Which instrument has the appearance of a misshapen pancake spatula?
Davidson scapula retractor
How many ribs are considered “true” ribs with direct connection to the sternum with costal cartilage?
seven
For which of the following procedures would the rigid bronchoscope be preferred?
removal of foreign body in children
Lung tissue has what kind of consistency?
friable
Which nerve could be damaged during lung decortication resulting in paralysis or partial paralysis of the diaphragm?
phrenic
In which procedure would an incision NOT be required for insertion of the endoscope?
bronchoscopy
Which structure within the respiratory tract is the proximal and superior?
larynx
Which of the following are the final branchings of the respiratory tree?
alveoli
The manubrium, body, and xiphoid process are portions of the:
sternum
All of the following structures are found within the mediastinum EXCEPT:
diaphragm
Which membrane covers the surface of the lungs?
visceral pleura
What is the medical term for coughing up blood?
hemoptysis
How many lobes are there in the right lung?
three
In which part of the respiratory system does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place?
alveoli
Which of the following regarding blood flow is correct?
right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lungs, pulmonary vein, left atrium
What is the name of the device that is attached to suction for collection of mucous or bronchial washing specimens?
Lukens tube
What is the medical term for visible changes in density on chest x-ray that indicates pulmonary pathology?
infiltrate
Thymomas, neurogenic tumors, and pleuropericardial cysts can be biopsied during which procedure?
mediastinoscopy
Where is the insertion point for the mediastinoscope?
suprasternal notch
What is the name of an air-filled sac that has the appearance of a blister on the surface of lung tissue?
bleb
In the event that a VATS procedure had to be converted to an open procedure, which open case would be performed?
thoracotomy
Which of the following will be required upon completion of any procedure in which the pleural cavity has been
opened?
chest tube attached to a Pleur-evac system
Which additional pain control measure is taken for patients undergoing pectus excavatum repair by VATS?
epidural
What is the name of the procedure performed to release constriction of the lungs by fibrin layers?
lung decortication
The name of the condition created when pus is not cleared from the pleural cavity and makes a fibrous constrictive
layer is:
empyema
Prior to the closure of a lobectomy procedure, the anesthesia provider performs a Valsalva maneuver to check for:
air leakage from bronchial closure
What is the term for a collapsed lung?
atelectasis
Which type of incision is made for a pneumonectomy?
posterolateral
Which of the following is a crushing clamp with sharp spikes in the jaw used on the bronchus?
Sarot
Which instrument is a rib shear?
Bethune
What is a commonly used rib self-retaining retractor available in adult and pediatric sizes?
Finochietto
Which instrument is a lung-grasping forceps that resembles a very large Pennington?
Lovelace
Which of the following thoracic procedures would require the patient to be put on cardiopulmonary bypass?
pulmonary thromboendarterectomy
Following lung transplantation, the surgeon will perform which procedure to aspirate secretions and check for leaks?
bronchoscopy
The main bronchi, pulmonary arteries, veins, and lymphatic vessels enter the lung on the medial surface through the:
hilum
How many pulmonary veins are there?
four
Which diagnostic study is MOST useful for verification of thoracic aortic dissection?
stress test
Which statement regarding the anatomical placement of the heart is correct?
It is positioned in the mediastinum with approximately 2/3 of the heart on the left side.
Which structure is considered the “pacemaker” of the heart?
SA node
Which chamber of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the pulmonary artery?
right ventricle
Which portion of the heart is responsible for pumping blood into the ascending aorta?
left ventricle
The coronary arteries originate from the:
ascending aorta
What is the name of the area between the visceral and parietal pleura that contains serous fluid to prevent friction?
pleural space
What is the thickest part of the heart?
myocardium
Where is the apex of the heart located within the mediastinum?
inferiorly on the left side
Which one of the following is NOT one of the cardiac valves?
septal
Which heart valve is also known as the bicuspid valve?
mitral
The apex of the lung is located:
superiorly and just above the clavicle
All of the following are components of the “heart-lung” machine EXCEPT:
defibrillator
Where are the cannulae MOST commonly placed for cardiopulmonary bypass procedures?
right atrium and ascending aorta
Which of the following is a commonly used method of preserving the heart by reducing its metabolic needs?
hypothermia
Which suturing technique maintains the aortic and venous cannulae?
purse-string
The force and rate of contraction of the heart is controlled by which part of the central nervous system (CNS)?
medulla oblongata
What is the first step in the formation of an atheroma?
injury to endothelial lining
Which of the following is the main underlying pathogenic cause of coronary atherosclerosis and clinical
manifestations?
ischemia
Which artery accounts for approximately 50% of occlusive coronary lesions?
left anterior descending
What is the name of the acute condition in which heart muscle dies from ischemia and may lead to sudden cardiac
death?
myocardial infarction
Where is a Swan-Ganz catheter placed?
pulmonary artery
Which suture is frequently used for anastomosis of the saphenous vein or internal mammary artery in CABG?
6-0 or 7-0 polypropylene
Which instrument is used to make a small opening into the ascending aorta after the Satinsky partial occlusion clamp
is placed?
aortic punch
With what is the median sternotomy closed?
heavy gauge stainless steel wire
Medtronic OCTOPUS® and Guidant Ultima OPCAB® are what type of devices for coronary artery bypass done off-
pump?
stabilizers
What is the name of the device used for patients who are unable to be weaned off of cardiopulmonary bypass?
intra-aortic balloon pump
Which device is used for patients awaiting heart transplant that allows them to be ambulatory and has both internal
and external components to the system?
ventricular assist device
What is the general term for incurable diseases of the heart for which the only treatment would be heart
transplantation?
cardiomyopathies
Aortic valve stenosis and aortic regurgitation are often as a result of:
rheumatic fever
Which diagnostic method provides the MOST extensive details regarding valvular disorders?
cardiac catheterization
A heart murmur is often heard with auscultation and indicative of involvement of which structure?
mitral valve
What is the average lifespan of biologic and mechanical heart valve replacements?
10 to 15 years
What is the term for a localized stricture of the aorta found in a pediatric patient?
coarctation
Which singular congenital defect involves failure of closure of the connection between the pulmonary artery and
aorta?
patent ductus arteriosus
What is frequently used to repair atrial and ventricular septal defects in pediatric patients?
Dacron patch
Which congenital defect has four components and is characterized by cyanosis causing appearance of “blue babies”?
tetralogy of Fallot
Which surgical approach is used for repair of coarctation of the aorta and patent ductus arteriosus?
posterolateral
Commissurotomy is a surgical separation of the flaps of the:
mitral valve
The saphenous vein used for coronary artery grafting must be reversed before anastomosis due to the presence of
valves in the vein.
True
Video-assisted thoracic surgery procedures use carbon dioxide for distention.
False
The ventricles of the heart have thicker myocardium than the atria.
True
Lung reduction surgery is performed for patients with emphysema.
True
The drainage and collection device attached to chest tubes relies on a water seal to reestablish negative pressure in the
pleural cavity.
True
A heart rate that exceeds 100 beats per minute
Ventricular tachycardia
Chaotic and disorganized stimulation of the ventricle, making it unable to effectively pump blood
Ventricular fibrillation
Abnormally slow electrical impulses and heartbeat below 40 to 60 beats per minute
Bradycardia
Disorganized stimulation of the atria that prevents atrial contraction and does not allow for ventricular filling
Atrial fibrillation
Absence of a heartbeat; cardiac standstill
Asystole
Percentage of blood volume pumped out of the heart into the systemic circulation; indicator of ventricular function
Ejection fraction
Noninvasive study used to diagnose mitral valve stenosis or other valvular disorders
Echocardiography
Monitoring procedure that records electrical activity of the heart