1. The quality of ubiquity, as it relates to e-commerce, is illustrated by
A) the same set of standards being used across the globe.
B) the spread of plentiful, cheap information.
C) the enabling of commerce worldwide.
D) the availability of the Internet everywhere and anytime.
2. Which
of the following is not one of the unique features of e-commerce technology?
A) information density
B) transparency
C) richness
D) social technology
3. The act
of engaging consumers in a dialog that dynamically adjusts the experience to the
individual describes which dimension of e-commerce technology?
A) ubiquity
B) personalization/customization
C) richness
D) interactivity
4. The integration
of video, audio, and text marketing messages into a single marketing message
and consumer experience describes which dimension of e-commerce technology?
A) ubiquity
B) personalization/customization
C) richness
D) interactivity
5. The effort
required to locate a suitable product is called
A) price discrimination.
B) search costs.
C) menu costs.
D) shopping costs.
6. Information
density refers to the
A) complexity and richness of a message.
B) total amount and quantity of information delivered to consumers by merchants.
C) total amount and quantity of information available to all market participants.
D) amount of information available to reduce price transparency.
7. Selling the
same goods to different targeted groups at different prices is called
A) cost customization.
B) cost optimization.
C) price gouging.
D) price discrimination.
8. Information
________ exists when one party in a transaction has more information that is
important for the transaction than the other party.
A) transparency
B) asymmetry
C) complexity
D) discrimination
9. Varying a product's
price according to the supply situation of the seller is called ________
pricing.
A) menu
B) flexible
C) dynamic
D) asymmetric
10. Reducing the business
process layers in a distribution channel is called
A) disintermediation.
B) BPR.
C) market segmentation.
D) network effects.
12. EBay is
an example of
A) C2C e-commerce.
B) B2B e-commerce.
C) B2C e-commerce.
D) M-commerce.
13. Which
of the following businesses utilizes the content provider Internet business model?
A) Amazon.com
B) eBay.com
C) CNN.com
D) Motocross.com
14. Market
creators
A) save users money and time by processing online sales transactions.
B) provide a digital environment where buyers and sellers can establish prices for products.
C) create revenue by providing digital content over the Web.
D) sell physical products directly to consumers or individual businesses.
15. Which
of the following best illustrates the transaction fee revenue model?
A) EBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item.
B) Epinions receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating Web site where he or she
makes a purchase.
C) Flickr provides basic services for free, but charges a premium for advanced services.
D) Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads.
16. Which
of the following best illustrates the affiliate revenue model?
A) EBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item.
B) Epinions receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating Web site where he or she
makes a purchase.
C) Flickr provides basic services for free, but charges a premium for advanced services.
D) Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads.
17. Exposing an
individual to ads that are chosen and based on the recorded and analyzed online
behavior of the individual is referred to as
A) clickstream advertising.
B) behavioral targeting.
C) online profiling.
D) long-tail marketing.
18. Which
of the following statements about m-commerce is not true?
A) In 2010, m-commerce represented less than 10 percent of all e-commerce.
B) M-commerce is the fastest growing form of e-commerce.
C) M-commerce applications are especially popular in Europe, Japan, and South Korea.
D) In 2010, the top-grossing category of m-commerce was e-book sales.
19. You
are planning the requirements for a site tracking and reporting system for your company
Web site. Which of the following information requirements would not be essential for this
function?
A) number of unique visitors
B) pages visited
C) products purchased
D) secure credit card clearing
20. The type of
decision that can made by following a definite procedure is called a(n) ________
decision.
A) structured
B) unstructured
C) semistructured
D) procedural
21. Which
type of decision is deciding whether to introduce a new product line?
A) structured
B) unstructured
C) recurring
D) nonrecurring
Checking store inventory is an example of a(n) ________ decision.
A) semistructured
B) unstructured
C) structured
D) none of the above
22.
23. Simon's
description of decision making consists of which four stages?
A) planning, financing, implementation, and maintenance
B) planning, design, implementation, and maintenance
C) intelligence, design, choice, and implementation
D) intelligence, design, financing, and implementation
24. Mintzberg's
classification of managerial roles outlines which three main categories?
A) interpersonal, informational, and decisional
B) symbolic, decisional, and interpersonal
C) symbolic, interpersonal, and technical
D) technical, interpersonal, and informational
25. According to
Mintzberg, managers in their informational role act as
A) figureheads for the organization.
B) leaders.
C) nerve centers of the organization.
D) negotiators.
26. The concern
that data values of an information source fall within a defined range reflects
which quality dimension of information?
A) accuracy
B) integrity
C) validity
D) consistency
27. The concern
that the structure of data is consistent within an information source reflects
which quality dimension of information?
A) accuracy
B) integrity
C) validity
D) consistency
28. Which
types of decisions are automated for high-velocity decision-making?
A) highly-structured decisions
B) semi-structured financial decisions
C) unstructured financial decisions
D) all of the above
29. Measures
defined by management and used to internally evaluate the success of a firm's
financial, business process, customer, and learning and growth are called
A) benchmarks.
B) KPIs.
C) the balanced scorecard method.
D) BPM.
30. Which
of the following best describes the term business analytics?
A) the infrastructure for collecting and managing business data
B) the tools and techniques used to analyze and understand business data
C) software developed exclusively for business management
D) information systems involved in business decision making
31. Business
intelligence would be useful for analyzing and decision-making in which of the
following situations?
A) deciding what marketing techniques are most successful with high-value customers
B) identifying the most efficient methods for packing and delivering finished products to
destinations
C) forecasting the effect on sales given projected future variations in weather and other
environmental variables
D) all of the above
32. Which
of the following companies is not one of the top five producers of business intelligence
and analytics products?
A) Sun
B) Microsoft
C) SAP
D) IBM
33. A
pivot table is a
A) spreadsheet tool that displays two or more dimensions of data in a convenient format.
B) type of relational database.
C) chart tool that can rotate columnar data quickly and visually.
D) tool for performing sensitivity analysis.
34. Backward
sensitivity analysis software is used for
A) supply chain optimization.
B) historical what-if analysis.
C) goal seeking.
D) reverse forecasting.
35. As
discussed in the chapter case, the system used in South Carolina to estimate and map the
regional damage and losses resulting from an earthquake was a type of
A) CDSS.
B) GSS.
C) GIS.
D) GDSS.
36. An
essential component in the ability of GDSS to contribute to a collaborative environment is
A) allowing users to contribute simultaneously.
B) using structured methods for evaluating ideas.
C) identifying users informally.
D) the guarantee of user anonymity.
37. The information
system used by Caesar's Entertainment, which combines data from internal
TPS with information from financial systems and external sources to deliver reports such as
profit-loss statements, impact analyses, is an example of
A) DSS.
B) ESS.
C) CDSS.
D) MIS.
38. Which
of the following is not one of the five main analytic functionalities of BI systems for
helping decision makers understand information and take action?
A) production reports
B) business case archives
C) parameterized reports
D) forecasts, scenarios, and models
39. ________
are visual tools for presenting performance data in a BI system.
A) Dashboards and scorecards
B) Paramaterized reports
C) Reports and the drill-down feature
D) Scenarios and models
40. What
is the primary driving factor in firms to select domestic outsourcing firms to build
system solutions?
A) to take advantage of technical skills the firm does not have
B) to save labor costs
C) to avoid change management issues
D) all of the above
41. The four kinds
of structural organizational change enabled by IT, in order from least to most
risky, are
A) rationalization, automation, reengineering, and redesigning.
B) rationalization, automation, reengineering, and paradigm shift.
C) automation, rationalization, reengineering, and paradigm shift.
D) automation, redesigning, restructuring, and paradigm shift.
42. A
bank has reworked its mortgage application process so that several steps are handled by
computer software, and some steps are combined to reduce bottlenecks in processing. The goal
is to gradually improve its efficiency over time. This is an example of
A) automation.
B) rationalization of procedures.
C) paradigm shift.
D) business process redesign.
43. An
upscale organic foods grocery chain is implementing an information system that will
enable it to add same-day home delivery of groceries to its customers. This is an example of
A) automation.
B) rationalization of procedures.
C) paradigm shift.
D) business process redesign.
44. The entire system-building effort
is driven by
A) organizational change.
B) feasibility studies.
C) the information value chain.
D) user information requirements.
Systems design
A) describes what a system should do to meet information requirements.
B) shows how the new system will fulfill the information requirements.
C) identifies which users need what information, where, when and how.
45.
D) is concerned with the logical view of the system solution.
46. Transferring data
from a legacy system to the new system would be defined by which
category of system design specifications?
A) input
B) database
C) manual procedures
D) conversion
47. System
testing
A) includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system.
B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole in order to determine if discrete modules will
function together as planned.
C) tests each program separately.
D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.
48. Unit
testing
A) includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system.
B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole in order to determine if discrete modules will
function together as planned.
C) tests each program separately.
D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.
49. Acceptance testing
A) includes all the preparations for the series of tests to be performed on the system.
B) tests the functioning of the system as a whole in order to determine if discrete modules will
function together as planned.
C) tests each program separately.
D) provides the final certification that the system is ready to be used in a production setting.
50. In
a parallel conversion strategy, the new system
A) is tested by an outsourced company.
B) replaces the old one at an appointed time.
C) and the old are run together.
D) is introduced in stages.
51. The primary tool
for representing a system's component processes and the flow of data
between them is the
A) data dictionary.
B) process specifications diagram.
C) user documentation.
D) data flow diagram.
52. In
an object-oriented development framework for a university, how would the classes Degree,
Mathematics, and Physics be related?
A) Degree would be a sister class to Mathematics and Physics.
B) Degree is a superclass to Mathematics and Physics.
C) Mathematics and Physics would be ancestors to Degree.
D) Degree would be a subclass to Mathematics and Physics.
53. The oldest
method for building information systems is
A) component-based development.
B) prototyping.
C) object-oriented development.
D) the systems development lifecycle.
54. In
which type of systems building are the development stages organized so that tasks in one
stage are completed before the tasks in the next stage begun?
A) traditional
B) prototyping
C) RAD
D) all of the above
55. You
are an IT project manager for an advertising firm. The firm wishes to create an online
tool that will be used to survey focus group reactions to products in development. The most
important consideration for the firm is being able to offer the tool as soon as possible as a new
corporate service. However, you know that many of the senior managers that are business
owners of this project have difficulty in understanding technical or software development issues,
and are likely to change their requirements during the course of development. What development
method would be most successful for this project?
A) RAD
B) JAD
C) end-user development
D) prototyping
56. A
systems building approach in which the system is developed as successive versions, each
version reflecting requirements more accurately, is described to be
A) end-user oriented.
B) iterative.
C) object-oriented.
D) agile.
57. Compared
to the use of proprietary components, Web services promise to be less expensive
and less difficult to implement because of
A) their ability to integrate seamlessly with legacy systems.
B) the use of universal standards.
C) the ubiquity of the Internet.
D) the ability to reuse Web services components.
58. ________
development focuses on rapid delivery of working software by breaking a large
project into a series of small sub-projects that are completed in short periods of time using
iteration and continuous feedback.
A) Agile
B) Rapid application
C) Joint application
D) Object-oriented
59. On
average, private sector IT projects underestimated budget and delivery time of systems by
________ percent.
A) 30
B) 40
C) 50
D) 60
60. The major variables
in project management are
A) scope, time, cost, and performance.
B) scope, time, cost, quality, and risk.
C) time, cost, quality, performance, and risk.
D) time, cost, scope, and performance.
61. The ________
consists of systems analysts, specialists from the relevant end-user business
areas, application programmers, and perhaps database specialists.
A) project management group
B) project team
C) IS steering committee
D) corporate strategic planning committee
62. In
using a portfolio analysis to determine which IT projects to pursue, you would
A) select the most low-risk projects from the inventory.
B) limit work to those projects with great rewards.
C) select only low-risk, high-reward projects.
D) balance high-risk, high reward projects with lower-risk projects.
63. Which
method would you use is used to develop risk profiles for a firm's information system
projects and assets?
A) information systems plan
B) scoring model
C) portfolio analysis
D) CSF
64. Which
method is used to assign weights to various features of a system?
A) information systems plan
B) scoring model
C) portfolio analysis
D) CSF
65. You
have been hired by a pharmaceutical company to evaluate its inventory of systems and
IT projects. Which types of projects would be best avoided?
A) any high risk projects
B) any low-benefit projects
C) all high-risk, low benefit projects
D) none, any project might be beneficial
66. The principal
capital budgeting models for evaluating information technology projects are the
payback method, the accounting rate of return on investment (ROI), the net present value, and
the
A) future present value.
B) internal rate of return.
C) external rate of return.
D) ROPM.
67. ROPMs
value information systems similar to stock options, in that
A) ROPMs can be bought and sold like stocks.
B) a company's worth can be evaluated by the worth of their ROPMs.
C) initial expenditures on IT projects are seen as creating the right to pursue and obtain benefits
from the system at a later date.
D) expenditures and benefits from IT projects are seen as inflows and outflows of cash that can
be treated themselves like options.
68. The level
of a project's risk is influenced primarily by
A) project size, project structure, and the level of technical expertise.
B) project cost, project scope, and the implementation plan.
C) project scope, project schedule, and project budget.
D) project size, project scope, and the level of technical expertise.
69. Which
of the following is not one of the activities of the systems analyst?
A) acting as a change agent
B) communication with users
C) mediating between competing interest groups
D) formulation of capital budgeting models
70. Which
of the following types of projects is most likely to fail?
A) integration of an third-party automated payment system
B) replacement of middleware with Web services for legacy application integration
C) a business process redesign project that restructures workflow and responsibilities
D) redesigning a user interface to an online investment site
71. External
integration tools
A) enable a project to have sufficient technical support for project management and
development.
B) enable a project manager to properly document and monitor project plans.
C) portray a project as a network diagram with numbered nodes representing project tasks.
D) consist of ways to link the work of the implementation team with users at all organization
levels.
72. Which
type of planning tool shows each task as a horizontal bar whose length is proportional
to the time required to complete it?
A) PERT chart
B) Gantt chart
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
73. To
review a project's tasks and their interrelationships, you would use a
A) PERT chart.
B) Gantt chart.
C) either A or B.
D) neither A nor B.
74. As
discussed in the chapter, which of the following is not one of the immediate consequences
of inadequate software project management?
A) cost overruns
B) organizational conflict
C) time slippage
D) technical shortfalls
75. The most
widely used project management software today is
A) Vertabase.
B) IBM Project Guide.
C) Microsoft Project.
D) Microsoft Excel.