Microbiology Bio 41
Stavney sp97 vA
Name
FINAL EXAM
60 points total. Put your name on this set of questions and your essay sheet. Write the first three
letters of your last name on the back page of the essay sheet. Write the version of this exam(see
upper left corner of this page) in the Test Record box on your Scantron form, AND on the back
page of the essay sheet. Answer all multiple choice questions on your Scantron form.
1. Nonspecific resistance can be defined as:
a. the body's ability to ward off diseases
b. the body's defenses against any kind of pathogen
c. the body's defenses against a particular pathogen
d. the lack of resistance in a body
e. resistance to infection from unrelated species of bacteria
2. Which of the following is NOT a mechanical factor in protecting the human body from
infection?
a. the flushing action of tears
b. mucous secretion of epithelial cells
c. multiple layers of skin cells
d. the action of lysozyme in saliva
e. the waterproof keratin protein in skin cells
3. What is the function of the "ciliary escalator' in the trachea (windpipe) of humans?
a. it transports cilia upwards into the mouth
b. it moves bacteria trapped in mucous upwards into the mouth
c. it blocks lung bacteria from entering the mouth
d. it transports macrophages to the site of infection
e. it elevates respiratory therapy to new levels
4. "Margination" refers to
a. the adherence of phagocytes to microorganisms
b. the chemotactic response of phagocytes
c. adherence of phagocytes to the lining of blood vessels
d. dilation of blood vessels
e. the movement of phagocytes through blood vessel walls
5. Which of the following is NOT a function of complement proteins
a. opsonization of pathogens
b. attraction of phagocytes
c. lysis of bacteria by making transmembrane channels
d. causing agglutination of antigens by cross-linking
e. coating a pathogen so that it can be ingested by a macrophage
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6. Which of the following leukocytes develops into the "hungry eater cells" known as
macrophages?
a. eosinophils
b. T helper cells
c. B cells
d. basophils
e. monocytes
7. Which of the following is NOT a direct part of the inflammatory response?
a. vasodilation
b. swelling
c. attraction of white blood cells
d. diapedesis
e. fever
8. What are the molecules known as immunoglobulin G (IgG)?
a. chemicals in the blood that form transmembrane channels in bacteria
b. foreign proteins or invaders which invoke an antibody response
c. proteins that have two arms and "sticky ends"
d. types of lymphocytes that assist in the cell-mediated response
e. chemicals released into the blood that cause inflammation
9. Which areas of the antibody above are the places where the antigen binds?
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. both I and III
e. both II and III
10. What are antigens?
a. proteins found in the blood that cause foreign blood cells to clump
b. foreign proteins or invaders which invoke an antibody response
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c. proteins that have two arms and "sticky ends"
d. proteins embedded in the B cell membrane
e. chemicals released into the blood that cause inflammation
11. Which antibodies are produced in the largest amounts, a few days after infection begins?
a. IgG only
b. IgA only
c. IgE only
d. IgD only
e. all of these antibodies are produced in every infection
12. The cross-linking of antibodies with antigens is called:
a. immunization
b. transmembrane channels
c. agglutination
d. production of plasma cells
e. desensitization
13. Plasma cells are:
a. immature forms of T cells
b. the cells which produce large amounts of antibodies
c. the cells which are responsible for "memory" of an infection
d. phagocytotic cells
e. cells which produce plasma for the blood
14. Which of the following would be most beneficial in treating an individual who has been
bitten by a poisonous snake whose toxin is fast acting?
a. vaccination with a weakened form of the toxin
b. injection of more blood of the right type
c. injection of histamine molecules
d. injection of antibodies to the toxin
e. injection of complement protein
15. Which of the following is not normally used in a vaccine?
a. toxoids
b. parts of bacterial cells
c. live, attenuated bacteria
d. inactivated viruses
e. antibodies
16. Immunity from a second future infection by a particular pathogen is produced by:
a. the weakening of all future strains of the pathogen
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b. the increase of T helper cells in the body
c. the future quick production of macrophages
d. the future quick productions of specific antibodies by activated memory B cells
e. vaccination using an unrelated pathogen
17. The major histocompatability proteins (MHC's) in humans are involved in:
a. assisting in killing foreign cells
b. as opsonization proteins
c. in recognition of "self" cells from foreign cells
d. in helping agglutinate foreign cells
e. as stimulators of B and T cells during infections
18. Which one of the following statements about HIV and AIDS is NOT true?
a. HIV attacks T suppresser cells
b. death of the victim usually occurs due to opportunistic infections
c. the virus contains RNA
d. the HIV virus is an enveloped virus
e. a person who is HIV positive may show no symptoms
19. Which number (I-V) in the diagram above indicates the original location of the antigen that
stimulates the cell mediated response?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V
20. Which cell in the diagram above is transformed into a plasma cell?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
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e. V
21. Which cell in the diagram above digests the invader and presents the protein antigens to a T
cell?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V
22. Which cell above is the T helper cell?
a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V
23. Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because:
a. they replicate inside human cells
b. protozoan and helminth cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells
c. they don't have ribosomes
d. they have only simple reproductive structures
e. they have prokaryotic ribosomes
24. Some drugs, like tetracycline and penicillin, diminish or reduce each other's effects in the
body when they are administered together. This type of interaction is called:
a. antagonism
b. synergism
c. commensalism
d. a contraindication
e. side effects
25. The cell theory states that
a. everything on earth is made of cells
b. all cells have membranes
c. cells arise by spontaneous generation
d. viruses are cells
e. all living things are composed of cells
26. Which of the following answers lists the taxons (categories) of the classification system in
descending order (some categories may be skipped)?
a. kingdom, class, family, species, genus
b. class, family, order, genus, species
c. phylum, class, family, order, genus
d. kingdom, class, order, genus, species
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e. phylum, family, class, order, genus
27. You are examining a single-celled under the microscope. It clearly has a nucleus and a cell
wall made of chitin is present. No chloroplasts are evident. You decide that this organism
belongs in which one of the following kingdoms?
a. Animalia
b. Fungi
c. Monera
d. Plantae
e. Protista
28. One of the following bacterial genera is incorrectly paired with a bacterial grouping. Which
pair is incorrect?
a. Spriochetes: Treponema
b. Facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods: Shigella
c. Endospore-forming gram positive rods and cocci: Clostridium
d. Gram positive cocci: Streptococcus
e. Enteric bacteria: Rickettsias
29. Which of the following has atoms of an element OTHER than carbon, oxygen, or hydrogen?
a. glucose
b. the lipids of a cell membrane
c. DNA
d. triglycerides
e. both answers b and c are true
30. The reaction involving the linking of glucose molecules to form starch involves:
a. hydrolysis
b. condensation (dehydration)
c. exchange
d. anabolism
e. decomposition
31. How do enzymes speed up chemical reactions?
a. They add energy to the substrate so that it reacts more quickly
b. They help to heat up the liquid around the reactants, causing them to move faster
c. They decrease the energy level of the reactants so that they have about as much energy
as
the products in the reaction
d. They decrease the activation energy needed for the reaction to proceed
e. They bump into reactant molecules, forcing them to collide and react more often
32. A cell with a cytoplasm containing 0.9% salt/glucose/protein dissolved in water is placed in a
glass of pure water. What will happen to this cell?
a. Nothing much.
b. The cell will swell up and may explode
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c. The cell will shrink up and get smaller
d. The cell will probably change color to adapt to the situation
e. The cell will jump out of the glass of water, headed for a better environment
33.
What is unusual about obligate anaerobes, who perform anaerobic respiration?
a. they can breathe underwater
b. they produce acetoin
c. they contain the enzymes catalase and superoxide dismutase
d. they can perform homolactic fermentation
e. they use nitrate or sulfate as a terminal electron acceptor
34. In the electron transport chain, high energy electrons in NADH and FADH2 are used to make
ATP.
Where do these electrons come from?
a. from the bonds in glucose
b. from ATP, when it breaks down to ADP
c. from oxygen, when it splits to make water
d. from the bonds in carbon dioxide
e. from the food molecules which have been completely oxidized
35. Which of the following substances kills bacteria by oxidation (electron stealing)?
a. phenolics
b. quats
c. chlorine
d. alcohol
e. soap
36. What is the name of the process whereby DNA is copied from other DNA during cellular
reproduction?
a. mitosis
b. binary fission
c. transcription
d. translation
e. replication
37. Which of the following is true about transfer RNA (tRNA) in the cell?
a. it delivers amino acids to the ribosome
b. it is produces in the process called translation
c. it forms part of the internal framework of the ribosome
d. it acts as the "instruction sheet" from which proteins are made at the ribosome
e. it undergoes replication in the nucleus
38. Which of the following mutagenic agents might cause a frameshift mutation?
a. nitrates and nitrites in preserved meats
b. benzpyrene in cigarette smoke
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c. X-rays
d. nitrous acid
e. 5- bromouracil
39. Which of the following organisms is likely to have a life cycle described by the process:
miracidium larvae from eggs--->swimming cercaria in aquatic snails--->metacercaria cyst in
crayfish--->adult in lungs of humans--->eggs released in sputum or feces of human
a. a fluke
b. a hookworm
c. Trichinella spiralis
d. a trypanosome
e. Aspergillis
40. Trichomonas vaginalis, the causative organism in the sexually transmitted disease called
trichomoniasis, is taxonomically classified as a:
a. yeast
b. egg infective roundworm
c. flagellate protozoan
d. apicomplexan protozoan
e. mold
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Name
1. Remember to write the first three letters of your name and the exam version on the back side of this set of essays.
2. Answer two of the three essay questions (10 pts each). Be sure to cross out any words you don't want graded, and
to write "Turn Over" if you chose to continue on the next page with your writing.
41. 10 pts. Compare and discuss the functions of the four different types of macromolecules.
Begin by naming each group, then describe their functions. Do the four kinds of macromolecules
share any functions in common?
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42. 10 pts. Compare and contrast the three types of gene transfer found among bacterial cells.
How is DNA transferred in each method? What kinds of bacterial or other "organisms" are
involved? Describe each type of transfer in detail.
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43. 10 pts. Describe the steps of the inflammatory response, beginning with the injection of
bacteria under your skin via a puncture wound and ending with the death of the bacteria. Be
sure to describe and name each step of the process (you might want to add drawings along with
your text).
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First 3 letters of last name
Test version
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