Biology 260 Summer 2012
Instructor: Jennifer Ward
Exam #2
7/25/12
100 points
Name ____________________________________
Questions 1-60: use a scantron AND indicate your answer on your exam copy.
Multiple choice: 1 point each
1. Which of the following cells are phagocytic?
a. Neutrophils and macrophages
b. Neutrophils, macrophages and NK cells
c. Macrophages and NK cells
d. Macrophages, neutrophils and plasma cells
e. Macrophages and plasma cells
2. Which type of leukocyte is the first to be recruited to a site of bacterial infection?
a. Cytotoxic T cell
b. Plasma cell
c. Naïve B cell
d. Neutrophil
e. Dendritic cell
3. Which of the following is NOT true of cytokines?
a. are important in intercellular communication
b. can be used to opsonize pathogens
c. are chemical signaling molecules which bind specifically to cell receptors
d. can stimulate fever
e. can initiate cell division
4. Which of the following is an example of an adhesion molecule:
a. Tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
b. Colony stimulating factor
c. E-selectin
d. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
e. Interleukin-4 (IL-4)
5. Which of the following is NOT an example of a first line defense used to protect against microbial
infection?
a. Lysozyme
b. Interferon
c. Mucus
d. Transferrin
e. Salt
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6. Interferon
a. is produced by viruses, especially RNA viruses
b. is produced by neutrophils as a component of NETs
c. is produced by bacterial cells to enhance phagocytosis
d. is produced by host cells in response to viral infection due to the presence of viral RNA in the
cytoplasm
e. none of the above
7. The specificity of an antibody for an antigen is due to
a. its ability to bind more than one antigen
b. the class of antibody
c. the constant region of the antibody
d. the variable region of the antibody
e. the 2nd signal from a helper T cell
8. The steps in phagocytosis include
a. Binding of the phagocyte to the microbe
b. Engulfment of the microbe
c. Formation of a phagosome
d. Fusion of the phagosome with a lysosome
e. All of the above
9. Which statement is true regarding plasma cells?
a. Plasma cells make antibodies
b. Plasma cells are activated T cells
c. Plasma cells are actively dividing cells producing a clonal B cell population
d. Plasma cells are a central component of the innate immune response
e. None of the above
10. Antibodies that are found on the surface of mucous membranes and consist of a dimer are of the
class
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgE
e. IgD
11. A naïve B cell is one which
a. has not developed antigen receptors
b. has been activated by a T cell
c. has a B cell receptor that has not yet been activated
d. has been activated by an antigen-presenting cell
e. none of the above
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12. Toll-like receptors:
a. are pattern recognition receptors found on many different types of cells
b. allow host cells to recognize the presence of microbes
c. bind specific parts of bacteria, such as peptidoglycan
d. activate the production of cytokines
e. all of the above
13. Which of the following is classified as a sapronotic disease:
a. coccidiodomycosis
b. rabies
c. malaria
d. plague
e. a and b
14. Coxiella burnetti is the etiologic agent of
a. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
b. toxoplasmosis
c. tularemia
d. Q fever
e. malaria
15. Which of the following is not a zoonotic disease:
a. rabies
b. pythiosis
c. toxoplasmosis
d. tularemia
e. Eastern equine encephalitis
16. Tuberculosis caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis in elephants is an example of
a. a zoonotic diseae
b. a sapronotic disease
c. an anthropozoonotic disease
d. a disease with an exanthropic life cycle
e. None of the above - elephants are not susceptible to infection with M. tuberculosis
17. Which of the following is the best definition of a zoonotic disease?
a. An infectious disease that can infect many different species of animals
b. An infectious disease naturally transmitted from non-human animals to humans
c. An infectious disease that is transmitted from humans to non-human animals
d. An infectious disease caused by normal microbiota in an immune-compromised person
e. An infectious disease that can be experimentally transmitted from animals to people
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18. Infection caused by the gram-negative bacteria Yersinia pestis is
a. highly infectious and can be passed from person to person via direct or droplet contact
b. maintained in an exanthropic cycle in the United States, where it is endemic in prairie dog
populations
c. potentially transmitted by flea bites from infected rodents to susceptible hosts such as people
or cats
d. a reportable disease
e. all of the above
19. Helper T cells
a. recognize antigen presented by antigen presenting cells in the context of MHC class II
molecules
b. provide a co-stimulatory molecule that activates B cells to divide and mature into plasma cells
c. have antigen-specific T cell receptors
d. a, b and c
e. none of the above
20. Which of the following is an example of disease transmission by a biological vector:
a. Multiplication of Rickettsia rickettsii occurs in the salivary glands of infected ticks and is
stimulated by ticks taking a blood meal. Organisms do not reach sufficient numbers to infect the
host unless the tick remains attached and feeding for several hours.
b. Flies with contaminated mouth parts and feet can transfer bacteria from feces and decaying
flesh to food that is then consumed by people. Occasionally, this results in exposure sufficient to
cause clinical disease.
c. Consumption of meat or eggs contaminated with Salmonella enterica causes can result in foodborne-salmonellosis.
d. The spores of Bacillus anthracis remain dormant in the soil for long periods of time and can
cause outbreaks of anthrax when they become aerosolized and inhaled by mammals
e. all of the above
21. You have a patient with a laboratory-confirmed case of lymphadenitis caused by Francisella
tularensis. You should notify the public health department:
a. within 24 hours
b. before the end of the day
c. when you report your stats for the end of the month
d. immediately
e. you don’t need to report this
22. Toxic algal blooms
a. are caused by Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena species
b. do not cause infection
c. cause disease due to effects of the algal toxins on the liver when ingested
d. a and c
e. all of the above
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23. The following algae are capable of causing infection:
a. Prototheca wickerhamii
b. Chlorella species
c. Anabaena species
d. a and b
e. none of the above – algae never cause infections
24. Plasmodium vivax and P. falciparum are
a. etiologic agents of malaria
b. etiologic agents of toxoplasmosis
c. endemic in the United States
d. transmitted to people via bites of female Anopheles species mosquitoes
e. a and d
25. Which of the following is an example of a vector-transmitted disease?
a. tuberculosis
b. coccidiodocycosis
c. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
d. rabies
e. none of the above
26. Plague is endemic in the United States where it is maintained in prairie dog populations. This is an
example of
a. a sapronotic disease
b. a synanthropic life cycle
c. an exoanthropic life cycle
d. a wildlife disease reservoir
e. c and d
27. West nile virus is
a. highly pathogenic to horses
b. an arbovirus that was recently introduced to the United States and now endemic throughout
the continental US.
c. the etiologic agent of western equine encephalitis
d. a virus maintained in a 3 host tick life cycle
e. a and b
28. Which of the following cells are produced in the bone marrow:
a. helper T cells
b. neutrophils
c. monocytes
d. b and c
e. a, b and c
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29. Which of the following statements is true regarding eosinophils:
a. their granules contain powerful proteolytic enzymes
b. they are involved in response to parasitic infections
c. they are produced in the bone marrow
d. they express cell surface receptors that bind IgE
e. all of the above
30. Which of the following cells express MHC class I molecules:
a. helper T cells
b. cytotoxic T cells
c. dendritic cells
d. macrophages
e. c and d
31. Presentation of exogenous antigen with MHC class I can result in all of the following EXCEPT:
a. production of antibodies
b. induction of apoptosis
c. stimulation of the interferon response
d. destruction of the presenting cell
a. activation cytotoxic T cells
32. Which of the following statements is true regarding MHC molecules?
a. they are cell surface receptors
b. MHC class I molecules are expressed by all of vertebrate cells and MHC class II molecules are
expressed only by lymphocytes and antigen presenting cells
c. MHC class I molecules are expressed only by lymphocytes and antigen presenting cells and
MHC class II molecules are expressed by all vertebrate cells
d. a and b
e. a and c
33. NOD-like receptors
a. are cytoplasmic receptors expressed by most, if not all mammalian cells
b. allow for widespread surveillance of PAMPs and DAMPs and activation of the innate immune
response
c. are PAMP and DAMP receptors that are expressed only by cells of the innate immune system
d. are antigen-specific cell surface receptors
e. a and b
34. Which of the following describes a potential outcome of antigen-antibody binding?
a. activation of the complement system
b. inactivation of viruses and toxins
c. agglutination of bacteria
d. opsonization and phagocytosis of bacteria
e. all of the above
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35. After spending time exploring in the Pacific Northwest, you and your dog are exposed to aerosolized
droplets containing the free-living fungus, Cryptococcus neoformans var. gattii, and subsequently you
both develop established infection. This is an example of
a. a zoonotic disease
b. an anthropozoonotic disease
c. a sapronotic disease
d. an exanthropic life cycle
e. a synanthropic life cycle
True or False: 1 point each
36. PAMPs are pathogen associated molecular patterns recognized by cells of the adaptive immune
system.
a. True
b. False
37. RIG-like receptors are intracellular receptors involved in communicating the presence of a viral
infection in cells and are a central component of the interferon response.
a. True
b. False
38. Toll-like receptors are expressed by macrophages and are an important feature of the innate
immune response to bacterial infection.
a. True
b. False
39. Lipopolysaccharide is an example of an endogenous pyrogen.
a. True
b. False
40. The antibody first produced in a primary immune response is IgG.
a. True
b. False
41. Rickettsia rickettsii is the etiologic agent of Q fever.
a. True
b. False
42. The reservoir for Eastern equine encephalitis is the domestic horse.
a. True
b. False
43. Following infection with West Nile virus, infected cells transport viral antigen to their cell surface and
present them in the context of MHC class I molecules.
a. True
b. False
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44. Viral RNA is recognized by intercellular receptors called RIG-like receptors.
a. True
b. False
45. Lipopolysaccharide is an example of an exogenous pyrogen.
a. True
b. False
46. Rabies in the United States is an example of a zoonotic disease with a synanthropic life cycle.
a. True
b. False
47. Natural killer cells are phagocytic lymphocytes.
a. True
b. False
48. Ingesting toxins produced by bacteria or fungi can only cause disease if an infectious dose of the live
organisms is also ingested.
a. True
b. False
49. Binding of T cell receptors to antigen is highly specific.
a. True
b. False
50. “Class switching” refers to the switch in antibody type production that occurs during the secondary
immune response.
a. True
b. False
51. PAMPs are pathogen associated molecular patterns recognized by cells of the innate immune
system.
a. True
b. False
52. The sporozoite stage of malaria, which infects the liver, occurs only during the natural transmission
of Plasmodium species by bite from an infected mosquito.
a. True
b. False
53. Ticks, mosquitos and fleas are common biological vectors for infectious diseases.
a. True
b. False
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54. Pythium insidiosum is a fungus capable of causing serious infection in a variety of mammals,
including horses, dogs and people.
a. True
b. False
55. Plasma cells, dendritic cells, macrophages and neutrophils are all antigen-presenting cells.
a. True
b. False
Short answer questions (45 points total)
1. List the 5 “cardinal signs” of inflammation and briefly explain what is happening to result in each of
these signs (10 points)
2a. List the three pathways of the complement system and briefly describe how each is activated. (9
points)
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2b. What is the name of the “central” enzyme that is involved in activation of the complement system,
regardless of which pathway is first initiated? (1 point)
2c. What are the three outcomes of complement activation? (3 points)
3. Describe the process by which leukocytes are recruited from blood stream to a site of infection in the
extravascular tissue during the acute stage of inflammation. Draw a diagram to illustrate the process.
(10 points)
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4. Some fungi are dimorphic. Explain the meaning of this term, using the life cycle of the etiologic agent
of coccidioidomycosis as an example. Indicate which life stage(s) of this fungus is/are infective. Include
the proper name of the agent of this disease (genus and species, using correct convention) in your
answer. (7 points)
5. How does a fever help to fight an infection? (3 points)
6. What is the difference between fever and the heat associated with acute inflammation? (2 points)
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