EOC REVIEW QUESTIONS Biology 1. An abiotic factor affecting the behavior and survival of such organisms as robins and violets is the A. population of rabbits B. length of daylight C. presence of harmful bacteria D. number of herbivores 2. Which group in the food web represented in the diagram would most likely have the greatest biomass? A. corn and oats B. hawks and owls C. mice and rats D. snakes and raccoons 3. The diagram shows nutritional relationships between organisms of various populations in a food web. Which organisms are classified as secondary consumers? A. hawk, grasshopper, and mouse B. rabbit, mouse, and snake C. grasshopper, frog, and rabbit D. snake, hawk, and frog 4. The diagram represents a food web. If this food web is represented as a pyramid of biomass, the level of the pyramid with the least amount of biomass would contain the A. grasshopper B. grass C. mouse D. hawk 5. Which is an abiotic factor that functions as a limiting factor for the autotrophs in the ecosystem represented in the diagram? A. grasshopper B. light C. fish D. hawk 6. An biotic factor affecting the behavior and survival of such organisms as robins and violets is the A. wind speed B. length of daylight C. presence of water D. number of herbivores 7. For many decades, certain areas of New York State have remained as hardwood forests containing predominantly oak and hickory trees. These forested areas will most likely A. B. C. D. remain indefinitely and not be affected by environmental influences. reach maturity and change in the near future. be destroyed by environmental changes and never return to their present forms. continue in their present forms unless affected by environmental factors. 8. What are the abiotic factors represented in this illustration of an aquarium? A. snail, gravel, and water B. snail, fish, and plants C. water, light, and gravel D. plants, light and water 9. Which event illustrates the interaction of an abiotic factor with a biotic factor in the environment? A. The lamprey eel survives by parasitizing trout. B. The temperature of water affects its oxygen level. C. The low light intensity of the forest affects the growth of pine trees. D. A gypsy moth caterpillar eats the leaves of an apple tree. 10. Which nutritional term best describes the following statement? Fish living deep in the ocean obtain energy by eating animal remains that sink to the bottom from upper water regions. A. B. C. D. Scavenging Mutualism Parasitism Saprophytism 11. The graph provides information about the population of deer in a given area between 1900 and 1945. Which statement identifies the most likely reason that the carrying capacity of the area to support deer decreased between 1925 and 1930? A. The deer population decreased in 1926. B. The number of predators increased between 1915 and 1925. C. The deer population became too large. D. An unusually cold winter occurred in 1918. 12. If two different bird species in the same habitat require the same type of nesting site, both species will most likely A. interbreed and share their nesting sites B. compete for the nesting sites C. change their nesting site requirements D. use the nests of other bird species 13. Select the term most closely associated with the statement: Certain fungi use dead organic matter for food. A. mutualism B. commensalism C. parasitism D. saprophytism 14. The chart shows the environmental functions that some organisms perform in a stable ecosystem. How would a decrease in the number of organisms that perform these functions most likely affect the ecosystem? A. The interactions between other organisms would stop immediately. B. The functions carried out by these organisms would no longer be necessary. C. The ecosystem would remain stable. D. The ecosystem would become less stable. 15. The diagram shows the relationships between organisms in and around a pond. One additional biotic factor needed to make this a stable ecosystem is the presence of A. producers B. herbivores C. decomposers D. consumers 16. Young rabbits that eat grass are sometimes eaten by raccoons, which also eat seeds and berries. Bacteria help to decompose the excretions of the raccoon. Which statement about these nutritional relationships is accurate? A. Bacteria are scavengers. B. Rabbits are secondary consumers. C. Raccoons eat only producers. D. Raccoons are both primary and secondary consumers. 17. In the diagram of the nitrogen cycle, letters A through E represent organisms carrying on a process at that particular point in the cycle. Letter B represents A. scavengers B. decomposers C. autotrophs D. carnivores 18. What is the major environmental factor limiting the numbers of autotrophs at great depths in the ocean? A. type of seafloor B. amount of light C. availability of minerals D. absence of biotic factors 19. Which statement best describes some organisms in the food web shown in the diagram? A. Minnows and fish are primary consumers. B. Algae and floating plants are decomposers. C. Aquatic crustaceans are omnivores. D. Raccoons, fish, and ducks are secondary consumers. 20. The letters in the diagram represent the processes involved in the water cycle. Which letter represents the process of transpiration? A. A B. B C. C D. D 21. Which term best describes the mosquito larvae? A. producer B. parasite C. carnivore D. consumer 22. The nitrogen cycle is most directly dependent upon the A. process of transpiration in autotrophs B. ability of consumers to move from place to place C. metabolic activities of soil bacteria D. evaporation of water from the Earth's surface 23. An ecosystem is represented in the diagram. This ecosystem will be self-sustaining if A. the organisms labeled A outnumber the organisms labeled B B. the organisms labeled A are equal in number to the organisms labeled B C. the type of organisms represented by B are eliminated D. materials cycle between the organisms labeled A and the organisms labeled B 24. In a pure culture, Paramecium caudatum grew and flourished. In a mixed culture with P. aurelia, all P. caudatum died within 16 days, while the P. aurelia survived. This observation illustrates A. saprophytism B. gradualism C. competition D. evolution 25. In an ecosystem, the more living requirements that two different species have in common, the more intense will be their A. ecological succession B. competition C. energy requirements D. evolution 26. Organisms that obtain and ingest organic molecules for their nutrition are classified as A. autotrophs B. producers C. algae D. heterotrophs 27. Select the term most closely associated with the statement: The roots of the mistletoe plant absorb nutrients from living oak trees, causing some damage to the tissues of the trees. A. mutualism B. commensalism C. parasitism D. saprophytism E. competition 28. Which change would usually increase competition among the squirrel population in a certain area? A. an epidemic of rabies among squirrels B. an increase in the number of squirrels killed on the highways C. an increase in the number of hawks that prey on squirrels D. a temporary increase in the squirrel reproduction rate 29. The diagram shows a marine biome. Autotrophs in zones A through C depend on the metabolic activities of other organisms for a continuing supply of A. water B. carbohydrates C. respiratory enzymes D. carbon dioxide 30. The table shows the type of food consumed by various animals in a community. Under normal conditions, which organisms in this community would have the greatest amount of stored energy? A. grasshoppers B. snakes C. plants D. hawks 31. Graphs of the data from laboratory investigations are used to A. observe general trends in the data B. make the observed data more accurate C. prevent errors in measuring data D. help change the original data tables 32. A new drug for the treatment of asthma is tested on 100 people. The people are evenly divided into two groups. One group is given the drug, and the other group is given a glucose pill. The group that is given the glucose pill serves as the A. experimental group B. limiting factor C. control D. indicator 33. The diagram shows nutritional relationships between organisms of various populations in a food web. Based on their ecological role, hawks and snakes may be classified as A. predators B. parasites C. autotrophs D. decomposers 34. A student set up a terrarium containing moist soil, several plants, and snails. The terrarium was placed in a sunny area. Which factor is not essential for the maintenance of the terrarium? A. a constant source of energy B. a living system capable of incorporating energy into organic compounds C. a cycling of materials between organisms and their environment D. the introduction of another heterotroph into the terrarium 35. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria live on the roots of leguminous plants in swellings called nodules. The bacteria synthesize nitrogen compounds that are used by the plants, and the plants provide moisture and nutrients for the bacteria. The interaction between the nitrogen-fixing bacteria and the leguminous plants is known as A. parasitism B. mutualism C. saprophytism D. commensalism 36. Which gas is excreted as a waste product of autotrophic nutrition in maple trees? A. nitrogen B. oxygen C. carbon dioxide D. methane 37. Which factor is not considered by ecologists when they evaluate the impact of human activities on an ecosystem? A. amount of energy released from the Sun B. quality of the atmosphere C. degree of biodiversity D. location of power plants 38. A new type of fuel gives off an excessive amount of smoke. Before this type of fuel is widely used, an ecologist would most likely want to know A. what effect the smoke will have on the environment B. how much it will cost to produce the fuel C. how long it will take to produce the fuel D. if the fuel will be widely accepted by consumers 39. The graph shows data on the average life expectancy of humans. The change in life expectancy from 1910 to 1970 is most likely the result of A. an increase in poor land-use management that affected the quality of the topsoil B. the introduction of technology that had a negative impact on air quality C. a decrease in natural checks, such as disease, on the population D. a widespread increase in the presence of lead and other heavy metals in water supplies 40. Which human activity is most responsible for the other three human activities? A. increasing demand for food B. increasing loss of farmland C. increasing human population D. increasing air pollution 41. The chart describes four classes of compounds. Which class of compounds includes the compound represented in the diagram below? 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 42. Which chemical formula represents a carbohydrate? A. CH4 B. C3H7O2N C. C12H22O11 D. CO2 43. A simple sugar such as glucose is classified as a A. monosaccharide B. polysaccharide C. disaccharide D. nucleotide 44. In a lipid synthesis reaction, the greatest number of fatty acid molecules that could combine with one glycerol molecule is A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6 45. Base your answer on the diagram of the chemical equation which represents a metabolic activity and your knowledge of biology. Molecule C belongs in the general class of substances known as A. vitamins B. minerals C. inorganic acids D. organic compounds 46. Plants store carbohydrates in the form of A. amino acids B. fatty acids C. starch D. nucleic acids 47. An element found in all proteins but not found in carbohydrates and lipids is A. carbon B. hydrogen C. oxygen D. nitrogen 48. Maltase is an enzyme that is not able to catalyze the synthesis of lipids because maltase A. has a specific active site B. is a small molecule C. cannot attach to ribosomes D. is a simple sugar 49. Which characteristic allows enzymes to function in a specific way? A. Enzymes are complex compounds composed of starch. B. Each enzyme has a characteristic shape. C. Enzymes are long, complex fats. D. Each enzyme is made up of four subunits. 50. Lipase, maltase, and protease are members of a group of catalysts known as A. enzymes B. hormones C. carbohydrates D. fats 51. A block of wood is measured, as shown in the diagram. What is the length of the wooden block in millimeters? A. 2.60 mm B. 26.0 mm C. 260 mm D. 2,600 mm 52. A sample of food containing one type of a large molecule was treated with a specific digestive enzyme. Nutrient tests performed on the resulting products showed the presence of simple sugars, only. Based on these test results, the original large molecules contained in the sample were molecules of A. protein B. glucose C. starch D. DNA 53. What usually results when an organism fails to maintain homeostasis? A. Growth rates within organs become equal. B. The organism becomes ill or may die. C. A constant sugar supply for the cells is produced. D. The water balance in the tissues of the organism stabilizes. 54. Every single-celled organism is able to survive because it carries out A. metabolic activities B. autotrophic nutrition C. heterotrophic nutrition D. sexual reproduction 55. The diagram shows the structural formulas of six molecules. Which two molecules are used in the synthesis of a lipid? A. A and D B. B and E C. B and F D. D and E 56. The results of an experiment to determine the composition of the cytoplasm of organism X are summarized in the data table. What percentage of the cytoplasm is composed of organic material? A. 15 B. 20 C. 22 D. 92 57. Base your answer on the chemical equation shown in the diagram and your knowledge of biology. A dipeptide is represented by A. A B. B C. C D. D 58. Small molecules are combined to form large molecules by the life function of A. regulation B. excretion C. transport D. synthesis 59. Which factor contributed most to the development of the cell theory? A. the discovery of many new species during the last century B. the development of advanced techniques to determine the chemical composition of substances C. the increase in knowledge concerning factors influencing the rate of evolution D. the improvement in microscopes and microscopic techniques during the last two centuries 60. An iodine test of a tomato plant leaf revealed that starch was present at 5:00 p.m. on a sunny afternoon in July. When a similar leaf from the same tomato plant was tested with iodine at 6:00 a.m. the next morning, the test indicated that less starch was present in this leaf than in the leaf tested the day before. This reduction in starch content occurred because starch was A. changed into cellulose B. transported out of the leaves through the stomates C. conducted downward toward the roots through vessels D. digested into simple sugars 61. Which diagram represents an organelle that contains the enzymes needed to synthesize ATP in the presence of oxygen? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 62. The transfer of energy from nutrients to ATP is accomplished most directly by the process of A. cyclosis B. diffusion C. cellular respiration D. glucose synthesis 63. In a bean plant, which reaction will release the greatest amount of energy? A. aerobic respiration of a glucose molecule. B. anaerobic respiration of a glucose molecule. C. synthesis of a chlorophyll molecule. D. hydrolysis of a cellulose molecule. 64. Which process is represented by the arrow in the diagram? A. growth B. respiration C. regulation D. excretion 65. Which term includes all the activities required to keep an organism alive? A. growth B. excretion C. metabolism D. nutrition 66. A solution of an enzyme normally found in the human body was added to a flask containing a solution of proteins in distilled water, and then the flask was stoppered. This mixture was then maintained at a temperature of 27°C and a pH of 7 for 48 hours. When the mixture was analyzed, the presence of amino acids was noted. Which substance would most likely be present in the solution in the flask after 48 hours? A. amino acids, only B. amino acids and polypeptides, only C. polypeptides, amino acids, and enzyme molecules D. polysaccharides, amino acids, and enzyme molecules 67. The diagram shows the structural formula of a molecule. Which statement best describes this molecule? A. It has the ability to control heredity. B. It has the ability to control reactions. C. It has a high energy content. D. It is involved in photosynthesis. 68. A simple sugar such as glucose is classified as a A. monosaccharide B. polysaccharide C. disaccharide D. nucleotide 69. In which process are simple materials chemically combined to form more complex materials? A. synthesis B. pinocytosis C. hydrolysis D. cyclosis 70.Humans breathe more rapidly during exercise than before it because during exercise the blood contains A. an increased level of oxygen B. a decreased number of red blood cells C. an increased level of carbon dioxide D. a decreased amount of hemoglobin 71. Microscopic examination of an animal cell reveals the presence of plasma membrane but no cell wall. Which additional structures would normally be present within this cell? A. starch grains B. centrioles C. chloroplasts D. large vacuoles 72. Which statement best describes the plasma membrane of a living plant cell? A. It selectively regulates the passage of substances into and out of the cell. B. It is composed of proteins and carbohydrates only. C. It has the same permeability to all substances found inside or outside the cell. D. It is a double protein layer with floating lipid molecules. 73. The graph shows the relative rates of action of four enzymes, A, B, C, and D. A solution with a pH of 6 contains enzyme C and its substrate. If a base is gradually added to this solution, the rate of action of enzyme C would most likely A. remain constant B. increase, then decrease C. decrease, then increase D. decrease constantly 74. The diagram illustrates a biochemical process that occurs in organisms. The substance labeled "catalyst" is also known as A. a hormone B. an enzyme C. an antibody D. an inorganic compound 75. A student has a hamburger, french fries, and soda for lunch. Which sequence represents the correct order of events in the nutritional processing of this food? A. B. C. D. ingestion -> digestion -> absorption > egestion digestion -> absorption -> ingestion > egestion digestion -> egestion -> ingestion > absorption ingestion -> absorption -> digestion > egestion 76. Which section is not part of the cell theory? A. Cells are the structural units in living things. B. Cells are the functional units in living things. C. New cells arise from preexisting cells. D. New cells have nuclei identical to those of preexisting cells. 77. Which substances are inorganic compounds? A. water and salts B. proteins and carbohydrates C. fats and oils D. enzymes and hormones 78.Compound X increases the rate of the reaction below. Compound X is most likely A. an enzyme B. a lipid molecule C. an indicator D. an ADP molecule 79. Organisms that obtain and ingest organic molecules for their nutrition are classified as A. autotrophs B. producers C. algae D. heterotrophs 80. Which statement best describes extracellular digestion? A. Large insoluble molecules are converted to small soluble molecules outside the cell. B. Large insoluble molecules are converted to small soluble molecules within the cell. C. Small soluble molecules are converted to large insoluble molecules outside the cell. D. Small soluble molecules are converted to large insoluble molecules within the cell. 81. Amino acid molecules are bonded together in a specific sequence on cell structures known as A. ribosomes B. vacuoles C. mitochondria D. centromeres 82. A student sees the image to the left when observing the letter "f" with the low-power objective lens of a microscope. Which diagram below most closely resembles the image the student will see after switching to high power? A. B. C. D. 1 2 3 4 83. The diagram represents the field of view of a compound light microscope. Three unicellular organisms are located across the diameter of the field. What is the approximate length of each unicellular organism? A. 250 μm B. 500 μm C. 1,000 μm D. 1,500 μm 84. A block of wood is measured, as shown in the diagram. What is the length of the wooden block in millimeters? A. 2.60 mm B. 26.0 mm C. 260 mm D. 2,600 mm 85. Iodine and Benedict's solution were both used to test for certain nutrients in a sample of food. If both tests were positive for the nutrients, the sample must contain A. polysaccharide and simple sugar B. protein and fat B. carbohydrate and lipid D. polysaccharide and protein 86. In plants glucose is converted to cellulose, and in human muscle cells, glucose is converted to glycogen. These processes are examples of which life activity? A. regulation B. respiration C. synthesis D. excretion 87. Which organelles outside the cell nucleus contain genetic material? A. lysosomes and cell walls B. chloroplasts and mitochondria C. endoplasmic reticula and cell membranes D. vacuoles and Golgi complex 88. Which technique enabled scientists in the 1800's to identify cell organelles? A. electron microscopy B. ultracentrifugation C. staining D. dissection 89. Which chemical formula represents a carbohydrate? A. CH4 B. C3H7O2N C. C12H22O11 D. CO2 The equation below summarizes the process that produces the flashing light of a firefly. 90. The molecule luciferin is broken down, and energy is released in the form of heat and light. In this process, luciferase functions as A. a reactant B. a substrate C. an inorganic catalyst D. an enzyme 91. Which phrase best describes cellular respiration, a process that occurs continuously in the cells of organisms? A. removal of oxygen from the cells of an organism. B. conversion of light energy into the chemical bond energy of organic molecules. C. transport of materials within cells and throughout the bodies of multicellular organisms. D. changing of stored chemical energy in food molecules to a form usable by organisms. 92. Which statement best describes one of the events taking place in the chemical reaction below? A. B. C. D. Energy is being stored as a result of aerobic respiration. Fermentation is taking place, resulting in the synthesis of ATP. Energy is being released for metabolic activities. Photosynthesis is taking place, resulting in the storage of energy. 93. What is a direct result of aerobic respiration? A. The potential energy of glucose is transferred to ATP molecules. B. The enzymes for anaerobic respiration are produced and stored in lysosomes. C. Lactic acid is produced in muscle tissue. D. Alcohol is produced by yeast and bacteria. 94. The energy an organism requires to transport materials and eliminate wastes is obtained directly from A. DNA B. starch C. hormones D. ATP 95. Which structure of the woody plant represented the organ of photosynthesis? A. A C. C B. B D. D 96.Which process produces the greatest quantity of ATP per molecule of glucose oxidized? A. aerobic respiration B. lactic acid production C. photosynthesis D. fermentation 97. Which process requires cellular energy? A. diffusion B. passive transport C. active transport D. osmosis 98. Which activity is illustrated in the diagram of an ameba? A. egestion B. synthesis C. respiration D. ingestion 99. The life function of transport in an organism directly involves those activities used to A. absorb and distribute materials. B. obtain and hydrolyze materials. C. release energy from food . D. produce cellular waste products. 100. Which enzyme regulates the reaction represented by the word equation: lipid + water = fatty acids + glycerol A. amylase B. lipase C. ATPase D. protease 101. Oxygen serves as a hydrogen acceptor during aerobic respiration. This results in the production of A. glucose B. lactic acid C. glycerol D. water 102. Which condition is necessary for an experiment to yield useful data? A. Similar results should be obtained when the experiment is repeated B. Only the expected results should be considered each time the experiment is performed. C. The hypothesis must be correct. D. The experimental period must be short. 103. A new concept that is tested in a scientific investigation is known as A. a theory B. the hypothesis C. in inference D. an observation 104. Which term best describes the interaction between the physical and living factors shown in the diagram? A. a biosphere B. an ecosystem C. a community D. a biome 105. What is the basic unit of structure and function in protists and monerans? A. cell B. tissue C. organ D. system 106. Plants store carbohydrates in the form of A. amino acids B. fatty acids C. starch D. nucleic acids 107.An element found in all proteins but not found in carbohydrates and lipids is A. carbon B. hydrogen C. oxygen D. nitrogen 108.Maltase is an enzyme that is not able to catalyze the synthesis of lipids because maltase A. has a specific active site B. is a small molecule C. cannot attach to ribosomes D. is a simple sugar 109. Which characteristic allows enzymes to function in a specific way? A. Enzymes are complex compounds composed of starch. B. Each enzyme has a characteristic shape. C. Enzymes are long, complex fats. D. Each enzyme is made up of four subunits. 110. Lipase, maltase, and protease are members of a group of catalysts known as A. enzymes B. hormones C. carbohydrates D. fats 111. Base your answer on the reactions shown in the graphic. The X in each reaction represents various A. energy sources B. final products C. reactants D. enzymes 112. If the chemical reaction shown in the diagram takes place in an organism that requires sunlight to produce substance X , the organism must be A. a heterotroph B. an annelid C. an autotroph D. a fungus 113. The transfer of energy from nutrients to ATP is accomplished most directly by the process of A. cyclosis B. diffusion C. cellular respiration D. glucose synthesis 114. The products of aerobic respiration in green plants are ATP and A. lactic acid and oxygen B. glucose and oxygen C. carbon dioxide and water D. carbon dioxide and ethyl alcohol 115. What is the basic unit of structure and function in arachnids and insects? A. cell B. tissue C. organ D. system 116. Which diagram represents an organelle that is the “packaging center” of the cell? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 117. Which scientists developed the double helix model of the DNA molecule? A. Watson and Crick B. Hardy and Weinberg C. Darwin and Lamarck D. Weismann and Miller 118. Amino acid molecules are bonded together in a specific sequence on cell structures known as A. ribosomes B. vacuoles C. mitochondria D. centromeres 119. In addition to a phosphate group, a DNA nucleotide could contain A. thymine and deoxyribose B. uracil and deoxyribose C. thymine and ribose D. uracil and ribose 120.In addition to a phosphate group, a RNA nucleotide could contain A. thymine and deoxyribose B. uracil and deoxyribose C. thymine and ribose D. uracil and ribose 121. Fermentation is anaerobic respiration. The fermentation of yeast normally yields A. lactic acid, CO2, and 2 ATP B. alcohol, CO2, and 36 ATP C. alcohol, CO2, and 2 ATP D. CO2, H2O, and 36 ATP 122. In a grasshopper, the movement of glucose from the digestive tract to muscle cells is most directly a result of A. ingestion and digestion B. absorption and circulation C. anaerobic respiration D. protein synthesis 123.Which gas is excreted as a waste product of autotrophic nutrition in maple trees? A. nitrogen B. oxygen C. carbon dioxide D. methane 124. In the setup shown in the diagram, which color light will cause the plant to produce the smallest number of gas bubbles? A. red B. orange C. blue D. green 125. Base your answer on the diagram which represents some of the events that take place in a chloroplast and on your knowledge of biology. Gas E would most likely represent A. CO2 B. N2 C. O2 D. H2O 126. All the black-footed ferrets inhabiting a given forest constitute a A. population B. community C. biome D. biosphere 127. The graph illustrates the growth curves for two types of bacteria (A and B) under differing pH values. Bacteria A grows best in a medium that is A. slightly acid B. neutral C. slightly basic D. very basic 128.Which substance is an organic compound? A. water B. table salt C. Ammonia D. insulin 129.Which organelles are present in plant cells only? A. lysosomes and mitochondria B. chloroplasts and cell walls C. endoplasmic reticula and cell membranes D. vacuoles and Golgi Apparatus 130. An insect’s exoskeleton is made of a carbohydrate known as A. glycogen B. chitin C. cellulose D. glycerol 131.Amino acid molecules are bonded together in a specific sequence on cell structures known as A. ribosomes B. vacuoles C. mitochondria D. centromeres 132. Which organelles outside the cell nucleus contain digestive enzymes? A. lysosomes B. chloroplasts C. endoplasmic reticula D. Golgi Apparatus 133. In an ecosystem, the more living requirements that two different species have in common, the more intense will be their A. ecological succession B. competition C. energy requirements D. evolution 134. Which statement best describes an energy pyramid? A. There is more energy at the consumer level than at the producer level. B. There is more energy at the producer level that at the consumer level. C. There is more energy at the secondaryconsumer level than at the primaryconsumer level. D. There is more energy at the decomposer level than at the consumer level. 135.In a plant, which structure enables photosynthesis to take place? A. stem B. pollen tube C. stamen D. leaf 136. Which cell organelle can best be compared to cleanup crew for the cell? A. Ribosomes B. Mitochondria C. Endoplasmic Reticulum D. Lysosomes 137. The main components of the plasma membrane are: A. Proteins B. Cytokines C. Phosphates D. Phospholipids 138. A student is observing a cell using a microscope. Which of the following observations about the cell indicates that it must be part of a plant cell? A. its well-defined nucleus B. its water filled vacuole C. its boxlike structure D. its cell membrane 139. Cells are like miniature factories. Inside the cell are small structures which carry out the various functions of the cell. These structures inside the cell are known as _________________. A. Organs B. Organelles C. Protoplasm D. Intracells 140. Which sequence of terms is in the correct order from simplest to most complex? A. cells-tissues-organs-organ systems B. tissues-organisms-cells-organ systems C. cells-tissues-organ systems-organs D. organs-organisms-organ system-cells 141. A cell is placed in a beaker containing a hypertonic solution. What happens to the cell? A. the cell gains water B. the cell shrinks C. the cell gains water D. the cell is lysed 142. In the lungs, the movement of carbon dioxide out of the cells and oxygen into cells can best be explained by which of the following processes? A. active transport B. diffusion C. endocytosis D. osmosis 143. While cleaning a saltwater aquarium, students placed the aquarium plants in a container of distilled water. What effects will this leave on the plants? A. the plant cells will swell B. the plant cells will shrink C. the plant cells will separate D. the plant cells will remain the same 144. Which of these describes the function of the cell membrane? A. Maintaining homeostasis B. Cell division C. Producing energy D. Protein synthesis 145. An enzyme-substrate complex may result from the interaction of molecules of: A. glucose and lipase B. proteins and protease C. fats and amylase D. sucrose and maltase 146.Which process is illustrated in the diagram? A. crossing-over B. nondisjunction C. sex determination D. independent assortment 147. Which diagram represents a pair of homologous chromosomes? A. B. C. D. 1 2 3 4 148.Some basic principles of heredity were established when Gregor Mendel crossed large numbers of pea plants and then A. mapped the loci of various genes B. analyzed the mathematical ratios of certain traits in the offspring C. microdissected the chromosomes of the offspring D. determined how many genes had mutated 149. The diagram represents a pair of homologous chromosomes. Which allelic combination represents the heterozygous condition for a trait? A. B. C. D. Aa BB aa aB 150.Random separation and distribution of homologous chromosomes occurs during A. cleavage B. mitotic cell division C. fertilization D. meiotic cell division 151. The basic principles of genetics were established in the 19th century by A. Francis Crick B. Charles Darwin C. Jean Lamarck D. Gregor Mendel 152. In the diagram of two homologous chromosomes, what do R and r represent? A. two different alleles B. two gametes that can form a zygote C. two identical alleles D. two chromosomes in a hybrid pea plant 153.Random separation and distribution of homologous chromosomes occurs during A. cleavage B. mitotic cell division C. fertilization D. meiotic cell division 154.Gregor Mendel developed some basic principles of heredity based on his A. dissection of the flowers of both tall and short African violet plants B. microscopic observation of the nuclei of fruit fly cells C. biochemical analysis of DNA produced in the F2 generations of roan cattle D. mathematical analysis of the offspring produced by crossing pea plants 155.In minks, the gene for brown fur (B) is dominant over the gene for silver fur (b). Which set of genotypes represents a cross that could produce offspring with silver fur from parents that both have brown fur? A. Bb ×Bb B. C. D. BB ×bb BB ×Bb Bb × bb 156.Heterozygous A. B. C. D. Means ___________. Information about heritable traits. Unique/different molecular forms of a gene that are possible at a given locus. Crossing over results. Having a pair of identical alleles at a gene. 157. Phenotype is _______________. A. Observable (expressed, can physically see) heritable traits. B. Unique/different molecular forms of a gene that are possible at a given locus. C. Genetic recombination results. D. Particular genes carried by an individual. 158. A. B. C. D. A recessive allele _____________. is represented by a capital letter, such as “A”. is represented by a lower case letter, such as “a”. has the ability to mask other traits. both a and c. 159.Hybrid offspring A. Is when offspring of genetic crosses inherit a pair of identical alleles for a trait. B. Is when offspring of genetic crosses inherit a pair of nonidentical alleles for a trait. C. Does not represent a pure bred organism. D. Both A & C E. Both B & C 160.Males have ___________. A. One X sex chromosome and one Y sex chromosome. B. Two Y sex chromosomes. C. Two X sex chromosomes. D. Only one sex chromosome which would be X. E. Only one sex chromosome which would be Y. 161.In poultry, feathered shank (F) is dominant over clean shank ( f ). If the hen's genotype is represented by ff and the rooster's genotype is Ff, what percentage of their offspring would be expected to have feathered shanks? A. 0% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100% 162.If the pattern of inheritance for a trait is complete dominance, then an organism heterozygous for the trait would normally express A. the recessive trait, only B. the dominant trait, only C. a blend of the recessive and dominate traits D. a phenotype unlike that of either parent 3. In certain rats, black fur is dominant over white fur. If two rats, both heterozygous for fur color, are mated, their offspring would be expected to have A. four different genotypes and two different colors B. two different genotypes and three different colors C. three different genotypes and two different colors D. three different genotypes and three different colors 4. Base your answer on the diagram and your knowledge of biology. Which process results in the formation of chromatid Z from chromatids A and B? A. intermediate inheritance B. nondisjunction C. codominance D. crossing-over 5. The principles of dominance, segregation, and independent assortment resulted from studies by Mendel of the inheritance of traits in A. four-o'clock flowers B. roan cattle C. fruit flies D. pea plants Day 43 Starter 1. The core of a virus may contain either DNA or RNA. To identify which nucleic acid is present, a biochemist could chemically analyze the virus for the presence of A. guanine B. ribose C. cytosine D. phosphate 2. In watermelon plants, the allele for solid green fruit (G) is dominant over the allele for striped fruit (g). Pollen from a flower of a homozygous green watermelon plant is used to pollinate a flower from a heterozygous green watermelon plant. What percent of the offspring of this cross will bear striped watermelons? A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 100% 3. The diagram represents human gametes. Which statement best describes the fertilized egg that would result if this sperm cell and egg cell unite? A. It would contain 44 chromosomes and develop into a male. B. It would contain 44 chromosomes and develop into a female. C. It would contain 46 sex chromosomes and develop into a female. D. It would contain 46 sex chromosomes and develop into a male. 4. In humans, normal color vision (N) is dominant over color blindness (n). A man and woman with normal color vision produced two colorblind sons and two daughters with normal vision. Choose from the diagram the correct parental genotypes. A. XNY and XNXN B. XNY and XNXn C. XnY and XNXN D. XnY and XnXn 5. There are three alleles for the ABO blood group in humans. Why are there only two alleles normally present in any individual? A. The alleles for the ABO blood group always segregate independently during meiosis. B. Each parent contributes only one allele for the ABO blood group to the offspring. C. Every gene for the ABO blood group must be recessive. D. The alleles that determine the ABO blood group are on the X-chromosome. Day 44 Starter 1. After gametogenesis takes place, which process restores the diploid chromosome number of the species for the next generation? A. oogenesis B. mitosis C. fertilization D. meiosis 2. In humans, which cell is produced most directly by mitotic cell division? A. a sperm cell B. a skin cell C. an egg cell D. a zygote 3. Which diagram below represents an organism that uses external fertilization for the production of offspring? 1.1 A. B. C. D. 1 2 3 4 4. Asexual reproduction of diploid organisms normally results in new organisms that contain cells with A. more chromosomes than are found in the cells of the parent B. the n number of chromosomes C. the 2n number of chromosomes D. fewer chromosomes that are found in the cells of the parent 5. Each body cell of a chimpanzee contains 48 chromosomes. How many chromosomes would normally be present in a gamete produced by this chimpanzee? A. 24 B. 36 C. 48 D. 96 Day 45 Starter 1. Which diagram below represents binary fission? A. B. C. D. 1 2 3 4 2. Which process is represented by the series of diagrams? A. gametogenesis B. fertilization C. mitotic cell division D. meiotic cell division 3. The diagram represents some stages in the development of an embryo. Which stage represents a zygote? A. B. C. D. A B C D 4. Warts result when certain viruses cause skin cells to reproduce at a high rate. This rapid reproduction of skin cells is due to the viruses stimulating A. cellular digestion B. mitotic cell division C. synthesis processes D. meiotic cell division 5. Which statement is true regarding plants produced by vegetative propagation? A. They normally exhibit only dominant characteristics. B. They normally have the monoploid number of chromosomes. C. They normally obtain most of their nourishment from the seed. D. They are normally genetically identical to the parent. Day 46 Starter 1. In many aquatic vertebrates, reproduction involves external fertilization. What is a characteristic of this type of fertilization? A. Gametes fuse outside the body of the female. B. Gametes fuse in the moist reproductive tract of the female. C. Offspring produced have twice as many chromosomes as each of the parents. D. Offspring produced have only half the number of chromosomes as each of the parents. 2. Which is a true statement about the process illustrated in the diagram? A. It is the beginning of embryonic development and occurs only in a freshwater environment. B. It is the beginning of regeneration and occurs only within the female. C. It is the beginning of embryonic development and occurs within the female or in water. D. It is the beginning of ovule formation and occurs on the stigma of flowers. 3. The diagram shows a sequence of events. The sequence of events from rabbits to zygote is known as A. sexual reproduction B. fission C. sporulation D. vegetative propagation 4. Most cells in the body of a fruit fly contain eight chromosomes. How many of these chromosomes were contributed by each parent of the fruit fly? A. 8 B. 2 C. 16 D. 4 5. Base your answer on the diagram of some stages in the development of an embryo and on your knowledge of biology. Diagram D illustrates a A. late blastula stage B. gastrula C. fetus D. stage of meiosis Day 47 Starter 1. Which is a true statement about people with the genotype IAIB for blood type? A. They have two alleles that are codominant. B. They exhibit a type O phenotype. C. They are homozygous for blood type A. D. They can have only type O children. 2. The diagrams represent paired double stranded chromosomes that contain genes indicated by letters. When does the process illustrated by the diagrams occur? A. in meiosis, after disjunction of homologous chromosomes B. in mitosis, after replication of chromosomes C. in meiosis, during crossing-over of homologous chromosomes D. in mitosis, while chromosomes are attaching to spindle fibers 3. In chickens, rose comb (R) is dominant over single comb (r). When a heterozygous rose-combed rooster is mated with several single-combed hens, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring? A. 100% rose-combed B. 100% single-combed C. 75% rose-combed and 25% single-combed D. 50% rose-combed and 50% single-combed 4. A man with normal color vision married a woman with normal color vision whose father was colorblind. Their chance of having a colorblind daughter is A. 0% B. 25% C. 75% D. 100% 5. Genes for two different traits that are located next to each other on the same chromosome would most likely be A. inherited separately B. codominant C. recombined D. inherited together Day 48 Starter 1. The process of cleavage leads most directly to the formation of a A. zygote B. gonad C. gamete D. blastula 2. Normal mitotic cell division results in each daughter cell having A. half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. B. the same number and kinds of chromosomes as the parent cell C. the same number but different kinds of chromosomes as the parent cell D. twice the number of chromosomes as the parent cell 3. Which reproductive adaptation is characteristic of most fish and amphibians? A. Their gametes always fuse in the moist reproductive tract of the female. B. They only produce nonmetals gametes. C. They produce small numbers of eggs. D. Their zygotes are formed in the external environment. 4. In the diagrams of mitotic cell division, which structure is present in diagram B but not in diagram A? A. centriole B. cell plate C. cell membrane D. cytoplasm 5. In animals, which condition is necessary for external fertilization? A. the presence of carbon dioxide B. a moist environment C. a motile egg cell D. the absence of light Day 49 Starter 1.Base your answer on the diagram which represents a biochemical process that occurs in a cell and your knowledge of biology. The organelle labeled Z represents a A. ribosome B. golgi body C. mitochondrion D. nucleus 2. In many placental mammals, reproduction involves internal fertilization. What is a characteristic of this type of fertilization? A. Gametes fuse outside the body of the female. B. Gametes fuse in the moist reproductive tract of the female. C. Offspring produced have twice as many chromosomes as each of the parents. D. Offspring produced have only half the number of chromosomes as each of the parents. 3. Two genes for two different traits located on the same chromosome are said to be A. homozygous B. independently assorted C. mutagenic agents D. linked 4. The principles of dominance, segregation, and independent assortment resulted from studies by Mendel of the inheritance of traits in A. four-o'clock flowers B. roan cattle C. fruit flies D. pea plants 5. A colorblind man married a woman with normal color vision whose mother was colorblind. Their chance of having a normal vision daughter is A. 0% B. 25% C. 75% D. 100% Day 50 Starter 1. In cats, a pair of X-chromosomes will produce a female, while an X- and a Y-chromosome will produce a male. Fur color is controlled by a single pair of alleles. The alleles for orange fur and for black fur are located on the Xchromosome, only. Tortoiseshell cats have one allele for orange fur and one for black fur. Which statement concerning fur color in cats is true? A. Only female cats can be tortoiseshell. B. Only male cats can be tortoiseshell. C. Males need two alleles to have orange fur. D. Males need two alleles to have black fur. 2. A diploid cell of a normal human male contains A. 22 autosomes and two Ychromosomes B. 22 pairs of autosomes and two Y-chromosomes C. 22 pairs of autosomes, one Xchromosome, and one Ychromosome D. 22 autosomes and two Xchromosomes 3. The diagram represents stages in the development of a chordate. Which process is represented in diagram 4? A. fertilization B. gametogenesis C. mitosis D. meiosis 4. In animals that reproduce sexually, which is the correct sequence for the development of a new organism? A. gametes - zygote - fertilization embryo B. fertilization - zygote - gametes embryo C. zygote - gametes - fertilization embryo D. gametes - fertilization - zygote embryo 5. A cell with a diploid chromosome number of 12 divided two times, producing four cells with six chromosomes each. The process that produced these four cells was most likely A. internal fertilization B. external fertilization C. mitotic cell division D. meiotic cell division Day 51 Starter 1. Potatoes, strawberries, and seedless oranges are generally produced by an asexual means of reproduction known as A. sporulation B. budding C. binary fission D. vegetative propagation 2. Complex organisms produce sex cells that unite during fertilization, forming a single cell known as A. an embryo B. a gamete C. a gonad D. a zygote 3. Which statement best explains the significance of meiosis in the evolution of a species? A. Meiosis produces eggs and sperm that are alike. B. Meiosis provides for chromosomal variation in the gametes produced by an organism. C. Equal numbers of eggs and sperm are produced by meiosis. D. The gametes produced by meiosis ensure the continuation of any particular species by asexual reproduction. 4. The production of motile monoploid gametes takes place in A. ureters B. ovaries C. male gonads D. gastric glands 5. During meiotic cell division, the process in which homologous pairs of chromosomes separate and move apart is known as A. internal fertilization B. regeneration C. binary fission D. disjunction Day 52 Starter 1. Which organism is most likely to use anaerobic respiration? A. bird B. moss C. tree D. yeast 2. What process produces many variations in phenotypes? A. Independent assortment B. Asexual reproduction C. Regeneration D.Cloning 3. A plant species lives in an area with limited sunlight. Which physical adaptation would be most useful to the plant? A. colorful flowers B. large leaves C. deep roots D. thin cuticle 4. RNA and DNA are which type of organic compound? A. carbohydrate B. lipid C. nucleic acid D. protein 5. What advantage do sexually reproducing organisms have over asexually reproducing organisms? A. genetic variation B. genetic stability C. increased fertilization rate D. increased reproductive rate Day 37 Starter 1. In humans, which cell is produced most directly by mitotic cell division? A. a sperm cell B. a skin cell C. an egg cell D. a zygote 2. The individual strands of a doublestranded chromosome are joined together by a A. cilium B. cyton C. chromatid D. centromere 3. The diagrams represent a cell process. If the cell in Diagram 1 contains 4 chromosomes, what is the total number of chromosomes in each cell in Diagram 3? A. 8 B. 2 C. 16 D. 4 4. Which process is represented by the series of diagrams? A. gametogenesis B. fertilization C. mitotic cell division D. meiotic cell division 5. Warts result when certain viruses cause skin cells to reproduce at a high rate. This rapid reproduction of skin cells is due to the viruses stimulating A. cellular digestion B. mitotic cell division C. synthesis processes D. meiotic cell division EOC Review Open Ended Questions 1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10. 11. 12. Plants store carbohydrates as what? The two top receiving chambers of the heart. Enzymes found in the mouth that digest sugar? Why is water considered inorganic? “ose” at the end of a word denotes a what? The organ that produces insulin. Proteins that speed up chemical reactions in the body? Animal-like protists are called what? Plant-like protists are called what? Name the two types of fungus-like protists. “ase” at the end of a word denotes a what? Whip-like structure in some unicellular organisms used for mobility. 13. 14. 15. 16. 17. 18. 19. 20. 21. 22. Developed the double helix model of DNA. What is the exoskeleton of an arthropod composed of? The most posterior segment of an arthropod. Two cell organelles outside the nucleus that has its own DNA. First man to pen the term “cell.” Number of chromosomes in a normal human. Pairs of chromosomes having genes for different traits. Sleep-like state of animals in extreme heat as in a desert. Where segmented worms store food before its ground in their body. In humans, which cells are produced by meiotic cell division? 23. 24. 25. 26. 27. 28. 29. 30. 31. 32. 33. This cell organelle is the site of photosynthesis. Movement of a substance from high to low concentration. The movement of a substance from low to high concentration requiring energy The energy molecule in the body. The diffusion of water. The Father of Genetics. This organ mixes food with hydrochloric acid and gastric juices making it a soup mixture. Tube that carries food from the mouth to the stomach. Learned behavior by constant practice. Exchange of information between organisms. Instinctive seasonal movement of animals 34. 35. 36. 37. 38. 39. 40. 41. 42. 43. An inherited behavior in animals. Learned behavior by trying something to see if it works to get what the animal wants. ½ the number of chromosomes. Pumping chambers of the heart. A change in the amino acid sequence of DNA. Name the four types of blood in humans. Gregor Mendel did his work on what organisms? Where absorption takes place in digestive system? Helps digestion by storing bile. A mutation may be passed on to future generations if it occurs within what specialized cells? 45. Invertebrates does not possess what? 46. Innate behavior by which animals form a social ranking within a group. 47. Vestigial organ found attached to the large intestines in humans. 48. A learned behavior that occurs by using past experience to respond to a new situation. 49. What is the chemical formula for glucose? 50. The level with the greatest biomass in an energy pyramid. 51. An animal that feeds exclusively on herbivores. 52. Another name for a dependent variable. 53. Another name for an independent variable. 54. Amino acids are held together by what kind of bond? 56. An organism that is able to make its own food. 57. An organism that is not able to make its own food. 58. What is the simple sugar found in RNA? 59. The part of an experiment that is not changed and is used for comparison. 60. Part of the digestive system in segmented worms where absorption occurs. 61. Hair-like projections that line the underside of many unicellular organisms. 62. Invented the first microscope. 63. State of reduced metabolism occurring when animals sleep during the winter. 64. Structures located underneath an earth worm used for mobility. 66. Food grinding organ in a segmented worm. 67. What kind of circulatory system does the segmented worm have? 68. These vessels carry blood away from the heart. 69. The vein where oxygenated blood occurs. 70. Artery where deoxygenated blood occur. 71. Gland where steroids and adrenalin is made. 72. Gland that produces estrogen in females. 73. Gland that produces testosterone in males. 74. The master gland that controls the other glands in the endocrine system. 75. The large bone found in birds that provides strength for flight. 76. The egg laying mammals are known as what? 77. Kangaroos are what type of mammals? 79. 80. 81. 82. 83. 84. 85. 86. An organism that eats only producers. An organism that feed exclusively on other consumers. Organisms that feed on dead or decaying animals. Organisms that feed on plants and animals (consumers and producers). A word that means “living together.’ A symbiotic relationship where both benefit. A symbiotic relationship where one benefit and the other is neither helped nor harmed. A symbiotic relationship where one benefit at the expense of the other.