Course Assessment Report
Western Massage 3 (HA-202)
Gene Desepoli, LMT, D.C.
Fall 20124
1. Course Description
This course expand upon the skills taught in previous western massage classes and prepares
students in the use of therapeutic massage applications. Advanced techniques such as trigger
point release, orthopedic assessment testing, and treatment plan design will be discussed for
common injuries and conditions.
2. Background Information
This course consists of lecture material as well as practical demonstrations of many medical and
sports-related conditions that massage therapists will encounter in their daily practice. It is an
extension of what students have learned in Pathology 1, Neurophysiology and in Western Massage
1 and 2 treatment classes.
3. Prerequisite Courses
HA-104 Western Massage II
HA-220 Pathology 1 (or co-requisite)
BI-325 Neurophysiology (or co-requisite)
4. QCC General Education Objectives
Students will:
- Communicate effectively through writing, listening and speaking
- Use analytical reasoning to identify issues or problems and evaluate evidence in order to
make informed decisions
- Integrate knowledge and skills in their program of study
5. Course Objectives/Expected Student Learning Outcomes
a. Learn to recognize trigger points and their referral patterns in major muscle groups.
b. Understand how various postural patterns and accommodations can develop into
musculoskeletal injuries and how massage can prevent or relieve this.
c. Execute and interpret orthopedic assessment tests appropriate for various parts of the body
d. Learn treatment protocols for common injuries and conditions that can be positively affected
by therapeutic massage.
e. Develop technique versatility and a goal-oriented approach to massage.
6. Assessment Activities and Student Learning Outcomes
Students were assessed using a written final examination. Questions on this exam were
categorized into three groups (1) assessment, (2) signs & symptoms and (3)treatment) that are
related to learning objectives for the course.
7. Data Collection instruments
Data was collected from the final written examination from two different instructors for two
different sections of Western Massage 3 taught in the Fall of 2014. Questions on the
examinations were designated as belonging to one of three categories, Assessment, Signs and
Symptoms and Treatment. There were a total of 19 students (n=19) in both sections of the course
and 285 total questions for each of the three categories. (19 x 15 = 285)
8. Goals
The goal was to have students achieve 75% proficiency for each of the objectives.
The calculations are as follows:
Item
Signs and Symptoms (a)
Assessment (b)(c)
Massage Treatment (d)(e)
#correct/total questions
208/285
210/285
214/285
% correct
72.9%
73.6%
75.1%
9. Analysis and interpretation of assessment results
The goal of 75% proficiency was not achieved for two of the three areas (signs and symptoms,
and assessment).
10. Evaluation of the Assessment Process
Students normally do well in this course but the overall average test score for the final
examination was surprisingly 11 points lower than that for the course midterm examination and
quiz averages. This may be due to one of the exams being given on the same day students were
taking their neurophysiology exam. Students related the fact that they were more concerned with
and worried about passing the neuro exam and spent less time studying for the Western Massage
3 exam.
11. Resulting Action Plans
The next time the course is taught, I will base the assessment on both a midterm and final
examination to better gauge progress throughout the semester. My goal will again be to achieve
at least 75% proficiency in all three areas assessed.
12. Student artifacts
See the attached written final examination for course from Dr. Desepoli.
Queensborough Community College
Name: ______________________________________
Gene Desepoli, LMT, CMTPT, CSCS, RRT, D.C.
December 2014
Western 3 Final Exam
1. With which condition would a patient present with pain at both the greater trochanter and lateral
femoral condylar areas?
a. plantar fasciitis
b. iliotibial band friction syndrome
c. patellar tendonitis
d. shin splints
2. If the Achilles’ tendon were torn/ruptured, the foot would naturally rest in what position?
a. dorsiflexion
b. plantarflexion
c. inversion
d. eversion
3. The pain from which condition is due to tight, constricted connective tissue?
a. Achilles’ tendonitis
b. plantar fasciitis
c. lateral ankle sprain
d. shin splints
4. For which condition will the patient complain of pain when extending the knee joint?
a. Achilles’ tendonitis
b. iliopsoas tendinosis
c. iliotibial band friction syndrome
d. all are correct
5. The pain from chondromalacia patellae is usually experienced:
a. behind/deep to the the knee
b. lateral to the patella
c. medial to the patella
d. none of the above
6. Pain along the shaft of the tibia is found with:
a. Achilles’ tendonitis
b. patella tendonitis
c. shin splints
d. calf cramps
7. Dull achy pain found deep in the calf is a sign of:
a. Achilles’ tendonitis
b. shin splints
c. chronic compartment syndrome
d. acute compartment syndrome
8. Significant swelling may be present with which condition?
a. plantar fasciitis
b. lateral ankle sprain
c. Achilles’ tendonitis
d. shin splints
9. A long-distance runner tells you that she experiences pain that disappears after about 5 minutes of
running, only to return again later during the run. This is a symptom of which condition?
a. shin splints
b. plantar fasciitis
c. Achilles’ tendonitis
d. lateral ankle sprain
10. When a patient dorsiflexes and inverts their ankle, they feel pain. This is found with:
a. shin splints
b. plantar fasciitis
c. Achilles’ tendonitis
d. lateral ankle sprain
11. A severe ankle sprain may also result in a distal ankle fracture. This fracture is called:
a. Colle’s
b. Pott’s
c. Achilles’
d. Dupuytren’s
12. A patient reports that they experience the most pain when they first wake in the morning and bear
weight on the extremity. This is consistent with which pathology?
a. Achilles’ tendonitis
b. plantar fasciitis
c. iliotibial band friction syndrome
d. patellar tendonitis
13. The feeling of significant unrelenting pressure in the leg, as well as numbness is found with:
a. shin splints
b. Achilles’ tendonitis
c. chronic compartment syndrome
d. acute compartment syndrome
14. Pain located deep to the patella is found with which condition?
a. chondromalacia patellae
b. iliotibial band friction syndrome
c. patellar tendonitis
d. patellar dislocation
15. Which foot condition usually progresses to the formation of a calcaneal heel spur?
a. hammer toe
b. Morton's neuroma
c. halux valgus
d. plantar fasciitis
16. You would perform an anterior drawer test on the ankle to assess for which condition?
a. ligament rupture
b. plantar fasciitis
c. shin splints
d. compartment syndrome
17. Which could be a cause of chondromalacia patellae?
a. weak vastus medialis
b. tight vastus lateralis
c. tight iliotibial band
d. all are correct
18. A lateral ankle sprain is most commonly caused by overstressing the foot in the position of
plantarflexion and:
a. inversion
b. eversion
c. pronation
d. supination
19. When you press firmly into the shaft of the tibia, the patient experiences pain. This is found with:
a. Achilles’ tendonitis
b. plantar fasciitis
c. shin splints
d. patellar tendonitis
20. Extension of the toes can create a stretch of fascia and will be painful with which condition?
a. plantar fasciitis
b. lateral ankle sprain
c. Achilles’ tendonitis
d. shin splints
21. If a patient has pain/stiffness when the knee is extended and the ankle is dorsiflexed but not when
the knee is flexed, this implicates which muscle as being the cause of the tightness?
a. gastrocnemius
b. soleus
c. tibialis anterior
d. rectus femoris
22. With Achilles’ tendonitis, what direction would you have the patient contract in order to assess for
pain?
a. eversion
b. inversion
c. dorsiflexion
d. plantarflexion
23. You grasp above the patella and ask the patient to contract by extending the knee joint. You are
assessing for which condition?
a. chondromalacia patellae
b. iliotibial band friction syndrome
c. patella tendonitis
d. knee dislocation
24. Ober’s test and Noble’s tests are performed to assess for the presence of which pathology?
a. Achilles’ tendonitis
b. plantar fasciitis
c. iliotibial band friction syndrome
d. patellar tendonitis
25. Resisted hip adduction would be painful in a patient with which condition?
a. abductor tendonitis
b. groin pull
c. hamstring strain
d. patellar tendonitis
26. A severe ankle sprain may also result in a distal ankle fracture. This fracture is called:
a. Colle’s
b. Pott’s
c. Achilles’
d. Dupuytren’s
27. In a patient who has experienced a lateral ankle sprain, you should assess for injury to which
muscle?
a. peroneus longus
b. tibialis posterior
c. soleus
d. gastrocnemius
28. The ability to abduct a patient’s hip more when the knee is flexed, signifies tightness of which
muscle?
a. adductor longus
b. adductor magnus
c. gracilis
d. adductor brevis
29. If the Achilles’ tendon were cut, what action could the patient not perform?
a. eversion
b. inversion
c. plantarflexion
d dorsiflexion
30. If you palpate heat and notice a swelling and redness in the calf of your patient, you should:
a. massage area gently
b. not treat at all
c. massage around area
d. none are correct
31. When the foot/ankle is placed into a cast after Achilles’ tendon rupture surgery, in what position is
it initially placed?
a. plantarflexion
b. dorsiflexion
c. inversion
d. eversion
32. When treating tendonitis, how deeply should friction massage be applied?
a. a level 5 on a pain scale from 1 to 10
b. as deeply as the patient can tolerate
c. enough so that no pain is felt during treatment
d. friction is not applied for tendonitis
33. Research has shown that stretching is the most important component of treatment for which
condition?
a. groin pull
b. Achilles’ tendonitis
c. compartment syndrome
d. patellar tendonitis
34. After a patient recovers from a complete Achilles’ tendon rupture, you can best help them by:
a. reducing scar tissue
b. applying ice
c. giving them emotional support
d. forcefully stretching the joint
35. When ice is applied, a patient will experience 4 sensations: cold, burning, achiness and:
a. heat
b. pins and needles
c. numbness
d. an electric-like sensation
36. Which condition may require the deepest strokes during treatment?
a. shin splints
b. plantar fasciitis
c. Achilles’ tendonitis
d. groin pull
37. Tendnosis/tendonitis is assessed by resisting muscle contraction and then passively overstretching
the muscle.
a. true
b. false
38. Which massage stroke(s) would most benefit a person with Achilles’ tendinosis?
a. tapotement and vibration
b. effleurage and vibration
c. effleurage
d. friction
39. With an Achilles’ tendon tear, the foot is initially placed into a cast in what position?
a. dorsiflexion
b. plantarflexion
c. inversion
d. eversion
40. The massage stroke best suited to reduce fibrous adhesions that may have developed along
the tendinous fibers with shin splints is:
a. friction
b. petrissage
c. tapotement
d. effleurage
41. When treating a lateral ankle sprain, where is friction applied?
a. the distal tibia
b. the distal fibula
c. the proximal tibia
d. the proximal fibula
42. Treating a patient in a side-lying position might be most effective for:
a. lateral ankle sprain
b. plantar fasciitis
c. Achilles’ tendonitis
d. iliotibial band syndrome
43. In the presence of acute inflammation or fever, which massage stroke is used?
a. effleurage
b. range of motion
c. mild petrissage
d. none are correct
44. Which massage stroke is utilized to mobilize and realign scar tissue?
a. effleurage
b. tapotement
c. petrissage
d. transverse friction
45. You should use caution when working on what area of the body in a person with hypertension?
a. popliteal fossa
b. abdomen
c. occiput
d. groin