Which of the following structures is located in the alveolar processes?
Clean-contaminated
Which of the following is the wound classification for a bronchoscopy?
Alpha-chymotrypsin
An enzyme used before cataract surgery to soften the zonules of the lens is:
Enter head first, exit feet first
How should the stretcher be oriented when necessary to use an elevator to transport a patient to the OR
Pfannenstiel
A curved transverse incision across the lower abdomen used frequently in gynecological surgery is:
Flat
When perforated metal trays are placed on the shelves of the steam sterilizing cart, they should be positioned:
Potassium
Hyperkalemia is a high concentration of:
Fascia
Tissue that is cut using curved mayo scissors
Argon
Laser beam that can travel through clear tissues without heating them
informed consent
Permission for treatment given with full knowledge for the risks
Cardia
Portion of the stomach surrounds the lower esophageal sphincter
Spores
Low level disinfectants kill most microbes, but do not destroy:
Webbed fingers
Syndactyly refers to:
Backtable
The surgical pack utilized to create the sterile field should be opened on the:
Insulin
The islets of Langerhans secrete:
Extractions
Type of procedure that would involve the removal of teeth
Escherichia coli
Organism that is normal resident flora of the intestinal tract
Same side as surgeon
Where should the first scrub surgical technologist stand when handing towels to the surgeon to square off an incision site
Surgically clean
Properly performed surgical scrub renders the skin:
Ampulla of Vater
Through which of the following do the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty
Name, DOB, physician
Which of the following identifiers must be verified by the patient or their ID bracelet prior to transporting a patient to the OR
Spirilli
Spiral shaped bacteria
Store bile
Primary function of the gallbladder
Circulator
Which of the following is a non-sterile member of the surgical team?
Aid in controlling temperature
Which of the following is not a benefit of using surface-mounted sliding doors for access to the operating room
Time, shielding, distance
What are the three factors for reducing ionizing radiation exposure?
duodenum
first part of the small intestine
Lateral
Surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery
Arthropod bites
How are rickettsiae transmitted?
colposcopy
Which of the following is an examination of the cervix using a binocular microscope
tamponade
Compression of the heart from excessive fluid or blood buildup
Anesthesia provider
Surgical team member that determines when the patient can be transported from the OR to the PACU
-centesis
Suffice meaning surgical puncture to remove fluid
Cecum
Portion of the colon the appendix is attached to
Gram stain
Laboratory test determines bacterial indentification
Mydriatics
Medications that cause dilation of the pupil
U-drape
Which of the following drapes is non-fenestrated
Never until patient is discharged from facility
Under what circumstances would it be appropriate to remove a patient's identification bracelet
Supine
Position most commonly used for mitral valve replacement
Argon
Laser best used during a vitrectomy
Biological
Monitor that provides positive assurance of sterility
omentum
Apron-like structure attached to the greater curvature of the stomach
Anaerobes
Microbes that live without oxygen
Fistula
Abnormal tract between two epithelium-lined surfaces that is open at both ends
Counteract the action of another drug
Action of an antagonist drug
Circumferential
Directional terms that describes the type of skin prep of an entire extremity
Bilateral Fallopian tubes/ovaries and uterus
What organs are excised if an ovarian tumor is malignant?
Kyphosis
Abnormal thoracic curvature of the spine referred to as hunchback
hallux valgus
bunion
Inguinal
Incision also known as a lower oblique
mesentery
structure that attaches the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall
Commensalism
Relationship in which 2 organisms occupy the same area and one organism benefits while the other is unharmed
Depo-Medrol
Topical steroid used to reduce inflammation after eye surgery
Patient marks with an "X" and witness verifies
How is the surgical informed consent signed if an adult patient is illiterate
Feet first, side rails up
What direction should the stretcher be oriented when transporting a patient to the OR department?
HCG
Which of the following routine pre-op laboratory studies would be ordered for premenopausal women with no history of hysterectomy?
Upper arms, neckline and axillary region
Which portion of the surgical gown is considered non-sterile
Coude
Type of urinary catheter with a small, curved tapered tip used on patients with urethral strictures
Reverse Trendelenburg
Surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery
Patent ductus arteriosus
Congenital defect in which the fetal blood vessel between the pulmonary artery and aorta does not close
Formalin
Commonly used preservative for tissue specimens
Notify surgeon and repeat count
First step taken for an initial incorrect closing sponge count
Parotid
Mumps may be diagnosed by finding inflammation in which of the the following glands
Incident report
Institutional document is completed when an adverse or unusual event takes place in the OR that may have legal consequences for the staff or patient
Hysterectomy
Which procedure would trendelenburg position provide optimal visualization
Adaptic
Type of nonadherent dressing
Aperture
Type of fenestrated drape
Direct
Hernia that occurs within Hesselbach's triangle
Kocher
Type of oblique incision
Bakes
Dilator used in the common duct
Ligature
Mechanical method of hemostasis
Pancreas
Organ connected by a duct to the duodenum
Cerebellum
Brain tumor causing alteration of muscle tone, voluntary muscle coordination, gait and balance would likely be located in the:
Parasitism
Relationship that benefits one organism at the expense of another
Acute
Disease characterized by rapid onset and a rapid recovery
Mitochondria
Organelle responsible for the production of energy
Balanced
Type of anesthesia that is a combination of inhalation and intravenous drugs
Surgeon
Ultimately responsible for obtaining the surgical informed consent
Supine
Position most commonly used for neurosurgical procedures
Serosa
Outer layer of the intestine
Chlorhexidine
Solutions that should be used to prep donor site for a split-thickness skin graft
Transverse
Type of drape used for flank procedure
Over the thighs
Where should the safety strap be placed on a patient who is in the supine position?
Epispadias repair
Surgical procedure is performed to correct an abnormality in which the urethral meatus is situated on the superior aspect of the penis
Laser
Thermal method of hemostasis utilizes intense, focused light
Hypertension
Most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage
Pharynx and trachea
Where is larynx located
Trauma
Most common cause of retinal detachment
pulmonary embolism
Post-op complication associated with total hip arthroplasty
Penrose
Type of passive drain
Larynx
Where are the vocal cords located?
Artificial active
Type of acquired immunity is a vaccination
endotracheal intubation
When would the anesthesia provider request cricoid pressure?
Trephine
Instrument used during keratoplasty to remove the cornea
4
Required minimum number of individuals to transfer an incapacitated patient from the OR table to the stretcher
Standard precautions
Following regulations that states that blood and body fluids should be considered infectious
separation anxiety
Major source of distress for toddler and preschool age patient being transported to the OR
Pharynx
Structure that has oral, nasal, and laryngeal divisions
Ear
Otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of which structure
Iatrogenic
Injury a patient sustains as a result of the care given by a healthcare professional
Choroid
Highly vascular layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and nourishes the retina
Safety
According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which of the following is the patient satisfying when he/she trusts the surgical teams abilities?
Abdominal aortic
Which aneurysm usually develops between the renal and iliac arteries
Heparin
Agent used to flush an artery to prevent clotting
Bone-to-Bone fixation
Next step for reattachment of a severed digit after debridement
Full-thickness
Type of skin graft includes the epidermis and all of the dermis
Skeletal
Muscle type that is striated and voluntary
Microtia
Refers to absence of the external ear
1.5 hours
Recommended maximum time limit for a tourniquet to remain inflated on an adult lower extremity
Clostridium perfringens
Organism that causes gas gangrene
acromioclavicular joint to iliac crest
Chest rolls should span the distance bilaterally between which 2 anatomical structures
Stapes
Ossicle of the middle ear that covers the oval window.
Jackknife
Another name for Kraske position
Kittner
What type of sponge is a tightly rolled cotton tape used by surgeons for blunt dissection?
Cottingham punch
Which of these instruments would be used during a keratoplasty?
Subluxation
Partial dislocation of a joint
Atherosclerosis
What condition is characterized by build up of fatty deposits such as cholesterol?
Lukewarm water
Plaster rolls for casting should be submerged in which of the following?
Cornea
Avascular, clear portion of the eye covering the iris
After each case
How often should surgical masks be changed?
Bacillus
Rod shaped microorganism
85
When using the warm cycle on the EtO sterilizer, what is the minimum sterilization temperature in Fahrenheit
Repositioning penetrating towel clip
Which of the following actions would be a violation of aseptic technique?
res ipsa loquitur
Which legal principle applies when the patient is given the wrong dose of the local anesthetic
Glottis
Space between vocal chords
Clostridium tetani
Bacteria could be found in a penetrating wound caused by a rusty nail
Love
Retractor used for spinal nerve roots
Grounding pad
What is another name for the electrosurgical unit's patient return electrode?
16 Fr
Size of Foley catheter commonly used for adults
Meningioma
Tumor that is typically benign, encapsulated, and arises from tissue covering the central nervous system structures
Sclera
Fibrous white that gives the eye its shape
Flagella
Thread-like appendages that provide bacteria with motion
Trendelenburg
Surgical position that provides optimal visualization of the lower abdomen or pelvis
10
How many hours must an item submerse in glutaraldehyde to sterilize?
Systolic
Top number of blood pressure
Cerumen
Waxy secretion in the external ear canal
Incus
Ossicle of the middle ear
Exsanguination
Process of removing blood from an extremity prior to inflating pneumatic tourniquet
Nasolacrimal duct
Which of the following may require probing and dilating in pediatric patients with upper respiratory infection
surgical technologist
Surgical team members responsible for setting up sterile field
Cancer procedures
In what circumstances would a cell saver be contraindicated
sigmoidectomy
Use of an intraluminal (circular) stapler (EEA) would be indicated for which of the following surgical procedures
Kidney pedicle
Satinsky, Herrick, and Mayo clamps may be specifically used on which of the following structures
Septum
Nasal cavity is divided into 2 portions by the:
Ellik evacuator
Which of the following is used by the surgeon to intermittently remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP
Subdural
Hematoma that is a result of torn bridging meningeal veins
Pressure
In addition to temperature, time and moisture, what is the fourth factor that determines the outcome of the steam sterilizer process
Daily
How often is Bowie-Dick test performed?
Cochlea
Spiral, comical structure of the inner ear
Enterocele
Name of the condition in which a loop of bowel herniates into the Douglas's cul-de-sac
Pterygium
Condition characterized by a fleshy encroachment of conjunctiva into the cornea
Myomectomy
Which procedure would be listed in the OR schedule for a patient undergoing surgical treatment of uterine fibroids
Popliteal fossa
Location of bakers cyst
2% glutaraldehyde for 20 minutes
Which of the following is a method of high-level disinfection?
Eardrum
Another name for tympanic membrane
Third
Burn degree classification that involves the epidermis and subcutaneous tissue
Inner
Portion of the ear is affected by Méniére's syndrome
Vomer
Cartilaginous nasal septum is anterior to which bone
Bacillus stearothermophilus
Most reliable method for determining the efficiency of moist heat sterilizer is the controlled use of biological indicators containing the organism
Spinal stenosis
Neurosurgical pathology that would require a myelogram diagnosis
Cystocele
Prolapsed bladder causing a bulge in the center vaginal wall
24
How many hours must the steam sterilization biological indicator incubate
Ethmoid
Nasal sinus located between the nose and the orbits
Bony overgrowth of the stapes
Otosclerosis
Compound
Fracture in which bone penetrates the skin
appendectomy
Procedure requiring a McBurney incision
55-60
What degrees Celsius is the steam sterilization biological indicator incubated?
Hysterectomy
Medical term for removal of uterus
Ultrasonic washer
Method that removes small organic particles and soil from the box locks and ratchets of instruments
Epistaxis
Nosebleed
Distilled water in lumen
What is the proper method for preparing a Frazier suction tip for steam sterilization?
intussusception
telescoping of the intestines in neonates requiring immediate surgical intervention
270-276
Minimum Fahrenheit temperature for sterilization to occur in a prevacuum steam sterilizer
hydrocelectomy
Excision of the tunica vaginalis
10
Minimum number of minutes to sterilize unwrapped metal instruments with lumens in the gravity displacement sterilizer at 270'F
Brown-Adson
Type of tissue forceps
Angioscope
Endoscope used to visualize the heart and major vessels
Resident
Goal of the surgical scrub is to lower the population of which flora to an irreducible minimum
Stamey
Needle used during the bladder suspension procedure for treating stress incontinence in women
sclerotherapy
Procedure that can be performed without making an incision to treat varicose veins
Hesselbach's
When repairing a direct hernia, the surgeon works within the anatomical triangle formed by the inguinal ligament, inferior epigastric vessels and the lateral border of the rectus abdominis called:
2, 3, 1, 4
Which of the following is the correct post-op sequence of actions completed by the surgical tech?
1. Assist with post-op patient care
2. Remove drapes
3. Remove gown and gloves
4. Break down sterile field
Wipe down furniture and surfaces
What should be completed before the sterile items are opened for the first procedure of the day
Autonomic
Cardiac muscles are controlled by which division of the nervous system?
Ovary
Oophor/o is the root word for which anatomical structure
vascular anastomosis
In which of the following would absorbable suture be contraindicated
Bladder
During a c-section, which organ is freed from the uterus to prevent injury
Aseptic
Which of the following refers to the absence of pathogens
D&C
Which surgical procedure would use the instrument shown below? (Curette)
Endotracheal intubation
What must be done prior to positioning a patient undergoing a posterior lumbar laminectomy
Pennington
Name the instrument shown below (clamp with triangular shape at end)
Cholesteatoma
Which of the following damages the mastoid air cells and ossicles of the ear
One-third distance from swaged end of needle
When placing a staged needle onto a needle holder, the needle should be clamped:
Rigid bronchoscope
Endoscope used for the removal of foreign bodies from the airway of a pediatric patient
Oxygen, carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen
Elements that primarily make up the body's mass
Bailey
Instrument used to contract the ribs for suturing purposes
Gastrocnemius
Largest muscle of the upper calf
3 hours
Length of time when thrombin loses its potency
Absorption of nutrients
Function of small intestine
Dentin
Teeth are primarily composed of:
Electron theory
Basis for design of electrical equipment in the OR
Vagotomy
Procedure performed to decrease gastric secretions
Obstructed bowel
Patient who underwent an appendectomy enters the emergency dept. with severe abdominal pain, constipation and vomiting. Which of the following is occurring?
Duodenum
Organ that shares the same blood supply with the pancreas and must be removed during a Whipple procedure?
Drill
During a cleft palate procedure, which equipment should the surgical technologist be prepared to set up quickly
Biceps brachii
Muscle that flexes and supinate the foreman and covers the anterior portion of the upper arm
Denial
Surgeon tells a patient she has terminal cancer but requires prophylactic surgery to prevent a bowel obstruction and the patient replies, "this can't be happening to me." Which stage of grief is the patient displaying?
Bypass calculi obstruction
Purpose of inserting a ureteral stent catheter
Shaver with abrader tip
Used to create a trough on the anterior glenoid rim during a Bankart procedure
Parietal cells
Secretes hydrochloric acid
EEG
Pre-op diagnostic test administered to a patient with a brain injury
Extremity
Type of fenestrated drape
Mucosa
Walls of vagina are lined with:
Harmonic
Type of scalpel uses ultrasonic energy to cut and coagulate tissue
Embolectomy
Fogarty catheter is used during a/an:
Elbow pads
Positioning devices needed when placing the patient in the supine position
Conjuctiva; Tenon's capsule
During a trabeculectomy, which 2 layers are incised at the beginning of the procedure
Bowel
What instrument set should the surgical technologist have available in the OR when preparing for an inguinal herniorraphy?
Lukens tube
Used to obtain specimens during a bronchoscopy
Steel
Suture material best used in the presence of infection
Blepharoplasty
Which surgical procedure uses the instrument shown below? (Tenotomy)
Gynecologic
Which surgical specialty most often uses the instrument shown below? (Sims/Duckbill vaginal speculum)
Strangulated
Hernia that can result in necrosis of the viscera
External oblique
When the surgeon makes a McBurney's incision, which muscle is encountered first an divided in the direction of its fibers
Broad ligament
Maintains the position of the uterus
Upper midline
Transverse collecting is incised through which incision
Endometrial
Which kind of uterine tissue can grow in abnormal locations including the ovaries, pelvic peritoneum and small intestine
Uktrasound
Pre-op diagnostic exam quickly completed to confirm ectopic pregnancy
Supine
Position for patient with intertrochanteric fracture
Lateral
Position that allows optimal exposure of the retroperitoneal area of the flank
2, 1, 4, 3
Correct sequence of instruments for placing a screw into a bone
1. Depth gauge
2. Drill
3. Screw driver
4. Tap
Decortication
removal of fibrous thickening of the visceral pleura
Succinylcholine (Anectine)
Only depolarize has muscle relaxant in clinical use
Pantaloon
Type of hernia involving a direct and indirect inguinal hernia
Lower leg flexed, upper leg straight
How are the legs of the patient positioned for lateral position
Support and bind
The neuroglia of the nervous system
Closed
Method of inhalation anesthesia that allows complete rebreathing of expired gases
Surgeon
Member of the surgical team responsible for protecting an unsplinted fracture during positioning
Lead apron
Personal protective equipment the surgical technologist should don prior to the start of an extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy procedure
Yankauer
Another name for tonsil suction
Strap
Which muscles relax when a small pad is placed under a patient's head in the supine position
State the name and dosage of the medication
When a medication or local anesthetic is passed to the surgeon, the surgical technologist should:
Dingman
Type of bone-holding forceps
Coronary artery bypass
Which surgical procedure would use the instrument shown below? (Long kelly with curved tip - satinsky clamp)
On all cases
According to OSHA standards, protective eyewear of some form must be worn:
Meckels diverticulum
Pathological condition of the small intestine could be misdiagnosed as acute appendicitis
Double-cuffed tourniquet
Piece of equipment required for administration of a Bier Block
Emulsion
Subcategory of drug preparation is a combination of two liquids that cannot mix?
18-30
Average normal respiration rate for children
Angiography
Introduction of radiopaque contrast medium into an artery or vein
Mesentery
What anatomical structure must be approximated after collecting to prevent herniation of abdominal contents
25 lbs
To prevent density, instrument sets should not exceed:
lateral ventricle
Where is the shunt placed when surgically treating hydrocephalus
leiomyoma
Type of uterine fibroid
From the posterior aspect
The uterus enters the bladder medically:
Staphylococcus aureus
Pathogen that most often causes post-op surgical site infection
Spleen
Organ most frequently injured during a MVA
Preference card
Where would the surgical technologist find pertinent information for 'pulling' a case
Non-absorbable
Suture material that becomes encapsulated by fibrous tissue during the healing stage
Chin
If a mentoplasty is being performed, the surgical technologist should confirm a prosthesis is available the:
Phagocytosis
Cell eating
Sciatic
Nerve that can be damaged when the patient is placed in Fowler's position
3, 1, 4, 2
What is the correct order for donning OR attire?
1. Scrub suit
2. Shoe covers
3. Hair cover
4. Mask
VIII
Cranial nerve responsible for hearing and balance
Xeroform
Which of the following is not a hemostatic agent used in orthopedic surgery
Endotoxin
Responsible for disseminated intravascular coagulation
Conductor
Copper wire in the electrosurgical unit that allows the flow of free electrons
Within joint
At the end of a procedure, the surgeon asks for the local anesthetic to inject intra-articular. Where is the surgeon injecting the local drug?
Plethysmography
Pre-op diagnostic test useful in diabetic patients with small vessel arterial disease
ethylene oxide
Most effective method for sterilizing items that can be damaged by steam sterilization
Temporal
Articulates with mandible
Interference with respiration
Crossing the patient's arms across his/her chest in the supine position may cause:
Instruments are held together with autoclave tape within peel pack
Which of the following is incorrect when preparing a paper-plastic peel pack?
37
Which of the following degrees in Celsius equals 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit
Instruments with multiple parts should be assembled
When the surgical technologist is preparing surgical instruments for transport to the decontamination room, which statement is incorrect?
Carpal
If a short bone is being removed from the wrist due to arthritis, what is being removed?
Delayed closure
Healing of a wound by contraction, granulation and connective tissue
Presoak instruments in detergent solution
Before transporting instruments to the decontamination room, what should the surgical technologist complete?
Enzyme
Solution best for presoaking instruments in the OR at the end of a procedure
PTFE
Mesh that is contraindicated in the presence of infection
Dust cover
Provides additional protection to prevent contamination of a sterile package
Black
Stripes on a steam chemical indicators change to what color upon exposure to sterilization parameters
Radius
For which fracture is the instrument shown below best used? (Turkey claw - Lowman bone holding clamp)
External iliac vein
During a kidney transplant, the renal vein of the donor kidney is anastomosed to the:
Orchiopexy
Procedure that corrects testicular torsion
Myringotomy knife
Instrument used to incise the tympanic membrane
Xeroform
Example of a non-adherent inner layer dressing
Apply a specially designed clip at the base of the aneurysm
To prevent a cerebral aneurysm from rupturing, the surgeon will:
Both eyes dilated
The ophthalmologist tells the surgical technologist to place 2 drops atropine sulfate OU. What does this mean?
Call for a clergy person before anesthesia is administered
If a patient requests to see a member of the clergy upon arrival to pre-op holding:
Placed in a refrigerator
If cultures cannot be immediately transported from the surgery department to pathology, they should be:
Inanimate object
In terms of transmitting an infection, what is a fomite?
Right side; relieve pressure on the vena cava
When positioning the patient for a c-section, where is the bolster placed and why?
Bundle of His
Conducting fibers than extend from the AV node to the interventricular septum form the:
Radiopaque
Items that are impenetrable to X-rays are described as:
Surgical technologist preceptor
During surgical rotation, the skills of a surgical technology student may be evaluated by the:
Doppler
During a TRAM procedure, which is used to identify and preserve the superior epigastric arteries
Layer of webril rolled with bandage
Which of the following should be accomplished when preparing an esmarch bandage for sterilization?
4, 2, 3, 1
Which of the following is the correct order of the layers of the colon?
1. Serosa
2. Submucosa
3. Muscularis
4. Mucosa
Dead space
Air of fluid accumulation due to poorly approximated wound edges could result in:
Open first flap away from self
What is the first step of opening a small, sterile wrapped package when establishing the sterile field?
Frontotemporal
Which surgical approach is often used for a craniotomy for aneurysm repair?
Right angle
Forced that would be used during a splenectomy
Alkalosis
A blood pH of 7.5 indicates:
#11
Knife blade that should be used for a knee athroscopy
Engulf and destroy bacteria
What is the function of phagocytic white blood cells?
Negative
A surgical technologist is talking with a patient in the PACU with arms folded and at a distance. This could be interpreted by the patient as:
Decrease gastric volume in the stomach
Describe the action of histamine (H2 blockers)
Do not give transfusion
What decision should the OR team name when treating a minor who requires a blood transfusion, but the family religion is Jehovah's Witness?
15
What does X equal in the proportion 3:5 = 9:X
Abdominal hysterectomy
What surgical procedure uses the instrument shown below? (O'Sullivan-O'Connor self retaining retractor)
Heaney
During a suprapubic prostatectomy, which needle holder may be used when reconstructing the bladder outlet?
Kerrison
When performing a total knee arthroplasty, the surgeon removes the osteophytes from the rim of the femur and tibia with a:
Subcuticular
What suture technique provides an excellent cosmetic closure
Fibula
During a radical neck dissection with mandibulectomy, which bone is harvested for the graft?
Suction irrigator
To prevent charting of bone when it is being cut or drilled, the surgical technologist should use:
Inflammation
Pain, heat, redness and swelling indicate which of the following conditions?
Babcock
Clamp most often used to grasp the appendix
Endometrium
Inner lining of the uterus
Collodion
Type of dressing washes or wears off after several days
Counts
What might be omitted for a patient requiring a stat c-section?
Remove needle from the sterile field
First action to be taken following a needle stick
Transverse
Following drapes used for a thyroidectomy
Leydig cells
secrete testosterone
Rectus abdominis
When a surgeon is using a Kocher subcostal incision, which muscle is divided by electrosurgery
Level of umbilicus to foot
Boundaries of skin prep for total hip arthroplasty
Nipple line to midthigh
Abdominal skin prep perimeters for exploratory laparotomy
Limit spread of microbes
Main reason for wearing the OR attire
Alcohol
Substance absorbed in the stomach
Remove drape and place new drape on right side
A laparotomy drape is placed on the left side inguinal area of the patient, but should have been placed on the right side. What should be done to correct the error?
TA
Stapling device would be used during esophagectomy to divide the esophagus
myelin sheath
Movement disorder diseases caused by radiation therapy are characterized by destruction of the:
Craniotomy
During which procedure would a Gigli saw possibly be used?
Javid
A surgeon indicates that she may place a shunt during a carotid endarterectomy. What should the surgical technologist have available in the OR?
Polypropylene
Best synthetic substitute for stainless steel
Bacillus atrophaeus
Microorganism used within the biological indicator for ethylene oxide sterilization
Inflammation
-itis
Force out air from pouch
To prevent peel pack pouches from opening during sterilization, the surgical technologist should:
Prevent heavy sutures from cutting into the skin
Retention bridges are used to:
Coronary artery
During a CABG procedure, the saphenous vein is sutured to the:
Kerrison Rongeur
Used to remove the lamina during a laminectomy
Retractors
What category of instruments are Hibbs and Hohmann?
T-tube
Which drain should the surgical technologist have available for insertion into the common bile duct during an exploration?
Reverse Trendelenburg
A padded footboard is used in which surgical position
Epithelial
Inner lining of the gastrointestinal tract is composed of which type of tissue
Inner peel pack is folded
Which of the following statements is incorrect when double peel packing an item(s) for sterilization?
Battery
If a surgeon performs a surgical procedure without the patient having signed the consent form, the surgeon can be charged with
Form assumed by bacilli
Spores
Unintentional tort
Applies to a patient who suffers a burn due to improper placement of the patient return electrode
PTFE
Graft material that does not require pre-clotting for placement during an abdominal aortic aneurysmectomy
V
Cranial nerve affected by trigeminal neuralgia
Mineral oil
Used to lubricate the donor site and reduce friction from the dermatome
Donor site first
What area is prepped first for split-thickness skin graft
12-15 mm Hg
Recommended range of intra-abdominal pressure in an adult patient when using an insufflator during laparoscopic procedure
strabismus
inability to direct both eyes towards the same point simultaneously
endarterectomy
Procedure performed to correct chronic cerebral ischemia
18%
According to the Rules of Nines, what percentage is assigned to the front and back if he trunk
Hyperplasia
Abnormal increase in the number of cells
Granulation
Second intention wound heals by:
Lidocaine
Intra-op ventricular arrhythmias are treated with:
60
How many milliliters are in 2 ounces
Not permissible under any circumstances
Covering a sterile back table for later use is:
Trendelenburg
Which position would a patient be placed to counteract hypovolemia
Swaged monofilament
Type of suture that creates the least tissue trauma and drag
OSHA
Organization that has legal oversight for the safety of healthcare providers in the work place
Physiological and survival
Which level of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is most applicable to the surgical patient?
Gloves removed first
Which of the following would be incorrect technique when removing the sterile gown and gloves
Abdominoperineal resection
Type of procedure might require a laparoscopy combination drape
Coagulation of protein
Cell destruction by steam sterilization occurs by:
Unfold drape before bringing up to the OR table
Not acceptable technique when draping
Allow for use of pulse oximeter
A patient's fingernail polish is removed to:
Reduce microbial count
Purpose of maintaining the air exchange rate at 15-20 times per hour in the OR
10
How many mL of water is necessary to inflate a 5 mL balloon on the Foley indwelling catheter
Fine scissors coated with water-soluble gel
If an opthalmologist orders trimming of eyelashes, how is it safely performed
Incision site to periphery using circular motion
Correct technique for performing the surgical skin prep
Hematocrit
Lab test that determines the ratio of erythrocytes to whole blood is:
Hand off the sterile field and isolate
What is the proper procedure to follow when a pack of sponges contains an incorrect number after the patient has entered the OR
Calculi
Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a preservative solution
Operative field
Where should the surgical technologist begin when performing closing counts
Coude
Catheter tip used in a patient with a urethral stricture
Neck
Type of procedure that would require a stent dressing
Nerve stimulator
Which of the following is used in order to ensure preservation of the facial nerve during a parotidectomy
Absorbable collagen
Hemostatic agent that is contraindicated for use in presence of infection
Tissue approximation
During closure of a nephrectomy in the lateral position the OR table is straightened to facilitate:
Light source
What must be tested prior to the use of a fiber optic bronchoscope
Coarctation of the aorta
Excision of a constricted segment of the aorta with reanastomosis is performed to correct:
Choledocholithiasis
Which of the following diagnoses would a patient undergo endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography
varicocelectomy
High ligation of the gonadal veins of the testes performed to reduce venous plexus congestion is a/an:
I and II
Trauma to which two of the following cranial nerves would result in the loss of smell and vision
culdocentesis
Performed for suspected ectopic pregnancy
Iridectomy
Procedure for treatment of glaucoma
Arch bar application
Procedure performed to immobilize the jaw following a mandibular fracture
Hip
Which of the following total arthroplasty procedures would require the post-op use of an abduction splint
Mastoiditis
Untreated otitis media can lead to this condition
Doppler ultrasound
Used intraoperatively to assess vascular patency
Tonsillectomy
The instrument shown below would be used during a: (Hurd dissector/Pillar retractor)
Carbohydrates
Body's primary source of energy
Cricoid cartilage
What is compressed during rapid-sequence induction and intubation
Metastasis
refers to the spread of cancer cells to other parts of the body
Pharynx
Shared passageway for food and air
Epididymis
Structure that lies along the posterior border of the testis
Bicuspid
Valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle
slightly movable
Describe amphiarthrosis
Calcium
Most abundant ion in the body
Spore formation
Method of bacterial survival when environmental conditions are not conductive to growth and viability
Pancreas
Organ that detects changes in the level of insulin and releases chemicals to regulate the level of blood glucose
Soaking of moisture from unsterile to sterile layers
Strike-Through
Swan Ganz
Monitoring device used within a vessel
0.25%
When adding 30 mL of injectable saline to 30 mL of 0.5% Marcaine what strength does the drug become
Do not transport patient, inform surgeon
What action should be taken if the patient has withdrawn the surgical informed consent prior to surgery
cross-contamination
Confining and containing instruments with bioburden prevents which of the following
1 inch
Unsterile size of the perimeter of a sterile wrap
Antiseptic
Substance that inhibits the growth and reproduction of microbes on living tissue
Do not transport, inform unit supervisor and OR personnel
What action should be taken by the transporter if a discrepancy occurs in the identification of a patient in the nursing unit
Achieve a cumulative antimicrobial effect
A patient may be asked to shower at home with an antimicrobial soap before coming to the hospital for surgery to:
Scrub, gown, glove
Sequential steps performed prior to entrance into the sterile field
Anus
Area that is prepped last when performing skin prep for Bartholin's cystectomy
Front to back
The sterile surgical technologist should drape a table from:
Brachial plexus
Can be injured if the arm is placed on the arm board greater than 90 degrees
Instill irrigation fluids
Purpose of third lumen in a three-way indwelling Foley catheter
Operating microscope
Enlarges and illuminated the surgical field during cataract procedures
Cottonoids
Small radiopaque surgical patties used during cranial procedures
Avitene
Hemostatic agent that must be applied dry and only handled with dry gloves and instruments
Opthalmology
Surgical speciality that would utilize a phacoemulsification machine
carbon dioxide
Laser that would be contraindicated for use in the posterior chamber of the eye
Right ventricle
In which structure of the heart are the leads for a permanent pacemaker placed
Alcoholic pancreatitis
Diagnosis that would require pancreaticojejunostomy
retropubic prostatectomy
Procedure that would use a Bookwalter retractor
VIII
Cranial nerve severed as a last resort treatment of Meniere's disease
Cervical cancer
Brachytherapy is performed to treat:
radical keratotomy
Performed to improve the vision of patients with myopia
LeFort I
Facial fracture that involves the complete separation of the maxilla from the cranial base
Bennett
What is the name of this retractor? (Bone holding elevator retractor - slight right angle on instrument)
Canine fossa
Where is the incision for a Caldwell-Luc procedure made
Doppler
Device used for real-time intra-operative assessment of blood flow
Craniotomy
Needle holder shown below would be used during a: (Castroviego needle holder)
Catabolism
Chemical reaction that provides energy by the breakdown of food
Semicircular canals
Structure of the ear that is responsible for equilibrium
Glomerular filtration
First step of urine production when fluids and dissolved substances are forced through a membrane by pressure
Mons pubis
adipose tissue overlying the symphysis
X
Cranial nerve that regulates secretion of gastric juice
Second
Phagocytosis by the white blood cells is an example of which line of defense
Away from self
When opening a sterile wrapper, the unsterile person should open the first corner:
Polyester fiber
Least inert of the synthetic meshes
Renografin
radiopaque contrast media used intra-operatively when a patient is allergic to iodine
assault and battery
Legal term applied when a non-English speaking person signs a surgical informed consent in English, but does not fully understand it
Separation anxiety
Psychosocial factor important for the surgical team to address for pediatric patients
Maintains sterility and integrity of back table
Surgical technologist's role during transfer of the patient from the OR bed to the stretcher
Basin with sterile water
When breaking down the sterile field, the surgical technologist should place the grossly contaminated instruments in which of the following?
3
How many minutes are unwrapped instruments with no lumens sterilized at 270 degrees F?
Clippers with disposable heads
Recommended method of hair removal from an operative site
history and physical
Must be in the chart prior to the patient being taken to the OR per The Joint Commission
Facility
An identification bracelet is placed on a surgical patient upon admission to the:
Feet first
To maintain control of the stretcher, the patient should be transported to the OR:
After the tourniquet has been inflated
At what point is it appropriate to lower the leg when draping for a knee arthroscopy
Iris
Structure regulates the amount of light entering the eye
Glomerulus
Capillary network of blood vessels within the renal vortex that functions as a filter
retroperitoneal space
Kidneys are located in the:
Sodium
Most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of impulses
Deciduous teeth
Set of teeth that erupt at about 6 months of age and are later replaced are the:
Thiopental
Frequently used IV barbiturate for general anesthesia induction
Vertebral
Artery that does not arise directly from the aorta
10 hours
How long must an item be immersed in glutaraldehyde to be sterile?
Antigens
Chemical substance that causes the immune system to form antibodies
myringotomy
Surgical procedure for treatment of acute otitis media
Supine, knee at lower break
Patient position on OR table for knee arthroscopy
Craniotomy
Instrument set needed for a frontal sinus fracture repair
Shirodkar
Procedure performed for cervical incompetence
Resectoscope
Surgical instrument used to visualize the prostate and remove tissue during a TURP
Interscapular pillow
Facilitated exposure for thyroidectomy
Tru-Cut
Needle that would be used for a liver biopsy
Cause diastolic arrest
Why is cardioplegia used
Tissue necrosis
Risk of a tourniquet is inflated for a prolonged period of time
Cryotherapy unit
Type of specialty equipment uses liquid nitrogen and is often utilized to repair detachments
Prepped with cotton tip applicators
What is done to the umbilicus during abdominal skin prep
Facilitate respiration
An axillary role is placed for lateral positioning to:
Peroneal
Nerve that could be damaged by improperly padded stirrups
Immediately without preservative
Frozen sections are sent to pathology:
Nephrectomy
Procedure that would be performed with the patient in lateral position
G. Stearothermophilus
Heat-resistant, spore-forming Bacillus contained in the steam sterilizer biological indicator
Hemopoiesis
Blood cell formation
SA node
pacemaker of the heart
cerebral cortex
Thought processes take place in the:
Inhibit surgical site infection
Kantrex, bacitracin or Ancef mixed with saline for irrigation would do which of the following?
Gravity air displacement
Sterilizer that operates with condition, exposure, exhaust and dry cycles
14 Fr. Robinson
Pre-op bladder drainage prior to a D & C would be performed with which of the following catheters
Air filter
In the OR, HEPA is a type of:
Move patient slowly
Precaution utilized to prevent cardiovascular complications when positioning an anesthetized patient
Presence of valves
Why is the orientation of the vein graft reversed during a CABG?
Cushing
Handheld neurosurgical retractor
Below lower eyelid
Incision that may be used for the repair of a zygomatic fracture
Testosterone
Principal male hormone produced in the testes
Staples are an acceptable method of closing peel packs
All of the following statements are true for paper-plastic peel packs, except:
3-way Foley
Following a TURP, a patient may have which of the following placed for bladder irrigation and compression
Hand must not extend beyond cuffs
Which of the following is a correct statement when using the closed-gloving technique
Jackson-Pratt
Drainage device preferred for radical neck dissection
Iliac
Arteries formed by the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta
Neuron
Basic unit of the nervous system
Equipment manufacturer
Correct sterilization times required to render specific items sterile are initially established by the:
Dental inplants
Procedure involving a series of treatments that result in permanent placement of prosthetic teeth
Pressure
In addition to temperature, time and moisture, what other factor determines the outcome of the steam sterilization process?
endometrium
inner lining of the uterus
Steam
Most economical sterilization process
Cell
basic, living structural and functional unit of the body
hard and soft palates
Roof of mouth is formed by the:
Lateral
Patient position following a tonsillectomy
Steroids
Drug classification that reduces tissue inflammation
Prolong anesthetic effect
Result of adding epinephrine to a local anesthetic
Boiling water
NOT a type of sterilizing agent
Needle biopsy
Diagnostic procedure performed for patients with possible prostatic cancer
24 hours
Incubation time for steam biological indicator
Heparinized saline
Agent used to flush the harvested saphenous vein during a CABG
Craniotomy
Procedure that the surgeon might use a Gigli saw
Spores
Low level disinfectants kill most microbes, but do not destroy:
total knee arthroplasty
Polymethyl methacrylate would most likely be used on which of the following procedures?
Linen packs
Should not be sterilized by dry heat
Instill CO2
What is a Verres needle used for during laparoscopy
Phacoemulsification
Method that uses ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens
stapedectomy
In which of the following procedure would fine hooks of various angles be used
Left subcostal
Incisional approach used for a splenectomy
Lateral rectus
During a strabismus correction, resection has a greater effect on which muscle
Iliac crest
Best site for obtaining cortical bone graft
Glycine
Non-electrolytic and isotonic solution used during a TURP
Eustachian tube
Structure that allows the eardrum to vibrate freely and connects the middle ear and the oropharynx
Ventriculoperitoneal shunt
Procedure that may require use of a manometer to check CSF pressure
Penrose drain
Used to retract to spermatic cord during an inguinal herniorraphya
Avoid injury to bladder
Why is an indwelling Foley catheter placed prior to a hysterectomy
Potts-Smith
Best choice of scissors for extending an arterial incision
Lugol's solution
Used to stain the cervix for a Schiller's test
Ascending aorta
arises from the left ventricle of the heart
Chemical
Method used to confirm that items have been exposed to the sterilization process, but sterility is not guaranteed
It is patient property
Why would the hair of a patient undergoing a craniotomy be bagged, labeled and saved?
Basins should be separated by a porous, absorbent towel
When preparing a double basin for sterilization, the:
Femoral Canal
Structure that requires intramedullary reaming prior to placement of a prosthesis during a total hip arthroplasty
Registration
Least restrictive form of credentialing
Analgesic
Drug classification of Demerol
Tracheotomy tray
Should be transported to the PACU with a patient who underwent a thyroidectomy
NaCl
Chemical abbreviation for sodium chloride
Golgi complex
Organelle that packages and distributes proteins
Hemorrhoidectomy
Procedure that would utilize the instrument shown below (Hirschmann anoscope retractor)
All routine treatments and procedures
What types of treatment does a patient authorize when signing a general consent form
Xylocaine
Medication that can be used as a topical jelly during cystoscope procedures
Stroke
Primary post-op complication of carotid endarterectomy
TAH
Which procedure would the instrument shown below be used? (Ferris-Smith tissue forceps)
After final count
When is it acceptable to open surgical dressing sponges?
Don't use; return to Sterile Processing Department
Correct procedure to follow when a sterilized rigid instrument container is opened and condensation is observed
EtO
Method of sterilization requires an aeration cycle
aqueous humor
Elevated IOP is a glaucoma patient is a result of excess:
Left anterior thigh
Placement of grounding pad on a patient undergoing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has a right hip prosthesis
Vaginal hysterectomy
Instrument below is used during a: (Auvard weighted vaginal speculum)
Lower abdomen and pelvis
Trendelenburg position is often used for surgery on the:
Subclavian
Large artery that arises from the left side of the aortic arch and descends into the arm
Cerebellum
Lesions in which part of the brain may affect balance and coordination
Washer-decontamination
Utilized the process of cavitation
Colles' fracture
Name for a dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius
cholecystectomy
During which procedure would the instrument shown below be used? (Ferguson gallstone scoop)
Dorsal carpal
Ligament is transected during surgery for De Quervain's disease
K-Y Jelly
In order to minimize mucosal irrigation during urinary catheterization, the tip of the catheter is dipped in which of the following?
4 times
QID means for medication to be taken how often per day
Pressure
External dressing used to eliminate dead space
Compromised ventilation
In the prone position, patients are placed on chest rolls to prevent:
Lithotomy
Patient position for LAVH
Spleen
Left subcostal incision is used to expose the:
Hypertensive
Intraoperatively, lidocaine with epinephrine may be contraindicated in patients who are:
Middle fossa
Approach used for removal of a small acoustic neuroma that is located in the internal auditory canal
Special written consent
Which of the following must be obtained from a patient undergoing surgical procedures fertility treatments, chemotherapy or experimental treatment
Levophed (norepinephrine)
Drug used to treat hypotension and shock
Dextran
Agent used to expand blood plasma volume
Bile
What does the term Chole/ refer to?
Lining the tray with a nonwoven disposable wrapper
When preparing instruments for sterilization, all the following are completed with the exception of:
Low transverse
Initial incision for abdominoplasty
Chisel
When performing a rhinoplasty, the exostosis in the nose is removed with a:
Prevacuum steam
Type of sterilization requires the use of the Bowie-Dick test
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
First federal act to establish patient privacy standards
Respirator
What should the surgical technologist wear when transporting a patient with tuberculosis from PACU to the isolation patient room?
Patient marks an X
How is the informed consent signed if a patient is illierate
Isopropyl alcohol
Agent that should not be used to disinfect endoscopes
Non-dominant hand
Used to expose meatus during urethral catheterization
Proliferation
Second phase of wound healing
Rectus abdominis
Muscle commonly used for TRAM reconstruction in mammoplasty
Anesthesia provider gives permission
Patient is never positioned until:
Pinocytosis
Cell drinking
High blood pressure
Hypertension
Halon
Type of fire extinguisher should be available when using a laser
Hemorrhage
Major side effects of thrombolytics
Circulator pulls off glove, surgical technologist is revolved by another sterile team member
If a sterile globe becomes contaminated during s procedure, what action should the surgical technologist take?
Purse-string
Suture technique used to invert the stump of the appendix during an appendectomy
surgical technologist holds dressing in place; rolls drape head to feet
Proper procedure for removing a laparotomy drape
Around the kidney
Location of Gerota's fascia
Chewing
Activity that can aggravate the symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia
Decrease static electricity
Purpose of maintaining 20% to 60% relative humidity in the OR
Tap
Surgical instrument used to thread the drilled hole for the screw during an ORIF
Pituitary neoplasm
Pathology that would be treated by transphenoidal hypophysectomy
extrinsic
Muscles that cause strabismus
4
Minimum required number of people to transfer a patient from the OR table to the stretcher
alcohol and tinctures
when used as a skin prep which of the following should be allowed to dry thoroughly if electrocautery will be used
Use of urinary catheters
healthcare acquired infections are most commonly associated with which of the following
Manipulator
technical term for robot arms
Low anterior resection
Procedure where the surgeon would check for anastomotic leaks by injecting air into the rectum, looking for bubble in the fluid-filled peritoneal cavity
hemorrhoids
Varicosities of the rectum and anus
Intestine
Where are vitamins A, D, E and K absorbed
Esmarch
the preoperative exsanguination of an extremity prior to inflating a tourniquet is accomplished with
internal mammary artery
Vessel that is harvested for use during CABG
Bennett
Retractor used to retract muscles during a hip pinning
vasovasostomy
Surgical reanastomosis of the vas deferens
carbon dioxide
Type of laser used to remove polymethyl methacrylate from a cemented joint implant during a revision arthroplasty
tympanic membrane
Sound waves travel through the external auditory canal and strike the:
Montgomery straps
in large abdominal wounds that require frequent dressing changes, which of the following will minimize the skin break down
Allen stirrups
Which of the following positioning devices would be used for an LAVH?
Chin
Mentoplasty refers to surgery of the:
Patient received pre-op medications
Situations that could cause a patient's signature on a surgical informed consent to be challenged in court
hydrate spores and bacteria
Importance of humidity when using EtO sterilization
Filling cranial defects
Purpose of polymethyl methycrylate during a cranioplasty
Fleshy area
appropriate location of placement of a grounding pad
Fogarty
Catheter used for angioplasty
Direct
Hernia that presents through Hesselbach's triangle
Tibia
medial malleolus is part of which bone
Preclotting
Performed prior to implantation of a Dacron knit polyester graft
Acetabulum
Structure that articulates with the head of the femur
Retroflexion
abnormal backward bending of the uterus
Scalp
Raney is what type of clip
Vascular
Ciliary body is part of which layer of the eye
Pilocarpine
Which of these drugs is a miotic?
retrieve reusable trocar from sharps container
Violation of Standard Precautions during post-op case management
pulse oximetry
Type of monitoring equipment that is a noninvasive assessment of oxygen saturation of arterial blood
Intramedullary Nailing
how are femoral shaft fractures in an adult repaired
Van Buren
Instrument used to dilate the male urethra
Critical
To determine the process for preparing surgical instruments for use on tissue and within a body cavity, they are classified as:
Liver
Harrington retractor allows for gentle elevation of which anatomical structure
Meiosis
Division of a reproductive cell into 2 cells with chromosome cells
difficult
Medical term dys- meaning
oropharyngeal airway
after the patient is extubated which device is often used to maintain the airway around the relaxed tongue
Topical thrombin
Accelerates the coagulation cascade
surgical removal
Breast procedure that describes a mastectomy
Anastomosed
what is done to the common bile duct during a choledochojejunostomy
hip arthroplasty
Procedure where a tourniquet would be unnecessary
Stoma
Anatomical sites that would be prepped last when performing a skin prep for a colostomy reversal procedure
endoscopic carpal tunnel release
Performed to relieve pressure on the median nerve
Hand tag to circulator; circulator moves around gown
Proper procedure for turning sterile gown
Opening
Medical term 'os' mean
Amplify speech
Not a function of the trachea
retinal detachment
Condition is characterized by the sudden onset of floating spots before the eyes
2% glutaraldehyde
one of the most effective germicidals for cold sterilization is
Pituitary
From which laminectomy instrument would intervertebral disc fragments be cleaned?
Non-absorbable monofilament
Type of suture used for vascular reanastomosis
Frazier
What is the name of the suction tip? (Useful for small incisions and pediatric procedures)
ATP
molecule that is broken down when body cells require energy
Thumb and trapezium
Which of the following is an example of a saddle joint?
20%-80%
During EtO sterilization cycle, humidity is maintained at:
Isoproterenol
An emergency drug given to stabilize ventricular firbrillation
Minimize airborne bacteria entering room
creating a positive pressure air supply for each OR will:
Providing-Iodine
Acceptable antiseptic solution for skin prep
Rasp
during a total hip arthroplasty which instrument is used after intramedullary reaming to reshape the proximal femoral canal
Electroencephalogram (EEG)
Which of the following assesses the electrical activity of the nervous system
Nephron
Functional unit of the kidney responsible for removing waste and regulating fluid
isopropyl alcohol
intermediate-level disinfectant
External jugular
Which vein of an infant patient is a central venous catheter inserted?
Inside a closed case cart
after the patient leaves the OR the reusable items should be taken to the decontamination room:
DeBakey
clamp used for occluding a peripheral vessel is:
Restrictor
during a total hip arthroplasty which type of device prevents polymethyl methacrylate from filling the medullary canal distal to the prosthesis
Avoid placing pad on buttocks
Proper technique when applying a grounding pad
Natural Absorbable
Sutures that are packaged in alcohol to maintain pliability
Two consulting physicians agree
what procedure should be followed for securing consent for surgery for an unconscious patient requiring emergency surgery whose family members or guardian cannot be contacted
pelvic exenteration
Gynecologic procedure includes removal of the reproductive organs, bladder and rectum
Kills bacteria
isopropyl alcohol is bactericidal, which means it
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
Use of a one-step applicator with little or no pressure on skin would be indicated on which of the following conditions
laryngospasm
Post-op anesthesia complication when extubating a patient
glucogenesis
Process by which glucose is stored as glycogen
Epiglottis
Large, leaf-shaped laryngeal cartilage that acts as a "trap door" over the larynx
Urethral stricture
Use of Van Buren sounds might be necessary for urethral catheterization in patients with which of the following:
Ventricles
Four fluid-filled spaces of the brain
Trigger finger release
Surgical procedure where bupivicaine with epinephrine be contraindicated
Carrier
Individual who harbors a pathogen but displays no signs or symptoms
Cystectomy
Procedure performed before completing an ileal conduit
place in biohazard bag and destroy
which of the following recommended postoperative handling of reusable instruments used ona patient with creutzfeldt jakob disease
common bile duct
In what anatomical structure would a T-tube most likely be placed?
transphenoidal hypophysectomy
Type of procedure performed to treat tumors of the pituitary gland
Frozen sections are sent to pathology on a Raytec sponge
which of the following would be inappropriate manner for the handling of surgical specimens
Bladder retractor
which instrument is used during a suprapubic prostatectomy
suction lipectomy
tumescent solution is used in which of the following procedures
Whistle
Type of non-retaining catheter
Mucosa
Walls of the vagina are lined with:
Sodium Bicarbonate
Drug that counteracts metabolic acidosis
Contaminated
Wound classification assigned to a compound fracture
methylene blue
Type of dye used intravenously to verify patency of the Fallopian tube during a pelvic procedure
Create safe working space
pneumoperitoneum is utilized during a laparoscopy to:
15-17
Required pressure for a steam sterilizer set at a temperature of 250 F
Bipolar electrosurgery
Most commonly used thermal method of hemostasis in cranial neurosurgery
4 minutes
Wrapped instrument set that will be ran in the steam prevacuum sterilizer at 270 F must be sterilized for a minimum of:
Pulmonary embolism
Patient that has a sudden onset of shortness of breath in the PACU that may indicate:
Polypropylene
Non-absorbable, monofilament suture frequently used in vascular procedures
Without oxygen
anaerobic
Peroneal
Nerve in the lower leg that must be protected from pressure when placing the patient in lithotomy position
Thyroid
Exophthalmos due to Grave's disease is associated with which gland?
Lower than level of the bladder
Where should the Foley indwelling catheter drainage bag be positioned after insertion of the catheter?
Synarthroses
Sutures of the adult skull are examples of:
Laminar air flow
ventilation system that provides a unidirectional positive pressure air flow at high air exchange rate in the OR
Ketone bodies
Catabolism of fats produce:
Remove transient flora and reduce resident flora
Principal reason for performing a pre-op skin prep
Hypothalamus
part of the brain responsible for controlling the body temperature
Raney
Clip used for scalp hemostasis in cranial procedures
Cryosurgery
localized freezing of diseased tissues to facilitate removal without bleeding
palpitations
In severe aortic stenosis, all of the following are indications of valve replacement except:
The consent is signed by two consulting physicians
In the event a child requires emergency surgery, but the parents cannot be located to sign the surgical consent what happens?
Alkylation
Ethylene oxide sterilization destroys microbes by the process of what
Atherosclerosis
Most common cause of aortic aneurysm
Guide pins
Used to determine the position of cannulated screws during repair of a femoral neck fracture
Cervix
Instruments shown below are used to dilate the: (Heaney & Hegar uterine dilators)
Be completely dry
prior to being placed in the EtO sterilizer items must be:
Hearing
During general anesthesia induction, which sense is the last to be experienced by the patient?
Hemodialysis
Purpose of creating an arteriovenous fistula of for:
Recurrent laryngeal
The nerve that is at greatest risk for injury during a
thyroidectomy is the:
Radial
Nerve that could be compressed against the humerus in the prone position
Orchiectomy
Surgical procedure for reducing testosterone in prostate cancer
Harrington
Name of the retractor shown below? (Sweetheart)
Items must be immediately recalled
If the broth in the steam sterilization biological indicator is yellow after incubation, what action should be taken?
2 inches
A specimen that is 5 centimeters is equal to how many inches?
Pulmonary artery
Vessels that arises from the right ventricle of the heart
Cut bone
The instrument below is used to do what? (Lambotte osteotome)
Donor site
area prepped first when performing the skin prep for a skin graft procedure
Damaging ballistic markings
Which of the following has legal significance in the mishandling of a bullet?
bronchoscopy
Procedure that requires pre-op high-level disinfection of the endoscope
broad ligament
Maintains the position of the uterus
Nerve stimulator
What device would the surgeon use to preserve facial motor and sensory functions during a parotidectomy?
12
Preferred knife blade to incise the oral mucosa
termperature is below 250 F
Gravity steam sterilization process can be rendered ineffective
Traction suture
suture used to retract a structure to the side of the operative field is a/an what
Confirm the ankles and legs are not crossed
What must the circulating surgical technologist do when placing the patient in the supine position
Lymphatic
Body system that aids in the metastatic spread of cancer cells
PE Tube
Which of the following is inserted into the tympanic membrane incision during a myringotomy?
Lysosome
organelle that contains digestive juices
Tetany
During a thyroidectomy, if all parathyroid glands are accidentally removed, what complication will occur?
Allison
surgical instrument used to retract the lung
Krause nasal snare
Instrument used to remove nasal polyps
Cervix
What anatomical structure is Mersilene tape sutured around during a cerclage
Excision
Meaning of suffix -ectomy
Craniosynostosis
Pre-op diagnosis for an infant undergoing craniectomy
Posterior to the cornea and anterior to the iris
Location of anterior chamber of the eye
Patient has cancer
Which of the following would contraindicate preoperatively setting up the cell saver machine?
Succinylcholine
Which medication is contraindicated for patients with a history of malignant hyperthermia?
Myringotomy
Which of the following is an incision into the tympanic membrane for the removal of accumulated fluid?
Safety belt is placed below the knee
Which of the following is not a requirement when a patient is placed in the prone position?
Container without preservative
A tissue specimen being sent to pathology for a frozen section is prepared by placing it into a:
Intact skin
body's first line of defense against infection
EEA
Stapling device used to create an anastomosis during a low anterior resection
Rectum
Packing material would be placed as a dressing after surgery on the:
Pleura
Lining of the thoracic cavity
Use a heavy hemostat or needle holder
Proper method of removing the knife blade from the handle when breaking down the Mayo stand
Intravenous
Route of drug administration is parenteral
Periosteum
Vascular, fibrous covering of the bone
Pressure
Type of dressing that would usually be used for a laparotomy procedure
Heparin
To prevent deep-vein thrombosis in the bariatric patient, what pre-op drug is given?
Mediastinum
Space entered during a thymectomy
Prepare the intramedullary space for a prosthesis
Femoral rasps are used for which of the following reasons:
Spleen
Organ that is part of the immune system
posterolateral thoracotomy
Incision frequently used for pediatric aortic coarctation repair
If blood loss with replacement is anticipated
type and cross match for blood is completed :
Increase the space between the lower rib and iliac crest
Purpose of the kidney elevator
Save
When storing information on the hard drive of a computer, what is clicked
Wipe down outside of container and place in biohazard bag for disposal
Which of the following is the proper method for handling disposable suction containers when turning over an OR?
Buttocks extend past table break
Which of the following can cause lumbosacral strain in the lithotomy position?
Abdominal Aortic Aneurysmectomy
A midline xiphoid to pubis incision is commonly made for a/an what?
Loupes
Which item listed below should the surgical technologist confirm is available for a nerve repair?
Every load
How often should biological testing of EtO sterilization be conducted?
Peracetic acid
Which of the following is a liquid chemical sterilant often used for sterilizing endoscopes with a cycle time of 30 minutes?
Prior to closure of the body cavity
When should the first closing sponge, sharp and instrument count be completed?
Chlorhexidine
Which of the following skin preps is contraindicated for use around eyes and ears because of potential for corneal abrasions and ototoxicity?
Meperidine (Demerol)
Short-acting narcotic opioid given intramuscularly for pre-op sedation
quadriceps femoris
The leg extensor muscles: rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and the vastus intermedius are collectively called the:
Harrington
Which of the following instruments is not a retractor used during a prostatectomy?
Viewing
Medical term suffix -scopy meaning
10
How many minutes should a Frazier suction tip be immediate-use sterilized (flash sterilized) in a gravity steam sterilizer?
Antiembolic stockings placed on patient
Which of the following pre-op procedures should be completed for the diabetic patient?
Cardiothoracic
Induced hypothermia is typically associated with which of the following surgical specialties?
Spinal
Block involving medication being injected into the subarachnoid space
Latex allergy
Condition that might require use of a Silastic urethral catheter
To prevent pulse oximeter malfunction
A patient receives preoperative instructions to remove nail polish for what reason?
Daily
How often should the steam sterilizing machine's strainer be cleaned
Virus
Smallest microorganism that requires a host cell for replication
otorhinolaryngologist
Surgeon that might provide the operative exposure for the neurosurgeon in a transsphenoidal approach to the sella turcica
Laser plume
An intraoperative mutagenic and carcinogenic hazard of laser use is:
Detergent-disinfection
What type of solution is recommended for cleaning the OR floors during room turnover?
Ellik
Which of the following is used to remove resected prostatic tissue during a TURP?
Aspiration
A patient is instructed to be NPO for 8 hours prior to surgery to prevent:
Iron
Essential element of hemoglobin
Hysterectomy
In which procedure would the instrument shown below be used? (Heaney clamp)
Trochanter
Large, bony process found on the femur
Midline
Incision performed for repair of a liver laceration
Time-Out
Just before the surgeon makes the skin incision, which of the following must be performed:
Increases
The pulse rate of pregnant patients:
Fundus
Portion of the stomach that is superior to the esophageal sphincter
12 lbs
Linen pack to be steam sterilized must not weigh more than:
Operative field
The closing sponge count should be initiated where?
Tonsillectomy
During which of the following procedures is it imperative that the surgical technologist maintain the sterility of the backtable and Mayo stand until the patient is transported out of the OR?
When labeling with felt-tip marker write on the plastic side
Which of the following statements concerning peel-packs is correct?
Cystic artery and cystic duct
Which 2 structures are identified and ligated during a cholecystectomy?
Protect the sterile field
What is the primary responsibility of the first scrub surgical technologist during a cardiac arrest in the OR?
Removal of the lung
What does pneumonectomy mean?
24
How many hours must the steam biological indicator be incubated before recording the results?
Prion
Which of the following is responsible for causing transmission of spongiform encephalopathy?
Isthmus
Thyroid gland consists of right and left lobes joined by the:
Tetany
sustained contraction produced by rapid stimuli
Fast
Type of heart rate that means tachycardia
Acute phlebitis
Least likely complication of suprapubic prostatectomy?
Before pre-op medications are administered
When is surgical consent typically signed?
Remove drapes; preserve sterile field until patient leaves OR; remove gown and gloves; don non-sterile gloves to break down backtable
Which of the following is the order for postoperative case management?
Reverse cutting
Type of needle used when suturing the skin
Doppler probe
Which of the following ultrasonic devices can be used intraoperatively to assess the patency of arterial blood flow?
Dissect periosteum from bone
The instrument shown below is used to: (Key periosteal elevator)
medulla oblongata
Area of the brain that controls respiration
Patients age
factor used to determine the inflation pressure of a tourniquet
Intraoperative
Time from incision to the the dressing application
Gown
At the end of a procedure, and after the patient has been transported out of the OR, the surgical technologist should remove what?
Thyroidectomy
The instrument shown below is used during a/an: (Green retractor)
Third
Considered the operative stage of anesthesia
Surgically clean
Performing the surgical scrub renders the hands and arms:
Disseminated intravascular coagulation
Which of the following is an obstetric complication resulting from overstimulation of the clotting processes?
Relationship between unlike species of organisms
What does the term symbiosis mean?
Clean areas of wall splashed with blood or debris
Which of the following statements is true concerning cleaning OR walls between surgical procedures?
Femorral head
Anatomical structure removes during a total hip arthroplasty
Mouse
Controls the arrow on your monitor
After last count is completed
Wound dressings should be opened when?
Right colectomy
A stent may be placed to identify the ureter during which of the following procedures?
Anectine
A rapid onset muscle relaxant used for intubation
Routine medical treatment
A general consent form authorizes what?
Make last cut to free the uterus
During which step of an abdominal hysterectomy would the instrument shown above be used? (Jorgenson scissors)
Enema
Must be completed pre-op if a patient underwent a barium study the day of surgery
Silk
Suture contraindicated in the presence of infection
Placed in a basin with enzymatic solution in open position for transport to decontamination
When the surgical technologist is breaking down the backtable, instruments with ratchets should be:
Calyces
The cup-like extensions of the renal pelvis that collect urine from the pyramids are called what?
Steri-Strips
Type of one-layer dressing
harbor bacteria that travel length of suture
Braided nonabsorbable sutures should not be used in infected wounds because suture crevices do what?
Foot drop
Post-op complication that can result from excess or prolonged plantar flexion
Airway difficulty
Immediate post-op complication most often occurs with pediatric patients
Keratoplasty
another name for corneal transplant
fallopian tubes
Fertilization normally occurs in the:
Kocher
What is the name of the instrument shown below? (Straight clamp with single tooth on end)
Intima
Inner layer of an artery
Carbon dioxide
Laser can be used on light and dark tissues
cochlear implant
Implant used for individuals with sensorineural deafness
Infection
Splenectomy places the patient at an increased risk for:
Increased
In the presence of infection, the absorption rate of surgical gut is:
Hypoxia
Dark blood in the sterile field could indicate
Freer
Instrument the surgeon will use to free the entrapped orbital fat during repair of an orbital floor fracture
Healthcare-associated infection (HAI)
A urinary tract infection, following a cystoscope, is an example of what type of infection
Bucket handle
Type of meniscal tear
Prostatectomy
Surgical procedure that may require a suprapubic catheter to drain the urinary bladder
Treponema pallidum
Microorganism least likely to be associated with wound infections
Antiseptics
Liquid agent used to reduce microorganisms on the patient's skin
Jackson-Pratt
Closed wound suction drainage device requires being connected to a bulb evacuator
Event-related sterility
Refers to items remaining sterile indefinitely until the wrapping is compromised
Saphenous
Vein that would be harvested during a CABG
24 hours
When incubated, the EtO biological indicator can be read after:
Placenta
Structure that facilitates the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the fetus and mother
Use a clean mop head
When helping to turn over an OR between patients, the surgical technologist should do what?
Gel from the eye
Vitrectomy is the removal of the what?
8 hours
When using EtO sterilization, the recommended aeration time for an aerator set at 140degrees Fahrenheit is what?
Bottom front
where should the biological indicator be placed on the steam sterilizer cart
superior vena cava
Vessel that empties into the right atrium
Needle nolder
Knife blades should be loaded on to the handle with:
K
Vitamin essential for the clotting process
Circle of Willis
From where to most intracranial aneurysms arise
C-arm
Type of equipment that would require pre-op draping by the surgical technologist
Protein
Dietary substance that enhances the production of collagen
12 - 14 mm Hg
Normal intraoperative pressure for the insufflator during a laparoscopy
Center
Where should the EtO biological indicator be placed in the load
Lower legs together slowly in unison
What is the proper way to remove a patient from the lithotomy position?
Anterior and posterior colporrhaphy
What procedure should the first scrub surgical technologist set up for when a female patient is undergoing a repair for a cystocele and rectocele?
Hepatic portal
Which vein drains the small intestine?
Bankart
Specialized retractor used during a rotator cuff repair
Hilum
Concave notch of the kidney through which the ureter exits
Popliteal
Large artery found posterior to the knee
Urine flowing out of catheter
Proper placement of the Foley catheter is confirmed prior to balloon inflation by:
Ileum
portion of the small intestine that joins to the large intestine
Compressed nitrogen
Which tank would be brought into the OR if a surgical technologist is preparing an oscillating saw?
Phimosis
a condition where the prepuce cannot be retracted to normal position
Rod shaped
shape of bacillus
EEA
Type of stapling device used to perform anterior anastomosis
Sympathetic
division of the autonomic nervous system responsible for fight or flight response
Arthrocentesis
surgical puncture of a joint space with a needle for synovial fluid drainage
Acromegaly
excessive secretion of growth hormone causes:
Ovary
Opphorectomy is surgical removal of the:
Striated
Refers to voluntary skeletal muscle
Fixation; to put back in place
Suffix -pexy meaning
Axon
the part of the neuron that carries information away from the cell body
False
Prefix pseudo- meaning
dihiscence
Disruption of previously sutures tissue layers
Fomite
inanimate object on which pathogens may be transmitted
Estrogen
Hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of the female secondary sex characteristics
Trapezius
Muscle that is not a component of the rotator cuff of the shoulder
Antigen
a foreign substance that stimulates the production of antibodies
Breakdown, destruction
Suffix -lysis meaning
Contrast media
Diatrizoate megulmine (Hypaque or Renografin) or Iothalamute meglumine (Conray) are examples of:
3
Small intestine is divided into how many sections
dura mater
Epidural anesthesia involves the administration of an anesthetic agent into the space surrounding the:
Purkinje fibers
Electrical component of the heart that causes contraction of the ventricles
Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
Action of antimicrobials
greater trochanter
Anatomical landmark located at the proximal, lateral portion of the femoral shaft
Anterior cruciate
The primary stabilizing ligament of the knee which is attached to the posterior lateral:
Short
The carpal bones are examples of ________ bones.
Surrounding
Prefix para- meaning
transversalis fascia
Direct of indirect inguinal hernia indicates a tear in the:
Plantar flexion
Bending of the foot downward at the ankle joint
Thoracic
Vertebrae that have ribs attached
Liver
Organs that produces bile
Cocci
Describes spherically shaped bacteria
incontinence
Lack of control over urination
Hypaque
Agent used to perform an intraoperative cholangiogram
T-cells
What does the thymus gland produce for the immune response
X
Cranial nerve that arises from the medulla and innervates the cervical, thoracic and abdominal regions
26
Total number of vertebrae in an adult
Thorax
Medical term for chest
Gallbladder
cholecystectomy is the removal of:
Osteocytes
Cells of the bone
Gastrocnemius
Medical term for calf muscle
Softening
Suffix -malaria meaning
Intestine
Tissue type would a cutting needle be contraindicated
peripheral vascular disease
Would affect normal wound healing
Exist as a single molecule of DNA
The nuclear material of the bacterial cell has been found to:
Colon
Escherichia coli is normally present inside which of the following anatomical structures
Anterior thorax
Nerve that innervates the breast
Posterior
Which fossa is the cerebellum located
Angiography
Omnipaque, a water soluble iodine based contrast medium is used for:
Clostridum
Tetanus and botulism are cause by organisms of the genus:
Maturation
Phase of first intention wound healing
Dexon
Suture that is a polyester fiber suture
Epiphyseal plate
Growth in long bone occurs at:
pneumothorax
air in the pleural cavity
Zygote
Initial result of fertilization of gametes
twelve thoracic vertebrae
Thorax is formed posteriorly by the:
Facial
Seventh cranial nerve
Headache
cephalalgia
Slow
Prefix Brady- meaning
intravenous
Parenteral route of drug administration
strabismus
misalignment or deviation of the eyes
Metabolites
Following administration, most of the drugs are converted to less active or inactive substances called:
epidural hematoma
hemorrhage that forms between skull and outer meningeal covering
Consider the suture contaminated and discard it
If a suture strand hangs or extends over the sterile table edge, the surgical technologist in the scrub role should:
Interaction between drugs and target cells
Pharmacodynamics
Mutualism
A relationship between two species in which both species benefit
Arrest blood flow
Hemostasis means to:
Connective
Cartilage is what type of tissue
anticoagulant
Heparin is classified as a/an:
varicocele
enlarged veins of the spermatic cord
Erythrocytes
red blood cells
120 cc
Standard volume for an asepto syringe
Sterilization
Process where destruction of spores occurs
Diabetes
Systemic conditions affecting the opthalmic system
scalpula and clavicle
Pectoral girdle is formed by the:
respiratory tract
Tubercle bacillus is found in the:
Hyoid
bone that does not articulate with any other bone
Hormones
Adrenal cortex secretes:
Tick bite
Rickettsial diseases of humans are transmitted by
Intravenous
Antibiotics are commonly administered intraoperatively by which of the following routes
nasal conchae
The scroll like ridges on the lateral walls of the nasal cavity are called:
Epinephrine
Drug added to local anesthetic to decrease bleeding
Hemophilia
Inherited deficiencies of coagulation in which bleeding occurs spontaneously after minor trauma
circulatory depression
When an anesthetized patient's position is changed from trendelenburg to dorsal recumbent, he/she should be moved slowly to prevent:
Vagus
Cranial nerve that innervates the larynx and pharynx
Antibitoic
Cefazolin (Ancef) is a/an:
Atropine
All of the following are inhalation agents except:
Prevent skin lacerations
Boosters are used with retention suture to:
Oxygen
Pulse oximetry involves the noninvasive measurement of which arterial blood saturation level
Parietal
Bone of the skull most superior
Ketamine (Ketalar)
Dissociative drug that produces a short-term, trance-like state and hallucinations
Epidural
Commonly used type of anesthesia for obstetric and perineal procedures
Meter
the basic unit of length in the metric system
Phagocytosis
process in which leukocytes engulf and destroy bacteria
Hypoglossal
Motor-sensory cranial nerve that innervates the tongue:
Osteoarthritis
Type of degenerative joint disease
hydrocephalus
abnormal accumulation of fluid (CSF) in the brain
Spore
thick-walled highly resistant body formed within a bacterial cell
Cartilage
C-shaped rings of the trachea are composed of:
Thrombin
Enzyme extracted from bovine blood that is used as a topical hemostatic agent
appendicular skeleton
126 bones that compose the upper and lower extremities of the body
Time of day when the drug is given
Absorption of a drug depends upon all of the following, except:
Colles
Angulated fracture at the distal radius
I
Cranial nerve responsible for sense of smell
Reduce the microbial count
purpose of the surgical hand scrub?
Epiphysis
End of a long bone
Ren/o
combining form meaning kidney
cauda equina
Tail-like distal fibers of the spinal cord
pneumatic tourniquet
External mechanical method of hemostasis
Aneurysm
Dilation of the arterial wall
Spores
Organisms that are highly resistant to destruction and can survive a harsh environment
flow, discharge
Suffix -rhea meaning
Middle ear
Location of malleus, incus and stapes
Pilocarpine
Miotic drug
Afferent
Neurons that conduct impulses to the spinal cord and brain
Differential blood count
A microscopic blood exam that estimates the percentages of each type of white cell within a sample
Chromic gut
Natural suture that is treated with a salt solution to decrease the rate of absorption
Scoliosis
Condition where the vertebral column develops an abnormal lateral curve
An opened sterile bottle of saline or water may be recapped carefully
Which statement concerning sterile technique is false?
binary fission
Multiplication of a cell into two separate cells
Fundus
rounded portion of the uterus superior to the uterine tubes
Warfarin (Coumadin)
Medication that inhibits blood coagulation
Prostigmin (neostigmine)
Drug used to reverse the effect of muscle relaxants
Eukaryotic cells have a well-defined nuclear membrane whereas procaryotic cells have no true nucleus
Major difference between procaryotic and eukaryotic cells
Endocardium
inner lining of the heart
Infection
Condition that exists if a patient has a white blood cell count of 12,500
Carry oxygen
function of hemoglobin
electrocardiogram
electrical recording of the heart activity
Surgical team
Primary mode of airborne bacteria in the operating room
Parotid
largest salivary gland
HIV
Precursor to Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
Retract
Not an action of a stapling device
Scapula
Acromion process is part of which bone
Evisceration
Rupture of a wound with protrusion of abdominal contents
Menisci
Thick, crescent-shaped pads of cartilage that rest on the upper articulate surface of the tibia
Axillary region
Portion of the sterile gown that is considered non-sterile once it has been donned
1000
1 meter = _____ millimeters
Calcaneus
heel bone of the foot
Diaphysis
shaft of a bone
Bacteriophage
A virus that infects a bacterial cell
Cancellous
another name for spongy bone
8-0
Suture size used for ophthalmic procedures
Sternum
True ribs articulate anteriorly with the:
Development, nourishment
Suffix -trophy meaning
Second
Intention of healing that occurs in a wound with a large loss of tissue
IV
Class of surgical wound that has the highest rate of infection
Wasting away
Atrophy means
Clostridium perfringens
Type of anaerobic bacteria that causes gas gangrene
Diuretic
Pharmacological classification of Furosemide
Stainless steel
Highest tensile strength but poor handling qualities
Diuretic
Lasix is a/an:
Cilia
Ability if a microbe to move by itself can be provided by:
hemorrhage and edema
Most common side effects of drugs include all of the following except:
Emergence
Arousal from general anesthesia after cessation of the anesthetic agent
Suture ligature
Another name for a stick tie is:
Oxytocin (Pitocin)
Childbirth labor may be induced by:
Fimbrae
fingerlike projections on the end of the fallopian tube
Drug and dosage
Which of the following is a "basic right" for correct drug handling?
Prostate
Seminal tract accessory gland that surrounds the urethra
Disease-causing microbe
Agar is a/an:
Vicryl
trade name for polyglactin 910, an absorbable suture made of multifilament braided material
Epi-
Prefix meaning above or upon
Muscle to bone
Tendon is defined as a structure that attaches:
Fundus
Upper portion of the stomach
Cutting
Type of needle point that would be used on tendon or skin
Anterior interventricular and circumflex
The left coronary artery divides into the:
Alveoli
Where does the exchange of gases take place in the lungs
obligate intracellular parasites
One of the distinguishing features of viruses is that they are:
Early ambulation
Which of the following would have a positive effect on wound healing?
Keloid
hypertrophic scar formation, elevated beyond site of original injury
choroid plexus
produces cerebrospinal fluid
Carotid
Artery that supplies blood to the brain
Sodium citrate (Bi-citra)
The preoperative medication used to neutralize stomach acidity
Bacteria
example of a prokaryotic cell
Penrose
Passive drain that allows for fluid to exit by capillary action
Anal canal
The colon ends at the:
Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan)
Narcotic antagonist
aden/o
combining form meaning gland
Broad
Name of ligaments that suspend the uterus
Keloid
Type of scar formation that is considered hypertrophic
Decrease intracranial pressure
Diuretics are used intraoperatively to
Active medium
the type of surgical laser is determined by its
against, opposite
Meaning for prefix 'contra-'
4
Brain contains how many ventricles
choroid plexus
Anatomical structure that creates cerebrospinal fluid
Parotid
Which salivary gland is drained by the Stenson's duct
Impacted
Type of fracture that is caused by forcing one bone upon another
wormian bones
Irregular shaped bones that develop in the sutures of the skull
Epiphysis
End of a long bone
polpropylene
Which of the following is the most inert in tissue?
Label the medication
Immediately after receiving a medication, the surgical technologist should:
Dilating
Classification of a Bake surgical instrument
Ranges from infrared to deep ultraviolet
Wavelength of laser light
carbon dioxide
Laser that should not be used in the presence of clear fluids
gynecomastia
abnormal enlargement of the male breast
Synthetic non-absorbable multifilament
Classification of Surgilon
Medulla
Inferior portion of the brain stem
Liver resection
Surgical procedure that would require a blunt needle
Axis
second cervical vertebra
Hip
Largest ball-and-socket joint
Incision
Suffix -otomy meaning
Retina
Inner most layer of the eye
Cecum
Colon begins at the:
Retina
Makes up the inner tunic of the eye and receives images
Cranial
Example of a flat bone
In a straight line
Laser light travels:
Maintain blood sugar level
Primary function of the islets of Langerhans
1mL
1cc of solution is equivalent to:
Nothing by mouth
The abbreviation NPO means
Half
prefix hemi- means
Corpus luteum
Solid granular mass that develops on the ovary after the release of an ovum
Tendon
Muscle is attached to bone by:
Prolene
monofilament nonabsorbable suture
Hypospadias
abnormal congenital opening of the male urethra on the underside of the penis
Calcium
Medication that does not inhibit blood coagulation
Pantaloon
Type of hernia that is both indirect and direct
37
98.6 F = ______ C
Jugular
Large vein that drains the head
Viruses
smallest microorganisms
Serosa
Outer layer of the colon
Papillary muscles
Structure found in the ventricles of the heart
Hemostatic agent
Microfibrillar collagen (Avitene) is a:
Intestine
Curved, tapered surgical needle is used most often on what type of tissue
anti-inflammatory
What is the pharmacological action of hydrocortisone
Osmosis
Passage of fluid and dissolved material into the thin membrane of a cell wall
-rraphy
Suffix that refers to suturing
blephar/o
combining form for eyelid
endocarditis
inflammation of the inner lining of the heart caused by bacteria
Only the top
Portion of the back table that is considered sterile once the sterile field has been established
Argon
Laser beam that can travel through clear tissues without heating them
Isthmus
Thyroid gland that consists of right and left lobes joined by the:
Calculi
Use of silk suture in urinary or biliary tract may result in:
Median
Nerve affected by carpal tunnel syndrome
Autonomic
Division of the nervous system that controls involuntary muscle contractions
Hypothalamus
Glands that regulate body temperature
Tranquilizer and narcotic
2 drug classifications that combine to produce neuroleptanalgesia
Debridement
Removal of necrotic tissue
Claudication
Cramp-like pains in the lower leg caused by poor blood circulation to the lower leg muscles
Bacteria
Gram stain differentiates between:
Away from self
When opening an envelope-folded wrapper, containing a sterile item, the first flap is opened:
Frontal
Which nasal sinus is entered through an eyebrow incision
Premature closure of cranial sutures
craniosynostosis
Hinge
Joint the permits movement in only one plane
hepatomegaly
Enlarged liver
Prep the surrounding area last and the contaminated area first, using a separate sponge
What is the general rule for prepping a contaminated area?
Patella
The kneecap is also known as the:
Parenteral
Topical administration of drugs include all of the following, except:
Right lower
Quadrant where appendix is located:
Plasma proteins
albumins, globulins, fibrinogen are:
Epicondyle
Projection on the surface of a bone located above a condyle
Cranial and spinal nerves
The peripheral nervous system contains:
Ulna
olecranon process is part of which bone:
Irregular
The vertebrae are examples of _______ bones.
Integumentary
Medical term that refers to the skin
Leakage of liquid from vitreous cavity
Retinal detachement is due to:
osteomalacia
softening of the bone
Homeostasis
Ability of the body to maintain a normal internal environment
Lugol's solution
Used to perform Schiller's test
Palate
Roof of the mouth
Thrombin
Chemical hemostatic agent that must never be injected
Achalasia
Pathological term that refers to failure of the lower esophageal muscles to relax
Stopping, standing still
Suffix -stasis meaning
Surgical conscience
a level of honesty and moral integrity that every surgical technologist must uphold in the delivery of quality patient care
Conjunctiva
Mucous membrane covering the eye
Pylorus
Small intestine begins at the:
Thrombin
What clotting factor does fibrinogen react with to form fibrin during the clotting process
Fibrinolytic
Streptokinase is used as a
Fungi
Eukaryotic
Hypovolemia
low blood volume
Supination
turning the hand so that the palm is upward or facing anteriorly
Occipital
foramen magnum is an opening in which bone:
12
number of pairs of cranial nerves
Peristalsis
Intestinal motility
hospital acquired infection
Healthcare associated infections
Marcaine
Long acting local anesthetic
Streptococci
spherical shaped bacteria occurring in chains
Antibiotic
Cephalosporins are a/an:
Pneumonia
Disease that results of an invasion by a pathogen
arteriosclerosis obliterans
Atheroma within the lumen of an artery is called:
Polyethylene
Type of suture used for tendon repair
Crohn's disease
a type of inflammatory bowel disease with chronic inflammation of the intestine
Thousandths
What does the number 4 represent in the decimal 0.02457?
immediately
stat means
Epidermis
Outermost layer of the skin
Luer-Lok
Syringe most appropriate for administering a local anesthetic
Talus
Bone that articulates with the distal tibia and fibula
Medial
Directional term referring to the middle of the body
dura, arachnoid, pia
Correct order of the layers of the meninges anterior to posterior
Brain stem
Structure connecting the spinal cord with the brain
Infection
Invasion of pathogens within the tissues of a host
Ischemia
reduced blood flow to an area
0.25
The fraction 1/4 is equal to:
Polypropylene
non-absorbable suture that may be used in the presence of infection
Sepsis
Presence of pathological microorganisms in the blood or tissues
Neurotransmitters
Endorphins, enkephalins, dopamine, and serotonin are examples of:
Ribosomes
Cellular organelle that serves as the site of protein synthesis
Microaerophiles
Microorganisms that grow best with a low level of oxygen supply
6
Number of extrinsic ocular muscles that control eye movement
Hypoglossal (XII)
Cranial nerve that may be injured during carotid endarterectomy
Cocci in cluster
The term staphylococcus is the arrangement of:
Host cell metabolism
Viruses reproduce by
hypotension
A clinical symptom of shock
Haustra
Normal pouches of the large intestine
Aerobic
bacteria that require oxygen
Secrete lubrication
Function of Bartholin's gland
Polydioxanone
Absorbable suture offering the longest duration of wound support
regional anesthesia
Any instance in which a local anesthetic is injected to block or anesthetize a nerve
Unbroken skin
The body's first line of defense against the invasion of pathogens is
Decrease the clotting time
What do anticoagulants do:
Spinal block
A method of anesthesia in which medication is injected into the subarachnoid space
Facultative
Microorganisms that have the ability to adapt to an aerobic or anaerobic environment
Iliac crest
Bone grafts are usually taken from the:
Trigeminal
fifth cranial nerve
Pericardium
outer covering of the heart
Patient's endogenous flora
Most common cause of a surgical site infection
Stain red
Staining characteristic of gram-negative organisms
Thalamus and hypothalamus
diencephalon is composed of the:
Minimizing pain perception
Narcotic analgesics produce their effects by:
Anaphylaxis
Life threatening allergic reaction
Perform a surgical hand and arm scrub
Before donning the sterile gown and gloves the surgical technologist must:
Coagulation
Can be achieved with the use of electrocautery
prophylactic
Antibiotics given to prevent post-op infection
Cerebrum
largest part of the brain
Femur
longest bone in the body
Liver
Prefix hepat/o meaning
Cristae
Folds of the lining in the stomach
Bile into the duodenum
The function of the sphincter of oddi is to control the flow of:
Units
Heparin is measured in:
Methylene blue
Agent used to perform a chromotubation
Drain the bladder in order to avoid injury
Purpose of the Foley catheter
Hyoid
Only non-articulating bone in the body
Length
Millimeter (mm) is a unit used to measure
Between
Prefix inter- meaning
tensile strength
Measure of force required to break a suture
Atlas
first cervical vertebra
-emia
suffix meaning blood condition
Heart
Organ of the body that contains both striated and smooth muscle
Olfactory
First cranial nerve
Optic
Second cranial nerve
Oculomotor
third cranial nerve
Trochlear
Fourth cranial nerve
Trigeminal
fifth cranial nerve
Abducens
Sixth cranial nerve
Facial
Seventh cranial nerve
Acoustic
Eighth cranial nerve
Glossopharyngeal
ninth cranial nerve
Vagus
tenth cranial nerve
Spinal Accessory
Eleventh cranial nerve
Hypoglossal
Twelfth cranial nerve
Olfactory (I)
cranial nerve responsible for sense of smell
Optic (II)
the cranial nerve responsible for vision
Oculomotor (III)
Cranial nerve responsible for eye movement
Trochlear (IV)
Cranial nerve responsible for the Superior Oblique Muscle (Somatic Motor)
Trigeminal (V)
Cranial nerve responsible for sensation in the face and motor functions such as biting and chewing
Abducens (VI)
Cranial nerve responsible for Lateral Rectus Muscle of the Eye (Somatic Motor)
Facial (VII)
Cranial Nerve responsible for motor: facial muscles movements, sensory: taste on 2/3 anterior tongue
Acoustic (VIII)
Cranial nerve responsible for hearing and equilibrium
Glossopharyngeal (IX)
Cranial Nerve responsible for taste on the posterior 1/3 of the tongue, swallowing, and speech
Vagus (X)
Cranial Nerve responsible for the heart and gastrointestinal system
Spinal Accessory (XI)
Cranial nerve responsible for motor to turn head and shrug shoulders
Hypoglossal (XII)
Cranial nerve responsible for tongue movement
Blood from the body flows:
to the superior and inferior vena cava,
then to the right atrium
through the tricuspid valve
to the right ventricle
through the pulmonic valve
to the pulmonary artery
to the lungs
The blood picks up oxygen in the lungs, and then flows from the lungs:
to the pulmonary veins
to the left atrium
through the mitral valve
to the left ventricle
through the aortic valve
to the aorta
to the body
Path of blood flow through the heart
Right hypochondriac
Epigastric
Left hypochondriac
Right lumbar
Umbilical
Left lumbar
Right iliac
Hypogastric
Left iliac
Regions of the abdomen (from left to right going down)
Mitochondria
Cell 'batteries' that store energy and supply the cell with ATP; powerhouse of the cell
Diffusion
Movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration
active transport
the movement of ions or molecules across a cell membrane into a region of higher concentration, assisted by enzymes and requiring energy
Mitosis
cell division
interphase
prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
Five stages of mitosis
Skeletal
Muscle tissue that is found attached to bones; striated, voluntary
Smooth
Muscle tissue that is found in internal organs such as blood vessels and bladder; visceral, involuntary
Cardiac
Muscle tissue that is found in heart; striated, involuntary, contains intercalcated disks
Epidermis
outer layer of skin composed of stratified squamous epithelium
Dermis
made up of mostly dense connective tissue; below epidermis
subcutaneous tissue
Tissue, largely fat, that lies directly under the dermis and serves as an insulator of the body
Diaphysis
shaft of a long bone
epiphyseal plate
Growth plate, made of cartilage, gradually ossifies
Support/framework
Protection of internal organs
Movement (along with muscles)
Storage of minerals (calcium and phosphorus)
Blood cell formation (hematopoiesis)
Functions of skeletal system
Long bones
bones that are longer than they are wide; the bones of the arms and legs
Short bones
Cube shaped; bones of wrist and ankle
Flat bones
Two thin layer of compact bone sandwiching a layer of spongy bone; bones of the ribs and cranium
irregular bones
Do not fit into any of the other bone categories, variable shape such as vertebrae
Synarthrosis
immovable joint (skull)
Amphiarthrosis
cartilaginous joint that are slightly moveable (rib cartilage, pubis symphysis, between vertebrae)
Contain reflex centers and provides conduction pathways to and from the higher and lower centers in the brain
Hypothalamus
A neural structure lying below the thalamus; it directs several maintenance activities (eating, drinking, body temperature), helps govern the endocrine system via the pituitary gland, and is linked to emotion and reward.
Thalamus
relays messages between lower brain centers and cerebral cortex
cauda equina
collection of nerve roots at the inferior end of the vertebral canal
Sclera
white of the eye
choroid
middle, vascular layer of the eye, between the retina and the sclera
ciliary body
Structure surrounding the lens that connects the choroid and iris. It contains ciliary muscles, which control the shape of the lens, and it secretes aqueous humor
Iris
a ring of muscle tissue that forms the colored portion of the eye around the pupil and controls the size of the pupil opening
Lens
the transparent structure behind the pupil that changes shape to help focus images on the retina
anterior cavity
filled with aqueous humor
aqueous humor
fluid in the eye, found between the cornea and the lens
Posterior cavity
contains vitreous humor
Retina
Light sensitive inner layer of the eye; contains rods and cones
Pinna (auricle)
The external, visible part of the ear
external auditory canal
The ear canal; leads to the tympanic membrane
tympanic membrane
The eardrum. A structure that separates the outer ear from the middle ear and vibrates in response to sound waves.
Eustachian tube
A narrow tube between the middle ear and the throat that serves to equalize pressure on both sides of the eardrum
auditory ossicles
three small bones linked together that connect the eardrum to the inner ear; malleus, incus, stapes)
mastoid sinus
An air-filled space within that mastoid process of the temporal bone behind the ears
osseous labyrinth
Contains organs for hearing and equilibrium
vestibule
Space between the cochlea and semicircular canals
semicircular canals
three fluid-filled canals in the inner ear responsible for our sense of balance
cochlea
a coiled, bony, fluid-filled tube in the inner ear through which sound waves trigger nerve impulses
pituitary gland
endocrine system's most influential gland. Under the influence of the hypothalamus, the pituitary regulates growth and controls other endocrine glands
pineal gland
secretes melatonin
thymus gland
located in the mediastinal cavity anterior to and above the heart; secretes thymosin
thyroid gland
located in neck; regulates metabolism by secreting thyroxine
parathyroid glands
four small glands on the posterior of the thyroid gland
adrenal glands
a pair of endocrine glands just above the kidneys. the adrenals secrete the hormones epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline), which help to arouse the body in times of stress.
Pancreas
An organ in the abdominal cavity with two roles. The first is an exocrine role: to produce digestive enzymes and bicarbonate, which are delivered to the small intestine via the pancreatic duct. The second is an endocrine role: to secrete insulin and glucagon into the bloodstream to help regulate blood glucose levels.
Pharynx
throat; passageway for food to the esophagus and air to the larynx
Larynx
voice box; passageway for air moving from pharynx to trachea; contains vocal cords
Esophagus
A muscular tube that connects the mouth to the stomach
cardiac sphincter
Fundus
Body
Pylorus
Pyloric sphincter
Divisions and sphincters of stomach (top to bottom)
duodenum, jejunum, ileum
3 parts of the small intestine
Duodenum
major digestion occurs here; receives bile from gallbladder at Ampulla of Vater
jejunum
Begins at ligament of Treitz
ileum function
absorbs nutrients
Villi
Fingerlike extensions of the intestinal mucosa that increase the surface area for absorption
Manufacture pancreatic juice for digestion, insulin for carbohydrate metabolism, and glucagon as a antagonist
Duct of Wirsung
Ampulla of Vater
Sphincter of Oddi
Pancreatic juices are carried through the _____________ which joins with the bile duct to enter the duodenum at the _____________ controlled by the _____________
Liver
Largest gland in the body, metabolic regulation, hematological regulation, bile production
Liver
Has 2 major blood supplies entering (portal vein & hepatic artery) and one exiting (hepatic vein) which empties into the inferior vena cava
Gallbladder
Lies on inferior surface of liver, stores bile until needed for fat digestion
mesentery
fan-shaped fold of peritoneum that anchors the intestines to the posterior abdominal wall
Omentum
apron-like fold of peritoneum that attaches to the greater curvature of the stomach and transverse colon and hangs loosely anteriorly over the abdominal organs
Erythrocytes
red blood cells
Leukocytes
white blood cells
Thrombocytes
blood platelets
endocardium
myocardium
epicardium
three layers of the heart
Endocardium
endothelial layer of the inner myocardial surface
Myocardium
Thick middle muscle layer of the heart composed of cardiac muscle
epicardium
visceral layer of serous pericardium, secretes fluid to provide for lubrication; parietal pericardium is the fibrous layer that anchors the heart to surrounding structures
Arteries
carry blood away from the heart
Veins
carry blood to the heart
Capillaries
Smallest blood vessels, connects arterioles to venules, carry blood to cells
Circle of Willis
A circle of arteries at the base of the brain that supply blood to the brain; common place for cerebral aneurysms
Placenta
a flattened circular organ in the uterus of pregnant women, nourishing and maintaining the fetus through the umbilical cord.
umbilical cord
a tube containing the blood vessels connecting the fetus and placenta
lymph nodes
Bean-shaped filters that cluster along the lymphatic vessels of the body. They function as a cleanser of lymph as wells as a site of T and B cell activation.
lymph vessels
vessels that receive lymph from the lymph capillaries and circulate it to the lymph nodes
spleen, thymus, tonsils
organs of the lymphatic system
Trachea
a large membranous tube reinforced by rings of cartilage, extending from the larynx to the bronchial tubes and conveying air to and from the lungs; the windpipe
paranasal sinuses
Four paired air cavities within the cranial bones that drain into the nasal cavities
thyroid cartilage
A firm prominence of cartilage that forms the upper part of the larynx; the Adam's apple
cricoid cartilage
the ring-shaped structure that forms the lower portion of the larynx
Sellick maneuver
A technique that is used with intubation in which pressure is applied on either side of the cricoid cartilage to prevent gastric distention and aspiration and allow better visualization of vocal cords; also called cricoid pressure.
Bronchi
Two air passages between trachea and bronchioles; common location for aspirated foreign object to become lodged
Bronchioles
smaller airways that branch from the bronchi, capable of constructing and dilating
Alveoli
air sacs in the lungs that constitute the gas exchange surface of the lungs
Pleura
Membrane surrounding the lungs
visceral pleura
covers the lungs
parietal pleura
lines the thoracic cavity
pleural space
potential space between the parietal pleura and the visceral pleura. It is described as "potential" because under normal conditions, the space does not exist
external respiration
exchange of gases between alveoli and blood capillaries
internal respiration
exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the cells of the body
Apnea
absence of breathing
bradypnea
abnormally slow breathing
cyanosis
a bluish discoloration of the skin resulting from poor circulation or inadequate oxygenation of the blood.
Dyspnea
difficult or labored breathing
Tachypnea
rapid breathing
hypercapnia
excessive carbon dioxide in the blood
Hypoxia
low oxygen levels
kidney function
extract waste from blood and excrete them as urine
Gerota's fascia
A fibrous capsule that encircles the kidney to aid in keeping the kidney in the correct anatomical position and to cushion it from injury
cortex of kidney
outer portion of the kidney; houses the nephrons
medulla of kidney
inner portion of kidney, composed of loops of Henle, renal pyramids, and calyces that empty into the renal pelvis
renal pelvis
funnel-shaped reservoir that collects the urine through calyces and passes it to the ureter
Hilum
Kidney Pedicle; notch on the surface of the kidney where blood vessels, nerves, and ureters enter or leave
Nephrons
functional units of the kidney that remove wastes from the blood and produce urine
glomerulus
A ball of capillaries bringing blood to nephrons surrounded by Bowman's capsule in the nephron
Bowman's capsule
cup-shaped strucutre of the nephron of a kidney which encloses the glomerulus and which filtration takes place
Ureters
tubes that carry urine from the kidneys to the bladder
urinary bladder
saclike organ in which urine is stored before being excreted
Urethra
tube leading from the urinary bladder to the outside of the body
prostate gland
A gland in males that contributes to the seminal fluid
Epididymis
A long, coiled duct on the outside of the testis in which sperm mature
vas deferens
tube that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra (ejaculatory ducts)
corpus luteum
ruptured follicle after ovulation
Estrogen
Female sex hormone
Testosterone
Male sex hormone
Progesterone
hormone produced by the corpus luteum in the ovary and prepares the uterine lining for pregnancy
Oxytocin (Pitocin)
Stimulates smooth muscle to contract. Helps in birthing process/ expel placenta
Prolactin
stimulates milk production after childbirth
Fimbriae
finger or fringe like projections at the end of the fallopian tubes to sweep over ovary and catch egg to direct it into tube
endometrium, myometrium, epimetrium
Layers of the uterus
Foramen magnum
opening of the occipital bone through which the spinal cord passes
New sterile supplies and instruments should be obtained for OR 2 and the setup in Or 1 should be disposed of
Sterile supplies and instrument for a case have been opened for OR 1, you were just informed that the case has been moved to OR 2 and the next case in OR 1 is in 2 hours? What is your course of action?
Inflammation
Body's local tissue reaction to injury
Randall forceps
Instrument used for common bile duct exploration
Avoiding the knot
Most important consideration when cutting suture
Cystic artery and cystic duct
Structure that is ligated and divided during a cholecystectomy
Pressure dressing
May be used when applying a sterile dressing to a skin graft site
Shroeder
When performing a D&C, which of the following instruments is used to grasp the cervix
Acceptance
A terminally ill patient tells the nurse "no matter what happens, it will be okay" on the way to the OR. Which of the 5 stages of grief is the patient most likely in?
Bayonet forceps
Instrument used for placement of cottonwood strips during a craniotomy
Passing from-to-front or back-to-back
members of the sterile surgical team should pass each other within the sterile field by:
Extra corporal bypass
Used to oxygenate and circulate blood
Physiologic condition of the patient
Primary consideration in selecting an appropriate anesthetic agent
stacked inside the other and separated by a towel
If two basins are wrapped together for sterilizing, they should be packaged with one basin
Bean bag
Item that may be used in positioning a patient for a total hip arthroplasty
do not acknowledge the neighbor unless greeted first
A surgical technologist sees a neighbor being admitted. How should the surgical technologist respond?
placed in a separate basin
Instruments that come in contact with the appendiceal stump during an appendectomy should be
Necrosis
Most serious complication of a strangulated hernia
readjust the drapes as necessary after placement
which of the following techniques is NOT acceptable for draping the patient
rectus abdominis
Structure that is separated first when a paramedian incision is performed
Mayfield clamp
Most likely used to stabilize a cervical fracture
cauterization
During a TURP, bleeding is controlled by:
Surgical gloves
to prevent contamination at the end of a surgical procedure, which of the following should be removed LAST by the surgical technologist in the scrub role
Gerota's fascia
In order to remove a portion of the kidney, the surgeon must enter which of the following?
Robinson
Most common straight catheter used prior to laparoscopic GYN procedures in the OR
anterior colporrhaphy
Stamey needle is used for which of the following surgeries?
sigmoidoscopy
Immediately before a hemorrhoidectomy, what procedure might be performed in the OR?
Fenestrated drape
drape with an opening that allows exposure of the operative site
Primary intention
An appendectomy incision closed using suture is considered which type of wound closure
Make patient with diabetes
Patient most likely to acquire a nosocomial infection
Purse-string
Appendices stump, when inverted, is held in place by what type of suture
Oxygen
Aerobic organisms require ___________
Re-establish negative pressure
The primary purpose of chest tubes is to?
Gelpi
Self-retaining retractor commonly used in orthopedic surgeries
Whipple
Surgical procedure used to remove a carcinoma from the head of the pancreas
Active electrode
Sterile item used with an electrosurgical unit
Drying of secretions
What is the desired effect of atropine sulfate when used as a preoperative medication?
Osteomyelitis
A post-op total arthroscopy patient presents to the ER with severe throbbing, pain, fever, malaise. What is the likely diagnosis?
Kirschner wires
used to stabilize a fractured finger
Prevent spread of microorganisms
Primary purpose of changing into OR attire
request to be removed from the room
A surgical technologist is assigned to a room where the patient happens to be his neighbor. To protect patient confidentiality, the technologist should indicate that he knows the patient and:
decrease intracranial pressure
Mannitol (Osmitrol) is used in neurosurgical procedures to:
Pleura
Lies between the lung and the chest wall
Adaptic
Applied as a non-adherent dressing
facial paralysis
If the VII cranial nerve is severed, what is the following result?
cuticular and subcuticular
when assisting with the closure of a skin incision and operating the skin stapler, the surgical technologist in the scrub role is placing the staples through which two layers?
appendectomy
Which surgery is a Meckel's diverticulitis typically discovered?
rectus abdominis muscle
Which of the following layers are transected when a subcostal flank incision is used for a nephrectomy?
Craniotomy
Perforator is used for what surgical procedure
Jordan Day drill
In preparation for a cranial aneurysm, which of the following pieces of equipment would most likely be used?
conjuctiva
First tissue layer that must be incised during a strabismus surgery
If an emergency procedure must be performed
When can instrument counts be omitted
Left lateral kidney
Patient position for a right neohrectomy
the liver rests superior and anterior to the right kidney
Why is the right kidney typically several centimeters lower than the left kidney?
3 minutes
Minimum exposure time in a flash sterilizer for unwrapped instruments
Battery
If a routine surgical procedure was performed without consent, the surgeon committed:
not administer blood to the patient
If an adult patient refuses a blood transfusion, the surgical staff should:
Carrying for the specimen
During the intra-op phase, which of the following activities can be completed by both sterile and non-sterile members of the surgical team
Fluid-filled sac
Lumbar meningocele involves removal of:
Skin injuries
Wrinkle-free passing is applied to an extremity before application of a tourniquet to avoid:
Sent to pathology immediately
Specimen obtained for frozen section is generally removed from the sterile field intra-op because it is:
cholangiography
Procedure used to visualize the cystic, hepatic, and common bile ducts
Detached retinas
a scleral buckle procedure repairs?
Senn
Retractor that should be available to provide exposure to the patellar tendon while harvesting the graft for an ACL repair
carotid endarterectomy
The surgical technologist should remain sterile in what procedure?
Mixter clamp
During dissection of the cystic duct in an open cholecystectomy, which instrument is necessary?
Biliary obstruction
A patient entering the OR for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy looks jaundiced. What is the best possible explanation for this?
block peripheral nerve receptors
Primary purpose of a local anesthetic
Facial nerve
Nerve that is identified and preserved with the use of a nerve stimulator during a parotidectomy
Propofol
Medication the anesthesia provider is responsible for recording the name, amount, and delivery method
Cystocele
What would cause a bulge in the vaginal wall of a patient with a Foley catheter?
resectoscope
Instrument that should be included in a TURP setup
Kocher
single heavy-toothed tip clamp; grasping tough tissue (ie. fascia, bone, muscle)
Skin, subcutaneous, fascia, muscle, peritoneum
Order of contact with the layers of tissue entering the abdominal cavity
Res Ipsa Loquitur
If a Kelly clamp is left in a patient who underwent a cholecystectomy, which legal concept applies?
Protamine sulfate
Reversal drug for heparin
Internal mammary artery and affected coronary artery
To revascularize the heart muscle of a patient with heart disease, a graft may be anastomosed between which of the following two vessels?
Opened for washing and sterilizing
Ratcheted instruments should be:
Permits penetration by the sterilant
Effective packaging material used for a Balfour to be steam sterilized:
Calcium
Parathyroid gland regulates:
Thoracic
Scoliosis is most commonly found in which curve of the vertebral column
Pledget
Most effective mechanical method of controlling bleeding occurring from needle holes in vessel anastomoses
Balloon catheterization
Procedure used to remove an embolus
phacoemulsification
removal of a cataract by ultrasonic vibration and aspiration
incision of the dura mater
During a craniotomy, removal of the bone flap is followed by:
Linear
Stapler used during a laparoscopic appendectomy ensuring no spillage of bowel content
Lugol's solution
Used to identify diseased areas for food conization of the cervix
Lithotomy
Patient position of D&C
Brain spoon
May be used for a cerebral aneurysm
Kerrison
Rongeur instrument needed for laminectomy
Subcuticular
Suturing technique that features short lateral stitches that are taken beneath the epithelial layer of skin
Blunt
Surgical needle most appropriate for a liver resection
Antimicrobial
Function of silver sulfadiazine (Silvadine)
Hemoglobin
the oxygen-carrying protein in blood
Absorb water
main function of the large intestine (colon)
Virus
Hepatitis B is caused by a:
Hand cleaning
At the conclusion of the case, how would the surgical tech aid in reducing bioburden on instruments as the first step in the sterilization cycle
spermatic cord
Potential surgical complication of an inguinal herniorraphy is injury to the:
Subcostal
Type of incision typically used for an open cholecystectomy