Chapter 20

Which of the following studies is a radiologic procedure in which contrast media is injected through a cystoscope? 

Which incisional approach is used for access to the lower ureter and may be used for donor kidney implantation? 

 Flank, Gibson, inguinal, and scrotal are examples of: 

Cyptorchidism is more commonly known as: 

Which component of the rigid endoscopic system for cystoscopy is blunt ended and minimizes mucosal trauma during insertion? 

In which surgical approach would the latissimus dorsi, internal and external oblique muscles be transected for access to the operative site? 

Suprarenal glands are more commonly known as: 

Which of the following structures encloses the kidneys and suprarenal glands? 

What does the adrenal medulla secrete? 

At approximately what age or period would a patient MOST likely be diagnosed with a Wilms’ tumor? 

Radical nephrectomy is usually performed with the patient in which position? 

Which structure is ligated and transsected first in a radical nephrectomy or laparoscopic simple nephrectomy, following isolation of the vessels and ureter? 

Which of the following comparisons of normal or typical kidney anatomy is CORRECT? 

 Where is the hilum of the kidney located? 

 Which part of the kidney becomes the proximal ureter? 

What is the name of the basic structure composed of renal corpuscles and tubules and numbers over a million? 

Adenocarcinoma has a direct correlation to each of the following EXCEPT: 

 Simple nephrectomy is routinely performed in which position? 

What measure is taken to reduce the metabolic needs and prevents tubular necrosis of a kidney removed for transplant? 

 How many suture ligatures or free ties should the surgical technologist have prepared for ligation of the renal artery and vein prior to transsection and removal? 

What is the morcellator used for in a laparoscopic simple nephrectomy? 

Which of the following items would likely be needed if the pleural cavity is unintentionally entered during nephrectomy?

Which of the following is NOT a form of polycystic kidney disease? 

 Dialysis and kidney transplant are the only two treatments for which of the following? 

When is a patient classified as being in end-stage renal failure?

Just before the surgeon clamps the renal vessels of the donor’s kidney, what does the anesthesia provider put in the IV? 

Which of the following is given IV after the donor kidney is removed to reverse the heparinization? 

What might the donor kidney be placed into to reduce possibility of injury during handling and transplantation? 

 Into which anatomical area of the abdomen will a transplated donor kidney be implanted? 

Which cutting instruments should the surgical technologist have ready for anastomosis of the renal vessels into the recipient? 

Which suture configuration is used to anastomose vessels in transplants? 

 What is the medical term for the procedure of connecting a donor ureter to a recipient bladder? 

 Cystoscopy and ureteroscopy procedures are performed in which position? 

Which of the following is used to ensure patency of the ureters or allow for drainage of urine from the kidneys? 

Where in the genitourinary system do calculi originate? 

What device is used through the ureteroscope to capture an intact calculus or fragments if fractured by laser? 

What procedure is performed to remove a calculus lodged in the area of the hilum? 

 In what position is the patient placed for proximal pyelolithotomy? 

What anatomical structure is the bladder attached to in males? 

Which of the following is responsible for emptying of the bladder and closure of the bladder orifice? 

The vesical arteries that supply the bladder arise from the: 

Which irrigation or distention fluid would be contraindicated during cystoscopy for fulguration of bladder tumor? 

How is the anesthetic jelly that is inserted into the male urethra prior to cystoscopy kept from leaking out? 

What is a unique feature of the OR table in a cystoscopy suite?

An elevated serum PSA exam might prompt the additional investigation of a(n): 

Which of the following procedures could be done in either a male or female patient? 

 Which of the following is a glass or plastic evacuator used to remove tissue and debris during TURP? 

Omnipaque, Renografin, and Isovue are used in cystoscopy as: 

Which instrument is used in TURP or TURBT and includes the sheath, obturator, working element, and ESU loops? 

Which distention fluid is nonelectrolytic and will lyse malignant tumor cells because of cellular uptake? 

What type of light is used for illumination in endoscopic equipment? 

What is the medical term for excision of the urinary bladder? 

What is the more common name for ureteroileocutaneous diversion? 

What is the name of a continent urinary reservoir that may be performed following cystectomy? 

 What is the name of the connective tissue that forms the umbilical ligament and is used for traction in radical cystectomy? 

In radical cystectomy with ileal conduit on a male patient, what tissue will be sent for frozen section to verify clear margins? 

What is done with the edge of the ilium that is brought out through the abdominal wall for stoma creation? 

Marshall-Marchetti-Krantz (MMK) is a traditional version of which general type of procedure? 

 Vesicourethral suspension and pubovaginal slings are performed to mainly treat moderate to severe: 

What is one of the main objectives of procedures for female stress incontinence? 

Which of the following is NOT a type of pubovaginal or suburethral sling? 

What structure of male anatomy is divided into three sections: prostatic, membranous, and spongy? 

Approximately how many lobules comprise the average prostate gland? 

What is the common diagnosis of a patient undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate? 

Which of the following are male urethral dilators or sounds? 

Baumrucker, Iglesias, Stern-McCarthy, and Nesbit are types of: 

Which signal should alert the surgical team that prostate capsule perforation is imminent and may conclude the procedure? 

What is used to resect the prostate gland tissue through the resectoscope? 

Which type of catheter is placed postoperatively following TURP? 

Which self-retaining retractor is used for open suprapubic prostatectomy? 

Bonanno, Malecot, and Pezzer are types of: 

What does specialized tissue within the seminiferous tubules produce? 

What is the term for an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid around the testis contained within the tunica vaginalis? 

Which procedure is performed for testicular cancer, trauma, or necrosis secondary to torsion? 

What is the medical term for the free fold of skin that covers the glans penis? 

Which of the following is the term for the inability to retract the foreskin of the penis? 

Diabetes, vascular disorder, nerve damage, and trauma are all possible causes of: 

What is the MOST serious post-op complication of penile implant surgery? 

 Which dilating instrument is used to dilate the corpora for placement of penile prosthesis? 

What procedure is performed for penile carcinoma resistant to chemotherapy or radiation? 

Many hospitals allow use of only sterile gloves to set up the back table for cystoscopy procedures. 

The anatomical structures excised during radical cystectomy are different between male and female patients. 

 Surgical technologists are not required to be proficient in endoscopic genitourinary procedures, only open cases because there are cystoscopy specialists who will do them. 

 Procedures for female urinary incontinence may be performed by gynecologists, urologists, or urogynocologists. 

Every instrument or catheter placed into the urethra should be lubricated to minimize mucosal injury or irritation. 

Congenital condition in which the urethral opening is located on the ventral surface of the penis 

Congenital downward bowing of the penis caused by fibrous bands 

 Inflammation of the glans penis due to poor hygiene 

Twisting of the spermatic cord, resulting in pain, ischemia, and eventual necrosis; failure of immediate correction may require orchiectomy

Coiled segment of the spermatic ducts that stores sperm and is attached to the superior surface of the testis 

Serous sac that covers most of the testis, epididymis, and lower spermatic cord 

Particle detector that measures ionizing radiation levels

Radioactive seed implants used to treat aggressive prostate cancers in situ; stronger effect, so lower doses can be used 

 Minimally invasive surgical approach for removal of prostate with fewest post-op complications and quickest recovery time

Condition of abnormal increase in number of cells in tissues or organs