Practice Final Exam – Biology 30
Multiple Choice. Please select the BEST response. (1 mark)
1. The plasma membrane (cell membrane)
6. Which of the following occurs in meiosis
is:
but NOT mitosis?
a. Single layered membrane that
a. Crossing over
surrounds the nucleus of the cell
b. Segregation
b. A double-layer of protein enclosing
c. Formation of gametes
the plasma
d. All of the above
c. A phospholipid bilayer surrounding
e. Only A and C
the cell
d. A membrane composed of tiny shelves
7. During which stage of cell division does
or cristae
cytokinesis occur?
a. Telophase
2. Mitosis is
b. Anaphase
a. formation of sex cells
c. Metaphase
b. cell replication
d. Prophase
c. to create diversity in genetic potential
d. all of the above are correct
8. When can nondisjunction occur?
a. Prophase I
3. Mitochondria:
b. Anaphase I
a. contain their own DNA
c. Anaphase II
b. contain structures for photosynthesis
d. All of the above
c. are involved in the breakdown of ATP
d. synthesize proteins for use outside
9. What is the function of DNA helicase?
the cell
a. Unwinding the parent strands
b. Placing RNA primers on the parental
4. DNA replication:
strands
a. can also be called mitosis
c. Synthesizing the daughter strands
b. is spontaneous, not requiring enzyme
d. Repairing broken bonds along the
action
DNA backbone
c. takes place during interphase of the
cell cycle
10. The DNA of a certain organism contains
d. occurs only outside the nucleus
17% adenine. What percentage of its
bases would be cytosine?
5. Which of the following is a concept of the
a. 8.5%
cell theory?
b. 17%
a. Simple cells can arise spontaneously
c. 33%
form rotting vegetation
d. 66%
b. A cell is the basic structural and
functional unit of living organisms
11. Each DNA nucleotide is composed of the
c. The subcellular organelle is the basic
following EXCEPT:
unit of life
a. a sugar molecule
d. Only higher organisms are composed
b. a lipid molecule
of cells
c. a phosphate group
d. a nitrogenous base
12. The RNA responsible for bringing the
17. A silent mutation could result in:
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Practice Final Exam – Biology 30
amino acids to the “factory” site for
protein formation is the:
a. rRNA
b. mRNA
c. tRNA
d. mtRNA
a. the same amino acid placed in the
chain
b. a completely non-functional protein
c. a similar-shaped protein, but slightly
different functionally
d. none of the above
13. The function of centrioles include:
a. organizing the mitotic spindle in cell
division
b. providing a whiplike beating motion
to move substances along cell surfaces
c. serving as the site for ribosomal RNA
synthesis
d. Both A and B are correct
18. If a DNA sequence had one thymine
switched with a cytosine, what type of
mutation would that be?
a. Insertion mutation
b. Substitution mutation
c. Deletion mutation
d. All of the above
e. Both A and B
14. Which of the following statements is
correct regarding RNA?
a. Messenger RNA, transfer RNA, and
ribosomal RNA play a role in protein
synthesis
b. If the base sequence of DNA is
ATTGCA, the messenger RNA
template will be UCCAGU
c. There is one specific type of mRNA for
each amino acid
d. All of the above are correct
19. The results of a test cross reveal 50% of
offspring resemble the unknown parent
and 50% resemble the known test parent.
This parent would then be:
a. Homozygous dominant
b. Homozygous recessive
c. Heterozygous
d. None of the above
15. If the nucleotide or base sequence of the
DNA strand used as a template for
messenger RNA synthesis is ACGTT, then
the corresponding sequence of mRNA
would be:
a. TGCAA
b. ACGTT
c. UGCAA
d. GUACC
20. If a true-breeding dominant is crossed
with a true-breeding recessive, the F1
offspring will all be:
a. Homozygous dominant
b. Homozygous recessive
c. Heterozygous
d. Not enough information to answer
16. How many chromosomes are in a human
cell in Prophase I?
a. 11.5
b. 23
c. 46
d. 92
21. Which of the following statements is
TRUE?
a. A gene may produce differences in the
function of a given allele
b. Mutations in DNA do not lead to
genetic variability
c. Every gene in the human species has a
maximum of only two potential alleles
d. Homologous chromosomes carry the
same genes at the same loci
22. Which statement is most correct
regarding transcription/translation?
26. In a breed of cattle that shows
codominance, a “roan” bull is crossed
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Practice Final Exam – Biology 30
a. Nucleotide sequence in mRNA codon
is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that
coded for it
b. Nucleotide sequence in mRNA codon
is an exact copy of the DNA triplet that
coded for it, except U replaces T
c. Nucleotide sequence in a tRNA
anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA
triplet that coded for it
d. Nucleotide sequence in a tRNA
anticodon is an exact copy of the DNA
triplet that coded for it, except that U
replaces T
23. If tRNA had an AGC anticodon, it could
attach to a(n) __________ mRNA codon.
a. AUG
b. UCG
c. TCG
d. UGA
24. A type of muscular dystrophy shows sexlinked inheritance. Suppose a boy with
the disease lives long enough to marry a
woman who is a carrier for the trait. If
they have a son, what is the chance their
son will have the disease?
a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 100%
25. If a gene has alleles that are
incompletely dominant, a heterozygous
individual will have characteristics that
are ___________________________.
a. the same as homozygous dominant
individuals
b. the same as homozygous recessive
individuals
c. intermediate between homozygous
recessive and homozygous dominant
individuals
d. none of the above
31. Which of the following hormones
controls the release of anterior pituitary
gonadotropins?
with a white cow. What is the expected
phenotype ration of the offspring?
a. all roan
b. half roan : half white
c. all white
d. half red : half roan
27. Short pea plants are recessive to tall. If
22 out of 138 plants are short, how many
pea plants are heterozygous?
a. 16
b. 36
c. 40
d. 66
28. In a large population of robots, 9% has
flashing yellow eyes. Flashing red eyes
are dominant. What is the frequency of
heterozygous robots?
a. 9%
b. 21%
c. 30%
d. 42%
29. 84% of a population of bison has brown
eyes, the dominant trait. In this
population of 375 bison, how many are
heterozygous?
a. 48
b. 90
c. 180
d. 260
30. An individual who is heterozygous for a
particular trait, yet expresses both alleles
of that trait, is an example of:
a. dominance
b. codominance
c. sex-linked dominance
d. incomplete dominance
36. A low secretion of luteinizing hormone
(LH) in the normal male adult would
cause:
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Practice Final Exam – Biology 30
a.
b.
c.
d.
ADH
GnRH
FSH
LH
32. The primary function of the uterus is to:
a. regulate the ovarian and menstrual
cycles
b. receive, retain, and nourish a
fertilized ovum
c. protect the ovaries
d. synthesize female hormones
33. The corpus luteum is:
a. the ruptured follicle following the
ejection of an oocyte from the ovary
b. the ovarian ligament that anchors the
ovary to the uterus
c. the myometrium
d. part of the fallopian tube
34. Human egg and sperm are similar in that:
a. about the same number of each is
produced per month
b. they have the same degree of motility
c. they have the same number of
chromosomes
d. they are about the same size
35. Which of the following statements about
spermatogenesis is NOT TRUE?
a. the spermatogonium forms the
primary spermatocyte
b. the primary spermatocyte forms two
secondary spermatocytes
c. the secondary spermatocytes each
form two spermatids
d. Each spermatid forms two sperm
41. Which extra-embryonic membrane has
little function in humans, except to
produce red blood cells?
a. Yolk sac
a.
b.
c.
d.
decreased testosterone secretion
excessive beard growth
increased spermatogenesis
shrinkage of the anterior pituitary
gland
37. Which of these statements about STI’s is
FALSE?
a. Chlamydia is caused by bacteria that
can bring on a wide variety of nonfatal
but uncomfortable symptoms
b. Gonorrhea is caused by a bacteria that
can bring on very painful discharges
c. Syphilis is caused by bacteria that
may lead to death if untreated
d. Genital herpes is caused by a virus
that may lead to cervical cancer
38. Which of the following strategies
(methods) of birth control does NOT
prevent ovulation?
a. Birth control pill
b. Condom
c. Patch worn on skin
d. Depo provera shot
39. Which of the following STI’s is curable?
a. HPV
b. HIV
c. Hepatitis
d. Syphilis
40. The first step of embryonic development
after fertilization, where the cell divides,
but does not grow is called:
a. Morulation
b. Gastrulation
c. Cleavage
d. Meiosis
46. Neurons transmit information in the
form of:
a. Enzymes
b. Hormones
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Practice Final Exam – Biology 30
b. Chorion
c. Amnion
d. Allantois
42. The third trimester of pregnancy:
a. is when gastrulation and neurulation
happen
b. is when the corpus luteum is releasing
estrogen and progesterone
c. is mostly just for growth
d. is mostly just for organogenesis
43. _______________ is/are the local birth
hormone(s) that is stimulated by uterine
contractions to maintain contractions.
a. Relaxin
b. Prolactin
c. Oxytocin
d. Prostaglandins
44. Which of the following assisted
reproductive technologies involves
combining gametes in a petri dish, then
implanting the embryos?
a. IVF
b. GIFT
c. Artificial Insemination
45. An action potential:
a. moves from terminal to dendrites
b. involves impulse propagation
dependent on chemically gated ion
channels
c. involves the influx of negative ions to
depolarize the membrane
d. is initiated by potassium ion
movement
52. Which of the following is NOT a
hindbrain structure?
a. pons
b. medulla
c. cerebellum
c. Kinetic energy
d. Electrochemical impulses
47. A second nerve impulse cannot be
generated until:
a. the membrane potential has been
reestablished
b. the Na+ ions have been pumped back
into the cell
c. proteins have been resynthesized
d. All of the above are correct
48. Which of the following is not a structural
feature of a neuron?
a. Synaptic cleft
b. Axon terminal
c. Dendrites
d. Axon
49. The central nervous system refers to
the:
a. autonomic nervous system
b. brain, spinal cord, and peripheral
nerves
c. brain and spinal cord
d. spinal cord and spinal nerves
50. A neuron that has its primary function
the job of connecting other neurons is
called a(n):
a. motor neuron
b. sensory neuron
c. interneuron
d. glial cell
51. Saltatory conduction is made possible by:
a. the myelin sheath
b. large nerve fibers
c. unmyelinated axons
d. inhibitory neurotransmitters
58. Individuals with Type II diabetes
mellitus:
a. have an absolute requirement for
insulin injections
b. may often control their disease by diet
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Practice Final Exam – Biology 30
d. Broca’s area
53. The blood-brain barrier:
a. circulates cerebrospinal fluid
b. is a tough, leathery tissue surrounding
the brain and spinal cord
c. provides a hard “armor” for the brain
d. is selective about what can enter the
brain from the blood
54. Problems with balance may follow
trauma to which part of the ear?
a. Tympanum
b. Vestibule
c. Ossicles
d. None of the above
55. Control of temperature, endocrine
activity, and thirst are functions
associated with the:
a. medulla
b. thalamus
c. cerebellum
d. hypothalamus
and exercise
c. cannot produce insulin
d. Both A and C are correct
59. Tropic hormones:
a. include ACTH and TSH
b. regulate the function of other
endocrine glands
c. exert their effects on cells directly
d. Both A and B are correct
60. Oxytocin:
a. release is an example of a positive
feedback control mechanism
b. is released by the anterior pituitary
c. exerts its most important effects
during menstruation
d. controls milk production
56. Which structure regulates the amount of
light passing to the visual receptors of the
eye?
a. aqueous humor
b. lens
c. cornea
d. iris
57. Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as
glucocorticoid is to:
a. estrogen
b. cortisol
c. adrenalin
d. testosterone
Short Answer. Please answer EITHER A or B for each unit (5 marks). Clearly indicate
which question you do NOT want marked by crossing it out. The first answered question
in each section will be marked.
UNIT ONE PART A
1. What are two differences between plant and animal cytokinesis? (2 marks)
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Practice Final Exam – Biology 30
2. Provide the correct function for the following enzymes of DNA Replication: (3 marks)
Enzyme
Function
DNA helicase
RNA Primase
DNA Ligase
UNIT ONE PART B
1. Provide the functions for each of the following cell structures and state whether or not it is
present in Bacterial/Prokaryotic, Plant, and Animal cells. (2 marks)
Structure
Function
Bacteria? Plant? Animal
(Y/N)
(Y/N)
(Y/N)
Nucleolus
Cytoplasm
2. Describe nondisjunction and outline the difference between monosomy and trisomy.
When can nondisjunction occur? (3 marks)
UNIT TWO PART A
1. Provide the correct function for the following elements of Protein Synthesis: (3 marks)
Enzyme
Function
RNA
Polymerase
mRNA
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Practice Final Exam – Biology 30
Amino Acid
2. In a population of 93 elephants, 79% have long tusks, which is the dominant trait. How many
elephants are heterozygous? ( 2 marks)
UNIT TWO PART B
1. In border collies, long hair is dominant to short hair, and black & white fur is dominant to
brown & white fur. If a homozygous long-haired, homozygous black & white border
collie was crossed with a heterozygous long-haired, brown & white border collie, what
would be the phenotypic ratio of their offspring? Use a Punnett Square and show all of your
work. (3 marks)
2. For this pedigree, determine:
a. The type of inheritance: (1 mark)
b. Genotype of individual II-2: (1 mark)
UNIT THREE PART A
1. What would be an appropriate method of assisted
reproductive technology for a couple trying to have children
if the father has a healthy sperm count, but the mother’s life
would be endangered if she carried a pregnancy to term?
Why wouldn’t superovulation work? (2 marks)
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Practice Final Exam – Biology 30
2. For the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle, describe
a. One hormone that is secreted (1 mark)
b. The gland or tissue that secretes this hormone (1 mark)
c. The immediate effect of this hormone (1 mark)
UNIT THREE PART B
1. Label the following structures indicated by the
letters below: (2 marks)
A
J
B
C._________________________________________
I
E._________________________________________
G._________________________________________
I.__________________________________________
C
H
D
E
2. Name an STI we discussed in Biology 30.
a. Describe what type of infection
(bacterial/viral/parasitic) it is. (1 mark)
G
F
b. Is it curable or treatable? And with what? (1 mark)
c. List a successful preventative measure to avoid this type of infection. (1 mark)
UNIT FOUR PART A
1. Describe the complete pathway of vision and how someone with myopia would have their
vision corrected. (3 marks)
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Practice Final Exam – Biology 30
2. After riding the Zipper or Tilt-A-Whirl at an amusement park, people are often dizzy. Which
of the structures of the ear are being stimulated to cause dizziness, and how is this
happening? (2 marks)
UNIT FOUR PART B
1. Serotonin is a naturally occurring neurotransmitter that plays am important role in a
person’s mood and emotions. A shortage of serotonin has been associated with phobias,
schizophrenia, aggressive behavior, depression, uncontrolled appetite, and migraine
headaches. Synthetic drugs have been developed to enhance or hinder the performance of
serotonin in the brain. Some of these drugs include:
i. Prozac and Zoloft, which cause serotonin to remain in the brain for longer
periods of time
ii. Drugs, such as Clozapine, that prevent serotonin from binding to post-synaptic
membranes
iii. Diet drugs, such as Redux and Fenfluramine, that stimulate nerve cells to
release more serotonin
iv. Hallucinogens, such as LSD and Ecstasy, that react directly with serotonin
receptors to produce the same effect as serotonin
a. Which groups of these drugs would compete with serotonin for binding sites and slow
down the rate of removal at the synapse? (2 marks)
b. If a person were suffering from clinical depression, which of the drugs would not reduce
the symptoms of depression? (1 mark)
UNIT FOUR PART B continued…
2. For the following hormones, list the inhibition (what makes it stop), one target tissue, one
effect of the hormone, and the name of a hyposecretion disorder of this hormone. (2 marks)
Hormone
Overall Effect on Body
Hyposecretion Disorder
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Practice Final Exam – Biology 30
Thyroxine
Insulin
This is the end of the exam. You may use the rest of this space and the other side for extra
work/scribbling, doodling.
If you do well on this exam, you may choose to use the mark to replace one of your Unit Exam
marks.
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Practice Final Exam – Biology 30
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