GATE WORK BOOK
Subject Wise & Topic wise
Questions with Key (1990-2019)
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ABOUT BOOK
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LIST OF SUBJECTS
 STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
 FLUID MECHANICS
…………………….
……………………..
1-104
105-232
 IRRIGATION
……………………………. 233-252
 HYDROLOGY
…………………………… 253-297
 REINFORCED CONCRETE STRUCTURES ………………………….. 298-350
 DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES
……………………………….. 351-396
 GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING
……………………………. 397-563
 ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERING
………………………… 564-710
 TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING
……………………………. 711-784
 GEOMATICS
……………………………. 785-815
 CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT
…………………………… 816-829
 APTITUDE
…………………………. 830-892
 MATHEMATICS
……………………………. 893-1003
 STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS
………..…………………. 1004-1072
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STRENGTH OF MATERIALS
 SIMPLE STRESSES
…………………………… 1- 11
 COMPLEX STRESSES
……………………………. 12-23
 CENTROID AND MOMENT OF INERTIA
 SFD AND BMD
………………. 24-26
…………………….. 27-39
 BENDING STRESSES
……………………………. 40-46
 SHEAR STRESS
…………………………… 46-50
 TORSIONAL STRESS
……………………………. 51-55
 SLOPE AND DEFLECTION OF BEAM
 COMPRESSION MEMBERS
………………………… 56-72
……………………. 73-81
 STRAIN ENERGY AND THEORIES OF FAILURE
 SPRINGS
……. 82-84
………………………….. 85--85
 THIN CYLINDERS
……………………………….. 86-88
 INDETERMINATE BEAMS
……………………………… 89-99
 ENGINEERING MECHANICS
……………….. 100-102
 UNSYMMETRICAL BENDING
………………….103-104
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simple stresses
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16140
An isolated concrete pavement slab of
length L is resting on a frictionless base.
The temperature of the top and bottom
fibre of the slab are Tt and Tb, respectively.
Given: the coefficient of thermal expansion
= α and the elastic modulus = E.
Assuming Tt > Tb and the unit weight of
concrete as zero, the maximum thermal
stress is calculated as [GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 13394
An elastic bar of length L,uniform cross
sectional area A,coefficient of thermal
expansion α ,and Young’s modulus E is
fixed at the two ends .The temperature of
the bar is increased by T,resulting in an
axial stress σ .keeping all other parameters
unchanged ,if the length of the bar is
doubled ,the axialstress would be [GATE
2017 FN]
(A)σ
(B)2σ
(C)0.5 σ
(D) 0.25ασ
Correct Answer: A
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simple stresses
3
Question: 13393
An elastic isotropic body is in a hydrostatic
state of stress as shown in figure .for no
change in the volume to occur,what should
be its poisson’s ratio?
[GATE 2016 -2]
(A)0.00
(B)0.25
(C)0.50
(D) 1.00
Correct Answer: C
4
Question: 5588
A rigid beam is hinged at one end and
supported on linear elastic spring (both
having a stiffness of K) at points 1 and 2 an
inclined load acts at 2 as shown in
[GATE-11]
If the load P equals 100 KN ,which of the
following options represents forces R1 and
R2 in the springs at points 1 and 2?
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simple stresses
(a) R1=20KN and R2= 40KN
(b) R1=50KN and R2=50KN
(c) R1=30KN and R2= 60KN
(d) R1=40KN and R2=80KN
Correct Answer: D
5
Question: 5587
A rigid beam is hinged at one end and
supported on linear elastic spring (both
having a stiffness of K) at points 1 and 2 an
inclined load acts at 2 as shown in
[GATE-11]
Which of the following options represents
the deflections δ1 and δ2 at points ‘1’ and
‘2’ ?
Correct Answer: B
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simple stresses
6
Question: 5586
A rigid bar is suspended by three rods
made of the same material as shown in the
figure.the area and length of the central
rod are 3A and L,respectively while that of
two outer rods are 2A and 2L ,Respectively
.If a downward force of 50 KN is applied to
the rigid bar,the forces in the central and
each of the outer rods will be(GATE-07)
(a)16.67 KN each
(b) 30KN and 15KN
(c)30KN and 10KN
(d)21.4 KN and 14.3KN
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 5585
A metal bar of length 100mm inserted
between two rigid supports and its
temperature is increased by 10oc .If the
coefficient of thermal expansion is 12 x
10-6 per oc and the Youngs modulus is 2x
105 MPA,the stress in the bar is
(GATE-07 )
(a)zero
(b) 12 MPa
(c)24 MPa
(d)2400 MPa
Correct Answer: C
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simple stresses
8
Question: 5584
A bar of varying square cross ection is
loaded symmetrically as shown in figure
.Loads shown are placed on one of the
axes symmetry of cross section .ignoring
selfweight ,The maximum tensile stress in
N/mm2 anywhere is (GATE-03 )
(a)16.0
(b) 20.0
(c)25.0
(d) 30.0
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 5583
The total elongation of the material of the
structural element fixed ,at one end,free at
the other end ,and of varying cross section
as shown in figure when subjected to a
force P at the free end is given by
(GATE-91 )
(a)PL/AE
(b) 3PL/AE
(c)2.5PL/AE
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simple stresses
(d) 2PL/AE
Correct Answer: C
10
Question: 5582
The axial movement of top surface of
stepped column as shown in figure is
(GATE-89 )
(a)2.5PL/AE
(b) 3PL/AE
(c)1.5PL/AE
(d)2PL/AE
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 5581
A tapered circular rod of diameter vary
from 20 mm to 10 mm is connected to
another uniform circular rod of diameter 10
mm as shown in the following figure .Both
bars are made of same material with the
modulus of elasticity
,E=2x105N/mm2MPA.When subjected to a
load P=30Π KN,The deflection at point A is
____is [GATE-15]
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simple stresses
Correct Answer: 15-15
12
Question: 5580
The poisson’s ratio is defined as (GATE-12
)
Correct Answer: B
13
Question: 5579
The number of independent elastic
constants for a linear elastic isotropic and
homogeneous material is (GATE-10 )
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c)
2
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simple stresses
(d) 1
Correct Answer: C
14
Question: 5578
For an isotropic materials,The relationship
between the youngs modulus (E),Shear
modulus (G) and poisson’s ratio (µ) is given
by
(GATE-07 )
Correct Answer: B
15
Question: 5577
the shear modulus (G),Modulus of elasticity
(E)and the poisson’s ratio (µ) of a material
are related as, (GATE-02)
Correct Answer: C
16
Question: 5575
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simple stresses
The stress –strain diagram for two
materials A and B is shown in
below(GATE-00)
(I)material A is more brittle than material
B
(II) the ultimate strength of material
Material B is more than that of A
With reference to the above statement
,Which of the following applies?
(a)both statements are false
(b)both statements are true
(c) I is true but II is false
(d)I is false but II is true
Correct Answer: C
17
Question: 5574
In a linear elastic structural element
(GATE-91 )
(a)Stiffness is directly proportional to
flexibility
(b)stiffness is inversely proportional to
flexibility
(c)stiffness is equal to flexibility
(d)stiffness and flexibility are not related.
Correct Answer: B
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simple stresses
18
Question: 5573
A cantilever beam of tubular section
consists of 2 materials copper as outer
cylinder and steel as inner cylinder .it is
subjected to a temperature rise of 200c
and αcopper > αsteel .The stress developed in
the tubes will be (GATE-91)
(a)compression in steel and tension in
copper
(b)tension in steel and compresson in
copper
(c)No stress in both
(d)tension in both the materials
Correct Answer: B
19
Question: 5572
The max value of poisson’s ratio for an
elastic material is (GATE-91 )
(a)0.25
(b)0.5
(c)0.75
(d)1.0
Correct Answer: B
20
Question: 5571
the principle of super position is made use
of in structural computations when:
(GATE-90 )
(a)The geometry of the structure changes
by a finite amount during the application of
the loads
(b)The changes in the geometry of the
structure during the application of the
loads is too small and the strains in the
structure are directly proportional to the
corresponding stresses.
(c)The strains in the structure are not
directly proportional to the corresponding
stresses ,Even though the effect of
changes in geometry can be neglected .
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simple stresses
(d) None of the above conditions are met.
Correct Answer: B
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complex stresses
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16226
For a plane stress problem, the state of
stress at a point P is represented by the
stress element as shown in the figure.
By how much angle (θ) in degrees the
stress element should be rotated in order
to get the planes of maximum shear
stress?
[GATE 2019 AN]
A.26.6
B.48.3
C.31.7
D.13.3
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 16122
An element is subjected to biaxial normal
tensile strains of 0.0030 and 0.0020. The
normal strain in the plane of maximum
shear strain is
[GATE 2019 FN]
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complex stresses
(A) 0.0010
(B) Zero
(C) 0.0050
(D) 0.0025
Correct Answer: D
3
Question: 13914
Two triangular wedges are glued together
as shown in the following figure. The stress
acting normal to the interface, σn is
__________ MPa.
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 13869
if an element of a stressed body is in a
state of pure shear with a magnitude of
80 N/mm2,the magnitude of maximum
principal stress at that location is
[GATE-99]
A.80 N/mm2
B.113.14 N/mm2
C.120 N/mm2
D.56.57 N/mm2
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 13791
If principal stresses in a two-dimensional
case are – 10MPa and 20 MPa respectively,
then maximum shear stress at the point
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complex stresses
is (GATE-05)
(a)10 MPa
(b)15 MPa
(c) 20 MPa
(d) 30 MPa
Correct Answer: B
6
Question: 13532
For the stress state (in MPa) shown in the
figure, the major principal stress is 10 MPa.
The shear stress τ is
(A) 10.0 MPa
(B) 5.0 MPa
(C) 2.5 MPa
(D) 0.0 MPa
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 13458
In a material under a state of plane strain,
a 10 ×10 mm square centered at a point
gets deformed as shown in the figure.
(GATE 2017 AN)
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complex stresses
ifthe shear strain
at this point is
expressed as 0.001 k (in rad) the value of k
is
A.0.50
B.0.25
C-0.25
D.-0.50
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 13358
For the state of stress (in Mpa) shown in
the figure below, maximum principle stress
is 10 Mpa. :[GATE-16-2]
The maximum shear stress τ is? (2016 set
2)
Correct Answer: 5-5
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complex stresses
9
Question: 12247
An 8 m long simply-supported elastic beam
of rectangular cross-section (100 mm ×
200 mm) is subjected to a uniformly
distributed load of 10 kN/m over its entire
span. The maximum principal stress (in
MPa, up to two decimal places) at a point
located at the extreme compression edge
of a cross-section and at 2 m from the
support is ______ (GATE 2018 AN)
Correct Answer: 90-90
10
Question: 12185
A plate in equilibrium is subjected to
uniform stresses along its edges with
magnitude
σxx =30 MPa and σyy=50MPa as shown in
figure
The young's modulus of the material is 2 x
1011 N/mm2 and the poisson's ratio is 0.3 if
σzz is negligibly small and assumed to be
zero .Then the strain
is
A.-120 x10-6
B.-60 x10-6
C.0.0
D.120 x10-6
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 5607
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complex stresses
For the state of stress (in Mpa) shown in
the figure below,the maximum shear stress
(in Mpa) is __[GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 5-5
12
Question: 5606
The state of 2D-Stress at a point is given
by the following matrix of stresses.
What is the magnitude of maximum shear
stress in MPa?[GATE 2013]
(a)50
(b)75
(c) 100
(d) 110
Correct Answer: A
13
Question: 5605
If the principal stresses in a two
–dimensional case are (-) 10 Mpa and
respectively ,then maximum shear stress
at the point is(GATE-04)
(a)10 Mpa
(b)15 Mpa
(c)20 MPa
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complex stresses
(d)30 Mpa
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 5604
in a two dimensional analysis ,the state of
stress at a point is shown
below. (GATE-04)
AB=4
BC=3
AC=5
If σ=120MPa and τxy= 70 Mpa ,σx and σy
are respectively
(a) 26.7 Mpa and 172.5 Mpa
(b)54 Mpa and 128 Mpa
(c)67.5 Mpa and 213.3 Mpa
(d)16 MPa and 138 Mpa
Correct Answer: C
15
Question: 5603
The state of two dimensional stresses
acting on a concrete lamina consists of a
direct tensile stress,σx=1.5N/mm2, and
shear stress,τ=1.20N/mm2 ,which cause
cracking of concrete .Then tensile strength
of the concrete in N/mm2(GATE-04)
(IES-04)
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complex stresses
(a) 1.50
(b)2.08
(c)2.17
(d)2.29
Correct Answer: C
16
Question: 5602
Which of the following Mohr’s circles shown
below qualitatively and correctly
represents the state of plane stress at a
point in a beam above the neutral
axis,where it is subjected to combined
shear and bending compressive stresses
(GATE-93)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Correct Answer: C
17
Question: 5601
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complex stresses
The magnitude of the only shear stresses
acting at a point in plane stress situation is
7.5N/mm2.The magnitudes of the principle
stresses will be:
(GATE-90)
(a) +15 N/mm2 and -7.5 N/mm2
(b) +7.5 N/mm2 and -15.0 N/mm2
(c) +7.5 N/mm2 and -7.5 N/mm2
(d) +10 N/mm2 and -7.5 N/mm2
Correct Answer: C
18
Question: 5600
for the plane stress SITUATION SHOWN IN
THE FIGURE,The maximum shear stress
and the plane on which it acts are:
[GATE-15]
(a)-50MPa ,on a plane 450 clockwise w.r.t xaxis
(b) -50MPa ,on a plane 450 anticlockwise
w.r.t x-axis
(c)50 Mpa ,at all orientations
(d)Zero,at all orientations
Correct Answer: D
19
Question: 5598
If a small concrete cube is submerged deep
in still water in such a way that the
pressure exerted on all faces of the cube is
p,Then the maximum shear stress
developed inside the cube is (GATE-12)
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complex stresses
(a)0
(b)p/2
(c)p
(d)2p
Correct Answer: A
20
Question: 5597
A small element at the critical section of
component is in a bi-axial state of stress
with the two prinicipal stresses being
360MPa and 140MPa .The maximum shear
stress is (GATE-97)
(a)220 MPa
(b)110 MPa
(c)314 MPa
(d)330 MPa
Correct Answer: B
21
Question: 5596
The major and minor principal stresses at a
point are 3MPa and -3 Mpa respectively
.the maximum shear stress at the point is
(GATE-10)
(a) Zero
(b)3MPa
(c)6 Mpa
(d)9MPa
Correct Answer: B
22
Question: 5595
Consider the following statements
[GATE-09]
1.on a principal plane ,only normal stress
acts
2.On a principal plane ,both normal and
shear stress acts
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complex stresses
3.On a principal plane ,Only shear stress
acts.
4.Isotropic state of stress is independent of
frame of reference
Which of the above statements is/are
correct ?
(a) 1 and 4
(b)2 only
(c)2 and 4
(d)2 and 3
Correct Answer: A
23
Question: 5594
An axially loaded bar is subjected to a
normal stress of 173 MPA .The shear
stress in the bar is (GATE-07)
(a)75 MPa
(b)86.5 MPa
(c)100MPa
(d)122.3MPa
Correct Answer: B
24
Question: 5593
Mohr’s circle for the state of stress defined
by
(GATE-06)
MPA is a circle with
(a) centre at (0,0) and radius 30 MPA
(b) centre at (0,0) and radius 60 MPA
(c) centre at (30,0) and radius 30 MPA
(d) centre at (30,0) and zero radius
Correct Answer: D
25
Question: 5592
The components of strain tensor at a point
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complex stresses
in the plane strain case can be obtained by
measuring longitudinal strain in following
directions
(GATE-05)
(a) Along any two arbitrary directions
(b) Along any three arbitrary directions
(c)along two mutually orthogonal directions
(d) along any orbitary direction
Correct Answer: B
26
Question: 5591
The symmetry of stress tensor ata a point
in the body under equilibrium is obtained
from (GATE-05)
(a) Conservation of mass
(b) force equilibrium equations
(c ) Moment equilibrium equations
(d) Conservation of energy
Correct Answer: C
27
Question: 5576
Pick the incorrect statement from the
following four statements (GATE-00 )
(a) On the plane which carries maximum
normal stress,the shear stress is zero
(b) principal planes are mutually
orthogonal
(c) ) On the plane which carries maximum
shear stress,the normal stress is zero
(d)the principal stress axes and principal
strain axes coincide for an isotropic
material.
Correct Answer: C
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Centroid and Moment of Iner
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16235
Consider the hemi-spherical tank of radius
13 m as shown in the figure (not drawn to
scale). What is the volume of water (in m3 )
when the depth of water at the centre of
the tank is 6 m [GATE 2019 AN]
A.78 π
B.468 π
C.156 π
D.396 π
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 13855
two perpendicular axes x and y of a section
are called principal axes when [GATE -99]
A.Moments of inertia about the axes are
equal (Ix=Iy )
B.product moment of inertia (Ixy ) is zero
C.Product moemnts of inertia (Ix x Iy) is zero
D.Moment of inertia about one of the axes
is greater than the other
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 13625
Polar moment of inertia (Ip), in cm4, of a
rectangular section having width, b = 2 cm
and depth, d = 6 cm is
________________[GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 40-40
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Centroid and Moment of Iner
4
Question: 13357
polar moment of inertia (Ip) ,in cm4 ,of a
rectangular section having width ,b= 2 cm
and depth d=6 cm is ________ [GATE-14
AN]
Correct Answer: 40-40
5
Question: 5627
A disc of radius ‘r’ has a hole of radius ‘r/2’
cut-othr cut as shown .the centroid of the
remaining disc (shaded portion) at a radial
distance from the centre “O” is (GATE -10)
(a) r/2
(b)r/3
(c)r/6
(d)r/8
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 5626
. for the section shown below ,second
moment of the area about an axis d/4
distance above the bottom of the area is
____(GATE 06)
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Centroid and Moment of Iner
(a) bd3/48
(b) bd3/12
(c) 7bd3/48
(d)bd3/3
Correct Answer: C
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SFD AND BMD
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13392
A simply supported beam is subjected to a
uniformly distributed load.which one of the
following statements is true ?[GATE 2017
FN]
A.Maximum or minimum shear force occurs
where the curvature is zero
B.Maximum or minimum bending moment
occurs where the shear force is zero
C.Maximum or minimum bending moment
occurs where the curvature is zero
D.Maximum bending moment and
maximum shear force occur at the same
section
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 13391
The portal frame shown in the figure is
subjected to a uniformly distributed vertical
load w (per unit length). [GATE-16 AN]
The bending moment in the beam at the
joint ‘Q’ is
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SFD AND BMD
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13390
An assembly made of a rigid arm A-B-C
hinged at end A and supported by an
elastic rope C-D at end C is shown in the
figure. The members may be assumed to
be weightless and the lengths of the
respective members are as shown in the
figure.
Under the action of a concentrated load P
at C as shown, the magnitude of tension
developed in the rope is [GATE-16-2]
A.3P2
B.P2
C.3P8
D.2P
Correct Answer: D
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SFD AND BMD
4
Question: 13389
A rigid member ACB is shown in the figure.
The member is supported at A and B by
pinned and guided roller supports,
respectively. A force P acts at C as shown.
Let RAH and RBH be the horizontal reactions
at supports A and B, respectively, and RAv
be the vertical reaction at support A.
Selfweight of the member may be ignored.
[GATE 2016 FN]
Which one of the following sets gives the
correct magnitudes of RAV, RBH and RAH ?
Correct Answer: D
5
Question: 12869
A two span continuous beam having equal
spans each of length L is subjected to a
uniformly distributed load w per unit length
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SFD AND BMD
.The beam has constant flexural rigidity
[GATE-07]
The bending moment at the middle support
is
A.4wL2
B.8wL2
C.12wL2
D.16wL2
Correct Answer: B
6
Question: 12867
Consider the three prismatic beams with
the clamped supports P,Q and R as shown
in the figures
Given that the modulus of elasticity E is 2.5
x 104 Mpa and the moment of inertia I is 8
x 108 mm4.The correct comparison of the
magnitudes of the shear force S and the
bending moment M developed at the
supports is [GATE 2017 AN]
A.SP< SQ< SR ; MP=MQ=MR
B.SP=SQ> SR ; MP=MQ>MR
C.SP < SQ> SR ; MP=MQ=MR
D.SP< SQ< SR ; MP <MQ<MR
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 12864
A frame ABCD is supported by a roller at A
and is on a hinge at C as shown below
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SFD AND BMD
The reaction at the roller end A is given by
[GATE -00]
A.P
B.2P
C.P/2
D.zero
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 5623
The values of axial stress (σ)in
KN/m2,ending moment (M)in KNM , and
shear force (V ) in Kn acting at a point P for
the arrangement shown in figure are
respectively[GATE-14 AN]
(a)1000,75 and 25
(b)1250,150 and 50
(c)1500 ,225 and 75
(d)1750, 300and 100
Correct Answer: B
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SFD AND BMD
9
Question: 5621
For the simply supported beam of length
L,subjected to a uniformly distributed
moment (M) Kn-m per unit length as shown
in figure ,the bending moment (in KN-m)at
the mid span of the beam is
(GATE-10)
(a)ZERO
(b)M
(c)ML
(d)M/L
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 5620
Two people weighing W each are sitting on
a plank of length L floating on water at L/4
from either end .neglecting the weight of
the plank ,the bending moment at the
centre of plank is (GATE-10)
(a)WL/8
(b)Wl/16
(c)WL/32
(d)zero
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 5619
Match List –I (shear force diagrams )beams
with List –II (diagrams of beams with
supports and loading )and select the
correct answer by using the codes given
below the lists: [GATE-09]
LIST-I
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SFD AND BMD
A.
B.
c.
D.
LIST-II
1.
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SFD AND BMD
2.
3.
4.
Codes
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 5618
A Simply supported beam AB has the
bending moment diagram as shown in
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SFD AND BMD
figure.The beam is possibly under the
action of following loads
(GATE-06)
(a) couples of M at C and 2M at D
(b)couples of 2M at C and M at D
(c)Concentrated loads of M/L at C and 2M/L
at D
(d)Concentrated load of M/L at C and
couple of 2M at D
Correct Answer: A
13
Question: 5617
The bending moment diagram for a beam
is given below.
(GATE-05) [IES
2012]
The shear force at sections aa’ and bb’
respectively are of the magnitude
(a)100KN ,150 KN
(b)zero 100 KN
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SFD AND BMD
(c)zero ,50KN
(d)100KN,100 KN
Correct Answer: C
14
Question: 5614
LIST-I shows different loads acting on a
beams and LIST-II shows differrent
bending moment distributions.Match the
load with the corresponding bending
moment diagrams.
Codes.
(GATE-03)
A
B
C
D
(a)
4
2
1
3
(b)
5
4
1
3
(c)
2
5
3
1
(d)
2
4
1
3
Correct Answer: D
15
Question: 5613
for the loading given in the figure below
,Two statements(I and II) are made
(GATE-02)
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SFD AND BMD
I.Member AB carries shear force and
bending moment
II. member BC carries axial load and shear
force
Which of the following is TRUE?
(a)Statement I is true but II is false
(b) Statement I is FALSE but II is TRUE
(c)both Statements I and II are true
(d) both Statements I and II are false
Correct Answer: C
16
Question: 5612
A frame ABCD is supported by a roller at a
A and is on a hinge at C as shown in below
The reaction at the roller end A is given by
(GATE-00)
(a) P
(b)2P
(c)P/2
(d)zero
Correct Answer: D
17
Question: 5611
The following statements are related to
bending of beams
(GATE-12)
I.The slope of bending moment diagram is
equal to the shear force
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SFD AND BMD
II.The slope of shear force diagram is equal
to the load intensity
III. The slope of curvature is equal to the
flexural rotation
IV.the second derivative of the deflection is
equal to the curvature
The only FALSE statemnt is
(a) I
(b)II
(c) III
(d)IV
Correct Answer: C
18
Question: 5610
A curved member with a straight vertical
leg Is carrying a vertical load at Z ,as
shown in the figure .The stress resultants in
the XY segment are.Bending moment
,shear force and axial force (GATE-03)
(a)bending moment and axial force only
(b)bending moment and shear force only
(c) axial force only
(d)bending moment only
Correct Answer: C
19
Question: 5609
A cantilever beam curved in plan and
subjected to lateral loads will develop at
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SFD AND BMD
any section (GATE-94)
(a)bending moment and shearing force
(b)bending moment and twisting moment
(c) twisting moment and shearing force
(d) bending moment and twisting moment
and shearing force
Correct Answer: D
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bending stress
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13608
In a reinforced concrete section, the stress
at the extreme fibre in compression is 5.80
MPa. The depth of neutral axis in the
section is 58 mm and the grade of concrete
is M25. Assuming linear elastic behavior of
the concrete, the effective curvature of the
section (in per mm) is .[GATE-14 FN]
A.2 x 10-6
B.3.0 x 10-6
C.4.0 x 10-6
D.5.0 x 10-6
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 13355
the plane section remains plane
"assumption in bending theory implies
(GATE 2013)
(a) strain profile is linear
(b) stress profile is linear
(c) both strain and stress profiles are linear
(d) shear deformations are neglected
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 12183
A cantilever beam of length 2 m with a
square section of side length 0.1 m is
loaded vertically at the free end. The
vertical displacement at the free end is 5
mm. The beam is made of steel with
Young’s modulus of 2.0×
1011 N/mm2 .The maximum bending stress
at the fixed end of the cantilever is (GATE
2018FN)
(A) 20.0 MPa
(B) 37.5 MPa
(C) 60.0 MPa
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bending stress
(D) 75.0 MPa
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 12166
Two rectangular under-reinforced concrete
beam sections X and Y are similar in all
aspects except that the longitudinal
compression reinforcement in section Y is
10 % more. Which one of the following is
the correct statement? (GATE 2018FN)
1. Section X has less flexural strength
and is less ductile than section Y
2. Section X has less flexural strength
but is more ductile than section Y
3. Sections X and Y have equal
flexural strength but different
ductility
4. Sections X and Y have equal
flexural strength and ductility
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 7511
The maximum tensile stress at the section
x-x shown in the figure below is
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bending stress
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 5676
a simply supported reinforced concrete
beam of length 10mm sags while
undergoing shrinkage .Assuming a uniform
curvature of 0.004 m-1.along the span ,the
maximum deflection (in m) of the beam at
mid span is ____:[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 0.0005-0.0005
7
Question: 5634
The beam of an overall depth 250mm (
shown below) is used in a building
subjected to two different thermal
environments.The temperatures at the top
and bottoms surfaces of the beam are 360C
and 720C respectively .Considering
coefficient of thermal expansion (α) as 1.50
x 10-5 per oc ,The vertical deflection of the
beam (in mm) at its mid span due to
temperature gradient is______[GATE-14
AN]
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bending stress
(GATE 14-SET 2)
Correct Answer: 2.38-2.45
8
Question: 5633
A beam with the cross secion given below
is subjected to a positive bending moment
(causing compression at the top) of 16 KNm acting around the horizontal axis .The
tensile force acting on the hatched area of
the cross section is (GATE-06)
(a) zero
(b)5.9 KN
(c)8.9 KN
(d)17.8 KN
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 5632
The maximum bending stress induced in a
steel wire of modulus of elasticity
200KN/m2 and diameter 1mm when wound
on a drum of diameter 1m is appromately
equal to (GATE-92)
(a) 50 N/mm2
(b)100 N/mm2
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bending stress
(c)200 N/mm2
(d)400 N/mm2
Correct Answer: C
10
Question: 5629
consider a simply supported beam with a
uniformly distributed load having a neutral
axis (NA) as shown.For points P (on the
neutral axis) and Q (at the bottom of the
beam) the state of stress is best
represented by which of the following
pairs? [GATE-11]
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 5628
A homogeneous ,simply supported
prismatic beam of width B,depth D and
span L is subjected to a concentrated load
of magnitude P.The load can be placed
anywhere along the span of the beam .The
maximum flexural stress developed in
beam is
(GATE-04)
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bending stress
Correct Answer: D
12
Question: 5624
The first moment of area about the axis of
bending for a beam cross section
is [GATE-14 AN]
(a)Moment of inertia
(b) section modulus
(c) shape factor
(d) polar moment of inertia
Correct Answer: B
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shear stress
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16188
For a channel section subjected to a
downward vertical shear force at its
centroid, which one of the following
represents the correct distribution of shear
stress in flange and web?
[GATE
2019 AN]
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 16153
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shear stress
The cross-section of a built-up wooden
beam as shown in the figure (not drawn to
scale) is subjected to a vertical shear force
of 8kN. The beam is symmetrical about the
neutral axis (N.A.) shown, and the moment
of inertia about N.A. is 1.5 × 109 mm4.
Considering that the nails at the location P
are spaced longitudinally (along the length
of the beam) at 60 mm, each of the nails at
P will be subjected to the shear force of
[GATE 2019 FN]
(A) 240 N
(B) 480 N
(C) 120 N
(D) 60 N
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 5643
The shear stress at the neutral axis in a
beam of triangular section with a base of
40 mm and height 20mm,subjected to a
shear force of 3KN is (GATE-07)
(a) 3MPa
(b) 6 MPa
(c) 10 MPa
(d) 20 MPa
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shear stress
Correct Answer: C
4
Question: 5642
T-section of a beam is formed by gluing
wooden planks as shown in the figure
below.if this beam transmits a constant
vertical shear force of 3000 N ,The glue at
any of the four joints will be subjected to a
shear force (in KN per meter length)
of(GATE-06)
(a)3.0
(b)4.0
(c)8.0
(d)10.7
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 5641
If a beam of rectangular cross section is
subjected to a vertical shear force V ,the
shear force carried by the upper one third
of the cross section is (GATE-06)
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shear stress
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 5640
The possible location of shear centre of the
channel section ,shown below is (GATE-14
FN)
(a)P
(b)Q
(c)R
(d)S
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 5639
A symmetric I-section (with width of each
flange =50mm ,thickness of each
flange=10mm,depth of web=100mm, and
thickness of web=10mm)of steel is
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shear stress
subjected to a shear force of 100KN .Find
the magnitude of the shear stress (in
N/mm2) in the web at its junction with the
top flange ____[GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 71-71
8
Question: 5636
For a given shear force across a
symmetrical “I” section the intensity of
shear stress is maximum at the
(GATE-91)
(a)Extreme fibres
(b) centroid of the section
(c)at the junction of the flange and the web
,but on the web
(d)At the junction of the flange and the
web,but on the flange
Correct Answer: B
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torsional stress
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13467
A hollow circular shaft has an outer
diameter of 100 mm and inner diameter of
50 mm. If the allowable shear stress is 125
MPa, the maximum torque (in kN-m) that
the shaft can resist is_______ [GATE 2017
AN]
Correct Answer: 23.009-23.009
2
Question: 12165
A solid circular beam with radius of 0.25 m
and length of 2 m is subjected to a twisting
moment of 20 kNm about the z-axis at the
free end, which is the only load acting as
shown in the figure. The shear stress
component τxy at point'M' in the cross
-section of the beam at a distance of 1m
from the fixed end is
A.0.0 MPa
B.0.51 MPa
C.0.815 MPa
D.2.0 MPa
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 5652
for the cantilever bracket PQRS loaded as
shown in the adjoining figure (PQ=RS=L
and QR=2L ),Which of the following
statements is FALSE? [GATE-11]
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torsional stress
(a)the portion RS has a constant twisting
moment with a value of 2WL
(b) the portion QR has a varying twisting
moment with a maximum value of WL
(c) the portion PQ has a constant bending
moment with a maximum value of 2WL
(d)the portion PQ has no twisting moment
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 5651
A solid circular shaft of diameter d and
length L is fixed at one end and free at
other end .A torque T is apllied at the free
end.The shear modulus of the material is
G.The angle of twist at the free end
is(GATE-10)
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torsional stress
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 5650
a hollow circular shaft has an outer
diameter of 100 mm and a wall thickness
of 25 mm.the allowable shear stress in the
shaft is 125 Mpa .The maximum totque the
shaft can transmit is [GATE-09]
(a)46 KN-m
(b) 24.5 KN-m
(c) 23 KN-m
(d) 11.5 KN-m
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 5649
The maximum shear stress in a solid shaft
of circular cross section having diameter
and subjected to a torque T is τ.if the
torque is increased by four times and the
diameter of the shaft is increased by two
times ,the maximum shear stress in the
shaft will be(GATE-08)
(a)2 τ
(b) τ
(c) τ/2
(d) τ/4
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 5648
The maximum and minimum shear
stresses is a hollow circular shaft of outer
diameter 20 mm and thickness 2mm
,subjected to a torque of 92.7 N-m will
be(GATE-07)
(a) 59 MPa and 47.2 MPa
(b)100MPa and 80MPa
(c) 118 Mpa and 160 MPa
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torsional stress
(d) 200 MPa and 160 MPa
Correct Answer: B
8
Question: 5647
A circular shaft shown in the figure is
subjected to torsion T at two points A and
B.the torsional rigidity of portions CA and
BD isv GJ1 and that portion AB is GJ2.the
rotations of shaft at points A and B are θ1
and θ2. The rotation θ1 is (GATE-05)
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 5646
A circular solid shaft of span L=5m is fixed
at one end and free at other end.A twisting
moment T=100 KN-m is applied at the free
end .The torsional rigidity GJ per unit
angular twist is 50000 KN-m2/rad .Following
statements are made for this
shaft. (GATE-04)
I.The maximum rotation is 0.01 radians
II.The torsional strain energy is 1 KN-m
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torsional stress
With reference to the above
statements,which of the following applies?
(a)both statements are true
(b) statement 1 is true but 2 is false
(c) statement 2 is true but 1 false
(d) both statements are false
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 5645
A long shaft of diameter d is subjected to
twisting moment T at its ends .The
maximum normal stress Acting at its cross
section is equal to(GATE-06)
Correct Answer: A
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slope and deflection of beam
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16225
A plane frame shown in the figure (not to
scale) has linear elastic springs at node H.
The spring constants are kx = ky = 5 × 105
kN/m3 and Kθ = 3 × 105 kNm/rad. (GATE
2019 AN)
For the externally applied moment of 30
kNm at node F, the rotation (in degrees,
round off to 3 decimals) observed in the
rotational spring at node H is
________.[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 0.006-0.006
2
Question: 13868
the slope of the elastic curve at the free
end of a cantilever beam of span L,and
with flexural rigidity EI,subjected to
uniformly distributed load of intensity w is
[GATE-99]
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slope and deflection of beam
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13248
Two beams PQ (fixed at P and with a roller
support at Q, as shown in Figure I, which
allows vertical movement) and XZ (with a
hinge at Y) are shown in the Figures I and II
respectively. The spans of PQ and XZ are L
and 2L respectively. Both the beams are
under the action of uniformly distributed
load (W) and have the same flexural
stiffness, EI (where, E and I respectively
denote modulus of elasticity and moment
of inertia about axis of bending). Let the
maximum deflection and maximum
rotation be δmax1 and θmax1,
respectively, in the case of beam PQ
and the corresponding quantities for the
beam XZ be δmax2 and θmax2,
respectively.[GATE 2016 FN]
Which one of the following relationships is
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slope and deflection of beam
true?
(A) δmax1 ≠ δmax2 and θmax1 ≠
θmax2
(B) δmax1 = δmax2 and θmax1 ≠ θmax2
(C) δmax1 ≠ δmax2 and θmax1 = θmax2
(D) δmax1 = δmax2 and θmax1 = θmax2
Correct Answer: D
4
Question: 13247
A 3 m long simply supported beam of
uniform cross section is subjected to a
uniformly distributed load of w = 20 kN/m
in the central 1 m as shown in the figure
[GATE 2016 FN]
in radians) of the deformed beam is
(A) 0.681 × 10-7
(B) 0.943 × 10-7
(C) 4.310 × 10-7
(D) 5.91× 10-7
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 12186
The figure shows a simply supported beam
PQ of uniform flexural rigidity EI carrying
two moments M and 2M. (GATE 2018FN)
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slope and deflection of beam
The slope at P will be
(A) 0
(B) ML/(9EI)
(C) ML/(6EI)
(D) ML/(3EI)
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 12152
for the following frame shown in the figure
,the maximum bending moment in the
column is [GATE-97]
A.zero
B.400kNm
C.100 kNm
D.200kNm
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 12151
Vertical reaction developed at B in the
frame below due to the applied load of
100KN (with 150,000mm2 cross sectional
area and 3.125 x 109 mm4 moment of
inertia for both members )is
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slope and deflection of beam
A. 5.9 KN
B. 302 kN
C. 66.3 kN
D. 94.1kN
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 5675
for the cantilever beam of span 3m (shown
below ).concentrated load of 20 KN applied
at the free end causes a vertical
displacement of 2 mm at a section located
at a distance 1m from the fixed end.if a
concentrated vertically downward load of
10 Kn is apllied at the section located at a
distance of 1m from the fixed end(with no
other load on the beam ),the maximum
vertical displacement in the same beam (in
mm)is ___ [GATE-14 FN]
Correct Answer: 1-1
9
Question: 5674
A simply supported beam is subjected to a
uniformaly distributed load of intensity w
per unit length .On a half of the span from
one end .the length of the span and the
flexural stiffness are denoted as /and EI
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slope and deflection of beam
respectively .The deflection at mid span of
the beam is :(GATE-14-SET1)
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 5673
In the cantilever beam PQR shown in
figure below ,the segment PQ has flexural
EI and the segment QR has infinite flexural
rigidity [GATE-09]
The deflection of the beam at ‘R’ is:
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slope and deflection of beam
Correct Answer: C
11
Question: 5672
In the cantilever beam PQR shown in figure
below, the segment PQ has flexural rigidity
EI and the segment QR has infinite flexural
rigidity [GATE-09]
The deflection and slope of the beam at ‘Q’
are respectively
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slope and deflection of beam
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 5671
Beam GHI is supported by these pontoons
as shown in figure below.the horizontal
cross sectional area of each pontoon is 8
m2 ,the flexural rigidity of the beam is
10000 KN-m2 and the unit weight of water
is 10 KN/m3:(GATE-08)
when the middle pontoons is brought back
to its position as shown in figure above ,the
reaction at H will be
(a) 8.6 KN
(b) 15.7 KN
(c) 19.2 KN
(d) 24.2 KN
Correct Answer: C
13
Question: 5670
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slope and deflection of beam
Beam GHI is supported by these pontoons
as shown in figure below.the horizontal
cross sectional area of each pontoon is 8
m2 ,the flexural rigidity of the beam is
10000 KN-m2 and the unit weight of water
is 10 KN/m3:(GATE-08)
when the middle pontoon is removed ,the
deflection at H will be
(a) 0.2m
(b) 0.4 m
(c) 0.6 m
(d) 0.8 m
Correct Answer: B
14
Question: 5669
the stepped cantilever is subjected to
moments ,M as shown in the figure
below.The vertical deflection at the free
end (neglecting the selfweight ) is
:(GATE-08)
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slope and deflection of beam
Correct Answer: C
15
Question: 5666
Consider the beam AB shown in the figure
below.Part AC of the beam is rigid while
Part CB has the flexural rigidity EI.identify
the correct combination of deflection at
end B and bending moment at end A
,respectively:(GATE-06)
Correct Answer: A
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slope and deflection of beam
16
Question: 5665
A ‘H’ shaped frame of uniform flexural
rigidity EI is loaded as shown in figure.The
relative outward displacement between
points K and O is :(GATE-03)
Correct Answer: A
17
Question: 5663
The bending moment (In Kn-m units ) at
the mid span location X in the beam with
overhang shown below is equal:(GATE-01)
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slope and deflection of beam
(a)0
(b) -10
(c) -15
(d) -2
Correct Answer: C
18
Question: 5662
for the structure shown in below,The
vertical deflection at point A is given by
:(GATE-00)
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slope and deflection of beam
Correct Answer: C
19
Question: 5661
two span beam with an internal hinge is
shown in figure :(GATE-00)
Conjugate beam corresponding to this
beam is
b)
c)
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slope and deflection of beam
d)
Correct Answer: D
20
Question: 5660
A cantilever beam is shown in the figure
.The moment to be applied at free end for
zero vertical deflection at that point is
:(GATE-98)
(a) 9KN-m clockwise
(b) 9KN-m anti clockwise
(c) 12 KN-m clockwise
(d) 12 KN-m anti clockwise
Correct Answer: D
21
Question: 5659
A cantilever beam of span L is loaded with
a concentrated load P at the free end
.Deflection of the beam at the free end is
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slope and deflection of beam
:(GATE-97)
Correct Answer: C
22
Question: 5656
A simply supported beam of span length L
and flexural stiffness EI has another spring
support at the centre span of stiffness K as
shown in figure .The central deflection of
the beam due to a central concentrated
load of P would be :(GATE-93)
(a) (PL3/48EI)+(P/K)
(b)P/((48EI/L3)-K)
(c) (PL3/48EI)-(P/K)
(d)P/((48EI/L3)+K)
Correct Answer: D
23
Question: 5655
A cantilever beam of span L is subjected to
a downward load of 800 KN uniformly
distributed over its length and a
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slope and deflection of beam
concentrated upward load P at its free
end.For a vertical displacement to be zero
at free end,The value of P is :(GATE-92)
(a) 300KN
(b)500KN
(c)800 KN
(d) 1000KN
Correct Answer: A
24
Question: 5654
two elastic rods AB and DC are hinged at B
,The joint A is a hinged one ,Joint C is over
a roller and the joint B is supported on a
spring having its stiffness as K. :(GATE-90)
A load P acts at mid point of the rod BC
.the downward deflection of joint B is ;
(a)P/K
(b)2P/K
(c) P/2K
(d) 0
Correct Answer: C
25
Question: 5653
In a real beam,at an end ,the boundary
condition of zero slope and zero vertical
displacement exists.In the corresponding
conjugate beam ,the boundary conditions
at this end will be :(GATE-92)
(a)shear forces =0 and bending moment
=0
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slope and deflection of beam
(b) slope =0 and vertical displacement =0
(c) slope=0 and bending moment =0
(d) shear force =o and vertical
displacement =o
Correct Answer: A
26
Question: 5630
A simply supported beam of uniform
rectangular cross section of width b and
depth h is subjected to linear temperature
gradient ,0o at the top and To at the bottom
,as shown in figure .the coefficient of linear
expansion of the beam material is α.The
resulting vertical deflection at the mid span
of the beam is (GATE-03)
Correct Answer: D
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compression members
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13438
Consider two axially loaded columns,
namely, 1 and 2, made of a linear elastic
material with Young’s modulus 2x105 MPa,
square cross-section with side 10 mm, and
length 1 m. For Column 1, one end is fixed
and the other end is free. For Column 2,
one end is fixed and the other end is
pinned. Based on the Euler’s theory, the
ratio (up to one decimal place) of the
buckling load of Column 2 to the buckling
load of Column 1 is ____
[GATE 2017 FN]
Correct Answer: 8-8
2
Question: 13145
if the following equation establishes
equilibrium in slightly bent position the midspan deflection of a member shown in the
figure is [GATE-14 AN]
[GATE-14 FN]
Is α is amplitude constant for y,then
Correct Answer: C
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compression members
3
Question: 12161
A column of height h with a rectangular
cross-section of size a×2a has a buckling
load of P If the cross-section is changed to
0.5a × 3a and its height changed to 1.5h,
the buckling load of the redesigned column
will be (GATE 2018-1)
(A) P/12
(B) P/4
(C) P/2
(D) 3P/4
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 5695
The sketch shows a column with a pin at
the base and rollers at the top . It is
subjected to an axial force P and a moment
M at mid – height. The reactions (s) at R
is/are [GATE-12]
A. A vertical force equal to P
B. A vertical force equal to P/2
C. A vertical force equal to P and a
horizontal force equal to M/h
D. A vertical force equal to P/2 and a
horizontal force equal to M/h
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compression members
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 5694
Cross – section of a column consisting of
two steel strips, each of thickness t and
width b is shown in the figure below. The
critical loads of the column with perfect
bond and without bond between the strips
are P and Po respectively. The ratio P/Po is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 5693
A rigid bar GH of length L is supported by a
hinge and a spring of stiffness K as shown
in the figure below. The buckling load, pcr
for the bar will be
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compression members
A. 0.5
B. 0.8
C. 1.0
D. 1.2
kL
kL
kL
kL
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 5691
The buckling load P = Pcr for the column AB
in figure as KT approaches infinity,
becomes
[GATE-06]
Where α is equal to
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compression members
A. 0.25
B. 1.00
C. 2.05
D. 4.00
Correct Answer: C
8
Question: 5689
A rigid rod Ab of length L is hinged at A and
is maintained in its vertical position by two
springs with spring constants K attached at
end B. The system is under stable
equilibrium under the action of load P when
P < Pcr. The system will be in unstable
equilibrium when P attains a value greater
than
[GATE-90]
1. kL
2. k/L
3. 2kL
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compression members
4. 4kL
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 5688
Two steel columns P ( Length L and yield
strength fy = 250 Mpa) and Q (length 2L
and yield strength fy = 500 Mpa) have the
same cross- sections and end conditions.
The ratio of buckling load of column P to
that of column Q is [GATE 2013]
A. 0.5
B. 1.0
C. 2.0
D. 4.0
Correct Answer: D
10
Question: 5687
The ratio of the theoretical critical buckling
load for a column with fixed ends to that of
another column with the same dimensions
and material, but with pinned ends, is
equal (GATE- 12)
1. 0.5
2. 1.0
3. 2.0
4. 4.0
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 5686
The effective length of a column of length L
fixed against rotation and translation at
one end is (GATE – 10)
A. 0.5L
B. 0.7 L
C. 1.414L
D. 2L
Correct Answer: D
12
Question: 5685
A long structural column (length = L) with
both ends hinged is acted upon by an axial
compressive load P. The differential
equation governing the bending of column
is given by: [GATE-03]
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compression members
Where y is the structural lateral deflection
and EI is the flexural rigidity . The first
critical load on column responsible for its
buckling is given by
Correct Answer: A
13
Question: 5684
Four column of the same material having
identical geometric properties are
supported in different ways as shown
below (GATE-00)
It is required to order these four beams in
the increasing order of their respective first
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compression members
buckling loads. The correct order is given
by
A. I,II,III,IV
B. III,IV,II,I
C. II,I,IV,III
D. I,II,IV,III
Correct Answer: D
14
Question: 5683
When a column is fixed at both ends
corresponding to euler’s criterion load
is(GATE-94)
Correct Answer: D
15
Question: 5682
The axial load carrying capacity of a long
column of given material. Cross – sectional
area, A and length, L is governed by
[GATE-92]
1. Strength of its material only
2. Its flexural rigidity only
3. Its slenderness ratio only
4. Both flexural rigidity and
slenderness ratio
Correct Answer: D
16
Question: 5681
The kern area (core) of a solid circular
section column of diameter, D is a
Concentric circle of diameter, ‘d’ is equal to
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compression members
[GATE 92]
a)D/8
b)D/6
C)D/4
d)D/2
Correct Answer: A
17
Question: 5074
A steel column pinned at both ends has a
buckling load of 200 kN. If the column is
restrained against lateral movement at its
mid – height, its buckling load will
be [GATE-07] [GATE-12]
a) 200 kN
b) 283 kN
c) 400 kN
d) 800 kN
Correct Answer: D
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strain energy and theories of fa
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13471
A 2 m long, axially loaded mild steel rod of
8 mm diameter exhibits the loaddisplacement (p−δ) behavior as shown in
the figure.
Assume the yield stress of steel as 250
Mpa. The complementary energy (in Nmm) stored in the bar up to its linear
elastic behavior will be_______ [GATE 2017
AN]
Correct Answer: 16000-16000
2
Question: 13430
Consider the stepped bar made with a
linear elastic material and subjected to an
axial load of 1 kN, as shown in the figure
Segments 1 and 2 have cross-sectional
area area are 100 mm2 and 60
mm2,Young's modulus of 2x105 MPa and 3
x105 MPa length of 400 mm and 900 mm,
respectively. The strain energy (in N-mm,
up to one decimal place) in the bar due to
the axial load is_____ [GATE 2017 FN]
Correct Answer: 35-35
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strain energy and theories of fa
3
Question: 5711
A vertical rod PQ of length L is fixed at its
top end P and has a flange fixed to the
bottom End Q.A weight W is dropped
vertically from a height h(<L) on to the
flange .The axial stress in the rod can be
reduced by(GATE-08)
(a) increasing the length of the rod
(b)decreasing the length of the rod
(c) decreasing the area of cross section of
the rod
(d) increasing the modulus of elasticity of
the material
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 5710
A mild steel specimen is under uniaxial
tensile stress.Young’s modulus and yield
stress for mild steel are 2 x 105 Mpa and
250 Mpa respectively.The maximum
amount of strain energy per unit volume
that can be stored in this specimen without
permanent set is (GATE-08)
(a) 156 N-mm/mm3
(b) 15.6 N-mm/mm3
(c) 1.56 N-mm/mm3
(d) 0.156 N-mm/mm3
Correct Answer: D
5
Question: 5709
U1 and U2 are the strain energies stored in
a prismatic bar due to axial tensile forces
P1 and P2 respectively .The strain energy U
stored in the same bar due to combined
action of P1 and P2 will be
(GATE-04) [GATE-07]
(a) U1=U1+U2
(b) U1=U1U2
(c) U1<U1+U2
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strain energy and theories of fa
(d) U1>U1+U2
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 5708
A stepped steel shaft shown below is
subjected to torque to 10 N-mtorque .If the
modulus of rigidity is 80 Gpa,the strain
energy in the shaft in N-mm is (GATE-03)
(a)4.12
(b) 3.46
(c)1.73
(d)0.86
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 5707
For linear elastic systems,The type of
displacement function for the strain energy
is (GATE-04)
(a)Linear
(b)Quadratic
(c)Cubic
(d)Quartic
Correct Answer: B
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springs
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16141
A simple mass-spring oscillatory system
consists of a mass m, suspended from a
spring of stiffness k. considering z as the
displacement of the system at any time t,
the equation of motion for the free
vibration of the system is
+ kz=0.The
natural frequency of the system is [GATE
2019 FN]
Correct Answer: C
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thin cylinders
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16204
A closed thin walled tube has thickness, t,
mean enclosed area within the boundary of
the centrline of tube?s thickness, Am, and
shear stress τ . Torsional moment of
resistance, T of the section would be
[GATE 2019 AN]
A.0.5 τAmt
B.τAmt
C.4 τAmt
D.2 τAmt
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 5680
A thin – walled long cylindrical tank of
inside radius ‘r’ is subjected simultaneously
to internal gas pressure P and axial
compressive force F at its ends. IN order to
produce ‘Pure shear’ state of stress in the
wall of the cylinder,F should be equal
to [GATE-06]
Correct Answer: C
3
Question: 5679
A thin walled cylindrical pressure vessel
having a radius of 0.5 m and wall thickness
of 25 mm is subjected to an internal
pressure of 700 kPa. The hoop stress
developed is [GATE-09]
a) 14 Mpa
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thin cylinders
b) 1.4 Mpa
c) 0.14 Mpa
d) 0.014 Mpa
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 5678
A thin cylindrical vessel of mean diameter
D and of length ‘L’ closed at both the ends
is subjected to a water pressure ‘P’ . The
value of hoop stress and longitudinal stress
in the shell shall be respectively. [GATE-91]
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 5677
A cylindrical tank of radius ‘r’ and wall
thickness ‘t’ has flat end closures. The
tank is subjected to an internal pressure P.
The longitudinal (σ x) and the
circumferential (σ θ ) stresses respectively
are given by: [GATE-90]
a) Pr/t :0
b) Pr/2t : Pr/t
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thin cylinders
c) Pr/4t : Pr/3t
d) Pr/6t : Pr/t
Correct Answer: A
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indeterminate beam
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13559
For the beam shown below, the value of
the support moment M is ____ kNm. [GATE-07] [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 5-5
2
Question: 12859
The fixed end moment of uniform beam of
span ‘l’ and fixed at the ends,subjected to
a central point load P is [GATE-94]
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 12857
The magnitude of the bending moment at
the fixed support of the beam is equal to
[GATE -95]
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 12265
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indeterminate beam
A horizontal beam ABC is loaded as shown
in thee figure below. The distance of the
point of contraflexure from end A is
[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 0.24-0.26
5
Question: 12221
A vertical load of 10 kN acts on a hinge
located at a distance of L/4 from the roller
support Q of a beam of length L (see
figure). (GATE 2018 AN)
The vertical reaction at support Q is
(A) 0.0 kN
(B)2.5 kN
(C)7.5 kN
(D) 10.0 kN
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 7229
A propped cantilever of uniform flexural
rigidity is loaded as shown in the given
figure. The bending moment at fixed end A
is (GATE-00)
a) 150kNm sagging
b. 3000 kNmsagging
c. 600 kNm hogging
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indeterminate beam
d. 300 kNm hogging
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 5706
in a system of two connected rigid bars AC
and BC are of identical length L with pin
supports at A and B.The bars are
interconnecetd by C by a frictionless
hinge.The rotation of the hinge is
restrained by a rotaional spring of stiffness
K.The system initially assumes a straight
line configuration ,ACB.Assuming both bars
as weightless, the rotation at supports, due
to A and B due to transverse load P
applied at C is
[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 5705
A steel strip of length L=200mm is fixed at
end A and rests at B on a vertical spring of
stiffness ,K=2N/mm.the steel strip is 5mm
wide and 10 mm thick .A vertical load
P=50N is applied at B,as shown in figure
.Considering E=200Gpa,the force (in N)
developed in the spring is ______[GATE-15]
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indeterminate beam
Correct Answer: 3-3
9
Question: 5704
Two beams are connected by a linear
spring as shown in figure .For a load P as
shown in figure ,The percentage of applied
load P carried by the spring is
____ [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 25-25
10
Question: 5703
The axial load (in KN ) In the member PQ
for the arrangement /assembly shown in
figure given below is _____[GATE-14 AN]
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indeterminate beam
Correct Answer: 50-50
11
Question: 5702
Consider a Propped cantilever ABC under
two loads of magnitude p each as shown in
figure below .Flexural Rigidity of the beam
is EI.(GATE-06)
The rotation at B is
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indeterminate beam
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 5701
Consider a Propped cantilever ABC under
two loads of magnitude p each as shown in
figure below .Flexural Rigidity of the beam
is EI.(GATE-06)
The reaction at C is
Correct Answer: C
13
Question: 5700
For the linear elastic beam shown in the
figure,the flexural rigidity ,EI is 781250 KNm2 .When w= 10KN/m ,The vertical
reaction RA at A is 50 KN .The value of RA
for w=100 KN/m is [GATE-04]
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indeterminate beam
(a) 500KN (b) 425 KN
(c)250 KN (d)75 KN.
Correct Answer: B
14
Question: 5698
The fixed end moment of a uniform beam
of span l and fixed at the ends ,Subjected
to a central point load P is
(GATE-94)
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 5697
01.The moment at the end ‘A’ and ‘B’ of a
beam ‘AB’ where end (a) is fixed (b) is
hinged ,When the end (b) sinks by an
amount Δ are given as
(GATE-91)
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indeterminate beam
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 5668
A two span continuous span having equal
spans each of length L is subjected to a
uniformly distributed load w per unit length
.The beam has constant flexural rigidity
[GATE-07]
The Bending moment at the middle support
is :
Correct Answer: B
17
Question: 5667
A two span continuous span having equal
spans each of length L is subjected to a
uniformly distributed load w per unit length
.The beam has constant flexural rigidity
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indeterminate beam
The reaction at middle support is
:(GATE-07)
(a) wL
(b) 5wL/2
(c) 5wL/4
(d)5wL/8
Correct Answer: C
18
Question: 5664
In the propped cantilever beam carrying a
uniformly distributed load of w-KN/m
,shown in the following figure ,the reaction
at the support B is :(GATE-02)
Correct Answer: B
19
Question: 5657
A cantilever beam of span l subjected to a
uniformly distributed load ‘w’ per unit
length resting on a rigid prop at the tip of
cantilever.The magnitude of the reaction of
at the prop is :(GATE-94)
a)wl/8
(c) 3wl/8
(b)2wl/8
(d) 4wl/8
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indeterminate beam
Correct Answer: C
20
Question: 5616
A three span continuous span has an
internal hinge at B.Section B is at the mid
span of AC.Section E is at the mid span of
CG.The 20KN load is applied at section B
where as 10KN loads are applied at
sections D and F as shown in figure .Span
GH is subjected to uniformly distributed
load of magnitude 5Kn/m.For the loading
shown ,Shear force immediate to the right
of section E is 9.84KN upwards and the
sagging moment at section E is 10.31 KNm
(GATE-04)
The vertical reaction at support H is
(a) 15 KN upward
(b)9.84 KN upward
(c) 15 KN downward
(d)9.84 KN downward
Correct Answer: B
21
Question: 5615
A three span continuous span has an
internal hinge at B.Section B is at the mid
span of AC.Section E is at the mid span of
CG.The 20KN load is applied at section B
where as 10KN loads are applied at
sections D and F as shown in figure .Span
GH is subjected to uniformly distributed
load of magnitude 5Kn/m.For the loading
shown ,Shear force immediate to the right
of section E is 9.84KN upwards and the
sagging moment at section E is 10.31 KNm
(GATE-04)
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indeterminate beam
The magnitude of the shear force
immediate to the left and magnitude to the
right of section B are ,Respectively
(a) 0 and 20 KN
(b) 10 KN and 10 KN
(c) 20 KN and 0KN
(d)9.84 KN and 10.19 KN
Correct Answer: A
22
Question: 2649
A propped cantilever beam of span ‘L’ and
constant plastic moment capacity Mp
carries a concentrated load at mid span,
then the load at collapse will be [GATE
2016 FN] [GATE-04][IES 2001]
a. 8 Mp/L
b. 6 Mp/L
c. 4 Mp/L
d. 2 Mp/L
Correct Answer: B
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Engineering Mechanics
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13873
the number of revolutions of a current
meter in 50 seconds were found to be 12
and 30 corresponding to the velocities of
0.25 and 0.46 m/s respectively.What
velocity (in m/s) would be indicated by 50
revolutions of that current meter in one
minute?[GATE-99]
A.0.42
B.0.50
C.0.60
D.0.73
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 13845
The dimensions for the flexural rigidity of a
beam element in mass (M) length (L) and
time (T) is given by
[ GATE-00]
(A)MT-2
(B)ML3T-2
(C)ML-1T-2
(D)ML-1T2
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 13605
A particle moves along a curve whose
parametric equation are x=
t3+2t,y=-3e-2t and z=2sin(5t) ,where x,y
and z show variation of the distance
covered by the particles in (cm) with time
(t) (in second) .the magnitude of the
acceleration of the particle (in cm/s2) at
t=0 is ____
[GATE-14 FN]
Correct Answer: 12-12
4
Question: 13431
A particle of mass 2 kg is travelling at a
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Engineering Mechanics
velocity of 1.5 m/s. A force f(t)=3t2(in N) is
applied to it in the direction of motion for a
duration of 2 seconds, where t denotes
time in seconds. The velocity (in m/s, up to
one decimal place) of the particle
immediately after the removal of the force
is________ [GATE 2017 FN]
Correct Answer: 5.5-5.5
5
Question: 12239
Two rigid bodies of mass 5 kg and 4 kg are
at rest on a frictionless surface until acted
upon by a force of 36 N as shown in the
figure. The contact force generated
between the two bodies is
(GATE
2018 AN)
A.4.0N
B.7.2N
C.9.0N
D.16.0N
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 12184
A cylinder of radius 250 mm and weight, W
= 10 kN is rolled up an obstacle of height
50 mm by applying a horizontal force P at
its centre as shown in the (GATE 2018FN)
All interfaces are assumed frictionless. The
minimum value of P is (GATE 2018-1)
A) 5 kN
(B) 5.0 kN
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Engineering Mechanics
(C) 6.0 kN
(D) 7.5 kN
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 5589
A box of weight 100 KN shown in the figure
is to be lifted without swinging .If all forces
are coplanar ,The magnitude and direction
(θ) of the force (F)with respect to x-axis
should be[GATE-14 FN]
(a) F=25.389 KN and θ=28.28o
(b) F=-56.389 KN and θ=-28.28o
(c) F=9.055 KN and θ=1.414o
(d) F=-9.055 KN and θ=-1.414o
Correct Answer: A
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unsymmetrical Bending
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16138
For a given loading on a rectangular plain
concrete beam with an overall depth of 500
mm, the compressive strain and tensile
developed at the extreme fibers are of the
same magnitude of 2.5 × 10-4 . The
curvature in the beam cross-section (in m-1,
round off to 3 decimal places), is
_________[GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 0.001-0.001
2
Question: 13856
in section,shear centre is a point through
which ,if the resultant load passes,the
section will not be subjected to any [GATE
-99]
A.bending
B.tension
C.compression
D.torsion
Correct Answer: D
3
Question: 5644
the point with in the cross sectional plane
of a beam through which the resultant of
the external load on the beam has to pass
through to ensure pure bending without
twisting of the cross section of the beam is
called [GATE-09]
(a) Moment centre
(b)centroid
(c)shearcentre
(d)Elastic center
Correct Answer: C
4
Question: 5638
In a section ,shear centre is a point through
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unsymmetrical Bending
which ,if the resultant load passes ,the
section will not be subjected to any
(GATE-99)
(a)bending
(b)tension
(c)compression
(d)torsion
Correct Answer: D
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FLUID MECHANICS
 PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS
……………………………105-108
 FLUID STATICS
…………………………….109-120
 FLUID KINEMATICS
…………………………….121-130
 FLUID DYNAMICS
……………………………. 131-150
 LAMINAR FLOW
……………………………. 151-156
 TURBULANT FLOW
……………………………. 157-162
 BOUNDARY LAYER
……………………………. 163-166
 FLOW THROUGH PIPES
……………………………. 167-177
 OPEN CHANNELS UNIFORM FLOW…………………………….178-196
 OPEN CHANNELS NON UNIFORM FLOW …………………..197-214
 COMPRESSIBLE FLOW
 DIMENSIONAL ANALYSIS
 HYDRAULIC MACHINES
Visit Our Website
…………………………..215-218
………………………………..219-226
………………………………227-232
www.vgacademy.net
1.properties of fluids
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13529
Group I contains the types of fluids while
Group II contains the shear stress - rate of
shear relationship of different types of
fluids, as shown in the figure.
The correct match between Group I and
Group II is
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-5
(B) P-2, Q-5, R-4, S-1
(C) P-2, Q-4, R-5, S-3
(D) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 5730
A liquid of density ρ and dynamic viscosity
µ flows steadily down an inclined plane in a
thin sheet of constant thickness
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1.properties of fluids
t.Neglecting air friction the shear stress on
the bottom surface due to the liquid flow is
(where θ is the angle ,the plane makes with
horizontal (GATE-96)
(a) ρgt sinθ
(b) ρgt cosθ
(c)µ
(d) ρ g
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 5729
Shear stress in the Newtonian fluid is
proportional to (GATE-96)
(a) pressure
(b)strain
(c)strain rate
(d) the inverse of the viscosity
Correct Answer: C
4
Question: 5728
the dimension for kinematic viscosity is
[GATE-14 AN]
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1.properties of fluids
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 5726
A unit of dynamic viscosity of a fluid is
(GATE-97)
(a) m2/s
(b) N-s/m2
(c)pa-sm2
(d)kg-s2m2
Correct Answer: B
6
Question: 5725
with increase of temperature ,Viscocity of a
fluid (GATE-97)
(a) does not change
(b)Always increases
(c)Always decreases
(d)increases,if the fluid is a gas and
decreases ,if it is a liquid
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 5723
A fluid is one which can be defined as a
substance that (GATE-96)
(a) has same shear stress at all points
(b)can deform indefinitely under the action
of the smallest shear force
(c)has the small shear stress in all
directions
(d)is practically incompressible
Correct Answer: B
8
Question: 5722
Continuum approach in fluid mechanics is
vaild when (GATE-92)
(a) The compressibility is very high
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1.properties of fluids
(b)The viscosity is low
(c)The mean free path of the molecule is
much smaller compared to the
characterstic dimension
(d) M>>1 ,where M is the Mach number
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 5721
Surface tension is due to
(GATE-89)
(a) cohesion and adhesion
(b)cohesion only
(c)Adhesion only
(d)None of the above
Correct Answer: A
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fluid statics
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13197
A three-fluid system (immiscible) is
connected to a vacuum pump. The specific
gravity values of the fluids (S1,S2) are given
in the figure. [GATE 2018 AN]
The gauge pressure value (in kN/m2, up to
two decimal places) of ρ1 is ______
Correct Answer: 9.0-8.0
2
Question: 13196
A triangular gate with a base width of 2m
and a height of 1.5m lies in a vertical plane
.The top vertex of the gate is 1.5m below
the surface of a tank which contains oil of
specific gravity 0.8.Considering the density
of water and acceleration due to gravity to
be 1000 kg/m3 and 9.81 m/s2 respectively
,the hydrostatic force (in KN) exerted by
the oil on the gate is ____ [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 29.3-29.5
3
Question: 12751
The figure shows a U-tube having a 5mm x
5mm square cross-section filled with
mercury (specific gravity =13.6) up to a
height of 20 cm in each limb (open to the
atmosphere)
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fluid statics
If 5 cm3 of water is added to the right limb ,
the new height (in cm up to two decimal
places ) of mercury in the LEFT limb will
be ____ [GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 20.70-20.76
4
Question: 12750
A sector gate is provided on a spillway as
shown in the figure. Assuming g = 10 m/s2,
the resultant force per meter length
(expressed in kN/m) on the gate will be
__________ [GATE 2016 FN]
Correct Answer: 127.03-127.03
5
Question: 12749
In which one of the following arrangement
would the vertical force on the cylinder due
to water be the maximum?[GATE -97]
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fluid statics
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 12188
A closed tank contains 0.5 m thick layer of
mercury (specific gravity = 13.6) at the
bottom. A 2.0 m thick layer of water lies
above the mercury layer. A 3.0 m thick
layer of oil (specific gravity = 0.6) lies
above the water layer. The space above
the oil layer contains air under pressure.
The gauge pressure at the bottom of the
tank is 196.2 kN/m2. The density of water is
1000 kg/ m3 and the acceleration due to
gravity is 9.81 m/s2. The value of pressure
in the air space is (GATE 2018-1)
(A) 92.214 kN/m2
(B) 95.644 kN/m2
(C) 98.922 kN/m2
(D) 99.321 kN/m2
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 5748
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fluid statics
Three rigid buckets,shown as in the figures
(1),(2) and (3) are of identical heights and
base areas .Further ,assume that each of
these buckets have negligible mass and
are full of water .the weights of water in
these buckets are denoted as W1 , W2 and
W3 respectively .Also ,let the force of water
on the base of the bucket be denoted as
F1, F2 and F3 respectively .The option giving
an accurate description of the system
physics is[GATE-14 FN]
a) W2=W1=W3 and F2 >F1> F3
b) W2>W1>W3 and F2 >F1> F3
c) W2=W1=W3 and F1=F2= F3
d) W2>W1>W3 and F1=F2= F3
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 5747
Cross section of an object(having same
section normal to the paper ) submerged
into a fluid consists of a square of sides 2m
and triangle as shown in the figure .the
object is hinged at point p that is one
meter below the fluid free surface .If the
object is to be kept in the position as
shown in the figure ,the value of ‘X’ should
be (GATE-05)
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fluid statics
(a) 23
(b) 43
(c) 4m
(d)8m
Correct Answer: A
9
Question: 5746
in the inclined manometer shown in figure
elow,the reservoir is large .Its surface may
e assumed to remain at a fixed elevation .A
is connected to a gas pipeline and the
deflection noted on the inclined glass tube
is 100mm.Assuming θ=30o and the
manometric fluid as oil with specific gravity
of 0.86 ,The pressure at A is (GATE-04)
(a) 43 mm water (vacuum)
(b) 43 mm water
(c) 86mm water
(d) 100 mm water
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 5745
two pipelines ,one carrying oil (mass
density 900 kg/m3) and the other water are
connected to a manometer as shown in
figure .By what amount the pressure in the
water pipe should be increased so that the
mercury levels in both the limbs of the
manometers become equal? (GATE-03)
(Mass density of mercury =13550 kg/m3
and g=9.81m/s2)
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fluid statics
(a)24.7 KPa
(b)26.5 KPa
(c)26.7 KPa
(d) 28.9 Kpa
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 5744
A 15 cm length of steel rod with relative
density of 7.4 is submerged in a two layer
fluid.The bottom layer is mercury and the
top layer is water.The height of top surface
of the rod above the liquid interface in ‘cm’
is (GATE-01)
(a) 8.24
(b) 7.82
(c)7.64
(d)7.38
Correct Answer: D
12
Question: 5743
A U-tube with both limbs open to
atmosphere contains two immiscible open
to atmosphere contains two immiscible
liquids of densities ρ1 and ρ2 (figure shown
below) under equilibrium the distance h is
given by(GATE-96)
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fluid statics
Correct Answer: B
13
Question: 5742
A pipe carrying water is attached to a
differential gauge .Deflection in mercury
gauge is 0.6 m,the (PA-PB)is ______m of
water (GATE-89)
(a) 7.56 meters of water
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fluid statics
(b)75.76 meters of waters
(c)8.16 meters of water
(d) none
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 5740
For a body completely submerged in a fluid
,the centre of gravity(G) and centre of
buoyancy (B) are known .The body is
considered to be in stable equilibrium
if [GATE-11]
(a) B does not coincide with the centre of
mass of the displaced fluid
(b) G coincides with the centre of mass of
the displaced fluid
(c) B lies below G
(d) B lies above G
Correct Answer: D
15
Question: 5739
The force ‘F’ required at equilibrium on the
semi cylindrical gate shown below is
(GATE-02)
(a) 9.81 KN
(b)0.00 KN
(c)19.62 KN
(d) none of these
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fluid statics
Correct Answer: B
16
Question: 5738
In a iceberg ,15% of the volume projects
above the sea surface .If the specific
weight of sea water is 10.5 KN/m3.,the
specific weight of iceberg in KN/m3 is
____ (GATE-99)
(a) 12.52
(b) 9.81
(c) 8.93
(d) 7.83
Correct Answer: C
17
Question: 5737
The centre of pressure of a liquid on a
plane surface immersed vertically in a
static body of liquid ,always lies below the
centroid of the surface area ,because
(GATE-97)
(a)in liquids the pressure acting is same in
all directions
(b)there is no shear stress in liquids at rest
(c)the liquid pressure is constant over
depth
(d) the liquid pressure increases linearly
with depth
Correct Answer: D
18
Question: 5736
On of the following statements is true with
regards to bodies that float or submerged
in liquids`;(GATE-97)
(a) For a body wholly submerged in a liquid
the stability is ensured if the center of
buoyancy is below the center of gravity of
the body
(b)For a body floating in liquid the stability
is ensured if the center of buoyancy is
below the center of gravity of the body
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fluid statics
(c) For a body floating in a liquid the
stability is ensured if the center of
buoyancy and the center of gravity
coincides.
(d)For a body floating in a liquid the
stability is ensured if the center of
buoyancy is below the center of gravity
and the metacenter is above both the
centers of gravity and buoyancy
Correct Answer: D
19
Question: 5735
The force per unit width on the
rectangular door submerged in a liquid of
density ρ (figure shown below) is
(GATE-96)
Correct Answer: C
20
Question: 5734
in a static fluid ,the pressure at a point is
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fluid statics
(GATE-96)
(a) Equal to the weight of the fluid above
(b) equal in all directions
(c)Equal in all directions, only if,Its viscosity
is zero
(d) Always directed downwards
Correct Answer: B
21
Question: 5733
If, for a fluid in motion ,pressure at a point
is same in all directions ,then the fluid is
(GATE-96)
(a) a real fluid
(b) A Newtonian fluid
(c) an ideal fluid
(d) a non-newtonian fluid
Correct Answer: C
22
Question: 5732
Shear stress develops on a fluid element ,If
the fluid (GATE-92)
(a) is at rest
(b) If the container is subjected to uniform
linear acceleration
(c) is inviscid
(d)is viscous and the flow is non uniform
Correct Answer: D
23
Question: 5731
A floating body with its center of gravity at
‘G’ center of buoyancy at ‘B’ and meta
center at ‘M’ is stable when (GATE-89)
(a) G lies above B
(b)B lies above M
(c) B lies below M
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fluid statics
(d)G lies below M
Correct Answer: A
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fluid kinematics
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16197
The velocity field in a flow system is given
by v=2i+(x+y)j+( xyz) k. The acceleration
of the fluid at (1, 1, 2) is [GATE 2019 AN]
(A) j + k
(B) 2i + 10 k
(C) 4j + 10k
(D) 4i + 12 k
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 13807
a velocity filed is given by
where x and y are in meters .The
acceleration of the a fluid particle at
(x,y)=(1,1) in the x direction is [GATE-88]
A.0
B.5.00
C.6.00
D.8.48
Correct Answer: D
3
Question: 13602
The dimension for kinematic viscosity
is [GATE-14 FN]
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fluid kinematics
Correct Answer: C
4
Question: 13537
A square plate is suspended vertically from
one of its edges using a hinge support as
shown in figure. A water jet of 20 mm
diameter having a velocity of 10 m/s
strikes the plate at its mid-point, at an
angle of 30° with the vertical. Consider g
as 9.81 m/s2 and neglect the selfweight of
the plate. The force F (expressed in N)
required to keep the plate in its vertical
position is ______ (GATE 2016)
Correct Answer: 7.85
5
Question: 13195
a flow field is given by u=Y2,v=xy,w=0
value of the z-component of the angular
velocity (in radians per unit time ,up to two
decimal places)at the point (0,-1,1) is
____[GATE 2018 FN]
Correct Answer: 1.5-1.5
6
Question: 13194
Let the ‘x’ and ‘y’ components of velocity
in steady ,two dimensional ,incompressible
flow be linear of ‘x’ and ‘y’ such that v?
=(ax+by) +(cx+dy),where a,b,c and d are
constants .The condition for which ,the flow
is irrotational____(GATE-94)
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 12748
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fluid kinematics
A nozzle is so shaped that the average flow
velocity change linearly from 1.5 m/s at the
beginning to 15 m/s at its end in a distance
of 0.375m.The magnitude of the convective
acceleration (in m/s2)at the end of the
nozzle is ___ [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 540
8
Question: 12747
in a two-dimensional steady flow field,in a
certain region of the x-y plane ,the velocity
component in the x-direction is given by
Vx=x2 and the density varies as
.which of the following is a valid
expression for the velocity component in
the y-direction,Vy? [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 12746
The velocity componenets of two
dimensional plane motion of a fluid are
The correct statement is [GATE-15]
A.fluid is incompressible and flow is
irrotational
B.Fluid is incompressible and flow is
rotational
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fluid kinematics
C.Fluid is compressible and flow is
irrotational
D.Fluid is compressible and flow is
rotational
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 5772
The velocity field for a flow is given by :
=(5x+6y+7z)
+(6x+5y+9z)+(3x+2y+λ z) and the
density varies as
.In order the mass is
conserved ,the value of λ should be
(GATE-06)
a) -12
(b) -10
(c) -8
(d)10
Correct Answer: C
11
Question: 5771
The circulation ‘G’around a circle of radius
2 units for the velocity field u=2x+3y and
v=-2y is (GATE-05)
(a) -6π units
(b) -12π units
(c) -18π units
(d)-24π units
Correct Answer: B
12
Question: 5770
A stream function is given by :
Ψ=2x2y+(x+1)y2.the flow rate across a line
joining points A(3,0) and B(0,2) is
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fluid kinematics
(GATE-05)
a) 0.4 units
(b) 1.1 units
(c) 4 units
(d) 5 units
Correct Answer: C
13
Question: 5769
The velocity in m/s at a point in a two
dimensional flow is given as
The equation of the stream line passing
through the point (x,y) is (GATE-04)
(a) 3dx-2dy =0
(b) 2x+3y=0
(c)3dx+2dy=0
(d)xy=6
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 5768
A velocity filed is given as
where x and y are in meters.the
acceleration of a fluid particle at (x,y)=
(1,1) in the x-direction is (GATE-04)
(a) 0
(b) 5.00 m/s2
(c) 6.00 m/s2
(d) 8.48 m/s2
Correct Answer: C
15
Question: 5767
Whcih of the following two –dimensional
incompressible velocity fields satisfies the
conservation of mass (GATE -96)
(a) u=x, v=y
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fluid kinematics
(b) u=-2x ,v=2y
(c) u=xy ,v=xy
(d) u=x2-y2,v=0
Correct Answer: B
16
Question: 5766
A newtonian fluid has the following velocity
field :
The rate of shear deformation ?yz at the
popint x =-2 ,y=-1 ,z=2 for the given flow
is (GATE-88)
a) -6
(b) -2
(c) -12
(d) 4
Correct Answer: C
17
Question: 5765
A Plane flow has velocity components
and w=0 along x,y
and z directions respectively ,where T1(≠
0) and T2(≠ 0) are constants having the
dimension of time.The given flow is
incompressible if [GATE-14 AN]
a) T1=-T2
(b) T1=-T22
(c) T1= T22
(d) T1= T2
Correct Answer: D
18
Question: 5763
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fluid kinematics
for a two dimensionla flow field ,the stream
function ψ is given by
The magnitude of discharge occuring
between the stream lines passing through
points (0,3) and (3,4) is: [GATE 2013]
(a) 6 units
(b)3 units
(c) 1.5 units
(d) 2 units
Correct Answer: B
19
Question: 5762
An inert tracker is injected continuosly from
a point in an unsteady flow field .the locus
of locations of all the tracker particles at an
instance of time represents (GATE-05)
(a) stream line
(b) path line
(c) stream tube
(d) streak line
Correct Answer: D
20
Question: 5761
The x component of velocity in a two
dimensional incompressible flow is given
by u= 1.5 x .At the point (x,y)= (1,0) the ycomponent of ‘y’ velocity v=o .The
equation for the component of velocity is
(GATE-04)
(a) v=0
(b) v=1.5 y
(c)v=-1.5 x
(d) v=-1.5y
Correct Answer: D
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fluid kinematics
21
Question: 5759
The relation that must holds good for the
flow to be irrotational is (GATE-00)
Correct Answer: A
22
Question: 5758
In a steady radial flow into an intake the
velocity is found to vary as (1/r2) ,where ‘r’
is the radial distance .The acceleration is
proportional to (GATE-99)
a) 1/r5
(b) 1/r3
(c) 1/r4
(d) 1/r
Correct Answer: A
23
Question: 5757
two flow patterns are represented by their
stream functions ψ1=x2-y2, ψ2=2xy these
two patterns are superposed on one
another ,the resulting streamline pattern
can be represented by one of the
following:
(GATE-97)
(a) A family of parellal straight lines
(b)A family of circuit
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fluid kinematics
(c) A family of parabolas
(d) a family of hyperbolas
Correct Answer: D
24
Question: 5756
the acceleration of a fluid particle in steady
one dimensional flow is (GATE-96)
Correct Answer: B
25
Question: 5755
X-component of velocity in a 2-D
incompressible flow is given by u=y2+4xy
.If Y-component of velocity v equals to zero
at y=o ,then the expression for v is given
by (GATE-96)
(a) 4y
(b)2y2
(c) -2y2
(d) 2xy
Correct Answer: C
26
Question: 5754
state whether the following statements are
TRUE (or) FALSE with reasons. (GATE-94)
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fluid kinematics
(i) Flow lines and equipotential lines in a
flow net are orthogonal to each other
(ii) water pressure is atmospheric at all
points on a potential line.Potential line is
,therefore ,an equipotential line
Correct Answer: D
27
Question: 5752
Which of the following functions represent
the velocity potential of a
function?(GATE-92)
Correct Answer: A
28
Question: 5751
if flow condition satisfies Laplace equation
,the(GATE-90)
(a) flow is rotational
(b)Flow doesnot satisfy continuous
equation
(c)Flow is irrotational but does not satisfy
continuity equation
(d) Flow is irrotational but does satisfy
continuity equation
Correct Answer: D
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fluid Dynamics
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 17196
A 15 cm diameter pipe is joined to a 30cm
diameter pipe by a reducing flange. For
water flowing at a rate of 0.115 m3/sec, the
head loss when water flows from the
smaller larger diameter pipe is
_____________ m _(GATE-94)
Correct Answer: 1.214-1.214
2
Question: 17195
Due to ageing of a pipeline,its carrying
capacity has decreased by 25%. The
corresponding increase in the Darcy
Weisbach friction factor f is
________%.(GATE-95)
Correct Answer: 77.78-77.78
3
Question: 16121
A circular duct carrying water gradually
contracts from diameter of 30 cm to 15cm.
The figure (not drawn to scale) shows the
arrangement of differential manometer
attached to the duct.
When the water flow, the differential
manometer shows a deflection of 8cm of
mercury (Hg). The value of specific gravity
of mercury and water are 13.6 and 1.0,
respectively. Consider the acceleration due
to gravity. g = 9.81 m/s2. Assuming
frictionless flow, the flow rate (in m3/s,
rounded off to 3 decimal places) through
the duct is _______ [GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 0.081-0.081
4
Question: 13908
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fluid Dynamics
the unit of dynamic viscosity of a fluid
is [GATE-97]
A.m2/s
B.Ns/m2
C.Pas/m2
D.kgs2/m2
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 13539
A penstock of 1 m diameter and 5 km
length is used to supply water from a
reservoir to an impulse turbine. A nozzle of
15 cm diameter is fixed at the end of the
penstock. The elevation difference between
the turbine and water level in the reservoir
is 500 m. consider the head loss due to
friction as 5% of the velocity head available
at the jet. Assume unit weight of water =
10 kN/m3 and acceleration due to gravity
(g) = 10 m/s2. If the overall efficiency is
80%, power generated (expressed in kW
and rounded to nearest integer) is
Correct Answer: 6570-6570
6
Question: 13193
water flows through a 900 bend in a
horizontal plane as depicted in the figure
a pressure of 140kPa is measured at
section 1-1 .The in let diameter marked at
section 1-1 is
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fluid Dynamics
cm,while the nozzle
diameter marked at section 2-2 is
cm.Assume the follwing
(i)acceleration due to gravity =10 m/s2
(ii)weights of both bent pipe segment as
well as water are negligible
(iii)friction across the bend is negligible
The magnitude of the force (in kN,up to two
decimal places )that would be required to
hold the pipe section is ______[GATE 2017
FN]
Correct Answer: 2.5-3.75
7
Question: 13192
A horizontal nozzle of 30 mm diameter
discharges a steady jet of water in to the
atmosphere at a rate of 15 litres per
second.The diameter of inlet to the nozzle
is 100mm.the jet impinges normal to a flat
stationary plate held close to the nozzle
end.neglecting air friction and considering
the density of water as 1000 kg/m3 ,the
force exerted by the jet (in N) on the plate ___[GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 318-319
8
Question: 13191
A venturimeter having a diameter of 7.5
cm ,at the throat and 15 cm at the
enlarged end ,is installed in a horizontal
pipeline of 15cm diameter.the pipe carries
an incompressible fluid at a steady rate of
30 liters per second .the difference of
pressure head measured in terms of the
moving fluid in between the enlarged and
the throat of the venturimeter is observed
to be 2.45 m.Taking the acceleration due
to gravity as 9.81 m/s2,the coefficient of
discharge of the venturimeter (correct upto
two places of decimal) is _______[GATE-14
FN]
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fluid Dynamics
Correct Answer: 0.93-0.96
9
Question: 13190
An incompressible homogeneous fluid is
flowing steadily in a variable diameter pipe
having the large and small diameters as 15
cm and 5 cm respectively .if the velocity at
a section at the 15cm diameter portion of
the pipe is 2.5 m/s,the velocity of the fluid
(in m/s) at a section falling in 5cm portion
of the pipe is_____[GATE-14 FN]
A.22.5
B.30
C.32
D.19
Correct Answer: 22-23
10
Question: 12169
Bernoulli’s equation is applicable for (GATE
2018-1)
A. viscous and compressible fluid flow
B. inviscid and compressible fluid flow
C. inviscid and incompressible fluid
flow
D. viscous and incompressible fluid
flow
Correct Answer: C
11
Question: 5916
A body moving through still water at
6m/sec at a point 1 m ahead .the
differenecein pressure between the nose
and the point 1m ahead would be
(GATE-98)
(a) 2000N/mm2
(b)10000N/mm2
(c) 19620 N/m2
(d) 98100N/m2
Correct Answer: B
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fluid Dynamics
12
Question: 5838
the head loss coefficient in a sudden
expansion shown in figure below is
proportional to(GATE-96)
Correct Answer: A
13
Question: 5809
A vertical water jet is issuing upwards from
a nozzle with a velocity of 10 m/s.the
nozzle exit diameter is 60 mm.A flat
horizontal plate with a total of 250 N is
supported by the impact of the jet
.Determine the equilibrium height of the
plate above the nozzle exit .Neglect all
losses and take unit weight of water as
1000 kg/m3. (GATE-99)
Correct Answer: A
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fluid Dynamics
14
Question: 5808
water flows through the Y-joint as shown in
figure .Find the horizontal and vertical
components of
the force acting on the joint because of
the water .neglect energy losses and body
force (GATE-98)
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 5807
a straight pipe AB ,of length 10 m ,tapers
from a diameter of 40 cm at A to 20 cm at
B.the centre line of the pipe is so located
that the end B is 2m above the level of
A.liquid of specific gravity 0.9 flows
through the pipe at 150 litres/sec.Pressure
gauges connected at A and B show the
reading of 60 KPa and 40 KPa respectively
.determine the direction of flow(GATE-97)
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 5806
A venturimeter having a throat diameter of
0.1 m is used to estimate the flow rate of a
horizontal pipe having a diameter of 0.2
m.for an observed pressure difference of 2
m of water head and coefficient of
discharge equal to unity ,assuming that the
energy losses are negligible ,the flow rate
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fluid Dynamics
(in m3/s) through the pipe is approximately
equal to [GATE-14 AN]
(a) 0.500
(b) 0.150
(c) 0.050
(d) 0.015
Correct Answer: C
17
Question: 5803
A horizontal jet of water with its cross
sectional area of 0.0028 m2 hits a fixed
vertical plate with a velocity of 5m/s. After
impact the jet splits symmetrically in a
plate.the force of impact (in N) of the jet on
the plate is [GATE-14 FN]
(a) 90
(b) 80
(c) 70
(d) 60
Correct Answer: C
18
Question: 5802
water ( ϒw=9.879 KN/m3) flows with a flow
rate of 0.3 m3/sec through a pipe AB of 10
m length and of uniform cross section .the
end b is above end A and the pipe makes
an angle of 300 to the horizontal .For a
pressure of 12 KN/m2 at the end B,the
corresponding pressure at the end A is
[GATE-09]
(a) 12.0 KN/m2
(b) 17.0 KN/m2
(c)56.4 KN/m2
(d) 61.4 KN/m2
Correct Answer: D
19
Question: 5801
At two points 1 and 2 in a pipeline the
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fluid Dynamics
velocities are V and 2V respectively .both
the points are at the same elevation .the
fluid density is ρ .The flow can be assumed
to be incompressible ,inviscid ,steady and
irrotational .The difference in pressures P1
and P2 at points 1 and 2 is (GATE-07)
(a) 0.5 ρ V2
(b) 1.5 ρ V2
(c) 2 ρ V2
(d) 3 ρ V2
Correct Answer: B
20
Question: 5800
A horizontal water jet with a velocity of 10
m/s and cross sectional area of 10 mm2
strikes a flat plate held normal to the flow
direction.the density of water is 1000
kg/m3.The total force on the plate due to
the jet is (GATE-07)
(a) 100N
(b) 10N
(c) 1 N
(d) 0.1 N
Correct Answer: C
21
Question: 5799
The reading of differential manometer of a
venturimeter ,placed at 450 to the
horizontal is 11 cm.if the venturimeter is
turned to horizontal position,the
manometer reading will be (GATE-05)
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fluid Dynamics
Correct Answer: C
22
Question: 5798
A tank and a deflector are placed on a
frictionless trolley.The tank issues water jet
(mass density of water =1000
kg/m3),which strikes the deflector and
turns by 45o if the velocity of jet leaving
the deflector is 4m/s and discharge is 0.1
m3/s ,the force recorded by the spring will
be (GATE-05)
Correct Answer: D
23
Question: 5797
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fluid Dynamics
The laminar flow takes place between
closely placed parallel plates as shown in
figure below.The velocity profiles is given
by
The gap height h,is 5mm and the space is
filled with oil (specific gravity =0.86
,viscosity µ=2 x 10-4 N-s\m2.the bottom
plate is stationary and the top plate moves
with a steady velocity of V=5cm\s .the area
of the plate is 0.25m2(GATE-04)
The power required to keep the plate in
steady motion is(GATE-04)
(a) 5 x 10-4 watts
(b) 10-5 watts
(c) 2.5 x 10-5 watts
(d)5 x 10-5 watts
Correct Answer: C
24
Question: 5796
The laminar flow takes place between
closely placed parallel plates as shown in
figure below.The velocity profiles is given
by
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fluid Dynamics
The gap height h,is 5mm and the space is
filled with oil (specific gravity =0.86
,viscosity µ=2 x 10-4 N-s\m2.the bottom
plate is stationary and the top plate moves
with a steady velocity of V=5cm\s .the area
of the plate is 0.25m2(GATE-04)
the rate of rotation of a fluid particle is
given by
Correct Answer: A
25
Question: 5795
A horizontal jet strikes a frictionless vertical
plate (the plane view is shown in the
figure).It is then divided in to two parts ,as
shown in the figure .If the impact loss is
neglected ,what is the value of
θ?(GATE-03)
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fluid Dynamics
(a)15o
(b) 30o
(c) 45o
(d)60o
Correct Answer: B
26
Question: 5794
a nozzile discharging water under head H
has an outlet area ‘a” and discharge
coefficient Cd=1.0 .A vertical plate is acted
upon by the fluid force Fj when held across
the free jet and by the fluid force Fn when
held against the nozzle to stop the flow
,The ratio (GATE-98)
(a) 1/2
(b)1
(c)2
(d)2
Correct Answer: B
27
Question: 5793
when a steady jet of water impinges on a
stationary inclined plane surface and if
fluid friction is neglected ,the resultant
force on the plane(GATE-96)
(a)is tangential to the surface
(b) is normal to the surface
(c) is in the direction of the jet flow
(d)none of the above
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fluid Dynamics
Correct Answer: B
28
Question: 5792
Fluid flows steadily through a variable area
duct .At section (1),density =ρ1,cross
sectional area =A1 ,Velocity V1 and
pressure p1 and the corresponding values
at section (2) are ρ2 ,A2,V2 and P2.Then the
following relation is satisfied. (GATE-96)
Correct Answer: C
29
Question: 5791
A pitot tube is used to measure velocity V
In a gas with density ρ and static pressure
P.It is connected to a U-tube manometer
containing a liquid of density ρm (figure
shown below )the height h is (GATE-96)
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fluid Dynamics
Correct Answer: A
30
Question: 5790
the discharge coefficient ,cd of an orifice
meter is (GATE-96)
(a) Greater than the cd of a venturimeter
(b) smaller than the cd of a venturimeter
(c) Equal to the cd of a venturimeter
(d)Greater than one
Correct Answer: B
31
Question: 5789
a tank containing water has two orifices of
the same size at depth of 40 cm and 90 cm
below the free surface of the water.the
ratio of the discharge through these
orifices are(GATE-89)
(a) 4:9
(b)2:3
(c)16:81
(d)1:1
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fluid Dynamics
Correct Answer: B
32
Question: 5788
Group I lists a few devices while Group II
provides information about their uses
.match the devices with their
corresponding use.[GATE-14 AN]
GROUP I
P.Anemometer
Q.Hygrometer
R.Pitot Tube
S.tensiometer
GROUP II
1.Capillary potential of soil water
2.Fluid velocity at a specific point in the
flow stream
3.water vapour content of air
4.Wind speed
(a)P-1 ;Q-2 ;R-3 ; S-4
(b) P-2 ;Q-1 ;R-4 ; S-3
(c) P-4 ;Q-2 ;R-1 ; S-3
(d) P-4 ;Q-3 ;R-2; S-1
Correct Answer: D
33
Question: 5787
The circular water pipes shown in the
sketch are flowing full.The velocity of flow
(in m/s)in the branch pipe “R” is(GATE-12)
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fluid Dynamics
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Correct Answer: B
34
Question: 5786
Group-I gives a list of devices and Group –II
gives a list of uses(GATE-10)
The correct match of Group –I with Group
–II is
P
Q
R
S
(a) 1
2
4
3
(b) 2
1
3
4
(c) 2
1
4
3
(d) 4
1
3
2
Correct Answer: C
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fluid Dynamics
35
Question: 5785
A frictionless fluid of density ρ flows
through a bent pipe as shown below.if A is
the cross sectional area and V is the
velocity of the flow ,the force exerted on
segment 1-2 of the pipe in the x and y
directions are respectively , (GATE-04)
.
Correct Answer: C
36
Question: 5782
The equation
=constant along a stream line holds true
for (GATE-96)
(a) Steady,frictionless ,compressible fluid
(b)steady,uniform,incompressible fluid
(c) steady,frictionless ,incompressible fluid
(d)unsteady ,incompressible fluid
Correct Answer: A
37
Question: 5781
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fluid Dynamics
Water flows steadily down in a vertical pipe
of constant cross section .Neglecting
friction ,according to Bernoulli’s
Equation(GATE-96)
(a) Pressure is constant along the length of
the pipe
(b)Velocity decrease with height
(c) pressure decreases with height
(d)Pressure increases with height
Correct Answer: D
38
Question: 5780
PITOT TUBE is used to measure (GATE-92)
(a)Static pressure of a flowing fluid
(b)Dynamic pressure of a flowing fluid
(c) Total pressure of a flowing fluid
(d)Surface tension of a flowing fluid
Correct Answer: C
39
Question: 5779
Bernoulli’s equation is an equation of
(GATE-92)
(a) Conservation of mass
(b) Conservation of linear momentum
(c) Conservation of energy
(d) Conservation of angular momentum
Correct Answer: C
40
Question: 5778
if discharges in two circular orifices O1 and
O2 placed at depths of 200 mm and 800
mm in water are equal ,the ratio of
diameters is(GATE-91)
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fluid Dynamics
Correct Answer: C
41
Question: 5777
The range of coefficient of discharge of a
venturimeter is (GATE-91)
(a) 0.5 to 0.6
(b) 0.62 to 0.73
(c) 0.7 to 0.8
(d)0.95 to 0.99
Correct Answer: D
42
Question: 5776
If the velocity distribution is rectangular
,the kinetic energy correction factor is
(GATE-90)
(a)Greter than zero but less than unity
(b) less than zero
(c)equal to zero
(d)equal to unity
Correct Answer: D
43
Question: 5775
The most appropriate governing equations
of ideal fluid flow are (GATE-90)
(a)Euler’s equations
(b)Navier stokes equation
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fluid Dynamics
(c)Reynold’s Equations
(d)hagen –poiseuille equations
Correct Answer: A
44
Question: 5774
The pitot-static tube measures (GATE-89)
(a) Static pressure
(b) Dynamic pressure
(c) Difference in static and dynamic
pressure
(d) Difference in total and static pressure
Correct Answer: D
45
Question: 5750
A container carrying water is moved in a
horizontal direction with acceleration of
2.45 m/s2 .The angle of inclination of the
free water surface to the horizontal
is (GATE-88)
(a) 14.04o
(b)67.80
(c) 45o
(d) 0o
Correct Answer: A
46
Question: 5720
If bulk modulus of water is 2 x 104 kgf/cm2
(19.62 x 108 N/m2) ,Then water hammer
wave celerity through a rigid pipe line will
be ___m/s
(GATE-88)
Correct Answer: 1400-1400
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Laminar Flow
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16175
Consider a laminar flow in the x-direction
between two infinite parallel plates
(Couette flow). The lower plate is stationary
and the upper plate is moving with a
velocity of 1 cm/s in the x-direction. The
distance between the plates is 5mm and
the dynamic viscosity of the fluid is 0.01 Ns/m2. If the shear stress on the lower plate
is zero, the pressure gradient, p, (in N/m2
per m, round off to 1 decimal place)
is_________.[GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 8-8
2
Question: 13473
Water is pumped at a steady uniform flow
rate of 0.01 m3/s through a horizontal
smooth circular pipe of 100 mm diameter.
Given that the Reynolds number is 800 and
g is 9.81 m/s2 , the head loss (in meters, up
to one decimal place) per km length due to
friction would be____[GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 66.67-66.67
3
Question: 13421
For a steady incompressible laminar flow
between two infinite parallel stationary
plates, the shear stress variation is [GATE
2017 FN]
(A) linear with zero value at the plates
(B) linear with zero value at the center
(C) quadratic with zero value at the Plates
(D) quadratic with zero value at the centre
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 5847
water flows through a 100 mm diameter
pipe with a velocity of 0.015 m/sec.If the
kinematic viscosity of water is 1.13 x 10-6
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Laminar Flow
m2/sec,The friction factor of the pipe
material is (GATE-09)
(a)0.0015
(b) 0.032
(c) 0.037
(d) 0.048
Correct Answer: D
5
Question: 5845
An upward flow of oil (mass density 800
kg/m3,dynamic viscosity 0.8 kg/m-s) takes
place under laminar conditions in an
inclined pipe of 0.1 m diameter as shown in
figure .the pressure at sections 1 and 2 are
measured as P1=435 kN/m2 and P 2=200
KN/m2 (GATE-06)
If flow is reversed ,keeping the same
discharge ,and the pressure at section 1 is
maintanied as 435 KN/m2,the pressure at
section 2 is equal to
(a) 488 KN/m2
(b) 549 KN/m2
(c) 586 KN/m2
(d) 614 KN/m2
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 5843
An upward flow of oil (mass density 800
kg/m3,dynamic viscosity 0.8 kg/m-s) takes
place under laminar conditions in an
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Laminar Flow
inclined pipe of 0.1 m diameter as shown in
figure .the pressure at sections 1 and 2 are
measured as P1=435 Kn/m2 and P 2=200
KN/m2 (GATE-06)
The discharge in the pipe is equal to
(a) 0.100 m3/s
(b) 0.127 m3/s
(c)0.144 m3/s
(d)0.161 m3/s
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 5816
with reference to a standard Cartesian (x,y)
plane,the parabolic velocity distribution
profile of fully developed laminar flow in xdirection between two parallel ,stationary
and identical plates that are separated by
distance ,h,is given by the
expression[GATE-14 AN]
In this equation ,the y=0 axis lies
equidistant between the plates at a
distance h/2 from the two plates ,p is the
pressure variable and µ is the dynamic
viscosity term .The maximum and average
velocities are respectively (GATE -14 FN)
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Laminar Flow
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 5815
Flow rate of fluid (density =1000kg/m3) in a
smaller diameter tube is 800 mm3/s.The
length and the diameter of the tube are 2m
and 0.5mm respectively .The pressure drop
in 2m length is equal to 2 Mpa .the
viscosity of the fluid is (GATE-07)
(a) 0.025 N-s/m2
(b) 0.012 N-s/m2
(c)0.00192 N-s/m2
(d)0.00102 N-s/m2
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 5813
The shear stress in a fully developed
laminar flow in a circular pipe is (GATE-96)
(a) constant over the cross section
(b) varies parabolically across the section
(c) Maximum at the pipe wall
(D) maximum at the pipe center line
Correct Answer: C
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Laminar Flow
10
Question: 5812
The dimensions of a pressure gradient in a
fluid flow are (GATE-95)
(a) ML-1T2
(b) ML-3T-2
(c) ML-2T2
(d) M-1 L-3T-2
Correct Answer: C
11
Question: 5811
The Reynolds number of a aflow is the ratio
of (GATE-89)
(a) Gravity force to viscous force
(b) Gravity force to Pressure force
(c)Inertia forces to viscous force
(d)Viscous force to pressure force
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 5810
In a Hagen –poiseuille flow of viscous liquid
,one of the following pairs of forces strikes
a balance (GATE-88)
(a) Inertial and viscous force
(b) pressure and viscous force
(c)Gravity and viscous force
(d)inertial and gravity force
Correct Answer: B
13
Question: 5783
The kinetic energy correction factor for a
fully developed laminar flow through a
circular pipe is (GATE-97)
(a) 1.00
(b) 1.33
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Laminar Flow
(c) 2.00
(d)1.50
Correct Answer: C
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Turbulant Flow
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13808
A thin flat plate 0.5 m x 0.7 m in size
settles in a large tank of water with a
terminal velocity of 0.12 m/s. The coefficient of drag
for a
laminar boundary layer and
for a turbulent boundary layer, where RL is
the plate Reynolds number.[GATE-04]
assume µ =10-3 N-s/m2
and ρ=1000 kg/m3
The submerged weight of the plate is
(a)0.0115 N
(b)0.0118 N
(c)0.0231N
(d)0.0376N
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 5833
An old pipeline which has relative
roughness = 0.005 operates at a Reynolds
number which is sufficiently high for the
flow to be beyond the viscous influence
and the corresponding
f = 0.03. The power increase required to
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Turbulant Flow
maintain same rate of flow if ‘f’ increases
to 0.0375 would be about(GATE-93)
1. 25%
2. 50%
3. 75%
4. 100%
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 5831
Three reservoirs A,B and C are
interconnected by pipes as shown in the
figure. Water surface elevations in the
reservoirs and the peziometric head at the
junction J are indicated in the Figure.
(GATE-98)
Discharge Q1,Q2 and Q3 are related as
A. Q1+Q2 = Q3
B. Q1=Q2 +Q3
C. Q2=Q1 +Q3
D. Q1+Q2 + Q3 =0
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 5829
While deriving an expression for loss of
head due to a sudden expansion in a
pipe,in addition to the continuity and
impulse-momentum equation ,one of the
following assumptions is made: (GATE-97)
A) Head loss due to friction is equal to the
head loss in eddying motion
b) The mean pressure in eddying fluid is
equal to the downstream pressure
c) The mean pressure in eddying fluids is
equal to the upstream pressure
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Turbulant Flow
d) Head lost in eddies is neglected
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 5828
The friction factor of laminar liquid flow in a
circular pipe is proportional to(GATE-96)
a) Reynolds number
b) Inversely to the Reynolds number
c) Square of the Reynolds number
d) Square root of the Reynolds number
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 5827
in network of pipes(GATE-96) [TSPSC
HMWS 2015]
A )the algebraic sum of discharge+ datum
head drops around each circuit is zero
b) the algebraic sum of
(pressure+datum)head drops around each
circuit is zero
c )the elevation of hydraulic gradient line is
assumed for each junction point
d) Elementary circuits are replaced by
equivalent pipe.
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 5826
The prandtl mixing length for turbulent flow
through pipes is (GATE-96)
A) independent of shear stress
b) A universal constant
c) Zero at the pipe wall
d) Independent of radial distance from pipe
axis
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 5825
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Turbulant Flow
flow in a pipe can be expressed to be
turbulent when the Reynolds number
based on mean velocity and pipe diameter
is(GATE-96)
a) =0
b) 3000
c) > 3000
d) >100
Correct Answer: A
9
Question: 5824
In the siphon shown in figure below
assuming ideal flow, pressure
PB(GATE-96)
a) =PA
b) <PA
C)> PA
d)=PC
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 5823
the head loss due to sudden expansion is
expressed by (GATE-93)
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Turbulant Flow
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 5822
the stresses that arises due to fluctuations
in the velocity components in a turbulent
flow are
(GATE-92)
a) Euler stresses
b) Limit stresses
c) Reynolds stresses
d) Principal stresses
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 5821
The friction factor for a turbulent flow in
smooth pipes varies[GATE-90]
1. a) Inversly as Reynolds number
2. b) Directly as Reynolds number
3. c) as square of Reynolds number
4. d) inversely as 1/4th power of
Reynolds number
Correct Answer: A
13
Question: 5820
Water is pumped through a pipe line to a
height of 10m at the rate of 0.1m3/sec.
frictional and other mirror losses are 5m.
then the power of in kW required is
_______(GATE-90)
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Turbulant Flow
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 5819
Water is pumped through a pipe line to a
height of 10m at the rate of 0.1m3/sec.
frictional and other mirror losses are 5m.
then the power of in kW required is
_______(GATE-90)
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 5818
“Eddy viscosity “ means that it
is(GATE-90)
1. A physical property of the fluid
2. Same as the kinematic viscosity
3. Always associated with laminar flow
4. An apparent viscosity due to
turbulent nature of flow
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 5817
The loss of energy at the exit of a
submerged pipe is (GATE-89)
Correct Answer: A
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Boundary Layer
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 5865
The thickness of the laminar boundary
layer on a flat plate at a point A is 2cm and
at a point B 1m downstream of A is 3
cm.What is the distance of A From the
leading Edge? (GATE-06)
(a) 0.50 m
(b) 0.80m
(c)1.00 m
(d)1.25 m
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 5864
A Thin plate 0.5 m x 0.7 m in size settles
in a large tank of water with a terminal
velocity of 1.2 m/s.the coefficient of drag C
D=0.12 m/s.The coefficient of drag CD=
for a laminar boundary layer
for a turbulent boundary
layer ,where RL is the Reynolds
number.Assume µ=1 x 10-3 and =1000
kg/m3
The submerged weight of the plate is
(GATE-04)
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Boundary Layer
(a) 0.015 N
(b)0.0118 N
(c)0.0231 N
(d)0.0376N
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 5860
A flat plate is kept in an infinite fluid
medium .the fluid has a uniform free
stream velocity parallel to the plate .For
the laminar boundary layer formed on the
plate ,pick the correct option matching
(GATE-03)
List-I
A.Boundary layer thickness
B.Shear stress at the plate
C.Pressure gradient along the plate
LIST-II
1.Decreases in the flow direction
2.increase in the flow direction
3.remains unchanged
Codes:
A
B
C
(a)
1
2
3
(b)
2
2
2
(c)
1
1
2
(d)
2
1
3
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 5859
Velocity distribution in a boundary layer
flow over a plate is given by
(u/um)=1.5 η.where ,η=y/δ; y is the
distance measured normal to the plate ;δ is
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Boundary Layer
the boundary layer thickness ; and um is
the maximum velocity at y=δ .If the shear
stress
τ=K(µum)/δ,
where µ is the dynamic viscosity of the
fluid ,k takes the value of [GATE -02]
(a)0
(b)1
(c)1.5
(d)none of the above
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 5858
boundary layer is a thin fluid region close
to the surface of a body where (GATE-96)
(a) Viscous forces are negligible
(b) velocity is uniform
(c) inertial forces can be neglected
(d) viscous forces can not be neglected
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 5855
A smooth flat plate is in a parallel flow
stream .The ratio of the drag over the
upstream half of the plate to that over the
entire plate is _____.Assume the average
skin friction coefficient is proportional to
(Rex)-1/2. (fill in the blank) (Gate-94)
Correct Answer: 0.707-0.707
7
Question: 5854
Flow separation is likely to occur when the
pressure gradient is (GATE-92)
(a) Positive
(b)Zero
(c)Nagative
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Boundary Layer
(d)negative and only when equal to -0.332
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 5853
if δ1 is the thickness of laminar boundary
layer at a distance x1 from the leading
edge of the flat plate ,the thickness δ2 at
x2=2x1 is equal to (GATE-92)
Correct Answer: A
9
Question: 5852
stream line inside a boundary layer over a
flat plate (GATE-92)
(a) are parallel
(b)diverge
(c) Converge
(d)are normal to the flow direction
Correct Answer: B
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Flow Through Pipes
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 17194
An incompressible fluid is flowing at a
steady rate in a horizontal pipe .From a
section ,the pipe divides in to two
horizontal parallel pipes of diameters d1
and d2 (where d1=4d2) that run for a
distance of L each and then again join back
to a pipe of the original size .for both the
parallel pipes ,assume the haed loss due to
friction only and the darcy –weisbach
friction factor to be the same.the velocity
ratio between the bigger and the smaller
branched pipes is _____[GATE-14 FN]
Correct Answer: 2-2
2
Question: 16238
Two identical pipes (i.e. having the same
length, same diameter,and same
roughness) are used to withdraw water
from a reservoir. In the first case, they are
attached in series and also discharge freely
into the atmosphere. In the second case,
they are attached in parallel and friction
factor is same in both the cases, the ratio
of the discharge in the parallel
arrangement to that in the series
arrangement (round off to 2 decimal
places) is _____[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 2.83-2.83
3
Question: 16165
Two water reservoirs are connected by a
siphon (running full) of total length 5000 m
and diameter of 0.10 m, as shown below
(figure not drawn to scale). [GATE 2019
FN]
The inlet leg length of the siphon to its
summit is 2000 m. The difference in the
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Flow Through Pipes
water surface levels of the two reservoirs is
5m. Assume the permissible minimum
absolute pressure at the summit of siphon
to be 2.5m of water when running full.
Given: friction factor f = 0.02 throughout,
atmospheric pressure = 10.3 m of water,
and acceleration due to gravity g = 9.81
m/s2. Considering only major loss using
Darcy Weisbach equation the maximum
height of the summit of siphon from the
water level of upper reservoir, h (in m
round off to 1 decimal place) is
________ [GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 5.8-5.8
4
Question: 13797
Match the following (GATE-05)
Group 1
P.Release valve
Q.Check valve
R.Gate valve
S.Pilot valve
Group-2
1.Reduce high inlet pressure t lower outlet
pressure
2.Limit the flow of water to single direction
3.Remove air from the pipeline
4.Stopping the flow of water in the pipeline
(a) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(b) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
(c) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(d) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 13663
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Flow Through Pipes
A 2 km pipe of 0.2 m diameter connects
two reservoirs. The difference between the
water levels in the reservoir is 8 m. The
Darcy Weisbach friction factor of the pipe is
0.04. Accounting for frictional entry and
exit losses, the velocity in the pipe in
(m/sec) is
[GATE 2013]
(A) 0.63
(B) 0.35
(C) 2.52
(D) 1.25
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 13609
An incompressible fluid is flowing at a
steady rate in a horizontal pipe .From a
section ,the pipe divides into horizontal
pipe.from a section ,the pipe divides in to
two horizontal parallel pipes of diameters
d1 and d2 (where d1=4d2) that run for a
distance of L each and then again join back
to a pipe of the original size .for both the
parallel pipes ,assume the haed loss due to
friction only and the darcy –weisbach
friction factor to be the same.the velocity
ratio between the bigger and the smaller
branched pipes is _____[GATE-14 FN]
Correct Answer: 2-2
7
Question: 13583
A pipe of 0.7 m diameter has a length of 6
km and connects two reservoirs A and B.
The water level in reservoir A is at an
elevation 30 m above the water level in
reservoir B. Halfway along the pipe line,
there is a branch through which water can
be supplied to a third reservoir C. The
friction factor of the pipe is 0.024. The
quantity of water discharged into reservoir
C is 0.15 m3/s. Considering the acceleration
due to gravity as 9.81 m/s2 and neglecting
minor losses, the discharge (in m3/s) into
the reservoir B is __________. [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 0.5716-0.5716
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Flow Through Pipes
8
Question: 13563
Two reservoirs are connected through a
930 m long, 0.3 m diameter pipe, which
has a gate valve. The pipe entrances is
sharp (loss coefficient = 0.5) and the valve
is half-open (loss coefficient = 5.5). The
head difference between the two reservoirs
is 20 m. Assume the friction factor for the
pipe as 0.03 and g = 10 m/s2. The
discharge in the pipe accounting for all
minor and major losses is _________
m3/s. [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 0.1413-0.1413
9
Question: 13553
For steady incompressible flow through a
closed-conduit of uniform cross-section, the
direction of flow will always be: [GATE-15]
(A) from higher to lower elevation
(B) from higher to lower pressure
(C) from higher to lower velocity
(D) from higher to lower piezometric head
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 13424
A triangular pipe network is shown in the
figure.
The head loss in each pipe is given by hf
=r Q1.8 , with the variables expressed in a
consistent set of units. The value of r for
the pipe AB is 1 and for the pipe BC is 2. If
the discharge supplied at the point A (i.e.,
100) is equally divided between pipes AB
and AC, the value of r (up to two decimal
places) for the pipe AC should
be______[GATE-17-1]
Correct Answer: 0.62-0.62
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Flow Through Pipes
11
Question: 12257
A rough pipe of 0.5 m diameter, 300 m
length and roughness height of 0.25 mm,
carries water (kinematic viscosity =
0.9×10-6 m2/s) with velocity of 3 m/s.
Friction factor (f) for laminar flow is given
by f = 64/Re, and for turbulent flow it is
given by
, where, Re =
Reynolds number, r = radius of pipe, k =
roughness height and g= 9.81 m/s2. The
head loss (in m, up to three decimal
places) in the pipe due to friction is ______
(GATE 2018 AN)
Correct Answer: 4.50-4.70
12
Question: 5900
For a pipe of radius ‘r’ flowing half full
under the action of gravity ,the hydraulic
depth is (GATE-04)
Correct Answer: B
13
Question: 5851
Two pipes A and B are connected are
connecetd in a paralel between two pipes
M and N as shown in the figure .Pipe A is of
80 mm diameter ,900 m long and its
friction factor is 0.015 .Pipe B is of 100 mm
diameter ,700 m long and its friction is
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Flow Through Pipes
0.018 .A total discharge of 0.030 m3/s is
entering the parallel pipes throught the
division at M .calculate the discharge in the
two pipes A and B.(GATE-99)
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 5849
A 2 km long pipe of 0.2 m diameter
connects two reservoirs .the difference
between water levels in the reservoirs is
8m .the darcy weisbach friction factor of
the pipe is 0.04 .Accounting for
frictional,entry and exit losses ,the velocity
in the pipe (in m/s ) is: (GATE-13)
(a)0.63
(b) 0.35
(c) 2.52
(d)1.25
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 5848
A single pipe of length 1500 m and
diameter 60 cm connectes two reservoirs
having a difference of 20 m in their water
levels.the pipe is to be replaced by two
pipes of the same length and equal
diameter ‘d’ to convey 25% more
discharge under the same head loss .If the
friction factor is assumed to be the same
for all the pipes ,the value of ‘d’ is
approximately equal to which of the
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Flow Through Pipes
following options? [GATE-11]
(a)37.5 cm
(b)40.0 cm
(c)45.0 cm
(d)50.0 cm
Correct Answer: D
16
Question: 5846
The flow of water (mass density 1000
kg/m3,kynamatic viscosity=10-6 m2/s in
commercial pipe ,having equivalent
roughness ks as 0.12 mm,yields an average
shear stress at the pipe boundary =600
N/m2 .the value of ks/’ (’being thickness of
laminar sub layer ) for this pipe is
(a) 0.25
(b) 0.50
(c) 6.0
(d) 8.0
Correct Answer: D
17
Question: 5842
a fire protection system is supplied from a
water tower with a bent pipe as shown in
the figure. The pipe friction factor f is 0.03.
ignoring all minor losses, the maximum
discharge, Q, in the pipe is [GATE-04]
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Flow Through Pipes
a)31.7 lit/sec
b)24.0 lit/sec
c)15.9 lit/sec
d)12.0 lit/sec
Correct Answer: B
18
Question: 5840
A pipe line (diameter 0.3m, lemgth 3km)
carries water from point P to point R(see
figure). The piezometric heads at P and R
are to be maintained at 100m and
80m,respectively. To increase the
discharge, a second pipe is added in
parallel to the existing pipe from Q to R.
the length of the additional pipe is also
2km. assume the friction factor , f=0.04 for
all pipes and ignore minor losses.
if there is no restriction on the diameter of
the additional pipe, what would be the
maximuin increase in discharge
theoretically possible from this
arrangement? (GATE-03)
a)0%
b)50%
c)67%
d)73%
Correct Answer: C
19
Question: 5839
A pipe line (diameter 0.3m, lemgth 3km)
carries water from point P to point R(see
figure). The piezometric heads at P and R
are to be maintained at 100m and
80m,respectively. To increase the
discharge, a second pipe is added in
parallel to the existing pipe from Q to R.
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Flow Through Pipes
the length of the additional pipe is also
2km. assume the friction factor , f=0.04 for
all pipes and ignore minor losses.
what is the increase in discharge if the
additional pipe has same diameter(0.3m)?
(GATE-03)
a) 0%
b)33%
c)41%
d)67%
Correct Answer: C
20
Question: 5837
Due to ageing of a pipeline,its carrying
capacity has decreased by 25%. The
corresponding increase in the Darcy
Weisbach friction factor f is
________%.(GATE-95)
Correct Answer: A
21
Question: 5836
branching – pipe problems are usually
solved(GATE-94)
a) by assuming the head loss is the same
through each pipe
b)by equivalent lengths
c) by assuming the elevation of the
hydraulic gradient line at the junction point
and trying to satisfy continuity
d) by assuming a distribution which
satisfies continuity and computing a
correction.
Correct Answer: D
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Flow Through Pipes
22
Question: 5835
The procedure to follow in solving for
discharge when h (head losses ), L(pipe
length), D (inside diameter) , V (kinetic
viscosity) and k (wall roughness) are given
is to (GATE-93)
a) Assume an f (friction factor ) compute v,
Re (Reynolds number) , , look up for f and
repeat , if necessary
b) Assume an Re , compute f, check
c) Assume a V, compute R, look up f,
compute V again etc
d) Assume a,Q compute V,R,look up f
Correct Answer: A
23
Question: 5830
if a single pipe of length L and diameter D
is to be replaced by three pipes of same
materiall ,samr discharge,same length and
equal diameter d(d<D), to convey the
same d and D are related by(GATE-97)
Correct Answer: A
24
Question: 5814
A farmer uses a long horizontal pipeline to
transfer water with a 1 H.P pump and the
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Flow Through Pipes
discharge is ‘Q’ litres per min.If he uses a 5
H.P pump in the same pipe line and
assuming the friction factor is unchanged
the discharge is approximately (GATE-96)
Correct Answer: D
25
Question: 5784
In a bernoulli’s equation ,used in pipe flow
,each term represents (GATE-01)
(a)Energy per unit weight
(b)Energy per unit mass
(c) Energy per unit volume
(d) energy per unit length
Correct Answer: A
26
Question: 5359
At the same mean velocity of flow, the
ratio of head loss per unit length for a
sewer pipe running full to that for the same
pipe flowing half – full is: (GATE-98)[IES
2013]
a) 2.0
b) 1.67
c) 1.0
d) 0.67
Correct Answer: C
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 17198
If the Froude number characterizing flow in
an open channel is less than unity ,an
increase in channel width causes the water
surface elevation to (GATE-87)
(a) form ripples
(b) remain same
(c) decrease
(d) increase
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 17197
A trapezoidal channel,shown in the figure
carries a water discharge of 10 m3/sec
uniform flow conditions.the long slope of
the channel bed is 0.001.Compute the
average shear stress in N/mm2 on the
boundary.Also compute Mannings ‘n’ Value
(GATE-90)
Correct Answer: 0.34-0.34
3
Question: 16164
A rectangular open channel has a width of
5m and a bed slope of 0.001. For a uniform
flow of depth 2m, the velocity is 2m/s. The
Manning’s roughness coefficient for the
channel is [GATE 2019 FN]
(A) 0.017
(B) 0.050
(C) 0.033
(D) 0.002
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 16143
In a rectangular channel, the ratio of the
velocity head to the flow depth for critical
flow condition, is [GATE 2019 FN]
A.2/3
B.2
C.1/2
D.3/2
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13909
for a best symmetrical trapezoidal section
of an open channel with a given area of
section and side slopes ,one of the
following statements holds true:[GATE-97]
A.half the top width is equal to one of the
side slope
B.half the top width plus the bottom width
is equal to both the side sloeps put
together
C.water depth is equal to half bottom width
D.hydraulic mean depth is equal to half the
top width
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 13809
A steep wide rectangular channel takes off
from a reservoir having an elevation of
101.2 m. At the entrance, the bottom
elevation of the channel is 100 m. If the
slope of the channel is increased by 4%,
the discharge per unit length in the
channel will be[GATE-04]
A.2.24 m2/s
B.higher than 2.24 m2/s by 4%
C.higher than 2.24 m2/s by 2%
D.choked
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 13769
The flow rate in a wide rectangular open
channel is 2.0 m3/sec per meter width.The
channel bed slope is 0.002. The Manning’s
roughness coefficient is 0.012. The slope of
the channel is classified as [GATE-07]
(a)Critical
(b)Horizontal
(c)Mild
(d)Steep
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 13768
A triangular open channel has a vertex
angle to 90° and carries flow at a critical
depth of 0.30 m. The discharge in the
channel is [GATE-07]
A.0.08 m3/s
B.0.11 m3/s
C.0.15 m3/s
D.0.2 m3/s
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 13661
The normal depth in a wide rectangular
channel is increased by 10%. The
percentage increase in discharge in the
channel is [GATE 2013]
(A) 20.1
(B) 15.4
(C) 10.5
(D) 17.2
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
Correct Answer: D
10
Question: 13649
For subcritical flow in an open channel, the
control section for gradually varied flow
profile is [GATE 2013]
(A) at the downstream end
(B) at the upstream end
(C) at the both ends
(D) at any intermediate section
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 13633
A rectangular channel of 2.5m width is
carrying a discharge of 4 m3/s .Consider
that acceleration due to gravity as 9.81
m/s2,the velocity of flow (in m/s)
corresponding to the critical depth (at
which the specific energy is minimum is
____[GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 2.45-2.55
12
Question: 13552
A circular pipe has a diameter of 1m, bed
slope of 1 in 1000, and Manning’s
roughness coefficient equal to 0.01. It may
be treated as an open channel flow when it
is flowing just full, i.e., the water level just
touches the crest. The discharge in this
condition is denoted by Qfull. Similarly, the
discharge when the pipe is flowing half-full,
i.e., with a flow depth of 0.5m, is denoted
by Qhalf. The ratio
is: [GATE-15]
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
Correct Answer: C
13
Question: 13517
A hydraulically efficient trapezoidal channel
section has a uniform flow depth of 2m.
The bed width (expressed in m) of the
channel is __ [GATE 2016 FN]
Correct Answer: 2.3-2.3
14
Question: 13466
A 1 m wide rectangular channel carries a
discharge of 2 m3/s. The specific energydepth diagram is prepared for the channel.
It is observed in this diagram that
corresponding to a particular specific
energy, the subcritical depth is twice the
supercritical depth. The subcritical depth
(in meters, up to two decimal places) is
equal to _______ [GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 1.069-1.069
15
Question: 13433
A sluice gate used to control the flow in a
horizontal channel of unit width is shown in
figure
It is observed that the depth of flow is 1.0
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
m upstream of the gate, while the depth is
0.2 m downstream of the gate. Assuming a
smooth flow transition across the sluice
Gate, i.e., without any energy loss, and the
acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2, the
discharge (in m3/s), up to two decimal
places) passing under the sluice Gate
is_______
[GATE 2017 FN]
Correct Answer: 0.82-0.82
16
Question: 12244
In a 5 m wide rectangular channel, the
velocity u distribution in the vertical
direction y is given by u=1.25 y 1/6. The
distance y is measured from the channel
bed. If the flow depth is 2 m, the discharge
per unit width of the channel is (GATE
2018 AN)
(A) 2.40 m3/s/m
(B) 2.80 m3/s/m
(C) 3.27 m3/s/m
(D) 12.02 m3/s/m
Correct Answer: A
17
Question: 12227
For a given discharge in an open channel,
there are two depths which have the same
specific energy. These two depths are
known as (GATE 2018 AN)
(A) alternate depths
(B) critical depths
(C) normal depths
(D) sequent depths
Correct Answer: A
18
Question: 12180
A 10 m wide rectangular channel carries a
discharge of 20 m3 /s under critical
condition. Using g = 9.81
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
m/s2, the specific energy (in m, up to two
decimal places) is ______
(GATE 2018FN)
Correct Answer: 1.10 -1.20
19
Question: 5964
through the smooth transition between two
rectangular channels the width increases
from 3.0 m to 3.6 m but the water surface
does not change in elevation.the upstream
depth is 1.5 m.How much is the channel
bed raised in the transition? (GATE-98)
Correct Answer: A
20
Question: 5962
Uniform flow occurs at a depth of 1.50 m in
a rectangular channel 3m wide and laid to
a slope of 0.0009 .If Manning’s n=0.015
,calculate (a) Maximum height of hump on
the floor to produce critical depth ,(b)
Maximum height of hump sothat upstream
depth will not be affected (c) the width of
contraction width will produce critical
depth without increasing the upstream
depth of flow. (GATE-96)
Correct Answer: A
21
Question: 5961
An irrigation channel is to carry a full
supply discharge of 30 m3/sec at a velocity
of 1.75 m/sec .the side slopes are to be
1H:1V.the ratio of full supply depth to bed
width is to be 1:6.assuming the Manning’s
‘n’ as 0.018. calculate the full supply
depth ,bed width and bed slope of the
channel.(GATE-95)
Correct Answer: A
22
Question: 5960
A trapezoidal channel,shown in the figure
carries a water discharge of 10 m3/sec
uniform flow conditions.the long slope of
the channel bed is 0.001.Compute the
average shear stress in N/mm2 on the
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
boundary.Also compute Mannings ‘n’ Value
(GATE-90)
Correct Answer: A
23
Question: 5952
A rectangular channel having a bed slope
of 0.001 ,width 3.0 m and manning’s
coefficient ‘n’ 0.015,carries a discharge of
1.0m3/s.given that the normal depth of flow
ranges between 0.76 m and 0.8m .the
minimum width of a throat (in m) that is
possible at a given section ,while ensuring
that the prevailing normal depth is not
exceeded along the reach upstream of the
contraction,is approximately equal to
(assume negligible losses) [GATE-14 FN]
(a) 0.64
(b) 0.84
(c) 1.04
(d) 1.24
Correct Answer: B
24
Question: 5951
the channel depth in a wide rectangular
channel is increased by 10% the
percentage increase in the discharge in the
channel is [GATE 2013]
(a)20.1
(b) 15.4
(c) 10.5
(d)17.2
Correct Answer: D
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
25
Question: 5948
the Froude number of flow in a rectangular
channel is 0.8m.If the depth of flow is
1.5m,the critical depth is (GATE-10)
(a) 1.80m
(b)1.56m
(c)1.36m
(d)1.29m
Correct Answer: D
26
Question: 5946
For a rectangular channel section Group –I
lists geometrical elements and Group-II
gives proportions for hydraulically efficient
section(GATE-10)
Ye is the flow depth corresponding
to hydraulically efficient section .the
correct match of group –I with Group –II is
A. P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3
B. P-3,Q-1,R-4,S-2
C. P-3,Q-4,R-1,S-2
D. P-3,Q-4,R-2,S-1
Correct Answer: C
27
Question: 5945
A rectangular open channel of width 4.5m
is carrying a discharge of 100m3/sec.the
critical depth of the channe is [GATE-09]
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
(a) 7.09m
(b) 3.69m
(c) 2.16m
(d) 1.31m
Correct Answer: B
28
Question: 5944
A rectangular channel 6.0 m wide carries a
discharge of 16.0m3/s under uniform flow
condition with normal depth of 1.60
m.Manning’s ‘n’ is 0.015(GATE-08)
Q.)the channel width is to be contracted
.the minimum width to which the channel
can be contracted with out affecting the
upstream flow condition is
(a) 3.0 m
(b) 3.8m
(c) 4.1 m
(d) 4.5m
Correct Answer: C
29
Question: 5943
A rectangular channel 6.0 m wide carries a
discharge of 16.0m3/s under uniform flow
condition with normal depth of 1.60
m.Manning’s ‘n’ is 0.015(GATE-08)
Q) A hump is to be provided on the
channel bed .the maximum height of the
hump without affecting the upstream flow
condition is
(a)0.50 m
(b)0.40m
(c)0.30 m
(d)0.20m
Correct Answer: B
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
30
Question: 5942
A rectangular channel 6.0 m wide carries a
discharge of 16.0m3/s under uniform flow
condition with normal depth of 1.60
m.Manning’s ‘n’ is 0.015(GATE-08)
Q.)The longitudinal slope of the channel is
(a)0.000585
(b) 0.000485
(c) 0.000385
(d) 0.000285
Correct Answer: A
31
Question: 5941
A rectangular open channel has a vertex
angle of 900 and carrions es flow at a
critical depth of 0.30m.The discharge in the
channel is (GATE-07)
(a) 0.08m3/s
(b) 0.01 m3/s
(c) 0.15 m3/s
(d) 0.2 m3/s
Correct Answer: A
32
Question: 5938
A rectangular open channel needs to be
designed to carry a flow of 2.0 m3/s under
uniform flow conditions. The manning’s
roughness coefficient is 0.018.the channel
should be such that the flow depth is equal
to half the width, and the Froude number is
equal to 0.5
Q)keeping the width ,flow depth and
roughness the same ,if the bed slope of the
above channel is doubled,the average
boundary shear stress under uniform flow
conditions is(GATE-07)
(a)5.6 N/m2
(b)10.8 N/m2
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
(c)12.3 N/m2
(d)17.2 N/m2
Correct Answer: D
33
Question: 5934
a very wide rectangular channel is
designed to carry a discharge of 5 m3/s per
meter width.the design is based on the
Manning’s equation with the roughness
coefficient obtained from the grain size
using Strickler’s equation and results in a
normal depth of 1.0 m.by mistake ,however
,the engineer used grain diameter in mm in
the strickler’s equation instead of in
meter.What should be the correct normal
depth? (GATE-06)
(a) 0.32m
(b) 0.50 m
(c) 2m
(d) 3.2m
Correct Answer: B
34
Question: 5933
.Critical depth at a section of a rectangular
channel is 1.5 m .the specific energy at the
section is (GATE-05)
(a) 0.75m
(b) 1.0m
(c) 1.5m
(d) 2.25m
Correct Answer: D
35
Question: 5932
Critical depth at a section of a rectangular
channel is 1.5 m .the specific energy at the
section is (GATE-05)
(a) 0.75m
(b) 1.0m
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
(c) 1.5m
(d) 2.25m
Correct Answer: A
36
Question: 5929
A triangular irrigation lined canal carries a
discharge of 25 m3/s at bed slope of
.If the side slopes of the canal are 1:1 and
Manning’s coefficient is 0.018,the central
depth of flow is equal to (GATE-05)
(a) 1.98 m
(b) 3.62m
(c) 4.91 m
(d) 5.61m
Correct Answer: A
37
Question: 5927
A wide channel is 1m deep and has a
velocity of flow V as 2.13 m/s if a
disturbance is caused ,an elementary wave
can travel upstream with a velocity of
(GATE-04)
(a) 1.00 m/s
(b) 2.13 m/s
(c) 3.13 m/s
(d) 5.26 m/s
Correct Answer: A
38
Question: 5926
A step wide rectangular channel takes off
from a reservoir having an elevation of the
channel is 100m.if the slope of the channel
is increased by 4% ,the discharge per unit
length in the channel will be (GATE-04)
(a) 2.24 m2/s
(b) higher than 2.24 m2/s by 4%
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
(c) higher than 2.24 m2/s by 2 %
(d) choked
Correct Answer: C
39
Question: 5925
A Steady flow occurs in an open channel
with lateral inflow of q m3 /s per unit width
as shown in the figure .the mass
conservation equation is (GATE-04)
Correct Answer: C
40
Question: 5920
.A trapezoidal chanel with bottom width of
3m and side slope of 1V:1.5 H carries a
discharge of 8.0 m3/sec with the flow depth
of 1.5 m .The Froude number of the flow is
(GATE-01)
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
(a) 0.066
(b) 0.132
(c) 0.265
(d) 0.528
Correct Answer: C
41
Question: 5919
water flows at a depth of 0.1 m with a
velocity of 6m/s in a rectangular channel
.the alternate depth is (GATE-00)
(a) 0.30m
(b) 0.40m
(c) 0.86m
(d) 0.81m
Correct Answer: D
42
Question: 5918
Water flows at a rate of 10 m3/s in a
rectangular channel 3m wide .the critical
depth of flow is(GATE-00)
(a) 1.13m
(b) 2m
(c) 1.45m
(d) 1.04m
Correct Answer: D
43
Question: 5908
A rectangular open channel of width 5.0 m
is carrying a discharge of 100 m3/s.The
Froude number of the flow is 0.8.the depth
of flow (in m) in the channel is (GATE-12)
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 16
(d)20
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
Correct Answer: A
44
Question: 5907
A trapezoidal channel is 10.0 m wide at the
base and has a side of 4 horizontal to 3
vertical .The bed slope is 0.002.the channel
is lined with smooth concrete (manning’s
n=0.012) .The hydraulic radius (in m) for a
depth of flow of 3.0 m is (GATE-12)
(a) 20.0
(b) 3.5
(c) 3.0
(d) 2.1
Correct Answer: D
45
Question: 5905
For a given discharge,the critical flow
depth in an open channel depends on
[GATE-11]
(a) channel geometry only
(b) channel geometry and bed slope
(c) channel geometry ,bed slope and
roughness
(d) channel geometry ,bed slope
,roughness and Reynolds number
Correct Answer: A
46
Question: 5904
The flow in a rectangular channel is
subcritical .If width of the channel is
reduced at a certain section ,the water
surface under no-choke condition will
(GATE-10)
(a) drop at a downstream section
(b) rise at a downstream section
(c) rise at an upstream section
(d) not undergo any change
Correct Answer: A
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
47
Question: 5902
A person standing on the bank of a canal
drops a stone on the water surface.He
notices that the disturbances on the water
surfaces is not travelling upstream .this is
because the flow in the canal is(GATE-08)
(a) sub critical
(b) super-critical
(c) steady
(d) uniform
Correct Answer: B
48
Question: 5901
The necessary and sufficient condition for a
surface to be called as a free surface is
(GATE-06)
(a) no stress should be acting on it
(b) tensile stress acting on it must be zero
(c) shear stress acting on it must be zero
(d) no point on it should be under any
stress
Correct Answer: C
49
Question: 5897
Flow at critical depth takes place in an
open channel when (GATE-96)
(a) For a given specific energy ,discharge is
maximum
(b) For a given discharge ,specific energy is
maximum
(c) Discharge is minimum for a given
specific force
(d) Discharge is maximum for a given
specific force
Correct Answer: B
50
Question: 5891
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
it is most appropriate to say that uniform
flow in an open-channel occurs when there
is a balance between (GATE-90)
(a) Gravity and frictional forces
(b) Gravity and inertial forces
(c) inertial and frictional forces
(d) inertial and viscous forces
Correct Answer: A
51
Question: 5890
A rectangular channel of 4 m width
conveys water at 2 m3/s under critical
condition.Specific energy for this flow is
(GATE-88)
(a) 1.1123m
(b) 1.4830m
(c) 0.3703m
(d) 0.7416m
Correct Answer: A
52
Question: 5889
Along prismatic channel ends in an abrupt
drop in bed. Choose one of the following
statements that adequately explains the
water surface profile on the upstream of
the drop ,for an initially sub critically
flow(GATE-88)
(a) Water surface lies between critical and
normal depth lines
(b) Water surface profile starts from critical
depth line and joins the normal depth line
asymptotically
(c) Water surface lies wholly above normal
depth line
(d) Water surface lies wholly below critical
depth line
Correct Answer: A
53
Question: 5888
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Open Channel Uniform Flow
.Uniform flow in a channel characterized by
one or more of the following statements
(GATE-88)
(a) gradient of the total energy is parallel t
the channel bed
(b) total Energy remains constant along the
channel
(c) specific Energy remains constant along
the channel
(d) Total energy line under either rises or
falls depending on Froude number
Correct Answer: A
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16236
At the foot of a spillyway, water flows at a
depth of 23 cm with a velocity of 8.1 m/s,
as shown in the figure.
The flow enters as an M-3 profile in the
long wide rectangular channel with bed
slope11800 and Manning’s n = 0.015. A
hydraulic jump is formed at a certain
distance from the foot of the spillway.
Assume the acceleration due to gravity, g
= 9.81 m/s2. Just before the hydraulic
jump, the depth of flow y1 (in m, round off
to 2 decimal places) is ________. [GATE
2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 0.42-0.42
2
Question: 13783
A hydraulic jump occurs in a rectangular,
horizontal, frictionless channel. What would
be the pre-jump depth if the discharge per
unit width 2 m3/s/m and the energy loss is
1 m? [GATE-06]
(a)0.2m
(b)0.3 m
(c)0.8 m
(d)0.9 m
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 13774
A channel with a mild slope is followed by a
horizontal channel and then by a steep
channel. What gradually varied flow
profiles will occur ? [GATE-06]
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
A.M1,H1,S1
B.M2,H2,S2
C.M1,H2,S3
D.M1,H2,S2
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 13756
water emerges from an ogee spillway with
velocity = 13.72 m/s and depth = 0.3 m at
its toe. The tail water depth required to
form a hydraulic jump at the toe
is [GATE-08]
A.6.48 m
B.5.24 m
C.3.24 m
D.2.24 m
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13580
A hydraulic jump takes place in a
frictionless rectangular channel. The prejump depth is yp. The alternate and
sequent depths corresponding to yp are
ya and ys respectively. The correct
relationship among yp , ya and ys
is [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: B
6
Question: 13565
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
A hydraulic jump is formed in a 2m wide
rectangular channel which is horizontal and
frictionless. The post-jump depth and
velocity are 0.8 m and 1 m/s, respectively.
The prejump velocity is ___________ m/s.
(use = 10m2/s). [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 4.94-4.94
7
Question: 13564
A short reach of a 2m wide rectangular
open channel has its bed level rising in the
direction of flow at a slope of 1 in 10000.It
carries a discharge of 4 m3/s and its
manning’s roughness coefficient is 0.01.the
flow in this reach is gradually varying .At a
certain section in this reach ,the depth of
flow was measured as 0.5 m.the rate of
change of the water depth with distance,
,at this section ____(use g=10
m/s2) [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 0.0032-0.0032
8
Question: 13538
a 3m wide rectangular channel carries a
flow of 6m3/s. The depth of flow at a
section P is 0.5m. a flat topped hump is to
be placed a a downstream of section
P.Assume negligable energy loss between
section P and hump, and consider g as 9.81
m/sec2. The maximum height of
hump(expressed in m) which will not
change the depth of flow at section P
is....................
Correct Answer: 0.205-0.205
9
Question: 13516
A 4 m wide rectangular channel, having
bed slope of 0.001 carries a discharge
of 16 m3/s. Considering Manning's
roughness coefficient = 0.012 and g = 10
m/s2, the category of the channel slope
is [GATE 2016 FN]
(A) Horizontal
(B) mild
(C) critical
(D) steep
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 13505
The pre-jump Froude Number for a
particular flow in a horizontal rectangular
channel is 10. The ratio of sequent depths
(i.e., post-jump depth to pre-jump depth)
is ___ [GATE 2016 FN]
Correct Answer: 13.65-13.65
11
Question: 13440
A 1 m wide rectangular channel has a bed
slope of 0.0016 and the Manning’s
roughness coefficient is 0.04. Uniform flow
takes place in the channel at a flow depth
of 0.5 m. At a particular section, gradually
varied flow (GVF) is observed and the flow
depth is measured as 0.6 m. The GVF
profile at that section is classified as
(A) S1
(B) S2
(C) M1
(D) M2
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 12193
Variation of water depth (y) in a gradually
varied open channel flow is given by the
first order differential equation
Given initial condition: y(x=0) =0.8m. The
depth (in m, up to three decimal places) of
flow at a downstream section at x=1m
from one calculation step of Single step
Euler Method is _______[GATE 2018 FN]
Correct Answer: 0.78-0.80
13
Question: 5967
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
The Conjugate depths for hydraulic jump in
a rectangular channel are 0.5 m and 2 m
respectively .Calculate the discharge fro
meter width .what is the depth fro which
critical flow occurs .What is the energy
loss? Draw a neat sketch of the flow
pattern in the above hydraulic jump.
[GATE -02]
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 5966
A spillway has its crest at an elevation of
+104 m on the downstream side.Find the
tail water elevation required to form a
hydraulic jump when the elevation of the
energy line above the crest is +146.5
m.The cd for the flow can be assumed as
0.73.the energy loss over the spillway face
may be neglected(GATE-01)
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 5965
An overflow spillway is 40 m high .water
flows down the spillway with a head of 2.5
m over the spillway crest .the spillway
discharge coefficient Cd=0.738.Show that
the water depth at the toe of the spillway
would be 0.3 m.Determine the sequent
depth required for the formation of the
hydraulic jump and the loss of head in the
jump(GATE-98)
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 5963
A hydraulic jump occurs in wide
,rectangular channel with initial and
sequent depths of 0.5 m and 2.0 m
respectively .Calculate(GATE-97)
(a) The discharge in m3/sec per metre
width
(b) The possible critical depth for this
critical depth for this discharge
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
(c) the energy loss in the jump,(in meters
head)
Correct Answer: A
17
Question: 5959
A trapezoidal channel,shown in the figure
carries a water discharge of 10 m3/sec
uniform flow conditions.the long slope of
the channel bed is 0.001.Compute the
average shear stress in N/mm2 on the
boundary.Also compute Mannings ‘n’ Value
(GATE-90)
Correct Answer: A
18
Question: 5958
Determine the most efficient section of a
trapezoidal channel with ‘n’=0.025 to carry
a discharge of 15 m3/sec to prevent
scouring,the maximum velocity is to be 1
m/sec and the side slope of the trapezoidal
channel are 1 vertical to 2 horizontal.
(GATE-89)
Correct Answer: A
19
Question: 5957
A lined rectangular channel with Manning’s
n=0.015 is 5m wide and has a flow depth
of 2m with the bed slope of 1 in
1600.retaining the rectangular shape of
channel section and the same total area of
lining ,to what maximum extent can be
discharge be increased without changing
the bedslope?Does the flow change from
sub critical to super critical state by this
increase in discharge. (GATE-87)
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
Correct Answer: A
20
Question: 5956
A lined rectangular channel with Manning’s
n=0.015 is 5m wide and has a flow depth
of 2m with the bed slope of 1 in
1600.retaining the rectangular shape of
channel section and the same total area of
lining ,to what maximum extent can be
discharge be increased without changing
the bedslope?Does the flow change from
sub critical to super critical state by this
increase in discharge. (GATE-87)
Correct Answer: A
21
Question: 5954
a hydraulic jump is a 2m wide rectangular
channel which is horizontal and
frictionless.The post-jump depth and
velocity are 0.8m and 1 m/s
,respectively.The pre-jump velocity is ___
m/s(use g=10 m/s2)[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: A
22
Question: 5949
A spillway discharges flood flow at a rate of
9m3/s per metre width .if the depth of flow
on the horizontal apron at the toe of the
spillway is 46 cm,the tail water depth
needed to form a hydraulic jump is
approximately given by which of the
following options? [GATE-11]
(a) 2.54m
(b) 4.90m
(c) 5.77 m
(d) 6.23m
Correct Answer: C
23
Question: 5947
A mild sloped channel is followed by a
steep sloped channel.the profiles of
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
gradually varied flow in the channel are
(GATE-10)
(a)M3,S2
(b)M3,S3
(c)M2,S1
(d)M2,S2
Correct Answer: D
24
Question: 5940
The flow ractangular in a wide rectangular
open channel is 2.0 m2/s per metre
width.the channel bed slope is 0.002.the
manning’s roughness coeffieicent is 0.012
.the slope of the channel is classified as
(GATE-07)
(a) critical
(b) Horizontal
(c) mild
(d) Steep
Correct Answer: D
25
Question: 5939
There is a free over fall at the end of a long
open channel .For a given flow rate,the
critical depth is less than the normal depth
.What gradually varied flow profile will
occur in the channel for this flow rate?
(GATE-07)
(a)M1
(b)M2
(c) M3
(d)S1
Correct Answer: B
26
Question: 5937
A rectangular open channel needs to be
designed to carry a flow of 2.0 m3/s under
uniform flow conditions. The manning’s
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
roughness coefficient is 0.018.the channel
should be such that the flow depth is equal
to half the width, and the Froude number is
equal to 0.5(GATE-07)
Q)The bed slope of the channel to be
provided is
(a) 0.0012
(b) 0.0021
(c)0.0025
(d)0.0052
Correct Answer: B
27
Question: 5936
A hydraulic jump occurs in a rectangular
,horizontal ,frictionless channel .What
would be the pre-jump depth if the
discharge per unit width is 2 m3/s/m and
the energy loss is 1m? (GATE-06)
(a) 0.2m
(b) 0.3m
(c) 0.8 m
(d) 0.9m
Correct Answer: B
28
Question: 5935
A channel with a mild slope is followed by
a horizontal channel and then by a steep
channel.What gradually varied flow profiles
will occur? (GATE-06)
(a) M1,H1,S1
(b) M2,H2,S2
(c) M1,H2,S3
(d) M1,H2,S2
Correct Answer: D
29
Question: 5931
A partially open sluice gate discharges
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
water into a rectangular channel.the tail
water depth in the channel is 3m and
Froude number is .if a free hydraulic jump
is to be formed at downstream of the sluice
gate after the vena contracta of the jet
coming out from the sluice gate,the sluice
gate opening should be (coefficient of
contraction Cc=0.9) (GATE-05)
(a) 0.3m
(b)0.4 m
(c) .69 m
(d)0.9m
Correct Answer: C
30
Question: 5930
A horizontal bed channel is followed by a
steep bed channel as shown in figure .the
gradually-varied profiles over the
horizontal and steep beds are (GATE-05)
(a) H2 and S2 respectively
(b) H2 and S1 respectively
(c) H3 and S2 respectively
(d) H3 and S1 respectively
Correct Answer: D
31
Question: 5928
The height of a hydraulic jump in the
stilling of 1:25 scale model was observed to
be 10 cm.the corresponding prototype
height of the jump is (GATE-04)
(a) not determinable from the data given
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
(b) 2.5m
(C) 0.5m
(d)0.1 m
Correct Answer: B
32
Question: 5924
A very wide rectangular channel carries a
discharge of 8m3/s/m width .the channel
has a bed slope of 0.004 and Manning’s
roughness coefficient,n=0.015 .At a certain
section of the channel.the flow depth is 1m
Q)At what distance from this section the
flow depth will be 0.9m? use the direct step
method employing a single
step.) [GATE-03]
(a)65m downstream
(b) 50 m downstream
(c) 50 m upstream
(d) 65m upstream
Correct Answer: B
33
Question: 5923
A very wide rectangular channel carries a
discharge of 8m3/s/m width .the channel
has a bed slope of 0.004 and Manning’s
roughness coefficient,n=0.015 .At a certain
section of the channel.the flow depth is 1m
Q.What Gradually varied Flow profile exists
at this section ? (GATE-03)
(a)M2
(b)M3
(c)S2
(d)S3
Correct Answer: D
34
Question: 5922
A hydraulic jump takes place in a triangular
channel of vertex angle 900 ,as shown
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
figure .The discharge is 1m3/s and the pre
jump depth is 0.5m.what will be the post
jump depth? (take=g=9.81 m/s2)
(GATE-03)
(a) 0.57 m
(b) 0.91 m
(c) 1.02 m
(d) 1.57m
Correct Answer: C
35
Question: 5921
In a lined rectangular canal,the Froude
number of incoming flow is 3.0 .A hydraulic
jump forms
when it meets the pool of
water .the depth of flow after the jump
formation is 1.51m.froude number of flow
after the hydraulic jump is : [GATE -02]
(a) 0.30
(b) 0.71
(c) 0.41
(d) None of the above
Correct Answer: C
36
Question: 5917
The sequent depth ratio of a hydraulic
jump in a rectangular horizontal channel is
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
10.30.the Froude number at the beginning
of the jump is (GATE-99)
(a) 5.64
(b)7.63
(c)8.05
(d)13.61
Correct Answer: B
37
Question: 5915
a steady discharge of 1 cumec flows
uniformly in a rectangular channel 1 m
wide at a depth of 250 mm.the slope of the
channel bed is (GATE-95)
(a) adverse
(b) steep
(c) critical
(d) mild
Correct Answer: B
38
Question: 5914
water flows in a rectangular channel at a
depth of 1.20 m and a velocity of 2.4 m/s.A
local rise in the bed of 0.6 m will cause
(GATE-93&98)
(a) the surface to rise
(b) the surface to fall
(c) a stationary jump to form
(d) a surge to travel upstream
Correct Answer: D
39
Question: 5913
A discharge of 1 cumec is flowing in a
rectangular channel one meter wide at a
depth 0f 20cm.the bedslope of the channel
is (GATE-92)
(a) mild
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
(b) critical
(c) steep
(d) adverse
Correct Answer: C
40
Question: 5912
The conjugate depths at a location in a
horizontal rectangular channel ,4m wide
,are 0.2 m and 1.0 m.the discharge in the
channel is _____m3/s (GATE-91)
Correct Answer: A
41
Question: 5911
A 3 meter wide rectangular channel flowing
at its normal depth of 0.8 m carries a
discharge of 9.5 m3/s.The slope of the
channel is (GATE-87)
(a) steep
(b) critical
(c) mild
(d) adverse
Correct Answer: A
42
Question: 5910
A hydraulic jump takes place in a
frictionless rectangular channel .The pre
jump depth is yp .the alternate and sequent
depths corresponding to Yp are ya and ys
respectively.the correct relationship among
yp,ya and ys is : [GATE-15]
(a) yp<ya < ys
(b) yp<ys < ya
(c) yp<ys = ya
(d) yp=ys = ya
Correct Answer: B
43
Question: 5906
The flow in a horizontal frictionless
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
rectangular open channel is super critical
.A smooth hump is built on the channel
floor.As the height of hump is increased
choked condition is attained .With further
increase in the height of the hump,the
water surface will(GATE-11)
(a) rise at a section upstream of the hump
(b) drop at a section upstream of the hump
(c) drop at the hump
(d) rise at the hump.
Correct Answer: B
44
Question: 5903
Direct step method of computation for
gradually varied flow is [GATE-09]
(a) Applicable to non-prismatic channels
(b) Applicable to prismatic channels
(c) Applicable to both prismatic and nonprismatic channels
(d) Not applicable to both prismatic and
non-prismatic channels
Correct Answer: B
45
Question: 5899
The downstream End of long prismatic
channel of mild slope ends in a pool
created by a dam.the resulting non-uniform
water surface profile can be described as
one of the following . (GATE-97)
(a)M3 profile ending in a hydraulic jump
(b) M1 profile that lies above a normal
depth line.
(c) M2 profile that lies between critical and
normal depth lines
(d) M3 profile that lies between critical and
normal depth lines.
Correct Answer: D
46
Question: 5898
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
The water surface profile resulting from
flow underneath the gate in figure is
(GATE-96)
(a) H3
(b) H1
(c) H2
(d) S2
Correct Answer: A
47
Question: 5896
In deriving the equation for the hydraulic
jump in a rectangular channel interms of
the conjugate depths and the initial Froude
number (GATE-95)
(a) Continuity equation and energy
equation are used
(b) Continuity equation and momentum
equation are used
(c) Equations of continuity,momentum and
energy are used
(d) Gradually varied flow equation is used
Correct Answer: A
48
Question: 5895
A section in open channel at which a fixed
relationship exists between the discharge
and the depth of flow is called as a section
(GATE-95)
Correct Answer: A
49
Question: 5894
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
The hydraulic jump always occurs from
(GATE-94)
(a) a M2 curve to a M1 curve
(b) a H3 curve to a H1 curve
(c) below normal depth to above normal
depth
(d) below critical depth above critical depth
Correct Answer: A
50
Question: 5893
The discharge from a spillway on a
horizontal floor is 8m3/s per meter width.If
the depth before the jump is 50 cm,the
depth after the jump will be _____meters.
(GATE-92)
Correct Answer: 4.86-4.86
51
Question: 5892
If y1 and y2 are depths upstream and
downstream of a hydraulic jump
respectively ,the loss of energy due to
hydraulic jump is (GATE-90)
Correct Answer: A
52
Question: 5882
A: 1:50 scale model of a spillway is to be
tested in the laboratory . the discharge in
the prototype is 1000m3/s the discharge to
be maintained in the model test
is___(GATE-07)
a)057m3 /s
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Open Channel nonUniform Fl
b) 0.08m3/s
c) 0.57m3/s
d) 5.7m3s
Correct Answer: A
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compressible Flow
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16205
A solid sphere of radius, r, and made of
material with density ρs is moving through
the atmosphere (constant pressure, p) with
a velocity, v. The net force ONLY due to
atmospheric pressure (Fp) acting on the
sphere at any time, t, is [GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 5867
An automobile with projected area 2.6 m2
is running on a road with a speed of 120
kmph.The mass density and the Kinematic
viscosity of air are 1.2Kg/m3 and 1.5 x 10-5
m2/s respectively.the drag coefficient is
0.30
The metric horse power required to
overcome the drag force is (GATE-08)
(a) 33.23
(b)31.23
(c)23.23
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 5866
An automobile with projected area 2.6 m2
is running on a road with a speed of 120
kmph.The mass density and the Kinematic
viscosity of air are 1.2Kg/m3 and 1.5 x 10-5
m2/s respectively.the drag coefficient is
0.30
Q.the drag force on the automobile is
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compressible Flow
(GATE-08)
(a) 620 N
(b)600N
(c)580N
(d)520N
Correct Answer: D
4
Question: 5862
A solid sphere (diameter 6mm) is rising
through oil (mass density 900 kg/m3.
Dynamic viscosity of 0.7 kg/m-s)at a
constant velocity of 1 cm/s .what is the
specific weight of the material from which
the sphere is made ? (take g=9.81 m/s2)
(GATE-03)
(a) 4.3 KN/m3
(b) 5.32 KN/m3
(c) 8.7 KN/m3
(d)12.3 KN/m3
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 5861
two steel spheres of diamteres d1 and d2
where d2=2d1 are dropped from rest at the
free surface of a deep well .If their drag
coefficients are independent of Reynolds
number ,the ratio of their terminal
velocities is (GATE-90)
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compressible Flow
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 5857
A jet of air directed over a circular cylinder
as shown in figure below.neglecting
viscous effects,the force acting on the
cylinder due to the air motion is
(GATE-96)
(a) Upwards
(b) Downwards
(c) in the direction of the jet flow
(d)zero
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 5856
on an immersed body in a flowing fluid the
lift force is (GATE-96)
(a) Due to buoyant force
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compressible Flow
(b) Always in the opposite direction to
gravity
(c)Due to wake phenomenon
(d) the dynamic fluid force component
normal to approach velocity
Correct Answer: A
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Dimensional Analysis
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16130
Consider a two-dimensional flow through
isotropic soil along x direction and z
direction. If h is the hydraulic head, the
Laplace?s equation of continuity is
expressed as [GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 12179
A 1:50 model of a spillway is to be tested in
the laboratory. The discharge in the
prototype spillway is 1000
m3/s. The corresponding discharge (in m3/s,
up to two decimal places) to be maintained
in the model, neglecting variation in
acceleration due to gravity, is_____ (GATE
2018FN)
Correct Answer: 0.0565-0.0565
3
Question: 5886
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Dimensional Analysis
A 1: 49 scale model of a proposed dam is
used to predict prototype flow conditions .
the design Flood discharge near the
spillway is 1500m3/s Establish the relation
between velocities in the model and
prototype . what flow rate should be
established in the model to simulate this
flow ? if a velocity of 1.2 m/s is measured
at a point in the model what is the velocity
at a corresponding point in the prototype ?
(GATE-00)
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 5885
A shallow wide river 1500m wide has flow
of 3000 m3/sec with a velocity of 1.5m/sec
manning’s (n) for the river is 0.025. if a
hydraulic model with vertical scale 1: 40
and
horizontal scale of 1:800, is to be
built , what would be the manning’s ‘n’ for
the model ? (GATE-87)
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 5884
The drag force , FD on sphere kept in a
uniform flow field depends on the diameter
of the sphere , D; flow velocity , V, fluid
density ,ρ ; and dynamic viscosity ,µ.
Which of the following options represents
the non-dimensional parameter which
could be used to analyze this
problem?[GATE-15]
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Dimensional Analysis
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 5883
A river reach of 2.0 km long with
maximum flood discharge of 10000m3/s is
to be physically modeled in the laboratory
where maximum available discharge is
0.20m3/s for a geometrically similar model
based on equality of Froude’s number the
length of the river reach (m) in the model is
___(GATE-08)
a) 26.4
b) 25.0
c) 20.5
d) 18.0
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 5881
The flow of glycerin ( kinematic viscosity
v= 5x10-4m2/s in an open channel is to be
modeled in a laboratory flume using water
(v= 10-6 m2/s ) as the flowing fluid . if both
gravity and viscosity are important, what
should be the length scale (i.e, Ratio of
prototype to model dimensions) for
maintaining dynamic similarity? (GATE-06)
a)1
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Dimensional Analysis
b) 22
c) 63
d) 500
Correct Answer: C
8
Question: 5880
A laboratory model of a river is built to a
geometric scale 1:100 the fluid used in the
model is oil of mass density 900kg/m3. The
highest flood in the river is 10,000m3/sec.
the corresponding discharge in the model
shall be(GATE-03)
a) 0.95m3/s
b) 0.100m3/s
c) 0.105m3/s
d) 10.5m3/s
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 5879
In a 1/50 model of a spill way the discharge
was measured to be 0.3 m3/sec. the
corresponding prototype discharge in
m3/sec is(GATE-01)
a) 0
b) 15.0
c) 106.0
d) 5303.0
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 5878
The relationship between the length scale
ratio (Lr) and the velocity scale ratio (Vr) in
hydraulic models in which Froude dynamic
similarity is maintained , is___[GATE-15]
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Dimensional Analysis
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 5877
Group-I contains dimensionless parameters
and group-II contains the ratios. [GATE
2013]
GroupI
1. Mach number
2. Reynolds number
3. Weber number
4. Froude number
Group-II
1. Ratio of inertia force and
gravitational force
2. Ratio of fluid velocity and velocity
of sound
3. Ratio of inertia force and viscous
force
4. Ratio of force and surface tension
force
The correct match of dimensionless
parameters in group-I with ratios in group-II
is:
1. P-3,
2. P-3,
3. P-2,
4. P-1,
Q-2,
Q-4,
Q-3,
Q-3,
R-4, S-1
R-2,S-1
R-4, S-1
R-2,S-4
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Dimensional Analysis
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 5876
Both Reynolds and Froude numbers
assume significance in one of the following
examples(GATE-97)
A. Motion of submarine at large
depths
B. Motion of ship in deep seas
C. Cruising of a missile in air
D. Flow over spillways
Correct Answer: B
13
Question: 5875
The repeating variable in dimensional
analysis should (GATE-96)
1. Include the dependent variable
2. Have amongst themselves all the
basic dimensions
3. Be derivable from one another
4. Exclude one of the basic
dimensions
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 5874
A 1:30 model of an ogee spill way crest
record and acceleration of 1.3 m/sec2 at a
certain location .the homologous value of
the acceleration in the prototype in
m/sec2 ____(GATE-95)
1. 0.043
2. 0.237
3. 1.30
4. 7.2
Correct Answer: C
15
Question: 5873
The number of π parameter needed to
express the function F(A,V,t.µ,L)=0 are
[GATE-90]
a)5
b)4
c) 3
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Dimensional Analysis
d) 2
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 5872
An 1:50 model of an ogee spillway
crest records an acceleration of 1.5
m/sec2 at a certain location.the
homologous value of acceleration in
the prototype is______(GATE-91)
Correct Answer: A
17
Question: 5871
Dynamic similarly is said to exist between
two fluid flows when at corresponding
points there are(GATE-90)
1. Geometric similarly and similarity of
forces involved
2. Kinematic similarity and geometric
similarity
3. Interactions of inertia and viscous
forces
4. Interactions between inertia ,
viscous and pressure forces
Correct Answer: A
18
Question: 5760
For a two dimensional irrotaional flow ,the
velocity potential is defined as
φ=loge(x2+y2) .Which of the following is a
possible stream function ,ψ ,for this flow?
(GATE-03)
(a) 12tan-1(yx)
(b) tan-1(yx)
(c) 2tan-1(yx)
(d) 2 tan-1(xy)
Correct Answer: C
19
Question: 5724
A Dimensionless combination of pressure
drop ΔP ,dynamic viscosity µ,Velocity V and
length L is (GATE-96)
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Dimensional Analysis
Correct Answer: D
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Hydraulic Machines
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13460
If a centrifugal pump has an impeller speed
of N (in rpm), discharge Q (in m3/s) and the
total head H (in m), the expression for the
specific speed Ns of the pump is given by
[GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 12204
In a laboratory, a flow experiment is
performed over a hydraulic structure. The
measured values of discharge and velocity
are 0.05 m3 /s and 0.25 m/s, respectively. If
the full scale structure (30 times bigger) is
subjected to a discharge of 270 m3 /s, then
the time scale (model to full scale) value
(up to two decimal places) is ______ (GATE
2018FN)
Correct Answer: 0.15-0.25
3
Question: 12067
Identify the false statement from the
following.
The specific speed of the pump increases
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Hydraulic Machines
with . [GATE-06] [GATE-90]
1)increase in shaft speed
2)increase in discharge
3)decrease in gravitational acceleration
4)increase in head
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 5982
The allowable Net positive suction head
(NPSH) for a pump provided by the
manufacturer for a flow of 0.05m3/sec is
3.3.m.The temperature of water is 30oc
(Absolute vapour pressure head =0.04
m).The atmospheric pressure is 100KPa
absolute and the head loss from the
reservoir to pump is 0.3 N-m/N.The
maximum height of the pump above the
suction reservoir is (GATE-04)
(a) 10.19 m
(b) 6.89 m
(c) 6.15 m
(d) 2.86 m
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 5981
A pump can lift water at a discharge of
0.15 m3/sec to a head of 25 m.the critical
cavitaion number (σc) for the pump is
found to be 0.144 The pump is to be
installed at a location where the barometric
pressure is 9.8 m of water and the vapour
pressure of water is 0.30 of water .The
intake pipe friction loss is 0.40 m.Using the
minimum value of NPSH (Net Positive
Suction Head) ,the maximum allowable
elevation above the sump water surface at
which the pump located is [GATE -02][IES
2012]
(a) 9.80 m
(b) 6.20 m
(c) 5.50 m
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Hydraulic Machines
(d) none of the above
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 5980
A hydraulic turbine has a discharge of 5
m3/sec ,when operating under a head of 20
m with a speed of 500 rpm .If it is to
operate under a head of 15 m,for the same
discharge ,the rotational speed in rpm will
approximately be (GATE-99)
(a) 433
(b) 403
(c) 627
(d) 388
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 5979
Water is to be lifted by a net head of
180m.Pumps each with specific speed of
30 and rotational
speed of 1450 rpm with design discharge
of 0.2 m3/sec are available.the minimum
number of pumps required is (GATE-91)
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 5978
Water turbines may be put in the
decreasing order of specific speed as
(GATE-88)
(a) Propeller turbine ,reaction turbine
,Impulse turbine
(b) Pelton turbine ,francis turbine ,Kaplan
turbine
(c) Reaction turbine ,impulse turbine
,Propeller turbines
(d) None of the above
Correct Answer: A
9
Question: 5976
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Hydraulic Machines
if the pump head is 75m,discharge is 0.464
m3/s and the motor speed is 1440 rpm at
rated condition ,the specific speed of the
pump is about (GATE-00)
(a) 4
(b) 26
(c) 38
(d) 1440
Correct Answer: C
10
Question: 5975
the compression between pumps operating
in series and parallel is (GATE-98)
(a) pumps operating in series boost the
discharge ,where as pumps operating in
series boost the head
(b) pumps operating in parallel boost the
discharge ,where as pumps operating in
parallel boost the head
(c) in both cases there would be a boost in
discharge only
(d) in both case there would bbe a boost in
head only
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 5974
A hydraulic turbine develops a power of 10
4
metric horse power while running at a
speed of 100 revolutions per minute ,under
a head of 40 m.its specific speed is nearest
to one of the following :(GATE-97)
(a) 100
(b) 628
(c) 523
(d) 314
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 5973
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Hydraulic Machines
At a rated capacity of 44 cumecs,a
centrifugal pump develops 36 m of head
when operating at 1450 rpm.Its specific
speed is(GATE-96)
(a)654
(b)509
(c)700
(d)90
Correct Answer: A
13
Question: 5972
An impulse turbine (GATE-94)
(a) Always operates submerged
(b) makes use of a draft tube
(c) Operates by initial complete conversion
of pressure energy to kinetic energy
(d) Converts pressure head into velocity
head throughout the vanes
Correct Answer: C
14
Question: 5971
The expression for the specific speed of a
pump (GATE-91)
(a) Does not include the diameter of the
impeller
(b) yields large values for raidial pumps
than for axial flow pumps
(c) is necessary non-dimensional
(d) includes power as one of the variables
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 5970
A forebay in a hyddel system is provided
at the junction of (GATE-91)
(a) The tail race channel and the penstock
(b) The power channel and the tail race
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Hydraulic Machines
channel
(c) the power channel and the penstock
(d) the penstock and the turbine
Correct Answer: C
16
Question: 5969
reciprocating pumps are used for
(GATE-89)
(a)High discharge and low head
(b) Low discharge and low head
(c) high discharge and high head
(d) Low discharge and high head
Correct Answer: A
17
Question: 5968
A surge Tank is provided in the hydropower scheme to (GATE-87)
(a) Strengthen the penstocks
(b) reduce water hammer pressures
(c) reduce frictional losses in the system
(d) Minimize the cost of hydro power
development
Correct Answer: A
18
Question: 5727
Cavitation is caused by(GATE-00)
(a) high velocity
(b)low pressure
(c)high pressure
(d)high temperature
Correct Answer: B
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IRRIGATION
 WATER REQUIRMENT
……………… 233-243
 GRAVITY DAMS
…………….
 SPILLWAYS
……………… 245-245
 DIVERSION HEAD WORKS
………………. 246-248
244-244
 CROSS DRAINAGE WORKS ……………….. 249-249
 CANAL REGULATION WORKS………………..250-250
 LINED AND UNLINED CANALS……………….251-252
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water requirment
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16194
The command area of a canal grows only
one crop, i.e., wheat. The base period of
wheat is 120 days and its total water
requirement, Δ is 40 cm. If the canal
discharge is 2 m3/s, the area, in hectares,
rounded off to the nearest integer, which
could be irrigated (neglecting all losses), is
_______. [GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 5184-5184
2
Question: 13849
if Duty (D) is 1428 hectares/cumec and
base period (B) is 120 days for an irrigated
crop,then delta (Δ) in meters is given
by [ GATE-00]
A.102.8
B.0.73
C.1.38
D.0.01
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 13668
The transplantation of rice requires 10 days
and total depth of water required during
transplantation is 48 cm. During
transplantation there is an effective rainfall
(useful for irrigation) of 8 cm. The duty of
irrigation water in hectare/ cumecs is[GATE
2013]
(A) 612
(B) 216
(C) 300
(D) 108
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 13557
The two columns below show some
parameters and their possible values.
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water requirment
Which of the following options matches the
parameters and the values
correctly?[GATE-15]
A.P-I,Q-II,R-III,S-IV
B.P-III,Q-VI,R-I,S-V
(C) P-I, Q-V, R-VI, S-II
(D) P-III, Q-II, R-V, S-IV
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 13476
The culturable command area of a canal is
10,000 ha. The area grows only two cropsrice in the Kharif season and wheat in the
Rabi season. The design discharge of the
canal is based on the rice requirements,
which has an irrigated area of 2500 ha,
base period of 150 days and delta of 130
cm. The maximum permissible irrigated
area (in ha) for wheat, with a base period
of 120 days and delta of 50 cm,
is______[GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 5200-5200
6
Question: 13286
The details of crops and their duties at the
field are given below
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water requirment
If a distributor is to be provided to supply
irrigation water for the above crops, the
maximum discharge to be maintained in it
at the field is[GATE-15]
A) 10.87 m3 /sec
B) 6.43 m3/sec
C) 6.59 m3/sec
D) 5.20 m3/sec
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 13285
A field channel has cultivable commanded
area of 2000 hectares. The intensities of
irrigation for gram and wheat are 30% and
50% respectively. Gram has a kor period of
18 days, kor depth of 12 cm, while wheat
has a kor period of 18 days and a kor depth
of 15 cm. The discharge (in m3/s) required
in the field channel to supply water to the
commanded area during the kor period is
_____.
[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 1.427-1.427
8
Question: 13284
Irrigation water is to be provided to a crop
in a field to bring the moisture content of
the soil from the existing 18% to the field
capacity of the soil at 28% .The effective
root zone of the crop is 70 cm.if the
densities of the soil and water are 1.3
g/cm3 and 1 gm/cm3 respectively,the depth
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water requirment
of the irrigation water (in mm) required for
irrigation the crop is ___[GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 91-91
9
Question: 13282
Wheat crop requires 55 cm of water during
120 days of base period. The total rainfall
during this period is 100 mm. Assume the
irrigation efficiency to be 60%. The area (in
ha) of the land which can be irrigated with
a canal flow of 0.01 m3/s is [GATE-12]
(A) 13.82
(B) 18.85
(C) 23.04
(D) 230.40
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 13281
The moisture holding capacity of the soil in
a 100 hectare farm is 18cm/m. the field is
to be irrigated when 50 percent of the
available moisture in the root zone is
depleted. The irrigation water is to be
supplied by a pump working for 10hours a
day, and water application efficiency is
75%. Details of crops planned for
cultivation are as follows: [GATE-10]
The area of crop Y that can be irrigated
when the available capacity of irrigation
system is 40 liters / sec is
A)40hectares
(B) 36 hectares
(C) 30 hectares
(D) 27 hectares
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water requirment
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 13280
The moisture holding capacity of the soil in
a 100 hectare farm is 18cm/m. the field is
to be irrigated when 50 percent of the
available moisture in the root zone is
depleted. The irrigation water is to be
supplied by a pump working for 10hours a
day, and water application efficiency is
75%. Details of crops planned for
cultivation are as follows: [GATE-10]
The capacity of irrigation system required
to irrigate crop X in 36 hectares is
(A) 83litres/sec
(B) 67 liters/sec
(C) 57 liters/sec
(D) 53 liters/sec
Correct Answer: B
12
Question: 13277
An outlet irrigates an area of 20ha. The
discharge (I/s) required at this outlet to
meet the evapo -transpiration requirement
of 20mm occurring uniformly in 20 days
neglecting other field losses is [GATE-08]
(A)2.52
(B) 2.31
(C) 2.01
(D) 1.52
Correct Answer: B
13
Question: 13276
The culturable command area for a
distributarychannel is 20,000 hectares.
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water requirment
Wheat grown in the entire area and the
intensity of irrigation is 50%. The kor
period for wheat is 30 days and the kor
water depth is 120mm. The outlet
discharge for the distributary should
be [GATE-07]
(A) 2.85m3/s
(B) 3.21 m3/s
(C) 4.63 m3/s
(D) 5.23 m3/s
Correct Answer: C
14
Question: 13275
The consumptive use of water for a crop
duringa particular stage of growth is
2.0mm / day. The maximum depth of
available water is the root zone is 60mm.
Irrigation is required when the amount of
available water is 50% of the maximum
available water in the root zone. Frequency
of irrigation should be [GATE-07]
(A) 10 days
(B) 15days
(C) 20days
(D) 25days
Correct Answer: B
15
Question: 13274
In a cultivated area, the soil has porosity of
45% and field capacity of 38%. For a
particular crop, theroot zone depth is 1 m,
the permanent wilting point is 10% and the
consumptive use is 15 mm/d.If the
irrigation efficiency is 60%, what should be
the frequency of irrigation such that the
moisturecontent does not fall below 50% of
the maximum available moisture?
[GATE-06]
(a.) 5d
(b.) 6d
(c.) 9d
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water requirment
(d.) 15d
Correct Answer: B
16
Question: 13273
. The culturable commanded area for a
distributary is 2 x 108 m2. The intensity of
irrigation for a crop is 40%. If kor water
depth and kor period for the crop are 14cm
and 4 weeks respectively. the peak
discharge is (GATE-05)
a.2.63m3/sec
b. 4.63m3/sec
c.8.58m3/sec
d.11.58 m3/sec
Correct Answer: B
17
Question: 13272
A canal irrigates a portion of a culturable c
ommand area to grow sugarcane and whea
t. The avengedischarges required to grow s
ugarcane and wheat are, respectively, 0.36
and 0.27 cumecs. The timefactor is 0.9. Th
e required design capacity of the canal is
(GATE-04)
(a.) 0.36 cumecs
(b.) 0.40 cumecs
(c.) 0.63 cumecs
(d.) 0.70 cumecs
Correct Answer: D
18
Question: 13271
The total irrigation depth of water, required
by a certain crop in its entire growing
period (150 days),is 25.92cm. The
culturable command area for a distributary
channel is 100,000 hectares.
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water requirment
Thedistributary channel shall be designed
for a discharge
[GATE -03]
(a.) less than 2 cumecs
(b.) 2 cumecs
(c.) 20 cumecs
(d.) more than 20 cumecs
Correct Answer: D
19
Question: 13270
The moisture content of soil in the root zon
e of an agricultural crop at certain stage is
found to be0.05. The field capacity of the s
oil is 0.15. The root zone depth is 1.1m. Th
e consumptive use of cropat this stage is 2.
5mm/day and there is no precipitation duri
ng this period.
Irrigation efficiency is 65%. It is intended to
raise the moisture content to the field cap
acity in 8 daysthrough irrigation. The neces
sary depth of irrigation is [GATE -02]
(a.) 115 mm
(b.) 169 mm
(c.) 200 mm
(d.) 285 mm
Correct Answer: D
20
Question: 13269
A canal was designed to supply the
irrigation needs of 1200 hectares of land
growing rice of 140 days base period
having a Delta of 134 cms. If this canal
water is used to irrigate wheat of base
period 120 days having a Delta of 52 cm,
the area (in Hectares) that can be irrigated
is: [GATE -02]
(A) 2650
(B) 3608
(C) 543
(D) none of the above.
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water requirment
Correct Answer: A
21
Question: 13268
A field was supplied water from an
irrigation tank at a rate of 120 lit/see to
irrigate an area of 2.5 hectares. The
duration of irrigation is 8 hours. It was
found that the actual delivery at the field,
which is about 4 km from the tank, was
100 lit/sec. The runoff loss in the field was
estimated as 800 m3. The application
efficiency in this situation is[GATE-01]
(a) 62%
(b) 72%
c) 76%
(d) 80%
Correct Answer: B
22
Question: 13267
a tube well having a capacity of 4 m3/hour
operates for 20 hours each day during the
irrigation season.How much area can be
commanded if the irrigation interval is
20days and depth of irrigation is 7cm
?[GATE-00]
A.1.71 x 104 m2
B.1.14 x 104 m2
C.22.9 x 104 m2
D.2.29 x 104 m2
Correct Answer: D
23
Question: 12401
A sprinkler irrigation system is suitable
when [GATE-04][SSC JE 2017]
A) the land gradient is steep and the soil is
easily erodible
B) the soil is having low permeability
C) the water table is low
D) the crops to be grown have deep roots
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water requirment
Correct Answer: A
24
Question: 12237
The intensity of irrigation for the Kharif
season is 50% for an irrigation project with
culturable command area of 50,000
hectares. The duty for the Kharif season is
1000 hectare/cumec. Assuming
transmission loss of 10%, the required
discharge (in cumec, up to two decimal
places) at the head of the canal is ______
(GATE 2018 AN)
Correct Answer: 27.00 -28.00
25
Question: 12222
A flownet below a dam consists of 24
equipotential drops and 7 flow channels.
The difference between the upstream and
downstream water levels is 6 m. The length
of the flow line adjacent to the toe of the
dam at exit is 1 m. The specific gravity and
void ratio of the soil below the dam are
2.70 and 0.70, respectively. The factor of
safety against piping is (GATE 2018 AN)
(A) 1.67
(B) 2.5
(C) 3.4
(D) 4
Correct Answer: D
26
Question: 8914
An agricultural land of 437ha is to irrigate
for a particular crop. The base period of the
crop is 50 days and the total depth of
water required by crop is 105 cm, if a
rainfall of 15 cm occur’s during the base
period, the duty of irrigation water
is [GATE-09]
a) 437 ha/cumec
b) 487 ha/cumec
c) 741 ha/cumec
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water requirment
d) 864 ha/cumec
Correct Answer: D
27
Question: 8069
The plan area of a reservoir is 1 km2 .The
water level In the resorvoir is observed to
decline by 20cm in a certain period. Durin
g this period the reservoir receives a surfac
e inflow of 10 hectaremeters,and 20 hectar
emeters are abstracted from the reservoir f
or irrigation and power. The pan evaporatio
nand rainfall recorded during the same peri
od at a nearby meteorological station are 1
2cm and 3cmrespectively. The calibrated p
an factor is 0.7. The seepage loss from the
reservoir during this periodin hectaremeters is
([GATE
-03]
(a.) 0.0
(b.) 1.0
(c.) 2.4
(d.) 4.6
Correct Answer: D
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Gravity Dams
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13349
a concrete gravity dam section is shown in
the figure .assuming unit weight of water
as 10 10kN/m3 and unit weight of concrete
as 24 kN/m3,the uplift force per unit length
of the dam(expressed in kN/m) at PQ is
____[GATE 2016 FN]
Correct Answer: 10500-10500
2
Question: 13347
The base width of an elementary profile of
gravity dam of height H is b. The specific
gravity of the material of the dam is G and
uplift pressure coefficient is K. the correct
relationship for no tension at the heel is
given by [GATE-08]
Correct Answer: B
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Spillways
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13354
Which one of the following equations repre
sents the downstream profile of Ogee spill
way withvertical upstream face? (x,y) are t
he coordinates of the point on the downstr
eam profile with origin atthe crest of the sp
illway and Hd is the design head
(GATE-05)
Correct Answer: A
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Diversion Head Works
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13890
in connection with the design of a barrage
,identify the correct matching of the
criteria of design with the items of
design (GATE-98)
codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) A B
C
D
(b) D C
B
A
C
(c) B
A
D
(d) B
D
A
C
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 13795
Uplift pressures at points E and D (Figure
A) of a straight horizontal floor of negligible
thickness with a sheet pile at downstream
end are 28% and 20%, respectively. If the
sheet pile is at upstream end of the floor
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Diversion Head Works
(Figure B), the uplift pressures at points D1
and C1 are (GATE-05)
(a)68% and 60% respectively
(b) 80% and 72% respectively
(c)88% and 70% respectively
(d) 100% and zero respectively
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 7150
Profile of a weir on permeable foundation
is shown in figure-I and an elementary
profile of ‘upstream pile only case’
according to Khosla’s theory is shown in
figure II.The uplift pressure heads at key
points Q,R and S are 3.14 m,2.75 m and
0m,respectively (refer figure II)
What is the uplift pressure head at point P
downstream of the weir (junction of floor
and pile as shown in the figure I)? (GATE
2016)
(a) 2.75 m
(b) 1.25 m
(c) 0.8 m
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Diversion Head Works
(d) data not sufficient
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 7148
A weir on a permeable foundation with
down-stream sheet pile is shown in the
figure below. the exit gradient as per
Khosla’s method is (2008)
a.1 in 60
b.1 in 5.0
c. 1 in 3.4
d.1 in 2.5
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 7146
A launching apron is to be designed at
downstream of a weir for discharge
intensity of 6.5m3/sec/m.For the design of
launching aprons the scour depth is taken
two times of Lacey scour depth. The silt
factor of the bed material is unity. If the tail
water depth is 4.4m, the length of
launching apron in the launched position is
[GATE-05]
Correct Answer: C
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Cross Drainage Works
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16123
If the path of an irrigation canal is below
the bed level of a natural stream, the type
of cross drainage structure provided is
[GATE 2019 FN]
(A) Aqueduct
(B) Sluice gate
(C) Super passage
(D) Level crossing
Correct Answer: C
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Canal Regulation Works
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13434
Group I contains three broad classes of
irrigation supply canal outlets. Group II
presents hydraulic performance attributes
The correct match of the items in Group I
with the items in Group II is
(A) P-1; Q-2; R-3
(B) P-3; Q-1; R-2
(C) P-2; Q-3; R-1
(D) P-1; Q-3; R-2
Correct Answer: D
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Lined And Unlined Canals
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13785
On which of the canal systems, R.G.
Kennedy, executive engineer in the Punjab
Irrigation Department made his
observations for proposing his theory on
stable channels ?(GATE-05)
A.Krishna Western Delta canals
(b)Lower Bari Doab canals
(c)Lower Chenab canals
(d)Upper Bari Doab canals
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 7154
The depth of flow in an alluvial channel is
1.5m. If critical velocity ratio is 1.1 and
Manning’s n is 0.018, the critical velocity of
the channel as per Kennedy’s method is
[GATE-09]
(A)0.713m/s
(B) 0.784m/s
(C) 0.879m/s
(D) 1.108m/s
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 7153
A stable channel is to be designed for a
discharge of Q m3/s with silt factor f as per
Lacey’s method. The mean flow velocity
(m/s) in the channel is obtained by
(2008)
(a) (Q f2/ 140)1/6
b. (Q2 f2/ 140)1/6
c.(Q f/ 140)1/6
d.0.48(Q/f)1/3
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Lined And Unlined Canals
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 7152
As per the Lacey’s method for design of
alluvial channels, identity the true
statement from the following [GATE-07]
(A) Wetted perimeter increases with an
increase in design discharge
(B) Hydraulic radius increases with an
increase in silt factor.
(C) Wetted perimeter decreases with an
increase in design discharge.
(D) Wetted perimeter increases with an
increase in silt factor
Correct Answer: A
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HYDROLOGY
 PRECIPITATION
………….. 253-257
 FREQUENCY
……………….258-259
 EVAPORATION
………………260-262
 INFILTRATION
……………….263-269
 HYDROGRAPH
……………….270-284
 FLOOD ROUTING
………………..285-289
 WELL HYDRAULICS
……………… 290-295
 RIVER GAUGING
…………………296-297
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1.Precipitation
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16126
A catchment may be idealised as a
rectangle There are three rain gauges
located inside the catchment at arbitrary
locations. The average precipitation over
the catchment is estimated by two
methods: (i) Arithmetic mean (PA) and (ii)
Thiessen polygon (PT). Which of the
following statements is correct?
(A) PA is always equal to PT
(B) There is no definite relationship
between PA and PT
(C) PA is always greater than PT
(D) PA is always smaller than PT
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 13724
The correct match of Group-I with
Group-II is [GATE-10]
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(B) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 13368
In a catchment there are four rain-gauge
stations P,Q,R and S .Normal annual
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1.Precipitation
precipitation values at these stations are
780 mm,850mm,920 mm and 980 mm
respectively.In the year 2013 stations Q,R
and S were operative but P was not .Using
the normal ratio method ,the precipitation
at station P for the year 2013 has been
estimated as 860 mm.If the observed
precipitation at station Q and R for the year
2013 were 930 mm and 1010 mm
respectively .what was the observed
precipitation (in mm) at station S for that
year? [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 1093-1094
4
Question: 12202
Rainfall depth over a watershed is
monitored through six number of well
distributed rain gauges. Gauged data are
given below
The Thiessen mean value (in mm, up to
one decimal place) of the rainfall is ______
(GATE 2018-1)
Correct Answer: 478.5 -479.5
5
Question: 8040
A catchment is idealized as a 25 kmx 25
km square .It has five rain gauges ,one at
each corner and one at the center as
shown in figure
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1.Precipitation
During a month ,the precipitation at these
is measure as G1=300 mm,G2=285
mm.G3=272 mm,G4=290 mm and Gs=288
mm.the average precipitation (in mm up to
one decimal place )over the catchment
during this month by using the thiessen
polygon method is ____[GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 287.375
6
Question: 8029
As per Indian standards the number of rain
gauges that should be installed in a plain
area of 1000 km2 is
[GATE-15]
a) 1
b)2
c) 3
d) 4
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 8017
The monthly rainfall at a place is generally
indicated as above or below normal .The
term normal means(GATE-05)
(a)The rainfall in the same month of the
previous year
(b)the rainfall expected based on previous
month data
(c) the average rainfall of the previous
twelve months
(d) the average monthly rainfall for the
same month computed from 30 years of
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1.Precipitation
past record
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 8006
The intensity of rainfall and time interval of
a typical storm are: (GATE-05)
Time interval
Intensity of rainfall
(minutes)
(mm/minute)
0-10
0.7
10-20
1.1
20-30
2.2
30-40
1.5
40-50
1.2
50-60
1.3
60-70
0.9
70-80
0.4
The maximum intensity of rainfall for 20 mi
nutes duration of the storm is
(a.) 1.5 mm/minute
(b.) 1.85 mm/minute
(c.) 22 mm/minute
(d.) 3.7 mm/minute
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 8005
.An isohyet is a line joining points of
?
(GATE 2013)
(a) Equal water surface elevation
(b) Equal depth of rainfall
(c) Equal velocity
(d) Equal discharge
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1.Precipitation
Correct Answer: C
10
Question: 8004
Isopleths are lines on a map through points
having equal depth of [GATE-01]
(a) Rainfall
(b) Infiltration
(c) Evapotranspiration
(d) Total runoff
Correct Answer: C
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Frequency
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16135
The probability that the annual maximum
flood discharge will exceed 25000 m3/s, at
least once in next 5 years is found to be
0.25. The return period of this flood event
(in years, round off to 1 decimal place) is
_____[GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 17.9-17.9
2
Question: 12238
A culvert is designed for a flood frequency
of 100 years and a useful life of 20 years.
The risk involved in the design of the
culvert (in percentage, up to two decimal
places) is ______
(GATE 2018 AN)
Correct Answer: 17.50-18.50
3
Question: 8044
Probability of a ten year flood to occur at
least once in next four years is [GATE
2013]
(A)25%
(B) 35%
(C) 50%
(D) 65%
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 8043
A 1 hour rainfall of 10 cm has return period
of 50 year. The 1 hour of rainfall 10 cm or
more will occurin each of two successive
year is [GATE 2013]
(a) 0.04
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Frequency
(b) 0.2
(c) 0.2
(d) 0.0004
Correct Answer: D
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Evaporation
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13910
Lysimeter and tensiometer are used to
measure respectively ,one of the following
groups of quantities
[GATE-97]
A.Capillary potential and permeability
B.Evapotranspiration and capilary potential
C.velocity in channels and vapour pressure
D.velocity in pipes and pressure head
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 13879
the bowen ratio is defined as (GATE-98)
A.ratio of heat and vapour diffusivities
B.proportionality constant between vapour
heat flux and sensible heat flux
C.ratio of actual evapotranspiration and
potential evapotranspiration
D.proportionality constant between heat
energy used up in evaporation and the bulk
radiation from a water body
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13584
The average surface area of a reservoir in
the month of June is 20 Km2. In the same
month, the average rate of inflow is 10
m3/s, outflow rate is 15 m3/s, monthly
rainfall is 10 cm, monthly seepage loss is
1.8 cm and the storage change is 16
million m3. The evaporation (in cm) in that
month is [GATE-15]
(A) 46.8
(B) 136.0
(C) 13.6
(D) 23.4
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Evaporation
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 8071
During a 6- hour storm, the rainfall
intensity was 0.8 cm/hour on a catchment
of area 8.6 km2. The measured runoff
volume during this period was 2,56,000 m3.
The total rainfall was lost due to infiltration,
evaporation, and transpiration (in cm/hour)
is (GATE-02)
a .0.80
b.0.304
c.0.496.
d.sufficient information not available
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 8070
The following are the monthly pan
evaporation data (jan-dec) at
krishnarajasagara in a certain year in cm
16.7,14.3,17.8,25.0,28.6,21.6
16.7,16.7,16.7,21.4,16.7,16.7
The water spread area in a lake nearby in
the beginning of january in that year was
2.80 km2 and at the end of december it
was measured as 2.55 km2.calculate the
loss of water due to evaporation in that
year.Assume a pan coefficient of 0.7
[GATE -03]
Correct Answer: 4.29Mm3
6
Question: 8062
The ratio of actual evapo-transpiration to
potential evapo-transpiration is in the
range [GATE-06]
(A) 0.0 to 0.4
(B) 0.6 to 0.9
(C) 0.0 to 1.0
(D) 1.0 to 2.0
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Evaporation
Correct Answer: C
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Infiltration
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16161
The hyetograph of a storm event of
duration 140 minutes is shown in the
figure[GATE 2019 FN]
The infiltration capacity at the start of this
event (t = 0) is 17mm/hour, which linearly
decreases to 10 mm/hour after 40 minutes
duration. As the event progresses, the
infiltration rate further drops down linearly
to attain a value of 4mm/hour at t = 100
minutes and remains constant thereafter
till the end of the storm event. The value of
the infiltration index, ? (in mm/hour, round
off to 2 decimal places), is _______ [GATE
2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 7-7
2
Question: 13854
the parameters in Horton's infiltration
equation [
]are given as f0=7.62cm/hour,fc=1.34
cm/hour and k=4.182/hour.for assumed
continuous ponding the cumulative
infiltration at the end of 2 hours is [ GATE
-00]
A.2.68 cm
B.1.50 cm
C.1.34 cm
D.4.18 cm
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Infiltration
Correct Answer: D
3
Question: 13673
Storm-I
of duration 5 hours gives a
direct run-off of 4 cm and has an average
intensity of 2cm / hr
Storm-II of 8 hour duration gives a runoff of 8.4 cm. (Assume φ -index is same for
both the storms.)
Intensity of storm-II in cm/hr is [GATE
2013]
(A) 2
(B) 1.5
(C) 1.75
(D) 2.25
Correct Answer: D
4
Question: 13672
Storm-I
of duration 5 hours gives a
direct run-off of 4 cm and has an average
intensity of 2cm / hr
Storm-II of 8 hour duration gives a runoff of 8.4 cm. (Assume φ -index is same for
both the storms.)
The value of index φ − is [GATE 2013]
(A) 1.2
(B) 1.6
(C) 1
(D) 1.4
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 13508
During a storm event in a certain period,
the rainfall intensity is 3.5 cm/hour and
the
-index is 1.5 cm /hour .The intensity
of effective rainfall (in cm/hour,up to one
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Infiltration
decimal place) or this period
is____GATE-2016
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 13405
The infiltration rate f in a basin under
ponding condition is given by
where, f is in mm/h and t is
time in hour. Total depth of infiltration (in
mm, up to one decimal place) during the
last 20 minutes of a storm of 30 minutes
duration is ___[GATE 2018 FN]
Correct Answer: 11-12
7
Question: 13367
During a storm event in a certain period,
the rainfall intensity is 3.5 cm/hour and the
is 1.5 cm /hour .The intensity of
effective rainfall (in cm/hour,up to one
decimal place) for this period is ____[GATE
2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 2-2
8
Question: 8106
The infiltration capacity of a soil follows the
Horton’s exponential model
.f=c1+c2e-kt.During an experiment ,the
initial infiltration capacity was observed to
be 200 mm/h.After a long time ,the
infiltration capacity was reduced to 25
mm/h.If the infiltration capacity after 1
hour was 90 mm/h,the value of the decay
rate constant ,k (in h-1,upto two decimal
places ) is_____[GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 0.99-0.99
9
Question: 8080
A 6 – hour rainstorm with hourly intensities
of 7, 18, 25,17,11 and 3 mm / hour.
Produced a runoff of 39mm. Then, the Ø
–index is [GATE 2013]
(A) 3 mm/hour
(B) 7 mm/hour
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Infiltration
(C) 8 mm/hour
(D) 10 mm/hour
Correct Answer: C
10
Question: 8079
At station A two storms takes place. Storm
I of 5 hrs duration and intensity 2 cm/hrs
having runoff 4 cm.Storms II takes place for
8 hrs and runoff during this interval is 8.4
cm. And having the same valueof φ
indexfor both the storm
[GATE 2013]
Rainfall intensity of II storm is?
Correct Answer: 2.25 -2.25
11
Question: 8078
At station A two storms takes place. Storm
I of 5 hrs duration and intensity 2 cm/hrs
having runoff 4 cm.Storms II takes place for
8 hrs and runoff during this interval is 8.4
cm. And having the same value of φ index
for both the storm
[GATE 2013]
Value of φ index is?
Correct Answer: 1.2
12
Question: 8077
Group I contains parameters and Group II
lists
methods/instrument
s. [GATE-12] [GATE-06]
The CORRECT match of Group I with
Group II is
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Infiltration
(A) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 4
(B) P – 4, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 1
(C) P – 4, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 1
(D) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 2, S – 4
Correct Answer: C
13
Question: 8076
An isolated 4 hour storm
occurred over a catchment as follows:
[GATE-06][GATE-90]
The φ index for the catchment is 10 mm/h.
The estimated runoff depth from the catch
ment due to theabove storm is
(a.) 10 mm
(b.) 16 mm
(c.) 20 mm
(d.) 23 mm
Correct Answer: C
14
Question: 8075
During a 3 hour storm event, it was
observed that all abstractions other than
infiltration are negligible. The rainfall was
idealized as 3 one hour storms of intensity
10 mm/hr, 20 mm/hr and 10mm/hr
respectively and the infiltration was
idealized as a Horton curve f = 6.8 + 8.7 e-t
(f in mm/hr and t in hr). What is the
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Infiltration
effective rainfall? [GATE-06]
(a.) 10.00 mm
(b.) 11.33 mm
(c.) 12.43 mm
(d.) 13.63 mm
Correct Answer: D
15
Question: 8074
The rainfall during three successive 2 hour
periods are 0.5, 2.8 and 1.6cm. The surface
runoffresulting from this storm is 3.2cm. T
he φindex value of this storm is
(2004)
(a.) 0.20 cm/hr
(b.) 0.28 cm/hr
(c.) 0.30 cm/hr
(d.) 0.80 cm/hr
Correct Answer: C
16
Question: 8073
The vertical hydraulic conductivity of the to
p soil at certain stage is 0.2 cm/hr. A storm
of intensity0.5 cm/hr occurs over the soil fo
r an indefinite period. Assuming the surface
drainage to be adequate,the infiltration rat
e after the storm has lasted for a very long
time, shall be [GATE -03]
(a.) smaller than 0.2 cm/hr
(b.) 0.2 cm/hr
(c.) between 0.2 and 0.5 cm/hr
(d.) 0.5 cm/hr
Correct Answer: B
17
Question: 8072
The rainfall on five successive days in a
catchment were measured as 3, 8, 12,6,
and 2 cms. If the total runoff at the outlet
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Infiltration
from the catchment was 15 cm, the value
of the φ -index (in mm/hour) is (GATE-02)
a .0.0
b.1.04
c. 1.53
d. sufficient information not available
Correct Answer: C
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Hydrograph
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16212
The ordinates, u of a 2-hour unit
hydrograph (i.e. for 1 cm of effective rain),
for a catchment are shown in the table.
A 6-hour storm occurs over the catchment
such that the effective rainfall intensity is 1
cm/hour for the first two hours, zero for the
next two hours, and 0.5 cm/hour for the
last two hours. If the base flow is constant
at 5 m3 /s, the peak flow due to this storm
(in m3/s, round off to 1 decimal place) will
be ________.[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 97-97
2
Question: 16202
An inflow hydrograph is routed through a
reservoir to produce an outflow
hydrograph. The peak flow of the inflow
hydrograph is PI and the time of occurrence
of the peak is tI. The peak flow of the
outflow hydrograph is Po and the time of
occurrence of the peak is to.
Which one of the following statements is
correct? [GATE 2019 AN]
(A) PI < Po and tI > to
(B) PI > Po and tI > to
(C) PI < Po and tI < to
(D) PI > Po and tI < to
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13872
a direct runoff hydrograph due to an
isolated storm with an effective rainfall of
2cm was trapezoidal in shape as shown in
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Hydrograph
the figure.The hydrograph corresponding to
a catchment area (in sq.km) of
[GATE-99]
A.790.2
B.599.4
C.689.5
D.435.3
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 13864
an isochrone is a line on the basin
map [GATE -99]
A.joining raingauge stations having equal
rainfall duration
B.joining points having equal rainfall depth
in a given time interval
C.joining points having equal time of travel
of surface runoff to the catchment outlet
D.joining points which are at equal distance
from the catchment outlet
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13863
the ordinate of the instantaneous unit
hydrograph (IUH) of a catchment at
anytime ,t is [GATE -99]
A.the slope of the 1-hour unit hydrograph
at that time
B.the slope of the direct run off unit
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Hydrograph
hydrograph at that time
C.difference in the slope of the S-curve and
1-hour unit hydrograph
D.the slope of the S-curve with effective
rainfall intensity of 1cm/hour
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 13709
A watershed got transformed from rural to
urban over a period of time. The effect of
urbanization on storm runoff hydrograph
from the watershed is to [GATE-11]
(A) decrease the volume of
runoff
(B) increase the time to peak discharge
(C) decrease the time
base
(D) decrease the peak discharge
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 13417
The ordinates of a 2-hour unit hydrograph
for a catchment are given as
The ordinate (in m3/s) of a 4-hour unit
hydrograph for this catchment at the time
of 3h would be ___[GATE 2017 FN]
Correct Answer: 15-15
8
Question: 12256
The total rainfall in a catchment of area
1000 km2, during a 6 h storm, is 19 cm.
The surface runoff due to this storm
computed from triangular direct runoff
hydrograph is 1×108 m3. The
for
this storm (in cm/h, up to one decimal
place) is ______ (GATE 2018 AN)
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Hydrograph
Correct Answer: 1.5-1.5
9
Question: 9172
A hyetograph is a graphical representation
of [GATE-97]
(1) rainfall intensity and
time
(2) rainfall depth and time
(3) discharge and
time
(4) cumulative rainfall and time
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 8166
While applying the Rational formula for co
mputing the design discharge, the rainfall d
uration isstipulated as the time of concentr
ation because [GATE -03]
(a.) this leads to the largest possible rainfal
l intensity
(b.) this leads to the smallest possible rainf
all intensity
(c.) the time of concentration is the smalles
t rainfall duration for which the Ration
formula isapplicable
(d.) the time of concentration is the largest
rainfall duration for which the Rational
formula isapplicable
Correct Answer: C
11
Question: 8157
The direct runoff hydrograph in response to
5 cm rainfall excess in a catchment is
shown in the figure.the area of the
catchment (expresses in hectares) is
____[GATE 2016 FN]
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Hydrograph
Correct Answer: 21.6-21.6
12
Question: 8156
The ordinates of a one-hour unit
hydrograph at sixty minute interval are
0,3,12,8,6,3 and 0 m3/s.A two –hour storm
of 4 cm excess rainfall occurred in the
basin from 10 AM.considering constant bae
flow of 20 m3/s ,the flow of the river
(expresses in m3/s ) at 1 PM is ___
Correct Answer: 60-60
13
Question: 8154
An effective rainfall of 2-hour duration
produced a flood hydrograph peak of 200
m3/s.the flood hydrograph has a base flow
of 20 m3/s .if the spatial average rainfall in
the watershed for the duration of storm is 2
cm and the average loss rate is 0.4
cm/hour .the peak of 2-hour unit
hydrograph (in m3/s-cm ,up to one decimal
place ) is _____
[GATE 2017 FN]
Correct Answer: 150-150
14
Question: 8143
An isolated 3-h rainfall on a small
catchm,ent produces a hydrograph peak
and point of inflection on the falling limb of
the hydrograph are 7 hours and 8.5 hours
respectively ,after the start of the
rainfall.assuming no losses and no base
flow contribution ,the time of concentration
(in hours) for this catchment is
approximately[GATE-14 AN]
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Hydrograph
‘(a)8.5
(b) 7.0
(c) 6.5
(d) 5.5
Correct Answer: D
15
Question: 8142
A conventional flow duration curve is a plot
between [GATE-14 FN]
a. Flow and % time flow is exceeded
b. Duration of flooding and ground
level elevation
c. Duration of water supply in a city
and proportion of area recurring
supply exceeding this duration
d. Flow rate and duration of time
taken to empty of a reservoir at
that flow rate
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 8129
The following steps are involved in arriving
at a unit hydrograph [GATE-15]
1. Estimating the surface runoff in
depth
2. Estimating the surface runoff in
volume
3. Separation of base flow
4. Dividing surface runoff ordinates by
depth of runoff
The correct sequence of these steps is
a. 3,2,1,4
b. 2,3,1,4
c. 3,1,2,4
d. 4,3,2,1
Correct Answer: B
17
Question: 8127
The S-curve can be used to obtain a unit
hydrograph from that of [GATE-15]
(a)A longer duration
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Hydrograph
(b)Normal duration
(c)Shorter duration
(d) Both (a) and (c) above
Correct Answer: D
18
Question: 8126
If the duration of the unit hydrograph
decreases infinitely , approaching zero, the
unit hydrograph becomes [GATE-15]
a. Instantaneous unit hydrograph
b. constant unit hydrograph
c. Straight line hydrograph
d. Poly unit hydrograph
Correct Answer: A
19
Question: 8125
The 4-hr unit hydrograph for a catchment
is given in the table below.what would be
the maximum ordinate of the S-curve (in
m3/s) derived from this
hydrograph? [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 21.9-22.1
20
Question: 8124
One hour triangular unit hydrograph of a
watershed has the peak discharge of
60m3/sec.cm at 10hours and time base of
30 hours. The φindex is 0.4cm per hour
and base flow is 15m3m/sec
(2009)
Q)If these is rainfall of 5.4cm in 1 hour, the
ordinate of the flood hydrograph at 15th
hour is
(A) 225 m3/sec
(B) 240 m3/sec
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Hydrograph
(C) 249 m3/sec
(D) 258 m3/sec
Correct Answer: B
21
Question: 8123
One hour triangular unit hydrograph of a
watershed has the peak discharge of
60m3/sec.cm at 10hours and time base of
30 hours. The φindex is 0.4cm per hour
and base flow is 15m3m/sec [GATE-09]
Q)The catchment area of the watershed is
(A) 3.24km2
(B) 32.4km2
(C) 324km2
(D) 3240km2
Correct Answer: C
22
Question: 8122
The drainage area of a watershed is 50
km2. The φ index is 0.5 cm/hour and the
base flow at the outlet is10 m3/s. One hour
unit hydrograph (unit depth = 1 cm) of the
watershed is triangular in shape with a
time base of 15 hours. The peak ordinate
occurs at 5 hours. [GATE-90] [GATE-06]
Q)For a storm of depth of 5.5 cm and
duration of 1 hour, the peak ordinate (in
m3/s) of the hydrograph is
(A) 55.00
(B) 82.60
(C) 92.60
(D) 102.60
Correct Answer: C
23
Question: 8121
The drainage area of a watershed is 50
km2. The φ index is 0.5 cm/hour and the
base flow at the outlet is10 m3/s. One hour
unit hydrograph (unit depth = 1 cm) of the
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Hydrograph
watershed is triangular in shape with a
time base of 15 hours. The peak ordinate
occurs at 5 hours [GATE-90]. [GATE-12]
The peak ordinate (in m3/s/cm) of the unit
hydrograph is
(A) 10.00
(B) 18.52
(C) 37.03
(D) 185.20
Correct Answer: B
24
Question: 8120
The ordinates of a 2-h unit hydrograph at 1
hour intervals starting from time t=0,are
0,3,8,6,3,2 and 0 m3/s .Use trapezoidal rule
for numerical integration ,if required
A storm of 6.6 cm occurs uniformly
over the catchment in 3 hours .If
?-index is equal to 2 mm/h and
base flow is 5 m3/s ,what is the
epak flow due to storm? [GATE-11]
(a)41.0 m3/s
(b)43.4 m3/s
(c)53.0 m3/s
(d)56.2 m3/s
Correct Answer: A
25
Question: 8119
The ordinates of a 2-h unit hydrograph at 1
hour intervals starting from time t=0,are
0,3,8,6,3,2 and 0 m3/s.Use trapezoidal rule
for numerical integration ,if required
What is the catchment area
represented by the unit
hydrograph? [GATE-11]
a)1.00 km2
(b) 2.00 km2
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Hydrograph
(c) 7.92 km2
(d) 8.64 km2
Correct Answer: C
26
Question: 8118
A flood wave with a known inflow hydrogra
ph is routed through a large reservoir. The
outflow hydrograph will have
(2008)
(a.) attenuated peak with reduced time bas
e
(b.) attenuated peak with increased timebase
(c.) increased peak with increased timebase
(d.) increased peak with reduced time-base
Correct Answer: B
27
Question: 8117
Ordinates of a 1hour unit hydrograph at 1 h
our intervals, starting from time t = 0 are 0
, 2, 6, 4, 2, 1 and 0 m3/sec
(2007)
Q)Ordinate of a 3 -hour unit hydrograph for
the catchment at t = 3 hours is
(a.) 2.0 m3/s
(b) 3.0 m3/s
(c) 4.0 m3/s
(d.) 5.0 m3/s
Correct Answer: C
28
Question: 8116
Ordinates of a 1hour unit hydrograph at 1 h
our intervals, starting from time t = 0 are 0
, 2, 6, 4, 2, 1 and 0 m3/sec [GATE-07]
Q).Catchment area represented by this unit
hydrograph is
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Hydrograph
(a.) 1.0 km2
(b.) 2.0 km2
(c.) 3.2 km2
(d.) 5.4 km2
Correct Answer: D
29
Question: 8115
For a catchment, the Scurve (or Shydrogra
ph) due to a rainfall of intensity 1 cm/hr is
given by Q = 1–(l+t)ex(-t) t in hrs and Q in
m3/sec.
Q)What will be the ordinate of a 2-hour unit
hydrograph for this catchment at t =3 hou
r? [GATE-04]
a.0.13 m3/sec
b.0.20 m3/sec
c.0.27 m3/sec
d.0.54 m3/sec.
Correct Answer: C
30
Question: 8114
For a catchment, the Scurve (or Shydrogra
ph) due to a rainfall of intensity 1 cm/hr is
given by Q = 1–(l+t)ex(-t) t in hrs and Q in
m3/sec.[GATE-04]
What is the area of the catchment?
(a.) 0.01 km2
(b.) 0.36 km2
(c.) 1.00 km2
(d.) 1.28 km2
Correct Answer: B
31
Question: 8113
A four hour unit hydrograph of a catchment
is triangular in shape with base of 80 hour
s. Th
e area of t
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Hydrograph
hecatchment is 720
km2
. The
base flow an
d φ index are 30m3
/s and 1 mm/h, respectively. A storm of 4 c
m occurs uniformly in 4hours over the catc
hment
Q)The peak flood discharge due to the stor
m is (GATE-05)
a.210 m3/sec
b.230 m3/sec
c.260 m3/sec
d. 720 m3/sec
Correct Answer: A
32
Question: 8112
A four hour unit hydrograph of a catchment
is triangular in shape with base of 80 hour
s. Th
e area of t
hecatchment is 720
km2
. The
base flow an
d φ index are 30m3
/s and 1 mm/h, respectively. A storm of 4 c
m occurs uniformly in 4hours over the catc
hment
Q.)peak discharge of four hour unit hydrog
raph is (GATE-05)
a.40 m3/sec
b. 50 m3/sec
c. 60 m3/sec
d. 70 m3/sec
Correct Answer: B
33
Question: 8111
The average rainfall for a 3 hour duration st
orm is 2.7cm and the loss rate is 0.3cm/hr.
The flood hydrograph has a base flow of 20
m /s and produces a peak flow of 210m /s.
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Hydrograph
The peak of a 3-h unit
(GATE 2004)
(a.) 125.50 m3/s
(b.) 105.50 m3/s
(c.) 77.77 m3/s
(d.) 70.37 m3/s
Correct Answer: B
34
Question: 8110
An average rainfall of 16cm occurs over a c
atchment during a period of 12 hours with
a uniform intensity.The unit hydrograph (u
nit depth = 1cm, duration = 6 hours) of the
catchment rises linearly from 0 to 30cume
cs in six hours and then falls linearly from 3
0 to 0 cumecs in the next l2 hours. φ index
of thecatchment is known to be 0.5cm/hr. B
ase flow in the river is known to be 5 cume
cs. [GATE -03]
Q.)Area of the catchment in hectares is
(a.) 97.20
(b.) 270
(c.) 9720
(d.) 27000
Correct Answer: C
35
Question: 8109
An average rainfall of 16cm occurs over a c
atchment during a period of 12 hours with
a uniform intensity.The unit hydrograph (u
nit depth = 1cm, duration = 6 hours) of the
catchment rises linearly from 0 to 30cume
cs in six hours and then falls linearly from 3
0 to 0 cumecs in the next l2 hours. φ index
of thecatchment is known to be 0.5cm/hr. B
ase flow in the river is known to be 5 cume
cs. [GATE -03]
Q.)Peak discharge of the resulting direct ru
n off hydrograph shall be
(a.) 150 cumecs
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Hydrograph
(b.) 225 cumecs
(c.) 230 cumecs
(d.) 360 cumecs
Correct Answer: B
36
Question: 8108
Match List-I with List-II and select the corre
ct answers using the codes given below the
lists [GATE -03]
Codes :
P
Q
R
S
(a.)
1
3
2
4
(b.)
3
4
1
2
(c.)
1
2
4
3
4
2
1
(d.)
3
Correct Answer: B
37
Question: 8107
The direct runoff hydrograph of a storm
obtained from a catchment is triangular in
shape and has a base period of 80 hours.
The peak flow rate is 30 m/sec and
catchment area is 86.4 km2. The rainfall
excess that has resulted the above
hydrograph is (GATE-01)
(a) 5 cm
(b) 8 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) 16 cm
Correct Answer: A
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Hydrograph
38
Question: 4135
Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the lists : [GATE-03] [IES-07]
List - I (Parameter)
A. Rainfall Intensity
B. Rainfall Excess
C. Rainfall Averaging
D. Mass Curve
List - II (Relatable Term)
1. Isohyets
2. Cumulative rainfall
3. Hyetograph
4. Direct Runoff hydrograph
codes:
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 3 4 1 2
c. 1 3 4 2
d. 3 4 2 1
Correct Answer: B
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Flood Routing
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13888
the return period for the annual maximum
flood of a given magnitude is 8 years .the
probability that this flood magnitude will be
exceeded once during the next 5 years
is (GATE-98)
A.0.625
B.0.966
C.0.487
D.0.529
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 13838
a linear reservoir is one which [GATE-01]
A.storage varies linear with time
B.storage varies linearly with outflow rate
C.storage varies linearly with inflow rate
D.storage varies linearly with elevation
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 13837
The stage -discharge relation in a river
during the passage of flood is measured.If
qf is the discharge at the stage when water
surface is falling and qr is the discharge at
the same stage when water surface is
rising ,then [GATE-01]
A.qf =qr
B.qf <qr
C.qf>qr
D.qfqr=constant for all stages
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 12181
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Flood Routing
For routing of flood in a given channel
using the Muskingum method, two of the
routing coefficients are estimated as
C0 =- 25 and C1= 0.55. The value of the
third coefficientC2 would be
(GATE
2018-1)
Correct Answer: 0.70-0.7
5
Question: 8177
The type of flood routing (group I) and the
euation for the purpose (group ii)are given
below
The correct match is [GATE 2016 FN]
a. P-1;Q-1-2&3
b. P-1;Q-1 &2 only
c. P-1 &2 ;Q-1 only
d. P-1 &2 ;Q-2 &2
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 8176
Muskingham method for routing of
flood [GATE-97]
(a)is used for routing floods through
reservoirs
(b) is a method of routing that uses
continuity and momentum equations
(c) is a hydrologic method of routing floods
through streams
(d) is one which only energy equation is
used
Correct Answer: C
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Flood Routing
7
Question: 8175
The inflow hydrograph for a river reach is
given below .Assume that the initial flood
discharge at the downstream point is equal
to 100 m3/s.For the river reach
,Muskingham coefficient (k) =18 hours and
weighing factor (x) =0.3 use a routing
period of 12 hours
The coefficients C0,C1 and C2 in
Muskingham equation are given by
a. 0.0405,0.712,0.355
b. 0.0322,0.712,0.412
c. 0.0322,0.613,0.355
d. 0.0405,0.613,0.412
Correct Answer: C
8
Question: 8171
The Muskingum model of routing a flood
through a stream reach is expressed as
02=K0I2+K1I1+K201where K0,K1,and K2 are
routing coefficient for the concerned reach
I1,I2 are the inflows to the reach and O1 and
02 are the outflows from the reach
corresponding to times steps 1 and 2
respectively .the sum of Ko,K1 and K2 of the
model is (GATE-05)
a. -1
b. -0.5
c. 0.5
d. 1
Correct Answer: D
9
Question: 8170
In reservoir with an uncontrolled spillway
the peak of the plotted outflow
hydrograph[GATE-14 FN]
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Flood Routing
a. Lies outside the plotted inflow
htdrograph
b. Lies on the recession limb of the
plotted inflow hydrograph
c. Lies on the peak of the inflow
hydrograph
d. Is higher than peak of the plotted
inflow hydrograph
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 8168
The Muskinghammethod of flood routing
assumes the storages (S) is related to
inflow
rate I and outflow rate Q of a reach as S
is equal to (GATE-05)
(A) K [xI – (1-x) Q]
(B) K [xI + (1-x) Q]
(C) K [(1-x) I+xQ]
(D) K [(1+x) Q + Ix]
Correct Answer: B
11
Question: 8167
When the outflow from a storage reservoir i
s uncontrolled as in a freely operating spill
way, the of outflow hydrograph occurs at
(GATE 2005)
(a.) at point of intersection of the inflow an
d outflow hydrographs
(b.) a point, after the intersection of the infl
ow and outflow hydrographs
(c.) the tail of inflow hydrographs
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Flood Routing
(d.) a point, before the intersection of the i
nflow and outflow hydrographs
Correct Answer: A
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Well Hydraulics
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16215
A confined aquifer of 15 m constant
thickness is sandwiched between two
aquicludes as shown in the figure (not
drawn to scale)
The heads indicated by two piezometers P
and Q are 55.2 m and 34.1 m, respectively.
The aquifer has a hydraulic conductivity of
80 m/day and its effective porosity is 0.25.
If the distance between the piezometers is
2500 m, the time taken by the water to
travel through the aquifer from piezometer
location P to Q (in days, round off to 1
decimal place) is ______. [GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 925.65-925.65
2
Question: 13889
two completely penetrating wells are
located L(in meters ) apart ,in a
homogeneous confined aquifer.The
drawdown measured at the mid point
between the two wells (at a distance of
0.5L from both the wells) is 2.0 m when
only the first well is being pumped at the
steady rate of Q1 m3/sec .when both the
wells are being pumped at identical steady
rate of Q2 m3/sec ,the drawdown measured
at the same location is 8.0 m.It may be
assumed that the drawdown at the wells
always remains at 10. 0 m when being
pumped and the radius of in ference is
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Well Hydraulics
larger than 0.5 L
to (GATE-98)
is equal
Correct Answer: D
3
Question: 13775
For steady flow to a fully penetrating well
in a confined aquifer, the drawdowns at
radial distances of r1 and r2 from the well
have been measured as s1 and
s2 respectively, for a pumping rate of Q.
The transmissivity of the aquifer is equal
to [GATE-06]
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Well Hydraulics
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 13717
In an aquifer extending over 150 hectare,
the water table was 20 m below ground
level. Over a period of time the water table
dropped to 23 m below the ground level. If
the porosity of aquifer is 0.40 and the
specific retention is 0.15, what is the
change in ground water storage of the
aquifer? [GATE-11]
(A) 67.5 ha-m
(B)112.5ha-m
(C) 180.0 ha-m
(D) 450.0 ha-m
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 13387
Water table of an aquifer drops by 100 cm
over an area of 1000 km2 .the porosity and
specific retenstion of the aquifer material
are 25 % and 5% respectively .the amount
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Well Hydraulics
of water (expressed in km3) drained out
from the area is _____
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 13386
The relationship among porosity(η),
specific yield (Sy), specific retention (Sr)
of an aquifer is (GATE-2015)[GATE-09]
(A) Sy+Sr=η
(B)Sy+η =Sr
(C)Sr+ η= Sy
(D) Sy+Sr+η=1
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 12226
Dupuit’s assumptions are valid for (GATE
2018 AN)
(A) artesian aquifer
(B) confined aquifer
(C) leaky aquifer
(D) unconfined aquifer
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 8193
Water present in the artesian aquifer is
usually
a. At sub atmospheric
pressure
b. At atmospheric pressure
c. At 0.5 times of the atmospheric
pressure
d. Above the atmospheric pressure
Correct Answer: D
9
Question: 8190
In an area of 200 hectare, water table
drops by 4 m. If the porosity is 0.35 and
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Well Hydraulics
the specific retention is 0.15, change in
volume of storage in the aquifer is.
(GATE-00)
(a) 160 m3
(b) 1.6 x 106 m3
(c) 8 x 106 m
3
(d) 1.6 x 103 m3
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 8189
A wall of diameter 20cm fullypenetrates a
confined aquifer. After a long period of
pumping at a rate of 2720litres per
minute,the observations of drawdown
taken at 10m and 100m distances from the
centerof the well are found to be 3m and
0.5m respectively. The transmissivity of
the aquifer is [GATE-10]
(A) 676m2/day
(B) 576 m2/day
(C) 526 m2/day
(D) 249 m2/day
Correct Answer: B
11
Question: 8188
.A soil formation through which only
seepage is possible, being partly
permeable and capable of giving
insignificant yield, is classified as
[GATE-99]
(a) Aquifer
(b) Aquitard
(c) Aquifuge
(d) Aquiclude
Correct Answer: B
12
Question: 8187
A volume of 3.0x106 m3
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Well Hydraulics
of groundwater was pumped out from an
unconfined aquifer uniformlyfrom an area o
f 5 km2
. The pumping lowered the water table fro
m initial level of 102 m to 99 m. The
specific yield of the aquifer is
(2008)
(a.) 0.20
(b.) 0.30
(c.) 0.40
(d.) 0.50
Correct Answer: A
13
Question: 8186
Water is pumped from a well tapping an un
confined aquifer at a certain discharge rate
and the steadystate drawdown (X) in an ob
servation well is monitored. Subsequently,
the pumping dischargeisdoubled and the s
teady state drawdown in the same observa
tion well is found to be more than double(i.
e., more than 2X). This disproportionate dr
awdown is caused by [GATE -03]
(a.) Well losses
(b.) Decrease in the saturated thickness of
the aquifer
(c.) nonlinear flow
(d.) delayed gravity yield
Correct Answer: C
14
Question: 8185
When there is an increase in the
atmospheric pressure, the water level in a
well penetrating in a confined aquifer:
(GATE-02)
a. increases
b. decreases
c. May increase or decrease
depending on the nature of theaquifer
d. Does not undergo any change
Correct Answer: D
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River Gauging
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 8180
In a river, discharge is 173 m3/s; water
surface slopeis 1 in 6000; and stage at the
gauge station is 10.0 m. If during a flood,
the stage at the gauge station is same and
the water surface slope is 1 in 2000, the
flood discharge in m3/s, is
approximately [GATE-99]
(a) 371
(b) 100
(c) 519
(d) 300
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 8179
In the case of a stage –discharge curve for
a river gauging station, the stage refers
to [GATE-06] [GATE-90]
(A) depth of water
(B) elevation of water with reference to
some datum
(C) average velocity
(D) hydraulic mean depth
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 8178
The top width and the depth of flow in a
triangular channel were measured as 4 m
and 1 m, respectively. The measured
velocities on the centre line at the water
surface, 0.2 m and 0.8 m below the surface
are 0.7 m/s, 0.6 m/s and 0.4 m/s,
respectively. Using two -point method of
velocity measurement, the discharge (in
m3/s) in the channel is [GATE-90]
[GATE-06]
(A) 1.4
(B) 1.2
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River Gauging
(C) 1.0
(D) 0.8
Correct Answer: C
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RCC
 INTRODUCTION TO RCC
……………. 298-303
 SINGLY REINFORCED BEAM
……………… 304-316
 DOUBLY REINFORCED BEAM
……….. 317-319
 FLANGED BEAMS
…………….. 320-322
 SHEAR ,TORSION BOND
……………. 323-331
 COMPRESSION MEMBERS
 SLABS
 FOOTINGS
………. 332-336
…………………. 337-338
…………………… 339-339
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 SERVECEABILITY
……………….
 PRESTRESSED CONCRETE
340-342
………………. 343-350
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Introduction to RCC
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13896
permissible bending tensile stress in high
yield strength deformed bars of grade
415 N/mm2 in a beam is[GATE-97]
A.190 N/mm2
B.230N/mm2
C.140 N/mm2
D.none of the above
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 13859
the minimum area of tension reinforcement
in a beam shall be greater than [GATE
-99]
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13846
the following two statements are made
with reference to a simply supported underreinforced RCC beam: [ GATE-00][SSC JE
2017]
I.failure takes place by crushing of concrete
before the steel has yielded
II.The neutral axis moves up as the load is
increased
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Introduction to RCC
with reference to the above
statements,which of the following applies?
A.Both the statements are false
B.I is true but II is false
C.Both the statements are true
D.I is false but II is true
Correct Answer: D
4
Question: 13825
As per the provisions of IS:456-2000.the
(short term)modulus of elasticity of M25
grade concrete (in N/mm2) can be assumed
to be [GATE -02]
A.25000
B.28500
C.30000
D.36000
Correct Answer: D
5
Question: 13750
A reinforced concrete structure has to be
constructed along a sea coast. The
minimum grade of concrete to be used as
per IS: 456-2000 is [GATE-08]
(A)M 15
(B)M 20
(C)M 25
(D)M 30
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 13707
The cross-section of a thermo-mechanically
treated (TMT) reinforcing bar
has [GATE-11]
(A) soft ferrite-pearlite throughout.
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Introduction to RCC
(B) hard martensite throughout.
(C) a soft ferrite-pearlite core with a hard
martensitic rim.
(D) a hard martensitic core with a soft
pearlite-bainitic rim.
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 11597
The partial safety factor for concrete as
per IS:456-2000 is (SSC JE
2009-M) (GATE-05)
(a)1.15
(b) 1.5
(c)1.95
(d) 2.0
Correct Answer: B
8
Question: 7531
Maximum strain at the level of
compression steel for a rectangular section
having effective cover to compression steel
as d’ and neutral axis depth from
compression face as xu is [GATE-99]
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Correct Answer: A
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Introduction to RCC
9
Question: 7449
The permissible bending tensile stress in
concrete for the vertical wall of an R.C
water tank made of M25 concrete
is [GATE-97]
A. 8.5
B. 6.0
C. 2.5
D. 1.8
N/mm2
N/mm2
N/mm2
N/mm2
Correct Answer: D
10
Question: 7448
Consider the following statements
1.the corrosion resistant steel (CRS)bars
are made by introduction of corrosion
resistant elements such as
copper,phosphorous and chromium.
2.the thermo-mechanically treated bars
have both high strength and ductility as
compared to cold twisting of bars
3.cold twisting of bars always result in low
ductility bars.
Which of the following statements is/are
correct.
a. 1 only
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 3
d. 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 7447
If the characteristic strength of concrete fc
k is defined as the strength below which no
t more than 50%of the test results are exp
ected to fall, the expression for fck in terms
of mean strength fm nd standarddeviation
S would be [GATE-06]
(a.)fm – 0.1645 S
(b.)fm /1.645 S
(c.)fm
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Introduction to RCC
(d.)fm+ l.645 S
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 7445
In the limit state design method of concret
e structures, the recommended partial mat
erial safetyfactor (γm
) for steel according to IS:456-2000 is
[GATE-04]
(a.) 1.5
(b.) 1.15
(c.) 1.00
(d.) 0.87
Correct Answer: B
13
Question: 7425
The flexural strength of M 30 concrete as p
er IS:456-2000 is [GATE-05]
(a.) 3.83 MPa
(b.) 5.47 MPa
(c.) 21.23 MPa
(d.) 30.0 MPa
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 7423
The modulus of rupture of concrete in
terms of its characteristic cube
compressive strength (fck) in MPa
according to IS 456:2000 is . [GATE-09]
a)5000fck
b)0.7fck
c)5000√fck
d)0.7√fck
Correct Answer: D
15
Question: 7422
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Introduction to RCC
As per IS 456:2000, in the Limit State
Design of a flexural member, the strain in
reinforcing bars under tension at ultimate
state should not be less than
[GATE-12] [GATE-06]
A)fy/Es
B) fy/Es+0.002
C) fy/1.15Es
D) fy/1.15Es+0.002
Correct Answer: D
16
Question: 7421
Read the following two
statements (GATE-02)
I. Maximum strain in concrete at the
outermost compression fibre is
taken to be 0.0035 in bending.
II.The maximum compressive strain in
concrete in axial compression is taken as
0.002.
Keeping the provisions of IS 456-2000 on
limit state design in mind, which of the
following is true:
a)Statement I is true but II is false
b)Statement I is false but II is true
c)Both statements I and II are true
d)Both statements I and II are false
Correct Answer: C
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Singly Reinforced Beam
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16129
In the reinforced beam section shown in
the figure (not drawn to scale), the nominal
cover provided at the bottom of the beam
as per IS 456-2000, is [GATE 2019 FN]
All dimensions are in mm
(A) 36 mm
(B) 50 mm
(C) 30 mm
(D) 42 mm
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 13773
A singly reinforced rectangular concrete
beam has a width of 150 mm and an
effective depth of 330 mm. The
characteristics compressive strength of
concrete is 20 MPa and the characteristics
tensile strength of steel is 415 MPa. Adopt
the stress block for concrete as given in IS
456-2000 and take limiting value of depth
of neutral axis as 0.48 times the effective
depth of the beam.
Q)The limiting area of tension steel
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Singly Reinforced Beam
in
is [GATE-07]
A.473.9
B.412.3
C.373.9
D.312.3
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13772
A singly reinforced rectangular concrete
beam has a width of 150 mm and an
effective depth of 330 mm. The
characteristics compressive strength of
concrete is 20 MPa and the characteristics
tensile strength of steel is 415 MPa. Adopt
the stress block for concrete as given in IS
456-2000 and take limiting value of depth
of neutral axis as 0.48 times the effective
depth of the beam.
Q)The limiting value of the moment of
resistance of the beam is kN.m
is [GATE-07]
(A) 0.14
(B) 0.45
(C) 45.08
(D) 156.82
Correct Answer: C
4
Question: 13607
For a beam of cross-section, width = 230
mm and effective depth = 500 mm, the
number of rebars of 12 mm diameter
required to satisfy minimum tension
reinforcement requirement specified by
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Singly Reinforced Beam
IS:456-2000 (assuming grade of steel
reinforcement as Fe500) is
___________ [GATE-14 FN]
A.7
B.2
C.21
D.10
Correct Answer: 2-2
5
Question: 13534
A 450 mm long plain concrete prism is
subjected to the concentrated vertical
loads as shown in the figure. Cross section
of the prism is given as 150 mm × 150
mm. Considering linear stress distribution
across the cross-section, the modulus of
rupture (expressed in MPa) is _____ .
(GATE 2016)
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 13507
Let the characteristic strength be defined
as that value, below which not more than
50% of the results are expected to fall.
Assuming a standard deviation of 4 MPa,
the target mean strength (in MPa) to be
considered in the mix design of a M25
concrete would be
(A) 18.42
(B) 21.00
(C) 25.00
(D) 31.58
Correct Answer: A
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Singly Reinforced Beam
7
Question: 13464
Let the characteristic strength be defined
as that value, below which not more than
50% of the results are expected to fall.
Assuming a standard deviation of 4 MPa,
the target mean strength (in MPa) to be
considered in the mix design of a M25
concrete would be
[GATE 2017 AN]
(A) 18.42
(B) 21.00
(C) 25.00
(D) 31.58
Correct Answer: C
8
Question: 13418
According to IS 456-2000, which one of the
following statements about the depth of
neutral axis Xu,bal for a balanced reinforced
concrete section is correct?[GATE 2017 FN]
(A)Xu,baldepends on the grade of concrete
only.
(B) Xu,bal depends on the grade of steel
only.
(C) Xu,bal depends on both the grade of
concrete and grade of steel.
(D) Xu,bal does not depend on the grade of
concrete and grade of steel
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 13388
Maximum strains in an extreme fibre in con
crete and in the tension reinforcement (Fe415 grade and Es=200KN/mm2) in a
balanced section at limit state of flexure
are respectively [GATE -03]
(a.) 0.0035 and 0.0038
(b.) 0.002 and 0.0018
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Singly Reinforced Beam
(c.) 0.0035 and 0.0041
(d.) 0.002 and 0.0031
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 12241
A singly-reinforced rectangular concrete
beam of width 300 mm and effective depth
400 mm is to be designed using M25 grade
concrete and Fe500 grade reinforcing steel.
For the beam to be under-reinforced, the
maximum number of 16 mm diameter
reinforcing bars that can be provided is
(GATE 2018 AN)
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Correct Answer: C
11
Question: 12234
As per IS 456 : 2000, the minimum
percentage of tension reinforcement (up to
two decimal places) required in reinforcedconcrete beams of rectangular crosssection (considering effective depth in the
calculation of area) using Fe500 grade
steel is ______ (GATE 2018 AN)
Correct Answer: 0.17-0.17
12
Question: 7501
Which of the following statement is
correct?
a. xumaxdis independent of grades of
concrete and steel
b. xumaxdis independent of grade but
steel changes with grade of
concrete
c. xumaxdchanges with the grade of
concrete and steel
d. xumaxdis independent of grades of
concrete and changes with the
grade of steel
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Singly Reinforced Beam
Correct Answer: D
13
Question: 7499
A reinforced concrete( RC) beam with width
of 250mm and effective depth of 400mm is
reinforced with Fe 415 steel. As per the
provisions of IS 456:2000, the minimum
and maximum amount of tensile
reinforcement (expressed in mm2 ) for the
section are respectively [GATE 2016 FN]
a) 250 and 3500
b) 205 and 4000
c)270 and 2000
d)300 and 2500
Correct Answer: B
14
Question: 7498
According to the concept of limit state
design as per IS 456:2000, the probability
of failure of structure is------------------[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 0.097-0.097
15
Question: 7497
Consider the singly reinforced beam
section given below (left figure).The stress
block parameters for the cross section from
IS:456-2000 are also given below (right
time) The moment of resistance for the
given section by the limit state method is
___kN-m [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 42.77
16
Question: 7496
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Singly Reinforced Beam
consider the singly reinforced beam shown
in the figure below:
At cross section xx which of the following
statements is true at the limit state?
[GATE-15]
a. The variation of stress is linear and
that of strain Is not linear
b. The variation of strain is linear and
that of stress is non linear
c. The variation of both stress and
strain is linear
d. The variation of both stress and
strain is non-linear
Correct Answer: B
17
Question: 7495
The reinforced concrete section ,the stress
at extreme fibre in compression is 5.8
MPa.the depth of neutral axis in the section
is 58 mm and grade of concrete is M25
.assuming Linear elastic behavior of the
concrete ,the effective curvature of the
section (in per mm) is [GATE-15]
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
x
x
x
x
10-6
10-6
10-6
10-6
Correct Answer: C
18
Question: 7493
The flexural tensile strength of M25 grade
of concrete in N/mm2,as per
IS:456-2000,is____[GATE-14 AN]
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Singly Reinforced Beam
Correct Answer: 3.5 -3.5
19
Question: 7492
Modulus of elasticity of concrete is
calculated (as per IS:456-2000)
by[GATE-14 AN]
a. second modulus
b. tangent modulus
c. intial tangent modulus
d. none of these
Correct Answer: C
20
Question: 7491
As per IS:456-2000 in design of concrete
target mean strength is taken as[GATE-14
AN]
a. fck+0.825σ
b. fck+1.64σ
c. fck+0.50σ
d. fck+0.725σ
Correct Answer: B
21
Question: 7490
Assume straight line instead of parabola for
stressstrain curve of concrete as given bel
ow and partial factorof safety as 1.0. [GATE
-05]
A rectangular underreinforced concrete sec
tion of 300mm width and 500mm effective
depth isreinforcedwith 3 bars of grade Fe41
5, each of 16mm diameter. Concrete mix is
M 20.
The depth of the neutral axis obtained as p
er 15:456-2000 differs from the depth of ne
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Singly Reinforced Beam
utral axis obtained in Q.7489 by
(a.) 15mm
(b.) 20mm
(c.) 25mm
(d.) 32mm
Correct Answer: C
22
Question: 7489
Assume straight line instead of parabola for
stressstrain curve of concrete as given bel
ow and partial factorof safety as 1.0.
A rectangular underreinforced concrete sec
tion of 300mm width and 500mm effective
depth isreinforcedwith 3 bars of grade Fe-4
15, each of 16mm diameter. Concrete mix i
s M 20.[GATE-05]
Q)The depth of the neutral axis from the co
mpression fibre is
(a.) 76mm
(b.) 81mm
(c.) 87mm
(d.) 100mm
Correct Answer: A
23
Question: 7488
A single reinforced rectangular concrete be
am has a width of 150mm and an effective
depth of 330mm. Thecharacteristic compre
ssive strength of concrete is 20M Pa and th
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Singly Reinforced Beam
e characteristic tensie strength of steel is 4
15MPa. Adopt the stress block for concrete
as given in IS:4562000 and take limiting va
lue of depth ofneutral axis as 0.48 times th
e effective depth of the beam [GATE-07]
the limiting area of tension area of tension
steel in mm2
(a.) 473.9
(b.) 412.3
(c.) 373.9
(d.) 312.3
Correct Answer: A
24
Question: 7487
A single reinforced rectangular concrete be
am has a width of 150mm and an effective
depth of 330mm. Thecharacteristic compre
ssive strength of concrete is 20M Pa and th
e characteristic tensie strength of steel is 4
15MPa. Adopt the stress block for concrete
as given in IS:4562000 and take limiting va
lue of depth ofneutral axis as 0.48 times th
e effective depth of the beam [GATE-07]
The limiting value of the moment of resista
nce of the beam in kN-m is
(a.) 0.14
(b.) 0.45
(c.) 45.08
(d.) 156.82
Correct Answer: C
25
Question: 7486
In the design of beams for the limit state of
collapse in flexure as per IS:4562000, let t
he maximum strain inconcrete be limited t
o 0.0025 (in place of 0.0035). For this situa
tion, consider a rectangular beam section
with breadth as 250 mm and effective
depth as 350 mm,area of tension stee is
1500 mm2 and characteristic strength of
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Singly Reinforced Beam
stee and concrete are 30MPa and 250 MPa
respectively. [GATE-06]
Q)At the limiting state of collapse in flexure
, the force acting on the compression zone
of the section is
(a.) 326 kN
(b.) 389 kN
(c.) 424 kN
(d.) 542 kN
Correct Answer: B
26
Question: 7485
In the design of beams for the limit state of
collapse in flexure as per IS:4562000, let t
he maximum strain inconcrete be limited t
o 0.0025 (in place of 0.0035). For this situa
tion, consider a rectangular beam section
with breadth as 250 mm and effective
depth as 350 mm,area of tension stee is
1500 mm2 and characteristic strength of
stee and concrete are 30MPa and 250 MPa
respectively. [GATE-06]
The depth of neutral axis for the balanced f
ailure is
(a.) 140mm
(b.) 156mm
(c.) 168mm
(d.) 185mm
Correct Answer: B
27
Question: 7484
A reinforced concrete beam, size 200mm
wide and 300mm deep overall is simply
supported over a span of 3m. It is
subjected to two point loads P of equal
magnitude placed at middle third points.
The two loads are gradually increased
simultaneously. Beam is reinforced with 2
HYS bars of 16mm diameter placed at an
effective cover of 40mm on bottom face
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Singly Reinforced Beam
and nominal shear reinforcement. The
characteristic compressive strength and
bending strength of concrete are 20N/mm2
and 2.2N/mm2 respectively [GATE -03]
The theoretical failure load of the beam for
attainment of limit state of collapse in flexu
re is
(a.) 23.7 kN
(b.) 25.6 kN
(c.) 28.7 kN
(d.) 31.6 KN
Correct Answer: D
28
Question: 7483
A reinforced concrete beam, size 200mm
wide and 300mm deep overall is simply
supported over a span of 3m. It is
subjected to two point loads P of equal
magnitude placed at middle third points.
The two loads are gradually increased
simultaneously. Beam is reinforced with 2
HYS bars of 16mm diameter placed at an
effective cover of 40mm on bottom face
and nominal shear reinforcement. The
characteristic compressive strength and
bending strength of concrete are 20N/mm2
and 2.2N/mm2 respectively [GATE -03]
Ignoring the presence of tension reinforce
ment, the value of load P in kN when the fir
st flexure crackwill develop in the beam is
(a.) 4.5
(b.) 5.0
(c.) 6.6
(d.) 7.5
Correct Answer: C
29
Question: 7482
M aximum strains in an extreme fibre in co
ncrete and in the tension reinforcement (Fe
-415 grade and Es=200KN/mm2) in a
balanced section at limit state of flexure
are respectively [GATE -03]
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Singly Reinforced Beam
(a.) 0.0035 and 0.0038
(b.) 0.002 and 0.0018
(c.) 0.0035 and 0.0041
(d.) 0.002 and 0.0031
Correct Answer: A
30
Question: 7481
The working stress method of design specif
i
es
the value of modular ratio, m = 280/(σcbc)
, Where
σcbc
is the allowable stress in bending compress
ion in concrete. To what extent does the ab
ove valueof ‘m’ make any allowance for the
creep of concrete?[GATE -03]
(a.) No compensation
(b.) Full compensation
(c.) Partial compensation
(d.) The two are unrelated
Correct Answer: C
31
Question: 7453
As per the provisions of IS 456-2000, in the
limit state method for. design of beams,
the limiting value of the depth of neutral
axis in a reinforced concrete beam of
effective depth ’d’ given as: (GATE-02)
a)0.53d
b)0.48d
c)0.46d
d)any of the, above depending on the
different grades of steel
Correct Answer: D
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Doubly Reinforced Beam
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13816
Top ring beam of an Intze tank carries a
hoop tension of 120 kN. The beam crosssection is 250 mm wide and 400 mm deep
and it is reinforced with 4 bars of 20 mm
diameter of Fe 415 grade. Modular ratio of
the concrete is 10. The tensile stress in
N/mm2 in the concrete is [GATE -03]
(a) 1.02
(b) 1.07
(c) 1.20
(d) 1.32
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 13782
Consider the following statements :
I.The width-thickness ratio limitations on
the plate elements under compression in
steel members are imposed by IS:
800-1984 in order to avoid fabrication
difficulties.
II.In a doubly reinforced concrete beam,
the strain in compressive reinforcement is
higher than the strain in the adjoining
concrete.
III. If a cantilever I-section supports slab
construction all along its length with
sufficient friction between them, the
permissible bending stress in compression
will be the same as that in
tension. [GATE-06]
The TRUE statements are
(a)only I and II
(b)only II and III
(c)only I and III
(d)I, II and III
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Doubly Reinforced Beam
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 7534
A doubly reinforced rectangular concrete
beam has a width of 300mm and an
effective depth of 500mm. the beam is
reinforced with 2200mm2of steel in tension
and 628mm2of steel in compression. The
effective cover for compression steel is
50mm. Assume that both tension and
compression steel yield. The grades of
concrete and steel used are M20 and
Fe250 respectively. The stress block
parameters (rounded off to first two
decimal places) for concrete shall be as per
IS 456:2000. [GATE-10]
The moment of resistance of the section is
(A) 206.00kN-m
(B) 209.20 kN-m
(C) 236.80 kN-m
(D) 251.90kN-m,
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 7533
A doubly reinforced rectangular concrete
beam has a width of 300mm and an
effective depth of 500mm. the beam is
reinforced with 2200mm2of steel in tension
and 628mm2 of steel in compression. The
effective cover for compression steel is
50mm. Assume that both tension and
compression steel yield. The grades of
concrete and steel used are M20 and
Fe250 respectively. The stress block
parameters (rounded off to first two
decimal places) for concrete shall be as per
IS 456:2000. [GATE-10]
The depth of neutral axis is
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Doubly Reinforced Beam
(A) 205.30mm
(B) 184.56mm
(C) 160.91mm
(D) 145.30mm
Correct Answer: C
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Flanged Beams
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13876
an Isolated T beam is used as a
walkway.The beam is simply supported
with an effective span of 6m.The effective
width of flange for the cross section shown
in figure is (GATE-98)
A.900 mm
B.1000 mm
C.1259 mm
D.2200 mm
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 7545
The cross-section at mid-span of a beam at
the edge of a slab is shown in the sketch. A
portion of theslabis considered as the
effective flange width for the beam. The
grades of concrete and reinforcing steel
are M25 and Fe415, respectively. The total
area of reinforcing bars (As) is 4000 mm2.
At the ultimate limit state, xudenotes the
depth of the neutral axis from the top fibre.
Treat the section as under-reinforced and
flanged (xu> 100 mm). [GATE-06]
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Flanged Beams
The value of xu(in mm) computed as per
the Limit state method of IS 456:2000
is [GATE-12]
A.200.0
B.223.3
C.236.3
D.273.6
Correct Answer: C
3
Question: 7544
The cross-section at mid-span of a beam at
the edge of a slab is shown in the sketch. A
portion of theslabis considered as the
effective flange width for the beam. The
grades of concrete and reinforcing steel
are M25 and Fe415, respectively. The total
area of reinforcing bars (As) is 4000 mm2.
At the ultimate limit state, xudenotes the
depth of the neutral axis from the top fibre.
Treat the section as under-reinforced and
flanged (xu> 100 mm). [GATE-06]
The ultimate moment capacity (in kNm) of
the section ,as per the limit state method
of IS:456-2000 is [GATE-12]
A.475.2
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Flanged Beams
B.717.0
C.756.4
D.762.5
Correct Answer: B
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Shear,Bond And Torsion
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16152
Tie bars of 12 mm diameter are to be
provided in a concrete pavement slab. The
working tensile stress of the tie bars is 230
MPa, the average bond strength between a
tie bar and concrete is 2 MPa, and the joint
gap between the slab is 10mm. Ignoring
the loss of bond and the tolerance factor,
the design length of the tie bars (in mm,
round off to the nearest integer) is
______ [GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 700-700
2
Question: 13901
allowable average shear stress in an
unstiffened web for beams made of steel of
grade 250 N/mm2 is[GATE-97]
A.250 N/mm2
B.165 N/mm2
C.150 N/mm2
D.100 N/mm2
Correct Answer: D
3
Question: 13895
IS:459-1978 recommends to provide
certain minimum steel in a RCC
beam[GATE-97]
A.to ensure compression failure.
B.to avoid rupture of steel incase a flexural
failure occurs.
C.to hold the stirrups steel in position
D.to provide enough ductility to the beam
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 13715
Consider two RCC beams, P and Q, each
having the section 400 mm x 750 mm
(effective depth, d = 750 mm) made with
concrete having a τcmax = 2.1 N/mm2. For
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Shear,Bond And Torsion
the reinforcement provided and the grade
of concrete used, it may be assumed that
the τc = 0.75 N/mm2. The design shear in
beam P is 400 kN and in beam Q is 750 kN.
Considering the provisions of IS 456 - 2000,
which of the following statements is
TRUE? [GATE-11]
(A) Shear reinforcement should be
designed for 175 kN for beam P and the
section for beam Q should be revised.
(B) Nominal shear reinforcement is
required for beam P and the shear
reinforcement should be designed for 120
kN for beam Q.
(C) Shear reinforcement should be
designed for 175 kN for beam P and the
shear reinforcement should be designed for
525 kN for beam Q.
(D)The sections for both beams P and Q
need to be revised.
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 13656
As per IS 456 : 2000, bond strength of
concrete τbd =1.2 for M20 . It is increased
by 60% for HYSD bar. The development
length Ld in terms of φ is (σst= 360 MPa )
[GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 46.875-46.875
6
Question: 13606
A rectangular beam of width (b) 230 mm
and effective depth (d) 450mm is
reinforced with four bars of 12 mm
diameter. The grade of concrete is M20 and
grade of steel is Fe500. Given that for M20
grade of concrete the ultimate shear
strength,τuc= 0.36N/mm2 for steel
percentage, p = 0.25, and
τuc= 0.48N/mm2 for p = 0.50. For a
factored shear force of 45kN, the diameter
(in mm) of Fe500 steel two legged stirrups
to be used at spacing of 375 mm, should
be [GATE-14 AN]
(A) 8
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Shear,Bond And Torsion
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 16
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 12195
An RCC beam of rectangular cross section
has factored shear of 200 kN at its critical
section. Its width b is 250 mm and effective
depth d is 350 mm. Assume design shear
strength τc of concrete as
0.62 N/mm2 and maximum allowable shear
stress τcmax in concrete as 2.8 N/mm2. If
two legged 10mm diameter vertical
stirrups of Fe250 grade steel are used,
then the required spacing (in cm, up to one
decimal place) as per limit state method
will be_______ [GATE-18-1]
Correct Answer: 8.2
8
Question: 7665
As per IS:456-2000, consider the following
statements:
1. The modular ratio considered in th
e working stress method depends o
n the type of steel used.
2. Thereis an upper limit on the nomin
al shear stress in beams (even with
shear reinforcement) dueto the pos
sibility of crushing of concrete in di
agonal compression.
3.A rectangular slab whose length is equal
to its width may not be a twoway slab for s
ome supportconditions. [GATE-06]
The TRUE statements are
(a.) 1 and 2
(b.) 2 and 3
(c.) 1 and 3
(d.) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 7615
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Shear,Bond And Torsion
At the limit state of collapse, an RC beam is
subjected to flexural moment 200kNm, sh
ear force 20kN andtorque 9kNm. The beam
is 300mm wide and has a gross depth of 4
25mm, with effective cover of 25mm.The e
quivalent nominal shear stress (τve) as cal
culated by using the design code turns out
to be lesser thanthe design shear strength
(τc) of the concrete.
Q).The equivalent flexural moment (Meq) f
or designing the longitudinal tension steel i
s
[GATE-04]
(a.) 187 kN-m
(b.) 200 kN-m
(c.) 209 kN-m
(d.) 213 kN-m
Correct Answer: D
10
Question: 7614
At the limit state of collapse, an RC beam is
subjected to flexural moment 200 kNm,
shear force 20kN and torque 9kNm. The
beam is 300mm wide and has a gross
depth of 425mm, with effective cover of 25
mm. The equivalent nominal shear stress
(τve) as calculated by using the design code
turns out to be lesser than the design shear
strength (τc) of the concrete vf and kj
.Q)The equivalent shear force (Vc) is
[GATE-04]
(a.) 20 kN
(b.) 54 kN
(c.) 56 kN
(d.) 68 kN
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 7600
consider a bar of diameter ‘D’ embedded
in a large concrete block as shown in
figure,with a pull out force P being applied
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Shear,Bond And Torsion
.Let σb and σst be the bond strength
(between the bar and concrete )and the
tensile strength of the bar ,respectively .If
the block is held in position and it assumed
that the material of the block does not
fail,which of the following options
represents the maximum value of
P? [GATE-11]
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 7599
The development length of a deformed
reinforcement bar can be expressed as
. From the IS 456:2000, the
value of k can be calculated
as….. [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 6.4
13
Question: 7598
For M20 grade of concrete using plain bar
τbd= 1.2 MPa. As per IS 456-2000 the value
of bond stressis increased by 60% for HYSD
bars. The development length for HYSD
bars in tension for σ= 360 MPa in terms of
φ will be?[GATE 2013]
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Shear,Bond And Torsion
Correct Answer: 46.875
14
Question: 7597
In the design of a reinforced concrete
beam the requirement for bond is not
getting satisfied. The economical option to
satisfied the requirement for bond is by
(GATE 2008)
(a.) bundling of bars
(b.) providing smaller diameter bars more i
n number
(c.) providing larger diameter bars less in n
umber
(d.) providing same diameter bars more in
number
Correct Answer: B
15
Question: 7579
A haunched (varying depth) reinforced
concrete beam is simply supported at both
ends, as shown in figure. The beam is
subjected to a uniform distributed load of
intensity 10 Kn/m. The design shear force (
expressed in kn) at the section X-X of the
beam is………… (2016)
Correct Answer: 65 -65
16
Question: 7578
As per IS 456:2000 for the design of
reinforced concrete beam , the maximum
allowable shear stress ( τcmax) depends on
the (2016)
a) grade of concrete and grade of steel
b) grade of concrete only
c) grade of steel only
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Shear,Bond And Torsion
d)grade of concrete and percentage of
reinforcement
Correct Answer: B
17
Question: 7577
In shear design of an RC beam, other than
allowable shear stregth of concrete(τc ),
there is also an addition check suggested
in IS 456:2000 with respected to maximum
permissible shear stress(τcmax). The check
τcmax is required to check for [GATE 2016
FN]
a) additional shear resistance for reinforced
steel
b) additional shear stress that comes from
additional loading
c) Possibility of failure of concrete by
diagonal tension
d)possibility of crushing of concrete by
diagonal compression
Correct Answer: D
18
Question: 7576
A rectanguar beam of 230 mm width and
effective depth =450 mm,is reinforced with
4 bars of 12 mm diameter .the grade of
concrete is M20 ,grade of steel is Fe500
.given that for M20 grade of concrete ,the
ultmate shear strength τ uc=0.36 N/mm2
for steel percentage of =0.25, and τ uc
=0.48 N/mm2 for steel percentage =0.5
for a factored shear force of 45 KN ,the
diameter (mm) of Fe 500 steel 2 legged
stirrups to be used at spacing of 325 mm
should be [GATE-14 FN]
(a)8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 16
Correct Answer: A
19
Question: 7575
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Shear,Bond And Torsion
A reinforced concrete beam of rectangular
cross section of breadth 230 mm and effect
ive depth 400 mm issubjected to a maximu
m factored shear force of 120 kN. The grad
es of concrete, main steel and stirrup steel
are M 20, Fe415 and Fe250 respectively. Fo
r the area of main steel provided, the desig
n shear strength as per IS 456 2000 si
0.48N/mm2.the beam is designed for
collapse limit state(2008)
Q)In addition,the beam is subjected to a
torque whose factored value is 10.90 KNm. The stirrups have to be provided to
carry shear force(KN) is equal to
a)50.42
b)130.56
c)151.67
d)200.23
Correct Answer: C
20
Question: 7574
A reinforced concrete beam of rectangular
cross section of breadth 230 mm and effect
ive depth 400 mm issubjected to a maximu
m factored shear force of 120 kN. The grad
es of concrete, main steel and stirrup steel
are M 20, Fe415 and Fe250 respectively. Fo
r the area of main steel provided, the desig
n shear strength as per IS 456 2000 si
0.48N/mm2.the beam is designed for
collapse limit state(2008)
Q.)The spacing (mm) of 2-legged 8 mm stir
rups to be provided is(2008)
(a.) 40
(b.) 115
(c.) 250
(d.) 400
Correct Answer: B
21
Question: 7573
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Shear,Bond And Torsion
Assuming concrete below the neutral axis t
o be cracked, the shear stress across the d
epth of a singly-reinforced rectangular bea
m section [GATE-06]
(a.) increases parabolically to the neutral a
xis and then drops suddenly to zero value.
(b.) increases parabolically to the neutral a
xis and then remains constant over the re
maining depth.
(c.) increases linearly to the neutral axis an
d then remains constant up to the tension s
teel.
(d.) increases parabolically to the neutral a
xis and then remains constant up to the te
nsion steel.
Correct Answer: D
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compression members
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13887
a reinforced concrete wall carrying vertical
loads is generally designed as per
recommendations given for column .The
ratio of minimum reinforcements in the
vertical and horizontal directions
is (GATE-98)
A.2:1
B.5:3
C.1:1
D.3:5
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 13858
in reinforced concrete,pedestal is defined
as compression member ,whose effective
length does not exceed its dimension
by [GATE -99]
A.12 times
B.3 times
C.16 times
D. 8 times
3
Question: 13841
consider the following two statements are
related to structural steel design and
identify whether they are TRUE or
FALSE [GATE-01]
I.The Euler buckling load of a slender steel
column depends on the yield strength of
steel
II.in the design of laced column ,the
maximum spacing of the lacing does not
depend on the slenderness of column as a
whole
(a) Both statements I and II are TRUE
(b) statement I is TRUE ,and Statement II is
FALSE
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compression members
(c) statement I is FALSE ,and statement II is
TRUE
(d) both statement I and II are FALSE
Correct Answer: D
4
Question: 12220
A structural member subjected to
compression, has both translation and
rotation restrained at one end, while only
translation is restrained at the other end.
As per IS 456 : 2000, the effective length
factor recommended for design is (GATE
2018 AN)
(A) 0.50
(B) 0.65
(C) 0.70
(D) 0.80
Correct Answer: D
5
Question: 12194
An RCC short column (with lateral ties) of
rectangular cross section of 250 mm × 300
mm is reinforced with four numbers of 16
mm diameter longitudinal bars. The grades
of steel and concrete are Fe415 and M20,
respectively. Neglect eccentricity effect.
Considering limit state of collapse in
compression (IS 456 : 2000), the axial load
carrying capacity of the column (in kN, up
to one decimal place), is ______(GATE
2018FN)
Correct Answer: 917.96
6
Question: 7647
A column of size 450mm x 600mm has un
supported length of 3m and is braced
against side sway in both directions.
According to IS 456:2000 the minimum
eccentricties (in mm) with respect to major
and minor axis are
[GATE-15]
b)26 and 21.0
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compression members
c) 26 and 20
d)21 and 15
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 7635
The maximum compressive strain of
concrete in a balanced failure of a short
column subjected to Pb and Mb is [GATE
-03]
a. 0.0035
b. 0.0035 minus 0.75 times the tensile
strain in steel
c. 0.002
d. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 7634
The effective length of a column in a reinfo
rced concrete building frame, as per IS:456
-2000, is independent of the [GATE -03]
(a.) frame type i.e., braced (no sway) or unbraced (with sway)
(b.) span of the beam
(c.) height of the column
(d.) loads acting on the frame
Correct Answer: D
9
Question: 7633
An RC short column with 300 mm x 300 m
m square crosssection is made of M 20 gra
de concreteand has 4 numbers, 20mm dia
meter longitudinal bars of Fe415 steel. It is
under the action of aconcentric axial compr
essive load. Ignoring the reduction in the ar
ea of concrete due to steel bars, theultimat
e axial load carrying capacity of the column
is(2004)
(a.) 1659 kN
(b.) 1548 kN
(c.) 1198 kN
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compression members
(d.) 1069 kN
Correct Answer: C
10
Question: 7632
A reinforced concrete column contains long
itudinal steel equal to 1 percent of net cros
s-sectionalarea of the column. Assume mod
ular ratio as 10. The loads carried (using th
e elastic theory) by thelongitudinal steel an
d the net area of concrete, are Ps and
Pc respectively. The ratio Ps/Pc expressed a
spercent is(2008)
(a.) 0.1
( b.) 1
(c.) 1.1
(d.) 1.0
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 7630
A rectangular column section of250mm x 4
00mm is reinforced with five steel bars of g
rade fe500each of 20mm diameters. Concr
ete mix is M 30. Axial load on the column s
ection with minimumeccentricity as per IS:
456-2000 using limit state method can be a
pplied upto [GATE-05]
(a.) 1707.37
(b.) 1805.30
(c.) 1806.4
(d.) 1903.7
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 7616
Consider the following two statements
related to reinforced concrete design, and
identify whether they are TRUE or
FALSE:[GATE-01]
I. Curtailment of bars in the flexural
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compression members
tension zone in beams reduces the
shear strength at the cut-off
locations.
II. When a rectangular column section
is subject to biaxially eccentric
compression, the neutral axis will
be parallel to the resultant axis of
bending.
(a) Both statements I and II are TRUE.
(b) Statement I is TRUE, and statement II is
FALSE.
(c) Statement I is FALSE, and statement II
is TRUE.
(d) Both statements I and II are FALSE.
Correct Answer: B
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slabs
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13877
The plane of stairs supported at each end
by landing spanning parallel with risers is
shown in figure.The effective span of
staircase slab is (GATE-98)
A.3000 mm
B.4600 mm
C.4750 mm
D.6400 mm
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 12235
A reinforced-concrete slab with effective
depth of 80 mm is simply supported at two
opposite ends on 230 mm thick masonry
walls. The centre-to-centre distance
between the walls is 3.3 m. As per IS 456 :
2000, the effective span of the slab (in m,
up to two decimal places) is ______ (GATE
2018 AN)
Correct Answer: 3.15-3.15
3
Question: 7666
Identify the FALSE statement from the
following, pertaining to the design of
concrete structures[GATE-01]
a)The assumption of a linear strain profile
in flexure is made use of in working stress
design, but not in ultimate limit state
design.
b)Torsional reinforcement is not required to
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slabs
be provided at the corners of simply
supported rectangular slabs, if the corners
are free to lift up.
c)A rectangular slab, whose length exceeds
twice its width, always behaves as a twoway slab, regardless of the support
conditions.
d)The ’load balancing’ concept can be
applied to select the appropriate tendon
profile in a prestressed concrete beam
subject to a given pattern of loads
Correct Answer: A
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Footings
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13820
A concrete column caries an axial load of
450 kN and a bending moment of 60 kM m
at its base. An isolated footing of size 2m
by 3m, with 3m side along the plane of the
bending moment, is provided under the
column. Centres of gravity of column and
footing coincide. The net maximum and the
minimum pressures in kN/m2 on soil under
the footing are respectively.[GATE -03]
(a)95 and 55
(b)95 and 75
(c)75 and 55
(d)75 and 75
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 13366
An RC square footing of side length 2m and
uniform effective depth 200mm is provide
d for a300mm x 300mm column. The line o
f action of the vertical compressive load pa
sses through thecentroid of the footing as
well as of the column, lithe magnitude of th
e load is 320kN, the nominaltransverse (on
e way) shear stress in the footing is(GATE-0
4)
(a.) 0.26 N/mm2
(b.) 0.30 N/mm2
(c.) 0.34 N/mm2
(d.) 0.75 N/mm2
Correct Answer: A
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Serviceability
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16224
When a specimen of M25 concrete is
loaded to a stress level of 12.5 MPa, a
strain of 500×10-6 is recorded. If this load
is allowed to stand for a long time, the
strain increases to 1000×10-6 . In
accordance with provisions of IS: 456-2000,
considering the long-term effects, the
effective modulus of elasticity of the
concrete (in MPa) is ________[GATE 2019
AN]
Correct Answer: 12500-12500
2
Question: 13740
For limit state of collapse, the partial safety
factors recommended by IS 456:2000 for
estimating the design strength of concrete
and reinforcing steel are
respectively [GATE-09]
(A) 1.15 and 1.5
(B) 1.0 and 1.0
(C) 1.5 and 1.15
(D) 1.5 and 1.0
Correct Answer: C
3
Question: 13706
Consider a reinforcing bar embedded in
concrete. In a marine environment this bar
undergoes uniform corrosion, which leads
to the deposition of corrosion products on
its surface and an increase in the apparent
volume of the bar. This subjects the
surrounding concrete to expansive
pressure. As a result, corrosion induced
cracks appear at the surface of concrete.
Which of the following statements is
TRUE? [GATE-11]
(A) Corrosion causes circumferential tensile
stresses in concrete and the cracks will be
parallel to the corroded reinforcing bar.
(B) Corrosion causes radial tensile stresses
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Serviceability
in concrete and the cracks will be parallel
to the corroded reinforcing bar.
(C) Corrosion causes circumferential tensile
stresses in concrete and the cracks will be
perpendicular to the direction of the
corroded reinforcing bar.
(D) Corrosion causes radial tensile stresses
in concrete and the cracks will be
perpendicular to the direction of the
corroded reinforcing bar.
Correct Answer: C
4
Question: 13385
Creep strain are
(GATE 2013)
(a) Caused due to dead load only
(b) Caused due to live load only
(c) Caused due to cyclic load only
(d) Independent of load
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 7500
For M25 concrete with creep coefficient of
1.5 ,the long term Elastic modulus of
Elasticity (Expressed in Mpa) as per the
provisions of IS:456-2000 is ____[GATE
2016 FN]
Correct Answer: 10000-10000
6
Question: 7446
Unfactored maximum bending moments at
a section of a reinforced concrete beam res
ulting from aframe analysis are 50,80,120
and 180 kNm under dead, live, wind and ea
rthquake loads respectively.The design mo
ment (kNm) as per IS:456-2000 for the limit
state of collapse (flexure) is (2008)
(a.) 195
(b.) 250
(c.) 345
(d.) 372
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Serviceability
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 7444
For avoiding the limit state of collapse, the
safety of RC structures is checked for appro
priatecombinations of Dead Load (DL), Imp
osed Load or Live Load (IL), Wind Load (WL
) andEarthquake Load (EL). Which of the fol
lowing load combinations is NOT considere
d?[GATE-04]
(a.) 0.9DL+l.5WL
(b.) l.5DL+l.5WL
(c.) 1.5DL+1.5WL+1.5EL
(d.) 1.2DL+1.2 IL+1.2WL
Correct Answer: C
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prestressed Concrete
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16173
A 3 m × 3 m square precast reinforced
concrete segments to be installed by
pushing them through an existing railway
embankment for making an underpass as
shown in the figure. A reaction
arrangement using precast PCC blocks
placed on the ground is to be made for the
jacks. [GATE 2019 FN]
At each stage, the jacks are required to
apply a force of 1875 kN to push the
segment. The jacks will react against the
rigid steel plate placed against the reaction
arrangement. The footprint area of reaction
arrangement on natural ground is 37.5 m2.
The unit weight of PCC block is 24 kN/m3.
The properties of the natural ground are:
c= 17kPa , ?=250 and γ = 18kN/ m3
.Assuming that the reaction arrangement
has rough interface and has the same
properties that of soil, the factor of safety
(round off to 1 decimal place) against shear
failure is ______[GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 2.018-2.108
2
Question: 13897
a prestressed concrete rectangular beam
of size 300 mm x 900mm is pre stressed
with an initial prestressing force of 700 kN
at an ecentricity of 350 mm at midspan
.Stress at top of the due to pre stress alone
,in N/mm2 is [GATE-97]
A.-3.46(tension)
B.2.59 (compression)
C.zero
D.8.64 (compression)
Correct Answer: A
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prestressed Concrete
3
Question: 13762
A concrete beam of rectangular crosssection of size 120 mm (width) and 200
mm (depth) is prestressed by a straight
tendon to an effective force of 150 kN at an
eccentricity of 20 mm (below the centroidal
axis in the depth direction). The stresses at
the top and bottom fibres of the section
are [GATE-07]
A.2.5 N/mm2 (compression),10
N/mm2(compression) ,10
N/mm2(compression).
B.10 N/mm2 (tension),2.5 N/mm2
(compression)
C.3.75 N/mm2 (tension),3.75 N/mm2
(compression)
D.2.75 N/mm2 (compression),3.75
N/mm2(compression)
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 13721
As per India standard code of practice for
pre stressed concrete (IS:1343-1980) the
minimum grades of concrete to be used for
post-tensioned and pre-tensioned
structural elements are
respectively [GATE-10]
(A) M20 for both
(B) M40 and M30
(C) M15 and M20
(D) M30 and M40
Correct Answer: D
5
Question: 13659
A rectangular concrete beam 250 mm wide
and 600 mm deep is prestressed by means
of 16 wire of high tensile steel wires, each
of 7 mm diameter located at 200 mm from
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prestressed Concrete
the bottom face of the beam at a given
section. If the effective pre-stress in the
wires is 700 MPa, what is the maximum
sagging B.M (in kN-m) due to live load
which this section of the beam can with
stand without causing tensile stresses at
the bottom face of the beam. Neglect the
self weight of the beam. [GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 86.205-86.205
6
Question: 13469
A simply supported rectangular concrete
beam of span 8m has to be prestressed
with a force of 1600kN. The tendon is of
parabolic profile having zero eccentricity at
the supports. The beam has to carry an
external uniformly distributed load of
intensity 30 kN/m. Neglecting the selfweight of the beam, the maximum dip (in
meters, up to two decimal places) of the
tendon at the mid-span to balance the
external load should be________ [GATE
2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 0.15-0.15
7
Question: 13435
A pre-tensioned rectangular concrete beam
150 mm wide and 300 mm depth is
prestressed with three straight tendons,
each having a cross-sectional area of 50
mm2, to an initial stress of 1200 N/mm2.
The tendons are located at 100 mm from
the soffit of the beam. If the modular ratio
is 6, the loss of prestressing force (in kN,
up to one decimal place) due to the elastic
deformation of concrete only is
______[GATE-17-1]
Correct Answer: 4.8-4.8
8
Question: 13380
In a pre-stressed concrete beam section
shown in the figure ,the net loss is 10% and
the final pre-stressing force applied at X is
750kN .The initial fiber stresses (in N/mm2)
at the top and bottom of the beam
were:[GATE-15]
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prestressed Concrete
A.4.166 and 20.833
B.-4.166 and -20.833
C.4.166 and -20.833
D.-4.166 and 20.833
Correct Answer: D
9
Question: 13379
A prestressed concrete beam of crosssection 250 mm wide and 600 mm deep is
prestress by means of16 wires of 7 mm
diameter located at a distance of 200 mm
from the bottom of beam. Assuming
effective prestress = 700 MPa. What is
maximum sagging moment (kN-m) at a
given section due to live load the beam can
withstands without causing tensile stress at
bottom face of the beam. Neglect effect of
dead load[GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 86.16-86.16
10
Question: 13378
A concrete beam prestressed with a
parabolic tendon is shown in the sketch.
The eccentricity of the tendon is measured
from the centroid of the cross-section. The
applied prestressing force at service is
1620 kN. The uniformly distributed load of
45 kN/m includes the
self-weight [GATE-12]
The stress (in N/mm2) in the bottom fibre at
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prestressed Concrete
mid-span is
(A) tensile 2.90
(B) compressive 2.90
(C) tensile 4.32
(D) compressive 4.32
Correct Answer: B
11
Question: 13377
Which one of the following is categorised
as a long-term loss of prestress in a
prestressed concrete member? [GATE-12]
(A) Loss due to elastic shortening
(B) Loss due to friction
(C) Loss due to relaxation of strands
(D) Loss due to anchorage slip
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 13376
A rectangular concrete beam of width
120mm and depth 200mm is prestressed
by pretensioning to a force of 150kN at an
eccentricity of 20mm. The cross sectional
area of the prestressing steel is 187.5mm2.
Take modulus of elasticity of steel and
concrete as 2.1×105 MPa and3.0×104 MPa
respectively. The percentage loss of stress
in the prestressing steel due to elastic
deformation of concrete is [GATE-09]
A)8.75
(B) 6.125
(C) 4.81
(D) 2.19
Correct Answer: B
13
Question: 13375
A pretensioned concrete member of sectio
n 200 mm x 250 mm contains tendons of a
rea 500 mm2 at centre of gravity of the
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prestressed Concrete
section.the prestress in the tendons is
1000 N/mm2.assuming the modular ratio as
10 ,the stress (N/mm2) in concrete
is [GATE-08]
(a.) 11
(b.) 9
(c.) 7
(d.) 5
Correct Answer: B
14
Question: 13374
concrete beam of rectangular crosssection
of size 120mm (width) and 200mm (d) ispr
estressed by a straight tendon to an effec
tive force of 150 kN at an eccentricity of 20
mm (belowthe centroidal axis in the depth
direction). The stresses at the top and bott
om fibres of the section are [GATE-07]
a)2.5N/mm2 (compression),10
N/mm2(tension)
b)10 N/mm2)(compression),
2.5N/mm2(tension)
c) 3.75N/mm2(tension),
3.75N/mm2(compression)
d) 2.5N/mm2(compression),
3.75N/mm2(tension)
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 13373
IS :1343- 1980 limits the minimum chara
cteristic strength of prestressed concrete fo
r post tensioned
work and pretension work as (GATE-05)
(a.) 25MPa, 30M Pa respectively
(b.) 25MPa, 35M Pa respectively
(c.) 30MPa, 35MPa respectively
(d.) 30MPa, 40MPa respectively
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prestressed Concrete
Correct Answer: D
16
Question: 13372
A simply supported prestressed concrete b
eam is 6m long and 300mm wide. Its gross
depth is600mm. It is prestressed by horizo
ntal cable tendons at a uniform eccentricity
of 100mm. Theprestressing tensile force in
the cable tendons is I000kN. Neglect the s
elf weight of beam. Themaximum normal c
ompressive stress in the beam at transfer i
s(GATE-04)
(a.) Zero
(b.) 555 N/mm2
(c.) 11.11 N/mm2
(d.) 15.68 N/mm2
Correct Answer: C
17
Question: 12250
A 6 m long simply-supported beam is
prestressed as shown in the figure.
The beam carries a uniformly distributed
load of 6 kN/m over its entire span. If the
effective flexural rigidity EI = 2×104 kNm2
and the effective prestressing force is 200
kN, the net increase in length of the
prestressing cable (in mm, up to two
decimal places) is ______ (GATE 2018 AN)
Correct Answer: 0.10-0.12
18
Question: 5539
The percentage loss of pre – stress due to
anchorage slip of 3 mm in a concrete beam
of length of 30 m which is post – tensioned
by a tendon subjected to an initial stress of
1200N/mm 2 and modulus of elasticity
equal to 2.1 x 105 N/mm 2 , is
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prestressed Concrete
a) 0.0175
b) 0.175
c) 1.75
d) 17.5
Correct Answer: D
19
Question: 5095
A concrete beam of rectangular cross –
section of 200 mm x 400 mm is
represented with a force of 400 kN at an
eccentricity of 100 mm. The maximum
compressive stress in the concrete
is (GATE-05) [IES 2012]
a) 12.5 N/mm 2
b) 7.5 N/mm2
c) 5.0 N/mm2
d) 2.5 N/mm2
Correct Answer: A
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DESIGN OF STEEL STRUCTURES
 INTRODUCTION
……………. 351-351
 BOLTED CONNECTIONS
……………… 352-357
 WELDED CONNECTIONS
……….. 358-363
 TENSION MEMBERS
……………..364-368
 COMPRESSION MEMBERS
…………….369-373
 BEAMS AND PLASTIC THEORY ………..374-393
 GIRDERS
………………….394-395
 ROOF TRUSSES
………………….396-396
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introduction To DSS
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 7303
A steel member 'M' has reversal of stress
due to live loads, whereas another member
'N' has reversal of stress due to wind load.
As per IS800:2007, the maximum
slenderness ratio permitted is: [GATE-15]
a) less for member 'M' than that of member
'N'
b) more for member 'M' than for member
'N'
c) same for both the members
d) not specified in the code
Correct Answer: A
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Bolted Connections
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13870
two steel plates each of width 150 mm and
thickness 10mm are connected with three
20mm diameter rivets placed in a zig-zag
pattern.The pitch of the rivets is 75 mm
and gauge is 60 mm.If the allowable tensile
stress is 150 Mpa ,the maximum tensile
force that the joint can withstand is
[GATE-99]
A.195.66kN
B.195.00kN
C.192.75kN
D.225.00kN
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 13800
Rivet value is defined as [GATE-04]
(a)lesser of the bearing strength of rivet
and the shearing strength of the rivet
(b)lesser of the bearing strength of rivet
and the tearing strength of thinner plate
(c)greater of the bearing strength of rivet
and the shearing strength of the rivet
(d)lesser of the shearing strength of the
rivet and the tearing strength of thinner
plate
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13765
A bracket connection is made with four
bolts of 10 mm diameter and supports a
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Bolted Connections
load of 10 kN at an eccentricity of 100 m.
The maximum force to be resisted by any
bolt will be [GATE-07]
A.5 kN
B.6.5kN
C.6.8kN
D.7.16kN
Correct Answer: D
4
Question: 13754
Rivets and bolts subjected to both shear
stress (Tvf,cal) and axial tensile stress (σtf,cal)
shall be so proportioned that the stresses
do not exceed the respective allowable
stresses Tvf and σtf the value of
does not
exceed [GATE-08]
A.1.0
B.1.2
C.1.4
D.1.8
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13744
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Bolted Connections
A 12mm thick plate is connected to two
8mm plates, on either side through a
16mm diameter power driven field rivet as
shown in the figure below. Assuming
permissible shear stress as 90MPa and
permissible bearing stress as 270MPa in
the rivet, the rivet value of the joint
is [GATE-09]
(A) 56.70kN
(B) 43.29kN
(C) 36.19kN
(D) 21.65kN
Correct Answer: B
6
Question: 13725
A double cover butt riveted joint is used to
connect two flat plates of 200mm width
and 14mm thickness as show in the figure.
There are twelve power driven rivets of
20mm diameter at a pitch of 50mm in both
directions on either side of the plate. Two
cover plates of 10mm thickness are used.
The capacity of the joint in tension
considering bearing and shear ONLY, with
permissible bearing and shear stresses as
300MPa respectively is [GATE-10]
(A) 1083.6kN
(B) 871.32kN
(C) 541.18kN
(D) 433.7kN
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Bolted Connections
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 13689
In a steel plate with bolted connections, the
rupture of the net section is a mode of
failure under [GATE-12]
(A) tension
(B) compression
(C) flexure
(D) shear
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 12240
Four bolts P, Q, R and S of equal diameter
are used for a bracket subjected to a load
of 130 kN as shown in the figure. (GATE
2018 AN)
The force in bolt P is
A.32.50N
B.69.32 KN
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Bolted Connections
C.82.50 kN
D119.32 kN
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 7306
prying forces are
[GATE-15]
a) shearing forces on the bolt because of
the joints
b)tensile forces due to flexibility of
connected members
c)bending forces on the bolt because of the
joints
d)forces due to friction between connected
parts
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 7305
A bracket plate connected to a column
flange transmits a load of 100 KN as shown
in the following figure .The maximum force
for which the bolts should be designed is
___kN [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 155-156.3
11
Question: 7304
The tension and shear force (both in KN) in
each bolt of the joint ,as shown
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Bolted Connections
below,respectively are [GATE-14 FN]
A. 30.33
B. 30.33
C. 33.33
D. 33.33
and
and
and
and
20.00
25.00
20.00
25.00
Correct Answer: D
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welded Connections
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16168
A 16 mm thick gusset plate is connected to
the 12mm thick flange plate of an I-section
using fillet welds on both sides as shown in
the figure (not drawn to scale). The gusset
plate is subjected to a point load of 350 kN
acting at a distance of 100 mm from the
flange plate. Size of fillet weld is 10 mm
[GATE 2019 FN]
The maximum resultant stress (in MPa,
round off to 1 decimal place) on the fillet
weld along the vertical plane would be
________
Correct Answer: 78.1-78.1
2
Question: 13898
maximum size of a fillet weld for a plate of
square edge is [GATE-97]
A.1.5 mm less than the thickness of the
plate
B.one half of the thickness of the plate
C.thickness of the plate itself
D.1.5 mm more than the thickness of the
plate
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13835
Identify the most efficient butt joint(with
double cover plates ) for a plate in tension
from the patterns (plan views ) shown
below,each comprising 6 identical bolts
with the same pitch and gauge [GATE-01]
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welded Connections
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 13789
A fillet-welded joint of 6mm size is shown in
the figure. The welded surfaces meet at
60-90 degree and permissible stress in the
fillet weld is 108 MPa. The safe load that
can be transmitted by the joint is
(GATE-05)
(a) 162.7 kN
(b) 151.6 kN
(c) 113.4 kN
(d) 109.5 kN
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13788
An unstiffened web I section is fabricated
from a 10 mm thick plate by fillet welding
as shown in the figure. If yield stress of
steel is 250 MPa, the maximum shear load
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welded Connections
that section can take is (GATE-05)
A.750 kN
B.350 kN
C.337.5 kN
D.300 kN
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 13726
Two plates, subjected to direct tension,
each of 10mm thickness and having widths
of 100mm and 175mm, respectively are to
be fillet welded with an overlap of 200mm.
Given that the permissible weld stress is
110MPa and the permissible stress in steel
is 150MPa, then length of the weld required
using the maximum permissible weld size
as per IS: 800-1984 is [GATE-10]
(A) 245.3mm
(B) 229.2mm
(C) 205.5mm
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welded Connections
(D) 194.8mm
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 13704
For the fillet weld of size ‘s’ shown in the
adjoining figure the effective throat
thickness is [GATE-11]
(A) 0.61s
(B) 0.65 s
(C) 0.70 s
(D) 0.75 s
Correct Answer: B
8
Question: 12236
A fillet weld is simultaneously subjected to
factored normal and shear stresses of 120
MPa and 50 MPa, respectively. As per IS
800 : 2007, the equivalent stress (in MPa,
up to two decimal places) is ______ (GATE
2018 AN)
Correct Answer: 147.50 -148.50
9
Question: 12176
In a fillet weld, the direct shear stress and
bending tensile stress are 50 MPa and 150
MPa, respectively. As per IS 800: 2007, the
equivalent stress (in MPa, up to two
decimal places) will be________
(GATE
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welded Connections
2018FN)
Correct Answer: 173.205
10
Question: 7342
Two plates of 8mm thickness each are
connected by a fillet weld of 6mm
thickness as shown in figure
The permissible stresses in the plate and
the weld are 150 Mpa and 110 Mpa
respectively.Assuming the length of the
weld shown in figure to be the effective
length the permissible load P(in KN)
is____[GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 59-61
11
Question: 7319
Two plates are connected by fillet welds of
size 10 mm and subjected to tension, as
shown in the sketch. The thickness of each
plate is 12 mm. The yield stress and the
ultimate tensile stress of steel are 250 MPa
and 410 MPa, respectively. The welding is
done in the workshop (γmw= 1.25). As per
the Limit State Method of IS 800:2007, the
minimum length (rounded off to the
nearest higher multiple of 5 mm) of each
weld to transmit a force P equal to 270 kN
is [GATE-12] [GATE 2016 FN] [GATE-06]
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welded Connections
(A) 100 mm
(B) 105 mm
(C) 110 mm
(D) 115 mm
Correct Answer: B
12
Question: 5076
In a steel plate girder, the web plate is
connected to the flange plates by fillet
welding. The size of fillet welds is designed
to safety resist[GATE-04][IES 2012]
a) The bending stresses in the flanges
b) The vertical shear force at the section
c) The horizontal shear forces between the
flanges and the web plate
d) The forces causing buckling in the web
Correct Answer: C
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tension members
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16128
Assuming that there is no possibility of
shear buckling in the web, the maximum
reduction permitted by IS 800-2007 in the
(low-shear) design bending strength of a
semi-compact steel section due to high
shear is.
(A) 50%
(B) Governed by the area of the flange
(C) Zero
(D) 25%
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 13832
ISA 100x100x10 mm(cross sectional area
=1908 mm2)is welded along and B such
that lengths of the weld along A and B are
I1 and I2 respectively,which of the following
is a possibly acceptable combination of I1
and I2 [GATE -02]
A.I1 =60mm and I2 =150mm
B.I1 =150mm and I2 =60mm
C.I1 =150 mm and I2 =150mm
D.any of the above ,depending on the size
of the weld
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tension members
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 13831
ISA 100x100x10mm (cross sectional area
=1908 mm2) serves as tensile
member.This angle is welded to a gusset
plate along A and B approximately as
shown.Assuming the yield strength of the
steel to be 260 N/mm2 the tensile strength
of this member can be taken to be
approximately [GATE -02]
A.500kN
B.300kN
C.225kN
D.375kN
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 13823
A truss tie consisting of 2 ISA 75 x 75 x 8
mm carries a pull of 150 kN. At ends the
two angles are connected, one each on
either side of a 10mm thick gusset plate,
by 18 mm diameter rivets arranged in one
row. The allowable stresses in rivet are
fs=90.0 N/mm2 and fbr=250 N/mm2
Q)minimum number of rivets required at
each end is [GATE -03]
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tension members
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13822
A truss tie consisting of 2 ISA 75 x 75 x 8
mm carries a pull of 150 kN. At ends the
two angles are connected, one each on
either side of a 10mm thick gusset plate,
by 18 mm diameter rivets arranged in one
row. The allowable stresses in rivet are
fs=90.0 N/mm2 and fbr=250 N/mm2
Q.)
Maximum tensile stress in the tie in
N/mm2 is [GATE -03]
A.93.6
B.87.5
C.77.2
D.66.0
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 13787
Which one of the following is NOT correct
for steel sections as per IS : 800-1984
? (GATE-05)
A.The maximum bending stress in tension
or in compression in extreme fibre
calculated on the effective section of a
beam shall not exceed 0.66fy.
B.The bearing stress in any part of a beam
when calculated on the area shall not
exceed 0.75 fy
C.The direct stress in compression on the
gross sectional area of axial loaded
compression member shall not exceed 0.6
fy.
D.None of above.
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tension members
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 13779
In the design of welded tension members,
consider the following statements :
I.The entire cross-sectional area of the
connected leg is assumed to contribute to
the effective area in case of angles.
II.Two angles back-to-back and tackwelded as per the codal requirements may
be assumed to behave as a tee section.
III.A check on slenderness ratio may be
necessary in some cases.
The TRUE statements are [GATE-06]
(a)only I and II
(b)only II and III
(c)only I and III
(d)I, II and III
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 13764
A steel flat of rectangular section of size 70
x 6 mm is connected to a gusset plate by
three bolts each having a shear capacity of
15 kN in holes having diameter 11.5 mm. If
the allowable tensile stress in the flat is
150 MPa, the maximum tension that can be
applied to the flat is [GATE-07]
(a)42.3 kN
(b)52.65kN
(c)59.5 kN
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tension members
(d)63.0kN
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 7347
Two bolted plates under tension with
alternative arrangement of bolt holes are
shown in figures I and 2.The hole diamteter
,pitch ,and gauge length are D,P And g
respectively.
Which one of the following conditions must
be ensured to have higher net tensile
capacity of configuration shown in figure 2
than that shown in figure I?
a. p2>2gd
b. p2>4gd
c. p2>4gd
d. p>4gd
Correct Answer: C
10
Question: 5065
Two equal angles, each being ISA 100 mm
x 100 mm of thickness 10 mm, are placed
back to back and connected to either side
of a gusset plate through a single row of 16
mm diameter rivets in double shear. The
effective areas of the connected and
unconnected legs of each of these angles
are 775 mm 2 and 950 mm 2 respectively. If
these angles are not tack – riveted, the net
effective area of this part of angles is
[GATE-04][IES 2012]
a) 3650 mm 2
b) 3450 mm 2
c) 3076 mm 2
d) 2899 mm 2
Correct Answer: C
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compression members
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16220
The critical bending compressive stress in
the extreme fibre of a structural steel
section is 1000 MPa. It is given that the
yield strength of the steel is 250 MPa,
width of flange is 250 mm and thickness of
flange is 15 mm. As per the provisions of
IS: 800-2007, the nondimensional
slendeness ratio of the steel crosssection
is [GATE 2019 AN]
(A) 0.50
(B) 2.00
(C) 0.25
(D) 0.75
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 16200
A steel column is restrained against both
translation and rotation at one end and is
restrained only against rotation but free to
translate at the other end. Theoretical and
design (IS: 800 – 2007) values,
respectively, of effective length factor of
the column are [GATE 2019 AN]
(A) 1.0 and 1.0
(B) 1.2 and 1.0
(C) 1.0 and 1.2
(D) 1.2 and 1.2
Correct Answer: C
3
Question: 13899
factor of safety adopted by IS:800-1984
while arriving at the permissible stress in
axial compression is [GATE-97]
A.2.00
B.1.00
C.1.67
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compression members
D.1.50
Correct Answer: C
4
Question: 13813
In the design of lacing system for a built-up
steel column, the maximum allowable
slenderness ratio of a lacing bar is [GATE
-03]
(a) 120
(b) 145
(c) 180
(d) 250
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 13805
a square steel slab base of are 1 m2 is
provided for a column made of two rolled
channel sections.The 300 mm x 300 mm
column carries an axial compressive load
of 2000 kN. The line of action of the load
passes through the centroid of the column
section as well as of the slab base. The
permissible bending stress in the slab base
is 185 MPa.
Q)The required minimum thickness of the
slab base is [GATE-04]
(a) 110 mm
(b) 89 mm
(c) 63 mm
(d) 55 mm
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 13803
A moment M of magnitude 50 kN-m is
transmitted to a column flange through a
bracket by using four 20 mm diameter
rivets as shown in the figure.
The shear force induced in the rivet A
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compression members
is [GATE-04]
A.250kN
B.175.8 kN
C.125kN
D.88.4kN
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 13745
Consider the following statements for a
compression member
I. The elastic critical stress in compression
increases with decrease in slenderness
ratio
II. The effective length depends on the
boundary conditions at its ends
III. The elastic critical stress in compression
is independent of the slenderness ratio
IV. The ratio of the effective length to its
radius of gyration is called as slenderness
ratio
The TRUE statements are [GATE-09]
(A) II and III
(B) III and IV
(C) II, III and IV
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compression members
(D) I, II and IV
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 13705
A 16 mm thick plate measuring 650 mm x
420 mm is used as a base plate for an ISHB
300 column subjected to a factored axial
compressive load of 2000 kN. As per IS
456-2000, the minimum grade of concrete
that should be used below the base plate
for safely carrying the load is [GATE-11]
(A) M15
(B) M20
(C) M30
(D) M40
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 12162
A steel column of ISHB 350 @72.4 kg/m is
subjected to a factored axial compressive
load of 2000 kN. The load is transferred to
a concrete pedestal of grade M20 through
a square base plate. Consider bearing
strength of concrete as 0.45 fck, where fck is
the characteristic strength of concrete.
Using limit state method and neglecting
the self weight of base plate and steel
column, the length of a side of the base
plate to be provided is (GATE 2018-1)
(A) 39 cm
(B) 42 cm
(C) 45 cm
(D) 48 cm
Correct Answer: D
10
Question: 11236
As per the code, the permissible stress in
axial tension in N/mm2, on the net effective
area of the sections shall not exceed
(where fy is the minimum yield stress of
steel in N/mm2 ) (GATE-05)
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compression members
(a) 0.5 fy
(b) 0.6 fy
(c) 0.75 fy
(d) 0.8 fy
Correct Answer: B
11
Question: 7363
While designing, for a steel column of
Fe250 grade, a base plate resting on a
concrete pedestal of M20 grade, the
bearing strength of concrete (in N/mm2) in
limit state method of design as per
IS:456-2000 is __________
[GATE-14
FN]
Correct Answer: 9-9
12
Question: 7317
A column is subjected to a load through a
bracket as shown in figure.
the resulatant force(in KN,up to one
decimal place )In the bolt 1 is ____
[GATE 2017 FN]
Correct Answer: 5.9-6.1
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Beams and Plastic Theory
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16223
A rolled I-section beam is supported on a
75 mm wide bearing plate as shown in the
figure. Thickness of flange and web of the Isection are 20 mm and 8mm, respectively.
Root radius of the I-section is 10mm.
Assuming: material yield stress, fy = 250
MPa and partial safety factor for
material,γmo=1.10
As per IS: 800-2007, the web bearing
strength (in kN, round off to 2 decimal
places) of the beam is _______[GATE 2019
AN]
Correct Answer: 272.23-272.23
2
Question: 16159
If the section shown in the figure turns
from fully-elastic to fully-plastic, the depth
of neutral axis (N.A), y? , decreases by
[GATE 2019 FN]
A.13.75 mm
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Beams and Plastic Theory
B.15.25 mm
C.10.75 mm
D.12.25 mm
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 15512
If YY is the centroidalaxis of a T-beam
section subjected to plastic moment Mp
,the neutral axis lies [GATE-96]
A.above the line ZZ
B.between the lines YY and ZZ
C.Between the lines XX and YY
D.Below the line XX
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 13867
The shape factor of the section shown in
the figure is [GATE-99]
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Beams and Plastic Theory
A.1.5
B.1.12
C.2
D.1.7
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13857
for a fixed beam with spanL ,having plastic
moment capacity of MP,the ultimate
central concentrated load will be [GATE
-99]
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 13853
a cantilever beam of length L and a cross
section with shape factor f supports a
concentrated load P as shown below
: [ GATE -00]
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Beams and Plastic Theory
the length Lp of the plastic zone ,when the
maximum bending moment ,equals the
plastic moment Mp, given by
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 13852
the four cross sections shown below are
required to be ordered in the increasing
order of their respective shape
factors. [ GATE -00]
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Beams and Plastic Theory
which of the following order is correct?
A.III,I,IV,II
B.I,II,III,IV
C.III,IV,I,II
D.III,IV,II,I
Correct Answer: C
8
Question: 13830
A steel beam (with a constant EI, and span
L) is fixed at both ends and carries a
uniformly distributed load (w kN/m) ,which
is gradually increased till the beam reaches
the stage of plastic collapse (refer to the
following figure ).Assuming 'B' to be at mid
span ,which of the following is true. [GATE
-02]
A.Hinges are formed at A,B and C together
B. Hinges are formed at B and then at A
and C together
C.Hinges are formed at A and C together
and then at B
D.Hinges are formed at A and C only
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 13817
A steel portal frame has dimensions, plastic
moment capacities and applied loads as
shown in the figure. The vertical load is
always twice of the horizontal load. The
collapse load P required for the
development of a beam mechanism
is [GATE -03]
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Beams and Plastic Theory
A.3MP/L
B.4MP/L
C.6MP/L
D.8MP/L
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 13790
A cantilever beam of length I, width b and
depth d is loaded with a concentrated
vertical load at the tip. If yielding starts at
a load P, the collapse load shall
be (GATE-05)
(a) 2.0 P
(b)1.5 P
(c)1.2 P
(d) P
Correct Answer: B
11
Question: 13781
When the triangular section of a beam as
shown below becomes a plastic hinge, the
compressive force acting on the section
(with σy denoting the yield stress)
becomes [GATE-06]
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Beams and Plastic Theory
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 13766
The plastic collapse load Wp for the
propped cantilever supporting two point
loads as shown in figure terms of plastic
moment capacity, Mp is given
by [GATE-07]
A. 3MP/L
B. 4MP/L
C. 5MP/L
D.6MP/L
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Beams and Plastic Theory
Correct Answer: B
13
Question: 13755
A continuous beam is loaded as shown in
the figure below. Assuming a plastic
moment capacity equal to Mp, the
minimum load at which the beam would
collapse is [GATE-08]
Correct Answer: B
14
Question: 13751
The shape of the cross-section, which has a
largest shape factor, is [GATE-08]
(A)rectangular
(B)I-section
(C)diamond
(D)solid circular
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Beams and Plastic Theory
Correct Answer: C
15
Question: 13739
In the theory of plastic bending of beams,
the ratio of plastic moment to yield
moment is called [GATE-09]
(A) Shape factor
(B) Plastic section modulus
(C) Modulus of resilience
(D) Rigidity modulus
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 13714
The value of W that results in the collapse
of the beam shown in the adjoining figure
and having a plastic moment capacity of
Mp is [GATE-11]
A.(4/21) Mp
B.(3/10)Mp
C.(7/21)Mp
D.(13/21)Mp
Correct Answer: D
17
Question: 13675
The magnitude of load P is increased till
collapse and the plastic moment carrying
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Beams and Plastic Theory
capacity of steel beam section is 90 kNm
The value of R (in kN), using plastic
analysis is (upto 1 decimal place). [GATE
2013]
Correct Answer: 60-60
18
Question: 13674
The magnitude of load P is increased till
collapse and the plastic moment carrying
capacity of steel beam section is 90 kNm
What is the value of R (in kN) if value of P
is 80 kN by elastic theory? [GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 25-25
19
Question: 13654
As per IS 800: 2007 the cross-section in
which extreme fibre can reach the yield
stress but cannot develop the plastic
moment of resistance due to local buckling
is classified as [GATE 2013]
(A) Plastic section
(B) Compact section
(C) Semi compact section
(D) Shear section
Correct Answer: C
20
Question: 13631
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Beams and Plastic Theory
A prismatic beam (as shown below) has
plastic moment capacity of Mp, then the
collapse load P of the beam is [GATE-14
AN]
Correct Answer: C
21
Question: 13600
A steel section is subjected to a
combination of shear and bending actions.
The applied shear force is V and the shear
capacity of the section is Vs. For such a
section, high shear force (as per
IS:800-2007) is defined as (GATE-05)
[GATE-14 FN]
(A)V> 0.6 Vs
(B)V > 0.7 Vs
(C)V> 0.8 Vs
(D)V > 0.9 Vs
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Beams and Plastic Theory
Correct Answer: A
22
Question: 13599
Match the information given in group-I with
in Group II [GATE-14 FN]
(A) P-1;Q-2;R-3;S-4
(B)P-2;Q-1;R-4;S-3
(C) P-3;Q-4;R-2;S-1
(D)P-4;Q-3;R-2;S-1
Correct Answer: A
23
Question: 13585
A fixed end beam is subjected to a load, W
at 1/3rd span from the left support as
shown in the figure. The collapse load of
the beam is
A.16.5Mp/L
B.15.5Mp/L
C.15.0Mp/L
D.16.0Mp/L
Correct Answer: C
24
Question: 13561
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Beams and Plastic Theory
For formation of collapse mechanism in the
following figure, the minimum value of Pu is
cMp/L.Mp and 3Mp denote the plastic
moment capacities of beam sections as
shown in this figure. The value of c is ____
. [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 13.33-13.33
25
Question: 13499
The semi-compact section of a laterally
unsupported steel beam has an elastic
section modulus, plastic section modulus
and design bending compressive stress of
500 cm3, 650 cm3 and 200MPa,
respectively. The design flexural capacity
(expressed in kNm) of the section is
_________[GATE 2016 FN]
Correct Answer: 100-100
26
Question: 12861
A propped cantilever of span l is loaded
with uniformly distributed load of intensity
w/unit length , all through the span ,
bending moment at the fixed end is
[GATE-97]
Correct Answer: A
27
Question: 12801
A prismatic propped cantilever beam of
span L and plastic moment capacity MP is
Subjected to a concentrated load at its mid-
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Beams and Plastic Theory
span. If the collapse load of the beam is
α(MPL ) ,the value of α is______[GATE
2018-2]
Correct Answer: 6.0-6.0
28
Question: 12196
The dimensions of a symmetrical welded Isection are shown in the figure.
The plastic section modulus about the
weaker axis (in cm3, up to one decimal
place) is _____(GATE 2018-1)
Correct Answer: 88.0 -92.0
29
Question: 7779
A steel beam supporting loads from the
floor slab as well as from wall is termed
as [GATE-99]
(A) Stringer beam
(B) Lintel beam
(C) Spandrel beam
(D) Header beam
Correct Answer: C
30
Question: 7418
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Beams and Plastic Theory
a propped cantilever beam is shown
below.the plastic moment capacity of the
beam is Mp.The collapse load is (GATE-98)
(a)4Mp/L
(b)6 Mp/L
(c) 8 Mp/L
(d) 12 Mp/L
Correct Answer: B
31
Question: 7417
.the number of independent mechanisms
the gable frame will have when loaded as
shown is (GATE-88)
(a)2
(b)3
(c) 4
(d)5
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Beams and Plastic Theory
Correct Answer: C
32
Question: 7409
The number of plastic hinges necessary to
convert a framed structure of redundancy Y
into a mechanism is (GATE-95)
a)r + 1
(b) r – 1
(c)2r-1
(d) 2r + 1
Correct Answer: A
33
Question: 7408
Which one of the following condition both
elastic and plastic methods of analysis of
Indeterminate structures have to
satisfy
(GATE - 95)
(a)Yield condition
(b)Mechanism condition
(c)Equilibrium condition
(d)Compability equations.
Correct Answer: C
34
Question: 7405
If ‘YY’ is the centrodial axis of a T- beam
section, subjected to plastic moment, Mp,
the neutral axis lies
(GATE - 94)
(a)above ‘ZZ’
(b)between YY and ZZ
(c)between XX and YY
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Beams and Plastic Theory
(d)between low' XX
Correct Answer: B
35
Question: 7404
The shape factor of a rectangular section
is
(GATE -94)
(a)1
(b)1.5
(c)2
(d) 2.5
Correct Answer: B
36
Question: 7403
The shape factor of an isosceles triangle
for bending about the axis parallel to the
base is: (GATE - 94)
(a) 1.5
(b) 1.7
(c)2
D) 2.34
Correct Answer: A
37
Question: 7375
A fixed end beam is subjected to a
concentrated load(P) as shown in the
figure.The beam has two different
segments having different plastic moment
capacities (Mp,2Mp) as shown
The minimum value of load (P) as which
the beam would collapse (ultimate load) is
a. 7.5MpL
b. 5MpL
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Beams and Plastic Theory
c. 4.5MpL
d. 2.5MpL
Correct Answer: A
38
Question: 7374
The ultimate collapse load (P) interms of
plastic moment Mp by kinematic approach
for a propped cantilever of length L with P
acting at [GATE-14 FN]
Correct Answer: C
39
Question: 7373
Match the information given in Group-I with
those in group –II [GATE-14 AN]
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Beams and Plastic Theory
Correct Answer: A
40
Question: 5519
When designing steel structures, one must
ensure that local buckling in webs does not
take place. This check may not be critical
when using rolled steel section because
[GATE-02][IES 2014]
a) Quality control at the time of
manufacture of rolled sections is very
good.
b) Depths available are small
c) Web stiffness is built – in in rolled
sections
d) Depth to thickness ratio of the web is
always appropriately adjusted
Correct Answer: D
41
Question: 5505
The plastic modulus of a section is 4.8 x
10 -4 m 3 . The shape factor is 1.2. The
plastic moment capacity of the section is
120 kN-m. the yield stress of the material
is (GATE-98)[IES 2014]
a) 100Mpa
b) 240 Mpa
c) 250 Mpa
d) 300 Mpa
Correct Answer: C
42
Question: 5073
An ISMB 500 is used as a beam in a
multistory construction. From the viewpoint
of structural design, it can be considered to
be laterally restrained when [GATE-02][IES
2012]
a) The tension flange is laterally restrained
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Beams and Plastic Theory
b) The compression flange is laterally
restrained
c) The web is adequately stiffened
d) The condition in both (a) and (c) are met
Correct Answer: B
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Girders
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13875
the maximum permissible deflection for a
gantry girder ,spanning over 6m ,on which
an EOT (electric over head traveeling )
crane of capacity 200kN is operating
is (GATE-98)
A.8 mm
B.10 mm
C.12 mm
D.18 mm
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 13819
Group I contains some elements in design
of a simply supported plate girder and
Group 2 gives some qualitative locations
on the girder. Match the items of two lists
as per good design practice and relevant
codal provisions.[GATE -02]
Group I
P. flange splice
Q .web splice
R.bearing stiffeners
S.horizontal stiffener
Group II
1. at supports (minimum)
2. away from centre of span
3. away from support
4. in the middle of span
5. longitudinally somewhere in the
compression flange
Codes:
P
Q
R
S
(a)2
3
1
5
(b)4
2
1
3
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Girders
(c)3
4
2
1
(d)1
5
2
3
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13716
The adjoining figure shows a schematic
representation of a steel plate girder to be
used as a simply supported beam with a
concentrated load. For stiffeners, PQ
(running along the beam axis) and RS
(running between the top and bottom
flanges) which of the following pairs of
statements will be TRUE? [GATE-11]
(A) (i) RS should be provided under the
concentrated load only,
(ii) PQ should be placed in the tension
side of the flange.
(B) (i) RS helps to prevent local buckling of
the web.
(ii) PQ should be placed in the
compression side of the flange.
(C) (i) RS should be provided at supports.
(ii) PQ should be placed along the
neutral axis.
(D) (i) RS should be provided away from
points of action of
concentrated loads,
(ii) PQ should be provided on the
compression side of the flange.
Correct Answer: B
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Roof Truss
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13900
effective length of a rafter member
between two nodes at a distance
L,perpendicular to the plane of the truss
is [GATE-97]
A.2.00L
B.0.85
C.1.50
D.1.00L
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 13804
A strut in a steel truss is composed of two
equal angles ISA 150 mm x 150 mm of
thickness 100 mm connected back-to-back
to the same side of a gusset plate. The
cross sectional area of each angle is
2921 mm2 and moment of inertia (Ixx=Iyy)
is 63350000 mm4.The distance of the
centroid of the angle from its surface (Cx=
Cy) is 40.8 mm. The minimum radius of
gyration of the strut is [GATE-04]
(a) 93.2 mm
(b) 62.7 mm
(c) 46.6 mm
(d) 29.8 mm
Correct Answer: C
3
Question: 5080
Which of the following elements of a
pitched roof industrial steel building
primarily resists lateral load parallel to the
ridge?[GATE-04][IES 2012]
a) Bracing
b) Purlin
c) Truss
d) Column
Correct Answer: A
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GEOTECHNICAL ENGINEERING
 ORIGIN OF SOILS
……………………………397-399
 DEFINITIONS AND RELATIONSHIPS ………………..………..400-408
 INDEX PROPERTIES
…………………………. 409-413
 SOIL CLASSIFICATION
…………………………..414-419
 PERMEABILITY,EFFECTIVE STRESS,
CAPILARITY AND SEEPAGE
…………………………… 420-445
 COMPACTION
………………………….446-450
 CONSOLIDATION
………………………….451-470
 SHEAR STRENGTH
……….……………….. 471-482
 EARTH PRESSURE
……………………….. 483-499
 STABILITY OF SLOPES
………………………...500-510
 STRESS DISTRIBUTION IN SOILS
………………………..511-518
 SHALLOW FOUNDATION
………………….….. 519-538
 DEEP FOUNDATION
………………………… 539-553
 SOIL SAMPLING,INVESTIGATION &STABILISATION…554-563
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Origin of soil
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 17199
black cotton soil exhibits large swelling and
shrinkage due to pressure of the following
clay mineral (GATE -93, GATE 2014 AN)
(a)kaolinite
(b)illite
(c)Montmorillonite
(d)halloysite
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 12225
The clay mineral, whose structural units
are held together by potassium bond is
(GATE 2018 AN)
(A) Halloysite
(B) Illite
(C) Kaolinite
(D) Smectite
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 6007
Deposit with flocculated structure is formed
when [GATE-09]
(a) Clay particles settle on sea bed
(b) Clay particles settle on fresh water lake
bed
(c)sand particles settle on river bed
(d)sand particles settle on sea bed
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 6006
Some of the structural strength of clayey
material that is lost by remoulding is slowly
recovered with time .this property of soils
to undergo an isothermal gel-to-soil-to-gel
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Origin of soil
transformation upon agitation and
subsequent to rest is termed (GATE-98)
(a) Isotropy
(b) Anisotropy
(c)thixotropy
(d)Allotropy
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 6005
The shape of clay particle is usually
(GATE-97)
(a) Angular
(b)Flaky
(c)tubular
(d)rounded
Correct Answer: B
6
Question: 5984
Aeolian Soils are
(GATE-95)
(a) Residual Soils
(b) Wind deposits
(c) Gravity Deposits
(d) Water deposits
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 5983
When the product of work of rock
weathering is not transpoted as sediment
but remains in place ,is called
(GATE-91)
(a) Alluvial Soil
(b) glacial Soil
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Origin of soil
(c) Residual Soil
(d) Aeolian Soil
Correct Answer: A
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Definitions and relationships
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16139
A soil has specific gravity of its solids equal
to 2.65. The mass density of water is 1000
kg/m3. Considering zero air voids and 10%
moisture content of the soil sample, the
dry density (in kg/m3, round of to 1 decimal
place) would be _________[GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 2094.9-2094.9
2
Question: 13847
a borrow pit soil has a dry density of
17 kN/m3 .How many cubic meters of this
soil will be required to construct an
embankment of 100m3 volume with a dry
density of 16 kN/m3
[GATE-00][SSC JE 2017]
A.94 m3
B.106 m3
C.100 m3
D.90 m3
Correct Answer: D
3
Question: 13515
The porosity (n) and the degree of
saturation (S) of a soil sample are 0.7 and
40%, respectively. In a 100
m3 volume of the soil, the volume
(expressed in m3) of air is ____ . [GATE
2016 FN]
Correct Answer: 42-42
4
Question: 13175
Soil has been compacted in an
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Definitions and relationships
embankment at a bulk density of 2.15
mg/m3 and a water content of
12%.the
value of specific gravity of soil solids is
2.65 .The water table is well below the
foundation level.Estimate the dry density
,void ratio degree of saturation and air
content of the compacted soil. (GATE-02)
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 13174
The total unit weight of the soil is
18.8kN/m3 .the specific gravity of the solid
particles of the soil is 2.67 and the water
content is 12% .calculate the [GATE-94]
(i)dry density
(ii) void ratio
(iii) degree of saturation
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 13173
The total unit weight of the glacial outwash
soil is 6 KN/m3 .The specific gravity of the
soild particles of the soil is 2.67 .assume
that unit weight of water ( ) is 9.81
KN/m3.Calculate the following
(GATE-98)
(i) dry unit weight
(ii) porosity
(iii) void ratio
(iv ) degree of saturation
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 13172
A sheet of water of thickness 1m is
available to fill the voids of cohesion less
soil to a degree of saturation of 80%.the
soil has a void ratio of 0.5 .Find the
thickness of soil layer required to
accommodate this amount of water
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Definitions and relationships
(GATE-95)
Correct Answer: 3.75-3.75
8
Question: 13171
A 588 cm3 volume of moist sand weighs
1010 gm.Its dry weight is 918 gm and
specific gravity of solids ,G is 2.67
.Assuming density of water as 1
gm/cm3,the void ratio is _[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 0.7-0.7
9
Question: 13170
A certain soil has the following preoperties
:Gs=2.71,n=40% and w=20% .the degree
of saturation of the soil (rounded off to the
nearest percentage) is _____ [GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 81.3-81.3
10
Question: 12200
The void ratio of a soil is 0.55 at an
effective normal stress of 140 kPa. The
compression index of the soil is 0.25. In
order to reduce the void ratio to 0.4, an
increase in the magnitude of effective
normal stress (in kPa, up to one decimal
place) should be ______ (GATE 2018FN)
Correct Answer: 416.0-420.0
11
Question: 6102
A Saturated undisturbed sample from a
clay strata has moisture content of 22.22%
and specific gravity of 2.7. Assuming ϒw =
10 kN/m3, the void ratio and the saturated
unit weight of the clay, respectively are
[GATE-09]
A. 0.6
B. 0.3
C. 0.6
D. 0.3
and
and
and
and
16.875
20.625
20.625
16.975
kN/m3
kN/m3
kN/m3
kN/m3
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 6000
For constructing an embankment ,the soil
is transported from a borrow area using a
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Definitions and relationships
truck which can carry 6 m3 of soil at a time
.the details are as follows.
(GATE-89)
(ii) The number of truck loads of soil
required to obtain 100 m3 of compacted
earth fill
a)12 no’s
(b) 56 no’s
(c) 25 no’s
(d) 33 no’s
Correct Answer: C
13
Question: 5999
For constructing an embankment ,the soil
is transported from a borrow area using a
truck which can carry 6 m3 of soil at a time
.the details are as follows. (GATE-89)
(i)The quantity of soil to be excavated
from the borrow pit, in m3 for a compacted
earth fill of 100m3 is
(a) 104 cum
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Definitions and relationships
(B) 146 cum
(c) 98 cum
(d) 87 cum
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 5997
An earth embankment is to be constructed
with compacted cohesionless soil.the
volume of the embankment is 5000m3. And
the target dry unit weight is 16.2
KN/m3.Three nearly sites (see figure below)
have been identified from where the
required soil can be transported to the
constructed site .the void ratios (e) of
different sites are shown in figure .Assume
the specific gravity of soil to be 2.7 for all
three sites.if the cost of excavation per m3
of borrow pits ,which site would you choose
as the most economic solution?(use unit
weight of water =10KN/m3) [GATE-15]
(a)site X
(b)site Y
(c) site Z
(d)Any of the sites
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Definitions and relationships
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 5996
The water content of a saturated soil and
the specific gravity of soil solids were found
to be 30% and 2.70 ,respectively.assuming
the unit weight of water to be 10 KN/m3,the
saturated unit weight (KN/m3),and the void
ratio of the soil are
(GATE-07)
(a)19.4,0.81
(b) 18.5,0.30
(c) 19.4,0.45
(d)18.5,0.45
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 5995
A saturated soil mass has a total density of
22 KN/m3 and a water content of 10%.the
bulk density and dry density of this are
(GATE-05)
(a) 12 KN/m3 and 20 KN/m3
respectively
(b)22 KN/m3 and 20 KN/m3 respectively
(c) 19.8 KN/m3 and 19.8 KN
/m3 respectively
(d) 23.2 KN/m3 and 19.8 KN/m3
respectively
Correct Answer: B
17
Question: 5994
The void ratio and specific gravity of a soil
are 0.65 and 2.72 respectively.the degree
of saturation (in percent ) corresponding to
water content of 20% is (GATE-01)
(a) 65.3
(b) 20.9
(c) 83.7
(d)54.4
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Definitions and relationships
Correct Answer: C
18
Question: 5993
.A soil sample in its natural state has mass
of 2.290 kg a volume of 1.15x 10-3 m3.After
being oven dried ,the mass of the sample is
2.035 kg.Gs for soil is 2.68 .the void ratio of
the natural soil is (GATE-99)
(a) 0.40
(b)0.45
(c) 0.55
(d)0.53
Correct Answer: D
19
Question: 5992
If the water content of a fully saturated soil
mass is 100% ,the void ratio of the sample
is [GATE-15]
(a) less than specific gravity of soil
(b) equal to specific gravity of soil
(c) Greater than specific gravity of soil
(d) independent of specific gravity of soil
Correct Answer: B
20
Question: 5990
In its natural condition ,a soil sample has a
mass of 1.980 kg and a volume of 0.001m3.
after being completely dried in an oven
,the mass of the sample is 1.800 kg.
Specific gravity G is 2.7 .Unit weight of
water is 10 KN/m3 .The degree of
saturation of the soil is
[GATE 2013]
(a) 0.65
(b) 0.70
(c) 0.54
(d) 0.61
Correct Answer: C
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Definitions and relationships
21
Question: 5989
The ratio of saturated unitweight to dry
unit weight of soil is 1.25.If the specific
gravity of solids (Gs) is 2.65,The void ration
of the soil is (GATE-04)
(a) 0.625
(b) 0.663
(c)0.944
(d)1.325
Correct Answer: B
22
Question: 5988
.A borrow pit soil has a dry density of 17
Kn/m3 .How many cubic meters of this soil
will be required to construct an
embankment of 100 m3 volume with a dry
density of 16 KN/m3.(GATE-00)
(a)
94m3
(b)106m3
(c) 100m3
(d) 90m3
Correct Answer: A
23
Question: 5987
A soil sample has a void ratio of 0.5 and its
porosity will be close to
(GATE-2000)(SSC JE 2017)(IES 2012)
(a)50%
(b)66%
(c)33%
(d)33%
Correct Answer: D
24
Question: 5986
Principle involved in the relationship
between submerged unit weight and
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Definitions and relationships
saturated weight of a soil is based on
(GATE-99)
(a) Equilibrium of floating bodies
(b) Archimede’s principle
(c) Stoke’s law
(d)Darcy’s law
Correct Answer: B
25
Question: 5985
If the porosity of a soil sample is 20% ,the
void ratio is
(GATE-97)[APPSC AEE 2004]
(a) 0.20
(b)0.80
(c) 1.00
(d)0.25
Correct Answer: D
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Index Properties
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13904
consistency index for a clayer soils
(LL)liquid limit,PL=plastic limit
,PI=plasticity index,w=natural moisture
content [GATE-97]
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 13862
The toughness index of clayey soils is given
by [GATE -99]
(a)plasticity index /flow index
(b)liquid limit /plastic limit
(c)liquidity index /plastic limit
(d)plastic limit/ liquidity index
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13861
the values of liquid limit and plasticity
index for soils having common geological
origin in a restricted locality usually
define[GATE -99] [SSC JE 2017]
A.a zone above A-line
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Index Properties
B.a straight line parallel to A -line
C.a straight line perpendicular to A-line
D.points may be anywhere in the plasticity
chart
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 13829
the void ratios at the densest ,loosest and
the natural states of a sand deposit are
0.2,0.6 and 0.4 respectively .the relatiive
density of the deposit is [GATE -02]
A.100%
B.75%
C.50%
D.25%
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13204
a given cohesionless soil hasemax=0.85 and
emin=0.50 in the filed ,the soil is compacted
to a mass density of 1800 kg/ m3at a water
content of 8% .take the mass density of
water as 1000 kg/ m3 and G as 2.7.The
relative density (in%)of the soil is
[GATE-14 FN]
A.56.43
B.60.25
C.62.87
D.65.71
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 13203
a fine grained soil has 60% |(by weight) silt
content .The soil behaves as semi-soild
when water content is between 15% and
28% .The soil behaves fluid like when the
water content is more than 40% .The
''activity" of the soil is [GATE-15]
A.3.33
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Index Properties
B.0.42
C.0.30
D.0.20
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 13202
the liquid limit (LL),plastic limit(PL) and
shrinkage limit(SL) of a cohesive soil satisfy
the relation[GATE-08]
A.LL>PL<SL
B.LL>PL>SL
C.LL<PL<SL
D.LLSL
Correct Answer: B
8
Question: 13201
the void ratio at the densest ,loosest and
the natural states of a sand deposit are
0.2,0.6 and 0.4 respectively .The relative
density of the deposit is [GATE-02]
A.100%
B.75%
C.50%
D.25%
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 13200
the following data were obtained from a
liquid limit test conducted on a soil sample
the liquid limit of the soil is [GATE-02]
A.63.1%
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Index Properties
B.62.8%
C.61.9%
D.60.6%
Correct Answer: C
10
Question: 13199
if the soil is dried beyond its shrinkage
limit,it will show [GATE-98]
A.large volume change
B.moderate volume change
C.low volume change
D.no volume change
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 13198
the laboratory test on a soil sample yields
the following results
natural moisture content=18%
liquid limit=60%
plastic limit=25%
percentage of clay sized sized
fraction=25%
the liquidity index and activity (as per the
expression proposed by skempton)of the
soil respectively,are (GATE 2017 FN]
A.-0.2 and 1.4
B.0.2 and 1.4
C.-1.2 and 0.714
D.1.2 and 0.0.714
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 12177
In a shrinkage limit test, the volume and
mass of a dry soil pat are found to be
50 cm3 and 88 g, respectively. The specific
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Index Properties
gravity of the soil solids is 2.71 and the
density of water is 1 g/cc. The shrinkage
limit (in %, up to two decimal places) is
(GATE 2018-1)
Correct Answer: 19.50 -20.50
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Soil Classification
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16201
The notation “SC” as per Indian standard
Soil Classification System refers to [GATE
2019 AN]
(A) Clayey silt
(B) Sandy clay
(C) Clayey sand
(D) Silty clay
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 16127
A completely mixed dilute suspension of
sand particles having diameters 0.25, 0.35,
0.40, 0.45 and 0.50mm are filled in a
transparent glass column of diameter 10
cm and height 2.50 m. The suspension is
allowed to settle without any disturbance.
It is observed that all particles of diameter
0.35 mm settle to the bottom of the
column in 30 s. For the same period of 30s,
the percentage removal (round off to
integer value) of particles of diameters
0.45 and 0.50 mm from the suspension is
________.[GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 100-100
3
Question: 13836
The following two statements are made
with respect to different sand samples
having the same relative density.Identify if
they are TRUE or FALSE [GATE-01]
I.poorly graded sands will have lower
friction angle than well garded sands
II.The particles size has no influence on the
friction angle of sand
A.II is TRUE but I is FALSE
B.Both are FALSE statements
C.Both are TRUE statements
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Soil Classification
D.I is TRUE but II is FALSE
Correct Answer: D
4
Question: 13752
Group symbols assigned to silty sand and
clayey sand are respectively [GATE-08]
(A)SS and CS
(B)SM and CS
(C)SM and SC
(D)MS and CS
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13503
A fine grained soil is found to be plastic in
the water content range of 26-48%. As per
Indian Standard Classification System, the
soil is classified as [GATE 2016 FN]
(A) CL
(B) CH
(C) CL-ML
(D) CI
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 13251
The description 'sandy silty clay' signifies
that [GATE-92]
A.the soil contains unequal proportion of
the three constituents in the order
sand>silt>clay
B.that soil contains equal proportions of
sand ,silt and clay
C.the soil contains unequal proportions of
the three constituents in the oredr
clay>silt>sand
D.there is no information regarding the
relative proportions of the three
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Soil Classification
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 13250
the particle size distribution curves
extremely useful for the classification of
[GATE--96]
A.fine grained soils
B.coarse grained soils
C.both coarse grained and fine grained
D.silts and clays
Correct Answer: B
8
Question: 6019
The laboratory test results of a soil sample
are given below:
Percentage finer than 4.75mm=60
Percentage finer than 0.075 mm=30
Liquid limit =35%
Plastic Limit=27%
The soil classification is [GATE-09]
a) GM
(b) SM
(c) GC
(d) ML-MI
Correct Answer: A
9
Question: 6018
Sieve analysis on a dry soil sample of mass
1000 g showed that 980g and 270g of soil
pass through 4.75 mm and 0.075mm sieve
,respectively .the liquid limit and plastic
limit of the soil fraction passing through
425µ sieves are 40% and 18% respectively
.The soil may be classified as
(GATE
-07)
(a)SC
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Soil Classification
(b) MI
(c) CI
(d)SM
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 6017
Laboratory sieve analysis was carried out
on a soil sample using a complete set of
standard IS sieves.Out if 500 g of soil used
in the test,200g was retained on IS
600 sieve,250 g was retained on IS 425µ
sieve(GATE-06)
The classification of the soil is
(a) SP
(b) SW
(C)GP
(d)GW
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 6016
Laboratory sieve analysis was carried out
on a soil sample using a complete set of
standard IS sieves.Out if 500 g of soil used
in the test,200g was retained on IS
600 sieve,250 g was retained on IS 425µ
sieve (GATE-06)
The coefficient of uniformity of the soil is
(a) 0.9
(b) 1.0
(c) 1.1
(d) 1.2
Correct Answer: D
12
Question: 6015
A soil mass contains 40% gravel ,50% sand
and 10% silt.This soil can be classified as
(GATE-05)
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Soil Classification
a) Silty sandy gravel having coefficient of
uniformity less than 60
b) Sailty gravelly sand having coefficient of
uniformity equal to 10
c) Gravelly silty sand having coefficient of
uniformity greater than 60
d) Gravelly silty sand and its coefficient
uniformity cannot be determined
Correct Answer: C
13
Question: 6014
As per Indian standard soil classification
system (IS:1498-1970),An expression for Aline is [GATE-14 AN]
(a)Ip=0.73(WL-20)
(b) Ip=0.70(WL-20)
(c) Ip=0.73(WL-10)
(d) Ip=0.70(WL-10)
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 6013
As per the Indian Standard soil
classification system ,a sample of silty clay
with liquid limit of 40% and plasticity index
of 28% is classified as (GATE-12)
(a) CH
(b) CI
(c) CL
(d) CL-ML
Correct Answer: B
15
Question: 6012
A fine grained soil has liquid limit of 60 and
plastic limit of 20. As per the plasticity
chart, according to IS classification, the soil
is represented by the letter
symbols
(GATE-10)
(a)CL
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Soil Classification
(b)CI
(c)CH
(d)CL-ML
Correct Answer: C
16
Question: 6011
Group symbol assigned to silty sand and
clayey sand are respectively
(GATE-08)
(a)SS and CS
(b)SM and CS
(C)SM and SC
(d)MS and CS
Correct Answer: C
17
Question: 6010
Data from a sieve analysis conducted on a
given sample of soil showed that 67% of
the particles passed through 75 micron IS
sieve. The liquid limit and plastic limit of
the finer fraction was found to be 45 and
33 percent respectively. The group symbol
of the given soil as per IS;1498-1970 is
(GATE-02)
(a)SC
(B)MI
(C)CH
(D)MH
Correct Answer: B
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16227
Constant head permeability tests were
performed on two soil specimens, S1 and
S2. The ratio of height of the two specimens
(Ls1 : Ls2) is 1.5, the ratio of the diameter
of specimens
(Ds1:Ds2) is 0.5, and the
ratio of the constant head (hs1 :hs2 ) applied
on the specimens is 2.0. If the discharge
from both the specimens is equal, the ratio
of the permeability of the soil specimens
(ks1 :ks2 )is ________[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 3-3
2
Question: 16207
An anisotropic soil deposit has coefficient
of permeability in vertical and horizontal
directions as kz and kx , respectively. For
constructing a flow net, the horizontal
dimension of the problem?s geometry is
transformed by a multiplying factor of
[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: C
3
Question: 16146
A granular soil has a saturated unit weight
of 20 kN/m3 and an effective angle of
shearing resistance of 30°. The unit weight
of water is 9.81 kN/m3. A slope is to be
made on this soil deposit in which the
seepage occurs parallel to the slope up to
the free surface. Under this seepage
condition for a factor of safety of 1.5, the
safe slope angle (in degree, round off to 1
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
decimal place) would be ______.
[GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 21.8-21.8
4
Question: 16133
In a soil specimen, the total stress,
effective stress, hydraulic gradient and
critical hydraulic gradient are σ , σ', i and ic,
respectively. For initiation of quicksand
condition, which one of the following
statement is TRUE? [GATE 2019 FN]
(A)σ' = 0 and i = ic
(B) σ = 0and i = ic
(C) σ ‘≠ 0 and i = ic
(D) σ' ≠0 and i≠ ic
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 13905
accroding to darcy's law for flow through
porous media,the velocity is proportional to
[GATE-97]
A.effective stress
B.hydraulic gradient
C.cohesion
D.stability numeber
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 13871
the two tubes shown in figure may be
considered to be
permeameters.Dimensions of the sample in
figure (i) and (ii) are alike, and the
elevations of head water and tail water are
the same for both the figures A,B,...etc
indicate points and AB ,AE,...etc indicated
heads.Head loss through these samples are
[GATE-99]
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
A.(i) BD ,(ii) FB
B..(i)AC ,(ii)AE
C..(i)AD ,(ii)AF
D..(i)AB ,(ii)AB
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 13540
A tracer takes 100 days to travel from
Well-1 to Well-2 which are 100 m apart.
The elevation of water surface in Well-2 is
3m below that in Well-1. Assuming porosity
equal to 15%, the coefficient of
permeability (expressed in m/day) is
(A) 0.30
(B) 0.45
(C) 1.00
(D) 5.00
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 13221
A 1.25 m layer of soil (n = 0.35,G=2.65) is
subjected to an upward seepage head
of1.85 m. What depth of coarse sand would
be required above the existing soil to
provide a factor of safety of 2 against
piping? Assume that coarse sand has the
same porosity and specific gravity as the
soil, and that there is negligible head loss
in sand. Take ϒw = 9.81 kn/m3. (GATE-99)
Correct Answer: 2.2-2.2
9
Question: 13220
A seepage flow condition is shown in the
figure. The saturated unit weight of the soil
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
γsat = 18 kN/m3. Using unit weight of
water, γw = 9.81 kN/m3, the effective
vertical stress (expressed in kN/m2) on
plane X-X is [GATE 2016 FN]
Correct Answer: 65.475-65.475
10
Question: 13219
a tracer takes 100 days travel from well-1
to well-2 which are 100 m apart .the
elevation of water surface in well-2 is 3m
below that in well-1 .assuming porosity
equal to 15% ,the coefficient of
permeability (expressed in m/day)is
[GATE-16-2]
A.0.30
B.0.45
C.1.00
D.5.00
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 13218
The relationship between the specific
gravity of sand (G) and the hydraulic
gradient (i) to initiate quick condition in the
sand layer having porosity of 30% is
(2016-2)
(A) G = 0.7 i +
1
(B) G = 1.43 i − 1
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
(C) G = 1.43 i +
1
(D) G = 0.7 i − 1
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 13214
Seepage is occurring through a porous
media shown in the figure. The hydraulic
conductivity values (k1,k2,k3) are in m/day.
[GATE 2016 FN]
The seepage discharge (m3/day per m)
through the porous media at section PQ is
Correct Answer: B
13
Question: 13213
In a falling head permeameter test on a
silty clay sample , the following results
were obtained sample length 120 mm,
simple diameter 80 mm, intial head 1200
mm, final head 400 mm, time for fall in
head 6 minutes stand pipe diameter 4 mm.
Find the coefficient of permeability of the
soil in mm/sec. (GATE -98)
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 13212
Water is flowing at a steady rate through a
homogenous and saturated horizontal and
saturated soil strip of 10 m length. The
strip is being subjected to a constant water
head (H) of 5 m at the beginning and 1m at
the end. If the governing equation of flow
in the soil strip is
= 0 (Where x is
the diameter along the soil strip ), the
value of H(in m) at the middle of the strip
is _________[GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 3-3
15
Question: 13211
Estimate the flow quantity ( in liters per
second ) through the soil in the pipe shown
below. The pressure heads at two locations
are shown in the figure. The internal
diameter of the pipe is 1m and the
coefficient of permeability of soil is
1x
10-5 m/sec
(GATE-01)
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 13210
A non-homogeneous soil deposit consists of
a silt layer sandwitched between a fine
sand layer at the top and a clay layer
below.Permeability of the silt layer is 10
times the permeability of the clay layer and
one-tenth of the permeability of the sand
layer. Thickness of the silt layer is 2mtimes
the thickness of the sand layer and twothird of the thickness of the clay layer. The
ratio of equivalent horizontal and
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
equivalent vertical permeability of the
deposit is ________________________________[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 11-11
17
Question: 13209
Water flows from P to Q through two soil
samples, Soil 1 and Soil 2, having cross
sectional area of 80cm2 as shown in the
figure. Over a period of 15 minutes, 200 ml
of water was observed to pass through any
cross section. The flow conditions can be
assumed to be steady state. If the
coefficient of permeability of Soil 1 is 0.02
mm/s, the coefficient of permeability of Soil
2 (expressed in mm/s) would be ____
(2016-2)
Correct Answer: 0.04541-0.0454
18
Question: 13208
Group I lists the type of gain or loss of
strength in soils. Group II lists the property
or process responsible for the loss or gain
of strength in soils. [GATE 2017 FN]
The correct match between Group I and
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
Group II is
(A) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(D) P-4, Q-2, R-1, S-3
Correct Answer: C
19
Question: 13136
a sheet pile has an embedment depth of 12
m in a homogeneous soil stratum .The
coefficient of permeability of soil
10-6 m/s.Difference in water levels between
the two sides of the sheet pile is 4m.The
flow net is constructed with five number of
flow lines and eleven number of
equipotential lines.The quantity seepage(in
cm3/s per m up to one decimal place)
under the sheet pile is ______[GATE 2017
AN]
Correct Answer: 1.6-1.6
20
Question: 13135
the seepage occuring through earthen dam
is represented by a flow net comprising of
10 equipotential drops and 20 flow
channels The coefficient of permeability of
the soil is 3 mm/min and the head loss is
5m The rate of seepage (expressed
in cm3/s per m length of the dam) through
the earthen dam is ___[GATE 2016-2]
Correct Answer: 500-500
21
Question: 13118
Laplace equation for water flow in soils is
given below. [ GATE 2013]
Head H does not vary in y and z directions.
boundary conditions are: at x = 0, H=
5;and
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
What is the value of H at x = 1.2 ?
Correct Answer: 3.8-3.8
22
Question: 12755
the proposed dam shown in the figure is
90m and the coefficient of permeability of
the 0.0013mm/second.the quantity of
water (m3)that will be lost per day seepage
is (rounded to nearest nember) [GATE-98]
A.55
B.57
C.59
D.61
Correct Answer: B
23
Question: 12754
The flow net constructed for the dam is
shown in the figure below. Taking the
coefficient of permeability as 3.8 x
10-6 m/s, the quantity of flow (in cm3/s)
under the dam per meter of dam
is__________________[GATE-14 FN]
Correct Answer: 7.182-7.182
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
24
Question: 12252
the compressive curve (void ratio e vs
effective stress σv′) for a certain clayey soil
is a straight line in a semi-logarithmic plot
and it passes through the points (e = 1.2;
σv = 50 kPa) and (e = 0.6; σv ? = 800 kPa).
The compression index (up to two decimal
places) of the soil is ______
(GATE 2018 AN)
Correct Answer: 0.45 -0.55
25
Question: 6171
A granular soil possesses saturated density
of 20 kN/m3 . its effective angle of internal
friction is 35o . if the desired factor of
safety is 1.5, the safe angle of slope for
this soil, when seepage occurs at and
parallel to the slope surface, will be
(GATE-03)
a)25o
b) 23o
c) 20o
d) 13o
Correct Answer: D
26
Question: 6062
The flow net around a sheet pile wall is
shown in the sketch. The properties of the
soil are: permeability coefficient = 0.09
m/day (isotropic), specific gravity = 2.70
and void ratio = 0.85. The sheet pile wall
and the bottom of the soil are
impermeable. (GATE-12)
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
The factor of safety against the occurrence
of piping failure is
a)3.55
b) 2.93
c) 2.60
d) 0.39
Correct Answer: C
27
Question: 6061
The flow net around a sheet pile wall is
shown in the sketch. The properties of the
soil are: permeability coefficient = 0.09
m/day (isotropic), specific gravity = 2.70
and void ratio = 0.85. The sheet pile wall
and the bottom of the soil are
impermeable. (GATE-12)
The seepage loss (in m3 per day per unit
length of the wall) of water is
a)0.33
b) 0.38
c) 0.43
d) 0.54
Correct Answer: B
28
Question: 6060
The figure below shows two flow lines for
seepage across an interface between two
soil media of different co-efficient of
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
permeability. If entrance angle α1 = 300,
the exit angle α2 will be (GATE-04)
a)7.50o
b) 14.03o
c) 66.59o
d) 75.96o
Correct Answer: A
29
Question: 6059
The coefficients of permeability of a soil in
horizontal and vertical directions are 3.46
and 1.5 m/day respectively. The base
length of a concrete dam resting in this soil
is 100 m. When the flow net is developed
for this soil with 1: 25 scale in the vertical
direction, the reduced base length of the
dam will be (GATE-01)
a)2.63 m
b) 4.00 m
c) 6.08
d) 5.43
Correct Answer: A
30
Question: 6058
The ratio Nf/Nd is known as shape factor,
where Nf is the number of flow lines and Nd
is the number of equipotential drops. Flow
net is always drawn with a constant b/a
ratio, where b and a are distances between
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
two consecutive flow lines and
equipotential lines, respectively. Assuming
that b/a ratio remains the same, the shape
factor of a flow net will changes if
the [GATE 2013]
a. Up stream and down stream heads
are interchanged
b. Soil in the flow space is changed
c. Dimensions of the floe space are
changed k
d. Head difference causing the flow is
changed
Correct Answer: B
31
Question: 6057
For an anisotropic soil, permeability in x
and y directions are kx and ky respectively
in atwo dimensions flow. The effective
permeability keff for the soil is given by
(GATE-99)
Correct Answer: D
32
Question: 6056
To provide safety against piping failure,
with a factor of safety of 5, What should be
the maximum permissible exit gradient for
soil with specific gravity of 2.5 and porosity
of 0.35? (GATE-06)
a) 0.155
b) 0.167
c) 0.195
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
d) 0.213
Correct Answer: C
33
Question: 6055
An unit volume of a mass of saturated soil
is subjected to horizontal seepage. The
saturated unit weight is 22 kN/m3 and the
hydraulic gradient is 0.3. The resultant
body force on the soil mass is (GATE-04)
a) 1.98 kN
b) 6.6 kN
c) 11.49 kN
d) 22.97 kN
Correct Answer: C
34
Question: 6054
A masonary dam is founded on pervious
sand having porosity equal to 45% and
specific gravity of sand particles is 2.65.
For a desired factor of safety of 3 against
sand boiling, the maximum permissible
upward gradient will be
(GATE-03)
a) 0.225
b) 0.302
c) 1.0
d) None of these
Correct Answer: B
35
Question: 6052
A Layer of clay of thickness 12.5 m is
underlain by sand. The ϒsat of the clay is
18.5 kn/m3. When the depth of an open
trench excavated in the clay reached 8 m
the bottom cracked and the water started
entering the trench from below. The height
to which water would have risen from the
top of sand in a bore hole if it were drilled
into sand prior to the excavation, is
(Take ϒw = 10 kn/m3).
(GATE-95)
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
a). 8.3 m
b) 10.2 m
c) 3.83 m
d) 6.3 m
Correct Answer: A
36
Question: 6051
For a saturated sand deposit, the void ratio
and the specific gravity of solids are 0.70
and 2.67, respectively. The critical (upward
) hydraulic gradient for the deposit would
be [GATE-11]
a) 0.54
b) 0.98
c) 1.02
d) 1.87
Correct Answer: B
37
Question: 6050
Quick sand condition occurs when
(GATE-10)
a) The void ratio of the soil becomes 1.0
b) The upward seepage pressure in soil
becomes zero
c) The upward seepage pressure in soil
becomes equal to the saturated unit weight
of the soil
d) The upward seepage pressure in soil
becomes equal to the submerged unit
weight of the soil
Correct Answer: D
38
Question: 6049
The range of void ratio between which
Quick sand condition occurs in
cohesionless granular soil deposits is
(GATE-06)
a) 0.4-0.5
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
b) 0.6-07
c) 0.8-0.9
d) 1.0-1.1
Correct Answer: B
39
Question: 6048
The Specific gravity and in-situ Void ratio of
a soil deposit are 2.71 and 0.85
respectively. The value of the critical
hydraulic gradient is (GATE-02)
a) 0.82
b) 0.85
c) 0.92
d) 0.95
Correct Answer: C
40
Question: 6047
A layer of saturated clay 5 m thickis over
lain by sand 4.0 m deep. The water table is
3m belowthe top surface. The saturated
unit weight of clay and sand are 18 kn/m3
and 20 kn/m3 Above the water table, the
unit weight of sand is 17 kn/m3. Calculate
the effective pressure on a horizontal
plane at a depth of 9 m below the ground
surface, What will be the increase In the
effective pressure at 9 m if the soil gets
saturated by capillary, up to height of 1 m
above the water table? ϒw = 9.81
kn/m3. (GATE-99)
Correct Answer: A
41
Question: 6046
For the subsoil condition shown in fig.
calculate the total, neutraland effective
stresses at 1 m, 3m & 6m elevations.
Assume ϒw = 10 kn/m3. (GATE-98)
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
Correct Answer: A
42
Question: 6045
Steady state seepage is taking place
through a soil element at , 2 m below the
ground surface immediately downstream of
the toe of an earthdam as shown in the
sketch. The water level in a peziometer
installed at P, 500mm above Q, is at the
ground surface. The water level in
piezometer installed at R,500 mm below Q,
is 100mm above the ground surface. The
bulk saturated unit weight of the soil is 18
kn/m3 and the unit weight of water is 9.81
kn/m3. The vertical effective stress(in kpa)
at Q is
(GATE-12)
a) 14.42
b) 15.89
c) 16.38
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
d) 18.34
Correct Answer: B
43
Question: 6044
A sand layer found at sea floor under 20 m
water depth is characterized with relative
density = 40%, maximum void ratio = 1.0,
minimum void ratio = 0.5, and specific
grtavity of soil solids = 2.67. Assume the
specific gravity of sea water to be 9.81
kN/m3
What would be the change in the
effective stress ( rounded off to the
nearest integer value of kpa) at 30
m depth into the sand layer if the
sea water level permanently rises
by 2m? [GATE-11]
a) 19 kpa
b) 0 kpa
c) 21 kpa
d) 22 kpa
Correct Answer: B
44
Question: 6043
A sand layer found at sea floor under 20 m
water depth is characterized with relative
density = 40%, maximum void ratio = 1.0,
minimum void ratio = 0..5, and specific
grtavity of soil solids = 2.67. Assume the
specific gravity of sea water to be 9.81
kn/m3 .
What would be the effective stress
(round off to the nearest integer
value of kpa) at 30 m depth into the
sand layer? [GATE-11]
a) 77 kpa
b) 273 kpa
c) 268 kpa
d) 281 kpa
Correct Answer: C
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
45
Question: 6042
The ground conditions at a site are shown
in the figure below.14(GATE-08)
The total stress, pore water pressure and
effective stress (kn/m2) at the point P are,
respectively
a) 75,50 and25
b) 90,50 and 40
c) 105,50 and 55
d) 120,50 and 70
Correct Answer: C
46
Question: 6041
The ground conditions at a site are shown
in the figure below.
(GATE-08)
The saturated unit weight of the sand
(kn/m3) is
a) 15
b) 18
c) 21
d) 24
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
Correct Answer: C
47
Question: 6040
Assuming that a river bed level does not
change and the depth of water in river
was 10 m, 15 m and 8 m during months
of February, july and December
respectively of a particular year. The
average bulk density of the soil is 20
kn/m3.The density of water is 10 kn/m3.
The effective stress at a depth of 10 m
below the river bed during these months
would be (GATE-05)
A. 300 kn/m2 in February,350 kn/m2 in
july and 320 kn/m2 in December
B. 100 kn/m2 in February, 100 kn/m2
in july and100 kn/m2 in December
C. 200 kn/m2 in February, 250 kn/m2 in
july and 180 kn/m2 in December
D. 300 kn/m2 in February,350 kn/m2 in
july and 280 kn/m2 in December
Correct Answer: B
48
Question: 6039
For the soil strata shown in figure, the
water table is lowered by drainage by 2 m
thick silty sand stratum remains saturated
by capillaryaction even after lowering of
water table, the increase in effective
vertical pressure in kpa at mid height of
clay layer will be (GATE-03)
a)0.2
b) 2
c) 20
d) 200
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
Correct Answer: C
49
Question: 6038
A River 5m deep consists of a sand bed
with saturated unit weight of 20 kN/m3,
ϒw= 9.81 kN/m3. The effective vertical
stress at 5 m from the top of sand bed
is(GATE-99)
a) 41 kN/m2
b) 51 kN/m2
c)55
kN/m
2
d) 53 kN/m2
Correct Answer: A
50
Question: 6037
Which of the following statement is NOT
true in the context of capillary pressure in
soils?(GATE-06)
A. Water is under tension in capillary
zone
B. Pore water pressure is negative in
capillary zone
C. Effective stress increases due to
capillary pressure
D. Capillary pressure is more in coarse
grained soils
Correct Answer: D
51
Question: 6035
A 10 m thick clay layer is underlain by a
sand layer of 20 m depth (see figure
below). The water table is 5 m below the
surface of clay layer. The soil above the
water table is capillary saturated . The
value of ϒsat is 19 kn/m3. The unit weight of
water is ϒw. If now the water table rises to
the surface, the effective stress at a point P
on the interface will (GATE-04)
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
A. Increases by 5ϒw
B. Remain unchanged
C. Decreases by 5ϒw
D. Decreses by 10ϒw
Correct Answer: C
52
Question: 6031
The soil profile below a lake with water
level at elevation = 0m and lake bottom at
elevation = -10 m is shown in the figure,
where k is the permeability coefficient. A
piezometer (stand pipe) installed in the
sand layer shows a reading of +10 m
elevation. Assume that thepiezometric
heads are uniform in the sand layer. The
quantity of water (in m3/s) flowing into the
lake from the sand layer through the silt
layer per unit area of the lake bed is.
[GATE 2013]
a) 1.5 x 10-6
b) 2.0 x 10-6
c) 1.0 x 10-6
d) 0.5 x 10-6
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
Correct Answer: D
53
Question: 6030
Two soil specimens with identical
geometric dimensions were subjected to
falling head permeability tests in the
laboratory under identical conditions. The
fall of water head was measured after an
identical time interval The ratio of intial to
final water heads for the test involving the
first specimen was 1.215. If the coefficient
of permeability of the second specimen is 5
times that of the first, the ratio of the intial
to final water heads in the test involving
the second specimen is (GATE-12)
a) 3.05
b) 3.80
c) 4.00
d) 6.25
Correct Answer: A
54
Question: 6029
An open ended steel barrel of 1 m height
and 1 m diameter is filled with saturated
fine sand having coefficient of permeability
of 10-2 m/s. The barrel stands on a
saturated bed gravel. The time required for
the water level in the barrel to drop by 0.75
m is
(GATE-10)
a) 58.9 s
b) 75 s
c) 100s
d) 150s
Correct Answer: B
55
Question: 6028
Water is flowing through the permeability
apparatus as shown in the figure. The
Coefficient of permeability of the soil is
km/s and the porosity of the soil sample is
0.50.
(GATE-07)
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
What are the discharge velocity and
seepage velocity through the soil sample?
a) k.2k
b) 2/3k,4/3k
c) 2k,k
d) 4/3k,2/3k
Correct Answer: A
56
Question: 6027
Water is flowing through the permeability
apparatus as shown in the figure. The
Coefficient of permeability of the soil is
km/s and the porosity of the soil sample is
0.50.
(GATE-07)
The total head, elevation head and
pressure head in metres of water at the
point R shown in the figure are
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
a) 0.8,0.4,0.4
b) 1.2,0.4,0.8
c) 0.4,0,0.4
d) 1.6,0.4,1.2
Correct Answer: A
57
Question: 6026
In a Constant head permeameter with
cross sectional area of 10cm2 , When the
flow was taking place under a hydraulic
gradient of 0.5, the amount of water
collected in 60 seconds is 600cc. The
permeability of the soil is
(GATE-05)
a) 0.002 cm/s
b) 0.02 cm/s
c) 0.2 cm/s
(d)2.0 cm/s
Correct Answer: D
58
Question: 6025
In a falling head permeability test the intial
head of 1.0m dropped to 0.35 m in 3 hours,
the diameter of the stand pipe being 5
mm. The soil specimen was 200 mm long
and of 100 mm diameter. The coefficient of
permeability of the soil is (GATE-02)
a) 4.86 x 10-5 cm/s
b) 4.86 x 10-6 cm/s
c) 4.86 x 10-7 cm/s
d) 4.86 x 10-8 cm/s
Correct Answer: B
59
Question: 6023
For What type of soils would you use falling
head and constant head permeability tests
to determine the coefficient of
permeability. [GATE-91]
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Permeability,effective stress,capilarity
Correct Answer: A
60
Question: 6022
Which of the following statements is TRUE
for the relation between discharge velocity
and seepage velocity? [GATE-15]
A. Seepage velocity is always smaller
than discharge velocity
B. Seepage Velocity can never be
smaller than discharge velocity
C. Seepage velocity is equal to the
discharge velocity
D. No relation between seepage
velocity and discharge velocity can
be established
Correct Answer: B
61
Question: 6021
According to Darcy’s Law for flow through
porous media, the velocity is proportional
to
(GATE-97)
1. Effective stress
2. Hydraulic gradient
3. Cohesion
4. Stability number
Correct Answer: A
62
Question: 6020
A Soil mass has coefficient of horizontal
and vertical permeability as 9 x 10-7
cm/sand 4 x10-7 cm/s, respectively. The
transformed coefficient of permeability of
an equivalent isotropic soil mass is
(GATE-97)
a)9 x 10-7 cm/s
b) 4 x 10-7 cm/s
c)13 x 10-7 cm/s
d) 6 x 10-7 cm/s
Correct Answer: D
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Compaction
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13536
OMC-SP and MDD-SP denote the optimum
moisture content and maximum dry
density obtained from standard Proctor
compaction test, respectively. OMC-MP and
MDD-MP denote the optimum moisture
content and maximum dry density
obtained from the modified Proctor
compaction test, respectively. Which one of
the following is correct?
(A) OMC-SP < OMC-MP and MDD-SP < MDDMP
(B) OMC-SP > OMC-MP and MDD-SP < MDDMP
(C) OMC-SP < OMC-MP and MDD-SP > MDDMP
(D) OMC-SP > OMC-MP and MDD-SP > MDDMP
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 13456
Let G be the specific gravity of soil solids,
w the water content in the soil
sample, wγ the unit weight of water, and dγ
the dry unit weight of the soil. The
equation for the zero air voids line in a
compaction test plot is [GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: A
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Compaction
3
Question: 13144
The zero air voids curve is non linear owing
to[GATE-92]
1. the standard proctor test data of
dry density and corresponding
water content plotting as a non
linear curve
2. dry density at 100% saturation
being non linear function of void
ratio
3. the water content altering during
compaction
4. the soil being compacted with an
odd number of blows
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 6123
In a standard proctor test, 1.8 kg of moist
soil was filling the mould (volume = 944
cc) after compaction. A soil sample
weighing 23 g was taken from the mould
and oven dried for 24 hours at a
temperature of 110oWieght of the dry
sample was found to be 20 g. Specific
gravity of soil solids is G = 2.7. The
theoretical maximum volume of the dry
unit weight of the soil at that water content
is equal to [GATE-06]
a)4.67 kN/m3
b) 11.5 kN/m3
c) 16.26 kN/m3
d) 18.85 kN/m3
Correct Answer: D
5
Question: 6122
compaction of an embankment is carried
out in 500 mm thick layers. The rammer
used for compaction has a foot area of 0.05
sq.m and the energy imparted in every
drop of rammer is 400 Nm. Assuming 50%
more energy in each pass over the
compacted area due to overlap, the
number of passes required to develop,
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Compaction
compactive energy equivalent to Indian
standard light compaction for each layer
would be (GATE-03)
a)10
b) 16
c) 20
d) 26
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 6121
Two series of compaction tests were
performed in the laboratory on an
inorganic clayey soil employing two
different levels of compaction energy per
unit volume of soil. With regard to the
above tests, the following two statements
are made. [GATE-12] [GATE-06]
I. The optimum moisture content is
expected to be more for the tests
with higher energy.
II. The maximum dry density is
expected to be more for the tets
with higher energy.
The CORRECT option evaluating
the above statement is
1. Only I is TRUE
2. Only II is TRUE
3. Both I and II is TRUE
4. Neither I nor II is TRUE
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 6120
In a compaction test, G, W, S and e
represent the specific gravity, water
content, degree of saturation and void ratio
of the soil sample, respectively. If ϒw
represents the unit weight of water and ϒd
represents the dry unit weight of the soil,
the equation of Zero air voids line is
(GATE-10 & GATE 17)
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Compaction
Correct Answer: B
8
Question: 6119
Compaction by vibratory roller is the best
method of compaction in case of
(GATE-08)
A. Moist silty sand
B. Welt graded dry sand
C. Clay of medium compressibility
D. Silt of high compressibility
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 6118
A clayey soil has a maximum dry density of
16 kN/m3 and optimum moisture content of
12%. A contractor during the construction
of core of an earth dam obtained the dry
density 15.2 kN/m3 and water content 11%.
This construction is acceptable because.
(GATE-04)
A. The density is less than the
maximum dry density and water
content is on dry side of optimum.
B. The compaction density is very low
and water content is less than 12%.
C. The compaction is done on the dry
side of the optimum
D. Both the dry density and water
content of the compacted soil are
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Compaction
within the desirable limits
Correct Answer: D
10
Question: 6117
In a compaction test, as the compaction
effort is increased, the optimum moisture
content(GATE-97)
a.Decreases
b) Remains same
c) Increases
d) increases first there after decreases
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 6008
Following statements are made on
compacted soils ,where in DS stands for
the soils compaxted on dry side of
optimum moisture content and WS stands
for the soils compacted on wet side of
optimum moisture content .Identify the
incorrect statement (GATE 2013)
(a) soil structure is flocculated on DS and
dispersed on WS
(b) Construction pore water pressure is low
on DS and high on WS
(c) On drying ,shrinkage is high on DS and
low on WS
(d) On access to water ,swelling is high on
DS and low on WS
Correct Answer: C
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Consolidation
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16199
Construction of a new building founded on
a clayey soil was completed in January
2010. In January 2014, the average
consolidation settlement of the foundation
in clay was recorded as 10 mm. The
ultimate consolidation settlement was
estimated in design as 40 mm. Considering
double drainage to occur at the clayey soil
site, the expected consolidation settlement
in January 2019 (in mm, round off to the
nearest integer) will be_________. [GATE
2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 15-15
2
Question: 13806
A 6m thick clay layer undergoes 90%
consolidation four times faster under twoway drainage as mcompared to onedrainage. In an identical clay layer of 15 m
thickness, two-way drainage will be faster
as compared to one-way drainage by
[GATE-04]
(a)8 times
(b)4 times
(c)2.5 times
(d)2 times
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 13723
The e-log p curve shown in the figure is
representative of [GATE-10]
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Consolidation
(A) Normally consolidated clay
(B) Over consolidated clay
(C) Under consolidated clay
(D) Normally consolidated clayey sand
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 13566
A 20 m thick clay layer is sandwiched
between a silty sand layer and a gravelly
sand layer. The layer experiences 30 mm
settlement in 2 years. .
Where Tv is the time factor and U is the
degree of consolidation in %. If the
coefficient of consolidation of the layer is
0.003 Cm2/s, the deposit will experience a
total of 50 mm settlement in the next
________ years. [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 4.43-4.43
5
Question: 13169
A 20 m thick clay layer is sandwiched
between a silty sand layer and a gravelly
sand layer. The layer experiences 30 mm
settlement in 2 years.
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Consolidation
Given:
where Tv is the time factor and U is the
degree of consolidation in %.
If the coefficient of consolidation of the
layer is 0.003 cm2/s, the deposit will
experience a total of 50 mm settlement in
the next _______________ years.[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 4.4-4.4
6
Question: 13168
An undisturbed soil sample was taken from
the middle of a clay layer (i.e., 1.5 m below
GL), as shown in figure. The water table
was at the top of clay layer. Laboratory test
results are as follows:
A compacted fill of 2.5 m height with
unit weight of 20 kN/m3 is placed at the
ground level.
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Consolidation
Assuming unit weight of water as10 kN/m3,
the ultimate consolidation settlement
(expressed in mm) of the clay layer is
____________ [GATE 2016 FN]
Correct Answer: 37.04-37.04
7
Question: 13167
A 3m thick clay layer is subjected to an
initial uniform pore pressure of 145kPa as
shown in the figure
For the given ground conditions,the time(
in days,rounded to the nearest integer
)required for 90% consolidation would be
___ [GATE 2017 FN]
Correct Answer: 1771-1771
8
Question: 13166
The result of a consolidation test on an
undisturbed soil,sampled at a 10m below
the ground level are as follows:
Sarturated unit weight:16kN/m3
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Consolidation
Pre-consolidation pressure :90kPa
The water table was encountered at the
ground level,assuming the unit weight of
water as 10kN/m3 ,the over-consolidation
ratio of the soil is [GATE-2016-2]
A.0.67
B.1.50
C.1.77
D.2.00
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 13165
Figure shows the geometry of a strip
footing supporting the load bearing walls of
a three storied building and the properties
of clay layer. (GATE-03)
if the elastic modulus and the poisson's
ratio of the clay layer are respectively 50
x103 kpa and 0.4 and if the influence factor
for the strip footing is 1.75.the elastic
settlement of the footing will be
A.0.41mm
B.1.41mm
C.14.1mm
D.none of these
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Consolidation
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 12624
The slope of the e-log p curve for a soil
mass gives[TNPSC-13],[GATE-97]
A.coefficient of permeability k
B.coefficient of consolidation Cv
C.compression index Cc
D.coefficient of volume compressibility Mv
Correct Answer: C
11
Question: 12199
A conventional drained triaxial
compression test was conducted on a
normally consolidated clay sample under
an effective confining pressure of 200 kPa.
The deviator stress at failure was found to
be 400 kPa. An identical specimen of the
same clay sample is isotropically
consolidated to a confining pressure of 200
kPa and subjected to standard undrained
triaxial compression test. If the deviator
stress at failure is 150 kPa, the pore
pressure developed (in kPa, up to one
decimal place) is _____(GATE 2018FN)
Correct Answer: 124 -126
12
Question: 6114
In an odometer test, a specimen of
saturated clay 19 mm thick reaches 50%
consolidation in 20 minutes. How long it
would take a layer of this clay 5 m thick to
reach the same degree of consolidation
under the same stress and drainage
conditions? How long would it take for the
clay layer to reach 30%
consolidation?(GATE-00)
Correct Answer: 0.95 -0.95
13
Question: 6113
A soft normally consolidated clay layer is
20 m thick with a moisture content of 45%.
The clay has a saturated unit weight of 20
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Consolidation
kn/m3, a particle specific gravity of 2.7 and
a liquid limit of 60%. A foundation load will
subjected the centre of the layer to a
vertical stress increase of 10 kpa. Ground
water level is at the surface of the clay.
Estimate(GATE-98)
1. The intial and final effective
stresses at thye centre of the layer
2. The approximate value of the
compression index©
3. The consolidation settlement of the
foundation if the intial effective
stress at the centre of the soil is
100 kpa.
Assume unit weight of water to be 10
kN/m3.
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 6112
A settlement analysis carried out for a
proposed structure indicates that 9 cm of
settlement will occur in 5 years and the
final settlement will be 45 cm based on
doubled drainage condition. A detailed site
investigation indicates that only single
drainage exists. Estimate the settlement at
the end of 5 years for the changed
condition.[GATE-97]
Use Tv = (π/4)U2
Correct Answer: 4.5-4.5
15
Question: 6111
In the laboratory test on a clay sample of
thickness 25 mm, drained at top only, 50%
consolidation occurred in 11 minutes.
Assume T50 = 0.197, T70 = 0.405. Find the
time required for the corresponding clay
layer I the field of 3m thick and drained at
top and bottom to undergo 50%
consolidation also, Find the time required
to undergo 70% consolidation.(GATE-95)
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 6110
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Consolidation
A square footing is to be established in a
clay soil at a depth of 2 m, where water
table has risen up to the ground level as
shown in the figure. Assume that the net
load for the given footing is constant and
that the same is dispersed into clay as
shown with load dispersion as 2V to 1H.
(GATE-95)
Take ϒw = 10kN/m3 and
ϒsat = 19.3 kN/m3
Net load = 500 kN
Cc= 0.36
eo = 0.92
What is the width of the following
,required if it is permitted to settle by 120
mm?
Correct Answer: 3.50-3.50
17
Question: 6109
A 4 m thick layer of normally consolidated
clay has an average void ratio of 1.30. Its
compression index is 0.6 and coefficient of
consolidation is m2/yr. if the increase in
vertical pressure due to foundation load on
the clay layer is equal to the existing
effective overburden pressure, the change
in the thickness of the clay layer is
_______[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 314.12-314.12
18
Question: 6108
A water tank is to be constructed on the
soil deposit shown in figure below. A
circular footing of diameter 3 m and depth
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Consolidation
of embedment 1m has been designed to
support the tank. The total vertical load to
be taken by the footing is 1500 kN. Assume
the unit weight of water as 10 kn/m3 and
the load dispersion pattern as 2V : 1H. The
expected settlement of the tank due to
primary consolidation of the clay layer is
______ [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 53-53
19
Question: 6107
A circular raft foundation of 20 m diameter
and 1.6 m thick is provided for a tank that
applies a bearing pressure of 110 kpa on
sandy soil with young’s modulus Es''=30
MPa, and Poission’s ratio,υs = 0.3. The raft
is made of concrete (Ec = 30 Gpa and υc =
0.15). Considering the raft as rigid, the
elastic settlement (in mm) is [GATE-14
AN]
a) 50.96
b) 53.36
c) 63.72
d) 66.71
Correct Answer: B
20
Question: 6106
The following data are given for the
laborartory sample.[GATE-14 AN]
σo1 = 175 kpa;
eo = 1.1;
σo1 + Δ σo1 = 300 kpa;
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Consolidation
e = 0.9.
If thickness of the clay specimen is 25 mm,
the value of coefficient of volume
compressibility is ___________x 10-4 m2/kN
Correct Answer: 7.6-8.0
21
Question: 6105
A layer of normally consolidated, saturated
silty clay of 1 m thickness is subjected to
one dimensional consolidation under a
pressure increment of 20 kpa. The
properties of the soil are: specific gravity =
2.7, natural moisture content = 45%,
compression index = 0.45, and
recompression index = 0.05. The initial
average effective stress within the layer is
100 kpa. Assuming Terzaghi’s theory to be
applicable, the primary consolidation
settlement ( rounded off to the nearest mm
) is
(GATE-12)
a)2 mm
b) 9 mm
c) 14 mm
d) 16 mm
Correct Answer: D
22
Question: 6104
Identical surcharges are placed at ground
surface at sites X and Y , with soil
conditions shown along side and water
table at the ground surface. The silty clay
layers at X and Y are identical. The thin
sand layer at Y is continuous and free –
draining with a very large discharge
capacity. If primary consolidation at X is
estimated to complete in 36 months, what
would be the corresponding time for
completion primary consolidation at
Y? [GATE-11]
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Consolidation
a) 25 months
b) 4.5 months
c) 9 months
d) 36 months
Correct Answer: C
23
Question: 6103
A Saturated undisturbed sample from a
clay strata has moisture content of 22.22%
and specific gravity of 2.7. Assuming ϒw =
10 kN/m3
Using the properties of the clay layer
derived from the above question, the
consolidation settlement of the same clay
layer under a square footing (neglecting its
self weight) with additional data shown in
the figure below (assume the stress
distribution as 1H : 2V from the edge of the
footing and ϒw = 10 kN/m3) [GATE-09]
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Consolidation
a)32. 78 mm
b) 61.75 mm
c) 79.5 mm
d) 131.13 mm
Correct Answer: B
24
Question: 6101
A Saturated clay stratum draining both at
the top and bottom undergoes 50 percent
consolidation in 16 years under an applied
load. If an additional drainage layer were
present at the middle of the clay stratum,
50 percent consolidation would occur
in(GATE-08)
a) 2 years
b) 4 years
c) 8 years
d) 16 years
Correct Answer: B
25
Question: 6100
The ground conditions at a site are as
shown in the figure. The Water table at the
site which was initially at a depth of 5 m
below the ground level got permanently
lowered to a depth of 15 m below the
ground level due to pumping of water over
a few years.
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Consolidation
Assume the following data
07)
( GATE –
i. Unit weight of water = 10 kn/m3
ii. Unit weight of sand above water
table = 18 kn/m3
iii. Unit weight of sand and clay below
the water table = 20 kn/m3
iv. Coeffficent of volume
compressibility = 0.25 m2/MN
What is the compression of the clay layer
in mm due to the lowering of the water
table?
a) 125
b) 100
c) 25
d) 0
Correct Answer: B
26
Question: 6099
The ground conditions at a site are as
shown in the figure. The Water table at the
site which was initially at a depth of 5 m
below the ground level got permanently
lowered to a depth of 15 m below the
ground level due to pumping of water over
a few years.
Assume the following data
07)
( GATE –
i. Unit weight of water = 10 kn/m3
ii. Unit weight of sand above water
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Consolidation
table = 18 kn/m3
iii. Unit weight of sand and clay below
the water table = 20 kn/m3
iv. Coeffficent of volume
compressibility = 0.25 m2/MN
What is the change in the effective stress
in kn/m2 at mid depth of the clay layer due
to the lowering of water table?
a) 0
b) 20
c) 80
d) 100
Correct Answer: C
27
Question: 6098
The average effective overburden pressure
on 10 m thick homogenous saturated clay
layer is 150 kpa. Consolidation test on an
undisturbed soil sample taken from the
clay layer showed that thye void ratio
decreased from 0.6 to 0.5 by increasing the
stress intensity from 100 kpa to 300 kpa. (
G = 2.65)
The total consolidation settlement of the
clay layer due to the construction of a
structure imposing an additional stress
intensity of 200 KPa is [GATE-06]
a) 0.10 m
b) 0.25 m
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Consolidation
c) 0.35 m
d) 0.50 m
Correct Answer: D
28
Question: 6097
The average effective overburden pressure
on 10 m thick homogenous saturated clay
layer is 150 kpa. Consolidation test on an
undisturbed soil sample taken from the
clay layer showed that thye void ratio
decreased from 0.6 to 0.5 by increasing the
stress intensity from 100 kpa to 300 kpa.
The intial void ratio of the clay layer
is [GATE-06]
a)0.209
b) 0.563
c) 0.746
d) 1.00
Correct Answer: B
29
Question: 6095
Figure shows the geometry of a strip
footing supporting the load bearing walls of
a three storied building and the properties
of clay layer. (GATE-03)
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Consolidation
If the pressure acting on the footing is 40
kpa, the consolidation settlement of the
footing will be
a) 0.89 mm
b) 8.9 mm
c) 89.0 mm
d) None of these
Correct Answer: C
30
Question: 6094
A 6 m thick clay layer undergoes 90%
consolidation four times faster under twoway drainage as compared to one – way
drainage by.in identical clay layer of 15m
thickness ,two way drainage will be faster
,as compared to one way drainage by
(GATE-04)
a) 8 times
b) 4 times
c)2.5 times
d) 2 times
Correct Answer: B
31
Question: 6093
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Consolidation
At a reclamation site for which the soil
strata in shown in the figure, a 3 m thick
layer of a fill material is to be laid
instantaneously on the top surface. If the
coefficient of volume compressibility, mv
for clay is 2.2 x 10-4 m2/kN, the
consolidation settlement of the clay layer
due to placing of fill material will be
(GATE-03)
32
Question: 6092
The time for a clay layer to achieve 85%
consolidation is 10 years. If the layer was
half as thick, 10 times more permeable and
4 times more compressible then the time
that would be required to achieve the same
degree of consolidation is (GATE-02)
a) 1 year
b) 5 year
c) 12 year
d) 16 year
Correct Answer: A
33
Question: 6091
Identify the two FALSE statements from the
following four statements. (GATE-01)
I.The consolidation of soil happens due to
the change In total stress
II.When standard penetration test are
performed in fine sands below the water
table, the dilation correction is applied
after the overburden correction is applied
III.Over consolidated clays will have
predominantly cohesive strength as
compared to the frictional strength.
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Consolidation
IV.Compaction of soils is due to expulsion
of water
a. II & III
b. I & IV
c. I & III
d. II & IV
Correct Answer: B
34
Question: 6090
A building is considered on the ground
surface beneath which, there is a 2 m thick
saturated clay layer sandwitched between
two highly pervious layers. The building
starts settling with time. If the average
coefficient of consolidation of clay is 2.5 x
10-4 cm2/s, in how many days will the
building reach half of its final settlement?
T50 = 0.197 (GATE-99)
Correct Answer: 91.2 -91.2
35
Question: 6089
The time for a clay layer to achieve 90%
consolidation is 15 years. The time
required to achieve 90% consolidation, if
the layer were twice as thick, 3times more
permeable and 4 times more compressible
would be: (GATE-98)
a)70 years
b) 70 years
c) 80 years
d)85 years
Correct Answer: C
36
Question: 6087
Root time method is used to determine
(GATE-05)
A. T, time factor
B. cv, coefficient of consolidation
C. av, coefficient of compressibility
D. mv , coefficient of volume
compressibility
Correct Answer: B
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Consolidation
37
Question: 6086
A double draining clay layer 6 m thick,
settles by 30 mm in three years under the
influence of a certain loads. Its final
consolidation settlement has been
estimated to be 120 mm. If a thin layer of
sand have negligible thickness is
introduced at a depth of 1.5 m below the
top surface, the final consolidation
settlement of clay layer will be
(GATE-03)
a)60 mm
b)120 mm
c) 240 mm
d) none of the these
Correct Answer: B
38
Question: 6085
Consolidation in soils (GATE-99)
A. Is a function of the effective stress
B. Does not depend on the present
stress
C. Is a function of the pore water
pressure
D. Is a function of the total stress
Correct Answer: C
39
Question: 6084
Sand and drains are used to (GATE-97)
A. Reduce the settlement
B. Accelerate the consolidation
C. Increase the permeability
D. Transfer the load
Correct Answer: B
40
Question: 6083
The slope of the e-log p curve for a soil
mass gives (GATE-97)
A. Coefficient of permeability,k
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Consolidation
B. Coefficient of consolidation Cv
C. Compression index,Ce
D. Coefficent of volume
compressibility,mv
Correct Answer: C
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Shear Strength
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13243
following are the statements related to the
stress paths in a triaxial testing of soils
[GATE 2017 AN]
P:if σ1=0 the stress point lies at the origin
of the p-q plot
Q:if σ1=σ3 the stress point lies on the paxis of the p-q plot
R:if σ1> σ3 both the stress points p and q
are positive
for the above statements ,the correct
combination is
A.P false ;Q true;R true
B.P false;Q true;R true
C.P false ;Q true ;R false
D.P true ;Q false;R false
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 13242
a consolidated undrained (CU) triaxial
compression test is conducted on a
normally consolidated clay at a confining
pressure of 100kpa.The deviator stress at
failure is 80kpa.and the pore water
pressure measured at failure is 50kpa.The
effective angle of internal friction (in
degrees,up to one decimal place) of the
soil is ___[GATE 2017 FN]
Correct Answer: 26.38-26.38
3
Question: 13241
A drained triaxial compression test on a
saturated clay yielded the effective shear
strength parameters as c' = 15 kPa
and
=220. Consolidated Undrained
triaxial test on an identical sample of this
clay at a cell pressure of 200 kPa
developed a pore water pressure of 150
kPa at failure. The deviator stress
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Shear Strength
(expressed in kPa) at failure is
_________[GATE 2016 FN]
Correct Answer: 154.24-154.24
4
Question: 13240
A direct shaer test was conducted on a
cohesionless soil (C =0) specimen under a
normal stress of 200 kN/m2. The specimen
failed at a shear stress of 100 kN/m2. The
angle of internal friction of the soil
(degrees) is [GATE-08]
a)26.6
b) 29.5
c) 30.0
d) 32.6
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 13239
In a consolidated drained triaxial test a
specimens of clay fails at a cell pressure of
60kN/m2. The effective shear strength
parameters are CI = 15 kN/m2 and φ = 20o.
Find the compressive strength of the soil
(GATE-91)
Correct Answer: 105.22-105.22
6
Question: 13238
On a saturated triaxial cylindrical test
specimen of soil if the major and minor
principle stresses applied are 200 and 60
kn/m2 Check whether the test specimen
will fail if it is assumed that soil will have C
= 15 kN/m2 and φ = 25o with pore pressure
developed equal to 20 KN/m2.
(GATE-90)
Correct Answer: will fail
7
Question: 13237
For a sample of dry, cohesionless soil with
friction angle φ, the failure plane will be
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Shear Strength
inclined to the major principal plane by an
angle equal to [GATE-11]
a)Φ
b) 45o
c) 45o- φ/2
d) 45o+ φ/2
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 12753
in an unconsolidated undrained triaxial
test,it is observed that an increase in cell
pressure from 150 kPa to 250kPa leads to a
pore pressure increase of 80 kPa .it is
further observed that,an increase of 50kPa
in deciation stress results in an increase of
25kPa in the pore pressure .the value of
skempton's pore pressure parameter B
is [GATE-15]
A.0.5
B.0.625
C.0.8
D.1.0
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 12253
The total horizontal and vertical stresses at
a point X in a saturated sandy medium are
170 kPa and 300 kPa, respectively. The
static pore-water pressure is 30 kPa. At
failure, the excess pore-water pressure is
measured to be 94.50 kPa, and the shear
stresses on the vertical and horizontal
planes passing through the point X are
zero. Effective cohesion is 0 kPa and
effective angle of internal friction is 360.
The shear strength (in kPa, up to two
decimal places) at point X is ______
(GATE 2018 AN)
Correct Answer: 51.50 -53.50
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Shear Strength
10
Question: 6149
Referring to consolidated – undrained ( CU) triaxial compression tests sketch the
total stress and the corresponding effective
stress Mohr circles along with failure
envelops for the following soils.
(GATE-01)
1. Normally consolidated clays
2. Over consolidated clays
Clearly mark the total stress and the
effective stress shear strength parameter
on the figure. With respect to the slope
stability analysis of embankments, when
are the total and effective stress
parameters used.
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 6148
Two identical soil specimen were
tested in a triaxial apparatus . First
specimen failed at a deviator stress
of 770 kN/m2 when the cell
pressure was 200 kN/m2. Second
specimen failed at a deviator stress
of 1370 kn/m2 under a cell pressure
of 400 kn/m2, Determine the value
of ‘C’ and ‘φ’ If the same soil is
tested in a direct shesr apparatus
with a normal stress of 600 kn/m2,
estimate the shear stress at failure.
(GATE-97)
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 6147
The following test results at failure
conditions are obtained from consolidated
undrained triaxial tests on samples from
saturated clay strata. (GATE-89)
Determine shear strength
parameters.
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Shear Strength
Correct Answer: A
13
Question: 6146
Stress path equation for tri- axial test upon
application of deviatoric stress is,
. The respective values of cohesion , c( in
kPa) and angle of internal friction, φ
are: [GATE-15]
a)20 and 20o
b) 20 and 30o
c) 30 and 30o
d) 30 and 20o
Correct Answer: B
14
Question: 6145
A field vane shear testing instrument (
shown a long side) was inserted completely
into adeposit of soft, saturated silty soil
clay with the vane rod vertical such that
the top of the blades were 500mm below
the ground surface. Upon application of a
rapidly increasing torque about the vane
rod, the soil was found to fail when the
torque reached 4.6 Nm. Assuming
mobilization of undrained shear strength
on all failure surfaces to be uniform and
the vane rod to be negligible, what would
be the peak undrained shear strength (
rounded off to the nearest integer value of
kPa) of the soil? [GATE-11]
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Shear Strength
A. 5 kpa
B. 10 kpa
C. 15 kpa
D. 20 kpa
Correct Answer: B
15
Question: 6144
A sample of saturated cohesionless soil
tested in a drained triaxial compression
test showed an angle of internal friction of
30o. The deviator stress st failure for the
sample at a confining pressure of 200 kPa
is equal to o [GATE-06]
a)200 kPa
b) 400 kpa
c) 600 kpa
d) 800 kpa
Correct Answer: B
16
Question: 6143
For a triaxial shear test conducted on a
sand specimen at a confining pressure of
100 kN/m2 under drained conditions,
resulted in a deviator stress at failure of
100 kN/m2.The angle of the shear
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Shear Strength
resistance of the soil would be (GATE-05)
a) 18.43o
b) 19.47o
c) 26.56o
(d) 30o
Correct Answer: B
17
Question: 6140
If the effective stress strength parameters
of a soil are CI = 10 kpa and φI = 30o, the
sahear strength on aplane within the
saturated soil mass at a point where the
total normal stress is 300 kPa and pore
water pressure is 150kPa will be
(GATE-02)
a)90.5 kPa
b) 96.6 kPa
c) 101.5
d) 105.5 kPa
Correct Answer: B
18
Question: 6139
A CU triaxial compression test was
performed on saturated sand at a cell
pressure of 100 kpa. The ultimate deviator
stress was 350kpa and the pore pressure
at the peak stress was 40 kpa (suction).
Estimate the total and effective stress
shear strength parameters.
(GATE - 01)
Correct Answer: A
19
Question: 6138
In a drained triaxial compression test, a
saturated specimen of a cohesionless sand
fails under a deviator stress of 3 kgf/cm2
when the cell pressure is 1kgf/cm2. The
effective angle of shearing resistance of
sand is about (GATE-00)
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Shear Strength
a)37o
b) 45o
c) 53o
d) 20o
Correct Answer: A
20
Question: 6137
Triaxial compression test of three soil
specimens exhibited the patterns of failure
as shown in the Failure modes of the
samples respectively are (GATE-99)
I) brittle, ii) semi- plastic, iii) plastic
I) semi – plastic ii) brittle, iii) plastic
I) plastic, ii) brittle ,iii) semi-plastic
I) brittle ii) plastic , iii) semi-plastic
Correct Answer: C
21
Question: 6136
What is the shear strength in term of
effective stress on aplane within a
saturated soil mass at a point where the
total normal stress is 295 kpa and the pore
water pressure 120 kpa? The effective
stress shesr strength parameters are CI =
12 kpa and φ = 30o (GATE-98)
Correct Answer: 113-113
22
Question: 6135
When an unconfined compression test is
conducted on a cylinder of soil, it fail under
axial stress of 1.2 kg/cm2. The failure plane
makes an angle of 50o with the horizontal .
Determine the cohesion and angle of
internal friction of the soil (GATE-87)
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Shear Strength
Correct Answer: 10,0.50
23
Question: 6134
Which of the following statements is NOT
correct? [GATE-15]
A. Loose sand exhibits contractive
behavior upon shearing
B. Dense sand when sheared under
undrained condition, may lead to
generation of negative pore
pressure
C. Black cotton soil exhibits expansive
behavior
D. Liquefaction is the phenomenon
where cohesionless soil near the
downstream side of dams or sheetpiles loses its shear strength due to
high upward hydraulic gradient
Correct Answer: D
24
Question: 6133
For a saturated cohesive soil, a triaxial test
yields the angle of internal friction (φ) as
zero. The conducted test is
(GATE-14
FN)
A. Consolidated Drained (CD) test
B. Consolidated UnDrained (CU) test
C. UnConfined Compression (UC) test
D. UnConsolidated UnDrained (UU)
test
Correct Answer: D
25
Question: 6132
The effective stress friction angle of a
saturated cohesionless soil is 38o. The ratio
of shear stress to normal effective stress
on the failure plane is [GATE-12] [GATE-06]
a)0.781
b) 0.616
c) 0.488
d) 0.438
Correct Answer: A
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Shear Strength
26
Question: 6130
A clay soil sample is tested in triaxial
apparatus in consolidated – drained
condition at a cell pressure of 100 kN/m2.
What will be the pore water pressure at a
deviator stress of 40 kN/m2 ? (GATE-07)
a)0 kN/m2
b) 20 kN/m2
c) 40 kN/m2
d) 60 kN/m2
Correct Answer: A
27
Question: 6129
In an undrained triaxial test on a saturated
clay, the poission’s ratio is σ3 (GATE-04).
Correct Answer: B
28
Question: 6128
The undrained cohesion of a remoulded
clay soil is 10kN/m2. If the sensitivity of the
clay is 20, the corresponding remoulded
compressive strength is (GATE-04)
a)5 kN/m2
b) 10 kN/m2
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Shear Strength
c) 20 kN/m2
d) 200 kN/m2
Correct Answer: B
29
Question: 6126
The stress–strain behavior of soils as shown
in the figure corresponding to : (GATE-98)
a.Curve1: Loose sand and normally
consolidated clay
Curve2: Loose sand and over consolidated
clay
b.Curve1: Dense sand and normally
consolidated clay
Curve2: Loose sand and over consolidated
clay
C) Curve 1: Dense sand and over
consolidated clay
Curve 2: Loose sand and normally
consolidated clay
d).Curve 1: Loose sand and over
consolidated clay
Curve2: Dense sand normally consolidated
clay
Correct Answer: C
30
Question: 6125
The ratio of un confined compressive
strength of an undistributed sample of soil
to that of a remoulded sample, at the same
water content,is known as (GATE-97)
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Shear Strength
a)Activity
b) Damping
c) Plasticity
d) Sensitivity
Correct Answer: D
31
Question: 6124
Vane tester is normally used for
determining in-situ shaer strength of
(GATE-97)
a)Soft clays
b) Sand
c) Stiff clays
d) Gravel
Correct Answer: A
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Earth Pressure
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16125
A retaining wall of height H with smooth
vertical back face supports a backfill
inclined at an angle β with the horizontal.
The backfill consists of cohesionless soil
having angle of internal friction ? . If the
active lateral thrust acting on the wall is Pa
which one of the following statements is
TRUE?
(A) Pa acts at a height H/3 from the base of
the wall and at an angle β with the
horizontal
(B) Pa acts at a height H/3 from the base of
the wall and at an angle ? with the
horizontal
(C) Pa acts at a height H/2 from the base of
the wall and at an angle β with the
horizontal
(D) Pa acts at a height H/2 from the base of
the wall and at an angle ? with the
horizontal
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 13665
Two different soil profiles are used as
backfill behind a retaining wall as shown in
the figure, where γt is total unit weight and
c’ & ' φ ‘ are effective shear parameters.
Find the resultant active earth pressure in
kN/m [GATE 2013]
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Earth Pressure
A.31.7
B.35.2
C.51.8
D.57.0
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13535
The soil profile at a site consists of a 5 m
thick sand layer underlain by a c-φ soil as
shown in figure. The water table is found 1
m below the ground level. The entire soil
mass is retained by a concrete retaining
wall and is in the active state. The back of
the wall is smooth and vertical. The total
active earth pressure (expressed in kN/m2)
at point A as per Rankine's theory is
Correct Answer: 69.65-69.65
4
Question: 13504
vertical cut is to be made in a soil mass
having cohesion c, angle of internal
friction
, and unit weight γ .
Considering Ka and Kp as the
coefficients of active and passive earth
pressures, respectively, the maximum
depth of unsupported excavation is
[GATE 2016 FN]
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Earth Pressure
Correct Answer: D
5
Question: 13463
Consider the following statements related
to the pore pressure parameters, A and B:
P. A always lies between 0 and 1.0
Q. A can be less than 0 or greater than 1.0
R. B always lies between 0 and 1.0
S. B can be less than 0 or greater than 1.0
For these statements, which one of the
following options is correct? [GATE 2017
AN]
(A) P and R
(B) P and S
(C) Q and R
(D) Q and S
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 13189
consider a rigid retaining wall with partially
submerged cohesionless backfill with a
surcharge .which one of the following
diagrams closely represents the rankine's
active earth pressure distribution against
this wall ?[GATE 2017 AN]
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Earth Pressure
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 13188
A homogeneous gravity retaining wall
supporting a cohesionless backfill is shown
in the figure. The lateral active earth
pressure at the bottom of the wall is 40
kPa. [GATE-16-1]
The minimum weight of the wall
(expressed in kN per m length) required to
prevent it from overturning about its toe
(Point P) is [GATE 2016 FN]
(A) 120
(B) 180
(C) 240
(D) 360
Correct Answer: A
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Earth Pressure
8
Question: 13187
The soil profile at a site consists of a 5 m
thick sand layer underlain by a c-φ soil as
shown in figure. The water table is found 1
m below the ground level. The entire soil
mass is retained by a concrete retaining
wall and is in the active state. The back of
the wall is smooth and vertical. The total
active earth pressure (expressed in kN/m2)
at point A as per Rankine's theory is
_________ [GATE-16-2]
Correct Answer: 69.654-69.654
9
Question: 13181
The wall shown in figure has failed .The
cause of failure or the error made in the
design of the failed wall is[GATE-96]
A.deep slip surface failure
B.over turning
C.no proper drainage in the clay backfill
D.translational failure
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Earth Pressure
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 13179
The depth of tension crack in a soft clay
is cu [GATE-97]
Correct Answer: B
11
Question: 13178
the earth pressure for the design of bridge
abutments is taken as [GATE-93][TNPSC
2013]
A.active thrust
B.passive thrust
C.thrust in at -rest condition
D.none of the above
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 12752
A vertical wall 6m high above the water
table ,retains a 200 soil slope ,the retained
soil has a unit weight of 18 kN/m3 ,the
appropriate shear strength parameters are
C=0 and ?’=40o,the coefficient of active
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Earth Pressure
earth pressure to be used in estimating the
active earth pressure acting on the wall is
(GATE-94)
Correct Answer: 0.25-0.25
13
Question: 12635
Coulomb's theory of earth pressure is
based on[GATE-97][TNPSC 2013]
(A) the theory of elasticity
(B) the theory of plasticity
(C)empirical rules
D) wedge theory
Correct Answer: D
14
Question: 12242
A 3 m high vertical earth retaining wall
retains a dry granular backfill with angle of
internal friction of 30° and unit weight of
20 kN/m3. If the wall is prevented from
yielding (no movement), the total
horizontal thrust (in kN per unit length) on
the wall is (GATE 2018 AN)
A) 0
(B) 30
(C) 45
(D) 270
Correct Answer: C
15
Question: 12201
A rigid smooth retaining wall of height 7 m
with vertical backface retains saturated
clay as backfill. The saturated unit weight
and undrained cohesion of the backfill are
17.2 kN/m3 and 20 kPa, respectively. The
difference in the active lateral forces on
the wall (in kN per meter length of wall, up
to two decimal places), before and after
the occurrence of tension cracks is
______(GATE 2018FN)
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Earth Pressure
Correct Answer: 45-49
16
Question: 6169
A retaining wall with a stratified backfill
and a surcharge load is shown in the
following figure. Draw the earth pressure
diagram detailing the values at critical
points. Also estimate the resultant thrust
on the wall and its position. (GATE-02)
Correct Answer: A
17
Question: 6168
) A concrete gravity type retaining wall,
shown below, retains granular soil having a
friction angle of 35o and dry and saturated
unit weights of 16 kN/m3 and 20 kN/m3 .
The unit weight of concrete and water are
24 kN/m3 and 10 kN/m3 respectively. The
friction factor of the base of the wall
against lateral sliding is 0.47. Calculate the
following quantities for the retaining wall.
[GATE-01]
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Earth Pressure
1. I) Factor of safety against lateral
sliding
2. ii) Factor of safety against
overturning, and
iii) Bearing pressure on foundation soil
using Meyerhoffs method.
Correct Answer: A
18
Question: 6167
For the retaining wall shown in the figure
below assume that the wall can yield
sufficiently to develop active stage. Use
Rankine’s active earth pressure theory and
determine(GATE-00)
a) active force per meter of the wall, and
b) the location of the resultant line of
action.
Correct Answer: A
19
Question: 6166
9. a) Compute the intensityof passive
earth pressure at a depth of 8 m in
a cohesionless sand with an angle
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Earth Pressure
of internal friction of 30o when
water table rises to the ground
level. Saturated unit weight of sand
is 21 kN/m3; ϒw = 9.81 kN/m3
Ans:PP=347Kn/m2
10. b) A vertical excavation was made
in a clay deposit having unit weight
of 22 kN/m3 . it caved in after the
digging reached 4 m depth.
Assuming φ = 0,calculate the
magnitude of cohesion. (GATE-99)
Correct Answer: 22kN/m2-22kN/m2
20
Question: 6165
A 6 m high retaining wall having a smooth
vertical back face retains a layered
horizontal backfill. Top 3 m thick layer of
the backfill is sand having an angle of
internal friction, φ = 30o while the bottom
layer is 3 m thick clay with cohesion, c= 20
kpa. Assume unit weight for both sand and
clay as 18 kN/m3. The total active earth
pressure per unit length of the wall ( in
kN/m) is
[GATE-15]
a)150
b) 216
c) 156
d) 196
Correct Answer: A
21
Question: 6164
Two different soil types ( soil 1 and soil 2 )
are used as backfill behind a retaining wall
as shown in the figure, where ϒt is total
unit weight, and C’ and φ’ are effective
cohesion and effective angle of shearing
resistance. The resultant active earth force
per unit length ( in kN/m) acting on the wall
is
[GATE 2013]
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Earth Pressure
a)31.7
b) 35.2
c) 51.8
d) 57.0
Correct Answer: A
22
Question: 6163
A 3 m high retaining wall is supporting a
saturated sand ( saturated due to capillary
action ) of bulk density 18 kN/m3 and
angle of shearing resistance 30o. The
change in magnitude of active earth
pressure at the base due to rise in ground
water table from the base of the footing to
the ground surface shall ( ϒw = 10
kN/m3)
(GATE-05)
A. Increase by 20 kN/m2
B. Decrease by 20 kN/m2
C. Increase by 30 kN/m2
D. Decrease by 30 kN/m2
Correct Answer: B
23
Question: 6162
A retaining wall of height 8 m retains dry
sand. In the intial state , the soil is loose
and has a void ratio of 0.5, ϒd = 17.8 kN/m3
and
= 30o. Subsequently, the backfill is
compacted to a state where void ratio is
0.4, ϒd = 18.8 kN/m3 and
= 35o. The
ratio of intial passive thrust to the final
passive thrust theory, is
(GATE-04)
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Earth Pressure
a)0.38
b) 0.64
c) 0.77
d) 1.55
Correct Answer: C
24
Question: 6161
An unsupported excavation is made to the
maximum possible depth in a clay soil
having ϒt = 18 kN/m3, c = 100 kN/m2, φ =
30o . The active earth pressure, according
to Rankine’s theory, at the base level of
the excavation is
(GATE-04)
a)115.47 kN/m2
b) 54.36 kN/m2
c) 27.18 kN/m2
d) 13 kN/m2
Correct Answer: A
25
Question: 6160
To have zero active pressure intensity at
the tip of a wall in cohesive soil, one should
apply a uniform surcharge intensity of
(GATE-00)
a)2c tan α
b) 2c cot α
c) -2c tan α
d) -2c cot α
Correct Answer: A
26
Question: 6159
The total active thrust on a vertical wall 3m
high retaining a horizontal sand backfill (
unit weight ϒt = 20 kN/m3, angle of
shearing resistance φ’ = 30o) when the
water table is at the bottom of the wall, will
be:
(GATE-98)
a)30 kN/m
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Earth Pressure
b) 35 kN/m
c) 40 kN/m
d) 45 kN/m
Correct Answer: A
27
Question: 6158
Surcharge loading required to be placed on
the horizontal backfill of a smooth retaining
vertical wall so as to completely eliminate
tensile crack is [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: D
28
Question: 6157
A smooth rigid retaining wall moves as
shown in the sketch causing the backfill
material to fail. The backfill material is
homogenous and isotropic, and obeys the
Mohr – Coulomb failure criterion. The major
principal stress is [GATE-12] [GATE-06]
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Earth Pressure
A. Parallel to the wall face and acting
downwards
B. Normal to the wall face
C. Oblique to the wall face acting
downwards
D. Oblique to the wall face acting
upwards
Correct Answer: B
29
Question: 6156
If σh , σv , σ’h and σ’v represent the total
horizontal stress , total Vertical stress,
effective horizontal stress and effective
vertical stress on a soil element,
respectively, the coefficient of earth
pressure at rest is given by
(GATE-10 )
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Earth Pressure
Correct Answer: B
30
Question: 6155
When a retaining wall moves away from
the backfill, the pressure exerted on the
wall iss termed as (GATE-08 )
A. Passive earth pressure
B. Swelling pressure
C. Pore pressure
D. Active earth pressure
Correct Answer: D
31
Question: 6154
Figure given below shows a smooth vertical
gravity retaining wall cohesion less soil
backfill having an angle of internal friction
φ. In the graphical representation of
Rankine’s active earth pressure for the
retaining wall shown in figure, length OP
represents [GATE-06]
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Earth Pressure
A. Vertical stress at the base
B. Vertical stress at a height H/3 from
the base
C. Lateral earth pressure at a base
D. Lateral earth pressure at a height
H/3 from the base
Correct Answer: A
32
Question: 6153
Cohesion in soil (GATE-99 )
A. Decrease active pressure and
increase passive resistance
B. Decrease both active pressure and
passive resistance
C. Increase the active pressure and
decrease the passive resistance
D. Increase both active pressure and
passive resistance
Correct Answer: A
33
Question: 6152
In cohesive soils the depth of tension crack
(Zcr) is likely to be (GATE-98 )
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Earth Pressure
Correct Answer: B
34
Question: 6151
The depth of tension crack in a soft clay (φu
=0) is Cu(GATE-97 )
Correct Answer: B
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stability of slopes
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16208
An earthen dam of height H is made of
cohesive soil whose cohesion and unit
weight are c and ,γ respectively. If the
factor of safety against cohesion is Fc, the
Taylor’s stability [GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 13767
The factor of safety of an infinite soil slope
shown in the figure having the properties
c=0,
=350 γdry=20 kN/m3 is
approximately to [GATE-07]
A.0.70
B.0.80
C.1.00
D.1.20
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stability of slopes
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13245
The infinite sand slope shown in the figure
is on the verge of sliding failure. The
ground water table coincides with the
ground surface. Unit weight of water γw =
9.81 Kn/m3 . The value of the effective
angle of internal friction (in degrees, up to
one decimal place) of the sand is (GATE
2017 FN)
Correct Answer: 34.33-34.33
4
Question: 13244
For the construction of a highway. A cut is
to be made as shown in the figure
The soil exhibits c' = 20kPa, φ = 180 and
the undrained shear strength = 80 kPa.
The unit weight of water is 9.81 kN/m3. The
unit weights of the soil above and below
the ground water table are 18 and 20
kN/m3, respectively. If the shear stress at
Point A is 50 kPa, the factors of safety
against the shear failure at this point,
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stability of slopes
considering the undrained and drained
conditions, respectively, would be [GATE
2017 AN]
(A) 1.6 and 0.9
(B) 0.9 and 1.6
(C) 0.6 and 1.2
(D) 1.2 and 0.6
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 12198
At a construction site, a contractor plans to
make an excavation as shown in the
figure
(GATE 2018FN)
The water level in the adjacent river is at
an elevation of +20.0 m. Unit weight of
water is 10 kN/m3. The factor of safety (up
to two decimal places) against sand boiling
for the proposed excavation is ______(GATE
2018FN)
Correct Answer: 1.00 -1
6
Question: 6186
An infinitely long slope is made up of a c –φ
soil having the properties cohesion (c)= 20
kpa, and dry unit weight (ϒd) = 16 kn/m3.
The angle of inclination and critical height
of the slope are 40o and 5 m, respectively.
To maintain the limiting equilibrium, the
angle of internal friction of the soil ( in
degrees ) is ___________[GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 21.0-23.0
7
Question: 6185
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stability of slopes
The soil profile above the rock surface for a
25o infinite slope is shown in the figure,
where su is the undrained shear strength
and ϒt is total unit weight. The slip will
occur at a depth of [GATE 2013]
A) 8.83 m
b) 9.79 m
c) 7.83
d) 6.53
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 6184
the factor of saftey of an infinite soil slope
shown in the figure having the properties
φ = 35o, ϒdry = 16 kN/m3 and ϒsat = 20
kN/m3 is
(GATE-07)
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stability of slopes
A) 0.70
b) 0.80
c) 1.00
d) 1.20
Correct Answer: A
9
Question: 6183
List-I below gives the possible types of
failure for a finite soil slope and List – II
gives the reason for these different types
of failure. Match the items in List-I with the
items in List-II [GATE-06]
List-I
P.Base failure
Q.Face failure
R.Toe failure
LIST-II
1. Soils above and below the toe have
same strength
2. Soil above the toe is comparatively
weaker
3. Soil above the toe is comparatively
stronger
Codes:
P
Q
R
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stability of slopes
A) 1
2
3
b) 2
3
1
c) 2
1
3
d) 3
2
1
Correct Answer: D
10
Question: 6182
For two infinite slopes ( one in dry
condition and other in submereged
condition) in a sand deposit having the
angle of shearing resistance 30o, factor of
safety was determined as 1.5 ( for both
slopes ). The slope angles would have
been
(GATE-05)
A) 21.05o for dry slope and 21.05o for
submerged slope
b) 19.47o for dry slope and 18.40o for
submerged slope
c) 18.4o for slope and 21.05o for
submerged slope
d) 22.6o for dry slope and 19.47o for
submerged slope
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 6181
Using φu = 0 analysis and assuming planar
failure as shown, the minimum factor of
safety against shear failure of a vertical
cut of height 4 m in a pure clay having Cu
= 120 kN/m2 and ϒsat = 20kN/m3 is
(GATE-04)
A) 1
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stability of slopes
b) 6
c) 10
d) 20
Correct Answer: B
12
Question: 6180
An infinite soil slope with an inclination of
35o is subjected to seepage parallel to its
surface. The soil has c’ = 100 kN/m2 and φ’
= 30o. Using the concept of mobilized
cohesion and friction, at a factor of safety
of 1.5 with respect to shear strength, the
mobilized friction angle is (GATE-04)
A) 20.02o
b) 21.05o
c) 23.33o
d) 30.00o
Correct Answer: B
13
Question: 6179
A canal having side slopes 1:1 is proposed
to be constructed in a cohesive soil to a
depth of 10 m below the ground surface.
The soil properties are:
φu = 15o , Cu =
12 kPa, e = 1.0, Gs = 2.65
If there is a sudden drawdown of water in
the canal and if Taylor’s Stability number
for the reduced value of φw is 0.126, the
factor of safety with respect to cohesion
against the failure of bank slopes will
be (GATE-03)
a) 1.85
b) 1.18
c) 0.84
d) 0.53
Correct Answer: D
14
Question: 6178
A canal having side slopes 1:1 is proposed
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stability of slopes
to be constructed in a cohesive soil to a
depth of 10 m below the ground surface.
The soil properties are:
φu = 15o , Cu =
12 kPa, e = 1.0, Gs = 2.65(GATE-03)
If Taylor’s stability number Sn is
0.08 and if the canal flows full, the
factor of safety with respect to
cohesion against failure of the
canal bank slopes will be
a) 3.7
b) 1.85
c) 1.0
d) none of these
Correct Answer: B
15
Question: 6177
An infinite slope is to be constructed in a
soil. The effective stress strength
parameters of the soil are C’ = 0 and φ’ =
30o , the saturated unit weight of the slope
is 20 kN/m3 and the unit weight of water is
10kN/m3. Assuming that seepage is
occurring parallel to the slope, the
maximum slope angle for a factor of safety
of 1.5 would be (GATE-02)
a)10. 89o
b) 11.30o
c) 12.48o
d) 14.73o
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 6176
The critical slip circle for a slope is shown
below along with the soil properties.The
length of the arc of the slip circle is 15.6 m
and the area of soil within the slip circle is
82 m 2 . The radius of the slip circles is 10.3
m. the factor of safety against the slip
circle failure is ne arly equal to
(GATE-01)
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stability of slopes
φ=0 ,CU=30kpa ,γ=20KN/m3
a)1.05
b ) 1.22
c) 0.78
d) 1.28
Correct Answer: D
17
Question: 6175
A deep cut of 7 m has to be made in a clay
with unit weight 16 kN/m3 and a cohesion
of 25 kN/m2. What will be the factor of
safety if one has a slope angle of 30o ?
Stabiliity number is given to 0.178 ( from
Taylor’s chart ) for a depth factor of
3. (GATE-00)
a)0.80
b) 1.1
c) 1.25
d) 1.0
Correct Answer: C
18
Question: 6174
A 40o slope is excavated to a depth of 10 m
in adeep layer of saturated clay of unit
weight 20 kN/m3 ; the relevant shear
strength parameters are Cu= 72 kN/m2 and
φu = 0. The rock ledge is at a great depth.
The Taylor’s stability coefficient for φu = 0
and 40o slope angle is 0.18. The factor of
safety of the load is:
(GATE-98)
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stability of slopes
a)2.0
b) 2.1
c) 2.2
d) 2.3
Correct Answer: A
19
Question: 6173
In friction circle method of slope stability
analysis, if r defines the radius of the slip
circle, the radius of friction circle is:
[GATE-15]
a)r sinφ
b) r
c) r cosφ
d) r tanφ
Correct Answer: A
20
Question: 6172
A long slope is formed in a soil with shear
strength parameters: c’ = 0 and φ’ = 34o. A
firm stratum lies below the slope and it is
assumed that the water table may
occasionally rise to the surface, with
seepage taking place parallel to the slope.
Use ϒsat = 18 kN/m3 and ϒw = 10 kN/m3 .
The maximum slope angle ( in degrees ) to
ensure a factor of safety of 1.5, assuming a
potential failure surface parallel to the
slope, would be [GATE-14 FN]
a)45.3
b) 44.7
c) 12.3
d) 11.3
Correct Answer: D
21
Question: 6170
With respect to a c – φ soil in an infinite
slope, identify if the following two
statements are TRUE or FALSE
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stability of slopes
(GATE-01)
I. The stable slope angle can be
greater than φ.
II. The factor of safety of the slope
does not depend on the height of
soil in the slope.
a. Both statements are FALSE
b. I is TRUE but II is FALSE
c. I is FALSE but II is TRUE
d. Both statements are TRUE
Correct Answer: B
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Stress distribution of soil
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16237
A 2 m × 4 m rectangular footing has to
carry a uniformly distributed load of 120
kPa. As per the 2:1 dispersion method of
stress distribution, the increment in vertical
stress (in kPa) at a depth of 2 m below the
footing is _______.
[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 40-40
2
Question: 16131
A concentrated load of 500 kN is applied on
an elastic half space. The ratio of the
increase in vertical normal stress at depths
of 2m and 4m along the point of the
leading, as per Boussinesq?s theory, would
be __________ [GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 4-4
3
Question: 13906
The vertical stress at depth .Z directly
below the point load P is ( k is a constant
)____[GATE-97]
Correct Answer: C
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Stress distribution of soil
4
Question: 13420
A soil sample is subjected to a hydrostatic
pressure σ , The Mohr circle for any point in
the soil sample would be [GATE 2017 FN]
(A) a circle of radius σ and center at the
origin
(B) a circle of radius σ and center at a
distance
(C) a point at a distance σ from the origin
(D) a point at a distance σ from the origin
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13264
Match the following[GATE-91]
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
1. flexible footing on cohesive soil
2. Rigid footing on cohesive soil
3. Rigid footing on cohesion less soil
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Stress distribution of soil
4. Flexible footing on cohesion less
soil
GATE-1991
Codes:
A
B
C
D
(a) 3
2
1
4
(b) 3
2
4
1
(c) 2
3
1 4
(d) 2
3
1 4
Correct Answer: B
6
Question: 13263
The nature of contact pressure distribution
under a rigid footing resting on a sandy
soil and subjected to uniformly distributed
load is as shown in: (GATE-96)
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
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Stress distribution of soil
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 13262
A uniformly distributed line load of 500
kN/m is acting on the ground surface.
Based on Boussinesq’s theory, the ratio of
vertical stress at a depth 2 m to that at 4
m, right below the line of loading, is
[GATE 2017 FN]
(A) 0.25
(B) 0.5
(C) 2.0
(D) 4.0
Correct Answer: C
8
Question: 13261
Consider a square-shaped area ABCD on
the ground with its centre at M as shown in
the figure. Four concentrated vertical load
of P=5000 kN are applied on this area, at
each corner.
The vertical stress increment (in kPa, up to
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Stress distribution of soil
one decimal place) due to these loads
according to the Boussinesq’s equation, at
a point 5 m right below M, is______
[GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 191.36-191.36
9
Question: 6199
The figure given below represents the
contact pressure distribution underneath a
( GATE –04)
A. Rigid footing on saturated clay
B. Rigid footing on sand
C. Flexible footing on saturated clay
D. Flexible footing on sand
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 6082
the vertical stress at a point P1 due to the
point load Q on the ground surface as
shown in figure is σz . According to
Boussinesq’s equation, the vertical stress
at a point P2 shown in figure will be
(GATE-10)
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Stress distribution of soil
a)σz/2
b) σz
c) 2 σz
d) 4 σz
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 6080
A point load of 700kN is applied on the
surface of thick layer of saturated clay,
using Boussinesq’s elastic analysis, the
estimated vertical strees (σv) at a depth of
2 m and a radial distance of 1.0 m from the
point of application of the load
is: (GATE-98)
a) 5 kpa
b) 47.6 kpa
c) 47.7 kpa
d) 47.8 kpa
Correct Answer: D
12
Question: 6079
The contact pressure for a rigid footing
resting on clay at the centre and the edges
are respectively
[GATE-14 AN]
A. Maximum and zero
B. Maximum and minimum
C. Zero and maximum
D. Minimum and maximum
Correct Answer: D
13
Question: 6078
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Stress distribution of soil
Two geometrically identical isolated
footings, X(linear elastic) and Y (rigid), are
loaded identically (shown below). The soil
reaction will [GATE-11]
A. Be uniformly distributed for Y but
not for X
B. Be uniformly distributed for X but
not for Y
C. Be uniformly distributed for both X
and Y
D. Not be uniformly distributed for
both X and Y
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 6077
The vertical stress at some depth below
the corner of a 2 m x 3 m rectangular
footing due to a certain load intensity is
100 kn/m2 .What will be the vertical stress
in kn/m2 below the centre of a 4 m x 6 m
rectangular footing at the same depth and
same load intensity? (GATE-07)
a) 25
b)100
c) 200
d) 400
Correct Answer: D
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Stress distribution of soil
15
Question: 6076
There are two footings resting on the
ground surface. One footing is square of
dimension ‘B’. The other is strip footing of
width ‘B’ Both of them are subjected to a
loading intensity of q. The pressure
intensity at any depth below the base of
the footing along the center line would
be (GATE-05)
A. Equal in both footings
B. Large for square footing and small
for strip footing
C. Large for strip footing and small for
square footing
D. More for strip footing at shallow
depth(≤B) and more for square
footing at large depth(>B)
Correct Answer: C
16
Question: 6075
A 25 KN point load acts on the surface of
an infinite elastic medium. The vertical
pressure intensity in KN/m2 at a point 6.0
m below and 4.0 m away from the load will
be (GATE-03)
a) 132
b) 13.2
c) 1.32
d) 0.132
Correct Answer: D
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Shallow Foundation
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16214
A square footing of 2m sides rests on the
surface of a homogeneous soil bed having
the properties: cohesion c = 24 kPa, angle
of internal friction ?= 250 , and unit weight
γ =3 18kN m3 . Terzaghi?s bearing
capacity factor ? =250 are Nc = 25.1, Nq =
12.7, Nγ = 9.7, Nc’=14.8 ,Nq’= 5.6 and Nγ’=
3.2. The ultimate bearing capacity of the
foundation (in kPa, round off to 2 decimal
places) is ______.[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 353.92-353.92
2
Question: 16160
A square footing of 4m side is placed at 1
m depth in a sand deposit. The dry unit
weight (γ ) of sand is 15 kN/m3. This
footing has an ultimate bearing capacity of
600 kPa. Consider the depth factors; dq
=dγ =1.0 and the bearing capacity factor:
Nγ = 18.75. This footing is placed at a
depth of 2m in the same soil deposit. For a
factor of safety of 3.0 per Terzaghi?s
theory, the safe bearing capacity (in kPa)
of this footing would be ______ [GATE
2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 270-270
3
Question: 13848
the two criteria for the determination of
allowable bearing capacity of a foundation
are [ GATE-00]
[SSC JE 2017]
A.tensile failure and compression failure
B.tensile failure and settlement
C.bond failure and shear failure
D.shear failure and settlement
Correct Answer: D
4
Question: 13677
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Shallow Foundation
A multistorey building with a basement is
to be constructed. The top 4 m contains
loose silt below which dense sand layer is
present upto a great depth. Ground water
table is at the ground surface. The
foundation consists of the basement slab of
6 m width which will rest on the top of
dense sand as shown in figure. For dense
sand saturated unit weight is 20 kN/m3 and
bearing capacity factor,Nq=40, Nγ=45 for
loose silt saturated unit weight =18 kN/m3,
Nq= 15, Nγ=20 . Effective cohesion is 0.
Neglect depth factor average elastic
modulus E, and Poisson ratio µ of dense
sand is 60x 103 kN/m2 and 0.3
respectively, using factor of safety = 3.
(Take influence factor = 2)
The immediate settlement of foundation
is[GATE 2013]
(A) 58 mm
(B) 111 mm
(C) 178 mm
(D) 126 mm
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 13676
A multistorey building with a basement is
to be constructed. The top 4 m contains
loose silt below which dense sand layer is
present upto a great depth. Ground water
table is at the ground surface. The
foundation consists of the basement slab of
6 m width which will rest on the top of
dense sand as shown in figure. For dense
sand saturated unit weight is 20 kN/m3 and
bearing capacity factor,Nq=40,Nγ=45 for
loose silt saturated unit weight =18 kN/m3,
Nq= 15,Nγ=20 . Effective cohesion is 0.
Neglect depth factor average elastic
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Shallow Foundation
modulus E, and Poisson ratio µ of dense
sand is 60x 103 kN/m2 and 0.3
respectively, using factor of safety = 3.
(Take influence factor = 2)
The net safe bearing capacity (in kN/m3 )
of foundation is [GATE 2013]
A.610
B.320
C.980
D.693
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 13236
A 4 m wide strip footing is founded at a
depth of 1.5 m below the ground surface in
a c-φ soil as shown in the figure. The water
table is at a depth of 5.5 m below ground
surface. The soil properties are: c' = 35
kN/m2, φ' = 28.63°, γsat = 19 kN/m3,
γbulk = 17 kN/m3 and γw = 9.81 kN/m3.
The values of bearing capacity factors for
different φ' are given below. (GATE2016
set2)
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Shallow Foundation
Using Terzaghi's bearing capacity equation
and a factor of safety Fs = 2.5, the net
safe bearing capacity (expressed in kN/m2)
for local shear failure of the soil is .
Correct Answer: 298.48-298.48
7
Question: 13235
A large scale bearing capacity test on a
footing of size 1.05 m x 1.05m at a depth
of 1.5 m yielded an ultimate value of 141
kN .Unconfined compression tests on the
soft saturated clay yielded a strength of
0.03 N/mm2 .If the unit weight of the soil is
1.6 g/cc,how much does the test value
differ from that obtained using Terzaghi’s
bearing capacity equation?[ GATE-92]
Correct Answer: 6.804-6.804
8
Question: 13234
A strip footing is resting on a ground
surface of a pure clay bed having an
undrained cohesion cu .The ultimate
bearing capacity of the footing is equal
to [GATE 2017 FN]
A.2π cu
B.π cu
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Shallow Foundation
C.( π +1)cu
D.( π +2 )cu
Correct Answer: D
9
Question: 13233
The plate load test was conducted on a
clayey strata by using a plate of 0.3 m x
0.3 m x 0.3 m dimensions ,and the
ultimate load per unit area for the plate
was found to be 180kPa.The ultimate
bearin g capacity (in kPa) of a 2m wide
square footing would be
[GATE 2017 AN]
A.27
B.180
C.1200
D.2000
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 13232
A strip footing is resting on the surface of a
purely clayey soil deposit .If the width of
the footing is doubled ,the ultimate bearing
capacity of the soil is ( GATE – 16-set 2)
A.becomes double
B.becomes half
C.becomes four-times
D.remains the same
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 13231
The ultimate bearing capacity of a surface
strip footing on clay ,according to
terzaghi’s theory ,is (GATE-91)
Where C-unit cohesion
qu= unconfined compressive strength
and B=width of footing
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Shallow Foundation
A.5.7 c
B.5.14 c
C.qu B
D.9c
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 13230
Increasing the depth of foundation in
saturated clays results in an increased
ultimate bearing capacity for strip footings
(GATE-92)
A.because the bearing capacity factor ,Nq’
decreases
B.because the bearing capacity factor ,Nc’
increases as the depth increases
C.the term in the bearing capacity
equation,q Nq increases with depth
D.because the angle of internal friction
decreases as the depth of foundation
increases
Correct Answer: C
13
Question: 13228
Between bearing capacity and settlement
,the proportioning of a footing in sand is
more often governed by settlement
(GATE-95)
Correct Answer: true
14
Question: 13226
The value of bearing capacity factor for
cohesion N’c,for soil as per Meyerhof ,is
taken as . (GATE-96)
A.6.2
B.12.0
C.9.0
D.5.14
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Shallow Foundation
Correct Answer: D
15
Question: 13225
For the strip footing on a saturated clay,for
the given failure surface ,the bearing
capacity equation takes the form
(GATE-96)
Where Cu= undrained shear strength
Φu=angle of internal friction
B=width of strip footing
qc =ultimate bearing capacity of soil
A.5.7 Cu
B.5.14 Cu
C.4π Cu
D.2π Cu
Correct Answer: D
16
Question: 13224
A foundation is considered as shallow if its
depth is (GATE-96)
A.less than 1 meter
B.greater than its width
C.equal to or less than its width
D.greater than 1 meter
Correct Answer: C
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Shallow Foundation
17
Question: 13223
The settlement of prototype in clayey
material may be estimated using plate load
test data from the following expression
(GATE-98)
Correct Answer: A
18
Question: 13222
The two criteria for the determination of
allowable bearing capacity of a foundation
are (GATE-00) (SSC JE 2017)
1. tensile failure and compression
failure
2. tensile failure and settlement
3. bond failure and shear failure
4. shear failure and settlement
Correct Answer: D
19
Question: 12223
The contact pressure and settlement
distribution for a footing are shown in the
figure. (GATE 2018 AN)
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Shallow Foundation
The figure corresponds to a
(A) rigid footing on granular soil
(B) flexible footing on granular soil
(C) flexible footing on saturated clay
(D) rigid footing on cohesive soil
Correct Answer: A
20
Question: 12168
The width of a square footing and the
diameter of a circular footing are equal. If
both the footings are placed on the surface
of sandy soil, the ratio of the ultimate
bearing capacity of circular footing to that
of square footing will be (GATE 2018FN)
(A) 4/3
(B) 1
(C) 3/4
(D) 2/3
Correct Answer: C
21
Question: 12167
The percent reduction in the bearing
capacity of a strip footing resting on sand
under flooding condition (water level at the
base of the footing) when compared to the
situation where the water level is at a
depth much greater than the width of
footing, is approximately (GATE 2018FN)
(A) 0
(B) 25
(C) 50
(D) 100
Correct Answer: C
22
Question: 6216
A footing 3 m square carries a gross
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Shallow Foundation
pressure of 350 kN/m2 at a depth of 1.2 m
in sand. The saturated unit weight of sand
is 20 kN/m3 and the unit weight above the
water table is 17 kN/m3. The shear
strength parameters are c’ = 0 and φ’ =
30o. ( For φ’ = 30o, Nq = 22 and Ng = 20).
Determine the factor of safety with respect
to shear failure for the following cases:
(GATE-00)
1. Water table is 5 m below ground
level.
2. Water table is at 1.2 m below
ground level
Correct Answer: A
23
Question: 6215
A footing 2.25 m square is located at a
depth of 1.5 m in a sand of unit weight 18
kN/m3. The shear strength parameters are
c’ = 0 and φ = 36o. Calculate the safe load
carried shear failure. Factor of safety
against shear failure is 3. Use Terzaghi’s
analysis. ( Nc = 65.4, Nq = 49.4, Nϒ =
54.0) (GATE-99)
Correct Answer: A
24
Question: 6214
For general c-φ soil, cohesion c is 50 kPa,
the total unit weight ϒt is 20 kN/m3 and the
bearing capacity factors are Nc = 8 and Nq
= 3 and Nϒ = 2. Using Terzaghi’s formula ,
Calculate the net ultimate bearing capacity
for a strip footing of width B = 2 m at depth
z=1 m. Considering shear failure only,
estimate the safe load on a footing 10 m
long by 2 m wide strip footing using a
factor of safety of 3. (GATE-98)
Correct Answer: A
25
Question: 6213
1. Using Terzaghi theory, determine
the ultimate bearing capacity of a
strip footing 1.5 m wide resting on
a saturated clay ( Cu = 30 kN/m2, φu
= 0, ϒsat= 20 kN/m3) at a depth of 2
m below ground level. The water
table is also at a depth of 2 m from
the ground level. If the water table
rises by 1 m, calculate the
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Shallow Foundation
percentage reduction in the
ultimate bearing capacity.
(GATE- 97)
Correct Answer: A
26
Question: 6212
A square footing ( 2 m x 2m )is subjected
to an inclined point load, P as shown in
figure below. The Water table is located
well below the base of the footing.
Considering one way eccentricity , the net
safe load carrying capacity of the footing
for a factor of safety of 3.0 is
______________ [GATE-15]
The following factors may be used:
Bearing capacity factors: Nq= 33.3, Nϒ =
37.16; Shape factors: Fqs = Fϒs = 1.314;
depth factors : Fqd = Fϒd = 1.113:
Inclination factors: Fqi = 0.444, Fϒi = 0.02
Correct Answer: 446.7-446.7
27
Question: 6211
Group – I contains representative load
settlement curves for different modes of
bearing capacity failures of sandy soil .
Group – II enlists the various failure
characteristics. Match the load – settlement
curves with the corresponding failure
characteristics. [GATE-14 FN]
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Shallow Foundation
GROUP-I
P.Curve J
Q.Curve K
R.Curve L
GROUP – II
1. No apparent heaving of soil around
the footng
2. Rankine’s passive zone develops
imperfectly
3. Well defined slip surface extends to
ground surface
a. P-1,Q-3,R-2
b. P-3,Q-2,R-1
c. P-3,Q-1,R-2
d. P-1,Q-2,R-3
Correct Answer: A
28
Question: 6208
An embankement is to be constructed with
a granular soil ( bulk unit weight = 20
kN/m3 ) on a saturated clayey silt deposit (
undrained shear strength = 25 kPa).
Assuming undrained general agar failure
and bearing capacity factor of 5.7, the
maximum height (in m ) of the embanked
at the point of failure
is [GATE-12] [GATE-06]
a)7.1
b) 5.0
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Shallow Foundation
c) 4.5
d) 2.5
Correct Answer: A
29
Question: 6207
The unconfined compressive strength of a
saturated clay sample is 54 kPa. ( GATE
–10)
If a square footing of size 4 m x 4 m is
resting on the surface of a deposit of the
above clay , the ultimate bearing capacity
of the footing ( as per Terzaghi’s equation )
is
a)1600 kPa
b) 316 kPa
C) 200 kPa
d) 100 kPa
Correct Answer: C
30
Question: 6206
The unconfined compressive strength of a
saturated clay sample is 54 kPa.
The value of cohesion for the clay is (
GATE –10)
a)Zero
b) 13.5 kPa
c) 27 kPa
d) 54 kPa
Correct Answer: C
31
Question: 6204
A column is supported on a footing as
shown in the figure below. The water table
is at a depth of 10 m below the base of the
footing.
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Shallow Foundation
The safe load (kN) that the footing can
carry with a factor of safety 3 is
a) 282
b) 648
c)945
d) 1269
Correct Answer: C
32
Question: 6203
A column is supported on a footing as
shown in the figure below. The water table
is at a depth of 10 m below the base of the
footing.
The net ultimate bearing capacity ( kN/m2)
of the footing based on Terzaghi’s bearing
capacity equations
( GATE –08)
a) 216
b) 432
c) 630
d) 846
Correct Answer: C
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Shallow Foundation
33
Question: 6202
A test plate 30 cm x 30 cm resting on
asand deposit settles by 10 mm under a
certain loading intensity. A footing 150 cm
x 200 cm resting on the same sand deposit
and loaded to the same load intensity
settles by
( GATE –08)
a)2.0 mm
b) 27.8 mm
c) 3.02 mm
d) 50.0 mm
Correct Answer: B
34
Question: 6201
The bearing capacity of a rectangular
footing of plan dimension 1.5 m x 3m
resting on the surface of a sand deposit
was estimated as 600 kN/m2 when the
water table is far below the base of the
footing. The bearing capacities in kN/m2
when the water level rises to depths of 3
m,1.5 m, and 0.5 m below the base of the
footing are ( GATE –07)
a) 600,600,400
b) 600,450,350
c) 600,500,250
d) 600,400,250
Correct Answer: A
35
Question: 6200
A strip footing ( 8m wide) is designed for a
total settlement of 40 mm.The safe bearing
capacity ( shear) was 150 kN/m2 and safe
allowable soil pressure was 100 kN/m2. Due
to importance of the structure, now the
footing to be redesigned for total
settlement of 25 mm. The new width of
footings will be ( GATE –05)
a)5 m
b) 8 m
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Shallow Foundation
c) 12 m
d) 12.8 m
Correct Answer: D
36
Question: 6198
A plate load test was conducted in sand on
a 300 mm diameter plate. If the plate
settlement was 5 mm at a pressure of 100
kpa, the settlement ( in mm) of a 5m x 8m
rectangular footing at the samepressure
will be( GATE –01)
a)9.4
b) 18.6
c) 12.7
d) 17.8
Correct Answer: D
37
Question: 6197
Two footings, one circular and the other
aquare, are founded on the surface of a
purely cohesionless soil. The diameter of
the circular footing is same as that of the
side of the square footing . The ratio of
their ultimate bearing capacities is( GATE
–00)
a)3/4
b) 4/3
c) 1.0
d) 1.3
Correct Answer: A
38
Question: 6196
The ultimate bearing capacity of a soil is
300 kN/m2. The depth of foundation is 1m
and unit weight of soil is 20 kN/m3.
Choosing a factor of safety of 2.5, the net
safe bearing capacity is ( GATE –00)
a)100 kN/m2
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Shallow Foundation
b) 112 kN/m2
c) 80 kN/m2
d) 100.5 kN/m2
Correct Answer: B
39
Question: 6195
Net ultimate bearing capacity of a footing
embedded in a clay stratum [GATE-15]
A. Increases with depth of footing only
B. Increase with size of footing only
C. Increases with depth and size of
footing
D. Is independent of depth and size of
footing
Correct Answer: D
40
Question: 6194
Four columns of a building are to be
located within a plot size of 10 m x 10 m.
the expected load on each column is 4000
kN. Allowable bearing capacity of the soil
deposit is 100 kN/m2. The type of
foundation best suited is [GATE 2013]
A. Isolated footing
B. Raft foundation
C. Pile foundation
D. Combined footing
Correct Answer: A
41
Question: 6193
Likelihood of general shear failure for an
isolated footing in sand decrease
with [GATE-11]
A. Decrease footing depth
B. Decrease inter – granular packing
of the sand
C. Increasing footing width
D. Decreasing soil grain
compressibility
Correct Answer: B
42
Question: 6192
Two circular footing of diameters D1 and D2
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Shallow Foundation
are resting on the surface of the purely
cohesive soil. The ratio of their gross
ultimate bearing capacities is ( GATE – 04)
a)D1/D2
b) 1.0
c) D12D22D
d) D2/D1
Correct Answer: B
43
Question: 6191
In a plate load test conducted on
cohesionless soil, a 600 mm square test
plate settles by 15 mm under a load
intensity of 0.2N/mm2. All conditions
remaining the same, settlement of a 1m
square footing will be
( GATE –
03)
a. Less than 15 mm
b. Greater than 25 mm
c. 60 mm
d. 20.50 mm
Correct Answer: D
44
Question: 6190
The following two statements are made
with reference to the calculation of net
bearing capacity of a footing In pure clay
soil ( φ = 0) using Terzaghi’s bearing
capacity theory. Identify if they are TRUE or
FALSE. ( GATE – 01)
I.Increase in footing width will result in
increase in bearing capacity.
II.Increase in depth of foundation will result
in higher bearing capacity
1. Both statements are TRUE
2. Both statements are FALSE
3. I is TRUE but II is FALSE
4. I is FALSE but II is TRUE
Correct Answer: B
45
Question: 6189
The width and depth of a footing are 2 m
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Shallow Foundation
and 1.5 m respectively. The water table at
the site is at a depth of 3 m below the
ground level . The water table correction
factor for the calculation of the bearing
capacity of soil is ( GATE – 01)
a)0.875
b) 1.000
c) 0.925
d) 0.500
Correct Answer: A
46
Question: 6188
A braced cut, 5 m wide and 7.5 m deep is
proposed in a cohesionless soil deposit
having effective cohesion c’ =0 and and
effective friction angle ?’=36o row of struts
is to be installed at a depth of 0.5 m below
ground surface and spacing between the
struts should be 1.5 m. If the horizontal
spacing of struts is 3 m and unit weight of
the deposit is 20 kN/m3, the maximum
strut load will be
( GATE – 03)
A)70.87kN
B)98.72 kN
C) 113.90 kN
D) 151.86 kN
Correct Answer: C
47
Question: 6081
A footing 2m x 1 m exerts a uniform
pressure of 150 kn/m2 on the soil.
Assuming a load dispersion of 2 vertical to
1 horizontal, the average vertical stress
(kn/m2) at 1.0 m below the footing is
(GATE-08)
a) 50
b) 75
c) 80
d) 100
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Shallow Foundation
Correct Answer: A
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Deep Foundation
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16230
A timber pile of length 8m and diameter of
0.2m is driven with a 20 kN drop hammer,
falling freely from a height of 1.5m. The
total penetration of the pile in the last 5
blows is 40mm. Use the engineering news
record expression. Assume a factor of
safety of 6 and empirical factor (allowing
reducing in the theoretical set, due to
energy losses) of 2.5 cm. The safe load
carrying capacity of the pile (in kN, round
off to 2 decimal places) is __.[GATE 2019
AN]
Correct Answer: 151.5-151.5
2
Question: 16148
A reinforced concrete circular pile of 12m
length and 0.6 m diameter is embedded in
stiff clay which has an undrained unit
cohesion of 110 kN/m2. The adhesion factor
is 0.5. The Net Ultimate Pullout (Uplift)
Load for the pile (in kN, round off to 1
decimal place is) is _________ [GATE 2019
FN]
Correct Answer: 1244.07-1244.07
3
Question: 13436
It is proposed to drive H-piles up to a depth
of 7 m at a construction site. The average
surface area of the H-pile is 3 m2 per meter
length. The soil at the site is homogeneous
sand, having an effective friction angle of
32°. The ground water table (GWT) is at a
depth of 2 m below the ground surface.
The unit weights of the soil above and
below the GWT are 16 kN/m3 and 19
kN/m3 , respectively. Assume the earth
pressure coefficient, K= 1.0, and the angle
of wall friction, . δ=23 ° The total axial
frictional resistance (in kN, up to one
decimal place) mobilized on the pile
against the driving is________ [GATE 2017
FN]
Correct Answer: 390.7-390.7
4
Question: 13217
It is proposed to drive H-piles up to a depth
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Deep Foundation
of 7 m at a construction site. The average
surface area of the H-pile is 3 m2 per meter
length. The soil at the site is homogeneous
sand, having an effective friction angle of
32°. The ground water table (GWT) is at a
depth of 2 m below the ground surface.
The unit weights of the soil above and
below the GWT are 16 kN/m3 and 19
kN/m3, respectively. Assume the earth
pressure coefficient, K= 1.0, and the angle
of wall friction, . δ= 23° The total axial
frictional resistance (in kN, up to one
decimal place) mobilized on the pile
against the driving is [GATE-17 FN]
Correct Answer: 390-390
5
Question: 13216
Two identical concrete piles having the
plan dimensions 50 cm x 50 cm are driven
into a homogeneous sandy layer as shown
in the figures. Consider the bearing
capacity factor Nq for φ = 30 ° as 24.
If QP1 and QP2 represent the ultimate point
bearing resistance of the piles under dry
and submerged conditions, respectively,
which one of the following statements is
correct ?
[GATE 2017 AN]
(A) Qp1>Qp2 byabout 100%
(B) Qp1<Qp2 by about 100%
(C) Qp1>Qp2 byabout 5%
(D) Qp1<Qp2 byabout 5%
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 13215
For the ( 3 x 3) pile group shown In the
figure, the settlement of pile group, in a
normally consolidated clay stratum having
properties as shown in the figure, will
be(GATE-03)
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Deep Foundation
a)13.2 mm
b) 12.775 mm
c) 7.345 mm
d) none of these.
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 12254
A group of nine piles in a 3 × 3 square
pattern is embedded in a soil strata
comprising dense sand underlying recently
filled clay layer, as shown in the figure. The
perimeter of an individual pile is 126 cm.
The size of pile group is 240 cm × 240 cm.
The recently filled clay has undrained shear
strength of 15 kPa and unit weight of 16
kN/m3 (GATE 2018 AN)
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Deep Foundation
The negative friction load (in kN,up to two
decimal places ) acting on the pile group is
___
Correct Answer: 472.00 -472.50
8
Question: 12187
A 0.5 m × 0.5 m square concrete pile is to
be driven in a homogeneous clayey soil
having undrained shear strength, cu= 50
kPa and unit weight, γ = 18.0 kN/m3. The
design capacity of the pile is 500 kN. The
adhesion factor α is given as 0.75. The
length of the pile required for the above
design load with a factor of safety of 2.0
is (GATE 2018FN)
(A) 5.2 m
(B) 5.8 m
(C) 11.8 m
(D) 12.5 m
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 6238
A group of 16 piles ( diameter = 50 cm,
length = 14 m, center to centre spacing =
1m) arranged in a square pattern passes
through a recent fill ( thickness = 3m)
which is consolidating under the fill load
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Deep Foundation
and rest is a stiff clay strata. All the strata
are saturated.The soil properties of
different strata are(GATE-02)
Estimate the ultimate load carrying
capacity (Qg) of the pile group.
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 6237
A group of 16 piles ( 4 in each row ) was
installed in a layered clay soil deposit
shown below. The diameter of each pile is
500 mm and their c/c distance is 1 m. The
length of the pile group is 18 m . Estimate
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Deep Foundation
the safe load capacity of the group with a
factor of safety of 2.50.The adhesion
factors (α) between the pile and soil in
each soil layer are shown in the figure.
(GATE-01)
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 6236
Estimate the load carrying of a single bored
pile 20 m long, 500 mm diameter. The
adhesion coefficient (α) is 0.4. Take factor
of safety of 2.5. The soil strata is as follows.
(GATE-98)
Assume, φu = 0 is valid and Nc = 9, for
deep foundations.
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Deep Foundation
Correct Answer: 668.80 KN-668.80 KN
12
Question: 6235
A pile of diameter 0.4 m is fully embedded
in a clay stratum having 5 layers, each 5
m thick as shown in the figure below.
Assume a constant unit weight of soil as 18
kN/m3 for all the layers. Using λ- method (
λ= 0.15 for 25 m embedment LENGTH)
snd neglecting the end bearing
componenet, the ultimate pile capacity ( in
kN) is _____________ [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 1625.77-1625.77
13
Question: 6234
A single vertical friction pile of diameter
500 mm and length 20 m is subjected to a
vertical compressive load. The pile is
embedded in a homogenous sandy stratum
where;angle of internal friction (φ) =
30o,dry unit weight (ϒd) = 20 kN/m3 and
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Deep Foundation
angle of wall friction ( δ) = 2φ/3.
Considering the coefficient of lateral earth
pressure (K) = 2.7 and the bearing
capacity factor (Nq )= 25, the ultimate
bearing capacity of the pile capacity ( in
kN) is ________________ [GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 6150-6190
14
Question: 6233
A singly under – reamed ,m lomg, RCC pile
( shown in the adoining figure ) weighing
20 kN with 350 mm shaft diameter and 750
mm under – ream diameter is installed
within stiff, saturated silty clay
(
undrained shear strength is 50 kPa,,
adhesion factor is 0.3, and the applicable
bearing capacity factor is 9 ) to counteract
the impact of soil swelling on a structure
constructed above. Neglecting suction and
the contribution of the under – ream to the
adhesive shaft capacity, What would be the
estimated ultimate tensile capacity (
rounded off to the nearest integer value of
kN ) of the pile? [GATE-11]
a) 132 kN
b) 156 kN
c)287 kN
d) 301 kN
Correct Answer: D
15
Question: 6232
The ultimate load capacity of a 10 m long
concrete pile of square cross section 500
mm x 500 mm driven into a homogenous
clay layer having undrained cohesion
value of 40 kPa is 700 kN. If the cross
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Deep Foundation
section of the pile is reduced to 250 mm x
250 mm and the length of the pile is
increased to 20 m, the ultimate load
capcity will be (GATE-10)
a) 350 kN
b) 632.5 kN
c) 722.5 kN
d) 1400 kN
Correct Answer: B
16
Question: 6231
Examine the test arrangement and the soil
properties given below
The maximum resistance offered by the
soil through skin friction while pulling cut
the pile from the ground is [GATE-09]
a)104.9 kN
b)209.8 kN
c) 236 kN
d) 472 kN
Correct Answer: A
17
Question: 6230
Examine the test arrangement and the soil
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Deep Foundation
properties given below
The maximum pressure that can be applied
with a factor of safety of 3 through the
concrete block, ensuring no bearing
capacity failure in soil using Terzaghi’s
bearing capacity equation without
considering the shape factor, depth factor
and inclined factor is [GATE-09]
a) 26.67 kPa
b) 60 kPa
c) 90 kPa
d) 120 kPa
Correct Answer: B
18
Question: 6229
A precast concrete pile is driven with a 50
kN hammer failing through a height of 1.0
m eith an efficiency of 0.6. The set value
observed is 4 mm per blow and the
combined temporary compression of the
pile , cushion and the ground is 6 mm. As
per modified Hiley formula the ultimate
resistance of the pile is [GATE-09]
a) 3000 kn
b) 4285.7 kN
c) 8333 kn
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Deep Foundation
d) 11905kN
Correct Answer: B
19
Question: 6228
A pile of 0.50 m diameter and length 10 m
is embedded in a deposit of clay. The
undrained strength parameters of the clay.
The undrained strength parameters of the
clay are cohesion = 60 kN/m2 and the
angle in internal friction = 0. The skin
friction capacity ( kN) of the pile for an
adhesion factor of 0.6 is (GATE-08)
a) 671
b) 565
c) 283
d) 106
Correct Answer: B
20
Question: 6227
. What is the ultimate capacity in KN of the
pile group shown in the figure assuming
the group to fail as a single block?
(GATE-07)
a) 921.6
b) 1177.6
c) 2438.6
d) 3481.6
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Deep Foundation
Correct Answer: D
21
Question: 6226
Match List – I with List – II and select the
correct answer using the codes given
below the lists:
LIST – I (GATE-07)
A.Constant head permeability test
B.Consolidation test
C.Pycnometer test
D.Negative skin friction
LIST – II
1. Pile foundation
2. Specific gravity
3. Clay soil
4. Sand
Codes:
A
B
C
D
A) 4
3
2
1
B) 4
2
3
1
C) 3
4
2
1
1
2
3
D) 4
Correct Answer: A
22
Question: 6225
For the soil profile shown in figure below,
the minimum number of precast concrete
piles of 300 mm diameter required to
safety carry the load for a given factor of
safety of 2.5 ( assuming 100% efficiency
for the pile group ) is equal to [GATE-06]
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Deep Foundation
a)10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
Correct Answer: C
23
Question: 6224
A group of 16 piles of 10 m length and 0.5
m diameter is installed in a10 m thick stiff
clay layer underlain by rock. The pile – soil
adhesion factor is 0.4; average shear
strength of soil on the sides is 100 kpa;
undrained shear strength of the soil at the
base is also 100 kPa .
Assuming 100% efficiency, the group side
resistance is (GATE – 04)
a)5026.5 kN
b) 10000.0kN
c) 10053.1 kN
d) 20106.0 kN
Correct Answer: C
24
Question: 6223
A group of 16 piles of 10 m length and 0.5
m diameter is installed in a10 m thick stiff
clay layer underlain by rock. The pile – soil
adhesion factor is 0.4; average shear
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Deep Foundation
strength of soil on the sides is 100 kpa;
undrained shear strength of the soil at the
base is also 100 kPa .
The base resistance of a single pile is
(GATE-04)
a)40.00 kN
b) 88.35 kN
c) 100.00kN
d) 176.71 KN
Correct Answer: D
25
Question: 6221
Identify the two TRUE statements from the
following four statements. (GATE-01)
I. Negative skin friction is higher on
floating piles than on end bearing
piles.
II. All other things being the same in
footings on sand, the footing with
smaller width will have lower
settlement at the same net
pressure.
III. The void ratio of soil is always less
than 1.0
IV. For determining the depth of
embedment of anchored sheet
piles, net moment at the anchor
elevation is set to zero.
a)I & IV
b) I & III
c) II & IV
d) II & III
Correct Answer: C
26
Question: 6220
The action of negative skin friction on the
pile is to[GATE-14 FN]
A. Increase the ultimate load on the
pile
B. Reduce the allowable load on the
pile
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Deep Foundation
C. Maintain the working load on the
pile
D. Reduce the settlement of the pile
Correct Answer: B
27
Question: 6219
Negative skin friction in a soil is considered
when the pile is constructed through a
(GATE-05)
A. Fill material
B. Dense coarse sand
C. Over consolidated stiffy clay
D. Dense fine sand
Correct Answer: A
28
Question: 6218
The group efficiency of pile group
(GATE-00)
A. Will be always less than 100%
B. Will be always greater than 100%
C. May be less than 100% or more
than 100%
D. Will be more than 100% for pile
groups in cohesion less soils and
less than 100% for those in
cohensive soils.
Correct Answer: A
29
Question: 6217
Well foundation are commonly used as
foundation for the following
structures:(GATE-97)
A. Water tanks
B. Bridges
C. Buildings
D. Reciprocating machines
Correct Answer: B
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Soil sampling and investigation and s
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16219
The dimensions of a soil sampler are given
in the tale.
For this sampler, the outside clearance
ratio (in percent, round off to 2 decimal
places) is _________.[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 11.11-11.11
2
Question: 16163
For the following statements:
P – The lateral stress in the soil while being
tested in an oedometer is always at-rest.
Q – For a perfectly rigid strip footing at
deeper depths in a sand deposit, the
vertical normal contact
R – The corrections for overburden
pressure and dilatancy are not applied to
measured SPT-N values in case of clay
deposits.
The correct combination of the statements
is [GATE 2019 FN]
(A) P – TRUE; Q – TRUE; R– TRUE
(B) P – FALSE; Q – FALSE; R – TRUE
(C) P – TRUE; Q– TRUE; R– FALSE
(D) P – FALSE; Q– FALSE; R – FALSE
Correct Answer: C
3
Question: 13850
the standard plate size in a plate bearing
test for finding modulus of subgrade
reaction (k) value is
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Soil sampling and investigation and s
[ GATE -00]
A.100 cm diameter.
B.50 cm diameter
C.75 cm diameter
D.25 cm diameter
Correct Answer: C
4
Question: 13502
In the consolidated undrained triaxial test
on a saturated soil sample, the pore water
pressure is zero [GATE 2016 FN]
(A) during shearing stage only
(B) at the end of consolidation stage only
(C) both at the end of consolidation and
during shearing stages
(D) under none of the above conditions
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 12243
Three soil specimens (Soil 1, Soil 2 and Soil
3), each 150 mm long and 100 mm
diameter, are placed in series in a constant
head flow set-up as shown in the figure.
Suitable screens are provided at the
boundaries of the specimens to keep them
intact. The values of coefficient of
permeability of Soil 1, Soil 2 and Soil 3 are
0.01, 0.003 and 0.03 cm/s, respectively.
(GATE 2018 AN)
The value of h in the set-up is
A.0 mm
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Soil sampling and investigation and s
B.40mm
C.255mm
D.560mm
Correct Answer: B
6
Question: 12224
Which one of the following statements is
NOT correct? (GATE 2018 AN)
(A) When the water content of soil lies
between its liquid limit and plastic limit, the
soil is said to be in plastic state.
(B) Boussinesq’s theory is used for the
analysis of stratified soil.
(C) The inclination of stable slope in
cohesive soil can be greater than its angle
of internal friction.
(D) For saturated dense fine sand, after
applying overburden correction, if the
Standard Penetration Test value exceeds
15, dilatancy correction is to be applied.
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 12178
A core cutter of 130 mm height has inner
and outer diameters of 100 mm and 106
mm, respectively. The area ratio of the
core cutter (in %, up to two decimal places)
is (GATE 2018FN)
Correct Answer: 12.26-12.26
8
Question: 6248
Group I enlists in-situ field tests carried out
for soil exploration, while Group –II
provides a list of parameters for sub-soil
strength characterization. Match the type
of tests with characterization parameters.
[GATE-14 AN]
Group – I
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Soil sampling and investigation and s
P.pressuremeter Test ( PMT)
Q.Static cone penetration test ( SCPT)
R.Standard Penetration Test (SPT)
S.Vane shear test
GROUP – II
1. Menard’s modulus (Em)
2. Number of blows(N)
3. Skin friction(fc)
4. Undrained cohesion (Cu)
a. P-1; Q- 3;R-2;S-4
b. P-1;Q – 2;R-3;S-4
c. P-2;Q-3;R – 4;S – 1
d. P- 4;Q – 1;R – 2; S- 3
Correct Answer: A
9
Question: 6247
During the subsurface investigations for
design of foundations, a standard
penetration test was conducted at 4.5 m
below the ground surface. The record of
number of blows is given
below. (GATE-05)
Assuming the water table at ground level,
soil as fine sand and correction for
overburden as 1.0, the corrected ‘N’ value
for the soil would be
A ) 18
b)19
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Soil sampling and investigation and s
c)21
d)33
Correct Answer: C
10
Question: 6246
In the context of collecting undisturbed soil
samples of high quality using a spoon
sampler, following statement are made.
(GATE – 04)
I) Area ratio should be less than 10%
II) Clearance ratio should be less than 1%
With reference to above statements, which
of the following applies?
A. Both the statements are true
B. Statement II is true but I is false
C. Statement I is true but II is False
D. Both the statements are false
Correct Answer: C
11
Question: 6245
Match the items of List – I with List – II and
select the correct answer using the codes
given below the lists
( GATE- 03)
List – I
A. Modulus of subgrade reaction
B. Relative density and strength
C. Skin friction and point bearing
resistance
D. Elastic constants
List – II
1. Cyclic pile load test
2. Pressure meter test
3. Plate load test
4. Standard penetration test
5. Dynamic cone penetration test
Codes:
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Soil sampling and investigation and s
Correct Answer: D
12
Question: 6244
Match the List – I ( Boring methods) with
List – II ( Field conditions ) and select the
correct answer using the codes given
below the lists: (GATE-03)
List – I
a. Auger boring
b. Wash boring
c. Percussion Drilling
d. Rotary Drilling
List – II
1. Below water table in all soil types
except hard soils and rocks
2. Large diameter boreholes over 150
mm in size
3. Exploration for shallow foundations
and highways.
4. Bouldery and gravelly strata
Codes:
A
a. 3
b. 1
c. 2
d. 3
B
1
2
3
1
C
4
4
4
2
D
2
3
1
4
Correct Answer: A
13
Question: 6243
Which of the following statements is TRUE
for degree of disturbance of collected soil
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Soil sampling and investigation and s
sample? [GATE-15]
a. Thinner the sampler wall, lower the
degree of disturbance of collected
soil sample
b. Thicker the sampler wall, lower the
degree of disturbance of collected
soil sample
c. Thickness of the sampler wall and
the degree of disturbance of
collected soil sample are unrelated
d. The degree of disturbance of
collected soil sample is proportional
to the inner diameter of the
sampling tube.
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 6242
The degree of disturbance of the sample
collected by the sampler is expressed by a
term called the “area ratio”. If the outer
diameter and inner diameter of the
sampler are Do and DI respectively, the
area ratio is given by [GATE-14 FN]
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 6241
The observed value of the standard
penetration number (N) at 10 m depth of a
silty sand deposit is 13. The unit weight of
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Soil sampling and investigation and s
the soil is 16 kN/m3. The N value after
correcting for the presence of fines will be
(GATE-02)
A)12
B)13
C) 14
D) 15
Correct Answer: B
16
Question: 6240
Dilatancy correction is required when a
strata is [GATE-09]
A. Cohesive and saturated sand also
has N value of SPT>15
B. Saturated silt/fine sand and N value
SPT < 10 after the overburden
correction
C. Saturated silt/fine sand and N value
( SPT)> 15 after the overburden
correction
D. Coarse sand under dry condition
and N value of SPT
Correct Answer: C
17
Question: 6239
The number of blows observed in a
standard penetration Test ( SPT) for
different penetration depths are given as
follows. [GATE-07]
The observed N value is
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Soil sampling and investigation and s
a)8
b) 14
c) 18
d)24
Correct Answer: C
18
Question: 6205
A plate load test is carried out on a 300
mm x 300 mm plate placed at 2m below
the ground level to determine the bearing
capacity of a 2 m x 2 m footing placed at a
same depth of 2 m on a homogenous sand
deposit extending 10 m below the ground
level .The ground water table is 3 m below
the ground level. Which of the following
factors doesnot require a correction to the
bearing capacity determined based on the
load test?[GATE-09]
A. Absence of the overburden
pressure during the test
B. Size of the plate is much smaller
tham the footing size
C. Influence of the ground water table
D. Settlement is recorded only over a
limited period of one or two days
Correct Answer: D
19
Question: 6187
An anchored sheet pile driven to a shallow
depth will have (GATE-02 )
1. Free earth support
2. Fixed earth support
3. Roller support
4. Anchored support
Correct Answer: A
20
Question: 6142
In a triaxial test carried out on a
cohesionless soil sample with a cell
pressure of 20 kPa, the observed value of
applied deviator stress at the point of
failure was 40 kpa. The angle of internal
friction of the soil is (GATE-02)
a)10o
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Soil sampling and investigation and s
b) 15o
c) 25o
d) 30o
Correct Answer: C
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ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEEIRNG
 WATER DEMAND
……………………………564-572
 QUALITY CONTROL OF WATER
…………………………….573-615
 SEDIMENTATION
…………………………….616-636
 MISCELLANEOUS TREATMENT METHOS ……………………..637-643
 DISINFECTION
…………………………….644-648
 DISTRIBUTION SYSTEM
……………………………649-650
 ESTIMATION OF SEWAGE
…………………………….651-653
 CHARACTERSTICS OF SEWAGE
…………………………654-665
 PRIMARY AND ANAEROBIC TREATMENT …………………….666-676
 ACTIVATED SLUDGE PROCESS
 TRICKLING FILTER
………………….677-688
…………………….689-689
 OXIDATION PONDS
…………………………..690-690
 DISPOSAL OF SEWAGE
………………………………..691-693
 SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT
………………………………694-697
 AIR POLLUTION
……………………………698-707
 NOISE POLLUTION
…………………………….708-710
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water demand
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 6292
The lakes having medium productivity
levels with medium growth of algae and
turbidity are usually known as
a. Mesotrophic lakes
b. Oligotrophic lakes”
c. Europhic lakes
d. Senescent lakes
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 6291
which of the following contains water with
large amount of turbidity
a) lakes
b)oceans
c)rivers
d)wells
Correct Answer: C
3
Question: 6290
the construction of impounding reservoir is
required when
a)average annual flow in stream is lower
than average demand
b)the rate of flow in the stream, in dry
season is more than dry demand
c) the rate of flow in the stream, in dry
season is more than dry demand
d) the rate of flow in the stream is equal to
demand
Correct Answer: C
4
Question: 6289
as compared to shallow wells deep wells
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water demand
have
a)more depth
b)more discharge
c) more depth and more discharge
d) more depthbut less discharge
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 6288
the most type of commonly used type of
tube well in India
a)cavity type b)strainer type c)slotted type
d)perforated pipe type
Correct Answer: B
6
Question: 6287
A town of 200.000 population is to be
supplied water from a source 2500 m
away. The lowest water level in the source
is 15 m below the water works of the town.
The demand of water is estimated as 150
lit/capita/day. A pump
of 300 HP is operated for 15 hours. The
maximum demand is 1.5 times the average
demand, the velocity of flow through the
rising main is 1.3m/sec and the pump
efficiency is 70%.
The friction factor for the pipe is
(a) 0.0114
(b) 0.0124
(c) 0.0154
(d) 0.0174
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 6286
A town of 200.000 population is to be
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water demand
supplied water from a source 2500 m
away. The lowest water level in the source
is 15 m below the water works of the town.
The demand of water is estimated as 150
lit/capita/day. A pump
of 300 HP is operated for 15 hours. The
maximum demand is 1.5 times the average
demand, the velocity of flow through the
rising main is 1.3m/sec and the pump
efficiency is 70%.
The hydraulic gradient is
8
(a) 1 in 400
(c) 1 in 600
(b) 1 in 500
(d) 1 in 700
Question: 6285
22 If the average daily consumption of a
city is 100,000 m3, the maximum daily
consumption on peak hourly demand will
be
9
(a) 100000 m3
m3
(b) 150000
(c) 180000 m3
m3
(d) 270000
Question: 6284
A two of two lakh population is getting
water at therate of 150 litres per capita
per day from ariver .if the pumps are
working for 12 hours a day to supply full
days demand then maximum draft required
is
(a)0.312 cumecs
(b) 0.625 cumecs
(c) 0.80 cumecs
(d) 1.25 cumecs
Correct Answer: D
10
Question: 6283
. If the population of a city is 1 lakh,
average water consumption is 250 lpcd,
the fire demand is 61 MLD then the
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water demand
capacity of the distribution system should
be
a) 50 MLD
b) 67.5 MLD
c) 106 MLD
d) none
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 6282
If the population of a city is 1 lakh, average
water consumption is 250 lpcd, then the
filters and lift pumps will be designed for
a) 45 MLD
b) 50 MLD
c) 25 MLD
d) 67.5 MLD
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 6281
If the average water consumption of a city
is 300 l.p.c.d. and its population is
4,00,000, the maximum hourly draft of the
maximum day and maximum daily draft
will be
a) 120 MLD and 216 MLD
b) 1216 MLD and 324 MLD
c) 324 MLD and 216 MLD
d) None of these
13
Question: 6280
The population of 5 decades from 1930 to
1970 are given below for a city
Year
1930
1940
1950
1960
Population 25000 28000 34000 42000
If the population of a town in the year 1930
was 25,000 and in the year 1970 was
47000 then population of that town in 2013
using geometric increase method will be
1970
47000
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water demand
(a) 92643
(b) 88359
(c) 85965
(d) 68000
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 6279
Population figure of a place is 50000 in
2010 If average increase in population is
5000 per decade then expected population
of place in 2038 AD in thousands_
Correct Answer: 64-64
15
Question: 6277
find the population at the end of 2011 by
arithmetical increase method?
16
Year
population
1951
1,00,000
1961
1,09,000
1971
1,16,000
1981
1,28,000
Question: 6276
The population of a town is shown below:
Year:
1960
1940
1970
1950
1980
Population: 2,50,000
4,80,500,
5,50,300
6,38,600
6,95,200
It is decided to provide water supply of 200
Ipcd in the year AD 2000. By projecting the
population by the incremental increase
method, the total water requirement in the
year2000 will be
a) 149 MLD
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water demand
b) 161 MLD
c) 174 MLD
d) 182 MLD
Correct Answer: A
17
Question: 6275
The population of a town in three
consecutive decades are: 1 lakh, 1.4 lakh,
1.68 lakh, respectively. The population of
this town in the fourth consecutive decade,
according to geometric method, would be:
[GATE-87]
a) 1.9 lakh
b) 32.184 lakh
c) 2.2 lakh
d) 2.5 lakh
Correct Answer: A
18
Question: 6273
[GATE-87]
Correct Answer: A
19
Question: 6272
If dp1>dp2<dp3 for this types of growth
which method of population forecasting is
used [GATE-87]
a. Arithmetic increase
b. Geometric increase
c. Incremental increase
d. Decremental growth
Correct Answer: C
20
Question: 6271
For old settled communities which one of
the following assumption best fit [GATE-87]
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water demand
Correct Answer: A
21
Question: 6270
In which of the following population
forecasting methods follows
[GATE-87]
(A) Arithmetic increase
(B) Geometric increase
(C) Incremental increase
(D) Decreasing growth
Correct Answer: B
22
Question: 6266
the growth of population can be
represented by [GATE-91]
a) straight line curve .
b) semi-log curve
c) logistic curve
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water demand
d) logarithm curve
Correct Answer: B
23
Question: 6265
the suitable method for forecasting
population for an old developed large city
is [GATE-91]
a) arithmetic mean method
b) geometric mean method
c) comparative graphical method
d) none
Correct Answer: A
24
Question: 6264
coincident draft in relation to water
demand is based on [GATE-91]
a) peak hourly demand
b) maximum daily demand
c) maximum daily demand+fire demand
d) greater of a and b
Correct Answer: A
25
Question: 6262
The populations of a city at previous
consecutive census years was 4,00,000,
5,58,500,7,76,000 and 10,98,500. The
anticipated population at the next census
to the nearest 5,000 would be (GATE-91)
Correct Answer: A
26
Question: 6261
water distribution systems are sized to
meet the (GATE-98)
a) max. hourly demand
b)avg.hourly demand
c)max.daily demand and hourly demand
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water demand
d)avg.daily demand and fire demand
Correct Answer: C
27
Question: 6260
The present population of a community is
28000 with an average water consumption
of 4200 m3 / d. The existing water
treatment plant has a design capacity of
6000 m3 / d. It is expected that the
population will increase to 44000 during
the next 20 years. The number of years
from now when the plant will reach its
design capacity, assuming an arithmetic
rate of population growth, will be
(GATE-2004)
a) 5.5 years
b) 8.6 years
c) 15.0 years
d) 16.5 years
Correct Answer: C
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Quality Control of water
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16229
Consider the reactor shown in the figure.
The concentration (in mg/l) of a compound
in the influent and effluent are Co and C
flow rate through the reactor is Q m3/h. The
respectively. The compound is degraded in
the reactor following the first order
reactions. The mixing condition of the
reactor (CMFR) or a plug-flow reactor (PFR).
The length of the reactor can be adjusted
in these two mixing conditions to LCMFR
and LPER while keeping the cross-section of
the reactor constant. Assuming steady
state and for C/C0 = 0.8, the value of LCMFR
/LPER (round off to 2 decimal places) is
_______
[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 1.12-1.12
2
Question: 16206
Analysis of a water sample revealed that
the sample contains the following species
CO32-,Na+,H+,PO34, Al3+,H2CO3,Cl-,Ca2+
,Mg2+,HCO3-,Fe2+,OHConcentrations of which of the species will
be required to compute alkalinity? [GATE
2019 AN]
1. CO32-,H+,HCO3-OH2. H+,H2CO3,HCO3-,OH3. CO32-,H2CO3,HCO3-,OH4. CO32-,H+,H2CO3,HCO3Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13916
a synthetic sample of water is prepared by
adding 100 mg kaolinite (a clay mineral )
200 mg glucose ,168 mg Nacl,120mg
MGS04, and 111 mgcacl2 to 1 liter of pure
water ,the concentrations of total soilds(TS)
and fixed dissolved solids (FDS)
respectively in the solution in mg/l are
equal to [GATE-06]
A.699 and 599
B.599 and 399
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Quality Control of water
C.699 and 199
D.699 and 399
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 13881
excessive fluoride in drinking water
causes(GATE-98)
A.Alzhemer's disease
B.Mottling of teeth and embrittlement of
bones
C.Methemoglobinemia
D.Skin cancer
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 13880
the microbial quality of treated piped water
supplies is monitored by (GATE-98)
A.Microscopic examination
B.Plate count of heterotropic bacteria
C.Coliform MPN test
D.Identification of all pathogens
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 13827
In natural water ,hardness is mainly caused
by [GATE -02]
A.Ca++ and Mn++
B..Ca++ and Fe++
C.Na++ and K++
D.Ca++ and Mg++
Correct Answer: D
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Quality Control of water
7
Question: 13708
A soil is composed of solid spherical grains
of identical specific gravity and diameter
between 0.075 mm and 0.0075 mm. If the
terminal velocity of the largest particle
falling through water without flocculation is
0.5 mm/s, that for the smallest particle
would be [GATE-11]
(A) 0.005 mm/s
(B) 0.05 mm/s
(C) 5 mm/s
(D) 50 mm/s
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 13655
Match the given water properties in Group-I
to the given titrants shown in Group-II
[GATE 2013]
(A) P-3,Q-4,R- 1,3,S-2
(B) P -3,Q- 1,R-4,S-2
(C) P- 3,Q- 2,R- 1,S-4
(D) P- 1,Q- 2,R- 3,S-4
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 13475
The analysis of a water sample produces
the following results:
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Quality Control of water
The total hardness (in mg/L, as CaCO3) of
the water sample is____[GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 300-300
10
Question: 13265
For a water sample the total alkalinity is
200 mg/1 as CaC03. The Ca++ is 120 mg/1,
Mg++ is 60 mg/1. What is total hardness,
Carbonate hardness, non - carbonate
hardness.
TH=
CH=
NCH=
Correct Answer: 550,200,350
11
Question: 12228
As per IS 10500:2012, for drinking water in
the absence of alternate source of water,
the permissible limits for chloride and
sulphate, in mg/L, respectively are (GATE
2018 AN)
(A) 250 and 200
(B) 1000 and 400
(C) 200 and 250
(D) 500 and 1000
Correct Answer: B
12
Question: 12205
A water sample analysis data is given
below.
The carbonate hardness (expressed as
mg/L of CaCO3, up to one decimal place)
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Quality Control of water
for the water sample is ______(GATE
2018-1)
Correct Answer: 273.406
13
Question: 9188
Two samples of water, A and B have pH
values of 4.4 and 6.4 respectively. How
many times more acidic is sample A than
sample B? [GATE-99][[APPSC AEE
2012] [SSC JE 2009
(1) 0
(2) 50
(3) 100
(4) 200
Correct Answer: C
14
Question: 6447
The reaction of soda ash (Na2,CO3) with
calcium sulphate in water is represented by
the following chemical statement
Na2Co3+CaSo4→ CaCo3+Na2S04
Assuming that their reaction is complete
and that there is 153 mg/l of CaSo4 initially
present what is the mass of soda ash that
must be added to 1 MI of water
a. 153 kg
b. 25kg
c. 136 kg
d. 106kg
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 6425
The predominant process of coagulation in
waters of very high turbidity is
(a) Ionic layer compression
(b) Adsorption and charge neutralization
(c) Sweep coagulation
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Quality Control of water
(d) Interparticle bridging
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 6424
Match list I with list II and select the answer
using the codes given below
LIST-I
LIST-II
(a)turbidity
1.Ton
(b) pathogens
2.TCU
(c) odour
3.JTU
(d) Colour
4.MPN
Codes
A
B
C
D
(a) 2
1
4
3
(b) 3
1
4
2
(c) 2
4
1
3
(d) 3
4
1
2
Correct Answer: A
17
Question: 6423
As per IS 10500 :1991, the maximum
permissible limit of chromium in drinking
water is
(a) 0.01 mg/L
(b) 0.001 mg/L
(c) 0.005 mg/L
(d) 0.05 mg/L
Correct Answer: A
18
Question: 6422
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Quality Control of water
which of the following is not correctly
matched:
A.BOD
sewage
1.strength of
B.methane
2.product of
anerobic decomposition
C. COD
3.biodegradability of waste water
D.nitrate
4.methemoglobinemia
Correct Answer: C
19
Question: 6421
B-coli or E –coli is harmless but their
presence in water indicates
a)presence of pathogenic bacteria
b) absence of pathogenic bacteria
c) presence of non pathogenic bacteria
d) absence of non pathogenic bacteria
Correct Answer: A
20
Question: 6420
suspended impurities include
a)algae
b)protozoa
c)fungi
d)all
Correct Answer: D
21
Question: 6419
if coliform bacteria is present in water then
the coliform test conducted is to be
1.presumptive test
2.confirmed test
3.completed test
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The correct answer is
a)1 only
b)both 1.2
c)2 only
d)all
Correct Answer: D
22
Question: 6418
when fluoride concentration in water
exceeds 1.5mg/l or so, disease that may be
caused is
a)methemoglobinemia
b)flurosis
c)dental carries in children
d)polimyelitis
Correct Answer: B
23
Question: 6417
the only metal among the following which
is toxic to human beings is
a)calcium
b)iron
c)arsenic
d)magnesium
Correct Answer: C
24
Question: 6416
the apparatus in which the measurement
of turbidity is based on the intensity of light
scattered as it passes straight through
water sample is called
a)spectrometer
b)tintometer
c)turbid meter
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Quality Control of water
d)nephelometer
Correct Answer: D
25
Question: 6415
bacteria which causes diseases are called
a)anerobic bacteria
b)facultative bacteria
c)aerobic bacteria
d)none
Correct Answer: D
26
Question: 6414
Ph is a symbol for concentration
a)magnesium
b)hydrogen
c)calcium
d)sodium
Correct Answer: B
27
Question: 6413
when lead is present in water ,it
a)changes its colour
b)causes turbidity
c)causes alkalinity
d)none
Correct Answer: D
28
Question: 6412
the presence of ------- causes red colour in
water
a)iron
b)manganese
c)sodium flouride
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Quality Control of water
d)calcium carbonate
Correct Answer: A
29
Question: 6411
colloidal impurities if associated with
organic matter having bacteria becomes
the chief source of
a)hardness
b)epidemic
c)alkalinity
d)bad taste
Correct Answer: B
30
Question: 6410
suspended impurities consists of
a)iron
b)chlorine
c)bacteria
d)all
Correct Answer: C
31
Question: 6409
the main disadvantage of hard water is
that
a)contains lot of turbidity
b)has bad odour and taste
c)contains pathogenic bacteria
d)more consumption of soap
Correct Answer: D
32
Question: 6408
the bacteria which survives in the presence
as well as in the absence of oxygen is
called
a)anerobic
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b)aerobic
c)facultative
d)coliform
Correct Answer: C
33
Question: 6407
the turbidity which can be seen easily with
naked eye is of the order of
a)1 JTU
b)2JTU
c)3JTU
d)5JTU
Correct Answer: D
34
Question: 6406
the specific conductivity of water helps in
knowing the extent of
a)oxygen
b)hydrogen
c)nitrogen
d)carbon dioxide
Correct Answer: C
35
Question: 6405
suspended solids should not be present in
water, because
a)they cause turbidity
b)they provide absorption sites for
biological and chemical agents
c)they are aesthetically displeasing
d)all
Correct Answer: D
36
Question: 6404
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Quality Control of water
Total Kjeldahl nitrogen is a measure
of [GATE-04]
(a)total organic nitrogen
(b)total organic and ammonia nitrogen
(c)total ammonia nitrogen
(d)total inorganic and ammonia nitrogen
Correct Answer: A
37
Question: 6403
Which one of the following organisms is
responsible for enteric fever?
(a) ECHO
(b) Salmonella typhi
(c) Entamoeba histolytica
(d) Echinococcus
Correct Answer: A
38
Question: 6402
The lime can be used to precipitate
a. Carbonate hardness
b. Non - Carbonate hardness
c. Calcium non- Carbonate hardness
d. Both carbonate and non-carbonate
hardness
39
Question: 6401
Which one of the following tests of
water/wastewater employs Erichrome Black
T as an indicator?
(a) Hardness
(b) COD
(c) Residual chlorine
(d) DO
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Quality Control of water
Correct Answer: A
40
Question: 6400
Alkalinity in water is exposed as milligrams
per litre in terms of equivalent
a. Calcium carbonate
b. Magnesium carbonate
c. Sodium carbonate
d. Calcium hydroxide
41
Question: 6399
If the total hardness and alkalinity of a
sample of water are 400 mg/l and 200 mg/l
(caco3 scale) respectively,then its
carbonate and non-carbonate hardness (in
units of mg/L) will be respectively
a. 400
b. 200
c. 200
d. 400
42
and
and
and
and
200
200
zero
zero
Question: 6397
What is the theoretical oxygen demand of
300 mg/lit of glucose. (If molecular weight
of glucose is 180 & O2 is
192)____________________ mg/1
Correct Answer: A
43
Question: 6396
If total hardness and alkalinity of a water
sample are 200 mg/lit as caco3 and 260
mg/lit as caco3 respectively .what are the
values of carbonate hardness and non
carbonate hardness?
a. 200 mg/lit and zero
b. Zero and 60 mg/lit
c. Zero and 200 mg/lit
d. 10 mg/lit and zero
Correct Answer: A
44
Question: 6394
Quality parameter of rain water from
different sources are given below:
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Quality Control of water
Water drawn from which of the above
sources can be tolerated for drinking
without any treatment
a) A and B
b) B andC
c) C only
d) D only
Correct Answer: A
45
Question: 6393
A 50 ml of water sample is filtered through
an empty dry filter paper whose initial
weights is 1.8 gm. After over drying its final
weight measured to be 1.82 gm. Find
concentration of suspended solids in mg/l
a) 200 mg/l
b) 400 mg/l
c) 100 mg/l
d) 1000 mg/l
46
Question: 6392
If the pH of the water sample is 9. Then OH
concentration in water in mg/lit
(A)10-5
(B)10-9
(C) 17
(D) 0.17
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Quality Control of water
Correct Answer: A
47
Question: 6391
A raw water contains MgSO4 of 100 mg/lto
treat the water slaked lime (85% purity)
and soda ash (90% purity) are required.
water requirement is 80000 l/d.
the soda ash required per year will be
a)3.31tons
b)2.58 tons
c)2.86tons
d)3.67tons
Correct Answer: C
48
Question: 6390
A raw water contains MgSO4 of 100mg/lto
treat the water slaked lime (85% purity)
and soda ash (90% purity) are required.
water requirement is 80000l/d.
the total slaked lime required per year will
be
a)5.57tons
b)2.12tons
c)1.80tons
d)3.82
Correct Answer: B
49
Question: 6389
the total quantity of lime(Cao) required
with a purity of 70%
a)27.4kg/day
b)51.72kg/day
c)39.14kg/day
d)36.2 kg/d
Correct Answer: C
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Quality Control of water
50
Question: 6388
A raw water is coagulated with dosage of
34mg/l of ferrous sulphate (FESo4.7H2o)and
an equivalent dosage of lime.
the total quantity of ferrous sulphate
needed per day is
a)112kg
b)168kg
c)68kg
d)136kg
Correct Answer: D
51
Question: 6387
A sample of water contains 200mg/l
alkalinity as caco3.40mg/l hardness as cacl2
and 60mg/l hardness as MGSO4..to treat 1
million lit. of water. the quantity of soda
ash required is
a)53kg
b)38.2kg
c)91.2kg
d)none
Correct Answer: C
52
Question: 6386
the analysis of water sample indicated the
following results in mg/l
Ca=70
mg=60
HCO3=250.then
the non carbonate hardness in terms of
caco3 in mg/l is approximately equal to
a)425
b)205
c)220
d)380
Correct Answer: C
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Quality Control of water
53
Question: 6385
If for diluting 25 ml of water sample 175 ml
of taste free water is required to be added
to make the water sample to just loose its
taste, then the flavor threshold number
(FIN) will be
a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
Correct Answer: A
54
Question: 6384
The results of analysis of a sample of water
are given below:
Turbidity: 10mg/l
Colour: Slightly yellowish
pH : 7.4
Taste and odour : Inky taste
Total dissolved solids : 450 mg/1 Total
hardness : 200 mg/1 Chlorides: 100 mg/1
Sulphates: 200 mg/1
Fluorides: 0.5 mg/1
Nitrates: 30 mg/1
Calcium: 75 mg/1
Magnesium: 20 mg/1
Iron : 3.0 mg/1
From the data given above, it can be
inferred that the water needs
a) no treatment except disinfection
b) treatment for the removal of iron and
hardness and disinfection
c) treatment for the removal of colour,
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Quality Control of water
taste and odour
d) treatment for the removal of iron, taste
and odour and disinfection
55
Question: 6383
If 50 ml of water is diluted with 150 ml of
distilled water to produce perceptible
odour, Then TON of sample
a) 4
b) 3
c) 5
d)2
Correct Answer: A
56
Question: 6382
A 25 ml of sample of treated waste water
requires 175 ml of odor free distilled water
to reduce the odor to a level that is just
perceptible. What is the threshold odor
number (TON) for the waste water sample?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
d)16
Correct Answer: C
57
Question: 6381
permissible limits:
A 50 ml of sample of treated waste water
requires 200 ml of odor free distilled water
to reduce the odor to a level that is just
perceptible. What is the threshold odor
number (TON) for the waste water sample?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 8
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d)5
Correct Answer: D
58
Question: 6380
a standard multiple tube formation test
was conducted on a sample of water. The
results of the analysis for the confirmed
test are given below
Using the above index table what is the
MPN of the sample
a)280
b)33
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c)26
d)7
Correct Answer: C
59
Question: 6379
In the E-coli test the following dilutions of
water sample are tested and results are
found to be positive
1:1
1:100
1:10
1:150
Then the E –coli index of the sample is
a)150
b)100
c)0
d)10
Correct Answer: A
60
Question: 6378
The table below shows multiple tube
fermentation test results:
The total amount of sample in negative
tubes is
a) 1.234 ml
b) 1.111 ml
c) 10 ml
d) none
Correct Answer: A
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61
Question: 6377
The product of H+ ions and OH- ions in a
stronger acid is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 10-7
d) 10-14
Correct Answer: A
62
Question: 6376
A water having pH value equal to 9 will
have hydrogen ion concentration equal to
a) 10-9 moles/litre
b) 109 moles/litre
c)10-5 moles/litre
d) 105 moles/litre
Correct Answer: A
63
Question: 6374
what is the equivalent caco3 concentration
of 110mg/l of cacl2
a)50mg/l b)58.5mg/l c)100mg/l d)117mg/l
Correct Answer: C
64
Question: 6373
what is the equivalent caco3 concentration
of 2x10-3 mol/lit of NACL?
a)100mg/l
b)50mg/l
c)200mg/l
d)0.1mg/l
Correct Answer: A
65
Question: 6372
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Quality Control of water
A standard multiple tube fermentation test
is run on a sample of water from a suraface
stream. the results of the analysis for the
confirmed test are shown below
a) 1700
b) 390
c)280
d) 2800
Correct Answer: A
66
Question: 6371
If OH- ion concentration in water is 17 mg/l
then Ph of the water sample is
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a) 11
b) 3
c) 9
d) 5
67
Question: 6370
. if the PH value of water is 9,the alkalinity
caused by OH—in mg/l as caco3 is
a)0.5 b)5 c)0.17 d)0.005
Correct Answer: C
68
Question: 6368
In a water treatment plant, the pH values
of a incoming and outing waters are 7.2
and 8.4 respectively. If variation of pH with
time is linear then average pH values of
water is?
a) 8.47
b) 7.477
c) 9.242
d) 6.47
69
Question: 6366
The concentration of OH- ion in a water
sample is measured as 17 mg/l at 25o C.
What is the pH of the water sample?
a.
b.
c.
d.
70
10
11
12
13
Question: 6365
The resultant pH of two electrolytic
solutions, one with a pH of 6.0 and the
other with a pH of 8.0 is
a) 14.0
b) 2.0
c) 3.62
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Quality Control of water
d) 5.29
71
Question: 6364
Read the Passage And Answer the
Questions
If 100 cc water sample is draw over a
container whose initial dry weight is found
to be 53.426 gm after won drying @ 103°c
for 5 hrs its final weight measured to be
53.486 gm. After oven drying the
container, then it is kept in muffle furnace
for 4 hrs. @ 800°c. Then after its weight
measured to be 53.436 gm.
Volatile solids concentration in water
(A) 300 mg/1
(B) 400 mg/1 13.
(C) 500 mg/1
(D) 600 mg/1
1. A) (A)
2. C) (C)
3. B) (B)
4. D) (D)
Correct Answer: A
72
Question: 6363
Read the Passage And Answer the
Questions
If 100 cc water sample is draw over a
container whose initial dry weight is found
to be 53.426 gm after won drying @ 103°c
for 5 hrs its final weight measured to be
53.486 gm. After oven drying the
container, then it is kept in muffle furnace
for 4 hrs. @ 800°c. Then after its weight
measured to be 53.436 gm.
Find total solids concentration in water
(A) 300 mg/1
(B) 400 mg/1
500 mg/1
(D) 600 mg/1
(C)
1. A) (A)
2. B) (B)
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3. C) (C)
4. D) (D)
73
Question: 6362
The concentration of stroncium (Sr) is
equivalent to a hardness of 2.52 mg/L and
the carbonate alkalinity in this water is
zero.
Calculate the total hardness, carbonate
hardness and non carbonate hardness in
mg/L as CaC03.
TH=
74
CH=
NCH=
Question: 6361
The analysis of a sample of water shows
the following results in mg/L:
Na=20: K=30; Ca=7; Mg=12
Cl=40; HCO3=68; SO4=7; N03=12
Find NCH,CH,alkalinity
75
Question: 6360
The analysis of water from a well showed
the following results in mg/L,
Ca=65. Mg=51,HC03=248.
find total hardness, carbonate hardness
and non carbonate hardness
TH=
76
CH=
NCH=
Question: 6359
The chemical analysis of water sample
indicates the presence of cations as follows
Na+= 20 mg/L Ca++= 45 mg/L;Mg++=60
mg/L,HCO3 =248,SO4= 220, CL 79.2.
Compute total hardness, carbonate
hardness and non - carbonate hardness
equivalent 10 CaCo3.
T.H=
C.H=
NCH=
Correct Answer: A
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Quality Control of water
77
Question: 6358
In a water sample, Co3— ions= 90 mg/L,
HC03- ions = 61 mg/L. What is alkalinity of
the water sample in mg/1 as CaC03.?
a)200
b)50
c)100
d)20
Correct Answer: A
78
Question: 6356
Water is considered 'hard' if its hardness is
of the order of
a) 50 ppm
b) 100 ppm
c) 150 ppm
d) over 200 ppm
Correct Answer: A
79
Question: 6355
One American degree of hardness is equal
to
14. a) 1 ppm b) 10 ppm c) 14.25 ppm
d) 17.15 ppm
80
Question: 6353
If the total hardness and alkalinity of a
sample of water are 300 mg/l and 100 mg/l
(CaC03 scale) respectively, then its
carbonate and non-carbonate hardness (in
units of mg/1) will be respectively
a) 100 and 200
b) 400 and 300
c) 100 and 400
d) 400 and zero
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Correct Answer: A
81
Question: 6350
Hardness:
Read the Passage And Answer the
Questions
The concentration of hardness and
alkalinity causing components are given
below.[GATE-93]
.
Soda ash required in mg/1 water
softening
(A) 102 mg/l
(B) 142 mg/l
(C) 162 mg/l
(D) 202 mg/l
Correct Answer: A
82
Question: 6349
Hardness:
Read the Passage And Answer the
Questions
The concentration of hardness and
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Quality Control of water
alkalinity causing components are given
below.
. Lime required in mg/l for water softening
[GATE-93]
(A) 200 mg/l
(B) 252 mg/l
(C) 292 mg/l
(D) 212 mg/l
Correct Answer: A
83
Question: 6348
Bacteriological examinations of E-coli is
performed because [GATE-93]
a) They are pathogenic causing intestinal
diseases
b) Their presence indicates viral
contamination of water
c) they are used as indicator organisms for
probable presence of pathogen
d)they represent unique indicator
organisms for sewage pollution
Correct Answer: C
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Quality Control of water
84
Question: 6343
The Ca2+ concentration and Mg2+
concentration of a water sample arc 160
mg/l and 40 mg/l as their ions
respectively. the total hardness of this
water sample in terms of CaCo3 in mg/l is
approximately equal to[GATE -01]
a) 120
b)200
c)267
d)567
Correct Answer: D
85
Question: 6342
In natural water, hardness is mainly caused
by [GATE -02]
a) Ca
++
and Mn
b) Ca ++ and Fe
c) Na
+
d) Ca
++
and K
++
++
+
and Mg
++
Correct Answer: D
86
Question: 6341
Results of a water sample analysis are as
follows [GATE -03]
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Quality Control of water
(milli equivalent weight of
caco3)=50mg/meq.
Hardn
ess of the water sample in mg/l as CaCO3 is
(a.) 44.8
(b.) 89.5
(c.) 179
(d.) 358
Correct Answer: C
87
Question: 6340
The results of analysis of a raw water samp
le are given below[GATE -03]
Turbidity : 5mg/l
pH : 7.4
Fluorides:2.5mg/l
Total Hardness:300mg/l
Iron : 3.0mg/l
MPN : 50 per 100ml
From the data given above, it can be inferr
ed that water needs removal of
(a.) turbidity followed by disinfection
(b.) fluorides and hardness
(c.) iron, followed by disinfection
(d.) fluorides, hardness and iron followed b
y disinfection
Correct Answer: D
88
Question: 6339
Zero hardness of water is achieved by
[GATE -03]
(a.) lime soda process
(b.) excess lime treatment
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Quality Control of water
(c.) ion exchange treatment
(d.) excess alum and lime treatment
Correct Answer: C
89
Question: 6337
A water treatment plant treating 10Mld of
wate
r requires
20mg/l of filter Alu
m, Al2(SO4.18 H2O. The water
has 6mg/l of alkalinity as CaCO3.
(Al = 26.97, S = 32, C = 16, H = 1, Ca = 40
, and C = 12).
quantity of lime required (106 mg per year
cao)shall be[GATE -03]
Solve the problems and choose correct ans
wer.
(a.) 2132
(b.) 3000
(c.) 4132
(d.) 6132
Correct Answer: A
90
Question: 6336
A water treatment plant treating 10 Mld of
water requires 20mg/l of filter Alum,
Al2(SO4.18 H2o O. The water has 6mg/l of
alkalinity as CaCO3.
(Al = 26.97, S = 32, C = 16, H = 1, Ca =
40, and C = 12).
total alkalinity of requirement (106 mg per
day as caco3) matching filter shall be
[GATE -03]
(a.) 180
(b.) 120
(c.) 90
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Quality Control of water
(d.) 60
Correct Answer: A
91
Question: 6335
The organism, which exhibits very nearly th
e characteristics of an ideal pathogenic indi
cator is(GATE-04)
(a.) Entamoeba histolytica
(b.) Escherichia coli
(c.) Salmonella typhi
(d.) Vibrio comma
Correct Answer: B
92
Question: 6334
Hardness of water is directly measured by t
itration with ethylene-di-aminetetracetic acid (EDTA) using(GATE-04)
(a.) eriochrome black T indicator
(b.) ferroin indicator
(c.) methyl orange indicator
(d.) phenolphthalein indicator
Correct Answer: A
93
Question: 6333
Most of the turbidity meters work on the
scattering principle. The turbidity value so
obtained is expressed in (GATE-04)
(a) CFU
(b) FTU
(c) JTU
(d) NTU
Correct Answer: D
94
Question: 6330
If tomato juice is having a pH of 4.1, the hy
drogen ion concentration will be[GATE-05]
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a)10.94 x10-5mol/lit
b)9.94 x10-5mol/lit
c)8.94 x10-5mol/lit
d)7.94 x10-5mol/lit
Correct Answer: D
95
Question: 6327
ListI contains some properties of water/was
te water and ListII contains list of some test
s on water/waste water. (GATE-05)
Match the property with corresponding
test.
List-I
1. Suspendedsolids concentration
2. Metabolismof biodegradable organi
cs
3. Bacterialconcentration
4. Coagulantdose
List-II
1. BOD
2. MPN
3. Jartest
4. Turbidity
Codes :
P
Q
R
S
(a.)
2
1
4
3
(b.)
4
1
2
3
(c.)
2
4
1
3
(d.)
4
2
1
3
Correct Answer: B
96
Question: 6326
TCU is equivalent to the colour produced
by (GATE-05)
(a) 1 mg/L of chloroplatinate ion
(b)1 mg/L of platinum ion
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(c)1 mg/L platinum in form of
chloroplatinate ion
(d)1 mg/L of organo-chloroplatinate ion
Correct Answer: A
97
Question: 6323
A water contains the following dissolved io
ns:
[ Na ] = 56 mg/ l ;
[ Ca2+] = 40 mg/l
;
[Mg2+] = 30 mg/l
;
[ Al3+] = 3 mg/l
[HCo3- ] = 190 mg/ ;
[Cl3- ] = 165 mg/
Water pH is 7.
Atomic weights : Ca =40; M g=: 24; Al=
27; H = 1; C= 12; O=16; Na= 23; Cl= 35.5
The non-carbonate hardness of the sample
in mg/l as CaCO3 is [GATE-06]
(a.) 225
(b.) 156
(c.) 86
(d.) 0
Correct Answer: C
98
Question: 6322
A water contains the following dissolved io
ns:
[ Na ] = 56 mg/ l ;
[ Ca2+] = 40 mg/l
[Mg2+] = 30 mg/l
;
;
[ Al3+] = 3 mg/l
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[HCO3-] = 190 mg/ ;
[Cl3- ] = 165 mg/
Water pH is 7.
Atomic weights : Ca =40; M g = 24; Al =
27; H=: 1; C=: 12; O=: 16; Na= 23; Cl=
35.5
The total hardness of the sample in mg/l a
s CaCO3 is [GATE-06]
(a.) 484
(b.) 450
(c.) 242
(d.) 225
Correct Answer: C
99
Question: 6321
A synthetic sample of water is prepared by
adding 100mg Kaolinite (a clay mineral), 2
00mg glucose,168mg NaC1, 120mg
MgSo4, and 111mg cacl2 to 1 liter of pure
water. The concentrations of totalsolids (TS
) and fixed dissolved solids (FDS) respectiv
ely in the solution in mg/l are equal to [GAT
E-06]
(a.) 699 and 599
(b.) 599 and 399
(c.) 699 and 199
(d.) 699 and 399
Correct Answer: A
100
Question: 6319
Solve the problems and choose correct ans
wers.(2006)
A water contains the following dissolved io
ns:
[Na] = 56 mg/l; [Ca] = 40 mg/l;
[Mg] = 30 mg/l; [Al ] = 3 mg/l;
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[HCO] = 190 mg/l; [Cl3−] = 165 mg/l
Water pH is 7.
Atomic weights : Ca : 40; M g : 24; Al
: 27; H : 1; C : 12; O : 16; Na : 23; Cl : 35.5
The non-carbonate hardness of the sample
in mg/l as CaCO3 is [GATE-06]
(a.) 225
(b.) 156
(c.) 86
(d.) 0
Correct Answer: B
101
Question: 6318
Solve the problems and choose correct ans
wers. [GATE-06]
[Na] = 56 mg/l; [Ca] = 40 mg/l;
[Mg] = 30 mg/l; [Al ] = 3 mg/l;
[HCO] = 190 mg/l; [Cl3-] = 165 mg/l
Water PH is 7.
Atomic weights : Ca : 40; M g : 24; Al
: 27; H : 1; C : 12; O : 16; Na : 23; Cl : 35.5
The total hardness of the sample in mg/l
as CaCO3
(a.) 484
(b.) 450
(c.) 242
(d.) 225
Correct Answer: C
102
Question: 6317
The presence of hardness in excess of per
missible limit causes [GATE-07]
(a.) cardio vascular problems
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(b.) skin discolouration
(c.) calcium deficiency
(d.) increased laundry expenses
Correct Answer: D
103
Question: 6316
The alkalinity and the hardness of a water s
ample are 250 mg/l and 350 mg/l as CaCo3
, respectively.The water has [GATE-07]
(a.) 350 mg/l
carbonate hardness and zero noncarbonate hardness
(b.) 250 mg/l
carbonate hardness and zero noncarbonate hardness
(c.) 250 mg/l
carbonat
e hardness and 35
0 mg/l non-carbonate hardness
(d.) 250 mg/l
carbonat
e hardness and 10
0 mg/l non-carbonate hardness
Correct Answer: D
104
Question: 6315
A waste water sample contains 10-5.6 m
mol/ l of OH ions at 250 C. The PH of this
sample is (2008)
(a.) 8.6
(b.) 8.4
(c.) 5.36
(d.) 5.4
Correct Answer: D
105
Question: 6314
Match List I (Estimation method) with List II
(Corresponding indicator) and select the
correctanswer using the codes given below
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Quality Control of water
the list (2008)
List-I
P.Azidemodified Winkler method for dissol
ved oxygen
Q.Dichromatemethod for chemical
oxygen demand
R.EDTAtitrimetric method for hardness
S.Mohr or Argentometric method for
chlorides
List-II
1. EriochromeBlack T
2. Ferroin
3. Potassiumchromate
4. Starch
P
Q
R
S
(a.)
3
2
1
4
(b.)
4
2
1
3
(c.)
4
1
2
3
(d.)
4
2
3
1
Correct Answer: B
106
Question: 6311
Following chemical species were reported
for water sample from a well: [GATE-09]
Alkalinity present in the water in mg/L as
CaCO3 is
(A) 250
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(B) 1500
(C) 1750
(D) 5000
Correct Answer: C
107
Question: 6310
Following chemical species were reported
for water sample from a well: [GATE-09]
Total hardness in mg/L as CaCO3 is
(A) 1500
(B) 2000
(C) 3000
(D) 5000
Correct Answer: A
108
Question: 6309
Ion concentration s obtained for a ground
water sample (PH=8.1) are given (2010)
Carbonate hardness (mg/L as CaCO3)
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present in the above water sample is
(A) 205
(B) 250
(C) 275
(D) 289
Correct Answer: C
109
Question: 6308
Ion concentration s obtained for a ground
water sample (PH=8.1) are given (2010)
Total hardiness (mg/L as CaCO3) present in
the above water sample is
(A) 205
(B) 250
(C) 275
(D) 308
Correct Answer: A
110
Question: 6304
A water sample has a pH of 9.25. The
concentration of hydroxyl ions in the water
sample is [GATE-12] [GATE-06]
(A) 10-9.25moles/L
(B) 10-7.75mmoles/L
(C) 0.302 mg/L
(D) 3.020 mg/l
Correct Answer: C
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Quality Control of water
111
Question: 6302
some of the quality parameters are
measured by titrating a water sample with
a itrant. Group-1 gives a list of parameters
and group- ii gives a list of titrants (GATE
2013).
Codes:
(a) P–3 Q–4 R–1 S–2
(b) P–3 Q–1 R–4 S–2
(c) P–3 Q–2 R–1 S–4
(d) P–1 Q–2 R–3 S–4
Correct Answer: B
112
Question: 6301
For a sample of water with the ionic
composition shown in the figure below, the
carbonate and non-carbonate hardness
concentrations ( in mg/l as CaCo3),
respectively are: [GATE-14 FN]
A. 200 and 50
B. 175 and 75
C. 75 and 175
D. 50 and 200
Correct Answer: A
113
Question: 6299
Some of the non-toxic metal normally
found in natural water are [GATE-14 FN]
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(a) Arsenic, Lead, Mercury
(b) Calcium, Sodium, Silver
(c) Cadmium, chromium, copper
(d) Iron, Mangnese, Magnesium
Correct Answer: D
114
Question: 6298
the potable water is prepared from turbid
surface water by adopting the foil
treatment square [GATE-14 FN]
(a) turbid surface water→Coagulation→
Flocculation→
Sedimentation→Filtration→Disinfection→
Storage and supply
(b) Turbid surface water→Disinfection→Floc
culation→Sedimentation→
Filteration→Coagulation→Storage and
supply
(c) Turbid surface water→Filteration
→Sedimentation→Disinfection
→Flocculation→Coagulation
(d) Turbid surface water→Sedimentation→Fl
occulation→Coagulation→Disinfection→filter
ation
Correct Answer: A
115
Question: 6296
A groundwater sample was found to
contain 500 mg/L total dissolved solids
(TDS). TD$ (in %) present in the sample
is________________ . [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 0.05-0.05
116
Question: 6295
A sample of water has been analyzed for
common ions and results are presented in
the form of a bar diagram as shown.[GATE
2016 FN]
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Correct Answer: 40
117
Question: 6294
Effluent from an industry 'A' has a pH of
4.2. The effluent from another industry 'B'
has double the hydroxyl (OH-) ion
concentration than the effluent from
industry 'A'. pH of effluent from the
industry 'B' will be __________ [GATE 2016
FN]
Correct Answer: 4.5-4.5
118
Question: 6293
The hardness of a ground water sample
was found to be 420 mg/L as CaCo3. A
softener containing Ion exchange resins
was installed to reduce the total hardness
to 75 mg/L as CaCo3before Supplying to 4
households. Each household gets treated
water at a rate of 540 L/day. If the
Efficiency of the softener is 100%, the
bypass flow rate (expressed in L/day) is
_____ (2016e)
Correct Answer: 385-385
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Sedimentation
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16158
Sedimentation basin in a water treatment
plant is designed for a flow rate of 0.2 m3/s.
The basin is rectangular with a length of
32m, width of 8m, and depth of 4m.
Assume that the settling velocity of these
particles is governed by the Stokes? law.
Given: density of the particles = 2.5 g/cm3;
density of water = 1 g/cm3; dynamic
viscosity of water = 0.01 g/(cm.s);
gravitational acceleration =980 cm/s2. If
incoming water contains particles of
diameter 25 µm (spherical and uniform),
the removal efficiency of these particles is
[GATE 2019 FN]
(A) 78%
(B) 51%
(C) 100%
(D) 65%
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 13912
design parameters for rapid mixing units
are [GATE-97]
A.velocity gradient and the volume of
mixing basin
B.viscosity and velocity gradient
C.viscosity,velocity gradient and the
volume of the mixing basin
D.detention time and viscosity of water
Correct Answer: C
3
Question: 13266
a water treatment plant is required to
process 28800 m3/d of raw water
(density=2000 kg/m3,kinematic
viscosity=10-6 m2/s the rapid mixing
imparts a velocity gradient of 9000 s-1 to
blend 35 mg/l of alum with the flow for a
detension time of 2 min .The power input
(W) required for rapid mixing is [GATE-08]
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Sedimentation
A.32.4
B.36
C.324
D.32400
Correct Answer: D
4
Question: 13260
pathogens are usually removed
by[GATE-97]
A.chemical precipitation
B.sedimentation
C.activated sludge process
D.chlorination
Correct Answer: D
5
Question: 13259
consider a primary sedimentation tank
(PST) in a treatment plant with surface
overflow rate (SOR) of 40 m3/m2/d .The
diameter of the spherical particle which will
have 90 percent theoretical removal
efficiency in this tank is____µm.Assume
that settling velocity of the particles in
water is described by stoke's law given
density of water =1000 kg/m3.density of
particle =2650 kg/m3,g=9.81
kg/m2.kinematic viscosity of water
(v)=1.10 x 10-6 m2/s [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 20-24
6
Question: 13257
A water supply board is responsible for
treating 1500 m3/day of water. A settling
column analysis indicates that an overflow
rate of 20 m/day will produce satisfactory
removal for a depth of 3.1 m. It is decided
to have two circular settling tanks in
parallel. The required diameter (expressed
in m) of the settling tanks is __________
(2016-2)
Correct Answer: 6.9-6.9
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Sedimentation
7
Question: 11438
The design parameter for floculation is
given by a dimentionless constant Gt,
where G is the velocity gradient, t is the
detension time. The value of Gt ranging
from 104 to 105 are commonly used with t
ranging from 10 to 30 min. The most
prefered combination of G and t to produce
smaller and denser flocs is
[GATE-04]
a)Large G values with short t
b)Large G values with long t
c)small G values with short t
d)small G values with large t
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 11433
A municipal corporation is required to
treat 1000 m3/day of water .it is found that
an overflow rate of 20 m/day will produce a
satisfactory removal of the discrete
suspended particles at a depth 3m.the
diameter (in meters ,rounded to the
nearest integer ) of a circular settling tank
designed for the removal of these particles
would be _______
[GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 8-8
9
Question: 10102
for a flow of 5.7 MLD and a detention time
of 2 hours ,the surface area of a
rectangular sedimentation tank to remove
all particles having settling velocity of 3.33
mm g-1 is (GATE-98) [APPSC OBSERVERS
2013]
A.20m2
B.100m2
C.200m2
D.400m2
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Sedimentation
Correct Answer: C
10
Question: 6690
A water treatment plant is required to proc
ess 28800 m /d of raw water (density1000
kg/m ),kinematic vicosity = 10 m /s). The
rapid mixing tank imparts a velocity gradie
nt of 900 sto blend35mg/l of alum with the
flow for a detention time of 2 minutes. The
power input (W) required forrapid mixing is
(2008)
(a.) 32.4
(b.) 36
(c.) 324
(d.) 32400
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 6540
The disinfection efficiency of chlorine in
water treatment(GATE-00)
(a) is not dependent on pH value.
(b) is increase by increased pH value.
(c) remains constant at all pH values.
(d) is reduced by increased pH value.
Correct Answer: D
12
Question: 6500
Type – II settling in water treatment is
defined as
a) Settling of discrete particles in dilute
suspensions
b) Settling of flocculent particles in dilute
suspensions
c) Settling of flocculent particles in
concnentrated suspensions
d) Settling of particles in the form of a
sludge blanket
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Sedimentation
Correct Answer: A
13
Question: 6499
What is the most important design
parameter used in the design of a
continuous flow rectangular sedimentation
tank for the removal of discrete particles
a) Length of the tank
b) Surface overflow rate
c) Depth of the tank
d) Temperature
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 6497
If the length of the settling basin is 72 m
and horizontal flow velocity os 0.34 m/min
.Find DT
a. 2
b. 1
c. 3
d. 4
hr
hr
hr
hr
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 6496
Find terminal settling velocity of 0.02 mm
dia particle with specific gravity 2.7 settling
in water @ temperature of 200C is
a. 369 mm/sec
b. 69 mm/sec
c. 369 cm/sec
d. 69 cm/sec
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 6495
A rectangular sedimentation basin to treat
a flow of 12000 m3/day designed for 4hrs,
and with L:B of 4:1
Find the weir loading rate
a) 1200 m3/day
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Sedimentation
b) 800 m3/m-day
c) 1333.33 m3/m-day
d)980 m3/m-day
Correct Answer: A
17
Question: 6494
A rectangular sedimentation basin to treat
a flow of 12000 m3/day designed for 4hrs,
and with L:B of 4:1
A rectangular sedimentation basin to treat
a flow of 12000 m3/day designed for an
overflow rate of 20 m3/m2/day with a
detention time of 4 hours and with L:B of
4:1
a) 40,10,4
b) 60,15,5
c) 36,9,3
d) 49,12.25,3.33
Correct Answer: A
18
Question: 6493
Calculate the discrete settling velocity of
0.05 mm dia particle with specific gravity
of 2.65 at 20o C/Kinematic viscosity of
water @ 200C is 1.004 x 10 -6 m2/sec
a. 24 mm/sec
b. 45 mm/sec
c. 245 mm/sec
d. 42 mm/sec
Correct Answer: A
19
Question: 6492
Surface loading rate for which
sedimentation tank designed is 18
m3/day/m2 to handle a flow of 3600 m3/day
,then surface area of tank _____m2
Correct Answer: A
20
Question: 6491
raw water entering an ideal horizontal
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Sedimentation
settling tank contains following types of
particles
When the surface overflow rate of settling
tank is 3m3/m2/hr.the particle
concentration settled will be(in mg/l)
a)100
b)200
c)300
d)400
Correct Answer: B
21
Question: 6487
a sedimentation tank (6m wide ,15m
long,3m water depth)is treating 2MLD of
water.
if 70mg/l is the concentration of turbidy,the
amount of dry solids deposited the tank
per day with 70% tank efficiency is
a)98kg
b)140kg
c)70kg
d)49kg
Correct Answer: A
22
Question: 6486
a sedimentation tank (6m wide ,15m
long,3m water depth)is treating 2MLD of
water
detention time is
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Sedimentation
a)4.26h
b)3.84h
c)4.8h
d)3.24h
Correct Answer: D
23
Question: 6485
a sedimentation tank (6m wide ,15m
long,3m water depth)is treating 2MLD of
water.
the surface overflow rate is
a)858 lit/hr/m2
b)926 lit/hr/m2
c)1028 lit/hr/m2
d)none
Correct Answer: B
24
Question: 6482
coagulants used in water treatment
function better when raw water is
a)acidic
b)alkaline
c)neutral
d)none
Correct Answer: B
25
Question: 6481
the most widely use coagulant for water
treatment is
a)lime and soda
b)ferrous sulphate
c)chlorinated copperas
d)alum
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Sedimentation
Correct Answer: D
26
Question: 6480
the velocity of flow in sedimentation tank is
about
a)50-100mm/sec
b)150-300mm/sec
c)150-300mm/min
d)150-300mm/hour
Correct Answer: C
27
Question: 6479
the sedimentation process in water
treatment involves settling of impurities in
a tank under the action of
a)sun rays
b)gravitational force
c)biological action
d)velocity of flow
Correct Answer: B
28
Question: 6478
flowing through period of sedimentation
tank, when compared to its detention
time is always
a)more
b)less
c)equal
d)none
Correct Answer: B
29
Question: 6475
A sedimentation tank is to be designed to
treat one lakh cum of water per day. If the
settling velocity of the particles to be
removed is 20 m/day, then the area of tank
required is
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Sedimentation
a) 1000m2
b) 3000m2
c) 5000m2
d) 6000m2
Correct Answer: A
30
Question: 6474
A rectangular sedimentation tank is to
handle 10 MLD of raw water. A detention
basin of width to length ratio 1/3 is
proposed to trap all particles larger than
0.04mm in size. Compute the basin
dimensions. If the depth of tank is 3.5m,
calculate the detention time. Assume
relative density as 2.65 for the particles
and 20°C as average temperature.
Correct Answer: A
31
Question: 6472
A settling tank has 26 m in dia. with a 2.10
m side water depth. Effluent weir is located
on the periphery of the tank. For a water
flow of 13000 m3/day
The detention time available is
a) 2.41 hrs
b) 3.56 hrs
c) 4.2 hrs
d) 1.86 hrs
Correct Answer: A
32
Question: 6471
If allowable overflow rate is 500 lit/hr/m2
and L:B = 4:1, then the length required for
the tank is
a) 18.5m
b) 24.5 m
c) 27.5 m
d) 36.5 m
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Sedimentation
Correct Answer: A
33
Question: 6470
A rectangular sedimentation tank is
treating 1.8 MLD of raw water with a
detention period of 4 hours.
The volume of the tank required is
a) 180 m3
b) 260 m3
c)300m3
d)360m3
Correct Answer: A
34
Question: 6469
For a given discharge, the efficiency of a
sedimentation tank can be increased by:
a) increasing the depth of the tank
b) decreasing the depth of the tank
c) increasing surface area of the tank
d) decreasing the surface area of the tank
Correct Answer: A
35
Question: 6468
For a rectangular sedimentation tank the
length to width ratio should preferably be
a) 1 : 1
b) 2 : 1
c) 4 : 1
d) 10 : 1
Correct Answer: A
36
Question: 6465
A sedimentation tank (6m wide, 15m long
and 3 m water depth is treating 2 MLD of
water. The surface overflow rate and
detention time are
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Sedimentation
a) 858 lit/hr/m2, 4.26 hr
b) 926 lit/hr/m2, 3.24hrs
c) 1028 lit/hr/m2,4.8 hrs
d) None
Correct Answer: A
37
Question: 6462
The alum when mixed with water as a
coagulant,
(a) does not affect pH value of water
(b) decreases pH value of water
(c) increases pH value of water
(d) none of these
Correct Answer: B
38
Question: 6461
in a sedimentation tank, under normal
conditions, impurities are removed up to
(a) 50%
(b) 60%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%
Correct Answer: A
39
Question: 6460
The velocity of flow of water in a
sedimentation tank is about
a) 50 to 100 mm/second
b) 150 to 300 mm / second
c) 150 to 300 mm / minute
d) 150 to 300 mm/hour
Correct Answer: A
40
Question: 6459
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Sedimentation
Surface loading or overflow rate of a
sedimentation tank, passing a discharge Q,
and having length = L, depth =D, Width B, is given by:
a) Q/B.D
b) Q/B.L
c) Q.B.D.
d) Q/B.D.L
Correct Answer: A
41
Question: 6458
a sedimentation tank under normal
conditions can remove suspended
impurities up to say
a)30%
b)50%
c)70%
d)90%
Correct Answer: A
42
Question: 6457
A circular primary clarifier processes an
average flow of 5005m3/d of municipal
waste water. The overflow rate is 35
m3/m2/d. The diameter of clarifier shall
be [GATE-05]
(a) 10.5m
(b) 11.5m
(c) 12.5m
(d) 13.5m
Correct Answer: D
43
Question: 6456
A plain sedimentation tank has dimensions
100 x 50 x 3 m and receives flow 1,00,000
m3/d. Calculate the surface over flow rate
in m3/m2/d and dia of the smallest particle,
which will be removed 100%. Take density
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Sedimentation
of particle = 2.65g/cc,γ=1.02xl0-2cm2/ sec.
Correct Answer: A
44
Question: 6455
A coagulation sedimentation plant clarifies
50 MLD. The dosage of filter alum required
is 16mg/L. If the raw water is having an
alkalinity equivalent to 5mg/L of CaC03,
determine the quantities of filter alum and
quick lime (containing 87% of CaO)
required per year for the plant. Given the
molecular weights as follows (Al = 27, S =
32, 0=16, v H = 1, Ca = 40, C = 12)
Correct Answer: A
45
Question: 6453
Determine the setting velocity of a
spherical particle with a diameter of 100µ
and a specific gravity of 2.3 in eater whose
kinematic viscosity is 0.01 stokes
a. 54 mm/sec
b. 85 mm/sec
c. 085 mm/sec
d. 2 mm/sec
Correct Answer: A
46
Question: 6451
A coagulant treatment plant with a flow of
0.6 m3/sec requires 18 mg/l of alum.the
concentration of suspended solids in inflow
of raw water is 40 mg/l
If the effluent suspended solids
concentration is 12 mg/l.then concentration
(in mg/l) of dry sludge removed is
a. 32
b. 28
c. 68
d. None of the above
Correct Answer: A
47
Question: 6450
A grit chamber of dimensions 12
m*1.54*0.84 liquid depth has a flow of 720
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Sedimentation
m3/hr. It’s surface loading rate and
detention times are respectively.
(a) 40000 m3/hr/m2 and 1.2 min
(b) 40000 lit/hr/m2 and 40 min
(c) 40 m3/hr/m2 and 12 min
(d) 40000 lit/hr/m2 and 1.2 min
Correct Answer: A
48
Question: 6448
A water treatment plant is to process
30000 m3/d .The rapid mixing tank will
blend 35 mg/l of alum with the flow and is
to have a detention time of 2 min.The tank
is to have a square cross section assume
depth =1.5 m,µ=1 x 10-3 N-s/m2
Power in (KW) necessary for a “G” value of
900 s-1
(a)30400 watts
(b)32105 watts
(c) 38419 watts
(d) 39415 watts
Correct Answer: A
49
Question: 6445
flocculation is a process[GATE-97]
a)that removes algae from stabilization on
pond effluent
b)that promotes the aggregation of small
particles in to larger particles to enhance
their removal by gravity
c)that easily removes settleable
solids
d)which is same as filtration
Correct Answer: B
50
Question: 6444
coagulation – flocculation with alum is
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Sedimentation
performed (GATE-98)
a)immediately before chlorination
b)immediately after chlorination
c)after rapid sand filtration
d)before rapid sand filtration
Correct Answer: D
51
Question: 6443
A rectangular sedimentation tank is
designed for a surface overflow rate
(surface loading) of 12,000 lit/hr/m2. What
percent of suspended particles of diameter
[GATE-99]
(a) 0.03mm and
(b) 12mm will be removed in the tank, γ=
0.897mm2/sec and specific gravity of
particles 2.65
Correct Answer: A
52
Question: 6442
Use of coagulants such as alum (GATE-00)
(a) results in reduction of pH of the treated
water.
(b) results in increase of pH of the treated
water.
(c) results in no change in pH of the treated
water.
(d) may cause an increase or decrease of
pH of the treated water
Correct Answer: A
53
Question: 6441
A town has an existing horizontal flow
sedimentation tank with an overflow rate of
17 m3/day/m2, and it is desirable to remove
particles that have settling velocity of
0.1mm/sec. Assuming the tank is an ideal
sedimentation tank, the percentage of
particles removal is approximately equal
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Sedimentation
to [GATE-01]
(a) 30%
(b) 50%
(c) 70%
(d) 90%
Correct Answer: B
54
Question: 6440
The following chemical is used for
coagulation.[GATE -01]
(a) Ammonium Chloride.
(b) Aluminum Chloride.
(c) Aluminum Sulphate.
(d) Copper Sulphate.
Correct Answer: C
55
Question: 6439
For a water treatment plant having a flow
rate of 432 m3/hr, what is the required
plan area of a Type I settling tank to
remove 90% of the particles having a
settling velocity of 0.12 cm/sec is (GATE
2002)
(A) 120 m2
(B) 111m2
(C) 90 m2
(D) 100 m2
Correct Answer: C
56
Question: 6438
An ideal horizontal flow settling basin3m
deep having surface area of 920m2.water
flows at therate
8000m3
/d, at
water temp
erature 20°C (μ= 103 kg/ms and ρ= 1000
kg/m3
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Sedimentation
). Assuming Stoke’slaw to be valid, the pro
portion (percentage) of spherical sand parti
cles (0.01mm in diameter withspecific gravi
ty 2.65), that will be removed, is [GATE-03
]
(a.) 32.5
(b.) 67
(c.) 87.5
(d.) 95.5
Correct Answer: C
57
Question: 6436
The following data are given for a channel-t
ype grit chamber of length 7.5m.(GATE-04)
1. flow-throughvelocity = 0.3m/s
2. thedepth of waste water at flow in t
he channel = 0.9 m
3. specificgravity of inorganic particles
= 2.5
4.g=9.80 m/s2 .β=1.002x10-3N-s/ m2. At
20°c. Assuming that the Stoke’s law is valid
, the largest diameter particle that would b
e removed with 100percent efficiency is
(a.) 0.04mm
(b.) 0.21mm
(c.) 1.92mm
(d.) 6.64mm
Correct Answer: B
58
Question: 6435
circular primary clarifier processes an
average flow of 5005 m3/day of municipal
water. the overflow rate is 35 m3/m2/day.
the diameter of clarifier shall be [GATE-05]
(a.) 10.5m
(b.) 11.5m
(c.) 12.5m
(d.) 13.5m
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Sedimentation
Correct Answer: D
59
Question: 6434
A plain sedimentation tank with a length of
20m, width of 10m, and a depth of 3m is us
ed in a watertreatment plant to treat 4 milli
on liters of water per day (4 M LD). The ave
rage temperature of water is 20°C.The dyn
amic viscosity of water is 1.002 × 103N.s/
Wm2 at 20°C.Density of water is 998.2kg/
m3. Average specific gravity of particles is
2.65. [GATE-07]
What is the minimum diameter of the parti
cle which can be removed with 100% effici
ency in theabove sedimentation tank?
(a.) 11.8 x 10-3 mm
(b.) 16.0 x 10-3 mm
(c.) 50 x 10-3 mm
(d.) 160 x 10-3 mm
Correct Answer: B
60
Question: 6433
A plain sedimentation tank with a length of
20m, width of 10m, and a depth of 3m is us
ed in a watertreatment plant to treat 4 milli
on liters of water per day (4 M LD). The ave
rage temperature of water is 20°C.The dyn
amic viscosity of water is 1.002 ×103
N.s/m2 at 20°C.Density of water is 998.2
Kg/m3. Average
specific gravity of particles is 2.65
. [GATE-07]
What is the surface overflow rate in the sed
imentation tank?
(a.) 20 m3/m2/day
(b.) 40m /m /day
(c.) 67m /m /day
(d.) 133m /m /day
Correct Answer: A
61
Question: 6432
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Sedimentation
A horizontal flow primary clarifier treats
wastewater in-which 10%, 60% and 30% of
particles have settling velocities of 0.1
mm/s, 0.2 mm/s, and 1.0 mm/s
respectively. What would be the total
percentage of particles removed if clarifier
operates at a Surface Overflow Rate (SOR)
of 43.2m3/m2.d? [GATE-09]
(A) 43%
(B) 56%
(C) 86%
(D) 100%
Correct Answer: B
62
Question: 6431
A town is required to treat 4.2 m3/min of
raw water for daily domestic supply.
Flocculating particles are to be produced
by chemical coagulation. A column analysis
indicated that an overflow rate of 0.2 mm/s
will produce satisfactory particle removal in
a settling basin at a depth of 3.5 m. The
required surface area (in m2) for settling
is [GATE-12] [GATE-09] [GATE-06]
(A) 210
(B) 350
(C) 1728
(D) 21000
Correct Answer: B
63
Question: 6429
A surface water treatment plant operates
round the clock with a flaw rate of 35
m3/min. The water temperature is 15°C
and Jar testing indicated and alum dosage
of 25 mg/l with flocculation at a Gt value of
4 × 104 producing optimal results. The
alum quantity required for 30 days (in kg)
of operation of the plant is _________ .
[GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 37800-37800
64
Question: 6428
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Sedimentation
A suspension of sand like particles in water
with particles of diameter 0.10 mm and
below is flowing into a settling tank at 0.10
m3/s. Assume g = 9.81 m/s2, specific
gravity of particles = 2.65,and kinematic
viscosity of water =1.0105×10-2 Cm2/s. The
minimum surface area (in m2) required for
this settling tank to remove particles of
size 0.06 mm and above with 100%
efficiency is [GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 31-32
65
Question: 6352
A water treatment plant treating 10 mld of
water requires 20 mg/l of filter Alum,
Al2(SO4)3. 18H2O. The water has 6 mg/l of
alkalinity as CaCO3 (Al = 26.97, S=32, O =
16, H=1, Ca = 40, and C=12)
Quantity of quick lime required (106mg per
year as CaO) shall be [GATE-03]
a) 2132
b) 3000
c) 4132
d) 6132
Correct Answer: D
66
Question: 6351
A water treatment plant treating 10 MLD of
water requires 20 mg/l of filter Alum,
Al2(SO4)3. 18H2O. The water has 6 mg/l of
alkalinity as CaCO3 (Al = 26.97, S=32, O =
16, H=1, Ca = 40, and C=12)Total
alkalinity requirement (106 mg per day as
CaCO3) matching filter Alum, shall be[GATE
-03]
a) 180 b) 120
c) 90
d)60
Correct Answer: C
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Filtration
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 17201
In a rapid sand filter the time for reaching
particle break through (TB ) is defined the
time elapsed from the start of filter run to
the time at which the turbidity of the
effluent from the filter is greater than 2.5
NTU. The time for reaching terminal head
loss (TH) is defined as the time elapsed
from the start of the filter run to the time
when head loss across the filter is greater
than 3m.
Q.)The effect of increasing the loading rate
(while keeping all other conditions same)
on TB and TH is [GATE-06]
(a.) TB increases and TH decreases
(b.) both TB and TH increase
(c.) TB decreases and TH increases
(d.) both TB and TH decreases
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 17200
In a rapid sand filter the time for reaching
particle break through (TB ) is defined the
time elapsed from the start of filter run to
the time at which the turbidity of the
effluent from the filter is greater than 2.5
NTU. The time for reaching terminal head
loss (TH) is defined as the time elapsed
from the start of the filter run to the time
when head loss across the filter is greater
than 3m.
Q.)The effect of increasing the Filter
depth(while keeping all other conditions
same) on TB and TH is [GATE-06] [GATE-90]
(a.) TB increases and TH decreases
(b.) both TB and TH increase
(c.) TB decreases and TH increases
(d.) both TB and TH decreases
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 16162
A 0.80 m deep bed of sand filter (length 4m
and width 3m) is made of uniform particles
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Filtration
(diameter = 0.40 mm, specific gravity =
2.65, shape factor = 0.85) with bed
porosity of 0.4. the bed has to be
backwashed at a flow rate of 3.60 m3/min.
During backwashing, if the terminal settling
velocity of sand particles is 0.05 m/s, the
expanded bed depth (in m, round off to 2
decimal places) is ______[GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 1.21-1.21
4
Question: 13667
A settling tank is designed for a surface
overflow rate of 30
. Assuming specific gravity of sediment
particles = 2.65, Density of water rw=1000
kg/m3 , dynamic viscosity of water
mwater=0. 001Ns/m2and stokes law is valid.
The approximate minimum size of particles
which can be completely removed is
[GATE 2013]
(A) 0.01 mm
(B) 0.02 mm
(C) 0.03 mm
(D) 0.04
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 13651
A water treatment plant, having discharge
1 m3/sec ,has 14 filters to treat the water.
Each filter is having 50 m2 area, but due
to backwashing activity, 2 filters are non
operational. Calculate hydraulic loading
rate in[GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 144-144
6
Question: 13256
a water treatment plant of capacity ,1
m3/s has filter boxes of dimensions 6mx
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Filtration
10m .loading rate to the filters is 120
m3/day/m2 .when two of the filters are out
of service for back washing .the loading
rate (in m3/day/m2)is ______[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 144-144
7
Question: 12260
At a small water treatment plant which has
4 filters, the rates of filtration and
backwashing are 200 m3/d/m2 and 1000
m3/d/m2, respectively. Backwashing is done
for 15 min per day. The maturation, which
occurs initially as the filter is put back into
service after cleaning, takes 30 min. It is
proposed to recover the water being
wasted during backwashing and
maturation. The percentage increase in the
filtered water produced (up to two decimal
places) would be ______ (GATE 2018 AN)
Correct Answer: 7.75 -7.95
8
Question: 12189
A rapid sand filter comprising a number of
filter beds is required to produce 99 MLD of
potable water. Consider water loss during
backwashing as 5%, rate of filtration as 6.0
m/h and length to width ratio of filter bed
as 1.35. The width of each filter bed is to
be kept equal to 5.2 m. One additional filter
bed is to be provided to take care of breakdown, repair and maintenance. The total
number of filter beds required will be
(GATE 2018FN)
(A) 19
(B) 20
(C) 21
(D) 22
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 11441
A small filter of 0.05 m depth removes 90%
of particles presents in water. If the particle
removal required is 99%. what should be
the depth of filter [GATE-92]
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Filtration
a)0.10 m
(b) 0.50 m
(c) 0.75 m
d) 1.00 m
Correct Answer: D
10
Question: 11436
A water treatment plant is designed to
treat 1m3/s of raw water.it has 14 sand
filters.surface area of each filter is 50
m2.what is the loading rate (in
)with two filters out of service for routine
backwashing?___[GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 144-144
11
Question: 11434
A water treatment of plant of capacity
1m3/s has filter boxes of dimensions 6m x
10m .loading rate to the filters is 120
m3/day/m2 .when two of the filters are out
of service for back washing ,the loading
rate (in m3/day/m2) is___ [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 144-144
12
Question: 6539
The following characteristics pertain to the
sand filters used in water industry.
(GATE-00)
I.Filtration rate is 1 to 4 m3/(m2 day).
II.Typical duration of operation in one run
is 24 to 72 hours.
III.Operating cost is low.
Which of the above characteristics pertain
to slow sand filters?
(a) I, II and III
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Filtration
(b) I and II
(c) II and III
(d) I and III
Correct Answer: D
13
Question: 6538
Aeration of water is done to remove
[GATE-01]
(a) Suspended Impurities
(b) Colour
(c) Dissolved Salts
(d) Dissolved Gases
Correct Answer: D
14
Question: 6537
A Trickling filter is designed to remove:
(GATE 2002)
a)Settleable Solids
b)Colloidal Solids
c)Dissolved Organic Matter
d)None of the above
Correct Answer: C
15
Question: 6533
A city is going to install the rapid sand filter
after the sedimentation tanks.
Use the following data.
Design loading rate to the
filter=200m3/m2/d
Design flow rate=0.5m3/s
Surface area per filter box
= 50m2
The number of filters required shall be [GA
TE-05]
(a.) 3
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Filtration
(b.) 4
(c.) 6
(d.) 8
Correct Answer: C
16
Question: 6532
A city is going to install the rapid sand filter
after the sedimentation tanks.
Use the following data.
Design loading rate to the
filter=200 m3/m2/d
Design flow rate=0.5 m3/s
Surface area per filter box = 50m2
The surface area required for the rapid san
d filter will be [GATE-05]
(a.) 210m2
(b.) 215m2
(c.) 216m2
(d.) 218 m2
Correct Answer: C
17
Question: 6527
There are 14 sand fiters, out of which two
are non-operational having each area of 50
m2. Dischargeis 1 m3/sec, find the surface
over flow rate. [GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 144 -144
18
Question: 6483
particles of size around 1 micron size are
best removed by
a)filtration
b)plain sedimentation
c)chemical precipitation
d)chemical coagulation
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Filtration
Correct Answer: D
19
Question: 6446
Particles of size around 1 micron (10-6) size
are best removed by ( GATE-90)
a) filtration
b) plain sedimentation
c) chemical precipitation
d) chemical coagulation
Correct Answer: A
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Disinfection
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16216
Chlorine is used as the disinfectant in a
municipal water treatment plant. It
achieves 50 percent of disinfection
efficiency measured in terms of killing the
indicator microorganisms (E-Coli) in 3
minutes. The minimum time required to
achieve 99 percent disinfection efficiency
would be [GATE 2019 AN]
(A) 9.93 minutes
(B) 11.93 minutes
(C) 21.93 minutes
(D) 19.93 minutes
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 16155
A wastewater is to be disinfected with
35mg/L of chlorine to obtain 99% kill of
microorganisms. The number of microorganisms remaining alive (Nt) at time t, is
modelled by Nt = N0 e-kt , where No is
number of micro-organisms at t = 0, and k
is the rate of kill. The wastewater flow rate
is 36 m3/h, and k = 0.23 min-1. If the depth
and width of the chlorination tank are 1.5
m and 1.0m, respectively, the length of the
tank (in m, round off to 2 decimal places)
is ________. [GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 8-8
3
Question: 13913
among the following disinfectants of waste
water ,the one that is most commonly
used is[GATE-97]
A.chlorine dioxide
B.chlorine
C.ozone
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Disinfection
D.UV-radiation
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 13254
The following chemical is used for
coagulation [GATE-01]
A.ammonium chloride
B.alluminium chloride
C.alluminium sulphate
D.copper sulphate
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 11437
Chlorine gas (8 mg/L as cl2) was added to a
drinking water sample. If the free chlorine
residual and pH was measured to be 2
mg/L (as Cl2) and 7.5, respectively, what is
the concentration of residual OC1-. Ions in
the water? Assume that the chlorine gas
added to the water is completely converted
to HOC1 and OCl- Atomic weight of Cl: 35.5
Given
[GATE-11]
A. 1.408 x 10-5 mol / L
B. 2.817 x 10-3 mol/L
C. 5. 634 x 10-5 mol / L
D. 1.127x 10-4 mol/L
Correct Answer: B
6
Question: 9187
Blue baby disease (methemoglobinemia) in
children is caused by the presences of
excess [GATE-99][SSC JE 2009][APPSC AEE
PAPER-1][APPSC AEE 2012&2016]
(1) Chlorides
(2) nitrates
(3) fluorides
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Disinfection
(4) lead
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 6536
In disinfection, which of the following forms
of chlorine is most effective in killing the
pathogenic bacteria?
(GATE 2002)
a)Cl
b)OCI
c)NH2CI
d)HOCI
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 6534
Chlorine gas used for disinfection combines
with water to form hypochlorous acid
HOCl). The HOCl ionizes to form
hypochlorite (OCl- ) in a reversible reaction:
(k = 2.7 x 108 at
20°C),the equilibrium of which is governed
by pH. The sum HOCL and OCL ions is
known as free chlorine. and HOCL is more
effective disinfectant.The 90% fraction of
HOCl in the free chlorine residual is
available at a pH value (GATE-04)
(a.) 4.8
(b.) 6.6
(c.) 7.5
(d.) 9.4
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 6526
An effluent at a flow rate of 2670 m3/d from
a sewage treatment plant is to be
disinfected. The laboratory data of
disinfection studies with a chlorine dosage
of 15 mg/l yield the model Nt =No e-0.145t
where Nt = number of micro-organisms
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Disinfection
surviving at time t (in min.) and N0 =
number of micro-organisms present initially
(at t = 0). The volume of disinfection unit
(in m3) required to achieve a 98% kill of
micro-organisms is ______________[GATE-14
AN]
Correct Answer: 49-51
10
Question: 6525
16 MLD of water is flowing through a 2.5
km long pipe of diameter 45 cm. The
chlorine at the rate of 32 kg/d is applied at
the entry of this pipe so that disinfected
water is obtained at the exit. These is a
proposal to increase the flow through the
pipe to 22 MLD from 16 mLD. Assume the
dilution coefficient n = 1. The minimum
amount of chlorine (in kg per day) to be
applied to achieve the same degree of
disinfection for the enhanced flow is
[GATE-14 FN]
(a) 60.5
(b) 4.4
(c) 38
(d) 23.27
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 6484
prechlorination
a)improves coagulation
b)reduce odors
c)reduce tastes
d)all
Correct Answer: D
12
Question: 6464
The time of contact for chlorination should
be at least
(a) 5 minutes
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Disinfection
(b) 20 minutes
(c) 1 hour
(d) 2 hours
Correct Answer: A
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Distribution System
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13878
the comparision between pumps operating
in series and in parallel is (GATE-98)
A.pumps operating in series boost the
discharge whereas pumps operating in
parallel boost the head
B.pumps operating in parallel boost the
discharge whereas pumps operating in
series boost the head
C.in both cases there would be a boost in
discharge only
D.in both case there would be a boost in
head only
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 6619
Match ListI with ListII and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lis
ts [GATE-05]
List-I
1. Releasevalve
2. Checkvalve
3. Gatevalve
4. Pilotvalve
List-II
1. Reducehigh inlet pressure to lower
outlet pressure
2. Limitthe flow of water to single dire
ction
3. Remove air horn the pipeline
4. Stoppingthe flow of water in the pip
eline.
Codes :
P
Q
R
S
(a.) 3
2
4
1
(b.) 4
2
1
3
(c.) 3
4
2
1
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Distribution System
(d.) 1
2
4
3
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 6611
A straight 100 m long raw water gravity
main is to carry water from an intake
structure to the jack well of a water
treatment plant. The required flow through
this water main is 0.21 m3/s. Allowable
velocity through the main is 0.75 m/s.
Assume f = 0.01, g = 9.81 m/s2
The minimum gradient (in cm/100 m
length) to be given to this gravity main so
that the required amount of water flows
without any difficulty is ________ [GATE-14
FN]
Correct Answer: 4.7-4.9
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characterstics of sewage
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13776
To determine the BO
D5 of a waste water sample, 5, 10 and 50
ml aliquots of the waste water were
diluted to 300ml and incubated at 200C in
BOD bottles for 5 days [GATE-06]
Based on the data, average BOD5 of the
waste water sample is equal to
(a.) 139.5 mg/l
(b.) 126.5 mg/l
(c.) 109.8 mg/l
(d.) 72.2 mg/l
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 13757
The 5-day BOD of a wastewater sample is
obtained as 190 mg/I (with k = 0.01h-1).
The ultimate oxygen demand (mg/I) of the
sample will be [GATE-08]
(A)3800
(B)475
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characterstics of sewage
(C)271
(D)190
Correct Answer: C
3
Question: 13662
A student began an experiment of 5 day
200C BOD on Monday. Since the 5th day
fell on Saturday, the final DO reading was
taken on Monday. On calculation BOD (i.e.
7 day 200C) was found to be 150 mg/L.
What would be the 5 day, 200C BOD (in
mg/L)? Assume value of BOD rate constant
(K) at standard temperature of 200C as
0.23/day (base e). [GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 187.54,128.0979
4
Question: 13410
The ultimate BOD (L0) of a wastewater
sample is estimated as 87% of COD. The
COD of this wastewater is 300 mg/L.
Considering first order BOD reaction rate
constant k (use natural Log) = 0.23 per day
and temperature coefficient θ=1.047 , the
BOD value (in mg/L, up to one decimal
place) after three days of incubation at
27°C for this wastewater will be ________
[GATE 2018 FN]
Correct Answer: 160.22
5
Question: 13143
two waste water streams A andB having
an identical ultimate BOD are getting
mixed to from the streams C.The
temperaure of the stream A is 200C and the
temperature of the stream C is 100C.it is
given that
The 5-day BOD of the stream A
measured at 200C=50 mg/l
BOD rate constant (base 10) at 200
C=0.115 per day
Temperature coefficient =1.135
The 5-day BOD(in mg/l up to one decimal
place ) of the stream C,calculated at 100C
,is______ [GATE 2017 FN]
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characterstics of sewage
Correct Answer: 21.21-21.21
6
Question: 11468
An aerobic reactor receives wastewater at
a flow rate of 500m3/d having a COD of
2000mg/L. The effluent COD is 400mg/L.
Assuming that wastewater contains 80%
biodegradable waste, the daily volume of
methane produced by the reactor is
[GATE-09]
(A) 0.224m3
( B) 0.280m3
(C) 224 m3
(D) 280m3
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 11449
A portion of waste water sample was
subjected to standard BOD test( 5 days ,
200c ) yielding a value of 180 mg/l. The
reaction rate constant (to the base e) at
200 C was taken as 0.18 per day. The
reaction rate constant at other
temperature may be estimated by KT = K20
(1.047)T-20. The temperature at which the
other portion of the sample should be
tested to exert the same BOD in 2.5 days
is? (GATE-04)
(a.) 4.9°C
(b.) 24.9°C
(c.) 31.7°C
(d.) 35.0°C
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 11446
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characterstics of sewage
The 5day BOD of a waste water sample is o
btained as 190mg/l (with k = 0.01 h ). The
ultimate oxygen demand (mg/l) of the sam
ple will be(2008)
(a.) 3800
(b.) 475
(c.) 271
(d.) 190
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 11445
The 2-day and 4-day BOD values of a
sewage sample are 100 mg/L and 155
mg/L, respectively.
The value of BOD rate constant (expressed
in per day) is _________ [GATE 2016 FN]
Correct Answer: 0.3-0.3
10
Question: 11444
For a given water sample the ratio between
BOD5-day 20oCand the ultimate BOD is 0.68.
The value of the reaction rate constant k (
on base e) ( in day-1, up to two decimal
places) is ………….. [GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 0.23-0.23
11
Question: 6698
Ultimate BOD of a river water sample is 20
mg/L.BOD rate constant (natural log) is
0.15 day-1.The respective values of BOD
(in %) exerted and remaining after 7 days
are: [GATE-15]
a. 45
b. 55
c. 65
d. 75
and
and
and
and
55
45
35
25
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 6697
If the BOD3 of a wastewater sample is
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characterstics of sewage
75mg/L and reaction rate constant k (base
e) is 0.345 per day, the amount of BOD
remaining in the given sample after 10
days is (GATE 2010)
A)3.21 mg/L
(B) 3.45 mg/L
(C) 3.69 mg/L
(D) 3.92 mg/L
Correct Answer: C
13
Question: 6694
The 5day BOD of a waste water sample is o
btained as 190mg/l (with k = 0.01 h ). The
ultimateoxygen demand (mg/l) of the samp
le will be(2008)
(a.) 3800
(b.) 475
(c.) 271
(d.) 190
k = 0.01/h =0.24/day
190=L(1-10-0.24 x 5)
14
Question: 6687
The 5day BOD of a waste water sample is o
btained as 190mg/l (with k = 0.01 h ). The
ultimateoxygen demand (mg/l) of the samp
le will be(2008)
(a.) 3800
(b.) 475
(c.) 271
(d.) 190
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 6686
Match ListI (Characteristics of sewage disch
arged into inland waters) with ListII (Allowa
ble limit,mg/l
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characterstics of sewage
) and select the correct answer using the c
odes given below the lists:(GATE-03)
Codes :
P
Q
R
S
(a.)
2
5
4
2
(b.)
4
1
6
4
(c.)
3
1
4
2
(d.)
2
1
6
3
Correct Answer: D
16
Question: 6685
A sample of domestic sewage is digested
with silver sulphate, sulphuric acid,
potassium dichromate and mercuric
sulphate in chemical oxygen demand
(COD) test. The digested sample is then
titrated with standard ferrous ammonium
sulphate (FAS) to determine the un-reacted
amount of [GATE-12] [GATE-06]
(A) mercuric sulphate
(B) potassium dichromate
(C) silver sulphate
(D) sulphuric acid
Correct Answer: B
17
Question: 6684
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characterstics of sewage
In an experiment for BOD5 , a student
starts the experiment on Monday. Due to
some problems, he isnot able to take its
reading on saturday and takes its reading
on next Monday i.e. BOD7 which he get as
150 mg/l at 20°C. Find the value of BOD5 at
20°C, the value of KD= 0.23/day (on base
e) at 20°C.[GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 128.113
18
Question: 6683
A portion of waste water sample was subje
cted to standard BOD test (5 days, 20°C), y
ielding a valueof 1
80mg/l
. The reaction rate constant (to the base ‘e’
) at 20°C was taken as 0.18 per day. There
action rate constant at other temperature
may be estimated by
. Thetemperature at which the other portio
n of the sample should be tested, to exert t
he same BOD in 2.5
(GATE-04)
days, is
(a.) 4.9°C
(b.) 24.9°C
(c.) 31.7°C
(d.) 35.0°C
Correct Answer: D
19
Question: 6682
Water samples (X and Y) from two different
sources were brought to the laboratory for
themeasurement of dissolved oxygen (DO)
using modified Winkler method. Samples w
ere transferredto 30
0ml BOD bottles 2ml
of MnSO4 solution and 2ml of alkaliodide
azide reagent were added to the bottles
and mixed. Sample X developed a brown
precipitate, whereas sample Y developed a
white precipitate. In reference to these obs
ervations, the correct statement is(GATE-0
4)
(a.) both the samples were devoid of DO
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characterstics of sewage
(b.) sample X was devoid of DO while samp
le Y contained DO
(c.) sample X contained DO while sample Y
was devoid of DO
(d.) both the samples contained DO
Correct Answer: C
20
Question: 6681
A waste water sample has an initial BOD of
222 mg/L. The first order BOD decay
coefficient is 0.4/day. The BOD consumed
(in mg/L) in 5 ’days is: (GATE-02)
a)150
b)192
c)30
d)50
Correct Answer: B
21
Question: 6680
The theoretical oxygen demand of a 0.001
mol/L glucose solution is(GATE-02)
(A) 180 mg/L
(B) 192 mg/L
(C) 90 mg/L
(D) 96 mg/L
Correct Answer: D
22
Question: 6679
In a domestic wastewater sample, COD and
BOD were measured. Generally which of
the following statement is true for their
relative magnitude?(GATE 2002)
a)COD = BOD
b)COD > BOD
c)COD <BOD
d)Nothing can be said
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characterstics of sewage
Correct Answer: B
23
Question: 6678
If the BOD 5,20 of waste is 150mg/L and
the reaction rate constant (to the base ’e’)
at 20°C is 0.35/day, then the ultimate BOD
in mg/L is[GATE-01]
(a) 97.5
(b) 181.5
(c) 212.9
(d) 230.5
Correct Answer: B
24
Question: 6677
The BOD removal efficiency, in percentage,
during primary treatment, under normal
conditions is about (GATE-00)
(a) 65%
(b) 85%
(c) 30%
(d) Zero
Correct Answer: A
25
Question: 6676
In a BOD test, 5 ml of waste is added to
295 ml of aerated pure water. Initial
dissolved oxygen (D.O.) content of the
diluted sample is 7.8 mg/l. After 5 days of
incubation at 20°C, the D.O. content of the
sample is reduced to 4.4 mg/l. The BOD of
the waste water is[GATE-99]
a)196 mg/l
b) 200 mg/l
c)204 mg/l
d)268 mg/l
Correct Answer: C
26
Question: 6675
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characterstics of sewage
The minimum dissolved oxygen content
(ppm) in a river necessary for the survival
of aquatic life is [GATE-99]
(a) 0
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8
Correct Answer: C
27
Question: 6674
A sample of sewage is estimated to have a
5 day 20o C BOD of 250 mg/l. If the test
temp be 30o C in how many days will the
sewage value of BOD be obtained
[GATE-99]
a) 1.5 days
b) 2.5 days
c) 3.3 days
d) 7.5 days
Correct Answer: C
28
Question: 6673
Standard 5-day BOD of a waster water
sample is nearly x% of the ultimate BOD,
where x is (GATE-99)
a)48
b)58
c)68
d)78
Correct Answer: C
29
Question: 6670
A waste water sample diluted to 100 times
with aeration water had an initial D.O of 7
mg/land after 5 days of incubation at
00°cthe DO was zero. Then the BOD of
waste water is [GATE-96]
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characterstics of sewage
a)700mg/l
b)100mg/l
c)can not be determined
d)7 mg/l
Correct Answer: C
30
Question: 6667
in a BOD test using 5% dilution of the
sample (15ml of sample and 285 ml of
dilution water)D.O values for the sample
and dilution water blank bottles after 5
days incubation at -20°c were 3.80 and
8.80mg/l, respectively. D.O originally
present in the undiluted sample was
0.80mg/l .the 5 day 20°c BOD of the
sample is (GATE-98)
a)116mg/l
b)108mg/l
c)100mg/l
d)92mg/l
Correct Answer: D
31
Question: 6645
For a wastewater sample, the three-day
biochemical oxygen demand at incubation
temperature of
20°C (BOD3day, 20°C) is estimated as 200
mg/L. Taking the value of the first order
BOD reaction rate constant as 0.22 day-1,
the five-day BOD (expressed in mg/L) of
the wastewater at incubation temperature
of 20°C (BOD5day, 20°c) would be
_________
(2016-2)
Correct Answer: 276-276
32
Question: 6300
The amount of Co2 generated in kg while
completely oxidizing one kg of CH4 is
________. [GATE-14 FN]
A.2.75
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characterstics of sewage
B.3.75
C.4
D.4.5
Correct Answer: 2.7-2.8
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Estimation of sewage
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13882
An inverted siphon is a (GATE-98)
A.device for distributing septic tank
effluent to a soil absorption system
B.Device for preventing overflow from
elevated water storage tank
C.device for preventing crown corrosion of
water
D.section of sewer which is dropped below
the hydraulic grade line in order to avoid
an obstacle
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 6628
Assertion:
The crown of the outgoing larger diameter
sewer is always matched with the crown ofi
ncoming smaller diameter sewer.
Reason:
It eliminates backing up of sewage in the i
ncoming smaller diameter sewer.(2008)
(a.) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the
correct reason for [A]
(b.) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not
the correct reason for [A]
(c.) Both [A] and [R] are false
(d.) [A] is true but [R] is false
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 6627
Assertion [a]: At a manhole, the crown of
the outgoing sewer should not be higher
than the crown of the incoming sewer.
Reason [r]: Transition from a larger
diameter incoming sewer to a smaller
diameter outgoing
sewer at a manhole should not be made.
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Estimation of sewage
The CORRECT option evaluating the above
statements is : [GATE-12] [GATE-06]
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the
correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not
the correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is true but [r] is false
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 6625
An existing 300mm diameter circular sewer
is Laid at a slope of 1 : 280 and carries a p
eak discharge of 1728m3/d.use the partial
flow diagram shown the fig. and assume
mannings coefficient n=0.015(GATE-04)
At the peak discharge, the depth of flow an
d the velocity are, respectively,
(a.) 45 mm and 0.28 m/s
(b.) 120 mm and 0.50 m/s
(c.) 150 mm and 0.57 m/s
(d.) 300 mm and 0.71 m/s
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 6624
A circular sewer 2m diameter has to carry
a discharge of 2 m3/s when flowing nearly
full. What is the minimum required slope to
initiate the flow? Assume Manning’s n =
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Estimation of sewage
0.015. (GATE-00)
(a) 0.00023
(b) 0.000036
(c) 0.000091
(d) 0.000014
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 6623
Crown corrosion in a reinforced concrete
sewer is caused by:
(2016m)
Correct Answer: A
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primary and anaerobic Treatm
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13796
Match the following (GATE-05)
GROUP-1
P.Thickening of sludge
Q.Stabilization of sludge
R.Conditioning of sludge
S.Reduction of sludge
GROUP-2
1. Decrease in volume of sludge by
chemical oxidation
2. Separation of water by heat or
chemical treatment
3. Digestion of sludge
4. Separation of water by flotation or
gravity
(a)P-4,Q-3,R-1,S-2
(b)P-3,Q-2,R-4,S-1
(c)P-4,Q-3,R-2,S-1
(d)P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 13758
Match Group I (Terminology) with Group II
(Definition/Brief Description) for
wastewater treatment systems [GATE-08]
A) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
(B) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
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primary and anaerobic Treatm
(D) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 12258
A flocculation tank contains 1800 m3 of
water, which is mixed using paddles at an
average velocity gradient G of 100/s. The
water temperature and the corresponding
dynamic viscosity are 300C and
0.798×10-3 Ns/m2, respectively. The
theoretical power required to achieve the
stated value of G (in kW, up to two decimal
places) is ______ (GATE 2018 AN)
Correct Answer: 14.00 -15.00
4
Question: 11459
The following data are given for a channeltype grit chamber of length 7.5 m.
1.flow-through velocity = 0.3 m/s
2. the depth of wastewater at peak
flow in the channel = 0.9 m
3. specific gravity of inorganic
particles = 2.5
4. g= 9.80 m/s2 , μ = 1.002 x 10-3 Ns/m2 at 200c , ρw = 1000 kg/m3
Assuming that the Stokes is valid, the
largest diameter particle that would be
removed with 100
percent efficiency is
[GATE-04]
(a)0.04 mm
b) 0.21 mm
c) 1.92 mm
d) 6.64 mm
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 11457
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primary and anaerobic Treatm
Match ListI with ListII and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lis
ts (GATE-05)
List-1
1. Thickeningof sludge by
2. Stabilizationof sludge
3. Conditioningof sludge
4. Reductionof sludge water
LIST-II
1. Decrease in volume of sludge by
chemical oxidation
2. Separation of water by heat or chemical
treatment
3. Digestion of sludge
4. Separation of water by floatation or
gravity
P
Q
R
S
(a.)
4
3
1
2
(b.)
3
2
4
1
(c.)
4
3
2
1
(d.)
2
1
3
4
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 11456
Match ListI (Terminology) with ListII (Definit
ion/Brief Description) and select the correct
answerusing the codes given below the list
s (2008)
List-I
1. Primarytreatment
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primary and anaerobic Treatm
2. Secondarytreatment
3. Unitoperation
4. Unitprocess
List-II
1. Contaminantremoval by physical fo
rces
2. Involvingbiological and/or chemical
reaction
3. Conversionof soluble organic matte
r to biomass
4. Removalof solid materials from inco
ming waste water
Codes:
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 11455
Match list -i and list- ii and select correct
answer by using the codes given below the
lists [GATE-09]
(A) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
(B) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4
(C) P-1,Q-2,R-4,S-3
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primary and anaerobic Treatm
(D) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3
Correct Answer: B
8
Question: 11454
In a waste water treatmentplant, Primary
sedimentation tank (PST) designed at an
overflow rate of 32.5 m3/day/m2 is 32.5 m
long, 8 m wide and liquid depth of 2.25m. If
the length of the weir is 75., the weir
loading rate (in m3/day/m) is……………….
[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 112-113
9
Question: 11453
The wastewater having an organic
concentration of 54 mg/l is flowing at a
steady rate of 0.8m3/day through a
detention tank of dimensions 2m 4m 2m. ×
× If the contents of the tank are well mixed
and the decay constant is 0.1 per day, the
outlet concentration (in mg/l, up to one
decimal place) is ______ (GATE 2017 FN)
Correct Answer: 17.9-18.1
10
Question: 11452
The spherical grit particles, having a radius
of 0.01mm and specific gravity of 3.0, need
to be separated in a settling chamber. It is
given that
g = 9.81 m/s2
the density of the liquid in the
settling chamber = 1000 kg/m3
the kinematic viscosity of the liquid
in the settling chamber = 10-6 m2/s
Assuming laminar conditions, the settling
velocity (in mm/s, up to one decimal place)
is_____ (GATE 2017 FN)
Correct Answer: 0.44-0.44
11
Question: 6802
Column I
Column II (2009)
1. Grit chamber
Zone settling
2. Secondary settling tank
1.
2.
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primary and anaerobic Treatm
Stoke’s law
3. Activated sludge process
Aerobic
4. Trickling filter
Contact stabilization
3.
4.
The correct match of Column I with Column
IIis
(A) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
(B) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4
(C) P-1,Q-2,R-4,S-3
(D) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3
Correct Answer: B
12
Question: 6709
The unit in which both sedimentation and
digestion processes of sludge take place
simultaneously is
[GATE-01]
(a) Skimming Tank
(b) Imhoff Tank
(c) Detritus Tank
(d) Digestion Tank
Correct Answer: B
13
Question: 6707
Match ListI (Terminology) with ListII (Definit
ion/Brief Description) and select the correct
answerusing the codes given below the list
s(2008)
List-I
1. Primarytreatment
2. Secondarytreatment
3. Unitoperation
4. Unitprocess
List-II
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primary and anaerobic Treatm
1. Contaminantremoval by physical fo
rces
2. Involvingbiological and/or chemical
reaction
3. Conversionof soluble organic matte
r to biomass
4. Removalof solid materials from inco
ming waste water
Codes:
P
Q
R
S
(a.)
4
3
1
2
(b.)
4
3
2
1
(c.)
3
4
2
1
(d.)
1
2
3
4
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 6590
Anaerobically treated effluent has MPN of
total coliform as 106 / 100 mL. After
chlorination, the MPN value declines to
102/100 mL . The percent removal (%R)
and log f removal (log R) of total coliform
MPN is [GATE-11]
(a) %R = 99.90 ; log R = 4
(b) %R = 99.90 ; log R = 2
(c) %R = 99.99 ; log R = 4
(d) %R= 99.99: log R = 2
Correct Answer: C
15
Question: 6498
If power imparted to the water in mixing
basin is 10000 watts and volume of mixing
unit is 10 m3 and μ = 1X10-3 N-S/m2. Find
velocity gradient. Provided in mixing basin
is
a) 700 S-1
b) 800 S-1.
c) 900 S-1
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primary and anaerobic Treatm
d) 1000 S-1.
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 6490
a settling tank has 26m in dia,with a 2.10
m side water depth. effluent weir is located
o the pheriphery of the tank .for a
waterflow of 13000m3/d weir loading in
m3/d/m is
a)208
b)263
c)194
d)159
Correct Answer: D
17
Question: 6489
a settling tank has 26m in dia,with a 2.10
m side water depth. effluent weir is located
o the pheriphery of the tank .for a
waterflow of 13000m3/d
the detention time available is
a)2.41h
b)3.56h
c)4.2 h
d)1.86h
Correct Answer: A
18
Question: 6488
if the water content of the sludge is
90%,then the total weight of the sludge
produced is
a)980kg
b)1400kg
c)700kg
d)490kg
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primary and anaerobic Treatm
Correct Answer: A
19
Question: 6477
the settleable velocity of inorganic particles
of less than 0.1mm dia, vary in proportion
a)d3
b)d2
c)d
d)none
Correct Answer: B
20
Question: 6476
A particle is having a size of 0.025 mm with
a specific gravity of 2.65. If the kinematic
viscosity of water is 0.01 cm2/sec, the
settling velocity of the particle as per
Stokes law is
a) 0.056 cm/sec
b) 0.048 cm/sec
c) 0.12 cm/sec
d) 0.28 cm/sec
Correct Answer: A
21
Question: 6473
A settling tank has 26 m in dia. with a 2.10
m side water depth. Effluent weir is located
on the periphery of the tank. For a water
flow of 13000 m3/day
Weir loading in m3/day/m is
a) 208
b) 263
c) 194
d) 159
Correct Answer: A
22
Question: 6467
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primary and anaerobic Treatm
If the water content of the sludge is 90%,
then the total weight of the sludge
produced is
a) 980 kg
b) 1400 kg
c) 700 kg
d) 490 kg
Correct Answer: A
23
Question: 6466
If 70 mg/L is the concentration of solids
present in the turbid water, the amount of
dry solids deposited in the tank per day
with 70% tank efficiency is
a) 98 kg
b) 140 kg
c)70kg
d)49kg
Correct Answer: A
24
Question: 6463
The organic impurities in water form a
layer on the top of a filtering media. Such a
layer called
(a) permeable layer
(b) filtering layer
(c) dirty skin
(d) none of these
Correct Answer: C
25
Question: 6454
A channel type grit chamber is to be
installed in a waste water treatment plant
processing 8550 m3/day.the flow through
velocity is to be controlled at 0.33 m/s by a
downstream proportioning weirDetermine
the channel dimension’s (LxBxD) for a
depth to width ratio of 1:1.5 and detention
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primary and anaerobic Treatm
time is 1 min
a. 8 ,0.535,0.615
b. 8,0.535,0.615
c. 8,0.635,0.615
d. 8,0.635,0.615
26
Question: 6452
If the sludge content is 1 percent and the
specific gravity of sludge solids is 3.05
,then the volume (in m3/day ) of sludge
that must be disposed is
a. 18
b. 42
c. 93
d. 32
27
Question: 6449
A water treatment plant is to process 10
MLD of water with an alum dose of 20
mg/lit.Find total alkalinity as CaCo3
required to match alum dose in mg/lit
(a)9 mg/lit
(b) 6 mg/lit
(c) 12 mg/lit
(d) 20 mg/lit
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Activated sludge process
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16240
A water treatment plant treats 6000 m3 of
water per day. As a part of the treatment
process, discrete particles are required to
be settled in a clarifier. A column test
indicates that an overflow rate of 1.5 m per
hour would produce the desired removal of
particles through settling in the clarifier
having a depth of 3.0 m. The volume of the
required clarifier, (in m3, round off to 1
decimal place) would be____[GATE 2019
AN]
Correct Answer: 500-500
2
Question: 13911
the absorbent most commonly used in
water and waste treatment is [GATE-97]
A.sand of grain size from 0.1 to 2 mm
B.activated carbon granules of size 0.1 to
2mm
C.ordinary wood shavings of fine size
D.coal-tar
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 13747
The correct match of Column I with
Column II is [GATE-09]
(A) P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
(B) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4
(C) P-1,Q-2,R-4,S-3
(D) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3
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Activated sludge process
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 12261
A schematic flow diagram of a completely
mixed biological reactor with provision for
recycling of solids is shown in the figure
S0, S = readily biodegradable soluble BOD,
mg/L
Q, Qr, Qw = flow rates, m3/d
X0, X, Xe, Xu = microorganism
concentrations (mixed-liquor volatile
suspended solids or MLVSS), mg/L
The mean cell residence time (in days, up
to one decimal place) is ______ (GATE 2018
AN)
Correct Answer: 7.5-7.5
5
Question: 12207
A waste activated sludge (WAS) is to be
blended with green waste (GW). The
carbon (C) and nitrogen (N) contents, per
kg of WAS and GW, on dry basis are given
in the table.
The ratio of WAS to GW required (up to two
decimal places) to achieve a blended C:N
ratio of 20:1 on dry basis is ______ (GATE
2018FN)
Correct Answer: 1.60-1.70
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Activated sludge process
6
Question: 11485
Dominating micro-organisms in Active
Sludge Reactor process. [GATE-14 AN]
(a) Aerobic heterotrops
(b) Anaerobic heterotrops
(c) Autotrops
(d) Phototrops
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 11484
Match the items in Group – I with those in
Group – II and choose the right
combination. [GATE 2016 FN]
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(B) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1
(C) P-3, Q-2, R-4, S-1
(D) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 11482
Activated sludge is the
[GATE-93]
1. aerated sludge in the aeration tank
2. sludge settled in the humus tank
3. sludge in the secondary tank after
aeration and rich in microbial
masses
4. sludge in the secondary tank after
aeration and rich in nutrients
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 11480
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Activated sludge process
A septic tank is
(GATE-95)
1. an aerobic method of on site
sewage treatment
2. an anerobic method of on site
sewage treatment
3. a physical method of water
treatment
4. a physiochemical method of water
treatment
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 11479
The removal of dissolved organic matter
occurs in (1996)
a)slow sand filters
b) trickling filters
c) Rapid sand filters
d) dual media filters
Correct Answer: B
11
Question: 11478
The main constituents of gas generated
during the anaerobic digestion of sewage
sludge are (1996)
1. carbon dioxide and methane
2. methane and ethane
3. carbon dioxide and carbon
monoxide
4. carbon monoxide and nitrogen
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 11475
Critical factors for the activated sludge
process are (GATE-00)
A. maximum hourly flow rate
B. maximum and minimum flow rate
C. maximum hourly flow rate and
maximum daily organic load
D. maximum hourly flow rate and
minimum daily organic load
Correct Answer: C
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Activated sludge process
13
Question: 11472
Settling test on a sample drawn from Aerati
on Tank liquor of ASP (MLSS = 2800mg/l) w
as carriedout with 1 litre sample. The test y
ielded a settled volume of 200ml. The valu
e of Sludge VolumeIndex shall be [GATE
-03]
(a.) 14.0
(b.) 34.2
(c.) 71.4
(d.) 271
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 11471
Bulking sludge refers to having (GATE-05)
(a.) F/M < 0.3/d
(b.) 0.3/d < F/M < 0.6/d
(c.) F/M = zero
(d.) F/M > 0.6/d
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 11465
The sludge from the aeration tank of the
activated sludge process (ASP) has solids
content (by weight) of 2%. This sludge is
put in a sludge thickener, where sludge
volume is reduced to half. Assume that the
amount of solids in the supernatant from
the thickener is negligible, the specific
gravity of sludge solids is 2.2 and the
density of water is 1000
kg/m3
What is the solids content( by weight) of the thickened
sludge [GATE-11]
a)3.96 %
b) 4 %
c)4.04 %
d) 4.1%
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Activated sludge process
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 11464
The sludge from the aeration tank of the
activated sludge process (ASP) has solids
content (by weight) of 2%. This sludge is
put in a sludge thickener, where sludge
volume is reduced to half. Assume that the
amount of solids in the supernatant from
the thickener is negligible, the specific
gravity of sludge solids is 2.2 and the
density of water is 1000 kg/m3
What is the density of the sludge removed
from the aeration tank? [GATE-11]
a) 990 kg/m3
b) 1000 kg/m3
c) 1011 kg/m3
d) 1022 kg/m3
Correct Answer: C
17
Question: 11463
An activated sludge system (sketched
below) is operating at equilibrium with the
following information.
Wastewater related data: flow rate = 500
m3/hour, influent BOD = 150 mg/L, effluent
BOD = 10 mg/L. Aeration tank related data:
hydraulic retention time = 8 hours, meancell-residence time = 240 hours, volume =
4000 m3, mixed liquor suspended solids =
2000 mg/L. [GATE-12]
The mass (in kg/day) of solids wasted from
the system is
(A) 24000
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Activated sludge process
(B) 1000
(C) 800
(D) 33
Correct Answer: A
18
Question: 11462
An activated sludge system (sketched
below) is operating at equilibrium with the
following information.
Wastewater related data: flow rate = 500
m3/hour, influent BOD = 150 mg/L, effluent
BOD = 10 mg/L. Aeration tank related data:
hydraulic retention time = 8 hours, meancell-residence time = 240 hours, volume =
4000 m3, mixed liquor suspended solids =
2000 mg/L. [GATE-12]
The food-to-biomass (F/M) ratio (in kg BOD
per kg biomass per day) for the aeration
tank is
(A) 0.015
(B) 0.210
(C) 0.225
(D) 0.240
Correct Answer: C
19
Question: 11460
The most important type of species
involved in the degradation of organic
matter in the case of activated sludge
process is
[GATE 2017 AN]
a)auto trophs
b) heterotrophs
3) Prototrophs
4) Photo autotrophs
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Activated sludge process
Correct Answer: B
20
Question: 11458
An analysis for determination of solids in
the return sludge of activated sludge
process was done as follows :
(1) A crucible was dried to a constant mass
of 62.485 g.
(2) 75 ml of a well-mixed sample was taken
in the crucible.
(3) The crucible with the sample was dried
to a constant mass of 65.020 g in a drying
oven at 1040 C.
(4) The crucible with the dried sample was
placed in a muffle furnace at 6000 C for an
hour. After cooling, the mass of the
crucible with residues was 63.145 g.
The concentration of organic fraction of
solids present in the return sludge sample
is
[GATE-04]
(a)8800 mg/L
(b) 25000 mg/L
(c)33800 mg/L
(d) 42600 mg/L
Correct Answer: C
21
Question: 6855
A completely mixed activated sludge proce
ss is used to teat a wastewater flow of 1 mi
llion liters per day (lM LD) having a BOD5 o
f 200mg/l. The biomass concentration in th
e aeration tank is 2000mg/l and theconcent
ration of the net biomass leaving the syste
m is 50mg/l. The aeration tank has a volum
e of 200m . [GATE-07]
What is the average time for which the bio
mass stays in the system?
(a.) 5 h
(b.) 8 h
(c.) 2 days
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Activated sludge process
(d.) 8 days
Correct Answer: D
22
Question: 6854
A completely mixed activated sludge proce
ss is used to teat a wastewater flow of 1 mi
llion liters per day (lM LD) having a BOD5 o
f 200mg/l. The biomass concentration in th
e aeration tank is 2000mg/l and theconcent
ration of the net biomass leaving the syste
m is 50mg/l. The aeration tank has a volum
e of 200m . [GATE-07]
9.What is the hydraulic retention time of th
e waste water in aeration tank?
(a.) 0.2h
(b.) 4.8h
(c.) 10h
(d.) 24h
Correct Answer: B
23
Question: 6853
Analysis for determination of solids in the r
eturn sludge of Activated Sludge Process w
as done asfollows(GATE-04)
1. Acrucible was dried to a constant m
ass of 62.485g.
2. 75ml of a well-mixed sample was ta
ken in the crucible.
3. Thecrucible with the sample was dri
ed to a constant mass of 65.020g in
a drying oven at 104°C.
4. Thecrucible with the dried sample w
as placed in a muffle furnace at 600
°C, for an hour. Aftercooling, the m
ass of the crucible with residues wa
s 63.145g.
The concentration of organic fractio
n of solids present in the return slu
dge sample is
(a.) 8800mg/l
(b.) 25000mg/l
(c.) 33800mg/l
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Activated sludge process
(d.) 42600mg/l
Correct Answer: B
24
Question: 6796
A conventional Activated sludge plant
treating 1000 m3/d of municipal waste
water disposal of its anaerobically digested
sludge on relatively impervious farmland.
Use the following data
1. raw sewage :SS = 225 mg/I(70%
volatile) BOD = 190mg/I (excess
activated sludge returned to
primary
2. Primary setting : SS-50% removal
BOD-30% removal
3. Excess Activated sludge
:
0.4g VSS produced per g BOD
applied (80% Volatile of total)
4. Anaerobic Digester : VSS reduced
50% Digested Sludge Concentration
– 6% Sludge Specific Gravity – 1
5. Application on farmland
:
2m3/ha.d
Q.)Area requirements (ha) for
disposal of the sludge on farmland
shall be [GATE-03]
a) 2.95
b) 1.95
c) 0.95
d) 0.55
Correct Answer: D
25
Question: 6795
A conventional Activated sludge plant
treating 1000 m3/d of municipal waste
water disposal of its anaerobically digested
sludge on relatively impervious farmland.
Use the following data
1. raw sewage :SS = 225 mg/I(70%
volatile) BOD = 190mg/I (excess
activated sludge returned to
primary
2. Primary setting : SS-50% removal
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Activated sludge process
BOD-30% removal
3. Excess Activated sludge
:
0.4g VSS produced per g BOD
applied (80% Volatile of total)
4. Anaerobic Digester : VSS reduced
50% Digested Sludge Concentration
– 60% Sludge Specific Gravity – 1
5. Application on farmland
:
2m3/ha.d
Total volatile suspended solids to
be anaerobically digested (kg/d,
VSS) shall be
[GATE-03]
a) 133
b) 168
c) 233
d) 245
Correct Answer: A
26
Question: 6794
the dominant micro-organisms in Active
Sludge Reactor process. [GATE-14 AN]
(a) Aerobic heterotrops
(b) Anaerobic heterotrops
(c) Autotrops
(d) Phototrops
Correct Answer: A
27
Question: 6541
Chlorine is sometimes used in sewage
treatment(GATE-99)
(a) to avoid flocculation
(b) to increase biological activity of
bacteria
(c) to avoid bulking of activated sludge
(d) to help in grease separation
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Activated sludge process
Correct Answer: C
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Trickling filter
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 11481
A trickling filter is primarily a
(GATE-95)
1. straining process to remove
suspended solids from sewage
2. biological oxidation process to
remove BOD from sewage
3. straining process to remove
turbudity from water
4. straining process to remove
bacteria from water
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 11474
Which of the following sewage treatment m
ethods has inherent problems of odour, po
nding and flynuisance?[GATE -03]
(a.) UASB system
(b.) Activated sludge process
(c.) Trickling filters
(d.) Stabilization ponds
Correct Answer: C
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Oxidation Ponds
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 11477
sewage treatment in an oxidation pond is
accomplished primarily by (GATE-98)
A. algae- bacterial symbiosis
B. algae photosynthesis only
C. bacterial oxidation only
D. chemical oxidation only
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 11473
From amongst the following sewage treatm
ent options, largest land requirements for a
givendischarge will be needed for [GATE
-03]
(a.) trickling filter
(b.) anaerobic pond
(c.) oxidation ditch
(d.) oxidation pond
Correct Answer: D
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Disposal Of sewage
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13422
The wastewater form a city, containing a
high concentration of biodegradable
organics, is being steadily discharged into
a flowing river at a location S. If the rate of
aeration of the river water is lower than the
rate of degradation of the organics, then
the dissolved oxygen of the river
water [GATE 2017 FN]
(A) is lowest at the locations S.
(B) is lowest at a point upstream of the
location S.
(C) remains constant all along the length of
the river.
(D) is lowest at a point downstream of the
location S
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 13176
The sag in the dissolved oxygen curve
results because[GATE-97]
A.it is a function of the rate of addition of
oxygen to the stream
B.it is a function of the rate of depletion of
oxygen to the stream
C.it is a function of the both addition and
depletion of oxygen to the stream
D.The rate of addition is linear but the rate
of depletion is non linear
Correct Answer: C
3
Question: 6874
A waste water stream (flow = 2 m3/s,
ultimate BOD = 90 mg/l) is joining a
small river flow=12 m3/s, ultimate BOD =
5 mg/l). Both water streams get mixed up
instantaneously. Crosssectional area of the
river is 50 m2. Assuming the deoxygenation rate constant, k=0.25/day, the
BOD (in mg/l) of the river water, 10 km
downstream of the mixing point is
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Disposal Of sewage
[GATE-14 AN]
(A) 1.68
(B) 12.63
(C) 15.46
(D) 1.37
Correct Answer: C
4
Question: 6868
In a certain situation, waste water discharg
ed into a river mixes with the river water in
stantaneouslyand completely. Following is t
he data available[GATE-05]
Waste water DO = 2.00 mg/l
Discharge arte =1.10 m3/s
River water DO = 8.3mg/l
Flow rate =8.70 m3/s
Temperature = 20°C
Initial amount of DO in the mixture of wast
e and river shall be
(a.) 5.3mg/l
(b.) 6.5mg/l
(c.) 7.6mg/l
(d.) 8.4mg/l
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 6863
Secondary effluent from a municipal waste
water plant is discharged into stream at a
rate of 12000m3/d with a BOD5 of 50mg/l,
the stream flow is estimated to
be40000m3/d and BOD5 of water in the
stream is 3mg/l. The BOD of the mixture
is [GATE-97]
a)6.8mg/l
b)13.85mg/l
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Disposal Of sewage
c)17.65mg/l
d)10.55mg/l
Correct Answer: B
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Solid waste management
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16222
Raw municipal solid waste (MSW) collected
from a city contains 70% decomposable
material that can be converted to methane.
The water content of the decomposable
material is 35%. An elemental anlysis of
the decomposable material yields the
following mass percent.
C:H:O:N: other = 44:6:43:08:6.2
The methane production of the
decomposable material is governed by the
following stoichiometric relation
CaHbOcNd +nH2O → mCH4+sCO2+dNH3
Given atomic weight: C = 12, H = 1, O =
16, N = 14. The mass of methane produced
(in grams, round off to 1 decimal place) per
kg of raw MSW will be _________.[GATE
2019 AN]
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 13586
A landfill is to be designed to serve a
population of 200000 for a period of 25
years. The solid waste (SW) generation is 2
kg/person/day. The density of the uncompacted SW is 100 kg/m3 and a
compaction ratio of 4 is suggested. The
ratio of compacted fill (i.e. SW + cover) to
compacted SW is 1.5. The landfill volume
(in million m3) required is
_______. [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 21.9-21.9
3
Question: 13556
Solid waste generated from an industry
contains only two components, X and Y as
shown in the table below [GATE-15]
Assuming (C1+C2)=100 ,the composite
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Solid waste management
density of the solid waste (ρ) is given by :
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 13477
The composition of a municipal solid waste
sample is given below:
The difference between the energy content
of the waste sample calculated on dry
basis and as- discarded basis (in kJ/kg)
would be______[GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 3870
5
Question: 13205
A land fill is to be designed to serve a
population of 200000 for a 25 years .The
soild waste(SW) generation is
2kg/person/day.The density of the uncompacted SW is 100 kg/m3 and a
compaction ratio of 4 is suggested .The
density of the un-compacted SW is 100
kg/m3 AND A Compaction ratio of 4 is
suggested.The ratio of compacted fill (i.e
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Solid waste management
SW +cover) to compacted SW is 1.5.the
landfill volume (in milliom m3) required is
____
[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 13.6-13.7
6
Question: 12182
A city generates 40× 106 kg of municipal
solid waste (MSW) per year, out of which
only 10% is recovered/recycled and the
rest goes to landfill. The landfill has a
single lift of 3 m height and is compacted
to a density of 550 kg/m2 . If 80% of the
landfill is assumed to be MSW, the landfill
area (in m2 , up to one decimal place)
required would be ____(GATE 2018FN)
Correct Answer: 27271 -27274
7
Question: 6770
which one of the following solid waste
disposal methods is ecologically most
acceptable? [GATE-15]
a. Sanitary landfill
b. Incineration
c. Composting
d. pyrolysis
Correct Answer: C
8
Question: 6767
50g of CO2 and 25 g of CH4 are produced f
rom the decomposition of municipal solid w
aste (M SW)with a formula weight of 120g.
What is the average per capita green hous
e gas production in a city of1 million people
with a M SW production rate of 500 ton/da
y? [GATE-07]
(a.) 104 g/day
(b.) 120 g/day.
(c.) 208 g/day
(d.) 313 g/day
Correct Answer: D
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Solid waste management
9
Question: 6766
Two biodegradable components of municip
al solid waste are(2008)
(a.) plastics and wood
(b.) cardboard and glass
(c.) leather and tin cans
(d.) food wastes and garden trimmings
Correct Answer: D
10
Question: 6765
A coastal city produces municipal solid
waste (MSW) with high moisture content,
high organic materials, low calorific value
and low inorganic materials. The most
effective and sustainable option for MSW
management in that city is (2010)
(A) Composting
(B) Dumping in sea
(C) Incineration
(D) Landfill
Correct Answer: A
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Air pollution
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 17192
Which one of the following is NOT present
in the Acid Rain?[GATE 2017 FN] [SSC JE
2017]
A.HNO3
B.H2SO4
C.H2CO3
D.CH3COOH
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 16209
Which one of the options contains ONLY
primary air pollutants? [GATE 2019 AN]
(A) Hydrocarbons and nitrogen
oxides
(B) Nitrogen oxides and peroxyacetyl
nitrate
(C) Ozone and peroxyacetyl nitrate
(D) Hydrocarbons and ozone
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 16172
A sample of air analyzed at 0°C and 1 atm
pressure is reported to contain 0.02 ppm
(parts per million) of NO2. Assume the
gram molecular mass of NO2 as 46 and its
volume at 0°C and 1 atm pressure as 22.4
litres per mole. The equivalent NO2
concentration (in microgram per cubic
meter, round off to 2 decimal places) would
be ________. [GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 41.07-41.07
4
Question: 16145
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Air pollution
Which one of the following is a secondary
pollutant? [GATE 2019 FN]
(A) Ozone
(B) Carbon Monoxide
(C) Volatile Organic Carbon (VOC)
(D) Hydrocarbon
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 13746
The correct match of Column I with
Column II is [GATE-09]
(A) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3
(B) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4
(C) P-1,Q-3,R-2,S-4
(D) P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 13742
Particulate matter (fly ash) carried in
effluent gases from the furnaces burning
fossil fuels are better removed
by [GATE-09]
(A) Cotton bag house filter
(B) Electrostatic precipitator (ESP)
(C) Cyclone
(D) Wet scrubber
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 13711
Consider four common air pollutants found
in urban environments, NO, S02, Soot and
03. Among these which one is the
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Air pollution
secondary air pollutant? [GATE-11]
(A)O3
(B)NO
(C)S02
(D) Soot
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 13579
So2 and CO adversely affect [GATE-15]
(A) oxygen carrying capacity of blood and
functioning of lungs respectively
(B) functioning of the respiratory system
and brain respectively
(C) functioning of the respiratory system
and oxygen carrying capacity of blood
respectively
(D) functioning of air passages and chest
respectively.
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 13142
The mean indoor airborne chloroform
(CHCl3) concentration in a room was
determined to be 0.4 μg/m3.
Use the following data
(GATE 2006)
T= 293 K, P= 1 atm, R= 82.05 x 10-6
m3/mol-k
Atomoic weights:
C =12, H = 1, Cl= 5.5
The concentration expressed in parts per
billion (volume basis , ppbv) is equal to
a)1.00 ppbv
b) 0.20 ppbv
c) 0.10 ppbv
d)0.08 ppbv
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Air pollution
Correct Answer: D
10
Question: 13141
The correct match of Column I with
Column II is [GATE-09]
(A) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3
(B) P-2,Q-1,R-3,S-4
(C) P-1,Q-3,R-2,S-4
(D) P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 13140
Based on the above data lapse rate can be
referred as [GATE 2013]
(a) Super adiabatic
(b) Neutral
(c) Sub-adiabatic
(d) Inversion
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 13139
The concentration of Sulfur Dioxide (SO )2
is ambient atmosphere was measured as
30 μ g/m3 . µ Under the same conditions,
the above SO2 concentration expressed in
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Air pollution
ppm is ___. [GATE-15]
Given : P / (RT) = 41.6mol / m3 ; = where
P=Pressure; T=Temperature ; R=universal
gas constant; Molecular weight of SO2 = 64
Correct Answer: 0.001127-0.001127
13
Question: 13138
Following observations have been made for
the elevation and temperature to ascertain
the stability of the atmosphere:
(2017-2)
The atmosphere is classified as
(A) Stable
(B) Unstable
(C) Neutral
(D) Inverse
Correct Answer: C
14
Question: 12259
A coal containing 2% sulfur is burned
completely to ash in a brick kiln at a rate of
30 kg/min. The sulfur content in the ash
was found to be 6% of the initial amount of
sulfur present in the coal fed to the brick
kiln. The molecular weights of S, H and O
are 32, 1 and 16 g/mole, respectively. The
annual rate of sulfur dioxide (SO2)
emission from the kiln (in tonnes/year, up
to two decimal places) is ______(GATE 2018
AN)
Correct Answer: 590.00 -595.00
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Air pollution
15
Question: 12229
In the figures, Group I represents the
atmospheric temperature profiles (P, Q, R
and S) and Group II represents dispersion
of pollutants from a smoke stack (1, 2, 3
and 4). In the figures of Group I, the
dashed line represents the dry adiabatic
lapse rate, whereas the horizontal axis
represents temperature and the vertical
axis represents the altitude. (GATE 2018
AN)
The correct match is
A. P-1,Q-2,R-3,S-4
B. P-1,Q-2,R-4,S-3
C. P-1,Q-4,R-3,S-2
D. P-3,Q-1,R-2,S-4
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 12170
There are 20,000 vehicles operating in a
city with an average annual travel of
12,000 km per vehicle. The NOx emission
rate is 2.0 g/km per vehicle. The total
annual release of NOx will be (GATE
2018FN)
(A) 4,80,000 kg
(B) 4,800 kg
(C) 480 kg
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Air pollution
(D) 48 kg
Correct Answer: A
17
Question: 8437
The dispersion of pollutants in atmosphere
is maximum when [GATE-07]
(1) Environmental lapse rate is greater
than adiabatic lapse rate
(2) Environmental lapse rate is less than
adiabatic lapse rate
(3) Environmental lapse rate is equal to
adiabatic lapse rate
(4) Maximum mixing depth is equal to zero
Correct Answer: A
18
Question: 6744
In aerobic environment, nitrosomonas conv
ert[GATE-05]
Correct Answer: A
19
Question: 6741
An air parcel having 40ºC temperature
moves from ground level to 500m
elevation in dry air following the “adiabatic
lapse rate”. The resulting temperature of
air parcel at 500m elevation will be(2010)
A)35ºC
(B) 38ºC
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Air pollution
(C) 41ºC
(D) 44ºC
Correct Answer: A
20
Question: 6730
The two air pollution control devices that
are usually used to remove very fine
particles from the gas are
[GATE-14 AN]
(a) Cyclone and venturi scrubber
(b) Cyclone and scrubber
(c) Electrostatic precipitator and Fabric
filter
(d) Settling chamber and tray scrubber
Correct Answer: C
21
Question: 6729
Total suspended particulate matter(TSP)
concentration in ambient air is to be
measured using a high volume
sampler.The filter used for this purpose
had an intial dry weight of 9.787g.The filter
was mounted in the sampler and the intial
air flow rate 24 hours was measured to be
1.4 m3/min.the dry weight of the filter
paper after 24 hour sampling was 10.283
g.Assuming a linear decline in the air flow
rate during sampling .What is the 24 hour
average TST concentration in ambient
air? [GATE-11]
a. 59.2 µg/m3
b. 118.6 µg/m3
c. 237.5 µg/m3
d. 574.4 µg/m3
Correct Answer: C
22
Question: 6727
An electrostatic precipitator (ESP) with
5600 m2of collector plate area is 96
percent efficient in treating 185 m3/s of
flue gas from a 200 MW thermal power
plant. It was found that in order to achieve
97 percent efficiency, the collector plate
area should be 6100 m2. In order to
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Air pollution
increase the efficiency to 99 percent, the
ESP collector plate area (expressed in m2)
would be ______ [GATE 2016 FN]
Correct Answer: 8010-8010
23
Question: 6726
It was decided to construct a fabric filter,
using bags of 0.45 m diameter and 7.5 m
long, for removing industrial stack gas
containing particulates. The expected rate
of airflow into the filter is 10 m3/s. If the
filtering velocity is 2.0 m/min, the minimum
number of bags (rounded to nearest higher
integer) required for continuous cleaning
operation is [GATE 2016 FN]
(A) 27
(B) 29
(C) 31
(D) 32
Correct Answer: B
24
Question: 6725
Pre-cursors to photochemical oxidants are
[GATE 2016 FN]
(A) NOX, VOCs and sunlight
(B) SO2, CO2 and sunlight
(C) H2S, CO and sunlight
(D) SO2, NH3 and sunlight
Correct Answer: A
25
Question: 6724
The atmospheric layer closest to the earth
surface is
[GATE 2016 FN]
(A) the mesosphere
(B) the stratosphere
(C) the thermosphere
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Air pollution
(D) the troposphere
Correct Answer: A
26
Question: 6529
Two electrostatic precipitators (ESPs) are in
series. The fractional efficiencies of the up
stream and
downstream ESPs for size
are 80% and 65%, respectively. What is the
overall efficiency of the
system for the same dp? [GATE-07]
(a.) 100%
(b.) 93%
(c.) 80%
(d.) 65%
Correct Answer: B
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Noise Pollution
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13455
As per Noise Pollution (Regulation and
Control) Rules 2000 of India, the day time
noise limit for a residential zone, expressed
in dB (A) Leq, is [GATE 2017 AN]
(A) 55
(B) 65
(C) 75
(D) 85
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 13207
the reference pressure used in the
determination of sound /pressure is
[GATE-09]
A.20μpa
B.20db
C.10μpa
D.40db
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13206
the equivalent sound power level(in db)of
the four sources with the noise levels of 60
db,69 db,70 db ,79 db is ___(db) [GATE
2017 FN]
Correct Answer: 79.92-79.92
4
Question: 6723
A noise meter located at a distance of 30 m
from a point source recorded 74 dB. The
reading at a distance of 60 m from the
point source would be _________[GATE 2016
FN]
Correct Answer: 68
5
Question: 6720
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Noise Pollution
The sound pressure (expressed in µPa) of
the faintest sound that a normal healthy
individual can hear is
(2016e)
(A) 0.2
(B) 2
(C) 20
(D) 55
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 6718
The noise produced by 5 air conditioners in
a room at a given time are
57dB,63dB,63dB,66dB and 69 dB .Compute
the effective sound level of noise in the
room [GATE-06]
a. 66
b. 72
c. 80
d. 63
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 6717
The cumulative noise power distribution cu
rve at a certain location is given below. [GA
TE-06]
The value of L40 is equal to
(a) 90dBA
(b)80dBA
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Noise Pollution
(c) 70dBA
(d) 60dBA
Correct Answer: B
8
Question: 6716
According to the Noise Pollution
(Regulation and control) Rules, 2000, of the
Ministry of Environment and Forests, India,
the day time and night time noise level
limits in ambient air for residential areas
expressed in dB(A) Leg are (2010)
(A) 50 and 40
(B) 55 and 45
C) 65 and 55
(D) 75 and 70
Correct Answer: B
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TRANSPORTATION ENGINEERING
 INTRODUCTION
…………………………….711-711
 LINEAR ALIGNMENT
…………………………….712-717
 CURVED ALIGNMENT
…………………………….718-730
 MATERIALS AND TESTING
…………………………731-743
 PAVEMENT ANALYSIS AND DESIGN
...………………….744-756
 TRAFFIC ENGINEERING
………………………….757-781
 RAILWAY ENGINEERING
…………………………….782-782
 AIRPORT ENGINEERING
……………………………..783-784
OUR ANDROID
APPLICATION
INSIDE VIEW
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Introduction
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13865
the total length (in km) of the existing
national highways in india is in the range
of [GATE -99]
A.15,000 to 25,000
B.25,000 to 35,000
C.35,000 to 45,000
D.45,000 to 55,000
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 13786
Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojna (PMGSY)
launched in the year 2000, aims to provide
rural connectively with all-weather roads. It
is proposed to connect the habitations in
plain areas of population more than 500
persons by the year (GATE-05)
(a)2005
(b) 2007
(c) 2007
(d) 2001
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 6877
The Star and Grid pattern of road network
was adopted in(GATE-04)
(a.)Nagpur Road Plan
(b.)Lucknow Road Plan
(c.)Bombay Road Plan
(d.)Delhi Road Plan
Correct Answer: A
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Linear Alignment
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16189
A vehicle is moving on a road of grade
+4% at a speed of 20 m/s. Consider the
coefficient of rolling friction as 0.46 and
acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2. On
applying brakes to reach a speed of 10
m/s, the required braking distance (in m,
round off to nearest integer) along the
horizontal, is ______ [GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 30-30
2
Question: 16144
The coefficient of average rolling friction of
a road is fr and its grade is +G%. If the
grade of this road is doubled, what will be
the percentage change in the braking
distance (for the design vehicle to come to
a stop) measured along the horizontal
(assume all other parameters are kept
unchanged? [GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: D
3
Question: 13891
for a highway with design speed of 100
kmph ,the safe overtaking sight distance is
(assume acceleration as 0.53
m/sec2) (GATE-98)
A.300 m
B.750 m
C.320 m
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Linear Alignment
D.470 m
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 13883
at highway stretches where the required
overtaking sight distance cannot be
provided ,it is necessary to incorporate in
such sections the following (GATE-98)
A.atleast twice the stopping sight distance
B.half of the required overtaking sight
distance
C.one third of the required overtaking sight
distance
D.three times the stopping sight distance
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 13611
The perception-reaction time for a vehicle
travelling at 90 km/h, given the coefficient
of longitudinal friction of 0.35 and the
stopping sight distance of 170 m (assume g
= 9.81 m/s2), is _________
seconds. [GATE-14 FN]
Correct Answer: 3.1-3.2
6
Question: 12245
A car follows a slow moving truck
(travelling at a speed of 10 m/s) on a twolane two-way highway. The car reduces its
speed to 10 m/s and follows the truck
maintaining a distance of 16 m from the
truck. On finding a clear gap in the
opposing traffic stream, the car accelerates
at an average rate of 4 m/s2, overtakes the
truck and returns to its original lane. When
it returns to its original lane, the distance
between the car and the truck is 16 m. The
total distance covered by the car during
this period (from the time it leaves its lane
and subsequently returns to its lane after
overtaking) is (GATE 2018 AN)
(A) 64 m
(B) 72 m
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Linear Alignment
(C) 128 m
(D) 144 m
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 6894
The design value of lateral friction
coefficient on highway is [GATE-01]
(a) 1.5
(b) 0.50
(c) 0.35
(d) 0.15
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 6888
The design speed on a road is 60kmph. Ass
uming the driver reaction time of 2.5 secon
ds and coefficient of friction of pavement s
urface as 0.35, the required stopping dista
nce for two-way traffic
on a single lane road is [GATE-07]
(a.) 82.1 m
(b.) 102.4 m
(c.) 164.2 m
(d.) 186.4
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 6887
While designing a hill road with a ruling gra
dient of 6%, if a sharp horizontal curve of 5
0m radius isencountered, the compensated
gradient at the curve as per the Indian Roa
ds Congress specificationsshould be [GATE07]
(a.) 4.4%
(b.) 4.75%
(c.) 5.0%
(d.) 5.25%
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Linear Alignment
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 6884
a bituminous pavement of width 7m is
provided with a cross slope of 1 in 40 for
heavy rainfall region.the height of the
crown with respect to the edges on a
straight stretch of road is
a)25mm
b)335mm
c)87.5mm
d)150mm
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 6883
A motorist traveling at 100 km/h on a
highway needs to take the next exit, which
has a speed limit of 50 km/h. The section of
the roadway before the ramp entry has a
downgrade of 3% and coefficient of friction
(f) is 0.35. In order to enter the ramp at the
maximum allowable speed limit, the
braking distance (expressed in m) from the
exit ramp is ________ (2016)
Correct Answer: 92-92
12
Question: 6882
A vehicle moving at 60kmph on an ascendi
ng gradient of a highway has to come to st
op position toavoid collision with a stationa
ry object. The ratio of lag to brake distance
is 6:5. Considering totalreaction time of the
driver as 2.5 seconds and the coefficient of
longitudinal friction as 0.36, thevalue of as
cending gradient (%) is [GATE-06]
(a.) 3.3
(b.) 4.8
(c.) 5.3
(d.) 6.8
Correct Answer: B
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Linear Alignment
13
Question: 6881
A Car is moving at a speed of 72 km/hr. on
a road having 2% upward gradient. The
driver applies brakes when he sees an
obstruction. If his reaction time is 1.5
seconds, assuming that the co-efficient of
friction between the pavement and tire as
0.15, calculate the distance traversed
before the car finally stops. (GATE-02)
a)24 m
b)150 m
c)1056 m
d)324 m
Correct Answer: B
14
Question: 6880
Stopping sight distance and frictional
coefficients are (GATE-02)
A. directly proportional to each other
B. inversely proportional to each other
C. unrelated
D. either directly or inversely
proportional to each other
depending on the nature of
pavement
Correct Answer: B
15
Question: 6879
Stopping sight distance is the minimum
distance available on a highway which is
the (GATE-00)
(a) distance of sufficient length to stop the
vehicle without collision.
(b) distance visible to a driver during night
driving.
(c) height of the object above the road
surface.
(d) distance equal to the height of the
driver’s eye above the road surface.
Correct Answer: A
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Linear Alignment
16
Question: 6878
The coefficient of friction in the longitudinal
direction of a highway is estimated as 0.39
Thebraking distance for a car moving at a
speed of 65km/hr is(GATE-04)
(a.) 87m
(b.) 45m
(c.) 42m
(d.) 40m
Correct Answer: C
17
Question: 6876
Width of carriageway for a single lane is
recommended to be (GATE-00)
(a) 7.5 m
(b) 7.0 m
(c) 3.75 m
(d) 5.5 m
Correct Answer: C
18
Question: 6875
Camber on highway pavement is provided
to take care of [GATE-01]
(a) Centrifugal Force.
(b) Drainage.
(c) Sight Distance
(d) Off-Tracking.
Correct Answer: B
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Curved Alignment
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16174
A parabolic vertical curve is being designed
to join a road of grade + 5% with a road of
grade – 3%. The length of the vertical
curve is 400 m measured along the
horizontal. The vertical point of curvature
(VPC) is located on the road of grade +5%.
The difference in height between VPC and
vertical point of intersection (VPI) (in m,
round off to the nearest integer) is
____[GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 6.25-6.25
2
Question: 13866
the relationship between the length (l) and
radius (r) of an ideal transition curve is
given by [GATE -99]
Correct Answer: C
3
Question: 13843
a valley curve has a descending gradient of
1 in 40 followed by an ascending gradient
of 1 in 50.the length of the valley curve
required for a design speed of 80 km/hour
for comfort condition is [GATE-01]
A.199 m
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Curved Alignment
B.116 m
C.58 m
D.37 m
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 13799
A road is having a horizontal curve of 400
m radius on which a super-elevation of 07
is provided. The coefficient of lateral
friction mobilized on the curve when a
vehicle is travelling at 100 kmph is
(GATE-05)
(a) 0.07
(b) 0.13
(c) 0.15
(d) 0.4
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 13770
The extra widening required for a two-lane
national highway at a horizontal curve of
300 m radius, considering a wheel base of
8 m and a design speed of 100 kmph
is [GATE-07]
(a) 0.42 m
(b) 0.62 m
(c) 0.82 m
(d) 0.92 m
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 13727
Consider the following statements in the
context of geometric design of roads.
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Curved Alignment
I: A simple parabolic curve is an acceptable
shape for summit curves.
II: Comfort to passengers is an important
consideration in the design of summit
curves.
The correct option evaluating the above
statements and their relationship is
(A) I is true, II is false
(B) I is true, II is true, and II is the correct
reason for I
(C) I is true, II is true, and II is NOT the
correct reason for I
(D) I is false, II is true
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 13712
A vehicle negotiates a transition curve with
uniform speed v. If the radius of the
horizontal curve and the allowable jerk are
R and J, respectively, the minimum length
of the transition curve is
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 13692
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Curved Alignment
The following data are related to a
horizontal curved portion of a two-lane
highway: length of curve = 200 m, radius
of curve = 300 m and width of pavement =
7.5 m. In order to provide a stopping sight
distance (SSD) of 80 m, the set back
distance (in m) required from the centre
line of the inner lane of the pavement
is [GATE-12]
(A) 2.54
(B) 4.55
(C) 7.10
(D) 7.96
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 13671
For a portion of highway descending
gradient 1 in 25 meets an ascending
gradient 1 in 20. A valley curve needs to be
designed at a velocity of 90 kmph based
on
(i) Head light sight distance equal to
stopping sight distance of a level terrain.
Consider length of curve > SSD
(ii) Comfort condition if rate of change of
acceleration is 0.5 m/s2
Reaction time = 2.5 sec, coefficient of
longitudinal friction µ= 0.35. Height of
head light = 0.75 m, and beam angle =1"
What is the length of valley curve (in
meter) based on comfort condition? [GATE
2013]
Correct Answer: 106.066
10
Question: 13670
For a portion of highway descending
gradient 1 in 25 meets an ascending
gradient 1 in 20. A valley curve needs to be
designed at a velocity of 90 kmph based
on
(i) Head light sight distance equal to
stopping sight distance of a level terrain.
Consider length of curve > SSD
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Curved Alignment
(ii) Comfort condition if rate of change of
acceleration is 0.5 m/s2
Reaction time = 2.5 sec, coefficient of
longitudinal friction µ= 0.35. Height of
head light = 0.75 m, and beam angle =1"
What is the length of valley curve
as per headlight sight
distance?[GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 308.9641
11
Question: 13629
A road is being designed for a speed of 110
km/hr on a horizontal curve with a super
elevation of 8%. If the coefficient of side
friction is 0.10, the minimum radius of the
curve (in m) required for safe vehicular
movement is [GATE-14 AN]
(A) 115.0
(B) 152.3
(C) 264.3
(D) 528.5
Correct Answer: D
12
Question: 13462
While aligning a hill road with a ruling
gradient of 6 %, a horizontal curve of
radius 50 m is encountered. The grade
compensation (in percentage, up to two
decimal places) to be provided for this case
would be______ [GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 1.5-1.5
13
Question: 13452
The VPI (vertical point of intersection) is
100 m away (when measured along the
horizontal) from the VPC (vertical point of
curvature). If the vertical curve is
parabolic, the length of the curve (in
meters and measured along the horizontal)
is _______ [GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 200-200
14
Question: 13437
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Curved Alignment
The radius of a horizontal circular curve on
a highway is 120 m. The design speed is 60
km/hour, and the design coefficient of
lateral friction between the tyre and the
road surface is 0.15. The estimated value
of superelevation required (if full lateral
friction is assumed to develop), and the
value of coefficient of friction needed (if no
superelevation is provided) will,
respectively, be [GATE 2017 FN]
Correct Answer: C
15
Question: 13425
A super-elevation e is provided on a
circular horizontal curve such that a vehicle
can be stopped on the curve without
sliding. Assuming a design speed v and
maximum coefficient of side friction fmax ,
which one of the following criteria should
be satisfied?[GATE 2017FN]
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Curved Alignment
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 13293
a two lane ,one way road with radius of
50m is predominantly carrying with
wheelbase of 5m.the speed of lorries is
restricted to be between 60kmph and 80
kmph.the mechanical widening and
psychological widening required at 60kmph
are designed as w me and wps80
respectively.The mechanical widening and
psycological widening required at 80kmph
are designated as wme80
and wps80 respectively.the correct values
of wme60 ,wps60 ,wme80 ,wps80 resp
respectively are [GATE 2016 FN]
A.0.89 m,0.50 m ,1.19m, and 0.50m
B.0.50 m,1.19 m ,0.50m, and 0.89m
C.0.50 m,0.89 m ,0.50m, and 1.19m
D.1.19 m,0.50 m ,0.89m, and 0.50m
Correct Answer: B
17
Question: 13292
a super speedway in newdelhi has among
the highest super elevation rate of any
track on the indian grand prix circuit.the
track requires driver to negotiate turns
with a radius of 335m
and 330 banking.given this information ,the
coefficient of side friction required in order
to allow a vehicle to travel at 320km/h
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Curved Alignment
along the curve is [GATE-15]
A.1.761
B.0.176
C.0.253
D.2.53
Correct Answer: A
18
Question: 12263
A 7.5 m wide two-lane road on a plain
terrain is to be laid along a horizontal curve
of radius 510 m. For a design speed of 100
kmph, super-elevation is provided as per
IRC: 731980. Consider acceleration due to
gravity as 9.81 m/s2. The level difference
between the inner and outer edges of the
road (in m, up to three decimal places) is
______(GATE 2018 AN)
Correct Answer: 0.520 -0.530
19
Question: 6932
The length of summit curve on at two lane
two way highway depends upon
(a.) allowable rate of change of centrifugal
acceleration[GATE-05]
(b.) coefficient of lateral friction
(c.) required stopping sight distance
(d.) required overtaking sight distance
Correct Answer: D
20
Question: 6931
A crest vertical curve joins two gradients of
+3% and -2% for a design speed of 80km/h
and the corresponding stopping sight
distance of 120m. The height of driver’s
eye and the object above the road surface
are 1.20m and 0.15m respectively. The
curve length (which is less than stopping
sight distance) to be provided is [GATE-09]
(A) 120m
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Curved Alignment
(B) 152m
(C) 163m
(D) 240m
Correct Answer: B
21
Question: 6930
A parabolic curve is used to connect a 4%
upgrade with a 2% downgrade as shown in
Fig.5. The highest point on the summit is at
a distance of (measured horizontally from
the first tangent point-FTP). (GATE-99)
a)50 m
b)60 m
c)75 m
d)100 m
Correct Answer: D
22
Question: 6924
A road is provided with a horizontal circular
curve having deflection angle of 55° and c
entre lineradius of 250 m. A transition curv
e is to be provided at each end of the circul
ar curve of such a lengtin of that the rate
of gain of radial acceleration is 0.3m/s3 at
The velocity of 50km per about the length
of transition required at each end is(2008)
(a.) 2.57 m
(b.) 33.33 m
(c.) 35.73 m
(d.) 1666.67 m
Correct Answer: C
23
Question: 6923
At a horizontal curve portion of a 4 lane un
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Curved Alignment
divided carriageway, a transition curve is t
o be introducedto attain required super ele
vation. The design speed is 60kmph and ra
dius of the curve is 245m.Assume length of
wheel base of a longest vehicle as 6m, sup
er elevation rate as 5% and rate ofintroduc
tion of this super elevation as 1 in 150. The
length of the transition curve (m) required,
if thepavement is rotated about inner edge
is [GATE-06]
(a.) 81.4
(b.) 85.0
c.) 91.5
(d.) 110.2
Correct Answer: D
24
Question: 6919
The design speed for a two-lane road is
80kmph. When a design vehicle with a
wheelbase of 6.6m is negotiating a
horizontal curve on that road, the offtracking is measured as 0.096m. The
required widening of carriageway of the
two-lane road on the curve is
approximately (2010)
(A) 0.55m
(B) 0.65m
c)0.75
(D) 0.85m
Correct Answer: C
25
Question: 6916
A horizontal circular curve with a centre lin
e radius of 200 m provided on a 2lane, 2wa
y SH section. Thewidth of the 2lane road is
7.0 m. Design speed for this section is 80 k
m per hour. The brake reaction time is2.4s,
and the coefficients of friction in longitudin
al and lateral directions are 0.355 and 0.15
, respectively.
Q)The set-back distance from the centre li
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Curved Alignment
ne of the inner lane is
(a.) 7.93 m
(b.) 8.10 m
(c.) 9.60 m
(d.) 9.77 m
Correct Answer: A
26
Question: 6915
A horizontal circular curve with a centre lin
e radius of 200 m provided on a 2-lane, 2w
ay SH section. Thewidth of the 2lane road i
s 7.0 m. Design speed for this section is 80
km per hour. The brake reaction time is2.4
s, and the coefficients of friction in longitud
inal and lateral directions are 0.355 and 0.1
5, respectively.
Q)The safe stopping sight distance on the s
ection is
(a.) 221 m
(b.) 195 m
(c.) 125 m
(d.) 65 m
Correct Answer: C
27
Question: 6914
The value of lateral friction or side friction
used in the design of horizontal curve as
per India Roads Congress guidelines is
[GATE-09]
(A) 0.40
(B) 0.35
(C) 0.24
(D) 0.15
Correct Answer: D
28
Question: 6913
Design rate of super elevation for
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Curved Alignment
horizontal highway curve of radius 450 m
for a mixed traffic condition, having a
speed of 125 km/hour is (GATE-00)
(a) 1.0
(b) 0.05
(c) 0.07
(d) 0.154
Correct Answer: D
29
Question: 6912
The ruling minimum radius of horizontal
curve of a national highway in plain terrain
for a ruling design speed of 100 km/hour
with e = 0.07 and f = 0.15 is close
to (GATE-00)
(a) 250 m
(b) 360 m
(c) 36 m
(d) 300 m
Correct Answer: B
30
Question: 6901
On a circular curve, the rate of super
elevation is e. While negotiating the curve
a vehicle comes to a stop. It is seen that
the stopped vehicle does not slide inwards
(in the radial direction). The coefficient of
side friction is f. Which of the following is
true: [GATE-15]
(A) e ≤ f
(B) f < e < 2 f
(C) e ≥ 2f
(D) none of the above
Correct Answer: A
31
Question: 6895
For a road with camber of 3% and the desi
gn speed of 80 km/hr, the minimum radius
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Curved Alignment
of the curvebeyond which NO super elevati
on is needed is(GATE-04)
(a.) 1680 m
(b.) 948 m
(c.) 406 m
(d.) 280 m
Correct Answer: D
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Materials And Testing
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13907
the unit for coefficient of subgrade
modulus is ___[GATE-97]
A.kN/m3
B.kN/m2
C.kN/m
D.kN-m
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 13893
plate bearing test with 20cm diameter
plate on soil subgrade yielded a pressure of
1.25 x 105 N/m2 at 0.5 cm deflection .What
is the elastic modulus of
subgrade? [GATE-97]
A.56.18 x105 N/m2
B.22.10x105 N/m2
C.44.25 x105 N/m2
D.50.19 x105 N/m2
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 13885
in the plate bearing test,if the load applied
is in the form of an inflated type of
wheel,then this mechanism corresponding
to (GATE-98)
A.rigid plate
B.flexible plate
C.semi rigid plate
D.semi elastic plate
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 13884
the modulus of subgrade reaction is
obtained from the plate bearing test in the
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Materials And Testing
form of load -deformation curve .The
pressure corresponding to the following
settlement value should be used for
computing modulus of subgrade
reaction (GATE-98)
A.0.375 cm
B.0.175 cm
C.0.125 cm
D.0.250 cm
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13851
bituminous materials are commonly use in
highway construction because of their
good[ GATE -00]
A.tensile and compression properties
B.binding and water proofing properties
C.shear strength and tensile properties
D.bond and tensile properties
Correct Answer: B
6
Question: 13839
the minimum value of CBR(%)required for
granular sub-base as per Ministry of
surface transport (MOST) specification
is [GATE-01]
A.5
B.10
C.15
D.20
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 13810
A Marshall specimen is prepared for
bituminous concrete with a bitumen
content of 5% by Measured unit weights of
the mix are 2.442 g/cm3 and
2.345g/cm3 respectively .The bitumen has
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Materials And Testing
a specific gravity of 1.02. The percent
voids in mineral aggregate filled with
bitumen (VFB) are [GATE-04]
(a)34.55
(b)35.9
(c)73.55
(d)74.3
Correct Answer: C
8
Question: 13760
The consistency and flow resistance of
bitumen can be determined from the
following [GATE-07]
(a) Ductitility test
(b) Penetration test
(c) Softening point test
(d) Viscosity test
Correct Answer: D
9
Question: 13690
Road roughness is measured
using [GATE-12]
(A) Benkelman beam
(B) Bump integrator
(C) Dynamic cone penetrometer
(D) Falling weight deflectometer
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 13660
In compacted cylindrical bituminous mix,
VMA=15%(void mineral aggregate)
;Vv=4.5%(air void)
The magnitude of VFB (void filled
bituminous) is [GATE 2013]
(A) 24
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Materials And Testing
(B) 30 .
(C) 54
(D) 70
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 13634
In a Marshall sample, the bulk specific
gravity of mix and aggregates are 2.324
and 2.546 respectively. The sample
includes 5% of bitumen (by total weight of
mix) of specific gravity 1.10. The
theoretical maximum specific gravity of
mix is 2.441. The void filled with bitumen
(VFB) in the Marshall sample (in %) is
_______ [GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 62-66
12
Question: 13582
Match the information related to test on
aggregates given in Group-I with that in
Group-II. [GATE-14 AN]
(A) P-1, Q-3, R-4, S-2
(B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2
(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
Correct Answer: B
13
Question: 13510
During a forensic investigation of
pavement failure, an engineer
reconstructed the graphs P, Q, R and S,
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Materials And Testing
using partial and damaged old
reports. [GATE 2016 FN]
Theoretically plausible correct graphs
according to the 'Marshall mixture design
output' are
(A) P, Q, R
(B) P, Q, S
(C) Q, R, S
(D) R, S, P
Correct Answer: B
14
Question: 13441
The following observations are made while
testing aggregate for its suitability in
pavement construction:
[GATE 2017 FN]
i. Mass of oven-dry aggregate in air = 1000
g
ii. Mass of saturated surface-dry aggregate
in air = 1025 g
iii. Mass of saturated surface-dry aggregate
under water = 625 g Based on the above
observations, the correct statement is
(A) bulk specific gravity of aggregate = 2.5
and water absorption = 2.5 %
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Materials And Testing
(B) bulk specific gravity of aggregate = 2.5
and water absorption = 2.4 %
(C) apparent specific gravity of aggregate
= 2.5 and water absorption = 2.5%
(D) apparent specific gravity of aggregate
= 2.5 and water absorption = 2.4 %
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 12232
The initial concavity in the load-penetration
curve of a CBR test is NOT due to
(GATE 2018 AN)
(A) uneven top surface
(B) high impact at start of loading
(C) inclined penetration plunger
(D) soft top layer of soaked soil
Correct Answer: B
16
Question: 12171
A bitumen sample has been graded as
VG30 as per IS : 73-2013. The ‘30’ in the
grade means that (GATE 2018 FN)
1. penetration of bitumen at250 C is
between 20 and 40
2. viscosity of bitumen at 600 C is
between 2400 and 3600 Poise
3. ductility of bitumen at 270 C is more
than 30 cm
4. elastic recovery of bitumen at 150C
is more than 30%
Correct Answer: A
17
Question: 6966
In Marshall method of mix design, the
coarse aggregate, fine aggregate, fines
and bitumen having respective values of
specific gravity 2.60, 2.70, 2.65 and 1.01,
are mixed in the relative proportions (% by
weight) of 55.0, 35.8, 3.7 and 5.5
respectively. The theoretical specific
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Materials And Testing
gravity of the mix and the effective specific
gravity of the aggregates in the mix
respectively are: [GATE-15]
(A) 2.42 and 2.63
(B) 2.42 and 2.78
(C) 2.42 and 2.93
(D) 2.64 and 2.78
Correct Answer: A
18
Question: 6961
The penetration value of a bitumen sample
tested at 25°C is 80. When this sample is
heated to 60°C and tested again, the
needle of the penetration test apparatus
penetrates the bitumen sample by d mm.
The value of d CANNOT be less than
_______________ mm. [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 8-8
19
Question: 6960
Percentage voids in mineral aggregate
(VMA) and percentage air voids (Vv) in a
compacted cylindrical bitumen mix
specimen are 15 and 4.5 respectively. The
percentage voids filled with bitumen (VFB)
for this specimen is [GATE 2013]
(a) 24
(b) 30
(c) 54
(d) 70
Correct Answer: D
20
Question: 6959
In marshall testing of bituminous mixes,as
the bitumen content increases the flow
value [GATE-11]
A. Remains constant
B. Decreases first and then increases
C. Increases monotonically
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Materials And Testing
D. Increases first and then decreases
Correct Answer: C
21
Question: 6957
ListI below gives a list of physical propertie
s of aggregates which should be determine
d to judgetheir suitability in road constructi
on. ListII gives a list of laboratory tests whi
ch are conducted todetermine these proper
ties. Match ListI with ListII and select the co
rrect answer from the codes
given below the lists: [GATE-03]
P
Q
R
S
(a.)
1
2
3
4
(b.)
4
1
2
3
(c.)
3
4
1
2
(d.)
2
3
4
1
Correct Answer: B
22
Question: 6955
The plate load test conducted with a 75cm
diameter plate on soil subgrade yielded a d
eflection of2.5mm under a stress of
800N/cm2. the modulus of elasticity of
subgrade soil in KN/cm2 is [GATE-03]
(a.) 141.6
(b.) 154.6
(c.) 160.0
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Materials And Testing
(d.) 185.4
Correct Answer: A
23
Question: 6954
In the Marshall method of mix design, the c
oarse aggregates, fine aggregates, filler an
d bitumen,having respective specific graviti
es of 2.62,2.72, 2.70 and 1.02 are mixed in
the ratio of 55,34.6, 4.8and 5.6 per cent; r
espectively. The theoretical specific gravity
of the mix would be [GATE-03]
(a.) 2.36
(b.) 2.40
(c.) 2.44
( d.) 2.50
Correct Answer: C
24
Question: 6953
Bituminous concrete is a mix comprising of
[GATE-05]
(a.) fine aggregate, filler and bitumen
(b.) fine aggregate and bitumen
(c.) coarse aggregate, fine aggregate, filler
arid bitumen
(d.) coarse aggregate, filler and bitumen
Correct Answer: C
25
Question: 6952
ListI contains some properties of bitumen.
ListII gives a list of Laboratory Tests conduc
ted onbitumen to determine the properties.
M atch the property with the correspondin
g test and select thecorrect answer using t
he codes given below the lists
(GATE -05)
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Materials And Testing
Codes :
P
Q
a.)
2
1
(b.)
2
3
(c.) 1
(d.)
3
2
1
R
3
1
3
2
Correct Answer: A
26
Question: 6950
A combined value of flakiness and elongati
on index is to be determined for a sample o
f aggregates.The sequence in which the tw
o tests are conducted is
(a.)elongation index test followed by flakin
ess index test on the whole
sample
(b.)flakiness index test followed by elongati
on index test on the whole sample
(c.) flakiness index test followed by elongat
ion index test on non-flaky aggregates
(d.) elongation index test followed by flakin
ess index test on nonelongated aggregates
Correct Answer: C
27
Question: 6949
The specific gravity of paving bitumen as p
er IS : 73-1992 lies between
(a.) 1.10 and 1.06
(b.) 1.06 and 1.02
(c.) 1.02 and 0.97
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Materials And Testing
(d.) 0.97 and 0.92
Correct Answer: C
28
Question: 6948
A subgrade soil sample was tested using st
andard CBR apparatus and the observation
s are given(2006)
Load(kg)
Penetration(mm)
60.5
2.5
80.5
5
Assuming the load penetration curve is
convex through out the CBR value (%) of
samplee is
(a.) 6.5
(b.) 5.5
(c.) 4.4
(d.) 3.9
Correct Answer: C
29
Question: 6947
if aggregate size of 50-40mm is to be
tested for finding out the portion of
elongated aggregates using length gauge,
the slot length of the gauge should be
[GATE-06]
(a.) 81 mm
(b.) 45 mm
(c.) 53 mm
(d.) 90 mm
Correct Answer: A
30
Question: 6946
During a CBR test, the load sustained by a
remoulded soil specimen at 5.0mm
penetration is 50kg. The CBR value of the
soil will be [GATE-09]
(A) 10.0%
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Materials And Testing
(B) 5.0%
(C) 3.6%
(D) 2.4%
Correct Answer: D
31
Question: 6945
Rapid curing cutback bitumen is produced
by blending bitumen with [GATE-99]
(a) Kerosene
(b) Benzene
(c) Diesel
(d) Petrol
Correct Answer: D
32
Question: 6944
Two bitumen samples “X” and “Y” have
softening points 45°C and 60°C,
respectively. Consider the following
statements: [GATE-12] [GATE-06]
I.I Viscosity of “X” will be higher than that
of “Y” at the same temperature.
II Penetration value of “X” will be lesser
than that of “Y” under standard conditions.
The CORRECT option evaluating the above
statements is
(A) Both I and II are TRUE
(B) I is FALSE and II is TRUE
(C) Both I and II are FALSE
(D) I is TRUE and II is FALSE
Correct Answer: C
33
Question: 6943
Bitumen is derived from(GATE -02)
A. destructive distillation of coal tar
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Materials And Testing
B. destructive distillation of petroleum
C. fractional distillation of petroleum
D. naturally occurring ores
Correct Answer: B
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Pavement analysis and Desig
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16231
A flexible pavement has the following class
of loads during a particular hour of the
day.
(i) 80 buses with 2-axles (each axle load of
40 kN);
(ii) 160 trucks with 2-axles (front and rear
axle loads of 40 kN and 80 kN,
respectively)
The equivalent standard axle load
repetitions for this vehicle combination as
per IRC:37-2012 would be [GATE 2019 AN]
(A) 320
(B) 250
(C) 240
(D) 180
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 16186
Structural failures considered in the
mechanistic method of bituminous
pavement design are
[GATE 2019
AN]
(A) Fatique and shear
(B) Rutting and shear
(C) Shear and slippage
(D) Fatigue and Shear
Correct Answer: D
3
Question: 13892
what is the equivalent single wheel load of
a dual wheel assembly carrying 20,440 N
each for pavement thickness of 20 cm
centre to centre spacing of tyres is 27 cm
and the distance between the walls of tyres
is 11cm (GATE-98)
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Pavement analysis and Desig
A.27600N
B.32300N
C.40880N
D.30190N
Correct Answer: D
4
Question: 13886
base course is used in rigid pavements
for (GATE-98)
A.prevention of subgrade settlement
B.prevention of slab cracking
C.prevention of pumping
D.prevention of thermal expansion
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13844
The radius of relatives stiffness for a 20 cm
thick slab with E=3 x 105 kg/cm2 and
poisson's ratio =0.15 ,resting on a
subgrade having modulus of 5kg/cm3
is [GATE-01]
A.10 cm
B.80 cm
C.120 cm
D.320 cm
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 13834
in a concrete pavement
[GATE -02]
A.temperature stress is tensile at bottom
during day time
B.load stress is compressive at bottom
(a) load stress is compressive at bottom
(b) both the statement (A) and (B) are
correct
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Pavement analysis and Desig
(c) statement (A) is correct and (B) is
wrong
(d) both statement (A) and (B) are incorrect
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 13814
Temperature stresses in concrete
pavements may cause the slab to crack. If
a slab cools uniformly then the crack will
develop at the following locations of the
slab [GATE -03]
(a) at centre
(b) near edges
(c) at corners
(d) both (b) and (c)
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 13811
The data given below pertain to the design
of a flexible pavement.
Initial traffic = 1213 cvpd
Traffic growth rate = 8 percent per annum
Design life = 12 years
Vehicle damage factor = 2.5
Distribution factor = 1.0
The design traffic in terms of million
standard axles (msa) to be catered would
be [GATE-04]
(a)0.06 msa
(b)8.40 msa
(c)21.00 msa
(d)32.26 msa
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Pavement analysis and Desig
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 13792
For a 25 cm thick cement concrete
pavement, analysis of stresses gives the
following values Wheel load stress due to
corner loading 30 Kg/cm2
Wheel load stress due to edge loading 32
Kg/cm2
Warping stress at corner region during
summer 9 Kg/cm2
Warping stress at edge region during
winter 7 Kg/cm2
Warping stress at edge region during
summer 8Kg/cm2
Warping stress at edge region during
winter 6 Kg/cm2
Frictional stress during winter 5 Kg/cm2
Frictional stress during winter 4 Kg/cm2
The most critical stress value for this
pavement is (GATE-05)
(a)40 Kg/cm2
(b) 42 Kg/cm2
(c) 44 Kg/cm2
(d)45 Kg/cm2
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 13777
In case of governing equations for
calculating wheel load stresses using
Wesergaard’s approach, the following
statements are made. [GATE-06]
I.Load stress are inversely proportional to
wheel load
II.Modulus of subgrade reaction is useful for
load stress calculation
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Pavement analysis and Desig
(a) Both statements are TRUE
(b) I is TRUE and II is FALSE
(c) Both statements are FALSE
(d) I is FALSE AND II is TRUE
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 13748
Which of the following stress combinations
are appropriate in identifying the critical
condition for the design of concrete
pavements? [GATE-09]
Type of stress
P.Load
Q.Temperature
Location
1.corner
2.Edge
3.Interior
A.P-2,Q-3
B.P-1,Q-3
C.P-3,Q-1
D.P-2,Q-2
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 13728
Consider the following statements in the
context of cement concrete pavements.
I. Warping stresses in cement concrete
pavements are caused by the seasonal
variation in temperature.
II. Tie bars are generally provided across
transverse joints of cement concrete
pavements
The correct option evaluating the above
statements is [GATE-10]
(A) I: True II: False
(B) I: False II: True
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Pavement analysis and Desig
(C) I: True II: True
(D) I: False II: False
Correct Answer: D
13
Question: 13652
Select the strength parameter of concrete
used in design of plain jointed cement
pavement from the following
choices: [GATE 2013]
(A) Tensile strength
(B) Compressive strength
(C) Flexural strength
(D) Shear strength
Correct Answer: C
14
Question: 13604
The following statements are related to
temperature stresses developed in
concrete pavement slabs with free edges
(without any restraint):
(P) The temperature stresses will be zero
during both day and night times if the
pavement slab is considered weightless
(Q) The temperature stresses will be
compressive at the bottom of the slab
during night time if the self-weight of the
pavement slab is considered
(R) The temperature stresses will be
compressive at the bottom of the slab
during day time if the self-weight of the
pavement slab is considered
The TRUE statement(s) is(are) [GATE-14
FN]
(A) P only
(B) Q only
(C) P and Q only
(D) P and R only
Correct Answer: C
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Pavement analysis and Desig
15
Question: 13506
The radii of relative stiffness of he rigid
pavements P and Q are doted by lpand lQ
, respectively. The geometric and material
properties of the con and underlying soil
are given below:
the ratio (up to one decimal of lplQ is____
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 13465
The radii of relative stiffness of the rigid
pavements P and Q are denoted by
lpand lQ , respectively. The geometric and
material properties of the concrete slab
and underlying soil are given below:
the ratio (up to one decimal
of lplQ is____[GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 2-2
17
Question: 13461
For a broad gauge railway track on a
horizontal curve of radius R (in m), the
equilibrium cant e required for a train
moving at a speed of V (in km per hour)
is [GATE 2017 AN]
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Pavement analysis and Desig
Correct Answer: B
18
Question: 13317
The following observations were made of
an axle-load survey on a road
AXLE LOAD(kN)
35-45
75-85
repetitions per day
800
400
The standard axle-load is 80 kN. Equivalent
daily number of repetitions for the
standard axle –load are
(GATE-05)
A.450
B.480
C.800
D.1200
Correct Answer: A
19
Question: 13315
The width of the expansion joint is 20mm i
n a cement concrete pavement. The laying
temperature is20°C and the maximum slab
temperature in summer is 60°C. The coeffi
cient of thermal expansion of concrete is
10x10-6 mm/mm/°c and the joint filler
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Pavement analysis and Desig
compresses upto 50% of the thickness.the
spacing between expansion joints should
be [GATE-07]
a)20m
b)25m
c)30m
d)40m
Correct Answer: B
20
Question: 13314
Dowel bars in concrete pavement are
placed [GATE -02]
A. along the direction of traffic
B. perpendicular to the direction of
traffic
C. along 45° to the direction of traffic
D. can be placed along any direction
Correct Answer: A
21
Question: 13313
The following data pertains to the number
of commercial vehicles per day for the desi
gn of a flexible Pavement for a national
highway as per IRC:37 1984
Assuming the traffic growth of 7.5% factor
for both type of vehicles, cumulative,numb
er of standard axle load repetitions (in milli
on) for a design life often years is [GATE-07
]
(a.) 44.6
(b.) 57.8
(c.) 62.4
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Pavement analysis and Desig
(d.) 78.7
Correct Answer: B
22
Question: 13312
In the context of flexible pavement design,
the ratio of contact pressure to tyre pressur
e is called theRigidity Factor. This factor is l
ess than unity when the tyre pressure is(G
ATE-04)
(a.) less than 0.56 N/mm2
(b.) equal to 0.56 N/mm2
(c.) equal to 0.7 N/mm2
d)> than 0.7 N/mm2
Correct Answer: D
23
Question: 13311
If the total number of commercial vehicles
per day ranges from 3000 to 6000, the
minimum percentage of commercial traffic
to be surveyed for axle load is
(2016)
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 25
(D) 30
Correct Answer: A
24
Question: 13310
In the context of the IRC 58-2011
guidelines for rigid pavement design,
consider the following pair of statements.
I: Radius of relative stiffness is directly
related to modulus of elasticity of concrete
and inversely related to Poisson's ratio
II: Radius of relative stiffness is directly
related to thickness of slab and modulus of
subgrade reaction. Which one of the
following combinations is correct?
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Pavement analysis and Desig
(2016)
(A) I: True; II: True
(B) I: False; II: False
(C) I: True; II: False
(D) I: False; II: True
Correct Answer: C
25
Question: 13309
It is proposed to widen and strengthen an
existing 2lane NH section as a divided
highway. The existing traffic in one
direction is 2500 commercial vehicles (CV)
per thy. The construction will take1 year.
The design CBR of soil subgrade is found to
be 5 per cent. Given: traffic growth rate for
CV= 8 percent, vehicle damage factor =
3.5 (standard axles per CV), design life =
10 s and traffic distribution factor = 0.75.
The cumulative standard axles (msa)
computed are[GATE-08]
(a.) 35
(b.) 37
(c.) 65
(d.) 70
Correct Answer: B
26
Question: 13308
Using IRC 37-1984 “Guidelines for the Desi
gn of Flexible Pavements” and the followin
g data.Choose the correct
options [GATE-06]
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Pavement analysis and Desig
a)620mm
(b) 640 mm
(c) 670 mm
(d) 700 mm
Correct Answer: C
27
Question: 13306
A pavement designer has arrived at a
design traffic of 100 million standard axles
for a newly developing national highway as
per IRC:37 guidelines using the following
data: design life = 15 years, commercial
vehicle count before pavement
construction = 4500 vehicles/day, annual
traffic growth rate = 8%. The vehicle
damage factor used in the calculation
was [GATE-12]
(A) 1.53
(B) 2.24
(C) 3.66
(D) 4.14
Correct Answer: B
28
Question: 12231
As per IRC:37-2012, in order to control
subgrade rutting in flexible pavements, the
parameter to be considered is (GATE 2018
AN)
(A) horizontal tensile strain at the bottom
of bituminous layer
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Pavement analysis and Desig
(B) vertical compressive strain on top of
subgrade
(C) vertical compressive stress on top of
granular layer
(D) vertical deflection at the surface of the
pavement
Correct Answer: B
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Traffic Engineering
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16218
The speed-density relationship of a
highway is given as u = 100 – 0.5 k
where, u = speed in km per hour, k =
density in vehicles per km. The maximum
flow (in vehicles per hour, round off to the
nearest integer) is ______.[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 5000-5000
2
Question: 16217
The uniform arrival and uniform service
rates observed on an approach road to a
signalized intersection are 20 and 50
vehicles/minutes, respectively. For this
signal, the red time is 30 s, the effective
green time is 30 s, and the cycle length is
60s. Assuming that initially there are no
vehicles in the queue, the average delay
per vehicle using the approach road during
a cycle length (in s, round off to 2 decimal
places) is _______[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 12.5-12.5
3
Question: 16193
The speed-density relationship in a midblock section of a highway follows the
Greenshield?s model. If the free flow speed
is vf and the jam density is kj, the
maximum flow observed on this section is
[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: D
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Traffic Engineering
4
Question: 16167
Average free flow speed and the jam
density observed on a road stretch are 60
km/h and 120 vehicles/km, respectively.
For a linear speed-density relationship, the
maximum flow on the road stretch (in
vehicles/h) is ____ [GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 1800-1800
5
Question: 16147
Traffic on a highway is moving at a rate
360 vehicles per hour at a location. If the
number of vehicles arriving on this highway
follows Poisson distribution, the probability
(round off to 2 decimal places) that the
headway between successive vehicles lies
between 6 and 10 seconds is _____ [GATE
2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 0.18-0.18
6
Question: 16142
The maximum number of vehicles
observed in any five minute period during
the break hour is 160. If the total flow in
the peak hour is 1000 vehicles, the five
minute peak hour factor (round off to 2
decimal places) is _________. [GATE 2019
FN]
Correct Answer: 0.52-0.52
7
Question: 13874
a two lane single carriage way is to be
designed for a designed life period of 15
years.total two way traffic intensity in the
year of completion of construction is
expected to be 2000 commercial vehicles
per day.Vehicles damage factor =3.0 ,lane
distribution factor =0.7.Assuming an
annual rate of traffic growth as 7.5%,the
design traffic expressed as cumulative
number of standard axles ,is[GATE-99][SSC
JE 2009]
A.42.9 x 106
B.22.6 x106
C.10.1 x 106
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Traffic Engineering
D.5.3x 106
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 13833
the average daily traffic on a stretch of
road is 300 commercial vehicles per lane
per day.Design traffic repetitions for 10
years when vehicle damage factor is 2.5
and traffic growth rate is 7% is
[GATE -02]
A.3.8 msa
B.235 msa
C.45.4 msa
D.16 msa
Correct Answer: A
9
Question: 13815
The speed and delay studies on a defined
section of highway are conducted by
[GATE -02]
(a)radar gun
(b)traffic counters
(c)moving car method
(d)enoscope
Correct Answer: C
10
Question: 13802
The road geometrics in India are designed
for the [GATE-04]
(a)98thhighest hourly traffic volume
(b) 85thhighest hourly traffic volume
(c)50thhighest hourly traffic volume
(d) 30th highest hourly traffic volume
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Traffic Engineering
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 13798
A single lane unidirectional highway has a
design speed of 65 kmph .The perceptionbrake-reaction time of drivers is 2.5
seconds and the average length of vehicles
is 5 m. The coefficient of longitudinal
friction of the pavement is 0.4. The
capacity of this road in terms of ‘vehicles
per hour per lane (GATE-05)
(a) 1440
(b) 750
(c) 710
(d) 680
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 13761
If a two-lane national highway and a twolane state highway intersect at right
angles, the number of potential conflict
points at the intersecton, assuming that
both the roads are two-way is [GATE-07]
(a) 11
(b) 17
(c) 24
(d) 32
Correct Answer: C
13
Question: 13759
A roundabout is provided with an average
entry width of 8.4 m, width of weaving
section as 14 m, and length of the weaving
section between channelizing islands as 35
m. The crossing traffic and total traffic on
the weaving section are 1000 and 2000
PCU per hour respectively. The nearest
rounded capacity of the roundabout (in
PCU per hour is) [GATE-08]
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Traffic Engineering
(A)3300
(B)3700
(C)4500
(D)5200
Correct Answer: B
14
Question: 13753
The capacities of “One-way 1.5m wide
sidewalk (persons per hour)” and “Oneway
2-lane urban road (PCU per hour, with no
frontage access, no standing vehicles and
very little cross traffic)” are
respectively [GATE-08]
(A)1200 and 2400
(B)1800 and 2000
(C)1200 and 1500
(D)2000 and 1200
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 13719
If v is the initial speed of a vehicle, g is the
gravitational acceleration, G is the upward
longitudinal slope of the road and fr is the
coefficient of rolling friction during braking,
the braking distance (measured
horizontally) for the vehicle to stop
is [GATE-11]
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Traffic Engineering
Correct Answer: B
16
Question: 13718
If the jam density is given as kj and the
free flow speed is given as uf, the
maximum flow for a linear traffic speeddensity model is given by which of the
following options? [GATE-11]
Correct Answer: A
17
Question: 13653
It was observed that 150 vehicle crossed a
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Traffic Engineering
particular location of highway in 30
minutes. Assume that vehicle arrival follow
a negative exponential distribution. The
number of time headways greater than 5
seconds in above observation is _____[GATE
2013]
Correct Answer: 98.88-98.88
18
Question: 13648
For two major-roads with divided carriage
way crossing at right angle, a full clover
leaf interchange with four indirect ramps is
provided. Following statements are made
on turning movement of vehicles to all
direction from both roads.[GATE 2013]
Identity the correct statement
(A) Merging from left is not possible, but
diverging to left is possible
(B) Merging from left and diverging to left
is possible
(C) Merging from left is possible but
diverging is not possible
(D) Neither merging from left nor diverging
to left is possible
Correct Answer: B
19
Question: 13635
On a section of a highway the speeddensity relationship is linear and is given
by
v is in km/h and k is in
veh/km. The capacity (in veh/h) of this
section of the highway would be [GATE-14
AN]
(A) 1200
(B) 2400
(C) 4800
(D) 9600
Correct Answer: B
20
Question: 13628
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Traffic Engineering
The average spacing between vehicles in a
traffic stream is 50 m, then the density (in
veh/km) of the stream
is___________[GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 20.0-20.0
21
Question: 13613
An isolated three-phase traffic signal is
designed by Webster's method. The critical
flow ratios for three phases are 0.20, 0.30,
and 0.25 respectively, and lost time per
phase is 4 seconds. The optimum cycle
length (in seconds) is ___________ [GATE-14
FN]
Correct Answer: 90-95
22
Question: 13612
The speed-density (u-k) relationship on a
single lane road with unidirectional flow is
u = 70 – 0.7k, where u is in km/hr and k is
in veh/km. The capacity of the road (in
veh/hr) is ________ [GATE-14 FN]
Correct Answer: 1750-1750
23
Question: 13610
A traffic survey conducted on a road yields
an average daily traffic count of 5000
vehicles. The axle load distribution on the
same road is given in the following table:
The design period of the road is 15 years,
the yearly traffic growth rate is 7.5% and
the load safety factor (LSF) is 1.3. If the
vehicle damage factor (VDF) is calculated
from the above data, the design traffic (in
million standard axle load, MSA)
is_______________[GATE-14 FN]
Correct Answer: 307-310
24
Question: 13603
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Traffic Engineering
The minimum value of 15 minute peak
hour factor on a section of a road
is [GATE-14 FN]
(A) 0.10
(B) 0.20
(C) 0.25
(D) 0.33
Correct Answer: C
25
Question: 13567
The acceleration-time relationship for a
vehicle subjected to non-uniform
acceleration is,
where, v is the speed in m/s, t is the time
in s, α and β are parameters, and V0 is the
initial speed in m/s. If the accelerating
behavior of a vehicle, whose drive intends
to overtake a slow moving vehicle ahead, is
described as,
Considering ,α=2 m/s2 , β=0.05 s-1 and
at t = 3 s, the distance (in m) travelled by
the vehicle in 35 s is
____________.[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 900.83-900.83
26
Question: 13472
Two cars P and Q are moving in a racing
track continuously for two hour. Assume
that no other vehicles are using the track
during this time. The expressions relating
the distance travelled d (in km) and time t
(in hour) for both the vehicles are given as
P:d = 60t
Q:d = 60 t2
Within the first one hour, the maximum
space headway would be [GATE 2017 AN]
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Traffic Engineering
(A) 15 km at 30 minutes
(B) 15 km at 15 minutes
(C) 30 km at 30 minutes
(D) 30 km at 15 minutes
Correct Answer: A
27
Question: 13457
The safety within a roundabout and the
efficiency of a roundabout can be
increased, respectively, by [GATE 2017 AN]
(A) increasing the entry radius and
increasing the exit radius
(B) increasing the entry radius and
decreasing the exit radius
(C) decreasing the entry radius and
increasing the exit radius
(D) decreasing the entry radius and
decreasing the exit radius Key
Correct Answer: C
28
Question: 13432
The queue length (in number of vehicles)
versus time (in seconds) plot for an
approach to a signalized intersection with
the cycle length of 96 seconds is shown in
the figure (not drawn to scale).
At time t = 0, the light has just turned
red. The effective green time is 36
seconds, during which vehicles discharge
at the saturation flow rate,s(in vph).
Vehicles arrive at a uniform rate,v(in vph)
throughout the cycle. Which one of the
follwoing statements is TRUE? [GATE 2017
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Traffic Engineering
FN]
(A) v = 600 vph, and for this cycle, the
average stopped delay per vehicle = 30
seconds
(B) s = 1800 vph, and for this cycle, the
average stopped delay per vehicle =
28.125 seconds
(C) v = 600 vph, and for this cycle ,the
average stopped delay per vehicle =45
seconds
(D) s = 1200 vph, and for this cycle, the
average stopped delay per vehicle =
28.125 seconds
Correct Answer: B
29
Question: 13427
Vehicles arriving at an intersection from
one of the approach road follow the
Poisson distribution. The mean rate of
arrival is 900 vehicles per hour .If a gap is
defined as the time difference between
two successive vehicle arrivals (with
vehicles assumed to be points), the
probability (up to four decimal places) that
the gap is greater than 8 seconds is
___[GATE 2017 FN]
Correct Answer: 0.1354-0.1354
30
Question: 13345
A three-phase traffic signal at an
intersectionis designed for flows shown in
the figure below. There are six groups of
flows identified by the numbers 1 through
6. Among these 1, 3, 4 and 6 are through
flows and,2 and 5 are right
turning.[GATE-09]
Which phasing scheme is not feasible?
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Traffic Engineering
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
Correct Answer: C
31
Question: 13344
Design parameters for a signalized intersec
tion are shown in the figure below. The gre
en timecalculated for major and minor road
s are 34 and 18s, respectivelyThe critical la
ne volume on the major mad changes to 44
4) vehicles per hour per lane and the critica
llane volume on the minor road remain unc
hanged. The green time will [GATE-08]
(a.) increase for the major road and remain
same for the minor mad.
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Traffic Engineering
(b.) increase for the major road and decrea
se for the minor road.
(c.) decrease for both the roads.
(d.) remain unchanged for both the roads
Correct Answer: D
32
Question: 13343
A pre-timed four phase signal has critical
lane flow rate for the first three phases as
200, 187 and 210 veh/hr with saturation
flow rate of 1800 veh/hr/lane for all phases.
The lost time is given as 4 seconds for each
phase. If the cycle length is 60 seconds,
the effective green time (in seconds) of the
fourth phase is _____________ [GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 14.0-18.0
33
Question: 13342
A traffic office imposes on an average 5
number of penalties daily on traffic
violators. Assume that the number of
penalties on different days is independent
and follows a Poisson distribution. The
probability that there will be less than 4
penalties in a day is ___________ [GATE-14
FN]
Correct Answer: 0.26-0.27
34
Question: 13341
an observess counts 240 veh/hr at a
specific highway location assuming that
the vehicle arrives at the location is
poisson distributed ,the probability of
having one vehicle arriving over a 30
second time in the interval is ____[GATE-14
AN]
Correct Answer: 0.25-0.28
35
Question: 13340
The critical flow ratios for a three-phase
signal are found to be 0.30, 0.25, and 0.25.
The total time lost in the cycle is 10 s.
Pedestrian crossings at this junction are
not significant. The respective Green times
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Traffic Engineering
(expressed in seconds and rounded off to
the nearest integer) for the three phases
are [GATE-16]
(A) 34, 28, and 28
(B) 40, 25, and 25
(C) 40, 30, and 30
(D) 50, 25, and 25
Correct Answer: A
36
Question: 13338
While traveling along and against the
traffic stream, a moving observer
measured the relative flows as 50
vehicles/hr and 200 vehicles/hr,
respectively. The average speeds of the
moving observer while traveling along and
against the stream are 20 km/hr and 30
km/hr, respectively. The density of the
traffic stream (expressed in vehicles/km) is
_________ [GATE 2016 FN]
Correct Answer: 3-3
37
Question: 13337
In a one-lane one-way homogeneous traffic
stream, the observed average headway is
3.0 s. The flow (expressed in vehicles/hr) in
this traffic stream is________ [GATE 2016
FN]
Correct Answer: 1200-1200
38
Question: 13336
A sign is required to be putup asking
drivers to slow down to 30km/h before
entering zone Y(see figure) .On this road
,vehicles require 174m to slow down to 30
km/h (the distance of 174 m includes the
distance travelled during the perceptionreaction time of drivers).The sign can be
read by 6/6 vision drivers from a distance
of 48 m.The sign Is placed at a distance of
x m from the start of zone Y so that even a
6/9 vision driver can slow down to 30 km/h
before entering the zone .The minimum
value of x is ____m [GATE-15]
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Traffic Engineering
Correct Answer: 142-142
39
Question: 13335
The relation between speed u (in km/h) and
density k (number of vehicles / km) for a
traffic stream on a road is u = 70 – 0.7k.
The capacity on this road is _______________
vph (vehicles/hour). [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 175-175
40
Question: 13334
a student riding a bicycle on a 5km one
way street takes 40 minutes to reach time
.The student stopped for 15 minutes during
this ride.60 vehicles over took the student
(assume the number of vehicle over taken
by the student is zero )during the ride and
45 vehicles while the student stopped.The
speed of vehicle stream on that road (in
km/hr) is [GATE-14 AN]
A.7.5
B.40
C.12
D.60
Correct Answer: D
41
Question: 13333
The following statements are made related
to the lengths of turning lanes at signalised
intersections:
(i) 1.5 times the average number of
vehicles (by vehicle type) that would store
in turning lane per cycle during the peak
hour
(ii) 2 times the average number of vehicles
(by vehicle type) that would store in
turning lane per cycle during the peak hour
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Traffic Engineering
(iii) Average number of vehicles (by vehicle
type) that would store in the adjacent
through lane per cycle during the peak
hour
(iv) Average number of vehicles (by
vehicle type) that would store in all lanes
per cycle during the peak hour As per the
IRC recommendations, the correct choice
for design length of storage lanes
is:[GATE-15]
(A)Maximum of (ii and iii)
(B) Maximum of (i and iii)
(C) Average of (i and iii)
(D) Only (iv)
Correct Answer: A
42
Question: 13332
The probability that k number of vehicles
arrive (i.e cross a predefined line )in time t
is given as
(λt)ke-λt/k, where λ is the
average vehicles arrival rate .what is the
probability that the time headway is
greater than or equal to time t1? [GATE-11]
Correct Answer: D
43
Question: 13329
the cumulative arrival and departure curve
of one cycle of an approach lane of a
signalized intersection is shown in the
adjoining figure.The cycle time is 50s and
the effective red time is 30 s and the
effective green time is 30s anmd the
effective green time is 20 s.what is average
delay? [GATE-11]
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Traffic Engineering
A.15 s
B.25 s
C.35 s
D.45 s
Correct Answer: A
44
Question: 13328
A traffic stream in a particular direction of
a two lane road is moving with a constant s
peed of50kmph, with an average headway
of 2.52 seconds. The longitudinal distance
between twoconsecutive vehicles is [GATE
-02]
(a.) 30 m
(b.) 35 m
(c.) 38 m
(d.) 42 m
Correct Answer: B
45
Question: 13327
In signal design as per Indian Roads Congre
ss specifications, if the sum of the ratios of
normal flowsto saturation flow of two direct
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Traffic Engineering
ional traffic flow is 0.50 and the total lost ti
me per cycle is 10seconds, the optimum cy
cle length in seconds is [GATE-07]
(a.) 100
(b.) 80
(c.) 60
(d.) 40
Correct Answer: D
46
Question: 13326
If the standard deviation of the spot speed
of vehicles in a highway is 8.8 kmph and th
e mean speedof the vehicles is 33 kmph, th
e coefficient of variation in speed is [GATE07]
(a.) 0.1517
(b.) 0.1867
(c.) 0.2666
(d.) 0.3646
Correct Answer: C
47
Question: 13325
A transport company operates a scheduled
daily truck service between city P and cityQ
.Onewayjourney time between these two ci
ties is 85 hours. A minimum layover time of
5 hours is to beprovided at each city. How
many trucks are required to provide this se
rvice?(GATE-05)
(a.) 4
(b.) 6
(c.) 7
(d.) 8
Correct Answer: D
48
Question: 13324
Three new roads P, Q and R are planned in
a district. The data for these roads are give
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Traffic Engineering
n in the table Below (GATE-04)
based on the principle of maximum utility
the priority should be
(a.) P, Q, R
(b.) Q, R, P
(c.) R, P, Q
(d.) R, Q, P
Correct Answer: D
49
Question: 13323
A linear relationship is observed between s
peed and density on a certain section of a
highway. Thefree flow speed is observed to
be 80km per hour and the jam density is e
stimated as 100 vehicles per1km length. B
ased on the above relationship, the maxim
um flow expected on this section and thesp
eed at the maximum flow will respectively
be [GATE-08]
(a.) 8000 vehicles per hour and 80km per h
our
(b.) 8000 vehicles per hour and 25 km per
hour
(c.) 2000 vehicles per hour and 80km per h
our
(d.) 2000 vehicles per hour and 40 km per
hour
Correct Answer: D
50
Question: 13322
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Traffic Engineering
On an urban road, the free mean speed wa
s measured as 70 kmph and the average s
pacing betweenthe vehicles under jam con
dition as 7.0m. The speedflowdensity equation is given by: where,
[GATE-06]
U=
and q=Uk
U = space-mean speed (kmph);
Usf = free mean speed (kmph);
k = density (veh/km);
kj = jam density (veh/km);
q = flow (veh/hr).
The maximum flow (veh/hr) per lane for thi
s condition is equal to
(a.) 2000
(b.) 2500
(c.) 3000
(d.) None of the above
Correct Answer: B
51
Question: 13321
For designing a2-phase fixed type signal at
an intersection having NorthSouth and East-West road where only
straight ahead traffic is available,the
following is the data [GATE-06]
Total lost time per cycle is 12 sec.the cycle
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Traffic Engineering
length as per websters approach
a)67
b)77
c)87
d)91
Correct Answer: B
52
Question: 13320
Name the traffic survey data which is plott
ed by means of Desire lines. [GATE-06]
(a.) Accident
(b.) Classified volume
(c.) Origin and Destination
(d.) Speed and Delay
Correct Answer: C
53
Question: 13319
As per IRC: 67-2001, a traffic sign
indicating the Speed Limit on a road should
be of [GATE-10]
(A) Circular Shape with White
Background and Red Border
(B) Triangular Shape with White
Background and Red Border
(C) Triangular Shape with Red Background
and White Border
(D) Circular Shape with Red Background
and White Border
Correct Answer: A
54
Question: 13301
Which of the following statements CANNOT
be used to describe free flow speed (uf) of
a traffic stream? [GATE-15]
(A) uf is the speed when flow is negligible
(B) uf is the speed when density is
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Traffic Engineering
negligible
(C) uf is affected by geometry and surface
conditions of the road
(D) uf is the speed at which flow is
maximum and density is optimum
Correct Answer: D
55
Question: 13300
on a specific highway ,the speed -density
relationship follows the Greenberg's model
where vf and kj are the free
flow speed and jam density
respectively.when the highway is operating
at capacity ,the density obtained per this
model is [GATE-09]
A.ekj
B.kj
C.kj/2
D.kj/e
Correct Answer: D
56
Question: 13299
two major roads with two lanes each are
crossing in an urban area to form an uncontrolled intersection.The number of
conflict points when both roads are oneway is ''X'' and when both roads are two
way is 'Y'' .the ratio of X to Y is [GATE-12]
A.0.25
B.0.33
C.0.50
D.0.75
Correct Answer: A
57
Question: 13298
a two-lane urban road with one-way traffic
has a maximum capacity of 1800
vehicles/hour.under the jam condition ,the
average length occupied by the vehicles is
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Traffic Engineering
5.0 m.The speed versus density
relationship linear .for a traffic volume of
1000 vehicles/hour ,the density (in
vehicles/km) is [GATE-12]
A.52
B.58
C.67
D.75
Correct Answer: A
58
Question: 12262
The space mean speed (kmph) and density
(vehicles/km) of a traffic stream are
linearly related. The free flow speed and
jam density are 80 kmph and 100
vehicles/km respectively. The traffic flow
(in vehicles/h, up to one decimal place)
corresponding to a speed of 40 kmph is
______
(GATE 2018 AN)
Correct Answer: 2000-2000
59
Question: 12230
Peak Hour Factor (PHF) is used to represent
the proportion of peak sub-hourly traffic
flow within the peak hour. If 15-minute subhours are considered, the theoretically
possible range of PHF will be (GATE 2018
AN)
(A) 0 to 1.0
(B) 0.25 to 0.75
(C) 0.25 to 1.0
(D) 0.5 to 1.0
Correct Answer: C
60
Question: 12208
Given the following data: design life n = 15
years, lane distribution factor D = 0.75,
annual rate of growth of commercial
vehicles r = 6%, vehicle damage factor F =
4 and initial traffic in the year of
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Traffic Engineering
completion of construction = 3000
Commercial Vehicles Per Day (CVPD). As
per IRC:37-2012, the design traffic in terms
of cumulative number of standard axles (in
million standard axles, up to two decimal
places) is ______ (GATE 2018FN)
Correct Answer: 75.00 -78.00
61
Question: 12190
A priority intersection has a single-lane oneway traffic road crossing an undivided twolane two-way traffic road. The traffic
stream speed on the single-lane road is 20
kmph and the speed on the two-lane road
is 50 kmph. The perception-reaction time is
2.5 s, coefficient of longitudinal friction is
0.38 and acceleration due to gravity is 9.81
m/s2. A clear sight triangle has to be
ensured at this intersection. The minimum
lengths of the sides of the sight triangle
along the two-lane road and the single-lane
road, respectively will be (GATE 2018FN)
(A)50 m and 20 m
(B) 61 m and 18 m
(C) 111 m and 15 m
(D) 122 m and 36 m
Correct Answer: B
62
Question: 12173
A well-designed signalized intersection is
one in which the (GATE 2018FN)
A.crossing conflicts are increased
B.total delay is minimized
C.cycle time is equal to the sum of red and
green times in all phases
D.cycle time is equal to the sum of red and
yellow times in all phases
Correct Answer: B
63
Question: 12172
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Traffic Engineering
The speed-density relationship for a road
section is shown in the (GATE 2018FN)
The shape of the flow-density relationship
is
A.piecewise linear
B.parabolic
C.initially linear then parabolic
D.initially parabolic then linear
Correct Answer: C
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Railway Engineering
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16211
A broad gauge railway line passes through
a horizontal curved section (radius = 875
m) of length 200 m. The allowable speed
on this portion is 100 km/h. For calculating
the cant consider the gauge as centre-tocentre distance between the rail heads,
equal to 1750mm, The maximum
permissible cant (in mm, round of to 1
decimal place) with respect to the centreto-centre distance between the rail heads
is ______.[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 157.5-157.5
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Airport Engineering
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13419
A runway is being constructed in a new
airport as per the International Civil
Aviation Organization (ICAO)
recommendations. The elevation and the
airport reference temperature of this
airport are 535 m above the mean sea
level and 22.65°C, respectively. Consider
the effective gradient of runway as 1%. The
length of runway required for a designaircraft under the standard conditions is
2000 m. Within the framework of applying
sequential corrections as per the ICAO
recommendations, the length of runway
corrected for the temperature is [GATE
2017FN]
(A) 2223 m
(B) 2250 m
(C) 2500 m
(D) 2750
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 12209
An aircraft approaches the threshold of a
runway strip at a speed of 200 km/h. The
pilot decelerates the aircraft at a rate of
1.697 m/s2 and takes 18 s to exit the
runway strip. If the deceleration after
exiting the runway is 1 m/s2, then the
distance (in m, up to one decimal place) of
the gate position from the location of exit
on the runway is ______ (GATE 2018FN)
Correct Answer: 313
3
Question: 5863
An aircraft is flying in level flight at a speed
of 200km/hr through an air (density ρ =1.2
kg/m3) and viscosity µ= 1.6 x105 kg/m-s )
.the lift coefficient at this speed is 0.4 and
the drag coefficient is 0.0065.the mass of
the air craft is 800 kg.the effective lift area
of the air craft is (in sq.meter) (GATE-04)
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Airport Engineering
(a) 21.2 m2
(b) 10.6 m2
(c) 2.2 m2
(d) 1.1 m2
Correct Answer: D
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GEOMATICS
 INTRODUCTION
……………….. 785-786
 CHAIN SURVEYING
……………….. 787-787
 COMPASS SURVEYING
……………….. 788-792
 THEODOLITE AND TRAVERSING ……………….. 793-796
 TACHEOMETRY
……………….. 797-797
 LEVELLING
……………….. 798-805
 CONTOURS
……………….. 806-807
 AREAS AND VOLUME
……………….. 808-808
 PLANE TABLE SURVEY
……………….. 809-809
 CURVES
……………….. 810-811
 PHOTOGRAMMETRY
……………….. 812-814
 TOTAL STATION
………………….815-815
To REGISTER Visit
www.vgacademy.net
Introduction
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13630
The survey carried out to determine
natural features, such as hills, rivers,
forests and manmade features, such as
towns, villages, buildings, roads,
transmission lines and canals is classified
as [GATE-15]
(A) engineering survey
(B) geological survey
(C) land survey
(D) topographic survey
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 6971
In a survey work, three independent angles
X, Y and Z were observed with weights Wx ,
Wy , Wz respectively. The weight of the sum
of angles X , Y and Z is given
by: [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 6970
The survey carried out to determine
nature feature such as hills rivers,
forests and man-made features such as
turns, towns, villages, building roads,
transmission lines and canals is classified
as [GATE-14 AN]
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Introduction
(a) engineering survey
(b) geological survey
(c) land survey
(d) topographic survey
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 6969
The plan of a survey plotted to a scale of
10mto 1cm is reduced in such a way that a
line originally 10cm long now measures
9cm. the area of the reduced plan is
measured as 81cm2. the actual area (m2)
of the survey is (2008)
(A)10000
(B) 6561
(C) 1000
(D) 656
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 6968
The plan of a map was photo copied to a re
duced size such that a line originally 100m
m, measures90mm. The original scale of th
e plan was 1 : 1000. The revised scale is [G
ATE-07]
(a.) 1 : 900
(b.) 1 : 1111
(c.) 1 : 1121
(d.) 1 : 1221
Correct Answer: B
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chain survey
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16136
The interior angles of four triangles are
given below:
[GATE 2019
FN]
Which of the triangles are ill-conditioned
and should be avoided in Triangulation
surveys?
(A) Both Q and S
(B) Both Q and R
(C) Both P and R
(D) Both P and S
Correct Answer: A
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Compass Surveying
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13664
Bearing of the given system is shown
below:
Applying correction due to local attraction,
the correct bearing of line BC will be
[GATE 2013]
(A) 48015’
(B)50015’
(C)49015’
(D) 48045'
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 13439
The observed bearings of a traverse are
given below:
The stations(s) most likely to be affected
by the local attraction is/are
(A) Only R
(B) Only S
(C) R and S
(D) P and Q
Correct Answer: A
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Compass Surveying
3
Question: 8997
The latitude and departure of a line AB are
+78 m and -45.1 m respectively. The whole
circle bearing of the line AB is [GATE 2013]
a) 30°
b) 150°
c) 210°
d) 330°
Correct Answer: D
4
Question: 7045
The reduced bearing of a 10 m long line is
N300E. The departure of the line is(2016
A) 10.00 m
C)7.52m
B)8.66m
D)5.00m
Correct Answer: D
5
Question: 7044
The bearings of two inaccesible stations, S1
(Easting 500 m, Northing 500 m) and S2
(Easting 600m, Northing 450 m) from a
station S3 were observed as 2250 and 1530
26'respectively. The independent Easting
(in m) of station S3 is
[GATE-15]
a) 450.000
b)570.710
c)550.000
d)650.000
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 7043
In a region with magnetic declination of
20E, the magnetic Fore bearing (FB) of a
line AB was measured as N79050' E. There
was local attraction at A. To determine the
correct magnetic bearing of the line, a
point O was selected at which there was no
local attraction. The magnetic FB of line AO
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Compass Surveying
and OA were observed to be S52040'E and
N50020'W, respectively. What iS true FB of
line AB? [GATE-15]
a) N81050'E
B)N82010'E
C)N84010'E
D)N77050'E
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 7041
circle bearing of AB is [GATE 2013]
(a) 30°
(b) 150°
(c) 210°
(d) 330°
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 7040
The local mean time at a place located in
longitude 90º 40’E when the standard time
is 6 hours and 30 minutes and the standard
meridian is 82º 30’E is [GATE-10]
(A) 5 hours, 2 minutes and 40 seconds
(B) 5 hours, 57 minutes and 20 seconds
(C) 6 hours, and 30 minutes
(D) 7 hours, 02 minutes and 40 seconds
Correct Answer: D
9
Question: 7039
The magnetic bearing of a line AB was N
59º 30’W in the year 1967, when the
declination was 4º 10’ E. If the present
declination is 3ºW, the whole circle bearing
of the line is [GATE-09]
(A)299º 20’
(B) 307º 40’
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Compass Surveying
(C) 293º 20’
(D) 301º 40’
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 7038
In quadrantal bearing system, bearing of a
linevaries from [GATE-09]
a) 0º to 360º
(B) 0º to 180º
(C) 0º to 90º
(D) 0ºN to 90ºs
Correct Answer: C
11
Question: 7037
The following table gives data of
consecutive coordinates in respect of a
closed theodolite traverse PQRSP
The magnitude and direction of error of
closure in whole circle bearing are (2007)
(A) 2.0m and 450
(B) 2.0m and 3150
(C) 2.82m and 3150
(D) 3.42m and 450
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 7036
The magnetic bearing of a line AB is S 45°E
and the declination is 5° West. The true b
earing of theline AB is [GATE-07]
(a.) S 45°E
(b.) S 40°E
(c.) S 50°E
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Compass Surveying
(d.) S 50°W
Correct Answer: C
13
Question: 7035
In the figure given below, the lengths PQ (
WCB : 30°) and QR (WCB : 45°) respectivel
y up to threeplaces of decimal are [GATE-0
6]
(a.) 273.205, 938.186
(b.) 273.205, 551.815
(c.) 551.815, 551.815
(d.) 551.815, 938.186
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 7034
The observed magnetic bearing of a line
OE was found to be 1850. It was later
discovered that station O had a location
attraction of +1.50. The true bearing of the
line OE, considering a magnetic declination
of 3.50E shall be [GATE-06]
a)1800
b)1870
c)1900
d)1930
Correct Answer: B
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Theodolite and Traversing
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16198
The data from a closed traverse survey
PQRS (run in the clockwise direction) are
given in the table
The closing error for the traverse PQRS (in
degrees) is_______.[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 3-3
2
Question: 13720
The observations from a closed loop
traverse around an obstacle are
What is the value of the missing
measurement (rounded off to the nearest
10 mm)? [GATE-08]
(A) 396.86 m
(B) 396.79 m
(C) 396.05 m
(D) 396.94 m
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 13614
Group I lists tool/instrument while Group II
lists the method of surveying. Match the
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Theodolite and Traversing
tool/instrument with the corresponding
method of surveying [GATE-14 FN]
(A) P – 3; Q – 2; R – 1; S – 4
(B) P – 2; Q – 4; R – 3; S – 1
(C) P – 1; Q – 2; R – 4; S – 3
(D) P – 3; Q – 1; R – 2; S – 4
Correct Answer: D
4
Question: 13555
In a closed loop traverse of 1 km total
length, the closing errors in departure and
latitude are 0.3 m and 0.4 m,
respectively. [GATE-15]
The relative precision of this traverse will
be;
(A) 1:5000
(B) 1:4000
(C) 1:3000
(D) 1:2000
Correct Answer: D
5
Question: 12191
The following details refer to a closed
traverse:
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Theodolite and Traversing
The length and direction (whole circle
bearing of closure, respectively are (GATE
2018FN)
(A) 1 m and 90°
(B) 2 m and 90°
(C) 1 m and 270°
(D) 2 m and 2700
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 7061
In a closed loop transverse of 1 km total
length, the errors in departure and latitude
are 0.3 m and 0.4 m, respectively. The
relative precision of this traverse will
be: [GATE-15]
a) 1:5000
b) 1: 4000
c) 1:3000
d) 1:2000
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 7060
The length and bearings of a closed
traverse PQRSP are given below. (2008)
The missing length and bearing,
respectively of theline SP are
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Theodolite and Traversing
(A) 207m and 2700
(B) 707m and 2700
(C) 707m and 1800
(D) 907m and 2700
Correct Answer: B
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5.Tacheometry
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13636
A tacheometer was placed at point P to
estimate the horizontal distances PQ and
PR. The corresponding stadia intercepts
with the telescope kept horizontal, are
0.320 m and 0.210 m, respectively. The
∠QPR is measured to be 61030' 30". If the
stadia multiplication constant = 100 and
stadia addition constant = 0.10 m, the
horizontal distance (in m) between the
points Q and R is
_________________ [GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 28.0-29.0
2
Question: 7064
The focal length of the object glass of a
tacheometer is 200mm, the distance
between the vertical axis of the
tacheometer and the optical centre of the
object glass is 100mm and the spacing
between the upper and lower line of the
diaphragm axis is 4mm. with the line of
collimationperfectly horizontal, the staff
intercepts are 1m (top), 2m (middle), and
3m (bottom). The horizontal distance (m)
between the staff and the instrument
station is.(2008)
(A)100.3
(B) 103.0
(C) 150.0
(D) 153.0
Correct Answer: A
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levelling
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16170
A survey line was measured to be 285.5m
with a tape having a nominal length of
30m. On checking, the true length of the
tape was found to be 0.05 m too short. If
the line lay on a slope of 1 in 10, the
reduced length (horizontal length) of the
line for plotting of survey work would be
[GATE 2019 FN]
(A) 285.6m
(B) 283.6m
(C) 285.0m
(D) 284.5m
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 16166
A staff is placed on a benchmark (BM) of
reduced level (RL) 100.000 m and a
theodolite is placed at a horizontal distance
of 50m from the BM to measure the
vertical angles. The measured vertical
angles from the horizontal at the staff
readings of 0.400m and 2.400 m are found
to be the same. Taking the height of the
instrument as 1.400 m, the RL (in m) of the
theodolite station is _______.[GATE 2019
FN]
Correct Answer: 100-100
3
Question: 13713
Curvature correction to a staff reading in a
differential leveling survey is [GATE-11]
(A) always subtractive
(B) always zero
(C) always additive
(D) dependent on latitude
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 13693
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levelling
The horizontal distance between two
stations P and Q is 100 m. The vertical
angles from P and Q to the top of a vertical
tower at T are 3o and 5o above horizontal,
respectively. The vertical angles from P
and Q to the base of the tower are
0.1oand 0.5o below horizontal,
respectively. Stations P, Q and the tower
are in the same vertical plane with P and Q
being on the same side of T. Neglecting
earth’s curvature and atmospheric
refraction, the height (in m) of the tower is
[GATE-12]
(A) 6.972
(B) 12.387
(C) 12.540
(D) 128.745
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 13666
A Theodolite is placed at A and a 3 m long
vertical staff is held at B. The depression
angle made at reading of 2.5m marking on
staff is o6 10'.The horizontal distance
between A and B is 2200 m. The height of
instrument at A is 1.2 m and reduced level
of point A is 880.88 m. Using curvature
correction and refraction correction
determine the R.L. of point B (in m).[GATE
2013]
Correct Answer: 570.205-570.205
6
Question: 13512
The staff reading taken on a workshop floor
using a level is 0.645 m. The inverted staff
reading taken to the bottom of a beam is
2.960 m. The reduced level of the floor is
40.500 m. The reduced level (expressed in
m) of the bottom of the beam is [GATE
2016 FN]
(A) 44.105
(B) 43.460
(C) 42.815
(D) 41.145
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levelling
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 13470
An observer standing on the deck of a ship
just sees the top of a lighthouse. The top of
the lighthouse is 40 m above the sea level
and the height of the observer’s eye is 5 m
above the sea level. The distance (in km,
up to one decimal place) of the observer
form the lighthouse is _______ [GATE 2017
AN]
Correct Answer: 33-33
8
Question: 12246
A level instrument at a height of 1.320 m
has been placed at a station having a
Reduced Level (RL) of 112.565 m. The
instrument reads -2.835 m on a levelling
staff held at the bottom of a bridge deck.
The RL (in m) of the bottom of the bridge
deck is (GATE 2018 AN)
(A) 116.720
(B) 116.080
(C) 114.080
(D) 111.050
Correct Answer: A
9
Question: 7114
The vertical angles subtended by the top of
a Tower T at two instrument stations set up
at P and Q are shown in the figure. The two
stations are in line with the lower and
spaced at a distance of 60 m. readings
taken from these two stations on a leveling
staff placed at the benchmark (BM =
4,50,00m) are also shown in the figure .
The reduced level of the top of the lower T
(expressed in m) is ________[GATE 2016
FN]
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levelling
Correct Answer: 3-3
10
Question: 7112
Two pegs A and B were fixed on opposite
banks of a 50 m wide river. The level was
set up at A and the staff readings on pegs
A and B were observed as 1.350 m and
1.550 m, respectively. Thereafter the
instrument was shifted and set up at B. The
staff readings on Pegs B and A were
observed as 0.750 m and 0.550 m
respectively. If the R.L of pegs A is 100.200
m, the R.L (in m) of peg B is _______
[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 100-100
11
Question: 7111
The combined correction due to curvature
and reflection (in m) for a distance of 1 km
on the surface of Earth is: [GATE-15]
a) 0.0673
b) 0.673
c) 7.63
d) 0.763
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 7110
In a leveling work, sum of the Back Sight
(B.S) and fore Sight(F.S) have been found
to be 3.085 m and 5.645 m respectively. If
the reduced level (R.L) of the starting
station is 100,00 m, the R.L (in m) of the
last station is_______
[GATE-15]
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levelling
Correct Answer: 97.44-97.44
13
Question: 7109
Which of the following statements is
FALSE? [GATE-15]
a) Plumb line is along the direction of
gravity
b) Mean sea level (MSL) is used as a
reference surface for establishing the
horizontal control
c) Mean sea level (MSL) is a simplification
of the Geoid
d) Geoid is an equi-potential surface of
gravity
Correct Answer: B
14
Question: 7108
A levelling is carried out to established the
reduced level (RL) of point R with respect
to the bench mark (BM) at P. The staff
reading taken are given below
[GATE-14 FN]
If R.L of P is +100 m,then RL of R is
a) 103.355
b) 103.155
c) 101.455
d) 100.355
Correct Answer: C
15
Question: 7107
A theodolite having height of instrument
(H.I = 1.2 m is kept at station A, whose R.L
= 808.88m. Avertical staff of height 4 m is
kept at station B at which staff intercept of
2.5 m is made at angleofdepression 6º10´.
Apply curvature and refraction correction
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levelling
to find R.L of station B.
[GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 570.205-570.205
16
Question: 7106
Which of the following errors can be
eliminated by reciprocal measurements in
differential leveling? [GATE-12] [GATE-06]
I . Error due to earth’s curvature
II . Error due to atmospheric refraction
(A)Both I and II
(B) I only
(C) II only
(D) Neither I nor II
Correct Answer: A
17
Question: 7104
A bench mark has been established at the
soffit of an ornamental arch at the known
elevation of 100.0m above sea level. The
back sight used to establish height of
instrument is an inverted staff reading of
2.105m. A forward sight reading with
normally held staff of 1.105m is taken on a
recently constructed plinth. The elevation
of the plinth is [GATE-10]
(A)103.210m
(B) 101.000m
(C) 99.000m
(D) 96.790m
Correct Answer: D
18
Question: 7103
A light house of 120m height is just visible
above the horizon from a ship. The correct
distance (m) between the ship and the
lighthouse considering combined correction
for curvature and refraction, is (2008)
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levelling
(A) 39.098
(B) 42.226
(C) 39098
(D) 42226
Correct Answer: D
19
Question: 7102
The following measurements were made
during testing a leveling
instrument. [GATE-07]
P1is close to P and Q1is close to Q. If the
reduced level of station P is 100.000m, the
reduced level of station Q is
(A) 99.000m
(B) 100.000m
(C) 101.000m
(D) 102.000m
Correct Answer: C
20
Question: 7101
A Bench Mark (BM ) with Reduced Level (RL
)= 155.305m has been established at the fl
oor of aroom. It is required to find out the R
L of the underside of the roof (R) of the roo
m using SpiritLevelling. The Back Sight (BS)
to the BM has been observed as 1.500m w
hereas the Fore Sight (FS)to R has been ob
served as 0.575m (Staff held inverted). The
RL(m) of R will be [GATE-06]
(a.)155.880
(b.)156.230
(c.)157.380
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levelling
(d.)157.860
Correct Answer: C
21
Question: 7100
During a levelling work along a falling gradi
ent using a Dumpy Level and Staff of 3m le
ngth,following successive readings were ta
ken: 1.785, 2.935, 0.360, 1.320. What will
be the correct orderof booking these four r
eadings in a level book? (85 Back Sight, IS :
Intermediate Sight, FS: ForeSight) [GATE06]
(a.) BS, FS, BS, FS
(b.) BS, IS, F S,FS
(c.) BS, IS, IS, FS
(d.) BS, IS, BS, FS
Correct Answer: A
22
Question: 7065
Assertion [a] : Curvature correction must
be applied when the sights are long
Reason [r] : Line of collimation is not a
level line but is tangential to the level line
[GATE-09]
(A) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the
correct reason for [a]
(B) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is
notthe correct reason for [a]
(C) Both [a] and [r] are false
(D) [a] is false but [r] is true
Correct Answer: A
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Contours
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 7083
An imaginary line connecting the points of
equal elevation on the ground surface is
known as [GATE-14 AN]
A) contour line
B) contour interval
C) horizontal
D) contour gradient
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 7082
The Reduced Levels (RLs) of the points P
and Q are +49.600 m and +51.870 m
respectively.Distance PQ is 20 m. The
distance (in m from P) at which the
+51.000 m contour cuts the line PQ is
[GATE-14 AN]
(A) 15.00
(B) 12.33
(C) 3.52
(D) 2.27
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 7081
Consider the following figure, which is an e
xtract from a contour map (scale = 1:20,00
0) of an area.An alignment of a road at a ru
ling gradient of 4% is to be fixed from the p
oint O and beyond. Whatshould be the radi
us of the arc with O as the center to get th
e point of alignment of the next contouron
the map? (GATE 2006)
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Contours
(a.)0.025 cm
(b.)0.25 cm
(c.)2.5 cm
(d.)5.0 cm
Correct Answer: C
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Areas and volume
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16239
A series of perpendicular offsets taken from
a curved boundary wall to a straight survey
line at an interval of 6 m are 1.22, 1.67,
2.04, 2.34, 2.14, 1.87, and 1.15 m. The
area (in m2, round off to 2 decimal places)
boundary by the survey line, curved
boundary wall, the first and the last offsets,
determined using Simpson?s rule, is
_______.[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 68.56-68.56
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Plane table survey
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13459
The method of orientation used, when the
plane table occupies a position not yet
located on the map, is called as [GATE
2017 AN]
(A) traversing
(B) radiation
(C) levelling
(D) resection
Correct Answer: D
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curves
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13637
The chainage of the intersection point of
two straights is 1585.60 m and the angle of
intersection is 1400
. If the radius of a circular curve is 600.00
m, the tangent distance (in m) and length
of the curve (in m), respectively
are [GATE-14 AN]
(A) 418.88 and 1466.08
(B) 218.38 and 1648.49
(C) 218.38 and 418.88
(D) 418.88 and 218.38
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 7096
A circular curve of radius R connects two
straights with a deflection angle of 600.the
tangent length is
a. 0.577R
b. 1.155R
c. 1.732R
d. 3.464R
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 7095
The chianage of the intersection point of
two staright is 1585.60m and the angle of
intersection is 40o .if the radius of a circular
curve is 600m,the tangent distance (in m)
and length of the curve (in m) are
___[GATE-14 AN]
a. 88
b. 38
c. 38
d. 88
and
and
and
and
1466.08
1648.45
418.88
218.38
Correct Answer: C
4
Question: 7094
Two straight lines intersect at an angle of 6
0°. The radius of a curve joining the two str
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curves
aight lines is600 in. The length of long chor
d and mid-ordinates in metres of the curve
are [GATE-07]
(a.) 80.4, 600.0
(b.) 600.0, 80.4
(c.) 600.0, 39.89
(d.) 40.89, 300
Correct Answer: B
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Photogrammetry
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16221
A camera with a focal length of 20 cm
fitted in an aircraft is used for taking
vertical aerial photographs of a terrain. The
average elevation of the terrain is 1200 m
above mean sea level (MSL). What is the
height above MSL at which an aircraft must
fly in order to get the aerial photographs at
a scale of 1:8000? [GATE 2019 AN]
(A) 3200 m
(B) 2800 m
(C) 2600 m
(D) 3000 m
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 13530
Optimal flight planning for a
photogrammetric survey should be carried
out considering
(A) only side-lap
(B) only end-lap
(C) either side-lap or end-lap
(D) both side-lap as well as end-lap
Correct Answer: D
3
Question: 13511
The system that uses the Sun as a source
of electromagnetic energy and records the
naturally radiated and reflected energy
from the object is called [GATE 2016 FN]
(A) Geographical Information System
(B) Global Positioning System
(C) Passive Remote Sensing
(D) Active Remote Sensing Key
Correct Answer: C
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Photogrammetry
4
Question: 13478
Two towers A and B, standing vertically on
a horizontal ground, appear in a vertical
aerial photograph as shown in the figure.
The length of the image of the tower A on
the photograph is1.5 cm and of the tower B
is 2.0 cm. The distance of the top the tower
A (as shown by the arrowhead) is 4.0 cm
and the distance of the top of the tower B
is 6.0 cm, as measured form the principal
point p of the photograph. If the height of
the tower B is 80 m, the height (in meters)
of the tower A is ______ [GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 90-90
5
Question: 13428
The number of spectral bands in the
Enhanced Thematic mapper sensor on the
remote sensing satellite Landsat-7 is [GATE
2017 FN]
A.64
B.10
C.8
D.15
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 12264
An aerial photograph of a terrain having an
average elevation of 1400 m is taken at a
scale of 1:7500. The focal length of the
camera is 15 cm. The altitude of the flight
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Photogrammetry
above mean sea level (in m, up to one
decimal place) is ______ (GATE 2018 AN)
Correct Answer: 2520.0 -2530.0
7
Question: 12192
A square area (on the surface of the earth)
with side 100 m and uniform height,
appears as 1 cm2 on a vertical aerial
photograph. The topographic map shows
that a contour of 650 m passes through the
area. If focal length of the camera lens is
150 mm, the height from which the aerial
photograph was taken, is (GATE 2018FN)
(A) 800 m
(B) 1500 m
(C) 2150 m
(D) 3150 m
Correct Answer: C
8
Question: 7089
A tall tower was photographed from an
elevation of 700 m above the datum.The
radial distances of the top and bottom of
the tower from the principal points are
112.50 mm and 82.40 mm,respectively .If
the bottom of the tower is at an elevation
250 m above the dtum ,then the height
(expressed in m) of the tower is __
Correct Answer: 120.4
9
Question: 7087
The minimum number of satellites needed
for a GPS to determine its position
precisely is [GATE 2016 FN]
(a)2
(b)3
(c)4
(d)24
Correct Answer: C
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Total Station
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13426
The accuracy of an Electronic Distance
Measuring Instrument (EDMI) is specified
as ±(a mm + b ppm). Which one of the
following statements is correct? [GATE
2017 FN]
(A) Both a and b remain constant,
irrespective of the distance being
measured.
(B) a remains constant and b varies in
proportion to the distance being measured.
(C) a varies in proportion to the distance
being measured and b remains constant.
(D) Both a and b vary in proportion to the
distance being measured
Correct Answer: B
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CONSTRUCTION MANAGEMENT
 MATERIALS
……………….. 816-827
 MANAGEMENT
……………….. 828-828
 ESTIMATION AND COSTING ……………….. 829-829
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Materials
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16213
In the context of provisions relating to
durability of concrete, consider the
following assertion:
Assertion (1): As per IS 456-2000, air
entrainment to the extent of 3% to 6% is
required for concrete exposed to marine
environment.
Assertion (2): The equivalent alkali
content (in terms of Na2O equivalent) for a
cement containing 1% and 0.6% of Na2O
and K2O respectively, is approximately
1.4% (rounded to 1 decimal place).
Which one of the following statements is
correct? [GATE 2019 AN]
(A) Assertion (1) is true and Assertion (2)
is FALSE
(B) Both Assertion (1) and Assertion (2)
are TRUE
(C) Both Assertion (1) and Assertion 2) are
FALSE
(D) Assertion (1) is false and Assertion (2)
is TRUE
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 16196
If the fineness modulus of a sample of the
fine aggregates is 4.3, the mean size of the
particle in the sample is between [GATE
2019 AN]
(A) 150 µm and 300 µm
(B) 2.36 mm and 4.75 mm
(C) 300 µm and 600 µm
(D) 1.18 mm and 2.36 mm
Correct Answer: D
3
Question: 16195
The characteristic compressive strength of
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Materials
concrete required is a project is 25 MPa
and standard deviation in the observed
compressive strength expected at site is 4
MPa. The average compressive strength of
cubes tested at different water-cement
(w/c) ratios using the same material as is
used for the project is given in the table.
[GATE 2019 AN]
The water-cement ratio (in percent, round
off to the lower integer) to be used in the
mix is___ [GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 46-46
4
Question: 16154
A box measuring 50 cm × 50 cm × 50 cm
is filled to the top with dry coarse
aggregate of mass 187.5 kg. The water
absorption and specific gravity of the
aggregate are 0.5% and 2.5, respectively.
The maximum quantity of water (in kg,
round off to 2 decimal places) required to
fill the box completely is _____[GATE 2019
FN]
Correct Answer: 50.38-50.38
5
Question: 13894
the cylinder stength of the concrete is less
than the cube strength because of
___[GATE-97]
A.the difference in the shape of the cross
section of the specimens
B.the difference in the slenderness ratio of
the specimens
C.the friction between the concrete
specimens and the steel plate of the
testing machine
D.the cubes are tested without capping but
the cylinders are tested with capping
Correct Answer: B
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Materials
6
Question: 13860
the characterstic strength of concrete is
defined as that compressive strength
below which not more than [GATE -99]
A.10% of results fall
B.5% of results fall
C.2% of results fall
D.none of these
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 13818
Group I contains some properties of
concrete/cement and Group 2 contains list
of some tests on concrete/cement. Match
the property with the corresponding
test.[GATE -03]
Group I
P .workability of concrete
Q .direct tensile strength of concrete
R . bond between concrete and steel
S. fineness of cement
Group II
1. cylinder splitting test
2. Vee-Bee test
3. surface area test
4. fineness modulus test
5. pull out test.
Codes:
P
Q
R
S
(a) 2
1
5
3
(b) 4
5
1
3
(c) 2
1
5
4
(d) 2
5
1
4
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Materials
Correct Answer: C
8
Question: 13657
Maximum possible value of compaction
factor for fresh (green) concrete is[GATE
2013]
(A) 0.5
(B) 1.0
(C) 1.5
(D) 2.0
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 13627
The modulus of elasticity, E= 5000
where fck is the characteristic
compressive strength of concrete, specified
in IS:456-2000 is based on [GATE-14 AN]
(A) tangent modulus
(B) initial tangent modulus
(C) secant modulus
(D) chord modulus
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 13626
The target mean strength fcm for concrete
mix design obtained from the characteristic
strength fck and standard deviation σ, as
defined in IS:456-2000, is [GATE-14 AN]
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Materials
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 13624
Group I contains representative stressstrain curves as shown in the figure, while
Group II gives the list of materials. Match
the stress-strain curves with the
corresponding materials. [GATE-14 AN]
(A) P - 1; Q - 3; R - 2
(B) P - 2; Q - 3; R - 1
(C) P - 3; Q - 1; R - 2
(D) P - 3; Q - 2; R - 1
Correct Answer: B
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Materials
12
Question: 13562
The composition of an air-entrained
concrete is given below:[GATE-15]
water: 184 kg/ m3
ordinary portland cement(OPC):368kg/
m3
sand:606 kg/ m3
coarse aggregate:1155 kg/ m3
Assume the specific gravity of OPC, sand
and coarse aggregate to be 3.14, 2.67 and
2.74, respectively, The air content
is_________litres/m3
Correct Answer: 51-51
13
Question: 13558
Workability of concrete can be measured
using slump, compaction factor and Vebe
time. Consider the following statements for
workability of concrete: [GATE-15]
(i) As the slump increases, the Vebe time
increases
(ii) As the slum increases, the compaction
factor increases Which of the following is
TRUE?
(A) Both (i) and (ii) are True
(B) Both (i) and (ii) are False
(C) (i) is True and (ii) is False
(D) (i) is False and (ii) is True
Correct Answer: D
14
Question: 13551
Consider the following statements for airentrained concrete: [GATE-15]
(i) Air-entrainment reduces the water
demand for a given level of workability
(ii) Use of air-entrained concrete is required
in environments where cyclic freezing and
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Materials
thawing is expected.
Which of the following is TRUE?
(A) Both (i) and (ii) are True
(B) Both (i) and (ii) are False
(C) (i) is True and (ii) is False
(D) (i) is False and (ii) is True
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 13528
As per Indian standards for bricks,
minimum acceptable compressive strength
of any class of burnt clay bricks in dry state
is (Gate 2016-2)
(A) 10.0 MPa
(B) 7.5 MPa
(C) 5.0 MPa
(D) 3.5 MPa
Correct Answer: D
16
Question: 13501
The compound which is largely responsible
for initial setting and early strength gain of
Ordinary Portland Cement is [GATE 2016
FN]
Correct Answer: B
17
Question: 13500
Bull's trench kiln is used in the
manufacturing of [GATE 2016 FN]
(A) Lime
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Materials
(B) cement
(C) bricks
(D) none of these
Correct Answer: C
18
Question: 13474
Group I given a list of test methods and
test apparatus for evaluating some of the
properties of ordinary Portland cement
(OPC) and concrete. Group II gives the list
of these properties.[GATE 2017 AN]
The correct match ofthe items in group I
with the items in Group II is
A.P-1,Q-3,R-4,S-2
B.P-2,Q-3,R-1.S-4
C.P-4,Q-2,R-4,S-1
D.P-1,Q-4,R-2,S-3
Correct Answer: A
19
Question: 12219
The setting time of cement is determined
using (GATE 2018 AN)
(A) Le Chatelier apparatus
(B) Briquette testing apparatus
(C) Vicat apparatus
(D) Casagrande’s apparatus
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Materials
Correct Answer: C
20
Question: 12175
The frequency distribution of the
compressive strength of 20 concrete cube
specimens is given in the table. (GATE
2018 FN)
If µ is the mean strength of the specimens
and σ is the standard deviation, the
number of specimens (out of 20) with
compressive strength less than µ -3σ is
_______
Correct Answer: 0-0
21
Question: 12164
The deformation in concrete due to
sustained loading is (GATE 2018-1)
A. creep
B. hydration
C. segregation
D. shrinkage
Correct Answer: A
22
Question: 12163
The Le Chatelier apparatus is used to
determine
(GATE 2018-1)
A. compressive strength of
cement
B. fineness of cement
C. setting time of cement
D. soundness of cement
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Materials
Correct Answer: D
23
Question: 10413
Aggregate impact value indicates which of
the following properties of
aggregates? [GATE-10]
(a) Durability
(b)Toughness
(c) Hardness
(d)Strength
Correct Answer: B
24
Question: 7617
Column Igives a list of test methods for
evaluating properties of concrete and
Column IIgives the list of properties
The correct match of the test with the
property is [GATE-09]
(A) P-2,Q-4,R-1,S-3
(B) P-2,Q-1,R-4,S-3
(C) P-2,Q-4,R-3,S-1
(D) P-4,Q-3,R-1,S-2
Correct Answer: A
25
Question: 7426
In a random sampling procedure for cube s
trength of concrete, one sample consists of
X number ofspecimens. These specimens
are tested at 28 days and average strength
of these X specimens isconsidered as test
result of the sample, provided the individua
l variation in the strength of specimensis n
ot more than ± Y per cent of the average st
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Materials
rength. The values of X and Y as per IS:456
-2000 are (As per clause 15.4.)[GATE-05]
(a.) 4 and 10 respectively
(b.) 3 and 10 respectively
(c.) 4 and 15 respectively
(d.) 3 and 15 respectively
Correct Answer: D
26
Question: 6958
The results for sieve analysis carried out
for three types of sand P,Q,and R are given
in the adjoining figure .If the fineness
modulus values of the three sands are
given as FMp,FMQ,FMR, it can be stated
that [GATE-11]
Correct Answer: A
27
Question: 5027
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Materials
Consider the following statements:
1. The compressive strength of concrete
decreases with increase in water – cement
ratio of the concrete mix
2. Water is added to the concrete mix for
hydration of cement and workability
3. Creep and shrinkage of concrete are
independent of the water – cement ratio in
the concrete mix
Which of these statements are
correct? [GATE-07] [GATE-12]
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1,2 and 3
Correct Answer: A
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Management
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13468
Consider the following statements:
P. Walls of one brick thick are measured in
square meters.
Q. Walls of one brick thick are measured in
cubic meters.
R. No deduction in the brickwork quantity is
made for openings in walls up to
0.1 m2 area.
S. For the measurement of excavation from
the borrow pit in a fairly uniform ground,
dead men are left at suitable intervals.
For the above statements, the correct
option is [GATE 2017 AN]
(A) P-False; Q-True; R- False: S-True
(B) P-False; Q-True: R-False; S-False
(C) P-True; Q-False; R-True; S- False
(D) P-True; Q-False; R-True; S-True
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 13402
given that the scope of the construction
work is well-defined with all its drawings
,specifications ,quantities and estimates
,which one of the following types of
contract would be most preferred? [GATE
2017 AN]
A.EPC contract
B.percentage rate contract
C.item rate contract
D.Lumpsum contract
Correct Answer: D
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Estimation And Costing
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13468
Consider the following statements:
P. Walls of one brick thick are measured in
square meters.
Q. Walls of one brick thick are measured in
cubic meters.
R. No deduction in the brickwork quantity is
made for openings in walls up to
0.1 m2 area.
S. For the measurement of excavation from
the borrow pit in a fairly uniform ground,
dead men are left at suitable intervals.
For the above statements, the correct
option is [GATE 2017 AN]
(A) P-False; Q-True; R- False: S-True
(B) P-False; Q-True: R-False; S-False
(C) P-True; Q-False; R-True; S- False
(D) P-True; Q-False; R-True; S-True
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 13402
given that the scope of the construction
work is well-defined with all its drawings
,specifications ,quantities and estimates
,which one of the following types of
contract would be most preferred? [GATE
2017 AN]
A.EPC contract
B.percentage rate contract
C.item rate contract
D.Lumpsum contract
Correct Answer: D
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To decide which institute you have to choose for competitive exams, let us see factors that
say why you have to join VG ACADEMY.
 The amount you spent in VG ACADEMY will be the best way you spent money
in your life. We don’t say we have the best content than any other institute in
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institutes which are first choice for students. If you are willing to work hard with
our support you can become topper from anywhere. Contribution of institute in
student success is always less 50%, so every student cannot become topper.
The Basics, aptitude and grasping skills the students have previously are also
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For success you require
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If you have the first we are there to take care of rest.
Arithmetic
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16184
An oil tank can be filled by pipe X in 5
hours and pipe Y in 4 hours, each pump
working on its own. When the oil tank is full
and the drainage hole is open, the oil is
drained in 20 hours. If initially the tank was
empty and someone started the two
pumps together but left the drainage hole
open, how many hours will it tak for the
tank to be filled? (Assume that the rate of
drainage is independent of the head)
[GATE 2019 AN]
(A) 2.50
(B) 1.50
(C) 2.00
(D) 4.00
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 16183
Population of state X increased by x% and
the population of state Y increased by y%
from 2001 to 2011. Assume that x is
greater than y. Let P be the ratio of the
population of state X to state Y in a given
year. The percentage increase in P from
2001 to 2011 is______. [GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 16179
Daytime temperature in Delhi can ___ 40°C
[GATE 2019 AN]
(A) Peak
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Arithmetic
(B) reach
(C) get
(D) stand
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 16178
A retaining wall with measurements 30 m
× 12 m × 6m was constructed with bricks
of dimensions 8 cm × 6cm. If 60% of the
wall consists of bricks used for the
construction is ______ lakhs
[GATE 2019 AN]
(A) 45
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 75
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 16176
Suresh wanted to lay a new carpet in his
new mansion with an area of 70 x 55 sq.
mts. However an area of 550 sq. mts had
to be left out for flower pots. If the cost of
carpet is Rs. 50 per sq. mts, how much
money (in Rs.) will be spent by Suresh for
the carpet now? [GATE 2019 AN]
(A)Rs. 1,65,000
(B) Rs. 1,92,500
(C) Rs. 1,27,500
(D) Rs. 2,75,000
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 16118
In a sports academy of 300 people, 105
play only cricket, 70 play only hockey, 50
play only football, 25 play both cricket and
hockey, 15 play both hockey and football
and 30 play both cricket and football. The
rest of them play all three sports. What is
the percentage of people who play at least
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Arithmetic
two sports? [GATE 2019 FN]
(A) 28.00
(B) 23.30
(C) 50.00
(D) 25.00
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 16116
A square has sides 5 cm smaller than the
sides of a second square. The area of the
larger square is four times the area of the
smaller square. The sided of the larger
square is _________ cm. [GATE 2019 FN]
(A) 18.50
(B) 10.00
(C) 15.10
(D) 8.50
Correct Answer: B
8
Question: 16112
On a horizontal ground, the base of a
straight ladder is 6m away from the base of
a vertical pole. The ladder makes an angle
of 45° to the horizontal. If the ladder is
resting at a point located at one-fifth of the
height of the pole from the bottom, the
height of the pole is ________ meters.[GATE
2019 FN]
(A) 35
(B) 30
(C) 15
(D) 25
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 16111
If E = 10; J = 20; O = 30; and T = 40, what
will be P + E + S + T? [GATE 2019 FN]
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Arithmetic
(A) 51
(B) 120
(C) 82
(D) 164
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 13735
5 skilled workers can build a wall in
20days: 8 semi-skilled workers can build a
wall in 25 days; 10 unskilled workers can
build a wall in 30days. If a team has 2
skilled, 6 semi-skilled and 5 unskilled
workers, how long will it take to build the
wall? [GATE-10]
(A) 20
(B) 18
(C) 16
(D) 15
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 13703
The variable cost (V) of manufacturing a
product varies according to the equation
V= 4q, where q is the quantity produced.
The fixed cost (F) of production of same
product reduces with q according to the
equation F = 100/q. How many units
should be produced to minimize the total
cost (V+F)? [GATE-11]
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C)7
(D) 6
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 13684
A political party orders an arch for the
entrance to the ground in which the annual
convention is being held. The profile of the
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Arithmetic
arch follows the equation y=2x-0.1
x2 where y is the height of the arch in
meters. The maximum possible height of
the arch is [GATE-12]
(A) 8 meters
(B) 10 meters
(C) 12 meters
(D) 14 meters
Correct Answer: B
13
Question: 13680
The cost function for a product in a firm is
given by 5 q2, where q is the amount of
production. The firm can sell the product at
a market price of Rs.50 per unit. The
number of units to be produced by the firm
such that the profit is maximized
is [GATE-12]
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C) 15
(D) 25
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 13645
A firm is selling it product at Rs. 60/unit.
The total cost of production is Rs. 100 and
firm is earning total profit of Rs. 500. Later,
the total cost increased by 30%. By what
percentage the price should be increased
to maintain the same profit level
[GATE 2013]
(A) 5
(B) 15
(C) 10
(D) 30
Correct Answer: A
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Arithmetic
15
Question: 13644
x and y are two positive real numbers, such
that equation
2x+y≤6;
x+ 2y≤ 8
For which values of (x, y), the function f(
x,y) =3x +6y will give maximum value
[GATE 2013]
(A) 4 / 3, 10 / 3
(B) 8 / 3, 20 / 3
(C) 8 / 3, 10 / 3
(D) 4 / 3, 20 / 3
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 13643
A reduction of 5% in price of sugar enables
a housewife to buy 3 kg more for Rs.280.
Find the reduced price [GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 4.667-4.667
17
Question: 13591
A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs
50,000 whenever it operates and a variable
cost of Rs 800Q, where Q is the daily
production in tonnes. What is the cost of
production in Rs per tonne for a daily
production of 100 tonnes? [GATE-14 FN]
Correct Answer: 1300-1300
18
Question: 13590
If y=5x2+3,then the tangent at
x=0,y=3 [GATE-14 FN]
(A) passes through x = 0, y = 0
(B) has a slope of +1
(C) is parallel to the x-axis
(D) has a slope of -1
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Arithmetic
Correct Answer: C
19
Question: 13574
How many four digit numbers can be
formed with the 10 digits
0, 1, 2, ..... 9.
if no number can start with 0 and if
repetitions are not allowed? [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 4536-4536
20
Question: 13573
Mr. Vivek walks 6 meters North-East, then
turns and walks 6 meters South- East, both
at 60 degrees to East. He further moves 2
meters South and 4 meters West. What is
the straight distance in meters between
the point he started from and the point he
finally reached?[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: A
21
Question: 13550
Choose the most appropriate equation for
the function drawn as a thick line, in the
plot below. [GATE-15]
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Arithmetic
(A) x = y-|y|
(B) x = -(y-|y|)
(C) x = y+|y|
(D) x = -(y+|y|)
Correct Answer: B
22
Question: 13545
A function f(x) is linear and has a value of
29 at x = -2 and 39 at x = 3. Find its value
at x = 5. [GATE-15]
(A) 59
(B) 45
(C) 43
(D) 35
Correct Answer: C
23
Question: 13527
Ananth takes 6 hours and Bharath takes 4
hours to read a book. Both started reading
copies of the book at the same time. After
how many hours is the number of pages to
be read by Ananth, twice that to be read by
Bharath? Assume Ananth and Bharath read
all the pages with constant pace.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
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Arithmetic
(D) 4
Correct Answer: C
24
Question: 13526
A square pyramid has a base perimeter x,
and the slant height is half of the
perimeter. What is the lateral surface area
of the pyramid?
(A) X2
(B) 0.75 X2
(C) 0.50 X2
(D) 0.25 X2
Correct Answer: D
25
Question: 13521
(x % of y) + (y % of x) is equivalent to __
.
(A) 2 % of xy
(B) 2 % of (xy/100)
(C) xy % of 100
(D) 100 % of xy
Correct Answer: A
26
Question: 13498
In a process, the number of cycles to
failure decreases exponentially with an
increase in load. At a load of 80 units, it
takes 100 cycles for failure. When the load
is halved, it takes 10000 cycles for failure.
The load for which the failure will happen in
5000 cycles is
. [GATE 2016 FN]
(A) 40.00
(B) 46.02
(C) 60.01
(D) 92.02
Correct Answer: B
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Arithmetic
27
Question: 13497
If f(x)=2x2+3x-5,which of the following is a
factor of f(x)?[GATE 2016 FN]
A.x2+8
B.(x-1)
C.(2x-5)
D.(x+1)
Correct Answer: B
28
Question: 13493
A cube is built using 64 cubic blocks of side
one unit. After it is built, one cubic block is
removed from every corner of the cube.
The resulting surface area of the body (in
square units) after the removal is
[GATE
2016 FN]
.
(A) 56
(B) 64
(C) 72
(D) 96
Correct Answer: D
29
Question: 13483
The event would have been successful if
you ______ able to come.[GATE 2017 AN]
(A) are
(B) had been
(C) have been
(D) would have been
Correct Answer: B
30
Question: 13482
What is the value of x when 81
x(1625)x+2÷(35)2x+4=144? [GATE 2017
AN]
A.1
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Arithmetic
B.-1
C.-2
D.cannot be determined
Correct Answer: B
31
Question: 13445
If the radius of a right circular cone is
increased by 50%, its volume increases by
[GATE 2017 FN]
(A) 75%
(B) 100%
(C) 125%`
(D) 237.5%
Correct Answer: C
32
Question: 13443
The following sequence of numbers is
arranged in increasing
order: 1,x,x,x,y,y,9,16,18.
Given that the mean and median are equal,
and are also equal to twice the mode, the
value of y is [GATE 2017 FN]
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8
Correct Answer: D
33
Question: 13414
for a non-negative integers a,b,c what
would be the value of a+b+c if
loga+logb+logc=0?
[GATE 2018 AN]
A.3
B.1
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Arithmetic
C.0
D.-1
Correct Answer: A
34
Question: 13413
,where a,b,n and m are natural numbers
[GATE 2018 AN]
What is the value of
Correct Answer: B
35
Question: 12215
given that
for x=10 for x≠y≠z,what is the value of
the product PQR? (GATE 2018 AN)
A.0
B.1
C.xyz
D.10xyz
Correct Answer: B
36
Question: 12213
A faulty wall clock is known to gain 15
minutes every 24 hours. It is synchronized
to the correct time at 9 AM on 11th July.
What will be the correct time to the nearest
minute when the clock shows 2 PM on 15th
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Arithmetic
July of the same year? (GATE 2018 AN)
(A) 12:45 PM
(B) 12:58 PM
(C) 1:00 PM
(D) 2:00 PM
Correct Answer: B
37
Question: 12212
In manufacturing industries, loss is usually
taken to be proportional to the square of
the deviation from a target. If the loss is
Rs. 4900 for a deviation of 7 units, what
would be the loss in Rupees for a deviation
of 4 units from the target? (GATE 2018 AN)
(A) 400
(B) 1200
(C) 1600
(D) 2800
Correct Answer: C
38
Question: 12210
A three-member committee has to be
formed from a group of 9 people. How
many such distinct committees can be
formed? (GATE 2018 AN)
(A) 27
(B) 72
(C) 81
(D) 84
Correct Answer: D
39
Question: 12159
The price of a wire made of a super alloy
material is proportional to the square of its
length. The price of 10 m length of the wire
is Rs. 1600. What would be the total price
(in Rs.) of two wires of lengths 4 m and
6m?
(GATE 2018-1)
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Arithmetic
(A) 768
(B) 832
(C) 1440
(D) 1600
Correct Answer: B
40
Question: 12158
A fruit seller sold a basket of fruits at
12.5% loss. Had he sold it for Rs. 108 more,
he would have made a 10% gain. What is
the loss in Rupees incurred by the fruit
seller?
(GATE 2018-1)
(A) 48
(B) 52
(C) 60
(D) 108
Correct Answer: C
41
Question: 12157
The temperature T in a room varies as a
function of the outside temperature To
and the number of persons in the room p,
according to the relation T=(K(θp+To),
Where θ and K are constants. What would
be the value of θ given the following data?
[GATE 2018 FN]
A.0.8
B.1.0
C.2.0
D.10.0
Correct Answer: B
42
Question: 12156
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Arithmetic
Tower A is 90 m tall and tower B is 140 m
tall. They are 100 m apart. A horizontal
skywalk connects the floors at 70 m in both
the towers. If a taut rope connects the top
of tower A to the bottom of tower B, at
what distance (in meters) from tower A will
the rope intersect the skywalk? (GATE
2018-1)
(A) 22.22
(B) 50
(C) 57.87
(D) 77.78
Correct Answer: A
43
Question: 12155
Hema’s age is 5 years more than twice
Hari’s age. Suresh’s age is 13 years less
than 10 times Hari’s age. If Suresh is 3
times as old as Hema, how old is Hema?
(GATE 2018FN)
(A) 14
(B) 17
(C) 18
(D) 19
Correct Answer: D
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Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org)
Reasoning
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16185
“Popular Hindi fiction, despite – or perhaps
because of – its wide reach, often does not
appear in our cinema. As ideals that
viewers are meant to look up to rather than
identify with, Hindi film protagonists
usually read books of aspirational value:
textbooks, English books, or high value
literature.”
Which one of the following CANNOT be
inferred from the paragraph above? [GATE
2019 AN]
(A) Textbooks, English books or high
literature have aspirational value, but not
popular Hindi fiction
(B) Protagonists in Hindi movies, being
ideals for viewers, read only books of
aspirational value
(C) People do not look up to writers of
textbooks, English books or high value
literature
(D) Though popular Hindi fiction has wide
reach, it often does not appear in the
movies
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 16182
The Newspaper report that over 500
hectares of tribal land spread across 28
tribal settlements in Mohinitampuram
forest division have already been
“alienated?. A top forest official said, “First
the tribals are duped out of their land
holdings. Second, the families thus
rendered landless are often forced to
encroach further into the forests”. On the
basis of the information available in the
paragraph, ___ is/are responsible for duping
the tribals. [GATE 2019 AN]
(A) The newspaper
(B) Landless families
(C) forest officials
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Reasoning
(D) it cannot be inferred who
Correct Answer: D
3
Question: 16181
Mohan, the manager, wants his four
workers to work in pairs. No pair should
work for more than 5 hours. Ramand John
have worked together for 5 hours. Krishna
and Amir have worked as a team for 2
hours. Krishna doesnot want to work with
Ram. Whom should Mohan allot to work
with John, if he wants all the workers to
continue working? [GATE 2019 AN]
(A) Amir
(B) Krishna
(C) Ram
(D) None of three
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 16120
The new cotton technology, Bollgard-II,
with herbicide tolerant traits has developed
into a thriving business in India. However,
the commercial use of this technology is
not legal in India. Now with standing that,
reports indicate that the herbicide tolerant
Bt cotton had been purchased by farmers
at an average of Rs. 200 more than the
control price of ordinary cotton, and
planted in 15% of the cotton growing area
in the 2017 Kharif season [GATE 2019
FN]
Which of the following statements can be
inferred from the given passage?
(A) Farmers want to access the new
technology by paying high price
(B) Farmers want to access the new
technology if India benefits from it
(C) Farmers want to access the new
technology for experimental purposes
(D) Farmers want to access the new
technology even if it is not legal
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Reasoning
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 16119
P, Q, R, S and T are related and belong to
the same family. P is the brother of S. Q is
the wife of P. R and T are the children of
the siblings P and S respectively. Which
one of the following statements is
necessarily FALSE? [GATE 2019 FN]
(A) S is the aunt of T
(B) S is the aunt of R
(C) S is the sister-in-law of Q
(D) S is the brother of P
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 13738
If 137+276=435 how much is
731+672? [GATE-10]
(A) 534
(B) 1403
(C) 1623
(D)1513
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 13737
Given digits 2,2,3,3,4,4,4,4 how many
distinct 4 digit numbers greater than 3000
can be formed? [GATE-10]
(A) 50
(B) 51
(C) 52
(D) 54
Correct Answer: B
8
Question: 13736
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Reasoning
Modern warfare has changed from large
scale clashes of armies to suppression of
civilian populations. Chemical agents that
do their work silently appear to be suited to
such warfare; and regretfully, there exist
people in military establishments who think
that chemical agents are useful tools for
their cause.
Which of the following statements best
sums up the meaning of the above
passage: [GATE-10]
(A) Modern warfare has resulted in civil
strife.
(B) Chemical agents are useful in modern
warfare.
(C) Use of chemical agents in warfare
would be undesirable
(D) People in military establishments like to
use chemical agents in war.
Correct Answer: D
9
Question: 13734
Hari (H), Gita (G), Irfan (I) and Saira (S) are
siblings (i.e. brothers and sisters). All were
born on 1st January. The age difference
between any two successive siblings (that
is born one after another) is less than 3
years. Given the following facts: [GATE-10]
i. Hari’s age + Gita’s age > Irfan’s age +
Saira’s age
ii. The age difference between Gita and
Saira is 1 year. However Gita is not the
oldest and Saira is not the youngest.
iii. There are no twins.
In what order were they born (oldest first)?
(A) HSIG
(B) SGHI
(C) IGSH
(D) IHSG
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Reasoning
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 13733
25 persons are in a room. 15 of them play
hockey, 17 of them play football and 10 of
them play both hockey and football. Then
the number of persons playing neither
hockey nor football is: [GATE-10]
(A) 2
(B)17
(C)13
(D) 3
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 13702
A transporter receives the same number of
orders each day. Currently, he has some
pending orders (backlog) to be shipped. If
he uses 7 trucks, then at the end of the 4th
day he can clear all the orders.
Alternatively, if he uses only 3 trucks, then
all the orders are cleared at the end of the
10th day. What is the minimum number of
trucks required so that there will be no
pending order at the end of the 5th
day? [GATE-11]
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 13701
A container originally contains 10 litres of
pure spirit. From this container 1 litre of
spirit is replaced with 1 litre of water.
Subsequently, 1 litre of the mixture is
again replaced with 1 litre of water and this
process is repeated one more time. How
much spirit is now left in the
container? [GATE-11]
(A) 7.58 litres
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Reasoning
(B) 7.84 litres
(C) 7 litres
(D) 7.29 litres
Correct Answer: D
13
Question: 13700
Few school curricula include a unit on
how to deal with bereavement and
grief, and yet all students at some
point in their lives suffer from losses
through death and parting.
Based on the above passage which topic
would not be included in a unit on
bereavement?
(A) how to write a letter of condolence
(B) what emotional stages are passed
through in the healing process
(C) what the leading causes of death are
(D) how to give support to a grieving
friend
Correct Answer: C
14
Question: 13699
P, Q, R and S are four types of dangerous
microbes recently found in a human
habitat. The area of each circle with its
diameter printed in brackets represents the
growth of a single microbe surviving
human immunity system within 24 hours of
entering the body. The danger to human
beings varies proportionately with the
toxicity, potency and growth attributed to a
microbe shown in the figure below:
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Reasoning
A pharmaceutical company is
contemplating the development of a
vaccine against the most dangerous
microbe. Which microbe should the
company target in its first
attempt? [GATE-11]
(A) P
(B) Q
(C)R
(D) S
Correct Answer: D
15
Question: 13694
If Log(P) =(1/2) Log (Q)=(1/3) Log R ,then
which of he following options is
TRUE ? [GATE-11]
Correct Answer: B
16
Question: 13688
An automobile plant contracted to buy
shock absorbers from two suppliers X and
Y. X supplies 60% and Y supplies 40% of
the shock absorbers. All shock absorbers
are subjected to a quality test. The ones
that pass the quality test are considered
reliable. Of X’s shock absorbers, 96% are
reliable. Of Y’s shock absorbers, 72% are
reliable.
The probability that a randomly chosen
shock absorber, which is found to be
reliable, is made by Y is [GATE-12]
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Reasoning
(A) 0.288
(B) 0.334
(C) 0.667
(D) 0.720
Correct Answer: B
17
Question: 13687
Which of the following assertions are
CORRECT? [GATE-12]
P: Adding 7 to each entry in a list adds 7 to
the mean of the list
Q: Adding 7 to each entry in a list adds 7 to
the standard deviation of the list
R: Doubling each entry in a list doubles the
mean of the list
S: Doubling each entry in a list leaves the
standard deviation of the list unchanged
(A) P, Q
(B) Q, R
(C) P, R
(D) R, S
Correct Answer: C
18
Question: 13686
Given the sequence of terms, AD CG FK
JP, the next term is [GATE-12]
(A) OV
(B) OW
(C) PV
(D) PW
Correct Answer: A
19
Question: 13685
Wanted Temporary, Part-time persons for
the post of Field Interviewer to conduct
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Reasoning
personal interviews to collect and collate
economic data. Requirements: High Schoolpass, must be available for Day, Evening
and Saturday work. Transportation paid,
expenses reimbursed.
Which one of the following is the best
inference from the above
advertisement? [GATE-12]
(A) Gender-discriminatory
(B) Xenophobic
(C) Not designed to make the post
attractive
(D) Not gender-discriminatory
Correct Answer: C
20
Question: 13679
Choose the most appropriate alternative
from the options given below to complete
the following sentence: [GATE-12]
Despite several _____________ the mission
succeeded in its attempt to resolve the
conflict.
(A) attempts
(B) setbacks
(C) meetings
(D) delegations
Correct Answer: B
21
Question: 13647
Following table provides figures (in rupees)
on annual expenditure of a firm for two
years - 2010 and 2011.[GATE 2013]
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Reasoning
Which one of the following increased by
same percentage in year 2010-2011?
(A) Raw material and salary and wages
(B) Salary and wages and advertising
(C) Power and fuel and advertising
(D) Raw material and research and
development
Correct Answer: D
22
Question: 13646
Abhishek is elder to Savan, Savan is
younger to Anshul.[GATE 2013]
The correct relations is
(A) Abhishek is elder to Anshul
(B) Anshul is elder to Abhishek
(C) Abhishek and Anshul are of same age
(D) No conclusion can be drawn
Correct Answer: D
23
Question: 13638
A number is as much greater than 75 as it
is smaller than 117. The number is:[GATE
2013]
(A) 91
(B) 93
(C) 89
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Reasoning
(D) 96
Correct Answer: D
24
Question: 13623
10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A
new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is
available; this kit correctly identifies HIV+
individuals 95% of the time, and HIV−
individuals 89% of the time. A particular
patient is tested using this kit and is found
to be positive. The probability that the
individual is actually positive is ______
[GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 0.48-0.49
25
Question: 13622
X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km
southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1
km south of W. Q is 1 km east of P. What is
the distance between X and Q in km?
[GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: C
26
Question: 13621
The total exports and revenues from the
exports of a country are given in the two
pie charts below. The pie chart for exports
shows the quantity of each item as a
percentage of the total quantity of exports.
The pie chart for the revenues shows the
percentage of the total revenue generated
through export of each item. The total
quantity of exports of all the items is 5 lakh
tonnes and the total revenues are 250
crore rupees. What is the ratio of the
revenue generated through export of Item
1 per kilogram to the revenue generated
through export of Item 4 per kilogram?
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Reasoning
[GATE-14 AN]
(A) 1:2
(B) 2:1
(C) 1:4
(D) 4:1
Correct Answer: D
27
Question: 13620
Moving into a world of big data will require
us to change our thinking about the merits
of exactitude. To apply the conventional
mindset of measurement to the digital,
connected world of the twenty-first century
is to miss a crucial point. As mentioned
earlier, the obsession with exactness is an
artefact of the information-deprived analog
era. When data was sparse, every data
point was critical, and thus great care was
taken to avoid letting any point bias the
analysis. From “BIG DATA” Viktor MayerSchonberger and Kenneth Cukier
[GATE-14 AN]
The main point of the paragraph is:
(A) The twenty-first century is a digital
world
(B) Big data is obsessed with exactness
(C) Exactitude is not critical in dealing with
big data
(D) Sparse data leads to a bias in the
analysis
Correct Answer: C
28
Question: 13619
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Reasoning
In a group of four children, Som is younger
to Riaz. Shiv is elder to Ansu. Ansu is
youngest in the group. Which of the
following statements is/are required to find
the eldest child in the group? [GATE-14
AN]
Statements :
1. Shiv is younger to Riaz.
2. Shiv is elder to Som.
(A) Statement 1by itself determines the
eldest child.
(B) Statement 2 by itself determines the
eldest child.
(C) Statement 1 and 2 are both required to
determine the eldest child.
(D) Statement 1 and 2 are not sufficient to
determine the eldest child.
Correct Answer: A
29
Question: 13596
The monthly rainfall chart based on 50
years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the
following figure. Which of the following are
true? (k percentile is the value such that k
percent of the data fall below that
value)[GATE-14 FN]
(i) On average, it rains more in July than in
December
(ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in
August is more than that in January
(iii) July rainfall can be estimated with
better confidence than February rainfall
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Reasoning
(iv) In August, there is at least 500 mm of
rainfall
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) and (iv)
Correct Answer: B
30
Question: 13595
One percent of the people of country X are
taller than 6 ft. Two percent of the people
of country Y are taller than 6 ft. There are
thrice as many people in country X as in
country Y. Taking both countries together,
what is the percentage of people taller
than 6 ft? [GATE-14 FN]
(A) 3.0
(B) 2.5
(C) 1.5
(D) 1.25
Correct Answer: A
31
Question: 13594
The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to
two thirds of the smallest angle of a
quadrilateral. The ratio between the angles
of the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest
angle of the triangle is twice its smallest
angle. What is the sum, in degrees, of the
second largest angle of the triangle and
the largest angle of the
quadrilateral? [GATE-14 FN]
A.1000
B.1800
C.110o
D.200o
Correct Answer: 180-180
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Reasoning
32
Question: 13593
Anuj, Bhola, Chandan, Dilip, Eswar and
Faisal live on different floors in a sixstoreyed building (the ground floor is
numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so
on). Anuj lives on an even-numbered floor.
Bhola does not live on an odd numbered
floor. Chandan does not live on any of the
floors below Faisal’s floor. Dilip does not
live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live
on a floor immediately above or
immediately below Bhola. Faisal lives three
floors above Dilip. Which of the following
floor-person combinations is
correct?[GATE-14 FN]
Correct Answer: A
33
Question: 13592
Find the odd one in the following group:
ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIK [GATE-14
FN]
(A) ALRVX
(B) EPVZB
(C) ITZDF
(D) OYEIK
Correct Answer: A
34
Question: 13589
Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided to
do the project on his own. On observing his
unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that
he preferred to work independently.
[GATE-14 FN]
Which one of the statements below is
logically valid and can be inferred from the
above sentences?
(A) Rajan has decided to work only in a
group.
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Reasoning
(B) Rajan and Sajan were formed into a
group against their wishes.
(C) Sajan had decided to give in to Rajan’s
request to work with him.
(D) Rajan had believed that Sajan and he
would be working together
Correct Answer: A
35
Question: 13578
The given question is followed by two
statements: select the most appropriate
option that solves the question
Capacity of a solution tank A is 70% of the
capacity of tank B. How many gallons of
solution are in tank A and tank
B?[GATE-15]
Statements:
I. Tank A is 80% full and tank B is 40% full
II. Tank A if full contains 14,000 gallons of
solution
(A) Statement I alone is sufficient
(B) Statement II alone is sufficient
(C) Either statement I or II alone is
sufficient
(D) Both the statements I and II together
are sufficient
Correct Answer: D
36
Question: 13577
Read the following table giving sales data
of five types of batteries for years 2006 to
2012
Out of the following, which type of battery
achieved highest growth between the
years 2006 and 2012? [GATE-15]
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Reasoning
(A) Type V
(B) Type III
(C) Type II
(D) Type I
Correct Answer: D
37
Question: 13576
There are 16 teachers who can teach
Thermodynamics (TD), 11 who can teach
Electrical Sciences (ES), and 5 who can
teach both TD and Engineering Mechanics
(EM). There are a total of 40 teachers, 6
cannot teach any of the three subjects, i.e.
EM, ES or TD. 6 can teach only ES. 4 can
teach all three subjects, i.e. EM, ES and TD.
4 can teach ES and TD. How many can
teach both ES and EM but not
TD? [GATE-15]
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Correct Answer: A
38
Question: 13549
Alexander turned his attention towards
India, since he had conquered Persia.
Which one of the statements below is
logically valid and can be inferred from the
above sentence? [GATE-15]
(A) Alexander would not have turned his
attention towards India had he not
conquered Persia.
(B) Alexander was not ready to rest on his
laurels, and wanted to march to India
(C) Alexander was completely in control of
his army and could command it to move
towards India.
(D) Since Alexander’s kingdom extended to
Indian borders after the conquest of Persia,
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Reasoning
he was keen to move further.
Correct Answer: A
39
Question: 13548
Most experts feel that in spite of
possessing all the technical skills required
to be a batsman of the highest order., he is
unlikely to be so due to lack of requisite
temperament. He was guilty of throwing
away his wicket several times after working
hard to lay a strong foundation. His critics
pointed out that until he addressed to this
problem, success at the highest level will
continue to elude him. [GATE-15]
Which of the statement (s) below
is/are logically valid and can be inferred
from the above passage?
(i) He was already a successful batsman at
the highest level
(ii) He has to improve his temperament in
order to become a great batsman
(iii) He failed to make many of his good
starts count
(iv) Improving his technical skills will
guarantee success
(A) (iii) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) (ii) only
Correct Answer: B
40
Question: 13547
The exports and imports (in crores of Rs.)
of a country from the year 2000 to 2007
are given in the following bar chart. In
which year is the combined percentage
increase in imports and exports the
highest?[GATE-15]
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Reasoning
Correct Answer: 2006-2006
41
Question: 13546
The head of a newly formed government
desires to appoint five of the six selected
members P,Q,R,S,T and U to portfolios of
Home, Power, Defense, Telecom and
Finance. U does not want any portfolio if S
gets one of the five. R wants either Home
or Finance or no portfolio. Q says that if S
gets either Power or Telecom, then she
must get the other one. T insists on a
portfolio if P gets one. [GATE-15]
Which is the valid distribution of portfolio?
(A) P-Home, Q-Power, R-Defense, STelecom, T-Finance
(B) R-Home, S-Power, P-Defense, QTelecom, T-Finance
(C) P-Home, Q-Power, T-Defense, STelecom, U-Finance
(D) Q-Home, U-Power, T-Defense, RTelecom, P-Finance
Correct Answer: B
42
Question: 13525
Fact 1: Humans are mammals.
Fact 2: Some humans are engineers.
Fact 3: Engineers build houses.
If the above statements are facts, which of
the following can be logically inferred?
I. All mammals build houses.
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Reasoning
II.Engineers are mammals.
III. Some humans are not engineers.
(A) II only.
(B) III only.
(C) I, II and III.
(D)I only.
Correct Answer: B
43
Question: 13524
Today, we consider Ashoka as a great ruler
because of the copious evidence he left
behind in the form of stone carved edicts.
Historians tend to correlate greatness of a
king at his time with the availability of
evidence today. Which of the following can
be logically inferred from the above
sentences?
(A) Emperors who do not leave significant
sculpted evidence are completely
forgotten.
(B) Ashoka produced stone carved edicts
to ensure that later historians will respect
him.
(C) Statues of kings are a reminder of
their greatness.
(D) A king’s greatness, as we know him
today, is interpreted by historians
Correct Answer: D
44
Question: 13523
Two finance companies, P and Q, declared
fixed annual rates of interest on the
amounts invested with them. The rates of
interest offered by these companies may
differ from year to year. Year-wise annual
rates of interest offered by these
companies are shown by the line graph
provided below
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Reasoning
If the amounts invested in the companies,
P and Q, in 2006 are in the ratio 8:9, then
the amounts received after one year as
interests from companies P and Q would be
in the ratio:
(A) 2:3
(B) 3:4
(C) 6:7
(D) 4:3
Correct Answer: D
45
Question: 13522
The sum of the digits of a two digit number
is 12. If the new number formed by
reversing the digits is greater than the
original number by 54, find the original
number. [GATE-15]
(A) 39
(B) 57
(C) 66
(D) 93
Correct Answer: A
46
Question: 13496
Consider the following statements relating
to the level of poker play of four players P,
Q, R and S. [GATE 2016 FN]
I. P always beats Q
II. R always beats S
III. S loses to P only sometimes
IV. R always loses to Q
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Reasoning
Which of the following can be logically
inferred from the above statements?
(i) P is likely to beat all the three other
players
(ii S is the absolute worst player in the set
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (i) and (ii)
(D) neither (i) nor (ii)
Correct Answer: A
47
Question: 13495
Indian currency notes show the
denomination indicated in at least
seventeen languages. If this is not an
indication of the nation?s diversity, nothing
else is.
Which of the following can be logically
inferred from the above sentences? [GATE
2016 FN]
(A) India is a country of exactly
seventeen languages.
(B) Linguistic pluralism is the only
indicator of a nation?s diversity.
(C) Indian currency notes have sufficient
space for all the Indian languages.
(D) Linguistic pluralism is strong evidence
of India?s diversity.
Correct Answer: D
48
Question: 13494
A shaving set company sells 4 different
types of razors, Elegance, Smooth, Soft and
Executive. Elegance sells at Rs. 48, Smooth
at Rs. 63, Soft at Rs. 78 and Executive at
Rs. 173 per piece. The table below shows
the numbers of each razor sold in each
quarter of a year. [GATE 2016 FN]
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Reasoning
Which product contributes the greatest
fraction to the revenue of the company in
that year?
(A) Elegance
(B) Executive
(C) Smooth
(D) Soft
Correct Answer: D
49
Question: 13488
The points in the graph below represent
the halts of a lift for duration of 1 minute,
over a period of 1 hour
Which of the following statements are
correct?[GATE 2017 AN]
i. The elevator never moves directly from
any non-ground floor to another nonground floor over the one hour period
ii. The elevator stays on the fourth floor for
the longest duration over the one hour
period
(A) Only i
(B) Only ii
(C) Both i and ii
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Reasoning
(D) Neither i nor ii
Correct Answer: D
50
Question: 13487
Budhan covers a distance of 19 km in 2
hours by cycling one fourth of the time and
walking the rest. The next day he cycles (at
the same speed as before) for half the time
and walks the rest (at the same speed as
before) and covers 26 km in 2 hours. The
speed in km/h at which Budhan walks
is [GATE 2017 AN]
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Correct Answer: D
51
Question: 13486
A map shows the elevations of Darjeeling,
Gangtok, Kalimpong, pelling, and Siliguri.
Kalimpong is at a lower elevation than
Gangtok. Pelling is at a lower elevation
than Gangtok. Pelling is at a higher
elevation that siliguri. Darjeeling is at a
higher elevation than Gangtok.
Which of the following statements can be
inferred from the paragraph above? [GATE
2017 AN]
i. Pelling is at a higher elevation than
Kalimpong
ii. Kalimpong is at a lower elevation than
Darjeeling
iii. Kalimpong is at a higher elevation than
siliguri
iv. Siliguri is at a lower elevation than
Gangtok
(A) Only ii
(B) Only ii and iii
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Reasoning
(C) Only ii and iv
(D) Only iii and iv
Correct Answer: C
52
Question: 13485
Bhaichung was observing the pattern of
people entering and leaving a car service
centre. There was a single window where
customers were being served. He saw that
people inevitably came out of the centre in
the order that they went in. However, the
time they spent inside seemed to vary a
lot: some people came out in a matter of
minutes while for others it took much
longer. [GATE 2017 AN]
From this, what can one conclude?
(A) The centre operates on a first-comefirst-served basis but with variable service
times, depending on specific customer
needs.
(B) Customers were served in an arbitrary
order since they took varying amounts of
time for service completion in the centre.
(C) Since some people came out within a
few minutes of entering the centre. The
system is likely to operate on a last-comefirst-served basis.
(D) Entering the centre early ensured that
one would have shorter service times and
most people attempted to do this.
Correct Answer: A
53
Question: 13484
P,Q,R,S,T and U are seated around a
circular table. R is seated two places to the
right of Q.P is seated three places to the
left of R. S is seated opposite U. If P and U
now switch seats. Which of the following
must necessarily be true? [GATE 2017 AN]
(A) P is immediately to the right of R
(B) T is immediately to the left of P
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Reasoning
(C) T is immediately to the left of P or P is
immediately to the right of Q
(D) U is immediately to the right of R or P is
immediately to the left of T
Correct Answer: C
54
Question: 13481
Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The
probability that the product of the numbers
appearing on the top faces of the dice is a
perfect square is [GATE 2017 AN]
(A) 1/9
(B) 2/9
(C) 1/3
(D) 4/9
Correct Answer: B
55
Question: 13480
Four cards lie on a table. Each card has a
number printed on one side and a colour
on the other. The faces visible on the cards
are 2, 3, red, and blue. Proposition: If a
card has an even value on one side, then
its opposite face is red.
The cards which MUST be turned over to
verify the above proposition are
[GATE 2017 AN]
(A) 2, Red
(B) 2, 3, red
(C) 2, blue
(D) 2, red, blue
Correct Answer: C
56
Question: 13451
The old concert hall was demolished
because of fears that the foundation would
be affected by the construction tried to
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Reasoning
mitigate the impact of pressurized air
pockets created by the excavation of large
amounts of soil. But even with these
safeguards, it was feared that the soil
below the concert hall would not be
stable. [GATE 2017 FN]
From this, one can infer that
(A) The foundations of old buildings create
pressurized air pockets underground, which
are difficult to handle during metro
construction.
(B) Metro construction has to be done
carefully considering its impact on the
foundations of existing buildings.
(C) Old buildings in an area form an
impossible hurdle to metro construction in
that area.
(D) Pressurized air can be used to excavate
large amounts of soil from underground
areas.
Correct Answer: B
57
Question: 13450
Two machines M1 and M2 are able to
execute any of four jobs P, Q, R and S. The
machines can perform one job on one
object at a time. Jobs P, Q, R and S take 30
minutes, 20 minutes, 60 minutes and 15
minutes each respectively. There are 10
objects each requiring exactly 1 job. Job P
is to be performed on 2 objects. Job Q on 3
objects. Job R on 1 object and Job on 4
objects. What is the minimum time needed
to complete all the jobs? [GATE 2017 FN]
(A) 2 hours
(B) 2.5 hours
(C) 3 hours
(D) 3.5 hours
Correct Answer: A
58
Question: 13449
The last digit of (2171)7+(2172)9+(2174)13
is [GATE 2017 FN]
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Reasoning
A.2
B.4
C.6
D.8
Correct Answer: B
59
Question: 13448
The bar graph below shows the output of
five carpenters over one month, each of
whom made different items of furniture:
Chairs, tables, and beds.
Consider the following statements. i. The
number of beds made by carpenter C2 is
exactly the same as the same as the
number of tables made by carpenter C3.
ii. The total number of chairs made by all
carpenters is less than the total number of
tables. Which one of the following is
true? [GATE 2017 FN]
(A) Only i
(B) Only ii
(C) Both i and ii
(D) Neither i nor ii
Correct Answer: C
60
Question: 13447
Students applying for hostel rooms are
allotted rooms in order of seniority.
Students already staying in a room will
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Reasoning
move if they get a room in their preferred
list. Preferences of lower ranked applicants
are ignored during allocation.
Given the data below, which room will Ajit
stay in? [GATE 2017 FN]
A.P
B.Q
C.R
D.S
Correct Answer: B
61
Question: 13442
Consider the following sentences:
All benches are beds. No bed is a bulb.
Some bulbs are lamps.
Which of the following can be
inferred? [GATE 2017 FN]
i. Some beds are lamps.
ii. Some lamps are beds.
(A) Only i
(B) Only ii
(C) Both i and ii
(D) Neither i nor ii
Correct Answer: D
62
Question: 13409
consider a sequence of numbers
a1,a2,a3….an where
for
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Reasoning
each integer n>0 .what is the sum of the
first 50 terms? [GATE 2018 FN]
Correct Answer: C
63
Question: 13408
which of the following function(s) is an
accurate description of the graph for the
range (s) indicated?
[GATE 2018 FN]
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Reasoning
Correct Answer: A
64
Question: 12216
Each of the letters in the figure below
represents a unique integer from 1 to 9.
The letters are positioned in the figure such
that each of (A+B+C), (C+D+E), (E+F+G)
and (G+H+K) is equal to 13. Which integer
does E represent? (GATE 2018 AN)
A.1
B.4
C.6
D.7
Correct Answer: B
65
Question: 12214
The annual average rainfall in a tropical
city is 1000 mm. On a particular rainy day
(24-hour period), the cumulative rainfall
experienced by the city is shown in the
graph. Over the 24-hour period, 50% of the
rainfall falling on a rooftop, which had an
obstruction free area of 50 m2, was
harvested into a tank. What is the total
volume of water collected in the tank in
liters?
(GATE 2018 AN)
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Reasoning
A.25000
B.18750
C.7500
D.3125
Correct Answer: C
66
Question: 12160
Each of the letters arranged as below
represents a unique integer from 1 to 9.
The letters are positioned in the figure such
that (A × B × C), (B × G × E) and (D × E ×
F) are equal. Which integer among the
following choices cannot be represented by
the letters A, B, C, D, E, F or G?
(GATE 2018-1)
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D)9
Correct Answer: B
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Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org)
Verbal
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16180
The growth rate of ABC Motors in 2017 was
the same ___ XYZ Motors in 2016. [GATE
2019 AN]
(A) as those of
(B) as that of
(C) as that off
(D) as off
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 16177
Hima Das was ___ only Indian athlete to
win___ gold for India. [GATE 2019 AN]
(A) the, a
(B) an, a
(C) an, the
(D) the, an
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 16117
. “The increasing interest in tribal
characters might be a mere coincidence,
but the timing is of interest. None of this,
though, is to say that the tribal here has
arrived in Hindi cinema, or that the new
crop of characters represents the
acceptance of the tribal character in the
industry. The films and characters are too
few to be described as a pattern.” What
does the word „arrived? mean in the
paragraph above? [GATE 2019 FN]
(A) went to a place
(B) came to a conclusion
(C) attained a status
(D) reached a terminus
Correct Answer: C
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Verbal
4
Question: 16115
They have come a long way in __________
trust among the users.
[GATE 2019
FN]
(A) creating
(B) create
(C) created
(D) creations
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 16114
The CEO?s decision to quit was as shoking
to the Board at it was to ________. [GATE
2019 FN]
(A) myself
(B) I
(C) my
(D) me
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 16113
The lecture was attended by quite _______
students, so the hall was not very
________. [GATE 2019 FN]
(A) Few, quite
(B) Few, quiet
(C) a few, quiet
(D) a few, quite
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 13732
Choose the most appropriate word from
the options given below to the complete
the following sentence:
His rather casual remarks on politics
___________ his lack of seriousness about
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Verbal
the subject. [GATE-10]
(A) masked
(B) belied
(C) betrayed
(D)suppressed
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 13731
Choose the most appropriate word from
the options given below to complete the
following sentence:
If we manage to ____________ our natural
resources, we would leave a better planet
for our children. [GATE-10]
(A) uphold
(B) restrain
(C) cherish
(D) conserve
Correct Answer: D
9
Question: 13730
The question below consists of a pair of
related words followed by four pairs of
words. Select the pair that best expresses
the relation in the original pair. [GATE-10]
Unemployed: Worker
(A) fallow: land
(B) unaware: sleeper
(C) wit: jester
(D) renovated: house
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 13729
Which of the following options is closest in
meaning to the word
Circuitous. [GATE-10]
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Verbal
(A) cyclic
(B) indirect
(C) confusing
(D) crooked
Correct Answer: D
11
Question: 13698
Choose the most appropriate word(s) from
the options given below to complete the
following sentence.
I contemplated ______________ Singapore
for my vacation but decided against
it. [GATE-11]
(A) to visit
(B) having to visit
(C) visiting
(D) for a visit
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 13697
Choose the most appropriate word from
the options given below to complete the
following sentence.
If you are trying to make a strong
impression on your audience, you
cannot do so by being understated,
tentative or_________________ . [GATE-11]
(A)hyperbolic
(B)restrained
(C)argumentative
(D)indifferent
Correct Answer: B
13
Question: 13696
Choose the word from the options given
below that is the most nearly opposite in
meaning to the given word [GATE-11]
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Verbal
Amalgamate
(A) merge
(B) split
(C) collect
(D) seperate
Correct Answer: B
14
Question: 13695
Which of the following options is the
closest in the meaning to the word
below: [GATE-11]
Inexplicable
(A)incomprehensible
(B) Indelible
(c)inextricable
(d)infallible
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 13683
Which one of the following options is the
closest in meaning to the word given
below? [GATE-12]
Mitigate
(A) Diminish
(B) Divulge
(C) Dedicate
(D) Denote
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 13682
Choose the grammatically INCORRECT
sentence: [GATE-12]
(A) They gave us the money back less the
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Verbal
service charges of Three Hundred rupees.
(B) This country’s expenditure is not less
than that of Bangladesh.
(C) The committee initially asked for a
funding of Fifty Lakh rupees, but later
settled for a lesser sum.
(D) This country’s expenditure on
educational reforms is very less.
Correct Answer: D
17
Question: 13681
Choose the most appropriate alternative
from the options given below to complete
the following sentence: [GATE-12]
Suresh’s dog is the one _________was
hurt in the stampede.
Correct Answer: A
18
Question: 13642
Friendship, no matter how _________it is,
has its limitations.[GATE 2013]
(A) cordial
(B) intimate
(C) secret
(D) pleasant
Correct Answer: B
19
Question: 13641
Which of the following options is the
closest in meaning to the word given
below: [GATE 2013]
"Primeval"
(A) Modern
(B) Historic
(C) Primitive
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Verbal
(D) Antique
Correct Answer: C
20
Question: 13640
Which of the above underlined parts of the
sentence is grammatically incorrect?[GATE
2013]
(A) I
(B) II
(C) III
(D) IV
Correct Answer: B
21
Question: 13639
Select the pair that best expresses a
relationship similar to that expressed in the
pair: Medicine: Health [GATE 2013]
(A) Science: Experiment
(B) Wealth : Peace
(C) Education: Knowledge
(D) Money: Happiness
Correct Answer: C
22
Question: 13618
In any given year, the probability of an
earthquake greater than Magnitude 6
occurring in the Garhwal Himalayas is 0.04.
The average time between successive
occurrences of such earthquakes is ______
years. [GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 25-25
23
Question: 13617
Which of the following options is the
closest in meaning to the sentence below?
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Verbal
[GATE-14 AN]
“As a woman, I have no country.”
(A) Women have no country
(B) Women are not citizens of any country.
(C) Women’s solidarity knows no national
boundaries
(D) Women of all countries have equal
legal rights.
Correct Answer: C
24
Question: 13616
Choose the most appropriate word from
the options given below to complete the
following sentence.
__________ is the key to their happiness;
they are satisfied with what they
have.[GATE-14 AN]
(A) Contentment
(B) Ambition
(C) Perseverance
(D) Hunger
Correct Answer: A
25
Question: 13615
Choose the most appropriate word from
the options given below to complete the
following sentence.
A person suffering from Alzheimer’s
disease __________ short-term memory
loss.[GATE-14 AN]
(A) experienced
(B) unexperienced
(C) is experiencing
(D) experiences
Correct Answer: D
26
Question: 13588
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Verbal
Choose the most appropriate word from
the options given below to complete the
following sentence.
One of his biggest ______ was his ability to
forgive. [GATE-14 FN]
(A) vice
(B) virtues
(C) choices
(D) strength
Correct Answer: A
27
Question: 13587
A student is required to demonstrate a high
level of comprehension of the subject,
especially in the social sciences. [GATE-14
FN]
The word closest in meaning to
comprehension is
(A) understanding
(B) meaning
(C) concentration
(D) stability
Correct Answer: A
28
Question: 13575
The word similar in meaning to ‘dreary’
is[GATE-15]
(A) cheerful
(B) dreamy
(C) hard
(D) dismal
Correct Answer: D
29
Question: 13572
Which word is not a synonym for the word
vernacular?[GATE-15]
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Verbal
(A) regional
(B) indigeneous
(C) indigent
(D) colloquial
Correct Answer: C
30
Question: 13569
Choose the statement where underlined
word is used correctly [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: B
31
Question: 13568
Choose the most appropriate word from
the options given below to complete the
following sentence The official answered
_________ that the complaints of the citizen
would be looked into. [GATE-15]
(A) respectably
(B) respectfully
(C) reputably
(D) respectively
Correct Answer: B
32
Question: 13544
The Tamil version of __________ John
Abraham-starrer Madras Café _____ cleared
by the censor board with no cuts last week,
but the film’s distributors _______ no takers
among the exhibitors for a release in Tamil
Nadu ________ this Friday. [GATE-15]
(A) Mr., was, found, on
(B) a, was found, at
(C) the, was, found, on
(D) a, being, find, at
Correct Answer: C
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Verbal
33
Question: 13543
If ROAD is written as URDG, then SWAN
should be written as: [GATE-15]
(A) VXDQ
(B) VZDQ
(C) VZDP
(D) UXDQ
Correct Answer: B
34
Question: 13542
Extreme focus on syllabus and studying for
test has become such a dominant concern
of Indian students that this has closed their
minds to anything ________ to the
requirements of the exam [GATE-15]
(A) related
(B) extraneous
(C) outside
(D) useful Answer
Correct Answer: B
35
Question: 13541
Select the pair that best expresses a
relationship similar to that expressed in the
pair: [GATE-15]
Children: Pediatrician
(A) Adult: Orthopaedist
(B) Females: Gynaecologist
(C) Kidney: Nephrologist
(D) Skin: Dermatologist
Correct Answer: B
36
Question: 13520
Choose the most appropriate set of words
from the options given below to complete
the following sentence .
_________ ,
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Verbal
___________ is a will, _______ is a way.
(A) Wear, there, their
(B) Were, their, there
(C) Where, there, there
(D) Where, their, their
Correct Answer: C
37
Question: 13519
He turned a deaf ear to my request. What
does the underlined phrasal verb mean?
(A) ignored
(B) appreciated
(C) twisted
(D) returned
Correct Answer: A
38
Question: 13518
If I were you, I ________ that laptop. It’s
much too expensive.
(A) won’t buy
(B) shan’t buy
(C) wouldn’t buy
(D) would buy
Correct Answer: C
39
Question: 13492
If "relftaga? means carefree, "otaga"
means careful and "fertaga" means
careless, which of the following could
mean "aftercare" ? [GATE 2016 FN]
(A) zentaga
(B) tagafer
(C) tagazen
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Verbal
(D) relffer
Correct Answer: C
40
Question: 13491
Archimedes s said, “Give me a lever long
enough and a fulcrum on which to place it,
and I will move the world”
The sentence above is an example of a
___________statement.[GATE 2016 FN]
(A) figurative
(B) collateral
(C) literal
(D) figurine
Correct Answer: C
41
Question: 13490
A rewording of something written or
spoken is a ________. [GATE 2016 FN]
(A) paraphrase
(B) paradox
(C) paradigm
(D) paraffin
Correct Answer: A
42
Question: 13489
Out of the following four sentences, select
the most suitable sentence with respect to
grammar and usage. [GATE 2016 FN]
(A) I will not leave the place until the
minister does not meet me.
(B) I will not leave the place until the
minister doesn?t meet me.
(C) I will not leave the place until the
minister meet me.
(D) I will not leave the place until the
minister meets me
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Verbal
Correct Answer: D
43
Question: 13479
There was no doubt that their work was
thorough. Which of the words below is
closest in meaning to the underlined word
above? [GATE 2017 AN]
(A) Pretty
(B) Complete
(C) Sloppy
(D) Haphazard
Correct Answer: B
44
Question: 13446
__________ with someone else’s email
account is now very serious offence. [GATE
2017 FN]
(A) Involving
(B) Assisting
(C) Tampering
(D) Incubating
Correct Answer: C
45
Question: 13444
The bacteria in milk are destroyed when it
_________ heated to 80 degree
Celsius.[GATE 2017 FN]
(A) would be
(B) will be
(C) is
(D) was
Correct Answer: C
46
Question: 13412
“Although it does contain some pioneering
ideas, one would hardly characterize the
work as _______.” The words that best fill
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Verbal
the blanks in the above sentence is [GATE
2018 AN]
(A) innovative
(B) simple
(C) dull
(D) boring
Correct Answer: B
47
Question: 13411
“His face ____________ with joy when the
solution of the puzzle was __________ to
him.” The words that best fill the blanks in
the above sentence are [GATE 2018 AN]
(A) Shone, shown
(B) shone, shone
(C) shown, shone
(D) shown, shown
Correct Answer: A
48
Question: 13407
“It is no surprise that every society has had
codes of behaviour; however, the nature of
these codes is often _________.”
The word that best fills the blank in the
above sentence is [GATE 2018 FN]
(A) unpredictable
(B) simple
(C) expected
(D) strict
Correct Answer: A
49
Question: 13406
“The driver applied the _______ as soon as
she approached the hotel where she
wanted to take a ________.”
The words that best fill the blanks in the
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Verbal
above sentence are [GATE 2018 FN
(A) brake, break
(B) break, break
(C) brake, brake
(D) break, brake
Correct Answer: A
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Calculus
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16203
The following inequality is true for all x
close to 0.
What is the value of
?
[GATE 2019 AN]
(A) 2
(B) 1/2
(C) 0
(D) 1
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 16157
Which one of the following is NOT a correct
statement? [GATE 2019 FN]
(A) The function x has the global minima
at x = 0
(B) The function xx , (x>0) has the global
minima at x = e
(C) The function xx , (x>0) has the global
maximum at x= e
(D) The function x3 has neither global
minima nor global maxima
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 16132
Which of one of the following is correct?
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Calculus
Correct Answer: D
4
Question: 13828
the limit of the following sequence
as
[GATE -02]
A.0
B.1
C.∞
D. -∞
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 13415
The value (up to two decimal places ) of a
line integral
along C which is a straight line joining
(0,0) to (1,1) is ____[GATE 2018 FN]
Correct Answer: 0.67-0.67
6
Question: 13163
A discontinuous real function can be
expressed as [ GATE-98][IES 2006]
A.Taylor’s series and Fourier’s series
B.Taylor’s series and not by Fourier’s series
C.neither Taylor’s series nor Fourier’s
series
D.not by taylor’s series,but by Fourier’s
If you found any corrections, inform through whats app: 7702502355 or email: vgacademycivil@gmail.com --- Page 894
Calculus
series
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 13162
The infinite series
[
GATE-99]
A.converges
B.Diverges
C.is unstable
D.Oscillate
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 13157
The value of
[GATE-08]
dx dy is
A.13.5
B.27.0
C.40.5
D.54.0
Correct Answer: A
9
Question: 13155
A parabolic cable is held between two
supports at the same level.The horizontal
span between the supports is L. The sag
the mid span is h.The equation of the
parabola is
,where x is the
horizontal coordinate and y is the vertical
coordinate with the origin at the centre of
the cable .The expression for the total
length of the cable is [GATE-10]
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Calculus
Correct Answer: D
10
Question: 13153
X and Y are two positive real numbers such
that 2X + Y ≤ 6 and X + 2Y ≤8. For which
of the following values of (X, Y) the function
f(X, Y) = 3X + 6Y will give maximum
value?[ GATE 2013]
(A)(4/3,10/3)
(B)(8/3, 20/3)
(C)(8/3,10/3)
(D)(4/3, 20/3)
11
Question: 13152
The solution for
is [GATE 2013]
A.0
B.1/15
C.1
D.8/5
Correct Answer: B
12
Question: 13148
Consider the following definite integral :
(GATE 2017 AN)
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Calculus
The value of the integral is
Correct Answer: A
13
Question: 13147
The tangent to the curve represented by
y=x ln x is required to have 45o inclination
with the x-axis .The coordinates of the
tangent point would be (GATE 2017 AN)
A.(1,0)
B.(0,1)
C.(1,1)
D.( 2,2)
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 13146
At the point x=0 ,the function f(x)=x3 has
(GATE 2018 FN)
A.local maximum
B.local minimum
C.both local maximum and minimum
D.neither local maximum nor local
minimum
Correct Answer: D
15
Question: 12949
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Calculus
The fourier series of the function
f(x) = 0,-π <x≤0
=π-x,0<x<π in the interval [-π,π] is
The convergence of the above Fourier
series at x=0 gives [GATE-16-2]
Correct Answer: C
16
Question: 12948
The infinite series
corresponding to
[GATE-11]
A.sec x
B.ex
C.cos x
D.1+sin2x
Correct Answer: B
17
Question: 12946
The fourier series expansion of a
symmetric and even function f(x) where
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Calculus
f(x)=1+(2x/π ),-π ≤x≤0
=1-(2x/π),0 ≤x≤π
Will be
Correct Answer: B
18
Question: 12945
The limit of the following series as x
approaches [GATE-01]
A.2π3
B.π2
C.π3
D.1
Correct Answer: D
19
Question: 12944
A function with a period 2π is shown below
[GATE-00]
The fourier series for this function is given
by
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Calculus
Correct Answer: A
20
Question: 12942
The infinite series
[GATE-99][SSC JE 2009]
A.converges
B.Diverges
C.is unstable
D.Oscillates
Correct Answer: A
21
Question: 12940
The Taylor’s series expansion of sin x is
[GATE-98]
Correct Answer: D
22
Question: 12938
For a real values of x, cos(x) can be written
in one of the forms of a convergent series
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Calculus
given below [GATE-97]
Correct Answer: D
23
Question: 12937
Fourier expansion of the periodic function
f(t)=t3 with a period
has the
form[GATE-96]
Correct Answer: D
24
Question: 12936
The series s=1-1+1-1…….is [GATE-96]
A.convergent
B.monotonous
C.uniformly convergent
D.divergent
Correct Answer: B
25
Question: 12935
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Calculus
The series f(x)=
is the
expansion of [GATE-96]
1. coshx
2. sin x
3. sinh x
4. cos x
Correct Answer: C
26
Question: 12934
The limit of
is
[GATE-94]
A.1
B.0
C.∞
D.none of these
Correct Answer: A
27
Question: 12933
The function
, at x=5
[GATE-94]
1. Maximum
2. Minimum
3. neither
4. 1
Correct Answer: B
28
Question: 12932
The volume generated by revolving the
area bounded by the parabola y2=8x and
the line x=2 about y-axis is [GATE-94]
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Calculus
Correct Answer: D
29
Question: 12931
The integration of
has
the value [GATE-95]
A.(x logx-1)
B.log x –x
C.x(log x-1)
D.none of these
Correct Answer: C
30
Question: 12930
Correct Answer: C
31
Question: 12929
If f(0) and
,the lower and
upper bounds of f(1) estimated by the
mean value theorem are [GATE-95]
A.19,2.2
B.2.2,2.25
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Calculus
C.2.25,2.5
D.none of these
Correct Answer: B
32
Question: 12928
The third term in the taylor series
expansion of ex about a would be
[GATE-95]
Correct Answer: B
33
Question: 12927
By reversing the order of integration
(GATE-95)
may be represented as
[GATE-95]
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Calculus
Correct Answer: A
34
Question: 12926
The area bounded by the parabola 2y=x2
and the line x=y-4 is equal to [GATE-95]
A.6
B.18
C.∞
D.none of these
Correct Answer: B
35
Question: 12925
If a function is continuous at a point its first
derivative [GATE-96]
A. exist always
B. will not exist
C. has a unique value
Correct Answer: A
36
Question: 12924
,where m is an integer ,is one of the
following [ GATE-97]
A.m
B.mπ
C.mθ
D.1
Correct Answer: A
37
Question: 12923
The curve given by the equation
x2+y2=3axy ,is [ GATE -97]
A.symetrical about x-axis
B.symetrical about y-axis
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Calculus
C.symetrical about line y=x
D.tangential to x=y=a/3
Correct Answer: D
38
Question: 12922
area bounded by the curve y=x2 and lines
x=4 and y= 0 is given by [ GATE-97]
A.64
B.643
C.1283
D.1284
Correct Answer: C
39
Question: 12921
For real values of x,cos(x) can be written in
one of the forms of a convergent series
given below [ GATE -97]
Correct Answer: B
40
Question: 12920
The infinite series
GATE-98]
[
A.converges
B.diverges
C.oscilates
D.unstable
Correct Answer: A
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Calculus
41
Question: 12919
The Taylor’s series expansion of sin x is
[ GATE-98]
Correct Answer: D
42
Question: 12918
The continuous function f(x,y) is said to
have saddle point at (a,b) if
[ GATE-98]
Where the subscripts x,y etc,denote partial
derivatives
A. fx(a,b)=0;
at (a,b)
B. fx(a,b)=0;
at (a,b)
C. fx(a,b)=0;
at (a,b)
D. fx(a,b)=0;
at (a,b)
fy(a,b)=0; fxy2 – fxx fyy < 0
fy(a,b)=0; fxy2 – fxx fyy > 0
fy(a,b)=0; fxx and fyy >0
fy(a,b)=0; fxy2 – fxx fyy = 0
Correct Answer: A
43
Question: 12917
value of the function
is[ GATE-99][SSC JE 2009]
A.1
B.0
C.∞
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Calculus
D.a
Correct Answer: B
44
Question: 12913
The maxima and minima of the function
f(x)=2x3-15 x2+36 x+10 occur
,respectively ,at[ GATE-00]
A.x=3 and x=2
B.x=1 and x=3
C.x=2 and x=3
D.x=3 and x=4
Correct Answer: C
45
Question: 12912
The limit of the function f(x)=[1-a4/x4] as
x→ ∞ is given by
[ GATE-00]
A.1
B.exp(-a4)
C.∞
D.zero
Correct Answer: A
46
Question: 12911
The taylor expansion of sinx about x=π/6 is
given by [GATE-00]
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Calculus
Correct Answer: A
47
Question: 12910
if f(x,y,z)=(x2+y2+z2)-1/2
is equal
to [GATE-00]
A.zero
B.1
C.2
D.-3(x2+y2+z2)5/2
Correct Answer: A
48
Question: 12909
The following integral
[ GATE-00]
Correct Answer: B
49
Question: 12907
value of the integral
[ GATE-01]
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Calculus
A.(π/8)+(1/4)
B.(π/8)-(1/4)
C.(-π/8) -(1/4)
D.(-π/8)+(1/4)
Correct Answer: A
50
Question: 12906
The following function has a local minima
at which value of x
[GATE-02]
Correct Answer: C
51
Question: 12905
The limit of following sequence as n is xn=
n1/n [ GATE -02]
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Calculus
Correct Answer: B
52
Question: 12904
the value of the following improper
integral
is [ GATE-02]
A) 1/4
B) 0
C)-1/4
D) 1
Correct Answer: C
53
Question: 12903
The values of the following definite integral
is
[ GATE-02]
A) –2 ln2
B) 2
C) 0
d) (ln 2)2
Correct Answer: D
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Calculus
54
Question: 12902
If P,Q and R are three points having
coordinates (3,-2,-1),(1,3,4),(2,1,-2) in XYZ
space ,then the distance from point P to
plane OQR (O being the origin of the
coordinate system) is given by [GATE
2003]
A.3
B.5
C.7
D.9
Correct Answer: A
55
Question: 12901
The value of the function
f(x)=
is [GATE 2004]
A.0
B.-1/7
C.1/7
D.∞
Correct Answer: B
56
Question: 12899
The summation of series
is [
GATE 2004]
A.4.50
B.6.0
C.6.75
D.10.0
Correct Answer: D
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Calculus
57
Question: 12898
The function f(x) =2x3-3x2-36x+2 has its
maxima at [GATE-04]
A.x=-2 only
B.x=0 only
C.x=3 only
D.both x=-2 and x=+3
Correct Answer: A
58
Question: 12897
A rail engine accelerates from its stationary
position for 8 seconds and travels a
distance of 280m .According to to the Mean
value theorem ,the speedometer at a
certain time during acceleration must read
exactly
[GATE-05]
A.0 kmph
B.8 kmph
C.75kmph
D.126kmph
Correct Answer: D
59
Question: 12895
What is the area common to the circles r=a
and r=2acosθ [GATE 2006]
A.0.524a2
B.0.614 a2
C.1.047 a2
D.1.228 a2
Correct Answer: D
60
Question: 12894
If you found any corrections, inform through whats app: 7702502355 or email: vgacademycivil@gmail.com --- Page 913
Calculus
Evaluate
dt [GATE-07]
Correct Answer: B
61
Question: 12892
The
is [GATE-10]
A.2/3
B.1
C.3/2
D.∞
Correct Answer: A
62
Question: 12891
Given a function f(x,y)=4x2+6y2-8x-4y+8
The optimum value of f(x,y) [GATE-10]
A.is a minimum equal to 10/3
B.is a maximum equal to 10/3
C.is a minimum equal to 8/3
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Calculus
D.is a maximum equal to 8/3
Correct Answer: A
63
Question: 12890
What should be the value of λ such that the
function defined below is continuous at
x=π/2? [GATE-11]
A.0
B.2/π
C.1
D.π/2
Correct Answer: C
64
Question: 12889
What is the value of the definite integral,
? [GATE-11]
A.0
B.a/2
C.a
D.2a
Correct Answer: B
65
Question: 12888
The infinite series
corresponds to [GATE-12]
(A) sec x
(B) ex
(C) cosx
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Calculus
(D) l+sin2x
Correct Answer: B
66
Question: 12885
The value of is
is [GATE 2013]
A.0
B.1/15
C.1
D.8/3
Correct Answer: B
67
Question: 12884
The expression
is equal to
[GATE-14 AN]
A.log x
B.0
C.x logx
D.∞
Correct Answer: A
68
Question: 12883
is equal to [GATE-14 FN]
A.-∞
B.0
C.1
D.∞
Correct Answer: C
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Calculus
69
Question: 12882
while minimizing the function
f(x),necessary and sufficient conditions for
a point xo to be a minima are:
[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: D
70
Question: 12881
is equal to[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: D
71
Question: 12879
The area between the parabola x2=8y and
the straight line y=8 is ___[GATE 2016-2]
Correct Answer: 85.33
72
Question: 12878
The angle of intersection of the curves
x2=4y and y2=4x at point (0,0) is [GATE
2016-2]
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Calculus
A.00
B.300
C.450
D.900
Correct Answer: D
73
Question: 12877
The area of the region bounded by the
parabola y=x2+1 and the straight line
x+y=3 is
[GATE 2016 FN]
Correct Answer: B
74
Question: 12876
the value of
is [GATE
2016 FN]
A.π2
B.π
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Calculus
C.3π2
D.1
Correct Answer: B
75
Question: 12875
The optimum value of the function
f(x)=x2-4x+2 is [ GATE 2016 -2]
A. 2 (maximum)
B. 2 (minimum)
C. -2 (maximum)
D. -2 (minimum)
Correct Answer: D
76
Question: 12874
What is the value of
[ GATE 2016 -2]
A.1
B.-1
C.0
D.limit doesn’t exist
Correct Answer: D
77
Question: 12872
Let w=f(x,y) ,where x and y are functions
of t,Then ,according to the chain rule , is
equal to [GATE 2017 AN]
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Calculus
Correct Answer: C
78
Question: 12871
is equal to___[GATE
2017FN]
Correct Answer: -1
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Linear Alzebra
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16232
The inverse of the matrix is is
[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 13840
The eigen values of the
matrix
are [GATE-01]
A.(5.13,9.42)
B.(3.85,2.93)
C.(9.00,5.00)
D.(10.16,3.84)
Correct Answer: D
3
Question: 13824
Eigen values of the following matrix
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Linear Alzebra
are
[GATE -02]
A.3 and -5
B.-3 and 5
C.-3 and -5
D.3 and 5
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 13778
for agiven matrix A=
,one
of the eigen values is 3.The other two
eigen values are [GATE-06]
A.2,-5
B.3,-5
C.2,5
D.3,5
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 13669
There are three matrixesP(4x2 ),Q (2x4
)and R( 4x1).The minimum of
multiplication required to compute the
matrix PQR is[GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 16-16
6
Question: 13597
Given the matrices J=
and
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Linear Alzebra
K=
,the Product KTJK is
____ [GATE-14 FN]
Correct Answer: 23-23
7
Question: 13416
The matrix
has [GATE 2018
AN]
A.real eigen values and eigen vectors
B.real eigen values but complex eigen
vectors
C.complex eigen values but real eigen
vectors
D.complex eigen values and eigen vectors
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 13164
The real symmetric matrix C corresponding
to the Quadratic form Q=4x1x2-5x22 is
[ GATE -98]
Correct Answer: A
9
Question: 13015
The rank of the matrix A=
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Linear Alzebra
is [GATE-94]
1. one
2. two
3. three
4. none of these
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 13014
The Eigen vector of the matrix A=
is/are [GATE-94]
A.(1,0)
B.(0,1)
C.(1,1)
D.(1,-1)
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 13013
The inverse of the matrix is A=
is [GATE-94]
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Linear Alzebra
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 13012
If A and B are square matrices of size n x n
,then which of the following statements is
not true [GATE-95]
A.det (AB)=det(A) det(B)
B.det(kA)=kn det(A)
(c) det(A+B)=det(A)+det(B)
D.det(AT)=1/det(A-1)
Correct Answer: C
13
Question: 13011
If matrix A is mxn and B is n x p,the
number of multiplication operations and
addition operations needed to calculate the
matrix AB ,respectively are [GATE-95]
A.mn2p,mpm
B.mpn, mp(n-1)
C.mpn, mpn
D.mn2p,(m+p)n
Correct Answer: B
14
Question: 13010
The rank of the matrix
Is [GATE-95]
A.2
B.1
C.3
D.none of these
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Linear Alzebra
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 13009
Let A be an invertible matrix and suppose
that the inverse of 7A is
,the matrix A is [GATE-95]
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 13008
The solution (s) to the equations
2x+3y=1
x-y=4
4x-y=α
Will exist if α is equal to
A.-33
B.0
C.9
D.none of these
Correct Answer: D
17
Question: 13007
The matrix B=AT ,where A is any matrix is
[GATE-96]
A.skew symmetric
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Linear Alzebra
B.symmetric about the secondary diagonal
C.always symmetrical
D.another general matrix
Correct Answer: D
18
Question: 13006
If AT=A-1 ,where A is a real matrix ,then A is
[GATE-96]
A.normal
B.symmetric
C.Hermitian
D.orthogonal
Correct Answer: D
19
Question: 13005
If A nad B are non zero square matrices
,then AB=0 implies [GATE-96]
A. A and B are orthogonal
B. Either A or B are singular
C. B is singular
D. A is singular
Correct Answer: B
20
Question: 13004
The eigen values of a square symmetric
matrix are always [GATE-96]
1. positive
2. real and imaginary
3. negative
4. real
Correct Answer: D
21
Question: 13003
If the determinant of matrix
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Linear Alzebra
is 26 ,then determinant of the matrix
is[GATE-97]
A.-26
B.26
C.0
D.52
Correct Answer: A
22
Question: 13002
Inverse of matrix is
-97]
[ GATE
Correct Answer: A
23
Question: 13001
If A and B are two matrices and If AB exists
,then BA exists [ GATE -97]
A.only if A has as many rows as B has
columns
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Linear Alzebra
B.only if both A and B are square matrices
C.only if A and B are skew matrices
D.only if both A and B are symmetric
Correct Answer: A
24
Question: 13000
in a matrix algebra AS=AT(A,S,T are
matrices of appropriate order) implies S=T
only If [ GATE-98]
A.A is symmetric
B.A is singular
C.A is non singular
D.A is skew symmetric
Correct Answer: A
25
Question: 12999
if A is a real square matrix ,then AAT is
[ GATE-98]
A.Unsymmetric
B.always symmetric
C.skew symmetric
D.sometimes symmetric
Correct Answer: B
26
Question: 12998
The equation
=0
represents a parabola passing through the
points [ GATE-99][SSC JE 2009]
A.(0,1),(0,2),(0,-1)
B.(0,0),(-1,1),(1,2)
C.(1,1),(0,0),(2,2)
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Linear Alzebra
D.(1,2),(2,1),(0,0)
Correct Answer: B
27
Question: 12997
Number of terms in the expansion of
general determinant of order n is [ GATE
-99][SSC JE 2009]
A.n2
B.n!
C.n
D.(n+1)2
Correct Answer: C
28
Question: 12995
consider the following two
statements [ GATE-00]
I.The maximum number of linearly
independent column vectors of a matrix A
is called the rank of A
II.if A is an n x n square matrix ,it will be
non singular is rank A=n
With reference to the above statements
,which the following applies?
A.both the statements are false
B.both the statements are true
C.I is true but II is false
D.I is false but II is true
Correct Answer: B
29
Question: 12994
if A,B,C are square matrices of the same
order,(ABC)-1 is equal to [ GATE-00]
A.C-1A-1B-1
B.C-1B-1A-1
C.A-1B-1C-1
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Linear Alzebra
D.A-1C-1B-1
Correct Answer: B
30
Question: 12993
The eigen value the matrix
are[ GATE-01]
A.(5.13,9.42)
B.(3.85,2.93)
C.(9.00,5.00)
D.(10.16,3.84)
Correct Answer: D
31
Question: 12992
the product [P][Q]T of the following two
matrices [P] and [Q] is [ GATE-01]
Correct Answer: A
32
Question: 12991
determinant of the following matrix
is
[ GATE -01]
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Linear Alzebra
A.-76
B.-28
C.+28
D.+72
Correct Answer: B
33
Question: 12990
Eigen values of the following matrix are of
the the following matrix are
[ GATE-02]
A) 3 and -5
B) -3 and 5
C) -3 and -5
D) 3 and 5
Correct Answer: A
34
Question: 12989
Given matrix [A]=
the Rank
of the matrix is [ GATE 2003]
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.1
Correct Answer: C
35
Question: 12988
The eigen values of the matrix
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Linear Alzebra
[ GATE-04]
A.are 1 and 4
B.are -1 and 2
C.are 0 and 5
D.cannot be determined
Correct Answer: C
36
Question: 12987
real matrices [A]3x1, [B]3x3, [C]3x5, [D]5*3,
[E]5x5, [F]5x1 are given ,Matrices [B] and [E]
are symmetric.Follwoing statements are
made with respect to these matrices .
[ GATE -04]
I.matrix product [F]T[C]T[B][C][F] is scalar
II.matrix product [D]T[F][D] is always
symmetric
With reference to above statements,which
of the following applies?
A.statements I is true but II is false
B.statement I is false but II is true
C.Both the statements are true
D.both the statements are false
Correct Answer: A
37
Question: 12986
Consider a non-homogeneous system of
linear equations,representing
mathematically an over-determined system
.such a system will be (GATE-05)
A.consistent,having a unique solution
B.consistent,having a many solution
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Linear Alzebra
C.inconsistent,having a unique solution
D.inconsistent,having a no solution
Correct Answer: D
38
Question: 12985
consider the system of equations A(n x n) X(n
x n))=λ(n x 1) where λ is a scalar ,let(λi,xi) be
an eigen –pair of an eigen value and its
corresponding eigen vector for real matrix
A.Let I be a (n x n) unit matrix .Which one
of the following statement is NOT correct ?
[ GATE-05]
A.for a homogeneous n x n system of linear
equations,(A-λI)x=0 having a non trivial
solution,the rank of (A-λI) is less than n
B.for matrix Am,m being a positive interger
,
all i
) will be the eigen –pair for
C.if AT=A-1,then [λi ]=1 for all i
D.if AT=A,then λi is real for all i
Correct Answer: B
39
Question: 12984
Consider the matrices X(4x3),Y(4x3) and
P(2x3).The order of
be [GATE-05]
Will
A.(2x2)
B.(3x3)
C.(4x3)
D.(3x4)
Correct Answer: A
40
Question: 12983
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Linear Alzebra
For a given matrix A=
,one of
the eigen values is 3.The other two
eigen values are [ GATE 2006]
A.2,-5
B.3,-5
C.2,5
D.3,5
Correct Answer: B
41
Question: 12982
solution for the system defined by the set
of equations
4y+3z=8;
2x-z=2
and
3x+2y=5 is [ GATE 2006]
A.x=0,y=1,z=4/3
B.x=0,y=,z=2
C.x=1,y=1/2,z=2
D.non-existent
Correct Answer: D
42
Question: 12981
The inverse of the 2x2 matrix
is [GATE-07]
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Linear Alzebra
1257
Correct Answer: A
43
Question: 12980
For what values of α and β the following
simultaneous equaitons have an infinite
number of solutions? [GATE-07]
x+y+z=5
x+3y+3z=9
x+2y+α z=β
A.2,7
B.3,8
C.8,3
D.7,2
Correct Answer: A
44
Question: 12979
The following simultaneous equations
[ GATE 2008]
x+y+z=3
x + 2y + 3z = 4
x+4y+kz = 6
will NOT have a unique solution for k equal
to
(A)0
(B) 5
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Linear Alzebra
(C) 6
(D) 7
Correct Answer: D
45
Question: 12978
The minimum and the maximum eigen
values of the matrix
are -2 and
6 respectively .What is the other eigen
value? [GATE-07]
A.5
B.3
C.1
D.-1
Correct Answer: B
46
Question: 12977
the eigen values of matrix [p]=
are [GATE-08]
A.-7 and 8
B.-6 and 5
C.3 and 4
D.1 and 2
Correct Answer: B
47
Question: 12976
The product of matrices (PQ)-1P is
[GATE-08]
A.P-1
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Linear Alzebra
B.Q-1
C.P-1Q-1P
D.PQP-1
Correct Answer: B
48
Question: 12975
In the solution of the following set of linear
equations by gauss elimination using
partial pivoting 5x+y+2z=34;
4y-3z=12;and 10x-2y+z=-4;the pivots for
elimination of x and y are [GATE-09]
A.10 and 4
B.10 and 2
C.5 and 4
D.5 and -4
Correct Answer: A
49
Question: 12974
A square matrix B is skew–symetric if
[GATE-09]
A.BT=-B
B.BT=B
C.B-1=B
D.B-1=BT
Correct Answer: A
50
Question: 12973
The inverse of the matrix
[GATE-10]
is
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Linear Alzebra
Correct Answer: B
51
Question: 12972
[A] is a square matrix which is neither
symmetric nor skew-symmetric and [A]T is
its transpose.
The sum and difference of these matrices
arc defined as [S] = [A] + [A]T and [D] =
[A] - [A]T ,
respectively. Which of the following
statements is TRUE? [GATE-11]
(A) Both [S] and [D] arc symmetric
(B)Both [S] and [D] are skew-symmetric
(C)[S] is skew-symmetric and [D] is
symmetric
(D)[S] is symmetric and [D] is skewsymmetric
Correct Answer: A
52
Question: 12971
The eigen values of matrix
are [GATE-12]
(A)-2.42 and 6.86
(B) 3.48 and 13.53
(C) 4.70 and 6.86
(D) 6.86 and 9.50
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Linear Alzebra
Correct Answer: B
53
Question: 12970
If
= 5 then the values of
is: [ GATE 2013]
(A) 2, 1/3
(B) 1/2, 3
(C) 3/2, 9
(D) 2/3, 9
Correct Answer: A
54
Question: 12969
what is the minimum number of
multiplications involved in computing the
matrix product PQR? Matrix P has 4 rows
and 2 columns ,matrix Q has 2 rows and 4
columns ,and Matrix R has 4 rows and 1
column,___
[GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 16-16
55
Question: 12967
the determinant of matrix is __[GATE-14
AN]
0123103023013012
Correct Answer: 88
56
Question: 12966
Given J=
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Linear Alzebra
and K=
then product KTJK is
[ GATE -14 FN]
A.23
B.123
C.92
D.70
Correct Answer: A
57
Question: 12965
the rank of the matrix is [GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 2-2
58
Question: 12964
The sum of eigen value matrix [M] is
[GATE-14 FN]
When [M] =
A.915
B.1355
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Linear Alzebra
C.1640
D.2180
Correct Answer: A
59
Question: 12963
the two eigen values of the matrix
have a ratio of 3:1 for p=2 what is
another value of p for which the eigen
values have the same ratio of
3:1? [GATE-15]
A.-2
B.1
C.7/3
D.14/3
Correct Answer: D
60
Question: 12962
For what value of p the following set of
equation will have no solution?[GATE-15]
2x+3y=5
3x+py=10
Correct Answer: 4.5-4.5
61
Question: 12961
The smallest and largest Eigen values of
the following matrix are : [GATE-15]
A.1.5 and 2.5
B.0.5 and 2.5
C.1.0 and 3.0
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Linear Alzebra
D.1.0 and 2.0
Correct Answer: D
62
Question: 12960
Let
,1≤ i,j≤n with n≥3 and
aij=i.j .The rank of A is :[GATE-15]
A.0
B.1
C.n-1
D.n
Correct Answer: B
63
Question: 12959
if the entries in each column of a square
matrix M add upto 1,then an eigen value of
M is [GATE 2016 FN]
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.1
Correct Answer: A
64
Question: 12958
consider the following linear system
[ GATE 2016 -2]
X+2y-3z=a
2x+3y+3z=b
5x+9y-6z=c
This system is consistent if a,b and c
satisfy the equation
A.7a-b-c=0
B.3a+b-c=0
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Linear Alzebra
C.3a-b+c=0
D.7a-b+c=0
Correct Answer: B
65
Question: 12957
If A=
and B=
.
ABT is equal to (GATE 2017 AN)
Correct Answer: A
66
Question: 12956
Consider the following simultaneous
equations (with c1 and c2 being constants
): [GATE 2017 AN]
3x1+2x2=c1
4x1+x2=c2
The characterstic equation for these
simultaneous equations is
A.λ2-4 λ-5=0
B.λ2-4 λ+5=0
C.λ2+4 λ-5=0
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Linear Alzebra
D.λ2+4 λ+5=0
Correct Answer: A
67
Question: 12955
Consider the matrix
which one
of the following statements is TRUE for the
eigen values and eigen vectors of this
matrix? [GATE 2017 FN]
A.Eigen value 3 has a multiplicity of 2 ,and
only one independent eigen vector exists
B.Eigen value 3 has a multiplicity of 2 ,and
only two independent eigen vector exists
C.Eigen value 3 has a multiplicity of 2 ,and
no independent eigen vector exists
D.Eigen values are 3 and -3,and two
independent eigen vectors exist
Correct Answer: A
68
Question: 12954
The matrix P is the inverse of a matrix Q.If I
denotes the identify matrix,which one of
the following options is correct? [GATE
2017 FN]
A.PQ=I but QP ≠ I
B.QP=I but PQ ≠ I
C.PQ=I and QP=I
D.PQ-QP=I
Correct Answer: C
69
Question: 12953
The rank of the following matrix is (GATE
2018-2)
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Linear Alzebra
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Correct Answer: B
70
Question: 12951
For the given orthogonal matrix Q, (GATE
2018-1)
The inverse is
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Linear Alzebra
Correct Answer: C
71
Question: 12950
which one of the following matrices is
singular? (GATE 2018-1)
Correct Answer: C
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Differential Equations
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16234
An ordinary differential equation is given
below
[GATE 2019 AN]
The solution for the above equation is
(Note: K denotes a constant in the options)
(A) y=Klnx
(B) y = Kxlnx
(C) y= Kxex
(D) y=Kxe-x
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 16171
A one –dimensional domain is discretized
into N sub –domains of width Δx with node
numbers i= 0, 1, 2, 3,....,N. If the time
scale is discretized in steps of Δt, the
forward-time and centeredspace finite
difference approximation at ith node and nth
time step, for the partial differential
equation ∂v∂t=β∂2v∂x2=β is [GATE
2019 FN]
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 16156
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Differential Equations
Consider two functions x=Ψln? and y=
?lnΨ Which one of the following is the
correct expression for ∂ψ∂x ?
[GATE
2019 FN]
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 16151
Consider the ordinary differential
equations
.
Given the values of
y(1) = 0 and y(2) = 2, the value of y(3)
(round off to 1 decimal place), is
_______[GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 6-6
5
Question: 13423
The reaction rate involving reactants A and
B is given by –k[A]α[B]β .which on e of the
following statements is valid for the
reaction to be first –order reaction? [GATE
2017 FN]
A. α=0
B. α=1
C. α=1
D. α=1
and
and
and
and
β =0
β =0
β =1
β=2
Correct Answer: B
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Differential Equations
6
Question: 13052
The necessary and sufficient condition for
the differential equation of the form
M(x,y)dx+N(x,y)dy=0 to be exact is
[GATE-94}
Correct Answer: C
7
Question: 13051
The differential equation
is [GATE-94]
A.linear of fourth order
B.Non- linear of fourth order
C.Non-homogeneous
D.Linear and fourth degree
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 13050
The differential equation
Y”+(S3 sinx)5y ‘+y=cos x3 is [GATE-95]
A.homogeneous
B.nonlinear
C.second order linear
D.non homogeneous with constant
coefficient
Correct Answer: C
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Differential Equations
9
Question: 13049
The differential equation
linear equation of first order only if
,is a
[GATE-97]
A.P is constant but Q is a function of y
B.P and Q are functions of y or constants
C.P is a function of y but Q is constant
D.P and Q are functions of x or constant
Correct Answer: D
10
Question: 13048
for the differential
equation,f(x,y)
+g(x,y)=0 to be exact
[ GATE-97]
Correct Answer: B
11
Question: 13047
If C is a constant ,solution of the equation
is [ GATE -99]
A.y=sin(x+c)
B.y=cos(x+c)
C.y=tan(x+c)
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Differential Equations
D.y=ex+c
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 13046
the solution for the following differential
equation with boundary condition y(0)=2
and y’(1)= - 3 is [ GATE -01]
A.y=(x3/3)-(x2/2)+3x-6
B.y=3x3-(x2/2)-5x+2
C.y=(x3/2)-x2-(5x/2)+2
D.y=x3-(x2/2)+5x+(3/2)
Correct Answer: C
13
Question: 13045
the number of boundary conditions
required to solve the differential equation
is
[ GATE-01]
A.2
B.0
C.4
D.1
Correct Answer: C
14
Question: 13044
Bio transformation of an organic compound
having concentration (x)can be modeled
using an ordinary differential
equation
,where k is the
reaction rate constant .If x=a at t=0 ,the
solution of the equation is [ GATE-04]
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Differential Equations
Correct Answer: B
15
Question: 13043
Transformation to linear form by
substituting v=y1-n of the equation
+ p(t)y = q(t)yn;n>0 will be
[ GATE-05]
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 13042
The solution of
y(0)=1,
';
In the range 0<x<π/4 is
given by [ GATE-05]
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Differential Equations
Correct Answer: A
17
Question: 13041
The solution of the differential
equation,x2dydx +2xy-x+1=0 given that at
x=1,y=0 is [ GATE 2006]
Correct Answer: B
18
Question: 13040
A spherical naphthalene ball exposed to
the atmosphere loses volume at a rate
proportional to is instantaneous surface
area due to evaporation .If the initial
diameter of the ball is 2 cm and the
diameter reduces to 1cm after 3 months
,the ball completely evaporates in [ GATE
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Differential Equations
2006]
A.6 months
B.9 months
C.12 months
D.infinite time
Correct Answer: A
19
Question: 13039
The solution for the differential equation
dydx= x2y with the conditions that y=1 at
x=0 is [GATE-07]
Correct Answer: D
20
Question: 13038
a body originally at 60oC cools down to
400C in 15 minutes when kept in air at a
temperature of the Body at the end of 30
minutes [GATE-07]
A.35.20C
B.31.50C
C.28.70C
D150C
Correct Answer: B
21
Question: 13037
The degree of the differential equation
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Differential Equations
d2xdt2+2x3=0 is [GATE-07]
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.3
Correct Answer: B
22
Question: 13036
Solution of
is [GATE-08]
A. x-y2 = -2
B. x+y2 = 4
C. x2-y2 = -2
D. x2+y2 = 4
Correct Answer: D
23
Question: 13035
The general solution of
[GATE-08]
A.y=P cos x+Q sin x
B.y=P cos x
C.y=P sin x
D.y= P sin2x
Correct Answer: A
24
Question: 13034
The equation
can
be transformed to
by
substituting [GATE-08]
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Differential Equations
Correct Answer: D
25
Question: 13033
solution of the differential equation
3ydydx+2x=0 represents a family of
[GATE-09]
A.ellipses
B.circles
C.parabolas
D.hyperbolas
Correct Answer: A
26
Question: 13032
The partial differential equation that can be
formed from [GATE-10]
Z=ax+by+ab has the form (with p=
and q=
A.z=px+qy
B.z=px+pq
C.z=px+qy+pq
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Differential Equations
D.z=qy+pq
Correct Answer: C
27
Question: 13031
The order and degree of the differential
equation[GATE-10]
are respectively
A.3 and 2
B.2 and 3
C.3 and 3
D.3 and 1
Correct Answer: A
28
Question: 13030
The solution to the ordinary differential
equation [GATE-10]
Correct Answer: C
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Differential Equations
29
Question: 13029
The solution of the differential equation
,with the condition that y=1 at
x=1 is [GATE-11]
Correct Answer: D
30
Question: 13028
The solution of the ordinary differential
equation
+2y = 0 for the boundary
condition, y = 5 at x = 1 is [GATE-12]
(A) y= e-2x
(B) y = 2 e-2x
(C) y = 10.95 e-2x
D.y = 36.95 e-2x
Correct Answer: D
31
Question: 13027
The integrating factor for the differential
equation
is
[ GATE-14 AN]
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Differential Equations
Correct Answer: D
32
Question: 13026
Consider the following differential equation
Which of the following is the solution of the
above equation (c is an arbitrary constant)?
[GATE-15]]
Correct Answer: C
33
Question: 13025
Consider the following second order linear
differential equation
=-12 x2+24x-20
The boundary conditions are x=0,y=5 and
x=2,y=21
The value of y at x=1 is ____
[GATE-15]
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Differential Equations
Correct Answer: 18-18
34
Question: 13024
The respective expression for
complimentary function and particular
integral part of the solution of the
differential equation
x2 are [GATE 2016 FN]
=108
Correct Answer: A
35
Question: 13023
The solution of the partial differential
equation
is of the form
[GATE 2016 FN]
Correct Answer: B
36
Question: 13022
The type of partial differential equation
is [GATE 2016 FN]
B.parabolic
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Differential Equations
C.hyperbolic
D.none of these
Correct Answer: A
37
Question: 13021
Consider the following second order
differential equation
Y’’-4y’+3y=2t-3t2
The particular solution of the differential
equation is (GATE 2017 AN)
A.-2-2t-t2
B.-2t-t2
C.2t-3t2
D.-2-2t-3t2
Correct Answer: A
38
Question: 13020
The solution of the equation (dQ/dt)+Q=1
with Q=0 at t=0 is [GATE 2017 FN]
A. Q(t)=e-t-1
B. Q(t)=1+e-t
C. Q(t)= 1-et
D. Q(t)= 1-e-t
Correct Answer: D
39
Question: 13019
Consider the following partial differential
equation:
For this equation to be classified as
parabolic ,the value of B2 must be ___[GATE
2017 FN]
Correct Answer: 35.9-36.1
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Differential Equations
40
Question: 13018
The solution of the equation x(dy/dx)+y=0
passing through the point (1,1) is
(GATE 2018-2)
A.x
B.x2
C.x-1
D.x-2
Correct Answer: C
41
Question: 13017
The solution (up to three decimal places )
at x=1 of the differential equation
subject to boundary
conditions y(0) =1 and dy/dx(0) =-1 is
____ (GATE 2018-1)
Correct Answer: 0.36-0.37
42
Question: 13016
The solution at x=1,t=1 of the partial
differential equation
Subject to initial conditions of
Is (GATE
2018-1)
A.1
B.2
C.4
D.6
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Differential Equations
Correct Answer: D
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Numerical Methods
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16210
The value of the function f(x) is given at n
distinct values of x and its value is to be
interpolated at the point x* using all the n
points.
The estimate is obtained first by the
Lagrange polynomial, denoted by IL and
then by the Newton polynomial, denoted
by IN.
Which one of the following statements is
correct? [GATE 2019 AN]
(A) IL is always greater than IN
(B) No definite relation exists between IL
and IN.
(C) IL is always less than IN
(D)IL and IN are always equal
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 16137
For a small value of h, the Taylor series
expansion for f(x+h) is [GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: D
3
Question: 13531
The quadratic approximation of
f(x)=x3-x2-5 at the point x=0 is
A.3x2-6x-5
B.-3x2-5
C.-3x2+6x-5
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Numerical Methods
D.3x2-5
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 13150
If y=5x2+3 than the tangent at x=0 and
y=3 [GATE-14 AN]
A.passes through x=o,y=o
B.has a slope +1
C.is parallel to x-axis
D.has a slope of -1
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13149
for step size,Δx=0.4,the value of following
integral using simpson’s 1/3 rule
is____[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 3.8293-3.8293
6
Question: 13100
A 2nd degree polynomial f(x) has values of
1,4 and 15 at x=0 ,1 and 2 respectively
.The integral
is to be estimated
by applying the trapezoidal rule to this
data.What is the error (defined as ”true
value –approxmiate value”)in the
estimate?[GATE-06]
A.-4/3
B.-2/3
C.0
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Numerical Methods
D.2/3
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 13072
Given a>0 ,we wish to calculate its
reciprocal value 1/a by using Newton
raphson method for f(x)=0
For a=7 and starting with xo=0.2 ,the first
two iterations will be [ GATE 2005]
A.0.11,0.1299
B.0.12,0.1392
C.0.12,0.1416
D.0.13,0.1428
Correct Answer: B
8
Question: 13071
Given a>0 ,we wish to calculate its
reciprocal value 1/a by using Newton
raphson method for f(x)=0
The newton raphson Algorithm for the
function will be [ GATE -05]
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 13070
The differential equation dy/dx=0.25y2 is to
be solved using the
backward(implicit)Euler’s method with the
boundary condition y=1 at x=0 and with a
step Size of 1 .What would be the value of
y at x=1? [ GATE 2006]
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Numerical Methods
A.1.33
B.1.67
C.2.00
D.2.33
Correct Answer: C
10
Question: 13068
Given that on root of the equation
X3-10x2+31x-30=0 is 5
The other two roots are [GATE-07]
A.2 and 3
B.2 and 4
C.3 and 4
D.-2 and -3
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 13067
The following equation needs to be
numerically Solved using the newtonraphson method x3+4x-9=0
The iterative equation for this purpose is (k
indicates the iteration level) [GATE-07]
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 13066
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Numerical Methods
Three values of x and y are to be fitted in a
straight line in the form y=a+bx by the
method of least squares .Given
∑x=6,∑y=21,∑x2=14 and ∑xy=46 ,the
values of a and b are respectively
[GATE-08]
A.2 and 3
B.1 and 2
C.2 and 1
D.3 and 2
Correct Answer: D
13
Question: 13065
The table below gives values of a function
F(x) obtained for values of x at intervals of
0.25 [GATE-10]
The value of the integral of the function
between the limits 0 to 1 using simpson’s
rule is
A.0.7854
B.2.3562
C.3.1416
D.7.5000
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 13064
The square root of a number N is to be
obtained by applying the Newton Raphson
iterations to the equation x2 — N = 0. If ‘i’
denotes the iteration index, the correct
iterative scheme will be [GATE-11]
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Numerical Methods
Correct Answer: D
15
Question: 13063
The error in
for a
continuous function estimated with h =
0.03 using the central difference formula
,
is 2 x 10-3 ,the values of x0 and f(xo) are
19.78 and 500.01, respectively. The
corresponding error in the central
difference estimate for h = 0.02 is
approximately [GATE-12]
(A) 1.3x10-4
(B) 3.0x10-4
(C) 4.5x10-4
(D) 9.0x10-4
Correct Answer: D
16
Question: 13062
The estimate of
obtained using
Simpson’s rule with three-point function
evaluation exceeds the exact value by
[GATE-12]
(A) 0.235
(B) 0.068
(C) 0.024
(D) 0.012
Correct Answer: D
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Numerical Methods
17
Question: 13061
Find the magnitude of the error (correct to
two decimal places) in the estimation of
following integral using Simpson’s 1/3
Rule. Take the step length as 1_____
[ GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 0.533-0.533
18
Question: 13059
The Quadratic equation x2-4x+4 =0 is to
be solved numerically ,starting with the
initial guess x0=3 .the Newton-Raphson
method is applied once to get a new
estimate and then the secant method is
applied once using the initial guess and
this new estimate .the estimated value of
the root after the application of the Secant
method is __[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 2.33-2.33
19
Question: 13058
in Newton –Raphson iterative Method,the
initial guess value (xini) is considered as
zero while finding the roots of the equation
:f(x)=-2+6x-4x2+0.5 x3.The correction Δx
to be added to xini in the first iteration is ___
[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 0.3333-0.3333
20
Question: 13057
The integral
with x2> x1>0 is
evaluated analytically as well as
numerically using a single application of
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Numerical Methods
the trapezoidal rule.If I is the exact value of
the integral obtained analytically and j is
the approximate value obtained using the
trapezoidal rule ,which of the following
statements is correct about their
relationship?
[GATE-15]
A.J>I
B.J<I
C.J=I
D.insufficient data to determine the
relationship
Correct Answer: A
21
Question: 13056
Newton –Raphson methos is to be used to
find root of equation 3x –ex+sinx =0 .If the
initial trial value for the root is taken as
0.333,the next approximation for the root
would be __[GATE 2016 FN]
Correct Answer: 0.36-0.36
22
Question: 13055
Consider the equation
with
u=0 at t=0 .This is numerically solved by
using the forward Euler method with a step
size .Δt=2 .the absolute error in the
solution at the end of the first step is ___
[GATE 2017 FN]
Correct Answer: 7.95-8.05
23
Question: 13054
The quadratic equation 2x2-3x+3=0 is to
be solved numerically starting with an
initial guess as xo=0 ,the new estimate of
x after the first iteration using Newton
raphson method is ____
(GATE 2018-2)
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Numerical Methods
Correct Answer: 1-1
24
Question: 13053
The value of the integral
(GATE 2018-1)
is
Correct Answer: B
25
Question: 12886
The magnitude as the error (correct to two
decimal places) in the estimation of
following integral using simpson’s 1/3
rule,Take the step length as 1 [GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 0.53-0.53
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Probability and statistics
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16228
the Probability density function of a
continuous random variable distributed
uniformly between x and y (for y>x) is
[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 13598
The probability density function of
evaporation E on any day during a year in
awatershed is given by [GATE-14 FN]
The probability that E lies in between 2 and
4 mm/day in watershed is (in decimal)
A.0.9
B.0.4
C.0.3
D.1
Correct Answer: 0.4-0.4
3
Question: 13570
Four cards are randomly selected from a
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Probability and statistics
pack of 52 cards. If the first two cards are
kings, what is the probability that the third
card is a king? [GATE-15]
(A) 4/52
(B) 2/50
(C) 1/52 × (1/52)
(D) 1/52 × (1/52) × (1/50
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 13104
A box contains 10 screws ,3 of which are
defective .Two screws are drawn at random
with replacement .The probability that
none of the two screws is defective will be
[ GATE 2003]
A.100%
B.50%
C.49%
D.none of these
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13103
A hydraulic structure has four gates which
operate independently .The probability of
failure of each gate is 0.2.Given that gate 1
has failed ,the probability that both gates 2
and 3 will fall is [ GATE-04]
A.0.240
B.0.200
C.0.040
D.0.008
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 13102
Which one of the following statements is
NOT true? [ GATE-05]
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Probability and statistics
A.the measure of skewness is dependent
upon the amount of dispersion
B.in a symmetric distribution,the values of
mean ,mode and median are the same
C.in a positively skewed distribution:mean
> median > mode
D.in a negatively skewed distribution
:mode>mean > median
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 13101
There are 25 calculators in a box .Two of
them are defective .Suppose 5 calculators
are randomly picked for inspection(i.e each
has the saem chance of being selected )
what is the probability that only one of the
defective calculators will be included in the
inspection? [ GATE 2006]
A.1/2
B.1/3
C.1/4
D.1/5
Correct Answer: B
8
Question: 13099
a class of first year B.Tech students is
composed of four batches A,B,C and D
each consisting 0f 30 students .it is found
that the sessional marks of students in
Engineering drawing in batch C have a
mean of 6.6 and standard deviation of 2.3
.The mean and standard deviation of the
marks for the entire class are 5.5 and 4.2
respectively.it is decided by the course
instructor to normalize the marks of the
students of all batches to have the same
mean and standard deviation as that of the
entire class .Due to this ,the marks of a
student in batch are changed from 8.5 to
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Probability and statistics
[ GATE 2006]
A.6.0
B.7.0
C.8.0
D.9.0
Correct Answer: D
9
Question: 13098
A person on a trip has a choice between
private car and public transport. The
probability of using a private car is 0.45
While using the public transport, further
choices available are bus and metro, out
of which the probability of commuting by a
bus is 0.55. In such a situation, the
probability (rounded up to two decimals) of
using a car. bus and metro, respectively
would be [GATE-08]
(A) 0.45,0.30 and 0.25
(B) 0.45,0.25 and 0.30
(C) 0.45,0.55 and 0 00
(D) 0.45,0.35 and 0.20
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 13097
if probability density function of a random
variable X is [GATE-08]
f(x)=x2 for -1≤x≤1, and
=0 for any other value of x
Then ,the percentage probability P(-13 ≤ x
≤13) is
A.0.247
B.2.47
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Probability and statistics
C.24.7
D.247
Correct Answer: B
11
Question: 13096
The standard normal probability function
can be approximated as
Where XN= standard normal deviate .if
mean and standard deviation of annual
precipitation are 102 cm and 27 cm
respectively. the probability that the
annual precipitation will be between 90 cm
and 102 cm is [GATE-09]
A.66.7%
B.50.0%
C.33.3%
D.16.7%
Correct Answer: D
12
Question: 13095
two coins are simultaneously tossed the
probability of two heads simultaneously
appearing is [GATE-10]
A.1/8
B.1/6
C.1/4
D.1/2
Correct Answer: C
13
Question: 13094
There are two containers, with one
containing 4 Red and 3 Green balls and the
other containing 3 Blue and 4 Green balls.
One ball is drawn at random from each
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Probability and statistics
container. The probability that one of the
balls is Red and the other is Blue will be
[GATE-11]
(A) 1/7
(B) 9/49
(C) 12/49
(D) 3/7
Correct Answer: C
14
Question: 13093
The annual precipitation data of a city is
normally distributed with mean and
standard deviation as 1000 mm and 200
mm, respectively. The probability that the
annual precipitation will be more than 1200
mm is [GATE-12]
(A) <50%
(B) 50%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 13092
In an experiment, positive and negative
values are equally likely to occur. The
probability of obtaining at most one
negative value in five trials is [GATE-12]
(A)1/32
(B)2/32
(C)3/32
(D)6/32
Correct Answer: D
16
Question: 13091
Find the value of λ such that the function
f(x) is a valid probability density function.
[ GATE 2013]
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Probability and statistics
f(x) = λ (x-l)(2-x)
=0
for 1 ≤x ≤2
otherwise
Correct Answer: 6-6
17
Question: 13089
if {x} is a continuous ,real valued random
variable defined over the interval
(-∞,∞)and its occurrence is defined by the
density function given as [GATE-14 AN]
where a an d b are the statistical attributes
of the random variable (x) .The value of the
integral
dx is
A.1
B.0.5
C.π
D.π/2
Correct Answer: B
18
Question: 13088
a fair (unbiased )coin was tossed 4 times in
a succession and resulted in the following
outcomes (I)H (II)H (III)H (IV)H.the
probability of obtaining a ‘TAIL’ when the
coin is tossed again is[GATE-14 AN]
A.0
B.1/2
C.4/5
D.1/5
Correct Answer: B
19
Question: 13087
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Probability and statistics
Consider the following probability mass
function (p.m.f) of a random variable X
If q=0.4 ,the variance of X is ___
[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 0.24-0.24
20
Question: 13086
Type-II error in hypothesis testing is
[GATE 2016 FN]
A.acceptance of the null hypothesis when it
is false and should be rejected
B.rejection of the null hypothesis when it is
true and should be accepted
C.rejection of the null hypothesis when it is
false and should be rejected
D.acceptance of the null hypothesis when it
is true and should be accepted
Correct Answer: A
21
Question: 13085
The spot speeds (expressed in km\hr)
observed at a road section nare
66,62,45,79,32,51,56,60,53 and 49.The
median speed (expressed in km/hr) is
___[GATE-2016-1]
(Note :answer with one decimal accuracy)
Correct Answer: 54.5-54.5
22
Question: 13084
If f(x) and g(x) are two probability density
functions, [ GATE 2016 -2]
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Probability and statistics
Which one of the following statements is
true?
A. A.Mean of f(x) and g(x) are same
;variance of f(x) and g(x) are same
B. Mean of f(x) and g(x) are same
;variance of f(x) and g(x) are
different
C. Mean of f(x) and g(x) are different
;variance of f(x) and g(x) are same
D. Mean of f(x) and g(x) are different
;variance of f(x) and g(x) are
different
Correct Answer: B
23
Question: 13083
X and Y are two random independent
events.It is known that P(X)=0.40 and P(X
U Yc)=0.7. Which one of the following is the
value of P(XUY)? [ GATE 2016 -2]
A.0.7
B.0.5
C.0.4
D.0.3
Correct Answer: A
24
Question: 13082
the probability density function of a
random variable X is given below
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Probability and statistics
[GATE 2016
FN]
A.3/4
B1/2
C.1/4
D.1/8
Correct Answer: A
25
Question: 13081
The probability density function of a
random variable ,x is
= 0 otherwise
[GATE-15]
The Mean ,µx of the random variable is ___
Correct Answer: 1.0667-1.0667
26
Question: 13080
A two faced fair coin has its faces
designted as head(H) and tail(T) .This coin
is tossed three times in succession to
record the following outcomes;H,H,H .If the
coin is tossed one more time ,the
probability (up to decimal place ) of
obtaining H again ,given the previous
realizations of H,H and H ,would be ____
(GATE 2017 AN)
Correct Answer: 0.5-0.5
27
Question: 13079
For the function f(x)=a+bx, 0≤x ≤ 1 ,to be
a valid probability density function ,which
one of the following statements is correct
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Probability and statistics
? [GATE 2017FN]
A.a=1,b=4
B.a=0.5,b=1
C.a=0,b=1
D.a=1,b=-1
Correct Answer: B
28
Question: 13078
the number of parameters in the univariate
exponential and Gaussian Distributions
,respectively. Are [GATE 2017 FN]
A.2 and 2
B.1 and 2
C.2 and 1
D.1 and 1
Correct Answer: B
29
Question: 13075
A probability distribution with right skew is
shown in the figure
(GATE 2018 AN)
The correct statement for the probability
distribution is
A.mean is equal to mode
B.Mean is greater than median but less
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Probability and statistics
than mode
C.Mean is greater than median and mode
D.mode is greater than median
Correct Answer: C
30
Question: 13074
The graph of a function f(x) is shown in the
figure (GATE 2018-2)
For f(x) to be a valid probability density
function ,the value of h is
A.1/3
B.2/3
C.1
D.3
Correct Answer: A
31
Question: 12870
Let x be a continuous variable defined over
the interval (-∞,∞) and
The integral g(x)=
to [GATE 2017 FN]
is equal
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Probability and statistics
Correct Answer: B
32
Question: 12233
Probability (up to one decimal place) of
consecutively picking 3 red balls without
replacement from a box containing 5 red
balls and 1 white ball is ______(GATE 2018
AN)
Correct Answer: 0.5-0.5
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Complex variables
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13115
Consider likely applicability of cauchy’s
integral theorem to evaluate the following
integral counter clockwise around the unit
circle c
Z being a complex variable .The value of I
will be [ GATE-05]
A.I=0 ,singularities set =?
B.I=0 ,singularities set =f{±
,n=0,1,2….}
π
C.I=π/2;singularities set={±nπ ;n=0,1,2…}
D.none of above
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 13114
using cauchy’s integral theorem ,the value
of the integral
(integration taken in counter clockwise
direction ) ∫cz3-63z-idz is
[GATE 2006]
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13113
Potential function ? is given as
=x2-y2
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Complex variables
,what will be the stream
function (Ψ)with the condition Ψ=0 at
x=y=0 ? [GATE-07]
A.2xy
B.x2+y2
C.x2- y2
D.2x2y2
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 13112
The value of the integral
(where c is a closed
curve given by
=1) is [GATE-09]
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13111
For an analytical function ,f(x+iy)
=u(x,y)+iv(x,y),u is given by u=3x2-3y2
.The expression for v ,considering Kto be a
constant is [GATE-11]
A.3y2-3x2+K
B.6x-6y+K
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Complex variables
C.6y-6x+K
D.6xy+K
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 13110
Consider the following complex function
F(z)=
[GATE-15]
Which of the following is one of the
residues of the above function?
A.-1
B.9/16
C.2
D.9
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 13109
ex is periodic ,with a period of
___[GATE-97]
A.2π
B.2iπ
C.π
D.iπ
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 13108
which one of the following is NOT true for
complex number Z1 and Z2?
[ GATE 2005]
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Complex variables
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 13107
The analytical function f(z)=
singularities at [GATE-09]
has
A.1 and -1
B.1 and i
C.1 and –i
D.i and –i
Correct Answer: D
10
Question: 13106
Z=2-3i-5+i can be expressed as [GATE-14
AN]
A.-0.5,-0.5 i
B.-0.5+0.5i
C.0.5-0.5i
D.0.5+0.5i
Correct Answer: B
11
Question: 13105
Given i=
,the value of the definite
integral ,I=
[GATE-15]
is
A.1
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Complex variables
B.-1
C.i
D.-i
Correct Answer: B
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Laplace Transforms
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16187
The Laplace transform of sinh (at) is [GATE
2019 AN]
Correct Answer: C
2
Question: 13128
The Laplace transform of the function
f(t)=eat when t>0 and where a is a
constant is [GATE-94]
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13127
The inverse Laplace transform of
is [GATE-95]
A.cos 2t+9 sin2t
B.e-3tcos2t+3e-3tsin2t
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Laplace Transforms
C.e-3tsin2t+3e-3tcos2t
D.e-3tcos2t+e-3tsin2t
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 13126
Laplace transform L(f) ,where f is the
derivative of function ,f is given
by[GATE-96]
A.sL(f)-f(0)
B.sL(f)+f(0)
C.s2L(f)-f(0)
D.L(f)/s-f(0)
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 13125
The Laplace transform of a unit step
function defined as [ GATE-98]
Correct Answer: B
6
Question: 13124
The laplace transform of the function
f(t)=k,0<t<c
=0,C<t<∞ , is [GATE -99]
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Laplace Transforms
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 13123
Let F(s) = £[f(t)] denote laplace transform
of the function f(t).Which of the following
statements is correct? [ GATE-00]
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 13122
the inverse laplace transform of
is [ GATE -01]
Correct Answer: D
9
Question: 13121
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Laplace Transforms
the Laplace transform of the following
function is [GATE-02]
Correct Answer: C
10
Question: 13120
If L deifnes the laplace transform of a
function ,L[sin(at)] will be equal to [GATE
-03]
Correct Answer: B
11
Question: 13119
Laplace transform for the function f(x)=
cosh(ax) is [GATE-09]
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Laplace Transforms
Correct Answer: B
12
Question: 13117
The Fourier series of the function, [ GATE
2016 -2]
f(x)=0, -π <x≤0
=π –x,0<x<π
In the interval [-π ,π ]
The convergence of the above Fourier
series at x=o gives
Correct Answer: C
13
Question: 13116
The laplace transform F(s) of the
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Laplace Transforms
exponential function ,f(t) =eat when
t≥0,where a is a constant and (s-a)>0 ,is
(GATE 2018 AN)
A.1/(s-a)
B.1/(s+a)
C.1/(a-s)
D.∞
Correct Answer: A
14
Question: 5773
Laplace equation for water flow in soils is
given below
dz directions .Boundary conditions are : at
x= 0 ,H=5 ; and =
=-1
What is the value of H at x =1.2 [GATE
2013]
Correct Answer: A
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vector calculus
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16192
Euclindean norm (length) of the vector [4
–2 -6]T is [GATE 2019 AN]
A.48
B.24
C.12
D.56
Correct Answer: D
2
Question: 16190
what is curl of the vector filed
2x2yj+5z2j-4yzk? [GATE 2019 AN]
A.-14 zi+6yj+2x2k
B.6zi-8xyj+2x2yk
C.-14zi-2x2k
D.6zi+4xj-2x2k
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13743
For a scalar function f (x,y,z
)=x2+3y2+2z2, the directional derivative at
the point P(1, 2, -1) in the direction of a
vector
is [GATE-09]
Correct Answer: C
4
Question: 13513
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vector calculus
The magnitudes of vectors P, Q and R are
100 kN, 250 kN and 150 kN, respectively as
shown in the figure.
The respective values of the magnitude (in
kN) and the direction (with respect to the
xaxis) of the resultant vector are [GATE
2016 FN]
(A) 290.9 and 96.0°
(B) 368.1 and 94.7°
(C) 330.4 and 118.9°
(D) 400.1 and 113.5°
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13160
The directional derivative of
f(x,y,z)=2x23y2+z2 at the point P:(2,1,3) in
the direction of the vector a=i-2k is
[ GATE 2006]
A.-2.785
B.-2.145
C.-1.789
D.1.000
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 13159
A velocity vector is given as
The divergence of this velocity vector at
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vector calculus
(1,1,1) is [GATE-07]
A.9
B.10
C.14
D.15
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 13158
The inner (dot) product of two vectors P?
and Q? is zero. The angle (degrees)
between the two vectors is [GATE-08]
(A) 0
(B) 30
(C)90
(D)120
Correct Answer: C
8
Question: 13154
if
and
are two arbitrary vectors with
magnitudes a and b ,respectively ,
will be equal to [GATE-11]
Correct Answer: A
9
Question: 13134
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vector calculus
The directional derivative of the filed
u(x,y,z)=x2-3yz in the direction of the
vector
at point (2,-1,4) is
___[GATE-2015-1]
Correct Answer: -5.715--5.715
10
Question: 13131
The derivative of f(x,y)at point (1,2) in the
direction of vector i+j is
and in the
direction of the vector -2j is -3 Then the
derivative of f(x,y) in direction –i-2j is
[GATE -95]
Correct Answer: A
11
Question: 13130
the directional derivative of the following
function at (1,2) in the directions of (4i+
3j) is f(x,y)= x2+y2 [GATE -02]
A) 4/5
B) 4
C) 2/5
D) 1
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 13129
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vector calculus
Value of the integral
where ,c is the square cut from the first
quadrant by the lines x=1 and y=1 will be
(Use Green’s therorem to change the line
integral into double integral)[GATE-05]
A.1/2
B.1
C.3/2
D.5/3
Correct Answer: C
13
Question: 12893
for a scalar function
f(x,y,z)=x2+3y2+2z2,the gradient at the
point P(1,2.-1) is
[ GATE 2009]
Correct Answer: B
14
Question: 12887
For the parallelogram OPQR shown in the
sketch
and
.The area of the parallelogram
is [GATE-12]
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vector calculus
A.ad-bc
B.ac+bd
C.ad+bc
D.ab-cd
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 12873
The divergence of the vector filed
V=x2i+2y3 j+z4 k at x=1 ,y=2,z=3 is
____ [GATE 2017 AN]
Correct Answer: 134
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STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS
 INDETERMINACY
 INFLUENCE LINES
……………. 1004-1014
………………
1015-1023
 SLOPE DEFLECTION METHOD ……………….1024-1028
 MOMENT DISTRIBUTION METHOD………..1029-1035
 ENERGY METHODS
………………..1036-1040
 TRUSSES
……………….1041-1060
 CABLES
………………..1061-1062
 ARCHES
………………….1063-1066
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 MATRIX METHODS
………………….1067-1072
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Indeterminacy
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16191
The degree of static indeterminacy of the
plane frame is shown in the figure
is____
[GATE 2019 AN]
Correct Answer: 15-15
2
Question: 13454
Consider the frame shown in the figure:
If the axial and shear deformations in
different members of the frame are
assumed to be negligible, the reduction in
the degree of kinematical indeterminacy
would be equal to [GATE 2017 AN]
(A) 5
(C) 7
(B) 6
(D) 8
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 12781
The static indeterminacy of the structure
shown below is [GATE -87]
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Indeterminacy
A.3
B.6
C.9
D.12
Correct Answer: C
4
Question: 12780
The static indeterminacy of the structure
shown below is [GATE -89]
A.4
B.6
C.8
D.10
Correct Answer: D
5
Question: 12779
The static indeterminacy of the structure
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Indeterminacy
shown below is [GATE -90]
A.unstable
B.stable, determinate
C.stable,5th degree indeterminate
D.stable,3rd degree indeterminate
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 12778
The beam supported by 3 links and loaded
as shown in the figure is [GATE-91]
1. stable and determinate
2. unstable
3. stable and indeterminate
4. unstable but determinate
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 12776
The plane structure shown in figure is
[GATE -92]
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Indeterminacy
1. stable and determinate
2. stable and indeterminate
3. unstable and determinate
4. unstable and indeterminate
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 12775
A plane frame ABCDEFGH shown in figure
has clamp support at A,hinge supports at G
and H ,axial force release (horizontal
sleeve) at C and moment release (hinge )
at E The static (Ds) and kinematic (Dk)
indeterminacies are [GATE-92]
Ds Dk
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
9
11
14
13
Correct Answer: A
9
Question: 12774
The plane frame shown in figure is
[GATE-93]
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Indeterminacy
1. stable and statically determinate
2. unstable and statically determinate
3. stable and statically indeterminate
4. unstable and statically
indeterminate
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 12773
The kinematic indeterminacy of the plane
frame shown in figure is ( discharging the
axial deformation of the members )
[GATE-93]
A.7
B.5
C.6
D.4
Correct Answer: C
11
Question: 12772
A beam fixed at the ends and subjected to
lateral loads only is statistically
indeterminate and the degree of
indeterminacy is [GATE-94]
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Indeterminacy
A.one
B.two
C.three
D.Four
Correct Answer: B
12
Question: 12771
The degree of kinematic indeterminacy of
the rigid frame with clamped ends at A and
D as shown in the figure is [GATE -97]
A.4
B.3
C.2
D.zero
Correct Answer: B
13
Question: 12769
The degree of static indeterminacy Ds, and
the degree of Ds ,for the plane frame
shown below, assuming
axial deformation to be negligible ,are
given by [GATE-01]
A.Ds=6 and Dk=11
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Indeterminacy
B.Ds=6 and Dk=6
C.Ds=4 and Dk=6
D.Ds=4 and Dk = 4
Correct Answer: C
14
Question: 12768
A guided support as shown in the figure
below is represented by three springs
(horizontal,vertical and rotational ) with
stiffness kx, ky and kθ respectively.the
Limiting values of kx,ky and
kθ are [GATE-15]
A.∞,o,∞
B.∞,∞,∞
C.0, ∞,∞
D.∞, ∞,0
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 12767
The kinematic indeterminacy of the plane
truss as shown in the figure is [GATE
2016-2].
A.11
B.8
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Indeterminacy
C.3
D.0
Correct Answer: A
16
Question: 12765
For the plane frame with an overhang as
shown below ,assuming negligible axial
deformation ,the degree of static
indeterminacy ,d and the degree of
kinematic indeterminacy k,are [GATE-04]
A.d=3 and k=10
B.d=3 and k=13
C.d=9 and k=10
D.d=9 and k=13
Correct Answer: D
17
Question: 12764
Considering beam as axially rigid ,the
degree of freedom of a plane frame shown
below is [GATE-05]
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Indeterminacy
A.9
B.8
C.7
D.6
Correct Answer: B
18
Question: 12762
The degree of static indeterminacy of the
rigid frame having two internal hinges as
shown in the figure below [GATE 2008]
A.8
B.7
C.6
D.5
Correct Answer: D
19
Question: 12761
The degree of static indeterminacy of a
rigid jointed frame in a horizontal plane
and subjected to vertical load only ,as
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Indeterminacy
shown In figure below, is[GATE-09]
A.6
B.4
C.3
D.1
Correct Answer: C
20
Question: 12760
The degree of static indeterminacy of a
rigid jointed frame PQR supported as
shown in figure is
[GATE-14 FN]
A.zero
B.one
C.two
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Indeterminacy
D.unstable
Correct Answer: A
21
Question: 12759
The static indeterminacy of the two-span
continuous beam with an internal
hinge,shown below is ____ [GATE-14 AN]
Correct Answer: 0-0
22
Question: 7185
.The total degree of indeterminacy (both
internal and external) for the bridge truss
shown in the given figure is [GATE-01]
a.4
c. 6
b. 5
d. 3
Correct Answer: A
23
Question: 7184
A correct solution of a statically
indeterminate structure as per the energy
method [GATE-01]
1. is statically admissible
2. is kinetically consistent
3. makes the strain energy of the
structure a minimum
4. can be given by (a), (b) and (c) of
the question
Correct Answer: C
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Influence Lines
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 17193
In a beam of length L, four possible
influence line diagrams for shear force at a
section located at a distance of 4 L from
the left end support (marked as P, Q, R and
S) are shown below. The correct influence
line diagram is [GATE-14 FN]
A.P
B.Q
C.R
D.S
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 16233
A long uniformly distributed load of 10
kN/m and a concentrated load of 60 kN are
moving together on the beam ABCD shown
in the figure (not drawn to scale). The
relative positions of the two loads are not
fixed. The maximum shear force (in kN,
round off to the nearest integer) caused at
the internal hinge B due to the two loads is
_______[GATE 2019 AN]
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Influence Lines
Correct Answer: 70-70
3
Question: 12866
Consider the beam ABCD shown in the
figure
AB=BC=4m,CD=10m
For a moving concentrated load of 50kN on
the beam ,the magnitude of the maximum
bending moment (in kN-m) obtained at the
support C will be equal to ________
[GATE 2017 FN]
Correct Answer: 199-201
4
Question: 12860
Influence line for redundant structure can
be obtained by [GATE -94]
1. castigliano’s theorem
2. Muller Breslau principle
3. Unit load theorem
4. Maxwell-betti’s reciprocal theorem
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 12793
A simply supported beam with an overhang
is traversed by a unit concentrated
moment from the left to the right as
shown below [GATE-00]
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Influence Lines
The influence lines for reaction at B is
given by
Correct Answer: C
6
Question: 12792
Identify from the following , correct values
of the bending moment MA( in kNm unit) at
the fixed end A in the statistically
determinate beam shown below(with
internal hinges at B and D),when a
uniformly distributed load of 10 kN/m is
placed on all spans (Hint:sketching the
influence line for M or applying the
principle of virtual displacements makes
the solution easy) [GATE 2001]
A.-80
B.-40
C.0
D.+40
Correct Answer: C
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Influence Lines
7
Question: 12791
Muller Breslau’s Principle in structural
analysis is used for [GATE-03]
1. drawing influence line diagram for
any force function
2. writing virtual work equation
3. superposition of load effects
4. none of these
Correct Answer: A
8
Question: 12790
A beam PQRS is 18 m long and is simply
supported at points Q and R 10 m
apart.Overhangs PQ and RS are 3m and 5m
respectively A train of two point loads of
150 kN and 100 kN,5m apart ,crosses this
beam from left to right with 100 kN load
leading
Q.The maximum hogging moment in the
beam anywhere is [GATE-03]
A.300 kN-m
B.450 kN-m
C.500 kN-m
D.750 kN-m
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 12789
A beam PQRS is 18 m long and is simply
supported at points Q and R 10 m
apart.Overhangs PQ and RS are 3m and 5m
respectively A train of two point loads of
150 kN and 100 kN,5m apart ,crosses this
beam from left to right with 100 kN load
leading
Q.During the passage of the loads ,the
maximum and the minimum reactions at
support R ,in kN are respectively
[GATE-03]
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Influence Lines
A.300 and -30
B.300 and -25
C.225 and -30
D.225 and -25
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 12788
A beam PQRS is 18 m long and is simply
supported at points Q and R 10 m
apart.Overhangs PQ and RS are 3m and 5m
respectively A train of two point loads of
150 kN and 100 kN,5m apart ,crosses this
beam from left to right with 100 kN load
leading
Q.The maximum sagging moment under
the 150 kN load anywhere is [GATE-03]
A.500 kN-m
B.450 kN-m
C.400 kN-m
D.375 kN-m
Correct Answer: C
11
Question: 12786
The influence line diagram(ILD) shown is
for the member [GATE-07]
A.PS
B.RS
C.PQ
D.QS
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Influence Lines
Correct Answer: A
12
Question: 12785
The span(s) to be loaded uniformly for
maximum positive (upward) reaction at
support P,as shown in the figure below ,is
/are [GATE 2008]
A.PQ only
B.PQ and QR
C.QR and RS
D.PQ and RS
Correct Answer: D
13
Question: 12784
Beam subjected to moving distributed load
of 4 kN/m. Maximum shear force that can
occur just to right of Q is
[GATE 2013]
A.30 kN
B.40 kN
C.45 kN
D.55 kN
Correct Answer: C
14
Question: 12783
In a beam of length L, four possible
influence line diagrams for shear force at a
section located at a distance of L/4 from
the left end support (marked as P,Q,R and
S) are shown below. The correct influence
line diagram is
[GATE-14 FN]
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Influence Lines
A.P
B.Q
C.R
D.S
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 12782
A simply supported beam AB of span ,L=24
m is subjected to two wheel loads acting at
a distance ,d=5m apart as shown in figure
below. Each wheel transmits a load ,P=3kN
and may occupy any position along the
beam .if the beam is an I –section having
section modulus ,S=16.2 cm3 ,the
maximum bending stress (in GPa) due to
the wheel loads is ____ [GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 1783-1783
16
Question: 7249
Beam subjected to moving distributed load
of 4 kN/m maximum shear force that can
occur just to right of Q is(GATE-00)
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Influence Lines
(a) 30 kN
(b) 40 kN
(c) 45 kN
(d) 55 kN
Correct Answer: C
17
Question: 7248
The given figures show a beam with its
influence line for shear force and bending
moment at section ‘1’(GATE-00)
The values of the shear force and bending
moment at section ‘1’ due to a
concentrated load of 20 kN placed at midspan will be
a.0.75kN and 2.25 kNm
b.5 kN and 5 kNm
c.7.5 kN and 10 kNm
d.10 kN and 30 kNm
Correct Answer: D
18
Question: 7247
A beam with cantilevered ends is shown in
the given figure. Which one of the following
diagrams represent the influence line
diagram for shear for a section just to the
right of the support ‘A’ ?(GATE-00)
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Influence Lines
Correct Answer: A
19
Question: 7246
The influence line diagram for reaction B of
the beam shown in figure I is(GATE-00)
Correct Answer: D
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Slope Deflection method
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16149
The rigid-jointed plane frame QRS shown in
the figure is subjected to a load P at the
joint R. Let the axial deformations in the
frame be neglected. If the support S
undergoes a settlement of
, the vertical reaction at the
support S will become zero when β is
equal to [GATE 2019 FN]
A.0.1
B.7.5
C.3.0
D.48.0
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 12858
A single bay portal frame of height h fixed
at the base is subjected to horizontal
displacement Δ at the top.the base
moments developed is proportional to
(consider all members are
prismatic)[GATE -94]
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Slope Deflection method
Correct Answer: B
3
Question: 12855
Bending moments at joint b and c of the
portal frame are respectively [GATE-96]
Correct Answer: A
4
Question: 12854
For the frame shown shown in the figure,
the maximum bending moment in the
column is [GATE-97]
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Slope Deflection method
A.zero
B.400 kNm
C.100 kNm
D.200kNm
Correct Answer: D
5
Question: 12853
Identify the correct deflection diagram
corresponding to the loading in the plane
frame shown below [GATE-01]
Correct Answer: D
6
Question: 12833
The number of simultaneous equations to
be solved in the slope deflection method is
equal to
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Slope Deflection method
(GATE-95)
1. The degree of static indeterminacy
2. The degree of kinematic
indeterminacy
3. The number of joints in the
structure
4. None of the above
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 12832
The value of M in the beam ABC shown in
the figure is such that the joint b does not
rotate
The value of support reaction(in kN) at B
should be equal to____ [GATE 2017 FN]
Correct Answer: 59.00-61.0
8
Question: 12777
Number of independent displacement
modes (sway mechanisms ) for the given
frame with the load shown in figure is/are
[GATE-91]
A.4
B.1
C.3
D.2
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Slope Deflection method
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 7228
The portal frame shown in figure I was
analysed, and the final column moments
were found to be as shown in figure II. The
value of P is(GATE-00)
a 25kN
b. 41 kN
c. 45 kN
d. 50 kN
Correct Answer: 8
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moment Distribution Method
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 12856
A single bay single storey portal frame has
hinged left support and a fixed right
support It is loaded with uniformly
distributed load on the beam Which one of
the following statements is true with regard
to the deformation of the frame?
[GATE-95]
A.it would sway to the left side
B.it would sway to the right side
C.it would not sway at all
D.none of the above
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 12852
The frame below shows three beam
elements OA,OB and OC ,with identical
length L and flexural rigidity EI ,subject to
an external moment M applied at the rigid
joint O. The correct set of bending
moments (MOA , MOB, MOC) that develop at
O in the three beam elements OA,OB and
OC respectively, is [GATE-01]
A. {3M/8, M/8, 4M/8}
B. {3M/11, 4M/11, 4M/11}
C. {M/3, M/3, M/3}
D. {3M/7, 0, 4M/7}
Correct Answer: D
3
Question: 12851
The end moment (in kNm) developed in the
roof level beams in the laterally frame
shown below (with all columns having
identical cross-sections) according to the
cantilever Method of simplified analysis is
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moment Distribution Method
[GATE-01]
A.7.5
B.15
C.20
D.30
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 12850
The plane frame below is analyzed by
neglecting axial deformations .Following
statements are made with respect to the
analysis [GATE-04]
EI=81380 kN-m2
I. Column AB carries axial force only
II. Vertical deflection at the center of
beam BC is 1 mm
With reference to the above statements,
which of the following applies?
A. Both statements are true
B. Statement 1 is true but 2 is false
C. Statement 2 is true but 1 is false
D. Both statements are false
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moment Distribution Method
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 12849
All members of the frame shown below
have the same flexural rigidity EI and
length L . if a moment M is applied at joint
B, the rotation of the joint is [GATE 2005]
Correct Answer: B
6
Question: 12848
Carry-over factor CAB for the beam shown in
the figure below is [GATE 2006]
A.1/4
B.1/2
C.3/4
D.1
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 12847
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moment Distribution Method
All members in the rigid –jointed frame
shown are prismatic and have the same
flexural stiffness EI. Find the magnitude of
the BM at Q (in KNm) due to given loading
[GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 25-25
8
Question: 12846
Considering the symmetry of a rigid frame
as shown below, the magnitude of the
bending moment (in kNm) at P (preferably
using the moment distribution method) is
[[GATE-14 AN]
A.170
B.172
C.176
D.178
Correct Answer: C
9
Question: 12844
Consider the portal frame shown in the
figure and assume the modulus of
elasticity .E=2.5x104MPa and the moment
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moment Distribution Method
of inertia I=8 x 108 mm4 for all the
members of the frame [GATE 2017 AN]
The rotation (in degrees,up to one decimal
place ) at the joint Q would be ____
Correct Answer: 0.9-1.1
10
Question: 12248
A prismatic beam P-Q-R of flexural rigidity
EI=1 x104 KNm2 is subjected to a moment
of 180 kNm at Q as shown in the figure.
(GATE 2018 AN)
The rotation at Q (in rad ,up to two decimal
places ) is _____
Correct Answer: 0.01-0.01
11
Question: 7231
.In the portal frame shown in the given
figure, the ratio of sway moments in
columns AB and CD will be equal
to(GATE-00)
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moment Distribution Method
a)1/3
b. 2/3
c. 9/8
d. 13/8
Correct Answer: C
12
Question: 7230
If an analysis of the frame shown in the
given figure indicated final moment (−) 40
kNm at A and B of the column AB, then the
moment MCD willbe (GATE-00)
a) −5 kNm
b) −10 kNm
c. −20 kNm
d. −40 kNm
Correct Answer: A
13
Question: 7227
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moment Distribution Method
For the frame shown in the figure, the
distribution factors for members CB, CD
and CG are respectively (Assume EI as
constant)
a.14 / 29 , 8 /29 and 7 /29
b. 7 / 29 , 14 /29 and 8 /29
c. 7 / 29 , 8 /29 and 14 /29
d. 14 / 29 , 7 /29 and 8 /29
Correct Answer: B
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Energy Method
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16169
A portal frame shown in figure (not drawn
to scale)has a hinge support at joint P and
a roller support at joint R.A point load of 50
kN is acting at joint R in the horizontal
direction .The flexural rigidity ,EI of each
member is 106 kN/m2 ,under the applied
load the horizontal displacement (in mm
,round off to 1 decimal place ) of joint R
would be __[GATE 2019 FN]
Correct Answer: 25-25
2
Question: 13917
Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the code given below
the Lists :(GATE-05)
List I
A.slope deflection method
B.Moment distribution method
C.method for three moments
D.Castiliano's second theorem
LIST-II
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Energy Method
1.Force method
2.Displacement method.
Codes:
A B C D
a)1
2
1
2
b)1
1
2
2
c)2
2
1
1
d)2
1
2 1
Correct Answer: C
3
Question: 13678
A uniform beam (EI = constant) PQ in the
form of a quarter circle of radius R is fixed
at end P and free at the end Q, where a
load W is applied as shown. The vertical
downward displacement
point Q is given by
at the loaded
Find the value of β
correct to 4-decimal place[GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 0.7854-0.7854
4
Question: 12843
The moments at the ends A and B of a
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Energy Method
beam AB where end A is fixed and B is
hinged .When the end b sinks by an
amount Δ are given as [GATE-91]
Correct Answer: D
5
Question: 12842
Methods of indeterminate structural
analysis may be grouped under either force
method or displacement method. Which of
the groupings given below is correct?
[GATE -93]
Correct Answer: B
6
Question: 12841
Match the following methods with
appropriate analysis [GATE -95]
1. strain energy method
2. Complimentary energy method
3. Muller Breslau principle
4. Kani’s method of analysis
(i) Influence for redundant structures
(ii) Deflection of linear structures
(iii) Deflection of non-linear structures
(iv) Analysis of multistoried frames
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Energy Method
Correct Answer: A
7
Question: 12840
Identify the false statement from the
following, pertaining to the methods of
structural analysis [GATE -01]
A. influence lines for stress resultants
in beams can be drawn using Muller
Breslau’s principle
B. The Moment distribution method is
a force method of analysis, not a
displacement method
C. the principle of virtual
Displacements can be used to
establish a condition of equilibrium
D. the substitute frame method is not
applicable to frames subject to
significant sideway
Correct Answer: B
8
Question: 12839
The unit load method used in structural
analysis is [GATE-04]
1. applicable only to statistically
indeterminate structure
2. another name for stiffness method
3. an extension of Maxwell’s
reciprocal theorem
4. Derived from Castigliano’s theorem
Correct Answer: D
9
Question: 12838
For a linear elastic structural system,
minimization of potential energy yields
[GATE-04]
1. compatibility conditions
2. Constitutive relations
3. equilibrium equations
4. strain-displacement relations
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 12837
Match LIST-1 with LIST-II and select the
correct answer using the codes given
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Energy Method
below the lists:
[GATE-05]
LIST-I
1. slope deflection method
2. moment distribution method
3. Method for three moments
4. Castigliano’s second theorem
LIST-II
1. Force Method
2. Displacement method
Codes:
A B
C
D
A. 1 2 1 2
B. 1 1 2 2
C. 2 2 1 1
D. 2 1 2 1
Correct Answer: C
11
Question: 12836
Two prismatic beams having the same
flexural rigidity of 1000kN-m are shown in
figures
If the mid-span deflections of these beams
are denoted by δ1 and δ2 (as indicated in
the figure),the correct option is [GATE
2017 AN]
1. δ1= δ2
2. δ1< δ2
3. δ1> δ2
4. δ1? δ2
Correct Answer: A
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Trusses
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 16134
A plane truss is shown in the figure (not
drawn to scale). [GATE 2019 FN]
Which one of the options contains ONLY
zero force members in the truss?
(A) FG, FI, HI, RS
(B) FI, FG, RS, PR
(C) FI, HI, PR, RS
(D) FG, FH, HI, RS
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 16124
Consider the pin-jointed plane truss shown
in the figure (not drawn to scale). Let RP,
RQ, and RR denote the vertical reactions
(upward positive) applied by the supports
at P, Q, and R, respectively, on the truss.
The correct combination of (RP, RQ, and
RR) is represented by (GATE 2019)
(A)(30, -30, 30) KN
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Trusses
(B)(10,30,- 10) kN
(C)(20,0,10) kN
(D)(0, 60, -30) kN
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 13691
A symmetric frame PQR consists of two
inclined members PQ and QR, connected at
‘Q’ with a rigid joint, and hinged at ‘P’ and
‘R’. The horizontal length PR is l. If a weight
W is suspended at ‘Q’, the bending
moment at ‘Q’ is
Correct Answer: D
4
Question: 13533
Consider the structural system shown in
the figure under the action of weight W. All
the joints are hinged. The properties of the
members in terms of length (L), area (A)
and the modulus of elasticity (E) are also
given in the figure. Let L, A and E be 1 m,
0.05 m2 and 30 × 106 N/m2, respectively,
and W be 100 kN.
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Trusses
Which one of the following sets gives the
correct values of the force, stress and
change in length of the horizontal member
QR?
(A) Compressive force = 25 kN; Stress =
250 kN/m2; Shortening = 0.0118 m
(B) Compressive force = 14.14 kN; Stress =
141.4 kN/m2; Extension = 0.0118 m
(C) Compressive force = 100 kN; Stress =
1000 kN/m2; Shortening = 0.0417 m
(D) Compressive force = 100 kN; Stress =
1000 kN/m2; Extension = 0.0417 m
Correct Answer: C
5
Question: 13429
A planar truss tower structure is shown in
the figure [GATE 2017 FN]
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Trusses
Consider the following statements about
the external and internal determinacies of
the truss.
(P) Externally Determinate
(Q) External Static Indeterminacy = 1
(R) External Static Indeterminacy = 2
(S) Internally Determinate
(T) Internal Static Indeterminacy = 1
(U) Internal Static Indeterminacy = 2
Which one of the following options is
correct?
(A) P-False; Q-True; R-False; S
(B) P-False; Q-True; R-False; S
(C) P-False; Q-False; R-True; S
(D) P-True; Q-True; R-False; S
Correct Answer: A
6
Question: 12865
Identify the false statement from the
following, pertaining to the effects due to a
temperature rise ΔT in the bar BD alone in
the plane truss shown below: [GATE-01]
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Trusses
A. No reactions develop at supports A
and D
B. The bar BD will be subject to a
tensile force
C. The bar AC will be subject to a
compressive force
D. The bar BC will be subjected to a
tensile force
Correct Answer: B
7
Question: 12863
The strain energy stored in member Ab of
the pin jointed truss as shown in figure
where E and A are same for all members, is
[GATE-98]
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 12835
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Trusses
Consider the deformable pin-jointed truss
with loading, geometry and section
properties as shown in the figure [GATE
2018-1]
Given that E = 2×1011 N/m2, A = 10 mm2, L
= 1 m and P = 1kN. The horizontal
displacement of Joint C (in mm, up to one
decimal place) is ______
Correct Answer: 2.60-2.80
9
Question: 12818
The forces in members ‘a, b, c’ in the
truss shown are respectively [GATE -95]
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Trusses
Correct Answer: A
10
Question: 12817
If the deformation of the truss members
are as shown in parenthesis , the rotation
of the member bd is [GATE-96]
A.0.5 x 10-3 radian
B.1.0 x 10-2 radian
C.1.5 x 10-2 radian
D.2.0 x 10-2 radian
Correct Answer: B
11
Question: 12816
The force in the member DE of the truss
shown in the figure is [GATE-97]
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Trusses
A.100.0kN
B.zero
C.35.5 kN
D.25.0kN
Correct Answer: B
12
Question: 12814
A truss as shown in figure I,is carrying
180kN load at node L2.The force In the
diagonal member M2U4 will be [GATE -03]
A.100 kN tension
B.100 kN compression
C.80 kN tension
D.80 kN compression
Correct Answer: A
13
Question: 12813
For the plane truss shown in the figure ,the
number of zero force members for the
given loading is [GATE -04]
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Trusses
A.4
B.8
C.11
D.13
Correct Answer: B
14
Question: 12812
A truss is shown in the figure Members are
of equal cross section A and same modulus
of elasticity E. A vertical force P is applied
at point C
Deflection of the point C is [GATE-05]
Correct Answer: A
15
Question: 12811
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Trusses
A truss is shown in the figure Members are
of equal cross section A and same modulus
of elasticity E. A vertical force P is applied
at point C
force in the member AB of the truss is
[GATE-05]
Correct Answer: C
16
Question: 12810
The member EJ and IJ of a steel truss
shown in the figure below are subjected to
a temperature rise of 300 C. The coefficient
of thermal expansion of steel is 0.000012
per 0C per unit length.The displacement
(mm) of joint E relative to joint H along the
direction HE of the truss ,is [GATE 2008]
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Trusses
A.0.255
B.0.589
C.0.764
D.1.026
Correct Answer: C
17
Question: 12809
The pin-jointed 2D truss is loaded with a
horizontal force of 15 kN at joint S and
another 15kN vertical force at joint U as
shown in figure .Find the force in member
RS (in kN) and report your answer taking
tension as +ve and compressive as –ve
[GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 6-6
18
Question: 12808
For the truss shown in the figure. The force
in the member QR is [GATE-10]
A.zero
B.P2
C.P
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Trusses
D.2P
Correct Answer: C
19
Question: 12806
Mathematical idealization of a crane has
three bars with vertices arranged as shown
in the figure with a load of 80kN hanging
vertically .The coordinates of the vertices
are given in parenthesis .The force in the
member QR,FQR will be [GATE-14 FN]
A.30 kN compressive
B.30 kN tensile
C.50kN compressive
D.50 kN tensile
Correct Answer: A
20
Question: 12805
For the truss shown below, the member PQ
is short by 3mm.The magnitude of vertical
displacement of joint R (in mm ) is
___[GATE-14 FN]
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Trusses
Correct Answer: 1.0-2.5
21
Question: 12804
For the 2D truss with the applied loads
shown below The strain energy in the
member XY is___kN-m.For member XY ,
assume AE=30kN,where A is cross section
area and E is the modulus of elasticity
[GATE-15]
Correct Answer: 5-5
22
Question: 12803
Consider The plane truss with load P as
shown in the figure .Let the horizontal and
vertical reactions at the joint B be HB and
VB ,respectively and Vc be vertical reaction
at the joint C
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Trusses
Which of the following sets gives the
correct values of VB,HB and Vc? [GATE 2016
FN]
A.VB=0;HB=0;Vc=P
B.VB=P/2;HB=0;Vc=P/2
C VB=P/2;HB=P(sin600);Vc=P/2
D.VB=P;HB=P(cos(600);Vc=0
Correct Answer: A
23
Question: 12802
A plane truss with applied loads is shown in
the figure
The members which do not carry any force
are
[GATE 2016 FN]
A.FT,TG,HU,MP,PL
B.ET,GS,UR,VR,QL
C.FT,GS,HU,MP,QL
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Trusses
D.MP,PL,HU,FT,UR
Correct Answer: A
24
Question: 12799
All the members of the planar truss (see
figure), have the same properties in terms
of area of cross-section (A) and modulus of
elasticity (E). [GATE 2018-2]
For the loads shown on the truss, the
statement that correctly represents the
nature of forces in the members of the
truss is:
(A) There are 3 members in tension, and 2
members in compression
(B) There are 2 members in tension, 2
members in compression, and 1 zero-force
member
(C) There are 2 members in tension, 1
member in compression, and 2 zero-force
members
(D) There are 2 members in tension, and 3
zero-force members
Correct Answer: D
25
Question: 12770
The following two statements are made
with reference to the plane truss shown
below (GATE-00)
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Trusses
I.The truss is statistically determinate
II.The truss is kinematically determinate
With reference to the above statements
,which of the following applies?
A.Both statements are true
B.Both statements are false
C.II is true but I is false
D.I is true but II is false
Correct Answer: D
26
Question: 7280
The members EJ and IJ of a steel truss
shown in the figure below are subjected to
a temperature rise of 30°C. The coefficient
of thermal expansion of steel is 0.000012
per °C per unit length. The displacement
(mm) of joint E relative to joint H along the
direction HE of truss, is
a)0.255
b)0.589
c)0.764
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Trusses
d)1.026
Correct Answer: C
27
Question: 7277
Pin jointed 2D truss loaded by two 15 kN
force as shown in figure. Taking tensile +ve
and compressive
as negative. Find the force in
RS. [GATE-01]
Correct Answer: zero
28
Question: 7276
A loaded pin jointed truss is shown in the
given figure. The force in member AC
is [GATE-01]
a.10 2kN (Tensile)
b. 10 2kN (Compressive)
c. Zero
d. 10kN (Tensile)
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Trusses
Correct Answer: D
29
Question: 7275
In the pin jointed plane frame shown in the
given figure. The force in the member
BDis[GATE-01]
. a. 50000 N (Tensile)
b. 50000 N (Compressive)
c. 50000 2N(Tensile)
d. zero
Correct Answer: A
30
Question: 7274
A loaded pin jointed truss is shown in the
given figure. The force in member AC is
[GATE-01]
a.10.2 KN tensile
b. 10 2kN (Compressive)
c. Zero
d. 10kN (Tensile)
Correct Answer: C
31
Question: 7272
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Trusses
The force in member AB is[GATE-01]
a.5kN compression
b. 2 kN compression
c. Zero
d. 7 kN compression
Correct Answer: C
32
Question: 7258
In a redundant joint model ,three bar
members are pin connected at Q as shown
in figure.Under some load placed at Q,the
elongation of the members MQ and OQ are
found to be 48 mm and 35 mm
respectively.Then the horizontal
displacement u and the vertical
displacement v of the node Q,in mm,will be
respectively [GATE-03]
(a)-6.64 and 56.14
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Trusses
(b) 6.64 and 56.14
(c) 0.0 and 59.41
(d) 59.41 and 0.0
Correct Answer: B
33
Question: 7255
a truss as shown in the figure ,is carrying
180 KN load at node L2.The force in the
diagonal member M2U4 will be [GATE-03]
(a) 100 KN tension
(b) 100 KN compression
(c) 80 KN tension
(d) 80 KN compression
Correct Answer: A
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Cables
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 13632
The tension (in kN) in a 10 m long cable,
shown in the figure, neglecting its selfweight is [GATE-14 AN]
A.120
B.75
C.60
D.45
Correct Answer: B
2
Question: 12251
A cable PQ of length 25 m is supported at
two ends at the same level as shown in the
figure. The horizontal distance between the
supports is 20 m. A point load of 150 kN is
applied at point R which divides it into two
equal parts.
Neglecting the self-weight of the cable, the
tension (in kN, in integer value) in the
cable due to the applied load will be
______(GATE 2018 AN)
Correct Answer: 125-125
3
Question: 7297
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Cables
a uniform beam weighing 1800 N is
supported at E and F by cable ABCD
.Determine the tension (in N)in segment AB
of this cable (correct to 1-decimal
place).Assume the cables ABCD ,BE and CF
to be weightless___[GATE 2013]
Correct Answer: 1272.91-1272.91
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Arches
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 12798
Vertical reaction at supports B of the
structure is [GATE 1996]
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 12797
A three hinged arch shown in figure is
quarter of a circle If the vertical and
horizontal components of reaction at A are
equal The value of θ is [GATE-98]
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Arches
A.60o
B.45o
C.30o
D.none in (0o,90o)
Correct Answer: D
3
Question: 12796
A three hinged parabolic arch ABC has a
span of 20m and a central rise of 4mthe
arch has hinges at the ends and at the
centre . A train of two point loads of 20kN
and 10kN ,5m apart ,crosses this arch from
left to right with 20kN load leading The
maximum thrust induced at the supports is
[GATE -04]
A.25.00kN
C.31.25kN
B.28.13kN
D.32.81kN
Correct Answer: C
4
Question: 12795
A three hinged parabolic arch having a
span of 20 m and a rise of 5m carries a
point load of 10 kN at quarter span from
the left end as shown in the figure .The
resultant reaction at the left support and
its inclination with the horizontal are
respectively [GATE-10]
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Arches
A.9.01 kN and 56.310
B.9.01kN and 33.690
C.7.50kN and 56.310
D.2.50kN and 33.690
Correct Answer: A
5
Question: 12794
The figure shows a two-hinged parabolic
arch of span L subjected to a uniformly
distributed load of intensity q per unit
length
The maximum bending moment in the arch
is equal to [GATE 2017 FN]
Correct Answer: C
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Arches
6
Question: 7289
A three-hinged symmetrical parabolic arch
of span 20 m and 5 m carries a uniformly
distributed load of 2 kN/m for the whole
span. The bending moment at quarter
point is [GATE-01]
a)75 kNm (Hogging)
b. 75 kNm(Sagging)
c. 100 kNm(Sagging)
d. zero
Correct Answer: D
7
Question: 7288
.The horizontal thrust at support ‘A’ in a
three hinged arch shown in the given figure
is [GATE-01]
a.2kN
b. 4 kN
c. 8 kN
d. 10 kN
Correct Answer: B
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Matrix Methods
S.No
1
Questions
Space For Solution
Question: 12862
The order of the flexibility matrix for a
structure is [GATE-97]
A. equal to the number of redundant
forces
B. more than the number of redundant
forces
C. less than the number of redundant
forces
D. equal to the number of redundant
forces plus three
Correct Answer: A
2
Question: 12831
In a linear elastic structural element
[GATE-91]
1. stiffness is directly proportional to
flexibility
2. stiffness is inversely proportional to
flexibility
3. stiffness is equal to flexibility
4. stiffness and flexibility are not
related
Correct Answer: A
3
Question: 12830
The ratio of the stiffness of a beam at the
near end when the far end is hinged to the
stiffness of the beam at the near end when
the far end is fixed is [GATE-94]
A.1/2
B.3/4
C.1
D.4/3
Correct Answer: B
4
Question: 12829
In a linear structural element
[GATE-94]
1. stiffness is directly proportional to
flexibility
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Matrix Methods
2. Stiffness is inversely proportional to
flexibility
3. Stiffness is equal to flexibility
4. Stiffness and flexibility are not
related
Correct Answer: B
5
Question: 12828
In flexibility method, the unknown
quantities are __ where as in stiffness
method the unknown quantities
are_____[GATE 1994]
Correct Answer: unit,unit
6
Question: 12827
Flexibility of structure may be defined as
the displacement caused for __ force and
stiffness of structure may be defined as the
force caused for __ displacement [GATE
-94]
Correct Answer: FORCE/MOMENT
,DEFLECTION/ROTATION
7
Question: 12826
Which of the following statements is true
with regard to the flexibility method of
analysis? [GATE -95]
1. The method is used to analyze
determinate structures
2. The method is used only for manual
analysis of indeterminate structures
3. The method is used for analysis of
flexible structures
4. The method is used for analysis of
indeterminate structure with lesser
degree of static indeterminacy
Correct Answer: D
8
Question: 12825
Horizontal stiffness coefficient K11 of bar AB
is given by [GATE-96]
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Matrix Methods
Correct Answer: B
9
Question: 12824
The stiffness matrix of a beam element is
given as
then the flexibility
matrix is [GATE-98]
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Matrix Methods
Correct Answer: B
10
Question: 12823
The stiffness k of a beam deflecting in a
symmetric mode , as shown in figure ,is
[GATE 2003]
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Matrix Methods
Correct Answer: B
11
Question: 12822
For a linear elastic frame ,if stiffness matrix
is doubled with respect to the existing
stiffness matrix ,the deflection of the
resulting frame will be [GATE -05]
A. Twice the existing value
B. half the existing value
C. The same as existing value
D. indeterminate value
Correct Answer: B
12
Question: 12821
The stiffness coefficient kij
indicates [GATE-07]
A. force at i due to a unit deformation
at j
B. deformation at j due to a unit force
at i
C. deformation at i due to a unit force
at j
D. force at j due to a unit deformation
at i
Correct Answer: A
13
Question: 12820
For the beam shown below, the stiffness
coefficient K22 can be written as [GATE-07]
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Matrix Methods
Correct Answer: B
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