Airbus A320-200
Table of Contents
AIR COND / PRESS / VENT..................................................................................
APU........................................................................................................................................
CABIN/OXYGEN..........................................................................................................
Communication................................................................................................................
Indication/Record System...........................................................................................
ELEC......................................................................................................................................
FIRE PROTECTION....................................................................................................
FLIGHT CONTROL.....................................................................................................
AUTO FLIGHT/NAVIGATION............................................................................
Fuel System........................................................................................................................
Hydraulic System............................................................................................................
ICE AND RAIN PROTECTION............................................................................
Landing Gear/Brake/Nosewheel Steering..........................................................
PNEUMATIC SYSTEM..........................................................................................
POWERPLANT SYSTEM.....................................................................................
PERFORMANCE........................................................................................................
Basic Theory...................................................................................................................
NEW REGULATION AND NEW TECHNOLOGY...............................
Pilot Aircraft License Test Questions and Answers...................................
Flight Engineer Aircraft License Basic Test Questions and Answers
Flight Engineer Aircraft License A320 System Test Questions and
Answers.............................................................................................................................
1
AIR COND / PRESS / VENT
1. When HOT AIR pb FAULT light illuminates on AIR COND panel:
(DSC-21-10-50)
A Hot air pressure regulating valve closes, and trim air valve closes
B
Hot air pressure regulating valve opens, and trim air valve closes
C
Hot air pressure regulating valve closes, and air regulating valve
opens
Answer: A
2. During normal flight, when skin temperature is below in-flight
threshold value, avionics ventilation system controls the temperature of
cooled air by: (DSC-21-30-20)
A Add the air from the cockpit
B
Close-loop configuration is active
C
Add the air to flowing system
D Drain the air out of the aircraft
Answer: B
3. When RAM AIR switch can be used? (DSC-21-10-20)
A. At any time
B. Only when differential pressure is above 1 PSI
C. Only when differential pressure is above 1 PSI
D. Only when outflow valve is totally opened
Answer: B
4. Trim air valve adds _____ into mixture unit. (DSC-21-10-10)
A The air cooled by the pack
B
The hot air tapped at the upstream of the pack
C
Re-circulated cabin air
Answer: B
5. In case of pack overheat, pack flow control valve: (DSC-21-10-20)
A will be automatically closed
B
will be manually closed by pressing pack control switch
Answer: A
6. Cabin pressurization controller generally uses: (DSC-21-20-20)
A
B
the signal of ADIRS,FMGC,EIU,LGCIU
the fixed landing elevation of FMGC and pressure altitude of
ADIRS
C
the landing elevation, and captain BARO reference and ADIRS
pressure altitude
Answer: C
7. What will be arisen if hot air pressure regulation valve fails at OPEN
position? (DSC-21-10-40)
A Optimum regulation fails
B
Temperature keeps at the selected value in occurrence of this
failure
C
No effect
Answer: C
8. If APU bleed is engaged (APU bleed valve is opened), pack flow is
automatically selected at: (DSC-21-10-30)
A HI
B
NORM
C
LOW
Answer: A
9. Each air regulation valve optimizes the temperature by:
(DSC-21-10-20)
A adding hot air
B
adding fresh air
C
regulating pack flow
Answer: A
10. Hot air pressure regulation valve: (DSC-21-10-20)
A regulates hot air pressure at upstream of the pack
B
this valve is spring-loaded open in absence of air.
C
automatically opens in case of pipe overheat
Answer: A
11. Pack flow control valve is: (DSC-21-10-20)
A pneumatically operated, electrically controlled
B
electrically operated, pneumatically controlled
C
automatically opened during engine start-up
Answer: A
12. (
）motor can be used to automatically control the position
of outflow valve. (DSC-21-10-10)
A Hydraulically driven
B
it is electronically operated
C
Pneumatically
Answer: B
13. Pack flow selector can be selected at: (DSC-21-10-50)
A Cockpit
B
Cabin
C
Cockpit and cabin
Answer: A
14. Based on the pressure demand of the engine, when the cooling
demand of one zone cannot be satisfied: (DSC-21-10-30)
A minimum idle must be manually increased
B
deliver the pressure demand to EIU to increase minimum idle
C
Flight idle is adequate in any case
Answer: B
15. Maximum normal cabin altitude is: (LIM-21-21-20)
A 8000 FT
B
9550+/-350 FT
C
14000 FT
Answer: A
16. Maximum cabin negative differential pressure is:
A
0
B
-1.0psi
C
-0.2psi
(LIM-21-21-20)
17. During long transit of high-temperature airport, can the pack and LP
ground equipment be simultaneously operated? (LIM-21-21-20)
A Yes
B
No
C
Yes, if OAT is above 50℃
Answer: B
18. Trim air valve is controlled by: (DSC-21-10-10)
A Zone Controller
B
Pack Controllers
C
Hot-Air Pressure-Regulating Valve
Answer: A
19. What is connected with the mixture unit? (DSC-21-10-20)
A Pack, cabin air, emergency ram air inlet and low pressure ground air inlet
B
Pack, emergency ram air inlet and low pressure ground air inlet
C
Pack and cabin air
Answer: A
20. When the pack is set at ON position, the pack is operating: (DSC-21-10-50)
A Automatic and independent of each other
B
Manual and independent of each other
C
Automatic, pack 1 is master and pack 2 is slave
Answer: A
21. When ram air button is set at ON, emergency ram air inlet valve
opens: (DSC-21-10-50)
A in any case
B
It is assumed that no ditching is selected
C
Differential pressure is below 1 PSI, and no ditching is selected
Answer: B
22. When cabin pressurization system is under semi-automatic
operation condition, the pilot must manually adjust: (DSC-21-10-40)
A. Cabin altitude
B. Outflow valve position
C. Landing elevation
Answer: C
23. The regulated air is distributed to: (DSC-21-10-10)
A. Cockpit, cargo compartment and cabin
B. Cockpit, front and rear cabin
C. Cockpit, avionics bay and cabin
Answer: B
24. Cabin zone temperature sensor is ventilated through the air
extracted from the galley and the lavatory:
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
25. The temperature is automatic, and is regulated by: C
A. Zone Controller
B. Pack controller 1 and 2
C. Above A and B
Answer: C
26. The safety valve aims to avoid: (DSC-21-20-20)
A. Excessive positive differential pressure，＞8.6PSI
B. Excessive negative differential pressure，＜-0.25PSI
C. Above-mentioned A and B
Answer: C
27. Regardless of selection of pack flow selector, the system will
deliver the HI flow in following conditions: (DSC-21-10-30)
A. The operation of single pack
B. When APU provides the bleed air
C. A and B
Answer: C
28. When ram air button is set at ON position, the outflow valve:
(DSC-21-10-20)
A. Closed
B. will be open for each time
C. will be partially opened when differential pressure is below 1 PSI
D. will be opened when differential pressure is above 1 PSI
Answer: C
29. In which of following conditions, pack flow control valve will be
automatically closed: (DSC-21-10-20)
A. Pack overheat, ENG fire pushbutton is released, engine start-up,
DITCHING pb is pressed
B. Bleed air valve fails, and the pressure at pack outlet increases
C. Above-mentioned A and B
Answer: C
30. Maximum positive differential pressure and maximum negative
differential pressure are respectively: (LIM-21-21-20)
A. 9.0psi/-1psi
B. 8.6psi/-1psi
C. 9.0psi/-2psi
D. 8.6psi/-2psi
Answer: B
31. During landing roll-out, pack air inlet opens at: (DSC-21-10-30)
A. 77 KT (after 30-second time delay)
B. 70 KT (after 3 minutes)
C. 70 KT (after 20-second time delay)
Answer: C
32. When APU supplies the air to the pack, if zone temperature does
not satisfy, the pack shall send the signal to
B
to demand for the
increase of air flow:
A. Pack ram air inlet
B. APU ECB
C. pack flow control valve
Answer: B
33. When ditching button is set at ON position, a closure signal is sent
to: (DSC-21-20-40)
A. outflow valve
B. ram air inlet and avionics ventilation inlet and outflow valve
C. pack flow control valve
D. Above three items
Answer: D
34. During normal operation, the pressurization is: (DSC-21-20-20)
A. Fully automatic
B. manually controlled
C. Above-mentioned A and B
Answer: A
35. In the flight, when pressurization controller 1 is used, in case of any
failure: (DSC-21-20-20)
A. It must be manually controlled
B. It is automatically switched to controller 2
C. Controller 2 must be manually selected
D. Landing elevation must be manually set
Answer: B
36. The power of outflow valve is supplied by: (DSC-21-10-20)
A. Either of two motors
B. Either of three motors
C. Three motors that are mechanically linked
Answer: B
37. When outflow valve is active in ground mode, the outflow valve:
(DSC-21-20-30)
A. Fully open
B. Fully closed.
C. It sets the position according to FMGS requirement
Answer: A
38. If the pilot intends to observe the position of outflow valve, this
pilots needs to review ECAM: (DSC-21-20-40)
A. COND Page
B. BLEED Page
C. PRESS page
Answer: C
39. Two completely identical, independent, and automatic digital
pressurization controllers are used for system control: (DSC-21-20-30)
A.
B.
One controller is primary, one controller is secondary
Two controllers are monitored by Flight Management Guidance
System (FMGS)
C. Controller 1 is used for climb phase while controller 2 is used for
cruise and descent
Answer: A
40. In manual mode, which controller generates excessive cabin altitude
and pressure output in purpose for ECAM display?
A. Both of them
B. Controller 1
C. Controller 2
Answer: B
41. When RAM AIR button is set at ON position, outflow valve will be
partially opened when pressure is: (DSC-21-20-20)
A. ＞1.5 psi
B. ＜3 psi
C. ＜1 psi
Answer: C
42. The safety valve aims to avoid: (DSC-21-20-20)
A. Excessive positive differential pressure
B. Excessive negative differential pressure
C. Above-mentioned A and B
Answer: C
43. How does safety valve work ? (DSC-21-20-20)
A. it is electronically operated
B. Hydraulically
C. Pneumatically
Answer: C
44. When landing elevation is set at AUTO position, landing
elevation data is sent from_________ to the controller:
(DSC-21-20-30)
A FMGS
B
FCU
C
ADIRS
Answer: A
45. When pressurization mode is select at MANUAL, outflow valve is
controlled with the signals delivered via controller 1 or 2:
(DSC-21-20-20)
A True
B
False
Answer: B
46. On ECAM CAB PRESS page, the indicated outflow valve turns
into amber when: (DSC-21-20-40)
A Fully closed.
B
This valve is opened above 95% during the flight
C
It is fully open on ground.
Answer: B
47. On ECAM CAB PRESS page, the indicated safety valve turns into
amber when: (DSC-21-20-40)
A Two safety valves are totally open
B
Either of two valves is not closed
C
Two safety valves are totally close
Answer: B
48. On ECAM CAB PRESS page, cabin altitude indication becomes
red when cabin altitude reaches:
(DSC-21-20-40)
A ＞ 14000 feet
B
＞8500 feet
C
＞9550 feet
Answer: C
49. After pressurization system 1 fails: (DSC-21-20-30)
A Master caution light ON, and flight crew must take the actions as
per ECAM advisory
B
Flight crew must select system 2
C
System 2 automatically takes over, and flight crew does not take
any action
Answer: C
50. When does cabin pre-pressurization start? (DSC-21-20-30)
A Engine start-up
B
T.O power is selected
C
Lift-off
Answer: B
51. (Pressure) safety valve opens at: (DSC-21-20-20)
A 8.06 psi
B
8.6 psi
C
9.0 psi
D 7.6 psi
Answer: B
52. How does the pack perform basic temperature regulation? A
A The pack satisfies the requirement of minimum zone temperature
B
It regulates the temperature in each zone
C
The pack satisfies the requirement of maximum zone temperature
Answer: A
53. The function of trim air valve is:
B
A Add cold air to optimize zone temperature
B
Add hot air to optimize zone temperature
C
Regulate the hot air pressure
Answer: B
54. The main function of anti-icing valve is:
C
A Prevent from ice accretion of primary heat exchanger
B
Prevent from ice accretion of main heat exchanger
C
Prevent from ice accretion of pack condenser
Answer: C
55. What is main function of bypass valve？ B
A Reduce the air flow to the pressurization stage
B
Regulate the pack outlet temperature
C
Add the air flow to the turbo stage.
Answer: B
56. What is the function of emergency ram air inlet ? (DSC-21-10-50)
A Provide the ventilation for smoke removal or for the loss of pack
B
Provide the air to pack compressor
C
Regulate main air flow through heat exchanger
Answer: C
57. When APU supplies the air, if the pilot selects the pack flow
selector to LO, the pack would generate: (DSC-21-10-30)
A. High flow
B. Low flow
C. Normal flow
Answer: A
58. When ram air switch is set to ON, what will happen?
(DSC-21-10-50)
A. Ram air inlet of the pack opens
B. Ram air outlet of the pack opens
C. If DITCHING is set at normal position, ram air inlet opens.
Answer: C
59. After landing, will the pressurization system automatically transfer ?
(DSC-21-20-30)
A. No, Another system must be selected,
B. Yes, The system immediately transferred after landing,
C. Yes, only 70 seconds after touch-down.
Answer: C
60. How to control the position of outflow valve? (DSC-21-20-20)
A. Through three torque motors, only one motor is running for one
time
B. Three electronic motors are running together
C. Two automatic motors and one manual motor, and either of two
automatic motors controls the valve
Answer: C
61. Correct landing elevation manual setting shall be checked at?
(DSC-21-20-40)
A. The scale on LDG ELEV selector
B. ECAM CAB PRESS page
C. Not necessary, because this is automatic,
Answer: B
62. When pressurization mode selection pb is set at MAN, and
DITCHING switch is set to ON, what will happen? C
A. Overboard outflow valve, emergency ram air inlet, avionics
ventilation and pack flow control valve are close
B. Only overboard outflow valve closes
C. Only overboard outflow valve does not close
Answer: C
63. What is the function of skin heat exchanger? A
A. It is used to cool the air from the avionics when skin heat
exchanger isolation valve opens
B. It heats the air from electrical ventilation system again
C. It cools down the air, then drain the air to the cargo compartment
underneath
Answer: A
64. When does the bypass valve of skin heat exchanger open?
(DSC-21-30-20)
A. In open loop configuration
B. In close loop or semi-open loop configuration, and air flow stays
above the required value
C. When ambient temperature of avionics compartment is above
35℃（95℉）
Answer: B
65. When does skin heat exchanger work on the ground?
(DSC-21-30-20)
A. When the loop is active in open-loop configuration
B. When skin temperature is below 12 ℃ (skin temperature
increases), when close-loop configuration is active
C. When skin temperature is above 12 ℃ (skin temperature
increases), when close-loop configuration is active
Answer: B
66. When either of BLOWER pb and EXTRACT pb is set at
OVERRIDE, the ventilation air comes from: (DSC-21-30-20)
A. Avionics compartment
B. Overboard
C. Air conditioning pipe
Answer: C
66. When either of BLOWER pb and EXTRACT pb is set at
OVERRIDE, the ventilation air is drained to: (DSC-21-30-20)
A. Skin heat exchanger
B. Overboard
C. The bottom of cargo compartment
Answer: A
68. When it is suspicious that the performance of certain automatic
pressurization system is downgraded, can another set of pressurization
system be selected? A
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
APU
1. In the cockpit, what are those usable switches for APU manual
shut-down? (DSC-49-10-20)
A. APU master switch, APU fire pushbutton
B. APU master switch
C. APU fire pushbutton, APU shut-down switch
Answer: A
2. When APU is running, APU fuel pump: (DSC-49-10-20)
A. It is running only when the battery supplies the power or fuel
pump is shut down
B. It is running all the time
C. Only active in the flight
D. When APU fuel pump is selected at ON
Answers:
4. When APU master switch is set at ON: (DSC-49-20-A)
A. ON in blue, APU system is electrically supplies and APU is
running at 95%, AVAIL comes on
B. ON in blue, APU system is electrically supplies. Whenever APU
start pb is pressed and the flap is open, APU starts up.
Answer: B
5. When APU is running, APU runs when: (DSC-49-10-20)
A. APU is running when the battery supplies the electrical power or
fuel pump is shut down or no pressure is available
B. It runs all the time
Answer: A
6. When does APU N turn into amber on ECAM status display?
(DSC-49-20-B)
A. N≥107％
B. N≥102％
C. N≥99％
Answer: B
7. When does APU EGT turn into red in ECAM status display ?
(DSC-49-20-B，the difference in optional configurations exists)
A. EGT ≥715℃（APU is running）
B. EGT ≥1038℃（APU is running）
C. EGT ≥711℃（APU is running, OAT 15℃）or EGT ≥1038℃
（when APU starts up）
Answer: C
8. On the ground, APU provides: (DSC-49-10-10-10-A)
A. Electrical + hydraulic
B. Electrical + bleed
Answer: B
9. APU bleed may be used for wing anti-icing: (DSC-49-10-20)
A. Allowed
B. Not Allowed
Answer: A
10. Can only aircraft battery be used to start up APU ?
(DSC-49-10-10-10-A)
A. Yes
B. No
Answer: A
11. APU fuel comes from: (DSC-49-10-20)
A. L/H fuel supply duct
B. R/H fuel supply duct
Answer: A
12. If the bleed is used, after the end of manual shut-down procedure,
APU: (DSC-49-20-A)
A. immediately shuts down
B. continues to run for 4 minutes
C. Continue to operate for 60 seconds, up to 120 seconds
Answer: C
13. When does AVAIL light on APU Start pb illuminate?
(DSC-49-20-A)
A. EXT PWR DISCONNECTION
B. After APU N reaches to 95% for 25 seconds or reaches to 99.5%
C. APU electrical power is used.
Answer: B
14. APU has its own lubrication system: (DSC-49-10-20)
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
15. APU RPM is determined with one of following requirement of
bleed system: (DSC-49-10-20)
A. Electronic control box
B. Air conditioning (zone controller)
C. Air intake system
Answer: A
16. In addition to the switch on cockpit APU panel, which can be also
used to shut down APU? (DSC-49-20)
A. Turn off L/H fuel pump
B. Press APU fire pushbutton
C. APU shut-down pb on external interphone panel
D. Above B and C
Answer: D
17. When APU master switch is OFF, when will be APU normally shut
down? (DSC-49-20-A)
A. There is a time delay in all cases.
B. After a time delay (if APU bleed is used)
C. No time delay in all the cases
Answer: B
18. When APU master is set at ON position: (DSC-49-20-A)
A. APU start-up
B. When the flap is fully open, the starter is energized
C. Air intake flap is closed
Answer: B
B
19. What are the basic elements of APU? (DSC-49-10-20)
A. Single-shaft gas turbine, which delivers the mechanical shaft
power to drive the accessory gearbox
B. Air compressor, combustion chamber, and turbine
C. Electrical, bleed, and shaft power part
Answer: A
20. What is the maximum altitude that APU can be re-started with
aircraft battery ? (LIM-49-20)
A. 25000 FT
B. 31000 FT
C. 39000 FT
Answer: A
21. How to manually shut down APU? (DSC-49-10-10)
A. APU master switch, APU fire switch
B. APU fire switch, APU shut-down switch
C. APU master switch, APU fire switch, APU shut-down switch
Answer: C
22、When APU master is ON, ECB will activate the test, and fuel
valve opens, if main fuel pump is not ON, when fuel pressure is low,
(
) is automatically running.
D
(The difference in optional configurations exists)
A. L/H 1 fuel pump
B. R/H 1 fuel pump
C. CTR TK PUMPS
D. APU pump
Answer: D
23. When APU fires on the ground, how to extinguish the fire in normal
condition? (DSC-49-10-20)
A From APU fire panel
B it is automatically operated
C From external electrical power panel
Answer: B
24. What is altitude limitation for APU start? (LIM-49-20)
A. 15000 FT
B. 25000 FT
C. 39000 FT
D. Within the ceiling
Answer: D
25. What is maximum altitude for APU to supply the air to two packs?
(The difference in optional configurations exists)
A. 15000 FT
B. 20000 FT
C. 25000 FT
D. 39000 FT
Answer: A
29. When does the advisory message "LOW OIL LEVEL" display?
(DSC-49-20-B)
A. A/C on the ground, and APU is not running
B. ECB detects low APU oil level
C. A+B
D. A or B
Answer: C
Cabin/Oxygen
1. When do No Smoke, Fasten Seat Belt, Return to Seat, and Exit light
illuminate? (DSC-33-40-10)
A. Turn on the switch and/or detect excessive cabin altitude when
appropriate
B. Turn off the switch and/or detect excessive cabin altitude when
appropriate
C. Above two items are correct
Answer: A
2. If emergency exit light is selected at ARM, when will cabin
emergency light and exit light automatically illuminate?
(DSC-52-10-30)
A. DC bus is lost
B. AC bus 2 is lost
C. AC ESS bus is lost
D. AC bus 1 or DC SHED ESS BUS is lost
Answer: D
3. The cockpit door: (DSC-52-10-60)
A. It can be only opened to the cockpit
B. It can be opened to the cabin
C. It is normally opened to the cockpit. In emergency condition, they
can open the door toward the cockpit or the cabin by violent
physical force.
Answer: C
4. When the command pushbutton on PURSER evacuation panel is
pressed, can the warning be activated? (DSC-23-20-60)
A. Yes, at any time
B. Yes, only on the ground
C. Yes, if cockpit evacuation switch is set at CAP & PUR
D. Yes, it overrides all of its signals
Answer: C
5. If the slide cannot be automatically inflated:
A. It cannot be inflated
B. It can be manually inflated
C. It can serve as portable survival slide
D. Above B+C
Answer: D
(DSC-52-10-80)
6. Minimum pressure of oxygen bottle shall ensure: (DSC-35-30-10)
A. During emergency descent, at normal position, it ensures that all
the flight crew members can use this bottle for 13 minutes.
B.
During emergency descent, at normal position, it ensures that all
the flight crew members can use this bottle for 20 minutes.
C.
During emergency descent, at normal position, it ensures that all
the flight crew members can use this bottle for 30 minutes.
Answer: A
7. At the boarding gate, the red light at the cabin door window is
flashing, which means: (DSC-52-10-20)
A. Slide is armed and engines are running
B. The engines are shut down, slide is disarmed and cabin is
pressurized.
C.
The engines are running, and the slide is disarmed
Answer: B
8. How many escape ropes in the cockpit? (DSC-52-10-30)
A. two
B. three
C. four
Answer: A
9. When the oxygen selector is set at TEST/RESET, such control is used
to: (DSC-35-20-20)
A. Check the oxygen supply to the mask and its flashing operation
B. Prevent the oxygen from flowing into the mask
C. control the oxygen flow into oxygen mask
Answer: A
10. Where is the evacuation signal command pushbutton?
(DSC-23-20-60)
A. In the cockpit and close to each passenger entrance door
B. Only on cockpit overhead panel
C. On the overhead panel and the purser panel
Answer: C
11. After smoke hood is used, how can the oxygen flow out?
(DSC-35-40-10)
A. The oxygen will be automatically supplied whenever the smoke
hood is removed from the bag.
B. The strip of PBE air bag must be pulled down.
C. The oxygen will flow out whenever the overhead mask is pulled
down.
Answer: B
12. When oxygen selector is set at 100%: (DSC-35-20-10)
A. Use the filtered cabin air
B. pure oxygen is used
C. high-pressure pure oxygen is used
Answer: B
13. When EMER pb is pressed, all the loudspeakers will trigger:
(DSC-23-20-40)
A. High tune
B. Low tune
C. Three high-low chimes
Answer: C
14. Two pink lights on area call panel inside the cabin are flashing,
which means: (DSC-23-20-40)
A. The smoke inside the lavatory
B. Evacuate
C. Emergency call
Answer: C
15. When passenger oxygen is used, can this be stopped?
(DSC-35-30-10)
A. No
B. Yes, the pull pin can be re-installed
C. Yes, by releasing oxygen system ON switch inside the cockpit
Answer: A
16. When emergency evacuation switch is set at CAPT in the cockpit,
can emergency evacuation be activated inside the cabin?
(DSC-23-20-60)
A. Only activated in the cabin
B. Only activated in the cockpit
C. Firstly activated in the cockpit, then activated in the cabin
Answer: B
17. Emergency illumination system consists of: (DSC-33-30-10)
A. Ceiling emergency light, proximity emergency escape path
identification system, overwing escape path illumination
B. Only floor proximity light
C. Only escape slide and overwing exit light
Answer: A
18. Cabin door warning is automatically indicated when:
(DSC-52-10-20)
A. When the engines are running, cabin door is not closed, on ECAM
E/WD
B. On ECAM E/WD, during cabin depressurization, and is
accompanied with flashing light
C. On ECAM by pressing DOOR button on ECAM control panel
Answers:
19. The cockpit slide window can be opened: (DSC-52-10-60)
A. Inside the aircraft
B. Overboard
C. Inside and outside the aircraft
Answer: A
20. What kind of oxygen provided by the system? (DSC-35-10)
A. Compressed oxygen for the cockpit and cabin crew, chemical
oxygen for the passenger
B. Compressed oxygen for the passenger, chemical oxygen for flight
crew
C. Compressed oxygen for the cockpit, chemical oxygen for cabin
crew and the passenger
Answer: C
21. Whenever oxygen generator is activated, the oxygen can be
supplied for: (DSC-35-30-10)
A. 5 minutes, if all the masks are used
B. 30 minutes, if only one is used
C. 13 minutes, if each mask is same
Answer: C
22. When cabin altitude ＞10000 feet, passenger oxygen mask door is
automatically opened. (DSC-35-30-10)
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
23. If crew oxygen pushbutton is OFF, ECAM DOOR/OXYGEN page
will display the OXY in (
). (DSC-35-20-20)
A. Amber
B. Green
C. White
Answer: A
24. The LIGHT EMER pushbutton on the purser panel can be used to
independently turn on emergency illumination, and is not subject to the
restriction to the position of the selector of emergency exit light.
(DSC-33-30-20)
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
25. The guard cover of MASK MAN ON in the overhead panel is used
to keep this pushbutton at ( B ). When the cabin altitude exceeds ( B )
feet, passenger oxygen mask will be dropped off. (Specific to the
configuration other than high-altitude airport) (DSC-35-30-10)
A. automatic; 10000
B. automatic; 14000
C. manual; 10000
D. automatic; 14000
Answer: B
26. The cockpit fixed oxygen system includes four full-face masks and
quick-donning masks, which are stowed inside the box that can be
quickly accessed beside flight crew seat. (DSC-35-20-10)
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
27. There are two adjustable dome lights installed inside the cockpit for
the illumination. When the battery supplies the electrical power:
(DSC-33-10-30)
A. it only supplies to L/H dome light
B. it only supplies to R/H dome light
C. it supplies to two dome lights
D. it supplies to none of these two dome lights
Answer: B
28. After oxygen mask is used, RESET slide block is used to
de-energize the oxygen mask microphone (DSC-35-20-20). A
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
29. The drainage of waste water on the ground depends on the gravity,
and the drainage of waste water on the ground depends on differential
pressure. Is this statement correct? (DSC-35-10)
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
Communication
1. In normal condition, RMP 1 is used to: (DSC-23-10-30)
A. HF 1 and HF 2
B. VHF 1
C. HF 1
B
2. If VHF 2 is selected in RMP 1, where does this selector illuminate?
(DSC-23-10-30)
A. Only on RMP 1
B. Only on RMP2
C. RMP 1 and RMP 2
C
3. In order to activate CVR before engine start, the pilot must press:
(DSC-23-30-20)
A. GND CTL pb
B. CVR ERASE pushbutton
C. CVR TEST pushbutton
A
4. Press the MECH key on Audio Control Panel (ACP):
(DSC-23-20-20)
A. You can talk to ground mechanic through headset
B. You can talk to ground maintenance personnel through interphone
pushbutton on ACP
C. You can talk to ground maintenance personnel through ACP
pushbutton
B
5. In order to eras the recording of cabin voice recorder:
(DSC-23-30-20)
A. Press the erase pushbutton for one time
B. In the flight, press the erase pushbutton for 2 seconds
C. On the ground, press ERASE pb for more than 2 s and parking brake
set at ON position
C
6. You can talk with
through interphone system: (DSC-23-20-30)
A. Cabin attendant
B. All the personnel in the cockpit
C. Ground mechanic
D. All above three items are correct
D
7、Can AM (Amplitude Modulation) indicator light in Green be found
in RMP 2? A
(This question can be deleted)
A. Yes
B. No
A
8. How to use VOR to find ATIS? (DSC-23-20-20)
A. Select voice button and VOR reception pushbutton on ACP
B. Only select voice button
A
9. How to cancel the voice indicator light in Green? (DSC-23-20-20)
A. Press the voice button again
B. Press VOR reception button
C. Both of above two items
A
10. What is the function of RESET pushbutton in ACP?
(DSC-23-20-20)
A. Re-start the system operation
B. Cancel previous selection
C. Remove any illuminating call
C
11. When oxygen mask or headset is used, if INT/RAD is set at INT,
and PTT button on the sidestick is pressed to transmit in the radio, can
you hear the interphone background noise? (DSC-23-20-20)
A. Yes
B. No
B
12. After STBY/NAV is selected on RMP, can you confirm the
selections made in MCDU - RAD/NAV page? (DSC-23-20-20、
DSC-34-NAV-30-30)
A. Yes
B. No
B
13. Can you perform STBY/NAV tuning on RMP 3? (DSC-23-10-30)
A. Yes
B. No
B
14. Can you hear the beacon ID signal selected through STBY/NAV?
(DSC-34-NAV-30-30)
A. Yes, push corresponding reception pushbutton
B. Yes, press one line on MCDU
A
15. When parking brake is released, can you hear the voice recorder test
signals through cockpit loudspeaker? (DSC-23-30-20)
A. Yes
B. No
B
16. If RMP (Radio Management Panel) 2 fails: (DSC-23-10-30)
A. All the communication systems can be controlled by another RMP
B. Only VHF2 cannot be controlled
C. All the systems become inoperative
D. VHF2 and HF2 frequencies cannot be controlled
A
17. When one SELCAL is received in VHF2, what will be arisen from
ACP? (DSC-23-20-20)
A. The legend "CALL" is flashing in amber, and is accompanied
with beeps.
B. Three green indicator lights ON
C. White SELCAL on VHF 2 button is occurred, and VHF 2
reception selector illuminates in white
A
18. Can the talking be transmitted in both VHF and PA?
(DSC-23-20-20)
A. Never
B. Yes, press the radio adjustment switch and PA key
C. Yes, press PTT and PA key with control column
A
19. When CAPT 3 is selected on ACP: (DSC-23-20-20)
A. The captain uses the headset of the third occupant
B. The third occupant uses the headset of the captain
C. The captain uses his own audio device and the ACP of the third
occupant
C
20、Can RMP 1 be used to select VOR 2 frequency?
(DSC-23-10-30，DSC-34-NAV-30-30)
A. Yes
B. No
B
21. If RMP 1 fails, flight crew can only use RMP 2 by: (DSC-23-10-30)
A. Turn off RMP 1, and then use RMP 2
B. Use the audio switch on the overhead panel: CAP 3
A
22. If two FMGCs fail, you can select the radio navigation frequency
by: (DSC-23-10-30)
A. by only using RMP 1
B. by only using RMP 1 and 2
C. RMP 1, 2 and 3
B
23. When you talk with those ground maintenance personnel at engine
nacelle, flight crew must select with following audio systems:
(DSC-23-20-20)
A. MECH + INT
B. ATT + CAB
C. Either of above two items
B
24. Whenever aircraft electrical supply network is powered on the
ground, cockpit CVR is energized, but only for 5 minutes. Only which
one of following conditions is satisfied before the cockpit CVR can be
re-activated? (DSC-23-30-10)
A. GND CTL is ON
B. One engine is running
C. Above-mentioned A and B
C
25. If one RMP fails, the selected receiver cannot be controlled with
RMP and frequency and the bar indicator light on this RMP extinguishes:
(DSC-23-10-30)
A. True
B. False
A
26. What is the function of RMP: (DSC-23-10-30)
A. Select radio frequency
B. Select the navaid in the loss of MCDU
C. Both of above
C
27. Can service interphone system be used in the flight? A
A.
B.
A
Yes
No
28. If ATC mode selector is set at AUTO: (DSC-34-SURV-10-20)
A. On the ground, the selected transponder is only active in S mode
B. When FLEX or TOGA is takeoff power, the selected ATC is active
C. Whenever one engine is running, the selected ATC is active
A
29. On ATC control panel, when does FAULT light illuminate?
(DSC-34-SURV-10-20)
A. The selected transponder fails
B. SYS 1 or 2 fault
A
30. On RMP, ON/OFF switch controls: (DSC-23-10-30)
A. RMP electrical supply
B. only controls RMP stand-by navigation function
C. only controls RMP communication function
A
31、If stand-by navigation function is selected with NAV key: C
(DSC-23-10-30、DSC-34-NAV-30-30)
A. VHF function on this RMP fails
B. VHF remains active, but only the last-selected frequency can be used
C. NAV key has no effect to the selection of radio communication
frequency
C
32. If RMP 2 is lost: (DSC-23-10-30)
A. All the systems become inoperative
B. VHF2 and HF2 frequencies cannot be controlled
C. All the frequencies can be controlled
C
33. RMP 1 is usually provided for: (DSC-23-10-30)
A. HF 1 and HF 2
B. VHF 1
C. VHF 2
B
34. (
) is always selected ON, and aims to record those
announcements made to the passengers by cabin attendant.
(PRO-NOR-SOP-04)
A.
B.
C.
C
ACP 1
ACP 2
ACP 3
35. The service interphone system can have the cockpit crew
communicate with 7 locations furnished with (
). (DSC-23-20-30)
A.
B.
B
Flight attendant terminal
Interphone jack
36. Each transceiver can be tuned with either of two RMPs.
(DSC-23-10-30)
A. True
B. False
A
37. When NAV selector switch on RMP is pressed, are the signals in
radio communication frequency affected? (DSC-23-10-30)
A. is not affected
B. Communication signals become weak
C. The call from the frequency cannot be normally received.
A
Indication/Record System
1.If PFD fails, the image on PFD will switch to ND: (DSC-31-05-60)
A. it is automatically operated
B. Manual or Auto
C. Manual
A
2. What is basic function of DMC? (DSC-31-05-30)
A. Generate aural warning
B. Generate amber warning
C. Generate and display proper images
C
3. What does it mean by a diagonal line in CRT (Cathode-ray Tube) (The
difference in optional configurations exists)?
C
A. Corresponding CRT is not energized
B. Electrical supply is normal, but corresponding DMC fails
C. In addition to the information in B, the pilot can switch over EIS
DMC to display the image again
C
4. Can pilot read amber warning on PFD FMA? (DSC-31-40)
A. Yes
B. No
A
5. Is CHECK ATT(Check Attitude) message simultaneously displayed
on both PFDs? (DSC-31-40)
A. Yes
B. No
A
6、During the approach, FAC computes the speed tendency and VLS.
The limitation value indicated in speed trend or indicated in VLS
segment: The speed value in future 10 seconds and 1.23 VS1g in any
configuration. Is this statement true? A
(PRO-SUP-10 characteristic speeds)
A. True
B. False
A
7. When is VLS (Lowest Selectable Speed) inhibited ?
A. The first 10 seconds after lift-off
B. When speed brakes are extended
C. Above-mentioned two conditions
A
(DSC-31-40)
8. FAC computes VLS, F speed, S speed in accordance with slat and/or
flap position: (PRO-SUP-10 characteristic speeds)
A. True
B. False
A
9. When does amber altitude flash? (DSC-31-40)
A. When A/C descends below MDA
B. When A/C deviates from the selected altitude or flight level
C. Above-mentioned two items are correct
B
10. In loss of upper ECAM display, E/WD will automatically switch to
lower ECAM display. If system display is required, the pilot
must:(DSC-31-05-60)
A. Turn off corresponding ECAM display selector
B. Press and hold corresponding system pb
C. Automatically displayed
D. Press the RECALL button
B
11、Where is Radio Altitude (RA) displayed on PFD? (DSC-31-40)
A. On the bottom of attitude ball
B. On the altitude scale
C. Available on both of them
C
12. A blue heading or track symbol can be seen at horizon line. Is FD
button set at ON position?
B
A. Yes
B. No
B
13. Select the correct statement: (DSC-31-05-30)
A. DMC 1 provides the data to PFD 1, PFD 2
B. DMC 1 provides the data to PFD 1, ND 1, and electrical warning
C. DMC 1 provides the data to ND 1, ND 2
B
14. When Flight Director （FD）pointer is flashing, this represents:
(DSC-31-40)
A. The switch to basic mode of autoflight system has been already
arisen
B. The pilot intercepting the altitude, and must select another altitude
C. In loss of LOC or G/S in LAND mode, or in the loss of LAND
mode
D. Above-mentioned A, B and C are all correct
D
15. During the takeoff, FMS indicates SRS, and what is the guidance of
FD pitch pointer? (DSC-31-40)
A. When two engines are running, A/C climbs at V2+10 KT
B. When two engines are running, A/C climbs at V2
A
16. What does STATUS page display? (DSC-31-15)
A. Memo message
B. Status message
C. Warning message
B
17. Can the pilot find any space between green diamond and ILS course
bar on PFD heading scale. If possible, is this space present on LOC
centerline? (DSC-31-40)
A. Yes, on localizer centerline
B. No, not on localizer centerline, no necessary.
C. No
B
18. When ND display mode selector is set at VOR or ILS, can the
waypoint or such selectable data as VOR, DME, NDB be read?
(DSC-31-45)
A. Yes
B. No
B
19. When weather radar is set at ON, what is the information on antenna
setting that can be read on ND? (DSC-31-45)
A. Tilt
B. Tilt + Alignment mode
B
20. Which computer generates the red warning? (DSC-31-05-30)
A. FWC
B. DMC
C. System data concentrator
A
21. When ND displays red circle and the message “MAP NOT AVAIL”,
what is possibly arisen? (DSC-31-45)
A. MCDU fault
B. A/C position given by FMGC is invalid
C. Engine is inoperative
B
22. Where does engine parameter indicate? (DSC-31-15)
A. PFD
B. ND
C. E/W
C
23. The attention getters are made up of: (DSC-31-05-30)
A. The red light and amber light below E/W display
B. The red light and amber light in front of each pilot
C. The message on PFD 1
B
24. The warning is generated from: (DSC-31-05-30)
A. SDAC
B. FWC
C. DMC
B
25. What is basic function of DMC? (DSC-31-05-30)
A. Compute and generate the indications
B. Trigger aural warning
C. Trigger amber warning
A
26. On the ground, two engines are shut down. ECAM usually display:
(DSC-31-10)
A. ENG Page
B. DOOR/OXY Page
C. ELEC Page
B
27. When RCL button is pressed, what will display? (DSC-31-30)
A.
B.
C.
C
The warning is inhibited
Display status page
Recall the warning
28. Vmax represents (DSC-31-40)
A. VMO or the speed equivalent to MMO
B. VLE (Maximum Landing Gear Extended Speed)
C. VFE (Maximum Flaps Extended Speed)
D. The lowest value of above-mentioned values
D
29. The altitude alert is not inhibited when: (DSC-31-40)
A. When the slats are out, and landing gear is selected down
B. G/S is intercepted in the approach
C. When L/G is downlocked
D. LOC is intercepted in the approach
D
30. How to clear the aural warning caused by the loss of AP:
(DSC-31-10)
A. Press MASTER WARN light
B. Press the take-over button again
C. Press the RESET key on ACP
D. Press MASTER WARN light or take-over button
B
31. On ND, (
track. (DSC-31-45)
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Green
C
) triangle represents the selected heading or
32. In the loss of engine during takeoff or go-around (or asymmetrical
thrust), the slide indication turns from yellow to (
) and becomes
β target to compensate the asymmetrical thrust to optimize the sideslip
amount. (DSC-31-40)
A. Red
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Green
C
33. In the loss of upper ECAM display unit, how can flight crew
display the system/status page message. The most comprehensive
description of following statements is: (DSC-31-10)
A. Use "ECAM/ND XFR" switch on SWITCHING panel to move it
to NDU (Navigation Display Unit)
B. Press corresponding system page button on ECAM control panel,
and temporarily displays on lower ECAM DU (that replaces
E/WD Page)
C. Push PFD/ND/XFR pb
D. A or B
D
34. BLUE in those color codes used for ECAM display refers to:
(DSC-31-10)
A. The title and description used to guide flight crews to operate
various procedures
B. The actions to be taken, or the limitation
C. Special message applicable for special equipment or condition (for
example, inhibit message)
D. The flight crew should be aware of the configuration or failure, but
need not take immediate action.
B
35. WHITE in those color codes used for ECAM display refers to:
(DSC-31-10)
A. The title and description used to guide flight crews to operate various
procedures
A. The actions to be taken, or the limitation
B. Special message applicable for special equipment or condition
(for example, inhibit message)
C. The flight crew should be aware of the configuration or failure,
but need not take immediate action.
C
36. The pilot can press EMER CANC pb on ECAM control panel to
remove any aural indicator. (DSC-31-10)
A. True
B. False
A
Electrical
1. How does DC BUS supply the electrical power in normal
configuration: （DSC-24-10-30-20）
A. From TR 1
B. From ESS TR
C. From TR 2
D. From BAT 2
A
2. The normal electrical source of ESS AC BUS comes from:
（DSC-24-10-30-20）
A. AC bus 1
B. AC bus 2
C. Emergency Generator
D. Static Inverter
A
3. How does DC BAT BUS supply the electrical power:
（DSC-24-10-30-20）
A. DC BUS 1 or BAT
B. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 or BAT
C. DC BUS 2 or BAT
B
4. What will be arisen during EMER GEN test? （DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. RAT is extended
B. BLUE system is pressurized and EMER GEN is connected
C. GREEN system is pressurized and EMER GEN starts to run,
which are supplied by HOT BUS 2
B
5. On emergency power panel, if FAULT light below the legend "RAT
AND EMER GEN" illuminates: （DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. RAT is not extended
B. When AC ESS BUS 1 and 2 (above 100 KT) or DC BAT BUS has
no electrical power, EMER GEN is not supplied any more.
C. EMER GEN is supplying the electrical power, but AC ESS BUS is
not supplied
D.
D
When AC ESS BUS 1 and 2 have no electrical power and the
wheels are retracted (N/W is retracted), EMER GEN is not
supplied by electrical power
6. When GEN 1 switch is OFF, what will happen? （DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. AC bus 1 and 2 has no electrical power but EMER GEN is
automatically connected
B. AC BUS 1 is not active due to GEN 1, and is electrically supplied
by GEN 2
C. AC BUS 1 is not active due to GEN 1 relay, and is electrically
supplied by GEN 2
D. AC BUS 1 has no electrical power, because GEN 1 network relay
is OFF and transfer contactor is not closed.
C
7. In cold aircraft configuration (no AC or DC electrical supply), where
can battery voltage be checked? （DSC-24-20）
A. ECAM ELEC Page
B. On ELEC overhead panel
C. No indication
B
8. If AC is available, what will happen during EMER GEN test?
（DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. EMER GEN is connected and is electrically supplied by HOT
BUS 2, and is pressurized by GREEN hydraulic system
B. RAT is extended
C. Because BLUE system has been pressurized, EMER GEN is
connected.
C
9. When bus tie contactor is closed, AC BUS 1 and 2:
（DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. They are supplied by any main generator or external power
B. They are supplied by APU generator or external power
C. They are paralleled.
A
10. During the flight, when A/C is only powered by the battery, ESS
AC SHED BUS and ESS DC SHED BUS are lost: （DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. Yes
B. No
A
11. When does static inverter start to run: （DSC-24-10-20）
A. It is running all the time
B. When A/C speed exceeds 50 KT and A/C is only supplied by the
battery, it is automatically started.
C. When main generator fails
B
12. Minimum battery voltage recommended before APU start-up:
（DSC-24-20）
A. 25.5 V
B. 27.5 V
C. 22.5 V
D. No minimum value
A
13. On the ground, if RAT AND EMER GEN MAN ON pb is pressed,
what will happen?
what will happen ?（DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. RAT is extended
B. EMER ENG is running
C. Nothing will be happened
A
14. In cold aircraft configuration on the ground, the activation of ram
air turbine and manual engagement of emergency generator switch:
（DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. RAT is extended
B. Nothing is arisen
C. EMER GEN RUNNING
A
15. The static inverter converts DC from battery bus to:
（DSC-24-10-20）
A. Single-phase 115 Volts, 400 Hz AC
B. Three-phase 115/200 Volts, 400 Hz AC
A
16. In the flight, in the loss of all main generators, emergency
generator becomes inoperative, and static inverter will supply the
electrical power to: （DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. APU and engine start + essential AC bus.
B. Engine start + essential AC bus + essential AC shed bus
C. Engine start
A
17. External power has the priority over APU generator:
（DSC-24-10-30）
A. True
B. False
A
18. When GEN 1 and GEN 2 are running, their priorities are over APU
generator: （DSC-24-10-30）
A. True
B. False
A
19. When APU is available, if one ENG generator fails, the faulty
generator is replaced by: （DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. APU
B. Another ENG generator
B
20. If TR fails, will main TR supply electrical power to ESS DC bus?
（DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. Yes
B. No
A
21. In the flight, in the loss of all the generators, emergency generator
becomes inoperative, ESS DC BUS will supply the electrical power to:
（DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. HOT BUS 2
B. ESS TR
C. Above two items
A
22. In the flight, in the loss of all the main generators, emergency
generator is operative, ESS DC BUS will supply the electrical power to:
（DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. HOT BUS 2
B. ESS TR
C. Both of above
B
23. IDG adjusts: （DSC-24-20）
A. Velocity
B. Voltage
C. Generator frequency
A
24. The generators can be in parallel sometimes: （DSC-24-20）
A. True
B. False
B
25. What will be arisen if all main generators fail? （DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. RAT is automatically deployed and supplies electrical power to
yellow system, and yellow system drives the emergency generator
(It is assumed that nosewheel is retracted).
B. RAT is deployed and mechanically linked with EMER GEN
C. RAT is automatically deployed and supplies electrical power to
blue system, and blue system drives the emergency generator (It is
assumed that nosewheel is retracted).
D. RAT must be manually deployed
C
26. In the loss of AC BUS 1, ESS AC BUS is electrically supplied by:
（DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. Emergency Generator
B. AC bus 2
C. Static Inverter
B
27. In all the loss of electrical power, ESS AC BUS is electrically
supplied by: （DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. Static Inverter
B. Emergency Generator
C. Both of above
A
28. When the battery voltage indicates in green, its voltage range is:
（DSC-24-20）
A. 24V--32V
B. 25V--31V
C. 24V--31V
B
29. In the flight, when one generator is operative: （DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. Main galley is automatically shed
B. Secondary galley is automatically shed
C. All the galleys are shed
A
30. In the flight, can IDG be re-connected? （DSC-24-20）
A. Yes
B. No
B
31. In order to disconnect IDG, IDG pushbutton shall be pressed:
（DSC-24-20）
A. No more than 3 seconds
B. No more than 5 seconds
C. More than 3 seconds
D. Until FAULT light extinguishes
A
32. When GEN 1 and 2 is selected at OFF position: （DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. GEN is de-energized and the line contactor is off the line.
B. GEN is still energized and the line contactor is off the line.
A
33. What does external power pb AVAIL in Green mean? （DSC-24-20）
A. External power is connected
B. Aircraft network is electrically supplied
A
34. When does the battery supply the electrical power to DC BAT
BUS: (DSC-24-10-30-20)
A. APU start-up
B. In the loss of AC BUS 1
C. In the loss of AC BUS 1 and 2 (when the speed is below 100 KT)
D. Above-mentioned A+C
D
35. When the pilot intends to check the battery voltage, he must set the
battery pb at: （DSC-24-20）
A. AUTO
B. OFF
B
36. When does BAT FAIL light illuminate: （DSC-24-20）
A. Battery voltage is below 25 voltage
B. In the flight, BATT pb is set at OFF
C. Charging current increases at an abnormal rate
C
37. After blue pump is activated, during EMER GEN test, this will
cause into: （DSC-24-10-30-30）
A.
B.
C.
B
RAT is extended
the engagement of EMER GEN
the deployment of RAT and the engagement of EMER GEN
38. When does static inverter run? （DSC-24-10-20）
A. It is running all the time
B. When only the battery supplies the electrical power
C. When one engine becomes inoperative
B
39. ESS AC BUS is usually supplied by: （DSC-24-10-20）
A. AC BUS 1
B. AC BUS 2
C. Emergency Generator
A
40. DC BAT BUS can be electrically supplied by: （DSC-24-10-20）
A. DC BUS 1 or BAT
B. DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 or BAT
C. DC BUS 2 or BAT
B
41. AC switch-over will cause AC BUS to: （DSC-24-10-20）
A. become in parallel
B. be supplied by any generator or external power
C. be only supplied by APU generator or external power
B
42. How is IDG disengaged? （DSC-24-20）
A. If IDG overspeed is detected, it is automatically disengaged
B. If abnormal parameter is detected by GCU, it is automatically
disengaged
C. By pressing IDG switch
C
43. After RAT supplies the electrical power to EMER GEN for
(
) seconds, EMER GEN starts to be connected.
（DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. 5
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
B
44. In ECAM ELEC system page, the line in (
) represents
that this line is not supplied. The line in (
) represents that this
line is being supplied. The arrow represents the direction of current flow.
（DSC-24-20）
A. Amber; green
B. green; Amber
C. red; blue
D. Green; blue
A
45. If there is no other available electrical power in the aircraft, No.
(
) airborne battery can supply AC to the aircraft via static inverter.
（DSC-24-10-30-30）
A. Controller 1
B. Controller 2
C. 1 or 2
D. 1 and 2
A
46. The aircraft is mounted with two types of CB: green and black.
When the trip-off time of (
) exceeds for more than 1 minute,
ECAM alert C/B TRIPPED will be triggered. （DSC-24-10-20）
A. Green CB
B. Black CB
C. Any CB
A
47. For GCU generator control unit, main function of each GCU is:
（DSC-24-10-20）
A. Control the output frequency and voltage of the generator
B. B. Protect entire network by controlling corresponding generator
line contactor (GLC)
C. A and B
C
48. The battery voltage is below 26.5 V (battery charge). If battery
recharge current is below 4 ampere, when will recharge cycle end?
A. In the flight, it immediately ends.
B. In the flight, it ends after a time delay of 30 minutes
B
B
FIRE PROTECTION
1、What additional external warning is activated when APU is on fire on
the ground?（DSC-26-20-20）
A. An external horn warning
B. A fire warning bell warning
C. APU fire warning light and one external horn warning
C
2、Which system(s) an be tested through fire warning test pushbutton?
（DSC-26-20-20）
A. Fire detection system
B. Fire Extinguishing System
C. Both of above
C
3、Are engine and APU fire extinguishing systems controlled by
associated fire detection unit (FDU)? （DSC-26-20-10）
A. No
B. Yes
A
4. When does engine agent pb is activated? （DSC-26-20-20）
A. Engine fire pushbutton is pushed out
B. Corresponding discharge（DISCH) light illuminates
C. Engine fire button switch is set at ON position
A
5. When engines are not started and APU is on fire on the ground, how
to extinguish this fire?（DSC-26-20-10）
A. From APU fire panel
B. it is automatically operated
C. From external electrical power panel
B
6、When electrical power is not connected, how to check thermal
discharge of APU fire extinguisher bottle?（PRO-NOR-SOP-05-A）
A. by Fire Detection Unit (FDU)
B. by ECAM
C. fire bottle over-pressure indication (in red disc)
C
7. How many fire warning detection loops in APU fire detection system?
（DSC-26-20-10）
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
B
8、When APU fire button is released, which systems are isolated?
（DSC-26-20-20）
A. Fuel，Electrical
B. Bleed，Electrical
C. Fuel，Bleed，Electrical
C
9、When engine fire button is popped out, which valve will be affected?
（DSC-26-20-20）
A. LP fuel shut-off valve + hydraulic + bleed + pack + generator
B. Hydraulic fire shut-off valve
C. Suction fuel valve
A
10、When APU fire button is released: （DSC-26-20-20）
A. APU GEN is de-energized
B. APU GEN is disengaged
C. APU GEN is energized
A
11、When APU fire is automatically extinguished on the ground, is it
necessary to use APU shut-off valve on external electrical power panel?
（DSC-26-20-20）
A. Yes
B. No
B
12. Where is fire warning detector is located?
A. Pylon, fan and core part
B. Core part and gear box
C. Fan and turbine
A
（DSC-26-20-10）
13、When engine fire button is released, which systems are isolated?
（DSC-26-20-20）
A. fuel, electrical, bleed
B. fuel, hydraulic, bleed
C.
C
fuel，hydraulic, electrical, bleed
14. When one engine fire pushbutton is released, does squib indicator
(agent) light illuminate?（DSC-26-20-20）
A. Yes
B. No
A
15. The engine and APU fire systems include: （DSC-26-20-10）
A. Each engine has two fire bottles, and APU has one fire bottle
B. Each engine has one fire bottle, and APU has one fire bottle
C. Each engine has two fire bottles, and APU has two fire bottles
A
16、Are engine fire extinguishing systems controlled by Fire Detection
Unit (FDU)? （DSC-26-20-10）
A. Yes
B. No
B
17. When can ENG fire agent switch become activated?
（DSC-26-20-20）
A. When corresponding DISCH light illuminates
B. When ENG FIRE pushbutton is lighted
C. When engine fire pushbutton is released
C
18、Which system(s) is(are) tested via engine fire warning test
pushbutton?（DSC-26-20-20）
A. Only A, B detection loop, FDU, indication and warning
B. Only squib line
C. Test the operation of the fire detection and extinguishing system
C
19. When APU fire pb is pushed out, what is the effect to the electrical
system? （DSC-26-20-20）
A. APU generator becomes inoperative
B. APU generator is disengaged
C. APU generator is running
A
20. After ENG FIRE PB is released, will the bleed valve and pack valve
be closed?（DSC-26-20-20）
A.
B.
A
Yes
No
21. When ENG fire pb is released, what is the effect to the electrical
system? （DSC-26-20-20）
A. IDG (Integrated Drive Generator) becomes inoperative
B. IDG becomes disconnected
C. IDG becomes operative
A
22、When electrical power is not connected, how to know whether APU
fire extinguisher bottle has been thermally released?
（PRO-NOR-SOP-05-A）
A. Through FDU (Fire Detection Unit)
B. Through ECAM
C. Through red disc indicator
C
23. Each lavatory trash bin is installed with automatic fire extinguishing
system. （DSC-26-40-10）
A. True
B. False
A
24. One fire extinguisher bottle is respectively mounted in front and rear
cargo compartment. （DSC-26-50-20）
A. True
B. False
B
25. Which is INCORRECT statement in following statements on the
smoke detected in avionics bay for more than 5 seconds？ C
A. ECAM warning appears on E/WD
B. Smoke light on EMER ELEC PWR panel illuminates
C. Continuous Chime
D. BLOWER light and EXTRACT FAULT light on VENTILATION
panel illuminates.
C
26. In the flight, if APU fire is detected, how to discharge the fire agent?
（DSC-26-20-20）
A. Press AGENT switch on APU fire panel
B. Automatically discharged
A
27. The lavatory smoke detector sends the warning to: （DSC-26-40-10）
A. ECAM and cockpit interphone panel
B. smoke detection control unit and cabin intercommunication data
system
C. cabin intercommunication data system and cockpit interphone
panel
B
28. The number of smoke detector installed in each lavatory is:
（DSC-26-40-10）
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
A
FLIGHT CONTROL
1. The direct pitch law is: （DSC-27-20-20）
A. an unprotected load factor demand
B. a direct relationship between sidestick and elevator
C. a direct relationship between sidestick with auto-trim control and
elevator
D. use manual trim control that can be achieved with Trimmable
Horizontal Stabilizer
B
2. Flight control computers are: （DSC-27-10-10）
A.
two ELACs， two SECs， three FACs
B.
two ELACs， three SECs，two FACs
C.
B
three ELACs，two SECs， two FACs
3. What are those control surfaces used to dump the lift ?
（DSC-27-10-20-C）
A. All the spoilers
B. Spoiler 1 to 3
C. Spoiler 1 to 4
A
4. In the loss of ELAC 1 and 2: （DSC-27-10-20-A）
A. Elevator and pitch trim are controlled by SEC 1 and 2
B. Pitch control is provided by FAC
C. Pitch control can only be achieved through trim wheel.
A
5. In the loss of FAC 1 and 2: （DSC-27-10-20-D）
A. Foot pedals can always control the rudder
B. Rudder control is lost
C. Rudder control is provided by SEC 3
A
6. The elevators, ailerons, and spoilers are: （DSC-27-10-10）
A. Hydraulically driven, mechanically controlled
B. Electrically driven, hydraulically controlled
C. Hydraulically driven, electrically controlled
C
7. Yaw damper and rudder trim are electronically controlled:
（DSC-27-10-20-D）
A.
B.
A
True
False
8. Which one of following statements is correct? （DSC-27-10-20-C）
A. Ground spoiler function: All spoilers are extended
B. Speed brake function: Spoiler 1, 2 and 3 are extended
C. Lateral function: Aileron + spoiler 4 and 5 are extended.
A
9. How many control modes does elevator servo actuator have?
（DSC-27-10-20-A）
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
B
10. In normal law, what is the limitation of overload protection of
maneuver flight?（DSC-27-20-10-20-A）
A. ＋2.5G，－1G，in clean configuration or CONF 1
B. ＋2G，0，with flaps extended
C. A and B
C
11. In general, which ELAC controls the elevator and stabilizer?
（DSC-27-10-20-A）
A. ELAC 1
B. ELAC 2
B
12. When THS cannot be used? （DSC-27-10-20-A）
A. After YELLOW and GREEN systems fail
B. Never fails, and always can be used manually
C. After BLUE system fails
D. After the loss of FAC 1 and 2.
A
13. How many hydraulic systems drive the stabilizer?
（DSC-27-10-20-A）
A. 2
B. 3
A
14. How many electronic motors can control the stabilizer?
（DSC-27-10-20-A）
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
C
15. If ELAC 1 and ELAC 2 are not available, pitch control
automatically transfers to: （DSC-27-10-20-A）
A. SEC 1 or SEC 2
B. SECT 1 or SEC 3
C. SEC
A
16. During the landing in normal law, FLARE mode is engaged at:
（DSC-27-20-10-20）
A. 50 FT
B. 75 FT
C. 100 FT
A
17. During the landing, when A/C descends through 30 FT, the system
starts to reduce the pitch attitude (DSC-27-20-10-20)
A. The memorized value is progressively reduced to 2° nose-down
attitude within 8 seconds
B. The memorized value is progressively reduced at a ratio of 2°
per second within 8 seconds
A
18. How to recover the inhibited sidestick? （DSC-27-20-30）
A. Momentarily press the take-over button of the inhibited sidestick
B. Momentarily press the take-over button of active sidestick
C. Press two take-over buttons at same time
D. Above-mentioned A and B
D
19. According to normal (lateral) law, bank protection is activated when
bank angle reaches to (
) degrees ?（DSC-27-20-10-30）
A. ＞45°
B. ＞33°
C. ＞67°
B
20. Which of following controls is provided by normal (lateral) law?
（DSC-27-10-20-A）
A. Aileron+spoiler 2 to 5 + rudder
B. Aileron+spoiler 2 to 5
A
21. If ELAC1 and ELAC2 become inoperative：（DSC-27-10-20-A）
A. Lateral control is only provided by the aileron
B. Lateral control is provided by the aileron and the spoiler
C. Lateral control is only provided by the spoiler
C
22. In the flight, if one wing tip brake (WTB) is activated, can this WTB
be deactivated (in the flight)?（DSC-27-30-10）
A. Yes
B. No
B
23. What are the signals that cause into the movement of rudder pedal?
（DSC-27-10-20-D）
A. Turn coordination signal
B. Yaw damper signal
C. Rudder trim signal
C
24. In the loss of Slat Flap Control Computer (SFCC), what will be
arisen? （DSC-27-30-10）
A. Nothing will be arisen
B. Flaps and slats are operating at half speed
C. Flap system becomes inoperative
B
25. If one hydraulic system becomes inoperative, what will happen?
（DSC-27-30-10）
A. Nothing will be arisen
B. Flaps are operating at half speed
C. Flaps are lost
B
26. If CONF 0 is not selected after takeoff, the flaps will be
automatically retracted at:（DSC-27-30-10）
A.
B.
C.
B
180 KT
210 KT
V2
27. After the flap is automatically retracted to CONF 1. When the speed
is reduced, the flap will be automatically deployed again?
(DSC-27-30-10)
A. True
B. False
B
28. Can the flap lever be selected at a position between two adjacent
detents? （DSC-27-30-10）
A. Yes
B. No
B
29. If A/C is flying at an angle above α-protection AOA, what will
happen after the sidestick is released? （DSC-27-20-10-20-A）
A. The speed returns to VLS
B. The speed returns to α protection position
B
30. When alternate law is active, high speed and high AOA protection
would be:（DSC-27-20-20）
A. Degraded
B. Lost
B
31. When alternate law is active, yaw damper becomes:
（DSC-27-20-20）
A. available (The damper limit is limited at rudder±5° )
B. not available
A
32. When bank protection is active, is the auto-trim active?
（DSC-27-20-10-20-30）
A. Active
B. Not active
B
32. How many hydraulic systems drive the stabilizer?
（DSC-27-10-20-A）
A. 1
B.
C.
C
2
3
34. Which control surfaces are used as ground spoiler?
（DSC-27-10-20-C）
A. Spoiler 1 to 4
B. All the spoilers
C. Spoiler 1 to 3
B
35. If AOA exceeds 8.5° or speed ＜148kt, is it forbidden to retract the
slats from 1 to 0 ?（DSC-27-30-10）
A. Yes
B. No
A
36. In alternate law, when will alternate law transfer to direct law?
A. L/G down or select the flap 2 (LGCIU 1+2 Failure)
B. L/G down
C. Over 50 FT
A
A
37. When two sidesticks move in the same or opposite directions:
（DSC-27-20-30）
A. The inputs of two pilots are added algebraically
B. L/H sidestick priority
C. The movement of control surface is proportional to the last
deflected sidestick
D. The movement of control surface is proportional to the first
deflected sidestick
A
38. What does it mean by SLAT SYS 1 FAULT in ECAM warning
display page? （DSC-27-30-10）
A. SFCC 1 is lost
B. The failure of slat channel in one SFCC
B
39. Only Blue hydraulic system is active. Before L/G is down, flight
control law is: （PRO-ABN-29-K）
A. Alternate law
B. Normal Law
C. Direct law
A
40. When is stall warning activated? C （DSC-27-20-20）
A. When aircraft reaches to 148 knots, slats are not extended
B. When maximum AOA is reached
C. When AOA protection is reached
D. In alternate law, speed tendency reaches up to the stall AOA
D
41. The normal pitch law is: （DSC-27-20-10-20-A）
A. Maneuver protection + high AOA protection + high speed
protection + pitch attitude protection
B. Maneuver protection + pitch attitude protection + low-speed
stability
C. Maneuver protection + pitch attitude protection + high-speed
stability
D. Maneuver protection + AOA protection + high-speed protection
A
42. For the rudder, the yaw damper, turn coordination and trim are
controlled: （DSC-27-10-20-D）
A. electronically
B. mechanically
A
43. When normal pitch law is lost, what is the effect to roll axis?
（DSC-27-20-20）
A. Normal roll law is automatically replaced by direct roll law
B. Roll law remains unchanged
A
44. What are those control surfaces used for roll control?
（DSC-27-10-20-C）
A. Spoiler 1 to 5
B. Aileron and spoiler 3 to 5
C. Aileron and spoiler 2 to 5
C
45. For rudder trim position indication: （DSC-27-10-20-D）
A. The indication is always available
B. The indication is available when automatic or manual trim is used
A
46. The elevator and THS (Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer) re usually
controlled by ELAC 2. In the loss of ELAC 2, what will happen?
（DSC-27-10-20-A）
A. Pitch control automatically transfers to ELAC 1
B. Pitch control automatically transfers to SEC 1 and SEC 2
C. Pitch control is lost
A
47. Direct roll law is: （DSC-27-20-20）
A. Direct law that corresponds to side-stick control surface
B. The law that satisfies roll rate requirement
A
48. The signals of rudder pedal movement come from:
（DSC-27-10-20-D）
A. Yaw damper signal
B. Rudder trim signal
C. Turn coordination signal
B
49. In the loss of ELAC 2, what will happen? （DSC-27-10-20-A）
A. The aileron and the elevator are lost
B. ELAC 1 automatically take it over
C. Aileron, THS and elevator are lost
B
50. How can inhibit the input from another sidestick? （DSC-27-20-30）
A. More force applied on the sidestick than another pilot
B. Press the take-over switch
C. The captain can always do this
B
51. If the take-over button on the sidestick is pressed for more than 40
seconds, what will happen? (DSC-27-20-30)
A. After take-over pb is released, another sidestick is not active
B. After releasing the take-over button, another sidestick is still active
A
52. Direct pitch law is: （DSC-27-20-20）
A. The law that satisfies the required overload with the protection
B. The law that satisfies the required overload without the protection
C. The direct law that corresponds to sidestick and rudder without the
protection
D. The direct law that corresponds to sidestick and rudder with the
protection
C
53. The speed brakes are actually the spoilers? （DSC-27-10-20-C）
A. 1、3、5
B. 1、2、3
C. 2、3、4
D. 3、4、5
C
54. What is not the control method of elevator servo drive unit?
（DSC-27-10-20-A）
A. Active mode
B. Damp mode
C. Alternate mode
B
55. The amber message "USE MAN PITCH TRIM" on PFD represents
that aircraft flight control is:
（DSC-27-20-20）
A. Normal Law
B. Alternate law
C. Direct law
D. Mechanical Back-Up
C
56. In the loss of one hydraulic system, flight control law is:
（DSC-27-20-10-10）
A. Normal
B. Alternate law
C. Direct law
A
57. When the bank angle exceeds (
（DSC-27-20-10-30）
A. 30 degrees
B. 33 degrees
C. 45 degrees
B
) degrees, auto-trim is lost.
58. Which computer cannot control aircraft pitch? （DSC-27-10-10）
A. SEC3
B. ELAC1 and 2
C. SEC1 and 2
A
59. How to recover the inhibited sidestick? （DSC-27-20-30）
A. Instantaneously press the take-over button of inactive sidestick
B. Momentarily press the take-over button of active sidestick
C. Press two take-over buttons at same time
D. Above-mentioned A and B
D
60. When A/C is under clean configuration and normal law, if FAC
detects an excessive AOA: （DSC-27-20-10-20-A）
A. Stall warning is activated
B. "THR LK" (Thrust Lock) on FMA flashes
C. α FLOOR is active
C
AutoFlight/Navigation
1. ADR FAULT light on ADIRS CDU is ON, which means:
(DSC-34-NAV-10-20)
A. The failure is detected in ADIRU
B. Air data entry is interrupted
C. Pitot heating system is not electrically supplied
A
2. FMGS unit includes: (DSC-22-10-10)
A. 2 FMGCs - 2 MCDUs - 2 FACs - 2 FCUs
B. 2 FMGCs - 2 MCDUs - 2 FACs - 1 FCU
C. 2 FMGCs - 2 MCDUs - 2 FACs - 2 ECAMs
D. 2 FMGCs - 2 MCDUs - 2 ECAMs - 1 FCU
B
3. When A/C is normally supplied by electrical power, MCDU CRT is
dim and no other warning is present, which means: (the difference of
optional equipment)
A. FMGC is closed
B. FMGC is lost
C. MCDU CB is pulled out
D. MCDU brightness knob is set at DIM
D
4. When attitude heading and air data is selected and set at NORMAL,
what will happen? （DSC-34-NAV-10-20）
A. ADIRU1 supplies the data to PFD 1 and ND 1, ADIRU 2 supplies
the data to PFD 2 and ND 2
B. ADIRU1 supplies the data to PFD 1, ND 1 and RMI/VOR DME,
ADIRU 2 supplies the data to PFD 2 and ND 2
C. ADIRU 1 supplies the data to PFD 1, ADIRU 2 supplies the data to
PFD 2
B
5. On the ground, when A/C is just supplied with electrical power,
MCDU will automatically display: (DSC-22-10-40-10-A)
A. AIRPORT Page
B. INIT Page
C. DATA INDEX Page
D. AIRCRAFT STATUS Page
D
6. On INIT A page, press ALIGN IRS prompt, ALIGN light on ADIRS
CDU flashes, but CDU does not display any message:
(DSC-34-NAV-10-20-A)
A. The system can only be used in ATT mode
B.
C.
C
The system cannot enter into NAV mode to calculate the
coordinates: Turn off the system
Re-enter the present position
7. When following message is indicated on F/O ND: SELECT OFF
SIDE RANGE/MODE and MAP NOT AVAILABLE, this means:
(DSC-31-45)
A. IRS has not been completely aligned
B. The flight plan entered in FMGC by the captain has not been sent to
F/O FMGC
C. When two EFIS control panels are not set at the same range and
mode, and only one FMGC is active
C
8. When the engines are running and A/C is ready to taxi, the message
"CHECK GW" is displayed at this moment. It is impossible to enter in
INIT B page. Correct GW can be inserted into: (DSC-22-10-40-10-A)
A. T/O PERF Page
B. PROG Page
C. FUEL PRED Page
C
9. In the loss of FMGC 1 and 2, after NAV is selected on two RMPs:
(DSC-34-NAV-30-30)
A. VOR, ILS and ADF receiver 1 and 2 can be tuned via RMP 1
B. VOR, ILS and ADF receiver 1 can be tuned via RMP 1
C. RMP 1 controls VOR/DME, ILS and ADF 1; RMP 2 controls
VOR/DME, ILS and ADF 2 (if installed)
C
10. When A/C is on the runway centerline and is ready for takeoff, if it
is required to pre-set the heading 233°：(DSC-22-30-60)
A. Pull out HDG knob to disarm NAV mode, set 233° and push to
engage (HDG mode)
B. Turn HDG knob, set 233° and pull this knob to engage (HDG
mode)
C. Turn HDG knob, set 233°, then pull this knob when cleared by
ATC to turn to 233°
C
11. One of conditions to disengage SRS is INCORRECT:
(DSC-22-30-80-20)
A. Automatically disengaged at FCU altitude
B. Automatically disengaged at acceleration altitude
C. Manually pull out SPD button
D.
D
Disengaged by setting new FCU altitude
12. A/C control can be manual or automatic. A/C guidance can be
managed or selected. How to understand this condition: managed
guidance - manual control - selected speed: (DSC-22-10-10)
A. FMGC calculates and sends the control command used for the
navigation, the pilot controls with the sidestick, and sets the speed
in speed window (SPD knob has been pulled).
B. AP controls as per flight plan, the data required for pilot setting is
used for A/C lateral and longitudinal controls, FMGC computes
and displays the target speed
A
13. When the holding pattern has been entered into the flight plan, the
speed and navigation are managed. In order to exit from holding pattern:
(DSC-22-20-30-10-18-C)
A. With CLR key
B. When A/C flies over the fix, holding pattern is automatically
deleted
C. Press IMM EXIT* prompt
C
14. In order to determine the aircraft position, FMGC uses the data from:
(DSC-22-20-20-10)
A. DME, VOR or ILS system
B. Clock + GS calculation
C. 3 ADIRS
D. Above A and C
D
15. During the flight, after FMGC position has been manually updated:
(DSC-22-20-20-10)
A. It is also required to update IRS position
B. During A/C movement, IRS cannot be updated.
B
16. The tuning of VOR/DME and ILS is supplied by:
(DSC-22-20-20-30)
A. Automatic tuning, manual tuning, back-up tuning
B. Automatic tuning, manual tuning
C. Automatic tuning, back-up tuning
A
17. EXPED mode is activated, and cannot be disengaged by:
(DSC-22-30-70-80)
A.
B.
C.
D.
D
Pull V/S-FPA knob
Pull out SPD knob
Pull ALT knob
Press EXPED pb again to remove this mode
18. Basic modes of AP/FD are: (DSC-22-30-10)
A. PITCH and ROLL
B. V/S and HDG
C. ALT and NAV
D. SPD and HDG
B
19. During ILS approach, when two APs can be engaged:
(DSC-22-30-30)
A. When LAND in green is indicated on FMA
B. When A/C is stabilized at G/S to intercept the altitude
C. Only LOC is captured
D. APPR mode is engaged
D
20. When ALIGN light is flashing, this means: (DSC-34-NAV-10-20)
A. PPOS is not entered after 10 mins, or parking bay position differs
from entered position by more than 1° in longitude or latitude
B. Inertial reference alignment fails
C. The alignment is completed
D. A and B
D
21. Is the heading present on PFD? (DSC-22-10-40-40)
A. Yes
B. No
A
22. A/C is under clean configuration and normal law. When FAC
detects an excessive AOA: (DSC-22-40-30)
A. Stall warning is activated
B. THR LK flashes on FMA
C. α-floor function is activated
C
23. During ILS CAT 3 SINGLE approach, when one engine becomes
inoperative below 100 FT RA and this causes into the degrading of
landing
capability,
A/C
must
perform
the
go-around:
(DSC-22-30-80-30-10)
A. True
B.
B
False
24. During ILS approach, NAV mode will be disengaged when:
(DSC-22-30-75)
A. G/S is captured
B. LOC is captured
C. Above-mentioned A and B
B
25. In order to cross check different PFDs, can FD bars and FPV be
indicated at same time? (DSC-22-30-20)
A. Yes
B. No
B
26. For those maximum wind speeds used to establish the guidance of
managed speed and autothrust in CAT III ILS automatic approach, the
certified FMGS limitation values are: (LIM-22-20)
A. Headwind 30 KT, tailwind 10 KT, crosswind 20 KT
B. Headwind 40 KT, tailwind 10 KT, crosswind 15 KT
C. Headwind 20 KT, tailwind 10 KT, crosswind 20 KT
A
27. Continuous Calvary aural warning only signifies one condition:
(DSC-22-30-30)
A. The overspeed is arisen in current aircraft configuration
B. ENG FIRE or oil pressure low
C. AP is OFF
D. CAB ALT exceeds the range
C
28. Set the thrust levers at idle to disengage A/THR mode, and when
will the pilot re-engage A/THR armed mode? (DSC-22-30-90)
A. When thrust lever position is changed
B. When A/THR button is pressed
C. If thrust lever is set at CLB detent
D. If the pilot moves thrust levers from idle position and presses
A/THR button
B
29. In one of following conditions, A/THR would not be disengaged:
(DSC-22-30-90-B)
A. Two thrust levers are set at IDLE detent
B. Press A/THR button on FCU
C. When an aural warning RETARD is triggered (announced)
D.
C
Press (red) /THR instinctive buttons
30. Press the LOC button on FCU to arm LOC mode. This mode is used
to: (DSC-22-30-60)
A. Establish the published localizer approach
B. Track VOR beacon during the approach
C. ILS approach with GS OUT
D. Above A and C
D
31. During ILS approach, three clicks means:（DSC-31-10-A）
A. Level-III warning to flight crew
B. Major failure is arisen and prepare for go-around
C. Flap is set at 3 but L/G is not down
D. Landing capability degrade warning
D
32. When current flight can be erased? (DSC-22-10-40-10-A)
A. Call up aircraft status page
B. The wheels touch down during the landing
C. After the landing, A/C has been on the ground for 30 seconds
D. One engine is shut down at the parking bay
C
33. After the loss of two ENG generators, EMER GEN supplies the
electrical power to A/C:
A. FMGC 1 is available (only NAV function), instead of: only FMGC
1 is available
B. Only FMGC 2 is available
C. Two FMGC systems are all available
D. No FMGC is available
A
34. AP/FD, A/THR and landing capability are totally disappeared when:
(DSC-22-30-80-30-10)
A. Two IRSs or two ADRs fail
B. Two radio altimeters (RA) fail
C. Two ILSs fail
D. Two FACs fail
A
35. The parameters necessary to detect α floor is: (DSC-22-40-30)
A. Minimum aircraft speed
B. Aircraft weight
C. Maximum aircraft speed
D.
D
Aircraft AOA
36. Rudder travel limitation is: (DSC-22-40-10)
A. just one of FAC functions
B. one of normal FAC functions and ELAC back-up functions
C. just one of ELAC functions
D. one of normal ELAC functions and FAC back-up functions
A
37. When the functions of two yaw dampers are engaged:
(DSC-22-40-10)
A. Yaw damper 1 takes the priority, yaw damper actuator 2 is slaved
B. Yaw damper 2 takes the priority, yaw damper actuator 1 is slaved
C. Yaw dampers 1 and 2 are active, and two actuators are pressurized
D. The hydraulic units give the priority to yaw damper
A
38. When is FMGS internal test automatically made:
(PRO-NOR-SOP-06-D)
A. On the ground, when the computer is energized
B. When the difference is arisen from two computers
C. When the failure is arisen in the flight
D. When AP is engaged in the flight
A
39. When the functions of two rudder trim are engaged:
(DSC-22-40-20)
A. Rudder trim 1 and 2 control their motors together
B. Rudder trim 1 controls the single trim motor
C. Rudder trim 1 controls its motor, and rudder trim 2 becomes the
back-up
D. Mechanic units give the priority to rudder trim
C
40. FMGC function is: (DSC-22-10-10)
A. Flight guidance and flight envelope protection
B. Flight management and flight envelope protection
C. Flight management and flight guidance
D. Flight envelope protection and yaw coordinates axis control
C
41. The trim function of FAC includes: (DSC-22-40-10)
A. Pitch trim
B. Rudder trim
C. Pitch trim and rudder trim
B
42. In the flight, if FAC 2 is temporarily de-energized, FAULT light on
FAC 2 pushbutton illuminates and: (DSC-22-40-10)
A. it will be automatically reset
B. it can be manually reset and the safety test is made
C. it can be manually reset but the safety test is not made
D. it can be engaged again
C
43. Autoflight system computers include: （DSC-22-10-10）
A. FMGC and ELAC
B. FMGC and SEC
C. FMGC and FAC
D. ELAC and SEC
C
44. When AP 1 and AP 2 are not engaged, FD 1 and FD 2 are engaged,
if A/THR is active, (DSC-22-30-90)
A. FMGC 1 controls engine 1 while FMGC 2 controls engine 2
B. FMGC 1 controls two engines
C. FMGC 2 controls two engines
B
45. During normal operation, if two MCDUs display one same page,
how are the revisions on MCDU 1 sent to MCDU 2? (DSC-22-10-30)
A. Direct law
B. via FMGC 1
C. via FMGC 1 and FMGC 2
D via FMGC 1, FMGC 2 and radio management panel 2 (RMP 2)
C
46. Flight guidance function is: (DSC-22-10-10)
A. AP, flight plan, autothrust
B. AP, performance, autothrust
C. AP, FD, autothrust
D. AP, flight management, autothrust
C
47. A/C position selected in flight plan is computed by: (DSC-22-10-10)
A. FMGC FG part
B. FMGC FM part
C. Display Management Computer (DMC)
D. MCDU
B
48. How is FD automatically engaged? (DSC-22-30-20)
A. Press FD pb on FCU
B. FD is automatically engaged when the system is energized
C. Select a mode on FCU
D. Select INIT page on MCDU
B
49. When AP is engaged, the rudder is generally controlled by:
(DSC-22-10-10)
A. FMGC (Flight Management and Guidance Computer)
B. FAC (Flight Augmentation Computer)
C. ELAC (Elevator Aileron Computer)
D. SEC (Spoiler Elevator Computer)
B
50. FMGC normal operation is: (DSC-22-30)
A. Only one FMGC is active at one time
B. FMGC 1 takes the priority, FMGC 2 is secondary
C. FMGC operation in accordance with the master/slave principle
D. FMGC independently operates
C
51. FCU allows to: (DSC-22-10-10)
A. revise the flight plan in FM part
B. select the flight guidance function mode
C. select radio navigation frequency
D. align IRS
B
52. During the cruise, lateral AP order is executed by: (DSC-22-30-10)
A. aileron and spoiler
B. aileron and rudder
C. rudder and spoiler
D. Aileron, spoiler and rudder
D
53. In the flight, AP is engaged and A/THR is active, A/THR mode:
(DSC-22-30-10)
A. The pilot can select the target on FCU
B. The pilot can select the target on MCDU
C. This depends on AP lateral mode
D. This depends on AP longitudinal mode
D
54. During the flight, A/THR is not engaged, thrust levers are at CLB
detent, and α-floor is detected: (DSC-22-30-90)
A.
B.
C.
D.
D
A/THR is not engaged, because the engine has already been at
CLB thrust
A/THR is automatically engaged but not active
A/THR is automatically engaged and controls the engine with
CLB thrust
A/THR is automatically engaged and controls the engine with
TOGA thrust
55. When does FAC compute rudder travel limit: (DSC-22-40-20)
A. Only when AP is engaged
B. Only in low speed
C. Only when ELAC is lost
D. At any time
D
56. In LAND mode, AP ON, yaw damper actuator is controlled by:
(DSC-22-40-20)
A. The yaw damper order computed by FAC
B. The Dutch-roll damp order computed by FAC
C. The turn coordination order computed by FAC
D. AP yaw order computed by FMGC via FAC
D
57. At the second row at FMA pitch zone: (DSC-22-30-100-A)
A. ALT can only be in green or red
B. ALT in blue means that ALT mode is activated
C. ALT in blue means that ALT mode is armed
D. ALT in blue means that ALT mode is activated or means FM
altitude constraint
C
58. The thrust levers are in CLB detent, A/THR is disengaged, engine
thrust: (DSC-22-30-90)
A. is equal to climb thrust limit
B. is frozen at the disengaged thrust
C. corresponds to thrust lever position
D. is progressively equal to thrust lever position
B
59. When TO mode is engaged: (DSC-22-30-90)
A. A/THR is automatically engaged but active
B. A/THR is automatically engaged but not active
C. A/THR is not automatically engaged, and the engine is controlled
with thrust lever
D.
B
A/THR is not automatically engaged, and the engine is controlled
with final thrust target
60. ADIRU 3 can supply the information: (DSC-34-NAV-10-10)
A. only to DMC 1 and DMC 2
B. only to DMC 1 and DMC 3
C. only to DMC 2 and DMC 3
D. to DMC 1, DMC 2 and DMC 3
D
61. Air Data Module (ADM) provides the pressure information from
(
) to ADIRU: (DSC-34-NAV-10-10)
A. all pitot probes and static ports
B. only pitot probe
C. only static port
D. only CAPT and F/O pitot probe and static port
A
62. ADIRU 3 receives air data TAT (Total Air Temperature)
information from: (DSC-34-NAV-10-10)
A. CAPT TAT sensor
B. F/O TAT sensor
C. CAPT and F/O TAT sensor
D. Back-up TAT sensor
A
63. The selected barometric correction or reference is sent to each
ADIRU via: (DSC-34-NAV-10-10)
A. Master FMGC
B. FCU
C. RMP
D. DMC
B
64. During the flight, how is FMGS position automatically updated?
(DSC-22-20-20-10)
A. with those data of selected NDB, VOR or DME station
B. after the pilot selects DME station
C. Use DME via auto-tuning function
C
65. Each ADIRU receives two analogue input, and they are:
(DSC-34-NAV-10-10)
A. AOA and TAT
B. AOA and barometric correction or reference
C.
D.
A
TAT and barometric correction or reference
FMGC status and barometric correction or reference
66. In normal operation, ADIRU uses the data from (
alignment: (DSC-34-NAV-10-10)
A. ADIRS control display unit
B. Centralized Fault Display System (CFDS)
C. FCU
D. MCDU
D
) for the
67. In the loss of ADIRU 2, correct operation is: (DSC-34-NAV-10-10)
A. Set the attitude heading and air data selector at CAPT/3
B. Set the attitude heading and air data selector at F/O/3
C. Set the attitude heading at CAPT/3, and air data is set at F/O/3
D. Set the attitude heading at F/O/3, and air data is set at CAPT/3
B
68. In normal operation, ADIRU 1 provides the information to :
(DSC-34-NAV-10-10)
A. Captain PFD and F/O ND
B. Captain ND and F/O PFD
C. Captain PFD and ND
D. F/O PFD and ND
C
69. In ROSE NAV mode, VOR 1 is selected, ND displays the message
of: (DSC-34-NAV-30-20、DSC-31-45)
A. deviation pointer, selected course and bearing pointer
B. only bearing pointer
C. only deviation pointer and selected course
D. only deviation pointer and bearing pointer
B
70. In ROSE ILS mode, ND displays ILS message of:
(DSC-34-NAV-30-20、DSC-31-45)
A. G/S and LOC scale
B. deviation scale and selected course
C. deviation scale, selected course and G/S
D. deviation scale, selected course, G/S and LOC scale
D
71. During ILS approach, AP/FD ON, green LAND mode is indicated
on FMA when radio altitude is below: (DSC-22-30-100)
A. 1000 FT
B. 200 FT
C.
D.
D
700 FT
400 FT
72、ADF 1 is selected on ND but not received: (DSC-34-NAV-30-20、
DSC-31-45)
A. bearing pointer disappears, ADF identifier displays
B. bearing pointer disappears, radio station identifier is replaced with
red cross
C. bearing pointer becomes red, radio station identifier is replaced
with the frequency
D. bearing pointer disappears, radio station identifier is replaced with
the frequency
D
73、On ND, if VOR receiver fails: (DSC-34-NAV-30-20、DSC-31-45)
A. VOR identifier displays in red, course pointer turns red
B. VOR bearing turns red and course pointer disappear
C. VOR bearing and course pointer disappear
D. VOR bearing flashes and course pointer disappears
A
74. During the takeoff and go-around, the speed window on FCU
displays: (DSC-22-10-40-20)
A. FCU speed manually entered by flight crew and the light
extinguishes
B. MCDU speed manually entered by flight crew and the light
extinguishes
C. White dotted lines and dots illuminate: managed speed, if V2 or
memorized VAPP is automatically used by FMGS
C
75. Following AP/FD lateral modes are managed: (DSC-22-30-80-10)
A. NAV，HDG，APPR，LOC，RWY，RWY TRK
B. HDG，NAV，APPR，LOC，GA TRK
C. NAV，APP NAV，LOC*，LOC，RWY，RWY TRK，GA TRK，
LAND，ROLL OUT
C
76. On the ground, how to engage A/THR? (DSC-22-30-90)
A. A/THR is automatically engaged when TO mode is engaged
B. A/THR must be manually completed by flight crew before takeoff
C. A/THR is automatically engaged when ENG 2 starts up
A
77. The climb and descent is always restricted by: (DSC-22-30-70-50)
A.
B.
C.
A
The altitude manually selected on FCU
A/C weight computed by FMGC
Flight plan point (TOC and TOD)
78. When AP is engaged, FMGC: (DSC-22-10-10)
A. sends the order to flight control surface
B. sends the order to flight control computer
C. sends the order to flight control computer via sidestick
B
79. The speed, altitude and heading guidance targets are indicated on:
(DSC-22-10-40-40)
A. PFD
B. ND
C. MCDU
A
80. When FMGC single mode is active: (DSC-22-10-30)
A. Remaining FMGC independently communicate with two MCDUs
B. Remaining FMGC only communicates with associated MCDU
C. Remaining FMGC communicates with offside MCDU via faulty
FMGC
A
81. In normal operation mode: (DSC-22-10-30)
A. One FMGC is active, another FMGC only receives those data
entered by flight crew
B. One FMGC is primary, another FMGC is secondary
C. Two FMGCs respectively performs the computation
C
82. When is managed guidance used? (DSC-22-30-10)
A. When the pilot selects a parameter through FCU
B. When the parameters properly make the flight plan data in MCDU
on their own
C. When proper selection is made on FMGC
B
83. At a speed of 150 KT, A/C landing gear and flap are not extended,
A/C descends to 500 FT AGL, which warning is activated by GPWS?
(DSC-34-SURV-40-20)
A. Too low flaps
B. Terrain－terrain
C. Too low gear
C
84. What is the aural warning when the descent rate is excessive?
(DSC-34-SURV-40-20)
A. Sink rate
B. Terrain
C. Glide slope
A
85. In managed flight, the switch-over between speed/Mach:
(DSC-22-30-40)
A. is automatic
B. must be established by flight crew, and is only active in climb
phase
C. must be established by flight crew, and must be available in climb
and descent phases
A
86. When LOC and V/S modes are active, if flight crew presses down
HDG－V/S/TRK－FPA pushbutton, what will happen?
(DSC-22-30-50)
A. LOC mode remains active, FPA mode is engaged
B. TRACK and FPA modes are engaged
C. No effect
A
87. Below 400 FT, during ILS approach, active LAND mode:
(DSC-22-30-80-30-10)
A. This mode can be only removed by pressing LOC pb
B. This mode can be only removed by engaging GA mode
C. can be only removed by pressing APPR pb
B
88. What is the meaning of the color of green in MCDU page?
(DSC-22-10-40-10-A)
A. It means that the data can be modified by the pilot
B. It means the data that is generated by FMGC and cannot be
modified by flight crew
C. It always means temporary flight plan
B
89. What is the meaning of amber box in MCDU page?
(DSC-22-10-40-10-A)
A. No data input, or the data computed by FMGC would display
B. FMGC database is checking important data
C. Minimum data input required by FM operation
C
90. How to determine FMGC basic position? (DSC-22-20-20-10)
A.
B.
C.
C
It is determined with two most accurate positions in three IRs
It is updated and determined by the radio through the use of VOR,
DME and ADF data
It is determined by average position of three ADIRUs
91. How to further update FMGC position? (DSC-22-20-20-10)
A. At any time after the pilot selects one DME station
B. Use the data of selected NDB, VOR or DME
C. It is automatically updated through automatic tuning function of
DME station
C
92. Flight envelope limitation speed used by FMGS is calculated by:
(DSC-22-40-30)
B
A. ADIRS (Air Data/Inertial Reference System)
B. FAC (Flight Augmentation Computer)
C. Each FMGC, after the pilot enters the weight into MCDU
B
93. When two engines are running, the (thrust) range controlled by
A/THR is: (DSC-22-10-40-30)
A. TOGA to REV
B. TOGA to IDLE
C. CLB to IDLE
C
94. Navigation database is: (DSC-22-20-20-50)
A. updated whenever it is necessary (to do so)
B. Periodically updated
C. updated when the pilots prepare the cockpit
B
95. Performance database is: (DSC-22-20-40-30)
A. updated when the pilots prepare the cockpit
B. Periodically updated
C. Only updated by the manufacturer
C
96. (
) is used to create the flight plan: (DSC-22-20-30-05)
A. Navigation database information
B. Performance database information
C. The information of navigation database and performance database
C
97. What are flight phases included into lateral flight plan?
(DSC-22-20-30-05)
A. Departure, climb, route, arrival
B. Departure, route, arrival
C. Departure, route, descent, arrival
B
98. Step-down waypoint in vertical flight path refers to:
(DSC-22-20-30-05)
A. The fix that has fixed geographic position in navigation database
B. The fix ordered by ATC authority
C. The fix that has no fixed geographic position but is affected by
atmosphere point
C
99. When is flight plan optimized? (DSC-22-20-40-10)
A. at any time after the pilot changes the altitude or engine thrust
B. It is continuously updated according to the environment and
aircraft weight
C
100. The flight leg other than straight leg (for example, SID leg): A
A. comes from navigation database, and cannot be modified by the
pilot
B. can be defined by the database or DME arc used by the pilot
A
101. When will FD command bars display? (DSC-22-30-20)
A. When the system is energized on the ground and passes the safety
testing
B. When FD switch is engaged, and HDG-V/S mode is selected on
FCU
C. Whenever FD1 or FD2 is indicated on the right upper corner of
PFD
B
102. How to change FD command bars to FPV? (DSC-22-30-20)
A. Press HDG－V/S/TRK－FPA switch on FCU
B. Disengage HDG or V/S mode
C. Press FD pb
A
103. AP 1 (or 2) can be engaged: (DSC-22-30-30)
A. on the ground, taxi phase
B. no earlier than 5 s after lift-off
C. after takeoff, if FD ON
B
104. AP 1 and AP 2 can be engaged at same time: (DSC-22-30-30)
A. When ILS guidance mode is armed/active
B. Flight crew has activated the approach phase.
C. Only after G/S has been captured
A
105. AP 1 is engaged, A/THR function is lost, and how to recover this
function? (DSC-22-30-90)
A. Select thrust levers at MCT detent
B. This function cannot be recovered
C. Engage AP 2 to replace AP 1
C
106. A/THR function: (DSC-22-30-90)
A. is automatically engaged after TO thrust is selected
B. must be manually engaged before CLB phase
C. can be engaged after selecting the thrust levers at CLB detent
A
107. A/THR is engaged, no α-floor condition is detected. A/THR
function is active when: (DSC-22-30-90)
A. One thrust lever locates between FLX/MCT detent and CL detent,
while another thrust lever locates between FLX/MCT detent and
TOGA detent
B. One thrust lever locates at CL detent, while another thrust lever
locates between 0 detent and CL detent
C. Two thrust levers at TOGA detent
B
108. When FD/A/THR is active, FMCG output parameters include:
(DSC-22-30-90)
A. Thrust limit, speed or Mach
B. Target thrust
C. The thrust corresponding to thrust lever position
B
109. For SRS mode: (DSC-22-30-80-20-A)
A. Managed speed/Mach to fly along vertical profile of flight plan
B. Guide A/C pitch in course of takeoff and go-around
C. Compute the approach speed in different configurations
B
110. For EXP CLB mode: (DSC-22-30-70-30)
A. Increase climb gradient by selecting the green dot speed
B. Increase the climb speed to VMO/MMO－4 KT
C. Automatically increase climb thrust (MCT)
A
111. For FINAL APP mode: (DSC-22-30-100)
A. Engage this mode below 400 FT RA to improve autoland
performance
B. Guide A/C to fly along final descent profile computed by FM
C. It means that LOC and G/S modes have been frozen, up to the
flare or go-around
B
112. Provided that no FCU target altitude is selected, the pilot engages
V/S mode and the descent rate is 4000 feet per minute. What will
happen? (DSC-22-30-70-50)
A. When A/C reaches to VMO, the guidance mode automatically
reverts to OPEN CLB mode
B. No effect is caused whenever no target altitude is selected on FCU
C. The guidance immediately reverts to FPA mode
A
113. In manual flight, in the loss of control (For example, FD bars are
not followed during the descent): (DSC-22-30-20)
A. When A/C decelerates to Green dot speed, FD command bars
would flash
B. Aural warning is triggered after 10 seconds
C. During low speed, flight mode would transfer from V/S mode to
A/THR mode
C
114. On FMA, the color of green means: (DSC-22-30-100-A)
A. armed mode
B. active mode
C. engagement status
B
115. In FMA engagement status column, A/THR in blue means:
(DSC-22-30-100)
A. A/THR is disconnected
B. A/THR is only armed
C. A/THR is engaged and active
B
116. The approach capability and DA on ALT FMA is indicated:
(DSC-22-30-100)
A. When AP is engaged
B. When ILS mode is armed for the approach
C. After ILS frequency has been automatically tuned
B
117. AP 1+2 indication is only possible: (DSC-22-30-30)
A. Two FMGCs are active at same time
B. NAV mode is active
C. G/S and LOC mode is armed/active
C
118. When FD mode is surrounded with white box on FMA:
(DSC-22-30-100-A)
A. it displays for 10 seconds, which means a new mode is arisen
B. when the pilot manually engages FD lateral or vertical mode
C. when the guidance modes are managed by FM
A
119. On FMA, LAND means: (DSC-22-30-100)
A. autoland sequence has been checked and frozen, regardless of any
interruption of LOC signals
B. autoland sequence has been frozen, regardless of any interruption
of G/S signals
C. LOC and G/S guidance modes are frozen, until A/C lands or GA
mode is engaged
C
120. If flight crew engages one FD switch (even if two FDs are OFF),
basic guidance on FMA is indicated as: (DSC-22-30-20)
A. THR CLB（or IDLE）－ FPAxx (current flight path angle)－
HDG (lateral)
B. SPEED（A/THR mode）－ V/Sxxxx ( current vertical speed)－
HDG (lateral)
C. SPEED（A/THR mode）－ ALT*（altitude capture）
－ TRK（track）
B
121. The actions taken by flight crew to disengage EXP CLB is:
(DSC-22-30-70-30)
A. press EXPED pb on FCU
B. Pull SPD/MACH knob on FCU
C. Push SPD/MACH knob on FCU
B
122. In managed descent profile, FMGC flight guidance part gives the
priority to: (DSC-22-30-70-50)
A. Thrust rating
B. Target SPD/MACH
C. Descent path
C
123. As the characteristics speed, minimum speed and maximum speed ：
(DSC-22-40-30)
A. FMGC computes these speeds to FAC to achieve the stabilized
yaw
B. They are selected by FMGC (performance database) and are used
for flight guidance
C. FAC 1 and FAC 2 provide these speeds to FMGC as guidance
limit, and display these speeds on PFD
C
124. For α floor protection signal: (DSC-22-40-30)
A. it is activated by FAC and is sent to A/THR system to
automatically set TOGA thrust
B. it comes from FMGC to protect the aircraft during engine relight
after engine failure.
C. it is activated by flight envelope function and is sent for yaw damp
and pitch trim
A
125. If the pilot presses A/THR disconnection button for more than 15
seconds: (DSC-22-30-90-B)
A. A/THR function (including α floor) is lost in remaining flight
phase.
B. No any effect (The action lasts too long)
C. A/THR system is disconnected, but A/THR can be recovered by
engaging AP in opposite side.
A
126. VOR 2 frequency can be adjusted through RMP 1:
(DSC-34-NAV-30-30)
A. Yes
B. No
B
127. In back-up mode, ILS frequency can be tuned via:
(DSC-34-NAV-30-30)
A. Any RMP
B. only RMP 1
C. only on-side RMP
A
128. Inertial data, track/ground speed, PPOS, wind and heading can be
used: (DSC-34-NAV-10-10)
A. Only in IRS NAV mode
B. IRS attitude and NAV mode
B
129. When does ALIGN light flash? (DSC-34-NAV-10-20)
A. PPOS is not entered within 5 minutes after NAV mode is selected
B. IRS alignment error during alignment phase
C. The alignment is completed
B
130. ADR and IR can be respectively transferred?
(DSC-34-NAV-10-20)
A. Yes
B. No
A
131. When A/C is on the ground and transponder mode is selected at
AUTO, is the transponder active? (DSC-34-SURV-10-10)
A. Active
B. Not active
B
132. When weather radar is in (
) , manual tuning shall be made.
(DSC-34-SURV-30-10)
A. any mode
B. map mode
C. only in weather/turbulence mode
B
133. Weather radar image can be displayed in PLAN mode?
(DSC-34-SURV-30-30)
A. Yes
B. No
B
134. Does amber alert mean that radar image is lost?
(DSC-34-SURV-30-30)
A. Yes, in weather mode
B. Yes, only in map mode
C. No
C
135. When RMP is used to tune ILS/DME, is DME distance present on
PFD？(DSC-34-NAV-30-30)
A. Yes
B. No
B
136. The alert reference for "excessive GPWS terrain closure rate"
comes from radio altitude and A/C descent rate. (DSC-34-SURV-40-20)
A. True
B. False
B
137. Below RA 2000 feet, the warning "GPWS descends below G/S"
will be present. (DSC-34-SURV-40-20)
A. True
B. False
B
138. Normal mode of FMGS is dual mode, which means:
(DSC-22-10-30)
A. Two FMGCs are completely independent, and each FMGC
independently computes its own data
B. One FMGC is primary and another FMGC is secondary. Some
data inside the secondary FMGC comes from primary FMGC;
C. One FMGC is primary and another FMGC is secondary. Primary
FMGC supplies all the FMGC data to secondary FMGC;
D. Two FMGCSs are active at same time, and jointly compute FMGC
data;
D
139. When dual RTL (Rudder Travel Limit) becomes inoperative, return
to low-speed logic: (DSC-22-40-20)
A. When the slats are extended, FAC automatically selects the rudder
travel limit value to maximum travel value to recover maximum
rudder deflection
B. Keep RTL at the last position
C. If L/G are extended, whenever FAC automatically selects the
rudder travel limit value to maximum travel value, it reaches to
maximum rudder deflection position
A
140. The automatic selection function of navigation frequency is
achieved by：(DSC-22-10-10)
A. MCDU
B. FMGC guidance part
C. FMGC management part
C
141. A/THR is OFF. If thrust levers are at CLB detent (two engine
operative) or one thrust lever is at MCT (one engine inoperative), the
thrust is locked, FMA displays (considering all the possible occurrences)
(DSC-22-30-100-B):
B
A.
B.
C.
D.
B
A-LOCK
THR LCK
ASYM
LVR CLB
142. In normal condition, GPS 1 receiver supplies the data to
(
): (DSC-34-NAV-15-10)
A. ADIRU 2
B. ADIRU 1，ADIRU 3
C. ADIRU 2，ADIRU 3
D. ADIRU 1
B
143. The white-circled waypoint on ND means that:
(DSC-22-20-30-20-05)
A. The constraint is used
B. The constraint is not used
C. Disregard the constraint
D. No limit
B
144. During manual control over the flight, A/THR is active in SPEED
mode. When A/C enters into flare phase, the pilot must manually adjust
the thrust levers to IDLE. At this time, auto call-out will announce an
aural advisory "RETARD" at (
) GL to remind the flight
crew to retard the thrust levers. (DSC-22-30-80-30-10-A)
A. 20 FT
B. 50 FT
C. 100 FT
D. 200 FT
A
145. When OP CLB is active, thrust levers at CL detent, AP will order
A/C to climb in vertical direction, and adjust the pitch attitude to keep
(
). (DSC-22-30-70-30)
A. rate of Climb
B. thrust limit
C. sidestick feed-back
D. target climb speed
D
146. The navaid that cannot allow FMGC to use the computed radio
position is: (DSC-22-20-20-20)
A. DME/DME-LOC
B.
C.
D.
D
LOC
VOR/DME
VOR/VOR
147. In three GPIRS positions received by each FMGC, which
sequence in priority principle is followed by FMS to complete the
selection of GPIRS? (DSC-22-20-20-10)
A. On-side GPIRS position, GPIRS 3 position, off-side GPIRS
position
B. Off-side GPIRS position, GPIRS 3 position, on-side GPIRS
position
C. GPIRS 3 position, on-side GPIRS position, off-side GPIRS
position
A
148. In normal condition, FD 1 order indicated on PFD 1 and FD 2
order indicated on PFD 2 respectively come from: (DSC-22-30-20)
A. FD 1 order indicated on PFD 1 comes from FMGC 1, and FD 2
order indicated on PFD 2 come from FMGC 2
B. FD 1 order indicated on PFD 1 comes from FMGC 2, and FD 2
order indicated on PFD 2 come from FMGC 1
C. All FD 1 order indicated on PFD 1 and FD 2 order indicated on
PFD 2 come from the side of FMGC that AP is engaged
A
Fuel System
1. How many pumps respectively in wing fuel tank? (DSC-28-10-30-A)
A. Respectively two pumps in wing fuel tank
B. No fuel pump, because fuel tank is pressurized by the air
C. Respectively one pump in wing fuel tank
D. Total two pumps in all fuel tanks
A
2. In normal condition, fuel quantity in each fuel tank can be checked at:
(DSC-28-10-30)
A. ECAM upper display, fuel page
B. only fuel page in ECAM lower display
C. ECAM upper display
D. ECAM upper display, or refuel control panel
B
3. ECAM displays "LO LVL" warning when L/H or R/H wing fuel
quantity is: (DSC-28-10-80)
A. Below 500 KG (1100 LB)
B. Above 900 KG (1980 LB)
C. Below 750 KG (1650 LB)
D. Below 250 KG (550 LB)
C
4. How many channels are used in fuel calculation system?
(DSC-28-10-80)
A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
C
5. The vent hole of ventilation fuel tank is located at: (DSC-28-10-20)
A. exterior side of each wing fuel tank
B. inside wing tank
A
7. Which motor controls the fuel transfer? (DSC-28-10-30-A)
A. Single electrical motor
B. Dual electrical motors
B
8. How to check that fuel indication is in degraded mode? (DSC-28-20)
Fuel indication is amber and is boxed
A. The last two digits of fuel quantity indication are replaced with short
dashes, but which side affected cannot be determined
B. The last two digits of fuel quantity indication are replaced with short
dashes, ECAM fuel page must be called up to check the affected
fuel tank
C. The fuel quantity corresponding to affected fuel tank is flashing on
ECAM fuel page
C
9. When passing over FL 200, gravity fuel feed is arisen. Maximum FL
for gravity fuel feed is: (PRO-ABN-28)
A. FL200（FL200 for JEB B）
B. FL200（FL100 for JEB B）
C. FL100
D. FL150（FL100 for JEB B）
D
10. Under normal pressure, what is refueling time (approximately) :
(DSC-28-10-70)
A. 20 minutes for all the fuel tanks
B. 17 minutes for wing fuel tanks
C. 30 minutes for all the fuel tanks
D. Above A or B
D
11. In case of OEI, when A/C reaches to low fuel level:
(DSC-28-10-30-A)
A. Cross-feed valve must keep open
B. Cross-feed valve must be closed
C. The fuel of another engine is lost
D. Cross-feed valve automatically keeps open
A
12. Fuel return valve is controlled by: (DSC-28-10-60)
A. FMGC (Flight Management and Guidance Computer)
B. FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Control)
C. FLSCU（Fuel Level Sensing Control unit）
D. FQI (Fuel Quantity Indicator)
B
13. When does amber FAULT light on wing fuel tank pump pb
illuminate? (DSC-28-20)
A. when fuel supply pressure is reduced
B. Fuel pump is not energized
C. The pushbutton is set at OFF when no fault is arisen
D. Wing fuel tank quantity below 750 KG
A
14. When does amber FAULT light on fuel mode select pb illuminate?
(DSC-28-20)
A. when fuel supply pressure is reduced
B. center tank is above 250 KG, any wing tank is below 5000 KG
C. two center fuel tank pumps are selected at OFF
B
16. Maximum refueling pressure is: (PER-LOD-FUL-B)
A.
B.
C.
A
50 psi
36 psi
11 psi
17. On electrical warning display, when FOB is amber and is half
boxed , what does this mean? (DSC-28-20)
A. The indicated fuel quantity is not completely available
B. Fuel quantity indication is degraded
A
18. What is the function of capacitance probe? (DSC-28-10-80)
A. Measure fuel level
B. Measure fuel temperature
C. Above-mentioned A and B
C
19. In addition to fuel supply to the engine, what is the other function of
the fuel? (DSC-28-10-60)
A. Cool down IDG oil
B. cool down engine oil
C. Above-mentioned A and B
C
20. APU fuel is provided by: (DSC-28-10-50)
A. Fuel pump in fuel tank, instead of engine fuel pump
B. APU fuel pump
C. Either of above two items
C
21. Why 2% extra capacity is available in each fuel tank?
(DSC-28-10-20)
(DSC-28-10-20)
A. It is used for cooling
B. It is used for fuel expansion without spilling.
B
22. ENG low-pressure fuel valve is closed by: (DSC-28-10-30-A)
A. Engine fire pushbutton or center tank transfer valve control logic
B. Engine fire pushbutton or mode select pb at MAN
C. Engine fire pushbutton or engine master switch
C
23. When wing fuel tank pb is at OFF position, its FAULT light:
(DSC-28-20)
A. is inhibited
B. illuminates when the pressure drops
C.
A
Above A or B
24. In normal operation, cross-feed valve: (DSC-28-10-30)
A. When center fuel tank quantity is above 1000 KG and the fuel
quantity in any fuel tank is below 5000 KG, it is automatically
opened
B. it is closed at the takeoff
C. it is opened at the takeoff
D. it is automatically opened with mode selection pb switch
B
25. When fuel filter is clogged, does the engine has fuel supply?
(DSC-70-45-60)
A. Yes, the fuel cooled by IDG and from exterior fuel tank pipe is
used
B. No
C. Yes, fuel filter is bypassed
C
26. On cross-feed pb, what does it mean by white ON light?
(DSC-28-20)
A. The valve is fully open.
B. The valve is closed.
C. The valve is in transit.
C
27. When center fuel tank is supplying the fuel, is wing fuel tank pump
running? (DSC-28-10-30)
A. Yes, wing fuel tank pump is always running
B. No, only when center fuel tank is empty
C. No, because center fuel tank pump takes the priority
A
28. ENG low-pressure fuel valve is closed by: (DSC-28-10-30-A)
A. When fuel boost pump pressure drops
B. ENG shut-down or ENG FIRE PB is pushed out
C. ENG fire detection system detects the engine fire warning
B
29. When fuel level of inner fuel tank is low: (DSC-28-10-30)
A. one inner fuel tank transfer valve opens
B. Two transfer valves inside one side of wing open
C. In each side of wing, each transfer valve opens
C
31. If the fuel is inside center fuel tank during the flight, and automatic
fuel supply mode is selected, and the slats are deployed, what will
happen? (DSC-28-10-30)
A. Center fuel pump ON
B. Center fuel pump OFF
C. Center fuel tank pump keeps original mode
B
32. On the ground, if the slats are deployed, the fuel inside center fuel
tank, and automatic fuel supply mode is selected, after engine is started
for 1 minute: (DSC-28-10-30)
A. Center fuel pump continues to run
B. Center fuel pump OFF
C. Wing fuel pump OFF
A
33. Fuel supply mode selection pb controls: (DSC-28-10-30)
A. center and wing fuel tank pumps
B. only center tank pump
C. only wing fuel tank pump
B
34. In automatic fuel supply mode, center fuel tank is empty, center fuel
tank pump: (DSC-28-10-30)
A. must be manually OFF
B. automatically stop the fuel supply, and wing fuel tank pump starts
to run
C. automatically stops the fuel supply
C
35. What does the amber box on center fuel box mean? (DSC-28-20)
A. Center fuel tank indication is not available
B. Center fuel tank pump is OFF or fails. At this time, the fuel in center
fuel tank cannot be used.
C. This means that center fuel tank low fuel level
D. This is normal and can be disregarded.
B
36. How can wing outer fuel tank transfer valve operate?
(DSC-28-10-30)
A. They can respectively operate, and shall be opened as required
B. They are simultaneously opened under the control of fuel control
computer
C.
A
If one transfer valve is opened, corresponding transfer valve of
outer wing fuel tank is also opened.
37. The correct sequence for the use of fuel in fuel tanks is:
(DSC-28-10-30)
A. Inner fuel tank (each inner fuel tank is reduced to 750 KG); center
fuel tank; outer fuel tank (fuel is transferred to inner fuel tank)
B. outer fuel tank (fuel is transferred to inner fuel tank); inner fuel
tank (each inner fuel tank is reduced to 750 KG); center fuel tank
C. Center fuel tank; Inner fuel tank (each inner fuel tank is reduced to
750 KG); outer fuel tank (fuel is transferred to inner fuel tank)
C
38. Can A320 aircraft achieve gravity refueling? (PRO-ABN-28)
A. Yes
B. No
A
39. During the flight operation in extreme cold weather condition, when
the fuel temperature in fuel tank is close to minimum temperature of
such type of fuel, which one of following actions cannot provide
efficient improvement: (NO-070-00005509)
A. Descent to lower altitude
B. Change the aircraft route to fly in the warmer air
C. Increase flight Mach
D. Increase engine thrust.
D
Hydraulic System
1. Normal hydraulic reservoir is provided by: (DSC-29-10-20)
A. The engine pumps are used for all the systems
B.
C.
D.
B
Engine pump is used for green and yellow system, electronic pump
is used for blue system, electrical pump is used for yellow system
（only for ground operation）
Electrical pump is used for blue and yellow system, and engine
pump is used for green system
Engine pump is used for green and blue system, and electrical
pump is used for yellow system
2. During the flight, BLUE ELEC PUMP fails, and Blue Hydraulic
system: (DSC-29-10-20)
A. not available
B. Can be recovered by RAT (RAM Air Turbine)
C. Can be recovered by PTU (Power Transfer Unit)
D. Above B and C
B
3. In case of dual engine failure, how to pressurize the green system?
(DSC-29-10-20)
A. With G ENG PUMP
B. With Y ENG PUMP and PTU
C. with Y ELEC PUMP and PTU
C
4. On the ground, when is blue system pressurized? (DSC-29-20)
A. APU is running
B. When one engine is running
C. When external electrical power is available
B
5. ENG 2 drives: (DSC-29-10-20)
A. Blue system
B. Green system
C. Yellow system, if green system pump fails, green system is driven
through PTU
C
6. Yellow system includes: (DSC-29-10-20)
A. 1 engine pump, 1 electrical pump, 1 hand pump
B. one engine pump, two electrical pumps
C. one engine pump, one hand pump and PTU
A
7. During the flight, B HYD system is pressurized by: (DSC-29-10-20)
A. RAT and electrical pump
B.
C.
D.
A
Engine Driven Pump
PTU
cannot be pressurized
8. PTU is automatically deployed when: (DSC-29-10-20)
A. In the loss of AC BUS 1/AC BUS 2
B. The loss of B HYD PUMP
C. BLUE HYD PUMP is below 1750 PSI
A
9. The priority valve is used when: (DSC-29-10-20)
A. Green system pressure is high
B. the pressure is low
C. Green + Blue hydraulic system pressures are high
B
10. Fire shut-off valve is shut off by: (DSC-29-10-20)
A. B + Y
B. Y + G system
C. G + B
B
11. In the loss of B ELEC PUMP, when RAT pb is pressed at MAN ON:
(DSC-29-20)
A. B HYD system is pressurized by RAT
B. Emergency generator supplies electrical power
C. B HYD system is pressurized and emergency generator is running
A
12. HYD fluid reservoir is pressurized by: (DSC-29-10-20)
A. PNEUMATIC SYSTEM
B. Pack 1 and 2
C. Left engine or pneumatic system
C
13. During the flight, ENG 1 PUMP FAIL light illuminates in amber in
case of low level or low air pressure or low pump pressure of HYD
reservoir： (DSC-29-20)
A. True
B. False
A
14. On the ground, ENG 1 is shut down, does ENG PUMP 1 FAIL light
illuminate in amber due to low pressure of G HYD PUMP?
(DSC-29-20)
A.
B.
Yes
No
B
15. When hydraulic fluid reservoir overheats, FAULT light of
inoperative system illuminates： (DSC-29-20)
A. 30 s
B. continuously
C. whenever any overheat condition is detected
C
16. Before engine start-up on the ground, B HYD PUMP is at AUTO
and A/C is energized, B HYD PUMP: (DSC-29-20)
A. is automatically energized
B. is energized when B HYD PUMP PB is pressed
B
17. B HYD SYS can control: (DSC-29-10-30)
A. Flap
B. Slats
C. Flaps and Slats
B
18. Power Transfer Unit (PTU): (DSC-29-10-20)
A. can mutually transfer (hydraulic power) between B and Y HYD
SYS
B. can transfer (hydraulic power) between G and Y HYD SYS in
single direction
C. can mutually transfer (hydraulic power) between G and Y HYD
SYS
D. can transfer (hydraulic power) in all three hydraulic systems
C
19. After RAT is deployed in the air, RAT will pressurize for:
(DSC-29-10-20)
A. Green system
B. Pressurize Y and G HYD SYS through PTU
C. Blue system
C
20. Y HYD SYS can control: (DSC-29-10-30)
A. L + R ELEV
B. L ELEV
C. R ELEV
C
21. Y HYD SYS is pressurized by? (DSC-29-10-20)
A. ENG 1 HYD PUMP
B. ENG 2 HYD PUMP, or Y ELEC PUMP, or PTU
C. ENG 3 HYD PUMP , or Y ELEC PUMP, or RAT
B
22. Y HYD SYS can control: (DSC-29-10-30)
A. Flap
B. Flaps and Slats
C. Slats
A
23. When one engine starts up, PTU is: (DSC-29-10-20)
A. automatically running
B. tested
C. inhibited
C
24. When is RAT retracted after it is deployed?
A. In-flight
B. On the ground
C. On the ground and in the flight
B
(DSC-29-10-20)
25. During the flight, how is RAT deployed? (DSC-29-10-20)
A. RAT can only be deployed manually
B. Manual or Auto
C. RAT can only be deployed automatically
B
26. In the flight, when RAT is automatically deployed:
(DSC-29-10-20)
A. B HYD SYS is pressurized, but EMER GEN does not operate
B. G HYD SYS is pressurized, but EMER GEN operates
C. B HYD SYS is pressurized, and EMER GEN operates
C
27. can the hydraulic fluids of G and Y HYD SYS be mutually
exchanged? (DSC-29-10-10)
A. No
B. Yes, through PTU
C. Yes, hydraulic fluid is exchanged in the leakage
A
28. When will hydraulic fire shut-off switch be shut:
(DSC-29-10-20)
A.
B.
C.
B
ENG master switch at OFF
Fire pushbutton is pushed out
This valve is automatically closed when fire warning is detected,
29. In loss of G HYD SYS, slat control becomes: (DSC-29-10-30)
A. Normal
B. Sluggish
C. Lost
B
30. In loss of G HYD SYS, flap control becomes:
(DSC-29-10-30)
A. Sluggish
B. Normal
C. Lost
A
31. G HYD SYS can control: (DSC-29-10-30)
A. SPLR 3
B. spoiler 2 and 4
C. spoiler 1 and 5
C
32. G HYD SYS can control: (DSC-29-10-30)
A. R ELEV
B. L ELEV
C. Above A and B
B
33. G HYD SYS can control: (DSC-29-10-30)
A. L Aileron
B. R Aileron
C. Above A and B
C
34. G HYD SYS can control： (DSC-29-10-30)
A. REV 1
B. REV 2
C. Above A and B
A
35. Yellow hydraulic system can control: (DSC-29-10-30)
A. REV 1
B. REV 2
C. Above A and B
B
36. On the ground, when B ELEC PUMP is at AUTO, when will
electrical circuit be energized? (DSC-29-20)
A. One battery is at AUTO
B. Ground electrical power is ON
C. One ENG is running or B HYD PUMP override pushbutton is
pressed
C
37. In the loss of B HYD SYS, slat control becomes: (DSC-29-10-30、
PRO-ABN-29)
A. Normal
B. Sluggish
C. Lost
B
38. In the loss of B HYD SYS, flap control becomes:
(DSC-29-10-30、PRO-ABN-29)
A. Normal
B. Sluggish
C. Lost
A
A
39. Blue hydraulic system can control: (DSC-29-10-30)
A. spoiler 2 and 4
B. SPLR 3
C. spoiler 1 and 5
B
40. When will RAT be deployed: (DSC-29-10-20)
A. If AC BUS 1 and 2 electrical power fails, RAT is automatically
deployed
B. RAT is manually deployed from overhead panel
C. Above A and B
C
41. Blue hydraulic system can control: (DSC-29-10-30)
A. L Aileron
B. R Aileron
C. Above A and B
C
42. Can cargo compartment door be operated when no electrical
power is supplied? (DSC-29-10-20)
A. Yes
B. No
A
43. When Y ELEC PUMP is at OFF and manual selection valve of
cargo compartment door is set at ON or OFF, PTU and flight control
are: (DSC-29-20)
A. Active
B. inhibited
B
44. In the loss of Y HYD SYS, slat control becomes: (DSC-29-10-30、
PRO-ABN-29)
A. Normal
B. Sluggish
C. Lost
A
45. In the loss of Y HYD SYS, flap control becomes: (DSC-29-10-30、
PRO-ABN-29)
A. Normal
B. Sluggish
C. Lost
B
46. ENG 2 fire protection valve locates between Y HYD reservoir
and:
(DSC-29-10-30)
A. ENG 2 HYD PUMP
B. Y ELEC PUMP
C. Y HAND PUMP
A
47. Yellow hydraulic system can control: (DSC-29-10-30)
A. SPLR 3
B. spoiler 2 and 4
C. spoiler 1 and 5
B
48. In case of low pressure of one hydraulic system: (PRO-ABN-29)
A. Master warning light ON
B. Master warning light ON, accompanied with aural advisory
C. No warning is arisen
B
49. In case of low air pressure of hydraulic reservoir, the affected
hydraulic system: (DSC-29-10-20)
A. is permanently lost
B.
B
is recovered when A/C descends to low altitude
50. In the loss of one hydraulic system, F/CTL law becomes:
(PRO-ABN-29)
A. Normal
B. Alternate law
C. Direct law
A
51. When green hydraulic system is lost: (DSC-29-10-30)
A. L/G can be normally extended
B. L/G can be normally retracted
C. L/G must be extended by gravity
C
52. When engine 1(2) hydraulic pump switch FAULT light
illuminates, this means: (DSC-29-20)
A. low level of reservoir fluid
B. Reservoir overheat
C. low air pressure of reservoir
D. Above-mentioned items are correct
A
53. When green hydraulic system is lost, brake system:
(DSC-29-10-30)
A. Normal
B. Alternate
C. Lost
A
54. When green hydraulic system is lost, anti-skid brake is:
(DSC-29-10-30)
A. Lost
B. limited to 2000 PSI brake pressure
C. controlled by Y HYD SYS
C
55. When PTU is set at AUTO, when does PTU automatically run?
(DSC-29-10-20)
A. In the loss of B HYD SYS
B. The pressure difference between G and B systems is above 500
PSI
C. Only when pressure difference between G and B systems is
detected
B
56. When only G HYD SYS remains, for AP function:
(PRO-ABN-29)
A. AP 1 is available
B. Lost
C. AP 2 is available
B
57. When only G HYD SYS remains, horizontal stabilizer is:
(PRO-ABN-29)
A. available
B. Lost
A
58. In the loss of G + Y systems, manual pitch trim: (DSC-29-10-30)
A. available
B. Lost
B
59. When only G HYD SYS remains, autobrake is: (PRO-ABN-29)
A. Lost
B. available
C. Alternate
B
60. When only B HYD SYS remains: (DSC-29-10-30)
A. brake system is lost
B. 7 full-travel brakes can be applied
C. Antiskid remains available
B
61. Which HYD SYS is pressurized by engine-driven pump?
(DSC-29-10-20)
A. B + G
B. B + Y
C. B, G and Y
D. G + Y
D
62. In normal operation, B HYD SYS is pressurized by:
(DSC-29-10-20)
A. Power Transfer Unit
B. Engine Driven Pump
C. Electrical Pump
D.
C
Ram Air Turbine
63. Can RAT be automatically deployed on the ground:
(DSC-29-10-20)
A. Yes
B. No
B
64. Load alleviation function reservoir supplies the pressure to:
(DSC-29-10-30)
A. All the hydraulic components
B. Load alleviation control surface
C. Slat/Flap
B
65. What is normal operation pressure of hydraulic system?
(DSC-29-10-10/DSC-29-10-20)
A. 3000 PSI
B. 2500 PSI
C. 3500 PSI
D. 2000 PSI
A
66. When fire shut-off valve is not totally closed, (
indicated (if this valve is open)(DSC-29-20)
A. a cross in red
B. a cross-line in green
C. a cross-line in red
D. a cross-line in amber
B
) will be
67. The hydraulic pressure when RAT is actuated is: (DSC-29-10-10)
A. 3000 PSI
B. 2500 PSI
C. 3500 PSI
D. 2000 PSI
B
68. What is INCORRECT statement in following descriptions regarding
the pressurization of hydraulic reservoir: (DSC-29-10-20)
A. In normal condition, ENG 1 HP bleed automatically pressurizes the
hydraulic reservoir
B. In normal condition, ENG 1 HP bleed automatically pressurizes G
and B hydraulic reservoirs, and ENG 2 HP bleed automatically
pressurizes Y hydraulic reservoir
C. If the bleed air pressure is too low, the system takes bleed air
pressure from the cross-bleed duct.
D. Keep high pressure as much as possible to mainly avoid air cavity
generated by the pump
B
Ice and Rain Protection
1. In the loss of electrical power during the flight, engine anti-icing
valve: （DSC-30-30-10）
A. opened during engine shut-down
B. is opened during engine operation
C. closed during engine operation
B
2. In loss of one windshield heat computer (WHC), another computer
will replace this faulty computer:（DSC-30-40-10）
A. True
B. False
B
3. When the engines start up, windshield heating is automatically
activated:（DSC-30-40-10）
A. True
B. False
A
4. WHC provides windshield with two detents of heating power:
（DSC-30-40-10）
A. High power when above 20000 feet, low power when below 20000
feet
B. High power in the flight, low power on the ground
C. High power in icing condition, low power in other condition
B
5. For pitot tube heating: （DSC-30-50-10）
A. Low power on the ground and normal power in flight
B. Only active in the flight
C. Above 80 KT on the ground
A
6. When does wing anti-icing button ON light come on?
（DSC-30-20-20）
A. When A.ICE valve is opened
B. When pb switch is set at ON
C. When FAIL light is extinguished
B
7. windshield heating can be engaged through probe/windshield heating
button at any time:（DSC-30-40-10）
A. False
B.
B
True
8. Electrical heating is used for the protection on: （DSC-30-50-10）
A. pitot tube and AOA probe
B. Pitot tube and AOA probe
C. pitot tube, static pressure port, TAT probe, and AOA probe
C
9. On the ground, what will be arisen if wing anti-icing button is set at
ON position?（DSC-30-20-20）
A. Wing anti-icing valve opens for 30 seconds and then closes
B. Wing anti-icing valve cannot be opened
C. Wing anti-icing valve remains open
A
10. Engine nacelle anti-icing is provided by: （DSC-30-30-10）
A. HP compressor bleed
B. LP compressor bleed
C. Electrical-thermal anti-icing
A
11. When ENG anti-icing switch is set at ON: （DSC-30-30-20）
A. ENG A.ICE displays in ECAM memo
B. Corresponding pack is OFF
A
12. When engine anti-icing valve is open:（DSC-30-30-10）
A. Corresponding ENG N1 decreases
B. N1 increases, ENG EPR limit is automatically decreased
C. EPR or N1 is not changed
B
13. When bleed pressure is low, engine anti-ice valve is closed:
（DSC-30-30-20）
A. True
B. False
A
14. How to check that engine anti-icing has been engaged:
（DSC-30-30-20）
A. Corresponding engine anti-icing button ON light illuminates +
ECAM memo message associated with anti-icing
B. Corresponding engine anti-icing button ON light illuminates +
anti-icing message in ECAM engine page
A
15. Maximum operation speed of windshield rain wiper is:
（LIM-13-00001903）
A. 220 KT
B. 250 KT
C. 230 KT
C
16. When switch button is set at AUTO position, when does probe
heating automatically start:（DSC-30-50-10）
A. It is not heating on the ground but automatically heating during
lift-off
B. It is heating in high temperature after engine start-up
C. It is heating in low temperature before the pilot selects high
temperature
D. It is in low heating after engine start-up, and is normally heating
after lift-off
D
17. Electronic rain wipers are respectively selected and controlled by
two independent knobs:（DSC-30-60-10）
A. Yes
B. No
A
18. The rain wiper can operate at different speeds: （DSC-30-60-10）
A. Low speed and high speed
B. Only one speed
C. Low speed, moderate speed, and high speed.
A
19. In moderate to heavy rain, the flight crew can spray a rain repellent
liquid on the windshield to improve visibility：（DSC-30-60-10）
A. True
B. False
A
20. When is wing anti-ice shut-off valve closed? （DSC-30-20-10）
A. When the engine fails
B. When electrical supply is lost or any leakage is detected
C. When anti-icing is operating, cross-bleed valve fails
B
21. What are the slats that are heated by hot air supplied by pneumatic
system?（DSC-30-20-10）
A. Slat 1. 2. 4
B. Slat 2. 3. 4
C. Three outboard leading-ledge slats
C
22. The wing anti-ice control valve is controlled by：（DSC-30-20-10）
A. 1 wing anti-ice pb
B. Two wing anti-ice pb
C. it is automatically operated
A
23. The wing anti-icing indicates at (
) on ECAM? （DSC-36-20）
A. ECAM bleed page has no wing anti-icing system indication
B. When wing anti-ice pb is pressed, it indicates the white legend
ANTI-ICE in ECAM bleed page
The legend of ANTI-ICE (anti-icing)
C. When wing anti-ice pb is pressed and valve is opened, a green
arrow is indicated on ECAM bleed page
D. Above B and C
D
24. In the loss of bleed pressure, engine anti-ice valve: A. is
spring-loaded at CLOSE position（DSC-30-30-20）
A. is spring-loaded at OPEN position
B. remains at original location
A
25. When two ENG ANTI-ICE pushbuttons are ON, will EPR limit be
changed? （DSC-30-30-10）
A. Yes
B. No
A
26. When will TAT probe be heated? （DSC-30-50-10）
A. In the flight, not on the ground
B. On the ground, not in the flight
C. Only in icing conditions
A
27. What are the effects resulted from contaminated wing? A
A. A/C lift decreases; stall speed increases; stall AOA decreases; the
drag increases; lift center is displaced
B. A/C lift increases; lift center is displaced; stall speed increases;
aircraft speed decreases
C. A/C lift decreases; lift center is displaced; stall speed decreases;
stall speed decreases
A
28. In general condition, who shall actually implement the
deicing/anti-icing operation? A
A. Ground maintenance personnel
B. Pilots
C. Flight Dispatcher
A
29. During the climb, the selection of ENG ANTI-ICE would possibly
(
) the available thrust. （DSC-30-30-10）
A. decrease
B. increase
A
30. In icing condition, engine anti-icing system - (DSC-30-30-10)
A. It is only operating in the flight, and is fully automatic in icing
condition
B. It is automatically operating after engine start-up, and the pilot can
perform the manual control through ENG 1 and ENG 2 anti-icing
pushbuttons
C. Due to the limitation of the engine, engine anti-icing and wing
anti-icing cannot be used at same time
D. The pilot can manually control through ENG 1 and ENG 2
anti-icing pushbuttons
D
31、When flight crew has selected ENG ANTI-ICE PB at ON position
for (
) seconds and do not detect ice accretion, NO ICE
DETECTED will be displayed. （DSC-30-30-20-A）
A. 130
B. 150
C. 190
B
Landing Gear/Brake/Nosewheel Steering
1. The brake system is: （DSC-32-30-10）
A. Green hydraulic system with anti-skidding, yellow hydraulic
system without anti-skidding, parking brake
B. Green and yellow hydraulic systems with anti-skidding, yellow
hydraulic system without anti-skidding, parking brake
C. Green hydraulic system with or without anti-skidding, yellow
hydraulic system with anti-skidding, parking brake
B
2、When anti-skid & nose-wheel steering switch is set at OFF position:
（DSC-32-30-20、DSC-32-20-20）
A. Only N/W steering is OFF
B. A/SKID and N/W STEERING is OFF
C. A/SKID provides fixed aircraft deceleration
D. Only A/SKID is OFF
B
3. Maximum L/G retraction speed is:（LIM-13-00001901）
A. 200 KT
B. 220 KT
C. 250K
B
4. Nose-wheel steering is powered by:（DSC-32-20-10）
A. Hydraulic System
B. Electrical system
C. A or B
A
5. When does nose-wheel steering become available?（DSC-32-20-10）
A. When L/G door is opened
B. When L/G door is closed
C. When all L/G doors are closed
B
6. Which unit sends L/G position to ECAM（DSC-32-10-10）?
A. Any LGCIU, in turn
B. Two LGCIU, at same time
C. GRAVITY GEAR EXTN hand crank
B
B
7. When is the pressure of nose wheel steering system cut off?
（DSC-32-20-10）
A. Towing bar is at towing position or two engines are shut down or
aircraft speed is above 130 KT
B. One engine is shut down or ground towing or aircraft speed is
above 60 KT
8. Nose-wheel steering degree provided by hand tiller in the cockpit is:
（DSC-32-20-20）
A. 85°
B. 70°
C. 75°
C
9. When two steering hand tillers control at same time:
（DSC-32-20-10）
A. The signals of the first pilot that controls the hand tiller take the
priority
B. The captain signals take the priority
C. The signals are added algebraically
C
10. The brake modes include: （DSC-32-30-10-B）
A. The brakes are normally furnished or not furnished with
anti-skidding function, back-up function is not furnished with
anti-skidding function and parking brake
B. The normal brakes are furnished with anti-skidding function,
alternate function is not furnished with anti-skidding function and
parking brake
C. The normal brake or back-up is furnished with anti-skidding
function, alternate function is not furnished with anti-skidding
function and parking brake
C
11. When nose-wheel steering is made with rudder:（DSC-32-20-10）
A. it is limited to 2° or 6° in all cases
B. it is limited to +/-6° in all cases, depending on aircraft speed
B
12. Landing gear position is indicated by:（DSC-32-10-10）
A. one panel in central instrument panel, ECAM or visual wing
check
B.
C.
D.
D
one panel in central instrument panel and overhead panel
only by ECAM
one panel in central instrument panel and ECAM
13. When can the pilot perform nose-wheel steering with hand tiller:
（DSC-32-20-10）
A. A/C is on the ground, speed is below 70kt, two engines are
running, towing bar is in normal position
B. A/C is on the ground or in the flight, speed is below 75kt, two
engines are running, towing bar is in normal position
C. A/C is on the ground, speed is below 70kt, one engine is running,
towing bar is in normal position
D. A/C is on the ground, speed is below 70kt, one engine or two
engines are running, towing bar is in normal position
D
14. In order to provide the hydraulic power to L/G, the speed can reach
up to: （DSC-32-10-10-A）
A. 280 KT
B. any speed
C. 260 KT
C
15. After takeoff, L/H main landing gear shock strut is jammed at
compression position, what will happen?（DSC-32-10-10）
A. Landing gears can be retracted at any case (safe)
B. When nose landing gear is in intermediate position, landing gears
can be retracted.
C. Landing gears cannot be retracted, and landing gear retractable
strut is locked completely
C
16. Above 260 KT, can L/G gravity extension be made (from the point
of view of system) ? （DSC-32-10-10-A）
A. Yes
B. No
A
17. On wheel page: For landing gear position indication, the first line
indicates green triangle, the second line indicates no triangle. Are
landing gears extended?（DSC-32-10-40）
A. Yes
B. No
A
18. During the approach, in occurrence of master warning and ECAM
display: GEAR NOT DOWN. Why? C
A. L/G down but not locked, Flap full is extended, two RA are lost
B. L/G down but not locked, Flap 3, RA is below 750 FT
C. A or B
C
19. The brakes are driven by two independent systems, which are
pressurized by: （DSC-32-30-10）
A. BLUE and GREEN systems
B. YELLOW and GREEN systems
C. BLUE and YELLOW systems
B
20. The hydraulic system is used for alternate brake system is：
（DSC-32-30-10-B）
A. YELLOW
B. Hydraulic accumulator (pressurized)
C. A＋B
C
21. The serviceable status of brake pressure of hydraulic accumulator:
（DSC-32-30-10-B）
A. Normal (with anti-skid)
B. Alternate (with antiskid)
C. Alternate (without antiskid)
C
22. During the flight, if the pilot sets parking brake at ON position,
parking brake indicated on ECAM is:（DSC-32-30-20-A）
A. Green
B. Amber
C. Blue
B
23. The principle of anti-skid is: （DSC-32-30-10）
A. Compare the speed difference of four wheels
B. Compare wheel speed and aircraft reference speed
C. Compare L/H and R/H L/G wheel speeds
B
24. After the loss of ADIRS 1 and ADIRS 3, does anti-skid remain
available? （DSC-32-30-10）
A. available
B. Not available
A
25. When G HYD SYS is available, if anti-skid and N/W steering
switch is set at OFF: （DSC-32-30-20）
A. Brake is normal, nosewheel steering is lost.
B. Brake is alternate, nosewheel steering is normal
C. Brake is alternate without anti-skid, nosewheel steering is lost.
C
26. If alternate brake uses yellow hydraulic system, autobrake:
(DSC-32-30-10-B)
A. remains active with anti-skid
B. not available
C. remains active without anti-skid
B
27. Landing gear can be extended by:（DSC-32-10-10）
A. Green hydraulic system or mechanical extension by gravity
B. Green hydraulic system or yellow hydraulic system as back-up
C. Green hydraulic system is used to unlock and gravity extension
and green hydraulic system is used to downlock
D. Blue hydraulic system or mechanical extension by gravity
A
28. Parking brake is set at ON, this would disconnect all the brake
modes than anti-skid: （DSC-32-30-10-B）
A. True
B. False
B
29. Parking brake is set at ON, and disengage AUTOBRAKE:
（DSC-32-30-10-B）
A. True
B. False
A
30. Autobrake is activated by: （DSC-32-30-20）
A. Reverse thrust is selected
B. Ground spoilers extended
C. Above-mentioned A and B
B
31. After landing, the thrust levers is returned from REV to IDLE
then ground spoiler can be retracted, autobrake can be disarmed:
（DSC-32-30-20）
A. True
B. False
B
32. What is the pressure indicated on brake and accumulator pressure
indicator? （DSC-32-30-20）
A. YELLOW
B. only brake accumulator
C. YELLOW hydraulic system and brake accumulator
C
33. If MAX BRK is selected: Reject the takeoff just before V1,
reverser is deployed, but the pilot forgets to arm the ground spoiler.
Will autobrake be activated? （DSC-32-30-20）
A. Yes
B. No
A
34. When brake temperature reaches to (
) degrees, HOT light
on brake button illuminates. （DSC-32-30-20）
A. 250℃
B. 300℃
C. 315℃
B
35. On ECAM wheel page, when autobrake flashes in green, this means:
（DSC-32-30-20）
A. AUTO BRK is disengaged
B. AUTO BRK is lost
C. Anti-Skid is lost
B
36. On ECAM Wheel Page, a green arc is indicated above certain
wheel ID number, which means that brake temperature is above
（DSC-32-30-20）
A. 300℃
B. 100℃
C. 50℃
B
37. When autobrake is active, it can be disarmed by: （DSC-32-30-10）
A. Retracting ground spoilers
B. Press (brake) mode pb or one arming condition is lost
C. MED or LOW mode (with single foot pedal) or MAX mode (with
two feet pedals)
D. Any of A, B, C is available
D
38. After lift-off, ECAM BRK HOT warning remains active?
（DSC-32-30-20）
A. Available, when the wheels are extended or retracted
B. Available, only when L/G is extended
C. Not available
A
39. On the apron, APU is running, if the pilot sets parking brake at ON
position, parking brake indicated on ECAM is:（DSC-32-30-20-A）
A. Green
B. No indication
C. Yellow (due to the accumulator pressure)
A
40. After L/G is extended by gravity, if G system pressure is available,
can L/G operation be recovered to normal condition? （DSC-32-10-40）
A. Yes
B. No
A
41. L/G indication panel receives the information from micro-switch
and the proximity detector linked with: （DSC-32-10-40）
A. LGCIU 1
B. LGCIU 2
C. Both of above
A
42. When does red arrow close to L/G lever illuminate?
（DSC-32-10-40）
A. In approach configuration, L/G cannot be extended and locked
B. After L/G has been retracted, it cannot be retracted and locked
C. L/G at abnormal position
A
43. UNLOCK light on landing gear indication panel illuminates when:
（DSC-32-10-40）
A. The L/G is not locked at the selected position
B. L/G gravity extension, and L/G door not closed
C. L/G is normally extended, but L/G door is not locked
A
44. After L/G is extended, maximum aircraft speed is:
（LIM-13-00001901）
A. 300KT/M.70
B. 280KT/M.67
C. 260KT/M.60
B
45. Maximum L/G extension speed is:（LIM-13-00001901）
A. 260 KT
B. 250 KT
C. 240 KT
B
46. When the speed is above 260 KT, which ADIRS closes G system
pressure supply safety valve? （DSC-32-10-10-A）
A. ADIRS 1 and ADIRS 2
B. ADIRS 1 and ADIRS 3
C. ADIRS 2 and ADIRS 3
B
47. Maximum tire speed is: （LIM-13-00001901）
A. 250 KT
B. 195 KT
C. 185 KT
B
48. Is there any visual L/G DOWN LOCK indicator? （DSC-32-10-40）
A. Yes
B. None
B
49. How many turns need to be rotated on gravity extension hand crank
to extend the L/G? （DSC-32-10-40）
A. 10 turns in clockwise direction
B. 5 turns in clockwise direction
C. 3 turns in clockwise direction
C
50. Which hydraulic system provides the pressures to L/G normal
control and nose wheel steering? （DSC-32-20-10）
A. Blue system
B. Green system
C. Yellow system
B
51. After L/G has been extended by gravity, is N/W steering available?
（DSC-32-20-10）
A. Yes
B. No
B
52. The normal control sequence to control the L/G is: （DSC-32-10-40）
A. Any LGCIU in sequence
B. Two LGCIUs at the same time
C. L/G Lever
A
53. The unit that provides L/G indication on ECAM is:
（DSC-32-10-40）
A. Any LGCIU in sequence
B. Two LGCIUs at the same time
C. Only LGCIU 1
B
54. Which hydraulic system supplies the pressure to normal brake?
（DSC-32-30-10）
A. Yellow system
B. Green system
C
55. Which hydraulic system supplies the pressure to alternate brake?
（DSC-32-30-10-B）
A. Blue system
B. Green system
C. Yellow system
C
56. Parking brake is set at ON, and other brake modes are available?
（DSC-32-30-10-B）
A. Not active
B. Continuously available
A
57. In (
) brake mode, after the spoilers have been extended for 4
seconds, progressive brake pressure is sent to the brake.
（DSC-32-30-20）
A. MAX mode
B. MED mode
C. LO mode
C
58. The arming condition of autobrake is: （DSC-32-30-10-A）
A. A/BRK button is pressed, G SYS pressure and anti-skid supplies
the pressure, and normal brake system has no fault
B.
C.
A
A/BRK button is pressed, Y SYS pressure and anti-skid supplies
the pressure, and normal brake system has no fault
A/BRK button is pressed, G SYS pressure and anti-skid is
inoperative, and normal brake system has no fault
59. Maximum nosewheel steering angle when the hand tiller is used is:
（DSC-32-20-10）
A. ±6°
B. ±75°
C. ±95°
B
60. When the speed is below (
（DSC-32-30-10）
A. 30 KT
B. 20 KT
C. 72 KT
D. 100 KT
B
), anti-skid is deactivated.
61. In normal condition, when A/C lands and rolls out, and A/BRK
DECEL light does not illuminate, this means that A/BRK becomes
inoperative. （DSC-32-30-20）
A. True
B. False
B
62. The reference speed of anti-skid system comes from:
（DSC-32-30-20）
A. Air Data Inertial Reference System 2 and 3
B. Air Data Inertial Reference System 1
C. Air Data Inertial Reference System 1 or 2 or 3
C
63. The alternate brake is active when yellow hydraulic system has no
pressure. The accumulator can provide the full brake pressure for
(
) applications. （DSC-32-30-10-B）
A. 5
B. 3
C. 7
D. 10
C
64. When a green DECEL light illuminates, this means that actual
aircraft deceleration rate has reached to (
) of selected
deceleration rate. （DSC-32-30-20）
A.
B.
C.
D.
B
75%N
80%N
85%N
90%N
65. UNLOCK light on landing gear indication panel illuminates when:
（DSC-32-10-40）
A. The L/G is not locked at the selected position
B. L/G gravity extension, and L/G door not closed
C. L/G is normally extended, but L/G door is not locked
A
PNEUMATIC SYSTEM
1. When the engines and APU are running, and APU bleed valve is
selected at ON position, the correct statement is: (DSC-36-10-20)
A. Engine bleed valve OFF, cross-bleed valve OFF, APU bleed valve
OPEN
B. Engine bleed valve OPEN, cross-bleed valve OPEN, APU bleed
valve OFF
C. Engine bleed valve OFF, cross-bleed valve OPEN, APU bleed
valve OPEN
D. Engine bleed valve OPEN, cross-bleed valve CLOSE, APU bleed
valve OPEN
C
2. When external pneumatic source is used for engine start, the required
switches and their status are: (DSC-36-10-40)
A. Pneumatic cross-bleed is automatic
B. Pneumatic cross-bleed is open
C. Engine bleed switch OFF
D. APU bleed switch OFF
B
3. HP air is supplied by: (DSC-36-10-10)
A. ENG 1 and/or ENG 2 bleed system, APU airborne air compressor,
and HP ground connection
B. ENG 1 and/or ENG 2 bleed system
C. ENG 1 and/or ENG 2 bleed system or APU airborne air compressor
A
4. The operation of pneumatic system is controlled and monitored by:
(DSC-36-10-20)
A. 1 Bleed Monitoring Computer
B. 2 Bleed Valve Computers
C. 2 Bleed Monitoring Computers
C
5. How is bleed valve driven? (DSC-36-10-20)
A. Pneumatically
B. it is electronically operated
C. Both of above
A
6. When the pressure and the temperature are not adequate to supply
corresponding engine bleed valve, what will happen? (DSC-36-10-20)
A. Intermediate-pressure valve closes
B. High pressure valve opens, medium-pressure stage closes
C.
C
High pressure valve opens, medium-pressure stage remains in the
same configuration
7. Can the pilot control the position of HP valve in cockpit bleed panel?
(DSC-36-10-20)
A. Yes
B. No
A
8. If bleed valve closes, high-pressure valve will:
A. automatically open
B. is automatically closed
B
(DSC-36-10-20)
9. If upstream air pressure is low, high-pressure valve will:
(DSC-36-10-20)
A. be closed pneumatically
B. be opened
C. be closed electronically
D. be closed electronically
A
10. The temperature regulation is achieved through pre-cooler which
will limit the temperature regulation at: (DSC-36-10-20)
A. 150℃
B. 85℃
C. 200℃
C
11. For the bleed air that flows through the pre-cooler: (DSC-36-10-20)
A. it is cooled with the cold air from engine fan section and through
heat exchanger
B. It is not cooled before such bleed air is used by each system
C. It is only cooled with the conditioned air
D. It is cooled with ambient air
A
12. How is cross-bleed valve driven? (DSC-36-10-40)
A. Pneumatically
B. it is electronically operated
B
13. The cross-bleed valve has two electrical motors: (DSC-36-10-40)
A.
B.
C.
A
One motor is used for automatic mode, while another motor is
used for manual mode
Two motors are for automatic mode
One motor is used for manual mode
14. APU bleed valve has the priority right over engine bleed valve.
(DSC-36-10-30)
A. Yes
B. No
A
15. In the loss of BMC 1, APU bleed leakage detection will:
(DSC-36-10-50)
A. Active
B. not available
B
16. When APU supplies the air, if R/H pneumatic system detects the
leakage, ( ）. (DSC-36-10-50)
A. X BLEED valve is closed automatically.
B. X BLEED valve is manually closed.
C. APU bleed air valve is closed.
A
17. Pneumatic system does not provide high-pressure air to:
(DSC-36-10-10)
A. hydraulic reservoir pressurization
B. Water tank pressurization
C. Wing anti-icing
D. lavatory toilet flushing
D
18. In normal operation, high-pressure bleed ducted from ENG 1
supplies the pressure to hydraulic reservoir. In case of too low ENG 1
bleed, what will happen? (DSC-36-10-20)
A. Residual air pressure inside fuel tank is adequate to keep normal
operation
B. Extra air can be supplied from X BLEED duct
C. Zone controller 1 provide additional air from the upstream of pack
1
D. ENG 1 medium-pressure bleed valve is opened to provide extra air
B
19. When APU pneumatic source is used to start up the engine, X
BLEED knob at AUTO, if APU bleed leakage is detected during
engine start, the location of X BLEED valve is: (DSC-36-10-30)
A. at open position
B. OFF
C. cannot be determined
B
POWERPLANT SYSTEM
1. During normal operation, FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine
Controller) system:
(DSC-70-20)
A. It is just an aircraft electrical system
B. It serves as battery if aircraft electrical supply is faulty
C. It is self-powered when N2 exceeds 15%
D. It is aircraft electrical system and is self-powered in emergency
condition.
C
2. In manual mode, when thrust levers locate between climb detent and
idle detent: (DSC-70-35-50)
A. Each detent of thrust lever corresponds to an EPR
B. Engine EPR is climb EPR
C. Engine EPR is idle EPR
D. Engine EPR is frozen
A
3. When TOGA power is set, EGT temperature limit is:
(LIM-70-00001954)
A. 635℃ (for single engine) or 610℃ (for two engines)
B. 610℃ within 5 minutes，or in case of engine failure, 610℃ for
only 15 minutes
C. 635℃ within 5 minutes, or in case of engine failure, 635℃ for
only 15 minutes
C
4. In which of following conditions, it is not allowed to perform
de-rated takeoff: (LIM-70-00001959)
A. OAT is below corrected temperature
B. on contaminated runway or one (or more) thrust reversers become
inoperative
C. OAT is above TREF（ISA＋15℃）
B
5. Does EPR value corresponding to maximum cruise level appear on
upper ECAM display? (DSC-70-90-40-50)
A. No
B. Yes
A
6. Tref (reference temperature) is 29℃, OAT is 36℃, corrected Tflex
(flexible temperature) is 33℃, can flexible thrust be applied for takeoff?
(LIM-70-00001959)
A. Yes
B. No
B
7. FADEC (Full Authority Digital Engine Controller) is also called:
A. An engine control box
B. A thrust control unit
C. Electrical engine controller
C
C
8. During flight, what is maximum N2 when starter is re-engaged?
(LIM-70)
A. 0％
B. 25％
C. 18％
C
9. What is maximum operation time of starter? (LIM-70-00001957)
A. After running for 8 minutes, the starter stops running for 15
minutes
B. After running for 5 minutes, the starter stops running for 20
seconds.
C. three consecutive cycles: two cycles are 2 minutes, one cycle is 1
minute, and interval between two start-up does not exceed 15
seconds
C
10. The required starter cool-down time is: (LIM-70-00001957)
A. Cool down for 30 minutes after three 2-minute cycles
B. Cool down for 15 minutes after four 2-minute cycles
C. Cool down for 12 minutes after four 8-minute cycles
A
11. During manual start, engine start valve is opened with MAN
START pb. How to close this valve? (DSC-70-80-40)
A. by FADEC automatically
B. through ENG MAN START pb manually
C. by ENG MODE SEL automatically
D. by automatically reaching to 42% N2
D
12. What is maximum continuous oil temperature?(LIM-70-00001955)
A. 150℃
B. 155℃
C. 140℃
B
13. Maximum continuous oil temperature limit can be exceeded. What
is the exceeded limit? (LIM-70-00001955)
A. 165℃, less than 15 minutes
B. In case of engine failure, 155℃, less than 15 minutes
C. Maximum continuous oil temperature must be able to be exceeded
A
14. What is minimum oil temperature for (engine) start?
(LIM-70-00001955)
A. -40℃
B. -10℃
C. 0℃
A
15. What is minimum oil pressure? (LIM-70-00001955)
A. 60 PSI
B. 40 PSI
C. It varies with oil temperature
A
16. Which unit directly closes HP and LP shut-off valves?
(DSC-70-45-20)
A. ENG MASTER switch
B. Electrical Control Unit (ECU)
C. Hydra-Mechanical Unit (HMU)
A
17. Which valve ensures equivalent fuel flow?
A. HP fuel shutoff valves
B. LP fuel shutoff valve
C. Fuel Metering Valve
C
(DSC-70-45-10)
18. During automatic engine-start on the ground, when will start valve
be shut off? (DSC-70-80-40)
A. When 10 ％ ≤N2≤16 ％ , the ignition is arisen and HP fuel valve is
open, and N2＞43％
B. When N2＞16％ and N2＞22％, HP fuel valve opens, and N2＞
43％
C. When N2＞ 22％, the ignition and HP fuel valve opens, N2＞43％
D. When N2＞16％ and N2＞22％, HP fuel valve opens, set the mode
selector at NORM.
B
19. When fuel filter is clogged, is the engine still supplied with the fuel?
(DSC-70-45-60)
A. Yes, the fuel from IDG fuel tank cooling duct is used.
B. Yes, LP fuel filter is bypassed
C. No. Engine flame-out
B
20. How to perform the manual start cranking? (DSC-70-80-40)
A. Set the engine mode selector at CRANK, and set the ENG master at
ON
B. Set ENG master at OFF, set the mode selector at CRANK, then set
the MAN START pb at ON
C. Same as B, except that ENG master is set at ON
B
21. When A/C is on the ground, during auto-start procedure, when does
pack valve close? (DSC-70-80-40)
A. Select the IGN/START
B. APU bleed is set at ON and IGN/START is selected
C. ENG master is set at ON and IGN/START is selected
C
22. FADEC will automatically select the continuous ignition when:
(DSC-70-20)
A. ENG ANTI-ICE is engaged or EIU (Engine Interface Unit) data is
lost
B. Select TOGA thrust or FLEX takeoff thrust (in EPR mode)
C. Select APPR IDLE or non-scheduled flight idle or stall during the
flight
D. Above A or B or C
D
23. How is oil cooled? (DSC-70-45-30)
A. It flows through engine fuel/oil heat exchanger and air/oil heat
exchanger
B. It flows through oil circulation and air/oil heat exchanger
C. only through air/oil heat exchanger
A
24. When pressure drops below (
will turn red. (DSC-70-90-40-60)
A. 80 PSI
B. 200 PSI
C. 60 PSI
C
), oil pressure indication
25. What is the activation condition of thrust reverser? (DSC-70-70)
A. A/C is on the ground (L/H and R/H main L/G shock strut absorber
is compressed), thrust levers locate between idle reverse and max
reverse, and one corresponding FADEC is active
B. Spoilers are armed and thrust levers are in reverse detent
C. Thrust levers are in maximum reverse thrust
A
26. When will green "REV" legend indicate on EPR?
(DSC-70-90-40-50)
A. Thrust levers locate in MAX reverse detent
B. Thrust reversers are totally unlatched
C. Thrust levers locate at IDLE reverse detent
B
27. In autothrust mode, the thrust computed by FMGC is limited by:
(DSC-70-35-50)
A. The mode armed in FCU
B. FADEC (Refer to thrust lever position)
C. FMGC itself
B
28. On the ground, when will engine start procedure be automatically
aborted? (DSC-70-80-40)
A. No automatic engine start abortion procedure
B. Only when the engine is not started or in case of engine hung start
C. Only in case of no ignition
D. In occurrence of hot start, hung start, N1 lock or no ignition
D
29. When is A/THR armed? (DSC-70-35-50)
A. Manually armed on the ground (when the engine is running), or
automatically armed after takeoff
B. Manually or automatically armed when α floor is detected during
the flight
C. When the pilot initiates the takeoff or go-around or approach, or
when α floor is detected between lift-off and radio altitude, A/THR
is automatically armed.
C
30. During the flight, if the pilot presses the thrust lever instinctive
disconnection pushbutton for more than 15 seconds, A/THR function,
including α-floor function, will be lost: (DSC-22-30-90-B)
A. True
B. False
A
31. During the takeoff, whenever the thrust has been set (FLX or
TOGA):
(DSC-22-30-90-B)
A. If A/THR pb on FCU is pressed, A/THR function is armed
B. Autothrust function (ATS) is activated
C. Autothrust function is armed but not active
C
32. After the takeoff with flexible thrust is applied, in case of one
engine failure, in order to select MCT (Maximum Continuous Thrust):
(DSC-22-30-90)
A. Because thrust levers are in FLX detent, MCT is automatically
selected
B. Move thrust levers from CL/FLX/MCT detent, and then return to
FLX/MCT detent
B
33. When autothrust is active, an asymmetrical amber message (on
FMA) represents: (DSC-22-30)
A. Only one thrust lever is set at CLB or MCT detent (when two
engines are operative)
B. Due to the loss of FADEC, the thrust is asymmetrical
C. Due to the loss of comparison with TLA (Thrust Lever Angle), the
thrusts are asymmetrical.
A
34. The amber message "LVR MCT" (on the left side of FMA)
represents: (DSC-22-30)
A. When the speed is above green dot speed, after engine failure,
thrust lever is not in MCT detent
B. After the engine fails during the flight, thrust lever is not in MCT
detent
A
35. Thrust reversers are driven by: (DSC-70-70)
A. Hydraulic actuator: Green is for engine 1, yellow is for engine 2
B. Hydraulic actuator: Green is for both engines
C. Hydraulic actuator: Blue is for engine 1, yellow is for engine 2
D.
A
Pneumatic actuator
36. Oil filter clog detector is used to: (DSC-70-45-60)
A. Detect the clogging of main oil return (scavenge) filter
B. When oil filter clogging is detected
C. When the loss of oil pressure pump filter is detected
A
37. How is oil cooled? (DSC-70-45-60)
A. Air-cooled engine oil cooler is used
B. Fuel-cooled engine oil cooler is used
C. Above A and B are used
C
38. After fuel filter is clogged, does the engine still supply the fuel?
(DSC-70-45-60)
A. The fuel can be supplied by using IDG cooling and transfer valve
B. The fuel can be supplied by using the bypass fuel filter
C. No
B
39. During the flight, thrust levers locate between two detents, what
restricts the EPR limit? (DSC-70-35-40)
A. thrust lever position
B. the rating limitation corresponding to the higher detent
C. The lower detent (of thrust levers)
B
40. When A/THR is active, thrust levers locate between two detents,
what restricts the higher EPR command? (DSC-70-35-40)
A. Thrust Lever Angle (TLA)
B. EPR limit
C. EPR target
A
41. FMGC computes: (DSC-70-35-50)
A. EPR limit
B. EPR command
C. EPR target
C
42. What will happen after the loss of EPR sensor? (DSC-70-35-20)
A. EEC (Electronic Engine Control) reverts to manual N1 mode
B. EEC (Electronic Engine Control) reverts to nominal N1 mode
C. EEC (Electronic Engine Control) reverts to non-nominal N1 mode
B
43. To crank the engine,
(
) must be selected :
(DSC-70-80-40)
A. Engine mode selector at CRANK
B. Engine mode selector at CRANK, APU bleed ON
C. Engine mode selector at CRANK, engine bleed ON
D. Engine mode selector at CRANK, manual start pb ON
D
44. After the first engine has been properly started for (
)
seconds, if another engine is not started, pack valve will open.
(DSC-70-80-40)
A. 60
B. 45
C. 30
D. 50
C
45. In the (
) mode of engine thrust, FADEC will prevent the
thrust from exceeding the limit of the location of thrust levers
(DSC-70-20). C
A. Only in AUTO mode
B. Only in MAN mode
C. In AUTO and MAN modes
D. None of these mode can prevent from exceeding the limit
A
46. When two engines are running, the operation range of A/THR is:
(DSC-70-35-10)
A. From IDLE (excluded) to CLB
B. From IDLE (excluded) to TOGA
C. From MAX REV to TOGA
D. From MAX REV to CLB
A
47. Which one of following items is not a FADEC idle mode:
(DSC-70-20)
A. Modulated idle
B. Approach idle
C. Idle reverse
D. Ground idle
D
Performance
1. A320 MTOW: (The difference of optional aircraft)
A. 85.5 T
B. 75.5 T
C. 65.5 T
D. 55.5 T
B
2. Regarding the runway use, FCOM gives a series of limitations, and
maximum runway slope is: B
A. ±3％
B. ±2％
C. ±1％
B
3. VLE (maximum speed with L/G extended) is:
A. 300 KT
B. 290 KT
C. 280 KT
D. 270 KT
C
C
4. Maximum operation speed of windshield rain wiper is:
A. 240 KT
B. 230 KT
C. 220 KT
D. 210 KT
B
5. Maximum tire speed:
A. 210 KT
B. 200 KT
C. 195 KT
D. 190 KT
C
B
C
6. CI changes from 0 to 999. CI is 0, which means: A
A. Time index is far below fuel index to achieve minimum fuel
consumption strategy
B. Fuel index is far below time index to achieve minimum fuel
consumption strategy
A
7. Maximum cruise altitude is:
C
A. The altitude corresponds the maximum distance operated by the
aircraft with each kilogram of fuel (most efficient range)
B.
C.
C
Maximum altitude that can be reached in segmented climb of the
aircraft
Maximum altitude reached with maximum cruise thrust during
level-off and maximum altitude reached at vertical speed of 300
feet/minute with maximum cruise thrust, and is accompanied
with a load factor of 0.3g
8. Determine the en-route fuel with FCOM quick determination table.
The data in this table is based on a reference landing weight at the
destination airport:
C
A. 65 T
B. 60 T
C. 55 T
D. 50 T
C
9. FCOM gives maximum operation speed in different flap and slat
configurations, and maximum operation speed of CONF 2 is: C
A. 230 KT IAS
B. 215 KT IAS
C. 200 KT IAS
C
10. Flexible takeoff cannot be made unless corrected temperature is
above OAT and above TREF (flat-rate temperature) ut below
maximum flexible temperature: A
A. True
B. False
A
11. Flexible takeoff can be made on contaminated runway: B
A. True
B. False
B
12. Flexible takeoff cannot be made on wet runway: B
A. True
B. False
B
13. In some circumstances, V1 can exceed VR. B
A. True
B. False
B
14. Optimum altitude is: A
A.
B.
C.
The altitude corresponds the maximum distance operated by the
aircraft with each kilogram of fuel (most efficient range)
Maximum altitude that can be reached in segmented climb of the
aircraft
Maximum altitude reached with maximum cruise thrust during
level-off and maximum altitude reached at vertical speed of 300
feet/minute with maximum cruise thrust, and is accompanied with
a load factor of 0.3g
C
15. Under many conditions, A/C takes off with a weight lower than
maximum allowable weight. Thus, it is possible to take off with a
reduced thrust corresponding to this weight and also satisfy those
performance requirements. This is so-called "flexible takeoff" and this
thrust is called "flexible thrust".
A
A. True
B. False
A
16. FLEX TEMP must not be above ISA+55℃.
A. True
B. False
A
17. Do not take off from contaminated runway. A
A. True
B. False
A
18. When runway surface becomes shiny due to a thin layer of standing
water, this runway is called wet runway. When the water layer is at or
below 3 mm, it is not probable that any risk of hydroplaning would be
arisen.
A. True
B. False
A
19. The equivalent value of wet runway is the runway covered with the
standing water below (
):
A. 2 mm
B. 3 mm
C. 4 mm
B
20. For the damp runway, we believe that no performance limitation is
available.
A. True
B. False
A
21. For the runway contaminated with the fluid, those performance data
in the manual are based on the assumption that anti-skid unit and
spoiler system are inoperative.
A. True
B. False
B
22. For the contaminated runway, select MAX TO.
A. True
B. False
A
23. For the takeoff on contaminated runway, even in low speed, the
pilot cannot abort the takeoff due to any non-critical circumstance.
A. True
B. False
A
24. For the takeoff from contaminated runway, the pilot can
purposefully rotate the aircraft in order to protect the aircraft from any
contamination by splashing slush, because this would not induce
significant aerodynamic drag.
A. True
B. False
B
25. The pilot shall avoid any landing on contaminated runway when no
anti-skid is active.
A. True
B. False
A
26. For the landing on contaminated runway, A/C shall approach with
normal speed, and the pilot shall apply maximum thrust reverse power
as soon as possible after aircraft touch-down.
A. True
B. False
A
27. Actual distance for aircraft landing in full stop is measured from the
point of 50 FT AGL (between A/C and landing ground surface) .
A. True
B. False
A
28. For wet runway condition, available runway distance must be
minimally 115% of corresponding dry runway distance, i.e., the
required wet runway length shall be 15% more than the required dry
runway length.
A. True
B. False
A
29. VAPP in normal landing configuration shall be more than stall
speed in this configuration by 1.23 times.
A. True
B. False
A
30. RTOLW table can determine:
A. T.O fuel plan
B. MTOW and FLEX TEMP
C. takeoff distance
B
31. The relation between A/C takeoff performance and
high-temperature effects is an inverse relation.
A. True
B. False
A
32. In tailwind condition, the landing distance is increased.
A. True
B. False
A
33. The back-up fuel quantity is always more than trip fuel.
A. True
B. False
B
34. A/C CG always remains unchanged.
A. True
B. False
B
35. If CG data is small, this means that CG location is ahead of aircraft
focal point. The further away from A/C focal point, the better aircraft
stability becomes.
A. True
B. False
A
36. When A/C is flying in overweight condition, what are those
negative effects?
A. The damage of stationary structure and aerodynamic non-stability
B. The shortening of aircraft fatigue life
C. Increase fuel consumption and result into runway damage
D. All above items
D
37. When CG is at too FWD or AFT location, what are those negative
effects?
A. Possibly cause A/C to incline on the ground
B. Cause into no weight sustained by nose wheel, and cause the pilots
to become unable to control the taxiing or roll-out direction
C. Cause the stabilizer trim to remain at an up-drift or down-drift
position, which causes into aerodynamic non-stability of the aircraft
D. All above items
D
38. In case of improper stabilizer trimming before takeoff, this would
cause into:
A. Too early rotation. Due to too low lift-off speed, this would cause
into stall speed and CFIT
B. Too late rotation. When A/C approaches to MTOW, this would
possibly cause into runway and aircraft damage
C. All above items are possible
C
39. After takeoff, which are the conditions that can affect A/C CG:
A. The walkings of cabin attendants
B. The changes of passenger seats
C. Fuel consumption and L/G retraction and flap retraction after
takeoff
D. All the above items
D
40. The climb rate is a ratio between the climbed altitude in unit time
and the flown horizontal distance.
A. True
B. False
B
41. The climb gradient is the altitude change divided by the time.
A. True
B. False
B
42. V1 shall be _____ Vmcg.
A. at or above
B. at or below
C. All above items are possible
A
43. Vmcg (minimum controllable speed on the ground) is the limit of
low speed. It ensures that A/C can continue the takeoff after one engine
becomes inoperative during the takeoff. The pilot can control the
aircraft direction with the rudder.
A. True
B. False
A
44. For the takeoff from high-plateau or high-temperature airport, due
to the reduction of air density, aerodynamics performance of the
aircraft is degraded so that takeoff weight is reduced.
A. True
B. False
A