ACT Survival Guide
Total Test Time: 3 hours and 25 minutes (including the 30 minute optional writing test)
The test is machine scored so be sure to fill the circles on your answer sheet completely and
neatly.
5 Separately Timed Sections:
English Section
45 minutes
75 questions in total, divided among 5 passages. There are 15 questions per passage.
Question Types:
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40 usage/mechanics questions that test knowledge of punctuation, grammar, usage, and
sentence structure
35 Rhetorical Strategy questions that test the understanding of style, organization, and
writing strategy
Mathematics Section
60 minutes, 60 questions
Question types:
-
14 pre-Algebra problems testing understanding of real numbers, linear equations, simple
probability, data interpretation, and simple statistics
10 elementary Algebra problems testing understanding of polynomials, exponents, and
quadratic equations
9 intermediate Algebra problems testing understanding of rational and algebraic
expressions, inequalities, logarithms, complex numbers, sequences, and matrices
9 coordinate Algebra problems testing understanding of graphing, linear equations,
conics, and other curves
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14 Plane Geometry problems testing understanding of angles, line segments, triangles,
quadrilaterals, polygons, and circles
4 Trigonometry problems testing understanding of trigonometric functions, as well as
sines, cosines, and tangents
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Note: a calculator is permitted on the Mathematics section of the ACT
Permitted Calculators
You may use any four-function, scientific, or graphing calculator, unless it has features described in the
Prohibited Calculators list.
Prohibited Calculators
The following types of calculators are prohibited:
 Calculators with built-in computer algebra systems
Prohibited calculators in this category include:
o Texas Instruments: All model numbers that begin with TI-89 or TI-92 and the TI-Nspire
CAS—Note: The TI-Nspire (non-CAS) is permitted.
o Hewlett-Packard: HP 48GII and all model numbers that begin with HP 40G, HP 49G, or
HP 50G
o Casio: Algebra fx 2.0, ClassPad 300 and ClassPad 330, and all model numbers that
begin with CFX-9970G
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Handheld, tablet, or laptop computers, including PDAs
Electronic writing pads or pen-input devices—Note: The Sharp EL 9600 is permitted.
Calculators built into cell phones or any other electronic communication devices
Calculators with a typewriter keypad (letter keys in QWERTY format)—Note: Letter keys not in
QWERTY format are permitted.
Reading Section
35 minutes
40 questions in total, divided among 4 passages each containing 10 questions
Passage Types:
-
Prose Fiction – an excerpt from a short story or novel intended to test a student’s ability
to understand the mood of the author, the plot, and the characters as they are revealed by
their own words and actions
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Humanities – an excerpt describing and analyzing a work of art or an artist intended to
test a student’s ability to understand the author’s point of view. Sometimes the
humanities passage on the ACT is a memoir
Social Science – an excerpt presenting researched material intended to test a student’s
ability to understand the chronology and ramifications of important events. Often, social
science passages are very similar to passages found in social studies textbooks
Natural Science – an excerpt presenting a science related topic intended to test a
student’s ability to recall facts and draw conclusions
Science Section
35 minutes
40 questions distributed among 7 passages, each containing between 5 and 7 questions
Passage Types:
-
Earth Sciences
Biology
Chemistry
Physics
Do not worry; most of the information necessary to understand the passages on the science
section on the ACT is presented directly or implicitly within each passage
Note: the use of a calculator is not permitted on the science section of the ACT. However, no
questions on this section should require the use of a calculator anyway. All required calculations
on this section will be extremely simple
Writing Section
30 minutes
Requires the test taker to provide an essay response to a given prompt
While this section is optional, it is highly recommended that all test takers complete the writing
section of the ACT!
Your score on the writing section of the ACT will not affect your composite ACT score
When completing this section attempt to write an essay that develops a position in response to
the problem presented in the prompt. Support your position using reasons and examples. Don’t
forget to clearly state your position in the introductory paragraphs. Finally, organize your essay
in a coherent manner, using body paragraphs to support your position, and a conclusion
paragraph to summarize your composition
Do Not Write off-topic!
How the ACT is scored
The ACT is scored on a scale between 1 (low) and 36 (high)
A composite score for each test taker is derived by taking the average of individual scores from
each of the 4 scored sections of the ACT (English, Mathematics, Reading, and Science). Each of
these sections is also scored on a scale between 1 and 36
For example, a student with a 24 on English, 22 on Mathematics, 22 on Reading, and 20 on
Science will receive an ACT score of 22:
24+22+22+20 = 22
4
No points are lost for wrong answers on the ACT, so guessing is encouraged
The national average ACT score is 21
The average ACT score of a Texas student is 20
Test Taking Tips!
Become familiar with the format of the test. Know what to expect and you will be less nervous
on test day
Answer EVERY question on the test. You do not lose points for guessing on the ACT
Limit your time on any one question. All questions are worth the same number of points. If
you need a lot of time to answer a question, go on to the next one. Later, you may have time to
return to the question you skipped
Keep track of time. Work at a steady pace and remember that you do not have the time to get
bogged down on any one question
Use your test booklet as scratch paper
Mark the questions in your booklet that you skipped and want to return to
Read each question carefully. Be sure you know exactly what each question asks
Use the answer choices to help you when you’re unsure. Remember, the correct answer is
right there on the page
Use POE (process of elimination) to eliminate wrong answer choices
Check your answer sheet to make sure you are answering the right question
Fill in the circles on your answer sheet completely and in a neat manner
Make sure you use a No. 2 pencil. It is very important that you fill in the entire circle on the
answer sheet darkly and completely. If you change your response, erase it as completely as
possible
What to Bring!
Admission Ticket
Photo ID – driver’s license, state-issued ID, school identification card, valid passport, student ID
form, talent identification program ID
Two No. 2 Pencils (not mechanical)
Calculator with fresh batteries
A watch
If you can it would also be good to bring:
Snacks
Extra batteries for your calculator
A backpack to put all of your things in
Be Organized!
1) The night before the test you should pack all of the materials listed above in a backpack!
2) Go to bed early and get a good night’s sleep
3) Eat a healthy breakfast
4) Check to make sure you have everything you need for the test before you leave
5) Arrive early
What to Leave at Home!
-Cell phone, pager, personal digital assistant, iPod, MP3 player, and any other digital or
electronic equipment.
-Scratch paper
-Notes, books, dictionary
-Compass, protractor, ruler, or any other aid
-Highlighter or colored pencils
-Portable listening or recording device
-Camera or other photographic equipment
-Timer or watch with audible alarm
Note:
Students are not permitted to use a cell phone during the breaks. Students should leave their
cell phones at home. Once the testing room supervisor has read the instructions to turn off and
put away all prohibited devices, if a device rings or makes noise, or a student is seen using a
prohibited device, the student may be dismissed, and his or her test scores may be canceled.
Students who arrive to take the ACT Reasoning Test after testing has begun will not be
admitted to the test center. Students who are late or absent must reschedule if they still want to
take the test.
What to Expect!
Schedule
7:30-7:45
8:00
8:30-9:00
12:30-1:00
Arrive
Testing room doors close
Testing starts
Throughout the test there will be one short break after the first two sections, and
one additional break before the fourth section and the writing section
Test Ends
In the Testing Room
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Your ID will be checked when you enter the testing room. Make sure to keep your ID on
you at all times.
Wait to be seated. You will not be allowed to choose your seat, one will be assigned to
you.
The test supervisor gives you an answer sheet first and gives step-by-step instructions for
filling out the personal and test information.
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Each test book has a unique serial number. The test supervisor hands a book to each testtaker in serial number order and records the test book distribution on a chart.
No one may leave the room without permission.
Test books, answer sheets, and calculators must remain on your desk during breaks.
Cell phone use is not allowed at any time in the test center.
Taking the Test
The order of the test sections vary from booklet to booklet. That is, during section two of the
test you may take the mathematics sections and your neighbor may take the reading section
The test supervisor reads all instructions verbatim from a testing manual and can answer only
questions about procedure, not about test questions or content.
The Supervisor will tell you when to start and stop each section.
After the test is finished, the test supervisor collects and counts the test books to make sure all
materials have been turned in before dismissing you from the testing room.
Test Rules
1) You must work within each section of the test only for the time allotted.
2) You may not go back to a section once that section has ended.
3) You may not go ahead to a new section if you finish a section early.
4) Do not skip sections. Doing so may result in score cancellation, delays, or both.
On the day of the test REMEMBER:
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Be Confident! You’ve prepared, you’re ready!
Think positively.
Stay focused. File all other thoughts and problems away, you can worry about them after
the test.
Keep the test in perspective. Your life does not depend on your score. It’s only one part
of the process.
Control the controllables. If you don’t know an answer, stay calm and move to the next
question.
What is the difference between the ACT and SAT?
The ACT is an achievement test, measuring what a student has learned in school; it is described
by admissions officers and educators as a “content-based test.” The SAT is more of an aptitude
test, testing reasoning and verbal abilities; it tests critical thinking and problem solving.
This perception is one reason many educators (off the record) express a preference for the ACT-because they believe that the ACT is closer to testing the "core curriculum" taught in most school
classrooms. In fact, this contrast isn't completely true. Many questions on the ACT test critical
thinking, and there is a predictable range of material that's tested on the SAT.
The Key Differences:
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The ACT includes a science reasoning test; the SAT does not.
The ACT math section includes trigonometry; the SAT does not.
The writing test is optional on the ACT and is done last; the writing section is required on
the SAT and is done first.
The SAT has an experimental section that is unscored (but you won’t know which section
it is); the ACT does not have an experimental section.
The SAT tests vocabulary much more than the ACT.
The SAT is not entirely multiple choice (there is a grid-in portion in the math section);
the ACT is entirely multiple choice.
The SAT has a guessing penalty (1/4 point off the total raw score, which is converted into
your scaled final score); the ACT does not.
The Similarities:
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Both the SAT and ACT test grammar, reading comprehension, arithmetic, geometry, and
algebra.
Both are accepted by (most) colleges.
Want the specifics? Here’s a table with the specifics:
ACT
SAT
Length
3 hours, 25 minutes (including the 30-minute
optional Writing Test)
3 hours, 45 minutes
Sections
4 test sections (5 with the optional Writing
Test):
English, Math, Reading, Science, Writing
(Optional)
10 Sections: 3 Critical Reading, 3 Math, 3 Writing (incl.
the Essay), 1 Experimental (unscored)
Areas Tested
English, Math, Reading, Science, Writing
(optional)
Critical Reading, Math, Writing (includes the Essay),
Experimental (unscored)
Reading (ACT) / Critical
Reading (SAT)
4 Reading Comprehension passages, 10
questions per passage
Reading comprehension passages and questions, and
sentence completion questions
Science
Science (analysis, interpretation, evaluation,
basic content, and problem solving)
Science not included
Math
Math accounts for 1/4 of overall score
Math accounts for 1/3 of overall score
Topics Covered: Arithmetic, algebra,
geometry, and trigonometry
Topics Covered: Arithmetic, geometry, algebra, and
algebra II
Essay
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Scoring
Last thing you do (optional); 30 minutes
Not included in composite score
Topic of importance to high school students
 Address counterarguments
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Total composite score of 1-36 (based on
average of 4 tests)
 4 scores of 1-36 for each test
 Score of 0-12 for the optional Essay
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First thing you do; 25 minutes
Factored into overall score
More abstract topic (vs. the ACT)
 Pick a side and stick to it
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Total score out of 2400
3 scores of 200-800 for each section
 Score of 0-12 for the Essay
Wrong Answer Penalty
No wrong answer penalty
1/4 point subtracted per wrong answer (except for Math
Grid-in questions)
Test Contact
Information
ACT, Inc.
(319) 337-1000
www.actstudent.org
The College Board
1-866-756-7346
www.collegeboard.com
Sending Score History
You decide which score is sent
Your entire score history will be sent automatically
Information Sources: www.actstudent.org , www.kaptest.com
ACT Workbook
English
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The following is a sample English passage, taken from a real ACT:
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More samples and practice questions are available at
http://www.actstudent.org/sampletest/
and http://www.number2.com/
Information Source for all sample materials and explanations: www.actstudent.org
My Father’s Garden
[1]
When I was a boy growing up in Delhi, India,
we had a kitchen garden behind our downstairs
apartment. My father was an avid gardener, he still is:
1
and every Saturday morning he would put on his work
clothes, pick up his hoe and trowel, and would head
2
out the back door. 3
1.
A.NO CHANGE
B.gardener—he still is—
C.gardener, he still is—
D.gardener and he still is
2.
F.NO CHANGE
G.picked up his hoe and trowel, and
headed
H.pick up his hoe and trowel, and head
J.picking up his hoe and trowel, and
headed
3.
If the word Saturday were deleted from the
preceding sentence, the essay would primarily
lose:
A.evidence that the father was an avid
gardener.
B.a detail that changes the meaning of the
sentence.
C.support for a point made earlier.
D.a crucial link to the following paragraph.
[2]
As a ten-year-old, I was supremely unenthusiastic
about swinging a hoe in the garden when I could be out
playing with my friends. Having tried and failed,
4
my father was unable to make a gardener of me.
4.
Which of the choices best emphasizes how
much the father wanted his son to share his
avid interest in gardening?
F.NO CHANGE
G.Because of my indifference to his
hobby,
H.Contrary to this thinking,
J.Despite his repeated attempts,
I had no qualms, of course, about enjoying the
5
results of his labor: the potatoes, squash, cucumbers,
5.
A.NO CHANGE
B.More important, I had no qualms
C.It stands to reason, then, that I certainly
would have no qualms
D.I had no qualms, as a consequence of it,
and cauliflower that he pursued out of the earth. I would
6
even help him dig out the potatoes or cut a cucumber from
6.
F.NO CHANGE
G.coaxed
H.surrendered
J.enlisted
its vine. To me, it was much more fun to reap than sowing.
7
7.
A.NO CHANGE
B.the most fun to reap than to sow.
C.much more fun to reap than to sow.
D.the most fun reaping than if I’d had to
sow.
[3]
Many years later, living in an upstairs apartment,
I am more often sorry I didn’t follow my father out to the
8
garden. I have several indoor plants, but the experience is
not the same. The few times that I’ve helped a friend with
8.
The best placement for the underlined
portion would be:
F.where it is now.
G.after the word sorry.
H.after the word follow.
J.after the word garden (ending the
sentence with a period).
yard work has given me the joy of touching the soil
9
9.
A.NO CHANGE
B.have given
C.has gave
D.have gave
with an open palm, to get the earth under my fingernails,
10
of patting down the berm around a newly transplanted
10.
F.NO CHANGE
G.with getting
H.of getting
J.got
sapling. Now that I live far from my father (I live in Iowa
on the other side of the world), I wish I’d spend more time
11
with him in the garden.
11.
A.NO CHANGE
B.wished I had spent
C.wish I had spent
D.wish to have spent
[4]
My favorite photograph of my father shows him
squatting on his heels, trowel in hand, behind a golden
heap of onions freshly pulled from the ground. 12
His glowing smile are evidence of his pride in the
13
onions—the proof of his labor and love—and in me, the
photographer, his son. In that photo, his love of the land
and his love for me are somehow intertwined, indivisible.
It is that same love—love of kin, love of land—that
pushes under my fingernails, pushes against my skin,
when I thrust my hand into the yielding earth and think
12.
At this point, the writer is considering
adding the following true statement:
I have many photo albums, and each one
includes pictures of my father in various
poses.
Should the writer make this addition here?
F.Yes, because it informs the reader that
the photograph he describes in the
preceding sentence is not the only one he
has of his father.
G.Yes, because it informs the reader that
the writer is more than an amateur
photographer.
H.No, because it contradicts the writer’s
claim that the photograph he describes in
the preceding sentence is one he also
treasures.
J.No, because it distracts the reader from
the main focus of the paragraph and does
not logically fit at this point in the essay.
13.
A.NO CHANGE
B.is
C.were
D.OMIT the underlined portion.
that on its far side my father might be doing the same.
Questions 14 and 15 ask about the preceding passage as a whole.
14.
For the sake of the logic and coherence of
the essay, Paragraph 2 should be placed:
F.where it is now.
G.before Paragraph 1.
H.after Paragraph 3.
J.after Paragraph 4.
15.
Suppose the writer had intended to write a
brief essay showing how a value he holds
as an adult is very different from what he
felt as a child. Would this essay
successfully fulfill the writer’s goal?
A.Yes, because the essay shows how the
writer came to value gardening when this
was something he had not appreciated as a
child.
B.Yes, because the essay shows that as an
adult the writer finally learned to value his
father’s ability to be a good parent, when
as a child he had not done so.
C.No, because the focus of the essay is on
the writer’s father’s values and not on the
values of the writer himself.
D.No, because the essay is not about
values; rather, it is about one man’s avid
interest in backyard gardening.
Answers to Sample English Passage:
1.
The best answer is B. It offers the best punctuation for this nonessential parenthetical element. The
phrase "he still is" needs to be set off with the same punctuation marks on both ends. In this case, the
dashes are best for avoiding ambiguity.
2.
The best answer is H. It provides a parallel structure for the three items in the series: "he would put on
. . .," "pick up . . .," "and head . . ." All three verbs are in the same tense.
3.
The best answer is B because the meaning of the sentence would be changed if the word Saturday were
omitted. The new sentence would read as if the narrator's father worked in his garden every morning
when, according to the narrator, he worked there every Saturday morning.
4.
The best answer is J. The introductory phrase "Despite his repeated attempts," tells the reader that the
father tried many times to interest his son in gardening. This is the only choice that emphasizes this point.
5.
The best answer is A. It provides the clearest wording and the most logical transitional phrase for this
sentence. By saying "I had no qualms, of course, about enjoying the results of his labor," the narrator is
emphasizing the contrast between not wanting to work in the garden and enjoying harvesting the
vegetables that came from his father's garden.
6.
The best answer is G. The verb coaxed is the only choice that fits the context of the sentence. It suggests
the care with which the narrator's father grew his vegetables.
7.
The best answer is C. This is the only choice that uses the appropriate comparative adjective form
(more) and creates a parallel structure for this sentence: "much more fun to reap than to sow."
9.
The best answer is B. It provides the correct verb form and has the appropriate subject-verb agreement.
10.
The best answer is H. The phrase "of getting" is best here because it creates a parallel structure for all
three items in the series: "of touching," "of getting," "of patting down."
11.
The best answer is C because it provides the correct verb tense for both verbs in the underlined portion.
Using the present tense "I wish" is appropriate because the narrator is speaking about what he thinks in
the present time. The past perfect tense had spent is correct because it refers to a time in the past.
12.
The best answer is J. The writer's main focus in this paragraph is one special photograph that reminds
him of his love for his father and his father's love for him. Adding information about "many photographs
. . . of my father in various poses" takes the reader away from the main focus and disrupts the flow of the
paragraph.
13.
The best answer is B. It has the appropriate subject-verb agreement and results in a complete sentence.
14.
The best answer is F. In the first two paragraphs of the essay, the narrator reflects on his boyhood
memories growing up in India. Paragraph 1 introduces the topic of the father's avid interest in gardening.
Paragraph 2 logically follows by explaining that the narrator had little interest in his father's hobby.
Leaving Paragraph 2 where it is now, therefore, is the best organizational structure for this essay.
15.
The best answer is A because the essay shows how a value the writer holds as an adult (spending time
with his father) is very different from what he felt as a child (he would rather play with his friends).
Mathematics
1.
The lead of a screw is the distance that the screw advances in a straight line when the screw is turned
1 complete turn. If a screw is 2 inches long and has a lead of
get it all the way into a piece of wood?
A. 5
B.10
C.15
D.20
E.25
inch, how many complete turns would
2.
If xy = 144, x + y = 30, and x > y, what is the value of x – y ?
F. 4
G. 6
H.18
J.22
K.24
3.
Which of the following is the sine of
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
A in the right triangle below?
4.
Ding’s Diner advertised this daily lunch special: “Choose 1 item from each column—only $4.95!” Thus,
each daily lunch special consists of a salad, a soup, a sandwich, and a drink.
Salads
Soups
Sandwiches Drinks
cole slaw onion meat loaf
lettuce
tomato chicken
potato
hamburger
ham
tenderloin
milk
cola
coffee
tea
How many different daily lunch specials are possible?
F. 4
G. 14
H. 30
J.120
K.180
5.
The volume, V, of the right circular cone with radius r and height h, shown below, can be found using the
formula V =
r2h. A cone-shaped paper cup has a volume of 142 cubic centimeters and a height of
8.5 centimeters. What is the radius, to the nearest centimeter, of the paper cup?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D.12
E.16
6.
A boat departs Port Isabelle, Texas, traveling to an oil rig. The oil rig is located 9 miles east and 12 miles
north of the boat’s departure point. About how many miles is the oil rig from the departure point?
F. 3
G.
H. 15
J. 21
K.225
7.
In the figure below, ABC
DFE, BAC
FDE, D and F are on AB, AD
centimeters are as shown. What is the length of AD, in centimeters?
A.5
B.4
C.3
D.2
E.1
8.
Which of the following is a factor of the polynomial 2x2 – 3x – 5 ?
F. x – 1
G.2x – 3
H.2x – 5
J.2x + 5
K.3x + 5
FB, and distances in
9.
What is x, the second term in the geometric series
+x+
+
+…?
(Note: In a geometric series the ratio of any term to the following term is constant.)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
10.
What is the slope of any line parallel to the line 9x + 4y = 7 ?
F. –9
G.
H.
J. 7
K. 9
Answers to Mathematics Questions:
1.
The Answer is D. 20 is the correct answer. With every complete turn
inch of the screw goes into the
wood. So after 8 complete turns, 1 inch of the screw would be in the wood. So, x(
) = 2 . Multiplying by 8,
x = 8(2 ) = 8( ) = 20.
2.
The Answer H.. Solve the first equation for y, y =
. Then substitute
for y in the second equation: x +
= 30. Multiplying each side by x, x2 + 144 = 30x. Subtracting 30x from each side, x2 – 30x + 144 = 0. You
could solve this equation by factoring: (x – 24)(x – 6) = 0, and then setting each factor equal to zero, x = 24 or
x = 6. However x = 6 will not work (if x = 6 then y = 24, but the problem says that x > y). So, x = 24. Putting
this value of x back into either of the original equations, y = 6. Then x – y = 24 – 6 = 18.
3. The correct answer is C.
The correct answer is C. In a right triangle, the sine of one of the acute angles is the length of the leg opposite
that angle divided by the length of the hypotenuse.
4.
The correct answer is J. The correct response is 120. By the fundamental counting principle, the number of
different possible lunch specials is 3(2)(5)(4).
5. the correct answer is B.
This is the correct response. Solving for r :
= r2. So r =
=
4.
6.
The correct answer is H. The correct response is H. Using the Pythagorean theorem, 92 + 122 = c2.
So c = 92 + 122 = 81 + 144 = 225 = 15.
7. The correct answer is D.
2 is the correct answer.
DEF ~
ACB by AA (angle-angle similarity). Then, since AD = FB and
corresponding sides of similar triangles are proportional,
=
. Since you are shown that DF = 6,
48 = 24AD. Therefore, AD = 2.
8.
The correct answer is H. 2x2 – 3x – 5 = (x + 1)(2x – 5).
=
=
=
=
; 6(20) = 12(6 + 2AD); 120 = 72 + 24AD;
9.
The correct answer is C. You can set up the proportion:
=
or 4x =
. Then 4x =
or x =
.
10.
The correct answer is G. The correct answer is
line is
. Since 4y = –9x + 7, y =
x+
. So the slope of this
. Since parallel lines have the same slope, the slope of any parallel line must also be
.
Reading
SOCIAL SCIENCE: This passage is adapted from the chapter
1.
One of the author’s main points about
the legal concept of responsibility in
the passage is that:
A.the phrase “not guilty by reason of
insanity” has made our legal system
more efficient.
B.responsibility and guilt are legal
concepts, and their meanings can be
modified.
C.knowing right from wrong is a
simple matter of admitting the truth to
oneself.
D.people can become severely
disturbed without a word of warning to
anyone.
“Personality Disorders” in Introduction to Psychology, edited by
Rita L. Atkinson and Richard C. Atkinson (©1981 by Harcourt
Brace Jovanovich, Inc.).
How should the law treat a mentally disturbed
person who commits a criminal offense? Should individuals whose mental faculties are impaired be held
responsible for their actions? These questions are of
5 concern to social scientists, to members of the legal
profession, and to individuals who work with criminal
offenders.
Over the centuries, an important part of Western
law has been the concept that a civilized society should
10 not punish a person who is mentally incapable of con-
trolling his or her conduct. In 1724, an English court
maintained that a man was not responsible for an act if
“he doth not know what he is doing, no more than . . . a
wild beast.” Modern standards of legal responsibility,
15 however, have been based on the McNaghten decision
of 1843. McNaghten, a Scotsman, suffered the paranoid
delusion that he was being persecuted by the English
prime minister, Sir Robert Peel. In an attempt to kill
Peel, he mistakenly shot Peel’s secretary. Everyone
20 involved in the trial was convinced by McNaghten’s
senseless ramblings that he was insane. He was judged
not responsible by reason of insanity and sent to a
mental hospital, where he remained until his death. But
Queen Victoria was not pleased with the verdict—
25 apparently she felt that political assassinations should
not be taken lightly—and called on the House of Lords
to review the decision. The decision was upheld and
rules for the legal definition of insanity were put into
writing. The McNaghten Rule states that a defendant
30 may be found “not guilty by reason of insanity” only if
he were so severely disturbed at the time of his act that
he did not know what he was doing, or that if he did
know what he was doing, he did not know it was
2.
Based on the passage, the primary
purpose for the 1970s redefinition of
insanity proposed by the American
Law Institute was to:
F.eliminate the insanity defense from
American courtrooms.
G.more precisely define the concepts of
responsibility and intellectual capacity.
H.redefine legal insanity so that it
might include as many criminals as
possible.
J.apply the McNaghten Rule only to
trials involving cases of mistaken
identity.
3.
From information in the third and
fourth paragraphs (lines 35–58) it can
reasonably be inferred that the legal
definition of insanity was changed in
the 1970s after:
A.federal courts won a dispute with
state courts over a proposal made by
the American Law Institute.
B.the doctrine of “irresistible impulse ”
was found to contradict accepted
notions of justice.
C.proponents of the McNaghten Rule
had been using the insanity defense in
far too many murder trials.
D.several courts found that justice was
not always best served when the
McNaghten Rule was applied.
wrong.
The McNaghten Rule was adopted in the United
States, and the distinction of knowing right from wrong
remained the basis of most decisions of legal insanity
for over a century. Some states added to their statutes
the doctrine of “irresistible impulse,” which recognizes
40 that some mentally ill individuals may respond correctly when asked if a particular act is morally right or
wrong but still be unable to control their behavior.
35
During the 1970s, a number of state and federal
courts adopted a broader legal definition of insanity
45 proposed by the American Law Institute, which states:
“A person is not responsible for criminal conduct if at
the time of such conduct, as a result of mental disease
or defect, he lacks substantial capacity either to appreciate the wrongfulness of his conduct or to conform his
50 conduct to the requirements of the law.” The word substantial suggests that “any” incapacity is not enough to
avoid criminal responsibility but that “total” incapacity
is not required either. The use of the word appreciate
rather than know implies that intellectual awareness of
55 right or wrong is not enough; individuals must have
some understanding of the moral or legal consequences
of their behavior before they can be held criminally
responsible.
The problem of legal responsibility in the case of
60 mentally disordered individuals is currently a topic of
intense debate, and a number of legal and mental health
professionals have recommended abolishing the
insanity plea as a defense. The reasons for this recommendation are varied. Many experts believe that the
65 current courtroom procedures—in which psychiatrists
and psychologists for the prosecution and the defense
present contradictory evidence as to the defendant’s
mental state—are confusing to the jury and do little to
help the cause of justice. Some also argue that the
70 abuse of the insanity plea by clever lawyers has
allowed too many criminals to escape conviction.
Others claim that acquittal by reason of insanity often
leads to a worse punishment (an indeterminate sentence
4.
According to the explanation provided
in the fourth paragraph (lines 43–58),
use of the word appreciate in the
phrase “to appreciate the wrongfulness”
(lines 48–49) instead of know implies
which of the following?
F.The difference between right and
wrong is something people feel rather
than know, which makes deciding legal
responsibility difficult.
G.To know implies certainty, and
distinguishing right from wrong is
often a subjective matter in determining
legal responsibility.
H.The word appreciate suggests that an
action and that action’s implications
must be understood for there to be legal
responsibility.
J.An insane person would “know”
something the way a sane person would
“know” something, and be able to
appreciate that knowledge, too.
5.
The passage indicates that the
McNaghten case became the basis for
future decisions about legal insanity
because:
A.the House of Lords upheld the
verdict of the court despite
considerable political pressure.
B.there had been an increase in cases of
murder involving mistaken identity
arising from delusions.
C.McNaghten was unable to convince
the jury at his trial that he was
incoherent and insane.
D.McNaghten used a gun to commit
murder, thus aggravating the crime in
the jury’s mind.
to an institution for the criminally insane that may con75 fine a person for life) than being convicted and sent to
prison (with the possibility of parole in a few years).
Despite the current controversy, actual cases of
acquittal by reason of insanity are quite rare. Jurors
seem reluctant to believe that people are not morally
80 responsible for their acts, and lawyers, knowing that an
insanity plea is apt to fail, tend to use it only as a last
resort. In California in 1980, only 259 defendants (out
of approximately 52,000) were successful in pleading
not guilty by reason of insanity.
6.
The passage states that McNaghten
wanted to kill the English prime
minister because the Scotsman thought
that he:
F.would establish a confusing legal
precedent.
G.had been rejected by Peel’s
secretary.
H.would be better off in a mental
hospital.
J.had been wronged by the minister.
7.
According to the passage, one of the
reasons some mental health and legal
groups want to abolish the insanity
defense is that:
A.even clever lawyers are confused
about when to use and when not to use
it.
B.juries that must sort out conflicting
testimony become confused, and justice
suffers.
C.when it is invoked, even if the case is
won, the punishment often ends up
being too lenient.
D.innocent defendants are too often
being punished unfairly by
unsympathetic juries.
8.
The passage suggests that individuals
who use the insanity defense:
F.are not permitted to do so unless it
can be proved beforehand that they are
really insane.
G.should be tried, convicted, and
punished whether or not they are really
insane.
H.are legally responsible for their
actions even if a jury decides they are
not guilty.
J.might risk a lifelong confinement
even if acquitted by a jury, if the
acquittal is based on insanity.
9.
According to the passage, a lawyer
contemplating using insanity as a
defense for a client should do which of
the following?
A.Carefully evaluate using the defense,
since in actual practice it rarely works
B.Assemble for trial a team of expert
witnesses with a wide range of
viewpoints on mental illness
C.Make sure that the doctrine of
“irresistible impulse” is not used by the
prosecution in his or her client’s trial
D.Recommend that the client be
acquitted because he or she has been
judged criminally insane by a doctor
10.
One of the main points made in the last
paragraph is that insanity pleas were:
F.unconvincing to most juries in
California in 1980.
G.used in most cases in California in
1980.
H.often successful in California in
1980.
J.popular with lawyers in California in
1980.
Answers to Reading passage:
1.
The best answer is B because the passage focuses mainly on how standards of legal responsibility regarding a
mentally incompetent person who commits a crime have been modified over time. These changes in
responsibility also affect whether or not a person is guilty. To support the point that the legal concepts of
responsibility and guilt can be modified, the author first presents the information regarding the McNaghten
Rule in the second paragraph and then goes on in the fourth and fifth paragraphs to show that in the 1970s, "a
number of state and federal courts adopted a broader legal definition of insanity" (lines 43-44), which modified
a mentally ill person's legal responsibility. The passage further states that "the problem of legal responsibility
in the case of mentally disordered individuals is currently a topic of intense debate" (lines 59-61), which
indicates that additional modifications to the meanings of responsibility and guilt are likely
2.
The best answer is G. Support for this choice is found in the direct quote from the definition proposed by the
American Law Institute (lines 46-50). This 1970s redefinition of insanity set out to define more precisely when
"a person is not responsible for criminal conduct" and to explain that a person must have "substantial capacity
either to appreciate the wrongfulness of his conduct or to conform his conduct to the requirements of the law."
3.
The best answer is D. The inference in the third and fourth paragraphs is that the narrowness of the
McNaghten Rule led to modifications. "Some states added to their statutes the doctrine of 'irresistible
impulse,'" (lines 38-39), and later "a number of state and federal courts adopted a broader legal definition of
insanity" (lines 43-44). Both of these changes suggest that strictly applying the original McNaghten Rule could
in some cases be unjust.
4.
The best answer is H. Support for this choice is found in lines 53-58. This section of the passage explains the
use of the word appreciate, which implies that before persons can be held criminally responsible, they "must
have some understanding of the moral or legal consequences of their behavior."
5.
The best answer is A. Support for this choice is clearly stated in lines 24-29, which explains how Queen
Victoria, not pleased with the result of an insanity judgment in favor of a defendant named McNaghten, "called
on the House of Lords to review the decision. The decision was upheld and rules for the legal definition of
insanity were put into writing," and this came to be known as the McNaghten Rule, the basis for future
decisions regarding legal insanity.
6.
The best answer is J because lines 17-18 directly state that McNaghten thought "he was being persecuted by
the English prime minister."
7.
The best answer is B. Support for this choice is stated in the fifth paragraph: "a number of legal and mental
health professionals have recommended abolishing the insanity plea as a defense" (lines 61-63) because
"current courtroom procedures . . . are confusing to the jury" (lines 65-68).
8.
The best answer is J because the passage clearly states that "acquittal by reason of insanity often leads to a
worse punishment (an indeterminate sentence to an institution for the criminally insane)" (lines 72-74).
9.
The best answer is A. Support for this choice is clearly stated in lines 80-82: "lawyers, knowing that an
insanity plea is apt to fail, tend to use it only as a last resort."
10.
The best answer is F. The last paragraph confirms that "actual cases of acquittal by reason of insanity are
quite rare" and that in California in 1980, only a small percentage of defendants in these cases were successful.
Science
A student performed 2 studies to investigate the factors that
affect the germination of peony seeds.
1.
In general, the results of Study 1 suggest
that peony seeds that are placed in a petri
dish containing damp paper are most
likely to germinate when they are
maintained at which of the following
temperatures?
A.13°C
B.18°C
C.23°C
D.28°C
Study 1
Peony seeds were placed in dry containers. Some of the
containers were stored at 5°C for either 4, 6, 8, or 10 weeks.
The temperature and time periods were defined as the
storage temperature and the storage period, respectively.
The peony seeds were divided evenly so that there were
20 sets of 25 seeds. Twenty petri dishes were then prepared.
Each contained damp paper. Each set of seeds was placed in
a separate petri dish. Each petri dish was maintained at 1 of
4 temperatures for 30 days. The temperature and time
periods were defined as the germination temperature and
the germination period, respectively. Table 1 shows the
number of seeds that germinated in each dish.
2.
Suppose another set of 25 peony seeds
had been included in Study 2 and these
seeds had a storage temperature of 25°C
and a germination temperature of 18°C.
Based on the information provided, the
number of seeds that would have
germinated after being maintained for
30 days would most likely have been
closest to:
F. 0.
G. 8.
H.16.
J.24.
Table 1
Number of peony seeds that germinated when
Storage maintained at a germination temperature of:
period
(weeks) 13°C
18°C
23°C
28°C
0
4
6
8
10
0
0
3
7
15
0
2
8
22
24
0
0
6
18
21
0
0
0
0
1
3.
In Study 2, at the storage temperature of
5°C, as germination temperature
increased from 13°C to 28°C, the number
of seeds that germinated:
A.decreased only.
B.increased only.
C.decreased, then increased.
D.increased, then decreased.
Study 2
Peony seeds were placed in dry containers. The
containers were stored at various temperatures for 10 weeks.
The peony seeds were divided evenly so that there were
20 sets of 25 seeds. Twenty petri dishes were then prepared.
Each contained damp paper. Each set of seeds was placed in
a petri dish. The petri dishes were maintained at 1 of
4 temperatures for 30 days. Table 2 shows the number of
4.
Which of the following sets of seeds
were exposed to the same conditions
prior to being placed in the petri dishes?
F.The seeds from Study 1 that were
seeds that germinated in each dish.
stored for 8 weeks and the seeds from
Study 2 that were stored at 5°C
G.The seeds from Study 1 that were
stored for 8 weeks and the seeds from
Study 2 that were stored at 15°C
H.The seeds from Study 1 that were
stored for 10 weeks and the seeds from
Study 2 that were stored at 5°C
J.The seeds from Study 1 that were
stored for 10 weeks and the seeds from
Study 2 that were stored at 15°C
Table 2
Number of peony seeds that germinated
when maintained at a germination
temperature of:
Storage
temperature
(°C)
13°C
18°C
23°C
28°C
0
5
10
15
20
24
23
6
0
0
21
21
4
0
0
1
1
0
0
0
15
16
0
0
0
5.
A student stored 100 peony seeds at a
constant temperature for 10 weeks. The
student then divided the seeds into 4 sets
and maintained them as described in
Study 2. The results were as follows:
Tables adapted from Joel Beller, Experimenting with Plants. ©1985
by Joel Beller.
Germination
temperature (°C)
Number of seeds
that germinated
13
18
23
28
1
6
3
0
These seeds most likely had a storage
temperature of:
A. 0°C.
B. 5°C.
C.10°C.
D.15°C.
6.
The experimental designs of Study 2 and
Study 1 differed in that in Study 2:
F.storage temperature was held constant.
G.storage time was held constant.
H.germination temperature was varied.
J.germination time was varied
Answers to the Science passage:
1.
B is the best answer. In Study 1 more seeds germinated when they were maintained at a germination
temperature of 18°C than when they were maintained at any of the other 3 germination temperatures. So the
seeds are more likely to germinate when they are maintained at 18°C than when they are maintained at 13°C,
23°C, or 28°C.
2.
F is the best answer. In Study 2, when the storage temperature was equal to or greater than 15°C, zero seeds
germinated. So, the number of seeds that would have germinated after being maintained for 30 days would
most likely have been closer to 0 than to any other number.
3.
D is the best answer. In Study 2, 4 germination temperatures were used: 13°C, 18°C, 23°C, and 28°C. The
numbers of seeds that germinated at these 4 temperatures were 16, 23, 21, and 1, respectively. So, as
germination temperature increased from 13°C to 28°C, the number of seeds that germinated initially increased
(from 16 to 23) and then decreased (from 23 to 21 and from 21 to 1).
4.
H is the best answer. In Study 1, all of the seeds were stored at 5°C. In Study 2, all of the seeds were stored
for 10 weeks. So, seeds exposed to the same conditions in Studies 1 and 2 must have been stored at 5°C for
10 weeks
5.
C is the best answer. The conditions described in the question match the conditions used in Study 2. So, to
determine the storage temperature, look at the results from Study 2. In Study 2, at a storage temperature of
10°C and a germination temperature of 13°C, 0 seeds germinated. In Study 2, at a storage temperature of 10°C
and a germination temperature of 18°C, 6 seeds germinated. In Study 2, at a storage temperature of 10°C and a
germination temperature of 23°C, 4 seeds germinated. In Study 2, at a storage temperature of 10°C and a
germination temperature of 28°C, 0 seeds germinated. These results closely match the results given in the
question
6.
G is the best answer. In Study 1, 5 storages periods were used: 0, 4, 6, 8, and 10 weeks. In Study 2, 1 storage
period was used: 10 weeks. So, in Study 2, storage time was held constant. In Study 1, storage time was varied
Extra Sample ACT writing prompts:
1. A school board is concerned that the state’s requirements for core courses in mathematics,
English, science, and social studies may prevent students from taking important elective
courses like music, other languages, and vocational education. The school board would like
to encourage more high school students to take elective courses and is considering two
proposals. One proposal is to lengthen the school day to provide students with the opportunity
to take elective courses. The other proposal is to offer elective courses in the summer. Write
a letter to the school board in which you argue for lengthening the school day or for offering
elective courses during the summer. Explain why you think your choice will encourage
more students to take elective courses. Begin your letter: “Dear School Board:”
Source: www.act.org, 2009
2. Many successful adults recall a time in life when they were considered a failure at one
pursuit or another. Some of these people feel strongly that their previous failures taught them
valuable lessons and led to their later successes. Others maintain that they went on to achieve
success for entirely different reasons. In your opinion, can failure lead to success? Or is failure
simply its own experience? In your essay, take a position on this question. You may write
about either one of the two points of view given, or you may present a different point of
view on this question. Use specific reasons and examples to support your position.
Source: www.sparknotes.com, 2009
3. In some high schools, many teachers and parents have encouraged the administration to adopt a dress
code that sets guidelines for what students can wear in the school building. Some
teachers and parents support a dress code because they think it will improve the learning
environment in the school. Other teachers and parents do not support a dress code; they
think it restricts an individual student’s freedom of expression. In your opinion, should high
schools adopt dress codes for students?
Source: The Real ACT Prep Guide, 2008