2022-12-11T20:13:12+03:00[Europe/Moscow] en true Which of the following studies is a radiologic procedure in which contrast media is injected through a cystoscope?  , Which incisional approach is used for access to the lower ureter and may be used for donor kidney implantation?  ,  Flank, Gibson, inguinal, and scrotal are examples of:  , Cyptorchidism is more commonly known as:  , Which component of the rigid endoscopic system for cystoscopy is blunt ended and minimizes mucosal trauma during insertion?  , In which surgical approach would the latissimus dorsi, internal and external oblique muscles be transected for access to the operative site?  , Suprarenal glands are more commonly known as:  , Which of the following structures encloses the kidneys and suprarenal glands?  , What does the adrenal medulla secrete?  , At approximately what age or period would a patient MOST likely be diagnosed with a Wilms’ tumor?  , Radical nephrectomy is usually performed with the patient in which position?  , Which structure is ligated and transsected first in a radical nephrectomy or laparoscopic simple nephrectomy, following isolation of the vessels and ureter?  , Which of the following comparisons of normal or typical kidney anatomy is CORRECT?  ,  Where is the hilum of the kidney located?  ,  Which part of the kidney becomes the proximal ureter?  , What is the name of the basic structure composed of renal corpuscles and tubules and numbers over a million?  , Adenocarcinoma has a direct correlation to each of the following EXCEPT:  ,  Simple nephrectomy is routinely performed in which position?  , What measure is taken to reduce the metabolic needs and prevents tubular necrosis of a kidney removed for transplant?  ,  How many suture ligatures or free ties should the surgical technologist have prepared for ligation of the renal artery and vein prior to transsection and removal?  , What is the morcellator used for in a laparoscopic simple nephrectomy?  , Which of the following items would likely be needed if the pleural cavity is unintentionally entered during nephrectomy? , Which of the following is NOT a form of polycystic kidney disease?  ,  Dialysis and kidney transplant are the only two treatments for which of the following?  , When is a patient classified as being in end-stage renal failure? , Just before the surgeon clamps the renal vessels of the donor’s kidney, what does the anesthesia provider put in the IV?  , Which of the following is given IV after the donor kidney is removed to reverse the heparinization?  , What might the donor kidney be placed into to reduce possibility of injury during handling and transplantation?  ,  Into which anatomical area of the abdomen will a transplated donor kidney be implanted?  , Which cutting instruments should the surgical technologist have ready for anastomosis of the renal vessels into the recipient?  , Which suture configuration is used to anastomose vessels in transplants?  ,  What is the medical term for the procedure of connecting a donor ureter to a recipient bladder?  ,  Cystoscopy and ureteroscopy procedures are performed in which position?  , Which of the following is used to ensure patency of the ureters or allow for drainage of urine from the kidneys?  , Where in the genitourinary system do calculi originate?  , What device is used through the ureteroscope to capture an intact calculus or fragments if fractured by laser?  , What procedure is performed to remove a calculus lodged in the area of the hilum?  ,  In what position is the patient placed for proximal pyelolithotomy?  , What anatomical structure is the bladder attached to in males?  , Which of the following is responsible for emptying of the bladder and closure of the bladder orifice?  , The vesical arteries that supply the bladder arise from the:  , Which irrigation or distention fluid would be contraindicated during cystoscopy for fulguration of bladder tumor?  , How is the anesthetic jelly that is inserted into the male urethra prior to cystoscopy kept from leaking out?  , What is a unique feature of the OR table in a cystoscopy suite?, An elevated serum PSA exam might prompt the additional investigation of a(n):  , Which of the following procedures could be done in either a male or female patient?  ,  Which of the following is a glass or plastic evacuator used to remove tissue and debris during TURP?  , Omnipaque, Renografin, and Isovue are used in cystoscopy as:  , Which instrument is used in TURP or TURBT and includes the sheath, obturator, working element, and ESU loops?  , Which distention fluid is nonelectrolytic and will lyse malignant tumor cells because of cellular uptake?  , What type of light is used for illumination in endoscopic equipment?  , What is the medical term for excision of the urinary bladder?  , What is the more common name for ureteroileocutaneous diversion?  , What is the name of a continent urinary reservoir that may be performed following cystectomy?  ,  What is the name of the connective tissue that forms the umbilical ligament and is used for traction in radical cystectomy?  , In radical cystectomy with ileal conduit on a male patient, what tissue will be sent for frozen section to verify clear margins?  , What is done with the edge of the ilium that is brought out through the abdominal wall for stoma creation?  , Marshall-Marchetti-Krantz (MMK) is a traditional version of which general type of procedure?  ,  Vesicourethral suspension and pubovaginal slings are performed to mainly treat moderate to severe:  , What is one of the main objectives of procedures for female stress incontinence?  , Which of the following is NOT a type of pubovaginal or suburethral sling?  , What structure of male anatomy is divided into three sections: prostatic, membranous, and spongy?  , Approximately how many lobules comprise the average prostate gland?  , What is the common diagnosis of a patient undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate?  , Which of the following are male urethral dilators or sounds?  , Baumrucker, Iglesias, Stern-McCarthy, and Nesbit are types of:  , Which signal should alert the surgical team that prostate capsule perforation is imminent and may conclude the procedure?  , What is used to resect the prostate gland tissue through the resectoscope?  , Which type of catheter is placed postoperatively following TURP?  , Which self-retaining retractor is used for open suprapubic prostatectomy?  , Bonanno, Malecot, and Pezzer are types of:  , What does specialized tissue within the seminiferous tubules produce?  , What is the term for an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid around the testis contained within the tunica vaginalis?  , Which procedure is performed for testicular cancer, trauma, or necrosis secondary to torsion?  , What is the medical term for the free fold of skin that covers the glans penis?  , Which of the following is the term for the inability to retract the foreskin of the penis?  , Diabetes, vascular disorder, nerve damage, and trauma are all possible causes of:  , What is the MOST serious post-op complication of penile implant surgery?  ,  Which dilating instrument is used to dilate the corpora for placement of penile prosthesis?  , What procedure is performed for penile carcinoma resistant to chemotherapy or radiation?  , Many hospitals allow use of only sterile gloves to set up the back table for cystoscopy procedures.  , The anatomical structures excised during radical cystectomy are different between male and female patients.  ,  Surgical technologists are not required to be proficient in endoscopic genitourinary procedures, only open cases because there are cystoscopy specialists who will do them.  ,  Procedures for female urinary incontinence may be performed by gynecologists, urologists, or urogynocologists.  , Every instrument or catheter placed into the urethra should be lubricated to minimize mucosal injury or irritation.  , Congenital condition in which the urethral opening is located on the ventral surface of the penis  , Congenital downward bowing of the penis caused by fibrous bands  ,  Inflammation of the glans penis due to poor hygiene  , Twisting of the spermatic cord, resulting in pain, ischemia, and eventual necrosis; failure of immediate correction may require orchiectomy , Coiled segment of the spermatic ducts that stores sperm and is attached to the superior surface of the testis  , Serous sac that covers most of the testis, epididymis, and lower spermatic cord  , Particle detector that measures ionizing radiation levels, Radioactive seed implants used to treat aggressive prostate cancers in situ; stronger effect, so lower doses can be used  ,  Minimally invasive surgical approach for removal of prostate with fewest post-op complications and quickest recovery time , Condition of abnormal increase in number of cells in tissues or organs  flashcards

Chapter 20

68D Phase II Chapter 20

  • Which of the following studies is a radiologic procedure in which contrast media is injected through a cystoscope? 
     retrograde urogram 
  • Which incisional approach is used for access to the lower ureter and may be used for donor kidney implantation? 
    Gibson 
  •  Flank, Gibson, inguinal, and scrotal are examples of: 
    operative approaches 
  • Cyptorchidism is more commonly known as: 
    undescended testicles 
  • Which component of the rigid endoscopic system for cystoscopy is blunt ended and minimizes mucosal trauma during insertion? 
    obturator
  • In which surgical approach would the latissimus dorsi, internal and external oblique muscles be transected for access to the operative site? 
    subcostal flank
  • Suprarenal glands are more commonly known as: 
    adrenal 
  • Which of the following structures encloses the kidneys and suprarenal glands? 
    Gerota’s fascia 
  • What does the adrenal medulla secrete? 
    catecholamines 
  • At approximately what age or period would a patient MOST likely be diagnosed with a Wilms’ tumor? 
     between ages 3 and 8 years
  • Radical nephrectomy is usually performed with the patient in which position? 
    supine 
  • Which structure is ligated and transsected first in a radical nephrectomy or laparoscopic simple nephrectomy, following isolation of the vessels and ureter? 
    renal vein
  • Which of the following comparisons of normal or typical kidney anatomy is CORRECT? 
    The left kidney is larger and slightly higher than the right. 
  •  Where is the hilum of the kidney located? 
     medial midsection 
  •  Which part of the kidney becomes the proximal ureter? 
     renal pelvis 
  • What is the name of the basic structure composed of renal corpuscles and tubules and numbers over a million? 
     nephron 
  • Adenocarcinoma has a direct correlation to each of the following EXCEPT: 
    liver cirrhosis 
  •  Simple nephrectomy is routinely performed in which position? 
     lateral 
  • What measure is taken to reduce the metabolic needs and prevents tubular necrosis of a kidney removed for transplant? 
    cooling with Collins solution or ice slush
  •  How many suture ligatures or free ties should the surgical technologist have prepared for ligation of the renal artery and vein prior to transsection and removal? 
    three 
  • What is the morcellator used for in a laparoscopic simple nephrectomy? 
    chopping the kidney and ureter into small pieces for suctioning 
  • Which of the following items would likely be needed if the pleural cavity is unintentionally entered during nephrectomy?
    chest tube with drainage system 
  • Which of the following is NOT a form of polycystic kidney disease? 
     traumatic 
  •  Dialysis and kidney transplant are the only two treatments for which of the following? 
    end-stage renal disease
  • When is a patient classified as being in end-stage renal failure?
    when both kidneys are functioning at or below 10% of normal
  • Just before the surgeon clamps the renal vessels of the donor’s kidney, what does the anesthesia provider put in the IV? 
    heparin and mannitol 
  • Which of the following is given IV after the donor kidney is removed to reverse the heparinization? 
    protamine sulfate 
  • What might the donor kidney be placed into to reduce possibility of injury during handling and transplantation? 
    woven stockinette 
  •  Into which anatomical area of the abdomen will a transplated donor kidney be implanted? 
    right lower quadrant 
  • Which cutting instruments should the surgical technologist have ready for anastomosis of the renal vessels into the recipient? 
    #11 blade and 45° angle Potts scissors 
  • Which suture configuration is used to anastomose vessels in transplants? 
    fine, nonabsorbable, double-armed
  •  What is the medical term for the procedure of connecting a donor ureter to a recipient bladder? 
     ureteroneocystostomy 
  •  Cystoscopy and ureteroscopy procedures are performed in which position? 
     low-lithotomy 
  • Which of the following is used to ensure patency of the ureters or allow for drainage of urine from the kidneys? 
    double-J or pigtail stent 
  • Where in the genitourinary system do calculi originate? 
    kidney 
  • What device is used through the ureteroscope to capture an intact calculus or fragments if fractured by laser? 
    basket stone forceps 
  • What procedure is performed to remove a calculus lodged in the area of the hilum? 
     pyelolithotomy 
  •  In what position is the patient placed for proximal pyelolithotomy? 
     lateral 
  • What anatomical structure is the bladder attached to in males? 
    prostate
  • Which of the following is responsible for emptying of the bladder and closure of the bladder orifice? 
    detrusor muscle
  • The vesical arteries that supply the bladder arise from the: 
    internal iliac artery 
  • Which irrigation or distention fluid would be contraindicated during cystoscopy for fulguration of bladder tumor? 
     saline 
  • How is the anesthetic jelly that is inserted into the male urethra prior to cystoscopy kept from leaking out? 
    A flexible penile clamp is applied to the head of the penis. 
  • What is a unique feature of the OR table in a cystoscopy suite?
    It has a mesh drain attachment.
  • An elevated serum PSA exam might prompt the additional investigation of a(n): 
    prostate biopsy
  • Which of the following procedures could be done in either a male or female patient? 
    TURBT 
  •  Which of the following is a glass or plastic evacuator used to remove tissue and debris during TURP? 
    Ellik 
  • Omnipaque, Renografin, and Isovue are used in cystoscopy as: 
    contrast media
  • Which instrument is used in TURP or TURBT and includes the sheath, obturator, working element, and ESU loops? 
    resectoscope 
  • Which distention fluid is nonelectrolytic and will lyse malignant tumor cells because of cellular uptake? 
    water 
  • What type of light is used for illumination in endoscopic equipment? 
    fiber-optic 
  • What is the medical term for excision of the urinary bladder? 
     cystectomy 
  • What is the more common name for ureteroileocutaneous diversion? 
    ileal conduit
  • What is the name of a continent urinary reservoir that may be performed following cystectomy? 
    Koch pouch 
  •  What is the name of the connective tissue that forms the umbilical ligament and is used for traction in radical cystectomy? 
    urachus
  • In radical cystectomy with ileal conduit on a male patient, what tissue will be sent for frozen section to verify clear margins? 
    segments of bilateral ureters
  • What is done with the edge of the ilium that is brought out through the abdominal wall for stoma creation? 
    The edges are everted and affixed to the skin.
  • Marshall-Marchetti-Krantz (MMK) is a traditional version of which general type of procedure? 
    suprapubic vesicourethral suspension 
  •  Vesicourethral suspension and pubovaginal slings are performed to mainly treat moderate to severe: 
     stress incontinence
  • What is one of the main objectives of procedures for female stress incontinence? 
    restore the posterior urethrovesical angle 
  • Which of the following is NOT a type of pubovaginal or suburethral sling? 
     radiopaque vaginal packing 
  • What structure of male anatomy is divided into three sections: prostatic, membranous, and spongy? 
    urethra 
  • Approximately how many lobules comprise the average prostate gland? 
    50 
  • What is the common diagnosis of a patient undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate? 
    benign prostatic hypertrophy
  • Which of the following are male urethral dilators or sounds? 
    Van Buren 
  • Baumrucker, Iglesias, Stern-McCarthy, and Nesbit are types of: 
     resectoscopes 
  • Which signal should alert the surgical team that prostate capsule perforation is imminent and may conclude the procedure? 
     leg jerking 
  • What is used to resect the prostate gland tissue through the resectoscope? 
    ESU loop electrode
  • Which type of catheter is placed postoperatively following TURP? 
    3-way 22 Fr. Foley with 30 mL balloon 
  • Which self-retaining retractor is used for open suprapubic prostatectomy? 
    Judd-Mason
  • Bonanno, Malecot, and Pezzer are types of: 
    suprapubic catheters
  • What does specialized tissue within the seminiferous tubules produce? 
    sperm
  • What is the term for an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid around the testis contained within the tunica vaginalis? 
    hydrocele
  • Which procedure is performed for testicular cancer, trauma, or necrosis secondary to torsion? 
    orchiectomy
  • What is the medical term for the free fold of skin that covers the glans penis? 
    prepuce 
  • Which of the following is the term for the inability to retract the foreskin of the penis? 
    phimosis
  • Diabetes, vascular disorder, nerve damage, and trauma are all possible causes of: 
     impotence
  • What is the MOST serious post-op complication of penile implant surgery? 
    surgical site infection 
  •  Which dilating instrument is used to dilate the corpora for placement of penile prosthesis? 
    Hegar
  • What procedure is performed for penile carcinoma resistant to chemotherapy or radiation? 
     penectomy 
  • Many hospitals allow use of only sterile gloves to set up the back table for cystoscopy procedures. 
    True 
  • The anatomical structures excised during radical cystectomy are different between male and female patients. 
     True 
  •  Surgical technologists are not required to be proficient in endoscopic genitourinary procedures, only open cases because there are cystoscopy specialists who will do them. 
    False
  •  Procedures for female urinary incontinence may be performed by gynecologists, urologists, or urogynocologists. 
    True
  • Every instrument or catheter placed into the urethra should be lubricated to minimize mucosal injury or irritation. 
    True
  • Congenital condition in which the urethral opening is located on the ventral surface of the penis 
    Hypospadias 
  • Congenital downward bowing of the penis caused by fibrous bands 
    Chordee 
  •  Inflammation of the glans penis due to poor hygiene 
    Balanitis
  • Twisting of the spermatic cord, resulting in pain, ischemia, and eventual necrosis; failure of immediate correction may require orchiectomy
    Torsion 
  • Coiled segment of the spermatic ducts that stores sperm and is attached to the superior surface of the testis 
    Epididymis 
  • Serous sac that covers most of the testis, epididymis, and lower spermatic cord 
    Tunica vaginalis 
  • Particle detector that measures ionizing radiation levels
    Geiger counter 
  • Radioactive seed implants used to treat aggressive prostate cancers in situ; stronger effect, so lower doses can be used 
    Palladium 
  •  Minimally invasive surgical approach for removal of prostate with fewest post-op complications and quickest recovery time
     Robotic
  • Condition of abnormal increase in number of cells in tissues or organs 
    Hyperplasia