EXAM 3. BIOL 1406.
Chapters 9, 10, and 11
NAME______________________ remote #______
Date _______________
Multiple choice
1) The hereditary material that is present in all cells is
A) protein.
B) RNA.
C) DNA.
D) R-strain.
E) S-strain.
2) What was the main point of Griffith's experiments with pneumonia in mice?
A) Mice exposed to the S-strain bacterium became resistant to the Rstrain bacterium.
B) There is a substance present in dead bacteria that can cause a heritable change in living bacteria.
C) The genetic material was definitively proven in these experiments to be DNA.
D) S-strain bacteria can cause pneumonia.
E) Heat destroys the hereditary material.
3) What is the relationship among DNA, a gene, and a chromosome?
A) A chromosome contains hundreds of genes which are composed of protein.
B) A chromosome contains hundreds of genes which are composed of DNA.
C) A gene contains hundreds of chromosomes which are composed of protein.
D) A gene is composed of DNA, but there is no relationship to a chromosome.
E) A gene contains hundreds of chromosomes which are composed of
DNA.
4) In Griffith's experiments, what happened when heat-killed S-strain pneumococcus were injected into a mouse along with live R-strain pneumococcus ?
A) DNA from the live R-strain was taken up by the heat-killed S-strain, converting them to R-strain and killing the mouse.
B) DNA from the heat-killed S-strain was taken up by the live R-strain, converting them to S-strain and killing the mouse.
C) Proteins released from the heat-killed
S-strain killed the mouse.
D) RNA from the heat-killed S-strain was translated into proteins that killed the mouse.
E) nothing
5) DNA has
A) A, U, G, and C bases.
B) only C and T bases.
C) only A and G bases.
D) C, T, A, and G bases.
E) both U and T bases.
6) The DNA of a certain organism has guanine as 30% of its bases. What percentage of its bases would be adenine?
A) 0%
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 30%
E) 40%
7) Which is NOT found in DNA?
A) deoxyribose sugar
B) adenine
C) phosphate group
D) phospholipid group
E) thymine
8) The correct structure of a nucleotide is
A) phosphate-5 carbon sugar-nitrogen base.
B) phospholipid-sugar-base.

C) phosphate-sugar-phosphate-sugar.
D) adenine-thymine and guaninecytosine.
E) base-phosphate-glucose.
9) The rules formulated by Chargaff state that
A) A = T and G = C in any molecule of
DNA.
B) A = C and G = T in any molecule of
DNA.
C) A = G and C = T in any molecule of
DNA.
D) A = U and G = C in any molecule of
RNA.
E) DNA and RNA are made up of the same four nitrogenous bases.
10) The X-ray diffraction pattern for
DNA suggested to Wilkins and Franklin all of the following features about DNA
EXCEPT
A) a DNA molecule is helical.
B) a DNA molecule has a diameter of 2 nanometers.
C) one full turn of the DNA helix occurs every 3.4 nanometers.
D) the phosphate-sugar "backbone" of the molecule is on the outside of the
DNA helix.
E) A pairs with T and G pairs with C in a
DNA molecule.
11) The sequence of subunits in the
DNA "backbone" is
A) --base--phosphate--base-phosphate--base--phosphate-.
B) --phosphate--sugar--phosphate-sugar--phosphate--sugar.
C) --sugar--base--sugar--base--sugar-base--sugar--base-.
D) --base--sugar--phosphate--base-sugar--phosphate-.
E) --base--phosphate--sugar--base-phosphate--sugar-.
12) Complementary base pairs are held together by
A) peptide bonds.
B) hydrogen bonds.
C) disulfide bonds.
D) covalent bonds.
E) ionic bonds.
13) In a DNA molecule, base pairing occurs between
A) adenine and thymine.
B) adenine and guanine.
C) guanine and uracil.
D) thymine and cytosine.
E) adenine and uracil.
14) For the DNA sequence GCCTAT in one polynucleotide chain, the sequence found in the other polynucleotide chain is
A) CGGATA.
B) GCCATA.
C) CGGAUA.
D) ATTCGC.
E) GCCTAT.
15) In the comparison of a DNA molecule to a twisted ladder, the rungs
(steps) of the ladder represent
A) nitrogenous bases linked together.
B) deoxyribose linked to phosphates.
C) deoxyribose linked to sulfates.
D) nitrogenous bases linked to phosphates.
E) the backbones of the molecule.
16) It became apparent to Watson and
Crick after completion of their model that DNA molecule could carry a vast amount of hereditary information in its
A) sequence of bases.
B) phosphate-sugar backbone.
C) complementary base pairing.
D) side groups of nitrogenous bases.
E) different five-carbon sugars.
17) Why did scientists at first think that
DNA would be a poor candidate for the hereditary material?
A) Griffith's experiments suggested protein was the hereditary material.
B) Studies showed that viruses lacking
DNA passed genetic traits to the next generation.
C) DNA was made of only four kinds of

subunits.
D) The work of Franklin and Wilkins showed that DNA could not be the hereditary material.
E) None of the above is correct.
18) Normally, when a cell divides by mitosis…
A) each daughter cell receives a nearly perfect copy of the parent cell's genetic information.
B) each daughter cell receives exactly half the genetic information in the parent cell.
C) each daughter cell receives the same amount of genetic information that was in the parent cell, but it has been altered.
D) genetic information is randomly parceled out to the daughter cells.
E) None of the above are true.
19) Semiconservative DNA replication means
A) the old DNA is completely broken down.
B) the old DNA remains completely intact.
C) A pairs with T and G pairs with C.
D) only half of the DNA is replicated.
E) each new DNA molecule has half of the old one.
20) All of the following occur during
DNA replication EXCEPT
A) separation of parental DNA strands.
B) use of parental DNA as a template.
C) formation of chromatids.
D) synthesis of totally new doublestranded DNA molecules.
E) use of DNA polymerase enzymes.
21) Which of the following are NOT involved in the DNA replication process?
A) DNA helicase
B) DNA ligase
C) DNA replicase
D) DNA polymerase
E) All of the above are involved.
22) DNA polymerase, before any proofreading by repair enzymes, makes on average one mistake for every
A) 100 base pairs.
B) 1000 base pairs.
C) 10,000 base pairs.
D) million base pairs.
E) billion base pairs.
23) The DNA in your body's cells can accumulate errors for which of the following reasons?
A) Mistakes are made during DNA replication.
B) Some DNA spontaneously breaks down at normal body temperature.
C) Ultraviolet light in sunlight damages
DNA.
D) All of the above are reasons DNA can accumulate errors.
E) None of the above are true.
24) Which one of the following forms of damage to DNA is caused by ultraviolet light?
A) Adjacent thymines on a strand become linked together.
B) The two strands become separated from each other.
C) The DNA becomes fragmented.
D) The DNA begins growing uncontrollably.
E) The DNA begins to decay from its two ends.
25) The sequence of nitrogencontaining bases on one strand of DNA most directly determines the sequence of
A) fatty acids in a fat molecule.
B) amino acids in a protein molecule.
C) sugars in a polysaccharide molecule.
D) All of the above choices are correct.
E) bases in a protein molecule.
26) Both DNA and RNA
A) are single-stranded molecules.
B) contain the same four types of nitrogen-containing bases.
C) have the same five-carbon sugars.

D) contain phosphate groups.
E) cannot both be present in a cell simultaneously.
27) The number of consecutive mRNA bases needed to specify an amino acid is
A) 3.
B) 4.
C) 20.
D) 64.
E) a variable number.
28) The number of different possible codons is
A) 3.
B) 4.
C) 20.
D) 64.
E) unknown
29) If the sequence of bases in a section of DNA is TAGGCTAA, what is the corresponding sequence of bases in mRNA?
A) ATCCGATT
B) TAGGCTAA
C) CGAAUCGG
D) AATCGGAT
E) AUCCGAUU
30) The process of copying genetic information from DNA to RNA is called
A) translation.
B) transformation.
C) replication.
D) transcription.
E) polymerization.
31Which of these molecules functions to transfer information from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?
A) DNA
B) mRNA
C) tRNA
D) proteins
E) lipids
32) A transcription start signal is called
A) a transcriptor
B) a promoter.
C) an origin.
D) a start site.
E) a nonsense codon.
33)) Uracil pairs with
A) thymine.
B) adenine.
C) guanine.
D) cytosine.
E) uracil.
34) Which occurs in the nucleus?
A) transcription only
B) assembly of amino acids into protein
C) replication of genetic material
D) transcription and replication of genetic material
E) translation only
35) The anticodon for AUC is
A) TAG.
B) AUC.
C) GAU.
D) CUA.
E) UAG.
36) The process of converting the
"message" of mRNA into a sequence of amino acids is called
A) translation.
B) transcription.
C) activation.
D) replication.
E) repression.
37) The site of protein synthesis is the
A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
B) nucleus.
C) nucleolus.
D) ribosome.
E) eukaryotic chromosome.
38) Each new amino acid is attached to the growing chain by
A) an ionic bond.
B) a physical bond.
C) hydrogen bonds.
D) an RNA bond.
E) a peptide bond.

39) Ribosomes are a collection of
A) small proteins that function in translation.
B) proteins and small RNAs that function in translation.
C) proteins and tRNAs that function in transcription.
D) proteins and mRNAs that function in translation.
E) mRNAs and tRNAs that function in translation.
40) The adapters that allow translation of the four-letter nucleic acid language into the 20-letter protein language are called
A) transfer RNAs.
B) ribosomal RNAs.
C) messenger RNAs.
D) ribosomes.
E) all of the above
41) Calico cats are almost always female. This is because of
A) X-chromosome inactivation.
B) the lack of a Y chromosome in females.
C) activation of the calico gene by the female sex hormone estrogen.
D) the calico gene in males is inactivated by the sex hormone testosterone.
E) a mutation found on the X chromosome.
42) RNA splicing is the
A) addition of introns to the mRNA.
B) deletion of introns from the mRNA.
C) addition of exons to the mRNA.
D) deletion of exons from the mRNA.
E) combination of two different genes together.
43) The genetic material in bacteria consists of
A) several circular DNA molecules.
B) one circular RNA molecule.
C) many rod-like DNA molecules with protein.
D) one circular DNA molecule.
E) DNA in mitochondria.
44) A bacterial cell splits into two new cells by
A) duplication.
B) forming a cell plate.
C) forming a cell furrow.
D) mitosis.
E) binary fission.
45) During the "S" portion of interphase, what is the cell doing?
A) resting
B) general cell metabolism
C) synthesizing DNA
D) making a spindle
E) undergoing differentiation
46) The longest period of a cell's life cycle is
A) prophase.
B) telophase.
C) interphase.
D) anaphase.
E) metaphase.
47) Human body cell nuclei contain
A) 46 pairs of chromosomes.
B) 44 pairs of chromosomes.
C) 23 unpaired chromosomes.
D) 22 pairs of chromosomes.
E) 23 pairs of chromosomes.
48) The microtubules of the mitotic spindle attach to a specialized structure in the centromere region of each chromosome, called the
A) kinetochore.
B) nucleosomes.
C) equatorial plate.
D) nucleotide.
E) centrosome.
49) The formation of a cell plate is beginning across the middle of a cell and nuclei are reforming at opposite ends of a cell. What kind of a cell is this?
A) an animal cell in metaphase

B) an animal cell in telophase
C) an animal cell undergoing cytokinesis
D) a plant cell in metaphase
E) a plant cell undergoing cytokinesis
50) Cytokinesis refers to the division of the
A) cytoplasm.
B) nucleus.
C) mitochondria.
D) centrioles.
E) chromosomes.
51) Sister chromatids are
A) duplicate chromosomes held together by a common centromere.
B) specialized gamete-forming cells.
C) non-functional chromosomes.
D) homologous pairs of chromosomes.
E) different in their genetic content.
52) During which stage of mitosis do chromosomes line up at the equator of the spindle apparatus?
A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) The chromosomes do not line up at all.
53) Sexual reproduction by necessity involves which two processes?
A) meiosis and fertilization
B) mutation and translocation
C) nondisjunction and pleiotropy
D) mitosis and fertilization
E) differentiation and specialization
54) Which of the following is a consequence of sexual reproduction, as compared to asexual reproduction?
A) The offspring will be very similar to each other.
B) There will be few offspring with undesirable traits.
C) There will be more genetic diversity among the offspring.
D) The offspring will have a diploid chromosome number twice that of their parents.
E) There will be fewer mutations.
55) Which of the following is a haploid?
A) zygote
B) gamete (sex cell)
C) muscle cell
D) embryo
E) brain cell
56) Chromosomes exchange genetic material by
A) segregation.
B) mitosis.
C) synapsis.
D) fertilization.
E) crossing over.
57) Chromosome number is reduced during meiosis because the process consists of
A) two cell divisions without any chromosome replication.
B) a single cell division without any chromosome replication.
C) two cell divisions in which half of the chromosomes are destroyed.
D) two cell divisions and only a single round of chromosome replication.
E) four cell divisions with no chromosome replication.
58) Homologous chromosomes pair up
(synapsis) during
A) mitosis.
B) meiosis I.
C) meiosis II.
D) mitosis and meiosis II.
E) protein synthesis.