Exam #2 B

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Version B
Temple College
Government 2302
Spring 2003
Exam #2
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WRITE THE VERSION OF THE TEST BOOKLET ON YOUR ANSWER
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BE SURE TO WRITE YOUR NAME ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET!!

THIS EXAM IS WORTH 100 POINTS.
MULTIPLE CHOICE. INSTRUCTIONS: Answer each of the following
multiple-choice questions by marking the letter on your scan-tron form that
corresponds to the BEST response.
71 questions
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1. Which two basic functions or responsibilities given Congress by the Constitution
appear to be inherently at odds with one another?
a. oversight and law-making b. law-making and representation
c. representation and logrolling d. logrolling and redistricting
2. A fragmented Congress
a. is likely to have members with a constituency focus.
b. is relatively insulated from interest group pressures.
c. is tightly organized around strong political parties.
d. all of the above.
3. Which of the following BEST describes the natural state of Congress?
a. efficient b. integrated c. fragmented d. unprofessional
4. The concept of LOGROLLING refers to
a. action taken by a senator that attempts to prevent a bill from passing in the
Senate.
b. a method that is used to keep one bill on the floor for an extended period of
time, thus blocking all legislation.
c. an arrangement by which two or more members of Congress agree in advance
to support each other’s bills.
d. a method that the president uses when he wants to prevent the passage of
legislation.
5. The "hurdles" which a bill has to clear in the legislative process are called
a. "stop-gaps." b. "delay points." c. "veto points." d. "counter-points."
6. A typical bill, complete with appropriations measures and riders (non-germane
amendments), would probably have to clear somewhere between
_______________ of the "hurdles" alluded to in question #5.
a. 5 - 10 b. 20 - 30 c. 50 - 70 d. 10,000 - 20,000
7. An act of Congress that establishes a government program is called
a. budget resolution. b. authorization. c. appropriations act. d. outlays.
8. A filibuster is
a. an attempt to prevent the passage of a bill by halting action through unlimited
debate.
b. an attempt to persuade others to vote for a particular bill in return for a favor at
a later date.
c. a device used to force a bill out of a standing committee.
d. a new 3/4 lb. beef sandwich at the Dairy Queen.
9. Which of the following is most likely to use a filibuster?
a. a House member who supports a bill that is likely to be passed by the majority.
b. a Senator who supports a bill that is likely to be passed by the majority.
c. a. a House member who opposes a bill that is likely to be passed by the
majority.
d. a Senator who opposes a bill that is likely to be passed by the majority.
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10. Most of the actual work of legislating is
a. performed by interest groups and then acted upon by Congress.
b. accomplished in state legislatures and then the more acceptable ideas are
acted upon by Congress.
c. performed by the president and his staff and then routinely accepted by
Congress.
d. performed by the committees and subcommittees within Congress.
11. By far, the most important committees within Congress are the
a. joint resolution committees. b. special investigative committees.
c. standing committees. d. none of these.
12. A congressional bill that provides money for programs established by Congress
is a(n)
a. budget resolution. b. authorization. c. appropriations act. d. outlay.
13. A conference committee is
a. a special committee convened to resolve the differences between the
Congress and the president on legislative issues.
b. called into session when the president has vetoed an appropriations bill with a
pocket veto.
c. a special committee convened to reconcile differences between House and
Senate versions of a bill.
d. a special committee in the House that assists the Speaker in enacting his
party’s legislative agenda.
14. The Texas state legislature meets in regular session
a. annually for 140 days.
b. biennially for 140 days.
c. annually in open-ended sessions.
d. once every ten years for 140 days.
15. Members of both the Texas House of Representatives and the Texas Senate have
a base pay of __________ per year.
a. $25,000 b. $20,000 c. 15,200 d. $7,200
16. According to the Brown text, all of the following are reasons for the high turnover
rate among members of the state legislature except
a. low legislative pay.
b. redistricting of legislative seats every ten years.
c. personal costs involved in running for public office.
d. major political scandals.
17. In Texas, the Speaker of the House and the lieutenant governor wield
tremendous influence over the lawmaking process through their power to
determine which
a. member will serve in the pro tempore position.
b. bills will be forwarded to the governor for signature.
c. committees individual members will serve on.
d. none of these.
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18. Which of the following statements would BEST characterize Americans'
expectations regarding presidential leadership?
a. Americans are generally undemanding of presidential leadership.
b. Americans have unrealistically high expectations of their presidents.
c. Americans are so thoroughly disgusted with presidential lying and corruption
that they seem to have no expectations whatsoever of presidential leadership.
d. The expectations of Americans are generally consistent with the reality of
presidential power.
19. According to our in-class discussion, public approval of the president is closely
linked to the
a. recognition and acceptance throughout the world.
b. performance of the overall economy.
c. volume of international trade.
d. military forces.
20. Rather than commanding the executive branch of government, the president
a. stands at its center trying to persuade.
b. serves as its public relations person.
c. more closely resembles a traffic cop.
d. acts as the chief complaint-taker.
21. If you subscribed to the literalist theory of presidential power you would believe
that the president has
a. inherent powers. b. inherent and statutory powers. c. only express
powers.
d. no powers.
22. The president's role as a leader in the legislative process
a. became almost non-existent with the presidency of Franklin Roosevelt.
b. was at its height at the end of the 19th century.
c. is largely a phenomenon that has occurred since the Great Depression.
d. is prescribed by the Constitution; therefore, his degree of influence never
changes.
23. Which of the following powers are expressly delegated to the president by the
Constitution?
1. to be commander-in-chief 2. to act as manager of the economy
3. to be domestic crisis manager 4. to be chief foreign policy maker
5. to appoint the Speaker of the House of Representatives
a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1, 2, 3, and 4 c. all of these d. 1 only
24. The personal political skill of the president
a. has little bearing on public perceptions of his leadership ability.
b. is far less important than the constitutional powers of the president.
c. is a primary source of presidential power.
d. really does not vary much from one president to another.
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25. A president who comes to Washington with a clear set of predetermined goals,
who pursues those goals unbendingly, and who refuses to engage in political
compromise with other leaders (e.g., those in Congress) will probably
a. be seen as a strong and successful president.
b. be unsuccessful at cultivating strong working relationships with important
constituencies such as Congress and the news media.
c. over-power all political resistance.
d. be impeached.
26. The BEST example of the type of president described in the previous question is
a. Ronald Reagan. b. Lyndon Johnson. c. Jimmy Carter. d. Franklin Roosevelt.
27. Which of the following accurately describe the reality of presidential power?
1. unlimited 2. personal 3. negative 4. episodic 5. mythical
a. 1 and 4 b. 1 and 5 c. 1, 2, and 3 d. 2, 3, and 4
28. Which term indicates that the president does NOT have the power to
continuously control or manage the legislative process?
a. limited b. episodic c. micromanage d. negative
29. In contrast to the powers given to the president by the Constitution, the powers
constitutionally granted to Congress are described in terms that are more
a. detailed. b. moral. c. discretionary. d. general.
30. The president’s authority over the executive branch is constitutionally very
a. specific. b. vague. c. dynamic. d. static.
31. The early months of a president’s term in which his popularity with the public is
generally high is known as the
a. probationary period. b. learning curve. c. infancy period.
d. honeymoon period.
32. According to the videotaped program “The Power Game,“ which of the following
“games” is NOT one of the games a president must master to be a successful
leader?
a. the Agenda Game. b. the Coalition Game. c. the Persuasion Game.
d. the Image Game.
33. According to the videotaped program “The Power Game, “ which of the
following “games” requires a president to identify two or three major issues and
convince Congress to devote its legislative energies to resolving dealing with
these before taking on other problems?
a. the Agenda Game b. the Coalition Game c. the Persuasion Game
d. the Image Game
34. With respect to Texas government, the term weak executive refers to the fact that
the governor
a. has significant budget execution authority.
b. may hire and fire all state agency heads at his discretion.
c. controls the legislative agenda.
d. has no direct control over most state agencies.
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35. The most important legislative power of the Texas governor is the
a. message authority.
b. veto power.
c. prorogation power.
d. power to call special sessions of the legislature.
36. The Texas plural executive
a. forms the governor’s cabinet.
b. is largely independent of gubernatorial control.
c. is entirely elective.
d. serves at the pleasure of the governor.
37. The treatment of all persons within a bureaucracy on the basis of “merit” and of
all “clients” served by the bureaucracy equally according to rule is
a. division of labor. b. goal orientation. c. specification of authority.
d. impersonality.
38. According to the Greenberg text, because Congress and the president often
pass vague and ambiguous laws, bureaucracies must give practical meaning to
these content-devoid measures by
a. developing specific rules and regulations.
b. depending on the U.S. Supreme Court for interpretation.
c. offering public hearings for congressional input.
d. delivering concerns to the White House Office.
39. According to the Greenberg text, the development by federal bureaucracies of
formal rules for implementing legislation is
a. implementation. b. regulation. c. interpretation. d. adjudication.
40. According to Max Weber, a bureaucracy should
a. set up regulations that prevent the average person from quickly understanding
the purpose of the rule.
b. prevent specialization for it only leads to delay in policy implementation.
c. only exist within a democratic form of government.
d. be hierarchically-organized, with a clear chain of command and a division of
labor.
41. According to the Greenberg text, decision-making by federal bureaucracies as
to whether or not an individual or organization has complied with or violated
government laws and (or) regulations is called
a. implementation. b. regulation. c. interpretation. d. adjudication.
42. According to the Greenberg text, rule-making resembles the ___________ while
adjudication resembles the ___________ process.
a. legislative; implementation. b. implementation; judicial.
c. legislative; judicial. d. judicial; legislative.
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43. According to the Greenberg text, government corporations are created by
Congress to
a. raise funds to help defray the national debt.
b. undertake independent commercial enterprises.
c. make government operations run more smoothly.
d. eliminate the “middle-man” expense of delivering services.
44. According to the Greenberg text, the selection of employees for government
agencies on the basis of competence, with no consideration given to an
individual’s political stance and/or power, is the
a. merit system. b. spoils system. c. supply and demand system.
d. contractual system.
45. Which of the following is among the reasons discussed in class for the rapid
growth in bureaucracies during the late 1880s, the 1930s, and the 1960s?
1. advances in science and technology
2. the perceived need for regulation of business activities
3. increased government responsibilities in providing income security
4. the American cultural belief in progress (technology fix)
5. bureaucratic imperialism
a. all of these b. 1 and 3 c. 1, 2, and 4 d. 2, 3, and 5
46. Presidential attempts to significantly affect the structure and operation of federal
bureaucracies have
a. been very successful.
b. been a result of hard work and are beginning to pay off.
c. been almost completely unsuccessful.
d. had significant when Congress has been controlled by Republicans.
47. One of the most important differences between private corporations and public
bureaucracies is that the latter are
a. much larger.
b. much more labor intensive.
c. not organized to make a profit.
d. subject to change much more frequently.
48. A realistic view of the role of bureaucracy in policy making is where agencies
and departments of government
a. play a neutral role in policy making.
b. only provide relevant information to the policy makers.
c. administer the decisions of Congress without attempting to influence policies.
d. play an important role in policy making.
49. According to the Greenberg text, oversight of the bureaucracies is lodged
primarily in
a. congressional committees and subcommittees.
b. the White House staff.
c. a private auditing firm.
d. the federal courts.
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50. In Texas, the government agency which administers the state’s system of public
elementary and secondary education and which some people want to abolish is
the
a. State Board of Education.
b. Texas Education Agency.
c. Regional Educational Service Center.
d. state’s 1,045 independent school districts
51. Probably the most important duty of the Texas Railroad Commission from the
standpoint of the rest of the United States is
a. regulating the production of oil and gas.
b. setting the price for which Texas-produced petroleum may be sold outside of
Texas.
c. regulating intrastate bus fares.
d. regulating the storage of toxic wastes in underground salt domes.
52. According to the Brown text, the mission of the Sunset Advisory Commission is to
a. make the final determination on the continuance of each state agency.
b. make recommendations to the legislature concerning the possible merging,
abolition, or abolition of state agencies.
c. Enforce the Texas Administrative Procedures Act.
d. Enforce the Open Meetings and Records Act.
53. In which case did the Supreme Court first declare an act of Congress
unconstitutional?
a. MCCULLOCH V MARYLAND b. SHERBERT V VERNER c. PALKO V CONNECTICUT
d. MARBURY V MADISON
54. In the case MARBURY V MADISON, John Marshall was
a. the Attorney General.
b. the Chief Justice.
c. not eligible to participate in the decision because of his prior role as Secretary
of State.
d. the acting district attorney for the state of Maryland.
55. Which of the following constitutes a "cue" (cue theory) that may indicate whether
the Supreme Court will decide to hear a case on appeal?
1. The president or other high ranking federal officer publicly calls on the
Supreme Court to review of the case.
2. The case involves a civil liberties or civil rights issue.
3. The judges on the lower appellate court have sharply divided opinions.
4. The subject matter of the case involves a social or political agenda that is
consistent with the dominant ideology of the Supreme Court.
5. The case involves a question of federalism.
a. 1, 2, & 5
b. 1, 2, & 3
c. 1, 2, 3, & 4
d. 1, 2, 3, & 5
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56. Merits consciousness is the idea that a justice's
1. vote to grant certiorari reflects a predisposition by the justice to reverse a
lower court's decision based on the merits of the case.
2. vote to deny certiorari reflects a predisposition by the justice to reverse a
lower court's decision based on the merits of the case.
3. vote to grant or deny certiorari is highly associated with his or her political
party ideology.
4. vote to grant or deny certiorari is highly associated with his or her political
party affiliation.
5. vote to grant or deny certiorari is based strictly on the degree or extent of
legal impact that he or she believes the decision will ultimately have.
a. 1 only
b. 1 & 2
c. 3 & 4
d. 5 only
57. Which of the following determines whether the Supreme Court will issue a writ of
certiorari?
a. "gang of four"
b. "rule of five"
c. "rule of four"
d. "four on the floor"
58. According to the Greenberg text, federal judicial appointments are for
a. 6 year terms with no limit on the number of terms.
b. 6 year terms with a limit of three terms.
c. 10 year terms with a limit of two terms.
d. life.
59. The doctrine of stare decisis means
a. to reverse a decision of a lower court.
b. that the court does not have jurisdiction in a case.
c. to refer a case to the next highest court.
d. to stand on the decided cases - that is to decide a case based on the
precedents set in other similar cases.
60. The power of the courts to decide whether an act of another branch of
government is consistent with or contrary to the provisions of the Constitution is
known as
a. judicial review.
b. writs of judicial appeal.
c. the greater judicial need doctrine. d. the doctrine of common sense.
61. Appellate jurisdiction involves the authority of a court to
a. decide guilt or innocence in criminal cases.
b. determine the extent of damages in civil cases.
c. limit the jurisdiction of lower courts.
d. review the decisions of lower courts.
62. A writ of certiorari by the Supreme Court orders
a. both parties in a case to reach a settlement without further litigation.
b. a public official to discharge his or her duty.
c. a lower court to send it the records of a case for review.
d. the state legislature to rewrite legislation that was found to be unconstitutional.
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63. An opinion by a member of a court that disagrees with the result reached by the
court in the case is called a
a. minority opinion. b. majority opinion. c. concurring opinion.
d. dissenting opinion.
64. Which of the following were established in class as criteria of judicial policymaking?
a. legal impact and policy impact
b. policy impact and compliance
c. legal impact and compliance
d. none of these
65. Which criterion of judicial policy-making refers to the "potential of a given court
decision to substantially alter or change an existing policy or practice?"
a. legal impact b. policy impact c. compliance d. none of these
66. The fact that public schools, particularly in the South, had not integrated two
decades after the Supreme Court's decision in BROWN V BOARD OF EDUCATION
illustrated the relevance of _______________ as a criterion of judicial policymaking.
a. legal impact b. policy impact c. compliance d. none of these
67. The criterion of judicial policy-making that requires parties affected by a court’s
decision to actually change or alter their behavior in accordance with the
decision is
a. legal impact b. policy impact c. compliance d. none of these
68. Which of the following cases meet both of the criteria of judicial policy-making?
1. GRISWOLD V CONNECTICUT
2. ENGEL V VITALE
3. MIRANDA V ARIZONA
4. PLESSY V FERGUSON
5. BAKER V CARR
a. 1, 2, & 3 b. 1, 2, 3, & 4 c. 1, 2, 3, & 5 d. all of the above
69. In MARBURY V MADISON, the Supreme Court held that
a. Madison had to deliver Marbury's judicial commission.
b. Congress could not change the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
c. Congress could give the Supreme Court the power to issue writs of mandamus.
d. all of these.
70. A writ of mandamus is a court order compelling
a. both parties in a case to reach a settlement without further litigation.
b. a public official to discharge his or her duty.
c. a lower court to send it the records of a case for review.
d. the state legislature to rewrite legislation that was found to be unconstitutional.
71. Judicial activism refers to a philosophy that
a. implies a willingness on the part of judges to make liberal social policy.
b. implies a reluctance on the part of judges to make liberal social policy.
c. implies a willingness on the part of judges to use the power of judicial review
to declare an act or action of another branch of government unconstitutional
and, therefore, void.
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d. implies a reluctance on the part of judges to use the power of judicial review
to declare an act or action of another branch of government unconstitutional
and, therefore, void.
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