm/223
sak-yū-lăr anyū-rizm
valve replacement/244
valv rē-plāsment
secondary hypertension/229
sekŏn-dārē hı̄pĕr-tenshŭn
valves of the veins/213
valvz of the vānz
sinoatrial (SA) node/221
sı̄nō-ătrē-ăl nōd
valvuloplasty/244
valvyū-lō-plas-tē
sonography/239
sŏ-nogră-f ē
varicose veins/230
vari-kōs vānz
stenosis/224
ste-nōsis
vascular endoscopy/244
vaskyū-lăr en-doskŏ-pē
stress echocardiogram (stress echo)/239
stres ekō-kardē-ō-gram
vasoconstrictor/249
vāsō-kon-striktŏr
stress electrocardiogram (stress ECG
or EKG)/235
stres ē-lek-trō-kardē-ō-gram
vasodilator/249
vāsō-dı̄-lātŏr
stroke volume (SV)/237
strōk volyŭm
sudden cardiac arrest (SCA)/230
sŭddĕn kardē-ak ă-rest
systemic circulation/214
sis-temik sı̆r-kyū-lāshŭn
systole/219
sistō-lē
vegetation/224
vej-ĕ-tāshŭn
veins/213
vānz
venogram/237
vēnō-gram
ventricle/213
ventri-kĕl
tachycardia/227
tak-i-kardē-ă
ventricular septal defect
(VSD)/229
ven-trikyū-lăr septăl dēfekt
thrombolytic agents/249
throm-bō-litik ājentz
ventriculogram/237
ven-trikyū-lō-gram
thrombophlebitis/230
thrombō-fle-bı̄tis
venules/213
venyūlz
thrombus/224
thrombŭs
visceral pericardium/213
visĕr-ăl per-i-kardē-ŭm
transesophageal echocardiogram
(TEE)/239
trans-e-sof ăj-ē-ăl ek-o-kardē-ō-gram
255
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PRACTICE EXERCISES
For each of the following words, write out the term components (prefixes [P],
combining forms [CF], roots [R], and suffixes [S]) on the lines below the word.
Then define the term according to the meaning of its components.
EXAMPLE:
pericardial
peri / _____
cardi / _____
al
_____
P
R
S
DEFINITION: around/heart/pertaining to
1. angiography
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
2. varicosis
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
3. pectoral
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
4. vasospasm
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
5. venous
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
6. thrombophlebitis
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
7. vasculopathy
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
8. atherogenesis
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
256
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
257
9. stethoscope
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
10. myocardium
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
11. aortoplasty
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
12. venostomy
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION:________________________________________________________________________
13. phlebotomy
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
14. ventriculography
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION:________________________________________________________________________
15. phlebitis
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION:________________________________________________________________________
16. angioplasty
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION:________________________________________________________________________
17. endovascular
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
18. arteriogram
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
19. atherectomy
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION:________________________________________________________________________
20. intracardiac
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
Write the letter of the matching meaning in the space after the term.
21. atherosclerosis
_____
a. high blood pressure
22. infarct
_____
b. bulging of a vessel
23. hypotension
_____
c. stationary clot
24. vegetation
_____
d. cramp in leg muscle
25. embolus
_____
e. normal blood pressure
26. occlusion
_____
f. hard, nonelastic condition of arterial walls
27. hypertension
_____
g. traveling clot that obstructs when it lodges
28. thrombus
_____
h. buildup of fat
29. constriction
_____
i. growth of tissue
30. normotension
_____
j. a plugging
31. angina
_____
k. loss of blood flow
32. claudication
_____
l. compression that causes narrowing
33. ischemia
_____
m. cramp in heart muscle
34. arteriosclerosis
_____
n. low blood pressure
35. aneurysm
_____
o. scar left by necrosis
Write the correct medical term for each of the following definitions:
36. ___________________________ malformations of the heart present at birth
37. ___________________________ thickening, loss of elasticity, and calcification (hardening)
of arterial walls
38. ___________________________ irregularity or loss of rhythm of the heartbeat
39. ___________________________ a general term for disease of the heart muscle
40. ___________________________ joining of two blood vessels to allow flow from one vessel
to the other
41. ___________________________ an abnormal heart sound that mimics the gait of a horse
42. ___________________________ a recording of sound waves directed through the heart to
evaluate structure and motion
43. ___________________________ a condition of enlargement of the right ventricle as a result
of chronic disease within the lungs
44. ___________________________ an x-ray image of the blood vessels of the heart made with
the introduction of a catheter and the release of a contrast
medium
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
259
45. ___________________________ electrocardiogram of the heart recorded during controlled
physical exercise
Identify the structures of the heart by writing the missing words in the spaces provided:
Superior vena cava
Aortic arch
46. Atrial
Aorta
Pulmonary
artery
Pulmonary veins
50. Left
Mitral valve
51. Aortic
52. Pulmonary
47. Right
valve
53. Left
48. Tricuspid
54. Ventricular
49. Right
Endocardium
Inferior vena cava
Myocardium
Epicardium
Oxygenated blood
Pericardium
Deoxygenated blood
46.
49.
52.
47.
50.
53.
48.
51.
54.
Write out the expanded term for each abbreviation:
55. PVC _____________________________________________________________________________
56. PDA _____________________________________________________________________________
57. ACS ______________________________________________________________________________
58. ICD ______________________________________________________________________________
59. CHF _____________________________________________________________________________
60. CAD _____________________________________________________________________________
61. HTN _____________________________________________________________________________
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
62. MVP _____________________________________________________________________________
63. PCI ______________________________________________________________________________
64. VSD _____________________________________________________________________________
Match the following abbreviations with their meanings:
65. EPS
_____
a. balloon angioplasty
66. ECG
_____
b. magnetic resonance of blood vessels
67. tPA
_____
c. cessation of heart contractions
68. MRA
_____
d. heart bypass surgery
69. PTCA
_____
e. electrical picture of heart
70. MI
_____
f. echocardiogram directed through the esophagus
71. DVT
_____
g. left ventricular failure
72. ASD
_____
h. thrombolytic drug
73. CABG
_____
i. abnormal opening in the atrial septum
74. TEE
_____
j. heart attack
75. CHF
_____
k. cardiac catheter technique to map arrhythmias
76. SCA
_____
l. clot in vein
Circle the correct spelling:
77. ventricel
ventrical
ventricle
78. aorta
aorto
aorrta
79. thrombos
thrombus
thrommbus
80. myocardial
mycardial
myocardiol
81. hypatension
hyptension
hypotension
82. diastolie
diastoly
diastole
83. ischemia
ishchemia
ishemia
84. oclusion
occlusion
ocllusion
85. infart
enfarct
infarct
86. anuerysm
aneurysm
annurysm
87. atherosclerotic
atherosclerrotic
atherasclerotic
88. thromboflebitus
thromboflebitis
thrombophlebitis
89. diaphoresis
diaporesis
diephoresis
90. defibrillation
defibillation
defibrilation
91. antarhythmic
antiarrhythmic
antiarhythmic
Write the term that means the opposite of the term given:
92. vasoconstriction ____________________________
93. coagulant
____________________________
94. hypotension
____________________________
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
95. bradycardia
____________________________
96. diastole
____________________________
Circle the combining form that corresponds to the meaning given:
97. chest
phleb/o
sphygm/o
pector/o
98. vein
aort/o
phleb/o
varic/o
99. vessel
angi/o
arteri/o
coron/o
100. heart
ven/o
coron/o
cardi/o
101. fatty paste
aort/o
ather/o
atri/o
102. circle
cardi/o
coron/o
sphygm/o
103. pulse
sphygm/o
steth/o
thromb/o
104. clot
atri/o
angi/o
thromb/o
105. artery
arteri/o
angi/o
aort/o
261
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MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 5-1
PROGRESS NOTE
S: This 54 y.o. was admitted to CCU with onset of acute anterior chest pain radiating to the
left shoulder and SOB; pt underwent a CABG 4 six months ago.
O: BP 190/110, P 100, R 72, T 38˚C
On PE, pt was in moderate to severe distress. An ECG showed sinus tachycardia, and a
CXR revealed left ventricular hypertrophy.
A: R/O MI
P: Order blood enzyme measurement STAT
Echocardiogram
CT scan of chest
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 5-1
1. What is the patient’s CC?
a. severe angina
b. angina developing slowly over time
c. enlargement of the heart
d. fast heart rate
e. slow heart rate
2. Describe the procedure that the patient
underwent 6 months ago:
a. surgery to dilate and open narrowed portions of coronary arteries
b. diversion of blood flow around occluded
coronary arteries
c. replacement of a diseased heart valve
d. coring of the lining of an artery to
remove a clot
e. heart transplant
3. Where was the patient treated?
a. outpatient medical office
b. outpatient emergency room
c. inpatient intensive care
d. inpatient coronary care
e. outpatient cardiology department
4. What type of physician is most appropriate
to provide initial care and assessment of
this patient?
a. ER physician
b. internist
c. gerontologist
d. cardiovascular surgeon
e. cardiologist
5. What did the electrical picture of the heart
reveal?
a. extremely rapid but regular contractions
of the heart
b. slow heart rate
c. chaotic, irregular contractions of the heart
d. fast heart rate
e. interference with normal electrical conduction of the heart known as a block
6. What was the assessment?
a. patient may have had a heart attack
b. patient may be suffering from right heart
failure
c. patient has congestive heart failure
d. patient may have high blood pressure
e. patient may have an enlarged heart
7. What were the objective findings of the
chest radiograph?
a. unknown
b. increase in size of left ventricle
c. vessel disease
d. dead heart muscle
e. fast heart rate
8. Identify the x-ray imaging procedure
ordered in the plan:
a. sonogram of heart
b. chest radiography
c. blood pressure
d. computed tomography
e. biochemistry panel
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
263
Medical Record 5-2
FOR ADDITIONAL STUDY
Richard Stratten has had serious heart problems for more than 10 years and has undergone two
operations. During the past six months, he has developed increasing pain in the chest and is having more trouble breathing. His cardiologist, Dr. Charles Feingold, has now admitted him to
Central Medical Center for further tests. Medical Record 5-2 is the history and physical examination report dictated by Dr. Feingold after his examination of Mr. Stratten.
Read Medical Record 5-2 (pages 266–269), then write your answers to the following questions
in the spaces provided.
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 5-2
1. Below are medical terms used in this record that you have not yet encountered in this text.
Underline each where it appears in the record, and define the term below:
obtuse ____________________________________________________________________________
dyspnea (dyspneic) __________________________________________________________________
hiatal hernia _______________________________________________________________________
basilar rales ________________________________________________________________________
visceromegaly ______________________________________________________________________
clubbing ___________________________________________________________________________
2. In your own words (not using medical terminology), briefly describe why Mr. Stratten has
been admitted to the hospital and what test he will be undergoing:
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
3. Name the diagnosis that underlies the nature of Mr. Stratten’s heart conditions:
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
Briefly describe this diagnosis using nonmedical language:
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
4. Identify the surgical procedure noted in the history that was performed initially to treat Mr.
Stratten’s heart disease:
a. dilation of narrow occluded coronary arteries
b. replacement of occluded arteries with transplanted portion of vein
c. replacement of a diseased heart valve
d. coring of the lining of an artery to remove a thrombus
e. heart transplant
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
5. What were the patient’s symptoms 8 years later on May 15, 20xx?
___________________________________________________________________________________
Using nonmedical language, briefly describe the diagnosis made at that time:
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
6. Describe the test that showed changes consistent with the diagnosis:
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
7. Spell out TPA, and identify the reason why the drug was given to Mr. Stratten:
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
8. Which of the following were findings of the radiographic tests performed after the May 15th
hospitalization? (Mark all that are appropriate.)
a. hemorrhage of insertion site of obtuse marginal artery graft
b. thromboembolism in the left anterior descending artery
c. occluded circumflex artery
d. torn sutures of the circumflex artery graft
e. stenosis of the left anterior descending artery graft
f. total occlusion of the left internal mammary vein graft
g. dilated right coronary artery graft
9. List the arteries that were grafted in both bypass operations:
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
10. Using nonmedical language, list the three symptoms Mr. Stratten is now experiencing:
a. _________________________________________________________________________________
b. _________________________________________________________________________________
c. _________________________________________________________________________________
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
265
11. Mr. Stratten is taking eight different medications. Translate the medication instructions for
each one:
Drug Name
Dose
Frequency of Dose
_________________________
__________________________
_________________________
_________________________
__________________________
_________________________
_________________________
__________________________
_________________________
_________________________
__________________________
_________________________
_________________________
__________________________
_________________________
_________________________
__________________________
_________________________
_________________________
__________________________
_________________________
_________________________
__________________________
_________________________
12. What family members have had a medical history of problems in the same body system?
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
13. In addition to Mr. Stratten’s heart problems, Dr. Feingold’s physical examination revealed
abnormal findings in what other areas?
a. head
b. abdomen
c. extremities
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
14. What does “probable end-stage cardiomyopathy” mean? What treatment seemed possible to
Dr. Feingold, even though he had not yet performed the diagnostic tests for which he hospitalized Mr. Stratten?
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
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Medical Record 5-2: For Additional Study
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
Medical Record 5-2: For Additional Study (Continued)
267
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Medical Record 5-2: For Additional Study (Continued)
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
Medical Record 5-2: For Additional Study (Continued)
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS TO PRACTICE EXERCISES
1. angio/graphy
_____ ______
CF
S
vessel/process of
recording
2. varic/osis
____ ____
R S
swollen, twisted
vein/condition or
increase
3. pector/al
_____ __
R S
chest/pertaining to
4. vaso/spasm
____ ______
CF S
vessel/involuntary
contraction
5. ven/ous
___ ____
R S
vein/pertaining to
6. thrombo/phleb/itis
________ _____ ___
CF
R
S
clot/vein/inflammation
7. vasculo/path/y
______ ____ __
CF
R S
vessel/disease/condition
or process of
8. athero/genesis
_____ _______
CF
S
fatty paste (lipids)/origin
or production
9. stetho/scope
_____ ______
CF
S
chest/instrument for
examination
10. myo/card/ium
____ ___ ____
CF R S
muscle/heart/structure
or tissue
11. aorto/plasty
____ ______
CF
S
aorta/surgical repair or
reconstruction
12. veno/stomy
____ ______
CF
S
vein/creation of an
opening
13. phlebo/tomy
______ _____
CF
S
vein/incision
14. ventriculo/graphy
_________ ______
CF
S
ventricle/process of
recording
15. phleb/itis
_____ ___
R
S
vein/inflammation
16. angio/plasty
_____ _____
CF
S
vessel/surgical repair
or reconstruction
17. endo/vascul/ar
____ ______ __
P
R
S
within/vessel/
pertaining to
18. arterio/gram
______ _____
CF
S
artery/record
19. ather/ectomy
____ _______
R
S
fat (lipids)/excision
or removal
20. intra/cardi/ac
____ ____ ___
P
R S
within/heart/
pertaining to
21. h
22. o
23. n
24. i
25. g
26. j
27. a
28. c
29. l
30. e
31. m
32. d
33. k
34. f
35. b
36. congenital anomalies
37. arteriosclerosis
38. arrhythmia or
dysrhythmia
39. cardiomyopathy
40. anastomosis
41. gallop
42. echocardiogram
43. cor pulmonale or right
ventricular failure
44. coronary angiogram
45. stress electrocardiogram
46. atrial septum
47. right atrium
48. tricuspid valve
49. right ventricle
50. left atrium
51. aortic valve
52. pulmonary semilunar
valve
53. left ventricle
54. ventricular septum
55. premature ventricular
contraction
56. patent ductus arteriosus
57. acute coronary
syndrome
58. implantable cardioverter
defibrillator
59. congestive heart failure
60. coronary artery disease
61. hypertension
62. mitral valve prolapse
63. percutaneous coronary
intervention
64. ventricular septal defect
65. k
66. e
67. h
68. b
69. a
70. j
71. l
72. i
73. d
74. f
75. g
76. c
77. ventricle
78. aorta
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CHAPTER 5 • CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
79.
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
thrombus
myocardial
hypotension
diastole
ischemia
occlusion
infarct
aneurysm
atherosclerotic
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
thrombophlebitis
diaphoresis
defibrillation
antiarrhythmic
vasodilation
anticoagulant
hypertension
tachycardia
systole
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
ANSWERS TO MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 5-1: Progress Note
1. a
2. b
3. d
4. e
5. d
6. a
Medical Record 5-2: For Additional Study
See CD-ROM for answers.
7. b
8. d
pector/o
phleb/o
angi/o
cardi/o
ather/o
coron/o
sphygm/o
thromb/o
arteri/o
271
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CHAPTER
6
Blood and
Lymphatic Systems
✓ Chapter 6 Checklist
Read Chapter 6: Blood and Lymphatic Systems and complete all programmed
review segments.
LOCATION
pages 273-299
Review the starter set of flash cards and term components related to Chapter 6. back of book
Complete the Chapter 6 Practice Exercises and Medical Record Analysis 6-1.
pages 303-309
Complete Medical Record Analysis 6-2 For Additional Study.
pages 310-313
Complete the Chapter 6 Exercises by Chapter.
CD-ROM
Complete the Chapter 6 Review and Test Modes.
CD-ROM
Review the Pronunciation Drill for the Chapter 6 terms.
CD-ROM
BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS OVERVIEW
The blood is responsible for:
Transporting oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to body cells
Carrying wastes away from the cells
The lymphatic system functions to:
Protect the body by filtering microorganisms and foreign particles from the lymph, a clear fluid
collected from body tissues
Support the activities of the lymphocytes in the immune response
Maintain the body’s internal fluid environment as an intermediary between the blood in the
capillaries and tissue cells
Carry fats away from the digestive organs
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Self-Instruction: Combining Forms
Study the following:
COMBINING FORM
MEANING
blast/o (also a suffix, -blast)
germ or bud
chrom/o, chromat/o
color
chyl/o
juice
cyt/o
cell
hem/o, hemat/o
blood
immun/o
safe
lymph/o
clear fluid
morph/o
form
myel/o
bone marrow or spinal cord
phag/o
eat or swallow
plas/o
formation
reticul/o
a net
splen/o
spleen
thromb/o
clot
thym/o
thymus gland
Programmed Review: Combining Forms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
blast/o
6.1
The combining form meaning germ or bud is ___________, as in
the term blastogenesis, which refers to the origin or production of
-blast
cells by budding. The suffix from this combining form is __________.
Hemocytoblasts (a term formed from the combination of -blast with
cell, blood
cyt/o, meaning _________, and hem/o meaning ___________) are the
primitive stem cells in the bone marrow that develop into blood cells.
red
An erythroblast develops into an erythrocyte, or a _______ blood cell.
chromat/o
6.2
color
__________. For example, chromone refers to plant pigments. Recall
condition of
that the suffix -ism means ________________ _____; therefore,
The combining form chrom/o or _______________ means
chromatism is a condition of abnormal pigmentation.
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
275
ANSWERS
REVIEW
juice
6.3 The combining form chyl/o means _________ or fluid. Chyle
is a pale yellow fluid from the intestine that is carried by the
blood
lymphatic system. The suffix -emia refers to a __________ condition;
chyle
thus, chylemia means the presence of _________ in the blood.
6.4
Hematology, a term made from the combining form
hemat/o
__________, meaning blood, is the medical study of the blood.
hem/o
Another combining form for blood is __________, as in hemostat,
which is an agent or device that stops the flow of blood from a
formation
vessel. Recall that the suffix -poiesis means ________________.
Therefore, hemopoiesis refers to the process of formation and
blood
development of various types of __________ cells.
immun/o
6.5 The combining form meaning safe is _____________. The
immune system helps to keep the body safe from infectious disease.
Both the blood and lymphatic systems are involved in the immune
system. Someone whose immune system has been compromised by
immunocompromised
disease is said to be ______________________.
clear
6.6
The combining form lymph/o means ___________ fluid.
Lymph is a clear fluid, collected from body tissues, that flows
through lymphatic vessels and, eventually, into the venous blood
circulation. Using the suffix that means tumor, a neoplasm of
lymphoma
the lymphatic system is called a _________________.
eat
6.7
cell
The suffix -cyte refers to a _________. A phagocyte therefore is a
eats
cell that _________ bacteria, foreign particles, and other cells.
The combining form phag/o means ________ or swallow.
Using the suffix -osis, which generally means increase or
condition of
_______________ _____, phagocytosis is the process or condition
of phagocytes ingesting other solid substances.
formation
6.8
without
Using the prefix a-, meaning _______________, and the suffix -ia,
condition of
meaning _______________ _____, aplasia is a condition in which
Plas/o is a combining form meaning _________________.
a formation (tissue or organ) is absent or defective.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
form
6.9
study of
Combined with -logy, the suffix meaning ____________ ____,
Morph/o is a combining form meaning _________.
morphology is the study of form, including the size and shape
of a specimen, such as blood cells.
6.10 The combining form referring to either bone marrow or
myel/o
the spinal cord is ___________. Bone marrow is the tissue within
the cavities of bones, where many types of blood cells are
produced. Combined with cyt/o, which is the combining form
cell
meaning _________, a myelocyte is an immature blood cell in
bone marrow
the _________ ______________.
net
6.11 Reticul/o is a combining form meaning a _______. A
network of substances influences the development of red blood
erythro
cells from a primitive __________blast (red bud or germ) to a
reticulo
__________cyte (from the combining form meaning a net).
red
Reticulocytes are immature _______ blood cells, or erythrocytes.
6.12 The spleen is a key organ of the lymphatic system.
It filters the blood and performs other functions. The combining
splen/o
form for spleen is ___________. Recalling that the suffix -megaly
enlargement
means ____________________, splenomegaly is an enlarged
spleen
____________. Use the common suffix for excision or removal
to construct the word that means the removal of the spleen:
splenectomy
__________________.
cells
6.13 Thrombocytes are blood __________ that function to
thromb/o
clot the blood. The combining form meaning clot is ___________.
clot
A thrombus is a blood __________ inside a blood vessel.
6.14 The thymus is a gland in the lymphatic system; the term
thym/o
comes from the combining form ___________. A tumor of
thymoma
thymus tissue is called a _________________.
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
Self-Instruction: Anatomic Terms in the Blood System
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
TERMS RELATED TO BLOOD FLUID (Fig. 6-1)
plasma
plazmă
liquid portion of the blood and lymph; contains water,
proteins, and cellular components (i.e., leukocytes,
erythrocytes, and platelets)
serum
sērŭm
liquid portion of the blood that remains after clotting
CELLULAR COMPONENTS OF THE BLOOD (Fig. 6-2)
erythrocyte
ĕ-rithrō-sı̄t
red blood cell; transports oxygen and carbon dioxide
hemoglobin
hē-mō-glōbin
the protein-iron compound in erythrocytes that transports
oxygen and carbon dioxide
leukocyte
lūkō-sı̄t
white blood cell; protects the body from harmful invading
substances
granulocytes
granyū-lō-sı̄tz
a group of leukocytes containing granules in their cytoplasm
neutrophil
nūtrō-fil
a granular leukocyte, named for the neutral stain of its
granules, that fights infection by swallowing bacteria
(phagocytosis) (neutr neither; phil attraction for)
Unclotted
Clotted
Red blood cells
Serum
Plasma
Cellular
components
Platelets
White blood cells
FIGURE 6-1 ■
Components of the blood.
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CELLULAR COMPONENTS OF THE BLOOD
White blood cells (leukocytes)
Granulocytes
Basophil
Neutrophil
Red blood cells
(erythrocytes)
White blood cells (leukocytes)
Agranulocytes
Monocyte
FIGURE 6-2 ■
Eosinophil
Platelets
(thrombocytes)
Lymphocyte
Cellular components of the blood.
TERM
MEANING
polymorphonuclear
(PMN) leukocyte
polē-mōrfō-nūklē-ăr
lū’kō-sı̄t
another term for neutrophil, referring to the many segments
in its nucleus ( poly many; morpho form; nucleus kernel)
eosinophil
ē-ō-sinō-fil
a granular leukocyte, named for the rose-colored stain of its
granules, that increases in allergic and some infectious
reactions (eos dawn-colored [rosy]; phil attraction for)
basophil
bāsō-fil
a granular leukocyte, named for the dark stain of its granules,
that brings anticoagulant substances to inflamed tissues
(baso base; phil attraction for)
agranulocytes
ā-grănū-lō-sı̄tz
a group of leukocytes without granules in their nuclei
lymphocyte
limfō-sı̄t
an agranulocytic leukocyte that is active in the process of
immunity; the three categories of lymphocytes are T cells
(thymus-dependent), B cells (bone marrow–derived), and
natural killer (NK) cells
monocyte
monō-sı̄t
an agranulocytic leukocyte that performs phagocytosis to fight
infection (mono one)
platelets
plātlets
thrombocytes; cell fragments in the blood that are essential for
blood clotting (coagulation)
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
279
Programmed Review: Anatomic Terms in the Blood System
ANSWERS
REVIEW
6.15 The liquid portion of the blood and lymph is called
plasma
____________. The plasma contains proteins, cells, and other
substances. After blood clots, the liquid portion that remains
serum
is called ____________.
cell
6.16 Recall that -cyt/o is a combining form meaning ________, and
red
that erythr/o is a combining form meaning ________. Therefore, an
red, cell
erythrocyte is a ________ blood _________. Erythrocytes transport
oxygen and carbon dioxide. Oxygen and carbon dioxide bond to the
protein-iron compound contained in the erythrocytes, which is called
hemoglobin
__________________ (from the combining form hem/o, meaning
blood
______________).
white
6.17 The combining form leuk/o means ___________; thus, a white
leukocyte
blood cell is a ________________. There are many types of leukocytes
in the blood, but they can be divided into two general categories:
those with granules in their cytoplasm and those without granules in
granulocytes
their cytoplasm. Leukocytes with granules are called _______________.
without
Because the prefix a- means ______________, the term for leukocytes
agranulocytes
without granules is ______________________.
6.18 Several types of leukocytes are named according to how they
appear when stained, or by which stain they attract (phil attraction for). A neutrophil is a leukocyte in which the granules
stain neutrally or without color; a neutrophil has an attraction for
eosinophil
neither (neutr) color stain. An __________________ is a leukocyte in
which the granules stain (attract) a rose color (eos rosy color).
Finally, another type of leukocyte has granules that stain (attract) a
basophil
dark base color (baso base); this type is called a _________________.
polymorphonuclear
6.19 Another term for a neutrophil is ________________________
(PMN) leukocyte. This term comes from the many segments in the
nucleus.
6.20 An agranulocytic leukocyte in the lymphatic system that is
lymphocyte
active in the process of immunity is called a __________________. A
monocyte, which is another agranulocytic leukocyte, performs
infection
phagocytosis to fight ________________.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
platelet
6.21 Another term for a thrombocyte is _______________. The
clot
combining form thromb/o means _________; therefore, platelets
clotting
function in blood ______________.
Self-Instruction: Anatomic Terms in the
Lymphatic System (Fig. 6-3)
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
ORGANS OF THE LYMPHATIC SYSTEM
thymus
thı̄mŭs
primary gland of the lymphatic system, located within the
mediastinum, that helps to maintain the body’s immune
response by producing T lymphocytes
spleen
splēn
organ between the stomach and the diaphragm that filters
out aging blood cells, removes cellular debris by performing
phagocytosis, and provides an environment for lymphocytes
to initiate immune responses
STRUCTURES OF THE LYMPHATIC SYSTEM
lymph
limf
fluid that is circulated through the lymph vessels
lymph capillaries
limf kapi-lār-ēz
microscopic vessels that draw lymph from tissues to the
lymph vessels
lymph vessels
limf vesĕlz
vessels that receive lymph from the lymph capillaries and
circulate it to the lymph nodes
lacteals
laktē-ălz
specialized lymph vessels in the small intestine that absorb
fat into the bloodstream (lacteus milky)
chyle
kı̄l
white or pale yellow substance in lymph that contains fatty
substances absorbed by the lacteals
lymph nodes
limf nōdz
many small, oval structures that filter lymph from the lymph
vessels; major locations include the cervical, axillary, and
inguinal regions
lymph ducts
limf dūktz
collecting channels that carry lymph from the lymph nodes
to the veins
right lymphatic duct
rı̄t lim-fatik dŭkt
receives lymph from the right upper part of the body
thoracic duct
thō-rasik dŭkt
receives lymph from the left side of the head, neck, chest,
abdomen, left arm, and lower extremities
IMMUNITY
immunity
i-myūni-tē
process of disease protection induced by exposure to an antigen
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
A
B
Tonsils
Cervical lymph
nodes
Upper right quadrant
of body drains to the
right lymphatic duct.
The remainder of
the body drains
to the thoracic duct.
Right lymphatic
duct
Thymus
gland
Axillary lymph
nodes
Thoracic
duct
Spleen
Pancreas
Inguinal lymph
nodes
C
Artery
Lymphatic
vessels
Vein
Lymph
node
Heart
Valve
Venule
Arteriole
Valve
Lymph vessels
Lymph
capillaries
Tissue cells
FIGURE 6-3 ■
Blood capillaries
Lymphatic system. A. Lymph structures. B. Lymph drainage. C. Blood and lymph circulation.
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TERM
MEANING
antigen
anti-jen
a substance that, when introduced into the body, causes the
formation of antibodies against it
antibody
antē-bod-ē
a substance produced by the body that destroys or inactivates
an antigen that has entered the body
active immunity
aktiv i-myūni-tē
a long-lasting immunity that results from stimulating the
body to produce its own antibodies; developed either
naturally, in response to an infection, or artificially, in response
to the administration of a vaccine
passive immunity
pasiv i-myūni-tē
a short-lasting immunity that results from foreign antibodies
that are conveyed either naturally, through the placenta to a
fetus, or artificially, by injection of a serum containing antibodies
Programmed Review: Anatomic Terms in the Lymphatic System
ANSWERS
REVIEW
thymus
6.22 Located in the mediastinum, the ____________ gland produces
T lymphocytes for the body’s immune response. This term comes
thym/o
from the combining form ___________.
spleen
6.23 Aging blood cells are filtered out in the ____________, which
also removes cellular debris by performing phagocytosis. The
splenectomy
removal of this organ is called a _____________________.
6.24 The fluid circulating through the lymph vessels is called
lymph
___________. The meaning of the combining form lymph/o reminds
clear
us that this fluid is ___________.
6.25 The microscopic vessels that draw lymph from body tissues
capillaries
to the lymph vessels are called lymph __________________. The
same term is used in the circulatory system for the tiny vessels
connecting arteries and veins.
6.26 In addition to lymph capillaries, which collect lymph from
lacteals
body tissues, special lymph vessels in the intestine, called ___________,
absorb fat. This liquid in lymph absorbed by the lacteals is called
chyle
__________.
nodes
6.27 Lymph vessels carry lymph to the lymph ___________, which
filter the lymph. Lymph is then carried from the lymph nodes to the
ducts, lymphatic
veins via lymph ___________. The right ________________ duct
receives lymph from the right upper part of the body, and the
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
ANSWERS
REVIEW
thoracic
_______________ duct receives lymph from the left side of the head,
extremities
neck, chest, left arm, and lower ___________________.
283
6.28 The body protects itself from infectious disease in several
ways. An antigen is a substance that, when introduced into the body,
antibody
causes formation of an _______________ against it. This process of
immunity
disease protection is called _________________. Exposure to an
antigen, antibody
_____________ starts the process, and the ________________ destroys
or inactivates the antigen.
6.29 Antibodies that develop naturally, after contracting an
infection, or artificially, after administering a vaccine, result in
active
_____________ immunity. Antibodies that are conveyed naturally
immunity
through the placenta to a fetus result in passive _________________.
The difference between active and passive in this case is whether the
body itself actively makes the antibodies or passively receives them
from outside.
Self-Instruction: Symptomatic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
RELATED TO BLOOD
microcytosis (Fig. 6-4, B)
mı̄krō-sı̄-tōsis
presence of small red blood cells
macrocytosis (Fig. 6-5)
makrō-sı̄-tōsis
presence of large red blood cells
FIGURE 6-4 ■ A blood smear showing normal erythrocytes (A)
compared with a blood smear revealing microcytic-hypochromic
erythrocytes in a patient with iron deficiency anemia (B).
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
FIGURE 6-5 ■ Photomicrograph of a blood smear from a patient with
pernicious anemia reveals macrocytosis, anisocytosis, and poikilocytosis.
TERM
MEANING
anisocytosis (see Fig. 6-5)
an-ı̄sō-sı̄-tōsis
presence of red blood cells of unequal size (an not,
without; iso equal)
poikilocytosis (see Fig. 6-5)
poyki-lō-sı̄-tōsis
presence of large, irregularly shaped red blood cells
(poikilo irregular)
reticulocytosis
re-tikū-lō-sı̄-tōsis
an increased number of immature erythrocytes in the blood
erythropenia
ĕ-rith-rō-pēnē-ă
an abnormally reduced number of red blood cells
lymphocytopenia
limfō-sı̄-tō-pēnē-ă
an abnormally reduced number of lymphocytes
neutropenia
nūtrō-pēnē-ă
a decreased number of neutrophils
pancytopenia
pansı̄-tō-pēnē-ă
an abnormally reduced number of all cellular components in
the blood
thrombocytopenia
thrombō-sı̄-tō-pēnē-ă
an abnormally decreased number of platelets in the blood,
impairing the clotting process
hemolysis
hē-moli-sis
breakdown of the red blood cell membrane
RELATED TO THE LYMPHATIC SYSTEM
immunocompromised
imyū-nō-komprō-mı̄zd
impaired immunologic defenses caused by an
immunodeficiency disorder or by therapy with
immunosuppressive agents
immunosuppression
imyū-nō-sŭ-preshŭn
impaired ability to provide an immune response
lymphadenopathy
lim-fadĕ-nopă-thē
enlarged (diseased) lymph nodes
splenomegaly
splē-nō-megă-lē
enlargement of the spleen
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
285
Programmed Review: Symptomatic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
6.30 The suffix -osis can mean either a condition of or an
increase
______________. In either case, the suffix is used with symptomatic
terms to indicate an abnormal or unusual condition. The presence
cytosis
of small red blood cells is called micro____________, and the presence
macrocytosis
of large red blood cells is called ______________________.
6.31 Red blood cells also may be present in unequal sizes. The
presence of red blood cells of unequal size (aniso unequal) is
anisocytosis
termed ____________________. The presence of large, irregularly
poikilocytosis
shaped ( poikilo irregular) red blood cells is called _________________.
net
6.32 The combining form reticul/o means ________. As mentioned
previously, a reticulocyte is a young red blood cell (so named because
of the network of substances in the cell). The condition of an
increased number of immature erythrocytes in the blood is called
reticulocytosis
___________________________.
reduction
6.33 Recall that the suffix -penia means an abnormal _____________.
Several symptomatic terms involving blood cells are formed with this
suffix. An abnormally reduced number of lymphoctyes is called
lymphocytopenia
________________________. An abnormal reduction in the number of
thrombocytopenia
platelets (thrombocytes) is termed ___________________. An abnormally
reduced number of erythrocytes can be termed erythrocytopenia,
erythropenia
but the shorter term, _________________, generally is used.
all
6.34 The prefix pan- means ________. An abnormally reduced
pancytopenia
number of all types of blood cells is therefore called ________________.
Like the shorter term erythropenia, the term for a reduced number
of neutrophils uses just one combining form with the suffix -penia:
neutropenia
__________________.
-lysis
6.35 The suffix meaning breakdown or dissolution is ___________.
The term for the breakdown of the red blood cell membrane uses the
combining form for blood (in effect, the blood itself breaks down):
hemolysis
___________________.
6.36 Some drugs or disease states suppress the body’s ability to
immunosuppression
provide an immune response; this is called ______________________.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
A patient with impaired immunologic defenses caused by a disorder
immunocompromised
or by immunosuppressive agents is said to be _____________________.
6.37 The combining form path/o simply means disease, as in the
term pathology. The combining form aden/o means gland or node. A
disease state in which lymph nodes are enlarged is called
lymphadenopathy
_______________________.
enlargement
6.38 The symptomatic suffix -megaly refers to an ________________.
An enlarged spleen, which may result from several different diseases,
splenomegaly
is called __________________.
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
acquired
immunodeficiency
syndrome (AIDS)
ă-kwı̄rd imyŭ-nō-dē-fishen-sē
sindrōm
a syndrome caused by the human immunodeficiency virus
(HIV) that renders immune cells ineffective, permitting
opportunistic infections, malignancies, and neurologic
diseases to develop; transmitted sexually or through
contaminated blood
anemia
ă-nēmē-ă
a condition of reduced numbers of red blood cells,
hemoglobin, or packed red cells in the blood, resulting in a
diminished ability of red blood cells to transport oxygen to
the tissues
aplastic anemia
ā-plastik ă-nēmē-ă
a normocytic-normochromic type of anemia characterized by
the failure of bone marrow to produce red blood cells
iron deficiency anemia
(see Fig. 6-4, B)
ı̄ĕrn de-fishen-sē ă-nēmē-ă
a microcytic-hypochromic type of anemia characterized by a
lack of iron that affects the production of hemoglobin and is
characterized by small red blood cells containing low amounts
of hemoglobin
pernicious anemia
(see Fig. 6-5)
pĕr-nishŭs ă-nēmē-ă
a macrocytic-normochromic type of anemia characterized by
an inadequate supply of vitamin B12, causing red blood cells
to become large, varied in shape, and reduced in number
autoimmune disease
aw-tō-i-myūn di-zēz
any disorder characterized by abnormal function of the
immune system that causes the body to produce antibodies
against itself, resulting in tissue destruction or loss of
function; rheumatoid arthritis and lupus are examples of
autoimmune diseases (auto self)
erythroblastosis fetalis
ĕ-rithrō-blas-tōsis fē-tălis
a disorder that results from the incompatibility of a fetus with
Rh-positive blood and a mother with Rh-negative blood,
causing red blood cell destruction in the fetus; a blood
transfusion is necessary to save the fetus
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
TERM
Rh factor
r-h faktōr
287
MEANING
presence or lack of antigens on the surface of red blood cells,
which causes a reaction between Rh-positive blood and
Rh-negative blood
Rh positive
r-h pozi-tiv
presence of antigens
Rh negative
r-h negă-tiv
absence of antigens
hemochromatosis
hēmō-krō-mă-tōsis
hereditary disorder with an excessive buildup of iron deposits
in the body
hemophilia
hē-mō-filē-ă
a group of hereditary bleeding disorders caused by a defect in
clotting factors necessary for the coagulation of blood
leukemia
lū-kēmē-ă
chronic or acute malignant (cancerous) disease of the
blood-forming organs, characterized by abnormal leukocytes
in the blood and bone marrow
myelodysplasia
mı̄ĕ-lō-dis-plāzē-ă
disorder within the bone marrow characterized by a
proliferation of abnormal stem cells (cells that give rise to
different types of blood cells); usually develops into a specific
type of leukemia
lymphoma
lim-fōmă
any neoplastic disorder of lymph tissue, usually malignant, as
in Hodgkin disease
metastasis
mĕ-tastă-sis
process by which cancer cells are spread by blood or lymph
circulation to a distant organ; the plural form, metastases,
indicates spreading to two or more distant sites
mononucleosis
monō-nū-klē-ōsis
condition caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and characterized
by an increase in mononuclear cells (monocytes and
lymphocytes) in the blood along with enlarged lymph nodes
(lymphadenopathy), fatigue, and sore throat (pharyngitis)
polycythemia
polē-sı̄-thēmē-ă
increased number of erythrocytes and hemoglobin in the
blood
septicemia
sep-ti-sēmē-ă
systemic disease caused by infection with microorganisms and
their toxins in circulating blood
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
acquired
6.39 AIDS is the acronym for _______________
immunodeficiency syndrome
_________________________ ________________, which is
caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV).
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
without
6.40 The prefix an- means ______________ or reduction.
The general term for a blood condition in which there is a
reduction in the number of red blood cells, hemoglobin, or
anemia
the volume of packed red blood cells is ____________.
Several types of anemia are common. Anemia characterized
by a lack of iron, affecting the production of hemoglobin, is
iron deficiency
called ________ ________________ anemia. Anemia
characterized by an inadequate supply of vitamin B12 is
pernicious
called _______________ anemia. Another type is described
by the term formed in part by a- (without) and plas/o
aplastic
(formation): ______________ anemia.
6.41 Auto-, a prefix meaning self, is used in combination
safe
with immun/o, the combining form meaning __________, to
name the disorder characterized by abnormal function of
the immune system that causes the body to produce
autoimmune
antibodies against itself: _________________ disease.
6.42 A disorder resulting from incompatibility of a fetus
with Rh-positive blood and a mother with Rh-negative
blood, named in part because of the large number of
erythroblasts that are found in the fetal blood, is called
erythroblastosis fetalis
_______________________ ______________. The Rh
factor
____________ is said to be positive when Rh antigens are
present on the surface of red blood cells. The absence of
Rh negative
such antigens is called ______ _______________.
6.43 One hereditary blood disorder results in an excessive
buildup of iron deposits in the body. Because skin
pigmentation may change because of this condition, the
term used to describe it uses the combining form meaning
color and the combining form meaning blood. This
hemochromatosis
condition is called _______________________.
6.44 Hemophilia is a group of hereditary bleeding
clotting
disorders with a defect in ______________ factors
necessary for coagulation.
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
ANSWERS
REVIEW
blood
6.45 The diagnostic suffix -emia refers to a ___________
289
condition. A malignant blood disease marked by abnormal
leukemia
white blood cells (leukocytes) is called ________________.
A disorder in the bone marrow that usually develops into
leukemia is built from the combining form myel/o, meaning
bone marrow; the prefix dys-, meaning faulty; and the
formation
suffix -plasia, meaning a condition of ________________.
myelodysplasia
This disorder is called _____________________.
6.46 Also built with the suffix -emia, the term for an
increase in hemoglobin and the number of erythrocytes in
the blood begins with the prefix poly-, which means
many, polycythemia
__________. This disorder is called ____________________.
-oma
6.47 Recall that the suffix meaning tumor is ________.
lymphoma
A tumor of lymph tissue is called a _________________.
beyond
6.48 The prefix meta- means ____________, after, or
change. The term for the spread of cancer cells beyond the
original site of the tumor through blood or lymph is
metastasis
_________________.
6.49 Monocytes and lymphocytes are mononuclear cells.
The viral condition characterized by an increase in both
mononucleosis
types is called ________________________. The suffix -osis
increase
means condition of or ________________.
6.50 Sepsis is from the Greek word for putrefaction,
indicating infection. A systemic condition caused by
septicemia
infection in the blood is therefore termed ________________.
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
Study the following:
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
BLOOD STUDIES
phlebotomy
fle-botŏ-mē
venipuncture
veni-pŭnk-chūr
incision into or puncture of a vein to withdraw blood for
testing
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
blood chemistry
blŭd kemis-trē
test of the fluid portion of blood to measure the amounts of
its chemical constituents (e.g., glucose and cholesterol)
blood chemistry panels
blŭd kemis-trē pănlz
specialized batteries of automated blood chemistry tests
performed on a single sample of blood; used as a general
screen for disease or to target specific organs or conditions
(e.g., metabolic panel, lipid panel, and arthritis panel)
basic metabolic panel
(BMP)
bāsik met-ă-bolik pănl
battery of tests used as a general screen for disease; includes
tests for calcium, carbon dioxide (CO2), chloride, creatinine,
glucose, potassium, sodium, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
comprehensive
metabolic panel
(CMP) (Fig. 6-6)
kom-prē-hensiv met-ă-bolik
pănl
tests performed in addition to the basic panel for expanded
screening: albumin, bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, protein,
alanine aminotransferase (ALT), and aspartate
aminotransferase (AST)
blood culture
blŭd kŭlchĕr
test to determine if infection is present in the bloodstream by
isolating a specimen of blood in an environment that
encourages the growth of microorganisms; the specimen is
observed, and the organisms that grow in the culture are
identified
CD4 cell count
c-d-fōr sel kownt
a measure of the number of CD4 cells (a subset of T
lymphocytes) in the blood; used in monitoring the course of
HIV and in timing the treatment of AIDS; the normal adult
range is 600–1500 cells in a given volume of blood
erythrocyte sedimentation
rate (ESR)
ĕ-rithrō-sı̄t sedi-men-tāshŭn
rāt
timed test that measures the rate at which red blood cells
settle through a volume of plasma
partial thromboplastin
time (PTT)
parshăl throm-bō-plastin tı̄m
test to determine coagulation defects, such as platelet
disorders
thromboplastin
throm-bō-plastin
prothrombin time (PT)
prō-thrombin tı̄m
prothrombin
prō-thrombin
complete blood count
(CBC) (Fig. 6-7)
kom-plēt blŭd kownt
white blood count (WBC)
wı̄t blŭd kownt
substance present in tissues, platelets, and leukocytes that is
necessary for coagulation
test to measure activity of prothrombin in the blood
protein substance in the blood that is essential to the clotting
process
a common laboratory blood test performed as a screen of
general health or for diagnostic purposes and typically
includes the component tests that follow; test results are
usually reported along with normal values so that the
clinician can interpret the results based on the instrumentation
used by the laboratory; normal ranges also may vary
depending on the region and climate
a count of the number of white blood cells in a given volume
of blood obtained via manual or automated laboratory methods
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
CENTRAL MEDICAL CENTER
211 Medical Center Drive • Central City, US 90000-1234 • PHONE: (012) 125-6784 • FAX: (012) 125-9999
11/02/20xx
14:27
NAME
MR#
ACCT#
: TEST, PATIENT
: TEST-221
: H111111111
LOC: TEST
M63561 COLL: 11/02/20xx 13:24
DOB: 02/03/xx
AGE: 38Y
SEX: M
REC: 11/02/20xx 13:25
COMPREHENSIVE METABOLIC PANEL
Blood Urea Nitrogen
(BUN)
Sodium
Potassium
Chloride
Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
Glucose, Random
Creatinine
SGOT (AST)
SGPT (ALT)
Alkaline Phosphatase
Total Protein
Albumin
Amylase
Bilirubin, Total
Calcium, Total
TEST, PATIENT
11/02/20xx 14:27
TEST-221
*30
[5 - 25]
mg/dl
139
4.2
105
27
*148
*1.5
18
*8
58
6.5
3.7
33
0.7
9.7
[135 - 153]
[3.5 - 5.3]
[101 - 111]
[24 - 31]
[70 - 110]
[< 1.5]
[10 - 42]
[10 - 60]
[42 - 121]
[6.0 - 8.0]
[3.5 - 5.0]
[< 129]
[< 1.5]
[8.6 - 10.6]
mEq/L
mEq/L
mEq/L
mmol/L
mg/dl
mg/dl
U/L
U/L
U/L
G/dl
G/dl
U/L
mg/dl
mg/dl
END OF REPORT
PAGE 1
INTERIM REPORT COMPLETED
FIGURE 6-6 ■
Comprehensive metabolic panel report. Normal ranges are in brackets [ ].
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
red blood count (RBC)
rĕd blŭd kownt
a count of the number of red blood cells in a given volume of
blood obtained via manual or automated laboratory methods
hemoglobin (HGB or
Hgb)
hē-mō-glōbin
a test to determine the blood level of hemoglobin (expressed
in grams)
hematocrit (HCT or Hct)
hēmă-tō-krit
a measurement of the percentage of packed red blood cells in
a given volume of blood
blood indices
blŭd indi-sēz
mean corpuscular
(cell) volume (MCV)
mēn kōr-pŭskū-lăr (sel)
volyūm
calculations of RBC, HGB, and HCT results to determine the
average size, hemoglobin concentration, and content of red
blood cells to classify an anemia (Note: in the entries below,
the term corpuscular pertains to a blood cell)
calculation of the volume (size) of individual red blood cells
using HCT and RBC results: MCV HCT/RBC
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
CENTRAL MEDICAL CENTER
211 Medical Center Drive • Central City, US 90000-1234 • PHONE: (012) 125-6784 • FAX: (012) 125-9999
11/02/20xx
14:27
NAME
MR#
ACCT#
: TEST, PATIENT
: TEST-221
: H111111111
LOC: TEST
M63558 COLL: 11/2/20xx 13:23
HEMOGRAM
CBC
WBC
RBC
HGB
HCT
MCV
MCH
MCHC
PLT
Auto Lymph %
Auto Mono %
Auto Neutro %
Auto Eos %
Auto Baso %
Auto Lymph #
Auto Mono #
Auto Neutro #
Auto Eos #
Auto Baso #
TEST, PATIENT
11/02/20xx
DOB: 2/2/xx
AGE: 27Y
SEX: M
REC: 11/2/20xx 13:24
*11.5
5.84
17.2
50.8
87
29.5
33.9
202
[4.5 - 10.5]
[4.6 - 6.2]
[14.0 - 18.0]
[42.0 - 52.0]
[82 - 92]
[27 - 31]
[32 - 36]
[150 - 450]
K/UL
M/UL
G/DL
%
FL
PG
G/DL
K/UL
15
2
82
1
0
1.7
0.2
9.4
0.1
0.0
[20 - 40]
[1 - 11]
[50 - 75]
[0 - 6]
[0 - 2]
[1.5 - 4.0]
[0.2 - 0.9]
[1.0 - 7.0]
[0 - 0.7]
[0 - 0.2]
%
%
%
%
%
K/UL
K/UL
K/UL
K/UL
K/UL
TEST-221
14:27
END OF REPORT
PAGE 1
INTERIM REPORT
INTERIM REPORT COMPLETE
FIGURE 6-7 ■
Complete blood count (CBC) report. Normal ranges are in brackets [ ].
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
mean corpuscular (cell)
hemoglobin (MCH)
mēn kōr-pŭskū-lăr (sel)
hē-mō-glōbin
calculation of the content (weight) of hemoglobin in the
average red blood cell using HGB and RBC results:
MCH HGB/RBC
mean corpuscular
(cell) hemoglobin
concentration (MCHC)
mēn kōr-pŭskū-lăr (sel)
hē-mō-glōbin kon-sentrāshŭn
calculation of the average hemoglobin concentration in each
red blood cell using HGB and HCT results:
MCHC HGB/HCT
differential count
dif-ĕr-enshăl kownt
determination of the number of each type of white blood cell
(leukocyte) in a stained blood smear; each type is counted and
reported as a percentage of the total examined
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
TEST OR PROCEDURE
293
EXPLANATION
Type of Leukocyte
lymphocytes
monocytes
neutrophils
eosinophils
basophils
Normal Range
25–33%
3–7%
54–75%
1–3%
0–1%
red cell morphology
rĕd sel mōr-folŏ-jē
as part of identifying and counting the white blood cells, the
condition, size, and shape of red blood cells in the
background of the smeared slide are noted (e.g., anisocytosis,
poikilocytosis)
platelet count (PLT)
plātlet kownt
calculation of the number of thrombocytes in the blood; the
normal adult range is 150,000–450,000 platelets in a given
volume of blood
BONE AND LYMPH STUDIES
bone marrow
aspiration (Fig. 6-8)
bōn marō as-pi-rāshŭn
needle aspiration of bone marrow tissue for pathologic
examination
bone marrow biopsy
bōn marō bı̄op-sē
pathologic examination of bone marrow tissue
lymphangiogram
lim-fanjē-ō-gram
an x-ray image of a lymph node or vessel obtained after
injection of a contrast medium
DIAGNOSTIC IMAGING
computed tomography (CT)
kom-pyūtĕd tō-mogra-fē
full body x-ray CT images are used to detect tumors and
cancers such as lymphoma
positron-emission
tomography (PET)
pŏzi-tron ē-mishŭn
tō-mogră-fē
scanning technique combining nuclear medicine and
computed tomography technology to produce images of
anatomy and metabolic function within the body; useful
in determining the recurrence of cancers or to measure
response to therapy; commonly used in evaluating lymphoma
FIGURE 6-8 ■ Bone marrow aspiration. Posterior view of the
pelvic region showing a common site for bone marrow aspiration.
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Programmed Review: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
ANSWERS
REVIEW
6.51 Blood studies are tests performed with samples of blood.
The blood sample, often drawn by a phlebotomist, is obtained
through a needle puncture (or incision) of a vein, which is
venipuncture, phlebotomy
called a ____________________ or a ___________________.
incision
Recall that the suffix -tomy refers to an _______________.
6.52 Blood studies generally examine the chemical constituents of the blood or the physical properties of different
kinds of blood cells. A test of the fluid portion of blood for the
presence of chemical constituents is called a blood
chemistry, panel
_________________. A blood chemistry __________ includes a
battery of chemistry tests using a single sample of blood. Some
panels target specific organs or conditions, such as a lipid or
arthritis panel. Two panels of chemistry tests are used as a
metabolic
general or expanded screen for disease: a basic ______________
comprehensive metabolic
panel (BMP), and a _____________________ _________________
panel
___________ (CMP).
6.53 To determine the presence and type of an infection in
the blood, a blood sample may be put in an environment that
encourages the growth of microorganisms. This test is called
culture
a blood ______________.
6.54 CD4 cells are a subset of T lymphocytes in the blood
that are increased in patients who are positive for HIV. The
CD4
measure of these cells, which is known as a _______ cell count,
is used in monitoring the course of HIV infection and in
timing the treatment of acquired immunodeficiency
AIDS
syndrome (_________).
erythrocytes
6.55 Red blood cells are also called _________________.
A diagnostic test that measures how fast red blood cells settle
erythrocyte
through plasma is called the ___________________
sedimentation
______________________ rate.
thromb/o
6.56 The combining form for clot is _____________. That
root is part of the term for the substance in tissues, platelets,
and leukocytes that is necessary for coagulation:
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
ANSWERS
REVIEW
thromboplastin
_____________________. The test for coagulation defects is
partial thromboplastin
called a ______________ ____________________ time (PTT).
295
The term for a protein substance in blood that is essential for
clotting comes from a prefix meaning before and the
prothrombin
combining form for clot: __________________. The diagnostic
test that measures the activity of this protein is called a
prothrombin time
_________________ _________ (PT).
blood count
6.57 A complete ____________ ____________ (CBC) is a
diagnostic test that is often performed as a general screen.
It includes several component tests. The RBC is a count of the
red blood
number of ________ ____________ cells in a given volume of
white
blood. A WBC is a count of the number of _____________
cells
blood __________ in a given volume of blood. The test of the
blood level of hemoglobin is often simply called a hemoglobin,
HGB, Hgb
and it is abbreviated as _______ or _______. The measurement
of the percentage of packed red blood cells in a given volume
hematocrit
of blood is called the __________________ (HCT or Hct).
6.58 Different values in the CBC are used to calculate the
size, makeup, and content of red blood cells to classify an
indices
anemia. These calculations are called blood ______________.
The calculation of the volume (size) of individual cells is called
mean corpuscular (cell)
the __________ ___________________ volume (MCV). The
term mean refers to average. The calculation of the weight of
mean
hemoglobin in an average red blood cell is called the _________
hemoglobin
corpuscular (cell) _________________ (MCH). The calculation
of the mean hemoglobin concentration in each cell is
hemoglobin
called the mean corpuscular (cell) ______________
concentration
____________________ (MCHC).
6.59 Thrombocytes are counted as part of a CBC. Another
platelet
term for thrombocyte is _______________. Thus, this measure
platelet count
is simply called a _______________ ____________ (PLT).
6.60 Recall that there are several kinds of leukocytes
white, cytes
( _________ blood cells), such as lymphocytes, mono________,
phils
neutrophils, eosino_________, and basophils. The study that
determines the percentage of each type present in a smear of
differential count
blood is called a ___________________ ___________.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
6.61 When the differential count is done, the size and shape
of red blood cells in the sample are also noted. This is called
morphology
the red cell __________________.
6.62 The removal of bone marrow tissue by a needle for
pathologic examination is called a bone marrow
aspiration
________________. Pathologic examination of bone marrow
bone marrow biopsy
tissue is called a _________ _____________ ____________.
6.63 The combining form angi/o refers to either blood or
-gram
lymph vessels. The suffix meaning a record is __________.
Using these two components along with the combining form
lymphangiogram
for lymph, the term _________________________ is an x-ray of
a lymph node or vessel.
computed tomography
6.64 Full body CT (______________ ________________), a
specialized ionizing x-ray image of the whole body, is
cancers
commonly used to detect tumors and ____________, such as
lymphoma. Another ionizing imaging modality is the use of
positron-emission
whole body PET (______________-________________
tomography
_________________) to determine the recurrence of cancers or
to measure the response to therapy.
Self-Instruction: Operative Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
bone marrow transplant
bōn marō tranzplant
transplantation of healthy bone marrow from a compatible
donor to a diseased recipient to stimulate blood cell production
lymphadenectomy
lim-fadĕ-nĕktŏ-mē
removal of a lymph node
lymphadenotomy
lim-fadĕ-notŏ-mē
incision into a lymph node
lymph node dissection
limf nōd di-sekshŭn
removal of possible cancer-carrying lymph nodes for
pathologic examination
splenectomy
splē-nektŏ-mē
removal of the spleen
thymectomy
thı̄-mektŏ-mē
removal of the thymus gland
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
297
Programmed Review: Operative Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
removal
6.65 The suffix -ectomy means ____________ or excision. The
splenectomy
removal of the spleen is called a _________________. The removal of
thymectomy
the thymus gland is called a _________________. The removal of a
lymphadenectomy
lymph node is called a ______________________.
incision
6.66 The suffix -tomy, on the other hand, means ______________.
lymphadenotomy
An incision into a lymph node is called a _______________________.
6.67 Removal of possible cancer-carrying lymph nodes for
dissection
pathologic examination is called a lymph node _________________.
bone
6.68 To stimulate blood cell production inside bones, a _________
marrow
_____________ transplant is made from a compatible donor to a
diseased recipient.
Self-Instruction: Therapeutic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
blood transfusion
blŭd trans-fyūzhŭn
introduction of blood products into the circulation of a
recipient whose blood volume is reduced or deficient in
some manner
autologous blood
aw-tolŏ-gŭs blǔd
blood donated by and stored for a patient for future personal
use (e.g., upcoming surgery) (auto self)
homologous blood
hŏ-molō-gŭs blǔd
blood voluntarily donated by any person for transfusion to a
compatible recipient (homo same)
blood component
therapy
blŭd kom-pōnent thāră-pē
transfusion of a specific blood component, such as packed red
blood cells, platelets, or plasma
cross-matching
kros-match’ing
method of matching a donor’s blood to the recipient by
mixing a sample in a test tube to determine compatibility
chemotherapy
kemō-thār-ă-pē
treatment of malignancies, infections, and other diseases with
chemical agents to destroy selected cells or to impair their
ability to reproduce
immunotherapy
imū-nō-thāră-pē
use of biologic agents to prevent or treat disease by
stimulating the body’s own defense mechanisms, as seen in
the treatment of AIDS, cancer, or allergy
plasmapheresis
plazmă-f ĕ-rēsis
removal of plasma from the body with separation and
extraction of specific elements (e.g., platelets) followed by
reinfusion (apheresis a withdrawal)
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TERM
MEANING
COMMON THERAPEUTIC DRUG CLASSIFICATIONS
anticoagulant
antē-kō-agyū-lant
a drug that prevents clotting of the blood
hemostatic
hē-mō-statik
a drug that stops the flow of blood within the vessels
vasoconstrictor
vāsō-kon-striktŏr
a drug that causes a narrowing of blood vessels, thereby
decreasing blood flow
vasodilator
vāsō-dı̄-lātŏr
a drug that causes dilation of blood vessels, thereby increasing
blood flow
Programmed Review: Therapeutic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
6.69 The general term for giving blood or blood products to a
recipient whose blood is in some way deficient is blood
transfusion
__________________. There are several types of blood transfusions.
A patient’s own blood removed for his or her own personal use in a
autologous
later transfusion is called ________________ blood (auto self). Blood
from a compatible donor (i.e., a donor with the same blood type) is
homologous
called _________________ blood (homo same).
6.70 The transfusion of specific blood components, such as platelets
component
or plasma, is called blood _________________ therapy.
6.71 The process of determining compatibility between donated
cross-matching
blood and the recipient’s blood is called __________-______________.
This must be done to ensure the recipient does not suffer a potentially
fatal transfusion reaction.
6.72 The treatment of neoplasms and other diseases with chemical
chemotherapy
agents that destroy the targeted cells is called __________________.
Chemotherapy is used for many forms of cancer in virtually all body
systems.
6.73 The term describing the use of biologic agents to prevent or
treat disease by stimulating the body’s own defense mechanisms was
coined by combining -therapy with immun/o, the combining form
safe, immunotherapy
meaning _________. Therefore, the term is _____________________.
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ANSWERS
299
REVIEW
6.74 The root apheresis means withdrawal. The withdrawal of blood
plasma from the body to separate out specific components before
plasmapheresis
reinfusing the plasma is called ____________________.
against
6.75 Recall that the prefix anti- means _____________. Drug classes
are frequently named by their actions against something. A drug that
anticoagulant
prevents blood clotting or coagulation is an _____________________.
6.76 Drug classes are also named for their specific actions. The
combining form for blood vessel is vas/o. A drug that narrows or
vasoconstrictor
constricts blood vessels is a ____________________. A drug that widens
vasodilator
or dilates blood vessels is a __________________.
-stasis
6.77 Recall that the suffix that means stop or stand is ____________.
hem/o
The combining form for blood is hemat/o or ___________. A type of
drug that stops blood from flowing within a vessel is called a
hemostatic
_________________ drug.
CHAPTER 6 ACRONYMS AND ABBREVIATIONS
ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
AIDS
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
ALT
alanine aminotransferase (enzyme)
AST
aspartate aminotransferase (enzyme)
BMP
basic metabolic panel
BUN
blood urea nitrogen
CBC
complete blood count
CMP
comprehensive metabolic panel
CO2
carbon dioxide
CT
computed tomography
ESR
erythrocyte sedimentation rate
HCT or Hct
hematocrit
HGB or Hgb
hemoglobin
HIV
human immunodeficiency virus
MCH
mean corpuscular (cell) hemoglobin
MCHC
mean corpuscular (cell) hemoglobin concentration
MCV
mean corpuscular (cell) volume
NK
natural killer (cell)
PET
positron-emission tomography
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ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
PLT
platelet count
PMN
polymorphonuclear (leukocyte)
PT
prothrombin time
PTT
partial thromboplastin time
RBC
red blood cell; red blood count
WBC
white blood cell; white blood count
CHAPTER 6 SUMMARY OF TERMS
The terms introduced in chapter 6 are listed below, followed by the page number on which each
term can be found and its written pronunciation. For additional practice and reinforcement, write
the definition of each term on a separate piece of paper.
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
(AIDS)/286
ă-kwı̄rd im-yū-nō-dē-fishen-sē sindrōm
active immunity/282
aktiv i-myūni-tē
agranulocytes/278
ā-grănū-lō-sı̄tz
anemia/286
ă-nēmē-ă
anisocytosis/284
an-ı̄sō-sı̄-tōsis
antibody/282
antē-bod-ē
anticoagulant/298
antē-kō-agyū-lant
antigen/282
anti-jen
aplastic anemia/286
ā-plastik ă-nēmē-ă
autoimmune disease/286
aw-tō-i-myūn di-zēz
autologous blood/297
aw-tolŏ-gŭs blŭd
basic metabolic panel (BMP)/290
bāsik met-ă-bolik pănl
blood chemistry panels/290
blŭd kemis-trē pănlz
blood component therapy/297
blŭd kom-pōnent thāră-pē
blood culture/290
blŭd kŭlchŭr
blood indices/291
blŭd indi-sēz
blood transfusion/297
blŭd trans-fyūzhŭn
bone marrow aspiration/293
b ōn marō as-pi-rāshŭn
bone marrow biopsy/293
b ōn marō bı̄op-sē
bone marrow transplant/296
bōn marō tranzplant
CD4 cell count/290
c-d-f ōr sel kownt
chemotherapy/297
kemō-thār-ă-pē
chyle/280
kı̄l
complete blood count (CBC)/290
kom-plēt bl ŭd kownt
basophil/278
bāsō-fil
comprehensive metabolic panel
(CMP)/290
kom-prē-hensiv met-ă-bolik pănl
blood chemistry/290
blŭd kemis-trē
computed tomography (CT)/293
kom-pyūtĕd tō-mogră-f ē
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
cross-matching/297
kros-matching
leukemia/287
lū-kēmē-ă
differential count/292
dif-ĕr-enshăl kownt
leukocyte/277
lūkō-sı̄t
eosinophil/278
ē-ō-sinō-fil
lymph/280
limf
erythroblastosis fetalis/286
ĕ-rithrō-blas-tōsis f ē-tălis
lymph capillaries/280
limf kapi-lār-ēz
erythrocyte/277
ĕ-rithrō-sı̄t
lymph ducts/280
limf dūktz
erythrocyte sedimentation rate
(ESR)/290
ĕ-rithrō-sı̄t sedi-men-tāshŭn rāt
lymph node dissection/296
limf nōd di-sekshŭn
erythropenia/284
ĕ-rith-rō-pēnē-ă
granulocytes/277
granyū-lō-sı̄tz
hematocrit (HCT or Hct)/291
hēmă-tō-krit
hemochromatosis/287
hēmō-krō-mă-tōsis
hemoglobin (HGB or Hgb)/277, 291
hē-mō-glōbin
hemolysis/284
hē-moli-sis
hemophilia/287
hē-mō-filē-ă
hemostatic/298
hē-mō-statik
homologous blood/297
hŏ-molō-gŭs blŭd
immunity/280
i-myūni-tē
immunocompromised/284
imyū-nō-komprō-mı̄zd
immunosuppression/284
imyū-nō-sŭ-preshŭn
immunotherapy/297
imū-nō-thāră-pē
lymph nodes/280
limf nōdz
lymph vessels/280
limf vesĕlz
lymphadenectomy/296
lim-fadĕ-nektŏ-mē
lymphadenopathy/284
lim-fadĕ-nopă-thē
lymphadenotomy/296
lim-fadĕ-notŏ-mē
lymphangiogram/293
lim-fanjē-ō-gram
lymphocyte/278
limf ō-sı̄t
lymphocytopenia/284
limf ō-sı̄-tō-pēnē-ă
lymphoma/287
lim-f ōmă
macrocytosis/283
makrō-sı̄-tōsis
mean corpuscular (cell) hemoglobin
(MCH)/292
mēn kōr-pŭskyū-lăr (sel) hē-mō-glōbin
mean corpuscular (cell) hemoglobin
concentration (MCHC)/292
mēn kōr-pŭskyū-lăr (sel) hē-mō-glōbin konsen-trāshŭn
iron deficiency anemia/286
iĕrn de-fishen-sē ă-nēmē-ă
mean corpuscular (cell) volume
(MCV)/291
mēn kōr-pŭskyū-lăr (sel) volyūm
lacteals/280
laktē-ălz
metastasis/287
mĕ-tastă-sis
301
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microcytosis/283
mı̄krō-sı̄-tōsis
red blood count (RBC)/291
rĕd bl ŭd kownt
monocyte/278
monō-sı̄t
red cell morphology/293
rĕd sel mōr-folŏ-jē
mononucleosis/287
monō-nū-klē-ōsis
reticulocytosis/284
re-tikū-lō-sı̄-tōsis
myelodysplasia/287
mı̄ĕ-lō-dis-plāzē-ă
Rh factor/287
r-h faktōr
neutropenia/284
nū-trō-pēnē-ă
Rh negative/287
r-h negă-tiv
neutrophil/277
nūtrō-fil
Rh positive/287
r-h pozi-tiv
pancytopenia/284
pansı̄-tō-pēnē-ă
right lymphatic duct/280
rı̄t lim-fatik dŭkt
partial thromboplastin time (PTT)/290
parshăl throm-bō-plastin tı̄m
septicemia/287
sep-ti-sēmē-ă
passive immunity/282
pasiv i-myūni-tē
serum/277
sērŭm
pernicious anemia/286
pĕr-nishŭs ă-nēmē-ă
spleen/280
splēn
phlebotomy/289
f le-botŏ-mē
splenectomy/296
splē-nektŏ-mē
plasma/277
plazmă
splenomegaly/284
splē-nō-megă-lē
plasmapheresis/297
plazmă-f ĕ-rēsis
thoracic duct/280
thō-rasik dŭkt
platelet count (PLT)/293
plātlet kownt
thrombocytopenia/284
thromb ō-sı̄-tō-pēnē-ă
platelets/278
plātletz
thromboplastin/290
throm-bō-plastin
poikilocytosis/284
poyki-lō-sı̄-tōsis
thymectomy/296
thı̄-mektŏ-mē
polycythemia/287
polē-sı̄-thēmē-ă
thymus/280
thı̄mŭs
polymorphonuclear (PMN)
leukocyte/278
polē-mōr-f ō-nūklē-ăr lūkō-sı̄t
vasoconstrictor/298
vāsō-kon-striktŏr
vasodilator/298
vāsō-dı̄-lātŏr
positron-emission tomography
(PET)/293
pŏzi-tron ē-mishŭn tō-mogră-f ē
venipuncture/289
veni-pŭnk-chūr
prothrombin/290
prō-thrombin
white blood count (WBC)/290
wı̄t blŭd kownt
prothrombin time (PT)/290
prō-thrombin tı̄m
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PRACTICE EXERCISES
For each of the following words, write out the term components (prefixes [P],
combining forms [CF], roots [R], and suffixes [S]) on the lines below the word.
Then define the term according to the meaning of its components.
EXAMPLE
dyshematopoiesis
dys /______
hemato / _____
poiesis
___
P
CF
S
DEFINITION: painful, difficult, or faulty/blood/formation
1. erythroblastosis
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
DEFINITION:
R
S
________________________________________________________________________
2. chylopoiesis
___________ / ___________
CF
DEFINITION:
S
________________________________________________________________________
3. hemocytometer
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
DEFINITION:
CF
S
________________________________________________________________________
4. splenorrhagia
___________ / ___________
CF
DEFINITION:
S
________________________________________________________________________
5. lymphadenitis
___________ / ___________ / ___________
R
DEFINITION:
R
S
________________________________________________________________________
6. immunotoxic
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
DEFINITION:
R
S
________________________________________________________________________
7. reticulocytosis
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
DEFINITION:
R
S
________________________________________________________________________
303
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8. thymopathy
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
DEFINITION:
R
S
________________________________________________________________________
9. leukocytic
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
DEFINITION:
R
S
________________________________________________________________________
10. lymphangiogram
___________ / ___________ / ___________
R
DEFINITION:
CF
S
________________________________________________________________________
11. splenomegaly
___________ / ___________
CF
DEFINITION:
S
________________________________________________________________________
12. promyelocyte
___________ / ___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
DEFINITION:
CF
R
S
________________________________________________________________________
13. leukocytopenia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
DEFINITION:
CF
S
________________________________________________________________________
14. splenectomy
___________ / ___________
R
DEFINITION:
S
________________________________________________________________________
15. dialysis
___________ / ___________
P
DEFINITION:
S
________________________________________________________________________
16. lymphoma
___________ / ___________
R
DEFINITION:
S
________________________________________________________________________
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305
17. cytomorphology
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
DEFINITION:
CF
S
________________________________________________________________________
18. hemolysis
___________ / ___________
CF
DEFINITION:
S
________________________________________________________________________
19. anemia
___________ / ___________
P
S
DEFINITION:
________________________________________________________________________
20. metastasis
___________ / ___________
P
S
DEFINITION:
________________________________________________________________________
Name the three calculations that are part of the blood indices:
21. ___________________________________________________________________________________
22. ___________________________________________________________________________________
23. ___________________________________________________________________________________
Fill in the blanks with the correct medical terms and abbreviations:
24. The procedure of counting the number of leukocytes in the blood is called a ____________
____________ ____________ and is abbreviated as ___________.
25. The blood study that determines the amount of pigment in red blood cells is called a
________________ and is abbreviated as ________ or ________.
26. The blood study that determines packed red blood cell volume is called a _____________ and
is abbreviated as ________ or ________.
27. The classification of white blood cells is performed in a ________________ ______________.
Write out the expanded term for each abbreviation:
28. PT
_____________________________________________________________________________
29. ESR
_____________________________________________________________________________
30. PTT
_____________________________________________________________________________
31. CBC
_____________________________________________________________________________
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Write the letter of the matching definition in the space after the term:
32. microcytosis
_____
a. large RBCs
33. poikilocytosis
_____
b. thrombocyte
34. neutrophil
_____
c. WBC with rose-stained granules
35. monocyte
_____
d. RBC
36. eosinophil
_____
e. an agranulocyte active in immunity
37. lymphocyte
_____
f. WBC with dark-stained granules
38. basophil
_____
g. WBC termed “one cell”
39. platelet
_____
h. RBCs of unequal size
40. erythrocyte
_____
i. WBC with granules
41. granulocyte
_____
j. large, irregular RBCs
42. anisocytosis
_____
k. a polymorphonuclear WBC
43. macrocytosis
_____
l. small RBCs
Write the correct medical term for each of the following definitions:
44. ___________________________ a decrease in the number of neutrophils
45. ___________________________ blood donated by a person and stored for his or her future use
46. ___________________________ impaired ability to provide an immune response
47. ___________________________ test tube method of matching a donor’s blood to the recipient
48. ___________________________ syndrome caused by HIV
49. ___________________________ removal of plasma from the body, extraction of specific
elements, and then reinfusion
50. ___________________________ blood voluntarily donated by any person for transfusion
Circle the combining form that corresponds to the meaning given:
51.
eat or swallow
phas/o
phag/o
plas/o
52.
clot
thromb/o
thym/o
lymph/o
53.
juice
lymph/o
hemat/o
chyl/o
54.
formation
plas/o
troph/o
thromb/o
55.
color
hem/o
chrom/o
cyan/o
56.
blood
erythr/o
hem/o
lymph/o
57.
safe
toxic/o
reticul/o
immun/o
58.
germ or bud
blast/o
gen/o
crin/o
Circle the correct spelling:
59. hematopoesis
hematopoiesis
hematoepoisis
60. platelets
plattelets
plateletts
61. anissocytosis
aniscocytosis
anisocytosis
62. polkulocytosis
poikilocytosis
poiekilocytosis
63. hemalysis
hemoliesis
hemolysis
64. lymphadenpathy
lymphadenopathy
lymphoadenopathy
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
65. myelodysplasia
mylodysplaszia
myelodysphazia
66. thrombocytopnea
thrombocytopenia
throbocytpenia
67. hematocrit
hemacrit
hematocrete
68. splenecktomy
splenectomy
spleenectomy
69. plasmapheresis
plazmaphoresis
plasmophoresis
70. vasodialator
vasodilater
vasodilator
Give the noun used to form each adjective:
71. leukemic
_______________________
72. immunosuppressive
_______________________
73. plasmapheretic
_______________________
74. thymic
_______________________
75. hematopoietic
_______________________
76. splenic
_______________________
77. septicemic
_______________________
78. hemophilic
_______________________
79. myelodysplastic
_______________________
80. thrombocytopenic
_______________________
Write in the missing words on lines in the following illustrations of the components of blood:
Unclotted
Clotted
83.
85.
81.
Cellular
components
84.
82.
81.
84.
82.
85.
83.
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MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 6-1
PROGRESS NOTE
CC: Fatigue
S:
This 43 y/o female c/o feeling run down with lack of energy x 1 mo. Pt denies fever, chills,
nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, constipation and reports no weight loss. She has had very
heavy menstrual periods lasting 5 days since DC of birth control pills 1 year ago.
PMH: mononucleosis at age 14, NKDA. FH: father, age 68, died of MI; mother, age 74,
has myelodysplasia; sister, age 45, L&W
SH: married x 8 yr, no children; ETOH–wine with dinner, denies smoking.
O:
VS: T 98.8º, P 81, R 15, BP 136/62. WDWN female in NAD. HEENT—WNL
Neck: supple s̄ lymphadenopathy. Lungs: clear. Heart: RRR s̄ murmur
Abdomen: soft and tender s̄ organomegaly. Extremities: no edema.
A:
Etiology of fatigue and decreased energy unclear. Possible iron deficiency anemia in light
of heavy menstrual periods.
P:
Blood studies to include comprehensive metabolic panel, CBC c̄ differential.
RTO in 1 wk for lab results.
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 6-1
1. Which of the following is not mentioned in
the history?
a. type of treatment the patient received for
mononucleosis
b. patient’s consumption of alcohol
c. how long the patient has been married
d. health status of the patient’s sister
2. Describe the condition of the patient’s
mother:
a. she has leukemia
b. she has a bleeding disorder characterized
by an abnormally decreased number of
platelets in the blood
c. she has a hereditary disorder characterized by an excessive buildup of iron
deposits in the body
d. she has a disorder within the bone marrow characterized by a proliferation of
abnormal stem cells, which usually
develops into leukemia
3. Which of the following describes the findings of the physical examination?
a. swollen lymph glands
b. normal examination
c. fast heart rate
d. heart murmur
4. What is the possible cause of the patient’s
fatigue?
a. viral condition characterized by an
increase in mononuclear cells (monocytes and lymphocytes) in the blood
b. macrocytic-normochromic type of anemia characterized by an inadequate supply of vitamin B12, causing red blood cells
to become large, varied in shape, and
reduced in number
c. microcytic-hypochromic type of anemia
characterized by small red blood cells
containing low amounts of hemoglobin
because of a lack of iron in the body
d. normocytic-normochromic type of anemia characterized by the failure of bone
marrow to produce red blood cells
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
5. Identify the subjective information most
significantly linked to the assessment:
a. enlarged lymph glands
b. heavy menstrual periods
c. fatigue
d. the patient quit taking birth control pills
309
6. Which of the following tests is part of the
plan?
a. test to determine coagulation defects,
such as platelet disorders
b. test to diagnose an infection in the
bloodstream by culturing a specimen of
blood
c. needle aspiration of bone marrow tissue
for pathologic examination
d. expanded battery of automated blood
chemistry tests used as a general screen
for disease
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Medical Record 6-2 A and B
FOR ADDITIONAL STUDY
Henry Lin went to his personal physician after an extended period of feeling weak and tired and
starting to lose weight. His doctor then admitted him to Central Medical Center hospital for additional tests after conducting a physical examination and blood tests. He is now being treated as an
outpatient by his internist, Dr. Bradley, and an oncologist, Dr. Ellison, to whom he was referred for
consultation and concurrent care. Medical Record 6-2A is the oncology/hematology progress note
dictated by Dr. Ellison, the oncologist treating Mr. Lin, at the time of a follow-up visit two weeks
after Mr. Lin’s hospitalization. The second document, Medical Record 6-2B, is a hematology lab
report, submitted before a second follow-up with Dr. Ellison two weeks later.
Read Medical Record 6-2 (pages 312–313), then write your answers to the following questions
in the spaces provided.
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 6-2
1. Below are medical terms used in the progress note that you have not yet encountered in this
text. Underline each where it appears in the record, and define the term below.
edema ______________________________________________________________________________
scaphoid ____________________________________________________________________________
anorexia ____________________________________________________________________________
2. In your own words, not using medical terminology, translate Mr. Lin’s diagnosis:
____________________________________________________________________________________
3. Name the diagnostic test that confirmed this diagnosis:
____________________________________________________________________________________
4. Write the medical term for Mr. Lin’s enlarged spleen: ____________________________________
5. Dr. Ellison’s March 31 record includes the results of two CBC component tests from the earlier March 23 lab report as well as results from the same tests for March 31. The April 15 lab
report also contains the CBC component tests. In the spaces below, write the name of the tests
and their results at these three times. Do not use abbreviations. Be sure to include units of
measure.
Test
Result
March 23
March 31
April 15
_______________________________ ________________
_______________
_______________
_______________________________ ________________
_______________
_______________
6. What are the three elements Dr. Ellison includes in Mr. Lin’s treatment plan?
a. __________________________________________________________________________________
b. __________________________________________________________________________________
c. __________________________________________________________________________________
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
311
7. Study the April 15 laboratory report carefully, and complete the following table of selected test
results. Write out the full name of the abbreviated measurement; circle N (normal) if the result
for Mr. Lin is within the normal range or A (abnormal) if the result is outside the normal
range.
Test Name
Result Range
a. WBC
__________________________________________
N
A
b. RBC
__________________________________________
N
A
c. HGB
__________________________________________
N
A
d. HCT
__________________________________________
N
A
e. MCV
__________________________________________
N
A
f.
__________________________________________
N
A
g. MCHC __________________________________________
N
A
h. PLT
__________________________________________
N
A
i.
lymph
__________________________________________
N
A
j.
mono
__________________________________________
N
A
k. neutro __________________________________________
N
A
l.
__________________________________________
N
A
__________________________________________
N
A
MCH
eos
m. baso
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Medical Record 6-2A: For Additional Study
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
313
Medical Record 6-2B: For Additional Study
CENTRAL MEDICAL CENTER
211 Medical Center Drive • Central City, US 90000-1234 • PHONE: (012) 125-6784 • FAX: (012) 125-9999
04/15/20xx
14:27
NAME
MR#
ACCT#
: Lin, Henry
: TEST-226
: 168946701
LOC: TEST
M63558 COLL: 04/15/20xx 13:23
DOB: 2/2/xx
AGE: 69Y
SEX: M
REC: 04/15/20xx 13:25
HEMOGRAM
CBC
WBC
RBC
HGB
HCT
MCV
MCH
MCHC
PLT
Auto Lymph %
Auto Mono %
Auto Neutro %
Auto Eos %
Auto Baso %
Auto Lymph #
Auto Mono #
Auto Neutro #
Auto Eos #
Auto Baso #
TEST, PATIENT
04/15/20xx 14:27
4.1
2.93
9.1
25.3
86.2
31.1
36.0
90
[4.5 - 10.5]
[4.6 - 6.2]
[14.0 - 18.0]
[42.0 - 52.0]
[82 - 92]
[27 - 31]
[32 - 36]
[150 - 450]
8.3
32.6
57.8
1.0
0.3
0.3
1.3
2.4
0.0
0.0
[20 - 40]
[1 - 11]
[50 - 75]
[0 - 6]
[0 - 2]
[1.5 - 4.0]
[0.2 - 0.9]
[1.0 - 7.0]
[0 - 0.7]
[0 - 0.2]
TEST-221
INTERIM REPORT COMPLETE
END OF REPORT
K/UL
M/UL
G/DL
%
FL
PG
G/DL
K/UL
%
%
%
%
%
K/UL
K/UL
K/UL
K/UL
K/UL
PAGE 1
INTERIM REPORT
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS TO PRACTICE EXERCISES
1. erythro/blast/osis
________________
CF
R
S
red/germ or bud/condition or increase
2. chylo/poiesis
____________
CF
P
CF
S
blood/cell/instrument
for measuring
4. spleno/rrhagia
_____________
CF
S
spleen/to burst forth
5. lymph/aden/itis
______________
R
R
S
clear fluid/gland/inflammation
6. immuno/tox/ic
______________
CF
R
S
safe/poison/pertaining
to
7. reticulo/cyt/osis
_______________
CF
R
CF
R
R
R
CF
CF
S
S
spleen/enlargement
12. pro/myelo/cyt/e
______________
P
CF
R S
before/bone marrow/
cell/noun marker
13. leuko/cyto/penia
_______________
CF
CF
CF
S
white/cell/abnormal
reduction
CF
S
cell/form/study of
18. hemo/lysis
__________
CF
S
blood/breaking down or
dissolution
19. an/emia
________
P
S
without/blood condition
20. meta/stasis
__________
21.
22.
23.
S
clear fluid/vessel/record
11. spleno/megaly
_____________
S
clear fluid/tumor
17. cyto/morpho/logy
________________
S
white/cell/pertaining to
10. lymph/angio/gram
_________________
S
R
P
thymus gland/disease/
condition or process of
9. leuko/cyt/ic
___________
S
across or through/
breaking down or
dissolution
16. lymph/oma
___________
S
a net/cell/condition or
increase
8. thymo/path/y
_____________
CF
R
spleen/excision
(removal)
15. dia/lysis
________
S
juice/formation
3. hemo/cyto/meter
________________
CF
14. splen/ectomy
____________
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
S
beyond, after, or
change/stop or stand
mean corpuscular (cell)
volume (MCV)
mean corpuscular (cell)
hemoglobin (MCH)
mean corpuscular (cell)
hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)
white blood count,
WBC
hemoglobin, HGB, Hgb
hematocrit, HCT, Hct
differential count
prothrombin time
erythrocyte sedimentation rate
partial thromboplastin
time
complete blood count
l
j
k
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
g
c
e
f
b
d
i
h
a
neutropenia
autologous blood
immunosuppression
cross-matching
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
plasmapheresis
homologous blood
phag/o
thromb/o
chyl/o
plas/o
chrom/o
hem/o
immun/o
blast/o
hematopoiesis
platelets
anisocytosis
poikilocytosis
hemolysis
lymphadenopathy
myelodysplasia
thrombocytopenia
hematocrit
splenectomy
plasmapheresis
vasodilator
leukemia
immunosuppression
plasmapheresis
thymus
hematopoiesis
spleen
septicemia
hemophilia
myelodysplasia
thrombocytopenia
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CHAPTER 6 • BLOOD AND LYMPHATIC SYSTEMS
81. plasma
82. leukocytes or white
blood cells
83. erythrocytes or red
blood cells
84. thrombocytes or
platelets
85. serum
ANSWERS TO MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 6-1: Progress Note
1. a
2. d
3. b
4. c
5. b
6. d
Medical Record 6-2: For Additional Study
See CD-ROM for answers.
315
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CHAPTER
7
Respiratory
System
✓ Chapter 7 Checklist
Read Chapter 7: Respiratory System and complete all programmed review
segments.
LOCATION
pages 317-349
Review the starter set of flash cards and term components related to Chapter 7. back of book
Complete the Chapter 7 Practice Exercises and Medical Record Analysis 7-1.
pages 355-363
Complete Medical Record Analysis 7-2 For Additional Study.
pages 364-368
Complete the Chapter 7 Exercises by Chapter.
CD-ROM
Complete the Chapter 7 Review and Test Modes.
CD-ROM
Review the Pronunciation Drill for the Chapter 7 terms.
CD-ROM
RESPIRATORY SYSTEM OVERVIEW
The respiratory system has two primary functions (Fig. 7-1):
Brings oxygen into the body as air is inhaled into the lungs (inspiration) and passes the oxygen
into the blood
Rids the body of carbon dioxide through exhalation (expiration) as the lungs receive carbon
dioxide diffused out of the blood
317
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
THE RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
Sinuses
Frontal
sinus
Frontal sinus
Sphenoid sinus
Nasopharynx
Nasal cavity
Ethmoidal
air cells
Oral cavity
Oropharynx
Nose
Tonsils
Laryngopharynx
Epiglottis
Esophagus
Sphenoidal
sinus
Maxillary
sinus
Trachea
Tongue
Larynx with
vocal cords
Superior view of larynx
Lung
Rib
Pleura
Lung
Epiglottis
Pleural cavity
Right main
bronchus
Left main
bronchus
Upper lobe of
right lung
Upper lobe
of left lung
Middle lobe
Vocal
cords
open
Cartilage
Lower lobe
Bronchioles
Lower lobe
Mediastinum
Diaphragm
Lining of airways
Mucus
Bronchiole with alveoli
Bronchial cilia
Bronchial lining
cells
Mucus producing
cells
Pulmonary
vein
Mucous
membranes
Alveolus
Lobes
O2
CO2
Pulmonary
artery
FIGURE 7-1 ■
Respiratory tract.
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CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
319
Self-Instruction: Combining Forms
Study the following:
COMBINING FORM
MEANING
alveol/o
alveolus (air sac)
bronch/o, bronchi/o
bronchus (airway)
bronchiol/o
bronchiole (little airway)
capn/o, carb/o
carbon dioxide
laryng/o
larynx (voice box)
lob/o
lobe (a portion)
nas/o, rhin/o
nose
or/o
mouth
ox/o
oxygen
palat/o
palate
pharyng/o
pharynx (throat)
phren/o
diaphragm (also mind)
pleur/o
pleura (lining of lungs)
pneum/o, pneumon/o
air or lung
pulmon/o
lung
sinus/o
sinus (cavity)
spir/o, -pnea (suffix)
breathing
thorac/o, pector/o, steth/o
chest
tonsill/o
tonsil
trache/o
trachea (windpipe)
uvul/o
uvula
Programmed Review: Combining Forms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
7.1
The lungs are the primary organs of the respiratory
system. A pulmonologist is a medical specialist who is
concerned with the lungs. The combining form for lung is
pulmon/o
_______________. The two combining forms that can refer
pneum/o, pneumon/o
to either air or lung are _____________ and _______________.
For example, pneumothorax describes air in the chest (pleural
inflammation
cavity). Pneumonitis is an ___________________ of the lung.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
7.2
The combining form for lobe (as in a lung lobe) is
lob/o
__________. Because the suffix -ectomy means an
excision
_______________ or removal, the removal of a lung lobe is
lobectomy
called a __________________.
7.3
Several different combining forms refer to the chest
and are the basis of terms related to the respiratory system.
incision
A thoracotomy is an _______________ into the chest; the
thorac/o
term uses the combining form ____________. A stethoscope,
steth/o
from the combining form ____________, is an instrument
used to listen to lung sounds through the chest wall.
pain
Because the suffix -algia refers to __________, pectoralgia,
pector/o
from the combining form ______________, means chest pain.
ox/o
7.4
deficient or below
Using the prefix hypo-, which means _________________, and
condition of
the suffix -ia, which means _______________ ____, the term
hypoxia
for a condition of deficient oxygen levels is _______________.
The combining form meaning oxygen is _________.
(Note that occasionally, when a prefix ends in a vowel and
the root begins with a vowel, the final vowel is dropped from
blood
the prefix.) Because the suffix -emia refers to a _____________
condition, the term for a condition of deficient oxygen in
hypoxemia
the blood is __________________.
7.5
The lungs move oxygen into the blood and carbon
dioxide out of the blood. The combining forms for carbon
capn/o, carb/o
dioxide are _____________ and ______________.
much
Hypercapnia, for example, is a condition of too __________
carbon dioxide in the blood; hypercarbia is a synonym. The
term for a condition of too little carbon dioxide in the blood
hypocapnia, hypocarbia
is __________________ or __________________.
breathing
7.6
measuring
Because -metry refers to the process of _________________
The combining form spir/o means _________________.
something, the term for the measuring of breathing is
spirometry
_________________. A suffix related to breathing is
-pnea
_________, as in the term dyspnea, meaning
difficult, painful, or faulty
________________ breathing.
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CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
ANSWERS
321
REVIEW
7.7
Many combining forms are the basis of anatomic
terms related to the respiratory system. The combining form
or/o
meaning mouth or oral cavity is ________. The combining
nas/o
form meaning nose or nasal cavity is _________. From the
Greek word rhis comes a second combining term for nose:
rhin/o, inflammation
____________. Rhinitis, for example, is an _________________
of the nose.
sinus/o
7.8
-itis
Because the suffix meaning an inflammation is __________,
The combining form for sinus is _____________.
the term for an inflammation of a sinus is
sinusitis
_________________. (Remember that a combining vowel is
not used before a suffix that begins with a vowel.)
7.9
palat/o
The palate is the roof of the mouth, from the
combining form ______________. Recall that the suffix
-plasty refers to a surgical repair or reconstruction; the term
palatoplasty
for reconstruction of the palate is _____________________.
7.10 The combining form for the pharynx (throat) is
pharyng/o
________________. An inflamed pharynx is called
pharyngitis
___________________. Beneath the pharynx is the larynx
laryng/o
(voice box), from the combining form _____________. An
laryngitis
inflamed larynx is __________________.
7.11 Many anatomic terms are virtually identical to their
combining forms. The combining term for tonsil is
tonsill/o
_______________. The combining term for uvula is
uvul/o
_____________. The combining term for trachea (windpipe)
trache/o
is ________________. These are all structures of the airway.
7.12 The combining form for bronchus (airway) is
bronch/o
_____________ or bronchi/o. The plural of bronchus is
bronchi
_____________. A related term, bronchiole (little airway), is
bronchiol/o
derived from the combining form __________________.
7.13 An alveolus is a small air sac in the lungs, from the
alveol/o
combining form ______________. The common adjective
form is alveolar.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
7.14 Pleura is a membrane enclosing the lungs, from the
pleur/o
combining form ____________. The plural of pleura is
pleurae
_______________.
7.15 The Greek word phren can mean either the mind or
the diaphragm, a muscular partition below the lungs. The
phren/o
combining form for diaphragm is _____________. Using the
common suffix for pain, the term for pain in the diaphragm
phrenalgia or phrenodynia
is ____________________.
Self-Instruction: Anatomic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
nose
nōz
structure that warms, moistens, and filters air as it enters the
respiratory tract; also houses the olfactory receptors for the
sense of smell
sinuses
sı̄nŭs-ĕz
air-filled spaces in the skull that open into the nasal cavity
palate
palǎt
roof of the mouth; partition between the oral and nasal
cavities; divided into the hard and soft palate
hard palate
hard palăt
bony anterior (front) portion of the palate
soft palate
soft palăt
muscular posterior (back) portion of the palate
pharynx
f ăringks
throat; passageway for food to the esophagus and for air to
the larynx
nasopharynx
nā-zō-f ăringks
part of the pharynx directly behind the nasal passages
oropharynx
ŏrō-f ă-ringks
central portion of the pharynx between the roof of the
mouth and the upper edge of the epiglottis
laryngopharynx
l ă-ringgō-f ă-ringks
lower part of the pharynx, just below the oropharyngeal
opening into the larynx and esophagus
tonsils
tonsilz
oval lymphatic tissues on each side of the pharynx that filter
air to protect the body from bacterial invasion; also called
palatine tonsils
adenoid
adĕ-noyd
lymphatic tissue on the back of the pharynx behind the
nose; also called pharyngeal tonsil
uvula
ūvy ū-l ă
small projection hanging from the back middle edge of the
soft palate; named for its grape-like shape
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CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
TERM
MEANING
larynx
laringks
voice box; passageway for air moving from the pharynx to
the trachea; contains the vocal cords
323
glottis
glotis
opening between the vocal cords in the larynx
epiglottis
ep-i-glotis
a lid-like structure that covers the larynx during swallowing
to prevent food from entering the airway
trachea
trākē-ă
windpipe; passageway for air from the larynx to the area of
the carina, where it splits into the right and left bronchi
bronchial tree
brongk ē-ăl trē
branched airways that lead from the trachea to the
microscopic air sacs called alveoli
right bronchus
and left bronchus
rı̄t brongkŭs and
left brongkŭs
two primary airways branching from the area of the carina
into the lungs
bronchioles
brongkē-ōlz
progressively smaller tubular branches of the airways
alveoli
al-vēō-lı̄
thin-walled, microscopic air sacs that exchange gases
lungs
l ŭngz
two spongy organs in the thoracic cavity enclosed by the
diaphragm and rib cage; responsible for respiration
lobes
l ōbz
subdivisions of the lung, with two on the left and three on
the right
pleura
plūră
membranes enclosing the lung (visceral pleura) and lining
the thoracic cavity (parietal pleura)
pleural cavity
plūrăl kavi-tē
potential space between the visceral and parietal layers of
the pleura
diaphragm
dı̄ă-fram
muscular partition that separates the thoracic cavity from
the abdominal cavity and that moves upward and downward
to aid in respiration
mediastinum
mēdē-as-tı̄nŭm
partition that separates the thorax into two compartments
(containing the right and left lungs) and that encloses the
heart, esophagus, trachea, and thymus gland
mucous membranes
myūkus membrānz
thin sheets of tissue that line respiratory passages and
secrete mucus, a viscid (sticky) fluid
cilia
s ilē-ă
hair-like processes from the surface of epithelial cells, such
as those of the bronchi, to move mucous cell secretions
upward
parenchyma
pı̌-rengki-mă
functional tissues of any organ, such as the tissues of the
bronchioles, alveoli, ducts, and sacs, that perform respiration
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Programmed Review: Anatomic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
7.16 Air enters the respiratory system at the mouth and nose, which
filters and warms the air. The air-filled cavities in the skull that open
sinuses
into the nasal cavity are called ______________. The roof of the mouth
palate
is called the _______________, which is divided into two parts: the hard
soft
palate and the __________ palate.
pharynx
7.17 Air then passes through the throat, or ________________.
The part of this structure located behind the nasal passages
includes the combining form for nose in its name; it is called the
nasopharynx
_____________________. The part of the pharynx between the roof of
the mouth and the upper edge of the epiglottis includes the combining
oropharynx
form for mouth in its name; it is called the ___________________.
7.18 The air moves from the pharynx to the structure called the
larynx
voice box, the medical term for which is _______________.
Appropriately, the lower part of the pharynx, where it meets the
laryngopharynx
larynx, is called the ________________________. The oval lymphatic
tissues on each side of the pharynx that help to filter bacteria from the
tonsils
air are the ______________. Another area of lymphatic tissue on the
adenoid
back of the pharynx behind the nose is the _______________. Hanging
from the back middle edge of the soft palate is a small tissue
uvula
projection called the ____________.
vocal cords
7.19 The glottis is the opening between the __________ __________
in the larynx. A related term for the lid-like structure that covers the
larynx during swallowing to prevent food from entering the trachea is
epiglottis, upon
the __________________. The prefix epi- means __________. The
epiglottis lies upon the trachea to close it like a lid during swallowing.
trachea
7.20 The air then enters the windpipe, or _____________, which
bronchi
splits into the right and left ______________, which are the two primary
airways to the lungs. Note in Figure 7-1 how the bronchi soon split
into more and more branches. The branching structure is called the
bronchial
_________________ tree. The smallest tubular branches are the
bronchioles, -ole
____________________. The suffix _________ means small.
7.21 At the ends of the bronchioles are thin-walled, microscopic air
alveoli
sacs called _____________, where oxygen and carbon dioxide are
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CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
325
ANSWERS
REVIEW
alveolus
exchanged. The singular form of this term is ______________. The
lungs
alveoli comprise much of the right and left __________. The left lung
lobes
is divided into two sections, called ___________; the right lung has
three
_____________ lobes.
7.22 The membranes enclosing the lung and lining the thoracic
pleura
cavity are called ____________. Between these two layers of pleura is a
pleural
potential space called the _____________ cavity.
7.23 The lungs are in the thoracic cavity. Between the thoracic cavity
and the abdominal cavity below is a muscular partition that moves up and
diaphragm
down to help with breathing. This partition is called the ____________.
7.24 The term medial means relating to the middle. Using the same
combining form, the term for the partition in the middle of the thorax
that separates the thorax into two compartments is the
mediastinum
_______________________.
7.25 Lining the inside of respiratory passages are membranes that
mucous membranes
secrete mucus, called ___________ __________________. Note the
difference between the noun mucus and the adjective form
mucous
______________. Mucus traps microorganisms and other materials,
cilia
and tiny hair-like processes, called ____________, move this mucus
up and out of the respiratory tract to be expelled from the body.
tissue
7.26 The term parenchyma refers to functional _____________ of
any organ. In the lungs, the parenchyma includes the bronchioles
alveoli
and, most importantly, the _____________, where gas exchange
takes place.
Self-Instruction: Symptomatic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
BREATHING (Fig. 7-2)
eupnea
yūp-nēă
normal breathing
bradypnea
brad-ip-nēă
slow breathing
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Normal
Inspiration
Expiration
Bradypnea
(decreased rate)
Tachypnea
(increased rate)
Hyperpnea
(increased depth)
Cheyne-Stokes breathing
Time
Volume of air
Hypopnea
(shallow depth)
FIGURE 7-2 ■
Examples of breathing patterns.
TERM
MEANING
tachypnea
tak-ip-nēă
fast breathing
hypopnea
hı̄-popnē-ă
shallow breathing
hyperpnea
hı̄-pĕr-nēă
deep breathing
dyspnea
disp-nēă
difficulty breathing
apnea
apnē-ă
inability to breathe
orthopnea
ōr-thop-nēă
ability to breathe only in an upright position
Cheyne-Stokes
respiration
chān-stōks res-pi-rāshŭn
pattern of breathing characterized by a gradual increase of
depth and, sometimes, in rate to a maximum level, followed
by a decrease, resulting in apnea
Lung Sounds
crackles
krakĕlz
rales
rahlz
popping sounds heard on auscultation of the lung when air
enters diseased airways and alveoli; occurs in disorders such
as bronchiectasis or atelectasis
wheezes
wēzez
rhonchi
rongkı̄
high-pitched, musical sounds heard on auscultation of the
lung as air flows through a narrowed airway; occurs in
disorders such as asthma or emphysema
stridor
strı̄dōr
high-pitched, crowing sound that occurs with an obstruction
in the upper airway (trachea or larynx)
GENERAL SYMPTOMATIC TERMS
caseous necrosis
kāzē-ŭs nĕ-krōsis
degeneration and death of tissue with a cheese-like
appearance
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CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
327
TERM
MEANING
cyanosis
sı̄-ă-nōsis
bluish coloration of the skin caused by a deficient amount of
oxygen in the blood
dysphonia
dis-fōnē-ă
hoarseness ( phon/o voice or sound)
epistaxis
ep-i-staksis
nosebleed (epi upon; stazo to drip)
expectoration
ek-spek-tō-rāshŭn
coughing up and spitting out of material from the lungs
sputum
spyūtŭm
material expelled from the lungs by coughing
hemoptysis
hē-mopti-sis
coughing up and spitting out blood that originates in the
lungs ( ptysis to spit)
hypercapnia
hı̄-pĕr-kapnē-ă
hypercarbia
hı̄-pĕr-karbē-ă
excessive level of carbon dioxide in the blood (capno smoke; carbo coal)
hyperventilation
hı̄pĕr-ven-ti-lāshŭn
excessive movement of air into and out of the lungs, causing
hypocapnia
hypocapnia
hı̄-pō-kapnē-ă
hypocarbia
hı̄-pō-karbē-ă
deficient level of carbon dioxide in the blood
hypoventilation
hı̄pō-ven-ti-lāshŭn
deficient movement of air into and out of the lungs, causing
hypercapnia
hypoxemia
hı̄-pok-sēmē-ă
deficient amount of oxygen in the blood
hypoxia
hı̄-poksē-ă
deficient amount of oxygen in tissue cells
obstructive lung
disorder (Fig. 7-3)
ob-strŭktiv lŭng dis-ōrdĕr
condition blocking the flow of air moving out of the lungs
restrictive lung disorder
(see Fig. 7-3)
rē-striktiv lŭng dis-ōrdĕr
condition limiting the intake of air into the lungs
pulmonary edema
p ŭlmō-n ār-ē e-dēmă
fluid filling the spaces around the alveoli and, eventually,
flooding into the alveoli
pulmonary infiltrate
(see Fig. 7-7)
p ūlmō-n ār-ē in-filtrāt
density on an x-ray image representing the consolidation of
matter within the air spaces of the lungs, usually resulting
from an inflammatory process
rhinorrhea
rı̄-nō-r ēă
thin, watery discharge from the nose (runny nose)
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Loss of
elasticity
Alveolar
duct
Fibrotic
tissue
Air
trapping
Alveolus
A
Normal
Bronchioles and alveolar ducts are
open, allowing air to reach alveoli
and alveolar capillaries; alveoli and
ducts are elastic, pushing air out of
the lungs during expiration
FIGURE 7-3 ■
disorders.
B
Pneumoconiosis
Chronic inhalation of dust particles
results in the formation of fibrotic
tissue surrounding the alveoli, limiting
their ability to stretch and restricting
the intake of air
C
Emphysema
Alveoli lose their elasticity, making it
difficult to push air out of the lungs
and obstructing exhalation of air
Comparison of normal alveoli (A) with alveoli in restrictive (B) and obstructive (C) lung
Programmed Review: Symptomatic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
breathing
7.27 To review, the suffix -pnea refers to __________________.
Many symptomatic terms use this suffix to identify different
fast
breathing problems. Recall that the prefix tachy- means ___________,
brady-
and that the prefix for slow is _____________. Therefore, fast
tachypnea
breathing is called __________________, and slow breathing is
bradypnea
called ___________________.
deficient
7.28 The prefix hypo- means below or ________________, and the
hyper-
opposite prefix, meaning above or excessive, is _____________. The
hypopnea
term for shallow (or deficient) breathing therefore is _____________,
hyperpnea
and the term for deep (or excessive) breathing is _________________.
normal
7.29 The prefix eu- means good or _______________, and the
difficult
prefix dys- means painful, faulty, or _________________. Therefore,
eupnea
the term for normal breathing is _______________, and the term for
dyspnea
difficulty breathing is _________________.
without
7.30 The prefix a- means _________________. The term for an
apnea
inability to breathe is ____________, and in an apneic patient,
stopped
breathing has ________________ entirely. Orthopnea refers to an
upright
inability to breathe in any position but an _______________ one.
7.31 A pattern of breathing in which depth and, sometimes, rate
Cheyne
gradually increase and then decrease is called _______________-
Stokes
______________ respiration.
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CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
ANSWERS
329
REVIEW
7.32 Recall that with a stethoscope, one can listen to sounds in
chest
the _____________. Lung sounds are often symptomatic of
respiratory problems. The popping sounds caused by air entering
crackles
diseased airways and alveoli are called ________________ or rales.
High-pitched musical sounds resulting from air flowing through a
narrowed airway, such as in asthma or emphysema, are called
rhonchi
wheezes or ______________. The high-pitched crowing sound that
stridor
occurs with an obstructed upper airway is called ________________.
7.33 The two combining forms for carbon dioxide are carb/o and
capn/o
____________. Using the prefix meaning above or excessive and the
condition of
suffix -ia, meaning _______________ ____, a condition of having too
hypercapnia
much carbon dioxide in the blood is called ___________________
hypercarbia
or _________________.
deficient
7.34 Hypo- is a prefix meaning below or ______________. The
condition of
suffix -ia means _______________ ____. Join these with the
ox/o
combining form for oxygen, or ________, to build the term
describing a condition of deficient oxygen in the tissues, or
hypoxia
_____________. Hypoxemia is the term that describes the initial
blood
effect or condition of the ___________ when there is a
deficient, oxygen
______________ amount of _____________. A related term links
blue
cyan/o, the combining form meaning _________, with -osis, the suffix
increase
meaning condition or ______________, to form the term describing
a bluish coloration of the skin caused by a deficient amount of
cyanosis
oxygen in the blood: _______________. The adjective form is
cyanotic
______________.
7.35 Ventilation is the movement of air into and out of the lungs.
hyperventilation
Excessive movement of air is called _______________________,
hypoventilation
whereas deficient movement of air is called _____________________.
dys-
7.36 The prefix meaning difficult, painful, or faulty is ________.
Combined with the combining form phon/o, meaning voice or sound,
and the suffix for condition, the term for a condition of hoarseness
dysphonia
(difficult or painful voice) is _________________.
7.37 The term for nosebleed does not use the combining form for
nose. It literally means “drip upon,” combining the prefix for upon,
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
epi-
________, with stazo, a root meaning to drip. The medical term for
epistaxis
nosebleed is _________________.
7.38 The cilia lining the structures of the airway move mucus
and other material up and out of the airway and lungs, where it can be
coughed up and spit out of the body. The process of coughing up
expectoration
and spitting out such material is termed ____________________. The
sputum
material expelled from the lungs by coughing is called ___________.
Using the combining form for blood (hem/o), the term for coughing
hemoptysis
up blood from the lungs is _________________.
7.39 A condition in which the flow of air is blocked from moving
obstructive
out of the lungs is called an __________________ lung disorder. A
condition limiting the intake of air into the lungs is a
restrictive lung
_________________ _________ disorder.
7.40 Edema is the presence of excessive watery fluid. Edema in
pulmonary
the lungs is called __________________ edema.
7.41 Density on an x-ray image representing the consolidation of
matter within the air spaces of the lungs is called a pulmonary
infiltrate
_______________. Pulmonary infiltrates usually indicate a process of
inflammation
___________________ in the lung.
7.42 The word caseous means cheese-like in appearance. Recall
necr/o
that the combining form meaning death is ___________. The term
for dead and degenerating tissue with a cheese-like appearance is
caseous necrosis
______________ ________________. The suffix -osis means
condition or increase
____________________.
discharge
7.43 Recall that the suffix -rrhea means __________________. This
suffix joins with the Greek combining form for nose to create the
rhinorrhea
term for watery discharge from the nose: __________________.
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
asthma (Fig. 7-4)
azmă
panting; obstructive pulmonary disease caused by a spasm
of the bronchial tubes or by swelling of the mucous
membrane; characterized by paroxysmal (sudden, periodic)
attacks of wheezing, dyspnea, and cough
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CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
A
331
B
Cross section
Cross section
Mucous
plugs
Swelling
Constriction
Close-up of a bronchiole,
showing spasm, edema,
and mucous
FIGURE 7-4 ■
Comparison of normal bronchial tubes (A) with constricted bronchial tubes in asthma (B).
TERM
MEANING
atelectasis
at-ĕ-lektă-sis
collapse of lung tissue (alveoli) (atele imperfect; -ectasis expansion or dilation)
bronchiectasis (Fig. 7-5)
brong-kē-ektă-sis
abnormal dilation of the bronchi with accumulation of
mucus
bronchitis
brong-kı̄tis
inflammation of the bronchi
bronchogenic carcinoma
brong-kō-jenik kar-si-nōmă
lung cancer; cancer originating in the bronchi
Normal
Bronchiectasis
Trachea
Bronchi
Trapped
mucus
FIGURE 7-5 ■
Bronchiectasis.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
TERM
MEANING
bronchospasm
brongkō-spazm
constriction of bronchi caused by spasm (involuntary
contraction) of the peribronchial smooth muscle
emphysema
(see Fig. 7-3, C)
em-fi-sēmă
obstructive pulmonary disease characterized by
overexpansion of the alveoli with air and destructive
changes in their walls, resulting in loss of lung elasticity
and gas exchange (emphysan to inflate)
chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD)
kronik ob-strŭktiv pūlmōnār-ē di-zēz
permanent, destructive pulmonary disorder that is a
combination of chronic bronchitis and emphysema
cystic fibrosis
sistik f ı̄-brōsis
inherited condition of exocrine gland malfunction causing
secretion of abnormally thick, viscous (sticky) mucus that
obstructs passageways within the body, commonly affecting
the lungs and digestive tract; mucus that obstructs the
airways leads to infection, inflammation, and damage of
lung tissue
laryngitis
lar-in-jı̄tis
inflammation of the larynx
laryngotracheobronchitis
(LTB)
lă-ringgō-trākē-o-brong-kı̄tis
croup
krūp
inflammation of the upper airways with swelling; creates a
funnel-shaped elongation of tissue causing a distinct “seal
bark” cough
laryngospasm
l ă-ringgō-spazm
spasm of the laryngeal muscles, causing a constriction
nasal polyposis
nāzăl poli-pōsis
presence of numerous polyps in the nose (a polyp is a
tumor on a stalk)
pharyngitis
f ă-rin-jı̄tis
inflammation of the pharynx
pleural effusion (Fig. 7-6)
plūrăl e-fūzhŭn
accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
empyema
em-pı̄-ēmă
pyothorax
pı̄-ō-thōraks
accumulation of pus in the pleural cavity
hemothorax
hē-mō-thōraks
blood in the pleural cavity
pleuritis
plū-rı̄tis
pleurisy
plūri-sē
inflammation of the pleura
pneumoconiosis (Fig. 7-3, B)
nūmō-kō-n ē-ōsis
chronic restrictive pulmonary disease resulting from
prolonged inhalation of fine dusts, such as coal, asbestos
(asbestosis), or silicone (silicosis) (conio dust)
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CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
Normal
333
Pleural Effusion
Pleural cavity
Lung
Pleura
Pleural
cavity
Porous membrane
allows fluid transport
FIGURE 7-6 ■
Normal space occupied
by the pleural cavity
Pleural cavity
filling with fluid
Pleural effusion.
TERM
MEANING
pneumonia (Fig. 7-7)
nū-mōnē-ă
inflammation in the lung resulting from infection by
bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites or from aspiration of
chemicals
Pneumocystis pneumonia
nū-mō-sistis nū-mōn ē-ă
pneumothorax (Fig. 7-8)
nū-mō-thōraks
pneumonia caused by the Pneumocystis carinii organism, a
common opportunistic infection in those who are positive
for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
air in the pleural cavity caused by a puncture of the lung
or chest wall
FIGURE 7-7 ■ Chest x-ray image showing pulmonary
infiltrates in right upper lobe consistent with lobar pneumonia. Dense material (inflammatory exudate) absorbs
radiation, whereas normal alveoli do not.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Normal
Pneumothorax
Air
Inspiration
Air entering through a wound in the chest
causes a collapse of the lung; contents
of the thoracic cavity shift to the opposite
side, compressing the other lung
FIGURE 7-8 ■
Simple pneumothorax.
TERM
MEANING
pneumohemothorax
nūmō-hē-mō-thōraks
air and blood in the pleural cavity
pneumonitis
nū-mō-nı̄tis
inflammation of the lung, often caused by hypersensitivity
to chemicals or dusts
pulmonary embolism (PE)
pulmō-nār-ē embō-lizm
occlusion in the pulmonary circulation, most often caused
by a blood clot
pulmonary tuberculosis
(TB)
pulmō-nār-ē tū-bĕr-kyū-lōsis
disease caused by the presence of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
in the lungs; characterized by the formation of tubercles,
inflammation, and necrotizing caseous lesions (caseous
necrosis)
sinusitis
sı̄-nŭ-sı̄tis
inflammation of the sinuses
sleep apnea
slēp apnē-ǎ
periods of breathing cessation (10 seconds or more) that
occur during sleep, often resulting in snoring
tonsillitis
ton-si-lı̄tis
acute or chronic inflammation of the tonsils
upper respiratory
infection (URI)
uper rĕs-paruh-tōr-ē infekshŭn
infectious disease of the upper respiratory tract involving
the nasal passages, pharynx, and bronchi
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335
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
upper
7.44 URI is the abbreviation for ____________
respiratory infection
___________________ ________________, an infection of the
upper respiratory tract involving the nasal passages, pharynx,
and bronchi.
-itis
7.45 Recall that the suffix for inflammation is _________. Many
individual structures of the respiratory system can become
inflamed, often by an infection. Inflammation of the sinuses
sinusitis
is called ________________. Inflammation of the tonsils is
tonsillitis
called __________________. Inflammation of the pharynx is
pharyngitis
called ____________________. Inflammation of the larynx is
laryngitis
called ___________________. Inflammation of the bronchi is
bronchitis
called ___________________.
pleuritis
7.46 Inflammation of the pleura is called ________________.
pleurisy
Another term for this condition is ________________.
7.47 The term for inflammation of the lung is built from the
combining form meaning either air or lung. This term is
pneumonitis
__________________. Another “itis” inflammation involving the
larynx, trachea, and bronchi causes a distinctive, seal-like bark.
laryngotracheobronchitis
The longer term for this condition, __________________________,
uses all three combining forms; the shorter term for this
croup
condition is ____________.
7.48 Several other diagnostic terms are built from the
combining form meaning air or lung. Using a suffix indicating
a condition of, the term for an inflammation of the lung caused
by infection with bacteria or viruses, or by exposure to chemicals,
pneumonia
is __________________. A particular kind of pneumonia caused
Pneumocystis
by the Pneumocystis carinii organism is called _________________
pneumonia. A chronic restrictive disease resulting from inhaling
pneumoconiosis
dust (conio dust) is called _____________________.
7.49 This same combining form for air is used to build the
terms referring to air in a body cavity. Air in the thorax caused
by a puncture of the lung or chest wall is called
pneumothorax
_____________________. The term for both air and blood
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
pneumohemothorax
(hem/o blood) in the thorax is __________________________.
The presence of blood alone in the pleural cavity of the chest
hemothorax
is called _________________.
7.50 In addition to inflammation of the bronchi, called
bronchitis
________________, several other diagnostic conditions can occur
in the bronchi. Recall that the suffix for an involuntary
-spasm
contraction is ____________. A constriction of the bronchi
caused by contraction of the smooth muscle around the bronchi
bronchospasm
is called ______________________. Recall that the diagnostic suffix
-ectasis
for expansion or dilation is ______________; thus, the condition of
abnormal dilation of the bronchi with an accumulation of mucus
bronchiectasis, carcinoma
is called ________________________. Recall that ________________
means cancer tumor. Lung cancer originating in the bronchi is
bronchogenic carcinoma
called ____________________ __________________.
7.51 Again, the suffix for an involuntary contraction is
-spasm
____________. A contraction of laryngeal muscles, causing a
laryngospasm
constriction, is termed _______________________.
7.52 Recall that the suffix for expansion or dilation is
-ectasis
_____________. Therefore, the term for a collapse of lung tissue
uses this suffix combined with the root atele (meaning imperfect):
atelectasis
___________________.
7.53 There are several types of obstructive pulmonary disease.
Caused by a spasm of the bronchial tubes or by swelling of their
asthma
mucous membrane, _____________ is characterized by sudden
attacks of wheezing, dyspnea, and cough. Another condition,
characterized by overexpansion of the alveoli with air and
emphysema
destructive changes in their walls, is called __________________.
The permanent destructive pulmonary disorder that is a
combination of emphysema and chronic bronchitis is called
chronic obstructive pulmonary
____________ ____________________ ___________________
disease
______________ (COPD).
condition
7.54 The diagnostic suffix -osis means _______________ or
increase. The condition of numerous polyps in the nose is called
nasal polyposis
__________ ________________.
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CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
ANSWERS
337
REVIEW
7.55 Another use for -osis is in the term describing the
hereditary condition of exocrine gland malfunction that causes
secretion of abnormally thick mucus in the lungs, obstructing
the airways and leading to infection and damage to lung tissue:
cystic fibrosis
___________ ________________.
7.56 Fluid, pus, blood, or air can accumulate in the pleural
cavity. The term for blood in this cavity in the thorax is
hemothorax
___________________. The combining form meaning pus is
py/o; thus, the accumulation of pus in the pleural cavity is
pyothorax
called _______________, or empyema. An accumulation of fluid
pleural effusion
in the pleural cavity is called a ____________ _______________.
7.57 Recall that the term for an inability to breathe is
apnea
____________. The condition in which this happens for short
sleep apnea
periods during sleep is called ____________ ____________.
7.58 The bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes the lung
pulmonary tuberculosis
disease __________________ _____________________.
7.59 A blood clot that lodges in the pulmonary circulation,
pulmonary
causing an occlusion, is called a _________________
embolism
_______________.
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
Study the following:
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
arterial blood gas (ABG)
ar-tērē-ăl blŭd gas
analysis of arterial blood to determine the adequacy of lung
function in the exchange of gases
pH
abbreviation for the potential of hydrogen; measurement of
blood acidity or alkalinity
PaO2
abbreviation for partial pressure of oxygen; measurement of
the amount of oxygen in the blood
PaCO2
abbreviation for partial pressure of carbon dioxide;
measurement of the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood
endoscopy
en-doskŏ-pē
examination inside a body cavity with a flexible endoscope
for diagnostic or treatment purposes
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TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
bronchoscopy (Fig. 7-9)
brong-koskŏ-p ē
use of a flexible endoscope, called a bronchoscope, to
examine the airways
nasopharyngoscopy
nāzō-far-in-goskŏ-pē
use of a flexible endoscope to examine the nasal passages
and the pharynx (throat) to diagnose structural abnormalities,
such as obstructions, growths, and cancers
examination methods
ek-zam-i-nāshŭn methŏdz
techniques used during physical examination to objectively
evaluate the respiratory system
auscultation
aws-kŭl-tāshŭn
to listen; a physical examination method of listening to the
sounds within the body with the aid of a stethoscope, such
as auscultation of the chest for heart and lung sounds
percussion
pĕr-kŭshŭn
a physical examination method of tapping the body to elicit
vibrations and sounds to estimate the size, border, or fluid
content of a cavity, such as the chest
lung biopsy (Bx)
lŭng bı̄op-sē
removal of a small piece of lung tissue for pathologic
examination
lung scan (Fig. 7-10)
lŭng skan
ventilation-perfusion
(V/Q) scan
ven-ti-lāshŭn-per-fyūzhŭn
skan
a two-part nuclear (radionuclide) scan of the lungs to detect
abnormalities of ventilation (respiration) or perfusion (blood
flow) made 1) after radioactive material is injected in the
patient’s blood, and 2) as the patient breathes radioactive
material into the airways; comparison of the two scans
indicates whether an abnormality exists in the airways or the
pulmonary circulation
magnetic resonance
imaging (MRI)
mag-netic rezō-nǎnts imǎ-jing
nonionizing image of the lung to visualize lung lesions
polysomnography (PSG)
polē-som-nogrǎ-f ē
recording of various aspects of sleep (i.e., eye and muscle
movements, respiration, and brain-wave patterns) for diagnosis
of sleep disorders (somn/o sleep) (see Chapter 8, Figure 8-14)
pulmonary function
testing (PFT)
pŭlmō-nār-ē f ŭnkshŭn testing
direct and indirect measurements of lung volumes
and capacities
spirometry (Fig. 7-11)
spı̄-romĕ-trē
direct measurement of lung volume and capacity
tidal volume (TV or VT)
tı̄dăl volyŭm
amount of air exhaled after a normal inspiration
vital capacity (VC)
vı̄t-ăl kă-pasi-tē
amount of air exhaled after a maximal inspiration
peak flow (PF)
pēk f lō
peak expiratory flow
rate (PEFR)
pēk ek-spı̄ră-tō-r ē flō rāt
measure of the fastest flow of exhaled air after a maximal
inspiration
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CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
Area of carina
Bronchoscopic views
Left main
bronchus
Blood clot
Carina
Right main
bronchus
Blood clot
occluding
right main
bronchus
Mucous plug
occluding
right main
bronchus
Mucous plug
Foreign body
Embedded
foreign body
Right upper
orifice
FIGURE 7-9 ■
Bronchoscopy procedure.
339
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FIGURE 7-10 ■ Posterior lung scan in a patient with an embolus in the right lung. A.
Ventilation image shows a normal pattern. B. Absence of blood flow to the right lung is
apparent on perfusion scan. L, left; R, right.
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
pulse oximetry (Fig. 7-12)
pŭls ok-simǎ-trē
noninvasive method of estimating the percentage of oxygen
saturation in the blood using an oximeter with a specialized
probe attached to the skin at a site of arterial pulsation,
commonly the finger; used to monitor hypoxemia
radiology
rā-dē-olŏ-jē
x-ray imaging
chest x-ray (CXR)
chest x-rā
x-ray imaging of the chest to visualize the lungs; directional
terms identify the path of the x-ray beam to produce the
radiograph:
PA (posterior-anterior) from back to front
AP (anterior-posterior) from front to back
lateral toward the side (e.g., left lateral)
A
B
Bell
FPO of
Modern spirometer
Recorder
Air
Lungs
Pen
H2O
FIGURE 7-11 ■
Breathing by the test subject causes
the piston-like bell to rise and fall,
moving the pen on the recording drum.
A. Principles of spirometry. B. Modern spirometry.
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A
B
FIGURE 7-12 ■ Pulse oximetry. A. Placement of a sensor on the patient’s
finger. B. Oxygen saturation reading on a portable monitor.
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
computed tomography
(CT)
kom-pyūtĕd tō-mogră-f ē
CT of the thorax is used to detect lesions in the lung; CT
of the head is used to visualize the structures of the nose
and sinuses
pulmonary angiography
(Fig. 7-13)
pulmō-nār-ē an-jē-ogră-f ē
x-ray imaging of the blood vessels of the lungs after the
injection of contrast material
FIGURE 7-13 ■ Pulmonary angiogram showing
an embolus obstructing pulmonary circulation
(arrow).
341
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
ANSWERS
REVIEW
7.60 Recall that the suffix meaning a process of examination (with
-scopy
an instrument) is ____________. Because endo- is the prefix for within,
the general term for examination within a body cavity using a scope is
endoscopy
__________________. Use of a special endoscope to examine the
bronchoscopy
airways and bronchi is called _______________________. Examination
nasopharyngoscopy
of the nasal and throat passages is ___________________________.
chest
7.61 A stethoscope is used to listen to ___________ sounds. The
physical examination procedure for doing this is called
auscultation
_________________.
7.62 Another physical examination method uses tapping of the
body to listen to the resulting sounds and vibrations to make
observations about underlying organs and masses. This is called
percussion
___________________.
gases
7.63 Laboratory tests analyze arterial blood ___________ (ABGs)
pH
to determine the adequacy of their function in the lung. The ______
is a measure of blood acidity or alkalinity. The amount of oxygen in
the blood is measured as the partial pressure of oxygen and is referred
PaO2
to as ___________. The partial pressure of carbon dioxide is referred
PaCO2
to as _____________.
7.64 Removal of a small sample of lung tissue for pathologic
biopsy
examination is called lung ____________. Many different organs and
tissues in the body can be biopsied.
7.65 The combining form somn/o means sleep, and the prefix poly-
many
means ___________. The suffix referring to the process of recording
-graphy
is _____________. Using these three word parts, the procedure that
records many aspects of sleep (respiration, muscle movements, and
polysomnography
so on) is called _______________________.
7.66 Measurement of lung volumes and capacities is called
pulmonary function
_________________ _____________ testing (PFT). Formed from the
combining term for breathing and the suffix for the process of
measuring, the term for the direct measurement of lung volume and
spirometry
capacity is ________________. The amount of air exhaled after a
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343
ANSWERS
REVIEW
tidal
normal inspiration is called ___________ volume. The amount of air
vital capacity
exhaled after a maximal inspiration is called __________ ____________.
The measure of the fastest flow of exhaled air after a maximal
peak expiratory
inspiration is called peak flow or _________ _________________
flow
_________ rate.
7.67 A noninvasive method of estimating the percentage of oxygen
saturation in the blood uses an oximeter attached to the skin at a site
pulse oximetry
of arterial pulsation. This procedure is called __________ ___________.
7.68 Several different imaging modalities are used to visualize the
lungs and other respiratory structures. A two-part nuclear scan of
the lungs to detect perfusion or ventilation abnormalities is simply
lung scan
called a _________ _________, or a V/Q scan, in which V stands for
ventilation, perfusion
__________________ (breathing) and Q stands for ______________
(blood flow). A nonionizing image of the lungs using magnetic
fields and radiofrequency waves is produced using a modality called
magnetic resonance imaging
________________ __________________ ______________ (MRI).
7.69 Using radi/o, a combining form meaning x-ray, and the suffix
radiology
meaning study of, the term for x-ray imaging is ________________. A
record
radiogram is an x-ray _____________; however, recall that the suffix
-graph
meaning instrument for recording, ___________, is used in the
radiograph
preferred term for an x-ray image: _________________. An x-ray of
chest x-ray
the full thorax to visualize the lungs is a ____________ ___________
posterior-anterior
(CXR). The abbreviations PA, for ________________-_______________,
anterior-posterior
and AP, for _______________-_________________, indicate the path of
the x-ray beam in producing the radiograph. Anterior refers to the
front, back
__________, and posterior refers to the _________. AP, then, indicates
that the x-ray passed from the front of the chest to the back of the
side
chest. A left lateral CXR is taken from the left _______ of the chest.
X-ray imaging of the blood vessels of the lungs taken after injection
angiography
of a contrast medium is called pulmonary _________________. The
form of x-ray imaging in which a computer creates cross-sectional
computed
images of structures such as the lungs is called ______________
tomography
________________ (CT).
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Self-Instruction: Operative Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
adenoidectomy
adĕ-noy-dektŏ-mē
excision of the adenoids
lobectomy
lō-bektŏ-mē
removal of a lobe of a lung
nasal polypectomy
nāzăl polip-ektŏ-mē
removal of a nasal polyp
pneumonectomy
nūmō-nektŏ-mē
removal of an entire lung
thoracentesis (Fig. 7-14)
thōră-sen-tēsis
puncture for aspiration of the chest (pleural cavity)
thoracoplasty
thōră-kō-plas-tē
repair of the chest involving fixation of the ribs
thoracoscopy
thōr-ă-koskŏ-pē
endoscopic examination of the pleural cavity using a
thoracoscope
thoracostomy
(see Fig. 7-14)
thōr-ă-kostŏ-mē
creation of an opening in the chest, usually to insert a tube
thoracotomy
thōr-ă-kotŏ-mē
incision into the chest
Thoracentesis
Thoracostomy
Surgical puncture with a needle
into the pleural space for
drainage of the pleural cavity
Surgical puncture into the
pleural space and insertion of
thoracostomy tube for drainage
of the pleural cavity
Pleural
effusion
FIGURE 7-14 ■
Common treatments of pleural effusion.
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Tracheotomy
Incision of the trachea for exploration,
for removal of a foreign body, or for
obtaining a biopsy specimen
Tracheostomy
Sagittal view, with tracheostomy
Incision of the trachea and insertion
tube in place
of a tube to facilitate passage of air
or removal of secretions
Placement of
tracheostomy
tube
Incision
FIGURE 7-15 ■
345
Tracheostomy
tube
Operative procedures related to the trachea.
TERM
MEANING
tonsillectomy
ton-si-lektŏ-mē
excision of the palatine tonsils
tonsillectomy and
adenoidectomy (T&A)
ton-si-lektŏ-mē and adĕnoy-dektŏ-mē
excision of the tonsils and adenoids
tracheostomy (Fig. 7-15)
trākē-ostŏ-mē
creation of an opening in the trachea, usually to insert a tube
tracheotomy (see Fig. 7-15)
trākē-otŏ-mē
incision into the trachea
Programmed Review: Operative Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
excision
7.70 Recall that the suffix -ectomy means _______________ or
removal. The term for the surgical removal of the adenoids is
adenoidectomy
_____________________. The term for removal of a nasal polyp is
nasal polypectomy
___________ ___________________. Formed using the combining
form that means either air or lung, the term for removal of an entire
pneumonectomy
lung is ___________________. The removal of the tonsils is called a
tonsillectomy
_________________. Sometimes, the tonsils and adenoids are removed
tonsillectomy and
at the same time in a procedure called a _________________ ______
adenoidectomy
________________ (T&A). The removal of a lung lobe is called
lobectomy
a __________________.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
incision
7.71 The suffix -tomy refers to an _______________. An incision
thoracotomy
into the chest is called a ____________________. An incision into
tracheotomy
the trachea is a _____________________.
7.72 The operative suffix -stomy means surgical creation of an
opening
______________. The creation of an opening into the trachea, most
tracheostomy
often to insert a tube, is called a ___________________. The surgical
thoracostomy
creation of an opening into the chest is called ___________________.
(Note that -tomy and -stomy have related but distinctly different
meanings.)
7.73 The suffix denoting surgical repair or reconstruction is
-plasty
____________. Thus, the surgical repair of the chest that involves
thoracoplasty
fixing the ribs is called a ____________________.
puncture
7.74 The suffix -centesis means a _________________ for aspiration.
A puncture that is made surgically for aspiration of fluid or air from
thoracentesis
the chest (pleural cavity) is called a ____________________. (Note that
thoracocentesis is an acceptable term but is used less often than the
shortened form: thoracentesis.)
examination
7.75 Recall that the suffix -scopy means process of _______________.
The endoscopic examination of the pleural cavity is called
thoracoscopy
___________________. Thoracoscopy is a surgical procedure because
an incision must be made for insertion of the endoscope. In contrast,
bronchoscopy and nasopharyngoscopy are diagnostic procedures
because the scope is inserted through natural body openings.
Self-Instruction: Therapeutic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
cardiopulmonary
resuscitation (CPR)
kardē-ō-pulmo-nār-ē rē-sŭsi-tāshŭn
method of artificial respiration and chest compressions to
move oxygenated blood to vital body organs when breathing
and the heart have stopped
continuous positive
airway pressure (CPAP)
therapy (Fig. 7-16)
kon-tinyū-ŭs pozi-tiv ārwā
preshŭr thāră-pē
use of a device with a mask that pumps a constant pressurized
flow of air through the nasal passages; commonly used during
sleep to prevent airway closure in sleep apnea
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347
FIGURE 7-16 ■ Patient wearing a continuous positive airway pressure
(CPAP) mask. (Photo courtesy of Respironics, Inc., Murrysville, PA.)
TERM
MEANING
endotracheal intubation
endō-trākē-ăl in-tū-bāshŭn
passage of a tube into the trachea via the nose or mouth to
open the airway for delivering gas mixtures to the lungs
(e.g., oxygen, anesthetics, or air)
incentive spirometry
(Fig. 7-17)
in-sentiv spı̄-romĕ-trē
a common postoperative breathing therapy using a specially
designed spirometer to encourage the patient to inhale and
hold an inspiratory volume to exercise the lungs and prevent
pulmonary complications
mechanical ventilation
(Fig. 7-18)
mĕ-kani-kǎl ven-ti-lāshŭn
mechanical breathing using a ventilator
COMMON THERAPEUTIC DRUG CLASSIFICATIONS
antibiotic
antē-bı̄-otik
a drug that kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms
anticoagulant
antē-kō-agyū-lant
a drug that dissolves, or prevents the formation of, thrombi or
emboli in the blood vessels (e.g., heparin)
antihistamine
an-tē-histă-mēn
a drug that neutralizes or inhibits the effects of histamine
histamine
histă-mēn
a compound in the body that is released by injured cells
during allergic reactions, inflammation, and so on, causing
constriction of bronchial smooth muscle and dilation of
blood vessels
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
FIGURE 7-17 ■
Incentive spirometer.
FIGURE 7-18
■
Mechanical ventilation.
TERM
MEANING
bronchodilator
brong-kō-dı̄-lāter
a drug that dilates the muscular walls of the bronchi
expectorant
ek-spektō-rănt
a drug that breaks up mucus and promotes coughing
Programmed Review: Therapeutic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
cardiopulmonary
7.76 CPR stands for _________________________
resuscitation
_____________________, a method of artificial respiration and
chest compressions to move oxygenated blood to vital body
organs when breathing and the heart have stopped.
7.77 A patient with sleep apnea may use a device that pumps
pressurized air through the nasal passages to prevent airway
continuous
closure during sleep. This treatment is called __________________
positive airway
_______________ ____________ pressure (CPAP) therapy. Recall
stopped
that apnea means _____________ breathing.
within
7.78 The prefix endo- means ______________. The passage of a
tube within the trachea via the nose or mouth to deliver oxygen
endotracheal intubation
to the lungs is called ___________________ __________________.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
measurement
7.79 Recall that spirometry is the direct __________________
349
of lung volume and capacity. A similar spirometer is used in
postoperative breathing therapy to motivate the patient to inhale
and hold a larger inspiratory volume. This therapy is called
incentive spirometry
__________________ ___________________.
7.80 Mechanical breathing using a ventilator machine is called
mechanical ventilation
___________________ ___________________.
against
7.81 Recall that the prefix anti- means _______________ or
opposed to. Drug classes are commonly named for their actions,
such as acting against some thing or process. A drug that acts to
prevent the process of coagulation (forming of blood clots) is
anticoagulant
called an _____________________. The same prefix joined with
the combining form for life (bio) denotes a drug class that acts to
antibiotic
kill or inhibit bacterial life. This drug is called an ______________.
7.82 A substance in the body that is released in allergic
reactions, and that causes constriction of bronchial muscles, is
histamine
called a ________________. A drug that acts to inhibit the effects
antihistamine
of histamine is called an ______________________.
7.83 A person who has asthma may experience constriction of
the bronchi during an attack. A therapeutic drug that counteracts
this constriction by dilating the muscular walls of the bronchi is
bronchodilator
called a ________________________.
coughing
7.84 Recall that expectoration means _______________ up and
spitting out material from the lungs. A type of drug that breaks
expectorant
up mucus to promote coughing is called an __________________.
CHAPTER 7 ACRONYMS AND ABBREVIATIONS
ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
ABG
arterial blood gas
AP
anterior-posterior
Bx
biopsy
COPD
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
CPAP
continuous positive airway pressure
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ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
CPR
cardiopulmonary resuscitation
CT
computed tomography
CXR
chest x-ray
HIV
human immunodeficiency virus
LTB
laryngotracheobronchitis
MRI
magnetic resonance imaging
PA
posterior-anterior
PaCO2
partial pressure of carbon dioxide
PaO2
partial pressure of oxygen
PE
pulmonary embolism
PEFR
peak expiratory flow rate
PF
peak flow
PFT
pulmonary function testing
pH
potential of hydrogen
PSG
polysomnography
T&A
tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy
TB
tuberculosis
TV or VT
tidal volume
URI
upper respiratory infection
VC
vital capacity
V/Q
ventilation-perfusion (scan)
CHAPTER 7 SUMMARY OF TERMS
The terms introduced in chapter 7 are listed below, followed by the page number on which each
term can be found and its written pronunciation. For additional practice and reinforcement, write
the definition of each term on a separate piece of paper.
adenoid/322
adĕ-noyd
antihistamine/347
an-tē-histă-mēn
adenoidectomy/344
adĕ-noy-dektŏ-mē
apnea/326
apnē-ă
alveoli/323
al-vē ō-lı̄
arterial blood gas (ABG)/337
ar-tērē-ăl blŭd gas
antibiotic/347
antē-bı̄-otik
asthma/330
azmă
anticoagulant/347
antē-kō-agyū-lant
atelectasis/331
at-ĕ-lektă-sis
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auscultation/338
aws-kŭl-tāshŭn
croup/332
krūp
bradypnea/325
brad-ip-nēă
cyanosis/327
sı̄-ă-nōsis
bronchial tree/323
brongkē-ăl trē
cystic fibrosis/332
sistik fı̄-brōsis
bronchiectasis/331
brong-kē-ektă-sis
diaphragm/323
dı̄ă-fram
bronchioles/323
brongkē-ōlz
dysphonia/327
dis-fōnē-ă
bronchitis/331
brong-kı̄tis
dyspnea/326
disp-nēă
bronchodilator/348
brong-kō-dı̄-lāter
emphysema/332
em-fi-sēmă
bronchogenic carcinoma/331
brong-kō-jenik kar-si-nōmă
empyema/332
em-pı̄-ēmă
bronchoscopy/338
brong-koskŏ-pē
endoscopy/337
en-doskŏ-pē
bronchospasm/332
brongkō-spazm
endotracheal intubation/347
endō-trākē-ăl in-tū-bāshŭn
cardiopulmonary resuscitation
(CPR)/346
kardē-ō-pulmo-nār-ē rē-sŭs-i-tāshŭn
epiglottis/323
ep-i-glotis
caseous necrosis/326
kāzē-ŭs nĕ-krōsis
chest x-ray (CXR)/340
chest x-rā
Cheyne-Stokes respiration/326
chān-stōks res-pi-rāshŭn
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD)/332
kronik ob-strŭktiv pūlmō-nār-ē di-zēz
epistaxis/327
ep-i-staksis
eupnea/325
yūp-nēă
examination methods/338
ek-zam-i-nāshŭn methŏdz
expectorant/348
ek-spektō-rănt
expectoration/327
ek-spek-tō-rāshŭn
cilia/323
silē-ă
glottis/323
glotis
computed tomography (CT)/341
kom-pyūtĕd tō-mogră-fē
hard palate/322
hard palăt
continuous positive airway pressure
(CPAP) therapy/346
kon-tinyū-ŭs pozi-tiv ārwā preshŭr
thāră-pē
hemoptysis/327
hē-mopti-sis
crackles/326
krakĕlz
hemothorax/332
hē-mō-thōraks
histamine/347
histă-mēn
351
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hypercapnia/327
hı̄-pēr-kapnē-ă
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)/338
mag-netik rezō-nănts imă-jing
hypercarbia/327
hı̄-pĕr-karbē-ă
mechanical ventilation/347
mĕ-kani-kăl ven-ti-lāshŭn
hyperpnea/326
hı̄-pĕr-nēă
mediastinum/323
medē-as-tı̄nŭm
hyperventilation/327
hı̄pĕr-ven-ti-lāshŭn
mucous membranes/323
myūkus membrānz
hypocapnia/327
hı̄-pō-kapnē-ă
nasal polypectomy/344
nāzăl polip-ektŏ-mē
hypocarbia/327
hı̄-pō-karbē-ă
nasal polyposis/332
nāzăl poli-pōsis
hypopnea/326
hı̄-popnē-ă
nasopharyngoscopy/338
nāzō-faring-goskŏ-pē
hypoventilation/327
hı̄pō-ven-ti-lāshŭn
nasopharynx/322
nā-zō-f ăringks
hypoxemia/327
hı̄-pok-sēmē-ă
nose/322
nōz
hypoxia/327
hı̄-poksē-ă
obstructive lung disorder/327
ob-strŭktiv lŭng dis-ōrder
incentive spirometry/347
in-sentiv spı̄-romĕ-trē
oropharynx/322
ŏrō-f ă-ringks
laryngitis/332
lar-in-jı̄tis
orthopnea/326
ōr-thop-nēă
laryngopharynx/322
lă-ringgō-f ă-ringks
palate/322
palăt
laryngospasm/332
lă-ringgō-spazm
parenchyma/323
pă-rengki-mă
laryngotracheobronchitis (LTB)/332
lă-ringgō-trākē-o-brong-kı̄tis
peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR)/338
pēk ek-spı̄ră-tō-rē flō rāt
larynx/323
laringks
peak flow (PF)/338
pēk flō
lobectomy/344
lō-bektŏ-mē
percussion/338
pĕr-kŭshŭn
lobes/323
lōbz
pharyngitis/332
f ă-rin-jı̄tis
lung biopsy (Bx)/338
lŭng bı̄op-sē
pharynx/322
f ăringks
lung scan/338
lŭng skan
pleura/323
plūră
lungs/323
lŭngz
pleural cavity/323
plūrăl kavi-tē
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pleural effusion/332
pl ūrăl e-f yūzhŭn
rhinorrhea/327
rı̄-nō-rēă
pleurisy/332
plūri-sē
rhonchi/326
rongkı̄
pleuritis/332
plū-rı̄tis
right bronchus and left bronchus/323
rı̄t brongkŭs and left brongkŭs
pneumoconiosis/332
nūmō-kō-nē-ōsis
sinuses/322
sı̄nŭs-ĕz
Pneumocystis pneumonia/333
nū-mō-sistis nū-mōnē-ă
sinusitis/334
sı̄-nŭ-sı̄tis
pneumohemothorax/334
nūmō-hē-mō-thōraks
sleep apnea/334
slēp apnē-ă
pneumonectomy/344
nūmō-nektŏ-mē
soft palate/322
soft palăt
pneumonia/333
nū-mōnē-ă
spirometry/338
spı̄-romĕ-trē
pneumonitis/334
nū-mō-nı̄tis
sputum/327
spyūtŭm
pneumothorax/333
nū-mō-thōraks
stridor/326
strı̄dōr
polysomnography (PSG)/338
polē-som-nogră-fē
tachypnea/326
tak-ip-nēă
pulmonary angiography/341
pŭlmō-nār-ē an-jē-ogră-fē
thoracentesis/344
thōră-sen-tēsis
pulmonary edema/327
pŭlmō-nār-ē e-dēmă
thoracoplasty/344
thōră-kō-plas-tē
pulmonary embolism (PE)/334
pŭlmō-nār-ē embō-lizm
thoracoscopy/344
thōr-ă-koskŏ-pē
pulmonary function testing (PFT)/338
pŭlmō-nār-ē fŭnkshŭn testing
thoracostomy/344
thōr-ă-kostŏ-mē
pulmonary infiltrate/327
pūlmō-nār-ē in-filtrāt
thoracotomy/344
thōr-ă-kotō-mē
pulmonary tuberculosis (TB)/334
pŭlmō-nār-ē tū-bĕr-kyū-lōsis
tidal volume (TV or VT)/338
tı̄dăl volyŭm
pulse oximetry/340
pŭls ok-simă-trē
tonsillectomy/345
tonsi-lektŏ-mē
pyothorax/332
pı̄-ō-thōraks
tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy
(T&A)/345
tonsi-lektŏ-mē and adĕ-noy-dektŏ-mē
rales/326
rahlz
restrictive lung disorder/327
rē-striktiv lŭng dis-ōrdĕr
tonsillitis/334
ton-si-lı̄tis
tonsils/322
tonsilz
353
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
trachea/323
trākē-ă
uvula/322
ūvyū-lă
tracheostomy/345
trākē-ostŏ-mē
ventilation-perfusion (V/Q)
scan/338
ven-ti-lāshŭn-per-fyūzhŭn skan
tracheotomy/345
trākē-otŏ-mē
upper respiratory infection
(URI)/334
uper rĕs-paruh-tōr-ē in-fekshŭn
vital capacity (VC)/338
vı̄t-ăl kă-pasi-tē
wheezes/326
wēzez
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PRACTICE EXERCISES
For each of the following words, write out the term components (prefixes [P], combining
forms [CF], roots [R], and suffixes [S]) on the lines below the word. Then define the term
according to the meaning of its components.
EXAMPLE
intranasal
intra / nas / al
P
R S
DEFINITION: within/nose/pertaining to
1. pulmonology
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
2. thoracocentesis
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
3. nasosinusitis
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
4. hypoxemia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
5. pleuritis
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
6. hypercarbia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
7. alveolar
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
355
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
8. tracheotomy
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
9. oronasal
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
10. rhinorrhea
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
11. thoracostomy
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
12. tonsillectomy
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
13. tracheobronchitis
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
14. bronchospasm
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
15. laryngostenosis
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
16. spirogram
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
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CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
357
17. lobectomy
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
18. peripleural
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
19. stethoscope
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
20. pneumonic
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
21. nasopharyngoscopy
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
22. bronchiolectasis
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
23. phrenoptosis
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
24. pectoral
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
25. uvulopalatopharyngoplasty
___________ / ___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
CF
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Write the correct medical term for each of the following definitions:
26. ___________________________ air in pleural space
27. ___________________________ pus in pleural space
28. ___________________________ blood in pleural space
29. ___________________________ listening to sounds within the body
30. ___________________________ endoscope used to examine the airways
31. ___________________________ coughing up and spitting out material from the lungs
32. ___________________________ inflammation of the pleura
33. ___________________________ to elicit sounds or vibrations by tapping
34. ___________________________ deficient movement of air into and out of the lungs
35. ___________________________ puncture for aspiration of the chest
36. ___________________________ type of technology used in a lung scan
37. ___________________________ hoarseness
38. ___________________________ inflammation of the voice box
39. ___________________________ deficient amount of oxygen in tissue cells
40. ___________________________ disease characterized by overexpansion of the alveoli with air
41. ___________________________ nosebleed
42. ___________________________ cancer originating in the bronchus
43. ___________________________ inherited condition causing secretion of thick mucus that
obstructs the airways and leads to infection and damage of
lung tissue
44. ___________________________ a collapse of lung tissue
45. ___________________________ material expelled from the lungs by coughing
46. ___________________________ a high-pitched crowing sound that is a sign of upper airway
obstruction
47. ___________________________ blood clot in the lungs
48. ___________________________ surgical creation of an opening in the trachea
49. ___________________________ disease characterized by paroxysmal wheezing, dyspnea, and
cough
50. ___________________________ excessive movement of air into and out of the lungs
51. ___________________________ common lung infection seen in those positive for HIV
52. ___________________________ term for a combination of emphysema and chronic bronchitis
Complete each medical term by writing the missing word part or parts:
53. ___________coni___________ lung condition caused by prolonged inhalation of dust
54. bronchi___________ dilation of bronchus
55. ___________plasty surgical repair of the chest
56. ___________itis inflammation of the lung
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CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
359
57. ___________metry process of measuring breathing
58. ___________pnea normal breathing
59. ___________pnea slow breathing
60. ___________pnea difficulty breathing
61. ___________pnea inability to breathe except in an upright position
62. ___________pnea inability to breathe
63. ___________pnea fast breathing
Write out the expanded term or meaning for each abbreviation:
64. PEFR
__________________________________________________________________________
65. VC
__________________________________________________________________________
66. TB
__________________________________________________________________________
67. CPR
__________________________________________________________________________
68. COPD
__________________________________________________________________________
69. PaCO2
__________________________________________________________________________
70. URI
__________________________________________________________________________
71. VT
__________________________________________________________________________
72. PFT
__________________________________________________________________________
73. PSG
__________________________________________________________________________
74. CPAP
__________________________________________________________________________
Write the standard abbreviations for the following descriptions:
75. ___________________________ chest x-ray
76. ___________________________ analysis of the blood to determine the adequacy of lung function in the exchange of gases
77. ___________________________ surgical removal of the tonsils and adenoids
Write the letter of the matching term or term component in the space provided:
78. crackles
_____
a. naso
79. wheezes
_____
b. hyperventilation
80. pleurisy
_____
c. hypercarbia
81. pneumoconiosis
_____
d. thoraco
82. empyema
_____
e. rales
83. hemothorax
_____
f. asbestosis
84. stetho
_____
g. pleuritis
85. hypercapnia
_____
h. rhonchi
86. hyperpnea
_____
i. pyothorax
87. rhino
_____
j. thoracentesis
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Circle the correct spelling in each set of words:
88. auskucation
auscultation
ascultation
89. tackypnea
tachypenia
tachypnea
90. eupnea
eupenia
eupneia
91. plurisy
plurisey
pleurisy
92. hemathorex
hemothorax
hematothorex
93. stethoscope
stethescope
stethascope
94. epitaxes
epistaksis
epistaxis
95. ronchi
rhonchi
rhonkhi
96. hemoptysis
hemaptysis
hemoptsis
97. rhinorhea
rhinorrhea
rinorhea
98. imphasema
emphysema
emphasema
99. atelectasis
atalexisis
attelexis
Give the noun that is used to form each adjective:
100. orthopneic
__________________
101. asthmatic
__________________
102. hypoxic
__________________
103. dyspneic
__________________
104. pharyngeal
__________________
105. apneic
__________________
106. tracheal
__________________
107. pleuritic
__________________
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361
CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
Identify the parts of the respiratory system by writing the missing words in the spaces provided:
THE RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
Sinuses
113. Frontal
Sphenoid sinus
108. Naso
Frontal
sinus
Nasal cavity
Ethmoidal
air cells
Oral cavity
Oropharynx
Nose
Tonsils
Laryngopharynx
Epiglottis
Esophagus
Sphenoidal
sinus
Maxillary
sinus
109.
Tongue
114.
with vocal
cords
Rib
110.
Lung
108.
Lung
109.
Pleural cavity
Right main
bronchus
110.
115. Left main
111. Upper
111.
of right lung
Upper lobe
of left lung
Middle lobe
113.
Lower lobe
Bronchioles
112.
Mediastinum
Lower lobe
114.
115.
112.
Circle the combining form that corresponds to the meaning given:
116. nose
ren/o
rhin/o
nos/o
117. air or lung
aden/o
pneum/o
thorac/o
118. throat
thorac/o
laryng/o
pharyng/o
119. chest
thorac/o
pneum/o
lapar/o
120. voice box
laryng/o
trache/o
pharyng/o
121. breathing
aer/o
spir/o
crin/o
122. diaphragm
phren/o
pleur/o
pneumon/o
123. mouth
ox/o
or/o
spir/o
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 7-1
PROGRESS NOTE
S: This is a 26 y.o. c/o a nonproductive cough, dyspnea, and fever 2 d; pt does not smoke
and has otherwise been in good health.
O: T 101F, BP 100/64, R 25, P 104
Tachypnea is accompanied by mild cyanosis, and inspiratory crackles are noted upon auscultation. WBC 31,000, Hct 37%, platelet count 109,000. CXR shows diffuse infiltrates at
the bases of both lungs. An ABG taken while the patient was breathing room air showed a
pH of 7.54, PaCO2 of 20, PaO2 of 74. Sputum specimen contains 3 WBC but no bacteria.
A: Pneumonia of unknown etiology
P: IV erythromycin STAT
admit to ICU
deliver O2 by face mask and monitor for hypoxemia
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 7-1
1. What is the patient’s chief complaint?
a. afebrile with a dry cough and difficulty
breathing
b. febrile with a dry cough and difficulty
breathing
c. cannot breathe, has a fever, and is
coughing up material from the lungs
d. hoarse throat, dry cough, and fever
e. febrile, coughing up sputum, and breathing fast
2. What are the findings upon PE?
a. slow breathing, blue skin, and rhonchi
heard in the lungs as the patient exhales
b. fast breathing, blue skin, and musical
sounds heard in the lungs as the patient
inhales
c. slow breathing, blue skin, and rales
heard in the lungs as the patient holds
her breath
d. fast heart, blue skin, and rales heard in
the lungs as the patient inhales
e. fast breathing, blue skin, and popping
sounds heard in the lungs as the patient
inhales
3. What did the chest x-ray show?
a. tuberculosis
b. asthma
c. density representing solid material usually indicating inflammation
d. fluid filling spaces around the lungs
e. lung cancer
4. What is the impression?
a. dilation of the bronchi with an accumulation of mucus
b. inflammation of the bronchi
c. inflammation of the pleura
d. inflammation of the lungs because of
sensitivity to dust or chemicals
e. inflammation of the lungs of unknown
cause
5. What is an ABG?
a. analysis of blood to determine the adequacy of lung function in the exchange
of gases
b. measurement of lung volume and capacity
c. measurement of the flow of air during
inspiration
d. scan to detect breathing abnormalities
e. image of the lungs used to visualize lung
lesions
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CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
6. Describe the condition for which the
patient was monitored while undergoing
oxygen therapy:
a. blockage of airflow out of the lungs
b. excessive movement of air into and out
of the lungs
c. deficient amount of oxygen in the blood
d. deficient amount of oxygen in the tissue
cells
e. excessive level of carbon dioxide in the
blood
7. What is the Sig: on the erythromycin?
a. not mentioned
b. inject into a vein immediately
c. take four immediately
d. insert into the vagina immediately
e. inject into a muscle immediately
363
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Medical Record 7-2
FOR ADDITIONAL STUDY
Angelica Torrance, a retired painter who for years has boasted to friends that she has the good
health of a 30-year-old, suffered a broken ankle when she slipped off a footstool in her basement.
The surgical repair of her fracture at Central Medical Center was routine. Soon after surgery, however, Ms. Torrance developed other problems, and a pulmonologist was eventually called in for a
consultation. Medical Record 7-2 is the history and physical examination report from Dr. Carl
Brownley, the pulmonologist who consulted with Ms. Torrance’s doctors after she developed
breathing problems.
Read Medical Record 7-2 (pages 366-368), then write your answers to the following questions
in the spaces provided.
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 7-2
1. Below are medical terms used in this record that you have not yet encountered in this text.
Underline each where it appears in the record, and define the term below.
morphine __________________________________________________________________________
heparin ____________________________________________________________________________
obese _____________________________________________________________________________
2. In your own words, not using medical terminology, describe what surgery Ms. Torrance had
for her broken ankle:
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
3. Describe in your own words the four symptoms that Ms. Torrance developed postsurgically:
a. _________________________________________________________________________________
b. _________________________________________________________________________________
c. _________________________________________________________________________________
d. _________________________________________________________________________________
4. Before Ms. Torrance’s acute “sense of suffocating,” she was being treated with what three
pharmacologic treatments?
a. _________________________________________________________________________________
b ._________________________________________________________________________________
c. _________________________________________________________________________________
5. Immediately after her reported “sense of suffocating,” Ms. Torrance was given what two
treatments?
a. _________________________________________________________________________________
b. _________________________________________________________________________________
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CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
365
6. Put the following events that occurred in the hospital in correct order by numbering them
from 1 to 8:
_____ postoperative pulmonary symptoms
_____ transport to intensive care
_____ sense of suffocation
_____ episode of tachycardia
_____ nuclear lung scan showing high probability of embolus
_____ evaluation for complications in the lungs
_____ open reduction, internal fixation
_____ intravenous drugs first administered
7. In your own words, not using medical terminology, describe the two diagnostic imaging studies performed the morning of 10/24:
a. _________________________________________________________________________________
b. _________________________________________________________________________________
8. Name and describe the test that was performed to monitor Ms. Torrance’s heparin therapy:
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
9. Translate into lay language Dr. Brownley’s first four assessments from the examination:
a. _________________________________________________________________________________
b. _________________________________________________________________________________
c. _________________________________________________________________________________
d. _________________________________________________________________________________
10. Dr. Brownley’s recommendations include requests for certain tests to be run (or run again)
and certain other actions to be taken while Ms. Torrance stays in the hospital. Without using
abbreviations, list the tests to be performed and the actions to be taken:
Tests:
a. ________________________________________________________________________________
b. ________________________________________________________________________________
c. ________________________________________________________________________________
d. ________________________________________________________________________________
e. ________________________________________________________________________________
f. ________________________________________________________________________________
Actions:
g. ________________________________________________________________________________
h. ________________________________________________________________________________
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Medical Record 7-2: For Additional Study
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CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
Medical Record 7-2: For Additional Study (Continued)
367
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Medical Record 7-2: For Additional Study (Continued)
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CHAPTER 7 • RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
369
ANSWERS TO PRACTICE EXERCISES
1. pulmono
logy
________ /_____
CF
S
lung/study of
2. thoraco
centesis
_______ /________
CF
S
chest/puncture for
aspiration
3. naso
/ sinus /___
itis
____ ______
CF
R
S
nose/sinus/inflammation
4. hyp
ox / _____
emia
___ / ___
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
P
R
S
below or deficient/
oxygen/blood condition
pleur
itis
_____ /____
R S
pleura/inflammation
hyper
/ carb /___
ia
_____ _____
P
R
S
above or excessive/
carbon dioxide/
condition of
alveol
ar
_____ /___
R S
alveolus (air sac)/
pertaining to
tracheo
tomy
_______ /______
CF
S
trachea/incision
oro
nas /___
al
___ /____
CF R S
mouth/nose/
pertaining to
rhino
rrhea
_____ / ______
CF
S
nose/discharge
thoraco
stomy
_______ /_______
CF
S
chest/creation of an
opening
tonsill
ectomy
_____ /_________
R
S
tonsil/excision (removal)
tracheo
/ bronch /____
itis
______ ________
CF
R
S
trachea (windpipe)/
bronchus/inflammation
14. broncho
spasm
________ /_______
CF
S
bronchus (airway)/
involuntary contraction
15. laryngo
/ sten /_____
osis
______ _____
CF
R
S
larynx (voice box)/
narrow/condition or
increase
16. spiro
gram
_____/_____
CF
S
breathing/record
17. lob
ectomy
___ /________
R
S
lobe (a portion)/excision
(removal)
18. peri
pleur /__
al
___ /______
P
R S
around/pleura/
pertaining to
19. stetho
scope
_____ /______
CF
S
chest/instrument for
examination
20. pneumon
ic
_________ /___
R
S
air or lung/pertaining to
21. naso
pharyngo ______
/ scopy
____ /_________
CF
CF
S
nose/pharynx (throat)/
process of examination
22. bronchiol
ectasis
________ /_______
R
S
bronchiole (little
airway)/expansion or
dilation
23. phreno
ptosis
______ /______
CF
S
diaphragm/falling or
downward displacement
24. pector
al
_____ /___
R
S
chest/pertaining to
25. uvulo
palato /pharyngo
_____ / _____
_________/
CF
CF
CF
plasty
_____
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
S
uvula (grape)/palate/
throat/surgical repair or
reconstruction
pneumothorax
empyema or pyothorax
hemothorax
auscultation
bronchoscope
expectoration
pleurisy or pleuritis
percussion
hypoventilation
thoracentesis or thoracocentesis
nuclear medicine
dysphonia
laryngitis
hypoxia
emphysema
epistaxis
bronchogenic carcinoma
cystic fibrosis
atelectasis
sputum
stridor
pulmonary embolism
tracheostomy
asthma
hyperventilation
Pneumocystis pneumonia
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
pneumoconiosis
bronchiectasis
thoracoplasty
pneumonitis
spirometry
eupnea
bradypnea
dyspnea
orthopnea
apnea
tachypnea
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370
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
peak expiratory flow rate
vital capacity
tuberculosis
cardiopulmonary
resuscitation
chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease
partial pressure of
carbon dioxide
upper respiratory
infection
tidal volume
pulmonary function
testing
polysomnography
continuous positive
airway pressure
CXR
ABG
T&A
e
h
80.
81.
82.
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
g
f
i
j
d
c
b
a
auscultation
tachypnea
eupnea
pleurisy
hemothorax
stethoscope
epistaxis
rhonchi
hemoptysis
rhinorrhea
emphysema
atelectasis
orthopnea
asthma
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
121.
122.
123.
ANSWERS TO MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 7-1: Progress Note
1. b
2. e
3. c
4. e
5. a
6. c
7. b
Medical Record 7-2: For Additional Study
See CD-ROM for answers.
hypoxia
dyspnea
pharynx
apnea
trachea
pleurisy
pharynx
trachea
pleura
lobe
diaphragm
sinus
larynx
bronchus
rhin/o
pneum/o
pharyng/o
thorac/o
laryng/o
spir/o
phren/o
or/o
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CHAPTER
8
Nervous System
and Psychiatry
✓ Chapter 8 Checklist
Read Chapter 8: Nervous System and Psychiatry and complete all programmed
review segments.
LOCATION
pages 371-419
Review the starter set of flash cards and term components related to Chapter 8. back of book
Complete the Chapter 8 Practice Exercises and Medical Record Analysis 8-1.
pages 425-434
Complete Medical Record Analysis 8-2 For Additional Study.
pages 435-438
Complete the Chapter 8 Exercises by Chapter.
CD-ROM
Complete the Chapter 8 Review and Test Modes.
CD-ROM
Review the Pronunciation Drill for the Chapter 8 terms.
CD-ROM
NERVOUS SYSTEM OVERVIEW
The nervous system is an intricate communication network of neurons and other structures (Fig.
8-1) that activates and controls all functions of the body and receives all input from the environment. The nervous system has three divisions:
The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord.
The peripheral nervous system consists of nerves branching from the central nervous system
to all parts of the body.
The autonomic nervous system consists of nerves that carry involuntary impulses to smooth
muscle, cardiac muscle, and various glands.
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NEURON
Soma
Myelin
sheath
Axon
Dendrites
Synaptic
terminals
GLIAL CELLS
Ependymal cells
(line brain ventricles)
Oligodendrocytes
(wrap axons: myelination)
Astrocytes
(support capillaries)
Neurons
Axons
(nerve
fibers)
FIGURE 8-1 ■
Microglial cells
(engulf invading
microorganisms
and dead tissues)
Capillaries
Basic components of the nervous system.
Self-Instruction: Term Components
Study the following:
TERM COMPONENT
MEANING
COMBINING FORMS
cerebr/o
cerebrum (largest part of the brain)
cerebell/o
cerebellum (little brain)
crani/o
skull
encephal/o
entire brain
esthesi/o
sensation
gangli/o
ganglion (knot)
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
TERM COMPONENT
MEANING
gli/o
glue
gnos/o
knowing
kinesi/o
movement
lex/o
word or phrase
mening/o, meningi/o
meninges (membrane)
myel/o
spinal cord or bone marrow
narc/o
stupor or sleep
neur/o
nerve
phas/o
speech
phob/o
exaggerated fear or sensitivity
phor/o
carry or bear
phren/o, psych/o, thym/o
mind
schiz/o
split
somat/o
body
somn/o, somn/i, hypn/o
sleep
spin/o
spine (thorn)
spondyl/o, vertebr/o
vertebra
stere/o
three-dimensional or solid
tax/o
order or coordination
thalam/o
thalamus (a room)
ton/o
tone or tension
top/o
place
ventricul/o
ventricle (belly or pouch)
PREFIX
cata-
down
SUFFIXES
-asthenia
weakness
-lepsy
seizure
-mania
condition of abnormal impulse toward
-paresis
slight paralysis
-plegia
paralysis
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Programmed Review: Term Components
ANSWERS
REVIEW
cerebrum
8.1
The combining form cerebr/o means ________________
(largest part of the brain). Thus, the adjective cerebrospinal refers
cerebrum
to something involving both the _________________ and the
spine
____________. The combining form referring to the entire brain
encephal/o
is ________________, as in the term encephalography. Recall that
recording
the suffix -graphy means the process of _________________.
8.2
crani/o
The brain is housed inside the skull, the combining form
for which is ____________. The cranium, for example, is the term
for the bones of the skull.
8.3
Another part of the brain is the cerebellum, the combining
cerebell/o
form for which is _________________ (meaning “little brain”).
adjective
The suffix -ar is an _________________ ending. A common
cerebellar
adjective referring to the cerebellum is ___________________.
8.4
Within the brain are interconnected cavities called
ventricles. The combining form meaning ventricle is
ventricul/o
________________. Recall that the surgical suffix for the
-stomy
creation of an opening is ___________. Thus, a ventriculostomy
ventricle
is the creation of an opening in a _________________.
8.5
The thalamus is a part of the brain. The combining form
thalam/o
meaning thalamus is _______________. A thalamotomy is an
incision
_______________ into the thalamus.
8.6
The brain and spinal cord are covered with a membrane
called the meninges. The two combining forms for meninges are
meningi/o
mening/o and __________________. Recall that the suffix -cele
pouching
means a hernia or _________________. Therefore, a
meninges
meningocele is a pouching of the _________________.
inflammation
Meningitis is ______________________ of the meninges.
spin/o
8.7
spinal
The common adjective form is ____________.
8.8
The combining form meaning the spine is ___________.
Inside the spine is the spinal cord, a bundle of nerves
coming down from the brain and, ultimately, connecting to all
areas of the body. The combining form for the spinal cord (and
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
ANSWERS
REVIEW
myel/o
also for bone marrow) is ____________, as in the term myelitis,
spinal cord
meaning inflammation of the _____________ __________.
8.9
375
The bones of the spine are vertebrae, the plural form of the
vertebra
term ________________. The two combining forms meaning
spondyl/o
vertebra are vertebr/o and ________________. A common adjective
vertebral
form made with the first combining form is _________________.
Spondylosyndesis, meaning spinal fusion, is an example of a term
using the second combining form. Syndesis is a surgical
binding or joining
technique of ________________ together, and spondyl/o means
vertebra
_______________.
8.10 Nerve cells exist in the brain, spinal cord, and throughout
the nervous system. The combining form meaning nerve is
neur/o
___________. The medical specialty studying the nervous system
neurology
therefore is called ___________________.
8.11 A ganglion is a structure of nerves in the peripheral
nervous system. The combining form for ganglion is
gangli/o
______________, as in the term ganglioneuroma, a neoplasm
affecting ganglions. The other plural form of ganglion is
ganglia
_______________.
8.12 Glial cells in the nervous system help hold together (glue
together) the neurons, which are the primary nervous system
gli/o
cells. The combining term for glue is ___________. A common
glial
adjective form is ______________.
8.13 Almost all functions in the body are regulated through the
nervous system. The combining form meaning body is
somat/o
_______________, as in the term psychosomatic, which refers to
body
influences of the mind on the _____________.
8.14 The three combining forms meaning mind are phren/o,
psych/o, thym/o
______________, and _____________, as in the terms
schizophrenia, psychiatry, and dysthymia. Schizophrenia refers
mind
to a split _________. Psychiatry is the medical specialty centered
on the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of disorders of the
mind
__________. A dysthymia is a psychiatric disorder; the prefix
faulty
dys- means painful, difficult, or ______________.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
schiz/o
8.15 The combining form meaning split is _____________.
The thoughts of a patient with schizophrenia are said to be
split
__________ from reality.
8.16 The combining form that means knowing and is the basis
of the term gnosia (meaning the ability to perceive and recognize)
gnos/o
is _____________.
8.17 All physical sensations throughout the body are perceived
by the brain. The combining form meaning sensation is
esthesi/o
______________, as in the term hyperesthesia, an abnormally
heightened sensitivity to sensations. The prefix hyper- means
excessive
above or ___________________.
8.18 The nervous system also controls body movement. The
kinesi/o
combining form meaning movement is ______________, as in
movement
the term kinesiology, which is the study of body _______________.
phas/o
8.19 The combining form meaning speech is ___________.
Aphasia is a condition of language loss in which one is often
without
unable to speak. (Recall that the prefix a- means ______________.)
adjective
Aphasic is the __________________ form of the term.
phrase
8.20 Lex/o is a combining form meaning word or ___________.
A person with a condition of difficulty understanding written or
dyslexia
spoken words or phrases is said to have _______________.
8.21 Someone with a phobia has an exaggerated fear of or
sensitivity to something. The combining form for phobia is
phob/o
_____________.
8.22 Three specific combining forms mean sleep: somn/o,
somn/i
____________, and hypn/o. Polysomnography, for example, makes
record
a ______________ of various physiologic changes that occur
sleep
during _____________. Recall that the prefix poly- means
many
___________. Hypnosis is the condition of being in a
sleep
____________-like state by suggestion. Recall that the suffix -osis
condition
means increase or ________________.
8.23 Different from the sleep state, a state of stupor can result
in various conditions. The combining form meaning stupor is
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
377
ANSWERS
REVIEW
narc/o
____________, as in the term narcotic, referring to a class of drugs
stupor
that induce _____________.
8.24 The combining form phor/o means to bear or
carry
_____________. Recall that the prefix eu- means normal or
good
___________ (well). Thus, the term euphoria, meaning an
exaggerated sense of well-being, originates from term
components meaning to carry well.
8.25 The combining form meaning three-dimensional or solid
stere/o
is ______________, as in the term stereotaxic, referring to an
apparatus allowing precise localization in space.
8.26 The combining form meaning tone or tension is
ton/o
__________, as in the term monotone, which refers to speaking
tone
in an unchanging single ___________. Recall that the prefix
one
mono- means __________.
8.27 Tax/o is a combining form meaning order or
coordination
_____________________. Combined with the prefix a-, meaning
without, condition
________________, and the suffix -ia, meaning _________________
of
_____, the term describing a condition of inability to coordinate
ataxia
muscle movements is _____________.
top/o
8.28 The combining form for place is ___________. For
example, the term topesthesia refers to the ability to localize the
place
____________ on which the skin is touched.
down
8.29 The prefix cata- means ____________. The term
catatonia, for example, which means a state of being unresponsive
and unmoving, comes from word roots meaning that all muscle
activity is down.
-asthenia
8.30 The suffix meaning weakness is _________________, as in
the term myasthenia, which is a condition involving
weakness
__________________ of the muscles (my/o muscle).
8.31 The term narcolepsy is made from the secondary meaning
sleep
of the combining form narc/o, which is ___________, and the
-lepsy
suffix ____________, meaning seizure. In narcolepsy, sleep
comes on unexpectedly and suddenly, as in a seizure.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
8.32 The term mania means a state of abnormal elation and
increased activity. The suffix -mania, however, refers to an
impulse or attraction
abnormal _______________ toward something. For example,
death
necromania is an abnormal attraction to ______________.
Compare this with necrophobia, which is an abnormal
fear
___________ of death.
-paresis
8.33 The suffix meaning a slight paralysis is _______________,
as in the term hemiparesis, meaning a slight paralysis in
half
__________ of the body (right or left). Recall that the prefix
hemi-
meaning half is _____________.
paralysis
8.34 The suffix -plegia means ________________, as in the term
paraplegia, referring to paralysis of the legs and lower trunk.
Self-Instruction: Anatomic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
central nervous system
(CNS)
sentrăl nĕrvŭs sistĕm
brain and spinal cord
brain (Fig. 8-2)
brān
portion of the central nervous system contained within the
cranium
cerebrum
serĕ-brŭm
largest portion of the brain; divided into right and left halves,
known as cerebral hemispheres, which are connected by a bridge
of nerve fibers called the corpus callosum; lobes of the cerebrum
are named after the skull bones they underlie
frontal lobe
frŏntăl lōb
anterior section of each cerebral hemisphere; responsible for
voluntary muscle movement and personality
parietal lobe
pă-rı̄ĕ-tăl lōb
portion posterior to the frontal lobe; responsible for
sensations such as pain, temperature, and touch
temporal lobe
tempŏ-răl l ōb
portion that lies below the frontal lobe; responsible for
hearing, taste, and smell
occipital lobe
ok-sipi-tăl lōb
portion posterior to the parietal and temporal lobes;
responsible for vision
cerebral cortex
serĕ-brăl kōrteks
outer layer of the cerebrum consisting of gray matter;
responsible for higher mental functions (cortex bark)
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
A
B
Central sulcus
Parietal lobe
Frontal lobe
Motor area
Speech area,
Expression
Somatosensory
Taste
Body
awareness
Occipital
lobe
Olfactory bulbs
Temporal lobe
Cerebellum
Vision
Auditory
Medulla oblongata
Spinal cord
FIGURE 8-2 ■
Speech
reception
A. Lobes of the brain. B. Localized functions of the cerebrum.
TERM
MEANING
thalamus
thală-mŭs
diencephalon
dı̄-en-sef ă-lon
each of two gray matter nuclei deep within the brain;
responsible for relaying sensory information to the cortex
gyri
jı̄rı̄
convolutions (mounds) of the cerebral hemispheres
sulci
sŭlsı̄
shallow grooves that separate gyri
fissures
fishŭrz
deep grooves in the brain
cerebellum (Fig. 8-3)
ser-e-belŭm
portion of the brain located below the occipital lobes of the
cerebrum; responsible for control and coordination of skeletal
muscles
brainstem
brānstem
region of the brain that serves as a relay between the cerebrum,
cerebellum, and spinal cord; responsible for breathing, heart
rate, and body temperature; the three levels are the
mesencephalon (midbrain), pons, and medulla oblongata
ventricles (Fig. 8-4)
ventri-kĕlz
series of interconnected cavities within the cerebral
hemispheres and brainstem filled with cerebrospinal fluid
cerebrospinal fluid
(CSF)
serĕ-brō-spı̄năl flūid
spinal cord
spı̄năl kōrd
plasma-like clear fluid circulating in and around the brain and
spinal cord
column of nervous tissue from the brainstem through the
vertebrae; responsible for nerve conduction to and from the
brain and the body
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Corpus callosum
Meninges
Thalamus
Pineal body
Frontal sinus
Hypothalamus
Pituitary gland
Sphenoid sinus
Pons
Medulla oblongata
Cerebellum
Spinal cord
Midsagittal view of brain
Cranium
Venous sinus
Meninges
Dura mater
Arachnoid
Pia mater
Subdural space
Subarachnoid
space
Cerebrum
FIGURE 8-3 ■
Midsagittal view of the brain. Inset: Normal magnetic resonance image (MRI).
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
Lateral ventricles
B
381
Posterior horns
of lateral ventricles
A
Magnetic resonance image, horizontal view A
Interventricular
foramen
Third ventricle
Inferior horn of
lateral ventricle
Cerebral aqueduct
Fourth ventricle
Magnetic resonance image, coronal view B
FIGURE 8-4 ■
Ventricles of the brain.
TERM
MEANING
meninges
mĕ-ninjēz
three membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord,
consisting of the dura mater, pia mater, and arachnoid mater
PERIPHERAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
peripheral nervous system
(PNS)
pĕ-rifĕ-răl nĕrvŭs sistĕm
nerves that branch from the central nervous system including
nerves of the brain (cranial nerves) and spinal cord (spinal
nerves)
cranial nerves
krānē-ăl nĕrvz
12 pairs of nerves arising from the brain
spinal nerves
spı̄năl nĕrvz
31 pairs of nerves arising from the spinal cord
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TERM
MEANING
sensory nerves
sensŏ-rē nĕrvz
nerves that conduct impulses from body parts and carry
sensory information to the brain; also called afferent nerves
(ad toward; ferre carry)
motor nerves
mōtŏr nĕrvz
nerves that conduct motor impulses from the brain to muscles
and glands; also called efferent nerves (e out; ferre carry)
AUTONOMIC NERVOUS SYSTEM
autonomic nervous
system (ANS)
aw-tō-nomik nĕrvŭs sistĕm
nerves that carry involuntary impulses to smooth muscle,
cardiac muscle, and various glands
hypothalamus
hı̄pō-thală-mŭs
control center for the autonomic nervous system located
below the thalamus (diencephalon)
sympathetic nervous
system
sim-pă-thetik nĕrvŭs sistĕm
division of the autonomic nervous system that is concerned
primarily with preparing the body in stressful or emergency
situations
parasympathetic nervous
system
par-ă-sim-pă-thetik nĕrvŭs
sistĕm
division of the autonomic nervous system that is most active
in ordinary conditions; it counterbalances the effects of the
sympathetic system by restoring the body to a restful state
after a stressful experience
Programmed Review: Anatomic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
central
8.35 The brain and spinal cord comprise the _______________
brain
nervous system. The ___________ is the part of the central
nervous system within the cranium.
cerebrum
8.36 The largest portion of the brain, the _______________, is
divided into the two cerebral hemispheres. The lobe at the front
frontal
of each cerebral hemisphere, called the ______________
lobe
_________, controls muscle movement and personality. Behind
the frontal lobe is the parietal lobe.
parietal
8.37 The lobe behind the frontal lobe, called the _____________
lobe, is responsible for sensations such as pain, temperature, and
touch. Below the frontal lobe is the temporal lobe.
temporal
8.38 The lobe below the frontal lobe, called the ______________
lobe, is responsible for hearing, taste, and smell. Posterior to the
parietal and temporal lobes is the occipital lobe.
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
ANSWERS
383
REVIEW
8.39 The lobe posterior to the parietal and temporal lobes, the
occipital
_________________ lobe, is responsible for vision.
8.40 The Latin word cortex means bark, referring to an outer
layer. The outer layer of the cerebrum is the cerebral
cortex
_____________, which is the gray matter responsible for higher
mental functions. Sensory information is relayed to the cortex by
the thalamus (diencephalon).
8.41 The two gray matter nuclei deep within the brain that
relay sensory information to the cortex are called the
thalamus, diencephalon
________________ or _____________________. The plural of
thalami
thalamus is _______________.
8.42 Gyri, sulci, and fissures are physical characteristics of the
cerebral hemispheres. Convolutions (mounds) of the hemispheres
gyri, gyrus
are called _________. The singular of gyri is ____________. The
sulci
shallow grooves that separate gyri are called ___________. The
sulcus
singular of sulci is ______________. The deep grooves in the
fissures
brain are called _________________.
8.43 Below the occipital lobes is the cerebellum. The
cerebellum
__________________ is responsible for controlling skeletal
muscles. The cerebellum and cerebrum both communicate with
the spinal cord through the brainstem.
8.44 The spinal cord communicates with the cerebrum and
brainstem
cerebellum through the __________________, which is also
responsible for breathing, heart rate, and body temperature.
Interconnected cavities within the brainstem and cerebral
hemispheres are called ventricles.
ventricles
8.45 Cerebrospinal fluid fills the _________________, which
are the cavities in the cerebral hemispheres and brainstem. The
plasma-like fluid circulating in and around the brain and spinal
cerebrospinal
cord is called the ____________________ fluid.
8.46 The column of nervous tissue that descends from the
spinal
brainstem though the vertebrae of the spine is the _____________
cord
__________. The spinal cord and brain are covered by
membranes called meninges.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
8.47 The three membranes covering the brain are called the
meninges
________________.
8.48 Nerves branch from the central nervous system to the
peripheral nervous system to reach all areas of the body. Cranial
nerves, spinal nerves, sensory nerves, and motor nerves are all part
peripheral
of the __________________ nervous system. The 12 pairs of
cranial
nerves arising from the brain are the _______________ nerves.
The 31 pairs of nerves arising from the spinal cord are the
spinal
____________ nerves.
8.49 The nerves in the peripheral nervous system that carry
sensory
sensory information to the brain are the _______________
nerves. The nerves that carry motor impulses from the brain to
motor
the muscles and glands are the ______________ nerves.
8.50 The autonomic nervous system controls involuntary
functions of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and various glands.
autonomic
The hypothalamus is the control center for the ________________
nervous system.
8.51 The autonomic nervous system is controlled by the
hypothalamus
_____________________, which is located below the thalamus.
below
Recall that the prefix hypo- means ____________ or deficient.
8.52 The sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic
nervous system are divisions of the autonomic nervous system.
sympathetic
In stressful or emergency situations, the __________________
nervous system prepares the body. In most ordinary conditions,
parasympathetic
the ________________________ nervous system is more active,
counterbalancing the effects of the sympathetic nervous system.
Self-Instruction: Nervous System Symptomatic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
aphasia
ă-fāzē-ă
dysphasia
dis-fāzē-ă
impairment because of localized brain injury that affects the
understanding, retrieving, and formulating of meaningful and
sequential elements of language, as demonstrated by an
inability to use or comprehend words; occurs as a result of a
stroke, head trauma, or disease
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
Glasgow Coma Scale
Assessment
A.M.
Reaction
Score 8 10 12 2
Eye Opening
Spontaneously
4
Response
To speech
3
To pain
2
No response
1
Motor Response Obeys verbal command
6
Localizes pain
5
Flexion withdrawal
4
Flexion
3
Extension
2
No response
1
Verbal Response Oriented x3
P.M.
5
Conversation confused
4
Inappropriate speech
3
Incomprehensible sounds
2
No response
1
385
A.M.
4
6
X
X
8
10 12 2
4
X
X
X X X
X
X
X X X
X
X
X X X
6
8
X
X X X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
X
FIGURE 8-5 ■ Glasgow Coma Scale scoring for a child. A score of 3 to 8 denotes
severe trauma; 9 to 12, moderate trauma; and 13 to 15, slight trauma. Note the gradual improvement from coma in this example.
TERM
MEANING
coma (Fig. 8-5)
kōmă
a general term referring to levels of decreased consciousness
with varying responsiveness; a common method of assessment
is the Glasgow Coma Scale
delirium
dē-lirē-ŭm
a state of mental confusion caused by disturbances in cerebral
function; the many causes include fever, shock, and drug
overdose (deliro to draw the furrow awry when plowing, to
go off the rails)
dementia
dē-menshē-ă
an impairment of intellectual function characterized by
memory loss, disorientation, and confusion (dementio to
be mad)
motor deficit
mōtŏr defi-sit
loss or impairment of muscle function
sensory deficit
sensŏ-rē defi-sit
loss or impairment of sensation
neuralgia
nū-raljē-ă
pain along the course of a nerve
paralysis
pă-rali-sis
temporary or permanent loss of motor control
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TERM
MEANING
flaccid paralysis
flaksid pă-rali-sis
defective (flabby) or absent muscle control caused by a nerve
lesion
spastic paralysis
spastik pă-rali-sis
stiff and awkward muscle control caused by a central nervous
system disorder
hemiparesis
hemē-pă-rēsis
partial paralysis of the right or left half of the body
sciatica
sı̄-ati-kă
pain that follows the pathway of the sciatic nerve, caused by
compression or trauma of the nerve or its roots
seizure
sēzhŭr
sudden, transient disturbances in brain function resulting
from an abnormal firing of nerve impulses; may or may not be
associated with convulsion
convulsion
kon-vŭlshŭn
to pull together; type of seizure that causes a series of sudden,
involuntary contractions of muscles
syncope
sinkŏ-pē
fainting
tactile stimulation
taktil stim-yū-lāshŭn
evoking a response by touching
hyperesthesia
hı̄pĕr-es-thēzē-ă
increased sensitivity to stimulation such as touch or pain
paresthesia
par-es-thēzē-ă
abnormal sensation of numbness and tingling without
objective cause
Programmed Review: Nervous System Symptomatic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
speech
8.53 Linking phas/o (the combining form meaning ___________) with
without
a- (the prefix meaning _______________) and –ia (the suffix meaning
condition of
___________________ _____) forms the term describing ones
inability to use or comprehend words due to localized brain injury
aphasia
(such as occurs as the result of a stroke): _____________.
faulty
8.54 The prefix dys- means painful, difficult, or _____________, and
dysphasia
is used in the less common synonym for aphasia: ________________.
8.55 A decreased level of consciousness, measured with the Glasgow
coma
Coma Scale, is called a ___________.
8.56 Mental and intellectual function can be disturbed by medical
or psychiatric conditions or drugs. A state of mental confusion
delirium
resulting from disturbed cerebral function is called ________________.
The impairment of intellectual function characterized by memory loss
dementia
and disorientation is ________________.
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ANSWERS
387
REVIEW
8.57 A deficit is a loss or impairment related to a nervous system
motor
problem. The loss of muscle function is called a _____________
sensory
deficit. The loss of sensation is called a ______________ deficit.
neur/o
8.58 The combining form meaning nerve is ____________. Recall
pain
that the suffix -algia means ____________. Therefore, the term for
neuralgia
pain along the course of a nerve is __________________.
8.59 A temporary or permanent loss of motor control is called
paralysis
__________________. A nerve lesion that causes a lack of muscle
control, resulting in flabby muscles that do not move, is called
flaccid
_____________ paralysis. Stiff, awkward muscle control caused by
spastic
a central nervous system disorder is called _____________ paralysis.
-paresis
8.60 The suffix meaning partial paralysis is ______________. Recall
hemi-
that the prefix meaning half is __________. The term for partial
hemiparesis
paralysis of the right or left half of the body is _____________________.
8.61 The sciatic nerve runs down the leg. Pain along its pathway
sciatica
caused by compression or trauma to this nerve is called ____________.
8.62 A sudden, transient disturbance of brain function that results
seizure
from abnormal firing of nerve impulses is called a _______________.
A type of seizure that involves sudden, involuntary muscle
convulsion
contractions is termed ____________________.
8.63 The Greek word synkope means cutting short or swoon. From
syncope
this word, the medical term for fainting is ________________.
8.64 The process of evoking a response by touching a persons skin
tactile
is called ______________ stimulation.
condition of
8.65 Again, the suffix -ia means __________________ ____. The
esthesi/o
combining form meaning sensation is ________________. The prefix
excessive
hyper- means above or __________________. From these three word
parts comes the term meaning a condition of increased sensitivity to
hyperesthesia
the sensations of touch and pain: ________________________.
8.66 Recall that the prefix para- means alongside of or
abnormal
_________________. The term for a condition of an abnormal
paresthesia
sensation of numbness and tingling is ___________________.
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Self-Instruction: Nervous System Diagnostic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
agnosia
ag-nōzē-ă
any of many types of loss of neurologic function involving
interpretation of sensory information
astereognosis
ă-stĕrē-og-nōsis
inability to judge the form of an object by touch (e.g., a coin
from a key)
atopognosis
ă-top-og-nōsis
inability to locate a sensation properly, such as an inability
to locate a point touched on the body
Alzheimer disease
awlzhı̄-mĕr di-zēz
disease of structural changes in the brain resulting in an
irreversible deterioration that progresses from forgetfulness
and disorientation to loss of all intellectual functions, total
disability, and death
amyotrophic lateral
sclerosis (ALS)
ă-mı̄-ō-trōfik latĕr-ăl sklĕ-rōsis
condition of progressive deterioration of motor nerve cells
resulting in total loss of voluntary muscle control; symptoms
advance from muscle weakness in the arms and legs, to the
muscles of speech, swallowing, and breathing, to total
paralysis and death; also known as Lou Gehrig disease
cerebral palsy (CP)
serĕ-brăl pawlzē
condition of motor dysfunction caused by damage to the
cerebrum during development or injury at birth;
characterized by partial paralysis and lack of muscle
coordination ( palsy paralysis)
cerebrovascular disease
serĕ-brō-vaskyū-l ăr di-zēz
disorder resulting from a change within one or more blood
vessels of the brain
cerebral arteriosclerosis
serĕ-brăl ar-tērē-ō-skler-ōsis
hardening of the arteries of the brain
cerebral atherosclerosis
serĕ-brăl ather-ō-skler-ōsis
condition of lipid (fat) buildup within the blood vessels of
the brain (ather/o fatty [lipid] paste)
cerebral aneurysm
serĕ-brăl anyū-rizm
dilation of a blood vessel in the brain (aneurysm dilation
or widening)
cerebral thrombosis
serĕ-brăl throm-bōsis
presence of a stationary clot in a blood vessel of the brain
cerebral embolism
serĕ-brăl embo-lizm
obstruction of a blood vessel in the brain by an embolus
transported through the circulation
cerebrovascular accident
(CVA) (Fig. 8-6)
serĕ-brō-vaskyū-lăr aksi-dent
stroke
strōk
transient ischemic
attack (TIA) (Fig. 8-7)
tranzē-ent is-kēmik ă-tak
encephalitis
en-sef-ă-lı̄tis
damage to the brain caused by cerebrovascular disease,
such as occlusion of a blood vessel by a thrombus or
embolus (ischemic stroke) or intracranial hemorrhage after
rupture of an aneurysm (hemorrhagic stroke)
brief episode of loss of blood flow to the brain, usually
caused by a partial occlusion that results in temporary
neurologic deficit (impairment); often precedes a CVA
inflammation of the brain
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
Cerebral thrombosis
(ischemic stroke)
Cerebral embolism
(ischemic stroke)
Thrombus
gradually builds,
blocking artery
FIGURE 8-6 ■
389
Intracranial hemorrhage
(hemorrhagic stroke)
Moving embolus
creates damage
where it lodges
Rupture or
bleed of an
artery
Cerebrovascular accident (CVA).
Frontal view
Circle of Willis
view from underneath the brain
Anterior
communicating
artery
Circle
of Willis
Basilar
artery
External
carotid
artery
Internal
carotid
artery
Carotid
sinus
Vertebral
artery
Common
carotid
artery
Innominate
Anterior
cerebral artery
Middle
cerebral artery
Internal
carotid artery
Posterior
communicating
artery
Superior
cerebellar artery
Posterior
cerebral artery
Basilar artery
Subclavian
artery
Aorta
FIGURE 8-7 ■
Sites of transient ischemic attack (TIA): carotid and vertebrobasilar circulation.
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TERM
MEANING
epilepsy (see Fig. 8-12)
epi-lepsē
disorder affecting the central nervous system; characterized
by recurrent seizures
tonic-clonic seizure
tonik-klonik sēzhŭr
stiffening-jerking; a major motor seizure involving all
muscle groups; previously termed grand mal (big bad)
seizure
absence seizure
absens sēzhŭr
seizure involving a brief loss of consciousness without
motor involvement; previously termed petit mal (little bad)
seizure
partial seizure
parshăl sēzhŭr
seizure involving only limited areas of the brain with
localized symptoms
glioma
glı̄-ōmă
tumor of glial cells graded according to degree of malignancy
herniated disk or disc
(Fig. 8-8)
hĕrnē-ā-tĕd disk
protrusion of a degenerated or fragmented intervertebral
disk so that the nucleus pulposus protrudes, causing
compression on the nerve root
herpes zoster
hĕrpēz zostĕr
viral disease affecting the peripheral nerves, characterized by
painful blisters that spread over the skin following the
affected nerves, usually unilateral; also known as shingles
Huntington chorea
hŭnting-tŏn kōr-ēă
Huntington disease (HD)
hŭnting-tŏn di-zēz
hereditary disease of the central nervous system
characterized by bizarre, involuntary body movements and
progressive dementia (choros dance)
hydrocephalus (Fig. 8-9)
hı̄-drō-sefă-lŭs
abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the
ventricles of the brain as a result of developmental
anomalies, infection, injury, or tumor
meningioma
mĕ-ninjē-ōmă
benign tumor of the coverings of the brain (the meninges)
meningitis
men-in-jı̄tis
inflammation of the meninges
Herniated disk (disc)
Vertebra
Spinal
cord
Herniated disk
presses on spinal
nerve, causing pain
Spinal
nerve
Disk
Disk
Vertebra
Superior view of vertebra
FIGURE 8-8 ■
Herniated disk.
Sagittal view of spine
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391
FIGURE 8-9 ■ Sonogram showing
hydrocephalus in early pregnancy.
TERM
MEANING
migraine headache
mı̄grān hedāk
paroxysmal (sudden, periodic) attacks of mostly unilateral
headache, often accompanied by disordered vision, nausea,
or vomiting, lasting hours or days and caused by dilation of
arteries
multiple sclerosis (MS)
(Fig. 8-10)
mŭlti-pul sklĕ-rōsis
disease of the central nervous system characterized by the
demyelination (deterioration of the myelin sheath) of nerve
fibers, with episodes of neurologic dysfunction (exacerbation)
followed by recovery (remission)
FIGURE 8-10 ■ Magnetic resonance image
(MRI) of the brain. Arrows indicate plaque formation in patient with multiple sclerosis.
FIGURE 8-11 ■ Spina bifida with
myelomeningocele. The infant also has
hydrocephaly.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
TERM
MEANING
myasthenia gravis
mı̄-as-thēnē-ă gravis
autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular
junction, causing a progressive decrease in muscle strength;
activity resumes and strength returns after a period of rest
myelitis
mı̄ĕ-lı̄tis
inflammation of the spinal cord
narcolepsy
narkō-lep-sē
sleep disorder characterized by a sudden, uncontrollable
need to sleep, attacks of paralysis (cataplexy), and dreams
intruding while awake (hypnagogic hallucinations)
neural tube defects
nūrăl tūb dēfektz
congenital deformities of the brain and spinal cord caused
by incomplete development of the neural tube, the
embryonic structure that forms the nervous system
anencephaly
anen-sef ă-lē
defect in closure of the cephalic portion of the neural tube
that results in incomplete development of the brain and
bones of the skull; the most drastic neural tube defect
usually results in a stillbirth
spina bifida (Fig. 8-11)
spı̄nă bı̆ fi-dă
defect in development of the spinal column characterized
by the absence of vertebral arches, often resulting in
pouching of the meninges (meningocele) or of the
meninges and spinal cord (meningomyelocele); considered
to be the most common neural tube defect (spina spine;
bifida split into two parts)
Parkinson disease
pahrkin-sĕn di-zēz
condition of slowly progressive degeneration in an area of
the brainstem (substantia nigra) resulting in a decrease of
dopamine (a chemical neurotransmitter necessary for
proper movement); characterized by tremor, rigidity of
muscles, and slow movements (bradykinesia); usually
occurs later in life
plegia
plējē-ă
paralysis
hemiplegia
hem-ē-plē jē-ă
paralysis on one side of the body
paraplegia
par-ă-plē jē-ă
paralysis from the waist down
quadriplegia
kwahdri-plĕ jē-ă
paralysis of all four limbs
poliomyelitis
polē-ō-mı̄ĕ-lı̄tis
inflammation of the gray matter of the spinal cord caused
by a virus, often resulting in spinal and muscle deformity
and paralysis ( polio gray)
polyneuritis
polē-nū-rı̄-tis
inflammation involving two or more nerves, often caused
by a nutritional deficiency, such as lack of thiamine
sleep apnea
slēp apnē-ă
periods of breathing cessation (10 seconds or more) that
occur during sleep, often causing snoring
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Programmed Review: Nervous System Diagnostic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
8.67 Recall that the combining form that means knowing is
gnos/o, without
____________. The prefix a- means ________________. The general
term for many types of loss of neurologic function (meaning “not
agnosia
knowing”) is therefore _______________. The combining form
stere/o
meaning three-dimensional is _____________. The type of agnosia
in which a person cannot judge the shape of an object by touch is
astereognosis
termed ______________________. Recall that the combining form
top/o
meaning place or location is ____________. The type of agnosia in
which a person cannot locate a sensation on the body is called
atopognosis
______________________.
8.68 Named for the German neurologist who researched dementia,
Alzheimer
___________________ disease causes structural changes in the brain
resulting in mental deterioration.
8.69 Palsy means a partial paralysis. The condition of partial
paralysis and lack of muscle coordination caused by damage to the
cerebral palsy
cerebrum is called ________________ _____________ (CP).
8.70 The combining form vascul/o refers to blood vessels. A disease
cerebrovascular
affecting blood vessels in the cerebrum is called __________________
disease. The combining form scler/o means hard. Recall that the
condition
suffix -osis means increase or __________________. The term for a
condition of hardening of the arteries in the brain is cerebral
arteriosclerosis
_________________________. The combining form ather/o means fatty
paste. The condition of a hardening of a pasty lipid buildup in the
cerebral
blood vessels of the brain is called ________________
atherosclerosis
________________________.
8.71 The dilation of a blood vessel in the brain is called a cerebral
aneurysm
___________________. The Greek word thrombos means a clot. A
stationary blood clot in a blood vessel in the brain is called a
cerebral thrombosis
_______________ ____________________. A blood clot carried in the
circulation that obstructs a blood vessel in the brain is called a
embolism
cerebral ___________________.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
8.72 Occlusion of a blood vessel in the brain by a thrombus,
embolus, or bleeding after rupture of an aneurysm may cause brain
cerebrovascular
damage known as a stroke or ______________________
accident
_________________ (CVA). Thrombotic and embolic strokes are
ischemic
classified as ______________ strokes, because they result in a loss of
blood flow to brain tissues. Damage caused by the hemorrhage of
hemorrhagic
blood into brain tissue is called a __________________ stroke.
8.73 Ischemia is a condition in which blood flow to an area is
reduced. A brief episode of loss of blood flow to the brain caused by
transient
a partial occlusion of a blood vessel is called a ________________
ischemic attack
________________ ______________.
8.74 Recall that the combining form meaning meninges is
mening/o, -itis
________________. The suffix meaning inflammation is ________.
Therefore, the term for inflammation of the meninges is
meningitis
_____________________.
8.75 Formed using the prefix en-, meaning in, and cephal/o,
head
meaning __________, encephal/o is a combining form meaning the
brain
entire ____________. The term for inflammation of the brain is
encephalitis
_____________________.
myel/o
8.76 The combining form for the spinal cord is ____________.
myelitis
Inflammation of the spinal cord is termed _________________.
The combining form poli/o means gray. An inflammation of the
gray matter of the spinal cord, caused by a virus, is called
poliomyelitis
______________________.
neur/o
8.77 The combining form meaning nerve is ____________. The
many
prefix poly- means ___________. The term for inflammation of two
polyneuritis
or more nerves is __________________.
8.78 The disorder of the central nervous system characterized by
epilepsy
recurrent seizures is ________________. Recall that the combining
tension
form ton/o refers to muscle tone or _______________. The type of
epileptic seizure in which muscles stiffen and jerk is called
tonic-clonic
_____________-_____________ seizure. A type of epileptic seizure
in which a brief loss of consciousness occurs (the person seems to
absence
be absent for a moment) is called an _______________ seizure. A
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
ANSWERS
REVIEW
partial
_____________ seizure affects only limited areas of the brain with
395
localized symptoms.
gli/o
8.79 The combining form meaning glue is __________, the origin
of the name for glial cells, which are thought to “glue” together
-oma
neurons. The suffix meaning tumor is ________. A malignant
glioma
(cancerous) tumor of glial cells is called a _____________.
A benign (noncancerous) tumor of the meninges is called
meningioma
_____________________. (Note: Word structuring alone does not
indicate whether a tumor is cancerous. Rely on a good medical
dictionary or oncology reference for clarification.)
8.80 A hernia is a protrusion of a part from its normal location.
A degenerated or fragmented intervertebral disk that protrudes and
herniated
compresses a nerve is called a _________________ disk.
8.81 A herpes virus causes skin blisters following an affected
nerve, often in a belt-like pattern on the skin. The Greek word
herpes
zoster means girdle or belt. This condition is called _____________
zoster
_____________.
8.82 The term chorea comes from a Greek word meaning
dance. A chorea is a spasmodic involuntary movement of
muscles. A hereditary type of chorea that is characterized by
bizarre body movements and progressive dementia is called
Huntington chorea
______________________ ________________ or
Huntington disease
______________________ ______________ (HD).
8.83 The combining form hydr/o means water or fluid. The
combining form cephal/o means head. These two combining forms
are the origin of the term for an abnormal accumulation of
hydrocephalus
cerebrospinal fluid in the brain: _____________________.
8.84 The kind of severe headache accompanied by disordered
migraine
vision, nausea, and vomiting is a _______________ headache.
8.85 Recall that scler/o is the combining form meaning
hard
_________. A disease of the central nervous system involving
deterioration of the myelin sheath of nerve fibers and multiple
patches of hard plaques in the brain and spinal cord is called
multiple sclerosis
_________________ _______________.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
8.86 Formed by the combination of a-, meaning
without, muscle
_______________, my/o, meaning _____________, troph/o, meaning
nourishment
development or ____________________, and -ic, meaning
pertaining to
___________________ _____, the word amyotrophic is used in
naming the neurologic condition characterized by the progressive
deterioration of motor nerve cells that results in total loss of
amyotrophic lateral
voluntary muscle control: ____________________ _______________
sclerosis, Lou
_________________ (ALS). This condition is also called ________
Gehrig
_____________ disease (named after the American baseball player
who had the condition).
8.87 The combining form my/o means muscle, and the suffix
weakness
-asthenia means _________________. Thus, a term for muscle
myasthenia
weakness is ____________________. An autoimmune disorder
that causes a progressive decrease in muscle strength is myasthenia
gravis
______________.
8.88 Recall that the combining form narc/o means stupor or
sleep, seizure
___________. The suffix -lepsy means ______________. A sleep
disorder in which the person falls asleep as quickly as if in a seizure
narcolepsy
is called __________________.
movement
8.89 Bradykinesia, a condition of slow _________________, along
with tremor and rigidity of muscles are symptoms first documented
by the British physician for whom this slowly progressive,
Parkinson
degenerative neurologic condition was named: _________________
disease.
paralysis
8.90 Recall that the suffix -plegia means _________________. The
half
prefix hemi- means __________, and paralysis of half (one side) of the
hemiplegia
body is called ____________________. Paralysis from the waist down
paraplegia
is called ___________________. Recall that the prefix meaning four is
quadri-
_____________. Therefore, the term for paralysis of all four limbs is
quadriplegia
_____________________.
8.91 The Greek word apnoia means want of breath. The term for
a condition in which breathing stops for short periods during sleep
sleep apnea
is _____________ ______________.
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
ANSWERS
REVIEW
nerve
8.92 Neural, the adjective pertaining to ___________, is used to
397
name the embryonic tube that forms the nervous system, called the
neural tube
_____________ __________. Congenital deformities caused by its
incomplete development are known as neural tube defects. The
without
term formed by the combination of an-, meaning ______________,
entire brain
encephal/o meaning ____________ ___________, and -y, meaning
process of
condition or _______________ _____, describes the most drastic
type of defect caused by the incomplete development of the brain
anencephaly
and bones of the skull: __________________. The word describing
that which is split into two parts is used in the name for the most
common neural tube defect, which is characterized by the absence
bifida
of spinal vertebral arches: spina ___________. The suffix -cele,
pouching
meaning _______________ or hernia, is used to describe conditions
that often accompany spina bifida: pouching of the meninges
meningocele
(__________________) or pouching of the meninges and spinal
meningomyelocele
cord (__________________________).
Self-Instruction: Nervous System Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
Study the following:
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
electrodiagnostic
procedures
ē-lektrō-dı̄-ag-nostik prō-sēj ŭrz
diagnostic procedures used to evaluate the function of the
nervous system by recording the electrical signals produced in
the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves
electroencephalogram
(EEG) (Fig. 8-12)
ē-lektrō-en-sef ă-l ō-gram
record of the minute electrical impulses of the brain; used to
identify neurologic conditions that affect brain function and
level of consciousness
evoked potentials
(Fig. 8-13)
ē-vokt pō-tensh ălz
record of minute electrical potentials (waves) that are
extracted from ongoing EEG activity to diagnose auditory,
visual, and sensory pathway disorders; also used to monitor
the neurologic function of patients during surgery
polysomnography
(PSG) (Fig. 8-14)
polē-som-nogră-f ē
recording of various aspects of sleep (e.g., eye and muscle
movements, respiration, and EEG patterns) to diagnose sleep
disorders
lumbar puncture (LP)
l ŭmbar p ŭnkch ūr
introduction of a specialized needle into the spine in the
lumbar region for diagnostic or therapeutic purposes, such as
to obtain CSF for testing; also called spinal tap
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Electroencephalography (EEG)
FP2
FP1
(T3)T7
F4
FZ
F7
F8
F3
C3
C4
CZ
T8 (T4)
A1
A2
(T5)P7
P3
PZ
P4
P8
(T6)
01
02
Position of electrodes
Normal EEG wave forms shown on left and computer compilation of
frequency bands (delta, theta, alpha, and beta) mapped on right
FIGURE 8-12 ■
Electroencephalography (EEG).
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
magnetic resonance
imaging (MRI) (see
Figs. 8-3, 8-4, and 8-10)
mag-netik rezō-nănts
imă-jing
nonionizing imaging technique using magnetic fields and
radiofrequency waves to visualize anatomic structures
(especially soft tissue), such as the tissues of the brain and
spinal cord
FIGURE 8-13 ■ Use of evoked potentials to monitor
neurologic function during surgery. Photo courtesy of
Cadwell Laboratories, Inc.
FIGURE 8-14
■
Polysomnography (PSG).
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A
399
B
FIGURE 8-15 ■ Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA). A. Contrast-enhanced
intracranial MRA showing circulation of the circle of Willis. B. Contrast-enhanced extracranial MRA showing carotid circulation. (Compare to the illustration of anatomy in Fig. 8-7.)
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
magnetic resonance
angiography (MRA)
(Fig. 8-15)
mag-netik rezō-nănts anjē-ogră-fē
magnetic resonance imaging of blood vessels to detect
pathologic conditions, such as thrombosis and atherosclerosis
intracranial MRA
(Fig. 8-15, A)
intră-krānē-ăl em-ar-ā
magnetic resonance image of the head to visualize the vessels
of the circle of Willis (common site of cerebral aneurysm,
stenosis, or occlusion)
extracranial MRA
(Fig. 8-15, B)
ekstră-krānē-ăl em-ar-ā
magnetic resonance image of the neck to visualize the carotid
artery
nuclear medicine imaging
nūkl ē-ăr medi-sen imăj-ing
radionuclide organ imaging
single-photon emission
computed tomography
(SPECT) brain scan
singgel-f ōton ē-mı̆shŭn
kom-pyūtĕd tō-mogră-f ē
brān skan
scan combining nuclear medicine and computed tomography
to produce images of the brain after the administration of
radioactive isotopes
positron-emission
tomography (PET)
(Fig. 8-16)
pozi-tron-ē-mishŭn
tō-mogră-fē
technique combining nuclear medicine and computed
tomography to produce images of brain anatomy and
corresponding physiology; used to study stroke, Alzheimer
disease, epilepsy, metabolic brain disorders, chemistry of nerve
transmissions in the brain, and so on; provides greater
accuracy than SPECT, but is used less often because of cost
and the limited availability of the radioisotopes
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Positron emission tomography (PET) scans
Warm colors
(red and yellow)
indicate a higher
rate of metabolism
and brain activity
in the normal brain
when compared
with the brain of the
Alzheimer patient
Area of scan
PET scan of healthy brain
FIGURE 8-16 ■
PET scan of Alzheimer brain
Positron-emission tomography (PET) scans of the brain.
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
radiography
rādē-ogră-fē
x-ray imaging
cerebral angiogram
serĕ-brăl anjē-ō-gram
x-ray of blood vessels in the brain after intracarotid injection
of contrast medium
computed tomography
(CT) of the head
kom-pyūtĕd tō-mogră-fē
computed tomographic (x-ray) images of the head used to
visualize abnormalities, such as brain tumors and
malformations
myelogram
mı̄ĕ-lō-gram
x-ray of the spinal cord obtained after intraspinal injection of
contrast medium
reflex testing
rēfleks testing
test performed to observe the bodys response to a stimulus
deep tendon reflexes (DTR)
dēp tendŏn rē fleks-ĕz
A
FIGURE 8-17 ■
involuntary muscle contraction after percussion at a tendon
(e.g., patella or Achilles) indicating function; positive findings
B
Reflex testing. A. Normal plantar reflex. B. Babinski sign.
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401
FIGURE 8-18 ■ Transcranial Doppler sonography.
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
are either no reflex response or an exaggerated response to
stimulus; numbers are often used to record responses
Ø no response (absent reflex)
1 diminished response
2 normal response
3 more brisk than average response
4 hyperactive response
Babinski sign (Fig. 8-17)
bă-binskē sı̄n
Babinski reflex
bă-binskē rēfleks
transcranial Doppler
sonogram (Fig. 8-18)
trans-krānē-ăl doplĕr
sonō-gram
pathologic response to stimulation of the plantar surface of
the foot; a positive sign is indicated when the toes dorsiflex
(curl upward)
image made by sending ultrasound beams through the skull
to assess blood flow in intracranial vessels; used in the
diagnosis and management of stroke and head trauma
Programmed Review: Nervous System Diagnostic
Tests and Procedures
ANSWERS
REVIEW
8.93 A wide variety of tests and procedures are used to
diagnose conditions of the nervous system, including several
electrodiagnostic procedures. The combining form referring to
electricity is electr/o. The combining form referring to the entire
encephal/o
brain is ________________. Recall that the suffix -gram means
record
______________. An EEG is a record of electrical impulses in
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
electroencephalogram
the brain; EEG is an abbreviation for ________________________.
Minute electrical waves sorted out of the EEG activity to diagnose
evoked
specific nerve pathway disorders are called ________________
potentials. (Potential is a term referring to electrical charges.)
8.94 In addition to hypn/o and somn/i, a combining form
somn/o
meaning sleep is ______________. The prefix meaning many is
poly-
___________. The suffix -graphy means process of
recording
___________________. From these three components comes the
term for another electrodiagnostic procedure that measures various
polysomnography
physiologic aspects of sleep: __________________________ (PSG).
8.95 The procedure in which a specialized needle is introduced
into the lumbar spine, such as to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal
lumbar
fluid for examination, is called a _____________
puncture
__________________ (LP).
8.96 A nonionizing imaging technique using magnetic fields
to visualize structures such as tissues of the brain and spinal cord
magnetic resonance
is called _________________ _________________ imaging (MRI).
8.97 An MRI technique for imaging blood vessels
(including the combining form angi/o, meaning vessel) is
magnetic resonance
termed ___________________ ____________________
angiography
______________________ (MRA). The combining form for skull
crani/o, within
is ______________. The prefix intra- means _______________.
Magnetic resonance imaging of the head to visualize the vessels of
intracranial
the circle of Willis is called ___________________ MRA. The
outside
prefix extra- means ________________. The term for magnetic
resonance imaging of the neck to depict the carotid arteries is
extracranial
called ___________________ MRA.
8.98 Imaging a structure after administration of a radionuclide
medicine
is called nuclear ________________ imaging. A specialized brain
scan that combines nuclear medicine with computed tomography
photon emission
(CT) is called single-_____________ ________________ computed
tomography
_________________ (SPECT).
8.99 Another technique that combines nuclear medicine and
CT to study brain anatomy and physiology is positron-
emission tomography
_________________ __________________ (PET).
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403
ANSWERS
REVIEW
process
8.100 Recall that the suffix -graphy means the ____________ of
recording
_________________. The process of recording x-ray images is
radiography
called ____________________. The adjective form of cerebrum,
cerebral
pertaining to the largest part of the brain, is ________________.
angi/o
Again, the combining form for blood vessel is _____________. An
x-ray of the blood vessels of the cerebrum is called a
cerebral angiogram
______________ _________________.
8.101 Cross-sectional x-ray images of the brain produced by
computed tomography
________________ ___________________ are also used to visualize
abnormalities, such as brain tumors.
8.102 The combining form meaning spinal cord is
myel/o, record
____________. Again, the suffix -gram means ______________.
An x-ray record of the spinal cord using an intraspinal contrast
myelogram
medium is called a __________________.
8.103 A reflex is the bodys automatic response to a stimulus.
Reflex
_____________ testing is performed to observe such responses.
Reflexes that involve involuntary muscle contraction after
deep tendon
percussion at a tendon are called ____________ ______________
reflexes (DTR).
8.104 A response to stimulation of the plantar surface of the
Babinski
foot is a pathologic reflex called the _________________ sign, which
is named for Babinski, the French neurologist who discovered it.
8.105 Ultrasound is also called sonography. The prefix trans-
across
means ____________ or through. The record of an ultrasound
image made by sending ultrasound waves through the skull is
transcranial sonogram
called a __________________ ___________________.
Self-Instruction: Nervous System Operative Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
carotid endarterectomy
ka-rotid endar-tĕr-ektŏ-mē
incision and coring of the lining of the carotid artery to clear a
blockage caused by the buildup of atherosclerotic plaque or a
clot; an open procedure used to treat patients who are at risk
for stroke
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Vertebral disk
Vertebral disk nucleus
Spinal
endoscope
Disk herniation pushing on
spinal nerve root
Vertebra
Spinal cord
Spinal nerve
FIGURE 8-19 ■
Diskectomy.
TERM
MEANING
craniectomy
krānē-ektō-mē
excision of part of the skull to approach the brain
craniotomy
krā-nē-otō-mē
incision into the skull to approach the brain
diskectomy or
discectomy (Fig. 8-19)
disk-ektŏ-mē
removal of a herniated disk; often done percutaneously
( per through; cutaneous skin)
endovascular
neurosurgery
end ō-vaskyū-lar nūrō-sŭrjĕr-ē
interventional
neuroradiology
int ĕr-venshŭn-ăl nūrō-rād ē-olŏ-jē
minimally invasive techniques for diagnosis and treatment of
disorders within blood vessels of the neck, brain, and spinal
cord using specialized catheters inserted percutaneously
(through the skin) into the femoral artery (in the groin) and
guided by angiographic imaging to the treatment site;
performed in a specialized angiographic laboratory by
interventional neuroradiologists; common procedures are:
• percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) with stent
(e.g., carotid PTA)
• embolization (plugging) of intracranial aneurysms and
vascular malformations
laminectomy
lami-nektŏ-mē
vertebral lamina
(see Fig. 4-6)
vertĕ-brăl lami-nă
microsurgery (Fig. 8-20)
mı̄krō-sŭrjĕr-ē
excision of one or more laminae of the vertebrae to approach
the spinal cord
flattened posterior portion of the vertebral arch
use of a microscope to dissect minute structures during
surgery
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FIGURE 8-20 ■
Microscope for neurologic surgery.
TERM
MEANING
neuroplasty
nūrō-plas-tē
surgical repair of a nerve
spondylosyndesis
(Fig. 8-21)
spondi-lō-sin-dēsis
spinal fusion
A
B
Intervertebral
disk
Removal of
disk (fusion
of vertebrae)
Spinal cord
FIGURE 8-21 ■
B. Spinal fusion.
Spondylosyndesis. A. Spinal column.
405
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Programmed Review: Nervous System Operative Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
8.106 Endarterectomy, the open surgical technique that cuts
out atherosclerotic blockage from the core lining of the carotid
artery, was named by linking endo-, the prefix meaning
within
_____________, to arteri/o, the combining form meaning
artery
_____________, and the suffix -ectomy, meaning excision or
removal
________________. Note that occasionally, when a prefix ends
in a vowel and the root begins with a vowel, the final vowel is
o
dropped from the prefix. This is why the letter ____ is
endo-
dropped from the prefix _________ in this term.
-ectomy
8.107 The operative suffix meaning excision is ____________.
The excision of part of the skull, needed to reach the brain
craniectomy
surgically, is termed _____________________.
8.108 The excision of a herniated spinal disk is termed a
diskectomy or discectomy
____________________.
8.109 The flattened posterior portion of the vertebral arch is
lamina
called a _______________. The excision of one or more
laminectomy
laminae is termed a ____________________.
incision
8.110 The operative suffix -tomy means ________________.
An incision into the skull to approach the brain is a
craniotomy
____________________.
8.111 Use of a microscope to dissect minute structures
microsurgery
during surgery is called ____________________.
neur/o
8.112 The combining form meaning nerve is _____________.
Recall that the suffix for surgical repair or reconstruction is
-plasty
______________. The surgical repair of a nerve is called
neuroplasty
____________________.
8.113 The two combining forms meaning vertebra are
spondyl/o
vertebr/o and ________________. Syndesis is a surgical
technique of joining bones together. The medical term for
spinal fusion, or surgically joining vertebrae together, is
spondylosyndesis
________________________.
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ANSWERS
407
REVIEW
8.114 Endovascular, a term formed by the combination of
within
endo- (meaning ______________) with vascul/o (meaning
vessel, pertaining to
_____________) and -ar (meaning __________________ _____)
is one of the words used to name the minimally invasive
techniques for diagnosis and treatment of disorders within
blood vessels of the neck, brain, and spinal cord, which are
endovascular neuro
called ____________________ _________surgery. The synonym
for endovascular neurosurgery is interventional
radiology
neuro______________, which is a term that identifies the
technology used to guide the endovascular catheters to
the treatment sites. The techniques are considered to be
minimally invasive, because instruments are guided
skin
percutaneously (through the _________) into blood vessels, as
opposed to “open” procedures that cut directly into tissues.
Self-Instruction: Nervous System Therapeutic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
chemotherapy
kem-ō-thāră-pē
treatment of malignancies, infections, and other diseases
with chemical agents to destroy selected cells or impair
their ability to reproduce
radiation therapy
(Fig. 8-22)
rādē-āshŭn thār ă-pē
treatment of neoplastic disease using ionizing radiation to
impede the proliferation of malignant cells
stereotactic or stereotaxic
radiosurgery
sterē-ō-taktik or sterē-ō-taksik
rād ē-ō-sŭrjĕr-ē
radiation treatment to inactivate malignant lesions using
multiple, precise external radiation beams focused on a
target with the aid of a stereotactic frame and imaging such
as CT, MRI, or angiography; used to treat inoperable brain
tumors and other lesions
stereotactic or stereotaxic
frame (Fig. 8-23)
sterē-ō-taktik or sterē-ōtaksik frām
mechanical device used to localize a point in space,
targeting a precise site
COMMON THERAPEUTIC DRUG CLASSIFICATIONS
analgesic
an-ăl-j ēzik
agent that relieves pain
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FIGURE 8-22 ■ Radiation therapy linear accelerator.
FIGURE 8-23
■
Stereotactic frame.
TERM
MEANING
anticonvulsant
antē-kon-vŭlsant
agent that prevents or lessens convulsion
hypnotic
hip-notik
agent that induces sleep
Programmed Review: Nervous System Therapeutic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
8.115 The combining form referring to chemical agents is chem/o.
The treatment of malignancies, infections, and other diseases with
chemical agents that destroy targeted cells is called
chemotherapy
_________________________.
8.116 Some kinds of cancer are treated with radiation, which deters
radiation
the proliferation of malignant cells. This is called __________________
therapy
_________________.
8.117 The combining form meaning three-dimensional or solid
stere/o
is _____________, as in the term stereotactic (or stereotaxic) frame,
which is an apparatus allowing precise localization in space.
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ANSWERS
409
REVIEW
Radiation therapy given with precise localization of the radiation
stereotactic
beam using a stereotactic frame is called ____________________
radiosurgery
_____________________.
without
8.118 The prefix an- means _______________. The Greek word
algesis means sensation of pain. A drug that relieves pain is called an
analgesic
__________________.
8.119 Many drugs are named according to their action against a
against
condition or symptom. The prefix anti- means _______________.
A drug that works to prevent or lessen convulsion is called an
anticonvulsant
______________________.
8.120 The combining forms meaning sleep are somn/i, somn/o, and
hypn/o
____________. Formed from the last of these, the term for an agent
hypnotic
that induces sleep is ________________.
Self-Instruction: Psychiatric Symptomatic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
affect
affekt
emotional feeling or mood
flat affect
flat affekt
significantly dulled emotional tone or outward reaction
apathy
apă-thē
a lack of interest or display of emotion
catatonia
kat-ă-tōnē-ă
a state of unresponsiveness to ones outside environment,
usually including muscle rigidity, staring, and inability to
communicate
delusion
dē-lūzhŭn
a persistent belief that has no basis in reality
grandiose delusion
grăn-dē-ōs dē-lūzhŭn
a persons false belief that he or she possesses great wealth,
intelligence, or power
persecutory delusion
pĕr-se-kyū-tōrē d ē-lūzhŭn
a persons false belief that someone is plotting against him or
her with the intent to harm
dysphoria
dis-fōrē-ă
a restless, dissatisfied mood
euphoria
yū-f ōrē-ă
an exaggerated, unfounded feeling of well-being
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TERM
MEANING
hallucination
ha-l ū-si-nāshŭn
a false perception of the senses for which there is no reality;
most commonly hearing or seeing things (alucinor to
wander in mind)
ideation
ı̄-dē-āshŭn
the formation of thoughts or ideas, such as suicidal ideation
(thoughts of suicide)
mania
mānē-ă
state of abnormal elation and increased activity
neurosis
nū-rōsis
a psychologic condition in which anxiety is prominent
psychosis
sı̄-k ōsis
a mental condition characterized by distortion of reality
resulting in the inability to communicate or function within
ones environment
thought disorder
thot dis-ōrdĕr
thought that lacks clear processing or logical direction
Programmed Review: Psychiatric Symptomatic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
affect
8.121 An emotional feeling or mood is called an ____________.
emotional
A flat affect is a significantly dulled ________________ tone or
outward reaction.
8.122 A lack of interest or display of emotion is termed
apathy
______________.
cata-
8.123 Recall that the prefix meaning down is __________, and
ton/o
that the combining term for tone is ___________. The original
Greek term katatonos means stretching down. The medical term
for a state of unresponsiveness that includes muscle rigidity is
catatonia
__________________.
false
8.124 A delusion is a persistent ___________ belief that has no
basis in reality. A delusion that one has great wealth, intelligence, or
grandiose
power is called a _________________ delusion. A delusion that one
is being persecuted by others plotting against him or her is called a
persecutory delusion
__________________ ________________.
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ANSWERS
411
REVIEW
8.125 The combining form phor/o means to bear or
carry
___________. Recall that the prefix dys- means painful, difficult,
or faulty. Thus, the term dysphoria originated from terms meaning
to carry poorly. The medical term for a restless, dissatisfied mood is
dysphoria
________________. Incorporating eu-, the prefix meaning good or
normal
______________, the term for an exaggerated, unfounded feeling of
euphoria
well-being is ________________.
8.126 From the Latin word alucinor, meaning to wander in
mind, this medical term means a false perception of the senses:
hallucination
_______________________. Recall that the suffix -ation refers to
process
_______________.
8.127 The process of forming thoughts or ideas is called
ideation
_________________. For example, thoughts of suicide are called
suicidal ideation.
condition of
8.128 Again, the suffix -ia means ________________ ____. A
condition of abnormal elation and increased activity is called
mania
______________. The original Greek word mania means frenzy.
increase
8.129 The suffix -osis means condition or _______________. The
nerve
combining form neur/o usually means ____________, or, in this case,
nervousness. The term for a psychologic condition in which anxiety
neurosis
is prominent is called __________________, meaning the condition
of nervousness.
8.130 The combining forms meaning mind are phren/o, thym/o,
psych/o
and ____________. The last of these is used with a suffix that
means condition to make the term for a mental condition
characterized by a distortion of reality resulting in an inability to
psychosis
function within ones environment: __________________.
8.131 A disorder of thinking in which there is no clear processing
thought disorder
or logical direction is called a _______________ ______________.
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Self-Instruction: Psychiatric Diagnostic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
MOOD DISORDERS
major depression
mājor dē-preshŭn
major depressive illness
mājor dē-presiv ilnes
clinical depression
klini-kl dē-preshŭn
major affective disorder
mājor af-fektiv dis-ōrdĕ r
unipolar disorder
yūni-p ōl ăr dis-ōrd ĕr
a disorder causing periodic disturbances in mood that affect
concentration, sleep, activity, appetite, and social behavior;
characterized by feelings of worthlessness, fatigue, and loss
of interest
dysthymia
dis-thı̄mē-ă
a milder affective disorder characterized by chronic
depression
manic depression
manik d ē-preshǔn
bipolar disorder (BD)
bı̄-p ōl ăr dis-ōrd ĕ r
an affective disorder characterized by mood swings of mania
and depression (extreme up and down states)
seasonal affective
disorder (SAD)
s ē-z ŏnăl af-fektiv dis-ōrd ĕ r
an affective disorder marked by episodes of depression that
most often occur during the fall and winter and that remit
in the spring
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TERM
413
MEANING
ANXIETY DISORDERS
generalized anxiety
disorder (GAD)
jenĕr-ă-lı̄zd ang-zı̄ĕ-tē dis-ōrd ĕr
the most common anxiety disorder; characterized by
chronic, excessive, uncontrollable worry about everyday
problems; affects the ability to relax or concentrate, but
does not usually interfere with social interactions or
employment; physical symptoms include muscle tension,
trembling, twitching, fatigue, headaches, nausea, and
insomnia
panic disorder
panik dis-ōrd ĕr
a disorder of sudden, recurrent attacks of intense feelings,
including physical symptoms that mimic a heart attack
(rapid heart rate, chest pain, shortness of breath, chills,
sweating, and dizziness) with a general sense of loss of
control or feeling that death is imminent; often progresses
to agoraphobia
phobia
f ōb ē-ă
exaggerated fear of a specific object or circumstance that
causes anxiety and panic; named for the object or
circumstance, such as agoraphobia (fear of the
marketplace), claustrophobia (fear of confinement), and
acrophobia (fear of high places)
posttraumatic stress
disorder (PTSD)
pōst-trawmăt-ik str ĕs dis-ōrdĕr
a condition resulting from an extremely traumatic
experience, injury, or illness that leaves the sufferer with
persistent thoughts and memories of the ordeal; may occur
after a war, violent personal assault, physical or sexual
abuse, serious accident, or natural disaster; symptoms
include feelings of fear, detachment, exaggerated startle
response, restlessness, nightmares, and avoidance of
anything or anyone who triggers the painful recollections
obsessive-compulsive
disorder (OCD)
ob-sesiv-kom-pŭlsiv dis-ōrdĕr
an anxiety disorder featuring unwanted, senseless obsessions
accompanied by repeated compulsions; can interfere with
all aspects of a persons daily life; for example, the thought
that a door is not locked causing repetitive checking to
make sure it is locked, or thoughts that ones body has
been contaminated causing repetitive washing
hypochondriasis
hı̄pō-kon-drı̄ă-sis
a preoccupation with thoughts of disease and concern that
one is suffering from a serious condition that persists
despite medical reassurance to the contrary
DISORDERS USUALLY DIAGNOSED IN CHILDHOOD
autism
awtizm
a developmental disability, commonly appearing during the
first three years of life, resulting from a neurologic disorder
affecting brain function, as evidenced by difficulties with
verbal and nonverbal communication and an inability to
relate to anything beyond oneself (auto self ) in social
interactions; persons with autism often exhibit body
movements such as rocking and repetitive hand movements;
persons commonly become preoccupied with observing
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TERM
MEANING
parts of small objects or moving parts or with performing
meaningless rituals
dyslexia
dis-leksē-ă
a developmental disability characterized by difficulty
understanding written or spoken words, sentences, or
paragraphs that affects reading, spelling, and self-expression
attention-deficit/
hyperactivity
disorder (ADHD)
ă-tenshŭn-def i-sit/hı̄-pĕrak-tivi-tē dis-ōrdĕr
a dysfunction characterized by consistent hyperactivity,
distractibility, and lack of control over impulses, which
interferes with ability to function normally at school, home,
or work
mental retardation
mentăl rē-tar-dāshŭn
a condition of subaverage intelligence characterized by an
IQ of 70 or less, resulting in the inability to adapt to normal
social activities
EATING DISORDERS
anorexia nervosa
an-ō-reksē-ă nĕr-vōsă
a severe disturbance in eating behavior caused by abnormal
perceptions about ones body weight, as evidenced by an
overwhelming fear of becoming fat that results in a refusal
to eat and body weight well below normal
bulimia nervosa
bū-lēmē-ă nĕr-vōsă
an eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed by
efforts to limit digestion though induced vomiting, use of
laxatives, or excessive exercise
SUBSTANCE ABUSE DISORDERS
substance abuse disorders
sŭbstans ă-byūsdis-ōrdĕrz
mental disorders resulting from abuse of substances such
as drugs, alcohol, or other toxins, causing personal and
social dysfunction; identified by the abused substance, such
as alcohol abuse, amphetamine abuse, opioid (narcotic)
abuse, and polysubstance abuse
PSYCHOTIC DISORDERS
schizophrenia
skiz-ō-frēnē-ă
a disease of brain chemistry causing a distorted cognitive
and emotional perception of ones environment; symptoms
include distortions of normal function (such as disorganized
thought, delusions, hallucinations, and catatonic behavior),
flat affect, apathy, and withdrawal from reality
Programmed Review: Psychiatric Diagnostic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
8.132 Psychiatrists use a number of terms referring to major
depression, which is a disorder causing mood disturbances that
affects concentration, sleep, and activity and is characterized
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415
REVIEW
by feelings of worthlessness and apathy. Other terms include
clinical
major depressive illness, _____________ depression, major
affective, disorder
______________ disorder, and unipolar _______________.
8.133 The disorder in which a person experiences mood
manic
swings between depression and mania is called ____________
bipolar
depression or ____________ disorder (BD). Note how unipolar
one, bipolar
refers to _________ mood, whereas ______________ refers to two
moods.
8.134 Recall that the three combining forms meaning mind
thym/o
are phren/o, psych/o, and ____________. The prefix dys- means
faulty
painful, difficult, or ______________. Another mood disorder,
dysthymia
_________________, uses the third combining form and is a
milder affective disorder that is characterized by chronic depression.
8.135 An affective disorder in which episodes of depression
seasonal
occur in seasonal cycles is called _______________
affective disorder
________________ _______________ (SAD).
8.136 There are several anxiety disorders. The most common
anxiety disorder occurs generally, not from a specific anxietyproducing situation. It causes excessive and uncontrollable
worrying, and it may produce physical symptoms. This disorder
generalized anxiety
is called ____________________ ______________ disorder (GAD).
8.137 Another anxiety disorder produces sudden attacks of
intense feelings of anxiety and panic, with often dramatic physical
panic disorder
symptoms. This disorder is called ___________ ______________.
8.138 Recall that the combining form that means an
phob/o
exaggerated fear or sensitivity is ____________. The suffix -ia
condition of
means ________________ ____. The psychiatric condition in
which one experiences an exaggerated fear of something is
phobia
called a ______________.
8.139 After a traumatic experience, a person may develop
a stressful condition involving persistent thoughts of the
ordeal, fear, and other symptoms. Recall that a common
post-
prefix meaning after or behind is ___________. This condition
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
posttraumatic stress
is termed _______________________ _____________
disorder
_______________ (PTSD).
8.140 An obsession is a persistent, uncontrollable thought.
A compulsion is a persistent, uncontrollable behavior. An
anxiety disorder characterized by obsession and compulsions
that often interfere with all aspects of an individuals life is
obsessive-compulsive
called ___________________-____________________
disorder
_____________ (OCD).
8.141 The combining form chondr/o refers to cartilage of the
below
ribs. The prefix hypo- means deficient or ___________. Thus, the
term hypochondrium refers to the abdomen (beneath the ribs)—
once thought to be the place where sensations of a distressing
nature were experienced, such as the concern that one is
suffering from a serious condition despite medical reassurance
to the contrary. Recall that the suffix -iasis means formation of or
presence
the ________________ of. The term for the condition when this
hypochondriasis
concern is present is ______________________.
8.142 The prefix auto- means self. Recall that the suffix -ism
condition of
means ________________ ____. A developmental condition in
which the person is unable to relate to anyone other than himself
autism
or herself is called _____________.
8.143 The combining form meaning word or phrase is
lex/o
___________. The prefix dys- means painful, faulty, or
difficult
_________________. The term for the developmental disability
of difficulty understanding written words or phrases is
dyslexia, condition of
________________. The suffix -ia means _________________ ____.
8.144 Typically, ADHD is diagnosed in childhood, when
the child has difficulty paying attention to things, is easily
distracted, and is generally hyperactive. ADHD is the
attention-deficit
abbreviation for ___________________-_____________ /
hyperactivity disorder
________________________ ________________. Recall that the
excessive
prefix hyper- means above or __________________.
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REVIEW
8.145 The Latin word mens refers to the mind, and the Latin
verb retardo means to hinder. The condition of limited
mental retardation
intelligence is called _____________ ___________________.
8.146 The Greek word orexis means appetite. Recall that the
without
prefix an- means _______________, and that the suffix -ia means
condition of
________________ _____. Thus, the term for the condition of
anorexia
being without an appetite is _________________. When this
condition is caused by a psychological disturbance (“nervous”
nervosa
condition) and fear of being fat, it is called anorexia ____________.
8.147 An eating disorder characterized by binge eating followed
bulimia
by efforts to limit the digestion of food is called ______________
nervosa. Bulimia comes from two Greek words meaning hungry
as an ox.
8.148 Substance abuse disorders are mental disorders resulting
abuse
from an ___________ of substances, such as drugs or alcohol, that
leads to dysfunction.
split
8.149 The combining form schiz/o means ____________, and
mind
the combining form phren/o means ___________. Thus, the term
for a disease of brain chemistry that causes disorganized thinking,
delusions, hallucinations, and other symptoms is
schizophrenia
________________________. Some people mistakenly believe that
schizophrenia means a mind that is split in two personalities
(multiple personality disorder), but the term actually refers to a
split
mind that is ___________ from reality.
Self-Instruction: Psychiatric Therapeutic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
electroconvulsive
therapy (ECT)
ē-lektrō-kon-vŭlsiv thāră-pē
electrical shock applied to the brain to induce convulsions;
used to treat patients with severe depression
light therapy
lı̄t thār ă-pē
use of specialized illuminating light boxes and visors to treat
seasonal affective disorder
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TERM
MEANING
psychotherapy
sı̄-kō-thāră-pē
treatment of psychiatric disorders using verbal and nonverbal
interaction with patients, individually or in a group, employing
specific actions and techniques
behavioral therapy
bē-hāvyōr-ăl thāră-pē
treatment to decrease or stop unwanted behavior
cognitive therapy
kogni-tiv thāră-pē
treatment to change unwanted patterns of thinking
COMMON THERAPEUTIC DRUG CLASSIFICATIONS
psychotropic drugs
sı̄kō-tropik dr ŭgz
medications used to treat mental illnesses (trop/o a turning)
antianxiety agents
an-tı̄-ang-zı̄ĕ-tē ājentz
anxiolytic agents
angzē-ō-litik ājentz
drugs used to reduce anxiety
antidepressant
antē-dē-presănt
agent that counteracts depression
neuroleptic agents
nū-rō-leptik ājentz
drugs used to treat psychosis, especially schizophrenia
sedative
sedă-tiv
agent that has a calming effect and quiets nervousness
Programmed Review: Psychiatric Therapeutic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
8.150 The combining form electr/o refers to electricity. Therapy for
patients with severe depression that uses a shock to the brain that
electroconvulsive
induces convulsions is called ____________________ therapy (ECT).
8.151 One theory for the depression of seasonal affective disorder is
that the person suffers from reduced amounts of sunlight in the fall
light
and winter. A treatment for this is therefore _____________ therapy.
8.152 The treatment modality for psychiatric patients using verbal
and nonverbal interactions was originally named to mean therapy of
the mind. Three combining forms meaning mind are phren/o, thym/o,
psych/o
and ____________. Made with the third form, this therapy is termed
psychotherapy
______________________.
8.153 Treatment emphasizing behavioral changes is called
behavioral
__________________ therapy.
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8.154 Treatment directed to change unwanted patterns of thinking
cognitive
is called ________________ therapy. The term cognitive refers to
thought processes.
8.155 The suffix -tropic pertains to turning. The term for the class
of drugs used in treating mental illnesses literally means turning of
psychotropic
the mind: ____________________ drugs.
8.156 Drug classes are frequently named for their actions to cause
something or their actions to prevent something. A common prefix
anti-
meaning against or opposed to is __________. Drugs that work against
antianxiety
anxiety, therefore, are termed __________________ agents. Another
term for these drugs uses the suffix -lytic, pertaining to breaking down
something. Thus, the term for these drugs literally means breaking
anxiolytic
down anxiety: _______________ agents.
8.157 A drug that counteracts (works against) depression is called
antidepressant
an _____________________.
neur/o
8.158 The combining form meaning nerve is ____________. Drugs
used to treat psychosis, especially schizophrenia, are called
neuroleptic
____________________ agents.
8.159 A patient can be sedated to calm his or her anxious state. A
sedative
drug that quiets nervousness is called a _________________.
CHAPTER 8 ACRONYMS AND ABBREVIATIONS
ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
ALS
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
ADHD
attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
ANS
autonomic nervous system
BD
bipolar disorder
CNS
central nervous system
CP
cerebral palsy
CSF
cerebrospinal fluid
CT
computed tomography
CVA
cerebrovascular accident
DTR
deep tendon reflexes
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ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
ECT
electroconvulsive therapy
EEG
electroencephalogram
GAD
generalized anxiety disorder
HD
Huntington disease
LP
lumbar puncture
MRA
magnetic resonance angiography
MRI
magnetic resonance imaging
MS
multiple sclerosis
NCV
nerve conduction velocity
OCD
obsessive-compulsive disorder
PET
positron-emission tomography
PNS
peripheral nervous system
PSG
polysomnography
PTSD
posttraumatic stress disorder
SAD
seasonal affective disorder
SPECT
single-photon emission computed tomography
TIA
transient ischemic attack
CHAPTER 8 SUMMARY OF TERMS
The terms introduced in chapter 8 are listed below, followed by the page number on which each
term can be found and its written pronunciation. For additional practice and reinforcement, write
the definition of each term on a separate piece of paper.
absence seizure/390
absens sēzhŭr
anorexia nervosa/414
an-ō-reksē-ă ner-vōsă
affect/409
af fekt
antianxiety agents/418
an-tı̄-ang-zı̄e-tē ājentz
agnosia/388
ag-nōzē-ă
anticonvulsant/408
antē-kon-vŭlsant
Alzheimer disease/388
awlzhı̄-mĕr di-zēz
antidepressant/418
antē-dē-presănt
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)/388
ă-mı̄-ō-trōfik latĕr-ăl sklĕ-rōsis
anxiolytic agents/418
angzē-ō-litik ājentz
analgesic/407
an-ăl-jēzik
apathy/409
apă-thē
anencephaly/392
anen-sef ă-lē
aphasia/384
ă-f āzē-ă
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
astereognosis/388
ă-stĕrē-og-nōsis
cerebral embolism/388
serĕ-brăl embo-lizm
atopognosis/388
ă-top-og-nōsis
cerebral palsy (CP)/388
serĕ-brăl pawlzē
attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder
(ADHD)/414
ă-tenshŭn-def i-sit/hı̄-per-ak-tivi-tē dis-ōrdĕr
cerebral thrombosis/388
serĕ-brăl throm-bōsis
autism/413
awtizm
autonomic nervous system (ANS)/382
aw-tō-nomik nĕrvŭs sistĕm
Babinski reflex/401
bă-binskē rēfleks
Babinski sign/401
bă-binskē sı̄n
behavioral therapy/418
bē-hāvyōr-al thāră-pē
bipolar disorder (BD)/412
bı̄-pō lăr dis-ōrdĕr
brain/378
brān
brainstem/379
brānstem
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)/379
serĕ-brō-spı̄năl flūid
cerebrovascular accident (CVA)/388
serĕ-bro-vaskyū-l ăr aksi-dent
cerebrovascular disease/388
ser ĕ-bro-vaskyū-l ăr di-zēz
cerebrum/378
serĕ-brŭm
chemotherapy/407
kem-ō-thāră-pē
clinical depression/412
klini-kl dē-preshŭn
cognitive therapy/418
kogni-tiv thāră-pē
coma/385
kōmă
bulimia nervosa/414
bū-lē mē-ă nūr-vōsă
computed tomography (CT) of the
head/400
kom-py ūted tō-mogră-f ē
carotid endarterectomy/403
ka-rotid endar-tĕr-ektŏ-mē
convulsion/386
kon-vŭlshŭn
catatonia/409
kat-ă-tōnē-ă
cranial nerves/381
krānē-ăl nĕrvz
central nervous system (CNS)/378
sentrăl nĕrvŭs sistĕm
craniectomy/404
krānē-ektō-mē
cerebellum/379
ser-e-belŭm
craniotomy/404
krā-nē-otō-mē
cerebral aneurysm/388
serĕ-brăl anyū-rizm
deep tendon reflexes (DTR)/400
dēp tendon rēfleks-ĕz
cerebral angiogram/400
serĕ-brăl anjē-ō-gram
delirium/385
dē-lirē-ŭm
cerebral arteriosclerosis/388
serĕ-brăl ar-tērē-ō-skler-ōsis
delusion/409
dē-lūzhŭn
cerebral atherosclerosis/388
serĕ-brăl ather-ō-skler-ōsis
dementia/385
dē-menshē-ă
cerebral cortex/378
serĕ-brăl kōrteks
diencephalon/379
dı̄-en-sef ă-lon
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diskectomy or discectomy/404
disk-ektŏ-mē
gyri/379
jı̄ rı̄
dyslexia/414
dis-leksē-ă
hallucination/410
ha-lū-si-nāshŭn
dysphasia/384
dis-f āzē-ă
hemiparesis/386
hemē-pă-rēsis
dysphoria/409
dis-f ōrē-ă
hemiplegia/392
hem-ē-pl ē jē-ă
dysthymia/412
dis-thı̄mē-ă
herniated disk or disc/390
h ĕrnē-ā-tĕd disk
electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)/417
ē-lektrō-kon-vŭlsiv thāră-pē
herpes zoster/390
h ĕrpēz zost ĕr
electrodiagnostic procedures/397
ē-lektrō-dı̄-ag-nostik prō-sējŭrz
Huntington chorea/390
hŭnting-tŏn kōr-ēă
electroencephalogram (EEG)/397
ē-lektr ō-en-sefă-lō-gram
Huntington disease (HD)/390
h ŭnting-tŏn di-zēz
encephalitis/388
en-sef-ă-lı̄tis
hydrocephalus/390
hı̄-drō-sĕf ă-l ŭs
endovascular neurosurgery/404
endō-vaskyū-lar nūrō-sŭrjĕr-ē
hyperesthesia/386
hı̄ pĕr-es-thēzē-ă
epilepsy/390
epi-lepsē
hypnotic/408
hip-notik
euphoria/409
yū-fōrē-ă
hypochondriasis/413
hı̄pō-kon-drı̄ă-sis
evoked potentials/397
ē-vokt pō-tenshălz
hypothalamus/382
hı̄pō-thală-mŭs
extracranial MRA/399
ekstră-krānē-ăl em-ar-ā
ideation/410
ı̄-dē-āshŭn
fissures/379
fishŭrz
interventional neuroradiology/404
intĕr-venshǔn-ăl nūrō-rā-dē-olŏ-jē
flaccid paralysis/386
flaksid pă-rali-sis
intracranial MRA/399
intră-krānē-ăl em-ar-ā
flat affect/409
flat affekt
laminectomy/404
lami-nektŏ-mē
frontal lobe/378
frŏntăl lōb
light therapy/417
lı̄t thāră-pē
generalized anxiety disorder
(GAD)/413
jenĕr-ă-lı̄zd ang-zı̄ĕ-tē dis-ōrdĕr
lumbar puncture (LP)/397
lŭmbar pŭnkchūr
glioma/390
glı̄-ōmă
magnetic resonance angiography
(MRA)/399
mag-netic rezō-nănts an-jē-ogră-f ē
grandiose delusion/409
grăn-dē-ōs dē-lūzhŭn
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)/398
mag-netic rezō-nănts imă-jing
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major affective disorder/412
mājor af-fektiv dis-ōrdĕr
neuroplasty/405
nūrō-plas-tē
major depression/412
mājor dē-preshǔn
neurosis/410
nū-rōsis
major depressive illness/412
mājor dē-presiv ilnes
nuclear medicine imaging/399
nūklē-ăr medi-sen imă-jing
mania/410
mānē-ă
obsessive-compulsive disorder
(OCD)/413
ob-sesiv-kom-pŭlsiv dis-ōrdĕr
manic depression/412
manik dē-preshǔn
meninges/381
mĕ-ninjēz
meningioma/390
mĕ-ninjē-ōmă
meningitis/390
men-in-jı̄tis
mental retardation/414
mentăl rē-tar-dāshŭn
microsurgery/404
mı̄ krō-sŭrjĕr-ē
occipital lobe/378
ok-sipi-tăl lōb
panic disorder/413
panik dis-ōrdĕr
paralysis/385
pă-rali-sis
paraplegia/392
par-ă-plē jē-ă
parasympathetic nervous
system/382
par-ă-sim-pă-thetik nĕrvǔs sistĕm
migraine headache/391
mı̄grān hedāk
paresthesia/386
par-es-thēzē-ă
motor deficit/385
mōtŏr defi-sit
parietal lobe/378
pă-rı̄ĕ-tăl lōb
motor nerves/382
mōtŏr nĕrvz
Parkinson disease/392
pahrkin-sĕn di-zēz
multiple sclerosis (MS)/391
mŭlti-pul sklĕ-rōsis
partial seizure/390
parshăl sēzhŭr
myasthenia gravis/392
mı̄-as-thēnē-ă gravis
peripheral nervous system (PNS)/381
pĕ-rifĕ-răl nĕrvŭs sistĕm
myelitis/392
mı̄-ĕ-lı̄tis
myelogram/400
mı̄ĕ-lō-gram
narcolepsy/392
narkō-lep-sē
neural tube defects/392
nūrăl tūb dēfekts
neuralgia/385
nū-raljē-ă
neuroleptic agents/418
nū-rō-leptik ājentz
persecutory delusion/409
pĕr-se-kyū-tōrē dē-lūzhŭn
phobia/413
fōbē-ă
plegia/392
plējē-ă
poliomyelitis/392
pōlē-ō-mı̄ĕ-lı̄tis
polyneuritis/392
polē-nū-rı̄-tis
polysomnography (PSG)/397
polē-som-nogră-f ē
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positron-emission tomography
(PET)/399
pozi-tron-ē-mishŭn tō-mogră-f ē
posttraumatic stress disorder
(PTSD)/413
pōst-trawmăt-ik strĕs dis-ōrdĕr
psychosis/410
sı̄-kōsis
psychotherapy/418
sı̄kō-thāră-pē
psychotropic drugs/418
sı̄kō-tropik drŭgz
spina bifida/392
spı̄nă bı̆fi-dă
spinal cord/379
spı̄năl kōrd
spinal nerves/381
spı̄năl nĕrvz
spondylosyndesis/405
spondi-lō-sin-dēsis
stereotactic or stereotaxic frame/407
sterē-ō-taktik or sterē-ō-taksik frām
quadriplegia/392
kwahdri-plē j ē-ă
stereotactic or stereotaxic
radiosurgery/407
sterē-ō-taktik or sterē-ō-taksik
rādē-ō-sŭrjĕr-ē
radiation therapy/407
rād ē-āshŭn thāră-pē
stroke/388
strōk
radiography/400
rādē-ogră-f ē
substance abuse disorders/414
sŭbstans ă-byūs dis-ōr dĕrz
reflex testing/400
rēfleks testing
sulci/379
s ŭlsı̄
schizophrenia/414
skiz-ō-frēnē-ă
sympathetic nervous system/382
sim-pă-thetik nĕrvŭs sistĕm
sciatica/386
sı̄-ati-kă
syncope/386
sinkŏ-pē
seasonal affective disorder
(SAD)/412
sē-zŏnăl af-fektiv dis-ōrdĕr
tactile stimulation/386
taktil stim-yū-lāshŭn
sedative/418
sedă-tiv
seizure/386
sēzhŭr
sensory deficit/385
sensŏ-rē def i-sit
sensory nerves/382
sensŏ-rē nĕrvz
single-photon emission computed
tomography (SPECT) brain
scan/399
singgel-f ōton ē-mı̆shǔn kom-pyūtĕd
tō-mogră-fē brān skan
sleep apnea/392
slēp apnē-ă
spastic paralysis/386
spastik pă-rali-sis
temporal lobe/378
tempŏ-răl lōb
thalamus/379
thală-mŭs
thought disorder/410
thot dis-ōrd ĕr
tonic-clonic seizure/390
tonik-klonik sēzhŭr
transcranial Doppler sonogram/401
trans-krānē-ăl doplĕr sonō-gram
transient ischemic attack (TIA)/388
tranzē-ent is-kēmik ă-tak
unipolar disorder/412
yūni-pōlăr dis-ōrdĕr
ventricles/379
ventri-kĕlz
vertebral lamina/404
vertĕ-brăl lami-nă
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PRACTICE EXERCISES
For each of the following words, write out the term components (prefixes [P], combining
forms [CF], roots [R], and suffixes [S]) on the lines below the word. Then define the term
according to the meaning of its components.
EXAMPLE
anencephaly
an / encephal / y
P
R
S
DEFINITION: without/brain/condition or process of
1. ganglioma
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
2. atopognosia
___________ / ___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
3. catatonic
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
4. dystaxia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
5. bradykinesia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
6. meningocele
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
7. dysthymia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
425
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8. polysomnogram
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
9. spondylosyndesis
________ / __________/________
CF
P
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
10. hemiplegia
___________ / ___________
P
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
11. craniotomy
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
12. thalamic
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
13. neuroglial
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
14. dyslexia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
15. somnipathy
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
16. hydrocephalic
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
17. necromania
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
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18. acrophobia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
19. hypnotic
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
20. euphoria
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
21. parasomnia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
22. narcolepsy
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
23. stereotaxy
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
24. hemiparesis
___________ / ___________
P
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
25. neurasthenia
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
26. myelopathy
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
27. intracranial
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
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28. aphasia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
29. schizophrenia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
30. cerebrospinal
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
Write the correct medical term for each of the following definitions:
31. ___________________________ inflammation of the meninges
32. ___________________________ excision of a herniated disk
33. ___________________________ inability to locate a sensation properly, such as to locate a
point touched on the body
34. ___________________________ a slowly progressive degeneration of nerves in the brain characterized by tremor, rigidity of muscles, and slow movements
35. ___________________________ a pathologic response to stimulation of the plantar surface of
the foot indicated by dorsiflexion of the toes
36. ___________________________ numbness and tingling
37. ___________________________ state of unconsciousness
38. ___________________________ a type of seizure that causes a series of sudden, involuntary
contractions of muscles
39. ___________________________ congenital neural tube defect of the spinal column characterized by the absence of vertebral arches
40. ___________________________ a type of agnosia indicating an inability to judge the form of
an object by touch, for example, not being able to distinguish
a coin from a key
Complete each medical term by writing the missing word part:
41. electro___________gram record of electrical brain impulses
42. ___________syndesis spinal fusion
43. crani___________ excision of part of the skull
44. cerebral ___________sclerosis fat buildup in blood vessel of brain
45. hyper___________ increased sensations
46. dys___________ difficulty speaking
47. ___________algesia loss of sense of pain
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
429
Write the letter of the matching term in the space provided:
48. herpes zoster
_____
a. tonic-clonic
49. spinal tap
_____
b. CVA
50. faint
_____
c. Alzheimer disease
51. grand mal
_____
d. PSG
52. petit mal
_____
e. flaccid
53. cerebral thrombus
_____
f. absence
54. flabby
_____
g. clot
55. stroke
_____
h. LP
56. dementia
_____
i. shingles
57. sleep study
_____
j. syncope
Write out the expanded term for each abbreviation:
58. CT
__________________________________________________________________________
59. MRI
__________________________________________________________________________
60. PET
__________________________________________________________________________
61. MS
__________________________________________________________________________
62. CNS
__________________________________________________________________________
63. CP
__________________________________________________________________________
64. TIA
__________________________________________________________________________
65. EEG
__________________________________________________________________________
66. DTR
__________________________________________________________________________
67. SPECT __________________________________________________________________________
68. PSG
__________________________________________________________________________
69. ALS
__________________________________________________________________________
70. PNS
__________________________________________________________________________
71. CSF
__________________________________________________________________________
72. MRA
__________________________________________________________________________
73. CVA
__________________________________________________________________________
Circle the combining form that corresponds to the meaning given:
74. brain
encephal/o
crani/o
neur/o
75. movement
esthesi/o
kinesi/o
somat/o
76. speech
phas/o
plas/o
phag/o
77. body
somn/o
somat/o
phren/o
78. spinal cord
vertebr/o
spondyl/o
myel/o
79. mind
cerebr/o
thym/o
thalm/o
80. sensation
esthesi/o
neur/o
kinesi/o
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81. place
top/o
tax/o
phor/o
82. sleep
somat/o
hypn/o
esthesi/o
83. knowing
phren/o
phas/o
gnos/o
Identify the parts of the brain by writing the missing words in the spaces provided:
87. Corpus
Meninges
88.
Pineal body
Frontal sinus
Hypothalamus
Pituitary gland
Sphenoid sinus
84.
Medulla oblongata
85.
86.
Midsagittal view of brain
84.
89.
Venous sinus
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
Dura mater
Arachnoid
Pia mater
90.
Subdural space
Subarachnoid
space
91.
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
431
Circle the correct spelling:
92. Alsheimer
Alzheimer
Alshiemer
93. skitzoprenia
skizophrenia
schizophrenia
94. polysomnography
polysonography
polysolemography
95. parenoia
paranoia
paranoyea
96. quadraplegia
quadriplega
quadriplegia
97. atopagnosis
atopegnosis
atopognosis
98. demensha
dementia
dimentia
99. epilapsey
epilepsey
epilepsy
100. catonia
catatonia
catetonia
101. delushion
dilusion
delusion
102. hellucination
hallucination
hallucinashun
103. poliomyalitis
poliomyelitis
poleiomyalitis
Give the noun used to form each adjective:
104. epileptic
___________________________
105. euphoric
___________________________
106. cerebellar
___________________________
107. delusional
___________________________
108. syncopal
___________________________
109. autistic
___________________________
110. psychotic
___________________________
111. cerebral
___________________________
112. paranoid
___________________________
Write the letter of the matching definition in the space provided after the name of the
psychiatric symptom:
113. hallucination
______
a. an exaggerated, unfounded feeling of well-being
114. persecutory delusion ______
b. dull emotional tone or outward reaction
115. catatonia
______
c. false belief that one is very wealthy, intelligent,
or powerful
116. apathy
______
d. false belief that one is being plotted against
117. euphoria
______
e. state of abnormal elation and increased activity
118. mania
______
f. a lack of interest or display of emotion
119. flat affect
______
g. thoughts that lack clear process or logical
direction
120. dysphoria
______
h. state of unresponsiveness that includes muscle
rigidity, staring, and inability to communicate
121. thought disorder
______
i. restless, dissatisfied mood
122. grandiose delusion
______
j. hearing or seeing things
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Write out the expanded term for each abbreviation:
123. GAD
__________________________________________________________________________
124. ADHD __________________________________________________________________________
125. OCD
__________________________________________________________________________
126. ECT
__________________________________________________________________________
127. BD
__________________________________________________________________________
128. PTSD
__________________________________________________________________________
Write the letter of the matching psychiatric diagnosis in the space provided after the description:
129. unipolar disorder
_____
a. hypochondriasis
130. anxiety disorder
_____
b. bulimia nervosa
131. bipolar disorder
_____
c. clinical depression
132. psychosis
_____
d. dysthymia
133. disorder identified in childhood
_____
e. schizophrenia
134. eating disorder
_____
f. manic depression
135. mild depression
_____
g. autism
Write the correct medical term for each of the following definitions:
136. __________________________ general term for a psychological condition in which anxiety is
a featured characteristic
137. __________________________ depression that occurs most during fall and winter
138. __________________________ exaggerated fear of a specific object or circumstance
139. __________________________ milder affective disorder characterized by mild depression
140. __________________________ class of drugs used to treat psychosis, especially schizophrenia
141. __________________________ general term for a mental condition characterized by a distortion of reality resulting in an inability to communicate or
function within ones environment
142. __________________________ disorder characterized by chronic excessive worry
143. __________________________ affective disorder marked by mood swings from depression
to mania
144. __________________________ anxiety disorder characterized by intense, fearful attacks, with
physical symptoms that mimic a heart attack
145. __________________________ class of drugs used to treat mental illness
Match the illness with its treatment by writing the letter of the corresponding treatment in the
space after the name of the psychiatric diagnosis:
146. anxiety
_____
a. behavioral therapy
147. schizophrenia
_____
b. light therapy
148. seasonal affective disorder
_____
c. anxiolytic agent
149. major affective disorder
_____
d. electroconvulsive therapy
150. bulimia
_____
e. neuroleptic agent
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
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MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 8-1
OUTPATIENT HISTORY AND PHYSICAL, NEUROLOGIC SERVICES
CC:
numbness and tingling in feet and hands
HPI:
This 44 y.o. right-handed female c/o numbness in her feet for the past two weeks with
“pockets” of numbness in the abdomen. Her legs feel heavy and numb. Her hands
started tingling a week ago, and she is feeling very nervous. She has had similar
episodes over the past 3 years, lasting about a week at a time, often after stressful events
or during hot weather.
PMH: Operations: none. No serious illness/accidents
FH: Father, age 71, L&W; Mother, age 66, is bipolar; her only sibling, a sister, age 28,
has cerebral palsy.
SH: Denies smoking or use of street drugs, but drinks socially
OH: certified public accountant. Martial Status: single
ROS: noncontributory
VS: T 98.2F., P 82, R 16, BP 110/68, Ht 52”, Wt 138#
PE:
HEENT: WNL. Neck: negative. Heart/Lungs: normal.
Cranial nerves intact. Reflexes: DTRs are increased, greater on the left than the right,
without spasticity.
Toes upgoing bilaterally.
There is numbness to tactile pin stimulation over both extremities. She has no fingerto-nose ataxia. Her gait is steady.
A:
R/O MS
P:
Schedule MRI of the brain with and without gadolinium (contrast)
RTO for report and further evaluation x 1 wk
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 8-1
1. Which medical term best describes the
patients symptom?
a. hyperesthesia
b. paresthesia
c. ataxia
d. hemiparesis
e. neuralgia
2. What is noted in the history about the
patients mother?
a. she is alive and well
b. she suffers from depression
c. she has mood swings of mania and
depression
d. she suffers from generalized anxiety
e. she is a hypochondriac
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3. Describe the sisters condition:
a. disorder affecting the central nervous
system characterized by seizures
b. hereditary disease of the central nervous
system characterized by bizarre involuntary body movements and progressive
dementia
c. abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal
fluid in the ventricles of the brain as a
result of developmental abnormality
d. condition of motor dysfunction caused
by damage to the cerebrum during
development or injury at birth
e. slowly progressive degeneration of
nerves in the brain characterized by
tremor, rigidity, and slow movements
4. Which medical term describes the positive
finding of the “toes upgoing” bilaterally?
a. Babinski sign
b. neuralgia
c. hemiparesis
d. spastic paralysis
e. flaccid paralysis
5. What is the doctors impression?
a. the patient has multiple sclerosis
b. the patient does not have multiple sclerosis
c. the patient may have multiple sclerosis
d. the patient may have hardening of the
arteries in the brain
e. the patient does not have hardening of
the arteries in the brain
6. Describe the test noted in the Plan:
a. x-ray
b. nuclear image
c. ultrasound scan
d. tomographic radiograph
e. scan produced by magnetic fields and
radiofrequency waves
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
435
Medical Record 8-2
FOR ADDITIONAL STUDY
Anne Cross has been fairly healthy until she had a stroke about 2 months ago. She was treated by
Dr. Paul Jiang, her personal physician, at that time and was discharged from the hospital on medication. At the request of Ms. Cross, Dr. Jiang called for a consultation from a neurologist, Dr.
Melvin Classen. Medical Record 8-2 is a consultation report written by Dr. Classen as a letter back
to Ms. Crosss physician, Dr. Jiang, after his consultation.
Read Medical Record 8-2 (pages 437-438), then write your answers to the following questions
in the spaces provided.
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 8-2
1. Below are medical terms used in this record that you have not yet encountered. Underline
each where it appears in the record, and define the term below.
homonymous hemianopsia ___________________________________________________________
finger-to-nose test ___________________________________________________________________
apraxia _____________________________________________________________________________
clonus ______________________________________________________________________________
2. In your own words, not using medical terminology, briefly describe Ms. Crosss symptoms in
April, before she was admitted to the hospital:
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
3. Complete this table summarizing the diagnostic tests performed in April by writing in the
missing parts:
Test
Definition of Test
Findings
CT
____________________
_________________________
________________________________
____________________
sound waves through heart
_________________________
________________________________
carotid ultrasound
____________________
_________________________
________________________________
____________________
_________________________
________________________________
____________________
_________________________
slowed electrical pulse on right side
________________________________
4. What family member had a problem perhaps similar to that of Ms. Cross?
____________________________________________________________________________________
5. For each of the following medications given Ms. Cross, translate the dosage instructions:
Plavix ______________________________________________________________________________
aspirin ______________________________________________________________________________
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Proventil ____________________________________________________________________________
Procardia ___________________________________________________________________________
6. Dr. Classen recommends two diagnostic studies. Describe both in your own words:
a. __________________________________________________________________________________
b. __________________________________________________________________________________
7. In one sentence, describe Dr. Classens rationale for recommending the combination of these
two tests:
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
8. Name the preventive surgical procedure Dr. Classen suggests that may be appropriate if
changes are found in the carotid blood vessels:
____________________________________________________________________________________
Now describe this procedure in your own words:
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
Medical Record 8-2: For Additional Study
437
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Medical Record 8-2: For Additional Study (Continued)
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CHAPTER 8 • NERVOUS SYSTEM
439
ANSWERS TO PRACTICE EXERCISES
1. gangli/oma
_____ ____
R
S
ganglion (knot)/tumor
2. a/topo/gnos/ia
_ ____ ____ __
P CF R S
without/place/
knowing/condition of
3. cata/ton/ic
___ ___ ___
P R S
down/tone or
tension/pertaining to
4. dys/tax/ia
___ ___ __
P R S
painful, difficult, or
faulty/order or coordination/condition of
5. brady/kines/ia
_____ ____ ___
P
R S
slow/movement/
condition of
6. meningo/cele
________ ____
CF
S
meninges
(membrane)/pouching
or hernia
7. dys/thym/ia
___ ____ ___
P R S
painful, difficult, or
faulty/mind/condition of
8. poly/somno/gram
____ ______ _____
P
CF
S
many/sleep/record
9. spondylo/syn/desis
________ ___ _____
CF
P S
vertebra/together or
with/binding
10. hemi/plegia
____ ______
P
S
half/paralysis
11. cranio/tomy
_____ ______
CF
S
skull/incision
12. thalam/ic
______ __
R S
thalamus (a room)/
pertaining to
13. neuro/gli/al
_____ __ ___
CF R S
nerve/glue/
pertaining to
14. dys/lex/ia
___ ___ __
P R S
painful, difficult, or
faulty/speech/
condition of
15. somni/path/y
_____ ____ __
CF
R S
sleep/disease/condition
or process of
16. hydro/cephal/ic
_____ ______ __
CF
R
S
water/head/
pertaining to
17. necro/mania
_____ ______
CF
S
death/condition of
abnormal impulse
toward
18. acro/phob/ia
____ ____ ___
CF R S
topmost/exaggerated
fear/condition of
19. hypno/tic
_____ ___
CF S
sleep/pertaining to
20. eu/phor/ia
__ ____ __
P R S
good or normal/carry or
bear/condition of
21. para/somn/ia
____ _____ __
P
R S
abnormal/sleep/
condition of
22. narco/lepsy
_____ _____
CF
S
stupor (sleep)/seizure
23. stereo/tax/y
_____ ___ _
CF R S
three dimensional or
solid/order or
coordination/condition
or process of
24. hemi/paresis
____ _______
P
S
half/slight paralysis
25. neur/asthenia
____ ________
R
S
nerve/weakness
26. myelo/path/y
_____ ____ __
CF R S
spinal cord/disease/
condition or process of
27. intra/crani/al
____ ____ ___
R S
P
within/skull/pertaining
to
28. a/phas/ia
_ ____ __
P R S
without/speech/
condition of
29. schizo/phren/ia
_____ ______ __
CF
R
S
split/mind/condition of
30. cerebro/spin/al
______ ____ __
CF
R S
cerebrum/spine/
pertaining to
31. meningitis
32. diskectomy or
discectomy
33. atopognosis
34. Parkinson disease
35. Babinski sign or reflex
36. paresthesia
37. coma
38. convulsion
39. spina bifida
40. astereognosis
41. electroencephalogram
42. spondylosyndesis
43. craniectomy
44. cerebral atherosclerosis
45. hyperesthesia
46. dysphasia
47. analgesia
48. i
49. h
50. j
51. a
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440
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
81.
82.
MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
f
g
e
b
c
d
computed tomography
magnetic resonance
imaging
positron-emission
tomography
multiple sclerosis
central nervous system
cerebral palsy
transient ischemic
attack
electroencephalogram
deep tendon reflexes
single-photon emission
computed tomography
polysomnography
amyotrophic lateral
sclerosis
peripheral nervous
system
cerebrospinal fluid
magnetic resonance
angiography
cerebrovascular accident
encephal/o
kinesi/o
phas/o
somat/o
myel/o
thym/o
esthesi/o
top/o
hypn/o
83.
84.
85.
86.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
92.
93.
94.
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
101.
102.
103.
104.
105.
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
113.
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
gnos/o
pons
cerebellum
spinal
callosum
thalamus
cranium
meninges
cerebrum
Alzheimer
schizophrenia
polysomnography
paranoia
quadriplegia
atopognosis
dementia
epilepsy
catatonia
delusion
hallucination
poliomyelitis
epilepsy
euphoria
cerebellum
delusion
syncope
autism
psychosis
cerebrum
paranoia
j
d
h
f
a
e
b
i
121. g
122. c
123. generalized anxiety
disorder
124. attention-deficit/
hyperactivity disorder
125. obsessive-compulsive
disorder
126. electroconvulsive therapy
127. bipolar disorder
128. posttraumatic stress
disorder
129. c
130. a
131. f
132. e
133. g
134. b
135. d
136. neurosis
137. seasonal affective
disorder
138. phobia
139. dysthymia
140. neuroleptic agents
141. psychosis
142. generalized anxiety
disorder (GAD)
143. manic depression or
bipolar disorder (BD)
144. panic disorder (PD)
145. psychotropic drugs
146. c
147. e
148. b
149. d
150. a
ANSWERS TO MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 8-1: Outpatient History and Physical, Neurologic Services
1. b
2. c
3. d
4. a
5. c
6. e
Medical Record 8-2: For Additional Study
See CD-ROM for answers.
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CHAPTER
9
Endocrine
System
✓ Chapter 9 Checklist
LOCATION
Read Chapter 9: Endocrine System and complete all programmed review
segments.
pages 441-465
Review the starter set of flash cards and term components related to Chapter 9. back of book
Complete the Chapter 9 Practice Exercises and Medical Record Analysis 9-1.
pages 470-475
Complete Medical Record Analysis 9-2 For Additional Study.
pages 476-477
Complete the Chapter 9 Exercises by Chapter.
CD-ROM
Complete the Chapter 9 Review and Test Modes.
CD-ROM
Review the Pronunciation Drill for the Chapter 9 terms.
CD-ROM
ENDOCRINE SYSTEM OVERVIEW
The endocrine system secretes hormones and other substances from ductless glands and other
structures (Fig. 9-1). Figure 9-2 describes these functions.
Self-Instruction: Combining Forms
Study the following:
COMBINING FORM
MEANING
aden/o
gland
adren/o, adrenal/o
adrenal gland
andr/o
male
crin/o
to secrete
441
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Pineal body
(Hypothalamus - CNS controller
of endocrine system)
Pituitary gland
Parathyroid glands
Thyroid gland
Thymus gland
(Trachea)
(Heart)
(Lungs)
Adrenal glands
Islets of Langerhans
of the pancreas
Ovaries in
female
(Kidneys)
(Uterus)
(Labels in parentheses indicate
organs shown for orientation only.
These are not endocrine system
organs.)
Testes
FIGURE 9-1 ■
The endocrine system.
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CHAPTER 9 • ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Endocrine gland
Secretions
443
Function
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
Stimulates secretion from thyroid gland
Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
Stimulates secretion from adrenal cortex
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Initiates growth of ovarian follicle; stimulates
secretion of estrogen in females and sperm
production in males
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Causes ovulation; stimulates secretion of
progesterone by corpus luteum; causes
secretion of testosterone in testes
Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)
Affects skin pigmentation
Growth hormone (GH)
Influences growth
Prolactin (lactogenic hormone)
Stimulates breast development and milk
production during pregnancy
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
Influences the absorption of water by
kidney tubules
Oxytocin
Influences uterine contraction
Pineal body
Melatonin
Serotonin
Exact function unknown; effects onset of puberty
Serves as a precursor to melatonin
Thyroid gland
Triiodothyronine (T3), thyroxine (T4)
Regulate metabolism
Calcitonin
Regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism
Parathyroid glands
Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism
Pancreas
(islets of
Langerhans)
Insulin, glucagon
Regulates carbohydrate/sugar metabolism
Thymus gland
Thymosin
Regulates immune response
Adrenal glands
(suprarenal glands)
Steroid hormones:
glucocorticoids, mineral corticosteroids,
androgens
Regulate carbohydrate metabolism and salt
and water balance; some effect on sexual
characteristics.
Epinephrine, norepinephrine
Affect sympathetic nervous system in
stress response
Ovaries
Estrogen, progesterone
Responsible for the development of female
secondary sex characteristics and the regulation
of reproduction
Testes
Testosterone
Affects masculinization and reproduction
* Anterior pituitary
(adenohypophysis)
* Posterior pituitary
(neurohypophysis)
* Release of hormones in pituitary is controlled by hypothalamus
FIGURE 9-2 ■
Functions of the endocrine glands.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
COMBINING FORM
MEANING
dips/o
thirst
gluc/o, glucos/o, glyc/o
glucose (sugar)
hormon/o
hormone (an urging on)
ket/o, keton/o
ketone bodies
pancreat/o
pancreas
thym/o
thymus gland
thyr/o, thyroid/o
thyroid gland (shield)
Programmed Review: Combining Forms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
aden/o
9.1
-oma
together with the suffix referring to a tumor, _________, to create the
adenoma
term for a tumor of glandular tissue: _______________.
adrenal
9.2
The combining form meaning gland is ____________. Put this
The combining forms adren/o and adrenal/o mean _____________
gland. The prefix ad- used in these combining forms gives a clue that
near
the gland is to, toward, or _________ the kidney. Using adren/o and the
enlargement
suffix -megaly, meaning ___________________, the term describing an
adrenomegaly
enlargement of the adrenal gland is ____________________. Using the
combining form adrenal/o and the suffix -itis, meaning
inflammation
____________________, the term describing an inflammation of the
adrenalitis
adrenal gland is __________________.
andr/o
9.3
form
morph/o, the combining form meaning _________, and -ous, the suffix
pertaining to
meaning ________________ ____, the term pertaining to male form or
andromorphous
appearance is ___________________.
secrete
9.4
within
the prefix endo- means _______________. Thus, the medical term for the
endocrine
_________________ system refers to secreting within. The endocrine
The combining form meaning male is ___________. Linked to
The combining form crin/o means to ______________. Recall that
system secretes hormones and other substances from ductless glands.
dips/o
9.5
many
that the prefix poly- means ___________ or excessive, and that the
condition of
suffix -ia means a ________________ ____. Thus, the term for a
polydipsia
condition of excessive thirst is __________________.
The combining form meaning thirst is ____________. Recall
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CHAPTER 9 • ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
ANSWERS
REVIEW
9.6
glucos/o
445
The three combining terms for sugar are glyc/o, gluc/o, and
______________. Glucose is a form of sugar that is found in the blood
and used for energy. The suffix -genic pertains to origin or
production
_________________. Combined with gluc/o, the term for something
glucogenic
giving rise to or producing glucose is therefore ___________________.
hyper-
From the combining form glyc/o and the prefix ____________, meaning
too much or excessive, and the suffix -emia, referring to a
blood
_____________ condition, comes the term hyperglycemia, a condition
glucose or sugar
of too much _______________ in the blood.
hormon/o
9.7
The combining form for hormone is _______________, from a
Greek word meaning “an urging on.” (A hormone is a substance that
adjective
urges an action to occur.) Hormonal is the _________________ form.
9.8
The two combining forms meaning ketone bodies are ket/o and
keton/o
______________. Ketone bodies are chemical substances resulting from
ur/o
metabolism. Recall that the combining form for urine is ________, and
condition of
that the suffix -ia means a _______________ ____. Therefore, the term
ketonuria
for a condition of ketone bodies in the urine is __________________.
pancreat/o
9.9
-itis
Recall that the suffix for inflammation is ___________. The term for
pancreatitis
inflammation of the pancreas is therefore ____________________.
pancreatectomy
Excision of the pancreas is termed _________________________.
thymus
9.10 The combining form thym/o means the _____________ gland.
thymoma
A tumor of thymic tissue is called a ________________.
The combining form meaning the pancreas is ________________.
9.11 The two combining forms meaning thyroid gland are
thyr/o, thyroid/o
_____________ and _________________. The Greek term at the
origin of these combining forms means shield, and the thyroid
shield
gland is so named because it is resembles a _____________. The
pertaining to
suffix -ic means _________________ ______. Combined with tox/o,
poison
a combining form meaning ______________, and thyr/o, meaning
thyroid gland
_________________ _____________, the term pertaining to poison
thyrotoxic
of the thyroid gland is ___________________. Thyroiditis
inflammation, thyroid
describes an ______________________ of the _____________ gland.
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Self-Instruction: Anatomic Terms
Study the following:
GLAND OR HORMONE
LOCATION OR FUNCTION
adrenal glands
ă-drēnăl glanz
suprarenal glands
sūpră-rēnăl glanz
located on the superior surface of each kidney; the
adrenal cortex secretes steroid hormones, and the
adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine
steroid hormones
stēroyd hōrmōnz
hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex
glucocorticoids
glū-kō-kōrti-koydz
regulate carbohydrate metabolism and have
antiinflammatory effects; cortisol is the most significant
glucocorticoid
mineral corticosteroids
minĕr-ăl kōrti-kō-stēroydz
maintain salt and water balance
androgens
andrō-jenz
influence development and maintenance of male sex
characteristics, for example, facial hair, deep voice
catecholamines
kat-ĕ-kolă-mēnz
hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla that affect the
sympathetic nervous system in stress response
epinephrine
ep-i-nef rin
adrenaline
ă-drenă-lin
secreted in response to fear or physical injury
norepinephrine
nōrep-i-nef rin
secreted in response to hypotension and physical stress
ovaries
ōvă-rēz
located on both sides of the uterus in the female pelvis;
secrete estrogen and progesterone
estrogen
estrō-jen
responsible for the development of female secondary sex
characteristics
progesterone
prō-jestĕr-ōn
regulates uterine conditions during pregnancy
islets of Langerhans of the
pancreas
ı̄lets of lahngĕr-hahnz of the
pankrē-as
endocrine tissue within the pancreas (the organ located
behind the stomach, in front of the 1st and 2nd lumbar
vertebrae); secretes insulin and glucagon
insulin
insŭ-lin
a hormone secreted by the beta cells of the islets of
Langerhans that is responsible for regulating the
metabolism of glucose (insulin island)
glucagon
glūkă-gon
a hormone secreted by the alpha cells of the islets of
Langerhans that serves to regulate carbohydrate
metabolism by raising blood sugar
parathyroid glands
par-ă-thı̄royd glanz
parathyroid hormone
(PTH)
par-ă-thı̄royd hōrmōn
two paired glands located on the posterior aspect of the
thyroid gland in the neck; secrete parathyroid hormone
regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism
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CHAPTER 9 • ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
447
GLAND OR HORMONE
LOCATION OR FUNCTION
pineal gland
pinē-ăl gland
located in the center of the brain; secretes melatonin and
serotonin
melatonin
mel-ă-tōnin
exact function unknown; affects the onset of puberty
serotonin
sēr-ō-tōnin
a neurotransmitter that serves as the precursor to
melatonin
pituitary gland
pi-t ūi-tār-ē gland
hypophysis
hı̄-pofi-sis
anterior pituitary
an-tērē-ōr pi-t ūi-tār-ē
adenohypophysis
adĕ-nō-hı̄-pofi-sis
located at the base of the brain; considered the master
gland as it secretes hormones that regulate the function
of other glands, such as the thyroid gland, adrenal
glands, ovaries, and testicles; the anterior pituitary secretes
thyroid-stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotropic
hormone, follicle-stimulating hormone, luteinizing
hormone, melanocyte-stimulating hormone, growth
hormone, and prolactin; the posterior pituitary releases
antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin
anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
thyroid-stimulating
hormone (TSH)
thı̄royd-stim-yūlā-ting
hōrmōn
stimulates secretion from thyroid gland
adrenocorticotropic
hormone (ACTH)
ă-drēnō-kōrti-kō-trōpik
hōrmōn
stimulates secretion from adrenal cortex
follicle-stimulating
hormone (FSH)
foli-kĕl-stim-yūlā-ting hōrmōn
initiates the growth of ovarian follicle; stimulates the
secretion of estrogen in females and the production of
sperm in males
luteinizing hormone (LH)
lū-tē-nı̄zing hōrmōn
causes ovulation; stimulates the secretion of progesterone
by the corpus luteum; causes the secretion of testosterone
in the testes
melanocyte-stimulating
hormone (MSH)
melă-nō-sı̄t-stim-yūlā-ting
hōrmōn
affects skin pigmentation
growth hormone (GH)
grōth hōrmōn
influences growth
prolactin
prō-laktin
lactogenic hormone
lak-tō-jenik hōrmōn
stimulates breast development and milk production
during pregnancy
posterior pituitary
pos-tērē-ŏr pi-tūi-tār-ē
neurohypophysis
nūrō-hı̄-pofi-sis
posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
GLAND OR HORMONE
LOCATION OR FUNCTION
antidiuretic hormone
(ADH)
antē-dı̄-yū-retik hōrmōn
influences the absorption of water by kidney tubules
oxytocin
ok-sē-tōsin
influences uterine contraction
testes
testēz
located on both sides within the scrotum in the male;
secrete testosterone
testosterone
tes-tostĕ-rōn
affects masculinization and reproduction
thymus gland
thı̄mŭs gland
located in the mediastinal cavity anterior to and above
the heart; secretes thymosin
thymosin
thı̄mō-sin
regulates immune response
thyroid gland
thı̄royd gland
located in front of the neck; secretes triiodothyronine (T3),
thyroxine (T4), and calcitonin
triiodothyronine (T3)
trı̄-ı̄ō-dō-thı̄rō-nēn
thyroxine (T4)
thı̄-roksēn
known as the thyroid hormones; regulate metabolism
calcitonin
kal-si-tōnin
regulates calcium and phosphorus metabolism
Programmed Review: Anatomic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
adrenal
9.12 The suprarenal, or ______________, glands are located above
the kidneys. The term renal refers to the kidneys, and the prefix
above
supra- means _____________. These glands secrete steroid hormones
and other hormones.
9.13 Steroid hormones have several functions, including an effect
corticoids
on sex characteristics. They include gluco_____________ and mineral
steroids
cortico_____________. Androgens are steroids that stimulate the
male
development of __________ sex characteristics.
suprarenal
9.14 Also secreted by the adrenal, or ________________, glands are
norepinephrine
epinephrine and ______________________, which are hormones that
nervous
affect the ________________ system in a stress response of the body.
For example, epinephrine, also called adrenaline, stimulates the heart
and breathing rates.
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CHAPTER 9 • ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
ANSWERS
449
REVIEW
9.15 The ovaries in women are both reproductive and
endocrine
______________ organs, because they produce eggs for reproduction
secrete
and also ______________ hormones. The hormones secreted by the
progesterone
two ovaries are estrogen and ___________________, which stimulate
female
the development of ______________ sex characteristics and help to
regulate reproduction.
9.16 The islets of Langerhans are groups of cells in the
pancreas
________________, an organ that is located behind the stomach. The
glucagon
pancreas secretes insulin and _______________, which help to regulate
carbohydrate and sugar metabolism. The condition diabetes mellitus
involves abnormal utilization of insulin. The term glucagon is made
gluc/o
from the combining form for sugar: ____________.
alongside
9.17 Recall that the prefix para- means ___________________
of
____. Located alongside of the thyroid glands in the neck
parathyroid
are the _____________________ glands. They secrete
parathyroid
__________________ hormone (PTH), which regulates calcium
and phosphorus metabolism.
pineal
9.18 Located in the center of the brain is the ____________ gland,
serotonin
which secretes the neurotransmitter ________________. Also secreted
melatonin
by the pineal is the substance _______________. The exact function
of melatonin is unknown, but it affects the onset of puberty.
9.19 The pituitary gland, located at the base of the brain, secretes a
hypophysis
long list of hormones. It is also called the _______________, a term
below
using the prefix hypo-, meaning ____________ (or deficient), because it
hangs below the hypothalamus part of the brain. The front subdivision
anterior
of the pituitary gland is called the ______________ pituitary, or the
posterior
adenohypophysis. The rear subdivision is called the ________________
pituitary, or the neurohypophysis.
9.20 The anterior pituitary secretes seven hormones that are often
thyroid
identified by their abbreviations. TSH is _____________-stimulating
corticotropic
hormone. ACTH is adreno_________________ hormone. FSH is
follicle
_______________-stimulating hormone. LH is luteinizing
hormone
________________.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
growth
9.21 Also secreted by the anterior pituitary are _____________
stimulating
hormone (GH) and melanocyte-__________________ hormone (MSH).
The hormone that stimulates breast development and milk during
pregnancy (from the combining form lact/o meaning milk and the
before, prolactin
prefix pro- meaning ____________) is called _________________.
neurohypophysis
9.22 The posterior pituitary, also called the _____________________,
antidiuretic
secretes two hormones. ADH, or ________________ hormone,
influences the absorption of water in the kidney. (Note that diuretic
drugs stimulate the body to excrete water; thus, the term antidiuretic
promotes
would involve an action that ________________ the retention of water).
9.23 The other hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary is
oxytocin
________________, which stimulates uterine contractions during
labor (childbirth).
testes
9.24 In males, located within the scrotum are the ___________,
which are two glands that secrete a hormone affecting masculinization
testosterone
and reproduction: ____________________. The singular of testes is
testis
____________. The testes are also called the testicles.
9.25 Located in the mediastinal cavity above and anterior to the
thymus
heart is the _______________ gland. This gland secretes thymosin,
which regulates the immune response.
thyroid
9.26 From the combining form thyr/o, the _____________ gland is
located in front of the neck and secretes three hormones.
thyroxine
Triiodothyronine (T3) and ________________ (T4) regulate metabolism.
calcitonin
The third hormone, called ________________, regulates calcium
metabolism and is from the same combining form as calcium.
Self-Instruction: Symptomatic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
exophthalmos or
exophthalmus (see Fig. 9-6, B)
ek-sof-thalmos or ek-sof-thalmŭs
protrusion of one or both eyeballs, often because of thyroid
dysfunction or a tumor behind the eyeball
glucosuria
glū-kō-syūrē-ă
glycosuria
glı̄kō-sūrē-ǎ
glucose (sugar) in the urine
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CHAPTER 9 • ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
451
TERM
MEANING
hirsutism
hı̆rsū-tizm
shaggy; an excessive growth of hair, especially in unusual
places (e.g., a woman with a beard)
hypercalcemia
hı̄pĕr-kal-sēmē-ă
an abnormally high level of calcium in the blood
hypocalcemia
hı̄pō-kal-sēmē-ă
an abnormally low level of calcium in the blood
hyperglycemia
hı̄pĕr-glı̄-sēmē-ă
high blood sugar
hypoglycemia
hı̄pō-glı̄-sēmē-ă
low blood sugar
hyperkalemia
hı̄pĕr-kă-lēmē-ă
an abnormally high level of potassium in the blood
(kalium potassium)
hypokalemia
hı̄pō-kă-lēmē-ă
deficient level of potassium in the blood
hypersecretion
hı̄pĕr-se-krēshŭn
abnormally increased secretion
hyposecretion
hı̄pō-se-krēshŭn
abnormally decreased secretion
ketosis
kē-tōsis
ketoacidosis
kētō-as-i-dōsis
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
dī-ă-bĕtı̆k kētō-as-ı̆-dōsı̆s
presence of an abnormal amount of ketone bodies
(acetone, beta-hydroxybutyric acid, and acetoacetic acid)
in the blood and urine indicating an abnormal use of
carbohydrates, such as in uncontrolled diabetes and
starvation (keto alter)
metabolism
mĕ-tabō-lizm
all chemical processes in the body that result in growth,
generation of energy, elimination of waste, and other body
functions
polydipsia
pol-ē-dipsē-ă
excessive thirst
polyuria
pol-ē-yūrē-ă
excessive urination
Programmed Review: Symptomatic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
9.27 One of the combining forms for eye is ophthalm/o.
away
Recall that the prefix ex- means ________ or out. The term
for the condition in which one or both eyeballs protrude,
usually because of a thyroid dysfunction, is
exophthalmos or exophthalmus
_________________________.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
9.28 From the Latin word meaning shaggy (hirsutus), the
term for an excessive growth of hair in an unusual place is
hirsutism
________________. The suffix -ism means
condition of
________________ _____.
9.29 Using the same suffix (-ism), though not in reference
to a medical condition in this case, the term for all chemical
processes in the body involving growth and energy is
metabolism
___________________. The prefix meta- means beyond,
after
___________, or change. In this instance, metabolism refers to
changes occurring in those chemical processes.
9.30 Recall that the combining form ur/o means
urine, condition
___________, and that the suffix -ia means ______________
of
_____. The condition of glucose (sugar) in the urine is
glucosuria
called ____________________ or glycosuria.
many
9.31 The prefix poly- means ____________. The
condition in which one urinates excessively many times
polyuria
is called _________________.
9.32 Using the same prefix (-poly) and suffix (-ia) as seen
earlier, the term for the condition of excessive thirst
polydipsia
is __________________.
9.33 The most common prefix meaning above or
hyper-
excessive is ____________. The opposite prefix, meaning
hypo-
below or deficient, is ___________. These prefixes are used
in many symptomatic terms related to levels of secretions
and substances in the blood that are influenced by
endocrine functions. Abnormally increased secretion is
hypersecretion
called ____________________, whereas abnormally
hyposecretion
decreased secretion is called ____________________.
9.34 Recall that the suffix for a blood condition is
-emia
__________. An abnormally high blood level of calcium is
hypercalcemia
called _____________________, and an abnormally low
hypocalcemia
blood level of calcium is called ______________________.
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CHAPTER 9 • ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
ANSWERS
453
REVIEW
9.35 An abnormally low level of blood sugar is called
hypoglycemia
__________________, whereas an abnormally high blood
hyperglycemia
sugar level is called _____________________.
9.36 From the Latin root kalium for potassium, the term
for an abnormally low level of potassium in the blood is
hypokalemia
__________________, whereas an abnormally high level of
hyperkalemia
potassium in the blood is ____________________.
9.37 The suffix -osis means condition or
increase
________________. The condition of an increased presence
ketosis
of ketone bodies is called _______________, or
keto
_______acidosis. The abbreviation DKA refers to diabetic
ketoacidosis
____________________.
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
ADRENAL GLANDS
Cushing syndrome (Fig. 9-3)
kushing sindrōm
a collection of signs and symptoms caused by an excessive
level of cortisol hormone; may be due to excessive production
by the adrenal gland (often because of a tumor), or, more
commonly, occurs as a side effect of treatment with
glucocorticoid (steroid) hormones, such as prednisone for
asthma, rheumatoid arthritis, lupus, or other inflammatory
diseases; symptoms include upper body obesity, facial
puffiness (moon-shaped appearance), hyperglycemia,
weakness, thin and easily bruised skin with stria (stretch
marks), hypertension, and osteoporosis
FIGURE 9-3 ■ Cushing syndrome. A patient with
the characteristic upper body obesity and facial
puffiness with a moon-shaped appearance is shown.
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TERM
MEANING
adrenal virilism
ă-drēnăl viri-lizm
excessive output of the adrenal secretion of androgen (male
sex hormone) in adult women caused by a tumor or
hyperplasia; evidenced by amenorrhea (absence of
menstruation), acne, hirsutism, and deepening of the voice
(virilis masculine)
PANCREAS
diabetes mellitus (DM)
dı̄-ă-bētēz meli-tŭs
metabolic disorder caused by the absence or insufficient
production of insulin secreted by the pancreas, resulting in
hyperglycemia and glucosuria (diabetes passing through;
mellitus sugar)
type 1 diabetes mellitus
tı̄p 1 dı̄-ă-bētēz meli-tŭs
diabetes in which no beta-cell production of insulin occurs
and the patient is dependent on insulin for survival
type 2 diabetes mellitus
tı̄p 2 dı̄-ă-bētēz meli-tŭs
diabetes in which either the body produces insufficient
insulin or insulin resistance (a defective use of the insulin
that is produced) occurs; the patient usually is not dependent
on insulin for survival
hyperinsulinism
hı̄pĕr-insū-lin-izm
a condition resulting from an excessive amount of insulin
in the blood that draws sugar out of the bloodstream,
resulting in hypoglycemia, fainting, and convulsions; often
caused by an overdose of insulin or by a tumor of the
pancreas
pancreatitis
pankrē-ă-tı̄tis
inflammation of the pancreas
PARATHYROID GLANDS
hyperparathyroidism
hı̄pĕr-par-ă-thı̄royd-izm
hypersecretion of the parathyroid glands, usually caused by
a tumor
hypoparathyroidism
hı̄pō-par-ă-thı̄royd-izm
hyposecretion of the parathyroid glands
PITUITARY GLAND (HYPOPHYSIS)
acromegaly (Fig. 9-4)
ak-rō-megă-lē
disease characterized by enlarged features, especially of the
face and hands, caused by hypersecretion of the pituitary
growth hormone after puberty, when normal bone growth
has stopped; most often caused by a pituitary tumor
pituitary dwarfism (Fig. 9-5)
pi-tūi-tār-ē dwōrfizm
a condition of congenital hyposecretion of growth hormone
that slows growth and causes short, yet proportionate,
stature (not affecting intelligence); often treated during
childhood with growth hormone; other forms of dwarfism
are most often caused by genetic defects
pituitary gigantism
pi-tūi-tār-ē jı̄gan-tizm
a condition of hypersecretion of growth hormone during
childhood bone development that leads to an abnormal
overgrowth of bone, especially of the long bones; most
often caused by a pituitary tumor
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FIGURE 9-4 ■ Enlarged hands and
facial features in patient with acromegaly.
FIGURE 9-5 ■ Normal male (extreme right) and three types of dwarfism. On the
extreme left is a child who has failed to grow because of congenital absence of the
thyroid gland (cretinism). The next pair of dwarfs have entirely normal proportions
but are half-normal in size (pituitary dwarfism). The next pair to the right show
disproportionately short extremities but normal-sized trunk and head (disproportionate dwarfism because of gene defect).
455
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FIGURE 9-6 ■
Hyperthyroidism. A. Patient with goiter. B. Patient with exophthalmos.
TERM
MEANING
THYROID GLAND
goiter (Fig. 9-6)
goytĕr
enlargement of the thyroid gland caused by thyroid
dysfunction, tumor, lack of iodine in the diet, or
inflammation ( goiter throat)
hyperthyroidism (see Fig. 9-6)
hı̄-pĕr-thı̄royd-izm
a condition of hypersecretion of the thyroid gland
characterized by nervousness, weight loss, rapid pulse,
protrusion of the eyeball (exophthalmos), goiter, etc.; see
Comparison of Symptoms in table on page 457
Graves disease
grāvz dizēz
the most common form of hyperthyroidism; caused by an
autoimmune defect that creates antibodies that stimulate
the overproduction of thyroid hormones; exophthalmos is
a featured characteristic
hypothyroidism
hı̄pō-thı̄royd-izm
a condition of hyposecretion of the thyroid gland causing
low thyroid levels in the blood that result in sluggishness,
slow pulse, and, often, obesity; see Comparison of
Symptoms in table on page 457
myxedema
mik-sĕ-dēmă
advanced hypothyroidism in adults characterized by
sluggishness, slow pulse, puffiness in the hands and face,
and dry skin (myx mucus)
cretinism (see Fig. 9-5)
krētin-izm
condition of congenital hypothyroidism in children that
results in a lack of mental development and dwarfed physical
stature; the thyroid gland is either congenitally absent or
imperfectly developed
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457
COMPARISON OF SYMPTOMS: HYPERTHYROIDISM VERSUS
HYPOTHYROIDISM
HYPERTHYROIDISM
HYPOTHYROIDISM
Restless, nervous, irritable, fine
tremor, insomnia
Lethargic, poor memory, slow,
expressionless
Fine, silky hair with hair loss
Dry, brittle hair with hair loss
Warm, moist skin
Pale, cold, dry, and scaling skin
Increased perspiration
Decreased perspiration
Fast heart rate (tachycardia)
Slow heart rate (bradycardia)
Weight loss
Weight gain
Protrusion of the eyeball (exophthalmos)
Edema of the face and eyelids
Absence of menses (amenorrhea)
Heavy menses (menorrhagia)
Diffuse goiter
Thick tongue, slow speech
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
inflammation
9.38 Recall that the suffix -itis means ____________________.
pancreatitis
Inflammation of the pancreas is called __________________.
9.39 Most endocrine problems involve excessive or
deficient secretion of hormones or the body’s use of those
hormones. The condition caused by the absence or
insufficient production of insulin secreted by the pancreas
high
resulting in hyperglycemia (________ blood sugar) and
sugar
glycosuria (___________ in the urine) is called
diabetes mellitus
________________ _______________ (DM). Patients with
1, no
type ____ diabetes mellitus produce _____ insulin and
insulin
thereby are dependent on ____________ for survival.
2
Patients with type ____ diabetes mellitus produce insulin,
resistance
but not enough, or have insulin _________________
(a defective use of the insulin that is produced).
hyper-
9.40 Recall that the prefix for excessive is ____________,
condition
and that the suffix -ism refers to a ________________
of
_____. The condition of having excessive insulin is called
hyperinsulinism
_____________________. This condition results in low
hypoglycemia
blood sugar, which is called ____________________.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
9.41 The terms for diagnostic conditions are formed from
the combining form for the gland’s name with the
prefixes for deficient or excessive, referring to the gland’s
secretion. The condition of hyposecretion of the
hypoparathyroidism
parathyroid glands is called __________________________,
and hypersecretion of these glands is called
hyperparathyroidism
__________________________.
9.42 Similarly, hyposecretion of the thyroid gland is called
hypothyroidism
_______________________, and hypersecretion of the
hyperthyroidism
thyroid gland is called _________________________.
The most common form of hyperthyroidism is called
Graves
______________ disease. A featured characteristic of Graves
disease is the protrusion of the eyeballs, known
exophthalmos or exophthalmus
as _______________________.
9.43 Congenital hypothyroidism in children, characterized
by reduced stature and poor mental development, is
cretinism
called __________________.
9.44 The term edema refers to a swollen body area caused
by fluid retention. This root is used in the term for a form
of advanced hypothyroidism in adults that involves swollen
hands and face along with other symptoms:
myxedema
__________________.
9.45 The Latin word guttur means throat. The condition
of an enlarged thyroid gland caused by thyroid dysfunction,
tumor, or other causes, and characterized by the appearance
goiter
of a swollen throat is _______________.
9.46 Cortisol is a glucocorticoid hormone that is secreted
by the adrenal gland. Excessive levels of cortisol, either
caused by tumor or as a side effect of treatment with steroid
hormones, result in a collection of signs and symptoms
Cushing
known as ______________ syndrome.
9.47 The adrenal glands also secrete a male sex hormone
that is named using the combining form for male:
andr/o, androgen
____________. This hormone is called _________________.
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CHAPTER 9 • ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
ANSWERS
REVIEW
Hypersecretion of androgen in adult women causes a
condition that is named, in part, from the Latin word for
adrenal
masculine (virilis). This condition is called ______________
virilism
_______________.
9.48 Recall that the pituitary gland produces a number
of hormones, including growth hormone. The condition
of congenital hyposecretion of growth hormone, marked
by small, but proportionate, stature, is called pituitary
dwarfism
_________________.
9.49 The combining form acr/o refers to the extremities.
Recall that the suffix -megaly means
enlargement
___________________. The condition characterized by
enlarged hands and face resulting from pituitary
hypersecretion of growth hormone after puberty,
when normal bone growth has stopped, is termed
acromegaly
_______________. The condition of hypersecretion of
pituitary growth hormone during childhood bone
development that leads to an abnormal overgrowth of
pituitary
bone, especially of the long bones, is called _____________
gigantism
_________________. Acromegaly occurs in adulthood, and
childhood
gigantism occurs in __________________. Each is a result
hyper
of _________secretion of pituitary growth hormone, most
tumor
often caused by a ___________.
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
Study the following:
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
LABORATORY TESTING
blood sugar (BS)
blŭd shu-găr
blood glucose
bl ŭd gl ūkōs
measurement of the level of sugar (glucose) in the blood
fasting blood sugar (FBS)
fast-ing bl ǔd shu-gǎr
measurement of blood sugar level after fasting (not
eating) for 12 hours
459
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
postprandial blood sugar
(PPBS)
pōst-prandē-ăl blŭd shu-găr
measurement of blood sugar level after a meal
(commonly 2 hours later)
glucose tolerance test (GTT)
glūkōs tolĕr-ănts test
measurement of the body’s ability to metabolize
carbohydrates by administering a prescribed amount of
glucose after a fasting period, then measuring blood and
urine for glucose levels every hour thereafter for 4 to 6
hours
glycohemoglobin
glı̄kō-hē-mō-glōbin
glycosylated hemoglobin
(HbAlc)
glı̄kō-si-lāt-ĕd hē-mō-glōbin
a molecule (fraction) in hemoglobin, the level of which rises
in the blood as a result of an increased level of blood
sugar; a common blood test used in diagnosing and
treating diabetes
electrolyte panel
ē-lektrō-lı̄t pănl
measurement of the level of specific ions (sodium,
potassium, and chloride) along with carbon dioxide (CO2)
(for indirect measure of bicarbonate ion) in the blood;
electrolytes are essential for maintaining water balance
(hydration) as well as nerve, muscle, and heart activity
thyroid function study
thiroyd f ŭnkshŭn stŭdē
measurement of thyroid hormone levels in blood plasma
to determine the efficiency of glandular secretions,
including T3, T4, and TSH
urine sugar and ketone
studies
y ūrin shu-gar and kē tōn stǔdēz
chemical tests to determine the presence of sugar or
ketone bodies in urine; used as a screen for diabetes
(Note: production of a urine specimen for these tests
requires one to urinate or void [empty the bladder])
FIGURE 9-7 ■ Thyroid uptake and image detecting
the presence of multiple nodules (arrows).
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CHAPTER 9 • ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
TEST OR PROCEDURE
461
EXPLANATION
IMAGING PROCEDURES
computed tomography (CT)
kom-py ūtĕd tō-mogră-f ē
CT of the head is used to obtain a transverse (horizontal)
view of the pituitary gland
magnetic resonance imaging
(MRI)
măg-netik rezō-nǎnts imă-jing
nonionizing images of magnetic resonance are useful in
identifying abnormalities of the pituitary gland, pancreas,
adrenal glands, and thyroid glands
sonography
sŏ-nogră-f ē
sonographic images are used to identify endocrine
pathology, such as with thyroid ultrasound
thyroid uptake and image
(Fig. 9-7)
thı̄ royd ŭptāk and imăj
radionuclide (nuclear medicine) scan of the thyroid to
visualize the radioactive accumulation of previously
injected isotopes to detect thyroid nodules or tumors
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
ANSWERS
REVIEW
9.50 Several laboratory tests are used to diagnose problems in the
endocrine system. Because diabetes is a serious and common disorder,
blood sugar levels are particularly important for diagnostic purposes.
Measurement of the level of sugar (glucose) in the blood is simply
glucose
called a blood sugar (BS), or blood _______________.
9.51 A measurement of the blood sugar level after a 12-hour fast is
fasting blood sugar
called a _______________ _____________ ___________ (FBS).
post-
9.52 The prefix meaning after or behind is ___________. The Latin
word prandium means a meal. The medical adjective formed from
these two parts is used when referring to a blood sugar test performed
postprandial
approximately 2 hours after a meal: __________________
blood sugar
_______________ _______________ (PPBS).
9.53 A more complex blood sugar test measures the body’s
ability to metabolize carbohydrates. Glucose is administered
after a fasting period, and blood and urine glucose levels are
measured hourly thereafter to determine how well the body
glucose
tolerates this glucose. This is called a _______________
tolerance test
__________________ __________ (GTT).
9.54 Another type of blood sugar test that examines the effect of
glycohemoglobin
blood sugar on hemoglobin is called a _____________________ test.
HbAlc
This test is also known as a glycosylated hemoglobin (___________) test.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
9.55 The Greek word lytos means soluble (as in any substance that
dissolves in water or blood). Some ions conduct electricity when they
are dissolved. These substances are called electrolytes. Proper electrolyte
levels are essential for balanced body function. Measurement of the
level of specific ions, such as sodium and potassium, are part of an
electrolyte
_________________ panel.
9.56 The laboratory study that measures thyroid hormone levels in
the blood to determine how well the thyroid is functioning is called a
thyroid function
_______________ _______________ study.
9.57 Chemical measurements of sugar and ketones in the urine,
urine
which are used as a screen for diabetes, are called __________
sugar, ketone
____________ and _______________ studies. Production of a urine
void
specimen for these tests requires one to urinate or __________ (empty
the bladder).
9.58 In addition to these laboratory tests, several imaging
procedures are used to diagnose endocrine disorders. The type
of x-ray imaging using a computer to create a transverse view,
computed
such as of the pituitary gland, is called _________________
tomography
_________________ (CT).
magnetic
9.59 Nonionizing images using ________________
resonance imaging
__________________ ________________ (MRI) may be used to identify
abnormalities in several glands.
son/o
9.60 Recall that the combining form meaning sound is __________.
recording
The suffix -graphy refers to the process of ________________. The
imaging modality using very high sound frequencies to record images
sonography
of the endocrine glands is called ____________________.
9.61 A test of the thyroid involves injection of radioactive isotopes
that are taken up in the thyroid, leading to production of a nuclear
thyroid uptake
image. This is called a _______________ _____________ and
image
_____________.
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Self-Instruction: Operative Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
adrenalectomy
ă-drē-năl-ekt ŏ-mē
excision of the adrenal glands
hypophysectomy
hı̄pof-i-sektŏ-mē
excision of the pituitary gland
pancreatectomy
pankrē-ă-tektŏ-mē
excision of the pancreas
parathyroidectomy
pară-thı̄-roy-dektŏ-mē
excision of the parathyroid glands
thymectomy
thı̄-mektŏ-mē
excision of the thymus gland
thyroidectomy
thı̄-roy-dektŏ-mē
excision of the thyroid gland
Programmed Review: Operative Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
excision
9.62 Recall that the suffix -ectomy means ________________. The
adrenalectomy
excision of the adrenal gland is called an _______________________.
pancreatectomy
9.63 The excision of the pancreas is called a ____________________.
9.64 The excision of the thyroid gland is called a
thyroidectomy
___________________.
parathyroid
9.65 A parathyroidectomy is the excision of the __________________
gland
9.66 The excision of the thymus gland is called a
thymectomy
________________.
9.67 Recall that the pituitary gland is also called the
hypophysis
_________________. That combining form is used in the term for
hypophysectomy
excision of the pituitary gland: ______________________.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Self-Instruction: Therapeutic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
continuous subcutaneous
insulin infusion (CSII)
(Fig. 9-8)
kon-tinyū-ŭs sŭb-ky ū-t ānē-ŭs
insŭ-lin in-fyūzhŭn
insulin pump therapy
insŭ-lin pŭmp thāră-pē
use of an insulin delivery device that is worn on the body
(usually the abdomen) and subcutaneously infuses doses of
insulin programmed according to the individual needs of
the diabetic patient
radioiodine therapy
rādē-ō-ı̄ō-dı̄n thāră-pē
use of radioactive iodine to treat disease, such as to eradicate
thyroid tumor cells; treatment is administered in a nuclear
medicine facility
COMMON THERAPEUTIC DRUG CLASSIFICATIONS
antidiabetic drug
an-tē-dı̄-ă-betik drŭg
any of several agents used to control blood sugar levels in
treatment of diabetes mellitus
antithyroid drug
an-tē-thı̄royd drŭg
an agent that blocks the production of thyroid hormones;
used to treat hyperthyroidism
FIGURE 9-8 ■ Abdominal placement of an
insulin pump (continuous subcutaneous insulin
infusion).
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CHAPTER 9 • ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
465
TERM
MEANING
hormone replacement
therapy (HRT)
hōrmōn rē-plāsment thāră-pē
treatment with a hormone to correct a hormonal deficiency
(e.g., estrogen, testosterone, and thyroid)
hypoglycemic
hı̄pō-glı̄-sēmik
antihyperglycemic
antē-hı̄per-glı̄-sēmik
a drug that lowers the blood glucose level (e.g., insulin)
Programmed Review: Therapeutic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
9.68 An insulin pump is a device that subcutaneously infuses
programmed doses of insulin through the skin. This therapy,
continuous subcutaneous
which is called _________________ _____________________
insulin infusion
______________ _______________ (CSII), is used in the treatment
1 diabetes mellitus
of type ___ ______________ _______________ (DM).
9.69 Because the thyroid gland absorbs iodine, radioactive
iodine that is administered into the body becomes localized in
the thyroid, where it can kill thyroid tumor cells. This is called
radioiodine
____________________ therapy, and it is administered in a
nuclear
_____________ medicine facility.
9.70 Drug classifications are often named by their action
against some process or condition in the body. The prefix
anti-
meaning against is ________. Any agent that works against the
ill effects of diabetes mellitus by controlling blood sugar levels
antidiabetic
in called an _________________ drug. The suffix for a blood
-emia
condition is ____________. Recall that the condition of high
hyperglycemia
blood sugar is called ____________________. A drug that works
against this condition by lowering the blood glucose level is an
antihyperglycemic
__________________________ drug. Another term for this is a
hypoglycemic
________________ drug.
9.71 An agent that blocks the production of thyroid
antithyroid
hormones is called an __________________ drug.
9.72 A patient with a deficiency of a particular hormone may
be treated by administration of that hormone to replace what is
hormone
missing. This treatment is referred to as ________________
replacement therapy
____________________ _______________ (HRT).
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CHAPTER 9 ACRONYMS AND ABBREVIATIONS
ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
ACTH
adrenocorticotropic hormone
ADH
antidiuretic hormone
BS
blood sugar
CO2
carbon dioxide
CSII
continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion
CT
computed tomography
DKA
diabetic ketoacidosis
DM
diabetes mellitus
FBS
fasting blood sugar
FSH
follicle-stimulating hormone
GH
growth hormone
GTT
glucose tolerance test
HbAlc
glycosylated hemoglobin
HRT
hormone replacement therapy
LH
luteinizing hormone
MRI
magnetic resonance imaging
MSH
melanocyte-stimulating hormone
PPBS
postprandial blood sugar
PTH
parathyroid hormone
T3
triiodothyronine
T4
thyroxine
TSH
thyroid-stimulating hormone
CHAPTER 9 SUMMARY OF TERMS
The terms introduced in chapter 9 are listed below, followed by the page number on which each
term can be found and its written pronunciation. For additional practice and reinforcement, write
the definition of each term on a separate piece of paper.
acromegaly/454
ak-rō-megă-lē
adrenalectomy/463
ă-drē-năl-ektŏ-mē
adenohypophysis/447
adĕ-nō-hı̄-pofi-sis
adrenaline/446
ă-drenă-lin
adrenal glands/446
ă-drēnăl glanz
adrenocorticotropic hormone
(ACTH)/447
ă-drēn ō-k ōrti-kō-trōpik hōrmōn
adrenal virilism/454
ă-drēnăl viri-lizm
androgens/446
andrō-jenz
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CHAPTER 9 • ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
anterior pituitary/447
an-tērē-ōr pi-tūi-tār-ē
antidiabetic drug/464
an-tē-dı̄-ă-betik drŭg
antidiuretic hormone
(ADH)/448
antē-dı̄-yū-retik hōrmōn
follicle-stimulating hormone
(FSH)/447
foli-kĕl-stim-yūlā-ting hōrm ōn
glucagons/446
glūkă-gon
glucocorticoids/446
glūkō-kōrti-koydz
antihyperglycemic/465
antē-hı̄per-glı̄-sēmik
glucose tolerance test (GTT)/460
glūkōs tolĕr-ănts test
antithyroid drug/464
an-tē-thı̄royd drǔg
glucosuria/450
glūkō-syūrē-ă
blood glucose/459
blǔd glūkōs
glycohemoglobin/460
glı̄kō-hē-mō-gl ōbin
blood sugar (BS)/459
blǔd shu-gǎr
glycosuria/450
glı̄-kō-sūrē-ă
calcitonin/448
kal-si-tōnin
glycosylated hemoglobin (HbAlc)/460
glı̄kō-si-lāt-ĕd hē-mō-glōbin
catecholamines/446
kat-ĕ-kolă-mēnz
goiter/456
goytĕr
computed tomography
(CT)/461
kom-pyūtĕd tō-mogră-fē
Graves disease/456
grāvz di-zēz
continuous subcutaneous insulin
infusion (CSII)/464
kon-tinyū-ŭs sŭb-kyū-tānē-ŭs insŭ-lin
in-f yūzhŭn
growth hormone (GH)/447
grōth hōrmōn
hirsutism/450
hı̆rsū-tizm
cretinism/456
krētin-izm
hormone replacement therapy
(HRT)/465
hōrm ōn rē-plāsment thāră-pē
Cushing syndrome/453
kushing sindrōm
hypercalcemia/450
hı̄pĕr-kal-sēmē-ă
diabetes mellitus (DM)/454
dı̄-ă-bētēz meli-tŭs
hyperglycemia/450
hı̄pĕr-glı̄-sēmē-ă
diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)/451
dī-ă-bĕtik kētō-as-ı̆-dōsis
hyperinsulinism/454
hı̄pĕr-insū-lin-izm
electrolyte panel/460
ē-lektrō-lı̄t pănl
hyperkalemia/450
hı̄pĕr-kă-lēmē-ă
epinephrine/446
ep-i-nef rin
hyperparathyroidism/454
hı̄pĕr-par-ă-thı̄royd-izm
estrogen/446
estrō-jen
hypersecretion/450
hı̄pĕr-se-krēshŭn
exophthalmos or exophthalmus/450
ek-sof-thalmos or ek-sof-thalmŭs
hyperthyroidism/456
hı̄-pĕr-thı̄royd-izm
fasting blood sugar (FBS)/459
fast-ing blŭd shu-găr
hypocalcemia/450
hı̄pō-kal-sēmē-ă
467
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hypoglycemia/450
hı̄pō-glı̄-sēmē-ă
myxedema/456
mik-sĕ-dēmă
hypoglycemic/465
hı̄pō-glı̄-sēmik
neurohypophysis/447
nūrō-hı̄-pofi-sis
hypokalemia/450
hı̄pō-kă-lēmē-ă
norepinephrine/446
n ōrep-i-nef rin
hypoparathyroidism/454
hı̄pō-par-ă-thı̄royd-izm
ovaries/446
ōvă-rēz
hypophysectomy/463
hı̄pof-i-sektŏ-mē
oxytocin/448
oksē-tōsin
hypophysis/447
hı̄-pofi-sis
pancreatectomy/463
pankrē-ă-tektŏ-mē
hyposecretion/451
hı̄pō-se-krēshŭn
pancreatitis/454
pankrē-ă-tı̄tis
hypothyroidism/456
hı̄pō-thı̄royd-izm
parathyroid glands/446
par-ă-thı̄royd glanz
insulin/446
insŭ-lin
parathyroid hormone (PTH)/446
par-ă-thı̄royd hōrmōn
insulin pump therapy/464
insŭ-lin pŭmp thāră-pē
parathyroidectomy/463
pară-thı̄-roy-dektŏ-mē
islets of Langerhans of the
pancreas/446
ı̄lets of lahngĕr-hahnz of the pankrē-as
pineal gland/447
pinē-ăl gland
ketoacidosis/451
k ētō-as-i-dōsis
ketosis/451
kē-tōsis
lactogenic hormone/447
lak-tō-jenik hōrmōn
luteinizing hormone (LH)/447
lū-tē-nı̄zing hōrmōn
magnetic resonance imaging
(MRI)/461
măg-netik rezō-nănts imă-jing
pituitary dwarfism/454
pi-tūi-tār-ē dwōrfizm
pituitary gigantism/454
pi-tūi-t ār-ē jı̄gan-tizm
pituitary gland/447
pi-tūi-t ār-ē gland
polydipsia/451
pol-ē-dipsē-ă
polyuria/451
pol-ē-yūrē-ă
posterior pituitary/447
pos-tērē-ŏr pi-tūi-tār-ē
melanocyte-stimulating hormone
(MSH)/447
melă-nō-sı̄t-stim-yūlā-ting hōrmōn
postprandial blood sugar
(PPBS)/460
pōst-prandē-ăl blŭd shu-găr
melatonin/447
mel-ă-tōnin
progesterone/446
prō-jestĕr-ōn
metabolism/451
mĕ-tabō-lizm
prolactin/447
prō-laktin
mineral corticosteroids/446
minĕr-ăl kōrti-kō-stēroydz
radioiodine therapy/464
rādē-ō-ı̄ō-dı̄n thāră-pē
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CHAPTER 9 • ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
serotonin/447
sēr-ō-tōnin
thyroid gland/448
thı̄royd gland
sonography/461
sŏ-nogră-fē
thyroid uptake and image/461
thı̄royd ŭptāk and imăj
steroid hormones/446
stēroyd hormōnz
thyroidectomy/463
thı̄-roy-dektŏ-mē
suprarenal glands/446
sūpră-rēnăl glanz
thyroid-stimulating hormone
(TSH)/447
thı̄royd-stim-yūlā-ting hōrmōn
testes/448
testēz
testosterone/448
tes-tostĕ-rōn
thymectomy/463
thı̄-mektō-mē
thymosin/448
thı̄mō-sin
thymus gland/448
thı̄mŭs gland
thyroid function study/460
thı̄royd f ŭnkshŭn stŭdē
thyroxine (T4)/448
thı̄-roksēn
triiodothyronine (T3)/448
trı̄-ı̄ō-dō-thı̄ rō-nēn
type 1 diabetes mellitus/454
tı̄p 1 dı̄-ă-bētēz meli-tŭs
type 2 diabetes mellitus/454
tı̄p 2 dı̄-ă-bētēz meli-tŭs
urine sugar and ketone
studies/460
yŭrin shu-găr and kētōn stŭdēz
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PRACTICE EXERCISES
For each of the following words, write out the term components (prefixes [P], combining forms [CF], roots [R], and suffixes [S]) on the lines below the word. Then
define the term according to the meaning of its components.
EXAMPLE
parathyroid
para / thyr / oid
P
R
S
DEFINITION: alongside of/thyroid gland/resembling
1. adenitis
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
2. hyperglycemia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
3. thyrotoxicosis
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
4. polydipsia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
5. hormonal
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
6. ketosis
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
7. polyuria
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
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CHAPTER 9 • ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
471
8. endocrine
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
9. thyroptosis
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
10. thymoma
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
11. acromegaly
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
12. android
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
13. adrenotropic
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
14. pancreatogenic
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
15. glycosuria
___________ / ___________ / ___________
R
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
Write the correct medical term for each of the following definitions:
16. ___________________________ advanced hypothyroidism in adults
17. ___________________________ congenital hypothyroidism
18. ___________________________ most common form of hyperthyroidism
19. ___________________________ condition resulting from an excessive level of cortisol hormone characterized by obesity, hyperglycemia, and weakness
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20. ___________________________ disease characterized by enlarged features, caused by hypersecretion of the pituitary growth hormone after puberty
21. ___________________________ enlargement of the thyroid gland
22. ___________________________ protrusion of the eyeball
23. ___________________________ condition of hyposecretion of pituitary growth hormone
during childhood bone development
24. ___________________________ deficient level of potassium in the blood
25. ___________________________ nuclear image of the thyroid
26. ___________________________ condition of hypersecretion of the pituitary growth hormone
during childhood bone development
Write the letter of the matching term in the space after the meaning:
27. congenital hypothyroidism
_____
a. gigantism
28. polydipsia
_____
b. hirsutism
29. hyperthyroidism
_____
c. enlarged thyroid
30. hypophysis
_____
d. depends on insulin
31. goiter
_____
e. cretinism
32. adult hypothyroidism
_____
f. pituitary
33. adrenal virilism
_____
g. does not usually depend on insulin
34. type 2 diabetes
_____
h. excessive thirst
35. pituitary hypersecretion
_____
i. myxedema
36. type 1 diabetes
_____
j. Graves disease
Complete each medical term by writing the missing part:
37. poly___________ia excessive thirst
38. ___________secretion abnormally increased secretion
39. ___________glycemia low blood sugar
40. glucos___________ sugar in the urine
41. ___________secretion decreased secretion
42. ___________glycemia high blood sugar
43. ___________graphy ultrasound imaging
Write out the expanded term for each abbreviation:
44. CSII ______________________________________________________________________________
45. HRT ______________________________________________________________________________
46. FBS _______________________________________________________________________________
47. DM _______________________________________________________________________________
48. PPBS _____________________________________________________________________________
49. GTT ______________________________________________________________________________
50. DKA ______________________________________________________________________________
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CHAPTER 9 • ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Identify the structures of the endocrine system by writing the missing words in the spaces
provided:
Pineal body
(Hypothalamus - CNS controller
of endocrine system)
51.
thyroid glands
52.
gland
54.
gland
55.
gland
(Trachea)
(Heart)
53.
(Lungs)
glands
56. Islets of Langerhans
of the
Ovaries in
female
(Kidneys)
(Uterus)
Testes
(Labels in parentheses indicate
organs shown for orientation only.
These are not endocrine system
organs.)
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Circle the meaning that corresponds to the combining form given:
57. adren/o
male
extremity
adrenal gland
58. thyr/o
nourishment
shield
chest
59. crin/o
blue
cell
secrete
60. gluc/o
stomach
sugar
pancreas
61. dips/o
thirst
ketones
secrete
62. thym/o
shield
hormone
thymus gland
63. hormon/o
development
urging on
ketones
64. aden/o
male
extremity
gland
Circle the correct spelling:
65. hirsutism
hirsuitism
hirsitism
66. exopthalmos
exopthamamos
exophthalmos
67. myexedema
mixedema
myxedema
68. goiter
goyter
goitir
69. androgenius
androgenous
andreogenous
70. virillism
virilism
viralism
71. epinephrine
epinefrine
epineprine
72. hypoglicemic
hypoglicemic
hypoglycemic
Give the noun that is used to form each adjective:
73. acromegalic
__________________
74. exophthalmic
__________________
75. metabolic
__________________
76. diabetic
__________________
77. hypoglycemic
__________________
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CHAPTER 9 • ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
475
MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 9-1
PROGRESS NOTE
S: This is a 27 y.o. c̄ a known Hx of diabetes seen in the ER with nausea and vomiting for
the past three hours. She has skipped two doses of her insulin because BS levels monitored at home have been low. She is now experiencing a cephalalgia similar to what she
has had in the past before coma.
O: T 35.5 C, P 90, R 20, BP 126/68
Lab blood studies: sodium 130, potassium 4.1, CO2 9, chloride 102, glucose 296
A: Diabetic ketoacidosis
P: Admit to ICU: give 10 units insulin IV; measure BS 1 p̄ insulin given, then q 4 h; check
urine for sugar and ketosis q void; repeat electrolytes in a.m.
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 9-1
1. What is the CC?
a. nausea, vomiting, and headache
b. nausea, vomiting, and dizziness
c. nausea, vomiting, and high blood pressure
d. nausea, vomiting, and ringing in the ears
e. nausea, vomiting, and unconsciousness
2. What is the diagnosis?
a. hyperglycemia
b. hypoglycemia
c. type 1 DM with ketone bodies in the
blood
d. type 2 DM without ketone bodies in the
blood
e. combination of hyperglycemia and
glucosuria
3. As an inpatient, where was treatment provided?
a. neuropsychiatric facility
b. coronary care facility
c. emergency room
d. recovery room
e. critical care facility
4. Which of the following are electrolytes?
1. sodium 2. potassium 3. chloride 4. glucose
a. only 1, 2, and 3 are electrolytes
b. only 1 and 3 are electrolytes
c. only 2 and 4 are electrolytes
d. only 4 is an electrolyte
e. all are electrolytes
5. Why were the blood electrolyte studies
performed?
a. to examine the electrical impulses of the
brain
b. to measure the level of ions in the blood
in evaluation of metabolism
c. to measure hormone levels and determine glandular efficiency
d. to visualize the accumulation of radioactive isotopes to eliminate the presence
of tumor
e. to measure the level of glucose in the
blood
6. How should the insulin be administered?
a. within the skin
b. absorption through unbroken skin
c. within the muscle
d. within the vein
e. under the skin
7. How often should the blood glucose be
measured?
a. one hour after insulin administration,
then every four hours thereafter
b. once each morning
c. each time the patient urinates
d. one hour before insulin administration,
then four times a day thereafter
e. one hour before insulin administration,
then every four hours thereafter
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Medical Record 9-2
FOR ADDITIONAL STUDY
Tara Nguyen had a long history of hyperthyroidism that was managed by pharmacologic treatment
for more than 5 years. She was often unhappy with how she felt, however, and decided on her own
to stop taking the drug. Two months ago, the symptoms of hyperthyroidism recurred, and she
sought medical attention. Medical Record 9-2 is the report by Dr. Rincon, the physician who
analyzed Ms. Nguyen’s thyroid uptake and imaging study.
Read Medical Record 9-2 (page 477), then write your answers to the following questions in the
spaces provided.
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 9-2
1. Below are medical terms used in this record that you have not yet encountered in this text.
Underline each where it appears in the record, and define the term below.
propylthiouracil (PTU) _______________________________________________________________
uptake ______________________________________________________________________________
baseline (nonmedical term) ___________________________________________________________
2. In your own words, not using medical terminology, briefly describe what seems to have been
missing in Ms. Nguyen’s past medical management:
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
3. In nonmedical terms, explain how the sodium iodide was administered:
____________________________________________________________________________________
4. In your own words, not using medical terminology, briefly describe Dr. Rincon’s diagnosis:
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
5. What additional test did Dr. Rincon order on his own authority?
a. thyroid function study
b. fasting blood sugar (FBS)
c. thyroid MRI
d. thyroid ultrasound
6. Which of the following tests is recommended to be performed in 6 months?
a. thyroid function study
b. fasting blood sugar (FBS)
c. thyroid MRI
d. thyroid ultrasound
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CHAPTER 9 • ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
Medical Record 9-2: For Additional Study
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS TO PRACTICE EXERCISES
1. aden/itis
____ ___
R S
gland/inflammation
2. hyper/glyc/emia
_____ ___ _____
P
R
S
above or
excessive/sugar/blood
condition
3. thyro/toxic/osis
____ _____ ____
CF R
S
thyroid gland
(shield)/poison/condition
or increase
4. poly/dips/ia
____ ___ ___
P R S
many/thirst/condition of
5. hormon/al
_______ ___
R
S
hormone (an urging
on)/pertaining to
6. ket/osis
___ ____
R S
ketone bodies/condition
or increase
7. poly/ur/ia
____ __ __
P R S
many/urine/condition of
8. endo/crin/e
____ ____ _
P
R S
within/to secrete/noun
marker
9. thyro/ptosis
____ ______
CF
S
thyroid gland
(shield)/falling or downward displacement
10. thym/oma
____ _____
R
S
thymus gland/tumor
11. acro/megaly
____ ______
CF
S
extremity/enlargement
12. andr/oid
____ ___
R S
male/resembling
13. adreno/trop/ic
______ ____ __
CF
R S
adrenal gland/
nourishment or
development/
pertaining to
14. pancreato/gen/ic
________ ____ __
CF
R S
pancreas/origin or
production/pertaining to
15. glycos/ur/ia
_____ __ __
R R S
sugar/urine/condition of
16. myxedema
17. cretinism
18. Graves disease
19. Cushing syndrome
20. acromegaly
21. goiter
22. exophthalmos or
exophthalmus
23. pituitary dwarfism
24. hypokalemia
25. thyroid uptake
and image
26. gigantism or pituitary
gigantism
27. e
28. h
29. j
30. f
31. c
32. i
33. b
34. g
35. a
36. d
37. polydipsia
38. hypersecretion
39. hypoglycemia
40. glucosuria
41. hyposecretion
42. hyperglycemia
43. sonography or ultrasonography
44. continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion
45. hormone replacement
therapy
46. fasting blood sugar
47. diabetes mellitus
48. postprandial blood
sugar
49. glucose tolerance test
50. diabetic ketoacidosis
51. para
52. thymus
53. adrenal
54. pituitary
55. thyroid
56. pancreas
57. adrenal gland
58. shield
59. secrete
60. sugar
61. thirst
62. thymus gland
63. urging on
64. gland
65. hirsutism
66. exophthalmos
67. myxedema
68. goiter
69. androgenous
70. virilism
71. epinephrine
72. hypoglycemic
73. acromegaly
74. exophthalmos or
exophthalmus
75. metabolism
76. diabetes
77. hypoglycemia
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CHAPTER 9 • ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
ANSWERS TO MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 9-1: Progress Note
1. a
2. c
3. e
4. a
5. b
6. d
7. a
Medical Record 9-2: For Additional Study
See CD-ROM for answers.
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CHAPTER
10
The Eye
✓ Chapter 10 Checklist
LOCATION
Read Chapter 10: The Eye and complete all programmed review segments.
pages 481-508
Review the starter set of flash cards and term components related to
Chapter 10.
back of book
Complete the Chapter 10 Practice Exercises and Medical Record Analysis 10-1.
pages 511-517
Complete Medical Record Analysis 10-2 For Additional Study.
pages 518-521
Complete the Chapter 10 Exercises by Chapter.
CD-ROM
Complete the Chapter 10 Review and Test Modes.
CD-ROM
Review the Pronunciation Drill for the Chapter 10 terms.
CD-ROM
OVERVIEW OF THE EYE
The eyes are the organs of sight that provide three-dimensional vision (Fig. 10-1):
Light enters the eye through the pupil, the size of which is regulated by the muscles of the iris.
The lens focuses light rays on the retina, the nerve tissue in the inner posterior part of the eye.
Rods and cones, the visual receptor neurons in the retina, respond to the light waves.
Nerve fibers from the rods and cones join in the optic disk, from which the optic nerve carries
transmissions to the brain.
Other functions of the eye are performed by protective and lubricating structures.
481
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Eyelid (palpebra)
Canal of
Schlemm
Retina
Meibomian
glands
Choroid
Glands of
Zeis
Vitreous chamber
Lashes
Pupil
Cornea
Fovea
centralis
Lens capsule
Lens
Anterior
chamber
Ciliary processes
Ciliary body and
ciliary muscle
Posterior
chamber
Iris
Conjunctiva
Sclera
FIGURE 10-1 ■
Optic disk
Anatomy of the eye.
Self-Instruction: Combining Forms
Study the following:
COMBINING FORM
MEANING
aque/o
water
blephar/o
eyelid
conjunctiv/o
conjunctiva (to join together)
corne/o, kerat/o
cornea
cycl/o
circle, ciliary body
ir/o, irid/o
colored circle, iris
lacrim/o, dacry/o
tear
ocul/o, ophthalm/o, opt/o
eye
phac/o, phak/o
lens (lentil)
phot/o
light
presby/o
old age
retin/o
retina
scler/o
hard or sclera
vitre/o
glassy
-opia (suffix)
condition of vision
Optic nerve
Blood supply
to retina
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CHAPTER 10 • THE EYE
483
Programmed Review: Combining Forms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
10.1 The three combining forms meaning eye are ocul/o, opt/o, and
ophthalm/o
_______________. Ophthalmology defines the specialty related to the
study, logist
__________ of the eye. An ophthalmo____________ is a physician who
specializes in the study and treatment (including surgery) of the
eye
________.
10.2 Optometry is the profession that examines the eyes for vision
problems and other disorders. The combining form referring to the
opt/o
eye in this term is __________. The suffix -metry generally refers to a
measuring
process of ___________________. Optometrist is the title of the
eye
professional who specializes in measuring the ________.
10.3 The combining form used in ocular, an adjective meaning
pertaining to, ocul/o
_______________ ____ the eye, is ___________.
10.4 A blepharospasm is an involuntary muscular contraction of the
eyelid, blephar/o
______________. The combining form for eyelid is _________________.
inflammation
For example, the suffix -itis means ______________________, and the
blepharitis
term for an inflamed eyelid is _____________________.
water
10.5 The combining form aque/o means ______________ in reference
to the eye.
10.6 Corne/o is the Latin combining form used to name the part of
cornea
the eye called the ____________. The second combining form meaning
cornea, from the Greek word kera (meaning horn or hard tissue), is
kerat/o
_____________. It is used in the term describing the surgical repair or
keratoplasty
reconstruction of the cornea: __________________.
10.7 As often happens, there are two combining forms for tears, one
based on a Latin word and one based on a Greek word. The lacrimal
lacrim/o
gland (tear gland) comes from this combining form: ________________.
The term dacryocyst refers to the lacrimal sac (cyst sac), where
tears are collected before they flow to the nose. Inflammation of the
dacryocystitis
lacrimal sac is therefore called ______________________. This second
dacry/o
combining form for tears is _______________.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
10.8 The Greek word phakos means lentil or anything shaped like a
lentil and, thus, is used for the lens of the eye, because it looks like a
lentil
___________. As sometimes happens, two spellings evolved for this
phac/o, phak/o
combining form: ____________ and _____________. Recall that the
dissolution
suffix -lysis means breaking down or __________________. Phacolysis is
breaking down
therefore the ______________ __________ of the lens. A phakoma is a
lens
tumor-like condition of the __________.
phot/o
10.9 The combining form meaning light is ____________. An
photophobia
abnormal fear or sensitivity to light is ___________________.
vision
10.10 The suffix -opia refers to a condition of ____________. Because
old
the combining form presby/o means _______ age, the term presbyopia
condition
refers to a vision ________________ that is common in old age.
10.11 Many combining forms are very similar to the terms that
express their meaning. For example, the combining form meaning the
conjunctiva is conjunctiv/o. The combining form for the sclera is
scler/o
______________. The combining form meaning retina is
retin/o
_______________, and the combining form referring to the vitreous
vitre/o
(glassy substance) of the eye is ______________.
circle
10.12 Cycl/o is a combining form referring to a ___________ or the
ciliary body, a ring of tissue in the eye. Recall that -tomy is a suffix
incision
meaning _______________. Therefore, an incision in the ciliary body
cyclotomy
is called a _________________.
irid/o
10.13 Ir/o and __________ are the two combining forms referring to
colored, iris
the _______________ circle of the eye, which is known as the ________.
inflammation
Iritis refers to an _________________ of the iris. The combination of
the second combining form for iris with -ectomy, a suffix meaning
excision or removal
________________, forms the term for an excision of a portion of the
iridectomy
iris: __________________.
Self-Instruction: Anatomic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
anterior chamber
an-tērē-ōr chāmbĕr
fluid-filled space between the cornea and iris
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TERM
MEANING
aqueous humor
akwē-ŭs hyūmŏr
watery liquid secreted by the ciliary processes that fills the
anterior and posterior chambers of the eye and provides
nourishment for the cornea, iris, and lens (humor fluid)
canal of Schlemm
kă-nal of shlem
duct in the anterior chamber that carries filtered aqueous
humor to the veins and bloodstream
choroid
kōroyd
vascular layer beneath the sclera that provides nourishment to
the outer portion of the retina
ciliary body
silē-ar-ē bodē
ring of tissue behind the peripheral iris that is composed of
ciliary muscle and ciliary processes
ciliary muscle
silē-ar-ē mŭsĕl
smooth muscle portion of the ciliary body, which contracts to
assist in near vision
ciliary processes
silē-ar-ē proses-ēz
epithelial tissue folds on the inner surface of the ciliary body
that secrete aqueous humor
conjunctiva
kon-jŭnk-tı̄vă
mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and outer surface of
the eyeball
cornea
kōrnē-ă
transparent, anterior part of the eyeball covering the iris,
pupil, and anterior chamber that functions to refract (bend)
light to focus a visual image
eyelid
ı̄lid
palpebra
pal-pēbră
movable, protective fold that opens and closes, covering the eye
fovea centralis
fōvē-ă sen-trālis
pinpoint depression in the center of the macula lutea that is
the site of sharpest vision ( fovea pit)
fundus
f ŭndŭs
interior surface of the eyeball, including the retina, optic disk,
macula, and posterior pole (curvature at the back of the eye)
( fundus base)
glands of Zeis
glanz of tsı̄s
oil glands surrounding the eyelashes
meibomian glands
mı̄-bōmē-ăn glanz
oil glands located along the rim of the eyelids
iris
ı̄ris
colored circle; colored part of the eye located behind the
cornea that contracts and dilates to regulate light passing
through the pupil
lacrimal gland (Fig. 10-2)
lakri-măl gland
gland located in the upper outer region above the eyeball that
secretes tears
lacrimal ducts
lakri-măl dŭkts
tubes that carry tears to the lacrimal sac
lacrimal sac
lakri-măl sak
structure that collects tears before emptying into the
nasolacrimal duct
lens
lenz
transparent structure behind the pupil that bends and focuses
light rays on the retina
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Puncta
Lacrimal
ducts
Lacrimal
gland
Lacrimal
sac
Meibomian
glands
FIGURE 10-2
Nasolacrimal
duct
■ Lacrimal apparatus.
TERM
MEANING
lens capsule
lenz kapsūl
capsule that encloses the lens
macula lutea
(see Fig. 10-13, B)
makyū-lă lūtĕ-ā
macula
makyū-lă
central region of the retina; responsible for central vision;
yellow pigment provides its color (lutea yellow)
nasolacrimal duct
nā-zō-lakri-măl dŭkt
passageway for tears from the lacrimal sac into the nose
optic disk (see Fig. 10-13, B)
optik disk
exit site of retinal nerve fibers as well as entrance point for
retinal arteries and exit point for retinal veins
optic nerve
optik nĕrv
nerve responsible for carrying impulses for the sense of sight
from the retina to the brain
posterior chamber
pos-tērē-ōr chāmbĕr
space between the back of the iris and the front of the
vitreous chamber; filled with aqueous humor
pupil
pyūpı̆l
black, circular opening in the center of the iris through which
light passes as it enters the eye
retina (see Fig. 10-13, B)
reti-nă
innermost layer that perceives and transmits light to the optic
nerve
cones
kōnz
cone-shaped cells within the retina that are color sensitive
and respond to bright light
rods
rodz
rod-shaped cells within the retina that respond to dim light
sclera
sklēră
tough, fibrous, white outer coat extending from the cornea to
the optic nerve
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TERM
MEANING
trabecular meshwork
tră-bekyū-lăr meshwĕrk
mesh-like structure in the anterior chamber that filters the
aqueous humor as it flows into the canal of Schlemm
vitreous
vitrē-ŭs
jelly-like mass filling the inner chamber between the lens and
retina that gives bulk to the eye
Programmed Review: Anatomic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
10.14 Let’s look at the anatomy of the eye in the approximate
order of structures involved as light waves enter the eye and result
in nerve transmissions to the brain. Light first passes through a
transparent outer covering over the iris, pupil, and anterior
cornea
chamber called the ________________.
anterior
10.15 The _________________ chamber is a fluid-filled space
between the cornea and iris. It is called anterior because it is the
front
_____________ fluid chamber in the eye. The fluid within the
aqueous
anterior chamber is called ______________ humor. Recall that the
water
combining form aque/o means _____________. This watery fluid is
canal
carried to the veins through the __________ of Schlemm. As the
aqueous humor flows into this canal, it is filtered by a mesh-like
trabecular
structure called the __________________ meshwork.
10.16 The light waves then pass through the black, circular
pupil
opening in the center of the iris called the _____________. The
iris
_________ surrounding the pupil is the colored part of the eye that
light
contracts and dilates to regulate the amount of _____________ that
passes through the pupil.
10.17 Between the back of the iris and the upper and lower
posterior
sections of the lens and vitreous chamber is the _________________
humor
chamber, which is also filled with aqueous ___________. It is
chamber
called the posterior __________________ because it is
behind or in back of
________________ the anterior chamber.
10.18 Light waves passing through the pupil and anterior
lens
chamber reach the __________, a transparent structure that focuses
the light rays on the retina. The lens is enclosed in a structure
capsule
called the lens ________________.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
10.19 Tiny muscles control the shape of the lens, allowing it to
change its focus for near and far vision. The ring of muscle around
ciliary
the lens, behind the iris, is called the ______________ body, and its
ciliary muscle
smooth muscle portion is called the _____________ _____________.
10.20 Tissue folds on the inner surface of the ciliary body, called
processes
ciliary _________________, secrete aqueous humor, which fills the
posterior
anterior and _________________ chambers and drains through the
Schlemm
canal of _________________.
10.21 Light waves focused by the lens now pass through the
vitreous
_______________ chamber on the way to the retina. The vitreous is
a jelly-like mass that fills this inner chamber and gives bulk to the
glassy
eye. Recall that the combining form vitre/o means _____________,
referring to the vitreous of the eye.
10.22 The light waves passing through the vitreous chamber then
retina
strike the ______________, the innermost layer at the back of the eye
that contains visual receptor neurons that respond to light. These
rods
special cells are the __________ and cones. The cones respond to
bright, rods
_______________ light, and the __________ respond to dim light.
These neuron reactions are transmitted to the optic nerve and then
to the brain.
10.23 The central region of the retina, which has a yellow color
macula lutea
(lutea yellow), is called the ______________ ___________. At the
center of the macula lutea is a pinpoint depression, which is the
fovea centralis
site of sharpest vision, called the ____________ _________________
(fovea pit).
10.24 The entire interior surface of the eyeball, including the
fundus
retina, optic disk, and macula, is termed the ______________. The
layer behind the retina that provides nourishment to the retina is
choroid
called the ________________.
10.25 Nerve fibers from the retina come together at the optic
disk, optic
_________, the site where the nerves exit the eye. The ____________
nerve then carries the nerve impulses to the brain to create the
sense of sight.
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CHAPTER 10 • THE EYE
ANSWERS
489
REVIEW
10.26 The tough outer layer of the eye extending from the cornea
sclera
around the retina to the optic nerve is called the ______________.
10.27 Additional eye structures help to protect the eye from the
palpebra
environment. The medical term for eyelid is _______________. The
palpebrae
plural of this term is _________________. The palpebrae can close
over the eye.
10.28 The oil glands located along the rim of the eyelids are
meibomian
called the __________________ glands. Other oil glands surrounding
Zeis
the eyelashes are called the glands of __________.
10.29 The mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and outer
conjunctiva
surface of the eyeball is called the ___________________, from the
combining form conjunctiv/o. Because this is the outermost structure
of the eye, it is easily irritated by foreign substances, causing an
conjunctivitis
inflammation called _____________________.
10.30 There are two combining forms meaning tear or tears:
lacrim/o
dacry/o, which is Greek, and _____________, which is Latin. Note
that the Latin form is used to name the anatomy related to tears.
For example, the glands that secrete tears, located in the upper outer
lacrimal glands
region above the eyeball, are called the _____________ ___________.
10.31 The tiny tubes that carry tears away from the eye are the
ducts
lacrimal ____________. These ducts carry tears to the lacrimal
sac
_________, which collects tears before emptying into the
nasolacrimal duct.
10.32 Tears from the lacrimal sac reach the nose through the
nasolacrimal
___________________ duct. The combining form nas/o means
nose
__________.
Self-Instruction: Symptomatic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
asthenopia
as-thĕ-nōpē-ă
eyestrain (asthenia weak condition)
blepharospasm
blef ă-rō-spazm
involuntary contraction of the muscles surrounding the eye
causing uncontrolled blinking and lid squeezing
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TERM
MEANING
diplopia
di-plōpē-ă
double vision
exophthalmos or
exophthalmus
ek-sof-thalmos or
ek-sof-thalmǔs
abnormal protrusion of one or both eyeballs
lacrimation
lak-ri-māshŭn
secretion of tears
nystagmus
nis-tagmŭs
involuntary, rapid, oscillating movement of the eyeball
(nystagmos a nodding)
photophobia
fō-tō-fōbē-ă
extreme sensitivity to, and discomfort from, light
scotoma
skō-tōmă
blind spot in vision (skotos darkness)
Programmed Review: Symptomatic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
vision
10.33 Recall that the suffix -opia means a condition of ____________.
The combining form dipl/o means double. The condition of having
diplopia
double vision is termed _________________.
10.34 Based on the Greek word asthenia, which means weakness,
asthenopia
the condition of eyestrain (weak vision) is called ___________________.
phot/o
10.35 Recall that the combining form meaning light is ___________.
Extreme sensitivity to, and discomfort from, light is termed
photophobia
_______________________.
blephar/o
10.36 Again, the combining form for eyelid is _______________.
The term for a sudden involuntary contraction of the muscles around
blepharospasm
the eyelid is ________________________.
10.37 The three combining forms for eye are ocul/o, opt/o, and
ophthalm/o, out
___________________. The prefix ex- means _________ or away. Using
the last combining form and this prefix, the term for the condition in
exophthalmos
which the eyeballs protrude out is termed ____________________ or
exophthalmus
_____________________ (alternate spellings).
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491
ANSWERS
REVIEW
tear
10.38 Lacrim/o is a combining form meaning __________. The suffix
process
-ation refers to a _______________. The term for the process of
lacrimation
secreting tears is _____________________.
10.39 The Greek word nystagmos means a nodding, such as the
movement of the head up and down or sideways. The condition of
nystagmus
rapid oscillation of the eyeballs is called __________________.
10.40 The medical term for a visual blind (dark) spot comes from
the Greek word that means darkness. The blind spot is called a
scotoma
_______________.
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
refractive errors
rē-fraktiv erōrz
defects in the bending of light as it enters the eye, causing an
improper focus on the retina
astigmatism
ă-stigmă-tizm
distorted vision caused by an oblong or cylindrical curvature
of the lens or cornea that prevents light rays from coming to a
single focus on the retina (stigma point)
hyperopia (Fig. 10-3, B)
hı̄-pĕr-ōpē-ă
farsightedness; difficulty seeing close objects when light rays
are focused on a point behind the retina
myopia (Fig. 10-3, C)
mı̄-ōpē-ă
nearsightedness; difficulty seeing distant objects when light
rays are focused on a point in front of the retina
presbyopia
prez-bē-ōpē-ă
impaired vision caused by old age or loss of accommodation
accommodation
ă-komŏ-dāshŭn
ability of the eye to adjust focus on near objects
Normal vision
A
Hyperopia
B
Myopia
C
FIGURE 10-3 ■ A. Proper focus of light rays on the retina. B. Light rays are focused on a
point behind the retina in hyperopia. C. Light rays are focused at a point in front of the
retina in myopia.
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FIGURE 10-4
■
Chalazion.
TERM
MEANING
amblyopia
am-blē-ōpē-ă
decreased vision in early life because of a functional defect
that can occur as a result of strabismus, refractive errors
(when one eye is more nearsighted, farsighted, or astigmatic
than the other), or trauma; usually occurs in one eye; also
known as lazy eye (ambly/o dim)
aphakia
ă-fākē-ă
absence of the lens, usually after cataract extraction
blepharitis
blef ă-rı̄tis
inflammation of the eyelid
blepharochalasis
blef ă-rō-kală-sis
dermatochalasis
dermă-tō-kă-lāsis
baggy eyelid; overabundance and loss of skin elasticity on the
upper eyelid causing a fold of skin to hang down over the
edge of the eyelid when the eyes are open (chalasis a
slackening)
blepharoptosis
blef ă-roptō-sis
ptosis
tōsis
drooping of the eyelid; usually caused by paralysis
chalazion (Fig. 10-4)
ka-lāzē-on
chronic nodular inflammation of a meibomian gland, usually
the result of a blocked duct; commonly presents as a swelling
on the upper or lower eyelid (chalaza hailstone)
cataract
(Figs. 10-5 and 10-6, B)
kată-rakt
opaque clouding of the lens causing decreased vision
conjunctivitis
kon-jŭnk-ti-vı̄tis
pinkeye; inflammation of the conjunctiva
dacryoadenitis
dakrē-ō-ad-ĕ-nı̄tis
inflammation of the lacrimal gland
dacryocystitis
dakrē-ō-sis-tı̄tis
inflammation of the tear sac
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CHAPTER 10 • THE EYE
Normal focus of light rays on the retina
Iris
493
Light rays diffused by a cataract
Retina
Clouded lens
(cataract)
Cornea
Pupil
A
Clear lens
(normal)
Normal vision
Simulation of cataract vision
B1
B2
FIGURE 10-5 ■ Cataract. A. Normal light focus compared with light focus interference caused
by a cataract. B. Simulation of cataract vision.
TERM
MEANING
diabetic retinopathy
(Fig. 10-6, C; see
Fig. 10-13, C)
dı̄-ă-betik ret-i-nopă-thē
disease of the retina in diabetics characterized by capillary
leakage, bleeding, and new vessel formation (neovascularization)
leading to scarring and loss of vision
ectropion (Fig. 10-7, A)
ek-trōpē-on
outward turning of the rim of the eyelid (tropo turning)
entropion (Fig. 10-7, B)
en-trōpē-on
inward turning of the rim of the eyelid
epiphora
ē-pifō-ră
abnormal overflow of tears caused by blockage of the lacrimal
duct (epi upon; phero to bear)
glaucoma (Fig. 10-6, D)
glaw-kōmă
group of diseases of the eye characterized by increased
intraocular pressure that results in damage to the optic nerve,
producing defects in vision
hordeolum (Fig. 10-8)
hōr-dēō-lŭm
sty; an acute infection of a sebaceous gland of the eyelid
(hordeum barley)
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A
Normal vision
B
Cataract (hazy vision)
C
Diabetic retinopathy (retinal damage leads to blind spots)
D
Glaucoma (loss of peripheral vision)
E
Macular degeneration (loss of central vision)
FIGURE 10-6
A
■
Simulations of vision loss.
B
FIGURE 10-7 ■ Eyelid abnormalities. A. Severe bilateral lower-lid ectropion. B. Lower-lid entropion
causing the lashes to rub on the cornea.
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CHAPTER 10 • THE EYE
FIGURE 10-8
■
495
Upper-lid hordeolum.
TERM
MEANING
iritis
ı̄-rı̄tis
inflammation of the iris
keratitis
ker-ă-tı̄tis
inflammation of the cornea
macular degeneration
(Fig. 10-6, E)
makyū-lăr dē-jen-ĕr-āshŭn
breakdown or thinning of the tissues in the macula, resulting
in partial or complete loss of central vision
pseudophakia
sū-dō-fakē-ă
an eye in which the natural lens is replaced with an artificial
lens implant (pseudo false)
pterygium (Fig. 10-9)
tĕ-rijē-ŭm
fibrous, wing-shaped growth of conjunctival tissue that
extends onto the cornea, developing most commonly from
prolonged exposure to ultraviolet light
retinal detachment
reti-năl dē-tachment
separation of the retina from the underlying epithelium,
disrupting vision and resulting in blindness if not repaired
surgically
FIGURE 10-9 ■ Pterygium caused by ultraviolet
exposure and drying.
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Exotropia
Esotropia
FIGURE 10-10 ■
Strabismus.
TERM
MEANING
retinitis
ret-i-nı̄tis
inflammation of the retina
strabismus (Fig. 10-10)
stra-bizmŭs
heterotropia
hetĕr-ō-trōpē-ă
a condition of eye misalignment caused by intraocular muscle
imbalance (strabismus a squinting; hetero other)
esotropia
es-ō-trōpē-ă
right or left eye deviates inward, toward nose (eso inward;
tropo turning)
exotropia
ek-sō-trōpē-ă
right or left eye deviates outward, away from nose (exo out;
tropo turning)
scleritis
sklĕ-rı̄tis
inflammation of the sclera
trichiasis
trı̆-kı̄ă-sis
misdirected eyelashes that rub on the conjunctiva or cornea
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
inflammation
10.41 Recall that the suffix -itis means __________________.
blepharitis
Inflammation of the eyelid is therefore termed ____________________.
conjunctivitis
Inflammation of the conjunctiva is called ______________________
(or pinkeye).
10.42 In addition to corne/o, a combining form that means cornea is
kerat/o
______________. The term for inflammation of the cornea uses this
keratitis
second form: ________________.
10.43 The two combining forms for the iris of the eye are irid/o and
ir/o
________. The latter is used to make the term for inflammation of the
iritis
iris: _____________.
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CHAPTER 10 • THE EYE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
retinitis
10.44 Inflammation of the retina is termed _______________.
scleritis
Inflammation of the sclera is _______________.
497
10.45 The two combining forms for tears are lacrim/o and
dacry/o
_____________. The combining form cyst/o means a sac. Using the
dacryocyst
latter form for tears, the tear sac is termed the ___________________.
dacryocystitis
Inflammation of the tear sac is called ________________________.
10.46 The combining form aden/o means gland. Thus, the term
inflammation
dacryoadenitis means _______________________ of the
lacrimal or tear
______________ gland.
10.47 Conditions in which the eye incorrectly focuses light on the
refractive
retina are called _________________ errors. Recall that the suffix -opia
vision
means a condition of ____________. The prefix hyper- means
beyond
excessive or _____________. The condition of farsightedness occurs
when the light rays from near objects focus beyond the retina. This is
hyperopia
called _________________. The opposite condition of nearsightedness
myopia
is called ______________.
presby/o
10.48 The combining form meaning old age is ______________.
The visual condition of impaired vision caused by old age is called
presbyopia
___________________. This happens because of a loss of
accommodation. The ability of the eye to adjust focus on near
accommodation
objects is called ______________________.
10.49 The Greek word chalasis means a slackening, such as with
baggy skin. The term for a baggy eyelid (using the combining form
blepharochalasis
for eyelid) is ______________________. The combining form dermat/o
means skin. Another term for baggy eyelid uses that combining form:
dermatochalasis
______________________.
downward
10.50 Recall that the suffix -ptosis means a falling or ______________
displacement. The term for a drooping of the eyelid is
blepharoptosis
______________________. This is usually caused by paralysis.
10.51 From the Greek word for a small hailstone (chalazion), which
it may resemble in appearance, comes the term for a chronic nodular
chalazion
inflammation of a meibomian gland: _________________. The plural of
chalazia
chalazion is ________________.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
10.52 The clouding of the lens that causes decreased vision is called
cataract
a _______________.
10.53 The combining form path/o means disease, and the suffix -y
condition of
means process of or _________________ _____. Thus, -pathy refers
disease
to a condition of _______________. A retinal disease condition in
diabetics caused by problems with the capillaries is called diabetic
retinopathy
____________________.
10.54 The Greek word tropo means turning. The prefix ec- means
out
away or ________. The condition of the eyelid rim turning outward is
ectropion, within
called _________________. The prefix en-, however, means ___________
or inward. The condition of the rim of the eyelid turning in is called
entropion
__________________.
10.55 If the lacrimal duct becomes blocked, tears that might
otherwise flow to the lacrimal sac overflow. The term for this condition
upon
begins with the prefix epi-, which means __________. The tears flow
upon and out of the outer surface of the eye. This condition is called
epiphora
_______________.
10.56 The group of diseases characterized by increased intraocular
pressure, resulting in damage to the ocular nerve and causing visual
glaucoma
defects, is called _________________.
10.57 Recall that the combining forms for lens are phac/o and
phak/o
__________. The latter spelling along with the prefix pseudo- (false)
condition of
and the suffix -ia, meaning _______________ ____, forms the term for
pseudophakia
an implanted artificial lens: _______________________.
10.58 From the Greek work strabismos, meaning a squinting, comes
strabismus
this term for a condition of eye misalignment: ___________________.
Recall that the word root tropo means a turning, and that the suffix -ia
condition of
means a ________________ _____. The combining form heter/o means
the other. Another term for strabismus is named for the appearance of
heterotropia
one eye turning toward the other: ____________________. If the eye
turns inward (eso inward) toward the nose, this is called
esotropia
_________________. If the eye turns outward (exo outward), this is
exotropia
called ____________________.
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499
REVIEW
10.59 A breakdown of tissues in the macula that causes a
macular
loss of central vision is called ________________
degeneration
______________________.
10.60 Separation of the retina from the underlying tissue, usually
detachment
requiring surgical repair, is called retinal ____________________.
10.61 The Latin word hordeolus means a little barley grain, which
is similar in appearance to a sty, an acute infection of a sebaceous
hordeolum
gland of the eyelid. The medical term for a sty is ___________________.
10.62 The combining form pteryg/o means wing-shaped. A
triangular, or wing-shaped, fibrous growth of conjunctival tissue
pterygium
extending onto the cornea is called ________________. Pterygia are
ultraviolet
most commonly caused by prolonged exposure to _________________
light.
presence
10.63 Recall that the suffix -iasis means formation or _____________
of. The combining form trich/o means hair. The presence of
misdirected eyelashes that rub on the conjunctiva or cornea is
trichiasis
called _________________.
10.64 Ambly/o, a combining form meaning dim, is the foundation of
amblyopia
the term ________________, commonly called lazy eye, that describes
the condition of decreased vision in early life because of a functional
defect (e.g., strabismus and refractive error).
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
Study the following:
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
distance visual acuity
(Fig. 10-11)
distănts vizhyū-ăl ă-kyūi-tē
measure of the ability to see the details and shape of
identifiable objects from a specified distance, usually from
20 feet (6 meters); normal distance visual acuity is 20/20 (6/6)
fluorescein angiography
(Fig. 10-12)
flōr-esē-in an-jē-ogră-f ē
visualization and photography of retinal and choroidal
vessels made as fluorescein dye, which is injected into a
vein, circulates through the eye
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FIGURE 10-11 ■ Snellen eye
chart for testing distance visual
acuity.
A
C
B
FIGURE 10-12 ■ Fluorescein angiography photographs. A. Right eye before
injection of fluorescein. B. Maximal levels
of fluorescein circulating through the
retinal blood vessels 30 seconds after
injection. C. Elimination after 5 minutes.
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Macula
Optic disk
Vein
Artery
D
FIGURE 10-13 ■ A. Doctor performing ophthalmoscopy using an ophthalmoscope. B. Normal retina.
C. Aneurysms seen in diabetic retinopathy. D. Retinal detachment.
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
ophthalmoscopy (Fig. 10-13)
of-thăl-moskŏ-p ē
use of an ophthalmoscope to view the interior of the eye
slit lamp biomicroscopy
(Fig. 10-14)
slit lamp bı̄ō-mı̄-krosk ŏ-pē
use of a tabletop microscope used to examine the eye,
especially the cornea, lens, fluids, and membranes
sonography
sŏ-nogră-f ē
use of high-frequency sound waves to detect pathology
within the eye (e.g., foreign bodies and detached retina)
tonometry (Fig. 10-15)
t ō-nomĕ-trē
use of a tonometer to measure intraocular pressure, which
is elevated in glaucoma
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FIGURE 10-14 ■
Slit lamp biomicroscope.
FIGURE 10-15 ■
Tonometer/tonometry.
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
ANSWERS
REVIEW
10.65 Again, the three combining forms meaning eye are ocul/o,
ophthalm/o
opt/o, and __________________. The last one is used with the suffix
that means the process of examination to make the term for use of an
ophthalmoscopy
ophthalmoscope to view the interior of the eye: ____________________.
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ANSWERS
503
REVIEW
10.66 The diagnostic test that measures the ability to see objects at
a specified distance, usually from 20 feet (6 meters), is called distance
visual acuity
____________ ____________. A result of 20/20 (6/6) represents
normal
_____________ distance visual acuity.
10.67 Angiography, which is radiography of blood vessels after
injection of a contrast medium, is used in many body areas. The
fluorescein
procedure used with the eye is called ________________ angiography,
which is named for the fluorescein dye that is injected into a vein to
circulate through the eye.
10.68 The use of high-frequency sound waves to make an image
sonography
for detecting pathology in the eye is called __________________, or
recording
ultrasound. The suffix -graphy means a process of _________________.
10.69 A tonometer measures intraocular pressure as a test for
tonometry
glaucoma. This procedure is called __________________. The suffix
process
-metry means a ______________ of measuring.
10.70 A special microscope is used to examine eye structures. This
biomicroscopy
procedure is called slit lamp ______________________.
Self-Instruction: Operative Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
blepharoplasty
blef ă-rō-plast-t ē
surgical repair of an eyelid
cataract extraction
kată-rakt ek-strakshŭn
excision of a cloudy lens from the eye
cryoretinopexy
krı̄-ō-reti-nō-pek-sē
cryopexy
krı̄ō-pek-sē
use of intense cold to seal a hole or tear in the retina; used
to treat retinal detachment
dacryocystectomy
dakrē-ō-sis-tektŏ-mē
excision of a lacrimal sac
enucleation
ē-nū-klē-āshŭn
excision of an eyeball
iridectomy
ir-i-dektŏ-mē
excision of a portion of iris tissue
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FIGURE 10-16 ■
application.
Simulation of laser
TERM
MEANING
iridotomy
ir-i-dotŏ-mē
incision into the iris (usually with a laser) to allow drainage
of aqueous humor from the posterior to anterior chamber;
used to treat a type of glaucoma
keratoplasty
keră-tō-plas-tē
corneal transplantation; replacement of a diseased or scarred
cornea with a healthy one from a matched donor
laser surgery (Fig. 10-16)
lāzĕr sŭrjĕr-ē
use of a laser to make incisions or destroy tissues; used to
create fluid passages or obliterate tumors, aneurysms, etc.
laser-assisted in situ
keratomileusis (LASIK)
lāzĕr-ă-sistĕd in sı̄tū keră-tōmı̄-lūsis (lāsik)
a technique using the excimer laser to reshape the surface
of the cornea to correct refractive error (e.g., myopia,
hyperopia, and astigmatism) (smileusis carving)
intraocular lens (IOL)
implant (Fig. 10-17)
intră-okyū-lăr lenz implant
implantation of an artificial lens to replace a defective
natural lens (e.g., after cataract extraction)
phacoemulsification
fakō-ē-mŭl-si-fi-kāshŭn
use of ultrasound to shatter and break up a cataract, with
aspiration and removal
scleral buckling
sklērăl bŭkling
surgery to treat retinal detachment by placing a band
of silicone around the sclera to cinch it toward the
middle of the eye and relieve pull on the retina; often
combined with other techniques to seal retinal tears
(e.g., cryoretinopexy)
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FIGURE 10-17 ■ Size comparison of an intraocular lens to a
dime.
Programmed Review: Operative Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
10.71 Recall that the suffix for surgical repair or reconstruction
-plasty
is ____________. The surgical repair of an eyelid is termed
blepharoplasty
______________________.
10.72 The combining form cry/o means cold. Recall that the
-pexy
operative suffix meaning suspension or fixation is __________.
The operative procedure using intense cold to seal a hole in the
cryoretinopexy
retina is called _______________________, or simply cryopexy.
10.73 The excision of a cloudy lens from the eye is called a
cataract
_______________ extraction. After the lens has been excised, an
artificial lens may be implanted in a procedure called an
intraocular lens implant
_________________ ________ (IOL) _______________. The prefix
within
intra- means ______________.
lacrimal
10.74 Recall that dacryocyst means _______________ sac, and
-ectomy
that the surgical suffix for excision is ______________. Therefore,
dacryocystectomy
the term for excision of a lacrimal sac is ______________________.
10.75 The excision of a portion of iris tissue is
iridectomy
____________________.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
-tomy
10.76 The surgical suffix meaning incision is ____________.
An incision into the iris to allow drainage from the posterior
iridotomy
chamber is called an __________________.
10.77 The Latin word enucleo means to remove the kernel,
such as the kernel of a nut. The medical term for removing an
entire structure, such as the eyeball (or a tumor), without
enucleation
rupturing it is ___________________.
10.78 The two combining forms referring to the cornea are
kerat/o
corne/o and _____________, which also can mean hard. Combining
the latter with the suffix for surgical repair or reconstruction
keratoplasty
yields this term for a corneal transplant: ______________________.
10.79 Lasers are used in many operative techniques to make
laser
incisions or destroy tissues. This is generally called ____________
surgery
________________. A special technique using a laser to reshape
in situ
the surface of the cornea is termed laser-assisted ____ ________
keratomileusis
_____________________ (LASIK).
10.80 The term emulsification refers to breaking up a substance
and distributing it through another substance, generally a liquid.
A surgical procedure uses ultrasound to shatter and break up a
cataract such that after emulsification, it can be removed by
phacoemulsification
aspiration. This procedure is called __________________________.
10.81 A surgical procedure to treat retinal detachment by
placing a “buckle-like” band of silicone around the sclera to
cinch it toward the middle of the eye and relieve pull on the
buckling
retina is simply called scleral ______________.
Self-Instruction: Therapeutic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
contact lens
kontakt lenz
small, plastic, curved disk with optical correction that fits over
the cornea; used to correct refractive errors
eye instillation
ı̄ in-sti-lāshŭn
introduction of a medicated solution in the eye, usually
administered by a drop (gt) or drops (gtt) in the affected eye
or eyes
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TERM
MEANING
eye irrigation
ı̄ iri-gāshŭn
washing of the eye with water or other fluid (e.g., saline)
507
COMMON THERAPEUTIC DRUG CLASSIFICATIONS
antibiotic ophthalmic
solution
antē-bı̄-otik of-thalmik
sŏ-lūshŭn
antimicrobial agent in solution; used to treat bacterial
infections (e.g., conjunctivitis and corneal ulcers)
cycloplegic
sı̄-klō-plējik
agent that paralyzes the ciliary muscle and the powers of
accommodation; commonly used in pediatric eye examinations
mydriatic
mi-drē-atik
agent that causes dilation of the pupil; used for certain eye
examinations
miotic
mı̄-otik
agent that causes the pupil to contract (mio less)
Programmed Review: Therapeutic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
10.82 The plastic lens that the user fits over the cornea to correct
contact lens
refractive errors is called a ______________ _______.
10.83 Introduction of a medicated solution in the eye is called an
instillation, drop
eye ____________________, usually administered by a ________ (gt) or
gtt
drops (_____) in the affected eye or eyes. Washing the eye with water
irrigation
or other fluid is called eye _________________.
10.84 A solution composed of an antimicrobial agent in a fluid for
antibiotic
treatment of bacterial eye infections is called an __________________
ophthalmic
____________________ solution.
10.85 The term mydriasis means dilation of the pupil. A therapeutic
drug that causes dilation of the pupil for an eye examination is called
mydriatic
a ________________ agent.
10.86 In contrast, miosis means contraction of the pupil. A
therapeutic drug that causes the pupil to contract is called a
miotic
_____________ agent.
circle
10.87 Cycl/o is a combining form referring either to a ___________ or
ciliary
the ____________ body, a ring-like structure in the eye that contains
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
ciliary muscles. Recall from Chapter 8 that -plegia is a suffix meaning
paralysis
______________. The term pertaining to an agent that paralyzes the
ciliary muscle and powers of accommodation during some eye
cycloplegic
examinations, using the adjective form of -plegia, is ________________.
CHAPTER 10 ACRONYMS AND ABBREVIATIONS
ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
IOL
intraocular lens
LASIK
laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis
CHAPTER 10 SUMMARY OF TERMS
The terms introduced in chapter 10 are listed below, followed by the page number on which each
term can be found and its written pronunciation. For additional practice and reinforcement, write
the definition of each term on a separate piece of paper.
accommodation/491
ă-komŏ-dāshŭn
blepharospasm/489
blef ă-rō-spazm
amblyopia/492
am-blē-ōpē-ă
canal of Schlemm/485
kă-nal of shlem
anterior chamber/484
an-tērē-ŏr chāmbĕr
cataract/492
kată-rakt
antibiotic ophthalmic solution/507
antē-bı̄-otik of-thalmik sŏ-lūshŭn
cataract extraction/503
kată-rakt ek-strakshŭn
aphakia/492
ă-fākē-ă
chalazion/492
ka-lāzē-on
aqueous humor/485
akwē-ŭs hyūmŏr
choroid/485
kōroyd
asthenopia/489
as-thĕ-nōpē-ă
ciliary body/485
silē-ar-ē bodē
astigmatism/491
ă-stigmă-tizm
ciliary muscle/485
silē-ar-ē mŭsĕl
blepharitis/492
blef ă-rı̄tis
ciliary processes/485
silē-ar-ē proses-ēz
blepharochalasis/492
blef ă-rō-kală-sis
cones/486
kōnz
blepharoplasty/503
blef ă-rō-plast-t ē
conjunctiva/485
kon-jŭnk-tı̄vă
blepharoptosis/492
blef ă-roptō-sis
conjunctivitis/492
kon-jŭnk-ti-vı̄tis
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contact lens/506
kontakt lenz
eyelid/485
ı̄lid
cornea/485
kōrnē-ă
fluorescein angiography/499
flōr-esē-in an-jē-ogră-fē
cryopexy/503
krı̄ō-pek-sē
fovea centralis/485
fōvē-ă sen-trālis
cryoretinopexy/503
krı̄-ō-reti-nō-pek-sē
fundus/485
f ŭndŭs
cycloplegic/507
sı̄-klō-plējik
glands of Zeis/485
glanz of tsı̄s
dacryoadenitis/492
dakrē-ō-ad-ĕ-nı̄tis
glaucoma/493
glaw-kōmă
dacryocystectomy/503
dakrē-ō-sis-tektō-mē
heterotropia/496
hetĕr-ō-trōpē-ă
dacryocystitis/492
dakrē-ō-sis-tı̄tis
hordeolum/493
hōr-dēō-lŭm
dermatochalasis/492
dermă-tō-kă-lāsis
hyperopia/491
hı̄-pĕr-ōpē-ă
diabetic retinopathy/493
dı̄-ă-betik ret-i-nopă-thē
intraocular lens (IOL) implant/504
intră-okyū-lăr lenz implant
diplopia/490
di-plōpē-ă
iridectomy/503
iri-dektŏ-mē
distance visual acuity/499
distănts vı̆zhyū-ăl ă-kyūi-tē
iridotomy/504
ir-i-dotŏ-mē
ectropion/493
ek-trōpē-on
iris/485
ı̄ris
entropion/493
en-trōpē-on
iritis/495
ı̄-rı̄tis
enucleation/503
ē-nū-klē-āshŭn
keratitis/495
ker-ă-tı̄tis
epiphora/493
ē-pifō-ră
keratoplasty/504
keră-tō-plas-tē
esotropia/496
es-ō-trōpē-ă
lacrimal ducts/485
lakri-măl dŭkts
exophthalmos or exophthalmus/490
ek-sof-thalmos or ek-sof-thalmŭs
lacrimal gland/485
lakri-măl gland
exotropia/496
ek-sō-trōpē-ă
lacrimal sac/485
lakri-măl sak
eye instillation/506
ı̄ in-sti-lāshŭn
lacrimation/490
lak-ri-māshŭn
eye irrigation/507
ı̄ iri-gāshŭn
laser surgery/504
lāzĕr sŭrjĕr-ē
509
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laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis
(LASIK)/504
lāzĕr-ă-sist ĕd in sı̄tū keră-tō-mı̄-lūsis (lāsik)
lens/485
lenz
lens capsule/486
lenz kapsūl
macula/486
makyū-lă
macula lutea/486
makyū-lă lūtĕ-ā
macular degeneration/495
makyū-lăr dē-jen-ĕr-āshŭn
meibomian glands/485
mı̄-bōmē-ăn glanz
miotic/507
mı̄-otik
mydriatic/507
mi-drē-atik
myopia/491
mı̄-ōpē-ă
nasolacrimal duct/486
nā-zō-lakri-măl dŭkt
nystagmus/490
nis-tagmŭs
ophthalmoscopy/501
of-thăl-moskŏ-pē
optic disk/486
optik disk
optic nerve/486
optik nĕrv
palpebra/485
pal-pēbră
phacoemulsification/504
fakō-ē-mŭl-si-fi-kāshŭn
photophobia/490
fō-tō-fōbē-ă
posterior chamber/486
pos-tērē-ōr chāmbĕr
presbyopia/491
prez-bē-ōpē-ă
pseudophakia/495
sū-dō-fakē-ă
pterygium/495
tĕ-rijē-ŭm
ptosis/492
tō-sis
pupil/486
pyūpı̆l
refractive errors/491
rē-fraktiv erōrz
retina/486
reti-nă
retinal detachment/495
reti-năl dē-tachment
retinitis/496
ret-i-nı̄tis
rods/486
rodz
sclera/486
sklēră
scleral buckling/504
sklērăl bŭkling
scleritis/496
sklĕ-rı̄tis
scotoma/490
skō-tōmă
slit lamp biomicroscopy/501
slit lamp biō-mı̄-kroskŏ-pē
sonography/501
sŏ-nogră-fē
strabismus/496
stra-bizmŭs
tonometry/501
tō-nomĕ-trē
trabecular meshwork/486
tră-bekyū-lăr meshwĕrk
trichiasis/496
tri-kı̄ă-sis
vitreous/486
vitrē-ŭs
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PRACTICE EXERCISES
For each of the following words, write out the term components (prefixes [P], combining
forms [CF], roots [R], and suffixes [S]) on the lines below the word. Then define the term
according to the meaning of its components.
EXAMPLE
epikeratophakia
epi / kerato / phak/ ia
P CF
R
S
DEFINITION: upon/cornea/lens/condition of
1. blepharoptosis
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
2. iridotomy
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
3. ophthalmology
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
4. vitrectomy
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
5. dacryolithiasis
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
6. lacrimal
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
7. photophobia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
511
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8. keratoplasty
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _________________________________________________________________________
9. aqueous
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
10. iritis
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
11. corneal
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
12. phacolysis
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
13. retinopathy
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
14. ocular
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
15. conjunctivitis
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
16. presbyopia
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
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17. optometry
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
18. aphakia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
19. hyperopia
___________ / ___________
P
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
20. scleromalacia
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
Write the letter of the definition that matches each of the following refractive disorders:
21. myopia
_______
a. loss of accommodation due to old age
22. strabismus
_______
b. lazy eye
23. presbyopia
_______
c. farsightedness
24. astigmatism
_______
d. crossed eyes
25. hyperopia
_______
e. distorted vision
26. amblyopia
_______
f. nearsightedness
Complete each medical term by writing the missing part:
27. ___________itis inflammation of the cornea
28. ___________phobia extreme sensitivity to light
29. dacryo___________ectomy excision of a tear sac
30. ___________ophthalmos protrusion of the eyeball
31. ___________chalasis baggy eyelids
Briefly define the following medical terms:
32. entropion
________________________________________________________________________
33. diplopia
________________________________________________________________________
34. tonometer
________________________________________________________________________
35. ectropion
________________________________________________________________________
36. scotoma
________________________________________________________________________
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Write the correct medical term for each of the following definitions:
37. ___________________________ pinkeye
38. ___________________________ inflammation of the eyelid
39. ___________________________ eyestrain
40. ___________________________ agent that causes dilation of the pupil
41. ___________________________ absence of the lens of the eye
42. ___________________________ sty; acute infection of a meibomian gland of the eyelid
43. ___________________________ clouding of the lens causing decreased vision
44. ___________________________ breakdown or thinning of the tissues in the macula, resulting
in partial or complete loss of central vision
45. ___________________________ involuntary contraction of the muscles surrounding the eye
46. ___________________________ involuntary, rapid oscillating movement of the eyeball
47. ___________________________ placement of a buckle-like band around the sclera to treat
retinal detachment
Circle the combining form that corresponds to the meaning given:
48. eye
or/o
opt/o
ot/o
49. old age
presby/o
scler/o
phas/o
50. glassy
aque/o
vitre/o
hydr/o
51. light
phon/o
phot/o
opt/o
52. hard or sclera
corne/o
vitre/o
scler/o
53. lens (lentil)
phac/o
scler/o
conjunctiv/o
54. colored circle
chrom/o
irid/o
corne/o
55. tear
dacry/o
hydr/o
aque/o
56. eyelid
ocul/o
ophthalm/o
blephar/o
57. water
aque/o
hidr/o
vitre/o
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CHAPTER 10 • THE EYE
Identify the parts of the eye by writing the missing words in the spaces provided:
58.
(palpebra)
Canal of
Schlemm
64.
Meibomian
glands
Choroid
Glands of
Zeis
62.
chamber
Lashes
Pupil
59.
Fovea
centralis
Lens capsule
60.
Anterior
chamber
Ciliary processes
65.
63. Ciliary body and
Blood supply
to retina
Posterior
chamber
nerve
muscle
Iris
Conjunctiva
61.
Optic disk
58.
62.
59.
63.
60.
64.
61.
65.
For each of the following, circle the correct spelling of the term:
66. asthenopia
assthinopia
asthinopia
67. terigium
pterygium
pteregium
68. horadeolum
hordeolum
hordeaolum
69. nistagmis
nystagmis
nystagmus
70. chalazeon
shalazion
chalazion
71. mydriatic
midriatic
myadriatic
72. skotoma
scotoma
schotoma
73. epiphora
epifora
epifhora
74. dakryeocyst
dacryocyst
dacreyocyst
75. opthalmoscope
ofthalmoscope
ophthalmoscope
Give the noun that is used to form each adjective:
76. conjunctival
_______________________
77. myopic
_______________________
78. scleral
_______________________
79. macular
_______________________
80. exophthalmic
_______________________
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MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 10-1
PROGRESS NOTE
S: This 51 y/o c/o a growth in the corner of her right eye that is dry and irritated. She has
had the feeling that there was “something in the eye” for about 4 months before actually
noticing the growth three weeks ago. She wears contacts to correct farsightedness but has
recently switched to eyeglasses because of the discomfort. She is active physically and
loves tennis and water sports, but she does not frequently wear sunglasses.
O: Inspection of the right eye reveals an inflamed, raised, whitish, triangular wedge of
fibrovascular tissue, the base of which lies within the interpalpebral conjunctiva and the
apex of which encroaches on the cornea. A photo documentation is made and included in
the chart.
A: INFLAMED PTERYGIUM, RIGHT EYE
P: 1) The patient is advised that the pterygium is not dangerous, but that further growth
could interfere with vision and warrant surgical excision. She was counseled on the importance of wearing UV blocking sunglasses and advised to avoid smoky or dusty areas as
much as possible.
2) RX: fluorometholone, 0.1% suspension, 1 gt q4h OD during the day for inflammation;
OTC artificial tears solution, prn dryness/irritation
3) RTO in 3 months for slit lamp evaluation, or sooner if symptoms persist.
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 10-1
1. Describe the refractive error noted in the
subjective information:
a. eyestrain
b. inflammation of the cornea
c. difficulty seeing distant objects
d. difficulty seeing close objects
e. blind spot in vision
2. Which action on the part of the patient
likely contributed to the condition?
a. wearing contact lenses
b. removing contact lenses
c. playing tennis
d. not routinely wearing sunglasses
e. strenuous physical activity
3. Which ophthalmologic procedure is
included in the plan?
a. use of laser to reshape the surface of the
cornea
b. use of an ophthalmoscope to view the
interior of the eye
c. use of a tabletop microscope to examine
the eye, especially the cornea
d. implantation of an artificial lens
e. use of a tonometer to measure the
intraocular pressure
4. How should the fluorometholone be
administered?
a. one drop every 4 hours
b. four drops in the eye every morning
c. one drop every day for 4 days
d. as needed during the day
e. one drop every other day for 4 days
5. When should the patient instill the artificial
tears?
a. every day
b. every night
c. during the day
d. only as needed
e. when feeling the need to cry
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CHAPTER 10 • THE EYE
6. What caused the pterygium?
a. misdirected eyelashes that rub on the
conjunctiva or cornea
b. intraocular muscle imbalance
c. separation of the retina from the underlying epithelium
d. abnormal overflow of tears
e. ultraviolet exposure and drying
517
7. What was the patient told about the pterygium?
a. it is cancerous
b. it is not cancerous
c. it must be removed
d. both a and c
e. none of the above
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Medical Record 10-2
FOR ADDITIONAL STUDY
Not long ago, Cassandre Aquero had cataract surgery for her left eye and is now losing vision in her
right eye because of another cataract. She is consulting an ophthalmologist, Dr. Oanh Tran, about
surgery on the right eye. Medical Record 10-2 is the history and physical examination written by
Dr. Tran in planning for her surgery.
Read Medical Record 10-2 (pages 520-521), then write your answers to the following questions
in the spaces provided.
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 10-2
1. The following are medical terms used in this record that you have not yet encountered in this
text. Underline each where it appears in the record, and define each term below.
appendectomy _______________________________________________________________________
irides _______________________________________________________________________________
2. In your own words, briefly describe Ms. Aquero’s current complaint and diagnosis as noted
under “History of Present Illness:”
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
3. Describe, in lay language, the two medical conditions that Ms. Aquero has in addition to her
current problem and past surgeries:
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
4. Which of the following findings on physical examination is related to Ms. Aquero’s general
medical condition in addition to her eye problems?
a. rales on auscultation
b. disoriented consciousness
c. BP 180/100
d. weight 135 lb.
5. The planned operation involves several risks that the patient has accepted in the hopes of
regaining good eyesight. Which of the following was not mentioned by Dr. Tran as a risk?
a. hypertensive crisis
b. retinal detachment
c. edema of the macula
d. bleeding
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CHAPTER 10 • THE EYE
519
6. The preoperative nursing staff will ensure that Ms. Aquero receives five medications before
surgery. Translate the instructions for these:
a. __________________________________________________________________________________
b. __________________________________________________________________________________
c. __________________________________________________________________________________
d. __________________________________________________________________________________
e. __________________________________________________________________________________
7. In your own words, not using medical terminology, briefly describe what will occur in the
surgery:
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
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Medical Record 10-2: For Additional Study
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CHAPTER 10 • THE EYE
Medical Record 10-2: For Additional Study (Continued)
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ANSWERS TO PRACTICE EXERCISES
1. blepharo/ptosis
________ ______
CF
S
eyelid/falling or downward displacement
2. irido/tomy
____ _____
CF S
iris/incision
3. ophthalmo/logy
_________ _____
CF
S
eye/study of
4. vitr/ectomy
___ _______
R
S
glassy/excision or
removal
5. dacryo/lith/iasis
______ ___ ____
CF
R S
tear/stone/formation or
presence of
6. lacrim/al
_____ __
R S
tear/pertaining to
7. photo/phob/ia
_____ _____ __
CF
R S
light/sensitivity/
condition of
8. kerato/plasty
_____ ______
CF
S
cornea/surgical repair or
reconstruction
9. aque/ous
____ ____
R S
water/pertaining to
10. _ir/itis
___
R S
iris/inflammation
11. corne/al
_____ __
R S
cornea/pertaining to
12. phaco/lysis
_____ _____
CF
S
lens (lentil)/breaking
down or dissolution
13. retino/path/y
_____ ____ __
CF
R S
retina/disease/condition
or process of
14. ocul/ar
____ __
R S
eye/pertaining to
15. _________
conjunctiv/itis
___
R
S
conjunctiva (to join
together)/inflammation
16. presby/opia
______ ____
R
S
old age/condition of
vision
17. opto/metry
____ ______
CF
S
eye/process of measuring
18. a/phak/ia
_ ____ __
P R S
without/lens (lentil)/
condition or process of
19. hyper/opia
_____ ____
P
S
above or excessive/
condition of vision
20. sclero/malacia
_____ _______
CF
S
sclera/softening
21. f
22. d
23. a
24. e
25. c
26. b
27. keratitis
28. photophobia
29. dacryocystectomy
30. exophthalmos
31. blepharochalasis or
dermatochalasis
32. inward turning of the
rim of the eyelid
33. double vision
34. instrument to measure
intraocular pressure
35. outward turning of the
rim of the eyelid
36. blind spot in vision
37. conjunctivitis
38. blepharitis
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
56.
57.
58.
59.
60.
61.
62.
63.
64.
65.
66.
67.
68.
69.
70.
71.
72.
73.
74.
75.
76.
77.
78.
79.
80.
asthenopia
mydriatic
aphakia
hordeolum
cataract
macular degeneration
blepharospasm
nystagmus
scleral buckling
opt/o
presby/o
vitre/o
phot/o
scler/o
phac/o
irid/o
dacry/o
blephar/o
aque/o
eyelid
cornea
lens
sclera
vitreous
ciliary
retina
optic
asthenopia
pterygium
hordeolum
nystagmus
chalazion
mydriatic
scotoma
epiphora
dacryocyst
ophthalmoscope
conjunctiva
myopia
sclera
macula
exophthalmos or
exophthalmus
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CHAPTER 10 • THE EYE
ANSWERS TO MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 10-1: Progress Note
1. d
2. d
3. c
4. a
5. d
6. e
7. b
Medical Record 10-2: For Additional Study
See CD-ROM for answers.
523
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CHAPTER
11
The Ear
✓ Chapter 11 Checklist
LOCATION
Read Chapter 11: The Ear and complete all programmed review segments.
pages 525-543
Review the starter set of flash cards and term components related to
Chapter 11.
back of book
Complete the Chapter 11 Practice Exercises and Medical Record Analysis 11-1.
pages 546-550
Complete Medical Record Analysis 11-2 For Additional Study.
pages 551-556
Complete the Chapter 11 Exercises by Chapter.
CD-ROM
Complete the Chapter 11 Review and Test Modes.
CD-ROM
Review the Pronunciation Drill for the Chapter 11 terms.
CD-ROM
OVERVIEW OF THE EAR
The three divisions of the ear function to provide the sense of hearing (Fig. 11-1):
The external ear, from the pinna (or auricle), gathers sounds, which funnel through the external auditory canal.
Sounds reach the tympanum, or eardrum, in the middle ear. The tympanum transmits sound
vibrations to the auditory ossicles (the malleus, incus, and stapes) and to the oval window, which
stimulates the auditory fluids in the inner ear. Also in the middle ear, the eustachian tube connects with the throat to maintain equal air pressure.
The inner ear, also known as the labyrinth, receives sound vibrations and passes them through
intricate, intercommunicating tubes and chambers to the organ of Corti, where nerve impulses
are generated and transmitted to the brain for processing.
The inner ear (labyrinth) also helps to maintain the body’s equilibrium by stimulating nerve
impulses resulting from movement or changes in position.
525
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THE EAR
Auricle
Malleus
Incus
Ossicles (bones
of middle ear)
Stapes
Cochlea
Facial nerve
Vestibulocochlear
nerve
Oval window
Round window
Tympanic cavity
Tympanic membrane
External auditory
canal
Eustachian tube
(auditory tube)
Endolymph
Utricle
Saccule
Cochlear
duct
Cochlea
Perilymph
Pharynx
Osseous labyrinth
Perilymph
Membranous
labyrinth
Semicircular
canals
Labyrinth and Cochlea
Ampulla
Oval window
Vestibule
Organ of Corti
FIGURE 11-1 ■
Anatomy of the ear.
Self-Instruction: Combining Forms
Study the following:
COMBINING FORM
MEANING
acous/o, audi/o
hearing
aer/o
air or gas
aur/i, ot/o
ear
cerumin/o
wax
salping/o
eustachian tube or uterine tube
tympan/o, myring/o
eardrum
-acusis (suffix)
hearing condition
Programmed Review: Combining Forms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
11.1 The two combining forms for hearing are used in many
everyday words in addition to medical terms. People speak of the
acoustics of a room, for example, and of audible noises. These two
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CHAPTER 11 • THE EAR
527
ANSWERS
REVIEW
acous/o, audi/o
combining forms are _____________ and ____________. Related to the
combining form acous/o is the suffix for a hearing condition:
-acusis
_____________. The term presbyacusis, for example, means hearing
loss because of old age. Recall that the suffix meaning process of
-metry
measuring is ___________. The medical process of measuring a
person’s hearing, using the other combining form, is
audiometry
_____________________.
aer/o
11.2 The combining form for air or gas is __________. This
combining form is used in many medical terms. An aerobe, for
example, is a microbe that lives in the presence of air, whereas a
microbe that lives without air (formed with the prefix meaning
anaerobe
without) is an _________________.
ot/o
11.3 The two combining forms for ear are aur/i and _______. The
medical study of the ear is called otology. The physician who
otologist
specializes in the study and treatment of the ear is an ______________.
Otology is a subspecialty of otorhinolaryngology (otolaryngology),
ear
involving the study and treatment of the ________, nose, and throat
(more commonly known as ENT).
aur/i
11.4 The other combining form meaning ear is __________. The
auricle, for example, is the outer, visible part of the ear.
11.5 The combining form referring to ear wax comes from the
Latin word cera, meaning wax. That combining form is
cerumin/o
________________. Recall that the suffix meaning condition or
-osis
increase is __________; therefore, the term for a condition of
ceruminosis
excessive ear wax is ___________________.
11.6 The combining form for the eustachian tube (or uterine tube)
comes from the Greek word salpinx, meaning trumpet. That
salping/o
combining form is ________________. Using the common suffix for
inflammation, the medical term for inflammation of the eustachian
salpingitis
tube in the ear or uterine tube is __________________. The context
in which the term is used is key to knowing which meaning is
appropriate.
11.7 A kind of drum used in symphony orchestras is called a
tympany, from the Greek word for drum. The combining form for
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
tympan/o
the eardrum is _________________. Recall that the suffix for surgical
-tomy
incision is ____________. An incision into the eardrum is therefore
tympanotomy
called a ________________________.
11.8 A second combining form for eardrum comes from the Latin
word for drum membrane: myringa. That combining form is
myring/o
_______________. Recall that the suffix for surgical excision is
-ectomy
_____________. Combine these term components to create the
myringectomy
medical term for the excision of the eardrum: _____________________.
Self-Instruction: Anatomic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
external ear
eks-tĕrnăl ēr
outer structures of the ear that collect sound
pinna
pină
auricle (little ear); projected part of the external ear
(pinna feather)
external auditory
meatus or canal
eks-tĕrnăl awdi-tōr-ē
mē-ātŭs or kă-nal
external passage for sounds collected from the pinna to the
tympanum
cerumen
sĕ-rūmen
a waxy substance secreted by glands located throughout the
external canal
middle ear
midĕl ēr
structures in the middle of the ear that vibrate sound from the
tympanic membrane to the inner ear
tympanic membrane
(TM) (see Fig. 11-3, B)
tim-panik membrān
eardrum; drum-like structure that receives sound collected
in the external auditory canal and amplifies it through the
middle ear
malleus
malē-ŭs
hammer; first of the three auditory ossicles of the middle ear
incus
ingkŭs
anvil; middle of the three auditory ossicles of the middle ear
stapes
stāpēz
stirrup; last of the three auditory ossicles of the middle ear
eustachian tube
yū-stāshǎn tūb
auditory tube
awdi-tōr-ē tūb
tube connecting the middle ear to the pharynx (throat)
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CHAPTER 11 • THE EAR
529
TERM
MEANING
oval window
ōval windō
membrane that covers the opening between the middle ear
and inner ear
inner ear
inĕr ēr
labyrinth
labi-rinth
intricate, fluid-filled, intercommunicating bony and
membranous passages that function in hearing by relaying
sound waves to auditory nerve fibers on a path to the brain
for interpretation; also sense body movement and position to
maintain balance and equilibrium (labyrinth maze)
cochlea
koklē-ă
coiled tubular structure of the inner ear that contains the
organ of Corti (cochlea snail)
perilymph
peri-limf
fluid that fills the bony labyrinth of the inner ear
endolymph
endō-limf
fluid within the membranous labyrinth of the inner ear
organ of Corti
ōrgan of kōrtē
structure located in the cochlea; contains receptors (hair cells)
that receive vibrations and generate nerve impulses for hearing
vestibule
vesti-byūl
middle part of the inner ear, in front of the semicircular canals
and behind the cochlea, that contains the utricle and the
saccule; functions to provide body balance and equilibrium
utricle
ūtri-kĕl
the larger of two sacs within the membranous labyrinth of the
vestibule in the inner ear (uter leather bag)
saccule
sakyūl
the smaller of two sacs within the membranous labyrinth of
the vestibule in the inner ear (sacculus small bag)
semicircular canals
semē-sĕrkyū-lar kă-nalz
three canals within the inner ear that contain specialized
receptor cells that generate nerve impulses with body movement
Programmed Review: Anatomic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
11.9 The outer, projecting part of the external ear is called the
pinna
auricle or __________. The plural form of this term is
pinnae
____________. The adjective form is pinnal.
external
11.10 Sound waves travel from the pinna through the ____________
auditory
________________ canal toward the eardrum. Glands along this
cerumen
canal secrete a waxy substance called ________________.
tympanum
11.11 The tympanic membrane, or ___________________, is
the beginning of the middle ear. Also called the eardrum, this
structure amplifies sounds into the middle ear.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
bones
11.12 The middle ear has three ossicles, which are small _________,
that are named because of their shapes. The first, named for its
malleus
hammer shape, is the _______________. The malleus receives
sound vibrations from the tympanum and transmits them to the
incus
anvil-shaped bone, called the ___________, which transmits them
stapes
to the stirrup-shaped bone, called the _____________. The stapes
transfers the vibrations to the inner ear.
11.13 It is necessary to equalize air pressure outside of the body
with that of the middle ear. The tube connecting the middle ear to the
eustachian
throat (pharynx) is the ________________ tube (named for the Italian
anatomist Eustachio). This is sometimes also called the auditory tube.
11.14 The opening between the middle ear and the inner ear is
oval window
covered with a membrane called the _________ ______________,
which is named for its rounded shape and window-like covering.
The stapes transmits sound vibrations to the oval window and,
inner
thus, into the ____________ ear.
11.15 The inner ear is a network of interconnecting tubes and
labyrinth
chambers that looks like a maze and is also called the ______________.
11.16 The combining form lymph/o refers to clear liquid. The prefix
within
peri- means around, and the prefix endo- means _____________. The
fluid that fills the bony labyrinth in the inner ear is called
perilymph
________________, and the fluid within the membranous labyrinth
endolymph
is called ________________. The coiled, snail-shaped structure
cochlea
containing the organ of Corti is the ______________.
organ of
11.17 Nerve receptors are located inside the _____________ _____
Corti
___________. This organ generates nervous impulses for hearing.
11.18 The middle part of the inner ear that contains the utricle and
vestibule
saccule is the __________________. Recall that the suffix -ule means
small
____________. The larger of the two sacs in the vestibule is the
utricle, saccule
_______________, and the smaller of the two sacs is the _____________.
11.19 The labyrinth structures with partially circular shapes that
generate nerve impulses with body movement are called
semicircular canals
_______________ ___________. These nerve receptors help to maintain
the body’s balance and equilibrium.
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Self-Instruction: Symptomatic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
otalgia
ō-taljē-ă
otodynia
ō-tō-dinē-ă
earache
otorrhagia
ō-tō-rājē-ă
bleeding from the ear
otorrhea
ō-tō-rēă
purulent drainage from the ear
tinnitus
tini-tŭs
a jingling; a ringing or buzzing in the ear
vertigo
vĕrti-gō
a turning round; dizziness
Programmed Review: Symptomatic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
ear
11.20 The combining form ot/o means ________. Recall that the
pain
suffix -algia means _________. Thus, the term for ear pain, or
otalgia
an earache, is _______________.
bleeding or to burst forth
11.21 The suffix -rrhagia means ___________________. The
otorrhagia
term for bleeding from the ear is ____________________.
11.22 Recall that the symptomatic suffix meaning discharge is
-rrhea
____________. The term for a purulent drainage (discharge) from
otorrhea
the ear is ________________.
11.23 The Latin word tinnitus means to jingle. The symptom
of hearing a jingling, ringing, or buzzing sound in the ear is
tinnitus
________________.
11.24 The Latin word vertigo means dizziness or turning
around. The symptom of feeling that one is turning around, or
vertigo
feeling dizzy, is called _______________.
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Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
EXTERNAL EAR
otitis externa
(Fig. 11-2, B)
ō-tı̄tis eks-tĕrnă
inflammation of the external auditory meatus (canal)
cerumen impaction
sĕ-rūmen im-pakshŭn
excessive buildup of wax in the ear that often reduces hearing
acuity, especially in elderly persons
MIDDLE EAR
myringitis
mir-in-jı̄tis
tympanitis
tim-pă-nı̄tis
inflammation of the eardrum
otitis media (Fig. 11-3, C)
ō-tı̄tis mēdē-ă
inflammation of the middle ear
aerotitis media
ār-o-tı̄tis mēdē-ă
inflammation of the middle ear from changes in atmospheric
pressure; often occurs with frequent air travel
eustachian obstruction
yū-stāshǎn ob-strŭkshŭn
blockage of the eustachian tube, usually as a result of
infection, as in otitis media
otosclerosis
ōtō-sklĕ-rōsis
hardening of the bony tissue in the ear
B
A
FIGURE 11-2 ■ A. Otoscopic examination of the external auditory meatus
(canal). B. Otitis externa.
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533
A
FIGURE 11-3 ■ A. Doctor performing pneumatic otoscopy. B. Normal
tympanic membrane. C. Otitis media.
TERM
MEANING
INNER EAR
acoustic neuroma
ă-kūstik nū-rōmă
benign tumor on the auditory nerve (8th cranial nerve) that
causes vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss
labyrinthitis
labi-rin-thı̄tis
inflammation of the labyrinth (inner ear)
Ménière disease
mĕn-yār di-zēz
disorder of the inner ear resulting from an excessive buildup
of endolymphatic fluid, causing episodes of vertigo, tinnitus,
nausea, vomiting, and hearing loss; one or both ears can be
affected, and attacks vary in both frequency and intensity
(named after Prosper Ménière, the French physician who first
described the condition)
GENERAL
deafness
def nes
general term for partial or complete loss of hearing
conductive hearing loss
kon-dŭktiv hēring los
hearing impairment caused by interference with sound or
vibratory energy in the external canal, middle ear, or ossicles
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TERM
MEANING
sensorineural hearing loss
sensōr-i-nūrăl hēring los
hearing impairment caused by lesions or dysfunction of the
cochlea or auditory nerve
mixed hearing loss
mikst hēring los
combination of sensorineural and conductive hearing loss
presbyacusis
prezbē-ă-kūsis
presbycusis
prez-bē-kūsis
hearing impairment in old age
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
-itis
11.25 Recall that the suffix for inflammation is __________. Using
the two different combining forms meaning eardrum, two terms
myringitis
for an inflamed tympanic membrane are __________________ and
tympanitis
____________________.
11.26 There are three different types of otitis, depending on
whether the inflammation is in the external ear, middle ear, or inner
ear. Inflammation of the external auditory meatus (canal) is termed
otitis externa
_____________ ________________, and inflammation of the middle
otitis media
ear is termed _____________ ______________. Otitis interna, or
inflammation
____________________ of the inner ear, is more commonly known
labyrinthitis
as inflammation of the labyrinth, or ___________________.
11.27 Using the combining forms for both air and ear, the term
for inflammation of the middle ear from changes in atmospheric
aerotitis media
pressure is ________________ _____________.
11.28 Ear wax can build up in the external auditory canal and
become impacted. This condition of excessive ear wax is called
cerumen impaction
_______________ __________________.
11.29 A middle ear infection, such as otitis media, may cause a
eustachian
blockage of the eustachian tube, which is called a _______________
obstruction
__________________. This condition is common in young children
when the tube is small and easily obstructed.
11.30 The combining form for scler/o means hard. Recall that the
increase
suffix -osis means condition or ______________. The medical term
for the hardening (increased hardness) of bony tissue in the ear is
otosclerosis
therefore called ______________________.
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CHAPTER 11 • THE EAR
ANSWERS
535
REVIEW
11.31 The two-word term describing a benign tumor on the
auditory nerve (8th cranial nerve) that causes vertigo, tinnitus, and
hearing loss is formed by combining acous/o, the combining
hearing
form meaning _______________, and -ic, the suffix meaning
pertaining to
________________ ____, along with neur/o, the combining form
acoustic
meaning nerve and the suffix for tumor: ________________
neuroma
__________________.
tinnitus
11.32 Ringing in the ear, or _______________, and dizziness, or
vertigo
______________, along with vomiting, nausea, and hearing loss are
symptoms of an inner ear disorder resulting from an excessive
Ménière
buildup of endolymphatic fluid called _______________ disease
(named for the French physician who first described the condition).
11.33 The general term for partial or complete hearing loss is
deafness
________________, which is often called hearing impairment or
hearing disabled. Hearing loss can be caused by mechanical factors
that interfere with the transmission of sound vibrations through
conductive
the external and middle ears. This is called _________________
hearing loss. The term for hearing loss caused by dysfunction of
the cochlea or auditory nerve is formed using combining forms
sensorineural
referring to the senses and nerves: ______________________ hearing
loss. A combination of sensorineural and conductive hearing loss
mixed
is known as ___________ hearing loss.
hearing condition
11.34 The suffix -acusis means _____________ ________________.
Because the combining form presby/o means old age, the term for
presbyacusis
hearing impairment in old age is _____________________. The
presbycusis
shortened form of this term is ____________________.
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
Study the following:
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
audiometry (Fig. 11-4)
aw-dē-omĕ-trē
process of measuring hearing
audiometer
aw-dē-omĕ-ter
instrument to measure hearing
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FIGURE 11-4
TEST OR PROCEDURE
■
Audiometry: hearing screening.
EXPLANATION
audiogram
awdē-ō-gram
record of hearing measurement
audiologist
aw-dē-olō-jist
health professional who specializes in the study of hearing
impairments
auditory acuity testing
awdi-tōr-ē ă-kyūi-tē testing
physical assessment of hearing; useful in differentiating
between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss
tuning fork (Fig. 11-5)
tūning fōrk
a two-pronged, fork-like instrument that vibrates when
struck; used to test hearing, especially bone conduction
brainstem auditory
evoked potential (BAEP)
(Fig. 11-6)
brānstem awdi-tōr-ē
ē-vōkt pō-tenshăl
electrodiagnostic testing that uses computerized equipment to
measure involuntary responses to sound within the auditory
nervous system; commonly used to assess hearing in
newborns
brainstem auditory
evoked response (BAER)
brānstem awdi-tōr-ē
ē-vōkt rē-spons
otoscopy (see Fig. 11-2)
ō-toskŏ-pē
use of an otoscope to examine the external auditory canal and
tympanic membrane
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CHAPTER 11 • THE EAR
Bone conduction
A
FIGURE 11-5 ■
Air conduction
B
Tuning fork testing. A. Webber test. B. Rinne test.
TEST OR PROCEDURE
pneumatic otoscopy
(see Fig. 11-3, A)
nū-matik ō-toskŏ-pē
tympanometry
timpă-nomĕ-trē
537
EXPLANATION
otoscopic observation of the tympanic membrane as air is
released into the external auditory meatus; immobility
indicates the presence of middle ear effusion (fluid buildup),
as occurs as a result of otitis media
measurement of the compliance and mobility (conductibility)
of the tympanic membrane and ossicles of the middle ear by
monitoring the response to external airflow pressures
FIGURE 11-6 ■ Brainstem auditory evoked
potentials (BAEP) testing of a newborn.
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Programmed Review: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
ANSWERS
REVIEW
11.35 Recall that the suffix referring to the process of
-metry
measuring is ____________. Thus, the term for the process of
audiometry
measuring hearing is ____________________.
11.36 The suffix for an instrument for measuring is
-meter
_____________. Thus, the term for an instrument that
audiometer
measures hearing is __________________.
-gram
11.37 The suffix meaning a record is ___________. Thus, the
term for a record of hearing measurement is
audiogram
________________.
11.38 The suffix for someone who specializes in the study
-logist
or treatment of a certain subject area is _____________.
Thus, the term for a health professional who specializes in the
audiologist
study of hearing impairments is an ______________________.
11.39 Again, the suffix for the process of measuring is
-metry
____________. Tympan/o is the combining form for
eardrum
______________ (also called the tympanum). The process of
measuring the compliance and mobility (conductibility) of
tympanometry
the tympanic membrane is called _____________________.
This test may be used to help diagnose hearing loss.
11.40 A physical assessment of hearing that differentiates
between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss is called
auditory acuity
________________ ______________ testing. A conductive
middle
hearing loss is usually caused in the external or _____________
sensorineural
ear, whereas a ______________________ hearing loss involves
a problem in the cochlea or auditory nerve.
11.41 The vibrating device that is used in acuity testing is a
tuning fork
______________ _________. One test uses it to assess the
bone
conduction of vibration through ___________.
11.42 The electrodiagnostic test using computerized
equipment to measure involuntary responses to sound within the
auditory nervous system, such as commonly used to assess
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CHAPTER 11 • THE EAR
ANSWERS
REVIEW
brainstem
hearing in newborns, is called ________________
auditory evoked potential
______________ _____________ _______________ (BAEP).
539
11.43 The combining forms meaning ear are aur/i and
ot/o
________. The latter is combined with the suffix referring to a
process of examination to form this medical term for using an
otoscope to examine the external auditory canal and tympanic
otoscopy
membrane: _______________. The term describing otoscopic
observation of the tympanic membrane as air is released into
pneumatic
the external auditory meatus is called ________________
otoscopy (including a combining form meaning lung or air).
Self-Instruction: Operative Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
microsurgery
mı̄-krō-sǔrjĕr-ē
surgery with the use of a microscope used on delicate tissue,
such as the ear
myringotomy
mir-in-gotŏ-mē
tympanostomy (Fig. 11-7)
tim-pan-ostŏ-mē
incision into the eardrum, most often for insertion of a small
polyethylene (PE) tube to keep the canal open and prevent
fluid buildup, such as occurs in otitis media
otoplasty
ōtō-plas-tē
surgical repair of the external ear
FIGURE 11-7 ■ View through otoscope shows placement of tympanostomy tube.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
TERM
MEANING
stapedectomy
stā-pĕ-dektō-mē
excision of the stapes to correct otosclerosis
tympanoplasty
timpă-nō-plas-tē
vein graft of a scarred tympanic membrane to improve sound
conduction
Programmed Review: Operative Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
11.44 Recall that the suffix for surgical repair or reconstruction is
-plasty
___________. A surgeon might repair the external ear after trauma,
otoplasty
for example. This is called an _________________.
11.45 A surgical repair of the tympanic membrane is a
tympanoplasty
______________________. This may include a graft to a scarred
membrane to improve sound conduction.
11.46 Many of the ear’s internal structures are small and delicate,
and surgery must be performed using a microscope. This type of
microsurgery
surgery is called _____________________.
11.47 Small children often have middle ear infections, which are
otitis media
called _____________ _____________. To drain fluids from the middle
ear, small tubes are often inserted into the eardrum after a surgical
incision through the eardrum. There are two terms that describe this
tomy
procedure. One, using the suffix for incision, is myringo__________.
The other, using the suffix describing the creation of an opening, is
stomy
tympano___________.
-ectomy
11.48 The suffix meaning excision is ______________. For the
condition of hardening of the bony tissue of the ear,
otosclerosis
___________________, the stapes may be excised to correct the
stapedectomy
hearing problem. This procedure is called a ____________________.
ossicles or bones
The stapes is the last of the three auditory _______________ in the
middle
_____________ ear.
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541
Self-Instruction: Therapeutic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
auditory prosthesis
awdi-tōr-ē prosthē-sis
any internal or external device that improves or substitutes for
natural hearing
hearing aid
hēring ād
an external amplifying device designed to improve hearing by
more effective collection of sound into the ear
cochlear implant
(Fig. 11-8)
koklē-ăr implant
an electronic device implanted in the cochlea that provides
sound perception to patients with severe or profound
sensorineural (nerve) hearing loss in both ears
ear lavage
ēr lă-vahzh
irrigation of the external ear canal, often to remove excessive
buildup of cerumen
ear instillation
ēr in-sti-lāshŭn
introduction of a medicated solution into the external canal,
usually administered by drop (gt) or drops (gtt) in the
affected ears
COMMON THERAPEUTIC DRUG CLASSIFICATIONS
antibiotic
antē-bı̄-otik
a drug that inhibits the growth of or destroys microorganisms;
used to treat diseases caused by bacteria (e.g., otitis media)
antihistamine
an-tē-histă-mēn
a drug that blocks the effects of histamine
histamine
hist ă-mēn
a regulatory body substance released in allergic reactions,
causing swelling and inflammation of tissues; seen in hay
fever and urticaria (hives)
1. External speech processor captures sound and
converts it into digital signals
2. Processor sends digital signals to internal
implant
A
FIGURE 11-8 ■
processor.
3. Internal implant converts signals into electrical
energy, sending it to an electrode array inside the
cochlea
4. Electrodes stimulate hearing nerve, bypassing
damaged hair cells, and the brain perceives
signals to hear sound
B
A. Operation of a cochlear implant. B. Side view showing placement of external speech
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TERM
MEANING
antiinflammatory
antē-in-flamă-tō-rē
a drug that reduces inflammation
decongestant
dē-kon-jestant
a drug that reduces congestion and swelling of membranes,
such as those of the nose and eustachian tube in an infection
Programmed Review: Therapeutic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
11.49 Recall from study of Chapter 4 that prosthesis is an
artificial replacement for a diseased or missing body part. The term
used to refer to any device that is used to improve or substitute for
auditory prosthesis
natural hearing is an ________________ _________________. The
external amplifying device designed to improve hearing by more
hearing
effective collection of sound into the ear is called a ______________
aid
_______. The electronic device implanted in the cochlea that
provides sound perception to patients with severe or profound
sensorineural (nerve) hearing loss in both ears is called a
cochlear
______________ implant.
11.50 The Latin term lavo means to wash. The process by which
a cavity or organ is washed out by irrigating it with water or other
fluid is called lavage. The external ear canal is often irrigated to
lavage
remove buildup of cerumen in a process called ear ______________.
cerumen
An excessive buildup of earwax is called ______________
impaction
_________________.
11.51 The administration of a medicated solution into the ear’s
instillation
external canal is an ear _____________________, usually introduced
drop, gtt
by ________ (gt) or drops (____) in the affected ear or ears.
11.52 A substance in the body that is released during allergic
reactions and that causes swelling and inflammation of tissues is
histamine
called ________________. A drug that acts to inhibit the effects of
antihistamine
histamine is an _______________________. The prefix anti- means
against
_______________ or opposed to.
11.53 Similarly, a drug that reduces inflammation is an
antiinflammatory
_________________________.
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CHAPTER 11 • THE EAR
ANSWERS
543
REVIEW
11.54 The same prefix joined with the combining form for life
(bio) denotes a drug class that kills or inhibits microbial life. This
antibiotic
type of drug is called an __________________.
not
11.55 The prefix de- means from, down, or ________. A drug
that is given to reduce congestion, such as may occur in the
decongestant
eustachian tube during an infection, is a ___________________.
CHAPTER 11 ACRONYMS AND ABBREVIATIONS
ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
BAEP
brainstem auditory evoked potential
BAER
brainstem auditory evoked response
ENT
ear, nose, and throat
PE
polyethylene
TM
tympanic membrane
CHAPTER 11 SUMMARY OF TERMS
The terms introduced in chapter 11 are listed below, followed by the page number on which each
term can be found and its written pronunciation. For additional practice and reinforcement, write
the definition of each term on a separate piece of paper.
acoustic neuroma/533
ă-kūstik nū-rōmă
auditory acuity testing/536
awdi-tōr-ē ă-kyūi-tē testing
aerotitis media/532
ār-ō-tı̄tis mēdē-ă
auditory prosthesis/541
awdi-tōr-ē prosthē-sis
antibiotic/541
antē-bı̄-otik
auditory tube/528
awdi-tōr-ē tūb
antihistamine/541
an-tē-histă-mēn
brainstem auditory evoked
potential (BAEP)/536
brānstem awdi-tōr-ē ē-vōkt
pō-tenshăl
antiinflammatory/542
antē-in-f lamă-tō-rē
audiogram/536
awdē-ō-gram
audiologist/536
aw-dē-olō-jist
audiometer/535
aw-dē-omĕ-ter
audiometry/535
aw-dē-omĕ-trē
brainstem auditory evoked
response (BAER)/536
brānstem awdi-tōr-ē ē-vōkt
rē-spons
cerumen/528
sĕ-rūmen
cerumen impaction/532
sĕ-rūmen im-pakshŭn
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cochlea/529
kōklē-ă
microsurgery/539
mı̄-krō-sŭrjĕr-ē
cochlear implant/541
kōklē-ăr implant
middle ear/528
midĕl ēr
conductive hearing loss/533
kon-dŭktiv hēring los
myringitis/532
mir-in-jı̄tis
deafness/533
def nes
mixed hearing loss/534
mikst hēring los
decongestant/542
dē-kon-jestant
myringotomy/539
mir-in-gotŏ-mē
ear instillation/541
ēr in-sti-lāshŭn
organ of Corti/529
ōrgan of kōrtē
ear lavage/541
ēr lă-vahzh
otalgia/531
ō-taljē-ă
endolymph/529
endō-limf
otitis externa/532
ō-tı̄tis eks-tĕrnă
eustachian obstruction/532
yū-stāshăn ob-strŭkshŭn
otitis media/532
ō-tı̄tis mēdē-ă
eustachian tube/528
yū-stāshăn tūb
otodynia/531
ō-tō-dinē-ă
external auditory meatus or
canal/528
eks-tĕrnăl awdi-tōr-ē mē-āt ŭs or
kă-nal
otoplasty/539
ōtō-plas-tē
otorrhagia/531
ō-tō-rājē-ă
external ear/528
eks-tĕrnăl ēr
otorrhea/531
ō-tō-rēă
hearing aid/541
hēring ād
otosclerosis/532
ōtō-sklē-rōsis
histamine/541
histă-mēn
otoscopy/536
ō-toskŏ-pē
incus/528
ingkŭs
oval window/529
ōval windō
inner ear/529
inĕr ēr
perilymph/529
peri-limf
labyrinth/529
labi-rinth
pinna/528
pină
labyrinthitis/533
labi-rin-thı̄tis
pneumatic otoscopy/537
nū-matik ō-toskŏ-pē
malleus/528
malē-ŭs
presbyacusis/534
prezbē-ă-kūsis
Ménière disease/533
mĕn-yār di-zēz
presbycusis/534
prez-bē-kūsis
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CHAPTER 11 • THE EAR
saccule/529
sakyūl
tympanitis/532
tim-pă-nı̄tis
semicircular canals/529
semē-sĕrkyū-lar ka-nălz
tympanometry/537
timpă-nomĕ-trē
sensorineural hearing loss/534
sensōr-i-nūrăl hēring los
tympanoplasty/540
timpă-nō-plas-tē
stapedectomy/540
stā-pĕ-dektŏ-mē
tympanostomy/539
timpan-ostŏ-mē
stapes/528
stāpēz
utricle/529
ūtri-kĕl
tinnitus/531
tini-tŭs
vertigo/531
vĕrti-gō
tuning fork/536
tūning fōrk
vestibule/529
vesti-byūl
tympanic membrane (TM)/528
tim-panik membrān
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PRACTICE EXERCISES
For each of the following words, write out the term components (prefixes [P], combining forms [CF], roots [R], and suffixes [S]) on the lines below the word. Then define
the term according to the meaning of its components.
EXAMPLE
macrotia
macr / ot / ia
P R S
DEFINITION: large or long/ear/condition of
1. aerotitis
___________ / ___________ / ___________
R
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
2. otorrhea
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
3. myringoplasty
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
4. acoustic
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
5. ceruminolysis
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
6. salpingoscope
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
7. audiometry
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
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CHAPTER 11 • THE EAR
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8. tympanocentesis
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
9. otodynia
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
10. auricle
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
11. myringotomy
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
12. ceruminosis
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
13. audiology
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
Complete each medical term by writing the missing part:
14. oto___________osis condition of hardening of the bony tissue of the ear
15. aero___________ media inflammation of the middle ear caused by changes in atmospheric
pressure
16. ___________logist person who specializes in the study of hearing impairments
17. ___________tomy incision into the eardrum for the insertion of tubes
18. ___________scope instrument used to view the ear canal and tympanum
19. ___________ neuroma benign tumor of the auditory nerve
20. ___________ otoscopy observation of the tympanic membrane as air is released into the
external auditory meatus
Write the correct medical term for each of the following definitions:
21. ___________________________ inflammation of the labyrinth
22. ___________________________ dizziness
23. ___________________________ bleeding from the ear
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24. ___________________________ electronic device implanted in the cochlea to provide sound
perception
25. ___________________________ hearing impairment of old age
26. ___________________________ ringing in the ear
27. ___________________________ excision of stapes to correct otosclerosis
28. ___________________________ excessive buildup of ear wax
29. ___________________________ earache
30. ___________________________ the study of hearing
31. ___________________________ irrigation of the external ear canal
32. ___________________________ disorder of the inner ear characterized by vertigo, tinnitus,
nausea, vomiting, and hearing loss, named after the French
physician who first described it
Circle the combining form that corresponds to the meaning given:
33. eardrum
salping/o
ot/o
myring/o
34. hearing
ot/o
audi/o
angi/o
35. wax
cerumin/o
crin/o
scler/o
36. eustachian tube
tympan/o
myring/o
salping/o
37. ear
rhin/o
ot/o
or/o
38. air
acr/o
aur/i
aer/o
Identify the parts of the ear by writing the missing words in the spaces provided:
39.
42.
43.
44.
Ossicles (bones
of middle ear)
45.
Facial nerve
Vestibulocochlear
nerve
Oval window
Round window
Tympanic cavity
46.
membrane
External auditory
canal
40.
tube
(auditory tube)
42.
41.
43.
39.
44.
40.
45.
41.
46.
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CHAPTER 11 • THE EAR
Circle the correct spelling:
47. aerotitus
aerotitis
airotitis
48. cerumen
ceramen
ceruman
49. myrimogotomy
mirongotomy
myringotomy
50. vertigo
vertago
verttigo
51. antihestamine
antihistamine
antehistamine
52. tinnitis
tinitus
tinnitus
53. stapedectomy
stapesectomy
stapedecktomy
54. defness
deafnass
deafness
55. eustation
eustachian
euhstation
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MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 11-1
PROGRESS NOTE
S: This 21 y.o. white male c/o a clogged
pharyngitis and nasal congestion x 7 d.
® ear c̄ increasing tinnitus. He has had a slight
O: On PE, there was moist infectious debris in the ® ear that was suctioned clear. The ® tympanum was dull and thickened. The L external ear was clear and the tympanic membrane
intact.
A: OTITIS MEDIA ® ear
P: (1) Keep ears dry; (2) Rx Pen-VK 250 mg #24 1 p.o. q.i.d. p.c. and h.s.; (3) RTO in 10 d for
follow-up (f/u)
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 11-1
1. Summarize the subjective information:
a. patient complains of clogged and ringing
ears, sore throat, and stuffy nose
b. patient has a clogged right ear, sore
throat, stuffy nose, and dizziness
c. patient’s right eardrum is thick, dull, and
clogged with infectious matter, causing
dizziness
d. patient complains of a sore throat, stuffy
nose, and a clogged right ear that is
buzzing
e. patient has a sore throat, stuffy nose, and
purulent drainage from the right ear
2. What was the assessment?
a. clogged right ear, sore throat, and stuffy
nose
b. inflammation of the right middle ear
c. inflammation of the right external ear
canal
d. blockage of the eustachian tube
e. inflammation of the right eardrum
3. When should the patient take the prescribed medication?
a. twice in 24 hours
b. before meals
c. at bedtime
d. four times a day
e. every 4 hours
4. Which is true of the plan?
a. patient should return to the office immediately if a fever develops
b. patient is given ear drops and advised
not to get his ears wet for 10 days
c. doctor wants to examine the patient
again in 10 days
d. patient is given an antibiotic and advised
to increase fluid intake
e. if not better in 10 days, patient will be
referred to an otolaryngologist
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CHAPTER 11 • THE EAR
551
Medical Record 11-2 A and B
FOR ADDITIONAL STUDY
Hank Ball, a preschooler, has had recurrent ear infections for one year that his doctor has not been
able to treat successfully with antibiotics and other drugs. His preschool teacher also identified
nasal speech patterns that his doctor later confirmed were related to Hank’s medical problems.
After seeing several doctors who recommended surgery, Hank’s parents have admitted him to
Central Medical Center. Medical Record 11-2A is the history and physical examination before
surgery, and Medical Record 11-2B is the subsequent operative report; both were dictated by Dr.
Baird, the surgeon.
Read Medical Record 11-2 (pages 554–556) for Hank Ball, then write your answers to the following questions in the spaces provided.
QUESTIONS ABOUT MEDICAL RECORD 11-2
1. Below are medical terms used in this record that you have not yet encountered in this text.
Underline each term where it appears in the record, and define each term below.
hepatosplenomegaly _________________________________________________________________
turbinates __________________________________________________________________________
extubation _________________________________________________________________________
2. List the patient’s three medical problems noted in the “History of Present Illness” in the left
column; write the diagnosis that pertains to each in the right column:
Medical Problem
Diagnosis
a.
______________________________________
__________________________________
b.
______________________________________
__________________________________
c.
______________________________________
__________________________________
3. In your own words, explain how Hank’s social history is related to his medical history:
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
4. Under the “Review of Systems,” were any additional medical symptoms or problems identified? If so, list them below:
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
5. What does it mean that Hank was afebrile at the time of the examination?
___________________________________________________________________________________
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
6. Carefully read the physical examination. Mark the body areas or systems in which Dr. Baird
found any abnormalities:
______ general
______ HEENT
______ chest
______ back
______ rectal/genitalia
______ extremities
7. List the surgical procedures identified under “Plan,” and briefly describe them in your own
words, not using medical terminology:
a. ________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
b. ________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
c.
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
8. In your own words, not using medical terminology, briefly describe oral intubation:
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
9. Put the following operative actions in correct order by numbering them from 1 to 11:
_____ removal of adenoids
_____ incision in the right eardrum
_____ PE tube placement in the right tympanum
_____ repositioning in Rose position
_____ incision in the left eardrum
_____ aspiration of the right middle ear
_____ extubation
_____ removal of wax in the right ear
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CHAPTER 11 • THE EAR
553
_____ nasopharyngeal examination
_____ polyethylene tube placement in the left tympanum
_____ intubation
10. In your own words, not using medical terminology, briefly describe the condition of Hank’s
adenoids before adenoidectomy:
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________
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Medical Record 11-2A: For Additional Study
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CHAPTER 11 • THE EAR
Medical Record 11-2A: For Additional Study (continued)
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Medical Record 11-2B: For Additional Study (continued)
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CHAPTER 11 • THE EAR
ANSWERS TO PRACTICE EXERCISES
1. aer/ot/itis
__ __ ___
R R S
air or gas/ear/
inflammation
2. oto/rrhea
___ _____
CF S
ear/discharge
3. myringo/plasty
_______ ______
CF
S
eardrum/surgical repair
or reconstruction
4. acous/tic
_____ ___
R
S
hearing/pertaining to
5. cerumino/lysis
________ _____
CF
S
wax/breaking down or
dissolution
6. salpingo/scope
_______ ______
CF
S
eustachian tube/
instrument for
examination
7. audio/metry
_____ _____
CF
S
hearing/process of
measuring
8. tympano/centesis
_______ ________
CF
S
eardrum/puncture for
aspiration
9. oto/dynia
___ _____
CF S
ear/pain
10. aur/icle
___ ___
R
S
ear/small
11. myringo/tomy
_______ _____
CF
S
eardrum/incision
12. cerumin/osis
_______ ____
R
S
wax/condition or
increase
13. audio/logy
_____ ____
CF
S
hearing/study of
14. otosclerosis
15. aerotitis media
16. audiologist
17. myringotomy
18. otoscope
19. acoustic neuroma
20. pneumatic otoscopy
21. labyrinthitis
22. vertigo
23. otorrhagia
24. cochlear implant
25. presbycusis
26. tinnitus
27. stapedectomy
28. cerumen impaction
29. otalgia
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
audiology
ear lavage
Ménière disease
myring/o
audi/o
cerumin/o
salping/o
ot/o
aer/o
auricle
eustachian
pharynx
malleus
incus
stapes
cochlea
tympanic
aerotitis
cerumen
myringotomy
vertigo
antihistamine
tinnitus
stapedectomy
deafness
eustachian
ANSWERS TO MEDICAL RECORD ANALYSIS
Medical Record 11-1: Progress Note
1. d
2. b
3. d
4. c
Medical Record 11-2 and 11-3: For Additional Study
See CD-ROM for answers.
557
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CHAPTER
12
Gastrointestinal
System
✓ Chapter 12 Checklist
LOCATION
Read Chapter 12: Gastrointestinal System and complete all programmed
review segments.
pages 559-600
Review the starter set of flash cards and term components related to
Chapter 12.
back of book
Complete the Chapter 12 Practice Exercises and Medical Record Analysis 12-1.
pages 606-614
Complete Medical Record Analysis 12-2 For Additional Study.
pages 615-617
Complete the Chapter 12 Exercises by Chapter.
CD-ROM
Complete the Chapter 12 Review and Test Modes.
CD-ROM
Review the Pronunciation Drill for the Chapter 12 terms.
CD-ROM
GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM OVERVIEW
The gastrointestinal (GI) system has three functions:
Digestion, which is the process of breaking down food by chewing, swallowing, and mixing in
digestive juices to convert some of the food into absorbable molecules.
Absorption, which is the passage of digested food molecules through the walls of the intestines
and into the bloodstream to be carried to cells of the body.
Excretion, which is the elimination of nonabsorbable nutrients and waste products from the
body.
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Self-Instruction: Combining Forms
Study the following:
COMBINING FORM
MEANING
abdomin/o, celi/o, lapar/o
abdomen
an/o
anus
appendic/o
appendix
bil/i, chol/e
bile
bucc/o
cheek
cheil/o
lip
col/o, colon/o
colon
cyst/o
bladder or sac
dent/i
teeth
doch/o
duct
duoden/o
duodenum
enter/o
small intestine
esophag/o
esophagus
gastr/o
stomach
gingiv/o
gum
gloss/o, lingu/o
tongue
hepat/o, hepatic/o
liver
herni/o
hernia
ile/o
ileum
inguin/o
groin
jejun/o
jejunum (empty)
lith/o
stone
or/o, stomat/o
mouth
pancreat/o
pancreas
peritone/o
peritoneum
phag/o
eat or swallow
proct/o
anus and rectum
pylor/o
pylorus (gatekeeper)
rect/o
rectum
sial/o
saliva
sigmoid/o
sigmoid colon (resembles)
steat/o
fat
-emesis (suffix)
vomiting
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CHAPTER 12 • GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
561
Programmed Review: Combining Forms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
12.1 A gastroenterologist specializes in the gastrointestinal tract.
The term is built from the combining forms for stomach and
gastr/o
intestine. The combining form meaning stomach is ______________.
enter/o
The combining form meaning small intestine is ______________. The
GI
abbreviation for gastrointestinal is ______.
12.2 Many combining forms related to the gastrointestinal
system are similar to the English words for their meaning. For
example, the combining form for duodenum is duoden/o. Recall
pertaining to
that the suffix -al, meaning _________________ _____, makes an
adjective
_________________ ending. The adjective form of duodenum is
duodenal
__________________.
12.3 There are many other combining forms that are also similar
to their meaning. The combining form meaning hernia is
herni/o
_____________. For example, a herniorrhaphy is the suturing of a
hernia
repaired _______________.
ile/o
12.4 The combining form for ileum is __________. For example, the
ileostomy
surgical creation of an opening for the ileum is ___________________.
jejun/o
12.5 The combining form for the jejunum is _____________. Recall
inflammation
that the suffix -itis means ______________________. Inflammation
jejunitis
of the jejunum is called __________________.
pancreat/o
12.6 The combining form for pancreas is ________________.
pancreatitis
Inflammation of the pancreas is called ___________________.
an/o
12.7 The combining form for anus is _________. The common
anal
adjective form is ___________. Rect/o, the combining form for
rectum
____________, is derived from the Latin word rectus, meaning
straight. The rectum is so named for its straight passage from the
rectal
lower bowel to the anus. The common adjective form is ____________.
proct/o
The combining form referring to the anus and rectum is ___________.
anus
A proctological examination involves the study of the _________ and
rectum
the _____________.
appendic/o
12.8 The combining form for appendix is ________________.
appendicitis
Inflammation of the appendix is called __________________.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
peritone/o
12.9 The combining form for peritoneum is __________________.
Link this combining form with -scopy, the suffix meaning process of
examination
__________________, to build the term describing the endoscopic
peritoneoscopy
examination of the peritoneum: ________________________.
pylor/o
12.10 The combining form for pylorus is _____________. Recall
adjective
that the suffix -ic is an _________________ ending that means
pertaining to
__________________ _____. The adjective form of pylorus is
pyloric
_______________.
sigmoid/o
12.11 The combining form for sigmoid colon is ______________.
The process of examining the sigmoid colon with a sigmoidoscope
sigmoidoscopy
is called _______________________.
esophag/o
12.12 The combining form for esophagus is ______________. Recall
pertaining to
that the suffix -eal, meaning ________________ ____, makes an
adjective
________________ ending. The adjective form of esophagus is
esophageal
____________________.
12.13 In many cases, two or more combining forms have the
same meaning. One combining form meaning abdomen is abdomin/o.
puncture
Recall that the suffix -centesis means a ________________ for aspiration.
A puncture of the abdomen for aspiration of an abdominal fluid is
abdominocentesis
called ______________________________. Two other combining forms
celi/o, lapar/o
for abdomen are __________ and ______________, as in the terms
celiocentesis and laparoscopy.
12.14 There are two combining forms for colon. An inflammation
of the colon is termed colitis, which is made with the combining
col/o
form __________. The second form is used in the term colonoscopy,
colon
which means examination of the _____________. That combining
colon/o
form is ________________.
12.15 There are two combining forms for bile. The term referring
to the production of bile is biligenic, which is made from the
bil/i
combining form __________. The second combining form is used to
make the term cholelithiasis. Recall that the suffix -iasis means
presence
formation of or _______________ of, and the combining form lith/o
stone
means _____________. Therefore, the term cholelithiasis refers to the
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CHAPTER 12 • GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
ANSWERS
REVIEW
bile
presence of a stone in the gallbladder or __________ ducts. The
chol/e
combining form for bile used in this term is ______________.
563
12.16 There are two combining forms for tongue. An inflammation
of the tongue is called glossitis. The combining form used to create
gloss/o
this term is ______________. The other combining form is used in
under
the term sublingual, which means ______________ the tongue. This
lingu/o
second combining form is _______________.
12.17 There are two combining forms for mouth. One is used in
or/o
the common adjective form oral. That combining form is ________.
The other is used, for example, in the term stomalgia, which refers to
pain, mouth
a condition of ___________ in the _______________. The combining
stomat/o
form meaning mouth in this term is _________________.
12.18 There are two similar combining forms meaning liver. The
enlargement
term hepatomegaly, which means an ___________________ of the liver,
hepat/o
is made from the combining form ______________. The other is used
incision
to make the term hepaticotomy, which refers to an ________________
hepatic/o
into the liver. That combining form is _______________.
12.19 The adjective buccal pertains to the cheek. The combining
bucc/o
form for cheek is ____________.
repair
12.20 Recall that the suffix -plasty refers to surgical ____________
or reconstruction. The term cheiloplasty means repair of the lip. The
cheil/o
combining form for lip is ____________.
12.21 A choledochotomy is an incision into a bile duct. The
chol/e
combining form for bile used here is _____________. The combining
doch/o
form meaning duct is _____________.
12.22 The adjective dental refers to the teeth. The combining form
dent/i
used to make this term is _____________.
12.23 A cholecystectomy is the excision of the gallbladder. Chol/e
bile, bladder
means _________, and cyst/o means _______________ or sac. Put
together, these two combining forms refer to the gallbladder, which
holds bile.
gums
12.24 Gingivitis is inflammation of the _________. The combining
gingiv/o
form meaning gum is _______________.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
12.25 A sialolith is a stone of the salivary gland or duct. The
sial/o
combining form for saliva is ___________.
12.26 The adjective inguinal pertains to the groin. The combining
inguin/o
form meaning groin is _______________.
12.27 The term aphagia means the condition of being unable to
condition of
eat. Recall that the suffix -ia means ________________ ____, and the
without
prefix a- means ________________. The combining form meaning to
phag/o
eat or to swallow is ___________.
12.28 Recall that the suffix -lysis means breaking down or
dissolution
_____________________. The term steatolysis refers to the breaking
steat/o
down of fat in digestion. The combining form for fat is ____________.
12.29 The term hematemesis refers to the vomiting of blood.
blood
(Hemat/o is the combining form for ___________.) The suffix meaning
-emesis
vomiting is _______________.
Self-Instruction: Anatomic Terms (Fig. 12-1)
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
oral cavity
ōrăl kavi-tē
mouth
mowth
cavity that receives food for digestion
salivary glands
sali-vār-ē glanz
three pairs of exocrine glands in the mouth that secrete saliva:
the parotid, the submandibular (submaxillary), and the
sublingual glands
cheeks
chēks
lateral walls of the mouth
lips
lipz
fleshy structures surrounding the mouth
palate
palăt
structure that forms the roof of the mouth; divided into the
hard palate and the soft palate
uvula
ūvyū-lă
small projection hanging from the back middle edge of the
soft palate
tongue
tŭng
muscular structure of the floor of the mouth covered by
mucous membrane and secured by a band-like membrane
known as the frenulum
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CHAPTER 12 • GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
Stomach
Cardiac sphincter
Esophagus
Liver
Fundus
Gallbladder
Tongue
Small
intestine
(duodenum,
jejunum,
ileum)
Esophagus
Lesser curvature
Lesser omentum
Body
Stomach
Pancreas
Duodenum
Pyloric sphincter
Pylorus
Rugae
Greater omentum
Greater
curvature
Duodenum, gallbladder,
pancreas, and liver
Large
intestine
Rectum
Anus
Liver
Gallbladder
Hepatic duct
Cystic duct
Common bile duct
Duodenum
Duodenal papilla
Pancreas
Pancreatic duct
Sphincter (of Oddi)
Duodenal ampulla
Large intestine
Descending colon
Transverse colon
Ascending colon
Ileocecal valve
Ileum
Cecum
Appendix
Sigmoid colon
Rectum
Anal canal
Anus
FIGURE 12-1 ■
Gastrointestinal system.
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TERM
MEANING
gums
gŭmz
tissue covering the processes of the jaws
teeth
tēth
hard bony projections in the jaws for masticating (chewing)
food
pharynx
f ăringks
throat; passageway for food traveling to the esophagus and for
air traveling to the larynx
esophagus
ē-sof ă-gŭs
muscular tube that moves food from the pharynx to the
stomach
stomach
stŏmăk
sac-like organ that chemically mixes and prepares food
received from the esophagus
cardiac sphincter
kardē-ak sfingktĕr
opening from the esophagus to the stomach (sphincter = band)
pyloric sphincter
pı̄-lōrik sfingktĕr
opening from the stomach into the duodenum
small intestine
smawl in-testin
smaller tubular structure that digests food received from the
stomach
duodenum
dū-ō-dēnŭm
first portion of the small intestine
jejunum
jĕ-jūnŭm
second portion of the small intestine
ileum
ilē-ŭm
third portion of the small intestine
large intestine
larj in-testin
larger tubular structure that receives the liquid waste products
of digestion, reabsorbs water and minerals, and forms and
stores feces for defecation
cecum
sēkŭm
first part of the large intestine
vermiform appendix
vĕrmi-fōrm ă-pendiks
worm-like projection of lymphatic tissue hanging off the
cecum with no digestive function; may help to resist infection
(vermi = worm)
colon
kōlon
portions of the large intestine extending from the cecum to
the rectum; identified by direction or shape
ascending colon
ǎ-sending kōlon
portion of the colon that extends upward from the cecum
transverse colon
trans-vĕrs kōlon
portion of the colon that extends across from the ascending
cecum
descending colon
dē-sending kōlon
portion of the colon that extends downward from the
transverse colon
sigmoid colon
sigmoyd kōlon
portion of the colon (resembling an “S” in shape) that
terminates at the rectum
rectum
rektŭm
rectal ampulla
rektăl am-pullă
distal (end) portion of the large intestine
dilated portion of the rectum just above the anal canal
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CHAPTER 12 • GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
567
TERM
MEANING
anus
ānŭs
opening of the rectum to the outside of the body
feces
f ēsēz
waste formed by the absorption of water in the large intestine;
usually solid
defecation
def-ĕ-kāshŭn
evacuation of feces from the rectum
peritoneum
peri-tō-nēŭm
membrane surrounding the entire abdominal cavity and
consisting of the parietal layer (lining the abdominal wall) and
the visceral layer (covering each organ in the abdomen)
peritoneal cavity
peri-tō-nēăl kavi-tē
space between the parietal and visceral peritoneum
omentum
ō-mentŭm
an extension of the peritoneum attached to the stomach and
connecting it with other abdominal organs
liver
livĕr
organ in the upper right quadrant that produces bile, which is
secreted into the duodenum during digestion
gallbladder
gawlblad-ĕr
receptacle that stores and concentrates the bile produced in
the liver
pancreas
pankrē-as
gland that secretes pancreatic juice into the duodenum, where
it mixes with bile to digest food
biliary ducts
bilē-ār-ē dŭkts
ducts that convey bile; include the hepatic, cystic, and
common bile ducts
Programmed Review: Anatomic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
12.30 Let’s trace the anatomy of the gastrointestinal system from
oral
beginning to end. Food is taken in at the __________ cavity, or
mouth, where the digestive process begins as food is chewed and
salivary
saliva from the _______________ glands is mixed with the food.
Structures of the mouth include the cheeks, lips, tongue, teeth,
palate
and gums. The roof of the mouth, or the ______________, is
divided into the hard palate and the soft palate. The small tissue
projection hanging from the back edge of the soft palate is called
uvula
the _____________.
12.31 Chewed food then passes through the throat to the
esophagus and then to the stomach. The medical term for the
pharynx
throat is the ________________. From the pharynx, the food
esophagus
reaches the __________________, which is a muscular tube
descending to the stomach. At the bottom of the esophagus is the
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
cardiac
______________ sphincter, the opening from the esophagus to
stomach
the __________________.
12.32 The sac-like organ that mixes and prepares food received
stomach
from the esophagus is called the ________________. From the
stomach, food moves next to the small intestine through the
pyloric
____________ sphincter.
12.33 The small intestine does most of the digestive work and
has three segments. The first, connected to the stomach at the
sphincter, duodenum
pyloric ______________, is called the __________________. After the
jejunum
duodenum comes the second portion, the ________________. After
ileum
the jejunum comes the third portion, the ____________. From the
ileum, the food passes into the large intestine.
12.34 Other organs produce substances to help the small
liver
intestine digest food. Bile is produced in the ______________ and
biliary
is conveyed through the _______________ ducts to the gallbladder.
gallbladder
The ____________________ stores and concentrates the bile that is
produced in the liver, which is then conveyed to the first portion
duodenum
of the small intestine, the ______________________.
pancreas
12.35 Pancreatic juice, which is produced in the _______________,
is also secreted into the duodenum. This assists in digestion as well.
12.36 After leaving the small intestine, the digested food enters
large
the ____________ intestine, where water and minerals are
reabsorbed and wastes are formed into feces for defecation. The
cecum
first part of the large intestine is called the ____________. Hanging
from the cecum is a projection of tissue with no known digestive
appendix
function, which is called the vermiform _________________.
colon
12.37 The next part of the large intestine, the ____________, is
identified in four sections that are named for their direction or
shape. The portion of the colon extending upward from the cecum
ascending
is called the ___________________ colon. The portion that extends
transverse
from the ascending portion across the body is the ________________
colon. The portion extending downward from the transverse colon
descending
is the ___________________ colon. The S-shaped portion at the
sigmoid
end of the descending colon is the ________________ colon.
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CHAPTER 12 • GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
ANSWERS
REVIEW
rectum
The sigmoid colon terminates at the ______________, which is the
569
end of the large intestine.
12.38 The dilated portion of the rectum just above the anal
ampulla
canal is called the rectal ________________. Waste leaves the body
anus
through the opening of the rectum, called the _________. The waste
feces
formed in the large intestine is called ____________. The evacuation
defecation
of feces from the rectum is called _____________________.
12.39 Surrounding the entire abdominal cavity is a membrane
peritoneum
called the ____________________. The peritoneum lines not only the
abdominal
_________________ cavity (the parietal layer) but also each organ in
the abdomen (the visceral layer). The space between the parietal and
peritoneal
visceral peritoneum is called the _________________ cavity. The
peritoneum
omentum is an extension of the ___________________ that is
attached to the stomach, connecting it with other abdominal organs.
ANATOMIC AND CLINICAL DIVISIONS OF THE ABDOMEN
Anatomic and clinical divisions of the abdomen provide reference points to describe abdominal
locations. There are nine specific anatomic divisions and four general clinical divisions (Figs. 12-2
to 12-4). All references are based on the patient’s right or left.
Right
hypochondriac
region
Left
hypochondriac
region
Epigastric
region
Umbilical
region
Right lumbar
region
Left lumbar
region
Hypogastric
region
Right inguinal
region
FIGURE 12-2 ■
Anatomic divisions of the abdomen.
Left inguinal
region
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
FIGURE 12-3 ■
Right upper
quadrant (RUQ)
Left upper
quadrant (LUQ)
Right lower
quadrant (RLQ)
Left lower
quadrant (LLQ)
Clinical divisions of the abdomen.
Right upper quadrant pain
Left upper quadrant pain
Gallbladder and
biliary tract
Cholecystitis
Gastritis
Pancreatitis
Splenomegaly
Hepatitis
Renal pain
Peptic ulcer
Myocardial ischemia
Renal pain
Pneumonia
Pneumonia
Right lower quadrant pain
Left lower quadrant pain
Appendicitis
Diverticulitis
Intestinal obstruction
Intestinal obstruction
Diverticulitis
Ectopic pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy
Ovarian cyst
Ovarian cyst
Salpingitis
Salpingitis
Endometriosis
Endometriosis
Ureteral calculi
Ureteral calculi
Renal pain
Renal pain
FIGURE 12-4 ■
Common sites of abdominal pain characteristic of various conditions.
Self-Instruction: Anatomic Divisions (see Fig. 12-2)
Study the following:
REGION
LOCATION
hypochondriac regions
hı̄-pō-kondrē-ak rējŭnz
upper lateral regions beneath the ribs
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CHAPTER 12 • GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
REGION
LOCATION
epigastric region
ep-i-gastrik rējŭn
upper middle region below the sternum
lumbar regions
lŭmbar rējŭnz
middle lateral regions
umbilical region
ŭm-bili-kăl rējŭn
region of the navel
inguinal regions
inggwi-năl rējŭnz
lower lateral groin regions
hypogastric region
hı̄-pō-gastrik rējŭn
region below the navel
571
Programmed Review: Anatomic Divisions
ANSWERS
REVIEW
12.40 The abdomen is divided into several anatomic regions for
below
reference purposes. Recall that the prefix hypo- means _____________
or deficient. The upper lateral regions beneath the ribs (chondro =
hypochondriac
cartilaginous) are called the _____________________ regions.
upon
12.41 The prefix epi- means __________. The combining form
gastr/o
meaning stomach is ____________. Thus, the name for the upper
middle region below the sternum and lying approximately upon the
epigastric
stomach is the _________________ region.
12.42 The middle lateral areas of the abdomen, to each side of the
lumbar
lumbar spine, are the ______________ regions.
12.43 The medical term for the navel is the umbilicus. The
anatomic area in the region of the navel is called the
umbilical
_________________ region.
inguin/o
12.44 The combining form for groin is ______________. The lower
inguinal
lateral groin regions are the _______________ regions.
hypo-
12.45 The prefix for below is ___________, and the combining
gastr/o
form for stomach is ____________. Thus, the area below the navel,
hypogastric
approximately below the stomach, is called the ____________________
region.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Self-Instruction: Symptomatic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
anorexia
an-ō-reksē-ă
loss of appetite (orexia = appetite)
aphagia
ă-f ājē-ă
inability to swallow
ascites (Fig. 12-5)
ă-sı̄tēz
accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity (ascos = bag)
buccal
bŭkăl
in the cheek
diarrhea
dı̄-ă-rēă
frequent loose or liquid stools
constipation
kon-sti-pāshŭn
infrequent or incomplete bowel movements characterized by
hardened, dry stool that is difficult to pass (constipo = to press
together)
FIGURE 12-5 ■ Side view of patient showing
massive ascites and distention of abdomen.
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CHAPTER 12 • GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
573
TERM
MEANING
dyspepsia
dis-pepsē-ă
indigestion (pepsis = digestion)
dysphagia
dis-f ājē-ă
difficulty in swallowing
eructation
ē-rŭk-tāshŭn
belch
flatulence
flatyū-lents
gas in the stomach or intestines ( flatus = a blowing)
halitosis
hal-i-tōsis
bad breath (halitus = breath)
hematemesis
hē-mă-temĕ-sis
vomiting blood
hematochezia
hēmă-tō-kēzē-ă
red blood in stool (chezo = defecate)
hepatomegaly
hepă-tō-megă-lē
enlargement of the liver
hyperbilirubinemia
hı̄pĕr-bili-rū-bi-nēmē-ă
excessive level of bilirubin (bile pigment) in the blood
icterus
iktĕr-ŭs
jaundice (Fig. 12-6)
jawndis
yellow discoloration of the skin, sclera (white of the eye), and
other tissues caused by excessive bilirubin in the blood
( jaundice = yellow)
melena
me-lēnă
dark-colored, tarry stool caused by old blood
nausea
nawzē-ă
feeling sick in the stomach
steatorrhea
steă-tō-rēă
feces containing fat
sublingual
sŭb-linggwăl
hypoglossal
hı̄-pō-glosăl
under the tongue
FIGURE 12-6 ■ The yellow color of jaundice (icterus) is easily seen in the
sclera of this patient and in the patient’s skin as contrasted with the examiner’s
hand.
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Programmed Review: Symptomatic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
condition of
12.46 Recall that the suffix -ia means ________________ _____.
without
The prefix a- means _______________. Again, the combining
phag/o
form meaning to eat or swallow is ____________. Therefore, the
term for the condition of being unable to swallow (without
aphagia
swallowing) is _______________.
faulty
12.47 The prefix dys- means painful, difficult, or ____________.
The term for the condition of having difficulty swallowing, then,
dysphagia
is __________________.
12.48 The condition of loss of (or without) appetite
anorexia
(orexia = appetite) is called ________________.
12.49 The condition of indigestion, or of painful digestion
dyspepsia
(pepsis = digestion), is called __________________.
adjective
12.50 The suffix -al is an ________________ ending meaning
pertaining to
_________________ ____. The combining form meaning cheek
bucc/o
is ___________. The adjective form meaning pertaining to the
buccal
cheek is _____________.
12.51 Formed from the root ascos (meaning bag), the term for
ascites
an accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity is ____________.
12.52 From the Latin word eructo comes the term for belch:
eructation
____________________.
12.53 From the Latin word flatus (meaning a blowing) comes
flatulence
the term for gas in the stomach or intestines: _________________.
condition
12.54 The suffix -osis means increase or __________________.
halitosis
The condition of having bad breath is called ________________.
12.55 A combining form for blood is hemat/o. Again, the suffix
-emesis
meaning vomiting is ______________. The term for vomiting
hematemesis
blood is ________________________.
12.56 Formed from the root word chezo (meaning defecate)
comes this term for the condition of having red blood in the
hematochezia
stool: _______________________.
12.57 The two combining forms for liver are hepatic/o and
hepat/o
_____________. Recall that the suffix for enlargement is
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CHAPTER 12 • GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
ANSWERS
REVIEW
-megaly
______________. Using the latter combining form for liver, the
hepatomegaly
term for enlargement of the liver is ______________________.
575
12.58 Recall that the suffix meaning blood condition is
-emia, excessive
__________. The prefix hyper- means above or ________________.
The condition of having excessive bilirubin in the blood is
hyperbilirubinemia
____________________________.
12.59 When there is excessive bilirubin in the blood, the skin
icterus
is discolored yellow. This is called jaundice, or ______________.
12.60 From the Greek word melaina (meaning black) comes
this term for dark-colored, tarry stool caused by old blood:
melena
_______________.
12.61 From a Greek word originally referring to seasickness
nausea
comes the term for feeling sick in the stomach: ______________.
steat/o
12.62 Again, the combining form for fat is _____________.
discharge
Recall that the suffix -rrhea means __________________. The term
steatorrhea
for fat in the feces (a discharge of fat) is ____________________.
12.63 The two combining forms for tongue are gloss/o and
lingu/o, below or under
_____________. The prefix sub- means ______________. Made with
the latter combining form, the term for under the tongue is
sublingual
___________________.
12.64 Formed from the prefix dia-, meaning across or
through, discharge
______________, and the suffix rrhea-, meaning _______________,
the term describing frequent loose or liquid stool is
diarrhea
_______________. In contrast, the term describing hardened,
constipation
dry stool that is difficult to pass is ___________________.
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
RELATED TO THE UPPER GASTROINTESTINAL TRACT
ankyloglossia
angki-lō-glosē-ă
tongue-tie; a defect of the tongue characterized by a short,
thick frenulum (ankyl/o = crooked or stiff)
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TERM
MEANING
cheilitis
kı̄-lı̄tis
inflammation of the lip
esophageal varices
(see Fig. 12-15)
ē-sof ă-jēăl vari-sēz
swollen, twisted veins in the esophagus that are especially
susceptible to ulceration and hemorrhage
esophagitis
ē-sof-ă-jı̄tis
inflammation of the esophagus
gastritis (see Fig. 12-15)
gas-trı̄tis
inflammation of the stomach
gastroesophageal reflux
disease (GERD)
gastr ō-ē-sof-ă-jēăl rēflŭks
di-zēz
backflow of contents of the stomach into the esophagus, often
resulting from abnormal function of the lower esophageal
sphincter, causing burning pain in the esophagus
gingivitis
jin-ji-vı̄tis
inflammation of the gums
glossitis
glo-sı̄tis
inflammation of the tongue
parotiditis
pă-rot-i-dı̄tis
parotitis
par-ō-tı̄tis
inflammation of the parotid gland; also called mumps
peptic ulcer disease
(PUD) (Fig. 12-7)
peptik ŭlsĕr di-zēz
sore on the mucous membrane of the stomach, duodenum,
or any other part of the gastrointestinal system exposed to
gastric juices; commonly caused by infection with Helicobacter
pylori bacteria (pept/o = to digest)
gastric ulcer
gastrik ŭlsĕr
ulcer located in the stomach
duodenal ulcer
dūō-dēnăl ŭlsĕr
ulcer located in the duodenum
pyloric stenosis
pı̄-l ōrik ste-n ōsis
narrowed condition of the pylorus
sialoadenitis
sı̄ă-lō-ad-ĕ-nı̄tis
inflammation of a salivary gland
stomatitis
stō-mă-tı̄tis
inflammation of the mouth
RELATED TO THE LOWER GASTROINTESTINAL TRACT
anal fistula (Fig. 12-8)
ānăl fistyū-lă
an abnormal, tube-like passageway from the anus that may
connect with the rectum (fistula = pipe)
appendicitis
ă-pen-di-sı̄tis
inflammation of the appendix
colitis
kō-lı̄tis
inflammation of the colon (large intestine)
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CHAPTER 12 • GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
577
Excessive amounts of acid
and pepsin are released
into the stomach
Gastric
juices
(acidic)
Duodenal
ulcer
FIGURE 12-7 ■
TERM
ulcerative colitis
ŭlsĕr-ă-tiv kō-lı̄tis
colorectal polyps
(see Fig. 12-15)
kolō-rektăl polips
Gastric
ulcer
Ulcer
Excess secretions
overwhelm resistance
of stomach lining and
eventually break it down,
forming an ulceration
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD).
MEANING
chronic inflammation of the colon with ulcerations
benign tissue growths on the mucous membrane lining the
large intestine and rectum; adenomatous types are precancerous
and likely to develop into malignancy
pediculated polyp
pĕ-dikyū-lātĕd polip
projected on a stalk (ped/o = foot)
sessile polyp
sesil polip
lying flat on the surface (sessilis = low growing)
Opening
Anal
fistula
Anus
Anal fistula
FIGURE 12-8
■
Anal fistula.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
Opening of
diverticulum
Large
intestine
FIGURE 12-9 ■
Diverticula
Diverticulosis.
TERM
MEANING
diverticulum
dı̄-vĕr-tikyū-lŭm
an abnormal side pocket in the gastrointestinal tract; usually
related to a lack of dietary fiber
diverticulosis
(Fig. 12-9; see Fig. 12-15)
dı̄vĕr-tik-ū-lōsis
presence of diverticula in the gastrointestinal tract, especially
the colon
diverticulitis
dı̄vĕr-tik-yū-lı̄tis
inflammation of diverticula
dysentery
disen-ter-ē
inflammation of the intestine characterized by frequent,
bloody stools; most often caused by bacteria or protozoa
(e.g., amebic dysentery)
enteritis
en-tĕr-ı̄tis
inflammation of the small intestine
hemorrhoid
hemŏ-royd
swollen, twisted vein (varicosity) in the anal region
(haimorrhois = a vein likely to bleed)
hernia
hĕrnē-ă
protrusion of a part from its normal location
hiatal hernia
(Fig. 12-10; see Fig. 12-18)
hı̄-ātăl hĕrnē-ă
protrusion of a part of the stomach upward through the
opening in the diaphragm
inguinal hernia
(Fig. 12-10)
inggwi-năl hĕrnē-ă
protrusion of a loop of the intestine through layers of the
abdominal wall in the inguinal region
incarcerated hernia
in-karsĕr-ā-tĕd hĕrnē-ă
hernia that is swollen and fixed within a sac, causing an
obstruction
strangulated hernia
stranggyū-lā-tĕd hĕrnē-ă
hernia that is constricted, cut off from circulation, and likely
to become gangrenous
umbilical hernia
ŭm-bili-kăl hĕrnē-ă
protrusion of the intestine through a weakness in the
abdominal wall around the umbilicus (navel)
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CHAPTER 12 • GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
579
Hiatal hernia
Diaphragm
Diaphragm
Herniation of the
stomach through
the hiatal opening
Stomach
Inguinal hernia
Direct inguinal
hernia
FIGURE 12-10 ■
Common hernias.
TERM
MEANING
ileitis
il-ē-ı̄tis
inflammation of the lower portion of the small intestine
intussusception
(Fig. 12-11)
intŭs-sŭs-sepshŭn
prolapse of one part of the intestine into the lumen of the
adjoining part (intus = within; suscipiens = to take up)
peritonitis
peri-tō-nı̄tis
inflammation of the peritoneum
proctitis
prok-tı̄tis
inflammation of the rectum and the anus
volvulus (Fig. 12-12)
volvyū-lŭs
twisting of the bowel on itself, causing obstruction
(volvo = to roll)
RELATED TO THE ACCESSORY ORGANS OF THE GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
cholangitis
kō-lan-jı̄tis
inflammation of the bile ducts
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Cross-section of
intussusception
of small intestine
Small
intestine
FIGURE 12-11 ■
Large
intestine
Intussusception.
TERM
MEANING
cholecystitis
kōlē-sis-tı̄tis
inflammation of the gallbladder
choledocholithiasis
(Fig. 12-13; see Fig. 12-15)
kō-ledō-kō-lith-ı̄ă-sis
presence of stones in the common bile duct
cholelithiasis
(see Fig. 12-13)
kōlē-li-thı̄ă-sis
presence of stones in the gallbladder or bile ducts
cirrhosis
sir-rōsis
chronic disease characterized by degeneration of liver tissue;
most often caused by alcoholism or a nutritional deficiency
(cirrho = yellow)
hepatitis
hep-ă-tı̄tis
inflammation of the liver
hepatitis A
hep-ă-tı̄tis A
inflammation of the liver caused by the hepatitis A virus
(HAV), usually transmitted orally through fecal contamination
of food or water
Large intestine
Small intestine
Twisted portion
of small intestine
FIGURE 12-12 ■
Volvulus.
Small intestine is twisted upon itself
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CHAPTER 12 • GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
Intrahepatic
Liver
581
Stomach
Common
hepatic duct
Gallbladder
Cystic duct
Common
bile duct
Ampulla
Pancreas
FIGURE 12-13 ■
TERM
Sites of gallstones.
MEANING
hepatitis B
hep-ă-tı̄tis B
inflammation of the liver caused by the hepatitis B virus
(HBV), which is transmitted sexually or by exposure to
contaminated blood or body fluids
hepatitis C
hep-ă-tı̄tis C
inflammation of the liver caused by the hepatitis C virus
(HCV), which is transmitted by exposure to infected blood;
this strain is rarely contracted sexually
pancreatitis
pankrē-ă-tı̄tis
inflammation of the pancreas
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
-itis
12.65 The suffix for inflammation is __________. Many parts of
the gastrointestinal system can become inflamed; thus, there are
many diagnostic terms for inflammation of different organs. The
stomat/o
two combining forms for mouth are or/o and ________________.
Made with the latter, the term for inflammation of the mouth is
stomatitis
___________________.
sial/o
12.66 The combining form for saliva is ____________. Using
that combining form along with aden/o, meaning gland, the term
sialoadenitis
for inflammation of a salivary gland is ______________________.
parotiditis or parotitis
Inflammation of the parotid gland is called ___________________
(also known as mumps).
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
cheil/o
12.67 The combining form meaning lip is _____________.
cheilitis
Inflammation of the lip is called _________________.
12.68 The two combining forms for tongue are lingu/o and
gloss/o
______________. Using the latter, the term for inflammation of
glossitis
the tongue is ________________. The combining form for
gingiv/o
gums is _______________, and the term for inflammation of the
gingivitis
gums is _________________.
esophag/o
12.69 The combining form for esophagus is ________________,
and the term for inflammation of the esophagus is
esophagitis
_____________________. The combining form for stomach is
gastr/o
_____________, and the term for inflammation of the stomach is
gastritis
_________________.
enter/o
12.70 The combining form for small intestine is ____________,
and the term for inflammation of the small intestine is
enteritis
________________.
ile/o
12.71 The combining form for the ileum is __________, and
inflammation of the ileum (the lower portion of the small
ileitis
intestine) is called ______________. The two combining forms
col/o
for the colon are colon/o and ___________. Made from the latter
colitis
form, the term for inflammation of the colon is _______________.
When this occurs chronically along with ulcerations, it is called
ulcerative colitis
__________________ ______________.
12.72 Recall that the suffix -osis means increase or
condition of
_________________ _____. The condition of having diverticula
(abnormal little pockets in the gastrointestinal tract) is called
diverticulosis
_______________________. If the diverticula are inflamed, this is
diverticulitis
called ______________________.
12.73 The combining form for the appendix is
appendic/o
________________, and inflammation of the appendix is called
appendicitis
____________________. The combining form for the peritoneum
peritone/o, inflammation
is __________________. Peritonitis describes ___________________
peritoneum
of the __________________.
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ANSWERS
583
REVIEW
12.74 The combining form referring to the anus and rectum
proct/o
is _____________. It is used in the term for inflammation of the
proctitis
rectum and the anus: ________________.
gallbladder
12.75 Cholecyst/o refers to the ______________________.
cholecystitis
Inflammation of the gallbladder is termed ____________________.
Formed from chol/e (bile) and angi/o (vessels), which, when
combined, refer to the bile ducts, the term for inflammation of
cholangitis
the bile ducts is _____________________.
pancreat/o
12.76 The combining form for pancreas is ________________.
pancreatitis
Inflammation of the pancreas is ____________________.
12.77 The two combining forms for liver are hepatic/o and
hepat/o
______________. Made from the latter, the term for inflammation
hepatitis
of the liver is ________________. The different types of hepatitis
A
are named after the viruses that cause them. The hepatitis _____
fecal
virus (HAV) is transmitted orally through __________
B
contamination of food or water. Hepatitis _____ virus (HBV) is
sexually
transmitted ______________ or by exposure to contaminated
blood, C
___________ or body fluids. Hepatitis _____ virus (HCV) is
blood
transmitted primarily through exposure to infected ____________.
12.78 Again, the suffix -osis refers to an increase or
condition of
__________________ ____. The chronic liver condition that
causes yellowing (cirrho = yellow) of tissues is called
cirrhosis
_________________. It is usually caused by alcoholism or a
nutritional deficiency.
colon
12.79 Col/o is a combining form referring to the __________.
rectum
Combined with rect/o, meaning ____________, and the suffix -al,
pertaining to
meaning _________________ _____, the adjective referring to the
colorectal
colon and the rectum is _________________. The mucous
membranes lining the colon and the rectum are common sites
polyps
for the development of benign tissue growths called ___________.
pediculated
Those that project from a stalk are called ___________________
polyps, and those that lie flat on the surface are called
sessile
______________ polyps. Adenomatous types are likely to develop
malignancy or cancer
into a _____________________.
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
12.80 Stenosis refers to a narrowed condition of an organ. A
pyloric stenosis
narrowing of the pylorus is termed _____________ ____________.
12.81 The combining form ankyl/o means crooked or stiff.
condition of
Recall that the suffix -ia means a _________________ _____. The
gloss/o
two combining forms for tongue are lingu/o and ____________.
Made from the latter, the term for a condition of a tongue-tie
ankyloglossia
defect with a stiff, short frenulum is _______________________.
12.82 Varices are swollen, twisted veins. When they occur in
esophageal
the esophagus, this condition is called ___________________
varices
_______________.
12.83 Reflux is a backflow. When stomach contents flow back
gastroesophageal
into the esophagus, this is called ________________________
reflux disease
____________ ________________ (GERD).
12.84 An ulcer is a sore on the skin or a mucous membrane.
The disease characterized by ulcer formation on the mucous
membrane of the stomach, duodenum, or any other part of the
peptic
GI system exposed to gastric juices is called ___________
ulcer disease
____________ _____________ (PUD). An ulcer located in the
gastric
stomach is called a ____________ ulcer, and an ulcer in the
duodenal
duodenum is called a _______________ ulcer.
12.85 The prefix dys- means painful, difficult, or faulty. The
enter/o
combining form for small intestine is _____________. The
condition of or process of
suffix -y means ________________ _____. The condition of a
painful inflammation of the intestine (usually caused by bacteria
dysentery
or protozoa) is called __________________.
12.86 The protrusion of a part from its normal location is
hernia
termed a _____________. Hernias are often named according to
the location of the protrusion. The protrusion of a part of the
stomach upward through the opening in the diaphragm (hiatus)
hiatal
is called a ____________ hernia. Protrusion of a loop of intestine
through the abdominal wall in the inguinal region is an
inguinal
________________ hernia. Protrusion of the intestine through a
weakness in the abdominal wall around the umbilicus is called
umbilical
an ________________ hernia.
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ANSWERS
585
REVIEW
12.87 A hernia that is swollen and becomes fixed within a sac
incarcerated
is called an ____________________ hernia. A hernia that becomes
constricted and cut off from circulation is called a
strangulated
______________________ hernia.
12.88 A section of intestine may prolapse into the lumen of
intussusception
an adjoining section, causing an ________________________. If a
section of intestine twists upon itself, an obstruction may result;
volvulus
this condition is called ________________ (volvo = to roll).
12.89 A fistula ( fistula = pipe) is an abnormal connection. A
anal
fistula from the anus to the rectum is called an _________
fistula
_______________.
12.90 Hem/o is a combining form referring to blood. A swollen,
twisted vein in the anal region that is liable to bleed is called a
hemorrhoid
_____________________.
bile
12.91 The combining form chol/e means _________. The
lith/o
combining form for stone is __________. The suffix meaning
-iasis
formation of or presence of is ___________. Therefore, the term
for the presence of stones in the gallbladder or bile ducts is
cholelithiasis
_____________________.
12.92 The combining forms chol/e and doch/o together refer to
the common bile duct. The term for the presence of stones in
choledocholithiasis
the common bile duct is __________________________.
Self-Instruction: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
Study the following:
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
BIOPSY
biopsy (Bx)
bı̄op-sē
removal and microscopic study of tissue for pathological
examination
incisional biopsy
in-sizhŭn-ăl bı̄op-sē
removal of a portion of a lesion
excisional biopsy
ek-sizhŭn-ăl bı̄op-sē
removal of an entire lesion
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Lung
6th rib
Diaphragm
Liver
7th rib
FIGURE 12-14 ■
Needle biopsy of the liver.
TEST OR PROCEDURE
needle biopsy
(Fig. 12-14)
nēdĕl bı̄op-sē
EXPLANATION
percutaneous removal of tissue or fluid using a special,
hollow needle (e.g., for liver biopsy)
ENDOSCOPY
endoscopy (Fig. 12-15)
en-doskŏ-pē
examination within a body cavity with a flexible
endoscope for diagnosis or treatment; used in the
gastrointestinal tract to detect abnormalities and to
perform procedures such as biopsy, excision of lesions,
and therapeutic interventions
Lower Gastrointestinal Endoscopy
colonoscopy
kō-lon-oskŏ-pē
examination of the colon using a flexible colonoscope
proctoscopy
prok-toskŏ-pē
examination of the rectum and anus with a proctoscope
sigmoidoscopy
sig-moy-doskŏ-pē
examination of the sigmoid colon with a rigid or flexible
sigmoidoscope
Upper Gastrointestinal Endoscopy
esophagogastroduodenoscopy
(EGD)
ē-sofă-gō-gastrō-dūō-den-os-kŏ-pē
examination of the lining of the esophagus, stomach, and
duodenum with a flexible endoscope for diagnostic and/or
therapeutic purposes, such as biopsy, excision of lesions,
removal of swallowed objects, dilation of obstructions,
stent placement, measures to control hemorrhage, etc.
capsule endoscopy
kapsūl en-doskŏ-pē
examination of the small intestine made by a tiny video
camera placed in a capsule and then swallowed; images are
transmitted to a waist-belt recorder and then downloaded
onto a computer for assessment of possible abnormalities;
traditional endoscopy cannot completely access the small
intestine because of its length and complexity
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The endoscope, an instrument for viewing and photographing
internal cavities of the body, is used for evaluating pathological
conditions and performing minimally invasive corrective procedures.
Fiberoptics in the endoscope conduct bright, cool
light along a curved path, allowing illumination of
tissues and structures within the body. A color video
camera converts the optical images into electrical
signals that are displayed on a monitor. The
pictures below were taken endoscopically.
Endoscope
Esophageal
varices
Tongue
Esophagus
Gastritis
Gallbladder and
common bile duct
Colon
polypectomy
Cecum and
appendix
Colon
Jejunum
Rectum
Anus
Diverticulosis
For endoscopic views of the lower
portions of the digestive system,
colon, and rectum, an endoscope
is inserted through the anus.
FIGURE 12-15 ■
Common bile duct
stone extraction
Stomach
Duodenum
The gastrointestinal tract
can be thought of as a long
tube, folded to fit in the body.
Endoscopy of gastrointestinal system.
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Laparoscope
Laparoscopic sleeve
Liver
Gallbladder
Uterus
Bladder
Spleen
Stomach
Large intestine
Small intestine
Fallopian tube
Ovary
FIGURE 12-16 ■
Spleen
Kidney Large
Appendix
Diaphragm
Adrenal
intestine
gland
Laparoscopy.
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
Endoscopy of the Accessory Organs and Abdomen
endoscopic retrograde
cholangiopancreatography
(ERCP)
en-dō-skopik retrō-grād
kō-lanjē-ō-pan-krē-ă-togră-fē
endoscopic procedure including x-ray fluoroscopy to
examine the ducts of the liver, gallbladder, biliary ducts,
and pancreas; includes use of instruments to obtain
tissue samples, extract biliary stones, relieve obstructions,
etc.
laparoscopy (Fig. 12-16)
lap-ă-roskŏ-pē
examination of the abdominal cavity with a laparoscope
for diagnostic purposes and/or to perform surgery
IMAGING STUDIES
magnetic resonance
imaging (MRI)
mag-netik rezō-nănts imă-jing
nonionizing imaging technique for visualizing the
abdominal cavity to identify disease or deformity in the
gastrointestinal tract
radiography
(Figs. 12-17 to 12-19)
rādē-ogră-f ē
x-ray imaging used to detect a condition or anomaly
within the gastrointestinal tract
upper gastrointestinal
(GI) series (see Fig. 12-18)
ŭpĕr gastrō-in-testi-năl sērēz
x-ray of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum after
the patient has swallowed a contrast medium; barium is
the most commonly used medium
barium swallow
(see Fig. 12-19)
barē-ŭm swahlō
x-ray of the esophagus only; often used to locate
swallowed objects
fluoroscopy
flōr-oskŏ-pe
x-ray imaging with a fluorescent screen to visualize
structures in motion (e.g., during a barium swallow)
small bowel series
smawl bowel sērēz
x-ray examination of the small intestine; generally done
in conjunction with an upper GI series
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FIGURE 12-17 ■ Plain radiograph (without contrast) showing
two impacted foreign bodies in a child 21⁄2 years of age. The child
ingested a safety pin and an ornamental pin. Endoscopic removal
was required.
TEST OR PROCEDURE
EXPLANATION
lower gastrointestinal
(GI) series
lōĕr gastrō-in-testi-năl sērēz
barium enema
barē-yŭm enĕ-mă
x-ray imaging of the colon after administration of an
enema containing a contrast medium
cholangiogram
kō-lanjē-ō-gram
x-ray image of the bile ducts; often performed during
surgery
cholecystogram
kō-lē-sistō-gram
x-ray image of the gallbladder obtained after oral
ingestion of iodine
computed tomography
(CT) of the abdomen
kom-pyūt ĕd tō-mogră-f ē of
the abdō-men
cross-sectional x-ray imaging of the abdomen used to
identify a condition or anomaly within the gastrointestinal
tract
sonography
sŏ-nogră-f ē
abdominal sonogram
(Fig. 12-20, B)
ab-domi-năl sonō-gram
ultrasound imaging
ultrasound image of the abdomen to detect disease or
deformity in organs and vascular structures (e.g., liver,
pancreas, gallbladder, spleen, and aorta)
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FIGURE 12-18 ■ Upper gastrointestinal (GI) radiograph
showing hiatal hernia.
FIGURE 12-19 ■ Barium enema radiograph of
colon showing ruptured diverticulum. The elongated appearance is similar to that of a deflated
balloon.
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591
A
FIGURE 12-20 ■ A. Abdominal sonography procedure. B. Abdominal sonogram of two stones present in
the gallbladder (arrows).
TEST OR PROCEDURE
endoscopic
ultrasonography (EUS)
en-dō-skopik ŭltră-sŏ-nogră-fē
EXPLANATION
images produced using a sonographic transducer within
an endoscope to evaluate abnormalities of the upper and
lower gastrointestinal tracts and adjacent structures
(e.g., biliary ducts, gallbladder, and pancreas); also used to
guide needle biopsy of tissue and in determining the
stage of a malignancy
STOOL STUDIES
stool culture and sensitivity
(C&S)
stūl kŭlchŭr and sen-si-tivi-tē
isolation of a stool specimen in a culture medium to
identify disease-causing organisms; if organisms are
present, the drugs to which they are sensitive are listed
stool occult blood study
stūl ŏ-kŭlt blŭd stŭdē
chemical test of a stool specimen to detect the presence
of blood; positive findings indicate bleeding in the
gastrointestinal tract
Programmed Review: Diagnostic Tests and Procedures
ANSWERS
REVIEW
12.93 Recall that the suffix for the process of examination
-scopy, within
is ____________. The prefix endo- means ________________.
The general term for a scope used for conducting an
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
endoscope
examination within the body is an ___________________.
The process of examination using this instrument is called
endoscopy
__________________.
12.94 Many specialized kinds of endoscopes have been
developed to examine different structures within the
gastrointestinal tract. An esophagoscope, for example, is used
for examination of the esophagus. This examination is
esophagoscopy
called ________________________.
12.95 Examination of the colon with a special scope is
colonoscopy
called ____________________. Examination of the sigmoid
sigmoidoscopy
colon with a special scope is called ______________________.
12.96 Recall that the combining form for the anus and
proct/o
the rectum is ____________. The term for examination of
the rectum and the anus with a special scope is
proctoscopy
_____________________.
12.97 Recall that the three combining forms for abdomen
lapar/o
are abdomin/o, celi/o, and _____________. Built from the last
of these, the term for examination of the abdominal cavity
laparoscopy
with a special scope is _____________________.
12.98 Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy includes
examination of the whole upper part of the gastrointestinal
tract—the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum—using a
flexible endoscope. Using the combining forms for
esophagus, stomach, and duodenum, the technical term is
esophagogastroduodenoscopy
__________________________________________ (EGD).
12.99 Another endoscopic procedure is performed
under x-ray fluoroscopy to examine the ducts of the liver,
gallbladder, and pancreas. Abbreviated ERCP, this procedure
endoscopic retrograde
is called ___________________ __________________
cholangiopancreatography
______________________________.
12.100
Because most of the 20 feet of small intestine lies
beyond the reach of either upper or lower endoscopic
instruments, a tiny video camera placed in a capsule may
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ANSWERS
593
REVIEW
be swallowed and used for examination. This procedure is
capsule endoscopy
called ______________ ____________________.
12.101
biopsy
The removal and microscopic study of suspicious
lesions or tissues is called a _____________. Specimens for
biopsy are collected in various ways. When a lesion is
excisional
removed entirely, the procedure is called an _______________
portion
biopsy. Incisional biopsy removes a _____________ of a
lesion for examination. Recall that the term cutaneous
skin
pertains to the ________. Another type of biopsy that uses a
hollow needle inserted percutaneously (through the skin) to
needle
remove tissue for analysis is simply called a _____________
biopsy.
12.102
The nonionizing imaging technique used in many
body systems is also used in the gastrointestinal system to
visualize the abdominal cavity. Abbreviated MRI, this
magnetic resonance
procedure is called ___________________ _________________
imaging
_____________.
12.103
Recall that the suffix meaning process of
-graphy
recording is _____________. The general term for recording
radiography
an x-ray image is ______________________.
12.104
gastrointestinal
Several specialized radiographic procedures are
performed to depict the ______________________ (GI) tract.
An x-ray of the esophagus after the patient swallows a
swallow
barium contrast medium is called a barium ______________.
A series of x-ray images of the upper part of the
gastrointestinal tract, from the esophagus to the duodenum,
obtained after the patient swallows barium is called an
upper gastrointestinal
____________ _______________________ (GI)
series
____________.
12.105
Bowel is another term for intestine. Using the
term bowel, the x-ray examination of the small intestine is
small bowel series
called a _____________ _____________ _____________.
12.106
Barium contrast can also be introduced into the
lower gastrointestinal tract through an enema. An x-ray
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ANSWERS
REVIEW
image of the colon after a barium enema has been administered
lower
is called either a barium enema or a _____________
gastrointestinal
________________________ (GI) series.
record
12.107
The suffix -gram means _______________. Using
the combining form referring to bile ducts, an x-ray record
cholangiogram
of bile ducts is called a ______________________. Using the
combining form referring to the gallbladder, an x-ray image
cholecystogram
of the gallbladder is called a _______________________.
12.108
The type of x-ray examination using a fluorescent
screen to visualize structures in motion is called
fluoroscopy
___________________.
12.109
The process of obtaining computer cross-sectional
computed
x-ray images of the abdomen is called ________________
tomography
__________________ (CT) of the abdomen.
12.110
The suffix -graphy means process of
recording
________________. Another term for ultrasound imaging is
sonography
___________________. An ultrasound image of the abdomen
abdominal sonogram
is called an _________________ ________________. When
the sonographic transducer is placed inside an endoscope
for examining a body cavity with ultrasound, this is called
endoscopic ultrasonography
________________ _____________________ (EUS).
12.111
Stool specimens can be diagnostically examined
to detect pathology. Isolation of a specimen in a culture
medium to grow and identify microorganisms and to
determine the drugs to which they are sensitive is called a
stool culture, sensitivity
_____________ _______________ and __________________
(C&S).
12.112
The term occult means hidden or not obvious.
A chemical test of a stool specimen to detect unseen blood
and, thereby, bleeding in the GI tract is called a stool
occult blood
_____________ ____________ study.
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595
Self-Instruction: Operative Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
abdominocentesis
ab-domi-nō-sen-tēsis
puncture of the abdomen for aspiration of fluid
abdominal paracentesis
ab-domi-năl pară-sen-tēsis
puncture of the abdomen for aspiration of fluid in the
peritoneal cavity (e.g., fluid accumulated in ascites)
anal fistulectomy
ānăl f is-tyū-lektŏ-mē
excision of an anal fistula
anastomosis
ă-nastō-mōsis
union of two hollow vessels; a technique used in bowel
surgery
appendectomy
ap-pen-dektō-mē
excision of a diseased appendix
bariatric surgery
bar-ē-atrik sūrjĕr-ē
treatment of morbid obesity by surgery to the stomach and/or
intestines; procedures include restrictive techniques that limit
the size of the stomach and malabsorptive techniques that
limit the absorption of food (baros = weight; iatric = pertains
to treatment)
cheiloplasty
kı̄lō-plas-tē
repair of the lip
cholecystectomy
kōlē-sis-tektō-mē
excision of the gallbladder; common treatment for symptomatic
gallbladder disease (e.g., cholelithiasis, cholecystitis, and
cholangitis)
excision of the gallbladder through a laparoscope
laparoscopic
cholecystectomy
lapă-rō-skopik kōlē-sistektō-mē
colostomy (Fig. 12-21)
k ō-lostō-mē
creation of an opening in the colon through the abdominal
wall to create an abdominal anus, allowing stool to bypass a
diseased portion of the colon; performed to treat ulcerative
colitis, cancer, or obstructions
esophagoplasty
ē-sofă-gō-plas-tē
repair of the esophagus
1. Ascending colostomy
FIGURE 12-21 ■
2. Transverse colostomy
Common colostomy sites.
3. Descending colostomy
4. Sigmoid colostomy
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
TERM
MEANING
gastrectomy
gas-trektŏ-mē
partial or complete removal of the stomach
gastric resection
gastrik rē-sekshŭn
partial removal and repair of the stomach
gastroenterostomy
gastrō-en-tĕr-ostŏ-mē
formation of an artificial opening between the stomach and
small intestine; often performed at the time of gastrectomy to
route food from the remainder of the stomach to the
intestine; also performed to repair a perforated duodenal ulcer
glossectomy
glo-sektŏ-mē
excision of all or part of the tongue
glossorrhaphy
glo-sōră-f ē
suture of the tongue
hemorrhoidectomy
hemō-roy-dektŏ-mē
excision of hemorrhoids
hepatic lobectomy
he-patik lō-bektŏ-mē
excision of a lobe of the liver
herniorrhaphy
hĕrnē-ōră-f ē
hernioplasty
hĕrnē-ō-plas-tē
repair of a hernia
ileostomy
il-ē-ostŏ-mē
surgical creation of an opening on the abdomen to which the
end of the ileum is attached, providing a passageway for ileal
discharges; performed after removal of the colon, such as to
treat chronic inflammatory bowel diseases (e.g., ulcerative colitis)
laparoscopic surgery
lapă-rō-skopik sūrjĕr-ē
abdominal surgery using a laparoscope
laparotomy
lap-ă-rotō-mē
incision into the abdomen
pancreatectomy
pankrē-ă-tektō-mē
excision of the pancreas
polypectomy
(see Fig. 12-15)
polip-ektŏ-mē
excision of polyps
proctoplasty
proktō-plas-tē
repair of the anus and rectum
Programmed Review: Operative Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
gastr/o
12.113 Recall that the combining form for stomach is ____________.
-ectomy
The suffix for excision is ______________. The surgical excision of
gastrectomy
part or all of the stomach is called _____________________.
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597
ANSWERS
REVIEW
hemorrhoidectomy
12.114
Excision of hemorrhoids is called _______________________.
pancreat/o
12.115
The combining form for pancreas is _______________.
pancreatectomy
Surgical excision of the pancreas is called _____________________.
12.116
The two combining forms for tongue are lingu/o and
gloss/o
_____________. Made from the latter, the term for surgical excision
glossectomy
of all or part of the tongue is ____________________.
cholecystectomy
12.117
Excision of the gallbladder is called _____________________.
When performed through a laparoscope, it is called
laparoscopic
______________________ cholecystectomy.
12.118
Excision of a lobe of the liver is called a hepatic
lobectomy
__________________.
appendic/o
12.119
appendectomy
Surgical excision of the appendix is termed _____________________.
The combining form for appendix is ________________.
(Note: The “ic” in the combining form is removed to prevent the
unwieldy “ic-ec” sound.)
12.120
The procedure of surgical excision of polyps is called
polypectomy
__________________.
anal
12.121
fistulectomy
____________________.
12.122
Excision of an anal fistula is termed an _________
Recall that the suffix for surgical repair or reconstruction
-plasty
is _____________. Surgical repair of the lip is termed
cheiloplasty
___________________. Repair of the esophagus is called
esophagoplasty
__________________________. Repair of a hernia is called
hernioplasty
____________________. Repair of the anus and rectum is called
proctoplasty
____________________.
-rrhaphy
12.123
glossorrhaphy
Suture of the tongue is therefore called ______________________.
herniorrhaphy
Surgical repair and suture of a hernia is called _____________________.
12.124
Recall that the suffix meaning suture is _______________.
Resection typically involves less tissue removal than a full
excision. The procedure of partial removal and repair of the stomach
gastric resection
is called ____________ _________________.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
12.125
opening
Recall that the operative suffix -stomy means creation of an
_______________. The surgical creation of an opening in the colon
through the abdominal wall, allowing stool to bypass a diseased
colostomy
portion of the colon, is called a ___________________. The creation
of an opening from the end of the ileum to the abdomen, done when
ileostomy
the colon has been removed, is called an __________________.
12.126
The term for the creation of an artificial opening between
the stomach and the small intestine is built from the combining
forms for both the stomach and the intestine. This procedure is
gastroenterostomy
called a __________________________.
-tomy
12.127 The operative suffix meaning incision is ___________. Recall
that the three combining forms meaning abdomen are adomin/o, celi/o,
lapar/o
and _____________. Formed from the last of these, the term for an
laparotomy
incision into the abdomen is ____________________.
12.128
Recall that the suffix meaning puncture for aspiration is
-centesis
_________________. The three combining forms meaning abdomen
abdomin/o
are celi/o, lapar/o, and ________________. Made from the last of these,
the term for puncture of the abdomen for the aspiration of a fluid is
abdominocentesis
__________________________. Another general term for the aspiration
paracentesis
of fluid from any cavity is ____________________. Abdominal
puncture of
paracentesis describes ________________ ____ the abdomen for the
aspiration
____________________ of fluid (e.g., the fluid that accumulates in
ascites).
12.129
anastomosis
The term for the operative procedure in which two hollow
vessels are joined is ___________________. This technique is often
used in bowel surgery.
12.130
laparoscopic
A general term for abdominal surgery performed using a
laparoscope is __________________ surgery.
12.131
The term describing surgery to the stomach and/or
intestines to treat morbid obesity is formed by joining baros, a
weight
combining form meaning _____________, with -iatric, a suffix
treatment, bariatric
meaning _________________, creating the term _______________
surgery.
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599
Self-Instruction: Therapeutic Terms
Study the following:
TERM
MEANING
gastric lavage
gastrik lă-vahzh
oral insertion of a tube into the stomach for examination and
treatment, such as to remove blood clots from the stomach or
to monitor bleeding (lavage = to wash)
nasogastric (NG)
intubation
nāsō-gastrik intū-bāshŭn
insertion of a tube through the nose and into the stomach for
various purposes, such as to obtain a gastric fluid specimen
for analysis
COMMON THERAPEUTIC DRUG CLASSIFICATIONS
antacid
ant-asid
drug that neutralizes stomach acid
antiemetic
antē-ĕ-metik
drug that prevents or stops vomiting
antispasmodic
antē-spaz-modik
drug that decreases motility in the gastrointestinal tract to
arrest spasm or diarrhea
cathartic
kă-thartik
drug that causes movement of the bowels; also called a
laxative
Programmed Review: Therapeutic Terms
ANSWERS
REVIEW
12.132
The word lavage means to wash. The therapeutic
procedure in which a tube is inserted into the stomach from the
mouth to remove fluids, such as blood clots, is termed
gastric lavage
______________ ________________.
12.133
A tube can be inserted through the nose to the stomach
for purposes such as obtaining a gastric fluid specimen for analysis.
nasogastric intubation
This is called __________________ (NG) _____________________.
12.134
Therapeutic drug classifications are often named for
their actions against some process or condition. The common
anti-
prefix meaning against is __________.
12.135
Recall that -emesis means vomiting and that the suffix -ic,
which is often used in names of drug classes, means
pertaining to
_________________ ____. A drug that prevents or stops vomiting
antiemetic
(against vomiting) is called an ___________________.
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LEARNING APPROACH TO THE LANGUAGE OF HEALTH CARE
ANSWERS
REVIEW
12.136
antispasmodic
tract) is called an _______________________.
12.137
antacid
Similarly, a drug used to stop spasms (of the gastrointestinal
A drug that works against excess stomach acid by
neutralizing it is called an ________________. (Note: In this case,
the -ic ending is not used.)
12.138
The Greek word katharsis means purification by purging.
A drug that purges the large intestine by stimulating a bowel
cathartic
movement is called a __________________; such a drug is also
called a laxative.
CHAPTER 12 ACRONYMS AND ABBREVIATIONS
ABBREVIATION
EXPANSION
Bx
biopsy
C&S
culture and sensitivity
CT
computed tomography
EGD
esophagogastroduodenoscopy
ERCP
endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
EUS
endoscopic ultrasonography
GERD
gastroesophageal reflux disease
GI
gastrointestinal
HAV
hepatitis A virus
HBV
hepatitis B virus
HCV
hepatitis C virus
LLQ
left lower quadrant
LUQ
left upper quadrant
MRI
magnetic resonance imaging
NG
nasogastric
PUD
peptic ulcer disease
RLQ
right lower quadrant
RUQ
right upper quadrant
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CHAPTER 12 SUMMARY OF TERMS
The terms introduced in chapter 12 are listed below, followed by the page number on which each
term can be found and its written pronunciation. For additional practice and reinforcement, write
the definition of each term on a separate piece of paper.
abdominal paracentesis/595
ab-domi-năl pară-sen-tēsis
barium swallow/588
barē-ŭm swahlō
abdominal sonogram/589
ab-domi-năl sonō-gram
biliary ducts/567
bilē-ār-ē dŭkts
abdominocentesis/595
ab-domi-nō-sen-tēsis
biopsy (Bx)/585
bı̄op-sē
anal fistula/576
ānăl fistyū-lă
buccal/572
bŭkăl
anal fistulectomy/595
ānăl fis-tyū-lektŏ-mē
capsule endoscopy/586
kapsūl en-doskŏ-pē
anastomosis/595
ă-nastō-mōsis
cardiac sphincter/566
kardē-ak sfingktĕr
ankyloglossia/575
angki-lō-glosē-ă
cathartic/599
kă-thartik
anorexia/572
an-ō-reksē-ă
cecum/566
sēkŭm
antacid/599
ant-asid
cheeks/564
chēks
antiemetic/599
antē-ĕ-metik
cheilitis/576
kı̄-lı̄tis
antispasmodic/599
antē-spaz-modik
cheiloplasty/595
kı̄lō-plas-tē
anus/567
ānŭs
cholangiogram/589
kō-lanjē-ō-gram
aphagia/572
ă-f ājē-ă
cholangitis/579
kō-lan-jı̄tis
appendectomy/595
ap-pen-dektō-mē
cholecystectomy/595
kōlē-sis-tektō-mē
appendicitis/576
ă-pen-di-sı̄tis
cholecystitis/580
kōlē-sis-tı̄tis
ascending colon/566
ă-sending kōlon
cholecystogram/589
kō-lē-sistō-gram
ascites/572
ă-sı̄tēz
choledocholithiasis/580
kō-ledō-kō-lith-ı̄ă-sis
bariatric surgery/595
bār-ē-atrik sūrj ĕr-ē
cholelithiasis/580
kōlē-li-thı̄ă-sis
barium enema/589
barē-yŭm enĕ-mă
cirrhosis/580
sir-rōsis
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colitis/576
kō-lı̄tis
endoscopy/586
en-doskŏ-pē
colon/566
kōlon
enteritis/578
en-t ĕr-ı̄tis
colonoscopy/586
kō-lon-oskŏ-pē
epigastric region/571
ep-i-gastrik rējŭn
colorectal polyps/577
kolō-rektăl polips
eructation/573
ē-r ŭk-t āshŭn
colostomy/595
kō-lostō-mē
esophageal varices/576
ē-sofă-j ēăl vari-sēz
computed tomography (CT) of the
abdomen/589
kom-py ūt ĕd tō-mogră-f ē of the abd ō-men
esophagitis/576
ē-sof-ă-jı̄tis
constipation/572
kon-sti-pāshŭn
esophagogastroduodenoscopy
(EGD)/586
ē-sofă-gō-gastrō-dūō-den-os-kŏ-pē
defecation/567
def-ĕ-kāshŭn
esophagoplasty/595
ē-sof ă-gō-plas-tē
descending colon/566
dē-sending kōlon
esophagus/566
ē-sof ă-gŭs
diarrhea/572
dı̄-ă-rēă
excisional biopsy/585
ek-sizhŭn-ăl bı̄op-sē
diverticulitis/578
dı̄vĕr-tik-yū-lı̄tis
feces/567
f ēsēz
diverticulosis/578
dı̄vĕr-tik-yū-lōsis
flatulence/573
f laty ū-lents
diverticulum/578
dı̄-vĕr-tikyū-lŭm
fluoroscopy/588
flōr-oskŏ-pe
duodenal ulcer/576
dūō-dēnăl ŭlsĕr
gallbladder/567
gawlblad-ĕr
duodenum/566
d ū-ō-dēnŭm
gastrectomy/596
gas-trektŏ-mē
dysentery/578
disen-ter-ē
gastric lavage/599
gastrik lă-vahzh
dyspepsia/573
dis-pepsē-ă
gastric resection/596
gastrik rē-sekshŭn
dysphagia/573
dis-f ājē-ă
gastric ulcer/576
gastrik ŭlsĕr
endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)/588
en-dō-skopik retrō-grād kō-lanjē-ō-pan-krē-ătogră-f ē
gastritis/576
gas-trı̄tis
endoscopic ultrasonography
(EUS)/591
en-dō-skopik ŭltră-sŏ-nogră-f ē
gastroesophageal reflux disease
(GERD)/576
gastrō-ē-sof-ă-j ēăl rēf l ŭks di-zēz
gastroenterostomy/596
gastrō-en-tĕr-ostŏ-mē
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CHAPTER 12 • GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
gingivitis/576
jin-ji-vı̄tis
hypogastric region/571
hı̄-pō-gastrik rējŭn
glossectomy/596
glos-sektŏ-mē
hypoglossal/573
hı̄-pō-glosăl
glossitis/576
glos-sı̄tis
icterus/573
ikt ĕr-ŭs
glossorrhaphy/596
glo-sōră-f ē
ileitis/579
il-ē-ı̄tis
gums/566
g ŭmz
ileostomy/596
il-ē-ostŏ-mē
halitosis/573
hal-i-tōsis
ileum/566
ilē-ŭm
hematemesis/573
hē-mă-temĕ-sis
incarcerated hernia/578
in-karsĕr-ā-tĕd hĕrnē-ă
hematochezia/573
hēmă-tō-kēzē-ă
incisional biopsy/585
in-sizhŭn-ăl bı̄op-sē
hemorrhoid/578
hemŏ-royd
inguinal hernia/578
inggwi-năl hĕrnē-ă
hemorrhoidectomy/596
hemō-roy-dektŏ-mē
inguinal regions/571
inggwi-năl rēj ŭnz
hepatic lobectomy/596
he-patik lō-bektŏ-mē
intussusception/579
int ŭs-sŭs-sepshŭn
hepatitis A/580
hep-ă-tı̄tis A
jaundice/573
jawndis
hepatitis B/581
hep-ă-tı̄tis B
jejunum/566
j ĕ-jūnŭm
hepatitis C/581
hep-ă-tı̄tis C
laparoscopic cholecystectomy/595
lapă-rō-skopik kōl ē-sis-tektō-mē
hepatomegaly/573
hepă-tō-megă-lē
laparoscopic surgery/596
lapă-rō-skopik sūrjĕr-ē
hernia/578
h ĕrnē-ă
laparoscopy/588
lap-ă-roskŏ-pē
hernioplasty/596
hĕrnē-ō-plas-tē
laparotomy/596
lap-ă-rotō-mē
herniorrhaphy/596
hĕrnē-ōră-fē
large intestine/566
larj in-testin
hiatal hernia/578
hı̄-ātăl hĕrnē-ă
lips/564
lipz
hyperbilirubinemia/573
hı̄pĕr-bili-rū-bi-n ēmē-ă
liver/567
livĕr
hypochondriac regions/570
hı̄-pō-kondrē-ak rējŭnz
lower gastrointestinal (GI) series/589
lōĕr gastrō-in-testi-năl sērēz
603
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lumbar regions/571
l ŭmbar rējŭnz
proctitis/579
prok-tı̄tis
magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)/588
mag-netik rezō-nănts imă-jing
proctoplasty/596
proktō-plas-t ē
melena/573
me-l ēnă
proctoscopy/586
prok-toskŏ-pē
mouth/564
mowth
pyloric sphincter/566
pı̄-l ōrik sfingktĕr
nasogastric (NG) intubation/599
nāsō-gastrik int ū-bāshŭn
pyloric stenosis/576
pı̄-l ōrik ste-n ōsis
nausea/573
nawzē-ă
radiography/588
rādē-ogr ă-f ē
needle biopsy/586
nēdĕl bı̄op-s ē
rectal ampulla/566
rektăl am-pullă
omentum/567
ō-mentŭm
rectum/566
rektŭm
oral cavity/564
ōr ăl kavi-tē
salivary glands/564
sali-vār-ē glanz
palate/564
palăt
sessile polyp/577
sesil polip
pancreas/567
pankrē-as
sialoadenitis/576
sı̄ă-l ō-ad-ĕ-nı̄tis
pancreatectomy/596
pankrē-ă-tektō-mē
sigmoid colon/566
sigmoyd k ōlon
pancreatitis/581
pankrē-ă-tı̄tis
sigmoidoscopy/586
sig-moy-doskŏ-pē
parotitis/576
par-ō-tı̄tis
small bowel series/588
smawl bowel sērēz
pediculated polyp/577
pĕ-dik-yū-lāt ĕd polip
small intestine/566
smawl in-testin
peptic ulcer disease (PUD)/576
peptik ŭl sĕr di-zēz
sonography/589
sŏ-nogră-f ē
peritoneal cavity/567
peri-tō-nēăl kavi-tē
steatorrhea/573
stēă-tō-rēă
peritoneum/567
peri-tō-nē ŭm
stomach/566
st ŏmăk
peritonitis/579
peri-tō-nı̄tis
stomatitis/576
stō-mă-tı̄tis
pharynx/566
f ăringks
stool culture and sensitivity (C&S)/591
stūl kŭlchŭr and sen-si-tivi-tē
polypectomy/596
polip-ekt ŏ-mē
stool occult blood study/591
stūl ŏ-kŭlt blŭd stŭdē
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CHAPTER 12 • GASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEM
strangulated hernia/578
stranggyū-lā-tĕd h ĕrnē-ă
umbilical region/571
ŭm-bili-kăl rējŭn
sublingual/573
sŭb-linggwăl
upper gastrointestinal (GI)
series/588
upĕr gastrō-in-testi-năl sērēz
teeth/566
tēth
tongue/564
tŭng
transverse colon/566
trans-vĕrs kōlon
ulcerative colitis/577
ŭlsĕr-ă-tiv kō-lı̄tis
umbilical hernia/578
ŭm-bili-kăl hĕrn ē-ă
uvula/564
ūvyū-l ă
vermiform appendix/566
vĕrmi-f ōrm ă-pendiks
volvulus/579
volvyū-lŭs
605
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PRACTICE EXERCISES
For each of the following words, write out the term components (prefixes [P],
combining forms [CF], roots [R], and suffixes [S]) on the lines below the word.
Then define the term according to the meaning of its components.
EXAMPLE
sublingual
sub / lingu / al
P
R
S
DEFINITION: below or under/tongue/pertaining to
1. transabdominal
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
2. proctocolectomy
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
3. sialolithotomy
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
CF
S
DEFINITION: ________________________________________________________________________
4. glossorrhaphy
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
5. hematemesis
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
6. cheilostomatoplasty
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
7. appendicitis
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
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8. celiac
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
9. cholangiogram
___________ / ___________ / ___________
R
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
10. anorectal
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
11. enterocolitis
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
12. orolingual
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
13. dysphagia
___________ / ___________ / ___________
P
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
14. pancreatoduodenostomy
___________ / ___________ / ___________
CF
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
15. hernioplasty
___________ / ___________
CF
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
16. biliary
___________ / ___________
R
S
DEFINITION: _______________________________________________________________________
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MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY: A PROGRAMMED LE