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Which mineral is stored in the bones and constantly being removed to maintain necessary blood levels?calcium
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Which of the following is a long bone that is the largest in the human body?femur
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What bone is the largest found in the foot and is commonly called the heel?calcaneus
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What is a serious bone infection that may result from a compound fracture and become chronic later?osteomyelitis
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Which of the following is the hard, dense bone that surrounds the marrow cavity?cortical
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Where is the area of active bone growth?epiphyseal plate
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What is the name of a nonpathological small sac that contains synovial fluid?bursa
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What type of bone is the patella?sesamoid
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What is the medical term for spongy bone?cancellous
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What is the outside covering of bones that provides some nourishment and protection from infection?periosteum
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Carpal and tarsal bones are classified as which type of bone?short
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In adults, red bone marrow that produces red blood cells is mainly found in which type(s) of bone?flat and irregular
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The elbow is categorized as which type of joint?diarthrosis
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The connections between the large bones of the skull are categorized as which type of joint?synarthrosis
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Which joint is an example of a condyloid joint?temporomandibular
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The proximal end of the radius and C1 on C2 vertebrae are examples of which type of diarthrosis?pivot
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Which joint is an example of a ball-and-socket joint?femoroacetabular
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Which hormone stimulates osteoclasts to break down bone and increase reabsorption of calcium when serum levels are low?parathyroid
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What is the term for small, loose bodies in the knee that are constant irritants and may cause excess synovial production, pain, and locking up?joint mice
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In which joint would a bucket handle tear be found?knee
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Hallus valgus is a condition in which there is a turning outward from the midline found in the:great toe
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What condition is commonly known as “bowlegged”?genu varum
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Which of the following means a partial separation or dislocation of a joint without any break in the skin?subluxation
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What is the MOST common cause of bone fractures?trauma
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Which type of fracture is characterized as partial and may result from activities such as jumping or jogging?greenstick
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Which of the following describes the appearance of a stellate bone fracture?asterisk ( * )
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Which medical term means moving a body part away from the midline?abduction
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The action of pointing and putting a toe in the water to check the temperature would be an example of which movement?plantar flexion
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Which of the following factors related to bone growth and maintenance is responsible for mineral storage and utilization?hormonal
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Which of the following pathologies is related to a specific autoimmune process that attacks the joints in the body?rheumatoid arthritis
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What is the medical term for a bony prominence projecting from a bone, as in a bunion?exostosis
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What is the term for the softening of bone in children that is commonly called rickets?osteomalacia
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Chondroma, giant cell, and osteoma are:benign neoplasms
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How many stages are involved in normal osteogenesis?five
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In which stage of normal bone healing is there bridging of the fracture site, and cartilage and immature bone provide support?callus formation
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Which of the following is an acute, emergent condition of compression of neural and vascular structures, usually occurring in the upper and lower extremities following traumatic fractures?compartmental syndrome
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The term C-arm refers to a(n):fluoroscopic machine
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Which type of cast is applied often to children and immobilizes unilateral or bilateral hips and femurs?spica
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Which of the following would be increased on a serum analysis and indicative of a malignant neoplasm of bone marrow?overproduction of immunoglobulins
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Which of the following diagnostic procedures does NOT use ionizing radiation?MRI scan
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Which orthopedic instrument has the appearance of a turkey foot or eagle’s talon?Lowman bone holder
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Which device is sometimes used for achieving and maintaining the lateral position?vacuum beanbag
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Surgeons may call both Bennett and Hohmann retractors by which other name because of their shapes?cobra
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Which positioning device is frequently used for femoral nailing with leg traction and allows for placement of the C- arm?fracture table
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What is achieved by wrapping an extremity with an Esmarch bandage prior to inflation of pneumatic tourniquet?exsanguinations
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Which of the following statements regarding generally safe continuous tourniquet inflation time is CORRECT?lower extremity = 1 1/2 hours; upper extremity = 1 hour
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All of the following are examples of equipment used postoperatively on the patient for pain reduction or stimulation of healing factors EXCEPT:body exhaust suit
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Whose instructions for cleaning, lubricating, and sterilizing powered orthopedic instrumentation must be followed?manufacturer
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Which component of an arthroscopy system is specific to orthopedics and differs from most laparoscopy/MIS systems?powered shaving system
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Which agency requires the documentation and tracking of implantable orthopedic devices?FDA
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Which type of suture would be contraindicated for attaching tendon to bone?polyglactin 910 (Vicryl)
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What is polymethyl methycrylate used for in orthopedic procedures?bone cement
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Which bone is commonly referred to as the collarbone?clavicle
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The acromion process involved in the acromioclavicular joint is part of which of the following bones?scapula
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The infraspinatus, teres minor, subscapularis, and supraspinatus muscles collectively comprise the:rotator cuff
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Which of the following joints has the greatest range of motion?glenohumeral
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Which of the following is the longest bone in the upper extremity?humerus
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What is the name of a small protuberance of a bone that is an attachment point for muscles or tendons?tubercle
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Which medium is frequently used in arthroscopies where the ESU may be used for hemostasis?lactated Ringer’s
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Which piece of equipment is NOT attached to the arthroscope?powered shaver
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Which instrument is used frequently in arthroscopies to examine and manipulate internal structures?blunt probe
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A Bankart avulsion lesion involves which anatomical structure(s)?labrum (cartilage)
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Surgical repair for recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation include all of the following EXCEPT:Colles’
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Patients diagnosed with shoulder impingement syndrome would likely undergo:acromioplasty
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What should the surgical technologist do while the surgeon is using the oscillating saw during open acromioplasty?Drip small amounts of irrigation onto blade to prevent overheating.
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Axillary nerve injury or detachment of the deltoid from the acromion are:serious post-op complications of open acromioplasty
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All of the following are indications for total shoulder arthroplasty EXCEPT:moderate impingement syndrome
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Which instrument is used to remove marrow from the canal of long bones for placement of prostheses?intramedullary reamer
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Which bone is involved in a Colles’ fracture?radius
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What is a common surgical approach for Colles’ fracture?external fixation
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Which method of reducing a fracture carries the highest potential for surgical site infection?open reduction, internal fixation for compound comminuted fracture
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Which of the following is NOT a bone of the pelvis?femur
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What is the name of the deep, round fossa of the hip joint?acetabulum
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Which portion of the femur articulates with the acetabulum?head
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A common system of instrumentation for open reduction of hip fractures is DHS, which stands for:dynamic hip screw
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Which positioning device will be used for ORIF of intertrochanteric femoral fracture?fracture table
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Patients in which age group are MOST commonly candidates for total hip arthroplasty?over 65 years
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Which additional PPE is frequently worn by sterile team members during total joint procedures to prevent possible SSI?space suit or body exhaust suits
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Which of the following is a commonly used self-retaining retractor used in total hip arthroplasty procedures?Charnley
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What tissue does the acetabular reamer remove?cartilage
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What should the surgical technologist have ready to clean bone or tissue from a rongeur?lap sponges
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Which of the following demonstrates the correct order of steps for femoral canal preparation during total hip arthroplasty?reamer, rasp, pulse lavage, implant trial
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Rush, Ender, Russell-Taylor, Trigen, and Kuntscher are examples of flexible, standard, or titanium femoral:nails
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Cannulated screws and nails are designed to follow the path created by a:guide pin
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In which anatomical structure is the patella contained?quadriceps tendon
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Which ligament of the knee keeps the femur from sliding posteriorly on the tibia and prevents hyperextension of the knee?anterior cruciate
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What is the purpose of the medial and lateral menisci of the knee?cushioning
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Which bone of the lower extremity is commonly known as the shin bone?tibia
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Patellar tendon, iliotibial band, and semitendinosus tendon are examples of:autografts for ACL repair
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All of the following are examples of devices used to anchor both ends of the ACL graft EXCEPT:Steinman pins
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Liston knife, Gigli saw, and Satterlee saw are examples of instruments used for which type of procedure?amputation
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Amputated limbs may be placed in which of the following for transport to pathology?Mayo stand cover
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Total knee arthroplasty implant are categorized in all of the following EXCEPT:quadricompartmental
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Aken, Chevron, McKeever, Keller, and McBride are techniques for which lower extremity procedure?bunionectomy
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Which tendon is the thickest and strongest in the body?Achilles
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Implantable devices made of different alloys can cause breakdown of the device and may cause wound infection.True
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Arthroscopic procedures require only one small incision through which all the instruments are passed.False
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There are limited choices of total joint systems available, making standardization routine and uncomplicated.False
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Care must be taken during skin prepping for gangrenous lower extremities prior to amputation to prevent inadvertent dislodging of toes.True
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Double gloving should be done as a routine in orthopedic cases due to exposure to various sharp instrments and potentially jagged bones.True
