PLEASE DO NOT WRITE ON THIS TEST BOOKLET UNLESS OTHERWISE
INSTRUCTED. IMPORTANT: MAKE ALL ERASURES COMPLETELY - IT
IS YOUR RESPONSIBILITY TO CLEARLY INDICATE YOUR CHOSEN
ANSWER. RESPONSES THAT ARE NOT COMPLETELY ERASED WILL BE
COUNTED AS INCORRECT!! A STRICT TWO-HOUR TIME LIMIT WILL
BE ENFORCED! THIS EXAM IS WORTH 200 POINTS.
Temple College
Government 2302
Summer 1, 1999
Final Exam
MULTIPLE CHOICE. INSTRUCTIONS: Answer each of the following multiple
choice questions by marking the letter on your answer sheet that corresponds to the
BEST response. 100 questions/2.00 pts. each/200 points total.
Items #1-27 constitute the “comprehensive portion of this exam [from 1st two sections of
course syllabus]. Items #28-100 test materials covered since Exam #2.
1. The framers of the U.S. Constitution attempted to prevent tyranny by
a. requiring that Congress defer to the other branches of government.
b. not giving Congress many powers.
c. making tyranny unconstitutional.
d. decentralizing political power through institutional mechanisms such as separation
of powers.
2. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the American system, but IS of the
parliamentary system?
a. The legislature may remove the executive on grounds of policy disagreement.
b. The executive and members of the legislature are separately elected.
c. Members of the legislature are constitutionally prohibited from serving in the
executive’s cabinet.
d. Divided party government is highly probable [i.e., legislature controlled by one
party and the executive controlled by another].
3. An important implication of our overview treatment of the American system is that the
structure of a political system emphasizes some values and not others. Which
values are BEST served by the decentralized nature of the American system?
a. efficient and effective government
b. effective, but prudent government
c. circumscribed (limited), deliberate (slow) government
d. crippled, impotent government
4. Both politics and policy differ between the American and parliamentary versions of
democracy. The form of democracy developed in the United States is a product of
a. its constitutional system.
b. the treaty that ended the American Revolution.
c. the dominance of strong political parties in the American system.
d. the “Connecticut Compromise.”
5. A fragmented Congress
a. is likely to have members with a constituency focus.
b. is relatively insulated from interest group pressures.
c. is tightly organized around strong political parties.
d. all of the above.
6. Which of the following BEST describes the "natural" state of Congress?
a. efficient b. integrated c. fragmented d. unprofessional
7. Subgovernment or policy triangle refers to the relationship among federal agencies
(bureaus), interest groups, and __________ in a given area of public policy.
a. the news media b. cabinet officers c. the White House staff
d. none of these
8. The personal political skill of the president
a. has little bearing on public perceptions of his leadership ability.
b. is far less important than the constitutional powers of the president.
c. is a primary source of presidential power.
d. really does not vary much from one president to another.
9. Which of the following accurately describe the reality of presidential power?
1. unlimited 2. personal 3. negative 4. episodic 5. mythical
a. 1 and 4 b. 1 and 5 c. 1, 2, and 3
d. 2, 3, and 4
10. Which term indicates that the president does NOT have the power to continuously
control or manage the legislative process?
a. limited b. episodic c. micromanage d. negative
11. Because laws are often drafted in such vague and general terms, agencies
a. are given the impossible task of determining the intent of Congress.
b. defer to interest groups for direction.
c. decide how best to carry out the wishes of Congress.
d. often refuse to carry out these vague policies.
12. A realistic view of the role of bureaucracy in policy making is where agencies and
departments of government
a. play a neutral role in policy making.
b. only provide relevant information to the policy makers.
c. administer the decisions of Congress without attempting to influence policies.
d. play an important role in policy making.
13. The power of the courts to decide whether an act of another branch of government
is consistent with or contrary to the provisions of the Constitution is known as
a. judicial review. b. writs of judicial appeal. c. the greater judicial need doctrine.
d. the doctrine of common sense.
14. Which criterion of judicial policy-making refers to the "potential of a given court
decision to substantially alter or change an existing policy or practice?"
a. legal impact b. policy impact c. compliance d. none of these
15. The fact that public schools, particularly in the South, had not integrated two
decades after the Supreme Court's decision in BROWN V BOARD OF EDUCATION
illustrated the relevance of _______________ as a criterion of judicial policy-making.
a. legal impact b. policy impact c. compliance d. none of these
16. The right to privacy is based on
a. the concept that all men are created equal.
b. the rights set forth in Article I, sections 9 and 10 of the Constitution.
c. the concept that the Constitution's omission of specific mention of the right to
privacy does not mean that this right is denied.
d. the 27th Amendment which stipulates that all people have certain rights over
which the federal government has no authority.
17. In which case did the Supreme Court first embrace a constitutional right to privacy?
a. ROE V WADE
b. ENGEL V VITALE
c. GRISWOLD V. CONNECTICUT
d. BOWERS V HARDWICK
18. The case alluded to in question #17 involved a
a. New York state law that prohibited students from praying at any time during the
school day.
b. Georgia state law that made the act of sodomy a crime.
c. Texas state law that made abortions illegal except in cases where the pregnant
woman's life was in jeopardy.
d. Connecticut state law which made it illegal to either use contraceptives or to
counsel the use of contraceptives.
19. The Lemon test (LEMON V KURTZMAN) requires that in order for a statue to be
consistent with the Establishment Clause of the 1st Amendment
a. the statute must have a secular purpose.
b. the primary effects of the statute must be to neither advance nor inhibit religion.
c. the statute must not excessively entangle government and religion.
d. all of these.
20. Which "test" developed by the Supreme Court limits the ability of a person to claim
protection of their religious practices under the 1st Amendment's Free Exercise
Clause?
a. the Lemon test b. the bad tendency test c. the clear and present danger test
d. the valid secular test
21. The bad-tendency rule meant that
a. government may restrict speech if there is a possibility that such expression might
lead to some substantial evil.
b. Congress could prevent any speech it did not like.
c. if some people could be hurt by what was said, such speech was not
constitutionally protected.
d. only positive, uplifting speech is protected by the 1st Amendment.
22. According to the clear and present danger test, expression may be restricted by
government if
a. the speaker is not a citizen of the United States.
b. if, and only if, the United States is at war.
c. it is found to be offensive to ethnic or religious minority groups.
d. evidence exists that such expression would cause a condition that would
endanger the public.
23. The Supreme Court’s current interpretation of the 1st Amendment’s free speech
clause (based on BRANDENBURG V OHIO [1969]) requires that, in order to justify
punishing speech, government must prove that
a. the speech was intended to incite "imminent lawless action."
b. there is a "high probability that such action will occur.”
c. both a and b.
d. neither a nor b.
24. The exclusionary rule is a policy
a. forbidding the admission of illegally seized evidence.
b. which prohibits the arresting officer from serving as a character witness at a
hearing or a trial.
c. which prohibits the detention of a suspect for more than 48 hours without formal
charges being filed.
d. none of the above.
25. Suppose the police take a suspect into custody for questioning. Which of the
following would hold?
1. The suspect is entitled to have an attorney present during questioning.
2. The suspect has the right to refuse to answer questions.
3. If the police release the suspect without filing criminal charges, they are prevented
from taking the person into custody later.
4. If the suspect confesses to the crime, even after he has been read his Miranda
rights, the state cannot use the confession to prosecute the suspect.
5. The suspect is entitled to a court-appointed attorney at the state’s expense if he
cannot afford to pay for his own legal counsel.
a. all of the above b. 1 and 2 c. 1, 2, and 4 d. 1, 2, and 5
26. Why did the U.S. Supreme Court declare unconstitutional the provisions of the Civil
Rights Acts of 1865-1877 which made discrimination against blacks by private actors
(hotel/motel keepers, restaurant owners, and other providers of public
accommodations, etc.) illegal?
a. The 14th Amendment was not to be ratified by the States for another 100 years.
b. The members of the Supreme Court were segregationists and believed that such
discrimination preserved the supremacy of the white race.
c. The members of the Supreme Court believed that the 14th Amendment only gave
Congress the authority to prevent discrimination by the States in their official
(governmental) acts.
d. None of these.
27. Which provision of the Constitution did the Supreme Court use in cases in the 1960s
to uphold congressional efforts to prohibit discrimination by private actors?
a. the Supremacy Clause b. the necessary and proper clause
c. the interstate commerce clause d. the General Welfare clause
28. According to the authors of your AMERICAN GOVERNMENT AND TEXAS GOVERNMENT
texts, using a regressive tax allows
a. all taxpayers to pay proportional tax rates.
b. people with higher incomes to pay higher effective tax rates.
c. people with higher incomes to pay lower effective tax rates.
d. for a loss of marginal purchasing power.
29. According to the authors of your TEXAS GOVERNMENT text, business taxes have the
effect of being regressive because of
a. tax shifting. b. tax evasion. c. use of the state corporate income tax
d. all of the above
30. The Texas state general sales tax rate is
a. 5.75%. b. 6.25%. c. 7.755%. d. 8.25%.
31. In comparison to other states, the general sales tax in Texas is
a. much lower than average. b. slightly lower than the average.
c. about average. d. higher than average.
32. According to the authors of your TEXAS GOVERNMENT text, gasoline taxes are
a. based on the ability to pay. b. a type of income tax.
c. a benefits received tax. d. all of the above.
33. A progressive tax is one in which the tax is
a. based on the ability to pay. b. used widely in Texas.
c. only used by municipal governments. d. unfair to the poor.
34. According to the authors of your TEXAS GOVERNMENT text, the state sales tax in
Texas is
a. progressive. b. regressive. c. proportional. d. revenue neutral.
35. According to the authors of your TEXAS GOVERNMENT text, the Texas lottery
accounts for about what percent of state revenues?
a. 12.6% b. 8.2% c. 6.7% d. 4.2%
36. According to the article “Who Pays for Local Sports Stadiums? The Politics of Local
Taxes,” the degree to which the economic burden of a city’s taxes falls on nonresidents is known as
a. tax liability. b. tax shifting. c. tax exportation. d. none of the above.
37. According to the article “Who Pays for Local Sports Stadiums? The Politics of Local
Taxes,” which of the following municipal taxes is [are] candidates for exportation?
1. hotel/motel room occupancy taxes 2. sales taxes 3. residential property taxes
4. commercial and industrial property taxes 5. traffic fines
a. 1, 2, 4, and 5 b. 1, 3, 4 and 5 c. 1, 2, 3, and 4 d. 2, 3, 4, and 5
38. Which of the following terms describes the legal responsibility for remitting tax
revenues to government?
a. statutory incidence
d. excess burden
b. economic incidence c. tax capitalization
39. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. The economic incidences of most taxes in the United States are paid by
businesses.
b. The economic incidence of a tax imposed on a business will always be paid by
the business’ customers in the form of higher prices for the goods/services they
buy.
c. In the United States, the statutory incidence of taxes rarely falls on businesses.
d. None of the above statements are true.
40. In which of the following scenarios are consumers MOST likely to bear the biggest
share of the economic incidence of an excise tax?
a. when the statutory incidence of the tax is imposed on consumers
b. when demand for the good on which the tax is imposed is relatively price elastic
c. when demand for the good on which the tax is imposed is relatively price inelastic
d. when the sellers of the good have enough political power to get legislators to write
the tax law so that consumers will have to bear the economic burden of the tax
41. In which of the following scenarios are sellers MOST likely to bear the biggest share
of the economic incidence of an excise tax?
a. when the statutory incidence of the tax is imposed on sellers
b. when demand for the good on which the tax is imposed is relatively price elastic
c. when demand for the good on which the tax is imposed is relatively price inelastic
d. when the consumers of the good have enough political power to get legislators to
write the tax law so that sellers will have to bear the economic burden of the tax
42. Suppose government decides to impose an excise tax on each of the following items
as indicated. Some of the economic burden of the taxes will likely be borne by both
sellers and consumers in each case, but consumers are MORE likely to bear the
greater share of the economic burden of the tax on
a. $1 tax per lb. of mangoes [juicy, aromatic tropical fruit with a firm skin]
b. $.50 tax per pack of chewing gum [5 sticks]
c. $5 tax per dose of insulin [essential medication for diabetics]
d. $1 tax per “hand-held wand” car wash [3 minute cycle]
43. Which of the following terms describes the phenomenon that takes place when the
economic burden of a tax is borne by some entity other than the one that bears the
statutory incidence?
a. legal liability b. tax shifting c. tax evasion d. tax slighting
44. Which of the following terms BEST describes the American economy?
a. socialist b. pure capitalism c. laissez-faire market system
d. mixed capitalism or market capitalism
45. Which of the following would serve as an example of a government economic
function which attempts to strengthen or facilitate the operation of the market system
[push the economy towards the model of pure capitalism]?
a. government providing a public good such as a highway
b. government regulating a polluting industry to correct a negative externality
c. government enforcing anti-trust legislation to prevent the formation of monopolies
d. none of these
46. Suppose Congress rewrote the tax code to make the federal income tax more
progressive. Such an action would be an example of
a. government providing a suitable legal framework for the market system.
b. a government effort to modify the operation of the market system (correct a flaw of
capitalism).
c. government regulation to correct a negative externality.
d. government regulation to correct a positive externality.
47. In class, we noted that the United States, Japan, and most of the countries of
Western Europe have economies that we call __________ while Russia and most of
the countries of eastern Europe have economies that we call __________.
a. market socialism; command socialism b. market capitalism; command capitalism
c. market capitalism; market socialism d. command capitalism; market socialism
48. Most of the countries of the Middle East, Africa, and Latin America have
__________ economies while Cuba, North Korea, and the former Soviet Union have
[had] ________ economies.
a. market socialism; command socialism b. market capitalism; command capitalism
c. market capitalism; market socialism d. command capitalism; command socialism
49. The model of pure capitalism [perfect competition] assumes
1. government will have to interfere in the market place to set prices.
2. consumers and suppliers act as price-takers - no single consumer or supplier has
enough market share to set the price for a good or service.
3. consumers and suppliers act as competitors - therefore, they must have complete
information about transactions.
4. government may allow some monopolies to exist, but they will be regulated.
5. income [wealth] should be redistributed as to reduce inequalities.
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 2, 3, and 4 d. 1, 4, and 5
50. Suppose a city government passes a law making the sale and possession of pit bull
terriers illegal within the city. Suppose that the Animal Control Department enforces
this law by confiscating and euthanizing pit bulls when they can be located.
Additionally, the government imposes substantial fines on breeders/sellers of pit
bulls. Based on our in-class discussion of experimental results, which of the
following would be most likely to occur?
1. The supply of pit bulls would increase while the demand would decrease.
2. The demand for pit bulls would increase and the supply would increase.
3. The (black) market price for pit bulls would increase as the supply decreases
and the total number of pit bulls (output) would decrease.
4. The pit bull population would be eliminated.
5. Total profits of pit bull suppliers would likely decrease.
a. 1 only b. 2 and 5 c. 3 and 5 d. 4 only
51. Suppose that a salvage yard owner is looking for a pit bull terrier to serve as a watch
dog and is willing to pay up to $200 for a healthy pup. At any price over $200, he will
buy a doberman instead. Before the city passes the ordinance prohibiting pit bulls,
the market price for the dogs is $175. Once the city begins enforcing the ban, the
(black) market price increases to $250. Which of the following will likely happen?
a. As a result of the ban, the salvage yard owner’s Buyer Value (maximum
willingness-to-pay) for a pit bull will increase by $50; he will pay the $250.
b. The seller costs for pit bull breeders will decrease by $50; one dealer can sell the
salvage yard owner a pup at $200.
c. The salvage yard owner will buy a Doberman.
d. None of these.
52. Which of the following is an example of a market that has (at one time or another)
been prohibited in the United States by federal, state, or local governments?
1. the sale of human organs or body parts for transplant
2. the sale of children for adoption
3. prostitution
4. yellow-dyed margarine
5. abortion services
a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1, 2, 3, and 5 c. 2, 3, and 5 d. all of these
53. Based on experimental results discussed in class, which of the following arguments
regarding minimum wage laws appears to be valid?
a. Democrats generally contend that an increase in the minimum wage will result in
higher total income for labor.
b. Republicans generally argue that an increase in the minimum wage will result in
a reduction in jobs.
c. Economists generally argue that an increase in the minimum wage will result in a
decrease in the voluntarily unemployed.
d. All of these arguments appear to be valid.
54. According to our in-class discussion, which of the following is an example of a
government-imposed price floor?
a. rent controls
b. a minimum wage
c. regulation of cable TV rates
d. none of these
55. Assume that the economy is over-heating and inflation is picking up. According to
Keynesian economic theory, which of the following would be an appropriate fiscal
policy response?
a. The Federal Reserve Board decides to raise taxes and decrease the federal
government’s spending.
b. The Federal Reserve Board decides to raise the discount rate and increase
reserve requirements.
c. The president and Congress decide to lower the discount rate and decrease
reserve requirements.
d. the president and Congress decide to raise taxes and decrease the federal
government’s spending.
56. Monetary policy is a responsibility of the
a. Federal Reserve Board. b. president and Congress.
c. Monetary Control Board. d. Secretary of the Treasury.
57. Which of the following argues that expansionary (stimulatory) fiscal policies do NOT
work very well because, when government deficit spends, interest rates for private
borrowing increase and the resulting increase discourages private investment
spending (private borrowing)?
a. Ricardian Equivalence Theorem b. time lag problem
c. “crowding-out” effect
d. fiscal policy is inherently political
58. According to the authors of your AMERICAN GOVERNMENT text, Keynesian economics
is typically associated with
a. supply-side economics.
b. the use of fiscal policies to alter national economic variables.
c. the theories of Adam Smith.
d. extensive government planning of national economic goals.
59. According to the authors of your AMERICAN GOVERNMENT text, in the United States,
monetary policy includes regulating the
a. amount of money in circulation.
b. tax rates.
c. amount of government expenditures. d. both b and c.
60. Which of the following is (are) a fiscal policy tool(s) used by government to control
national economic variables?
1. raise or lower the discount rate.
2. increase or decrease tax rates.
3. increase or decrease government expenditures.
4. Increase or decrease reserve requirements.
5. increase or decrease the federal funds rate.
a. 1, 4, and 5
b. 1, 2, and 3
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 4
61. As implemented in the United States from 1936-1996, Aid to Families With
Dependent Children (AFDC) was an example of
a. a means-tested cash transfer program. b. an in-kind transfer program.
c. a pension system. d. welfare universalism.
62. A program in which the federal government gives money to state or local
governments to implement a specific program is called
a. revenue sharing. b. block grants. c. public assistance. d. a categorical grant.
63. A welfare program that provides benefits to everyone in a particular category is an
example of
a. an in-kind benefit. b. a cash transfer program. c. welfare universalism.
d. welfare selectivism.
64. Which of the following serves as an example of the kind of program indicated by the
answer to question #63?
1. Social Security 2. AFDC 3. Food Stamps 4. Veterans’ benefits
5. Women, Infants, and Children (WIC)
a. 1, 3, and 4
b. 2, 3, and 5
c. 2 and 5
d. 1 and 4
65. In which of the following programs do the STATES determine eligibility standards,
needs standards, and levels of benefits?
a. Social Security b. AFDC c. Medicare d. none of these
66. According to the authors of your AMERICAN GOVERNMENT text, in-kind subsidies
a. have proven to be ineffective in the U.S.
b. are goods and services such as food stamps, housing vouchers, and health care.
c. prevent the poor from escaping poverty.
d. both a and c.
67. According to the authors of your AMERICAN GOVERNMENT text, income transfers
a. have proven to be ineffective in the U.S.
b. are methods of transferring income from the relatively well-to-do to the relatively
poor.
c. prevent the poor from escaping poverty.
d. none of these.
68. According to the authors of your AMERICAN GOVERNMENT text, Social Security was
originally intended to
a. aid farmers and help establish nutritional eating habits.
b. furnish assistance for families with only one parent.
c. assist the aged poor, the blind, and the disabled.
d. be a monthly payment (pension) to retired persons.
69. According to the authors of your AMERICAN GOVERNMENT text, the official poverty
level is based on pre-tax income, including cash, but does not include
a. lottery winnings. b. real property. c. gifts from charities.
d. in-kind subsidies (i.e., food stamps, housing vouchers, etc.)
70. Currently, adjustments to the poverty income threshold are based on
a. recommendations from the Council of Economic Advisors.
b. price changes in the food budget.
c. the consumer price index.
d. recommendations from the president.
71. According to the authors of your AMERICAN GOVERNMENT text, the welfare reform bill
of 1996
a. limits most welfare recipients to only two years of assistance.
b. allows states to deny benefits to unmarried teenage mothers.
c. prohibits individuals who have a misdemeanor conviction from receiving benefits.
d. both a and b.
72. Which of the following describes a late-19th century social philosophy that
discouraged poverty relief on the grounds that such relief promotes an “artificial
selection” or “survival of the least fit” [argued that people are poor because they are
morally, spiritually, physically, or otherwise personally inadequate - it is their own
fault]?
a. social evolution. b. Calvinistic work ethic. c. social Darwinism.
d. progressivism.
73. According to the authors of your AMERICAN GOVERNMENT text, a major problem with
workfare proposals is
a. the cost of daycare for single mothers.
b. the number of restrictions for the type of jobs that can be considered legitimate.
c. a constitutional requirement of equal protection.
d. both a and b.
74. Which event convinced many Americans that material condition was less a result of
personal attributes and more a result of environmental circumstances beyond the
control of the individual?
a. the Industrial Revolution
d. the Panic of 1893
b. the Great Depression
c. the American Revolution
75. According to the authors of your AMERICAN GOVERNMENT text, the United States
economy has sustained enough economic growth to
a. eliminate domestic poverty.
b. adequately feed the population of the entire world.
c. provide every person in the United States with a luxury automobile.
d. both b and c.
76. For years, critics of the welfare system argued that
a. welfare programs discourage recipients from finding employment.
b. only ethnic minorities benefit.
c. welfare programs, particularly AFDC, encourage the break up of welfare families.
d. both a and c.
77. Which of the following was TRUE of AFDC recipients before welfare reform in 1996?
a. A majority (over ½) of AFDC families were African-American.
b. Most AFDC families were off the program within three years.
c. The average AFDC family had five children.
d. All of these were TRUE.
78. In the United States, poverty relief programs such as AFDC, Food Stamps, and
Medicaid
1. are implemented by the states.
2. reflect an approach known as welfare selectivism.
3. reflect an approach known as welfare universalism.
4. are means-tested programs.
5. have loose eligibility requirements.
a. 1, 2, and 4 b. 1, 3, and 5 c. 3 and 5 d. 1 and 3
79. According to the authors of your AMERICAN GOVERNMENT text, the work disincentive
associated with AFDC stems from the fact that
a. the more recipients earn, the fewer benefits they receive.
b. educational benefits are now offered on an “ability-to-benefit” basis.
c. job training does not fit the current job market.
d. the paperwork involved in applying for benefits is too great.
80. According to the authors of your AMERICAN GOVERNMENT text, current poverty relief
programs do not address the problem of
a. a lack of adequate housing. b. a lack of adequate food.
c. unequal employment opportunities. d. job training.
81. According to the authors of your TEXAS GOVERNMENT text, the most expensive
program administered by the Texas Department of Health is
a. Medicare. b. Veterans’ benefits. c. inoculations. d. Medicaid.
82. According to the authors of your TEXAS GOVERNMENT text, the average monthly
AFDC payment per person in Texas is approximately $_____ per month.
a. 142 b. 96 c. 60 d. 34
83. According to the authors of your TEXAS GOVERNMENT text, as of 1995, approximately
_____% of Texans live below the poverty level.
a. 32 b. 19 c. 12 d. 6
84. According to the authors of your TEXAS GOVERNMENT text, Texas ranks _____
(highest to lowest) among fifty states in per capita spending for public welfare.
a. 4th b. 23rd c. 38th d. 47th
85. According to the authors of your TEXAS GOVERNMENT text, the percentage of Texas
residents without health care coverage is
a. lower than the percentage of residents without health care coverage in most other
states.
b. approximately equal to the average percentage of residents without health care
coverage in all 50 states.
c. such that Texas leads the nation with those without health insurance.
d. none of the above.
86. According to the authors of your TEXAS GOVERNMENT text, federal funding accounts
for about what percentage of health and human services spending in Texas?
a. 91% b. 88% c. 63% d. 39%
87. According to the authors of your TEXAS GOVERNMENT text, new federal regulations
limit the lifetime benefits from AFDC to how many years?
a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
88. The Texas Legislature is
a. unicameral. b. uniform.
c. bicameral.
d. the largest among the 50 states.
89. The Texas Legislature meets in REGULAR session
a. on a full-time basis. b. annually for 140 days.
d. only when called to Austin by the governor.
c. biennially for 140 days.
90. The Texas Lieutenant Governor is
a. only a symbolic figure.
b. the presiding officer of the House of Representatives.
c. a powerful figure in the Senate.
d. all of these.
91. In the Texas Legislature, the permanent committees that initially consider most bills
are known as
a. ad hoc committees. b. conference committees. c. standing committees.
d. committees of the whole.
92. According to the authors of your TEXAS GOVERNMENT text, the turnover rate in the
Texas Legislature is
a. low. b. moderate. c. high. d. about the same as the U.S. Congress.
93. In the Texas House of Representatives, committee chairs are chosen by
a. majority party caucus. b. the governor. c. the Speaker of the House.
d. a majority vote of all members.
94. Texas senators are elected for terms of
a. 8 years. b. 6 years. c. 4 years. d. 2 years.
95. Special sessions of the Texas Legislature can only be called by
a. the governor. b. the Lieutenant Governor. c. the Speaker of the House.
d. all three of the above agreeing.
96. Special sessions of the Texas Legislature run for
a. 90 days. b. 60 days. c. 30 days. d. 10 days.
97. The Speaker is to the Texas House of Representatives as the ___________ is to
the Texas Senate.
a. majority leader b. vice-president c. attorney general d. none of these
98. The presiding officers of the Texas Legislature have the power to
a. appoint committee members. b. appoint most committee chairs.
c. determine the rules of procedure. d. all of the above.
99. According to the authors of your TEXAS GOVERNMENT text, the Texas Legislature has
traditionally been organized on the basis of
a. strong political parties. b. local king pins. c. ideology. d. none of these.
100. Bills are assigned to House standing committees by the
a. Lieutenant Governor.
b. the respective committee chairs.
c. Speaker of the House.
d. governor.
….end of exam