Content Benchmark L.12.A.1
Students known genetic information passed from parents to offspring is coded in the DNA molecule. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item Specification: Identify the location of the DNA molecule and the shape of its double helix structure.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
DNA is found in all the following cell structures EXCEPT the
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.
Which of the following describes the normal shape of a DNA molecule?
A.
It forms a double helix.
B.
It consists of a single helix.
C.
D.
3.
nucleus.
mitochondria.
chloroplasts
ribosomes.
It contains two straight strands.
It is formed from a single stand.
Which statement below correctly describes the relationship between genome size and organism complexity?
A.
As organisms get more complex their genomes get larger.
B.
Organisms of similar complexity have genomes of similar size.
C.
There appears to be little relationship between complexity and genome size.
D.
Individuals of the same species have vastly different genomes.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
4.
A molecule contains the original directions for the formation of proteins. In which structure would it most likely be found in a cell?
A.
Ribosome
B.
Nucleus
C.
D.
Endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus
5.
A molecule that consists of two strands running in the opposite direction generally forms a(n)
A.
antiparrallel double helix.
B.
parallel double helix.
C.
twisted ladder shape.
D.
coiled spring-like shape.
6.
Use the diagram below to answer the next question.
What macromolecule results when these molecules and others like them are
joined together?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Carbohydrate
Protein
Lipid
Nucleic acid
2nd Item Specification: Explain that DNA copies itself.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
7.
Chargaff’s rule states that in DNA the amount of
A.
adenine equals the amount of thymine.
B.
guanine equals the amount of thymine.
C.
cytosine equals the amount of thymine.
D.
Iadenine equals the amount of guanine.
8.
Which one of the following pairs normally bond together in a DNA molecule?
A.
cytosine–guanine
B.
adenine–cytosine
C.
cytosine–uracil
D.
adenine–cytosine
9.
Which of the following are complimentary base pairs in DNA?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.
adenine–thymine; uracil–cytosine.
adenine–thymine; guanine–cytosine.
adenine–guanine; thymine–cytosine.
uracil–thymine; guanine–cytosine.
If the nucleotide sequence on one side of a DNA molecule is CCTAGCT, then the sequence on the complimentary strand of DNA will be
A.
TTGCATG.
B.
CCTAGCT.
C.
AAGTATC.
D.
GGATCGA.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
11.
If the amount of adenine in a DNA molecule is 20%, the amount of cytosine would be
A.
20%
B.
30%
C.
50%
D.
80%
12.
If the amount of guanine in a DNA molecule is 32%‚ the amount of thymine would be
A.
16%
B.
18%
C.
32%
D.
36%
3rd Item Specification: Explain that DNA contains hereditary information.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
13.
Which molecule carries the code for traits of most organisms?
A.
Ribonucleic acids
B.
Carbohydrates
C.
Adenosine triphosphate
D.
Deoxyribonucleic acids
14.
Which statement below best describes the role of DNA?
A.
It is the main supplier of energy for cells.
B.
It is used to store energy in the body.
C.
It carries information for building proteins.
D.
It serves as the memory molecule in brain cells.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
15.
Use the diagram below to answer the next question. The diagram illustrates an experiment performed in the early part of the 1900’s in work done with two strains
of bacteria called the R and S strains. In this experiment, the researcher is trying to determine if he could transform one strain of bacteria into the other strain.
(From http://activity.ntsec.gov.tw/lifeworld/english/content/images/en_gene_c7.jpg)
Which statement below correctly describes a possible conclusion for this experiment?
16.
A.
The R and S strains both cause the mice to die.
B.
C.
D.
The R and S strains can be changed into the other.
The S strain is always lethal.
The R strain can be converted into a lethal strain.
Use the table below to answer the next question.
Table 1: Distribution of Bases Found in Different Types of Organisms
Organism
G
A
C
T
Mold
15.2
34.0
14.9
35.1
Plant
19.7
41.2
19.5
42.1
Reptile
12.9
35.6
13.2
35.7
Mammal
14.6
39.5
13.8
37.6
Table adapted from Modern Biology test bank.
Which conclusion BEST describes the data in this table in reference to life on Earth?
A.
The genetic code is generally universal among living organisms.
B.
C.
D.
Organisms have different proportions of bases in their DNA.
Animals have similar amounts of bases in their cells.
Plants are least related genetically to other organisms on this table.
4th Item Specification: Describe the process of DNA replication in the formation of sex cells.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
17.
How many times does DNA replicate during meiosis?
A.
Once
B.
Twice
C.
Three times
D.
Four times
18.
During the process of meiosis DNA replicates
A.
twice and divides once.
B.
twice and divides twice.
C.
D.
19.
once and divides once.
once and divides twice.
An offspring of two parents had an extra chromosome in its karyotype. The most likely cause of this condition would have been
A.
a point mutation.
B.
translocation.
C.
nondisjunction.
D.
a nonsense mutation.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
20.
Which statement below correctly describes what happens to DNA during the formation of sex cells?
A.
When DNA replicates, each of the two new DNA molecules has one old strand and one new strand.
21.
B.
As a result of DNA replication, one DNA molecule is completely new and one remains as the original.
C.
D.
After the formation of sex cells the DNA molecules are a mix of old and new strands.
Each new sex cell contains a random, but equal amount of the original DNA molecules.
An organism has 3 pairs of chromosomes. How many different combinations of chromosomes are possible as a result of meiosis if crossing over or chromosomal
mutations do not occur?
A.
2
B.
4
C.
8
D.
16
Content Benchmark L.12.A.2
Students know DNA molecules provide instructions for assembling protein molecules. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item Specification: Recognize that the DNA code carries instructions for making protein molecules.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
What is the DNA sequence for the following mRNA sequence: CUCAAGUGCUUC?
A.
CUCAAGUGCUUC
B.
GAGUUCACGAAG
C.
GAGTTCACGAAG
D.
AGACCTGTAGGA
2.
If the base sequence in DNA is ATCG, the mRNA sequence is
A.
AUCG
B.
ATCG
C.
TAGC
D.
UAGC
3.
The sequence of nitrogenous bases in mRNA is
A.
identical to the template strand of DNA on which it forms.
B.
complementary to the template strand of DNA on which it forms.
C.
determined by the sequence of bases in tRNA
D.
complementary to the sequence of bases found in the ribosome.
4.
Which of the following is NOT a structural difference between RNA and DNA?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.
A DNA molecule has two strands, while RNA has one strand.
DNA contains the base thymine, while RNA contains the base uracil.
The sugar in DNA is deoxyribose, while in RNA it is ribose.
Due to their sizes DNA, can the leave the nucleus and RNA cannot.
Amino acids are carried to the ribosome by the
A.
messenger RNA.
B.
ribosomal RNA.
C.
transfer RNA.
D.
coded RNA.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
6.
If the base sequence in DNA is ATCG, the tRNA sequence is
A.
AUCG
B.
ATCG
C.
TAGC
D.
UAGC
7.
What tRNA molecules would be needed to carry amino acids for the following
DNA sequence: AGTCCGTTA?
A.
TCAGGCAAT
B.
AGTCCGTTA
C.
AGUCCGUUA
D.
8.
UCAGGCUUA
Use the table showing mRNA codons to answer the question below.
(From http://www.safarikscience.org/biologyhome/7_dna/codon_question.png)
What is the amino acid sequence for the following mRNA sequence: CUCAAGUGCUUC?
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.
Val–Tyr–Arg–Gly
Val–Asp–Pro–His
Leu–Leu–Gly–Asp
Leu–Lys–Cys–Phe
Use the table showing mRNA codons to answer the question below.
(From a http://www.safarikscience.org/biologyhome/7_dna/codon_question.png)
What would be the DNA sequence for a segment of protein with an amino acid sequence of Val–Tyr–Arg–Gly?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.
CTGTATGCGCCC
CAGATAGCGCCC
GTCTATCGCGGG
GUCUAUCGCGGG
Use the table showing mRNA codons to answer the question below.
(From http://www.safarikscience.org/biologyhome/7_dna/codon_question.png)
What would be the amino acid sequence for the following DNA sequence: AAACCTAGT?
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.
Ile – Pro – Ser
Phe – Gly – Ser
Ile – Gly – Ser
Phe – Pro – Ser
Use the table showing mRNA codons to answer the question below.
(From http://www.safarikscience.org/biologyhome/7_dna/codon_question.png)
During protein synthesis, tRNA molecules carried the following 3 amino acids to a
ribosome: Ala – Pro – His. What is the DNA sequence for these three amino acids?
A.
B.
C.
D.
CGAGGCGTA
GCUCCGCAU
GCTCCGCAT
CGTGGCGAA
Content Benchmark L.12.A.3
Students know all body cells in an organism develop from a single cell and contain essentially identical genetic instructions. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item Specification: Explain how organisms grow through the processes of cellular division and differentiation.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
Use the following diagram to answer the next question.
Diagram 1
Diagram 2
Diagram 3
Which diagram correctly represents mitosis?
A.
B.
Diagram 1
Diagram 2
C.
D.
Diagram 3
Diagram 4
2.
Normal mitotic division results in
A.
two daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
B.
two daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
C.
four daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
D.
four daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
3.
If the diploid number of chromosomes is 20, what would be the chromosome number in the egg cells of this species?
A.
5
B.
10
C.
20
D.
40
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
4.
The following list describes some of the events associated with normal cell division.
I. A Nuclear membrane forms around each of set of new of chromosomes
II. Alignment of chromosomes on the equatorial plate
III. Replication of each chromosome
IV. Movement of single-stranded chromosomes toward opposite ends of cell.
During normal cell division, which series of events is chronologically correct?
A.
III, II, IV, I
B.
I, II, III, IV
C.
III, IV, II, I
D.
IV, III, I, II
5.
Use the diagram below to answer the following question.
(Diagram adapted from Examgen 4.3 diagrams)
Which statement best describes these cells?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Division 1 could be in a plant and Division 2 could be in an animal.
Both cell divisions could be occurring in animal cells.
Division 1 could be in an animal and Division 2 could be in a plant.
Both cell divisions could be occurring in plants cells.
Diagram 4
6.
Use this diagram to answer the following question
What two processes are represented by A and B?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mitosis and Fertilization
Meiosis and Fertilization
Mitosis and Pollination
Meiosis and Pollination
2nd Item Specification: Recognize that all body cells in an organism have fundamentally the same DNA
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
7.
An organism is described as 2n=30. How many chromosomes do all somatic cells of this organism contain?
A.
15
B.
20
C.
25
D.
30
8.
The cells in a cat are described as 2n=38. Which of the following types of cells does NOT contain 38 chromosomes in the cat?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Muscle cell
Brain cell
Egg cell
Skin cell
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
9.
Use the following diagram to answer the question below.
(Diagram adapted from Examgen 4.3 diagrams)
What processes are represented by A, B, and C?
10.
A.
B.
Meiosis, Mitosis, Differentiation
Fertilization, Meiosis, Differentiation
C.
D.
Fertilization, Mitosis, Differentiation
Meiosis, Fertilization, Differentiation
Use the following diagram to answer the question below.
(Diagram modified from Examgen 4.3)
Location X represents the resulting cells in a developing organism. These cells
A.
have different numbers of chromosomes because each cell will become a different body part.
B.
have different numbers of chromosomes because each cell will only contain the DNA necessary to become different cell types.
C.
D.
have the same number of chromosomes because each cell received a complete set of DNA.
may or may not have the same number of chromosomes because each organism is unique.
Content Benchmark L.12.A.4
Students know several causes and effects of somatic versus sex cell mutations. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item Specification: Describe the difference between sex cells and somatic cells in an organism.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
Which of the following is NOT a somatic cell?
A.
Cheek cell
B.
C.
D.
Sperm cell
Blood cell
Nerve cell
2.
Which of the following statement correctly describes a sex cell and somatic cell? A sex cell is
A.
haploid and a somatic cell is haploid.
B.
diploid and a somatic cell is diploid.
C.
diploid and a somatic cell is haploid.
D.
haploid and a somatic cell is diploid.
3.
Which process occurs in somatic cells?
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
4.
Use the following diagram to answer the question below.
Which of the above cell processes contribute to genetic diversity?
A.
1 and 2
B.
C.
D.
2 and 3
3 and 4
1 and 4
2nd Item Specification: Recognize that all body cells in an organism have fundamentally the same DNA
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
5.
Changes in the genetic material in sex cells are mutations that
A.
may be transmitted to the next generation.
B.
are always eliminated during meiosis.
C.
are always sex-linked.
D.
cannot affect the organism or its offspring.
6.
A mutation can be passed on to offspring if the mutation takes place in
A.
a liver cell.
B.
an egg cell.
C.
a uterus cell.
D.
a skin cell.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
7.
Nondisjunction of sex chromosomes in a human female during meiosis may result in her son inheriting the disorder represented by
A.
XXY
B.
XYY
C.
XXX
D.
YYY
8.
A child born with Down Syndrome (Trisomy 21) can have parents without the disorder. Down Syndrome is caused by
A.
three point mutations in the 21st chromosome of an egg or sperm cell.
B.
C.
D.
the nondisjunction of chromosome 21 in a somatic cell.
three point mutations in the 21st chromosome a somatic cell.
the nondisjunction of chromosome 21 in an egg or sperm cell.
3rd Item Specification: Explain that mutations in somatic cells are not passed on to offspring.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
9.
Nonlethal mutations in somatic cells
A.
are found in egg cells and are passed onto female offspring.
B.
are found in sperm cells and are passed onto male offspring.
C.
results in the death of the body cell with the mutation.
D.
are mutations in body cells and are not passed onto offspring
10.
Genetic mutations that are not passed on to offspring are found in
A.
B.
C.
D.
egg cells.
sperm cells.
somatic cells
gamete cells.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
11.
An adult develops melanoma which is a type of skin cancer. The cancer
A.
can be passed onto children because the cancer is in a gamete cell.
B.
can be passed onto children because the cancer is in a somatic cell.
C.
cannot be passed to any children because the cancer is in a gamete cell
D.
cannot be passed to any children because the cancer is in a somatic cell.
12.
Ionizing radiation can damage DNA molecules. If DNA damage occurs in blood tissue it
A.
can be inherited because the DNA mutation is in a somatic cell.
B.
cannot be inherited because the DNA mutation is in a somatic cell.
C.
cannot be inherited because the DNA mutation is in a gamete cell.
D.
can be inherited because the DNA mutation is in a gamete cell.
4th Item Specification: Explain that environmental factors may cause mutations in DNA in both somatic cells and sex cells.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
13.
Environmental substances that can cause cancer are called
A.
tumors.
B.
carcinogens.
C.
mutations.
D.
poisons.
14.
Environmental factors like ultraviolet light, asbestos fibers, and cigarette smoke are
A.
harmless and do not cause lasting cellular damage.
B.
only temporarily damaging to cellular DNA.
C.
carcinogenic resulting in permanent DNA changes.
D.
damaging to only somatic cells and no effect on gametes.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
15.
What is the BEST reason why many societies have banned or dramatically decreased the production of chemical such as formaldehyde and asbestos? The
chemicals have been linked to
A.
increased cellular mutations.
B.
causing sterility in lab rats.
C.
heavy metal poisoning.
D.
uncontrolled meiotic divisions.
16.
The graph below shows the 15 most commonly reported environmental factors that may have caused cancer clusters. A cancer cluster is an area that has a
significantly higher rate of cancer.
(Click Image to Enlarge)
(from http://www.ehponline.org/members/2006/9021/9021.html)
Which type of environmental factor is most likely to cause a cancer cluster?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Specific chemicals
Chemical mixes
General exposures
Pollution sites
5th Item Specification: Recognize that mutations result from changes in DNA.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
17.
The information below represents a change in a portion of the base sequence in a DNA molecule.
This change can best be interpreted as a(n)
A.
B.
C.
D.
point mutation.
Translocation mutation.
frameshift mutation.
inversion mutation.
18.
A gene mutation results from a change in the
A.
sequence of nucleotides in RNA.
B.
chromosome number in a gamete.
C.
sequence of the nucleotides in DNA.
D.
chromosome number in a somatic cell
19.
A mutation is defined as
A.
a change in an organism’s DNA sequence.
B.
the growth of an abnormal tumor.
C.
the changing of a cell from one type to another.
D.
a way of changing mRNA to proteins.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
20.
Which of the following sequences has a point mutation from TTAGCTACG?
A.
AAUCGAUGC
B.
TTAGCTACG
C.
TTACCTACG
D.
21.
AATCGATGC
Use the table showing mRNA codons to answer the question below.
(from http://www.safarikscience.org/biologyhome/7_dna/codon_question.png)
The following mRNA sequence codes for the amino acids in a segment of the gene that codes for normal hemoglobin.
A mutation occurred in normal hemoglobin causing a disease called Sickle Cell Anemia. Which of the following sequences is the result of the mutation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Val – His – Leu – Ala – Pro - Glu – Glu – Lys
Val – His – Leu – Thr – Pro – Glu - Asp – Lys
Val – Ser – Leu – Thr – Pro – Glu – Glu - Lys
Val – Ser – Leu – Thr – Pro – Gly – Glu – Lys
Content Benchmark L.12.A.5
Students know how to predict patterns of inheritance. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item Specification: Explain how reproduction is responsible for genetic variation.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
Mendel’s second principle states that the inheritance of one characteristic will not affect the inheritance of another characteristic. What is the principle called?
A.
Mutation
B.
Fertilization
C.
Crossing over
D.
Independent assortment
2.
Which statement describes how two organisms may show the same trait, yet have different genotypes for that phenotype?
A.
One is homozygous dominant and the other is heterozygous.
B.
One is homozygous dominant and the other is homozygous recessive.
C.
Both are heterozygous for the dominant trait
D.
Both are homozygous for the dominant trait.
3.
Sexual reproduction contributes to
A.
B.
C.
D.
less genetic variation within a population.
more identical genotypes within a population.
greater genetic variation within a population.
greater mutation rate within a population.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
4.
Which of the following genotypes has the potential for the greatest genetic variation in the offspring?
A.
Homozygous dominant crossed with homozygous recessive.
B.
Heterozygous crossed with homozygous recessive.
C.
Homozygous dominant crossed with homozygous dominant.
D.
Heterozygous crossed with another heterozygous individual.
5.
In pea plants, yellow pea pods are dominant to green pea pods and round-shaped pods are dominant to wrinkled pods. How do the offspring of two plants that are
heterozygous for yellow, round pods result in four different phenotypes? Is it the result of
A.
random alignment of chromosomes during meiosis.
B.
random fertilization during sexual reproduction.
C.
D.
crossing over between chromosomes during meiosis.
mutation in the DNA of the gametes.
2nd Item Specification: Use a Punnett Square to predict the proportion of specific genetic traits in offspring.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
6.
In pea plants, yellow is a dominant trait and green is a recessive trait. In a genetic cross of two plants that are heterozygous for the pea color trait, what percent of
the offspring should have yellow peas?
A.
100%
B.
75%
C.
50%
D.
25%
7.
Use the Punnett Square below to answer the following question.
Parent Genotype Ff x ff
F
f
f
1
2
f
3
4
In humans, having freckles is dominant to no freckles. Which of the following statements BEST describes the child represented in box 1 in the above Punnett Square?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.
Homozygous for freckles.
Homozygous for extra freckles.
Heterozygous for freckles.
Heterozygous for no freckles.
In humans, having freckles is dominant to no freckles. In a genetic cross of a homozygous dominant parent with a homozygous recessive parent, what percent of
the offspring should have freckles?
A.
100%
B.
75%
C.
D.
50%
25%
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
9.
In certain rats, black fur is the dominant trait while white fur is the recessive trait. If two heterozygous rats are mated, their offspring would be expected to have
A.
three different genotypes and three different phenotypes.
B.
four different genotypes and two different phenotypes.
C.
two different genotypes and three different phenotypes.
D.
three different genotypes and two different phenotypes.
10.
In human polydactylism, having more than five fingers on one hand, is a dominant trait. A man who has five fingers on each hand marries a woman who is
polydactyl. The couple has 8 children, only 3 of the children are polydactyl. What is the genotype of mother?
A.
Homozygous dominant
B.
C.
D.
Heterozygous
Homozygous recessive
Hemizygous
Content Benchmark L.12.B.1
Students know cell structures and their functions. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item Specification: Identify major cell structures and their functions.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
Which organelles are most directly involved in transporting materials out of the cell?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.
Which organelle is the site of cellular respiration in both animal AND plant cells?
A.
B.
C.
D.
3.
Nucleus
Chloroplasts
Mitochondria
Vacuole
Which statement BEST describes the cell membrane in a typical plant cell? The membrane
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.
Nucleus and Ribosomes
Chloroplast and Mitochondria
Cell Membrane and Cell wall
Golgi apparatus and Cell Membrane
selectively controls what enters and exits the cell.
is composed of protein and carbohydrates only.
has the same permeability to all substances moving in and out the cell.
is a composed of two protein layers with lipids floating inside.
Which organelle is responsible for photosynthesis?
A.
Nucleus
B.
Chloroplasts
C.
Mitochondria
D.
Vacuole
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
5.
In the diagram below, Cell I and II represent typical cells.
(Diagram from Examgen 4.3)
In both cells, organelle 5 is the site of
A.
B.
C.
D.
6.
photosynthesis .
cellular respiration.
resource storage.
protein synthesis.
If the ribosomes stop working in a cell, which cellular process would be most directly affected?
A.
Photosynthesis
B.
Aerobic respiration
C.
D.
Protein synthesis
Excretion of cellular wastes
2ndItem Specification: Identify the differences between plant and animal cells based on their structures and functions.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
7.
Which of the following is present in a typical plant cell but NOT in an animal cell?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.
Mitochondria
Cell Wall
Ribosome
Golgi Apparatus
Which organelle functions in the storage of water and biomolecules?
A.
Vacuole
B.
Cell Wall
C.
Endoplasmic Reticulum
D.
Chloroplast
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
9.
Use the following diagram to answer the next question.
(Diagram modified from Examgen 4.3)
This cell is most likely a plant cell because it contains
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.
Structure 1.
Structure 2.
Structure 3.
Structure 4.
Plants are unable to move to a new location in response to changes in their environment. Which of the following organelles plays a role in maintaining homeostasis
in a plant?
A.
Cell Wall
B.
Chloroplast
C.
Vacuole
D.
Nucleus
Content Benchmark L.12.B.2
Students know the human body has a specialized anatomy and physiology composed of a hierarchical arrangement of differentiated cells. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item specification: Identify human body systems and describe their general functions.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
What is the name of the muscle located below the lungs that controls breathing?
A.
Diaphragm
B.
Quadricep
C.
Liver
D.
Trachea
2.
The heart and blood vessels work cooperatively to form what system?
A.
Digestive
B.
Circulatory
C.
Endocrine
D.
Excretory
3.
What is the name of the muscular tube that connects the mouth to the stomach?
A.
Small intestine
B.
Large Intestine
C.
Esophagus
D.
Trachea
4.
The human body releases gases during the process of respiration. What option lists the gases that escape the mouth or nose during exhalation?
A.
CO2 and O2
B.
CO2 and water vapor
C.
CO2, water vapor, and O2
D.
CO and water vapor
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
5.
If a parasite invades and irritates the small intestine of an animal, what effect will it most likely have on the body?
A.
Increases water retention.
B.
Disrupts balance and causes blindness.
C.
Decreases white blood cell count.
D.
Interferes with nutrient absorption.
6.
If an individual is born without an epiglottis, what will most likely be the consequence? The individual will
A.
have difficulty with their inner ear and maintaining their balance.
B.
be unable to prevent substances from entering the trachea when swallowing.
C.
have problems regulating the pH of their blood.
D.
be susceptible to infections of the digestive tract.
2nd Item Specification: Identify the relationship among cells, tissues, organs, organ systems and organisms and know their hierarchical order.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
7.
Which of the following lists the structural units of the body from smallest to largest?
A.
Cell, Tissue, Organ, Organ System, Organism
B.
Organism, Organ System, Organ, Tissue, Cell
C.
Tissue, Cell, Organ, Organ System, Organism
D.
Cell, Organ, Tissue, Organism, Organ System
8.
A neuron is a type of cell found in what type of tissue?
A.
Nervous
B.
Muscle
C.
Epithelial
D.
Connective
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
9.
An individual is born with a hole in the septum of their heart between the two atria. Which of the following explain why this condition may be harmful?
A.
The person will have high blood pressure.
B.
The person will have low blood pressure.
C.
The cells of the body may not get enough oxygen.
D.
The blood will not flow to the lungs for gas exchange.
10.
The advantage of a closed circulatory system over an open
circulatory system is that
A.
a closed circulatory system prevents blood from leaking out of the body.
B.
blood is able to be pumped by a muscular heart in a closed system.
C.
lungs are able to function in animals with closed circulatory systems.
D.
blood moves more efficiently through the tubes of the
closed circulatory system.
Content Benchmark L.12.B.3
Students know disease disrupts the equilibrium that exists in a healthy organism. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item Specification: Evaluate how a disease disrupts the homeostasis of an organism.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
The process by which organisms maintain a stable internal environment is called
A.
homeostasis.
B.
disease.
C.
D.
equilibrium.
immunity.
2.
The most common way bacteria cause disease is by
A.
releasing toxins.
B.
engulfing healthy cells.
C.
entering healthy cells.
D.
absorbing hormones.
3.
The main purpose of a fever is to
A.
slow the growth of pathogens.
B.
cause unhealthy cells to die.
C.
return the body to homeostasis.
D.
prompt an immune response.
4.
Viruses disrupt normal cell functions by
A.
releasing toxins into the cell.
B.
C.
D.
using the cell machinery to replicate viruses.
engulfing the cells as a food source.
replicating outside the cell to attack it.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
5.
Use the graph below to answer the following question. The graph shows the number of antibodies in the blood over a period of time.
(From Holt ExamView)
What is the best reason why Response II is greater than Response I?
A.
B.
C.
D.
More bacteria entered at point 2 than at point 1.
Memory cells were produced during Response I.
Antibodies from Response I still remained in the blood.
Macrophages increased their production of antibodies.
2nd Item Specification: Describe ways that an imbalance in one organ system affects the entire organism.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
6.
Which body systems may be affected by the influenza virus?
A.
Only the digestive system
B.
Only the muscular system
C.
The immune and muscular systems
D.
The immune, digestive and muscular systems
7.
An autoimmune disease can affect the entire body because, an autoimmune disease causes the immune system to attack
A.
beneficial bacteria.
B.
beneficial viruses.
C.
the body’s own cells.
D.
any foreign substance to the body.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
8.
A disease that attacks and destroys lung tissue would most likely affect the entire body because it could interfere with
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.
cellular respiration in the cells.
photosynthesis in the cells.
glycolysis in the cells.
anaerobic respiration in the cells.
Botulism is a disease that paralyzes the muscles in the body. This disease is usually fatal because it
A.
paralyzes the muscles used to breathe.
B.
paralyzes the muscles that aid in digestion.
C.
damages all the muscle cells of the immune system.
D.
destroys the muscle cells of the cardiovascular system.
Content Benchmark L.12.C.1
Students know relationships of organisms and their physical environment. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item Specification: Identify the energy relationships in an ecosystem.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
Use the desert food web below to answer the following question.
Which of the following organisms have the greatest amount of stored energy
in the food web?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.
Hawk and Coyote
Grass and Cactus
Roadrunner and Rabbit
Grasshopper and Scorpion
Use the food chain below to answer the question that follows.
What do the arrows in the diagram above indicate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Flow of energy
Who consumes whom
A common food chain
Trophic levels
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
3.
An energy pyramid is represented below.
Which of the following number sequence represents the flow of available energy from the base of the pyramid to the top of the pyramid in the ecosystem represented above?
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.
100–100–100–100
100–75–50–25
100–50–25–0
100–20–5–1
Which one of the following does NOT explain why there is a decrease in energy through the trophic levels in an ecosystem?
A.
B.
C.
D.
There is an increase in biomass as trophic levels decrease.
Energy is lost as organisms grow older over time.
There is an increase in the number of individuals as trophic levels decrease.
Energy is lost from the processes of respiration and metabolism.
2nd Item Specification: Classify an organism by the manner in which it obtains energy.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
5.
Use the desert food web below to answer the following question.
Two of the primary consumers in the food web are the
A.
B.
C.
D.
coyote, rattlesnake, and hawk.
grass and cactus.
rabbit and grasshopper.
rabbit, grasshopper, and scorpion.
6.
Use the desert food web below to answer the following question.
Two of the secondary consumers in the desert environment are
A.
B.
C.
D.
coyote and rattlesnake
grass and cactus.
rabbit and grasshopper.
hawk and coyote.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
7.
Use the description below to answer the following question.
In a marine ecosystem, a disease killed most of the sea otters. As a result, the sea urchins and clams increased in number which in turn caused the sea gull
population to increase and the seaweed population to decrease.
Identify a secondary consumer in this marine ecosystem.
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.




Seaweed
Clam
Sea urchin
Sea gull
During a visit to a desert ecosystem, a student observes the following:
A hawk eats a snake.
A lizard eats a fly.
A tortoise eats small patches of grass.
A snake eats a mouse.
Based on student’s observations of how each of these organisms obtains energy, which of the following statements is the best conclusion?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The hawk is a primary consumer.
The grass and the desert tortoise are both primary consumers.
The lizard is a tertiary consumer.
The lizard and the snake are secondary consumers.
3rd Item Specification: Describe how an organism’s needs are met by aspects of its physical environment.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
9.
Which statement illustrates a biotic factor interacting with an abiotic factor?
A.
A sea turtle transporting a pilot fish to a source of food.
B.
A rock moving during an earthquake.
C.
A plant absorbs sunlight, which is used for photosynthesis.
D.
Wind cause waves to form on a lake.
10.
Identify an organism’s need that is met by an abiotic factor.
A.
A wolf’s need for warmth; fur coat
B.
A fish’s need for food; water
C.
A lizard’s need for warmth; sun
D.
A rabbit’s need for food; grass
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
11.
A student observes a bear over a year. In the spring the bear comes out of its cave and eats continuously throughout the spring, summer, and fall building up
energy reserves for the long winter hibernation. As winter approaches the bear settles down in its cave for the long winter sleep. Which of the following statements
is a conclusion specific to how an abiotic factor met the needs of an organism?
A.
The cave provided shelter for the bear throughout the winter.
B.
The bear had food throughout the spring, summer and fall.
C.
Throughout the winter months the bear hibernated.
D.
In the winter, the bear obtains energy from stored fat.
12.
A student observes a rocky coastal ecosystem over a period of a month. As the water begins to go out due to the tides, the animals change behaviors. The clams
and mussels close up to prevent water loss and drying out, the crabs move under rocks or into small pools of water in the rocks for shelter, sea birds walk along
the rocks eating small organisms, and a raccoon comes down to the shore to eat the exposed mussels and clams. Which of the following statements is a
conclusion specific to how an abiotic factor met the needs of an organism?
A.
The clams and mussels closing up to prevent losing water.
B.
The raccoon eating the clams and mussels.
C.
D.
The sea birds eating organisms off the rocks.
The crab finding shelter under rocks or in pools of water.
Content Benchmark L.12.C.2
Students know how changes in an ecosystem can affect biodiversity and biodiversity’s contribution to an ecosystem’s stability. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item Specification: Predict how changes in an ecosystem’s stability impact biodiversity.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
2.
Which of the following statements regarding predator/prey relationships is MOST accurate?
A.
There is no relationship between sizes of predator and prey populations.
B.
C.
D.
The predator population is dependent on the prey population for survival.
The relationship centers on a carnivore eating a defenseless herbivore.
If a prey species is depleted, the predator will switch to another prey species.
Biodiversity in an ecosystem is a measure of the
A.
number and types of organisms.
B.
climax community.
C.
limiting factors that control the population.
D.
predator/prey relationship.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
3.
The following table lists the population size of six species in four different areas.
Species1
Species 2
Species 3
Species 4
Species 5
Species 6
Area A
20
50
70
20
20
20
Area B
0
60
80
40
20
0
Area C
0
0
20
0
0
20
Area D
40
30
80
110
0
20
If these four areas are the only habitats where these organisms exist, which species is most likely to be negatively impacted by changes in the environment?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Species 1
Species 3
Species 5
Species 6
4.
The following table lists the population size of six species in four different areas.
Species A
Species B
Species C
Species D
Species E
Species F
Area 1
20
50
70
20
20
20
Area 2
0
60
80
40
20
0
Area 3
0
0
20
0
0
20
Area 4
40
30
80
110
0
20
Which of the following areas has the GREATEST biodiversity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Area 1
Area 2
Area 3
Area 4
2nd Item Specification: Recognize that ecosystems change over time.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
5.
The change in an ecosystem over time until a stable stage is reached is known as
A.
competition.
B.
homeostasis.
C.
transpiration.
D.
succession.
6.
A lava field is bare for several years when lichens begin to grow on the rocks. These are gradually replaced with grasses, shrubs, and finally trees. This process is
called
A.
primary homeostasis.
B.
secondary homeostasis.
C.
primary succession.
D.
secondary succession.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
7.
The below diagram represents a change in an environment over time.
(Diagram modified from ExamGen 4.3)
Which of the following statements BEST describes the process taking place?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The community is increasing in complexity over time.
The evolution of a new species filling an empty niche./li’
The water cycle includes the absorption of water through the soil.
The path of energy is moving through a natural food chain
8.
An area in the early stages of secondary succession would most likely be
dominated by
A.
lichens.
B.
grasses.
C.
shrubs.
D.
trees.
3rd Item Specification: Predict consequences of an environmental change.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
9.
Acid rain, deforestation, and soil erosion are examples of
A.
habitat fragmentation.
B.
invasion of exotic species.
C.
habitat degradation.
D.
global warming
10.
This graph shows the population trends of five populations over one year.
What happened to Population B over the year? The population showed
A.
B.
an increased over time, followed by a decrease.
a slight decrease in population over time resulting in extinction.
C.
D.
a dramatic decrease in population resulting in extinction.
a stable unchanging population over time.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
11.
Which of the following types of animals will be MOST impacted by habitat fragmentation?
A.
B.
C.
D.
12.
Large predators and migratory animals
Large herbivores and large predators
Non-migratory animals and small herbivores
Migratory animals and large herbivores
This graph shows the population trends of five populations over time.
Which of the following statements is the MOST plausible explanation for the changes in population E?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Species E started eating species A because the increase in E occurs concurrently with the decrease in A.
Individuals of species E immigrated into this habitat from the surrounding areas.
The decline in B and D reduced the competition for resources resulting in an increase in species E.
Species E moved into the niche previously occupied by species B resulting in an increase in species E.
Content Benchmark L.12.C.3
Students know the amount of living matter an environment can support is limited by the availability of matter, energy, and the ability of the ecosystem to recycle materials. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item Specification: Explain that different environments have different carrying capacities.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
The following graph shows growth patterns of population over time.
Which line represents a population that reaches a carrying capacity?
A.
B.
C.
D.
2.
Line 1
Line 2
Line 3
Line 4
Which type of graph represents a population in an environment with limited resources
A.
Exponential curve
B.
Bell curve
C.
D.
Logistic curve
Predator/Prey curve
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
3.
The following table shows the primary productivity of several biomes. The accompanying graph shows the temperature/precipitation relationship of major biomes.
Biome
Productivity
Kcal/m2/year
Tundra
600
Grassland
2000
Desert
200
Seasonal
Forest
6000
Rainforest
9000
Scrubland
1000
(Click Image to Enlarge)
(Graph from:Error! Hyperlink reference not valid.)
Based on the data given in the graph and table, which environmental factor contributes to greater biodiversity?
4.
A.
Average temperature
B.
C.
D.
Available water
Plant biomass per meter
Average latitude
The following table describes data collected on herbivores living in the same habitat. All four species eat the same food.
Deer Species
Species
1
Species
2
Species
3
Species
4
Average size
500 kg
320 kg
120 kg
400 kg
12-16 kg
3-5 kg
4-6 kg
9-13 kg
1-2 kg
4-6 kg
5-7 kg
3-5 kg
Daily food intake
Offspring per Year
Based on the data given, rank the carrying capacity for the herbivore species from lowest to highest.
A.
B.
C.
D.
1–2–3–4
2–3–4–1
3–4–2–1
4–2–1–3
2nd Item Specification: Identify the factors that affect carrying capacity.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
5.
Which of the following factors is a density independent limiting factor?
A.
Competition
B.
Disease
C.
Drought
D.
Predation
6.
What happens to a population that exceeds the environmental carrying capacity?
A.
Death rate and birth rate remain constant.
B.
Birth rate and death rate decrease.
C.
Death rate decreases and birth rate increases.
D.
Birth rate decreases and death rate increases.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
7.
Graph A shows the increase in sewage waste and a decrease in oxygen content of a lake. Graph B shows population changes of four species of fish in the lake
over the same time period.
(Modified from Examgen 4.3)
Which of the following is a plausible conclusion drawn from the above data?
8.
A.
The carp were tolerant of the water quality changes. Therefore, the population was able to grow due to decreased competition.
B.
C.
D.
The walleye were more tolerant of the water quality changes and the population increased from lowered competition from the carp.
The trout are intolerant of water quality changes but the population remained stable.
The whitefish were intolerant of water quality changes and the population grew.
Which of the following would NOT be a limiting factor to the size of a large, dense population?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Competition for food, water, space, and sunlight.
Predation by abundant predators in the area.
Surviving a natural disaster such as a hurricane.
Spreading of parasites and other disease agents
3rd Item Specification: Predict the result of changing a factor on the carrying capacity of an ecosystem.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
9.
The moose and wolf populations of Isle Royal National Park are one of the most studied predator/prey relationships. W hat would be a long term effect of removing
the wolves from the park? The moose population will
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.
increase dramatically due to the lack of predators.
die off due to disease because the wolves are not removing the sick individuals
decrease initially due to disease and then increase dramatically because of lack of predators.
increase initially due to lack of predators then decrease due to overgrazing.
When Rapa Nui (Easter Island) was colonized by a small number of humans it was covered with trees and abundant food types. Within a thousand years the
Rapa Nui population disappeared and the island was grassy. Which of the following is the MOST plausible cause of the population crash? As the population
increased,
A.
B.
C.
D.
the different groups warred with each other reducing the overall population.
the people cut down the trees for shelter and overused the food available faster than the resources were replenished.
the people used the island as a resting place before moving onto other islands.
new immigrants brought a disease with them that caused a fatal epidemic.
Content Benchmark L.12.C.4
Students know the unique geologic, hydrologic, climatic, and biological characteristics of Nevada’s bioregions. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item Specification: Recognize the distinguishing characteristics of the Mojave Desert, alpine forest, and basin and range bioregions.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
Compared to most states in the US, the biodiversity in Nevada
A.
is the least diverse.
B.
is the most diverse.
C.
ranks in the top 10.
D.
ranks in the bottom 10.
2.
The area with highest concentration of endemic species in the United States is the
A.
wetlands in Ash Meadows.
B.
Florida Everglades.
C.
Great Plains.
D.
Mississippi River Delta.
3.
The most common type of endemic species in Nevada belongs to which taxa listed below?
A.
Fish
B.
Plants
C.
Reptiles
D.
Birds
4.
You would know that you are located in the Mojave Desert if you were surround by
A.
Joshua trees.
B.
Sagebrush.
C.
Creosote bush.
D.
Pinyon Pine trees.
5.
What is the state flower of Nevada?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Joshua tree
Sagebrush
Barrel cactus
Desert daisy
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
6.
Which reason best explains how the rain shadow of the Sierra Nevada Mountains effects the climate in Nevada.
A.
Descending air masses on the east side of the mountains generate greater rainfall.<>
B.
Descending air masses on the east side of the mountains have no effect on rainfall.
C.
Ascending air masses on the west side of the mountains pick up moisture.
D.
Ascending air masses on the west side of the mountains lose moisture.
7.
Which reason best explains why temperatures in Nevada are warmer than areas at the same latitude on the pacific coast of California.
A.
As air masses from the west descend into Nevada they begin to lose heat.
B.
As air masses from the west descend into Nevada they begin to gain heat.
C.
The Rocky Mountains block cool air from moving into Nevada.
D.
Warm air masses from the Rocky Mountains enter Nevada.
8.
Nevada has a very high biodiversity compared to other states. Which reason below best explains why this is the case.
A.
B.
C.
D.
9.
It is a large state in terms of area.
It is surrounded by many mountains.
It has numerous ecological ecosystems.
It has few people to disturb plant and animal habitats.
Use the diagram and information below to answer the next question. In the diagram below, an air mass starts at Location 1 and moves over several mountains and
valleys eventually reaching Location 4. While moving over the highest mountains, rain occurs on the west side of the mountains.
Which statement below is true based upon the diagram and given information?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.
Atmospheric humidity will be the greatest at Location 1.
Highest temperatures will be recorded at Location 3.
Location 3 will be cooler than Location 4.
Location 1 will be cooler than Location 2.
Use the diagram and information below to answer the next question. In the diagram below, an air mass starts at Location 1 and moves over several mountains and
valleys eventually reaching Location 4. While moving over the highest mountains, rain occurs on the west side of the mountains.
Which statement below is true based upon the diagram and given information?
A.
Location 2 will be warmer than Location 1.
B.
C.
D.
Location 1 will be warmer than Location 4.
Location 1 will have the driest climate.
Location 3 will have the driest weather.
Content Benchmark L.12.D.1
Students know organisms can be classified based on evolutionary relationships. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item specification: Use evolutionary relationships to classify organisms.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
The science of naming and classifying organisms is
A.
B.
C.
D.
taxonomy.
taxidermy.
phylogeny.
morphology.
2.
The evolutionary history of an organism is known as its
A.
taxonomy.
B.
phylogeny.
C.
philosophy.
D.
morphology.
3.
A horse and a donkey may interbreed with each other and produce offspring, but the offspring are sterile. This occurs because the horse and the donkey belong to
a different
A.
species.
B.
genus.
C.
class.
D.
kingdom.
4.
Based on their scientific names, the cats Felis concolor and Felis catus belong to the same
A.
species.
B.
genus.
C.
class.
D.
kingdom.
5.
What characteristic do all organisms have in common?
A.
They contain a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles.
B.
They are genetically identical.
C.
They use DNA to pass on genetic information.
D.
They are composed of many cells.
6.
Which of the following will most likely provide the best data for determining the phylogeny of three very closely related species?
A.
Comparing their anatomical structures
B.
Investigating their scientific names
C.
Examining their fossil record
D.
Analyzing their DNA
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
7.
A scientist discovered a new organism and noted the following characteristics: It is multicellular, heterotrophic and its cells contain a cell wall. Into what kingdom is
the best place to classify this organism?
A.
Fungus
B.
Animalia
C.
Plantae
D.
Protista
8.
The table below shows the taxons of four different animal species.
Species 1
Species 2
Species 3
Species 4
Kingdom
Animalia
Animalia
Animalia
Animalia
Phylum
Chordata
Chordata
Chordata
Chordata
Class
Mammalia
Mammalia
Mammalia
Mammalia
Order
Carnivora
Carnivora
Carnivora
Carnivora
Family
Felidae
Otariidae
Ceridae
Felidae
Genus
Felis
Zalophus
Odocoileus
Panthera
Species
catus
californianus
virginianus
pardus
(Adapted from http://www.nisd.net/secww/science/science-taks/quiz20/classifications%20quiz.htm)
Based upon the information in the table, which two species are most closely related?
9.
A.
B.
Species 1 and 2
Species 1 and 4
C.
D.
Species 2 and 3
Species 2 and 4
Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
At what point in time did the most recent common ancestor between the monkeys and the hominoids exist?
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.
8 million years ago
14 million years ago
35 million years ago
56 million years ago
Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
(From http://whozoo.org/herps/tetrapods.htm)
According to the diagram, which two groups of organisms are most closely related?
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.
Frogs and Salamanders
Reptiles and Birds
Birds and Mammals
Mammals and Reptiles
Use the diagram below to answer the question that follows.
(From http://whozoo.org/mammals/Primates/primatephylogeny.htm)
According to the diagram, what two species of the Hominidae are the most closely related?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Mandrills and Baboons
Gibbons and Orangutans
Humans and Gorillas
Chimpanzees and Bonobos
Content Benchmark L.12.D.2
Students know similarity of DNA sequences gives evidence of relationships between organisms. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item Specification: Describe DNA as biochemical evidence for evolution.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
Which of the following is a form of biochemical evidence that can be used to study evolution?
A.
Homologous structures
B.
Intermediate forms
C.
Embryology
D.
Amino acid sequences
2.
Commonalities in DNA sequences of different species support the theory of
A.
heredity.
B.
evolution.
C.
artificial selection.
D.
gradualism.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
3.
The fact that vital proteins such as cytochrome-c and DNA polymerase are found in almost every living thing indicates
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.
a common ancestor of all life in the very distant past.
each species evolved separately through history.
a common ancestor in some species, but not all species.
the RNA sequences between species will be identical.
Cytochrome-c is a protein found in many plants, animals, and unicellular organisms. The amino acid sequences may differ between different species, but the
function and most of the sequences are the same. What could you infer based on this data?
A.
The protein is a random genetic defect in many species and indicates no common ancestry.
B.
The presence of this protein in many different species indicates common ancestry.
C.
The fact that the protein differs among different species indicates no common ancestry.
D.
Most proteins found in plants, animals, and unicellular organisms have similar amino acid sequences.
2nd Item Specification: Identify relationships between organisms based on similarities in DNA sequences.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
5.
Closer similarities in the DNA sequences of two organisms of different species indicates
A.
B.
C.
D.
A common ancestor between the two species.
Homologous structures between the two species.
Genetic defects between the two species.
Artificial selection between the two species.
6.
The occurrence of the same blood protein in a group of species provides evidence that these species
A.
evolved in the same habitat.
B.
evolved in different habitats.
C.
descended from a common ancestor.
D.
descended from different ancestors.
7.
The table below shows a hemoglobin comparison between humans and several other organisms. Hemoglobin is a protein found in many animals.
Hemoglobin comparison
Animal with Hemoglobin
Amino Acids that differ from human hemoglobin
gorilla
1
rhesus monkey
8
mouse
27
chicken
45
frog
67
lamprey
120
According to the table, which organism is most closely related to humans by ancestry?
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.
Lamprey
Chicken
Gorilla
Monkey
Cytochrome-c is a protein that is involved in cellular respiration in all eukaryotic organisms. Human cytochrome-c contains 104 amino acids. The following table
compares human cytochrome-c with cytochrome-c from a number of other organisms.
Organism
Number of cytochrome-c amino acidsthat differ from human cytochrome-c amino
acids
Chickens
18
Chimpanzees
0
Dogs
13
Rattlesnakes
20
Rhesus monkeys
1
Yeasts
56
Which of the following is NOT a valid inference from these data?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Dogs are more closely related to humans than rattlesnakes.
Dogs are more closely related to humans than chickens.
Chimpanzees and rhesus monkeys differ by one amino acid.
All of the proteins produced by chimpanzees and humans are identical.
9.
A biologist analyzes the DNA sequences in three different animals. The biologist finds that animal 1 and 3 have nearly identical DNA sequences. The DNA
sequences in animal 2 are significantly different from those of animal 1. From this information, the biologist may infer that
A.
animals 1 and 2 are more closely related to each other than either is to animal 3.
B.
animals 1 and 3 are more closely related to each other than either is to animal 2.
C.
all three animals appeared on Earth at about the same time and have a common ancestor.
D.
animal 3 must have been the distant common ancestor of both animal 1 and animal 2.
10.
The DNA sequence from an endangered pupfish was compared to the DNA samples collected from closely related fish species. The table below shows a portion
of the DNA sequences from each of the fish species.
Pupfish DNA Sequence: ATT AAG CCG ATA
Fish 1
ATT GAA CCG ATA
Fish 2
ATT AAG CGG ATA
Fish 3
TTT GAA CGG AAA
Fish 4
ATT GAA CGA ATA
List the fish from the least to most closely related to the pupfish.
A.
Fish 1, Fish 2, Fish 3, Fish 4
B.
Fish 3, Fish 2, Fish 4, Fish 1
C.
D.
Fish 3, Fish 4, Fish 1, Fish 2
Fish 2, Fish 3, Fish 4, Fish 1
Content Benchmark L.12.D.3
Students know the fossil record gives evidence for natural selection and its evolutionary consequences. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item Specification: Recognize patterns of diversity observed throughout geologic history.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
Species with features between hypothesized ancestors and descendant species are known as
A.
transitional species.
B.
C.
D.
2.
relative species.
homologous species.
middle species.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a fossil?
A.
B.
C.
D.
A frozen wholly mammoth.
The footprints from a dinosaur.
Skin tissue of recently dead animal.
An insect preserved in amber.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
3.
The following diagram shows the number of marine animal families over the last 600 million years.
(Click Image to Enlarge)
(Fromhttp://www.britannica.com/EBchecked/topic-art/197367/74659/
The-diversity-of-marine-animal-families-since-late-Precambrian-time#tab=active~checked%2Citems~checked)
Over geologic time, the diversity of marine animal families has
A.
B.
C.
D.
4.
increased over the past 600 million years.
decreased over the past 600 million years.
decreased, but increased with the past 50 million years.
increased, but decreased with the past 50 million years.
Use the diagram below to answer the following question.
(Click Image to Enlarge)
(From www.bringyou.to/apologetics/fossilrecord.gif)
Using the diagram, select the following option that correctly lists the organisms that evolved from the most distant past to the most recent.
A.
Reptiles, Fish, Ginkos, Birds
B.
C.
D.
Humans, Birds, Amphibians, Ferns
Pines, Ginkos, Reptiles, Birds
Fishes, Ferns, Mammals, Flowering Plants
2nd Item Specification: Identify evidence for biological evolution gathered by scientists and others from the fields of biology (including biochemistry and molecular
genetics) and geology.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
5.
George Cuvier reconstructed fossils that showed organisms in the past differed greatly from organisms in the present. His discovery helped support the theory of
A.
catastrophism.
B.
uniformitarianism.
C.
heredity.
D.
evolution.
6.
The fossil record supports the theory of evolution because it shows species
A.
B.
C.
D.
have changed or have gone extinct through time.
that live now are much like those that live millions of years ago.
going through the process of natural selection.
living millions of years ago were identical to species today.
7.
Fossil evidence from the Cambrian period indicates hundreds of new species of animals emerged during that period. These new species arose as a result of
A.
increased volcanic activity.
B.
natural selection and evolution.
C.
extinction and endangerment.
D.
an abundance of food in the world.
8.
Scientists like Charles Darwin hypothesized that the modern day whale evolved from a land mammal, but they had no proof. Eventually fossils were found of a
mammal with fins and a vestigial pelvis that was related to the whale. This fossil would be known as a
A.
common fossil.
B.
transitional fossil.
C.
homologous fossil.
D.
coevolved fossil.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
9.
The diagram below illustrates the evolution of a horse.
(Click Image to Enlarge)
(Fromhttp://sciencestandards.blogspot.com/2007/12/little-book-of-prophecy-and-truth.html)
This diagram provides evidence for the evolution of a modern horse because it shows
A.
B.
C.
D.
10.
the early ancestors of the modern day horse and when they existed based on fossil evidence.
the early ancestors of the modern day horse as determined by biochemical comparisons.
modern day species related to the horse and the similarities in their bone structure.
modern day species related to the horse and the differences in their molar teeth structure.
The geological theories of James Hutton and Charles Lyell aided Charles Darwin in developing his theory of evolution because it provided evidence that
A.
explained why volcanoes and earthquakes occur.
B.
showed the landforms can change over time through natural events.
C.
suggested the Earth was old enough for evolution to have occurred.
D.
proved the Earth was formed 6,000 years ago.
Content Benchmark L.12.D.4
Students know the extinction of species can be a natural process. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item Specification: Recognize that most species that have lived on Earth are now extinct.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
Natural selection can best be defined as the
A.
endangered.
B.
extinct.
C.
evolved.
D.
unchanged.
2.
When there are no more living members of a species, that species is said to be
A.
endangered.
B.
extinct.
C.
evolved.
D.
unchanged.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
3.
Extinction can be beneficial because when
A.
some species become extinct, it allows others to thrive.
B.
some species become extinct, other species will become extinct.
C.
species become extinct, it always leads to evolution.
D.
species become extinct, biodiversity is decreased.
2nd Item Specification: Explain that extinction can be slow or rapid.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
4.
The Paleozoic Era ended with the disappearance of many land and marine species. This type of event in geological time is known a(n)
A.
endangered species.
B.
boundary transition.
C.
mass extinction.
D.
transitional change.
5.
Which of the following statements about extinction are true?
A.
Extinction can occur rapidly when natural disasters occur or slowly through natural selection and evolution.
B.
Extinction always occurs rapidly and is caused by natural disasters, natural selection, and evolution.
C.
Extinction happened slowly through most of history, but recently sped up due to human activity.
D.
Extinction rates were rapid in the past due to natural selection and evolution caused extinction but today they are slow.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
6.
The graph below shows extinction rates through the past 600 million years.
(From http://www.dailygalaxy.com/my_weblog/2007/10/fossil-records-.html)
The graph demonstrates that extinction rates
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.
have not changed much through time.
steadily increase through time.
steadily decrease through time.
have been both gradual and rapid through time.
The graph below shows the percent of genera that became extinct through the past 550 million years.
(From http://www.greenspirit.org.uk/resources/chronology.htm)
What can you infer based on this graph?
A.
B.
C.
D.
In general, less species become extinct today than in the past 600 million years.
In general, more species become extinct today than in the past 600 million years.
The greatest mass extinction occurred between 300-400 million years ago.
The greatest mass extinction occurred between 500-600 million years ag
Content Benchmark L.12.D.5
Students know biological evolution explains the diversity of life. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item Specification: Explain that organisms change over time as a result of biological evolution.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
Natural selection can best be defined as the
A.
survival of the biggest and strongest organisms in a population.
B.
elimination of the smallest organisms by the biggest organisms.
C.
survival and reproduction of the organisms that occupy the largest area.
D.
survival and reproduction of the organisms that are genetically best adapted.
2.
Natural selection acts on
A.
all genes in population.
B.
phenotypes that are expressed.
C.
recessive alleles.
D.
all somatic mutations.
3.
Gene flow describes the
A.
movement of genes from one generation to the next.
B.
C.
D.
exchange of genes during recombination.
movement of genes from one population to another.
sexual recombination of genes in a population.
4.
The major unifying concept in biology that provides an explanation for the vast diversity of life on our planet is the
A.
theory of evolution.
B.
cell theory.
C.
classification theorem.
D.
gene-chromosome theorem.
5.
Which idea below best explains how organisms adapt and change over time?
A.
The theory of use and disuse.
B.
The change in gene pool due to mutation.
C.
The theory of natural selection.
D.
The desire for organisms to change and adapt.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
6.
In an African population 9% of individuals are homozygous recessive for sickle-cell anemia. What percentage of the population would be expected to be
heterozygous for this trait?
A.
B.
C.
D.
7.
30%
42%
49%
70%
In watermelons striped green is dominant to solid green. In a garden of 100 plants 25 are solid green. What percentage would be expected to be heterozygous
striped?
A.
0%
B.
25%
C.
50%
D.
75%
2nd Item Specification: Recognize that all populations have some genetic variations.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
8.
Genetic variations are the raw material for evolution. These variations cannot be acted upon by natural selection unless they
A.
are expressed in the phenotype of the organism.
B.
produce only unfavorable characteristics.
C.
produce only favorable characteristics.
D.
are expressed in non-sex cells.
9.
Which statement below is TRUE about natural selection?
A.
It produces changes in a species’ environment.
B.
It can lead to changes in variations among a species.
C.
It will lead to the overpopulation of a species.
D.
It generally leads to less competition in nature.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
10.
Use the passage and the illustration below to answer the next question. The illustration below shows the variation in beak depth of three finch species found
among these different islands in the Galapagos Archipelago.
(From http://ecology.botany.ufl.edu/ecologyf02/graphics/F22-26.gif)
How would a biologist explain the variation in the beak sized of these three species of finches?
A.
B.
C.
D.
11.
The beak sizes slowly changed over numerous generations with some growing larger and some growing smaller.
The various habitats of the islands induced desirable genetic changes producing the variation seen today.
They developed differences in beak size because of their need to be able to match the size of their beaks with the different types of food on these
islands.
Variation in beak sizes occurred by chance and when a match between beak size and available food occurred, those birds produce more offspring.
The picture below illustrates the location and types of tortoises that Charles Darwin observed on the Galapagos Islands. The tortoises have necks of different
lengths and shells that differ in overall shape and in the size of the opening for the neck.
(Adapted from ExamView)
The vegetation on Hood Island is sparse and sometimes hard to reach. Which of the following options BEST EXPLAINS how vegetation may have affected the evolution of the
Hood Island tortoise?
A.
B.
C.
D.
The tortoises stretched their necks to reach the vegetation and each generation the tortoises’ offspring grew longer necks.
The tortoises with long necks and a shell that provided greater neck movement obtained food more easily, survived longer, and produced more
offspring than other tortoises.
The tortoises learned to climb to reach the vegetation and this trait was inherited by each successive generation.
The tortoises inherited flexible shells that enabled them to reach the higher vegetation and over time, the shape of their shell changed to allow more
movement.
Content Benchmark L.12.D.6
Students know the concepts of natural and artificial selection. E/S
Sample Test Questions
1st Item Specification: Explain how naturally occurring genetic variations may result in reproductive advantages.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
1.
What term describes the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its environment?
A.
Evolution
B.
Fitness
C.
Artificial selection
D.
Natural selection
2.
An individual in a population that is considered the most fit would
A.
live the longest.
B.
consume the most food.
C.
D.
3.
produce the most fertile offspring.
be the strongest and the fastest.
Which of the following is NOT one of Darwin’s key points in the theory of natural selection?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Variation naturally exists within a species.
More offspring are produced than will survive.
Organisms compete for limited resources.
Organisms can inherit acquired characteristics.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
4.
Use the picture below to answer the question that follows.
(From http://school.discoveryeducation.com/quizzes6/muskopf/evolution1.html)
What statement below would an evolutionary biologist use to explain why Bird 1 has a larger beak than the other birds shown?
A.
B.
C.
D.
5.
Bird 1 stretched its beak more than Bird 2, Bird 3, and 4 causing its beak to grow.
Bird 1 encountered larger seeds and grew a larger beak to eat the large seeds.
A random mutation caused Bird 2, Bird 3, and Bird 4 to develop smaller beaks.
Some birds naturally have larger beaks and it was beneficial in Bird 1·s environment.
Which of the following does NOT explain why evolution is described as the “unifying theory of biology”?
A.
It verifies the existence of an intelligent designer.
6.
B.
It explains how organisms have changed over time.
C.
D.
It provides a model to interpret relationships among organisms.
It offers an explanation for the diversity of life on the planet.
The graphs below represent the different types of selection that populations may experience. Use the graphs to answer the question that follows.
(Click Image to Enlarge)
(From http://gregladen.com/wordpress/?p=171)
Which graph will most likely result in the formation of two separate species over time?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Graph 1
Graph 2
Graph 3
Graph 4
2nd Item Specification: Describe how humans use artificial selection to produce desired traits in other organisms.
Depth of Knowledge Level 1
7.
The process of domesticating dogs and cats occurred through
A.
B.
C.
D.
8.
artificial selection.
natural selection.
disruptive selection.
stabilizing selection.
Which of the following statements describes a benefit of artificial selection? Selectively bred organisms
A.
are more susceptible to disease or changes in the environment.
B.
provide farmers with high yielding crops resulting in more profits.
C.
alter the gene frequencies compared to those found in natural populations.
D.
may have shorter life spans compared to animals that were not bred.
Depth of Knowledge Level 2
9.
Which of the following is most likely an unintentional example of artificial selection?
A.
The increasing occurrence of antibiotic resistant bacteria in hospitals.
B.
The flowers from a red and white carnation are cross-pollinated by a bee.
C.
A farmer crosses two tomato plants to yield larger, red, frost-resistant tomatoes.
D.
A female peacock selects a mate based upon the size of his large tail feathers.
10.
Cabbage, broccoli, cauliflower, brussels sprouts, and kale are vegetables that have different appearances, but all belong to the same species, Brassica oleracea.
What is the best explanation for why the Brassica oleracea has developed so many varieties?
A.
Pollinators such as bees and birds selectively visited certain flower types.
B.
The variety of vegetables is due to thousands of years of natural selection.
C.
The vegetables belong to different species and were classified incorrectly.
D.
Farmers have selectively bred the plant species to produce the variations.