Which of the following studies is a radiologic procedure in which contrast media is injected through a cystoscope?
retrograde urogram
Which incisional approach is used for access to the lower ureter and may be used for donor kidney implantation?
Gibson
Flank, Gibson, inguinal, and scrotal are examples of:
operative approaches
Cyptorchidism is more commonly known as:
undescended testicles
Which component of the rigid endoscopic system for cystoscopy is blunt ended and minimizes mucosal trauma during
insertion?
obturator
In which surgical approach would the latissimus dorsi, internal and external oblique muscles be transected for access to
the operative site?
subcostal flank
Suprarenal glands are more commonly known as:
adrenal
Which of the following structures encloses the kidneys and suprarenal glands?
Gerota’s fascia
What does the adrenal medulla secrete?
catecholamines
At approximately what age or period would a patient MOST likely be diagnosed with a Wilms’ tumor?
between ages 3 and 8 years
Radical nephrectomy is usually performed with the patient in which position?
supine
Which structure is ligated and transsected first in a radical nephrectomy or laparoscopic simple nephrectomy,
following isolation of the vessels and ureter?
renal vein
Which of the following comparisons of normal or typical kidney anatomy is CORRECT?
The left kidney is larger and slightly higher than the right.
Where is the hilum of the kidney located?
medial midsection
Which part of the kidney becomes the proximal ureter?
renal pelvis
What is the name of the basic structure composed of renal corpuscles and tubules and numbers over a million?
nephron
Adenocarcinoma has a direct correlation to each of the following EXCEPT:
liver cirrhosis
Simple nephrectomy is routinely performed in which position?
lateral
What measure is taken to reduce the metabolic needs and prevents tubular necrosis of a kidney removed for
transplant?
cooling with Collins solution or ice slush
How many suture ligatures or free ties should the surgical technologist have prepared for ligation of the renal artery
and vein prior to transsection and removal?
three
What is the morcellator used for in a laparoscopic simple nephrectomy?
chopping the kidney and ureter into small pieces for suctioning
Which of the following items would likely be needed if the pleural cavity is unintentionally entered during nephrectomy?
chest tube with drainage system
Which of the following is NOT a form of polycystic kidney disease?
traumatic
Dialysis and kidney transplant are the only two treatments for which of the following?
end-stage renal disease
When is a patient classified as being in end-stage renal failure?
when both kidneys are functioning at or below 10% of normal
Just before the surgeon clamps the renal vessels of the donor’s kidney, what does the anesthesia provider put in the
IV?
heparin and mannitol
Which of the following is given IV after the donor kidney is removed to reverse the heparinization?
protamine sulfate
What might the donor kidney be placed into to reduce possibility of injury during handling and transplantation?
woven stockinette
Into which anatomical area of the abdomen will a transplated donor kidney be implanted?
right lower quadrant
Which cutting instruments should the surgical technologist have ready for anastomosis of the renal vessels into the
recipient?
#11 blade and 45° angle Potts scissors
Which suture configuration is used to anastomose vessels in transplants?
fine, nonabsorbable, double-armed
What is the medical term for the procedure of connecting a donor ureter to a recipient bladder?
ureteroneocystostomy
Cystoscopy and ureteroscopy procedures are performed in which position?
low-lithotomy
Which of the following is used to ensure patency of the ureters or allow for drainage of urine from the kidneys?
double-J or pigtail stent
Where in the genitourinary system do calculi originate?
kidney
What device is used through the ureteroscope to capture an intact calculus or fragments if fractured by laser?
basket stone forceps
What procedure is performed to remove a calculus lodged in the area of the hilum?
pyelolithotomy
In what position is the patient placed for proximal pyelolithotomy?
lateral
What anatomical structure is the bladder attached to in males?
prostate
Which of the following is responsible for emptying of the bladder and closure of the bladder orifice?
detrusor muscle
The vesical arteries that supply the bladder arise from the:
internal iliac artery
Which irrigation or distention fluid would be contraindicated during cystoscopy for fulguration of bladder tumor?
saline
How is the anesthetic jelly that is inserted into the male urethra prior to cystoscopy kept from leaking out?
A flexible penile clamp is applied to the head of the penis.
What is a unique feature of the OR table in a cystoscopy suite?
It has a mesh drain attachment.
An elevated serum PSA exam might prompt the additional investigation of a(n):
prostate biopsy
Which of the following procedures could be done in either a male or female patient?
TURBT
Which of the following is a glass or plastic evacuator used to remove tissue and debris during TURP?
Ellik
Omnipaque, Renografin, and Isovue are used in cystoscopy as:
contrast media
Which instrument is used in TURP or TURBT and includes the sheath, obturator, working element, and ESU loops?
resectoscope
Which distention fluid is nonelectrolytic and will lyse malignant tumor cells because of cellular uptake?
water
What type of light is used for illumination in endoscopic equipment?
fiber-optic
What is the medical term for excision of the urinary bladder?
cystectomy
What is the more common name for ureteroileocutaneous diversion?
ileal conduit
What is the name of a continent urinary reservoir that may be performed following cystectomy?
Koch pouch
What is the name of the connective tissue that forms the umbilical ligament and is used for traction in radical
cystectomy?
urachus
In radical cystectomy with ileal conduit on a male patient, what tissue will be sent for frozen section to verify clear
margins?
segments of bilateral ureters
What is done with the edge of the ilium that is brought out through the abdominal wall for stoma creation?
The edges are everted and affixed to the skin.
Marshall-Marchetti-Krantz (MMK) is a traditional version of which general type of procedure?
suprapubic vesicourethral suspension
Vesicourethral suspension and pubovaginal slings are performed to mainly treat moderate to severe:
stress incontinence
What is one of the main objectives of procedures for female stress incontinence?
restore the posterior urethrovesical angle
Which of the following is NOT a type of pubovaginal or suburethral sling?
radiopaque vaginal packing
What structure of male anatomy is divided into three sections: prostatic, membranous, and spongy?
urethra
Approximately how many lobules comprise the average prostate gland?
50
What is the common diagnosis of a patient undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate?
benign prostatic hypertrophy
Which of the following are male urethral dilators or sounds?
Van Buren
Baumrucker, Iglesias, Stern-McCarthy, and Nesbit are types of:
resectoscopes
Which signal should alert the surgical team that prostate capsule perforation is imminent and may conclude the
procedure?
leg jerking
What is used to resect the prostate gland tissue through the resectoscope?
ESU loop electrode
Which type of catheter is placed postoperatively following TURP?
3-way 22 Fr. Foley with 30 mL balloon
Which self-retaining retractor is used for open suprapubic prostatectomy?
Judd-Mason
Bonanno, Malecot, and Pezzer are types of:
suprapubic catheters
What does specialized tissue within the seminiferous tubules produce?
sperm
What is the term for an abnormal accumulation of serous fluid around the testis contained within the tunica vaginalis?
hydrocele
Which procedure is performed for testicular cancer, trauma, or necrosis secondary to torsion?
orchiectomy
What is the medical term for the free fold of skin that covers the glans penis?
prepuce
Which of the following is the term for the inability to retract the foreskin of the penis?
phimosis
Diabetes, vascular disorder, nerve damage, and trauma are all possible causes of:
impotence
What is the MOST serious post-op complication of penile implant surgery?
surgical site infection
Which dilating instrument is used to dilate the corpora for placement of penile prosthesis?
Hegar
What procedure is performed for penile carcinoma resistant to chemotherapy or radiation?
penectomy
Many hospitals allow use of only sterile gloves to set up the back table for cystoscopy procedures.
True
The anatomical structures excised during radical cystectomy are different between male and female patients.
True
Surgical technologists are not required to be proficient in endoscopic genitourinary procedures, only open cases
because there are cystoscopy specialists who will do them.
False
Procedures for female urinary incontinence may be performed by gynecologists, urologists, or urogynocologists.
True
Every instrument or catheter placed into the urethra should be lubricated to minimize mucosal injury or irritation.
True
Congenital condition in which the urethral opening is located on the ventral surface of the penis
Hypospadias
Congenital downward bowing of the penis caused by fibrous bands
Chordee
Inflammation of the glans penis due to poor hygiene
Balanitis
Twisting of the spermatic cord, resulting in pain, ischemia, and eventual necrosis; failure of immediate correction may
require orchiectomy
Torsion
Coiled segment of the spermatic ducts that stores sperm and is attached to the superior surface of the testis
Epididymis
Serous sac that covers most of the testis, epididymis, and lower spermatic cord
Tunica vaginalis
Particle detector that measures ionizing radiation levels
Geiger counter
Radioactive seed implants used to treat aggressive prostate cancers in situ; stronger effect, so lower doses can be used
Palladium
Minimally invasive surgical approach for removal of prostate with fewest post-op complications and quickest
recovery time
Robotic
Condition of abnormal increase in number of cells in tissues or organs