Downloaded from www.ashishlalaji.net Pinnacle Academy June 2015 Revision Tests 201-202, Florence Classic, Besides Unnati Vidhyalay, 10, Ashapuri Society, Jain Derasar Rd., Akota, Vadodara-20. ph: 98258 561 55 Strategic Financial Management Revision Test Conducted on 23rd June 2015 [Solution is at the end with marking for self-assessment] Time Allowed-1.5 hours Q1 Maximum Marks- 80 Amazon Ltd. wishes to take over Nile Ltd. Following details are available: % Shareholding of Promoters Share Capital Free Reserves Paid up value per share Free Float Market Capitalization PE Ratio (times) Amazon Ltd. Nile Ltd. 50% Rs.200 lakhs Rs.900 lakhs Rs.100 Rs.500 lakhs 10 60% Rs.100 lakhs Rs.600 lakhs Rs.10 Rs.156 lakhs 4 For swap ratio, 25 % weight is assigned to BVPS, 50 % to EPS and 25 % to MPS. Determine: (i) Swap ratio (ii) EPS and MPS of Amazon Ltd. after merger assuming PE ratio of Amazon Ltd. prevails even after merger (iii) Post merger free float market capitalization (12 Marks) Q2 A Ltd. has 1,00,000 shares and B Ltd. has 50,000 shares. Current MPS of A Ltd. is Rs.100. A Ltd. wishes to take over B Ltd. for which it has two offers, which are: (i) Buy B Ltd. in cash by paying 25 % premium over its current MPS of Rs.40. (ii) Issue shares at swap ratio of 0.25 It is expected that the post merger MPS for each of the offer shall be: Only cash offer: Rs.150; Only stock offer: Rs.120 You are required to determine the NPV of each offer for A Ltd. (8 Marks) 1 Downloaded from www.ashishlalaji.net Q3 An analyst intends to value an IT company in terms of the future cash generating capacity. He has projected following after-tax cash flows: (millions of rupees) Year EBITDA Depreciation Interest 1 266 66 17.1 2 75 15 17.1 3 105 15 17.1 4 151 11 17.1 5 210 10 17.1 It is further estimated that beyond the 5th year, cash flows will perpetuate at a constant growth rate of 7% p.a. mainly on account of inflation. The perpetual cash flow is estimated to be Rs.968 million at the end of 5th year. Tax rate is 50%. (a) What is the value of the company based on expected future cash flows? You may assume cost of capital to be 20% and CFAT of each year to be FCF. (b) The company has outstanding 5 % debt of Rs.342 million and cash / bank balance of Rs.256 million. Calculate value of one equity share, if number of equity shares is 15.15 million. (c) The company has received takeover bid of Rs.190 per share. Is it a good offer? (6 + 3 + 1 = 10 Marks) Q4 (a) As an investment manager you are given the following information: Investment in Equity shares of---A. Cement Ltd. Steel Ltd. Liquor Ltd. B. Government of India Bonds Initial Price (Rs.) 25 35 45 1,000 Dividends (Rs.) Market Price at the end of Year (Rs.) Beta risk factor 2 2 2 50 60 135 0.80 0.70 0.50 140 1,005 0.99 Risk free return may be taken at 14%. You are required to calculate: (i) Expected rate of returns of portfolio in each using Capital Asset Pricing Model (ii) Average return of portfolio (6 Marks) (b) An investor is seeking the price to pay for a security, whose standard deviation is 3 %. The correlation coefficient for the security with the market is 0.8 and the market standard deviation is 2.2 %. The return from government securities is 5.2 % and from the market portfolio is 9.8 %. What is the required rate of return on which the price of the security shall be based? (6 Marks) 2 Downloaded from www.ashishlalaji.net (c) The current risk free rate is 10% and the expected return on the market portfolio is 15%. The expected returns for four scrips are listed together with their expected betas. Scrip Infosys Bank of Baroda Reliance Industries TCS Expected Return (%) 17 14.5 15.5 18 Expected beta 1.3 0.8 1.1 1.7 i. Given the above, which of these shares should the fund manager buy and why? ii. If the risk free rate were to rise to 12% and the expected return on the market portfolio rose to 16.5%, other factors remaining the same, would the fund manager’s decision change? (6 Marks) Q5 (a) Shares of D Ltd. are currently selling at Rs.500 per share. A 3-month call option and put option are available at a strike price of Rs.520 at a premium of Rs.5 and Rs.3 per share respectively. The expected market price of the share at the end of the option period is predicted to be Rs.540 by one stock-analyst, while another stock-analyst predicts the same to be Rs.510. Determine net pay off of the investor at the two probable spot prices for – (i) Long Call (ii) Long Put (iii) Long Straddle Which strategy do you suggest? (8 Marks) (b) A Brazilian exporter has sold coffee for $1,000,000 and will receive payment in 6 months. The current spot rate of the dollar is R$2.43. The 6-month forward rate is R$2.49. The Brazilian interest rate is 10.6 % p.a. and the US interest rate is 6% p.a. Currency put option is available for 6 months at strike price of R$2.5 at premium of R$0.0352. Currency call option is available for 6 months at strike price of R$2.5 at premium of R$0.0350. Ignore time value of options premium. Analyse forward market hedge, money market hedge and currency options as method of hedging. Recommend best hedging method. (12 Marks) Q6 Beta Ltd. is planning to import a multi-purpose machine from Japan at a cost of Rs.7,200 lakhs yen. The company can avail loans at 15% interest p.a. with quarterly rests with which it can import the machine. However there is an offer from Tokyo branch of an India based bank extending credit of 180 days at 2% p.a. against opening of an irrevocable letter of credit. Other Information: 3 Downloaded from www.ashishlalaji.net Present exchange rate 180 days’ forward rate Rs.100 = 360 yen. Rs.100 = 365 yen. Commission charges for letter of credit at 2% per 12 months. Advice whether the offer from the foreign branch should be accepted? (12 Marks) Solution prepared by CA. Ashish Lalaji Be free to send your suggestions / comments to CA. Ashish Lalaji at 9825856155 / ashishlalaji@rediffmail.com 4 Downloaded from www.ashishlalaji.net Solution of SFM Revision Test Conducted on 23rd June 2015 Q1 (i) Calculation of Pre-merger BVPS: (a) Share Capital (b) Free Reserves (c) Equity Funds (d) No. of equity shares (e) BVPS (c / d) Amazon Ltd. Nile Ltd. 200 100 900 600 1,100 700 2 10 550 70 Share exchange ratio based on BVPS = 70 / 550 = 0.1273 (2 Marks) Calculation of Pre-merger EPS: Amazon Ltd. Nile Ltd. (a) Free Float Market Capitalisation 500 156 (b) Non Promoter Holding 50% 40% (c) Total Market Capitalisation (a / b) 1,000 390 (d) No. of equity shares 2 10 (e) MPS (c / d) 500 39 (f) PE Ratio 10 4 (g) EPS (e / f) 50 9.75 Share exchange ratio based on EPS = 9.75 / 50 = 0.195 (3 Marks) Share exchange ratio based on MPS = 39 / 500 = 0.078 (1 Mark) Agreed Swap Ratio = 0.1273 (.25) + 0.195 (.50) + 0.078 (.25) = 0.1488 (1 Mark) (ii) New shares issued = 10 X .1488 = 1.488 lakhs Post Merger Shares = 2 + 1.488 = 3.488 lakhs Post Merger EPS = (2 X 50) + (10 X 9.75) / 3.488 = Rs.56.62 Post Merger MPS = 56.62 X 10 = Rs.566.20 (2 Marks) (iii) New shares issued to promoters of Nile = (10 X 60%) X .1488 = 0.8928 lakhs Total shares owned by promoters = (2 X 50%) + .8928 = 1.8928 lakhs % of promoters holding post merger = 1.8928 / 3.488 i.e. 54.27 % Public holding = 45.73 % Free Float Capitalisation = 3.488 X 45.73% X 566.2 = Rs.903.12 lakhs (3 Marks) Solution prepared by CA. Ashish Lalaji 5 Downloaded from www.ashishlalaji.net Q2 Determination of Pre-Merger Market Value of Firm: A B (a) No. of shares 1,00,000 50,000 (b) Pre-Merger MPS 100 40 (c) Pre-merger Market Value [a X b] 1,00,00,000 20,00,000 (2 Marks) Determination of Net Present Value [NPV]: (i) Only Cash Offer: Market Value of Combined Entity = 1,00,000 shares X Rs.150 = Rs.1,50,00,000 Synergy = 1,50,00,000 – 1,00,00,000 - 20,00,000 = Rs.30,00,000 Cost of Merger = [50,000 shares X Rs.50*] – 20,00,000 = Rs.5,00,000 * Rs.40 + 25% Premium NPV of merger = 30,00,000 – 5,00,000 = Rs.25,00,000 (3 Marks) (ii) Only Stock Offer: New shares issued = 50,000 X .25 = 12,500 shares Market Value of Combined Entity = 1,12,500 shares X Rs.120 = Rs.1,35,00,000 Synergy = 1,35,00,000 – 1,00,00,000 - 20,00,000 = Rs.15,00,000 Cost of merger = [12,500 / 1,12,500 {1,35,00,000}] – 20,00,000 = (Rs.5,00,000) NPV of merger = 15,00,000 – (-5,00,000) = Rs.20,00,000 (3 Marks) Q3 (a) Determination of Value of Firm as per FCFF Approach: (millions of rupees) Year EBITDA Depreciation PBT 1 2 3 4 5 266 75 105 151 210 66 15 15 11 10 5 Continuing Value 200 60 90 140 200 Taxes PAT @ 50% 100 30 45 70 100 CFAT / PVF FCFF (20%) 100 30 45 70 100 166 45 60 81 110 PV .833 .694 .579 .482 .402 138.28 31.23 34.74 39.04 44.22 287.51 7,967.38 .402 3,202.89 Value of Firm (as a whole) 3,490.40 (5 Marks) th th Continuing Value at end of 5 year = FCFF (at end of 6 year) / ko – g = 968 (1.07) / 20 % - 7% = Rs.7,967.38 million (1 Mark) Solution prepared by CA. Ashish Lalaji Be free to send your suggestions / comments to CA. Ashish Lalaji at 9825856155 / ashishlalaji@rediffmail.com 6 Downloaded from www.ashishlalaji.net (b) Computation of value per share: Particulars Amount (Rs. in millions) 3,490.40 256.00 3,746.40 342.00 3,404.40 15.15 224.71 Value of Firm (as a whole) Add: Cash and Bank Less: Outstanding Debt Value of Firm (for equity shareholders) No. of equity shares Value per share (3 Marks) Solution prepared by (c) CA. Ashish Lalaji True worth of the share of company is Rs.224.71. Takeover bid of Rs.190 per share is lower than the real value of the share. It is not a good offer. (1 Mark) Q4 (a) There is absence of information related to market return. It is assumed that the securities given in the question are the only securities trading in the market. On the basis of this assumption, market return is determined as under: Investment Cement Ltd. Steel Ltd. Liquor Ltd. GOI Bonds Closing MPS 50 60 135 1,005 Purchase Price 25 35 45 1,000 1,105 Capital Appreciation 25 25 90 5 Dividend / Interest 2 2 2 140 Total Return 27 27 92 145 291 Market return (km) = 291 / 1,105 = 26.33 % (3 Marks) Determination of Required Return as per CAPM: As per CAPM – E(r) = Rf + β (km – Rf) E(r) = 14 + β (26.33 – 14) E(r) = 14 + 12.33β Cement: Steel: Liquor: GOI Bond: 14 + 12.33 (0.80) 14 + 12.33 (0.70) 14 + 12.33 (0.50) 14 + 12.33 (0.99) = 23.86 % = 22.63 % = 20.17 % = 26.21 % (2 Marks) Average return = 23.86 + 22.63 + 20.17 + 26.21 / 4 = 23.22 % (1 Mark) 7 Downloaded from www.ashishlalaji.net (b) Determination of Beta: Beta = 0.8 (3) / 2.2 = 1.09 (3 Marks) Determination of Required Return as per CAPM: As per CAPM – E(r) = Rf + β (km – Rf) E(r) = 5.2 + 1.09 (9.8 – 5.2) = 10.21 % (3 Marks) (c) (i) Analysis of shares to be purchased / sold: Scrip Actual Return as per CAPM Return Infosys BOB Reliance TCS 17 % 14.5% 15.5% 18% 10 + 1.3 (5) = 16.5% 10 + 0.8 (5) = 14.0% 10 + 1.1 (5) = 15.5% 10 + 1.7 (5) = 18.5% Nature of scrip Investment Decision Under-priced Under-priced Correctly priced Over-priced BUY BUY HOLD SELL (3 Marks) Solution prepared by CA. Ashish Lalaji (ii) Analysis of shares to be purchased / sold: Scrip Actual Return Return as per CAPM Nature of scrip Investment Decision Infosys BOB Reliance TCS 17 % 14.5% 15.5% 18% 12 + 1.3 (4.5) = 17.85% 12 + 0.8 (4.5) = 15.60% 12 + 1.1 (4.5) = 16.95% 12 + 1.7 (4.5) = 19.65% Over-priced Over-priced Over-priced Over-priced SELL SELL SELL SELL (3 Marks) Q5 (a) (i) Statement showing net payoff for Long Call: Spot Price Strike Price Gross Pay off Premium paid Net Pay off 540 510 520 520 20 0 5 5 15 (5) (2 Marks) (ii) Statement showing net payoff for Long Put: Spot Price Strike Price Gross Pay off Premium paid Net Pay off 540 510 520 520 0 10 3 3 (3) 7 (2 Marks) 8 Downloaded from www.ashishlalaji.net (iii) Statement showing net payoff for Long Straddle: Spot Price Strike Price Call Put Gross Pay off Call Put Premium paid Net Pay off 540 510 520 520 520 520 20 0 20 8 12 0 10 10 8 2 (3 Marks) Conclusion: Investor is better-off with the Straddle Position. (1 Mark) (b) Analysis of Forward Contract: Enter into forward contract to sell $ 10 lakhs at 6-months forward rate of R$2.49 / $ Amount received after 6 months = 10 X 2.49 = R$ 24.9 lakhs (2 Marks) • • • Analysis of Money Market Hedge: As on today: Borrow $ 9.709 lakhs [10 / [ 1 + .06X 6 / 12]] at 6 % p.a. for 6 months in US At current spot rate, R$-equivalent of $ 9.709 lakhs is R$ 23.593 lakhs [9.709 X 2.43] Invest R$ 23.593 in Brazil at 10.6 % p.a. for 6 months (2 Marks) • • After 6 months: The US client shall make the payment. Use the money received to repay the US borrowing Investment in Brazil shall mature. Amount received after 6 months is – 23.593 + [23.593 X 10.6 % X 6 / 12] i.e. R$ 24.843 lakhs (2 Marks) Analysis of Currency Options: The Brazilian exporter needs to sell $ 10 lakhs received after 6 months and hence shall prefer currency put option. Options premium = 10 X 0.0352 = R$ 0.352 lakhs (1 Mark) Net pay off is determined as under: Spot rate after 6 months (assumed same as forward rate) Strike price for long put Gross pay off p.u. of deal size X Deal size (in lakhs) Total gross payoff (in lakhs) Premium paid (in lakhs) Net pay off (in lakhs) (Cash outflow) 2.49 2.50 0.01 10 0.1 0.352 0.252 (3 Marks) 9 Downloaded from www.ashishlalaji.net Currency options shall simply result into settlement on net basis. Actual sale of currency shall take place in cash market. $ 10 lakhs shall be sold at R$2.49 / $ to receive R$ 24.9 lakhs. Amount received after 6 months = 24.9 lakhs – 0.252 = R$ 24.648 lakhs (2 Marks) Conclusion: The firm is better off by selecting forward market hedge in view of highest cash inflow after 6 months. Q6 Following direct quotes are obtained: Spot rate: 1 ¥ = Re.0.2778 180 days forward rate: 1 ¥ = Re.0.2740 (1 Mark) Analysis of Loan Option: Amount (Rs. in lakhs) Cost of Machine [¥ 7,200 X 0.2778] Add: Interest @ 15% for – • 1st quarter [2,000 X 15% X 3/12] • 2nd quarter [2,075 X 15% X 3/12] ∑ PVCO 2,000 75.00 77.81 2,152.81 (4 Marks) Analysis of Letter of Credit Option: Amount (Rs. in lakhs) Commission for LC [2,000 X 2% X 180 / 360] Add: Opportunity cost @ 15% for – • 1st quarter [20 X 15% X 3/12] • 2nd quarter [20.75 X 15% X 3/12] Cost of machine after 180 days [¥ 7,200 X 0.2740] Interest cost of Letter of Credit [1,972.80 X 2% X 180 / 360] ∑ PVCO 20.00 0.75 0.78 1,972.80 19.73 2,014.06 (6 Marks) Conclusion: The offer of the foreign branch of opening letter of credit should be accepted in view of lower ∑ PVCO. (1 Mark) Solution prepared by CA. Ashish Lalaji 10