1. In what year was approved the law "On the sanitary-epidemiological welfare of
population":
A. 2015 №393
B. 1991 №657
C. 1991 №600
D. 1990 №550
E. 1991 №440
2. In which articles of the Law "On the sanitary-epidemiological welfare of
population" reflects the activities of a doctor on food hygiene:
A. 27, 29, 30, 31
B. 1,2,5,26,30.
C. 26, 27, 30, 31
D. 25, 26,28, 30
E. 27,29,30,31
3. Specify the number of the order of accounting and reporting forms of
documentation:
A. Order 231
B. Order 203
C. Order 657
D. Order 261
E. Order 361
4. What forms of acts of examination, you know:
A. depth, checking, case
B. sanitary, sampling, in-depth
C. screening, in-depth, unscheduled
D. unplanned, test, sample
E. unplanned, screening, case
5. What documents are fundamental:
A. Constitution. labor law, the law of the Republic of Uzbekistan "On Gossannadzor"
B. Constitution of the Republic of Uzbekistan, snip, sanpravila
C. Labour Code, state standards, SNIP
D. Law of Uzbekistan "On Gossannadzor"
E. constitution of the Republic of Uzbekistan, the labor code, the law "On education"
6. In what year was the Constitution of the Republic of Uzbekistan adopted:
Mr. A. 8.12.1992
Mr. B. 7.10.1991
Mr. C. 7.10.1992
Mr. D. 8.10.1990
E. 29.08.2015 Mr.
7. In what year adopted the Labour Code:
A. 1996
B. 1992
C. 1993
D. 1995
E. 1992
8. What documents are of national-normative:
A. Sanitary norms and rules, hygienic norms, state standards, SNIP, orders of the
MoH, the constitution of the Republic of Uzbekistan
B. Sanitary norms and rules, labor law, SNIP
C. SP, hygienic standards, labor. Code for the Protection of Children
D. Hygienic standards, state standards
E. -Sanitary regulations, hygienic standards, state standards
9. What are the sections of the CMR consists of food hygiene section:
A. Planning the work, forms and methods of reporting, evaluation CSES activities
under section food hygiene, planning paperwork, records, lab plan, methodical work
B. Organizational and methodical work, scientific work, reporting, record keeping
C. Annual reports, paperwork
D. Records CGSEN, work plans, the plan Laboratory
E. Organizational and methodical work and research
10. From a statement of work depends on the efficiency and quality of the SPE and
TSN:
A. health education
B. Scientific and practical work
C. Organizational and methodical work
D. methodical work
E. anliz disease
11. What materials are the initial data in the preparation of the plan:
A. MATERIALS morbidity, nutritional status of the population, the health of the EPP,
PPT, SPT materials on the quality of food sold
B. Material incidence, reports of previous years. materials about the nutritional status
of the population, the materials on the health of the EPP, PPP, PIT
C. Proceedings of the quality of food sold as materials for food, laboratory data, the
power structure of the population, the health of the enterprise
D. Proceedings of the sanitary condition of the company, the state of nutrition of the
population
E. Proceedings on the quality of food products sold, the composition of nutrition, for
the health of the enterprise
12. What are the keys containing the annual plan:
A. Introductory part, MRA, TSN, NDP, San prosvet.rabota
B. OMP, PSN, TSN, San clearance work
C. PSN, TSN, NDP
D. San prosvet.rabota scientific work
E. TSN, NDP, San prosvet.rabota
13. What data contains organizational measures:
A. Compliance with government regulations, monitor the implementation of orders of
the Ministry of Health of Uzbekistan, monitor the implementation of decisions
hokimiyats
B. Monitoring of the implementation of government regulations, monitor the
implementation of the instructions of higher organizations, monitor the
implementation of decisions hokimiyats
C. Monitoring of regulations hokimiyats, monitoring ResTsGSEN orders, monitor the
implementation of orders of the Ministry of Health of Uzbekistan
D. Monitoring the implementation of the orders of the Ministry of Health of
Uzbekistan and ResTsGSEN
14. Specify the second direction of the SPE:
A. When developing new food products
B. -with proektirvanie new food enterprises
C. When the reconstruction of food enterprises
D. In the acceptance of new workers in enterprises
E. For current Sanitation
15. What methods are used CGSEN:
A. instrumental methods
B. Method of sanitary description, calculation method, laboratory methods
C. Methods of sanitary description, instrumental methods, calculation method
D. Methods of describing food sanitary facilities, laboratory and instrumental studies,
statistical methods
E. Methods of sanitary description
16. Who conducted a comprehensive survey of food businesses:
A. Epidemiology, doctors Hygienists
B. epidemiologists, doctors, food hygiene, occupational health
C. epidemiologist, sanitary doctor, other doctors
D. other physicians, epidemiologists
E. epidemiologists and sanitary doctors
17. Specify the dimensions of cost, depending on the level of CSES:
A. RayTsGSEN to 3 times the minimum wage, gorTsGSEN to 5 times the minimum
wage, resTsGSEN to 7 minimum wage
B. RayTsGSEN 1 salary gosSES to 3, to 5 ResTsGSEN
C. RayTsGSEN to 2, gorTsGSEN to 3 to 5 ResTsGSEN
D. RayTsGSEN to 3, gorTsGSEN 1 salary ResTsGSEN to 4
E. -RayTsGSEN to 7 minimum wages, gorTsGSEN to 5 times the minimum wage,
resTsGSEN to 7 minimum wage
18. Which sections reflect the assessment of the CSES food hygiene:
A. PSN, TSN
B. PSN, THC, food poisoning, hygienic training
C. PSN, TSN, preparation of sanitary asset
D. PSN, TSN, hygiene training, laboratory work, measures of administrative
compulsion
E. PSN, food poisoning, hygienic training
19. Part of the grain endosperm:
A. carbohydrates
B. proteins
C. Fats
D. All of these
E. mineral elements
20. Part of the fetus:
A. vitamins
B. all of the
C. proteins
D. essential fatty acids
E. carbohydrates
21. If 1 kg of grain weevils defined 8 pieces what degree porazhen¬nosti storage
pests:
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 2
22. Your conclusion, if 1 kg of grain mites identified 25 pieces:
A. 2 infection, which is subject to special processing plants
B. 1 infection, which can be used
C. 3 degree of damage, you can use
D. 4 infection, which is subject to the description
E. -7 degree of infestation, to be treated in special plants
23. Permissible Metal impurities in the flour:
A. 3 mg / kg
B. 25 mg / kg
C. 10 mg / kg
D. 18 mg / kg
E. 23 mg / kg
24. "refreshing" of stale bread:
A. transfer moisture from gluten in starches at a furnace temperature
B. transfer of moisture from the starch under the influence of high gluten
C. decrease in temperature under the influence of humidity high temperature
D. All of these
E. -translation moisture from gluten in starches at low furnace
25. The disease occurs when the consumption of bread affected "stringy disease"
A. potato disease
B. food poisoning
C. Food poisoning
D. does not cause disease
E. -mikrobnaya infection
26. Technological process aimed at the prevention of potato disease of bread:
A. Add in tests calcium acetate
B. Sufficient heat treatment tests
C. Implementation of bread hot
D. adding citric acid in the bread
E. The benzoic acid in bread
27. Hygienic indicators of flour:
A. acidity, humidity, no foreign substances
B. porosity, acidity
C. porosity and the absence of foreign substances
D. Lack of bacteria
E. -kislotnost, humidity
28. Hygienic indicators of bread:
A. acidity, humidity, porosity
B. Content of protein, fat, carbohydrates,
C., nitrogen, ammonia, hydrogen sulfide
D. acidity density
E. acidity and moisture
29. casein milk:
A. cow milk
B. donkey milk
C. mare's milk
D. goat milk
E. -buyvolnoe milk
30. Milk albumin:
A. mare's milk
B. cow's milk
C. buffalo milk
D. sheep milk
E. buyvolnoe milk
31. Acidity 2.5% milk fat:
A. 25 degrees
B. 30 degrees
C. 2,5 degrees
D. 20 degrees
E. -35 degrees
32. The fat content of standardized milk:
A. 3,2%
B. 6%
C. 3,5%
D. 2,3%
E. 3,6%
33. A method of using milk from animals with positive tuberculin skin test:
A. can be used after pasteurization
B. can not be used for food
C. can be used for animal feed
D. an acid to milk products without pasteurization
E. acid to milk products pasteurization
34. A method of using milk from sick animals tuberkulezeom:
A. can be used after sterilization
B. can be used after boiling
C. depends on the fat cattle
D. can not be used for food
E. usable without sterilization
35. A method of using milk from sick animals brucellosis:
A. After boiling for 5 minutes on a farm sends to dairies
B. destroyed
C. may be used without boiling
D. can not be used after sterilization
E. After boiling for 3 minutes on a farm sends to dairies
36. A method of using milk from sick animals with positive reaction to
sero¬logicheskoy brucellosis, but no clinical symptoms:
A. can be used after pasteurization
B. for animal feed
C. boiling in place of milking
D. may be used without pasteurization
E. You can use
37. A method of using milk from sick animals FMD:
A. after boiling at 80 ° C
B. 30 minutes is used for the needs of the economy after boiling sent to the dairy
C. for animal feed
D. can be used without restrictions
E. After boiling at a temperature of 80 degrees C.
38. A method of using milk from sick animals mastitis:
A. can not be used for food purposes
B. after sterilization
C. for animal feed
D. on milk products
E. After posterization
39. A method of using milk from sick animals anthrax:
A. destroyed
B. When boiling
C. after sterilization
D. for animal feed
E. -after pasteurization
40. The fat content of sour cream premium:
A. 36%
B. 25%
C. 30%
D. 45%
E. -35%
41. Fat content of cream of first grade:
A. 30%
B. 35%
C. 45%
D. 25%
E. -36%
42. Acidity sour premium:
A. 65-90 degrees
B. 65-110 degrees
120 degrees C.
D. 130 degrees
E. -75-90 degrees
43. Acidity cream first grade:
A. 65-110 degrees
B. 69-90.gradusov
120 degrees C.
D. 70 degrees
E. 70-110 degrees
44. Acidity cheese 20% fat:
A. 200-225
B. 65
C. 160
D. 90
E. -20-225
45. Nitrogen extractives of meat:
A. carnosine, creatine
B. anferin, creatine
C. gipokoantin, aksarin
D. anserine
E. -karnozin
46. Nitrogen-free extractives of meat:
A. glucose, glycogen
B. hypoxanthine
C. glucose, anserine
D. karnezi, creatine
E. glucose
47. helminthiasis transmitted through the meat:
A. tenidioz
B. difillobatrioz
C. opistarhoz
D. ascariasis
E. trehillez
48. Your conclusion, if 40 sm.kv. 3 Finns found in meat:
A. conditionally fit
B. benign
C. It is not a benign
D. low nutritional value
E. conditionally-worthless
49. Your conclusion, if a 40 cm square. 2 Finnish meat found:
A. conditionally fit
B. benign
C. has poor
D. low nutritional value
E. conditionally-worthless
50. In what kind of meat is more common trichinosis:
A. Pork
B. Lamb
C. horsemeat
D. Fish
E. Beef
51. Indicator epidemiological safety of milk:
A. coli-titer, total bacterial count
B. acidity density
C. fat
D. coli index
E. elbow to-titer coli index
52. Indicator epidemiological safety of fish:
A. absence of helminths and pathogenic bacteria
B. Amino-ammonia nitrogen
C. hydrogen sulfide
D. All of these
E. the absence of helminths
53. Indicator epidemiological safety of meat:
A. absence of helminths and pathogenic bacteria
B. Amino-ammonia nitrogen
C. hydrogen sulfide
D. volatile fatty acids
E. no helminths
54. The fermented sour milk products
A. mation, yogurt
B. yogurt, kimiz
C. sour cream, cottage cheese
D. yogurt, cottage cheese
E. -matsion, slovochnaya oil
55. The products mixed fermentation:
A. yogurt, katyk
B. all of the
C. mation, yogurt
D. sour happening
E. yogurt, sour cream
56. The most dangerous in epidemiological terms between bacterial phases in milk:
A. bactericidal
B. fermented milk
C. Mixed
D. All of these
E. ammonium amiachny
57. The correct chain of Trichinella in humans:
A. intestinal mucosa, lymph, blood, muscle
B. gut-blood, muscles, blood
C. gut-lymph-parenchymal organs
D. gut-parenzimatoznye organs lungs
E. -slizistye intestinal lymphoma
58. Your conclusion, the detection of blister forms at the echinococcus slaughter
animals:
A. liver poor quality meat benign
B. benign liver and meat
C. liver and meat has poor
D. low nutritional value of the meat
E. –liver quickie
59. A method for use of meat from sick animals generalized tuberculosis:
A. conditionally fit, if the meat is fat
B. meat low nutritional value
C. benign
D. for animal feed
E. conditionally-worthless
60. Your conclusion, if a child has a weight of less than the standard, which is not
enough food in the diet:
A. meat products
B. dairy products
C. Potatoes
D. fruit and vegetables
E. Fish Products
61. Your conclusion, if the meat of sheep and goats derived from sick animals with
generalized forms of brucellosis:
A. conditionally fit
B. benign
C. has poor
D. low value
E. conditionally-worthless
62. Your conclusion, if the meat is obtained from sick animals plague:
A. conditionally fit
B. has poor
C. benign
D. low nutritional value of the product
E. conditionally-worthless
63. Your conclusion, if the meat is obtained from sick animals FMD:
A. conditionally fit
B. has poor
C. falsified
D. low nutritional value of the product
E. conditionally-worthless
64. What is the purpose nitrites used in the production of sausages:
A. For color and bacteriological effects
B. For a taste
C. for amplification process
D. To increase the acidity
E. -for color
65. Hygienic indicators of meat:
A. volatile fatty acids
B. aminoammiachny nitrogen
C. bacteriological indicators
D. acidity
E. -gelmetnye infection
66. The content of volatile acids in good quality meat:
A. 0.35 ml per 100 grams of meat
B. 0.36 mL of 1000 grams of meat
C. 1,0 ml per 100 grams of meat
D. 0.036 ml per 100 g of meat
E. -0,25 ml per 100 grams of meat
67. Permissible content aminoammiachnogo nitrogen benign meat:
A. 8.0 mg per 100 g
B. 50 ml
C. 80 mg to 1000 mg
D. 80 mg per 100 g
E. 3,0 mg per 100 g
68. Your conclusion, if as a result of the sanitary examination of meat vyyav¬leno
100 grams of meat, 0.25 ml of volatile fatty acids, 75 mg aminoammiachnogo
nitrogen, clear broth, organoleptic characteristics without izmene¬ny:
A. benign
B. falsified
C. low nutritional value
D. malignant
E. uslonvno-fit
69. When assessing the quality of meat by 25 point scale scored 21 points, your
conclusion:
A. Benign
Reduced the value of the product B.
C. conditionally fit
D. has poor
E. -nedobrokachestvennye
70. When the sanitary examination of meat gained 9 points, your conclusion:
A. has poor
B. conditionally fit
C. falsified
D. low nutritional value
E. -dobrokachestvennye
71. microscopy meat in sight found 30 cocci and rods 3, how many points credited for
the examination:
A. 3 points
B. 1 points
C. 5 points
D. 10 points
E. 5 points
72. If examination of meat, organoleptic characteristics conform to how many points
credited:
A. 13 points
B. 23 points
C. 20 points
D. 25 points
E. -23 points
73. Hygienic indicators of sausages:
A. humidity, salt
B. nitrites, hydrogen sulfide
C. aminoammiachny nitrogen
D. volatile fatty acids
E. -vlazhnost nitrates
74. The permissible level of nitrite in sausage products:
A. 3 mg percent
B. 15 mg of interest
C. 2 mg percent
D. 1 mg percent
5 mg percentage E.
75. Special features of fish meat from animals:
A. lack of elastin
B. proteins ihtulina
C. lack of collagen
D. the presence of elastin
E. -no fats
76. The first signs of damage to fish:
A. Changes in color of gills
B. Oxidation of fat
C. unpleasant odor
D. bloating
E. -priyatny smell
77. Ways to use the fish in the "tan" from the spine:
A. If the "tan" Surface can be used
B. tacky
C. If the "tan" the surface can not be used
D. for animal feed
E. benign
78. Worms transmitted through the fish:
A. difillobatrioz, opistorhoz
B. opistorhoz, tennidioz
C. tennidioz, trichinosis
D. diphyllobothriasis, trichinosis
E. diphyllobothriasis, gelmentoz
79. The epidemiological chain diphyllobothriasis:
A. Human-crustaceans, fish people
B. People-water-fish-man
C. fish cat-fish-man
D. small cattle-dog-man
E. is a man of fish-man
80. The epidemiological chain opisthorchiasis:
A. Anhui Conch-man-fish people
B. People-crustaceans, fish cat and water
C. Fish-cat-and-water-fish shellfish
D. Fish-water-dog-man
E. is a man of crustaceans, fish-man
81. diphyllobothriasis called:
A. plerotsirkoidami tapeworm wide
B. Finns
C. plerokirkoidami cat fluke
D. cat fluke metacercariae
E. is a man of and crustaceans
82. Opisthorchiasis called:
A. metacercaria cat fluke
B. plerotsirkoidami broad tapeworm
C. cat fluke
D. fastsiozami
E. -finny
83. teniidoze called:
A. tsitotsirkoidami tapeworms
B. plerotsirkoidami broad tapeworm
C. cat fluke
D. bubble shape echinococcus
E. tapeworms
84. Trichinosis is caused by:
A. larval form of small round helminth
B. tsistotserkoidami tapeworm
C. plerotsirkoidami broad tapeworm
D. cat fluke
E. -lichinochnoy helminth
85. "Magenta" salted, smoked fish:
A. Results of breeding salt-loving bacteria
B. defeat carpet beetle larvae of the beetle
C. The results of hemolysis of blood along the spine
D. losing fish virus
Salt-loving bacteria E.
86. "Shashel" salted, dried fish:
A. defeat carpet beetle larvae of the beetle
B. putrid process
C. The results are breeding salt-loving bacteria
D. hemolysis spine
E. defeat carpet beetle larvae of the beetle
87. Your conclusion, if salted fish is "deep Shashel":
A. quickie
B. conditionally fit
C. The product of low nutritional value
D. product will be airing
E. -dobrokachestvennaya
88. Your conclusion, if found in smoked fish surface "Shashel":
A. conditionally fit
B. Product low nutritional value
C. has poor
D. product will be airing
E. conditionally-fit
89. For some reason, the fish struck deep "Shashel" is considered to be of poor
quality:
A. By epidemiological indicators
B. Toxicity
C. Change of the chemical composition
D. organoleptic
E. Indicators on fizichiskogo
90. What is the index number for conducting official documentation Heads doctor
CGSEN:
A. №1
B. -№2
C. -№3
D. -№4
E. -№5
91. What is the number of the index is designed to maintain service documentation
Zamglai doctor CGSEN:
A. №2
B. -№1
C. -№3
D. -№4
E. -№5
92. What is the number of the index is designed to maintain service documentation
department of toxicology CGSEN:
A. №12
B. -№1
C. -№2
D. -№10
E. -№11
93. What is the number of the index is designed to maintain service documentation
orgotdela CGSEN:
A. №3
B. -№1
C. -№2
D. -№4
E. -№5
94. What is the number of the index is designed to maintain service documentation
department of food hygiene CGSEN:
A. №6
B. -№1
C. -№2
D. -№3
E. -№4
95. What is the number of the index is designed to maintain service documentation for
the sanitary department CGSEN:
A. №8
B. -№1
C. -№7
D. -№6
E. -№9
96. What is the number of the index is designed to maintain service documentation for
epidotdela CGSEN:
A. №9
B. -№6
C. -№7
D. -№8
E. -№5
97. What is the number of the index is designed to maintain service documentation
san.gig. Laboratory CGSEN:
A. №11
B. -№12
C. -№13
D. -№14
E. -№15
98. What is the number of the index is designed to maintain service documentation
Chancellery CGSEN:
A. №18
B. -№11
C. -№12
D. -№13
E. -№14
99. What is the number of the index is designed to maintain service documentation
HR CGSEN:
A. №19
B. -№13
C. -№14
D. -№15
E. -№16
100. Radical prevention diphyllobothriasis:
A. Prevention of water pollution
B. Thermal processing of fish
C. The prohibition of the consumption of raw fish
D. destruction of worms in ponds
E. elimination of water pollution
101. Palliative prevention diphyllobothriasis:
A. sufficient thermal processing of fish
B. prevention of pollution of water bodies worms
C. destruction of worms in ponds
D. demolition hanging toilet waters off the coast
E. fresh views
Your 102. Finally, the detection of a massive infection of fish muscle plerotsirkoidami
diphyllobothriasis:
A. poor quality
B. Benign
C. conditionally Useful
D. can be used for animal feed
E. low nutritional value
103. A method of using fish affected surface "rust":
A. shall be subject to immediate implementation
B. can be used after washing with brine
C. may be used after heat treatment
D. may not be used
E. -podlezhit slow implementation
104. What are the indicators of sturgeon caviar is considered to be of high biological
value:
A. By lecithin
B. composition proteins
C. A fat
D. By calorie
-by Fat composition E.
105. The drug is used for the conservation of sturgeon calves:
A. hexamine
B. sulfur dioxide
C. phosphoric acid
D. Sodium benzoate
E. -kaly benzoate
Your 106. Finally, if the fish struck "rubella":
A. poor quality
B. benign
C. conditionally Useful
D. low nutritional value
E. can be used for animal feed
Your 107. Finally, if the fish struck "limfatsistitom":
A. poor quality
B. conditional Godunov
C. low nutritional value
D. for animal feed
E. can be used for animal feed
Your 108. Finally, if the fish is struck by "gill rot":
A. Use for food purposes is not permitted
B. can be used for heat treatment
C. can be used without restrictions
D. can be used after washing Toulouse
E. -can use
109. Hygienic characteristics of fish:
Sample A. Hebert, acidity, humidity
B. Sample Hebert, Nessler, hydrogen sulfide
C. proteins, fats, carbohydrates
D. Vitamin and mineral substances
E. Hebert -proba
110. The cause of the fish taste in butter:
A. splitting lecithin
B. Increased acidity
C. reproduction of fungi
D. moldy
E. -ponizhennoy ksilotnosti
111. The cause of musty taste in butter:
A. reproduction of putrefying bacteria
B. reproduction of spore-forming bacteria
C. decomposition of lecithin
D. proteolysis
E. -razmnozhenie bacteria
112. The reason for the bitter taste in butter:
A. reproduction of fungi
B. zaplesnevenie
C. proteolysis
D. breeding fat
E. -splitting fat
113. Fosfoproteidy egg yolk:
A. Vitellius, Levitin, fosfovin
B. livetin, vitelin
C. fosfovitin, livetin
D. All of these
E. -vitellin, fosfovin
114. The protein of egg yolk:
A. ovalbumin
B. konalbumin
C. ovoglobulin
D. All of these
E. -konglobulin
115. eggs Phospholipids:
A. All listed
B. kafelin
C. ofingmielin
D. Witelo
E. -konglobulin
116. The main form of carbohydrates in fruits and vegetables:
A. fructose
B. maltose
C. galactose
D. oligosaccharide
E. -disaharid
117. Vegetables grown in the prohibited use of sewage:
A. carrots, radishes
B. tomatoes, cucumbers
C. cucumbers, carrots
D. All of these
E. radishes, cucumbers
118. The allowable level of carbon dioxide in carbonated beverages:
A. at least 0.4%
B. Do not menne 1%
C. not more than 0.4%
D. Bolle not 3%
E. -not less than 0.9%
119. The allowable level of copper in fruit juices:
A. up to 6 mg / l
B. less than 6 mg / l
C. for at least 3 mg
D. at least 100 mg / l
E. -Up to 8 mg / l
120. MLC zinc in fruit juices:
A. to 100 mg / l
B. at least 100 mg / l
C. to about 150 mg / l
D. to 200 mg / l
E. -up to 250 mg / l
121. Spices:
A. Mustard
B. Dill
C. Garlic
D. All of these
E. onions
122. Spicy Vegetables:
A. Dill
B. garlic
C. Bow
D. All of these
E. -gorchitsa
123. The exciting stuff in mustard:
A. sinigrin
B. akserin
C. piperine
D. Creatine
E. -nikotin
124. The exciting stuff in paprika:
A. piperine
B. sinegrin
C. akserin
D. All of these
E. Creatine
125. Allowable agaroid content in ice cream:
A. 700 mg / kg
B. 7000 mg / kg
C. 50 mg / kg
D. 250 mg / kg
E. 70 mg / kg
126. For what purposes Grohoma salt used in the food industry:
A. melter
B. preservative
C. Stabilizer
D. Stimulator
E. dye
127. For what purpose is used in the production of sodium phosphate sausages:
A. stabilizer
B. preservative
C. dye
D. Stimulator
E. -plavitel
128. For what purpose, calcium chloride is used in the manufacture of cheese:
A. stabilizers
B. dye
C. preservative
D. Stimulator
E. -plavitel
129. Place in the classification of botulism food poisoning, poisoning fazinom:
A. bacterial toxicosis
B. non-bacterial toxicosis
C. bacterial poisoning
D. fuzariotoksikozy
E. -aflotoksikozy
130. Place in the classification of food poisoning, poisoning fazinom:
A. non-bacterial toxicosis
B. poisoning
C. aflotoksikozy
D. fuzariotoksikozy
E. -bakterialnye toxicosis
131. As a result, the consumption of the product is more common poisoning fazinom:
A. Beans
B. potatoes
C. cucumber
D. Eggs
E. mach
132. As a result, the consumption of the product is more common solanine poisoning
A. seedling potatoes
B. rotten potatoes
C. Fish
D. Eggs
E. cucumber
133. As a result, the consumption of the product may amygdalin poisoning:
A. bitter almonds
B. lentils
C. Bean
D. peas
E. tonsils
134. It is not food poisoning:
A. deliberate introduction of poison in the food
B. salmonella
C. ergotism
D. Mikoto
E. -difteriya
135. toxic properties amanitin pale toadstool:
A. hepatotropic and neytrotropnoe
B. neytrotropnoe
C. hemolytic
D. nephrotic
E. hepatotropic
136. The toxic properties giromitrina morel:
A. hepatotropic, nephrotoxic
B. hemolytic
C. hepatotropic and neytrotropnoe
D. neytrotoksicheskoe
E. neytrotropnoe
137. Mushrooms, consumption of which causes jaundice:
A. Morel
B. pale grebe
C. mushroom
D. cep
E. muscarine
138. The effect of the toxin mushroom:
A. muscarine
B. galvellovaya acid
C. giromitrin
D. ergotism
E. -muhomor
139. The possibility of a prolonged carrier state of salmonellosis in humans:
A. 6 months
B. 3 years
C. 1 year or less
D. lifetime
E. 9 months
140. Natural sources of salmonella:
A. Cattle
B. pigs and sheep
C. cats and dogs
D. rodents
E. -ovtsy
141. The main sources of kolitoksikoinfektsii:
A. People
B. animals
C. Bird
D. Sheep and pigs
E. pigs
142. What are the organoleptic changes during colonization products enterococci:
A. No change
B. unpleasant odor
C. mucilaginized products and a bitter taste
D. fishy aftertaste
E. -priyatny smell
143. Initial symptoms of botulism:
A. diplomas, ptosis, mydriasis
B. diploma, ptosis, anemia
C. diplomas, Athos, anemia
D. Multiple liquid stools
E. - Athos, anemia, ptosis
144. What is the pH of the medium retards the growth of botulinum bacteria:
A. less than 4.4
B. more than 7
C. less than 7
D. More 4.4
E. - at least 5.5
145. The most common form of food toxicosis:
A. stafilakokkovy
B. botulism
C. enterobacterial
D. fuzariotoksikoz
E. -streptokokovy
146. The condition under which stafilakokkovy toxin loses its activity:
A. such conditions do not exist
B. a 10% concentration of salt
C. boiling over 1hour
D. 40% sugar concentration
E. 30% sugar concentration
147. Consideration of future plans in agriculture and the national economy:
A. drafting of industrial catering
B. Consideration of the projects market
C. Consideration of projects of industrial projects
D. Consideration of the draft trade
E. drafting catering
148. SNIP used in the design and construction of power obschest¬vennogo:
A. PL 8-71
B. PL 7-70
C. FL 7-81
D. FL 8-89
E. FL 7-80
149. Sanitary rules used in the design and construction obek¬tov food industry:
A. 245-71
B. 3.01-87
C. 2.07.01-89
D. 3-72
E. -246-77
150. Sanitary rules of design objects production of food:
A. PL 7-70
B. PL 7-81
C. FL 8-71
D. FL 8-89
E. FL 8-80
151. The rules of hygiene in the construction of facilities in the food obschestven¬nyh
buildings:
A. 1.08.02-89
B. 645: 619
C. FL 7-70
D. FL 9-71
E. -1.09.03-88
152. hygiene rules when planning Dairy:
A. 645-619
B. 3-73
C. 3.01.04.87
D. 2.07-01-89
E. -655-600
153. The rules of hygiene in the construction of food objects in residential buildings:
A. 2.08.01.89
B. 645: 619
C. P 8-71
D. P 8-79
E. -3.09.02.86
154. At what distance from the red line must be positioned object ob¬schestvennogo
supply:
A. 6 m
B. 5 m
C. 5,6 m
D. 7 m
E. -8 m
155. The rules for the acceptance of ready production facilities:
A. 3-01-04-81
B. 645: 619
C. FL 7-71
D. FL 7-70
E. 4-02-05-82
156. How far have placed the production of food from collection city dump:
A. 1 km
B. 3 km
C. 1.5 km
D. 2 km
E. -2,5 km
157. How far should be placed on the production of food promysh¬lennosti emitting
industries:
A. 100 meters
B. 200 m
C. 500 m
D. 400 m
E. -300 m
158. The territory which deviation terrain stroi¬telstva more inconvenient for the food
industry:
A. 0,5-10 degrees less
B. 0.5 degrees less
C. 20 degrees more
D. 30 degrees
E. -10-20 degrees less
159. The territory of which deviation of the terrain is not suitable for suspended
construction of food industry:
A. 20 degrees
B. 10-20 degrees
Less than 20 degrees C.
D. 0,5-10 degrees
-More Than 36 degrees E.
160. The territory of which deviation of the terrain is not suitable for the food industry
stroitel¬stva:
A. less than 0.5 degrees, and 10-20
B. more than 20 degrees
C. 0,5-10 degrees
D. less than 20 degrees
E. less than 10 degrees and 20-30
161. The daily requirement of water in manufacturing, where every day from 1 ton of
semi-finished meat is obtained:
A. 1,5 cubic meters.
B. 15 cubic meters.
C. 25 cubic meters.
D. 7 cubic meters.
E. 5 cubic meters
162. The daily water demand for one product in sugar production:
A. 0,5 cubic meters.
B. 2,0 cubic meters.
C. 1.5 cubic meters.
D. 3,0 cubic meters.
E. 2,5 cubic meters
163. The daily water demand for one product in the meat industry:
A. 20 cubic meters.
B. 10 cubic meters.
C. 0,5 cubic meters.
D. 5 cubic meters.
E. 15 cubic meters
164. The daily requirement of water in manufacturing, where every day from 1 ton of
fish getting ready meal:
A. 2,0 cubic meters.
B. 1,5 cubic meters.
C. 2,5 cubic meters.
D. 3,0 cubic meters.
E. 1,0 cubic meters
165. The daily requirement of water in the production of daily pererabatyvaet¬sya
where 1 ton of vegetables:
A. 2,2 cubic meters.
B. 12 cubic meters.
C. 20 cubic meters.
D. 25 cubic meters.
E. 32 cubic meters
166. The daily requirement of water in manufacturing, where every day is produced 1
ton of confectionery:
A. 1 cubic meter.
B. 2 cubic meters.
C. 3 cubic meters.
D. 3,5 cubic meters.
E. 4 cubic meters
167. The need of water he washed 1. 1 change in the industries of catering:
A. 0,02 cubic meters.
B. 0,2 cubic meters.
C. 0,03 cubic meters.
D. 0,04 cubic meters.
E. 0,05 cubic meters
168. The daily requirement of water in the shower 1 catering:
A. 0,5 cubic meters.
B. 0,25 cubic meters.
C. 1,5 cubic meters.
D. 2,0 cubic meters.
E. 3,0 cubic meters
169. Terms of consideration of the project CSES:
A. 15 days
B. Do not regulated
C. 14 days
D. Month
E. 10 days
170. The construction of any food business is prohibited in residential buildings:
A. fish processing and fish shops
B. Dairy
C. confectionery
D. brasseries
E. -Public Power
171. When placing food items in villages some saniatrnym standards we hold
expertise:
A. First direction peredsannadzora
B. Second direction predsannadzora
C. When carrying out sanitary surveillance operator checks
D. In checkup operator checks sanitary inspection
E. -with zakyuchitelnogo stage predsannadzora
F. -with zakyuchitelnogo stage predsannadzora
172. Three main areas of mandatory consideration in projects of food businesses:
A. movement of personnel. the movement of visitors and process
B. Movement of meat, dairy and fish products
C. traffic, visitors and staff
D. movement of products in warehouses, cold stores and shops
E. movement of personnel
173. How far allowed nekanalizovannogo location of the toilet doors and windows in
food production enterprises:
A. 30 m
B. 15 m
C. 50 m
D. 20 m
E. -25 m
174. How far away from windows and doors manufacturing workshops food
businesses can be placed waste bins:
A. 25 m
B. 15 m
C. 30 m
D. 20 m
E. -35 m
175. The temperature of the hot water pipelines of food plants:
A. no more than 75 degrees
B. at least 85 degrees
C. not more than 60 degrees
D. at least 65 degrees
E.-not more than 70 degrees
176. In some cases, the mandatory devices grease in the sewer catering:
A. When the power of more than 250
B. In the absence of urban sanitation
C. In the production of more than 250 dishes
D. In the production of more than 500 servings of food
E. -with power more than 350 servings of food
177. In what areas should be located in a sewer grease trap mya¬sokombinata:
A. in the shops and territories
B. the territory
C. in body shops
D. on skotobaze
E. -to shops
178. At what height above the ground is a place to bleed venti¬lyatsii food
businesses:
A. 2 m
B. 5 m
C. 3 m
D. 4 m
E. 6 m
179. At what height above the building is a place of ventilation air emissions in the
food industry:
A. 2 m
B. 3 m
C. 4 m
D. 5 m
E. 6 m
180. The distance between the place of sampling and emission air vent on food
enterprises:
A. 10 m
B. 4 m
C. 5 m
D. 15 m
E. 20m
181. The speed of the air in the suction ventilation mehnicheskoy food
ENTERPRISE:
A. 0.5-1.25 m / min
B. 0.5-1,20 m / min
C. 0,5-1,26 m / min
D. 0,5-1,50 m / min
E. 0,5-1,30 m / min
182. Form zapolyaemaya when adopting measures for the protection of the
environment during the construction of food businesses:
A. -8
B. 86
C. 303
D. 305
E. 9
183. How long before the construction of food businesses proizvo¬ditsya CGSEN
notice from the object under construction:
A. 5 days
B. 2 days
C. for 30 days
D. 2 months
E. -last 10 days
184. Who appointed a member of the selection committee (san.vrach) completes the
construction of a food establishment:
A. Main sanitary doctor
B. Administration
C. Minister
D. foreman
E. -shefpovar
185. The form of the conclusion on the state of the noise and vibration when taking
into ekspluata¬tsiyu food business:
A. 334
B. 303
C. 305
D. 8
E. -333
186. form an opinion on the state of meteorological factors in the acceptance of the
food business:
A. 336
B. 334
C. 303
D. 305
333 E.
187. How long before the completion of the selection committee formed by State:
A. 3 months
B. 2 months
C. for 15 days
D. 6 months
E. 5 months
188. This is the conclusion of the working committee for acceptance into operation
completed construction of food businesses:
A. Public acceptance committee
B. enterprise administration
C. Ministry of Health of the Republic of Uzbekistan
D. chief physician CGSEN
E. Working Committee
189. The form of the permit for use on food plants CGSEN re¬konstruktsii or after
completion of the construction:
A. 306
B. 8
C. 303
D. 1185-84
308 E.
190. The height of the space in the dining room for 100 seats:
A. 3,2 m
B. 4,2 m
C. 2,8 m
D. 3,7 m
E. -5,2 m
191. The height of the dining room for tea house with 300 seats:
A. 4,2 m
B. 3,3 m
C. 3,2 m
D. 5,2 m
E. -6,2 m
192. Determine the need to sink for the restaurant with 400 seats:
A. 7
B. 5
C. 4
D. 8
E. -6
193. Determine the need for toilets for the visitors in the project of the restaurant with
400 seats:
A. By 7 for men and women
B. 8 for men and women
C. total 7 for men and women
D. 4 for men and women
E. 5 for men and women
194. Determine the need for toilets for the project teahouse with 60 seats:
A. 2 for men and women
B. 3 for men and women
C. for 4 for men and women
D. 5 for men and women
E. 6 for men and women
195. KEO for industrial premises catering:
A. 1: 8
B. 1:10
C. 1: 6
D. 1:12
E. -1: 9
KEO 196 administrative and service premises catering:
A. 1: 10
B. 1: 5
C. 1: 8
D. 1:12
E. -1: 9
197. What types of refrigerators are permitted for catering:
A. two chamber
B. shirokokamernye
C. freon
D. ammonia
E. Three chamber
198. Exterior doors catering to what height dolzh¬ny be covered with iron:
A. 50-70 cm
B. 150-180 cm
C. 80-100 cm
D. 30-40 cm
E. 80-90 cm
199. What should be the size canopy ventilation, boiler catering:
A. act on 50 cm plates in all directions
B. perform at 100 cm on all sides plates
C. equal to 100 cm on all sides plates
D. performing at 30 cm in all directions
E. to speak at 90 cm on all sides plates
200. The temperature of the refrigerator compartment for meat:
A. 0 + 4 C
B. 0 +2 degrees
C. 5 gshradus
D. 8 degrees
E. 0 3 degrees
201. The temperature of the cooling chamber for milk and dairy products:
A. +2 degrees
B. 8 degrees
2 degrees C.
D. 10 degrees
E. -4 degrees
202. The temperature of the cooling chamber for fishery products:
A. -2 degrees
B. 8 degrees
10 degrees C.
D. 6 degrees
E. -4 degrees
203. Temperature range for the refrigeration chamber for storage prohladitel¬nyh
drinks:
A. 6 degrees
B. 6 degrees
2 degrees C.
D. 10 degrees
E. -4 degrees
204. The distance from the counter to the opposite wall urban prodovolst¬vennyh
shops:
A. 2.8-3.6 m
B. 2-2,8 m
C. 2,0-2,2 m
D. 2.6-3.8 m
E. -3.8-8.6 m
205. The distance from the counter to the opposite wall of rural prodovolst¬vennyh
shops:
A. 2-2,8 m
B. 2,8-3,6 m
C. 2-3,8 m
D. 2-2.6 m
E. -2-8.6 m
206. The width of the counter food stores:
A. 90 cm
B. 80 cm
C. 70 cm
D. 50 cm
E. 60 cm
207. The height of the trading floor food shop 400 sq.m .:
A. 4,2 m
B. 2,7 m
C. 3,3 m
D. 3,2 m
E. -5,2 m
208. As provided in the cafeteria food stores:
A. When you visit more than 200 visitors
B. When the amount of more than 20 vendors
C. When the amount of more than 10 vendors
D. In the back of more than 200 thousand sum per day
E. While visiting more than 100 visitors
209. As provided in the project shop specialized hleb¬nogo store:
A. When the power of more than 200 m
B. In a 4 sellers
C. When the power of more than 500 m
D. When you visit more than 150 visitors
E. While the power of more than 300 m
210. The number of unloading areas in the construction of a confectionery shop with a
capacity of 800 sq.m.
A. 4
B. 3
C. 1.1
D. 5
To E. 6
211. The required number of acceptance facilities one unloading platform
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
212. In some cases, the warehouse area in the project prodovolstven¬nyh stores
increased by 50%:
A. If a 54kv power, m, each 18 sq m Q1, m
B. If power is less than 18 sq m
C. At that earns big polkupateley
D. fewer buyers
E. If a power 50m.kv
Your 213. Finally, if the project confectionery shop with a capacity of 18 sq m is
planned 2 refrigerators of 24 m:
A. refrigerators sufficient rate of 10 m
B. -refrigerator insufficient, must be 3 pieces
C. -nedostatochno, the rate of 25 m
D. -nedostatochno must be at least 3 cameras
E. -refrigerator sufficient
214. Hygienic standards refrigerators for confectionery shops:
A. At every 18 m sales area of 1 square meter refrigerator
B. at least 2
C. for at least 5 m
D. more than 5 m
E. -on every 20 m sales area
215. Hygienic standards for cold stores food stores:
A. at least 6 m
B. at least 10 m
C. It is not less than 2 pc
D. at least 18.m
E. -not less than 8 m
216. In some cases, certainly with a mechanical ventilation device voz¬buditelem in
grocery stores:
A. If the power is more than 150 m
B. If capacity of more than 50 sq.m.
C. If power is more than 250 sq.m.
D. If the power of more than 90 sq.m.
E. If the capacity of more than 200 sq.m.
217. In some cases, mandatory centralized heating system in the draft food stores:
A. When the power of more than 150 m
B. In the power of more than 200 sq.m.
C. When the power of less than 150 m
D. in the North
E. -with capacity of more than 250 m
218. Working conditions of ventilation in winter time in grocery stores capacity of
more than 150 sq m:
A. supply of heated air to +12 degrees
B. supply of heated air to +18 degrees
C. cooling the air to 10 degrees
D. Submission heated to 10 degrees air
E. -podacha heated to 20 degrees air
219. As the economic zone is divided by industrial dairies project:
A. greenery width of at least 3 m
B. sidewalk
C. bushes of at least 30 m
D. asphalt
E. greenery width of not less than 5 m
220. The allowable distance between business and food areas in dairies firepower
more than 50 tons:
A. 25 m
B. 70 m
C. 50 m
D. 30 m
E. 40m
Power 221. catering determined:
A. the number of seats
B. the number of visitors
C. The amount of servings
D. sales area
E. number of seats
222. Power is determined by food stores:
A. sales area
B. number of seats
C. The amount of sellers
D. m number of products sold
E. sales area
223. SPZ skotobazy 900 head of cattle:
A. 300 meters
B. 70 m
C. 400 m
D. 50 m
E. 500 m
224. The main objectives of the current sanitary inspection in food hygiene:
A. All listed
B. Development of measures to prevent food poisoning
C. uslo¬viya food production
D. study of the health of workers of food enterprises
E. Examination of the physical ravitie workers
225. Not included in the objectives of the current sanitary supervision of food
hygiene:
A. Laboratory determination of food
B. livestock identification grade products
C. Determination of calories in catering to study disease
D. All of these
E. Development of measures to prevent food poisoning
226. Sanitary norms and rules for catering:
A. 42-123-5777-91
B. 4416-87-87-80-91
C. 142-123-5777-91
D. 2509-81-56-87-91
E. 42-13-5777-94
227. Health standards and rules for fish processing enterprises:
A. 25-09-81
B. 44-16-87
C. 42-123-91
D. 11-85-74
E. -24-09-81
228. Hygienic standards for mineral water plant:
A. 4416-87
B. 2509-81
C. 2512-81
D. 1185-74
E. 4446-87
229. The hygienic requirements for the production of ice cream:
A. 7833-71
B. 2509-81
C. 2512-81
D. 42-123-91
E. -7833-71
230. Hygienic requirements for the production of food concentrates:
A. 1408-76
B. 42-123-91
C. 4416-87
D. 1185-74
E. -7833-71
231. The hygienic requirements for the production of confectionery products:
A. 945A-71
B. 42-123-91
509a-81 C.
D. 416a-87
E. -945-71
232. Hygienic requirements to dairies:
A. 2512-81
B. 945A-71
C. 4416-87
D. 1185-74
E. -245-71
233. Hygienic standards for meat processing companies:
A. 1185-74
B. 945A-81
C. 2509-81
D. 44-160-74
E. -945a-71
234. Hygienic standards for bread-baking plant:
A. 823-69
B. 2509-81
C. 945A-71
D. 42-123
E. - 945-71
235. When and how ash collectors installed on food enterprises:
A. when using more than 1 m. Per hour of solid fuels with an efficiency of at least
75%
B. In one application of liquid fuel into shift
Power steering C. If more than 5 tons per shift
D. capacity of more than 10 m with an efficiency of at least 75%
E. when using more than 1 ton per hour of solid fuel of less than 75%
236. Area transoms and vents on hlebzavod:
A. 25-30% of the total area of windows
B. at least 25 m
C. 25-30% of the total area of the walls
D. per 30 kv.m.ploschadi
E. -15-20% of the total area of windows
237. The area of supply ventilation air to the shop bread-baking plant:
A. At a height of 2 m above the floor
B. 1 m from floor
C. at a distance of 2 m from the working zone
D. 4 m from the floor
E. at an altitude of 1 m from the floor
238. The permissible level of flour dust in the bread-baking plant shops:
A. 2 mg per 1 cubic meter
B. Do not more than 5 mg
C. to 2 mg in the working zone
D. are not toxic therefore not regulated
E. not more than 3 mg
239. The temperature and velocity of the air dushirovaniya working area in the hot
shop hlebzavod:
A. 21-23 degrees, 1-2 m / sec
B. not more than 45 degrees
14-16 degrees C., 1,5-2,9 m / s
D. 42-43 degrees, 1-2 m / sec
E. -21-23 degrees, 2-3 m / sec
240. The procedure for washing containers for the transport and storage of grain:
A. 35-45 degrees alkali. 50 to + 70 degrees 0.5 atm.dushirovanie-rinse at 70 ° and +
35 to + 45 degrees 0.5% bleach 0.5
B. 70 degrees dushirovanie-0.2% chloramine-rinse at 90 degrees
C. 0.5% chloramine disinfection, rinsing 75 degrees shower cubical
D. 45 to + 55 degrees dushirovanie-0.2% chloramine-rinse at 100 degrees
E. -35-45 degrees alkali 50+ 70 degrees dushirovanie-rinsing
241. The frequency of inspection of grain elevators on the pests:
A. every 25 days
B. Daily
C. every 2 months
D. every 10 days
E. -Every 12 days
242. The frequency of washing the exterior doors and windows hlebzavod:
A. weekly
B. each shift
C. Daily
D. monthly
E. annually
243. The procedure for storing bagged flour hlebzavod:
A. 50 cm from the wall 15 cm above the floor, 75 cm between rows
B. 70 cm between rows 50 cm
C. 50 cm from the walls, height 50 cm
D. 60 cm between rows 40 cm
E. -50 cm from the wall 15 cm from the floor
244. Storage of flour warehouses:
A. 8 + 10 degrees, 70-75% RH
B. 20 + 22 degrees, 50-55% relative humidity
C. 2 + 14 degrees, at least 75% humidity
D. 18 ± 20 degrees
E. 8 + 10 degrees, 50-55% relative humidity
245. Rate hygienic situation if garmazhane bread-baking plant revealed the use of
duck and goose eggs:
A. can be used, but in a separate room to resolve CGSEN
B. Use prohibited
C. can be used in any room to resolve CGSEN
D. All of these
E. -use possible, but in a separate room without permission CGSEN
246. After a trial baking flour in bread after 24 hours at 37 degrees hrane¬nii detected
potato disease, how to use this batch of flour:
A. For pasta and cakes
B. can be used without restrictions
C. for animal feed
D. Use prohibited
E. -for bakery products
247. For what reason can get pieces of paper in the machine elektromukoseyachny:
A. leakproof pipes
B. For leak testing apparatus used paper
C. flour brought in paper bags
D. To clean the paper is not used
E. -Save tightness
248. What a way to combat rodents permitted hlebzavod:
A. zookumarin, krysid
B. diphenadione, difanatsin
C. barium carbonate, zinc phosphide
D. Only mechanical method
E. barium carbonate
249. hlebzavod prohibited use as disinfestation:
A. fluoride preparations
B. formalin
C. mushroom
D. krysid
E. -uglekisly barium, zinc phosphide
250. How many grinders necessarily catering:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5
E. -1
251. How many dinnerware should be in the teahouse:
A. at least two change
B. power
C. for at least 3 shifts
D. plenty
E. at least 3 shifts
252. The instrumental method for determining the purity of tableware:
A. Spasokukoskogo-Koleary
B. Petrovsky-Vanhanen alkaline titration indicator
C. ottaiyvanie in warm water, wash-brush-boning
D. obezzerazhivanie 0.2% chloramine-thaw-wash
E. obezzerazhivanie 5% chlorine bleach-washing-thaw
253. For what purposes standardized serving temperature in the distribution:
A. to eliminate bacterial growth conditions
B. with the aim of destroying pathogenic bacteria
C. To control the mode of cooking
D. To taste
E. to avoid bacterial growth conditions
254. The temperature of ready meals in catering:
A. 1 st 75 ° 2nd 65 ° 3rd 14 °
B. 1st +90 degrees, 2nd 75 degrees, the third 65 degrees
C. 1st 75 degrees, 2nd 55 ° 3rd 45 °
D. 1-e 100 degrees, 2nd 75 ° 3rd 15 °
E. -1-e 70 degrees, 60 2nd degree, 3rd degree 10
255. The implementation period of the first dishes in catering:
A. 3 hours
B. 6:00
C. 1 hour
D. 4:00
E. 5:00
256. The shelf life of ground beef in the refrigerator:
A. 6 hours
B. 12:00
C. 3:00
D. 48 hours
E. 4:00
257. The procedure for the preparation of meat for boning in catering:
A. thaw in warm water-washing brush-boning
B. thaw Defroster-removing stigma-washing schetkoyi
C. obezzerazhivanie 0.2% chloramine-thaw-wash
D. washing the brush-cleaning-disinfection
E. obezzerazhivanie 5% chlorine bleach-washing-thaw
258. The procedure for the preparation of eggs to use in catering:
A. Wash 0.5% chloramine-examination on candling
B. wash 1-2% alkali 0.5% chloramine-examination on candling
C. Rinse with warm water-0.5% chloramine 2% alkali
D. Wash-freeze-examination on candling
E. Wash 5% chloramine-examination on candling
259. In any ways in catering use 10% bleach solution:
A. tableware disinfection
B. disinfection boilers
C. disinfect garbage bins
D. For hand disinfection of personnel
E. staff hand disinfection
260. For what purposes is used in the catering 5% bleach solution:
A. For the disinfection of toilets and wash basins
B. For disinfection of garbage bins
C. For disinfecting equipment
D. To disinfect dishes
E. For hand disinfection of personnel
261. What applies a 1% solution of bleach in catering:
A. For the disinfection of walls and doors
B. For disinfection wash basins
C. For disinfecting surosbornikov
D. To disinfect the toilet
E. For disinfecting utensils
262. Inositol:
A. Vitamin B8
B. Vitamin B3
C. Vitamin B4
D. Vitamin B5
E. Vitamin B2
263. Tocopherol:
A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin B12
B15 vitamin D.
E. With -Vitamin
264. Carnitine:
A. Vitamin BT
B. Vitamin Sun
C. Vitamin B13
B15 vitamin D.
E. Vitamin B12
265. Which of the fat-soluble vitamins performs coenzyme functions:
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin A
C. Vitamin D
D. Vitamin E
E. vitamin C
266. The main value of fat-soluble vitamins:
A. Participation in the structure and function of membrane systems
B. high nutritional value in the synthesis of acetylcholine
C. in the transformation to kokarbaksilazu
D. in the synthesis of amino acids
E. synthesis minerals
267. The sources of vitamin A:
A. Butter
B. Barley
C. rosehips
D. carrots
E. -margarin
268. The physiological significance of phytosterols:
A. Prevention Cholesterol Education
B. source dynamic energeii
C. increases the level of catalase
D. regulates adrenal fukntsii
E. -predotvraschenie Cholesterol Education
269. The daily adult requirement in vegetable oils:
A. 25-30 m.
B. 100-110 gr.
C. 60-70 grams.
D. 80-90 c.
E. -20-50 gr
270. The physiological significance of vitamin D:
A. All listed
B. normalizes absorption from the intestine of calcium and phosphorus
C. promotes the deposition of calcium phosphate in the bones
D. turns organic phosphorus into an inorganic tissues
E. promotes the deposition of calcium phosphate in the bones
271. A rich source of vitamin D:
A. fish oils
B. Milk
C. butter
D. meat
E. liver
272. The physiological significance of vitamin E:
A. Prevention of lipid peroxidation of mitochondria
B. conversion of organic phosphorus in inorganic
C. in blood clotting
D. participates in redox processes
E. -predotvraschenie lipid peroxidation by lizasomy
273. A rich source of vitamin E:
A. Vegetable oil
B. liver
C. Meat
D. milk and milk products
E. -rybnye fats
274. The cause of nutritional polyneuritis:
A. insufficient intake of thiamine
B. the absence of receipt of riboflavin
C. insufficient intake of pyridoxine
D. vitamin A deficiency
E. insufficient intake of riboflavin
275. Symptoms of Beriberi:
A. All listed
B. total damage of the peripheral nervous system
C. damage to the peripheral nerves of the lower extremities
D. damage to the peripheral nerves of the upper extremities
E. - I not know
276. Minerals alkaline orientation:
A. Potassium
B. Sera
C. Phosphorus
D. chlorine
E. Magnesium
277. Acid elements:
A. phosphorus
B. Magnesium
C. Calcium
D. potassium
E. -nikel
278. Products alkaline orientation:
A. All listed
B. Milk and milk products
C. Vegetables
D. Fruit
E. -myaso
279. Products acidic orientation:
A. All listed
B. Meat
C. Fish
D. bread and cereals
E. -pechen
280. The main physiological significance of calcium:
A. plastic
B. Ensuring excitability and conduction of the nervous system
C. Securing metabolism in cells
D. Participation in the formation of acetylcholine
E. Ensuring the conductivity of nerve trunks
281. The physiological importance of magnesium:
A. Achieving excitability and conduction of the nervous system
B. power source
C. plastic
D. participate in blood coagulation
E. Ensuring excitability
282. The main physiological significance of iron:
A. is a member oksiditelnyh enzymes
B. Ensuring the osmotic pressure of the cells
C. Regulation of water metabolism
D. IT input of the insulin
E. -Entrance of the enzymes oksiditelnyh
283. Terms of consideration of the project CSES:
A. 15 days
B. 5 days
C. 3 months
D. 2 months
E. 20 days
284. How far has not allowed the location of the canalized toilet doors and windows
production halls in food enterprises:
A. 50 m
B. 30 m
C. 15 m
D. 25 m
E. -20 m
285. The temperature of the hot water pipelines of food plants:
A. no more than 75 degrees
B. less than 120 degrees
C. at least 90 degrees
D. at least 20 degrees
E. -not more than 180 degrees
286. At what height above the ground is a place bleed air for ventilation of food
businesses:
A. 2m
B. 3 m
C. 4 m
D. 5 m
E. 7 m
287. The forms are filled in the sanitary supervision over construction pische¬vyh
enterprises:
A. 305
B. 303
C. 058
D. 1185-84
303 E.
288. What is approved by members of the acceptance committee (san.vrach)
completes the construction of a food establishment:
A. Main sanitary doctor
Minister B.
C. the enterprise administration
D. Director of Construction
E. ispektrom tax inspection
289. The height of the platform for unloading products catering:
A. 1,1 m
B. 2,2 m
C. 3,3 m
D. 4,4 m
E. 5,5 m
290. The width of the unloading platform catering:
A. 3 m
B. 1,1 m
C. 4 m
D. 2 m
E. 5 m
291. The area of the refrigerator compartment for catering:
A. at least 5 sq m
B. at least 6 sq m
C. not more than 10 sq m
D. not more than 18 sq m
E.-not less than 7 m
292. The height of the space in the dining room for 100 people:
A. 3,3 m
B. 3 m
C. 4,2 m
D. 3,6 m
E. -5,5 m
293. The height of the premises for the tea house with 300 seats:
A. 4,2 m
B. 3,3 m
C. 3,2 m
D. 2,2 m
E. -5,2 m
294. Determine the need to sink for the restaurant with 400 seats:
A. 8
B. 4
C. 5
D. 3
E. -2
295. Determine the need to sink for the tea house with 120 seats:
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 4
E. -5
296. Determine the need for toilets for the visitors in the project of the restaurant with
400 seats:
A. There are 7
B. 3 for men and women
C. for 4 for men and women
D. po7 for men and women
E. all 9 muzhschin and women
297. KEO for industrial premises catering:
A. 1: 8
B. 1: 6
C. 1:10
D. 1:12
E. 1: 5
KEO 298 administrative and service premises catering:
A. 1: 10
B. 1: 6
C. 1: 8
D. 1:12
E. 1: 5
299. At what height panel production facilities of companies obschest¬vennogo food
is coated with tiles:
A. 180 cm
B. 110 cm
C. 280 cm
D. 100 cm
E. 150 cm
300. Exterior doors catering to what height should be covered with iron:
A. 50-70 cm
B. 180 cm
C. 100 cm
D. 30-40 cm
E. -60-80 cm
301. What should be the size canopy ventilation, boiler catering:
A. act on 50 cm plates in all directions
B. perform at 100 cm on all sides plates
C. perform at 30 cm in all directions
D. performing at 35 cm on all sides plates
E. -vystupat 80 cm in all directions plate
302. Food urban stores:
A. 2,8-3,6 m
B. 2,0-2,2
C. 6 m
D. 2-2,8 m
E. -2-5,6 m
303. The width of the counter food stores:
A. 90 cm
B. 50 cm
C. 2,8 m
D. 60 cm
E. 70 cm
304. The height of the trading floor food shop 400 square meters. m:
A. 4,2 m
B. 3,3 m
C. 3,8 m
D. 3,2 m
E. 5,2 m
305. As provided in the project shop specialized hlebno¬go store:
A. When the power of more than 90 sq m
B. In all cases
C. If you visit 90 visitors
D. In more than 10 sellers
E. While the power of more than 50 m
306. Number of unloading platforms deli with a capacity of 200 m:
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7
E. 9
307. Power prodovolstvennnyh stores is determined by:
A. floor space
B. the number of buyers
C. The amount of seats
D. the number of products sold
E. warehouse area
308. The power of dairies is determined by:
A. Scope of the feedstock for the change
B. volume shops
C. area of industrial shops
D. View products
E. -oborot prudukta
309. KEO for industrial premises catering:
A. 1: 8
B. 1:10
C. 1: 6
D. 1:12
E. 1: 9
KEO 310 administrative and service premises catering:
A. 1: 10
B. 1: 6
C. 1: 8
D. 1:12
E. -1: 9
311. Minerals alkaline orientation:
A. Potassium
B. phosphorus
C. Sulfur
D. chlorine
E.-iron
312. Acid elements:
A. phosphors
B. Magnesium
C. Calcium
D. potassium
E. -sodium
313. Products alkaline orientation:
A. All listed
B. Milk and milk products
C. Vegetables
D. Fruit
E. -yogurt
314. Products acidic orientation:
A. All listed
B. Meat
C. Fish
D. bread and cereals
E. - liver
315. The main physiological significance of calcium:
A. Achieving excitability and conduction of the nervous system
B. involved in lipid metabolism
C. Securing metabolism in cells
D. Participation in the formation of acetylcholine
E. plastic
316. The physiological importance of magnesium:
A. Achieving excitability and conduction of the nervous system
B. participation in blood coagulation
C. All of the above
D. Sources of Energy
E. Ensuring the excitability of the muscular system
317. The main physiological significance of iron:
A. is a part of the oxidizing enzyme
B. Ensuring the osmotic pressure of the cells
C. Regulation of water metabolism
D. a part of the insulin
E. dastavka oxygen
318. What is the number of the order of accounting and reporting forms of
documentation:
A. Order 231
B. Order 400
C. Order 657
D. Order 203
E. Order 200
319. Variety of acidic foods:
A. bread
B. apple
C. Pears
D. greens
E. Fish
320. A variety of products of alkaline nature:
A. Vegetables
B. Fish
C. Bread
D. Eggs
E. -myasa
321. Forms of assessment of nutritional status:
A. All the answers are correct
B. normal
C. optimum
D. excess
E. inadequate
322. The disease is not related to eating:
A. Skin
B. alimentary-specific
C. allergic
D. infectious
E. - gastrointestinal disease
323. The objectives of preventive diet for working in high temperatures:
A. All the answers are correct
B. normalization of water-salt metabolism
C. Protection CCC
D. Protection of the central nervous system
E. uslivaert exchange process
324. The organization that are not assigned State management of the quality and
safety of food products:
A. Departmental CGSEN
B. Department of the State sanitary inspection at MZRU
C. Management of the Veterinary Service of the Ministry of Agriculture
D. State Standard
E. Security Service Citizens
325. Specify the primary importance of vitamins for the elderly:
A. inhibition of sclerotic processes
B. normalizes the genitourinary system
C. normalize the hair growth
D. retard the aging process
E. - normalizes metabolism
326. What is the ratio of proteins, fats and carbohydrates workers diet number 1:
A. 1: 1: 3
B. 1: 1: 4
C. 2: 2: 1
D. 1: 3: 1
E. 1: 4: 1
327. The law on the quality and safety of food products includes:
A. All the answers are correct
B. food hygiene regulation
C. Certification of food
D. Development of measures to ensure food safety
E. Compliance with standards
328. Name the protein deficiency disease:
A. alimentary dystrophy
B. beriberi
C. malnutrition alimentary
D. cheilosis
E. -marazm
329. Name the protein deficiency disease:
A. insanity
B. beriberi
C. malnutrition alimentary
D. cheilosis
E. insufficiency of physical development
330. The biological value of fats:
A. a source of energy
B. a source of antibody production
C. provides nutritional function
D. Attendance in the structural part of the cytoplasm and the vacuole
E. involved synthesis of choline
331. One of the main values of mineral substances:
A. Participation in circulation
B. retain moisture fabric
C. Participation in the production of chemical complexes
D. Participation in the production of natural complexes
E. Participation in the mineral metabolism
332. Food additives used in plants for the production of bread:
A. Calcium thiosulfate
B. potassium chloride
C. magnesium thiosulfate
D. calcia
E. chloride, calcium alginate
333. The component is not participating in the dough:
A. Yeast
B. Flour
C. Salt
D. baking powder
E. -soda
334. What kind of bread manufactured bakeries:
A. Shaped Loaf
B. patyr
C. lochira
D. Samsa
E. - patyr
335. What is the acidity of bread, manufactured from wheat flour:
A. Acid 60
B. acidity 70
C. acidity of 90
D. acidity 80
E. acidity 40
336. What is the moisture content of bread, which is made from wheat flour:
A. no more than 47%
B. no more than 57%
C. 40%
D. humidity no more than 37%
E. not more than 10%
337. What is the porosity of the bread, which is made from wheat flour:
A. at least 63%
B. 60%
C. 50%
D. at least 55%
E. -more than 70%
338. The disease, which is found in bread:
A. potato disease
B. rot
C. sprouting fungi
D. blackening
E. musty
339. The disease, which is found in bread:
A. musty
B. staling
C. rot
D. sprouting fungi
E. kartofoelnaya disease
340. The disease occurs in the bread:
A. infection chromogenic bacteria that produce the pigment
B. staling
C. rot
D. sprouting fungi
E. chromogenic bacteria infection
341. What carbohydrates are not available as part of the bread:
A. pulp
B. sucrose
C. maltose
D. glucose
E. lactose
342. What carbohydrates are not available as part of the bread:
A. fiber
B. sucrose
C. maltose
D. glucose
E.-lactose
343. The index, reduces the quality of the bread:
A. an increase in humidity
B. decrease in humidity
C. Reducing the acidity
D. underweight
E. Low poristoti
344. One of the main factors that prevent the potato disease of bread:
A. rapid cooling of bread
B. Packaging of bread
C. adding sugar to bread
D. addition of calcium chloride
E. The tea soda
345. The requirement is not imposed on the sellers of stores:
A. Special clothing
B. medical examinations
C. renting sanminimuma
D. Compliance rules of personal and industrial hygiene
E. personal hygiene
346. Specify the article did not reflect the activities san.vracha food hygiene as
provided in the Act on Gossannadzor:
A. 26
B. 27
C. 29
D. 31
E. 9
347. Specify the indicator is not applicable to the parcel of land trading enterprises:
A. Availability of fountains
B. prevent dirt
C. landscaping
D. availability of suitable pavements
E. uezvymye road
348. One of the main commercial network:
A. landline
B. Seasonal
C. DC
D. All of the answers are correct
E. larechny
349. By the stationary trade enterprises include:
A. Food Stores
B. butcher shops
C. Markets
D. outlets
E. gipremarkety
350. By the stationary trade enterprises do not apply:
A. Dairy Stores
B. Food Stores
C. tent
D. stalls
E. wineproducing
351. One type of existing distribution network:
A. commercials
B. All the answers are correct
C. Stores
D. minimarkets
E. supermarkets
352. The maximum shelf life of soft drinks
A. 7 Days
B. 5 days
C. 6 days
D. 3 days
E. 10 days
353. The maximum shelf life of beverages for diabetics
A. 15 days
B. 7 days
C. 14 days
D. 6 months
E. 45 days
354. The maximum shelf life of Coke and Fanta:
A. 6 months
B. 15 days
C. 18 months
D. 30 days
E. 45 days
355. What is the stage of cleaning of pipes and equipment for the distillation of the
milk is not true:
A. Steam cleaning
B. 0,5% of soda ash
C. 0,1% bleach solution
D. rinse boiled water
E. 1,5% of soda ash
356. Upon receipt of the milk is not checked:
A. Biological indicators
B. fat
C. acidity
D. density
E. porosity
357. The disease, which allows to take a job at a dairy plant:
A. thyroiditis
B. angina
C. venereal diseases
D. bacillicarriers
E. cystitis
358. One of the diseases that do not allow to take a job at a dairy plant:
A. pustular diseases of the skin and body
B. thyroiditis
C. kidney disease
D. liver disease
E. gastrointestinal disease
359. One of the diseases that do not allow to take a job at a dairy plant:
A. angina
B. thyroiditis
C. kidney disease
D. liver disease
E. respiratory diseases
360. Which of the following components is the basis of natural carbonated drinks:
A. juice
B. liquors
C. kvass
D. lemonade
E. compote
361. What is the basis of the components of artificial carbonated drinks:
A. essences
B. solids
C. supplements
D. acid
E. biodabavki
362. Which of the 5 components are not part of the recipe cola drinks:
A. All the answers are correct
B. Essential Oil
C. Mineral Water
D. soda
E. saccharin
363. What are the three components give the tea special properties:
A. Caffeine, essential oil, tannins
B. water, caffeine, flavors
C. flavoring agents, tannin, volatile oil
D. flavorings, cocaine, caffeine
E. caffeine, thiamine
364. The component that gives the special properties of tea:
A. Caffeine
B. Cocaine
C. flavorings
D. All of the answers are correct
E. thiamine
365. What rule does not apply to washing dishes:
A. steaming
B. wash at 40-50S
C. washing with 0.5% bleach
D. Rinse at 70 ° C
E. Rinse at 60 0C
366. Choose the product that is not in fish products:
A. Frozen Fish
B. salted fish
C. canned
D. fish cold and hot smoked
E. Cold smoked fish
367. What should be the kind of stigma on the carcasses of meat I category
A. round purple
B. square purple
C. rectangular purple
D. triangular purple
E. cheterёh coal red
368. What should be the kind of stigma on the carcasses of meat category III
A. triangular purple
B. round purple
C. square purple
D. rectangular purple
E. cheterёh coal red
369. That does not apply to the organoleptic qualities of meat:
A. Status of fat, tendons, bone marrow
B. appearance
C. Color
D. consistency
E. Status of fat
370. The disease, transmitted to humans by infected animal:
A. anthrax
B. opistarhoz
C. difillobatrioz
D. dysentery
E. tenidioz
371. What disease is transmitted to humans through the infected animal:
A. Brucellosis
B. opistarhoz
C. difillobatrioz
D. dysentery
E. tenidioz
372. Vida helminthiasis transmitted by meat animals:
A. trihinillez
B. ascariasis
C. brucellosis
D. FMD
E. tenidioz
373. The scientist - encyclopedist empirical period
A. Hippocrates
B. Romanchenko NL
C. Mahkamov GM
D. Liebich
E. Babahodzhaev NK
374. Name the scientist who studied the energy consumption and energy metabolism
A. Foyt
B. FAROBI
C. Bobohodzhaev NK
D. Romanchenko NL
E. G.M.Mahkamov
375. Energy value from the combustion of proteins
A. 4,1 kcal
B. 9,3 kcal
C. 3,7 kcal
D. 6,3 kcal
E. 4,0 kcal
376. Energy value from the combustion of fats
A. 9,3 kcal
B. 4,1 kcal
C. 3,7 kcal
D. 6,3 kcal
E. 8,7 kcal
377. Energy value from the combustion of carbohydrates:
A. 4,1 kcal
B. 9,3 kcal
C. 3,7 kcal
D. 6,3 kcal
E. 4,0 kcal
378. What type of carbohydrates in fruits:
A. fructose
B. maltose
C. galactose
D. oligosaccharide
E. peptoza
379. What type of carbohydrates in vegetables
A. fructose
B. maltose
C. galactose
D. oligosaccharide
E. peptoza
380. The law on the quality and safety of food products does not include:
A. control and supervision
B. food hygiene regulation
C. Certification of food
D. Development of measures to ensure food safety
E. Development of measures to ensure a healthy diet
381. What is not consumed energy fund
A. aerobic oxidation
B. nucleotide synthesis
C. synthesis of tryptophan
D. ATP synthesis
E. Synthesis of ADP
382. One way to determine the nutritional status:
A. Definition of the energy status
B. Definition of fat metabolism
C. Determination of protein metabolism
D. Definition of carbohydrate metabolism
E. sharing of certain vitamins
383. According to the intensity of labor refers to the group 1
A. brainwork
B. light physical labor
C. physical work of moderate severity
D. is very hard physical labor
E. work of moderate severity
384. The main stages of the construction of the Sanitary Inspection of food items is
A. All the answers are correct
B. Monitoring of diversion of land for construction
C. Examination of the construction project of food businesses
D. Monitoring of construction, commissioning of the control object in the
Maintenance
E. Monitoring of construction
385. What information should not contain an explanatory note
A. Composition of the air object
B. Purpose of the object
C. Power facility
D. Staff working
E. Ramer area
386. The master plan allows us to estimate
A. All the answers are correct
B. Dimensions of the whole territory
C. Distance buildings from each other
D. Calculate the density of development
E. -Rose winds
387. The sanitary part of the project does not contain data on:
A. gardening
B. Water supply system
C. Heating
D. Ventilation
E. Lighting
388. It does not include food businesses
A. Companies of the institution
B. The food industry
C. The company Food Trade
D. Public catering
E. venture medical institutions
389. Not allowed to the persons affected
A. All the answers are correct
Infectious hepatitis B.
C. AIDS
D. Typhoid fever, paratyphoid
E. paratyphoid
390. At food enterprises is strictly prohibited
A. Smoking in the workplace
B. Change of sanitary clothing
C. Coming to work in clean clothes and shoes
D. Pick up your hair under a cap
E. to come to work in clean clothes
391. All cooked dishes should amount to several portions stored in the refrigerator for
A. 48 hours
B. 36 hours
C. 24 h
D. 12 hours
E. 22 hours
392. Do not leave the next day
A. All the answers are correct
B. vinigret
C. Pate
D. Products with cream
E. soups
393. By the time catering quick service not related
A. Supermarkets
B. Tents
C. Trailers
D. Vans
E. -gipermarkety
394. Responsibility for the quality received for the production of products,
compliance with technical, sanitary requirements in the manufacture of foods shall be
A. Head of Production
B. Chef
C. Head Hall
D. Each employee
E. Each employee
395. Responsibility for compliance with the rules of acceptance of food, proper
sanitary condition of storage facilities, compliance with terms and conditions of
storage products in stock bears
A. Each worker
B. Head of Production
C. Chef
D. Head Hall
E. -Every employee
396. The responsibility for the workplace, compliance with the rules of personal
hygiene, the implementation of technological and sanitary requirements on the site
bears
A. Each worker
B. Head of Production
C. Chef
D. Head Hall
E. -Every employee
397. Milk supplied to the plant, there should be:
A. With the off-flavor
B. Uniform
C. White or light yellow
D. No foreign odors
E. without foreign flavors
398. Sterilization of milk - it
A. heated above 100 degrees
B. heating it above 80 degrees
C. heated above 70 degrees
D. All of the answers are correct
E. -nagrevanie it above 50 degrees
399. The actual power of unorganized sample (students) are studying using
A. questionnaire method
B. menu-layout
C. Statistical method
D. Methods of play
E. Laboratory
400. By the vitamin-like compounds are not
A. Ascorbic Acid
B. Choline
C. betaine
D. carnitine
E. Citric acid
401. What principles based public policy on healthy eating:
A. All the answers are correct
B. Food should not cause damage to human health
C. Nutrition of children should be the subject of special attention of the state
D. Power supply should help to protect the human body from adverse environmental
conditions
E. food should contribute to the protection of the human body from the adverse
factors
402. What should employees of the food industry before the change:
A. to take a shower, put on special. clothes
B. obtain a permit from the chief of department
C. has been working with resolutions
D. remove outer clothing
E. -Adopts shower, put on gloves
403. During the audit found that the food industry employees undergo a medical
examination two years ago. Your opinion:
A. employees must undergo medical check-up every 6 months
B. must work skilled workers without passing honey. inspection.
C. need to undergo a medical examination every month.
D. san. doctors should not conduct monitoring of the medical examination.
E. employees must undergo medical check-up every 3 months
404. In the health inspection of commercial enterprise established:
floor area 850m has 4 platform unloading. Give your opinion.
A. Relevant SNIP.
B. Trade enterprise should have an unloading platform 1.
C. to be three sites.
D. the number of the discharge site is not dependent on the area of the room
E. meet the state standard
405. Indoors trade enterprise established for material is inside the building, wooden
floors, no shelves for food storage. Your hygienic conclusion
A. floors should be concrete, install shelving for food storage
B. must have concrete floors and walls must have a tiled covering.
C. warehouses should be located in the vicinity of water bodies.
D. warehouses should be located away from populated areas.
E. floors should be concreted
406. Health Surveys trade enterprise established that the ratio of lighting in the dining
room 1:10. Your conclusion.
A. in the bedrooms main lighting ratio should be 1: 8
B. in the bedrooms main lighting ratio should be 1: 1
C. the rate of natural lighting should be 15%
D. must be established local coverage
E. -to of auxiliary buildings should be 1: 8
407. In the examination of sunflower oil found its haze and residue. Your conclusion.
A. Sunflower oil is not a quality necessary to conduct heat treatment
B. Quality of sunflower oil is correct
C. Sunflower oil is not qualitative
D. sunflower oil can be used in the preparation of confectionery products
E. Sunflower oil is not a quality, it is necessary heat treatment
408. Methods for determining the biological effectiveness of the protein:
A. All the answers are correct
B. the amino acid range
C. CES (factor. The efficiency of protein)
D. CHUB (net protein utilization)
E. daily rate
409. Forms of human energy:
A. Adjustable, unregulated
B. Anabolism
C. The catabolism
D. Energy Balance
E. adjustable
410. On the basis of what is determined by the sign of the basal metabolic rate for the
Harris-Benedict equation:
A. Weight, height, age
B. weight, chest circumference
C. Growth, Maturity
D. VC, chest circumference
E. weight, height
411. Which of the following are essential amino acids:
A. Glycine
B. Leucine
C. Isoleucine
D. Lysine
E. methionine
412. At what diseases appointed 8 Diet:
A. When obesity
B. In gastric ulcer.
C. If hepatitis.
D. In tuberculosis.
E. -with pancreatitis
413. At what diseases is assigned to a diet number 10I:
A. When myocardial infarction
B. In hypertension
C. When cholecystitis
D. In peptic ulcer 12 intestines perstinoy
E. pancreatitis
414. At what diseases is assigned to a diet number 1h:
A. When tonzilloektomii
B. In hypertension
C. When cholecystitis
Hepatitis D.
E. -with pancreatitis
415. At what diseases is assigned to a diet number 5P:
A. When pancreatitis
Hepatitis B.
C. When pyelonephritis
D. -with colitis
E. - when the gastrointestinal tract
416. What products are excluded in the diet:
A. smoked, salёnye
B. steamed
C. boiled
D. minced
E. smoked
417. Eggs in any form are assigned to the diets:
A. In smyatku
B. Boiled
C. Fried
D. smoked
E. -parnoy
418. When kidney disease as recommended salt:
A. 5g hands on the patient
B. 10g
C. 5g
D. 15g
E. - 20 g
419. What diet is recommended for patients with diabetes:
A. № 9x
B. № 10
C. №15
D. №5
E. -№ 8
420. What kind of meat is recommended in diet:
A. Beef Grade II
B. pork
C. Beef I category
D. Lamb
E. - Beef IV category
421. What kind of bread is recommended in the diet:
A. Dried or yesterday's bread
B. cakes
C. loaf
D. loaves
E. -sushёny bread
422. Which diet prescribed for gout:
A. № 6
B. № 5
C. № 9
D. № 11
E. № 10
423. What kind of dairy product is indicated for tuberculosis:
A. mare
B. cow's milk
C. goat milk
D. sheep milk
E. -oslinnoe milk
424. What kind of diet is prescribed for tuberculosis:
A. № 11
B. № 2
C. № 5
D. № 3
E. № 12
425. When kidney disease which diet is recommended:
A. № 7
B. № 5
C. № 8
D. № 13
E. № 11
426. In the infectious diseases which diet is recommended:
A. № 13
B. № 7
C. № 9
D. № 10
E. № 11
427. Which diet is recommended gastric ulcer and 12 perstinoy gut:
A. № 1
B. № 5
C. № 6
D. № 11
E. -№ 12
428. At what diseases is limited by the amount of water:
A. When kidney disease
B. Cardiac
C. At intestinal diseases
D. In leather diseases
E. - diseases of stomach
429. At what diseases umenshaetsya animal fats:
A. When obesity
B. In pyelonephritis
Hepatitis C.
D. In renal diseases
E. in diseases of the stomach
430. At what diseases is recommended diet number 13:
A. When infectious diseases
B. Cardiac
C. When kidney disease
D. In diseases of the stomach
E. -with liver diseases
431. What products are the most important in the diet:
A. Milk and milk products
B. meat products
C. Vegetables
D. Fruit
E. - Vegetables
432. Which diet is recommended for diseases of the liver:
A. № 5
B. № 1
C. № 1a
D. № 3
E. -№ 8
433. Which diet is indicated for constipation:
A. № 3
B. № 2
C. № 4
D. № 7
E. -№ 8
434. What applies to by-products:
A. liver, kidneys, tongue, lungs
B. meat, liver
C. fish, meat
D. meat, kidney
E. -pechen, kidney
435. What are the by-products during prolonged storage are toxic:
A. liver, kidneys
B. meat, liver
C. Fish, kidney
D. Language lungs
E. - language, spleen
436. What is the byproduct rich in proteins, fats:
A. language
B. Kidney
C. Light
D. liver
E. -selezenka
437. What is the byproduct contains vitamin B 12:
A. Liver
B. light
C. Kidney
D. Language
E. -selezenka
438. Coke by-product can cause "mad cow disease":
A. brains
B. Kidney
C. Liver
D. It is easy
E. - spleen
439. What is the byproduct of hard boiled:
A. stomach
B. liver
C. Kidney
D. It is easy
E. -selezenka
440. What is the byproduct rich in proteins:
A. The heart
B. Pechen
C. Light
D. Language
E. - spleen
441. How many byproduct contains iron:
A. Liver
B. Kidney
C. stomach
D. legkie
E. -selezenka
442. What is the byproduct of a few hours before cooking to keep in the water:
A. Kidney
B. light
C. Liver
D. heart
E. - spleen
443. What is the byproduct can be used to quickly:
A. brains
B. Language
C. Kidney
D. heart
E. - liver
444. What products are reduced in obesity:
A. animal fats
B. vegetable oils
Vitamin C.
D. mineral elements
E. -belok plant
445. What type of product are prohibited in diabetes:
A. legkousvaemye carbohydrates
B. bread
C. Meat
D. Egg
E. -fish
446. What products are prohibited for all diets:
A. smoked, roasted and salted
B. minced
C. boiled
D. Guy
E. smoked
447. What is the diet recommended in cirrhosis:
A. 5a
B. 1a
C. 1g
D. No. 5
E. -6 n
448. The lowest level of consumption of sugar per person per year during caries:
A. 20 kg
B. 10 kg
C. 15kg
D. 30 kg
E. -40 kg
449. What products need to be fluorinated for preventing tooth decay:
A. water, salt, milk
B. water, meat
C. salt sugar
D. water, sugar
E. Water and salt
450. What products to use during the day predotvroschaet caries:
A. Meat
B. bread
C. tea
D. Egg
E. -ovoschi
451. What vitamins in conjunction with fluoride prevents tooth decay:
A. A, D, C
B. A,
C. C, D
D. E and group B
E. - A PP
452. What foods cause salmonellёz:
A. All listed
B. meat products
C. dairy products
D. waterfowl eggs
E. -kurinnye egg
453. At what stage of slaughter product zaarzhaetsya salmonella:
A. When eventrations
B. In exsanguination
C. -with Skinning
D. -with cooling
E. -with distribution
454. What is the allergen products:
A. milk, eggs, citrus fruits, nuts
B. Vegetables
C. Meat
D. Fruit
E. beets
455. The lack of any nutrients causes osteoporosis:
A. Calcium and vitamin D
B. Vitamins
C. mineral elements
D. Vitamin A
E. phosphorus
456. What are the nutrients you need to limit in oncology:
A. animal fats
B. proteins
C. vegetable oil
D. Carbohydrates
E. monosarihidy
457. What pishyvie substances should be increased in cancer:
A. vytaminy
B. proteins
C. Fats
D. -Mineral elements
E. -uglevod
458. Number of kaltsy and phosphorus diet elderly people
A. Calcium 1000mg, 1200mg phosphorus
B. Calcium 800 mg Phosphorus 500 mg
C. 500 mg of calcium, phosphorus, 300mg
D. Calcium 700mg, 800mg phosphorus
E. Calcium 200 mg Phosphorus 800 mg
459. it contained magnesium and iron diet of elderly people:
A. Magnesium 400 mg Iron 10 mg
B. Magnesium 300 mg Iron mg 5
C. Magnesium 500 mg Iron 15 mg
D. Magnesium 600 mg Iron 20 mg
E. Magnesium 200 mg 11 mg iron
460. The iodine content of the diet of elderly people:
A. 150 g
B. 100 g
C. 80 g
D. 200 g
E. 130 mg
461. it contained protein in the diet of people of old age:
A. 68 g
B. 70 g
C. 80 g
D. 70 g
E. 100 grams
462. The content of vitamin A diet of elderly people:
A. 1mg
B. 2 mg
C. 3 mg
D. 1.5 mg
E. 5 mg
463 calories elderly people
A. 2300 kcal
B. 2000 kcal
C. 2500 kcal
D. 2100 kcal
E. 3500 kcal
464. The content of vitamin C diet of people aged starche6kogo
A. 80 mg
B. 70 mg
C. 90 mg
D. 100 mg
E. 60 mg
465. The diet of people of old age:
A. 4-5 times a day
B. 3-4 times a day
C. 3 times per day
D. 4 times per day
E. 5-6 times per day
466. How long after training athletes need to take some food:
A. 5-20 minutes
B. 5-10 minutes
C. After 5-15 minutes
D. After 30 minutes,
E. After 30-40 minutes
467. What should be the time Mezhuyev techniques food in athletes:
A. no more than 5 hours
B. 4:00
C. 6:00
D. 3:00
E. not more than 7 hours
468. What kind of disturbed pigmentation in kwashiorkor:
A. skin and hair
B. heart
C. hands
D. nails
E. skins
469. Children aged kokogo observed kwashiorkor
A. 2-3 years
B. 5-6 years
C. 1-2 years
D. 4 years
E. 6-7 years
470. What Article gossanadzora otnosetsya hygienists Nutrition
A. 27,29,30,31
B. 24, 25,26,27
C. 21,23,24,25
D. 27,28,29,30
E. 9,17,12,15
471. What Article Kostitutsii Republic of Uzbekistan otnsetsya hygienists nutrition
A. 37,38,39,40,65
B. 30,31,32,33
C. 40,45,46,47
D. 25,26,27,28
E. 40,41,25,19
472. Three illness bread
A. potato disease lesions pigmetoobrazueshimi bacteria and mold
B. dryness, pigmentation
C. mold high humidity
D. moldy and potato disease
E. dryness, pigmentation, tenidioz
Eggs 473. How many days is considered to be dietary and how many days svezhemi:
A. 7 days diet, fresh 30 days
B. 5 days diet, 20 days fresh
C. 3 days diet, 20 days fresh
D. 10 days diet, 40 days fresh
E. 7 day diet, 30 days fresh
474. What forms filled out when choosing a land plot:
A. 301
B. 305
C. 304
D. 303
302 E.
475. The ratio of light in the bedrooms:
A. 1/8
B. 1/4
C. 1/5
D. 1/10
E. 1/6
476. If a plant is not the acidity of the milk takes:
A. 21 degrees above T
B. 10 degrees above T
15 degrees C. above T
D. 30 degrees above T
E. 25 degrees above T
477. Low-temperature continuous pasteurisation
A. 63-65 degrees 30 minutes
B. 63-70 degrees 20 minutes
70 degrees C. for 15 minutes
D. 80 degrees 30 minutes
E. 90 degrees 15 minutes
478. posterize at high temperature:
A. 72-75 degrees for 20-30 seconds
B. 70 degrees 20 minutes
65 degrees C. 1 minute
D. 75 degrees 20 seconds
E. 72 degrees 22 seconds
479. vtechenii much time if the unused pasteurized milk, it is subjected to repeated
pasteurization
A. 6 hours
B. 5:00
C. 4:00
D. 8:00
E. 2:00
480. Who sells the dairy plant
A. forwarder and shift foreman
B. shift foreman
C. forwarder
Brigadier D.
E. Each worker
481. Finished dairy products by how much time is realized
A. At the next in storage refrigerators
B. 5 hours
C. in 3 hours
D. 2 hours
E. 6 hours
482. What should be in the area of landscaping plants OP
A. not less than 50%
B. 40%
C. 30%
D. 60%
E. 80%
483. The number of tracks to be enterprises Subdivision:
A. 2 width of not less than 3 m
B. 3 2 meters wide
C. 4 2 meters wide
D. 1 to 1 meter wide
E. 2 2 meters wide
484. Public catering dolzhno be as cold Square pomezeniya
A. 5 m
M 3 B.
C. 6 m
D. 9 sq.m.
E. 4 sq.m.
485. What should be the distance between the tables, the company obschestavennogo
supply
A. 90 cm
B. 50 cm
C. 70 cm
D. 100 cm
E. 80 cm
486. When razreshetsya veschelkamobedenom hall EPP
A. posdochnyh to 50 seats
B. In 60 seats
C. to 40 seats
D. 30 seats
E. to 20 seats
487. What determines the height of the dining room in EPP
A. of seats
B. the number of site visitors
C. From the width of the room
D. kinds of pischy
E. on the state of the room
488. What should be in the dining room umivalnikov POP
A. In each one 50
B. At each one with 30 seats
C. In each one with 40 seats
D. for every 60 people, one
E. for every 20 people, one
489. What should be the area of the refrigerated space in warehouses of sale
A. 6 square meters
B. 3-meter square
C. 5 square meters
D. 7 square meters
E. 8 square meters
490. The area of work zones seller in the sales area
A. 90 cm
B. 80 cm
C. 1 meter
D. 75 cm
E. 65 cm
491. What should be the width of the counter on the trading floor
A. 90 cm
B. 80 cm
C. 75 cm
D. 95 cm
E. -65 cm
492. What should be baths mithya dishes trading enterprises
A. 2
1 B.
C. 3
D. 5
E. 4
493. The sales staff should be trained in how many times on health literacy:
A. When joining, followed by one time of the year
B. once every 2 years
C. 1 time a year
D. 1 time 6 months
E. 1 once a quarter
494. Issued sanitary passport Transport for prevozke products and for how long
A. from CSES 1 year
B. from the side CGSEN 2 years
C. by CSES 6 month
D. from the CSES 3 years
E. from CSES 4 years
495. The basic requirements for the sale of Morse
A. Availability of drinking water
B. cleanliness of utensils
C. Purity territory
D. Personal Care seller
E. presence of barrels
496. What pokozateli taken at SIWI tank monitoring
OKM A. and E. coli
B. ECM and Salmonella
OKM aureus and C.
D. aureus
E. OKM
497. To determine the total number of microbes that are taken on flushing
A. with saline
B. IPA
C. Wednesday ploskireva
D. Endo Agar
E. Additional Weber
498. Which medium crawled under certain E. coli
A. Kessler Wednesday
B. Endo Agar
C. Wednesday Ploskireva
D. IPA
E. Additional Weber
499. What is the liquid medium crawled under certain staphylococcus when milk
A. milk and salt Boelen
B. with saline
C. Kessler Wednesday
D. ordinary water
E. milk Boelen
500. At what temperature calculation of E. coli:
A. 43 degrees
B. -37 degrees
C. -36 degrees
D. -40 degrees
E. -50 degrees
501. What are the vegetarian food groups:
A. old vegetarian
B. Current vegetarian
C. starovegetarianskaya
D. mladovegetarianskaya
502. What types of bread, manufactured bakeries:
A. tortillas
B. patyr
C. Formed loaf
D. lochira
503. What groups are divided pastry:
A. egg products
B. cream products
C. dry starchy (cookies, biscuits, cakes)
D. wet starchy (pies, cakes, etc.)
504. Opposing processes in metabolism:
A. Energy Foundation
B. dissimilation
C. assimilation
D. Metabolic Fund
505. Specify the funds formed during metabolism:
A. nergetichesky Fund
B. catabolism
C. Metabolic Fund
D. anabolism
506. In that consumes energy fund:
A. Synthesis nukleina
B. anabolism
C. catabolism
D. synthesis of tryptophan
507. What determines the energy balance:
A. dissimilation
B. energy costs
C. Energy savings
D. Assimilation
508. Methods for determining the nutritional status:
A. - the definition of energy status
B. dissimilation
C. Determination of vitamin status
D. Assimilation
509. Indicators of energy status:
A. skin - fat index
B. Assimilation
C. mass growth rate
D. dissmilyatsiya
510. What kind of uncontrolled energy expenditure:
A. anabolism
B. Basic Exchange
C. catabolism
D. specific dynamic action of food
511. Neobhodimyesvedeniya to determine the primary exchange on the table "A":
A. Sex
B. Age
C. growth
D. weight
512. Levels of vibrations of a specific dynamic action of food substances:
A. 55%
B. 10%
C. 15%
D. 45%
513. Aspects of the objectives of the program Codex:
A. Hazard Analysis
B. Identification of critical control points and the definition of their faces
C. health of consumers
D. Ensuring integrity in the trading pischevymiproduktami
514. The types of functions Power:
A. excess food
B. vneshneepitanie
C. Domestic food
D. malnutrition
515. The situation in relation to the protein part of the diet in the evaluation of a
balanced diet of adults:
A. the amount of animal protein should be 55% of the total protein daily diet
B. the total amount of protein should be an average of 22% of the daily energy needs
C. total amount of protein should be an average of 12% of the daily energy needs
D. the amount of animal protein should be 65% of the total protein daily diet
516. The group of indicators for the study of nutrition:
A. questionnaire
B. organized population
C. disorganized population
D. Balance
517. The organoleptic properties of the bread:
A. odor
B. porosity
C. color
D. acidity
518. What are the fat-soluble vitamins:
A. A, D
B. B, PP
C. B, B2
D. E, K
519. Which foods contain vitamin A:
A. beef
B. Sunflower oil
C. pork
D. beets
520. What are the essential amino acids:
A. cystine
B. valine
C. histidine
D. argigin
521. What are the diseases develop when vitamin deficiency of vitamin C:
A. beri - beri
B. Osteoporosis
C. Scurvy
D. scurvy
522. What belkovyybalans when a balanced diet:
A. 55% of animal protein
B. 65% of vegetable proteins
C. 12- 14% of the daily need for protein
D. 40- 50% of the daily requirement for protein
523. Groups of proteins in quality:
A. rich proteins
B. animal proteins (qualitative)
C. vegetable protein (low quality)
D. proteins containing fatty acids
524. Types of grain stores:
A. supermarkets
B. Private
C. Special
Mixed D.
525. Specify the parts of the project:
A. Cover Letter
B. Finally khokimiyat to allocate land for construction
C. Explanatory Note
D. chertezhi- graphical part
526. Tell us about the basic requirements of the plan and the section of trade
enterprises in the construction of:
A. Shipping products
B. Shipping produktsiisamym short way to the warehouse and subsequently
natorgovye counters, ensuring consistency of delivery
C. layout of the premises for storage and sales
D. Compliance rules of personal and industrial hygiene
527. What are the registration forms filled in the sanitary inspection of food
businesses:
A. F- 301U
B. F- 304U
C. P - 303U
D. F- 302U
528. When was the Labor Code:
A. 1998
B. 1996
C. 20.04.1996
D. 1994
529. Specify the registration forms of documents and preparation of annual reports:
A. Form 36
B. Order 238
C. order 231
D. Form 31
530. What SanPiNs intended for VET:
A. 1410 - 76
B. 1410- 96
C. 0096 - 66
D. 096- 76
531. Specify the health rules for the companies producing dairy and confectionery
products:
A. 945 - 71
B. 2514- 85
C. 2512 - 81
D. 947- 81
532. Instruktsiidlya proverkipolimernyh sanitary chemical and other synthetic
materialovi sanitary and technical supervision of tin products:
A. 1450- 75
B. 1120 - 73
C. 1400- 75
D. 1121- 73
533. Sanitary rules for dining cars when you move the storage of perishable products:
A. 085 - 75
B. 1160 - 74
C. 082- 75
D. 1161- 74
534. Sanitary rules for manufacturers of confectionery and pasta:
A. 989- 72
B. 085 - 75
C. 94500- 71
D. 082 - 75
535. Choose the group of confectionery:
A. flour products (cookies, pies, cakes, waffles, gingerbread)
B. sweet products (all kinds of candies, chocolate, halva, candy, candy, etc.)
C. starchy products (cookies, pies, cakes, waffles)
D. protein products (paste, chocolate, margarine)
536. What groups are divided into carbonated soft drinks:
A. fermented beverages
B. Natural
C. Artificial
D. Beverage rot
537. What kinds of cola drinks:
A. Pepsi Cola
B. lemonade
C. Coca Cola
D. juice
538. What are the components of kvass you know:
A. oats
B. Sorghum
C. rye
D. Wheat
539. Tell us about the rules of design:
A. landmark project
B. 2-stage design task, working drawings
C. The 3-stage design task, working drawings
D. 4-stage project
540. Specify the group pastry:
A. wet starchy (cakes, pies, etc.).
B. dry starchy (cookies, biscuits, cakes)
C. wet starchy (gingerbread biscuits)
D. starchy dry (cakes, etc.).
541. Requirements for dietichekomu table:
A. between portsiyamidolzhen bytdlitelny period of time
B. frequent meals
C. Small amounts of food
D. large amount of food
542. In what ways is carried out chemical safety:
A. Use of substances that provoke secretion
B. Use of solid food
C. Limitations of food rich in extractive substances
D. Limitation of substances that contribute to the allocation of juice
543. Requirements for the location of garbage bakovna EPP:
A. in the region of 35 40 m
B. at a distance of 20 - 25 m
C. around to be a concrete fence
D. fence around the iron bars
544. In the primary processing of meat on the need to pay attention:
A. table should be made of wood
B. For meat cutting must be a special stump
C. should be a separate table with a metallic coating
D. indoor temperature should be from 22 to 260 C.
545. How employees vydaёtsyaI diet:
A. miners
B. grocery department
C. has been working with radioactive substances
D. working with sources of ion irradiation
546. What types of canning anhydrous way:
A. dehydration under high atmospheric pressure
B. evaporation
C. vacuum dehydration method
D. Cooking
547. A method for determining the integrity of cans:
A. Biological method
B. Test antibiotics
C. Arbitration
D. Rapid method
548. Kakiepatogennye microorganisms not allowed in canned foods:
A. B. subtilis
B. Cl.Botulinum
C. E. Coli
D. Cl.Perfringens
549. In some cases, carried out sanitary and bacteriological control products:
A. PSN
B. In accidents
C. Planning Control
D. TSN
550. Specify the number of bacteria indicators are necessarily defined in milk:
A. the number of Cl. Botulinum
B. the amount of B. Subitis
C. total microbial count
D. if - titer
551. The objectives of the planned sanitary and bacteriological control:
A. Meetings TSN
B. Description of the sanitary condition of the manufacturing process
C. In order to save in a good state of production
D. Prevention of disease
552. Forms of vitamins and their recommended content in the production of tobacco
and nicotine:
A. 0.2 mg vitamin DB. vitaminV1- 2 mg
C. vitaminS- 150 mg
D. Vitamin V6- 2 mg
553. What percentage of greenery and away SPZ should be for commercial facilities:
A. Percent of landscaping not menee50%
B. Interest landscaping up to 30%
C. SPZ 50 500 m
D. SPZ 60 70 m
554. Types of food colors:
A. Chemical
B. Biological
C. Natural
D. Artificial
555. The forms prepared in the selection of land in the construction of:
A. №301- y
B. №403 - have
C. №302- y
D. №407 - have
556. The Group of flour products:
A. soft, fatty products
B. Sweet
C. dry-containing carbohydrates
D. cheese
557. Choose foods that ogranichivayutpri preventive nutrition:
A. Carrots
B. turnips
C. salt
D. fats
558. What kinds of canned food:
A. smoked
B. salted
C. Meat
D. Fish
559. The reasons that violate the tightness of canned food:
A. Canned Food excess
B. corrosion of the inner surface of cans
C. mechanical deformation of the Bank
D. high temperature
560. Hygienic requirements for the storage of flour:
A. 60% RH
B. at 10- 11- 120C
C. 75% RH
D. at 20- 10- 50C
561. Kakiminormativnymi document defines the humidity of bread:
A. Standard
B. SanPin2- 21 00
C. GOST21094- 75
D. SanPin
562. How is the porosity of the bread:
A. Thermostat
B. GOST5669- 51
C. apparatus Zhuravlev
D. GOST 5670- 51
563. Determine the porosity of the bread:
A. For rzhano- wheat bread 63- 70%
B. For 1 and 2 varieties of wheat bread 63- 72%
C. dlyarzhano- wheat bread 54- 55%
D. For 1 and 2 varieties of wheat bread 45- 48%
564. Bacteriological Methods of monitoring:
A. TSN
B. planned
C. unscheduled
D. PSN
565. What kind of environment is necessary for the determination of E. coli:
A. Kessler Wednesday
B. Levin and Ploskireva
C. Ploskireva
D. Levin
566. How to identify E. coli in milk:
A. Kessler environment
B. Special Wednesday
C. At the formation of red colonies
D. By the formation of colonies of pink
567. How to stafilokkok in milk:
A. By the formation of red colonies
B. Special crop on the environment
C. for Education violet colonies
D. crop on Wednesday Kessler
568. What document made kontrolza quality meat:
A. SanPin
B. Standard
C. SanPin - 0060- 96
D. Standard 70 0056
569. The worms enter the human body through the consumption of fish:
A. E. coli
B. salmonellosis
C. opistorhoz
D. diphyllobothriasis
570. Types of salted fish:
A. ostrosolёnye fish 14%
B. 30% fish ostrosolёnye
C. Fish average salinity of 10%
D. 20% fish malosolёnye
571. Who are approved by the members of the commission at the reception in the
operation of the facility:
A. physician food hygiene
Chief Sanitary Doctor B.
C. Head of Construction, Municipality of
D. Engineer
572. Differences margarine from butter:
A. low humidity, low biological activity
B. high acidity.
C. few vitamins
D. high biological activity
573. Specify the types of fats:
A. vegetable oil
B. cottonseed oil
C. animal fats
D. sunflower oil
574. Specify the form of conclusions, outstanding in the selection of land and its
approval:
A. 306 / y
B. 300 / y
C. 302 / y
D. 303 / y
575. The first sign of damage to fish:
A. abdominal peritoneum
B. Changing colors
C. Changes smell
D. decomposition of fat
576. Differences in the fish meat from cows:
A. the presence of collagen
B. lack of elasticity
C. lack of collagen
D. Attendance elasticity
577. What are the main reaction is determined by the ammonia in fish:
A. nitric trial
B. test with gray
C. Hebert sample
D. Kessler sample
578. Dayteharakteristiku Fisheries meat:
A. rapidly absorbed in the body
B. slowly dissolves in the body
C. fast utilizable
D. Rapid brewed
579. What are the two main documents are drawn prisanitarnoy examination of the
food industry:
A. Draft decorate v302 Journal
B. Draft make out in the magazine 304
C. give an opinion on proektu303 u.f
D. give opinions on draft 306 UF
580. Where to place the brick well in EPP:
A. 30 meters from the dining room
B. 10 meters from the dining room
C. 20 meters from the dining room
D. 50 meters from the trash
581. Which meat podlezhitprodazhe:
A. having unpleasant smell moldy
B. covered with ice
C. enough bloodless having blood clots
D. having the fat and cartilage
582. The mode of use of duck and goose eggs in the confectionery industry:
A. with the approval of C GSEN
B. Do not allowed
C. Only Home Products
D. On the resolution khokimiyat
583. When the normalized milk dairies:
A. Before reception
B. to pasteurization
C. before sterilization
D. Before using the farm
584. Chronic low temperature pasteurization of milk products:
A. 730S
B. 30 minutes
C. 63- 900C
D. 40 minutes
585. The period of validity and the temperature of the finished sausage:
A. 80C
B. 180C
C. for 72 hours
D. 50 hours
586. The duration of treatment of internal organs, providing epidemiological safety
anemic meat cattle in abattoirs:
A. 5- 6 minutes
B. 30 minutes
C. for 40 minutes
D. 203 minutes
587. Indicate the body tushisviney undergoing a veterinary health inspection and
supervision in the meat processing plants uboynyhtsehahv:
A. lymph nodes
B. head- sheya- meat
C. lymphatic meat kidney
D. Internal organs
588. How and at what temperature is stored and fried minced:
A. 5- 7 minutes fry on fire
B. stored in an oven at a temperature of 25 to 280C
C. 3- 5 minutes, stir fry in the fire
D. is kept in an oven at a temperature of 250 2800S
589. When the terrain chosen for the construction of the enterprise are considered to
be inconvenient:
Greater than 0.5 A.
B. less than 0.5
C. 10- 200C
D. 35- 460S
590. List the nutritional and biological properties of milk:
A. high-energy
B. tyazhelousvoyaemost
C. legkousvoyaemost
D. plastic function
591. What are the fats found in milk:
A. lecithin
B. amino acids
C. arachidonic acid
D. Lysine
592. Which enzymes found in milk:
A. Sucrose
B. amylase
C. redox
D. Hydrolysinum
593. What hormones contained in milk
A. minerallokortikoidy
B. thyroxin, prolactin
C. adrenaline, insulin
D. calcium, magnesium
594. What are infectious diseases transmitted through infected milk:
A. influenza, SARS
B. gonorrhea
C. TB
D. streptococcal infection
595. What are the micro-organisms that are normally found in prostakvashe
Mechnikov:
A. dairy microbes
B. Bulgarian bacillus
C. lactic streptococci
D. streptococci
596. What kinds of fat yogurt:
A. 15%
B. 8 - 9%
C. 1,5-3,2%
D. 6%
597. What are the indicators of acidity and alcohol kumys:
A. alcohol 1.75%
B. 1% alcohol
C. acidity of 60 - 80T
D. acidity 81 - 105T
598. What are the essential amino acids:
A. leucine
B. glutamine
C. cystine
D. valine
599. What are the physical parameters measured in the laboratory:
A. Toxicity
B. Acidity
C. The temperature
D. humidity
600. Which amino acids found in human milk:
A. Lysine
B. casein
C. albumin
D. lysozyme
601. Stages of sterilization of milk:
A. Phase 135 g 65 70 sec
B. Phases 150g
C. Stage 135- 140 g 2- 4 sec
D. 2- stage 200g
602. The density of milk:
A. 1,034g / cm3
B. 1,0 g / cm3
C. 1.5 g / cm3
D. 1,028g / cm3
603. The composition of milk:
A. Only carbohydrates
B. minerals, vitamins
C. fats, carbohydrates
D. Only fats
604. What sort of sour cream on the fat content:
A. Grade 2 15%
B. Grade 1 20%
C. Grade 2 25%
D. 1st grade 30%
605. Name the color of milk:
A. yellowish
B. yellow
C. colorless
D. White
606. Name the organization kotoryedayut razresheniedlya use of milk from sick
animals with brucellosis and tuberculosis:
A. Veterinary Service
B. Sanitary and Epidemiological Supervision
C. The Ministry of Health
D. Laboratory dairy
607. What are the stages of the passage of members of the dairy plant a medical
examination:
A. 1 every 6 months
B. 1 once every 2 years
C. 1 yearly
D. In applying for a job
608. What level of hygienic education of employees:
A. When applying for a job
B. 1 time in 6 months
C. 1 every 3 months
D. 1 time in 2 years
609. The heights of the trading floor in their area:
A. 200 places 2 - 2.8 m
B. 500 places 2 - 4.8 m
C. to 300 places 2 - 3.3 m
D. more than 300 places 2 - 4.2 m
610. Indicators of coverage Seller:
A. in the meat department of 1.2 m in width
B. Width 80 cm
C. in the meat department of a width of 1.5 m
D. width 90 cm
611. Types of warehouses:
A. For all products
B. Mixed
C. Special warehouses
D. For milk products
612. Indicators of the light factor for building trade companies:
A. The Subsidiary premises 1:12
B. Main areas of 1: 6
C. Principal areas of 1: 8
D. auxiliary rooms 1: 10
613. The shelf life of biscuits and wafers for trading enterprises:
A. 6 months
B. 45 days
C. 3 months
D. 30 days
614. The time required for the personnel of trade enterprises medical examination and
sanitary minimum:
A. When applying for a job, and then every 6 months
B. In applying for a job, then every 9 months
C. When applying for a job, then annually
D. at entry, then at 2, 1 times
615. Indicators area of refrigeration facilities for general trading companies and pastry
shops:
A. For general trading companies at least 6 m2
B. For pastry shops - trading floor for every 18 m to 1 m 2
C.dlya pastry shops of 20 m2
D.dlya trading enterprises at least 10 m2
616. Show trade enterprises, which must have a coffee-house:
A. in all stores where the sales area to 100 m2
B. in all stores where the sales area greater than 200 m2
C. in grain stores where the sales area more than 90 m2
D. in grain stores where the sales area up to 90 m2
617. What indicators periodically determined at drinking water supply dairies:
A. Chemical
B. Physical
C. sanitary and hygienic
D. bacteriological
618. What types of government regulations:
A. hygienic standards
B. Technical conditions
C. sanitary norms and rules
D. Public standard
619. Diet means:
A. meals per meal
B. 6 meals a day diet
C. meals throughout the day
D. 4 times a day diet
620. What groups are divided into vitamins:
A. molokorastvorimye
B. water-soluble
C. soluble
D. soluble in saline
621. Products of the eggs:
A. melange eggs
B. Egg yolk
C. egg powder
D. protein eggs
622. Show types PC used to improve food technology:
A. Nitric oxide
B. ammonium nitrate
C. acid salts
D. stabilizers
623. Specify the components chastipredmeta Food Hygiene:
A. TSN
B. sanitary protection of food
C. a balanced diet
D. PSN
624. Rasskazhiteosanitarnyh requirements for entering the lab food:
A. In the presence of bags and tarakh inscription of the date of production and sales
B. PRODUCT dolzhnasootvetstvovat deystvuyuscheynormativnoytehnicheskoy
documentation to enter the net tarakh, the presence of a document on arrival departure
C. there is no evidence proverkinaselskohozyaystvennuyu veterinary products, poultry
and eggs
D. No evidence of a pechatyuveterinarnoy proverkimyasa animals
625. Tell us about the kinds of products that are not accepted in EPP:
A. for 3 to 5 minutes is fried on fire
B. there is no evidence from animal pechatyuveterinarnoy proverkimyasa
C. leaking canned vegetables and isporchennyefrukty (rotten)
D. Compliance with the sequence Productions food and confectionery
626. Tell us about the shelf life of treated potatoes and vegetables in cold water:
A. raw and pasteurized milk sold without boiling in kind
B. after thermal processing oil added to a garnish
C. in order to prevent browning potatoes purified, stored no longer than 3 hours in
cold water
D. peeled vegetables should be stored no longer than 3 hours in cold water
627. Tell us about the rules of preparing a side dish:
A. raw and pasteurized milk sold without boiling in kind
B. In peremeshivaniipolzovatsya special tool, not your hands
C. from prostokvashipolzovatsya prepared as a drink, and it is made from cottage
cheese
D. After the heat treatment oil add to garnish
628. Tell us about the timing of hraneniyavidovkremovyh cakes:
A. cooking sticky foods
B. timely vyveztiostatki food
C. belkovyykrem not bolee72 hours
D. slivochnyykrem and kartfelnye pirozhenyene bolee36 hours
629. Specify the activities carried out against flies in EPP:
A. 20.041996
B. thorough cleaning of rooms
C. Preparation lipkihblyud
D. 8,121992
630. Tell us about the documents to be made as a result of health examination of the
project of food businesses:
A. proektregistriruetsyav special zhurnale- f- 304%
B. cooking sticky foods
C. thorough room cleaning
D. Results considered proektaf- 303 - y
631. Show types of refrigerators in commercial enterprises:
A. minerals and trace elements
B. refrigerated counters
C. refrigerators
D. Organic acids
632. The time required for employees of trading companies and the medical
examination sanitarnogominimuma:
A. When you start work every 6 months
B. In applying for a job, then every 3 months
C. When applying for a job then every 2 years 1 time
D. In applying for a job, then every 8 months
633. Indicators of the width of corridors vosnovnom ivspomogatelnyh premises of
sale:
A. in the main gruppahpomescheniy- 3,3m
B. in the main group pomescheniy- 2.2m
C. During subsidiary pomescheniyah- 1.2m
D. in the group key pomescheniy- 1.8m
634. Tell us about the requirements of the project and cut pomescheniyv commercial
enterprises:
A. Background section
B. Shipping produktsiisamym short way to the warehouse and subsequently
natorgovye counters, ensuring consistency
C. layout of the premises intended for the storage and sale
D. wind rose
635. Indicate group category of persons older than 60 years:
A. 75 years old or older
B. 60- 85 years
C. 85 years old and older
D. 60 - 74 years old
636. Display optimal ratio of calcium to phosphorus:
A. 1: 3
B. 1: 5
C. 1: 1.5
D. 1 2
637. Show the optimum ratio of calcium and magnesium:
A. 1: 1
B. 1: 0.6
C. 1: 0.5
D. 1: 2
638. Show the optimal ratio of proteins of plant and animal origin:
A. Animals - 55%
B. plant - 75%
C. Animal - 25%
D. plant - 45%
639. Show the optimal ratio of fat vegetable or animal origin:
A. plant - 1/5
B. Animals - 4/5
C. plant - 1/3
D. Animal - 2/3
640. What is the adult daily requirement for mineral substances (mg):
A. Sa - 1200
B. Ca - 800
C. P - 1200
D. P - 4000
641. What is the adult daily requirement for mineral substances (mg):
A. Mg- 400
B. Sa - 1200
C. Mg- 4000
D. Ca - 800
642. What is the adult daily requirement for mineral substances (mg):
A. Ca - 800
B. Fe- 10
C. Ca - 100
D. Fe- 4000
643. What is the adult daily requirement for mineral substances (mg):
A. Sa - 1100
B. Ca - 800
C. Zn- 15
D. Zn- 90
644. What is the adult daily requirement for mineral substances (mg):
A. Ca - 100
B. Ca - 800
C. I- 0,15
D. I- 4
645. What is the adult daily requirement for mineral substances (mg):
A. Fe- 10
B. P - 100
C. P - 1200
D. Fe- 4000
646. What is the adult daily requirement for mineral substances (mg):
A. Mg- 400
B. P - 800
C. Mg- 4000
D. P - 1200
647. What is the adult daily requirement for mineral substances (mg):
A. P - 800
B. Zn- 40
C. P - 1200
D. Zn- 15
648. What is the adult daily requirement for mineral substances (mg):
A. P - 800
B. P - 1200
C. I - 0,15
D. I - 0,35
649. What is the adult daily requirement for mineral substances (mg):
A. Fe - 10
B. Mg- 4000
C. Fe - 800
D. Mg- 400
650. What is the adult daily requirement for mineral substances (mg):
A. Mg- 4000
B. Mg- 400
C. Zn - 800
D. Zn - 15
651. What is the adult daily requirement for mineral substances (mg):
A. I - 0,15
B. Mg- 4000
C. I - 8
D. Mg- 400
652. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. S - 10 mg 1B. A - 800 mcg
C. C - 70- 100mg
D. A - 1000mkg
653. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. C - 5- 10mg
B. C - 70- 100mg
C. E - 10mg
D. E - 800mg
654. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. D - 2,5mkg
B. C - 5- 10mg
C. C - 70- 100mg
D. PROOF - 800mkg
655. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. B1 - 2,1mg 1,2
B. C - 5- 10mg
C. B1 - 800mg
D. C - 70- 100mg
656. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. C - 5- 10mg
B. B2 - 800mg
C. C - 70- 100mg
D. B2 - 1.5 2,4mg
657. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. C - 5- 10mg
B. C - 70- 100mg
C. B6 - 2mg
D. B6 - 800mg
658. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. C - 70- 100mg
B. C - 5- 10mg
C. B12 - 20mkg
D. B12 - 3mkg
659. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. C - 5- 10mg
B. Folate - 800mkg
C. C - 70- 100mg
D. Folate - 200mkg
660. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. C - 70- 100mg
B. C - 5- 10mg
C. PP - 800mg
D. PP - 16 28mg
661. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. A - 800 mcg
B. A - 1000mkg
C. E - 10mg
D. E - 80 mg
662. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. A - 100 mg
B. E - 5 g
C. A - 1000mkg
D. PROOF - 2,5mkg
663. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. A - 1000mkg
B. B1 - 2,1mg 1,2
C. A - 100 mg
D. B1 - 10 mcg
664. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. B2 - 1.5 2,4mg
B. A - 100 mg
C. A - 1000mkg
D. B2 - 10.5 g
665. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. B6 - 2mg
B. A - 100 mg
C. B6 - 200 mg
D. A - 1000mkg
666. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. A - 100 mg
B. A - 1000mkg
C. B12 - 3mg
D. B12 - 300 g
667. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. A - 100 mg
B. PP - 100- 1000 g
C. A - 1000mkg
D. PP - 16 28mg
668. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. A - 100 mg
B. 1000 mcg folate
C. A - 1000mkg
D. Folate - 200mg
669. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. Folate - 200mg
B. E - 2000 mg
C. 1000 mcg folate
D. E - 10mg
670. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. D - 2,5mkg
B. E - 2000 mg
C. D- 5 g
D. E - 10mg
671. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. B1 - 2,1mg 1,2
B. E - 2000 mg
100- 1000 C. B1 mcg
D. E - 10mg
672. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. E - 2000 mg
B. B2 100 to 1000 mcg
C. E - 10mg
D. B2 - 1.5 2,4mg
673. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. E - 2000 mg
B. E - 10mg
C. B6 - 2mg
D. V6- 100 mcg
674. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. B12 - 3mg
B. E - 200 mg
C. B12 300 mcg
D. E - 10mg
675. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. E - 2000 mg
B. E - 10mg
C. PP - 16 28mg
D. PP 100- 1000 g
676. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. D - 5 mg
B. PP 100- 1000 g
C. D - 2.5 mg
D. PP - 16 28mg
677. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. D - 2.5 mg
B. D - 5 mg
100- 1000 C. B1 mcg
D. B1 - 2,1mg 1,2
678. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. D - 5 mg
B. D - 2.5 mg
C. B2 - 1.5 to 2.4 mg
D. B2 16- 28mg
679. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. V6- 50 mg
B. D - 2.5 mg
C. B6 - 2mg
D. PROOF - 5 mg
680. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. D - 5 mg
B. PP 100- 1000 g
C. D - 2.5 mg
D. PP - 16 28mg
681. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. Folate - 200mkg
B. D - 5 mg
C. D - 2.5 mg
D. 100- 1000 mcg folate
682. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. B12 - 3mkg
B. D - 5 mg
C. D - 2.5 mg
D. 100- B12 1000 mcg
683. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. B1 - 5 mg
B. B2 100 to 1000 mcg
C. B1 - 2,1mg 1,2
D. B2 - 1.5 2,4mg
684. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. B1 - 5 mg
B. B6 - 100 to 1000 mcg
C. B1 - 2,1mg 1,2
D. B6 - 2mg
685. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. B12 -3 mg
B. B1 - 5 mg
C. 100-B12 1000 mcg
D. B1 - 2,1mg 1,2
686. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. B1 - 5 mg
B. PP 100- 1000 g
C. B1 - 2,1mg 1,2
D. PP - 16 28mg
687. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. B1 - 5 mg
B. B1 - 2,1mg 1,2
C. Folate - 200mkg
D. Folate - 100- 1000 g
688. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. B6 - 2mg
B. B2 100 to 1000 mcg
C. B2 - 1.5 2,4mg
D. B6 - 5 mg
689. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. B2 100 to 1000 mcg
B. B2 - 1.5 2,4mg
C. PP - 16 28mg
D. PP - 5 mg
690. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. B2 100 to 1000 mcg
B. Folate - 1000mkg
C. B2 - 1.5 2,4mg
D. Folate - 200mkg
691. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. B12 - 3mkg
B. B2 100 to 1000 mcg
C. B12 - 5 IGY
D. B2 - 1.5 2,4mg
692. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. B12 - 3mkg
B. V6- 100 mcg
C. B6 - 2mg
D. B12 - 5 g
693. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. RR - 16 28mg
B. V6- 100 mcg
C. B6 - 2mg
D. PP - 2 5 g
694. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. Folate - 200mkg
B. V6- 100 mcg
C. B6 - 2mg
D. Folate - 500 g
695. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. Folate - 200mkg
B. PP - 2 5 g
C. Folate - 500 g
D. PP - 16 28mg
696. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. RR - 2 5 g
B. B12 50 mcg
C. PP - 16 28mg
D. B12 - 3mkg
697. What is the adult daily requirement for vitamins:
A. RR - 2 5 g
B. B12 - 3mkg
C. Folate - 200mkg
D. Folate - 500 g
698. The basic indicators of epidemiological safety sausage:
A. E.Soli
B. Salmonella in 25 grams of product
C. Cl. Perfingens
D. Cl. Batilanum
699. Nazovitechasti, kotoryhsostoit sausage shop:
A. chicken shop
B. shop smoked
C. proizvodstvakolbasnyh products
D. shop minced
700. The protein content in the fish:
A. 20%
B. 35%
C. 8%
D. 14%
701. The fat content in the fish:
A. 28%
B. ot39%
C. up to 40%
D. from 0.3%
702. extractives fish presented:
A. histidine
B. arginine
C. creatine
D. creatinine
703. extractives fish presented:
A. alanine
B. xanthine
C. hypoxanthine
D. valine
704. Extractive substances (amino acids), fish presented:
A. Creatine
B. creatinine
C. histidine
D. Arginine
705. Extractive substances (amino acids), fish presented:
A. Valine
B. xanthine
C. alanine
D. hypoxanthine
706. According to the degree of salinity distinguish fish:
A. salted fish - 10%
B. srednesolenaya fish 30 to 40%
C. salted ryba1%
D. srednesolenaya ryba10- 14%
707. Hot smoking is done at:
A. before 1400 ° C
B. from 200c
C. From 800S
D. to 700C
708. Keep the fish smoked at:
A. from 10 K
B. To do20
C. 0 0 C
D. to 8 0 C
709. Keep the fish smoked at:
A. 24 days
B. 24 hours
C. up to 72 hours
D. 72 days
710. The amount of lecithin in eggs:
A. 2%
B. from 5%
C. 7%
D. from 0.2%
711. What vitamins are contained in the caviar:
A. Vitamin E
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin PP
D. Vitamin F
712. What vitamins are contained in the caviar:
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D
D. Group B vitamins
713. What are the elements contained in the calf:
A. oxygen
B. phosphorus
C. iron
D. Hydrogen
714. Caviar cooled at:
A. from 20 0C
B. 30 0C
C. 0 0 C
3 0 C to D.
715. List the changes occurring in the saltwater fish:
A. tan
B. Genzyme
C. stains magenta
D. metilinovy
716. List transmitted diseases cherezrybu:
A. opistorhoz
B. ascariasis
C. diphtheriae
D. diphyllobothriasis
717. Point products included in fishery products:
A. salted fish
B. Herring
C. sweet fish
D. hot fish
718. Point products included in fishery products:
A. canned
B. sweet fish
C. dry fish
D. Eggs
719. Variety of Tea:
A. black tea
B. Green baikhovi
C. Black baikhovi
D. red tea
720. Forms of the combined method of preservation:
A. antikopchenie
B. smoking
C. prezervirovanie
D. antiprezervirovanie
721. Show preserving the factors that lead to a preservative effect preserver:
A. smoking
B. prezervirovanie
C. salting
D. marinating
722. The basis for the reduction of fat in the diet of older people:
A. Development of fat metabolism
B. weakening of the secretory activity of the digestive system
C. Development of protein metabolism
D. Development of atherosclerotic processes
723. The basis for the increase in rates lipotropnyhveschestv power athletes:
A. The threat of amino acid metabolism
B. threat fatty
C. an increased water and salt metabolism
D. threat of carbohydrate metabolism
724. The signs that appear on the lips of children in malnutrition:
A. conjunctival
B. akaroz
C. angular stomatitis
D. cheilosis
725. The signs that appear on the skin of children in malnutrition:
A. dermatoznaya pellagra
B. xerosis hands
C. xerosis legs
D. conjunctival skin
726. Chemical safety record of baby food:
A. cadmium 0,03mg / kg
B. Lead - 1
C. cadmium - 3
D. Lead-0.5 mg / kg
727. The categories of employees who are issued ration №1:
A. working with radioactive substances
B. operating with other sources of ionizing radiation
C. has been working with metal substances
D. working with gas substances
728. What are the reasons for the inclusion of pectin in preventive nutrition:
A. low adsorption capacity
B. average adsorption capacity
C. colloidal properties
D. high adsorption capacity
729. The amino acids to be giposensibilizuyuschem restriction diet:
A. arginine
B. histidine
C. tryptophan
D. guanine
730. Vida protectors used in the 3-eat preventive diet:
A. getotsin
Vitamin B.
C. amino acid
D. pectin
731. Indicate products subject to restrictions in the operating environment at an
increased atmospheric pressure:
A. beef
B. Beef
C. Lamb
D. Lamb
732. Food substances to be increased in the diets at high altitude rabotahv under
reduced pressure with increasing altitude:
A. fats
B. proteins
C. carbohydrates
Vitamin D.
733. Nazovitegruppy diseases in which the product is used with a reduced fat content:
A. Obesity
Influenza B.
C. atherosclerosis
D. SARS
734. What group of diseases in which the product is used 5 group- products, modified
carbohydrate component (sweeteners)
Influenza A.
B. SARS
C. diabetes
D. obesity
735. Name the group of diseases, which employ a protein-free dietary products:
A. ARI
Influenza B.
C. Chronic renal failure
D. Hypertension of renal origin
736. Diets that are used in chronic gastritis:
A. dieta- 3
B. dieta- 1
C. dieta- 1a
D. dieta- 3a
737. The principles of the modern classification of food poisoning:
A. By etiology
B. prevention
C. At the clinic
D. Pathogenesis
738. Clinical forms of salmonella, frequent uvzroslyh:
A. TB
B. brucellosis
C. typhoid
D. septic
739. Specify the types of socio-economic method:
A. Menu-Layout
B. Monthly Report
C. Budget method
D. balance method
740. Methods of studying the power of organized groups:
A. Budget
B. Monthly Report
C. menu-layout
D. Balance
741. Specify the rate subcutaneous fat in men and women:
A. men- not less than 75 mm
B. men- at least 15 mm
C. women-at least 25 mm
D. women-not less than 55 mm
742. Specify the definition of the needs of the average product per person:
A. menu- layout
B. oprosno- weight
C. balance method
D. Laboratory
743. What are the ways of questioning:
A. Passive
B. Budget
C. Balance
D. active
744. Amino acids containing sulfur:
A. Lysine
B. methionine
C. Cysteine
D. threonine
745. Aromatic amino acids that are essential in the diet:
A. alanine
B. valine
C. feninalanin
D. tyrosine
746. Functions of tryptophan in the body:
A. involved in the formation of proteins
B. participates in the formation of hemoglobin
C. involved in the formation of nicotinic acid
D. participates in the formation of palmitic acid
747. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. arachidonyl
B. palmitic acid
C. linola
D. stearic acid
748. Forms of phospholipids:
A. cephalins
B. Cholesterol
C. lecithin
D. phytosterol
749. Values of carbohydrates in the body:
A. plastic properties
B. Exchange of nylon
C. Exchange linoleina
D. Energy value
750. Specify the types of carbohydrates:
A. protopectin
B. simple carbohydrates
C. complex carbohydrates
D. pectin
751. Variety of monosaccharides:
A. Starch
B. Cellulose
C. Glucose
D. fructose
752. Variety of disaccharides:
A. Lactose
B. raffinose
C. Starch
D. sucrose
753. The main types of pectin:
A. Starch
B. Cellulose
C. protopectin
D. pectin
754 fractions of polysaccharides are starch:
A. hexose
B. amylose
C. amylopectin
D. glucose
755. Specify biomikroelementy related kostoobrazovaniem:
A. Strontium
Potassium B.
C. Sodium
D. Manganese
756. Specify biomikroelementy related epidemics:
A. F
Potassium B.
C. Iodine
D. Sodium
757. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. caprylic
B. linola
C. arachidonyl
D. nylon
758. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. Capron
B. Kaprin
C. linola
D. arachidonyl
759. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. Kaprin
B. linola
C. caprylic
D. arachidonyl
760. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. Laurin
B. linola
C. arachidonyl
D. caprylic
761. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. linola
B. arachidonyl
C. caprylic
D. myristin
762. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. linola
B. caprylic
C. palmitin
D. arachidonyl
763. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. linola
B. arachidonyl
C. caprylic
D. stearin
764. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. arahidin
B. linola
C. arachidonyl
D. caprylic
765. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. Laurin
B. linola
C. arachidonyl
D. caprylic
766. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. linola
B. caprylic
C. myristin
D. arachidonyl
767. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. linola
B. arachidonyl
C. caprylic
D. palmitin
768. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. stearin
B. linola
C. arachidonyl
D. caprylic
769. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. arahidin
B. linola
C. arachidonyl
D. caprylic
770. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. Laurin
B. linola
C. Kaprin
D. arachidonyl
771. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. linola
B. Kaprin
C. palmitin
D. arachidonyl
772. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. linola
B. arachidonyl
C. Kaprin
D. stearin
773. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. arahidin
B. linola
C. arachidonyl
D. Kaprin
774. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. palmitin
B. linola
C. Laurin
D. arachidonyl
775. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. myristin
B. linola
C. Laurin
D. arachidonyl
776. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. palmitin
B. linola
C. arachidonyl
D. Laurin
777. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. linola
B. Laurin
C. Stearin
D. arachidonyl
778. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. linola
B. arachidonyl
C. Laurin
D. arahidin
779. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. myristin
B. arahidin
C. linola
D. arachidonyl
780. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. linola
B. arachidonyl
C. myristin
D. stearin
781. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. linola
B. myristin
C. palmitin
D. arachidonyl
782. Forms of saturated fatty acids:
A. Capron
B. caprylic
C. linola
D. palmitolein
783. Forms of unsaturated fatty acids:
A. linolein
B. nylon
C. linola
D. caprylic
784. Forms of unsaturated fatty acids:
A. arachidonyl
B. nylon
C. caprylic
D. linola
785. Types of unsaturated fatty acids:
A. Capron
B. caprylic
C. palmitolein
D. linolein
786. Forms of unsaturated fatty acids:
A. Capron
B. palmitolein
C. arachidonyl
D. caprylic
787. Forms of unsaturated fatty acids:
A. Capron
B. arachidonyl
C. linolein
D. caprylic
788. Forms of phospholipids:
A. Cholesterol
B. phytosterol
C. lecithin
D. sphingomyelin
789. Forms of phospholipids:
A. Cholesterol
B. Lecithin
C. phosphatidylcholine
D. phytosterol
790. Forms of phospholipids:
A. Cholesterol
B. phytosterol
C. cephalins
D. phosphatidylcholine
791. Forms of phospholipids:
A. sphingomyelin
B. Cholesterol
C. phytosterol
D. cephalins
792. Forms of phospholipids:
A. phosphatidylcholine
B. Cholesterol
C. sphingomyelin
D. phytosterol
793. Forms of sterols:
A. phosphatidylcholine
B. sphingomyelin
C. Cholesterol
D. phytosterol
794. Specify the monosaccharides:
A. Lactose
B. starch
C. Glucose
D. fructose
795. Specify the monosaccharides:
A. Lactose
B. Glucose
C. galactose
D. starch
796. Specify the monosaccharides:
A. Lactose
B. Glucose
C. xylose
D. starch
797. Specify the monosaccharides:
A. Lactose
B. starch
C. Glucose
Ribose D.
798. Specify the monosaccharides:
A. deoxyribose
B. lactose
C. Starch
D. glucose
799. Specify the monosaccharides:
A. galactose
B. lactose
C. Starch
D. fructose
800. Specify the monosaccharides:
A. xylose
B. lactose
C. fructose
D. starch
801. Specify the monosaccharides:
A. ribose
I. lactose
C. Starch
D. fructose
802. Specify monosaccharides:
A. Lactose
B. fructose
C. deoxyribose
D. starch
803. Specify the monosaccharides:
A. galactose
B. deoxyribose
C. lactose
D. starch
804. Specify the monosaccharides:
A. Lactose
B. starch
C. galactose
Ribose D.
805. Specify the monosaccharides:
A. Lactose
B. starch
C. galactose
D. xylose
806. Specify the monosaccharides:
A. Lactose
B. xylose
C. deoxyribose
D. starch
807. Specify the monosaccharides:
A. ribose
B. lactose
C. Starch
D. xylose
808. Specify the disaccharides:
A. Glucose
B. Cellulose
C. Lactose
D. maltose
809. Specify the disaccharides:
A. galactose
B. Glucose
C. Cellulose
D. Lactose
810. Specify the disaccharides:
A. sucrose
B. Glucose
C. Lactose
D. pulp
811. Specify the disaccharides:
A. maltose
B. Glucose
C. Cellulose
D. galactose
812. Specify the disaccharides:
A. Glucose
B. Cellulose
C. sucrose
D. maltose
813. Specify the disaccharides:
A. Glucose
B. Cellulose
C. galactose
D. sucrose
814. Specify oligosaccharides:
A. stachyose
B. fructose
C. raffinose
D. glycogen
815. Specify oligosaccharides:
A. gikogen
B. ribose
C. galactose
D. starch
816. Specify oligosaccharides:
A. pulp
B. ribose
C. galactose
D. Starch
817. Specify polysaccharides:
A. gikogen
B. ribose
C. galactose
D. pulp
818. Choose complex carbohydrates:
A. monosaccharides
B. polysaccharides
C. oligosaccharides
D. disaccharides
819. Specify vegetable products:
A. Fish
B. Milk
C. Carrots
D. bread
820. Specify vegetable products:
A. Meat
B. flour
C. Cabbage
D. sausage
821. Specify vegetable products:
A. sour cream
B. Milk
Figure C.
D. grapes
822. Specify vegetable products:
A. sugar
B. pumpkin
C. cream
D. Eggs
823. Specify vegetable products:
A. curd
B. sausage
C. Potatoes
D. flour
824. Specify vegetable products:
A. pasta
B. cheese
C. cucumbers
D. butter
825. Specify vegetable products:
A. Dill
B. curd
C. cream
D. grapes
826. Specify vegetable products:
A. curd
B. sugar
C. Dill
D. meat
827. Specify vegetable products:
A. curd
B. canned
C. juices
D. onion
828. Specify vegetable products:
A. cabbage
B. Orange
C. Fish
D. cutlets
829. Specify vegetable products:
A. Milk
B. cutlets
C. legumes
D. Mandarin
830. Specify vegetable products:
A. Milk
B. flour
C. Mandarin
D. meat
831. Specify vegetable products:
A. lemon
B. yogurt
C. cereals
D. cream
832. Specify vegetable products:
A. Fish
Figure B.
C. Lemon
D. Ice Cream
833. Specify vegetable products:
A. beets
B. yogurt
C. sour cream
D. pumpkin
834. Specify vegetable products:
A. pasta
B. yogurt
C. cucumbers
D. sausage
835. Specify vegetable products:
A. bun
B. Eggs
Figure C.
D. cheese
836. Specify vegetable products:
A. cottonseed oil
B. Eggs
C. sugar
D. cheese
837. Specify vegetable products:
A. tea
B. Eggs
C. sausages
D. tomato paste
838. Specify vegetable products:
A. Liver
B. coffee
C. Chocolate
D. cheese
839. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. Carrots
B. bread
C. Fish
D. milk
840. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. Flour
B. meat
C. sausage
D. cabbage
841. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. Milk
Figure B.
C. sour cream
D. grapes
842. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. Eggs
B. sugar
C. pumpkin
D. cream
843. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. Potatoes
B. Flour
C. curd
D. sausage
844. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. pasta
B. cucumbers
C. cheese
D. butter
845. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. Grapes
B. curd
C. cream
D. Dill
846. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. meat
B. sugar
C. Dill
D. curd
847. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. juices
B. Bow
C. curd
D. canned fish
848. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. cutlets
B. cabbage
C. Fish
D. Orange
849. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. cutlets
B. legumes
C. tangerine
D. milk
850. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. meat
B. Flour
C. milk
D. Mandarin
851. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. sour cream
B. cereals
C. Lemon
D. yogurt
852. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. Ice Cream
Figure B.
C. Fish
D. Lemon
853. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. sour cream
B. beets
C. yogurt
D. pumpkin
854. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. Sausage
B. cucumbers
C. pasta
D. yogurt
855. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. cheese
Figure B.
C. bun
D. Eggs
856. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. cotton oil
B. sugar
C. Eggs
D. cheese
857. Specify the products of animal origin:
A. tomato paste
B. tea
C. Eggs
D. sausages
858. Specify products of animal origin:
A. Liver
B. Coffee
C. Chocolate
D. cheese
859. What are the acts of the survey you will know:
A. screening
B. Express
C. depth
D. shuttle
860. What three organizations subordinate to the district CSES:
A. rayselmash
B. Department
C. hokimiat
D. Urban CGSEN
861. What are the acts of the survey you will know:
A. Case
B. Express
C. shuttle
D. Monitoring
862. What documents are nation-wide:
A. hygienic standards
B. Constitution of the Republic of Uzbekistan
C. Law of the Republic of Uzbekistan "On the State Sanitary Inspection"
D. sanitary norms and rules
863. Kakiedokumenty are fundamental:
A. Constitution of the Republic of Uzbekistan
B. Labour Code
C. sanitary norms and rules
D. hygienic standards
864. Basic requirements for diet:
A. variety of food
B. order of reception dishes
C. balance of power
D. correct diet
865. In the study of family nutrition the most useful methods are:
A. Personal
B. questionnaire
C. oprosno- weight
D. difficult
866. widely ispolzuyutsyametody planners to study the socio-economic foundations
of nutrition:
A. oprosno- weight
B. Personal
C. Balance
D. Budgetary
867. The necessary information to determine the primary exchange on the table "A":
A. Age
B. a group of people
C. weight
D. Sex
868. The necessary information to determine the primary exchange on the table "B":
A. Age
B. Sex
C. height, age
D. a group of people
869. Levels of vibrations of a specific dynamic action of food substances:
A. 15%
B. 80%
C. 90%
D. 10%
870. milk fats contain:
A. protein-lecithin complex
B. Cholesterol
C. arachidonic acid
D. antioxidants
871. casein milk:
A. mare and donkey
B. higher its biological and nutritional value
C. Most of lactating farm animals
D. used in most countries as food
872. milk albumin:
A. most closely approximates to human milk
B. Most of lactating farm animals
C. is used in the majority of countries as a food product
D. higher its biological and nutritional value
873. What kinds of proteins in milk are presented:
A. Albumin
B. globulin
C. lactalbumin
D. lactoglobulin
874. homogenized milk:
A. Most of lactating farm animals
B. increase its dispersion
C. an increased digestibility
D. used in most countries as a food product
875. Indicators determine the energy status of the organism:
A. meal
B. nervous status
C. weight and growth rate
D. Skin and fat folds
876. Specify the types of nutritional status:
A. optimum
B. weight growth rate
C. Generally
D. Skin and fat folds
877. Specify the types of nutritional status:
A. insufficient
B. weight growth rate
C. Skin and fat folds
D. izbytoch¬ny
878. The fat content of the fish:
A. ot39%
B. from 0.3%
C. up to 28%
D. 40%
879. extractives available in fish:
A. creatinine
B. histidine
C. Creatine
D. arginine
880. extractives available in fish:
A. gipokiantinom
B. Alanine
C. Valine
D. xanthine
881. Extractive substances (amino acids) present in fish:
A. arginine
B. creatine
C. creatinine
D. histidine
882. Extractive substances (amino acids) present in fish:
A. Valine
B. xanthine
C. alanine
D. gipokiantinom
883. Fish varying degrees of salinity:
A. salted fish - 10%
B. srednesolenye fish 30 to 40%
C. srednesolenyeryby 10- 14%
D. slabosolenyeryby -1%
884. BMI for normal body weight:
A. 0.5
B. 0.6
C. with the 18.5
D. 24.9
885. Early signs of deficiency of ascorbic acid:
A. anemia
B. otechnost gum
C. bleeding gums
D. nausea
886. Oily seborrhea occurs when deficiency in the body:
A. thiamine
B. tocopherol
C. riboflavin
D. pyridoxine
887. Specify the types of supply function:
A. natural food
B. External power supply
C. Domestic food
D. excess food
888. Food poisoning can be:
A. nemikrobnoy nature
B. saprophytic
C. pathogens
D. microbial nature
889. List the food poisoning:
A. staphylococcal intoxication
B. chorea
C. botulism
D. keratosis
890. Food poisoning fungal origin (mycotoxicoses):
A. aflotoksikoz
B. botulism
C. ergotism
D. Herpes
891. Specify the poisonous plants:
A. Belen
B. beans
C. leh toxic
D. Bulgarian
892. heliotrope toxicosis:
A. alcohol
B. food poisoning
C. eating products from grain
D. Industrial poisoning
893. Specify the principles of modern classification of food poisoning:
A. By clinic
B. By the action
C. etiology
D. Pathogenesis
894. Specify the types of toxicosis:
A. toxicosis
B. bacillicarrier
C. bakteriotoksikozy
D. mycotoxicoses
895. Specify the permanent features of foodborne disease:
A. long incubation period
B. unclear Clinic
C. sudden onset
D. short incubation period
896. Specify the permanent features of foodborne disease:
A. rare cases
B. mass
C. Relationship of the disease with the consumption of certain foods
D. Links disease with uncertain food consumption
897. Immunity Characteristics Salmonella bacteria:
A. Acid Wednesday
B. alkaline environment
C. High temperatures
D. Low temperature
898. Symptoms of food toxicosis:
A. multiple loose stools
B. diplopia, ptosis
C. Athos anemia
D. nausea, vomiting
899. The main dietary sources of riboflavin:
A. eggs and buckwheat
B. Fat
C. dairy products, meat products
D. semolina
900. Symptoms of riboflavin deficiency:
A. angulyarnyystomatit
B. enteritis, colitis
C. ciliary injection
D. gastroenterocolitis
901. Specify various natural soedineniyamivitamina B12:
A. oksokobalamin
B. tiaminokobalamin
C. cyanocobalamin
D. oksokobalt
902. Pridefitsitebiotina develop:
A. damage to the skin of the neck, hands and feet (peeling and itching)
B. Crohn's disease
C. disease Kassla
D. Leiner syndrome
903. When gipervitaminozevitaminaA appears:
A. Pain in the bones and joints
B. anemia, rickets
C. headache, nausea, vomiting
D. glossitis, gastritis
904. Ukazhiteosnovnye dietary sources of Vitamin D:
A. flour products, rye bread
B. fruits, legumes
C. granular caviar sturgeon fish
D. butter, eggs
905. Pridefitsitekaltsiferola uvzroslogo person develops:
A. anemia, rickets
B. gout
C. Osteoporosis
D. osteomalacia
906. The daily requirement for vitamin K:
A. 100 micrograms / day
B. 200 mg / day
C. 300 mg / day
D. 500 mg / day
907. Food sources of vitamin K:
A. meat, lamb
B. smoked fish
C. parsley, spinach
D. apples, onions
908. Food poisoning are:
A. staphylococcal intoxication
B. microbial nature
C. nemikrobnoy nature
D. spore-forming bacteria
909. To pischevymotravleniyamnemikrobnoy nature include:
A. staphylococcal intoxication
Spore forming bacterium B.
C. poisonous mushrooms
D. poisonous plants, their seeds and fruits
910. By the nature of the food otravleniyammikrobnoy include:
A. poisonous mushrooms
B. poisonous plants
C. bacterial food poisoning
D. foodborne
911. List foodborne diseases:
A. kolienterit
B. botulism
C. staphylococcal intoxication
D. salmonella
912. To yadovitymrasteniyam include:
A. pale neganka
B. henbane, belladonna
C. Lech poisonous hemlock
D. lines
913. For non-microbial prirodyne food poisoning include:
A. ergotism
B. mycosis
C. salmonellosis
D. dysentery
914. Ukazhitevidy toxicosis:
A. staphylococcal intoxication
B. bakteriotoksikozy
C. mycotoxicoses
D. poisoning
915. By the microbial food poisoning prirodyne include:
A. staphylococcal intoxication
B. poisoning
C. pesticides
D. mercury, arsenic
916. As a result, the consumption of the product is more common solanine poisoning:
A. Green potatoes
B. beans
C. sprouts potatoes
D. beans
917. Describe the main dietary sources of choline:
A. meat and liver
B. beans, potatoes
C. dairy products, eggs
D. beans, fruits
918. When arsenic poisoning occurs:
A. nausea, vomiting
Toxic hepatitis B.
C. biliary cirrhosis
D. diarrhea
919. Describe the main dietary sources of vitamin B15:
A. dairy products, eggs
B. seeds (pumpkin, sunflower, sesame)
C. nuts (almonds, pistachios)
D. meat
920. Describe the main important functions of calcium in the body:
A. in metabolic processes
B. energy
C. a part of hydroxyapatite crystals (together with phosphorus) vmineralnuyu
component skeleton
D. provides muscle contraction
921. Describe the main dietary sources of calcium:
A. Fruit and vegetables
B. dairy products
C. in nuts, canned fish in oil, soy flour
D. beans, fruits
922. The need for adult healthy person for calcium is:
A. 900 mg
B. 500 mg
C. 1000 mg
D. at least 1000 mg
923. Alimentary calcium deficiency in adults associated with bone health and
characterized by:
A. increases its density
B. decrease its density
C. osteoporozomi fractures
D. gout, osteomalacia
924. Describe the main dietary sources of phosphorus:
A. Fruit and vegetables
B. flour products
C. dairy and meat products
D. eggs, poultry and fish
925. The need for adult healthy person for phosphorus is:
A. 1000 mg
B. 1500 mg
C. 1 200 mg
D. nemenee 1200 mg
926. Describe the main dietary sources of potassium:
A. flour products
B. fruit, vegetables
C. juices and dried fruit
D. dairy and meat pro¬dukty
927. Chronic chemical poisoning:
A. residues of certain pesticides
B. poisonous mushrooms
C. poisonous plants, their seeds and fruits
D. Some food additives (nitrites, and others.)
928. When hypokalemia appears:
A. enteroplegia
B. dysbiosis
C. dermatitis
D. cardiac arrhythmia
929. Describe the main dietary sources of sodium:
A. salty foods
B. flour products
C. Confectionery
D. smoked, ma¬rinovannye products
930. Describe the main dietary sources of magnesium:
A. cereals, seafood
B. Confectionery
C. flour products
D. green plants, nuts
931. Describe the main dietary sources of iron:
A. poultry and fish
B. flour products
C. meat
D. Confectionery
932. The need for adult healthy human prostate is:
A. For Men 9 mg /
B. For women 10 mg / day
C. For men 10 mg / day
D. For women 18 mg / day
933. Prolonged lack of iron in the diet developed:
A. hypochromic anemia
B. pernicious anemia
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. hyperchromic anemia
934. Describe the main dietary sources of zinc:
A. nuts and legumes
B. Confectionery
C. Seafood, meat, eggs
D. vegetables, fruits
935. The need for adult healthy person for zinc is:
A. nemenee15 mg / day
B. 0,1 ... 0,7 mg /
C. 10 mg / day
D. 15 mg / day
936. Prolonged lack of zinc in the diet of growing children:
A. dermatitis
B. hypogonadism
C. allergies
D. Prasad's disease
937. Forms method for determining salmonella in breeding products:
A. alkaline environment
B. high temperature
C. organoleptic
D. bacteriological research
938. Benign (standard) - Products:
A. products with certain disabilities
B. Their eating is safe
C. such products may be used in food without restrictions
D. in kind pose a threat to human health
939. godnye- Related Products:
A. in kind pose a threat to human health
B. Their eating is safe
C. requiring mandatory (usually thermal) processing
D. such products may be used in food without restrictions
940. Foods with low nutritional value (non-standard):
A. poses no danger to human health
B. requiring mandatory (usually heat) treatment
C. in kind pose a threat to human health
D. Preparation of a violation of the processing
941. Counterfeit products - is:
A. their eating is not serious
B. such products may be used in food without restrictions
C. artificially imparted are any properties
D. to hide flaws
942. Surrogates - are products of:
A. artificially prepared with an appropriate indication on the label
B. artificially imparted are any properties
C. with the purpose of concealing flaws
D. similar to natural organoleptic features
943. Neutralization measled meat can be produced:
A. followed by standing in a sturdy brine for 20 days
B. can be cleaned freeze
C. frozen to a temperature of - 12 ° C
D. strong ambassador
944. Finns are mostly localized:
A. myocardial
B. in the kidney
C. abdominal cavity
D. in the masticatory muscles
945. Trichinella viewed under a microscope:
A. visible as coiled
B. They consist of two glass plates
C. at a small hobby (100raz)
D. under low magnification (10 - 50)
946. Nitrogen extractives of meat:
A. Glucose
B. glycogen
C. carnosine
D. Creatine
947. Nitrogen-free extractives of meat:
A. carnosine
B. Glucose
C. glycogen
D. Creatine
948. In what kind of meat is more common trichinosis:
A. beef
B. Fish
C. horsemeat
D. Lamb
949. Outside the epidemiological safety of milk:
A. General microbial count
B. Acidity
C. density
D. if - titer
Your 950. Finally, if the meat is obtained from patients with plague animals:
A. inedible
B. conditionally fit
C. benign
D. has poor
Your 951. Finally, if the meat is obtained from patients with FMD animals:
A. conditionally fit
B. benign
C. has poor
D. inedible
952. Hygienic indicators of meat:
A. benign
B. falsified
C. amino ammonia nitrogen
D. bacteriological indicators
953. The main indicators of the interpretation of the content of the amino nitrogen
amiachnogo meat:
A. 80 - 130 mg
B. 0,33- 0,5 ml
C. 0,5- 0,65ml
D. 130 mg
954. Basic interpretatsiibulonnoy reaction with copper sulphate at a health inspection
of meat:
A. appearance in broth flakes
B. reaction broth with copper sulphate
C. Content of amino nitrogen amiachnogo
D. broth transparent or turbidity
955. The most valuable proteins contained in the muscle meat:
A. Glucose
B. glycogen
C. myosin
D. Myogit
956. The most valuable proteins contained in the muscle meat:
A. actin
B. Glucose
C. glycogen
D. globulin
957. Vegetarian sausages:
A. Relief "unhealthy" sausage
B. cause allergic reactions in people prone to them
C. Generally, lower in calories than meat
D. fats are slightly less
958. Fish may be the cause of some of helminthiasis:
A. trihinelloz
B. ascariasis
C. diphyllobothriasis
D. opistorhoz
959. Forms opisthorchiasis:
A. Opisthorhis marianade
B. Opisthorhis feineus
C. Opisthorhis viverrini
D. Opisthorhismaribelle
960. Specify the organoleptic properties of fresh fish:
A. gills dark red
B. Surface fish net, covered with transparent slime
C. scales difficult to separate from the skin
D. nepriyatnyyzapah
961. Specify the organoleptic properties of fresh fish:
A. gills become brown
B. scales easily detached from skin
C. smell peculiar odor.
D. eyes bulging, transparent
962. Ukazhitepriznaki damage to fish:
A. scales easily detached from the skin
B. smell peculiar odor
C. eyes bulging, transparent
D. gills become brown
963. Ukazhitepriznakov damage to fish:
A. mucus loses its transparency and becomes cloudy
B. scales difficult to separate from the skin
C. stench
D. gills bright red
964. What changes occur in saltwater fish:
A. tan
B. turbidity
C. stench
Magenta stain D.
965. Types of salted fish:
A. wet salting - magenta spots
B. dry salting
C. Tan
966. Types of salted fish:
A. turbidity
B. stench
C. warm salt
D. chilled salting
967. Ukazhiteraznovidnosti smoked fish:
A. Cold smoking - the temperature not higher than 1000C
B. Cold smoking - the temperature not higher than 400C
C. hot kopchenie- temperature 1400 ° C 80
D. kopchenie- hot temperature 2000C
968. Specify the composition of the eggs:
A. glyukoza18%
B. 50% protein
C. lecithin to 2%
D. ihtulin 17- 18%
969. Specify the composition of the eggs:
A. glyukoza18%
B. 50% protein
C. 2- albumin 2.5%
D. 3,9 cholesterol 14%
970. milk fats comprise:
A. Cholesterol
B. arachidonic acid
C. protein-lecithin complex
D. antioxidants
971. casein milk:
A. mare and donkey
B. Most of lactating farm animals
C. used in most countries as food
D. higher its biological and nutritional value
972. milk albumin:
A. most closely approximates to human milk
B. Most of lactating farm animals
C. is used in the majority of countries as a food product
D. higher its biological and nutritional value
973. What kinds of proteins in milk are presented:
A. Albumin
B. globulin
C. lactalbumin
D. lactoglobulin
974. homogenized milk:
A. Improved digestibility
B. Most of lactating farm animals
C. is used in the majority of countries as a food product
D. Improved dispersing it
975. The main diseases transmitted to humans through milk:
A. FMD
Meningitis B.
C. tuberculosis
D. diphtheria
976. Forms of yogurt:
A. Mechnikov
B. yogurt
C. vulgaris
D. pasteurized
977. Forms of yogurt:
A. Pasteurized
B. albumen
C. ryazhenka
D. varenets
978. acidophilus products:
A. ryazhenka
B. albumen
C. sour cream
D. acidophilic paste
979. Features of cheese:
A. has a diuretic effect
B. promotes excretion of stones
C. Improved Vision
D. promotes the excretion of cholesterol
980. What is the mare:
A. widely used in animal husbandry with a developed republics
B. increases urine output
C. refers to fermented milk drinks
D. Principal milk solids
981. Kumiss long been used successfully:
A. It has a restorative effect
B. In excretion of stones
C. Improved view
D. In the treatment of pulmonary tuberculosis
982. cheeses are distinguished by the method of manufacturing:
A. lactic acid
B. Dried
C. Rennet
D. smoked
983. Cheese vary depending on the consistency:
A. Soft
B. Dried
C. Solid
D. Wet
984. The fat content of unsalted and salted butter:
A. 15%
B. 16%
C. 83%
D. 81%
985. The content of salt in butter:
A. never more than 10%
B. 2%
C. not more than 3%
D. no more than 15%
986. What kind of flour do you know:
A. rice
B. oatmeal
C. boiled
D. Stone
987. Which cereals have a greater biological value:
A. oats
B. semolina
C. buckwheat
D. flour
988. What cereals are characterized by the highest content of iron:
A. buckwheat
B. millet
Figure C.
D. oats
989. At the bakeries prohibited use as disinfestation:
A. mushroom
B. chlorine
C. vinegar
D. fluoride preparations
990. Forms groups pastry:
A. 3sort
B. 4sort
C. Grade 1
D. Grade 2
991. Organoleptic flour:
A. turbidity
B. solubility
C. color
D. smell
992. Physico-chemical parameters of flour:
A. Reaction starch
B. UMC
C. acidity
D. gluten
993. Nazovitevrediteley contaminating the flour:
A. poisonous plants
B. mites
C. spores
D. talhak tolstoplodny
994. What are the pests, contaminating the flour:
A. admixture of metal
B. poisonous plants
C. Clamp
D. cockle
995. Nazoviteosnovnye disease of bread:
A. UMC
B. plesneveniehleba
C. potato disease
D. sveklyannaya disease
996. moldy bread observed:
A. When stored in adverse conditions
B. In increasing its acidity
C. Storage irrelevant
D. In his elevated humidity
997. What are the mushrooms develop in moldy bread:
A. Pencilliumglaucum (green mold)
B. Fusina
C. opistorhoz
D. Aspergillusglaucum (white mold)
998. What type of prevention is to prevent the development of potato sticks:
A. Enhancing its humidity
B. not to use 2- bread varieties
C. rapid cooling after baking of bread (for 2 to 3 hours)
D. Prohibition of trade hot bread
999. Nazovitevidy activities that are carried out against the flour pests and rodents:
A. disinfestation
B. Sterilization
C. disinfection;
D. disinfestation
1000. Forms of canned food, depending on the method of preparation:
A. false canned
B. bombazh
C. true canned
D. Preserve
1001. Species of container for canned:
A. Glass
I. plastics
C. Metal
D. tin
1002. Specify methods for determining the tightness of canned food:
A. Simplification method
B. the presence of labels
C. Status of sutures
D. vacuum process
1003. The causes of the violation of tightness:
A. rusting metal in storage
B. the presence of the label
C. Status of sutures
D. strain cans
1004. For non-alcoholic beverages include:
A. fruktovo- natural berry and fruit juices
B. edible organic acids
C. Coffee
D. carbonated soft drinks
1005. For acidification drinks used:
A. tartaric acid
B. Acetic Acid
C. sulfatnaya acid
D. citric acid
1006. The fruits of cola contain:
A. Caffeine (1,2- 2%) and theobromine (about 0.01%)
B. edible acid
C. dyes, aromatics and preservatives
D. alkaloids
1007. Varieties of mineral water:
A. sugar
B. Helpful
D. warm
1008. Varieties of mineral water:
A. bezgazirovannye
D. Useful
1009. The chemical composition of the mineral water are:
A. hydrogen sulfide
B. chloride
C. carbonic
D. hot
1010. For soft drinks include:
A. Coffee
B. Drinking
C. juice
D. tea
1011. Enter the parameters that characterize the damage of carbonated soft drinks:
A. precipitate flaked
B. transparent
C. colorless
D. blurred
1012. What groups are divided into carbonated soft drinks:
A. Artificial
B. drinks "Cola"
C. Natural
D. tonics
1013. Which components are the basis of natural carbonated drinks:
A. juice
B. fruit drinks
C. Coffee
D. tea
1014. What are artificial sweeteners used to izgotovleniyadiabeticheskih drinks:
A. Glucose
B. fructose
C. saccharin
D. xylitol
1015. What are the minerals contain natural mineral waters:
A. Br
B. Sodium
C. iron
D. uranium
1016. Forms of sanitary-bacteriological supervision:
A. unscheduled
B. Epidemiology
C. sanitary
D. Planning
1017. The objectives of the planned sanitary and bacteriological survey:
A. Maintenance of the sanitary condition of the company at the proper level
B. Epidemiology
C. sanitary
D. Improving sanitary conditions of production
1018. The main objectives of bacteriological surveillance of equipment and supplies
at the food enterprises:
A. Definition of the role and place equipment in bacterial contamination of the
product
B. maintaining sanitary condition of the company at the appropriate level
C. Evaluation of the effectiveness of sanitizing equipment and inventory
D. Epidemiology
1019. Which of catering staff taking swabs from the hands:
A. hairdressers
B. Teachers
C. kitchen staff
D. pastry shop workers
1020. Which of catering staff taking swabs from the hands:
A. hairdressers
B. Teachers
C. waitresses
D. sellers
1021. From what parts of the plates is necessary to take swabs on bacteriological
research:
A. from the outer surface
B. with the bottom of the handle
C. with the entire inner surface
D. one pad to the inner surfaces of the three plates
1022. On the territory of catering is planned at least two entries:
A. one- for waiters
B. one - for visitors
C. Other - for the transportation of products
D. drugoy- for cooks
1023. For the production group includes:
A. Closet
B. bathroom
C. production facilities
D. containers for semi-finished products
In 1024 a group of warehouse space include:
A. bread slicer
B. storage for dry goods
C. It is cooled camera
D. Transfer
1025. From a technical group of premises in catering provision:
A. bread slicer
B. Transfer
C. chamber ventilation
D. Air conditioning
1026. Perechislitevidy projects:
A. passport data
B. Individual Project
C. typical project
D. recital
1027. Ukazhiteblyuda who is forbidden to leave the next day:
A. bread
B. butter
C. salads
D. vinaigrettes
1028. Ukazhiteblyuda who is forbidden to leave the next day:
A. boiled meat, à la carte dishes for the first
B. Beverage
C. Bread
D. empanadas and cheese
1029. Nazovitevidy any document as a result of health examination of the project of
food businesses:
A. recital
B. own conclusions
C. Draft recorded in a special Q - 304 / y
D. Conclusion on the Draft - ZO5 f / y
1030. List the 2 types of duration of the enterprise trade throughout the year:
A. temporary or seasonal trade
B. expensive trade
C. regular trade
D. Continuous trading
1031 Show the categories of workers who issued diet number 1:
A. working with other sources of ionizing radiation
B. Activities of connected with the influence of various hydrocarbons
C. Work-related exposure to high temperatures
D. working with radioactive substances
1032. Contrasting the diet (days) are of two types:
A. Discharge
B. holidays
C. load "plus - zigzags"
D. Diet
1033. Load diet used:
A. short-term changes in diet
B. Their application was called contrast
C. In compliance with the principle of training
D. they are called even as "holidays"
1034. System "zigzags" provides:
A. in accordance with the principle workout
B. Their call even as "holidays"
C. short-term changes in diet
D. their application has been called contrast
1035. When the tea diet:
A. When acute nephritis
B. In hypertensive disease
C. in acute gastritis and enterocolitis
D. exacerbation of chronic enterocolitis with diarrhea
1036. In what diseases is recommended risovo- Compote diet:
A. liver and biliary tract
B. exacerbation of chronic enterocolitis with diarrhea
C. for hypertension
D. In acute nephritis
1037. In what diseases is recommended apple diet:
A. circulatory failure or kidney disease
B. in accordance with the principle workout
C. they even called as "holidays"
D. obesity
1038. In what diseases is recommended watermelon and cucumber diet:
A. urolithiasis without phosphaturia
B. CHD
C. in acute gastritis and enterocolitis
D. gout
1039. In what diseases is recommended curd diet:
A. atherosclerosis
B. SARS
C. diabetes
D. diphtheria
1040. Show dietary conditions of construction:
A. The state of the patient
B. State budget
C. Nature of the disease
D. In infectious disease
1041. What are the conditions for building a diet:
A. individual features
B. State budget
C. When an infectious disease
D. Status of the patient
1042. What are the types of handling of diets:
A. risovo- Compote diet
B. - diet №1,2
C. - dieta№3,4
D. tea diet
1043. What are the types of handling of diets:
A. watermelon diet
B. Diet №1,2
C. dieta№3,4
D. apple diet
1044. Show basic metabolic processes of metabolism:
A. imbalance
B. Metabolism
C. catabolism (dissimilation)
D. anabolism (assimi¬lyatsiya)
1045. Prevalence of assimilation there is a healthy person iobratnaya pattern seen in
individuals in the age group:
15 A.
B. 40 years
C. 25 years
D. 60 years
1046. In most body uses to energy objectives:
Vitamin A.
B. carbohydrates
C. Fats
D. Minerals
1047. Energy consumption in humans can be divided into:
A. catabolism
B. unregulated
C. adjustable
D. anabolism
1048. Non-regulated energy costs in humans:
A. Key Exchange
B. UFD
C. food thermogenesis
D. mental activity
1049. Regulated energy consumption in humans:
A. Physical activity
B. cellular metabolism
C. dyha¬nie
D. mental activity
1050. List the answers that are the main exchange:
A. endocrine and exocrine
B. Meeting the challenge
C. gymnastics
D. cellular metabolism
1051. The value of basal metabolism (BOO) depends on several factors:
A. Age and hormonal balance
B. meal
C. morning exercises
D. sex, height, weight and body composition
Ener¬gii 1052. The need for rest is a direct relationship:
A. the time of year and climate
B. of nerve conduction
C. From muscle mass
D. so¬derzhaniya of adipose tissue in the body
1053. Of the methods ne¬pryamoy calorimetry osno¬vannye on the study of gas
exchange:
A. Pokrovsky
B. nomography
C. Holden DuglasaD. Shaternikova - Molchanov
1054. Under what professions physical activity coefficient equal to 1.4:
A. Teachers
B. machine operators
C. Students
D. surgeons
1055. Under what professions physical activity coefficient equal to 2.3:
A. steelmakers
B. workers mainly brainwork
C. Agriculture workers
D. scientists
1056. Enter the essential amino acids:
A. Lysine
B. Alanine
C. arginine
D. threonine
1057. For non-traditional sources of protein include:
A. mycelium
B. egg, fish and dairy products
C. grains (breads and cereals)
D. unicellular and multicellular algae
1058. What diseases develop during prolonged nedostatochnostibelka in the diet:
A. alimentary dystrophy
B. CHD
C. kwashiorkor
D. Blindness
1059. On the part of the protein associated with a number of hereditary diseases:
A. alkaptonuriya
B. Down syndrome
C. albinism
D. phenylketonuria
1060. Use for the purposes of supply of new protein resources depends on the
development of two interrelated pro¬blem:
A. physiological
B. Physical
C. Technology
D. Medical
1061. List the indigestible oligosaccharides:
A. Lactose
B. Glucose
C. raffinose
D. stachyose
1062. What small amounts of carcinogens are defined in sesame seeds:
A. radium
B. Uranium
C. sesamol
D. sesamin
1063. The triglyceride composition comprises:
A. Fatty kis¬loty
B. Glucose
a. glycerol
C. sucrose
1064. On the nature of dietary fats can be:
A. plant
B. technology
C. Animal
D. treated
1065. Dietary fats are direct sources:
A. biological membranes
B. Construction of cells
C. in the cytoplasm
D. steroid hormones
1066. The greatest increase cholesterol in serum:
A. myristic
B. Oleic
C. sterol
D. lauric
1067. Unsaturated fatty acids are classified according to the degree:
A. polyunsaturated
B. phospholipids
C. arachidonyl
D. monounsaturated
1068. What vitamins play an important role in the metabolism of cholesterol:
A. folic acid
B. sterol
C. ascorbic acid
D. Biotin
1069. Kprostym uglevodamotnosyatsya so-called sugar:
A. galactose
B. raffinose
C. fructose
D. stachyose
1070. Kslozhnym uglevodamotnosyatsya so-called sugar:
A. stachyose
B. xylose
C. ribose
D. raffinose
1071. Prolonged deficiency of glycogen in the liver leads:
A. a fatty
B. atherosclerosis
C. to obesity
D. dysfunction of hepatocytes
1072. Water-soluble vitamins include:
A. bioflavonoids
B. retinol
C. askorbino¬vaya acid (C)
D. tocopherol
1073. The symptoms of scurvy are:
A. edema
B. Pain
C. loss of hair and teeth
D. breakdown
1074. About a vitamin deficiency will testify to the fact of bleeding gums when
brushing your teeth:
A. Ascorbic acid
B. retinol
C. bioflavonoid
D. tocopherol
1075. The main sources of linoleic acid in the diet:
A. cottonseed oil
B. sugar
C. Corn Oil
D. pork
1076. Linolenic acid plays an important role:
A. in the normal development of the retina
B. in the functioning of the cell membrane
C. c funktsionirova¬nii myelinated fibers of the nervous system
D. there is no right answer
1077. Dietary fiber is ...
A. usvoyaemyev colon
B. inedible food kom¬ponenty
C. edible food ingredients
D. digestible in the small intestine
1078. What kind of flour do you know:
A. boiled
B. Rice
C. Ovesnov
D. Stone
1079. Which cereals have a greater biological value:
A. oats
B. semolina
C. buckwheat
D. flour
1080. Which cereals contain iron is a trace element:
A. buckwheat
B. millet
C. oats
Figure D.
1081. The bakeries prohibited use as disinfestation:
A. fluoride preparations
B. chlorine
C. mushroom
D. vinegar
1082. Forms Group of flour products:
A. Grade 2
B. 3sort
C. Grade 1
D. 4sort
1083. Forms of organoleptic characteristics of flour:
A. turbidity
B. solubility
C. color
D. smell
1084. Vitamins - it's ...
A. obes¬pechenie enzymatic metabolic processes
B. digestible in the colon
C. Essential micronutrients
D. inedible food kom¬ponenty
1085. Vitamins are classified according to their solubility:
A. solubility sugars
B. Solubility in water
C. Solubility fats
D. enterosoluble
1086. The causes of vitamin deficiency can be:
A. Violations of the digestive system
B. absolute failure
C. relative lack of
D. respectful failure
1087. Increases resistance to ascorbic acid:
A. Low pH
B. alkaline medium
C. acidic medium
D. pH high
1088. Food poisoning fungal origin (mycotoxicoses) is:
A. aflotoksikoz
B. botulism
C. Herpes
D. ergotism
1089. Basic food solid matter that could prevent toxification of xenobiotics in the
body:
A. vitaminS
B. riboflavin
C. Zinc
Vitamin D.
1090. What kinds of food mycotoxicoses:
A. fuzariotoksikozy
B. blight
C. aflotoksikozy
D. mycosis
1091. What mycotoxicoses, which does not include food mycotoxicoses:
A. fungal infections
B. fuzariotoksikozy
C. blight
D. aflotoksikozy
1092. What are the principles of modern classification of food poisoning:
A. Pathogenesis
B. aflotoksikozy
C. etiology
D. fuzariotoksikozy
1093. What types of bread, not manufactured in the bakeries:
A. lochira
B. cakes
C. patyr
D. Shaped Loaf
1094. What types of bread, manufactured bakeries:
A. Shaped Loaf
B. patyr
C. tortillas
D. lochira
1095. Methods for determining propagation of Salmonella in foods:
A. organoleptic
B. By Serology
C. By immunological research
D. bacteriological research
1096. Specify how opredeleniyane multiplication of Salmonella in foods:
A. By immunological research
B. organoleptic
C. bacteriological research
D. By Serology
1097. What are the essential amino acids:
A. leucine
B. glutamine
C. tryptophan
D. cystine
1098. What are the essential amino acids:
A. cystine
B. tryptophan
C. glutamine
D. Leucine
1099. Specify how opredeleniyane multiplication of Salmonella in foods:
A. physiological research
B. organoleptic
C. bacteriological research
D. By pathophysiological research
1100. What are the known diseases of potato:
A. Fusarium
B. aflotoksikozy
C. fuzariotoksikozy
D. blight
1101. What are the disease, which does not relate to the disease of potatoes:
A. fuzariotoksikozy
B. blight
C. Fusarium
D. aflotoksikozy
1102. Enter the propagation characteristics of enterococci in foods:
A. Acid
B. alkaline environment
C. mucilaginized product
D. bitter taste in the product
1103. Resistance of enterococci in foods:
A. 20 minutes pri500S
B. 60 minutes pri600S
C. 30 minutes pri600S
D. 10 minutes pri850S
1104. Enter the function that neotnosyatsya functions Power:
A. insufficient
B. External power supply
C. overweight
D. Internal power supply
1105. The composition of milk:
A. fats, carbohydrates
B. water, cream
C. minerals, vitamins
D. hypoxanthine
1106. Enter the figures that neotnosyatsya to the organoleptic properties of the bread:
A. porosity
B. odor
C. color
D. acidity
1107. Enter the infectious gastrointestinal diseases in which a person can be a source
kolibakterialnyh poisoning:
A. cholecystitis
B. salmonella
C. dysentery
D. kolienterit
1108. Enter the infectious gastrointestinal diseases in which a person can be a source
kolibakterialnyh poisoning:
A. Salmonella
Paratyphoid B.
C. kolienterit
D. paraproctitis
1109. Enter the infectious gastrointestinal diseases in which a person can not be a
source of kolibakterialnyh poisoning:
A. paraproctitis
B. salmonella
C. paratyphoid
D. kolienterit
1110. What are vitamins that are fat-soluble vitamins to neotnosyatsya:
A. B, B2, A, D
B. B6, B2, C
C. B1, PP, B12
D. B, PP, E, K
1111. Basic requirements for the prevention of botulism:
A. Prevention getting botulinum bacteria in the products
B. disinfection
C. Preventing bacterial growth
D. disinfestation
1112. The basic requirements for the prevention of botulism does not include:
A. disinfestation
B. Prevention getting botulinum bacteria in food
C. Preventing bacterial growth
D. disinfestation
1113. What are the physical parameters measured in the laboratory:
A. Toxicity
B. Temperature
C. Humidity
D. acidity
1114. Terms of the passage of employees of commercial enterprises medical
examination and sanitary minimum:
A. When applying for a job, then every 3 months
B. In applying for a job, then every 8 months
C. at entry, then every 2 times, 1
D. In applying for a job, then every 6 months
1115. Basic requirements for the prevention of botulism:
A. sufficient thermal obrabotkaproduktov
B. Mechanical obrabotkaproduktov
C. disinfestation, obrabotkaproduktov
D. Prevention of reproduction spores
1116. Symptoms of food toxicosis:
A. diplopia, ptosis
B. Athos anemia
C. nausea, vomiting
D. Multiple liquid stools
1117. The main dietary sources of riboflavin:
A. Fat
B. semolina
C. dairy products, meat products
D. eggs and buckwheat
1118. When riboflavin deficiency nblyudayutsya the following symptoms:
A. ciliary injection
B. enteritis, colitis
C. gastroenterocolitis
D. angulyarnyystomatit
1119. Specify a variety of natural compounds of vitamin B12:
A. oksokobalamin
B. tiaminkobalamin
C. cyanocobalamin
D. oksokobalt
1120. When a biotin deficiency develops:
A. damage to the skin of the neck, hands and feet (peeling and itching)
B. Crohn's disease
C. disease Kassla
D. Leiner syndrome
1121. With hypervitaminosis of vitamin A is shown:
A. golov¬naya pain, nausea, vomiting
B. anemia, rickets
C. glossitis, gastritis
D. pain in bones and joints
1122. Ukazhiteosnovnye dietary sources of Vitamin D:
A. butter, eggs
B. flour products, rye bread
C. fruits, legumes
D. granular caviar sturgeon fish
1123. With a deficit of calciferol in the adult develops:
A. osteomalacia
B. anemia, rickets
C. Osteoporosis
D. gout
1124. The need for vitamin K is:
A. 200 mg / day
B. 500 micrograms / day
C. 100 mg / day
D. 300 mg / day
1125. Food sources of vitamin K:
A. parsley, spinach
B. Lamb
C. smoked fish
D. apples, green onions
1126. Food poisoning are:
A. nemikrobnoy nature
B. staphylococcal intoxication
C. caused by spore-forming bacteria
D. microbial nature
1127. For non-microbial nature of food poisoning include:
A. staphylococcal intoxication
B. caused by spore-forming bacteria
C. poisonous mushrooms
D. poisonous plants, their seeds and fruits
1128. By the nature of the microbial food poisoning include:
A. bacterial food poisoning
B. poisonous mushrooms
C. poisonous plants
D. foodborne
1129. List foodborne diseases:
A. botulism
B. kolienterit
C. salmonella
Staphylococcal intoxication D.
1130. For poisonous plants include:
A. henbane, belladonna
B. pale grebe
Line C.
D. Lech poisonous hemlock
1131. By the nature of non-microbial food poisoning does not include:
A. ergotism
B. mycosis
C. dysentery
D. Salmonella
1132. Enter the two types of toxicosis:
A. bakteriotoksikozy
B. staphylococcal intoxication
C. poisoning
D. mycotoxicoses
1133. By the nature of the microbial food poisoning does not include:
A. staphylococcal intoxication
B. pesticides
C. mercury, arsenic
D. poisoning
1134. As a result, use of the product is most common solanine poisoning?
A. Bean
B. beans
C. sprouts potatoes
D. Green potatoes
1135. Indicate the main dietary sources of choline:
A. beans, potatoes
B. dairy products, eggs
C. meat and liver
D. beans, fruits
1136. When arsenic poisoning occurs:
A. biliary cirrhosis
B. nausea, vomiting
Toxic hepatitis C.
D. diarrhea
1137. Indicate the main dietary sources of vitamin B15:
A. seeds (pumpkin, sunflower, sesame)
B. dairy products, eggs
C. meat
D. nuts (almonds, pistachios)
1138. Indicate the main important functions of calcium in the body:
A. included in the composition of hydroxyapatite crystals (together with phosphorus)
vmineralnuyu component skeleton
B. Participation in the exchange
C. Participation in the processes of energy
D. provides muscle contraction
1139. Indicate the main dietary sources of calcium:
A. dairy products
B. fruits, vegetables
C. beans, fruits
D. nuts, canned fish in oil, soevayamuka
1140. The need for healthy human adult calcium sostav¬lyaet:
A. 1000 mg
B. 500 mg
C. nemenee 1000 mg
D. 900 mg
1141. Alimentary calcium deficiency in adults is associated with bone health and is
characterized by:
A. Reducing its density
B. increases its density
C. gout, osteomalacia
D. osteoporozomi fractures
1142. Indicate the main dietary sources of phosphorus:
A. dairy and meat products
B. fruits, vegetables
C. flour products
D. eggs, poultry and fish
1143. Need for adult healthy person for phosphorus sostav¬lyaet:
A. 1200 mg
B. 1000 mg
C. It is not less than 1200 mg
D. 1500 mg
1144. Indicate the main dietary sources of potassium:
A. Fruit and vegetables
B. flour products
C. juices and dried fruit
D. dairy and meat products
1145. Chronic chemical poisoning:
A. some nutritional supplements (nitrites, etc.).
B. poisonous mushrooms
C. poisonous plants, their seeds and fruits
D. residues of certain pesticides
1146. When hypokalemia appears:
A. dysbiosis
B. cardiac arrhythmia
C. enteroplegia
D. dermatitis
1147. Indicate the main dietary sources of sodium:
A. flour products
B. confectionery
C. smoked, pickled foods
D. salty foods
1148. Indicate the main dietary sources of magnesium:
A. confectionery
B. flour products
C. zele¬nye plants, nuts
D. grains, seafood
1149. Indicate the main dietary sources of iron:
A. flour products
B. confectionery
C. meat
D. poultry and fish
1150. Need for adult healthy human prostate is:
A. For Men 9 mg /
B. For women 10 mg / day
C. For men 10 mg / day
D. For women 18 mg / day
1151. Prolonged lack of iron in the diet developed:
A. pernicious anemia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. hypochromic anemia
D. hyperchromic anemia
1152. Indicate the main dietary sources of zinc:
A. confectionery
B. Vegetables, Fruits
C. Seafood, meat, eggs
D. nuts and legumes
1153. Need for adult healthy person for zinc is:
A. 10 mg / day
B. 0,1 ... 0,7 mg /
C. 15 mg / day
D. nemenee15 mg / day
1154. Prolonged lack of zinc in the diet of growing children:
A. dermatitis
B. allergies
C. Prasad's disease
D. hypogonadism
1155. Nazavite two varieties of sour cream on the fat content:
A. 1st grade 30%
B. Grade 2 45%
C. Grade 2 25%
D. Grade 1 35%
1156. The basic requirements for the prevention of botulism does not include:
A. disinfestation, obrabotkaproduktov
B. Preventing breeding dispute
C. Mechanical obrabotkaproduktov
D. sufficient thermal obrabotkaproduktov
1157. The basic requirements for the prevention of botulism:
A. sufficient heat treatment and sterilizatsiyaproduktov
B. Chemical obrabotkaproduktov
C. fizicheskayaobrabotkaproduktov
D. Establishment of conditions to prevent toxin formation
1158. The basic requirements for the prevention of botulism does not include:
A. fizicheskayaobrabotkaproduktov
B. Sufficient heat treatment and sterilizatsiyaproduktov
C. Creating conditions to prevent toxin formation
D. Chemical obrabotkaproduktov
1159. Enter the vitamins that neotnosyatsya to the water-soluble vitamins:
A. E, K
B. B6, B2, C
C. B1, PP, B12
D. A, D
1160. Type vitamins which are water-soluble vitamins:
A. B2, D
B. B1, E
C. B6
D. PP, B12
1161. Enter the product that neotnosyatsya to the components of kvass:
A. Wheat
B. sorghum
C. Rye
D. oats
1162. Enter the paint that neotnosyatsya to food colors:
A. Chemical
B. Artificial
C. physical
D. Natural
1163. What are the main reaction is determined by the ammonia in fish:
A. nitric trial
B. Sample Hebert
C. Kessler sample
D. Sample Rozenga
1164. Describe the chicken:
A. slowly dissolves in the body
B. quickly cooked
C. fast utilizable
D. quickly absorbed in the body
1165. Mode of use duck and goose eggs in the confectionery industry:
A. with the approval of the City CGSEN
B. with the permission of the district CSES
C. It is not permitted
D. not razreshaetsyatolko Home Products
1166. When normalized milk dairies:
A. Before reception
B. to pasteurization
C. before sterilization
D. Before using the farm
1167. Pasteurization at low temperatures in dairy products:
A. 730S
B. 63- 900C
C. for 40 minutes
D. 30 minutes
1168. What are infectious diseases transmitted through infected milk:
A. influenza, scarlet fever
B. gonorrhea
C. mouth disease, tuberculosis
D. streptococcal infection
1169. What are infectious diseases backlog through infected milk:
A. mouth disease, tuberculosis,
B. Mumps
C. scarlet fever
D. strep infection
1170. What are infectious diseases transmitted through infected meat:
A. strep infection
B. foot and mouth disease, swine
C. anthrax
D. pertussis
1171. What are infectious diseases transmitted through infected meat:
A. gonococcal infection
B. pertussis
C. salmonella, plague
D. anthrax, trichinosis
1172. What are infectious diseases backlog through infected meat:
A. FMD, swine
B. anthrax
C. meningitis
D. diphtheria
1173. What are infectious diseases that are transmitted by ingestion of contaminated
water:
A. FMD, swine
B. anthrax
C. Hepatitis A and E
D. typhoid
1174. What are infectious diseases that are not transmitted through drinking water:
A. dysentery
B. typhoid
C. FMD, swine
D. measles
1175. What are infectious diseases that are not transmitted through drinking water:
A. typhoid
B. Hepatitis A and E
C. streptococcal infection
D. gonococcal infection
1176. What indicators are not defined in the periodic drinking water supply dairies:
A. sanitary and hygiene
B. Chemical
C. physical
D. bacteriological
1177. What are infectious diseases that are not transmitted through drinking water:
A. typhoid
B. Hepatitis A and E
C. Chickenpox
D. meningitis
1178. What are infectious diseases that are not transmitted when using eggs:
A. paratyphoid
B. Hepatitis A and E
C. salmonella
D. Chickenpox
1179. What are infectious diseases that are transmitted by the use of eggs:
A. paratyphoid, B
Meningitis B.
C. salmonellosis
D. typhoid
1180. What are infectious diseases that are transmitted by the use of cold cuts and
sausages:
A. typhoid
B. helminth infections
Meningitis C.
D. botulism
1181. What are infectious diseases that are transmitted by the use of confectionery
products (cakes, rolls):
A. stafilokokkovyeintoksikatsii
B. botulism
Meningitis C.
D. Salmonella
1182. Enter the infectious diseases that are transmitted by hand cream:
A. stafilokokkovyeintoksikatsii
B. botulism
C. helminthiases
D. Salmonella
1183. Tell us about the shelf life cream cakes:
A. butter cream Cake-potato and no more than 36 hours
B. protein cream no more than 96 hours
C. and butter cream Cake-kartoshkane more than 76 hours
D. Protein Cream to 72 hours
1184. The main groups of xenobiotics, blocking the action of vitamin D:
A. sedatives
B. aminoglycosides
C. neuroleptics
D. laxatives
1185. The main groups of xenobiotics, blocking the action of vitamin B6:
A. oral contraceptives
B. aminoglycosides
C. laxatives
D. alcohol
1186. The main groups of xenobiotics, blocking the action of vitamin B12:
A. anticonvulsants
B. aminoglycosides
C. laxatives
D. contraceptives
1187. The main groups of xenobiotics, non-blocking effect of vitamin B12:
A. aminoglycosides
B. contraceptives
C. anticonvulsants
D. laxatives
1188. Show types PC used to improve food technology:
A. oksidsulfata
B. ammonium nitrate
C. acid salts
D. stabilizers
1189. The main groups of xenobiotics, non-blocking effect of vitamin B12:
A. aminoglycosides
B. contraceptives
C. anticonvulsants
D. antipsychotics
1190. The main groups of xenobiotics, blocking the action of folacin:
A. oral contraceptives
B. aminoglycosides
C. neuroleptics
D. sulfa drugs
1191. The main groups of xenobiotics, blocking the action of vitamin K:
A. Antibiotics
B. aminoglycosides
C. sulfa drugs
D. anticonvulsants
1192. The main groups of xenobiotics, non-blocking the action of vitamin K:
A. aminoglycosides
B. antibiotics
C. - anticonvulsants
D. antipsychotics
1193. Tell us about the kinds of products that are not accepted in EPP:
A. there is no evidence of a stamp of veterinary checks for meat animals
B. products that are within 3 to 5 minutes, stir-fried in the fire
C. Compliance sequence Productions food and confectionery
D. leaking cans, spoiled, (rotten) fruit and vegetables
1194. The main groups of xenobiotics, blocking the action of vitamin C:
A. nicotine
B. antibiotics
C. Aspirin
D. sulfa drugs
1195. Show measures against rodents in EPP:
A. disinfestation
B. disinfestation
C. Sterilization
D. mechanical methods (trap etc.)
1196. The main groups of xenobiotics, non-blocking effect of vitamin C:
A. aminoglycosides
B. Aspirin
C. Nicotine
D. antipsychotics
1197. What are infectious diseases that are not transmitted through the bakery
products (cakes, rolls):
A. typhoid
B. salmonella
C. stafilokokkovyeintoksikatsii
D. rabies
1198. Which foods contain vitamin A:
A. Fish Oil
B. Fruit
C. butter
D. vegetables
1199. What fermentyimeyutsya in milk:
A. lysozyme
B. casein
C. Albumin
D. Lysine
1200. The components of the hydrolysis reaction:
A. diesterification
B. - oxidase
C. deamination
D. hydrolase
1201. Enter the event to combat flies in EPP:
A. thorough cleaning of rooms
B. disinfestation
C. Disinfection
D. cooking sticky foods
1202. Enter nesostavlyayuschie hydrolysis reaction:
Monoamine oxidase A.
B. hydrolase
C. - diesterification
D. deamination
1203. Specify in commercial enterprises types of refrigerators:
A. refrigerated counters
B. minerals and trace elements
C. Organic acids
D. refrigerators
1204. Causes of meat contaminated with salmonella intravital:
A. Slaughter of sick animals
B. slaughter of all animals
C. pulloroznyh slaughter of birds
D. slaughter of all birds
1205. Indications diet №2
Chronic hepatitis A.
B. chronic gastritis, enteritis, colitis
C. Acute gastritis, enteritis, colitis
D. chronic cholecystitis
1206. Indications diet №5:
A. Acute gastritis
B. enteritis, colitis
C. Acute viral hepatitis, chronic cholecystitis
D. chronic hepatitis
1207. What is the mode of washing countertops:
A. Cold wash with soap and water
Wipe cloth B.
C. wash with warm soapy water
D. splash hot water
1208. The conduct spring cleaning:
A. 0,5% solution of chlorine bleach
B. wash with soap and cold water
C. 1% bleach solution
D. wipe cloth
1209. The main dietary sources of copper:
A. seeds, cereals
B. Vegetables
C. Fruit
D. seafood, nuts
1210. Copper consumption for an adult healthy person is:
A. 3,0 mg / day
B. 4,5 ... 5,0 mg /
C. 5,0 mg /
D. 1,5 ... 3,0 mg / day
1211. With a lack of copper is shown:
A. Osteoporosis
B. dermatitis
C. sinusitis
D. neutropenia
1212. The main dietary sources of vitamin B6:
A. meat
B. Vegetables
C. Fruit
D. seafood
1213. The main dietary sources of vitamin B12:
A. meat
B. nuts
C. seeds
D. seafood
1214. The main dietary sources of iodine:
A. potatoes
B. meat
C. seeds
D. seafood, nuts
1215. The main dietary sources of vitamin Sun:
A. Liver
B. nuts
C. yeast, eggs
D. seeds
1216. Physiological requirement of iodine are as follows:
A. nemenee 150 mg / day
B. 250 micrograms / day
C. 150 mg / day
D. 100 micrograms / day
1217. The physiological need for vitamin B6 is:
A. 0,5 mg /
B. 1,0 mg /
C. 1,5 mg / day
D. 3,0mg / day
1218. With a lack of iodine appears:
A. hypothyroidism
B. boleznVolfa- Chaikoff
C. myxedema
D. Hashimoto's disease
1219. The main dietary sources, bogatyemargantsem:
A. pineapple
B. pork
C. mutton
D. oatmeal
1220. Excessive intake of manganese in the body manifests itself:
A. mental naru¬sheniyami
B. anemia
C. allergies
D. Parkinson
1221. The main dietary sources of selenium:
A. pork
B. Fruit
C. Brazil nuts
D. crabs
1222. With a lack of selenium appears:
A. Hashimoto's disease
B. endemic fatal cardiomyopathy
C. boleznVolfa- Chaikoff
Keshan disease D.
1223. The main food sources of molybdenum:
A. animal products
B. oatmeal
C. Fruit and vegetables
D. semolina
1224. Excessive intake of molybdenum in the body manifests itself:
A. arthrosis
B. dermatitis
C. leukopenia
D. allergies
1225. The main food sources of chromium:
A. cabbage
B. pumpkin
C. meat
D. cereals and legumes
1226. The main food istochnikamhroma neotnosyatsya:
A. meat
B. cereals and legumes
C. Cabbage
D. pumpkin
1227. With a lack of chromium is shown:
A. arthrosis
B. atherosclerosis
C. diabetes
D. leukopenia
1228. The main dietary sources of fluoride:
A. pumpkin
B. grape juice
C. Cabbage
D. tea
1229. The main food istochnikamftora not include:
A. tea
B. cabbage
C. Pumpkin
D. grape juice
1230. With a lack of fluorine is shown:
A. giperftoroz
B. caries
C. endemic fluorosis
D. gipoftoroz
1231. With a lack of vitamin A is shown:
A. scurvy
B. decreased vision
C. blindness
D. beri- take
1232. With a lack of vitamin B1 is shown:
A. giperftoroz
B. polinevrit
C. beri- take
D. Blindness
1233. With a lack of vitamin B3 are shown:
A. blindness
B. take - it takes
C. fatty liver
D. paresis, dermatitis
1234. With a lack of vitamin P is shown:
A. polinevrit
B. haemorrhage
C. damage to the capillaries
D. beri- take
1235. The lack of vitamin B6 is shown:
A. Depression
B. psychotic reactions
C. blindness
D. beri- take
1236. With a lack of vitamin K is shown:
A. dysbiosis
B. pellagra
C. bleeding
D. beri- take
1237. With a lack of vitamin C appears:
A. blindness
B. krovotecheniedesen
C. Scurvy
D. pellagra
1238. The main food sources of cobalt:
A. Nuts
B. cabbage
C. beans and cocoa
D. pumpkin
1239. Excess supply of cobalt in the body manifests itself:
A. dermatitis
B. myocardiopathy
C. hypothyroidism
D. asthma
1240. The main dietary sources of nickel:
A. sunflower seed
B. cabbage
C. nuts
D. beans
1241. Physiological need for nickel is as follows:
A. 2mg / day
B. 1 mg / day
C. nemenee 1 mg / day
D. 3mg / day
1242. The main dietary sources of silicon:
A. grains, cereals
B. Fruit
C. Cabbage
D. legumes, pasta
1243. The main functions of proteins:
A. a component of hormones
B. Energy Function
C. protective function
D. the ability of plastic
E. component of the enzyme
F. component of the lipid
1244. Enter the special importance of vitamins for the elderly:
A. normalize the genitourinary system
B. normalizing effect on the nervous system
C. normalizing effect on the cardiovascular system
D. retard the aging process
E. inhibition of sclerotic processes
F. normalize the hair growth
1245. The need for protein, fat and carbohydrates in the diet for workers number 2:
A. belki- 63gr
B. proteins - 110gr
C. uglevody- 185gr
D. zhiry- 180gr
E. zhiry- 50g
F. carbohydrates - 50g
1246. The ratio of carbohydrates a balanced diet:
A. 25% proportion of sugar
B. 1% fat
C. proportion to 2% fat
D. 50% starch
E. proportion of 3% pectin
F. 29% sugar
1247. The main biological value of fats:
A. to implement the function of plastic
B. a source of antibody production
C. present in the structural parts of cells and membrane systems
D. carry energy function
E. is a source of energy
F. present in the structure of the vacuole
1248. What are the protein deficiency disease:
A. insanity
B. beri- take
C. Kwashiorkor
D. malnutrition alimentary
E. alimentary dystrophy
F. cheilosis
1249. List the trace elements contained in natural mineral waters:
A. iron
B. Silver
C. Br
D. Co
E. iodine
F. fluorine
1250. Types of the physiological role of cholesterol in the body:
A. Participating in the activity of the adrenal glands
B. does not retain moisture fabric
C. cloth retains moisture
D. involved in the production of chemical complexes
E. participates in the formation of sex hormones
F. involved in the production of natural complexes
1251. The components of the balance of fats in the diet:
A. 20% of cooking fats
B. 80% of animal fat
C. 50% of animal fat
D. 70% vegetable fat
E. 30% vegetable fat
F. 60% of cooking fats
1252. Physiological value of minerals:
A. Participation in circulation
B. participate in the development of acetylcholine
C. Participation in the structure of the enzyme systems
D. stimulate the kidneys
E. Participation in the process of plastic
F. maintaining osmotic pressure
1253. The mineral acid elements orientation:
A. Chlorine
B. Sodium
C. Phosphorus
D. potassium
E. sulfur
F. magnesium
1254. Forms BOB:
A. vitamins
B. amino acids
C. hot breakfast
D. pectins
E. milk and milk products
F. meat dishes
1255. What is the ratio of proteins, fats and carbohydrates for workers diet number 1:
A. uglevody- 159gr
B. belki- 80g
C. belki- 59gr
D. zhiry- 78gr
E. zhiry- 51gr
F. uglevody- 280gr
1256. The physiological importance of magnesium:
A. Participating in the production of chemical complexes
B. Participation in the plastic processes
C. Securing the conductivity and excitability of the nervous system
D. does not retain moisture fabric
E. Participation in the blood clotting
F. involved in the production of natural complexes
1257. Enter the parameters determining the status of the body of vitamin C:
A. Symptoms
B. weight and growth rate
C. capillary resistance
D. Skin and fat folds
E. urinary excretion of ascorbic acid
F. Definition of power status
1258. What are the early signs of vitamin C:
A. fatigue
B. insanity
C. decrease in performance
D. reduced resistance to cold
E. alimentary dystrophy
F. kwashiorkor
G. susceptibility to colds
1259. Specify the group to which the PUFA divided by biological activity:
A. fats with an average biological activity - 20% PUFA 15
B. PUFAs 100 120%
C. fats with high biological activity - 80% PUFA 50
D. PUFA 30 40%
E. fats with low biological activity - 6 PUFA 5%
F. PUFA 10- 20%
1260. Types of B vitamins in cereal products:
A. niamitsin
B. retinol
C. thiamine
D. tocopherol
E. riboflavin
F. calciferol
1261. Physical and chemical properties of flour used in the production of bread:
A. gluten is not less than 30%
B. Acidity 2,5 4,50T
C. acidity of 1,5 30T
D. 20% RH
E. humidity less than 14%
F. gluten 40%
1262. Enter the parameters of bread, manufactured from wheat flour:
A. porosity of not less than 63%
B. Acidity 10 0T
C. acidity 60T
D. 30% humidity
E. humidity not more than 47%
F. 50% porosity
1263. Enter the parameters of bread manufactured from rye flour:
A. porosity of not less than 42%
B. humidity greater than 60%
C. humidity is not more than 49%
D. acidity of up to 50 T
E. acidity 120 T
F. porosity of not less than 49%
1264. Enter the disease occurring in the bread:
A. infection chromogenic bacteria that produce the pigment
B. musty
C. potato disease
D. germination
E. rot
F. cherstvlenie bread
1265. The amount of nutrients entering the body every day with bread:
A. carbohydrates 150- 200g
B. 50g protein
C. 35gr proteins
D. Carbohydrates 300g
E. calorie 800- 1000 Kcal
F. caloric value of 2000 kcal
1266. Forms of vitamins necessary for the fortification of bread:
A. B2
B. B6
C. B1
D. B9
E. PP
F. C.
1267. Enter the physiological values of copper:
A. Activation of erythropoiesis
B. Participation in the inactivation of ketone bodies
C. Participation in the synthesis of hemoglobin, translating it into a non-organically
bound form
D. Impact on the function of the musculoskeletal system
E. effect on the function of the endocrine glands (insulin action)
F. activation of thrombosis
1268. Types of controlled energy consumption of the body:
A. mental activity
B. dissimilation
C. physical activity
D. Assimilation
E. manufacturing activity
F. Major exchange
1269. The necessary information to determine the primary exchange on the table "B":
A. Age
B. Main exchange
C. Sex
D. weight
E. Height
F. assimilation
1270. Energy value from the combustion of proteins, fats, carbohydrates:
A. fats - 9.3 kcal
B. carbohydrates - 1.7 kcal
C. Protein - 4.1 kcal
D. Protein - 1.1 kcal
E. carbohydrates - 4.1 kcal
F. fats - 2.3 kcal
1271. The ratio of proteins, fats and carbohydrates in the diet is a balanced diet:
A. fats - 1
B. carbohydrates - 6.6
C. Protein - 1
D. Protein - 2
E. carbohydrates - 4
F. fats - 3.2
1272. The problems of balancing power in modern conditions:
A. Minimum Energy value
B. Specific alimentarnoC. balancing
D. nonspecific
E. Ensuring full value
F. infectious
1273. Enter the preferential cumulative properties of nitrates:
A. melon seedlings
B. foliage
C. fodder hay
D. Fruit
E. vegetables
F. fats
1274. How can determine the nitrates in foods:
A. electrochemical
B. physical
C. calorimetry
D. Timing
E. gaschromatographic
F. nomography
1275. What vitamins are contained in the bread in large quantities:
A. B2
B. D
C. B
D. A
E. B6
F. C
1276. Functions of potassium in the body:
A. removing fluid from the body
B. accelerates the synthesis of amino acids
C. Synthesis of amino acids
D. sodium excretion from the body
E. removing iron from the body
F. lipolysis
1277. What are the vitamins in the group B vitamins:
A. tsianokobolamin
B. filohinon
C. pyridoxine
D. Retinol
E. thiamine
F. retinal
1278. What are dietary supplements used in plants for the production of bread:
A. calcium orthophosphate
B. Calcium chloride
C. Potassium bromate
D. magnesium thiosulfate
E. calcium thiosulfate
F. potassium chloride
1279. Enter the figures decline in the quality of bread:
A. Reducing porosity
B. decrease in acidity
C. Increase the acidity
D. dehumidifying
E. increase in humidity
F. underweight
1280. Identifying the factors that prevent the potato disease of bread:
A. for each 1 kg of flour was added to 3000 mg of calcium acetate
B. Packaging of bread
C. Fast cooling of bread
D.
E. banning the sale of hot bread
F. addition to bread sugar adding calcium chloride
1281. The main regulatory documents required for the examination of projects of food
businesses:
A. SNIP PL 124- 72
B. SNIP submarine 8- 72
C. SNIP Submarine 8 71
D. SNIP submarine 7- 81
E. SNIP PL 7 71
F. SNIP PL 125- 75
1282. What types of projects:
A. Projects for Reconstruction
B. Private project
C. individual project
D. Administrative Project
E. standard project
F. Draft processing
1283. Enter the items specified in the study plan and sections of premises catering:
A. Possible provide hot and cold water
B. size of the premises
C. Improvement composition, their orientation and dimensions
D. The need for correct positioning of the premises while ensuring sanitary-hygienic
regime
E. consistency in the processing of raw materials and finished products
F. height of premises
1284 List of What the components of the conclusion of the construction project:
A. passport data
B. recital
C. own conclusion, this specifies version 1 of 3
D. final conclusion
E. graphical part
F. explanatory note
1285. Enter the intergovernmental legislative materials:
A. Sanitary norms and rules for trade
B. Constitution of the Republic of Uzbekistan
C. sanitary norms and rules for catering
D. Standards for shops
E. Sanitary standards and rules for industry
F. The rules for the markets
1286. List the requirements for the harvesting and processing of raw materials in the
confectionery industry:
A. Compliance rules for processing shop utensils
B. cleanliness of rooms
C. Compliance rules and dishwashing equipment
D. storing pure dishes in the shop
E. cleaning and disinfecting vehicles and equipment 0.5% bleach or - 0.2% solution of
chlorine bleach
F. washing equipment 5% sodium chloride
1287. Enter the rules of washing sheets, dishes and trays:
A. drying
B. 2% washing soda
C. washing soda ash 0.5%
D. steaming
E. rinsing in hot water
F. Cooling
1288. Which components are the basis of natural carbonated drinks:
A. Extracts
B. liquors
C. Juices
D. kvass
E. Fruit drinks
F. lemonade
1289. What components form the basis of the artificial carbonated drinks:
A. dyes
B. juices
C. Essences
D. solids
E. Organic Acid
F. supplements
1290. What are artificial sweeteners used for the manufacture of beverages diabetes:
A. Sorbitol
B. caramel
C. Saccharin
D. nutmeg
E. Xylitol
F. antidiabetic liquor
1291. What are the indicators of freshness is characterized by carbonated soft drinks:
A. without inclusions
B. blurred
C. Transparency
D. precipitate
E. Colourless
F. sweet taste
1292. What indicators are characterized by damaged carbonated soft drinks:
A. sweet taste
B. Transparency
C. Turbidity
D. colourlessness
E. The precipitate
F. without foreign inclusions
1293. What actions should be carried out once a month in the RFP:
A. Disinfection
B. coloring
C. Cleaning
D. current repairs
E. Wash
F. Chlorination
1294. What are the ways to purge pipes and tanks after disinfection:
A. rinse with cold water
B. rinse water at 500 C
C. 800 rinse with hot water
D. wash brush
E. steaming
F. Rinse with boiling water
1295. What are micronutrients contains natural mineral water:
A. Bromine
B. Calcium
C. Iron
D. potassium
E. Chlorine
F. magnesium
1296. What indicators should have mineral waters:
A. Transparency
B. Colourless
C. without inclusions
Have vitamin D.
E. having slightly yellowish tint
F. be composed of essential oils
1297. List the components that make up the tea:
A. Caffeine
B. oils
C. tannins
Vitamin D.
E. Organic Acid
F. carbohydrates
1298. What substances contained in tea:
A. B vitamins
B. minerals and trace elements
C. Organic acids
D. biomikroelementy
E. fats
F. carbohydrates
1299. Enter the types of projects:
A. Individual
B. Model
C. Draft for restructuring
D. Special Project
E. revised draft
F. Project approved by the party
1300. Enter the recommendations highlighted in the book of Hippocrates, "On a diet":
A. Composition of food and drinks for a man diverse
B. You can emphasize or weaken the properties of the foods and beverages
C. food acts on the condition of the body and the physical condition of the person
D. food composition
E. COMPOSITION beverages for human diverse
F. can weaken the properties of foods and beverages
1301. Enter the scientists - encyclopaedists empirical period:
A. Hippocrates
B. Avicenna
C. Socrates
D. Romanchenko NL
E. Mahkamov GM
Nicholas F. Bobohodzhaev
1302. What are the scientists who have studied the energy consumption and energy
metabolism:
A. Liebig
B. Rubner
C. Voith
D. Romanchenko NL
E. Mahkamov GM
Nicholas F. Bobohodzhaev
1303. What features of potash fertilizers:
A. increases the amount of starch in the products
B. increases the accumulation of carbohydrates and participates in the transport of fat
increases
C. increases energy
D. increase the number of lipids
E. increases the amount of carbohydrates
F. increases the amount of vitamins
1304. What goals in the use of pesticides:
A. When pest control
B. stimulate the growth of plants
C. When the fight against plant diseases
D. increase the nutritional value
E. accelerate growth
F. increase the amount of vitamins
1305. Enter the kinds of chemical elements found in wheat:
A. essential fatty acids
B. proteins, carbohydrates
Vitamin C.
D. lactose
E. monosaccharides
F. Cholesterol
1306. Chemical composition of grain products:
A. proteins 10- 12%
Carbohydrates B. 60 - 70%
C. fats 2 - 4%
D. fats 35 - 20%
E. proteins 50 - 60%
F. carbohydrates 15 - 20%
1307. What are the chemical components of legumes:
A. fats 2%
B. carbohydrates 52%
C. proteins 23%
D. Carbohydrates 55%
E. 10% fat
F. 35% proteins
1308. What are the chemical components of barley:
A. proteins 34.9%
B. carbohydrates 26.5%
C. Fats 17.3%
D. 50% proteins
E. 10% fat
F. 40% carbohydrates
1309. Enter the nitrogen-free extractives in the composition of meat:
A. glycogen
B. Lactic Acid
C. Glucose
D. Protein
E. pyruvic acid
F. glycoprotein
1310. Enter the types of vegetables that are rich in sugar:
A. beets
B. melon
C. watermelon
D. carrots
E. pumpkin
F. turnips
1311. Resistance of enterococci in foods:
A. When 60 0C - 30min
B. at 70 0 C - 5 min
C. At 85 0 C - 10 minutes
D. at 25 0 C - 15 minutes
E. at 45 0C - 15 minutes
F. at 20 0 C - 5 minutes
1312. Enter the negative elements in the chain of mineral fertilizers:
A. Sand
B. atmosphere
C. Animal
D. ionosphere
E. sawdust
F. coal
1313. Factors negatively affecting the exchange of nitrogenous fertilizers in food
agriculture:
A. reduction stage of vegetation of plants
B. later ripening
C. Low quality products
D. raininess
E. levity
F. late onset of winter
1314. Principles of mechanical safety:
A. restriction of indigestible fiber and rich food
B. Special treatment plant products
C. Processing for cooking (using methods of crushing, grinding)
D. enrichment carbohydrates
E. eating cold food
F. use of animal fat
1315. Sanitary requirements in storerooms in the stores:
A. must have at least 2 refrigerators
B. The floor should be concrete, the wall height of 1.8 m, must be painted with oil
paint
C. darkened room, an area of not less than 5 square meters. m.
D. should have a heating device
E. should be a place for transport
F. SPZ 50- 60 m
1316. What are the group finished sausage products:
A. Boiled
B. smoked
C. smoked
D. salt
E. filtered
F. Purified
1317. What kinds of moisture depending on the group of sausages:
A. boiled 50- 75%
B. smoked 27- 30%
C. smoked 35 to 50%
D. smoked 40 to 50%
E. purely smoked 30 to 70%
F. boiled 70 80%
1318. What substances are included in the II diet:
A. Meat
B. Fish
C. milk, cottage cheese
D. peas
E. bread
F. apple
1319. What are the functions of preventive nutrition:
A. Achieving the withdrawal from the body of harmful substances
B. Increased reactivity of the organism
C. WARNING accumulation in the body of harmful substances
D. preventive therapeutic diet
E. general toxic
F. vitamin preparations
1320. Conservation methods using chemicals:
A. antioxidants
B. antiseptics
C. Antibiotics
Pb compound D.
E. proteins
F. compounds Hg
1321. What factors increase and influence the effectiveness of conservation
prezervnogo:
A. salting
B. Marinovka
C. Conservation under the influence of volatile production
D. Cooking
E. Park
F. Proteus
1322. Enter the types of diseases which are caused by food:
A. Infection
B. food toxicosis
C. poisoning
D. botulism
E. SARS
F. flu
1323. What is the need for protein, fat, carbohydrates in the diet of 5 m:
A. 58gr proteins
B. carbohydrates 172gr
C. Fats 53gr
D. fats 8gr
E. 12gr proteins
F. carbohydrates 17gr
1324. Forms gepaprotektorov recommended for 3- diet:
A. pectin
B. getatsin
C. methionine
D. phenylalanine
E. cystine
F. cysteine
1325. What is the reason for adding the pectin in the diet in preventive nutrition:
A. colloid characteristics
B. is a high adsorption
C. If cleavage of the resulting metal ions
D. improves taste
E. improves
F. improves odor
1326. What is the need for protein, fat, carbohydrates in the diet of 4 m:
A. 65gr proteins
B. Fats 45gr
C. 181gr carbohydrates
D. 30g fat
E. carbohydrates 40g
F. proteins 60g
1327. Requirements for trading halls:
A. Height-level width of the hall of 300 square meters must be 3.3 m
B. width of the shelves 90 cm
C. illumination 1: 8
D. illumination 1: 6
E. height of 2 m
F. shelves width 30 cm
1328. Requirements for dining EPP:
A. floor is covered quickly and easily washable material
B. illumination 1: 8
C. wall at a height of 1.8 meters, should be painted with oil paints
D. wall at a height of 1.5 meters, should be painted with oil paints
E. concrete floor
F. lighting 1: 5
1329. Diseases related to nutrition at the moment:
A. botulism
B. Obesity
C. allergic diseases
D. SARS
E. Fasting
F. flu
1330. Types of products that do not contain monosaccharides:
A. buckwheat
B. oats
C. cornmeal
D. potatoes
E. carrots
F. turnips
1331. Methods of preservation under the influence of ionization:
A. radapperizatsiya
B. radializatsiya
C. radurizatsiya
D. smoking
E. salting
F. boiling
1332. Enter the types of bread humidity:
A. For 1 and 2 varieties of wheat bread 42- 45%
B. rzhano- wheat bread 48- 50%
C. wheat bread 45%
D. rzhano- wheat bread 30%
E. For 1 and 2 varieties of wheat bread 28%
F. wheat bread 30 35%
1333. Which group is divided on the content of fat fish:
A. fish- skinny fat content of up to 4%
B. fatty fish- fat content of more than 8%
C. average fat content of the fish 4- 8%
D. Low-fat fish
E. very fatty fish - 20%
F. malosolёnye fish
1334. The main biological value of fats:
A. Sources of Energy
B. Cells and membrane base
C. plastic function
D. fat depot
Vitamin E. Depot
F. phosphines
1335. What vitamins are readily soluble in fats:
A. A
B. E
C. D
D. PP
E. B1
F. PROOF
1336. biologically active substances contained in the composition of fats:
A. phosphatides
B. sterols
C. tocopherols
D. steroids
E. phosphines
F. olein, linola
1337. Enter the unsaturated fatty acids:
A. olein, linola
B. linola
C. arachidonyl
D. ksenin
E. cystine
F. steroids
1338. The amount of moisture in the sausage:
A. boiled in 72- 75%
B. smoked in 27- 35%
C. c smoked 35 to 50%
The D. smoked 45 50%
E. cooked in 70 to 72%
F. smoked in 50-90%
1339. Diseases, which is the source of a grain:
A. potato disease
B. infecting bacteria
C. moldy
D. obesity
E. protein disease
F. cystine
1340. Enter the parameters nutrient content in daily consumption of bread:
A. carbohydrates 150- 200g
B. Energy 800- 1000 Kcal
C. proteins - 35gr
D. fat - 10g
E. proteins - 50g
F. Energy 500- 600 kcal
1341. Enter the types of projects (plan):
A. Individual Plan
B. Draft for the restructuring
C. typical project
D. All of the answers are correct
E. Plan Graphic
F. Private project
1342. List of carbonated cold drinks:
A. soda
B. Morse
C. Mineral water
D. Syrup
E. juice
F. broth
1343. What actions should be carried out once a month in the RFP:
A. disinfection of the premises
B. disinfestation
C. sorting
D. Final cleaning
E. disposable cleaning
F. medical examination
1344. What are the requirements for distribution of ready meals:
A. First dishes should not be menee750S
B. Second dishes and garnish 650C
C. cold drinks 140C
D. first courses must be at least 850C
E. Second dishes and garnish 500C
F. cold drinks 100C
1345. Give opinion on the draft sales area 500 m2:
A. In the area there are two unloading platforms
B. width shelves 0.8 m
C. walls should be painted up to 1.8 m enamel paint
D. in the territory has one area for unloading
E. shelves width 0.6 m
F. walls should be painted up to 1,3 enamel paint
1346. The main organoleptic properties when the sanitary inspection of sausage:
A. Status shell loaf
B. color and the integrity of the shell
C. density minced
D. sheath color
E. taste
F. color stick
1347. Indicators of epidemiological safety sausage:
A. E. coli
B. salmonella in 25g of the product
C. OKM
D. abdominalis
E. pathogenic bacteria
OKW
1348. What are the cold non-carbonated beverages:
A. juice
B. broth
C. syrup
D. Mineral Water
E. soda
F. Morse
1349. What carbonated cold drinks:
A. soda
B. Morse
C. Mineral water
D. Syrup
E. juice
F. broth
1350. What qualities must have water for the preparation of beverages:
A. Transparency
B. Colorless
C. odorless
D. cloudy
E. Color
F. delicious
1351. What are the preventive measures carried out at the food enterprises 1 once a
month:
A. Cleaning
B. disinfection
C. washing
D. Sterilization
E. disinfestation
F. disinfestation
1352. Specify which materials are prepared, dietetic beverages:
A. saccharin
B. sorbitol
C. xylitol
D. chloroform
E. glycogen
F. glucuronic acid
1353. At what changes to look for in carbonated drinks:
A. turbidity
B. At the sediment
C. At the unpleasant taste
D. transparency
E. on the sweet taste
F. Dye
1354. What are micronutrients contains natural mineral water:
A. iron
B. bromine
C. Iodine
D. Nitrogen
E. oxygen
F. magnesium
1355. What are the hygienic characteristics of milk:
A. Transparency
B. fat
C. density
D. mineral composition
E. colourlessness
F. indicator dye
1356. What are the hygienic indices of bread:
A. Acid
B. humidity
C. Porosity
D. Nitrogen
E. fat
F. proteins
1357. Physical and chemical characteristics of flour for making bread:
A. Acid 1.5 to 3
B. humidity of 14%
C. gluten is not less than 30%
D. acidity 5
E. 50% RH
F. gluten 10%
1358. What are the main diseases of bread:
A. potato disease
B. musty
C. loss of pigment-forming bacteria
D. flu
E. viral disease
F. disease of onion
1359. What vitamins in milk are found most:
A. A, B2, D
B. thiamine, ascorbic acid
C. keratin, choline, tocopherol
D. Vitamin B6
E. vitamin C
F. Nitrogen
1360. What are the proteins found in milk:
A. lactalbumin
Lactoglobulin B.
C. casein
D. arachidonyl
E. lecithins
F. Nitrogen
1361. Enter the unsaturated fatty acids:
A. olein, linola
B. linola
C. arachidonyl
D. ksenin
E. cystine
F. Nitrogen
1362. Types of moisture in sausages:
A. cooked in 72- 75%
B. smoked in 27- 35%
C. c smoked 35 to 50%
D. smoked 45 50%
E. cooked in 70 to 72%
F. In smoked 70 to 75%
1363. The recommended diet for industrial workers:
A. Breakfast 30%
B. 25% dinner
C. lunch 45%
D. B 40%
E. lunch 60%
F. dinner 15%
1364. What vitamins are contained in milk:
A. A
B. A
C. B2
D. E
E. F
F. C, F
1365. Enter the types of milk according to the composition of amino acids:
A. casein
B. laktoalbuminovoe
C. laktoglobulinovoe
D. lysine
E. cystine
F. cysteine
1366. Types of pasteurization of milk:
A. long time 63- 65 0 C, 30 min
B. short 72- 75 0 C, 20 to 30 seconds
C. Fast 85 to 95 0 C, 2 to 3 seconds
D. long time 63- 65 0 C, 1 hour
E. short time
F. density - 1,027- 1,034
1367. Sexually transmitted through the milk:
A. Tuberculosis
B. anthrax
C. intestinal infection
Hepatitis D.
E. parainfluenza
F. flu
1368. Enter the varieties of sour cream:
A. highest grade 36%
B. First grade 30%
C. Class II 25%
D. the highest grade of 40%
E. First grade 36%
F. Second grade 30%
1369. Enter the acidity of the cream:
A. highest grade 65- 90 g T
Class B. The first 65 T 110gr
C. 125g second grade 65 T
D. the highest grade of 40 to 50 g of T
E. first grade 36- 89 m T
F. Second grade 30 70 g of T
1370. Species-fat cottage cheese as a percentage:
A. 20% fat, 200 2250T
B. fat 9% 210- 2400T
C. without the fat 220- 2700T
D. 50% fat
E. fat content of 60%
F. fat content of 70%
1371. Enter the physical and chemical characteristics of milk:
A. density - 1,027- 1,034
B. acidity of 16 180 tons
C. fat - 3,2 4,5%
D. density - 2,027
E. acidity 15
F. fat - 5%
1372. Types of milk protein content:
A. casein
B. globulin
C. albumin
D. cysteine
E. lysine
F. lizotsimovoe
1373. The composition of cow's milk:
A. Water - 87.3%
B. carbohydrates - 4,8%
C. fats - 3.2%
D. carbohydrates - 5.6%
E. Water - 90%
F. fats - 4.2%
1374. What kinds of salted fish:
A. krepkosolenye- more than 14%
B. srednesolenye- 10- 14%
C. salted to 10%
D. krepkosolenye more than 20%
E. srednesolenye- 15 20%
F. salted to 15%
1375. What are the laboratory methods used in food hygiene:
A. Bacteriological
B. Radiological
C. smear
D. immunological
E. microscopic
F. virological
1376. What groups are divided into amino acids in its composition:
A. Monogenic
B. Aromatic
C. Aliphatic
D. dioksigennye
E. heterocyclic
F. virological
1377. Enter the purpose of the use of pesticides:
A. v birds
B. loosen the soil
C. against pests
D. reduce the number of wild plants
E. against plant diseases
F. increase the flow of water
1378. Criteria for toxic pesticides:
A. oral penetration
B. inhalation hit
C. Impact of the skin
D. cirrhosis
E. for hair loss
F. fragility and brittle nails
1379. According to N. Polchenko - Group of acute poisoning from pesticides 86% highly active pesticides
A. 6 - highly damaging
B. 6 - enough damaging
C. 2 - highly damaging
D. 12- Average damaging
E. 10- little damaging
F. 11 - highly damaging
1380. List the pesticides according to the groups:
A. insecticides
B. herbicides
C. defoliants
D. geterotsidy
E. akarotsidy
F. nemototsidy
1381. What kinds of pesticide chemical structure:
A. organophosphorus
B. organochlorine
C. organolead
D. STATE
E. Mercury
F. akarotsidnye
1382. The main classification of pesticides Stability:
A. low stabilB. stable
C. silnostabilnye
D. Rapid collapsing
E. collapsing
F. otsorbiruyuschie
1383. Enter the components of the grain:
A. shell
B. endosperm
C. embryo
D. pestle
E. stamen
F. pollen
1384. What types of food adequacy:
A. malnutrition
B. unbalanced diet
C. redundant power supply
D. Lack of power
E. dysgeusia
F. Sustainable Food
1385. What kinds of diseases associated with eating:
A. alimentarno- specific
B. nonspecific
C. Infectious
D. Skin
E. allergic
F. ENT disease
1386. The shelf life of dairy products:
A. Milk 2:00
B. sour 72 hours
C. curd 36 hours
D. milk 3:00
E. cream 48 hours
F. curd 48h
1387. What are the stages of cleaning milk tanks:
A. washing
B. disinfection
C. Sealing
D. Coding
E. Drying
F. Purification
1388. Enter the workers who are sent to the sales of finished products:
A. storekeeper
B. forwarder
C. Master
D. apparatchik
E. lab
Director F.
1389. What are the main activities carried out by employees in manufacturing plants
to get started:
A. Taking a shower
B. Dress sanitary clothing
C. handwashing
D. hand disinfection
E. checking hands clean
F. meal (lunch)
1390. Types of existing distribution network:
A. trolley
B. trays
C. commercials
D. shops
E. minimarkets
F. supermarkets
1391. Forms of commercial shops:
A. shops with vendors
B. shops catering
C. shops machines
D. shops without sellers
E. supermarkets
F. mini-markets
1392. Forms of stalls that must have water for washing glasses:
A. kiosks juice
B. kiosks soda
C. kiosks kvass
D. stalls selling tea
E. kiosks selling ayran
F. kiosks kumys
1393. Forms shelf life of soft drinks:
A. lemonade 7 days
B. beverages for diabetics 15 days
C. Fanta, Coca Cola 6 months
D. lemonade 15 days
E. brew 15 days
F. Morse 7 days
1394 Call Rules supporters of the Young vegetarian food:
A. products of animal origin in the body form the rotting bacteria and harmful
substances
B. vegetable products contain biologically active compounds, vitamins, mineral
substances, volatile, enzymes, organic acids, dietary fiber
C. The product of plant origin do not cause atherosclerosis
D. Old vegetarian
E. the Young Vegetarian
F. incompatibilities
1395. List the types of pesticides:
A. By the use of
B. Chemical
C. toxicological
D. radiological
E. Biological
F. Physical
1396. What are the ratio of chemicals included in the cereal products:
Fats A. 2 - 4%
Carbohydrates B. 60 - 70%
C. proteins 10 - 12%
D. Carbohydrates 15 - 20%
E. proteins 50 - 60%
F. fats 35 - 20%
1397. What are the technological processes of production of tea you know:
A. drying
B. twisting
C. Fermentation
D. extraction
E. softening
F. Filtration
1398. What are the components give the tea special properties:
A. Caffeine
B. essential oil
C. tannins
D. Water
E. Cocaine
F. flavorings
1399. What substances contained in tea:
A. B vitamins
B. minerals and trace elements
C. Organic acids
D. biomikroelementy
E. vitamin PP
F. fluorine
1400. Call poultry meat chemical composition:
A. chicken and turkey meat
B. meat waterbirds
C. ostrich
D. pigeon
E. quail
F. poultry
1401. Enter the basic polymer and synthetic materials:
A. PE and PP
B. polystyrene
C. PVC
D. polysaccharide
E. formaldehyde
F. polihloranilid
1402. Enter the basic polymer and synthetic materials:
A. Teflon
B. Polyamide
C. PET
D. polysaccharide
E. formaldehyde
F. polivodorod
1403. Indicate the elements that optimize the appearance and organoleptic
characteristics:
A. locks coloring agent (included)
B. flavorings and flavoring elements
C. sweet taste
D. preservatives
E. stabilizers
F. acrylamides
1404. Enter the food preservatives that are part of preservatives:
A. Antibacterial elements chemicals
B. antibiotics against germs
C. preparations against oxidation
D. biphenyls
E. polyacrylamide
F. dendrobatsillin
1405. Enter the types of natural dyes:
A. Coal
B. ultramarine
C. Gold
D. benzoic acid
E. sorbic acid
F. nitrocellulose lacquer
1406. Enter the kinds of gum:
A. konzhakovaya
B. Xanthan
C. oat
D. guanylE. ribonucleotide
F. dextrin
1407. The properties determine the risks of pesticides:
A. permanence
B. sanitary protective boundary
C. «waiting period»
D. Tolerance
E. density
F. formula
1408. Show organochlorine pesticides:
A. DDT
B. HCH
C. tiodan
D. rogor
E. hlorofos
F. karbofos
1409. Enter the widely used preservatives:
A. benzoic acid
B. sulfur dioxide
C. sorbic acid
D. guanylE. ribonucleotide
F. azorubin
1410. Forms of exchange of energy and matter:
A. aerobic oxidation
B. phosphorylation
C. anabolism
D. catabolism
E. Energy Foundation
F. anaerobic oxidation
1411. Enter the types of uncontrolled energy consumption:
A. Physical Culture
B. brainwork
C. Production Movement
D. dissimilation
E. Assimilation
F. SDDT
1412. List the steps of cleaning eggs:
A. 1 section -zamochit 5- to 10 minutes in hot water
B. Section 2 - washed in a 0.5% solution of soda ash at a temperature of 50 ° C water
40 within 5- 10 minutes
C. Section 3 - disinfected in a 2% solution of bleach or 0.3% sodium chloride for 5
minutes
D. Section 1 - washed in 0.5% solution of soda ash at a temperature of 40 ° C water
E. Section 2 - disinfected in a 2% solution of bleach, wash for 10 minutes at a water
temperature of at least 40 ° C
F. Use of suspicious quality products
1413. Key indicators of households in commercial enterprises:
A. asphalt required
B. the presence of landscaping and convenient tracks
C. for dirt
D. asphalt is not obligatory
E. for dirt
F. Domestic Administrative Group
1414. Area unloading in trade:
A. 650 m2 - 3 pcs
B. 900 m2 - 4 pieces
C. to 360 m2 - 2 pcs
D. 1500 m2 - 10
E. to 500 m2 - 8
F. to 800 m2 - 6 pieces
1415. Enter the additives used in the products of the bread bakeries hlebo- enterprises:
A. Potassium bromate
B. orthophosphate Acid
C. Calcium thiosulfate
D. potassium dichromate
E. potassium permanganate
F. acid pyrophosphate
1416. The components involved in the process of kneading the dough:
A. flour
B. salt water
C. Yeast
D. Sugar
E. glucose;
F. bread "Fish"
1417. What minerals are in the composition of natural mineral waters:
A. iron
B. Iodine
C. Br
D. Lead
E. Gold
F. tea
1418. The components that make up the cola drinks:
A. Coke - nut
B. burnt sugar, water
C. dyes
Vitamin D.
E. inorganic acid
F. essences, organic acid
1419. Forms of kvass:
A. bread
B. with okroshka
C. brew Moscow, Russian kvass
D. Meat
E. of oatmeal
F. From rice flour
1420. The objectives of the subject Food Hygiene:
A. studies the chemical composition of the product, teaches management and nutrition
B. evaluates the actual power of the population
C. sanitary examination of products
D. epidemiological
E. physiological
F. Warning and current sanitary supervision
1421. The main methods of food hygiene:
A. Physiological
B. Epidemiological
C. biochemical, physicochemical
D. math
E. Experimental
F. anatomical
1422. Famous scientists since the practice:
A. Hippocrates
B. Socrates, Galen
C. Avicenna
D. Alisher Navoi
E. Amir Temur
F. Rubner
1423. Scientists studied the exchange of energy:
A. Yu.Libih;
B. Rubner;
C. Voith;
D. Hippocrates;
E. Socrates;
F. Amir Temur;
1424. List the new looks for food:
A. There are raw
B. vegetarianism vibrant energy
C. different views
D. neproportsialnost
E. has boiled
F. Effect of nutrients
1425. Terms of nutrition:
A. Achieving physiological needs
B. "homeostasis" Storing balance, ensuring performance
C. to energy needs, the implementation of plastic function
D. Effect of nutrients
E. inappropriate rules
F. has boiled
1426. What kind of products are in the diet №2:
A. Meat
B. Fish
C. vegetable oil, cheese
D. legumes
E. potassium rich foods
F. fortified foods vitamin PP
1427. What kind of products are limited in the diet of preventive nutrition:
A. savory
B. fats
C. fatty foods
D. eggs, sugar
E. salt
F. Green peas
1428. The purpose of prescribing diet for gout:
A. Enhancing the exchange of purine bases
B. decrease uric acid
C. Protection of the nervous system
D. Protection of the pancreas
E. Protection activity of gastric secretion
F. improper purpose
1429. Groups of food poisoning:
A. mikpobnoy etiology
B. poorly studied
C. non-microbial etiology
D. virus
E. fungal
F. inappropriate group
1430. The main methods of detection of nitrates in food:
A. kalopimetpichesky
B. elektpohimichesky (ions)
C. gazohpomatogpafichesky
D. polarographic
E. Spectral
F. Clinical
1431. Groups of meat products:
A. 1 grade
B. 2 The grade
C. grades 3
Low-quality grade of D.
Quality grade of E.
Low grade F.
1432. The organoleptic characteristics of meat:
A. color
B. odor
C. taste
D. acidity
E. gluten
F. humidity
1433. Physical and chemical characteristics of flour:
A. Acid
B. gluten
C. Humidity
D. color
E. odor
F. taste
1434. What are the hygienic standards of pollution flour pests:
A. disputes - 0.5%
B. talhak tolstoplodny - less than 0.04%
C. cockle - more than 0.01%
D. admixture of metal - 6 mg / kg
E. controversy - at least 50.0%
F. talhak tolstoplodny - no more than 40.0%
1435. The main organoleptic characteristics of bread:
A. The state of the surface
B. color
C. The form
D. acidity
E. gluten
F. humidity
1436. Species bombazh:
A. Physical
B. Chemical
C. Biological
D. Analytical
E. catalyst
F. infectious
1437. Components of canned undergoing laboratory control:
A. Fats
B. Sugar
C. Salt
D. tea
E. juices
F. bread
1438. The fat content of the milk:
A. 6%
B. 3,2%
C. 4,8%
D. 12,2%
E. 24.8%
F. 21,9%
1439. Forms of sanitary-bacteriological supervision:
A. Planned
B. unscheduled
C. Emergency
D. Epidemiology
E. Clinical
F. bacteriological
1440. Which of catering staff taking swabs from the hands:
A. kitchen staff
B. pastry shop workers
C. waitresses
D. doctors
E. sellers
F. at the driver
1441. Enter the products included in fishery products:
A. salted fish
B. Herring
C. canned fish
D. beef
E. pork
F. Lamb
1442. Enter the amount of nutrients that are part of the fish:
A. belki- 15- 22%
B. fats - 0.3 34%
C. carbohydrates - 0,5%
D. belki- 12- 18%
E. fats - 0.2 28%
Carbohydrates F. - 1.5%
1443. Species of fish on the fat content:
A. skinny fish - up to 4% fat
B. medium-fat fish 4- 8%
C. fatty fish - more than 8%
D. skinny fish - up to 9% fat
E. Fish average fat content of 7- 12%
F. Fatty fish - 10%
1444. Enter the organoleptic properties of fresh fish:
A. The surface clean fish, covered with transparent slime
B. scales difficult to separate from the skin
C. gills bright red
D. stench
E. mucus loses its transparency and becomes cloudy
F. gills become brown
1445. Enter the signs of fish spoilage:
A. stench
B. mucus loses its transparency and becomes cloudy
C. gills become brown
D. surface of the fish net, covered with transparent slime
E. scales difficult to separate from the skin
F. gills bright red
1446. Types of salted fish:
A. dry salting
B. wet salting
C. warm salt
D. hot salt
E. sugar salting
F. delicious pickles
1447. Enter the species of herring:
A. unrequited
B. Without gills
C. with the severed head
D. Dry
E. wet
F. Warmer
1448. Enter the composition of caviar:
A. Lecithin 2%
B. ihtulin 17- 18%
C. 2- albumin 2.5%
D. 18% cholesterol 6,9E. lecithin 2%
F. ihtulin 19- 25%
1449. Types of fish processing industry:
A. onshore plants
B. fishing vessel
C. fish plants
D. cleaning fish shop
E. shops smoking
F. Shop cooking eggs
1450. The structure of the fish processing industry:
A. plant cleaning fish canning plant
B. shop smoked cooking workshop
C. shop preparing eggs, cooling chamber
D. canning plant, coastal plants
E. shop cooking, fishing vessel
F. cooling chamber, fish plants
1451. Humidity flour:
A. no more than 14%
B. 14%
C. 14%
D. 10%
E. at least 20%
F. less than 60%
1452. Hygienic indicators of bread:
A. acidity, humidity, porosity
B. Content of protein, fat, carbohydrates
C. acidity, density
D. nitrogen, ammonia
E. sulphide
F. All of the above
1453. casein milk:
A. cow milk
B. goat milk
C. mare's milk
D. pork milk
E. bird's milk
All of the above
1454. The fat content of the milk:
A. 1,9%
B. 3,2%
C. 7,8%
D. 23,5%
E. 12,3%
F. 41%
1455. helminthiasis transmitted through the meat:
A. tenioidozy
B. teniarhozy
C. trichinosis
D. diphyllobothriasis
E. opistorhoz
F. ascariasis
1456. What diseases occur when vitamin deficiency in:
A. Pellagra
B. Dermatitis
C. beri - beri
D. scurvy
E. anemia
F. lowering of view
1457. What diseases occur when vitamin deficiency A:
A. blindness
B. decrease of
C. xerophthalmia
D. dermatitis
E. anemia
F. scurvy
1458. What are vitamin deficiency diseases occur in the D:
A. rickets
B. osteoporosis
C. Obesity
D. dermatitis
E. anemia
F. scurvy
1459. What are vitamin deficiency diseases occur in the E:
A. myopathy
B. ataxia
C. retinopatiya
D. dermatitis
E. rickets
F. osteoporosis
1460. The organoleptic properties of milk:
A. odor
B. color
C. taste
D. looseness
E. severity
F. density
1461. Physical and chemical characteristics of a loaf of bread:
A. humidity 45%
B. acidity of 3%
C. friability of 60%
D. humidity 15%
E. friability of 30%
F. 18% Acidity
1462. What are the most vitamins are contained in milk composition:
A. A, B2, D
B. keratin, choline, tocopherol
C. thiamine, ascorbic acid
D. Vitamin PP
E. Vitamin B6
F. B12
1463. Methods of determining the power of unorganized population:
A. balance method
B. Budget method
C. gravimetric method
D. questionnaire method
E. irreversible method
F. All of the above
1464. Chemical composition of grain:
A. fats 2%
B. proteins 12%
C. carbohydrates 52%
D. 50% fat
E. proteins 50%
F. 50% carbohydrates
1465. What are the methods used in research laboratories in food:
A. bacteriological
B. bacterioscopic
C. Radiology
D. microscopic
E. virological
F. immunological
1466. Diseases transmitted through the meat to the public:
A. brucellosis
B. anthrax
C. TB
D. measles
E. flu
F. diphtheria
1467. The main sources of magnesium:
A. cereals
B. legumes
C. peas
D. pasta
E. Apple
F. watermelon
1468. Specify the types and etiology of bacterial diseases, the causes of which are
food products:
A. foodborne illness, food toxicosis
B. botulism
C. staphylococcal etiology
D. SARS
E. flu
F. toxicosis
1469. Forms of worms transmitted through the meat:
A. teniasis
B. trihenellёz
C. fastsioz
D. ascariasis
E. opistorhoz
F. liver worms
1470. What should be the quality of water to drink:
A. Transparency
B. colorless
C. odorless
D. On the scent
E. cloudy
F. Mixed
1471. Enter the kinds of stamps on the meat, characterizing its quality:
A. the highest grade - round
B. COLLATE 1 square
C. 2 COLLATE triangular
D. the highest grade - a dash
E. 1st grade - after dash
F. Grade 2 - undulating
1472. Enter the kinds of ice cream:
A. raspberry
B. Cherry
C. strawberry
D. apple
E. Peach
F. cucumber
1473. Specify requirements for finished milk:
A. density - 1,027- 1,034
B. temperature no higher than 8 0 C
C. acidity for 1 st grade milk 0T 16- 18 for 2 nd grade of milk, 19 200T
D. density - 2,78- 2,98
E. Temperature 14 0C
F. acidity for 1 st grade of milk from 22 to 24 0T
1474. Enter the foreign substances in the milk:
A. straw
B. manure
C. wool
D. Soil
E. Stone
F. sand
1475. Diseases transmitted through milk:
A. TB
B. brucellosis
C. FMD
D. flu
E. parainfluenza
F. AIDS
1476. Chemical parameters of sausages:
A. volatile fatty acids
B. bouillon reaction
C. The amount of sulfur
D. saturated fatty acid
E. amount aminonitratov
F. unsaturated fatty acids
1477. Enter the requirements of the Act to ensure the quality and safety of food
products:
A. hygiene standards of food
B. Certification
C. Supervision
D. hygienic preparation of food
E. diet
F. sterilization
1478. Indications for treatment and preventive nutrition and its composition:
A. When a medical examination
B. For therapeutic and preventive nutrition
C. To enhance immunity
D. the presence of fermented milk products and pectin
E. vitamin preparations
F. To reduce the incidence of
1479. Types of controlled energy of the body:
A. Physical activity
B. production activities
C. mental activity
D. Principal exchange
E. specific dynamic action of food
F. age
1480. Which products are the main sources of vitamin E:
2 A. bread varieties
B. legumes, meat
C. Fish
D. currants
E. butter
F. sausage and sausage products
1481. Indicate the principles of nutritional status:
A. power function parameters
B. Identification of indicators of the adequacy supply
C. Determination of the status of disease
D. External power supply
E. internal power
F. sausage and sausage products
1482. What factors depends on the value of basal metabolism in humans:
A. floor
B. weight
C. on the job
D. weather
E. food composition and age
F. on food intake
1483. The etiological factors of food poisoning:
A. bacteria (bacterial diseases)
B. virus (virozy)
C. fungi (mycoses)
D. Bacteroides
E. worms
F. Plants
1484. What are bacteria play an important role in the occurrence of food poisoning:
A. Salmonella
B. E. coli
C. Proteus
D. tetanus
E. Corynebacterium
F. morbilla
1485. Characteristics of resistance of bacteria Salmonella:
A. Low Temperature
B. high concentration of sodium chloride
C. acidic environment
D. high temperature
E. low concentration of sodium chloride
F. alkaline environment
1486. Symptoms of clinical salmonellosis:
A. diarrhea
B. tenesmus
C. cramps
D. anemia
E. swelling
F. headache
1487. Key indicators interpretation of volatile fatty acids in meat:
A. 0.35 ml per 100 g
B. 0.33 - 0.5 ml
C. 0,36 - 0,50 ml
D. 0,06 - 1,0 ml
E. 0.01 - 0.05 ml
F. 0,05- 0,01
1488. The most valuable proteins contained in the muscle meat:
A. myosin
B. Myogit
C. globulin
D. glucose
E. sucrose
F. retinol
1489. Nitrogen-free extractives of meat:
A. glycogen
B. Glucose
C. lactic acid
D. carnosine
E. Creatine
F. akserin
1490. What are nutrient rich vegetarian sausages:
A. vegetable proteins
B. vegetable oil
C. fiber
Vitamin D.
E. pork
F. glucose
1491. "Quality Standard" boiled sausages:
A. premium
B. The first grade
C. A second grade
Third grade D.
E. minimal amount of protein
F. less than the amount of glucose
1492. The chemical composition of sausages:
A. proteins from 0 to 20%
B. fats from 10- 50%
C. caloric content in 100 grams of sausage 160- 520 calories
D. whites from 0 to 0.5%
E. fats from 1 to 5%
F. calorie 100 kcal
1493. Key indicators of epidemiological safety sausage:
A. E. coli
B. Salmonella in 25 g
C. the presence of pathogenic bacteria
D. salt
E. worms
F. nitrate and nitrite
1494. The main physical and chemical quality of sausages:
A. humidity
B. Definition of nitrates
C. Determination of salt
D. E. coli
Salmonella E. 25 g of product
F. presence of pathogenic bacteria
1495. Fish may be the cause of such helminthisms as:
A. diphyllobothriasis
B. opistorhoz
C. diphyllobotrium latum
D. Trichinella
E. Ascaris
F. pinworm
1496. According to the degree of salinity distinguish herring:
A. salted (6 - 10% salt)
B. srednesolenuyu (10 - 14%)
C. firmly salt (14%)
D. salted (0.5 - 1% salt)
E. srednesolenuyu (1 - 4%)
F. firmly salt (4%)
1497. Species bombazh:
A. Physical
B. Chemical
C. Biological
D. fats
E. Sugar
F. salt
1498. Species acidic foods:
A. Meat
B. Fish
C. bread
D. Fruit
E. Vegetables
F. milk
1499. Species acidic foods:
A. Fish
B. Eggs
C. bread
D. vegetables
E. milk
F. melon
1500. Varieties of food alkaline nature:
A. Vegetables
B. potatoes
C. Fruits
D. meat
E. soups
F. fish
1501. Varieties of food alkaline nature:
A. Milk and milk products
B. Fruit
C. Potatoes
D. soups
E. Fish
F. chocolate
1502. Forms of assessment of nutritional status:
A. optimum
B. insufficient
C. overweight
D. Physics
E. Biological
F. age
1503. Forms of assessment of nutritional status:
A. overweight
B. unusual
C. Generally
D. optimal
E. Physical
F. Biological
1504. Forms of canned foods:
A. Dried
B. milk
C. Fruit
D. pickled
E. vegetable
F. smoked
1505. Forms of canned foods:
A. Fruit
B. cured
C. Meat
D. smoked
E. milk
F. pickled
1506. Forms of canned foods:
A. vegetables
B. cured
C. Meat
D. Fish
E. Combined
F. dried
1507. The law on the quality and safety of food products includes:
A. control and supervision of food
B. Clinical rationing food
C. hygienic regulation of food
D. Certification of food
E. tests food
F. independent verification of food
1508. The law on the quality and safety of food products includes:
A. control and supervision
B. test food
C. Development of measures to ensure food safety
D. self check food
E. Certification of food
F. Development of Occupational Safety Standards, KVM
1509. Types of the physiological role of cholesterol in the body:
A. Participating in the activity of the adrenal glands
B. does not retain moisture fabric
C. cloth retains moisture
D. involved in the production of chemical complexes
E. participates in the formation of sex hormones
F. involved in the production of natural complexes
1510. Forms of vitamin A deficiency:
A. beriberi
B. stomatitis
C. latent form
D. Opening Form
E. vitamin deficiencies
F. Herpes
1511. Sources of thiamine:
A. Yeast
B. beets
C. pork
D. sunflower seeds
E. carrots
F. potatoes
1512. Sources of thiamine:
A. Carrots
B. sunflower seeds
C. pork
D. peas
E. potatoes
F. radishes
1513. The mineral elements in the composition of bread:
A. Potassium
B. Iodine
C. Magnesium
D. Sodium
E. Beryllium
F. Radium
1514. The mineral elements in the composition of bread:
A. Magnesium
B. bromine
C. Phosphorus
D. potassium
E. Chrome
F. Iodine
1515. The mineral elements in the composition of bread:
A. Magnesium
B. bromine
C. Phosphorus
D. potassium
E. Chrome
F. Radium
1516. Types of carbohydrates present in the composition of bread:
A. Glucose
B. Cellulose
C. maltose
D. starch
E. fructose
F. lactose
1517. Types of carbohydrates present in the composition of bread:
A. fructose
B. galactose
C. sucrose
D. pulp
E. maltose
F. starch
1518. Nationwide legislative documents:
A. sanitary rules and regulations for the industry
B. Constitution of the Republic of Uzbekistan
C. sanitary norms and rules for trade
D. Standards for markets
E. sanitary norms and rules for catering
F. norm for shops
1519. Indicators of deterioration of finished products:
A. Violations of fillings
B. Oxidation
C. Contamination
D. rust
E. violation of packaging
F. weight reduction
1520. Types of diseases that does not allow to take a job at a dairy plant:
A. angina
B. CHD
C. pustular diseases of the skin and body
D. kidney disease
E. venereal diseases
F. thyroiditis
1521. Types of diseases that does not allow to take a job at a dairy plant:
A. carriers of worms
B. kidney disease
C. venereal diseases
D. athlete
E. bacillicarriers
F. liver disease
1522. Types of diseases that does not allow to take a job at a dairy plant:
A. carriers of worms
B. CHD
C. pustular diseases of the skin and body
D. liver disease
E. bacillicarriers
F. athlete
1523. What components are included in the recipe cola drinks:
A. Water
B. Mineral water
C. Organic acids
D. soda
E. Sugar Syrup
F. soluble sugar
1524. What components are included in the recipe cola drinks:
A. Water
B. Essential Oil
C. sugar syrup
D. soda
E. cola nuts
F. soluble sugar
1525. Bring the requirements for the preparation and processing of raw materials used
in the confectionery industry:
A. observe the rules of washing dishes and equipment
B. observe the rules processing shop utensils
C. apparatus and equipment disinfected and washed with 0.5% bleach solution or
0.2% solution of chlorine bleach
D. observe cleanliness in the premises
E. to keep clean the dishes guild
F. equipment was washed with 5% solution of chlorine bleach
1526. List the rules used in the process in the confectionery industry:
A. adhere strictly to the sanitary regime
B. observe cleanliness in the premises
C. observe the temperature regulation in the hot processing and pasteurization;
D. observe sanitary regime in the bedrooms
E. comply threading at all stages of production
F. abide by the rules of cold treatment, to observe temperature and shelf life of
products
1527. List the rules used in the process in the confectionery industry:
A. mechanization and automation of production must meet modern requirements
B. observe cleanliness in the premises
C. observe the threading at all stages of production
D. observe sanitary regime in the bedrooms
E. adhere strictly to the sanitary regime
F. use of manual labor in the manufacture of
1528. List the requirements for the carriage of confectionery:
A. persons accompanying pastry should wear sanitary clothing and have a medical
book, are required to undergo a medical examination in a timely manner
B. transportation convenient transportation
C. in the refrigerator or a special truck with insulated body
D. the presence of marking of the production shift, date and hour
E. Labelling on products manufacturing as well as the period of use
F. accompany articles person must have medical book
1529. List the rules dishwashing:
A. Wash at 40 500
B. washing with 0.5% solution of bleach
C. washing with 2% solution of bleach
D. Rinse at 700 C drying
E. Wash at 60 700 C
F. Rinse at 900 C
1530. Enter the rules of the process and rules for storing x 3 kinds of products with a
cream (cakes, rolls, cakes):
A. butter cream - 36 hours
B. Protein Cream - 36 hours
C. Protein Cream - 72 hours
D. custard - 12 hours
E. custard - 6 hours
F. butter cream - 48 hours
1531. What types of food enterprises of the baking industry:
A. hlepopekarni
B. bakeries
C. bakeries
D. shop for bread baking
E. bakeries
F. workshop on the preparation of crackers
1532. Enter the products that are part of fish products:
A. canned fish
B. frozen fish
C. salted fish
D. fried fish
E. Herring
F. smoked fish
1533. Enter the products that are part of fish products:
A. canned fish
B. smoked fish
C. silnosolenaya fish
D. Eggs
E. salted fish
F. fish cold and hot smoked
1534. Enter the products that are part of fish products:
A. Eggs
B. frozen fish
C. fried fish
D. salted fish
E. Herring
F. salted fish
1535. Indicate the number of components that make up the fish:
A. 30- 34% fat
B. Vitamins
C. proteins 15- 22%
D. mineral elements
E. carbohydrates 0.5%
F. enzymes
1536. Enter the organoleptic properties of fresh fish:
A. The surface clean fish, covered with transparent slime
B. Surface Transparent
C. scales easily detached from skin
D. scales are difficult to separate from the skin
E. gills bright red
F. pink gills
1537. Enter the organoleptic properties of fresh fish:
A. peculiar smell, odor-free
B. pink gills
C. gills bright red
D. smell nice
E. eyes bulging, transparent
F. eyes bright
1538. Enter the organoleptic properties of fresh fish:
A. The surface clean fish, covered with transparent slime
B. Surface Transparent
C. scales easily detached from skin
D. scales are difficult to separate from the skin
E. eyes bulging, transparent
F. eyes bright
1539. Enter the species of herring:
A. unrequited
B. Without gills
C. divided
D. On the gills
E. with a severed head
F. On eventration
1540. Enter the components of caviar:
A. ihtulin - 17- 18%
B. ihtulin - 20 25%
C. Cholesterol - 3,9% 14
D. albumin - 5%
E. albumin - 2.5% 2Cholesterol 20% F.
1541. Types of fish processing industry:
A. fishing boats
B. onshore
C. onshore plants
D. fishing vessel
E. fish plants
F. canneries
1542. The structure of the fish processing industry:
A. Cold processing plant
B. shop smoked
C. shop preparing eggs
D. canning plant
E. shop handwashing
F. heat treatment shop
1543. What are the shop belonging to the slaughterhouse:
A. meat and fat
B. intestines processing plant
C. leather processing shop
D. sausage
E. refrigeration
F. shop preservation of leather
1544. What are the organoleptic quality of the meat:
A. appearance
B. General view
C. smell
D. color
E. painting mascara
F. fat color
1545. What are the organoleptic quality of the meat:
A. odor
B. softness
C. Status of fat, tendons, bone marrow
D. hardness
E. consistency
F. fat color
1546. What are the organoleptic quality of the meat:
A. appearance
B. color of mascara
C. color
D. General view
E. Status of fat, tendons, bone marrow
F. hardness
1547. Specify from what often takes samples from each carcass for laboratory testing:
A. a muscle at the level of the cervical vertebrae IY- Y
B. with the limb muscles
C. with the thigh
D. On the neck muscles
E. with okololopatochnyh muscles
F. On the intercostal muscles spaces
1548. List the physical and chemical quality of meat:
A. bouillon reaction with copper sulphate
B. Definition of acidity
C. Determination of the amino ammonia nitrogen
D. Definition of fat
E. determining the volatility of fatty acids
F. Definition consistency
1549. What diseases are transmitted through the meat of the infected animal:
A. anthrax
B. opistorhoz
C. TB
D. brucellosis
E. diphyllobothriasis
F. dysentery
1550. What are some infectious diseases are transmitted to humans through the
infected animal:
A. Tuberculosis
B. diphyllobothriasis
C. dysentery
D. mouth disease
E. brucellosis
F. psittacosis
1551. What kinds of helminthiasis transmitted through the meat of animals:
A. trihinillez
B. brucellosis
C. fastsiollez
D. ascariasis
E. tenioidoz
F. Tuberculosis
1552. What kinds of helminthiasis transmitted through the meat of animals:
A. trihinillez
B. ascariasis
C. hydatid
D. brucellosis
E. fastsiollez
F. FMD
1553. What the components of a sausage shop?
A. production of sausages
B. production of cooked sausages
C. shop smoked
D. production of smoked sausages
E. shop semis
F. Production of sausages
1554. Processing of slaughter cattle is organized in compliance with the basic
requirements:
A. lockdown contaminated processes by clean processes
B. Compliance with personal care workers
C. ensure continuity and threading
D. Identification of threading production lines
E. the correct process
F. Compliance industrial hygiene
1555. List the main indicators used in the evaluation of the organic composition of the
diet:
Protein A. (c) are allowed (in%)
B. amino acids
C. Fatty acid
D. carbohydrates (g)
E. fats (c) are allowed (in%)
F. enzymes
1556. What are the main principles that guide the construction of diet:
A. physiologically complete diet
B. Therapeutic effect
C. convenient application diet
D. therapeutic specificity of food taking into account peculiarities of the pathological
process and the nature of its current
E. Effective reception of diet
F. physiological need
1557. What are the stages of dietary
A. Stage 1 - the full identification of all persons in need of dietary
B. Stage 2 - the grouping
C. Step 3 - Appointment of diet
D. Stage 2 - detailed consideration need and direction for diet therapy without
interruption from operating activities
E. Stage 3 - the direct provision requiring dietetic food and their control
F. Stage 1 - Accounting requiring dietary
1558. List the indicators that are identified in need of dietary industrial enterprises:
A. Professional pathology (clinical examination materials, periodicals, et al., Medical
examinations)
B. incidence study
C. Review of Health according to the use of health care (individual map outpatient)
D. reception performance
E. morbidity with temporary disability (disability diet)
F. Choice of diet
1559. The main types of services, organizing and control of diet:
A. labor organizations
B. Catering
C. local health
D. district health departments
E. Division of Food regional departments catering
F. the local committee
1560. What are the duties of a public department of the organization and control of
diet food:
A. Provide a complete dietetic food requiring
B. complement the network of catering
C. provide the necessary conditions for the dietary dining rooms
D. create dietary canteens
E. organize and develop a network of catering
F. partially provide needing dietetic food
1561. What are the main responsibilities of local health authorities for the
organization and control of diet food:
A. assess the effectiveness of diet and outline measures for improvement
B. carry out a medical examination
C. provides medical screening and referrals to dietary
D. provides for referrals
E. conduct regular medical and sanitary control on the organization of diet
F. considers the results of dietary
1562. What are the main responsibilities of trade unions to organize and monitor the
diet food:
A. to implement continuous monitoring of the conduct of dietary
B. Funders dietary and direct patients to diet at the expense of social security
C. apply measures to attract funds from the funds of enterprises
D. arrange compensation for a diet
E. monitor the correct spending of the allocated funds for food diet
F. register the number in need of dietary
1563. What are the factors that determine the effectiveness of diet:
A. receiving control diet
B. formation of persons in need of adequate dietary relation to the recommended diet
therapy
C. proper organization and control of the dietetic food
D. socio-economic features of the person in need of dietary
E. social and biological characteristics of the person in need of dietary
F. needing familiarization with the recommended dietary dietetic food
1564. List the steps to monitor the quality of raw materials and food in the diet dining:
A. Stage 1 - all incoming products are inspected by the storekeeper, nutritionist
B. All products are inspected by a dietitian
C. Stage 2 - the systematic verification of the quality of products during their storage
D. All of the products are inspected canteen director
E. 3 stage- control of sampling (bacteria) prepared food
F. All products are inspected storekeeper
1565. What are the radius of table depending on the duration of the lunch break:
A. When the duration of the lunch break to 30 minutes - 27 to 100 m
B. In the duration of the lunch break to 30 minutes - 300 m
C. For the duration of the lunch break for more than 30 minutes - 300 400 m
D. In the duration of the lunch break to 30 minutes - 200 m
E. For the duration of the lunch break at 1 - 400 500 m
F. The duration of the lunch break at 1 - 400 m
1566. List the group of diseases which employ a diet food group 1 (gentle action):
A. diseases of the digestive system
B. kidney disease
C. liver disease
D. maxillofacial trauma
E. after surgery on the stomach and intestines
F. heart disease
1567. List group of diseases in which diet products are used in group 2 - products
with some sodium (bezsolevye):
A. pyelonephritis
B. nephropathy pregnant
C. angina
D. liver disease
E. hypertensive disease-1, group 2
F. long-term treatment with corticosteroids
1568. List the group of diseases, which employ dietary products 3 rd group - products
with fillers having a low energy value:
A. diabetes
B. hypertension
C. fatty liver
D. nephropathy pregnant
E. obesity
F. chronic constipation
1569. What group of diseases in which diet products are used in group 4 - foods with
reduced fat:
A. Coronary heart disease
B. diabetes
C. Obesity
D. atherosclerosis
E. obesity
F. kidney disease
1570. List the key indicators included in the inspection batch, for hygienic
examination of foods:
A. Structure and storage conditions of the party
B. Status of dishes
C. integrity marking
D. Status of container (damage, deformation)
E. introduction marked
F. general sanitary condition of the premises where the product is stored
1571. What types of classification of food products during the hygienic examination
of foods:
A. inedible food with obvious signs of spoilage, contain pathogenic microorganisms
and their toxins
B. products low values - with low
C. edible products - Standard responsible for nutritional value and performance
requirements of sanitary and epidemiological standards, implemented without
restrictions
D. worthless, ie affected by microorganisms
E. fit - not spoiled foods
F. conditionally fit, which are used after boiling
1572. List the solutions sanitary examination of products of particular sanitary and
epidemic danger:
A. product to be destroyed
B. product is subject to landfill
C. The product is subject to incineration
D. product can be passed on to feed the birds
E. Product can be transferred to animal feed
F. Product can be passed to the technical disposal of the relevant decision of the
1573. What are the indicators to measure the quality of food during the examination
of food hygiene;
A. nutritional value (merchandising performance, the ability to manufacture products
of high quality food)
B. Biological value (chemical composition)
C. energy value
D. Chemical value
E. definition of sanitary and epidemiological integrity of food
F. biochemical value
1574. What are the basic rules of taking samples for laboratory examination under
hygienic examination of food products;
A. products of liquid and semi-liquid consistency (milk, sour cream, vegetable oil) to
be mixed thoroughly before taking
B. palovnikom liquid products taken and placed into a special bottle
C. notch samples corned beef, fish, confectionery products, vegetable produce from
the middle of the top and bottom of each container or fill
D. loose articles take a spatula and placed in packets
E. recess bulk products are made using the probe of the middle and lower parts of the
mound of packages (flour, grain) or a considerable depth of the product (oil, solid
fats, cheese)
F. confectionery taken from the bottom of the product
1575. List the main indicators in determining the odor of the product during the
hygienic examination of foods:
A. weakening natural odor (reduction of product quality)
B. reduction of specific smell
C. Strengthening of smell (the initial degree of damage)
D. pungent odor
E. odors (peculiar smell pharmacy, petroleum, fish, etc.)
F. non-specific odor
1576. List the main tasks sanitary examination of foods:
A. Definition of microbiological indicators of products
B. clarification of deviations in the chemical composition of products
C. determining organoleptic properties of the products
D. Definition of the degree of bacterial contamination of the products and the nature
of the microflora
E. study of the chemical composition of products
F. to establish the presence of organoleptic changes in the products, the nature and
extent of changes
1577. List the sanitary requirements for food products coming to stores catering:
A. foods must comply with the existing regulatory technical documentation
B. Each product must be marked with the label
C. is in good, clean container and accompanied by documents certifying the quality
D. foods must meet the technical requirements
E. in each packing case (box, jar, box) must be marked with the label with the
specified date and hour of the final production of the life of the
F. is in a sterile container with the relevant documents
1578. What are the requirements for the processing of raw materials and production of
products:
A. Handling of raw and finished products should be carried out in specially equipped
workshops with equipment properly labeled
B. In catering observe the rules of personal and industrial hygiene
C. Processing of raw and finished products should be carried out separately
D. Compliance sanitary hygiene
E. While cooking, culinary and confectionery products in catering strict adherence to
the production process Threading
F. Compliance rules packing of finished products
1579. Enter the organoleptic characteristics of flour:
A. color
B. gluten
C. taste
D. humidity
E. odor
F. acidity
1580 Show the physico-chemical quality of flour:
A. humidity
B. taste
C. gluten
D. smell
E. acidity
F. color
1581. Degrees of grain weevil infestation:
A. 1- degree - up to 5 pcs
B. 1 - degree - up to 20 pcs
C. 2 - degree - up to 10 pcs
D. 2 - degree - up to 30 pcs
E. 3 - degree - over 10 pieces
F. 3 - degree - more than 30 pieces
1582. Display products of lactic fermentation:
A. yogurt
B. yogurt
C. sour cream
D. mare
E. acidophilus milk
F. cheese
1583. Display products of lactic fermentation:
A. yogurt
B. yogurt
C. acidophilus milk
D. curd
E. mare
F. cheese
1584. Show products mixed fermentation of milk:
A. acidophilus milk
B. yogurt
C. mare
D. cheese
E. curdled
F. cheese
1585. Enter the profession of labor intensity group I:
A. Students
B. cultural and educational workers
C. machinists
D. railroad
E. Secretary-General
F. printers
1586. Enter the profession of labor intensity group III:
A. machinists
B. Students
C. railway
D. Secretaries
E. printers
F. machine operators
1587. Enter the profession of labor intensity of Group II:
A. Switzer
B. construction workers
C. agronomists
D. agricultural workers
E. livestock
F. machine operators
1588. Enter the profession of labor intensity of group IV:
A. rabochie- builders
B. seamstresses
C. machine operators
D. agronomists
E. farmworkers
F. livestock
1589. Enter the profession of labor intensity of group IV:
A. miners on the surface works
B. Students
C. employees of oil and gas industry
D. Secretaries
E. metal
F. nurses
1590. Enter the profession of labor intensity of group V:
A. steelworkers
B. seamstresses
C. fellers
D. agronomists
E. Working on cutting wood
F. livestock
1591. Enter the profession of labor intensity of group V:
A. masons
B. Students
C. diggers
D. Secretaries
E. concreters
F. nurses
1592. Enter the profession of labor intensity group I:
A. Teachers
B. steelworkers
C. fellers
D. educators
E. controllers
F. Working on cutting wood
1593. Enter the profession of labor intensity of Group II:
A. Teachers of Physical Education and Sports
B. concreters
C. trainers
D. diggers
E. Communications and telegraph workers
F. masons
1594. Enter the profession of labor intensity group III:
A. tuners
B. masons
C. surgeons
D. concreters
E. chemists
F. diggers
1595. Enter the profession of labor intensity group III:
A. Tekstilshchiki
B. diggers
C. transport drivers
D. masons
E. food workers
F. concreters
1596. Show the adult age groups of the working population:
A. 11-14
B. 18-29
C. 40-59
D. 60-79
E. 30-39
F. 18-60
1597. Show group of disabled people:
A. 30-39
B. 40-59
C. Children
D. retirees
E. disabilities
F. 18-29
1598. What solutions are needed to determine the acidity of the milk:
A. 0,1 n. sodium hydroxide
B. 3% HCl
C. distilled water
D. 10% NaCO3
E. 1% phenolphthalein solution
F. 3% CH4
1599. Show options for sampling of milk:
A. 20 jars - 1 jar
B. more than 20 jars -Each 20th jar
C. one bottle of every 400 bottles
D. 20 jars - 10 jar
E. more than 20 jars -Each 5th jars
F. one bottle of every 1,000 bottles
1600. What preservatives are added to the milk to reduce its acidity:
A. Starch
B. Water
C. baking soda
D. iodine solution
E. phenolphthalein
F. Hydrogen peroxide
1601. What are the indicators of the quality of milk is estimated:
A. By the odor
B. density level
C. At the sight
D. color
E. acidity of milk
F. fat milk
1602. Enter the fats of animal origin:
A. Sunflower
B. Cotton
C. Swine
D. Beef
E. ram
F. Corn
1603. Show fats of vegetable origin:
A. Cotton
B. Swine
C. Beef
D. sunflower
E. ram
F. corn
1604. Show fats of vegetable origin:
A. Soybean
B. Swine
C. Cotton
D. Olive
E. Beef
F. ram
1605. Enter the organoleptic characteristics of fats and oils:
A. Acid
B. consistency
C. Humidity
D. appearance
E. mass fraction of carotenoids
F. color
1606. Show the organoleptic characteristics of fats and oils:
A. odor
B. Acidity
C. taste
D. humidity
E. color
F. mass fraction of carotenoids
1607. Enter the physico-chemical characteristics of fats and oils:
A. mass fraction of carotenoids
B. taste
C. Moisture
D. color
E. odor
F. acidity
1608. Specify color indices margarine:
A. White - colored margarine
B. light yellow - fortified margarine
C. White - uncolored margarine
D. Light yellow - colored margarine
E. Yellow - fortified margarine
F. yellow - uncolored margarine
1609. Physical - chemical parameters of margarine:
A. Yellow - fortified margarine
B. the fat content in milk margarines at least 82%, in dairy-82.5%
C. moisture content less than 16%
D. White - uncolored margarine
E. salt content not exceeding 1.2%
F. light yellow - colored margarine
1610. Physical - chemical parameters of margarine:
A. melting point 28 - 36 ° C
B. White - colored margarine
C. the salt content of not more than 1.2% light yellow - fortified margarine
D. an acid number in the dairy margarine not more than 1.5 and dairy margarine not
more than 1.8%
E. Yellow - uncolored margarine
1611. The acid number of vegetable fats:
A. refined cottonseed oil is not more than 0.3-1.0
B. refined sunflower oil is not more than 4.0
C. unrefined sunflower oil no more than 6.0
D. crude sunflower oil is not more than 60.0
E. refined cottonseed oil no more 3,0-10,0
F. refined sunflower oil is not more than 0.4
1612. The acid number of plant zhyrov:
A. refined sunflower oil is not more than 4.0
B. unrefined cottonseed oil no more 7,0-14,0
C. unrefined sunflower oil of not more than 60.0
D. refined sunflower oil is not more than 0.4
E. crude sunflower oil no more than 6.0
F. crude cottonseed oil, not more than 70,0-140,0
1613. As defined in confectionery use margarine instead of butter:
A. add 2-3 drops of iodine, if added to margarine, it appears blue color
B. 100 g of the product is taken
C. taken 5-10 grams of the product
D. added 10 ml of phenolphthalein
E. 10 ml of water
F. add 2-3 drops of iodine unless margarine added, the blue color appears
Show 1614. New types of cereals:
A. Rice "Health"
B. Rice cereals
C. oatmeal - "Sports"
D. buckwheat
E. buckwheat - "Pioneer"
F. oatmeal
1615. Show dietary kinds of flour:
A. oat
B. bean
C. buckwheat
D. Wheat
E. macaroni
F. Rice
1616. Which diseases consume wheat bran:
A. When diabetes
B. In SARS
C. When atherosclerosis
D. AIDS
E. in hypertension
F. The CHD
1617. Which diseases consume wheat bran:
A. When obesity
B. constipation
C. When SARS
D. AIDS
E. For gall stone disease
F. The CHD
1618. The ash content of different types of flour should not exceed (at 100 g):
A. wholemeal rye flour - 1.9%
B. wallpaper wheat - 22.2%
C. wheat grade II - 12.5%
D. wallpaper wheat - 1.9%
E. wheat grade II - 1.25%
F. wholemeal rye flour - 20.1%
1619. The ash content of the various types of flour should not exceed (at 100 g):
A. I grade wheat - 0.75%
B. I grade wheat -7.5%
C. wallpaper wheat - 1.9%
D. wallpaper wheat - 22.2%
E. wheat grade II - 12.5%
F. wheat grade II - 1.25%
1620. The crude gluten in wheat flour should be:
A. in wallpaper - not less than 20%
B. a wallpaper - not less than 50%
C. a wheat grade II - not less than 55%
D. a wheat grade I - at least 30%
E. I in wheat varieties - not less than 75%
F. a wheat grade II - not less than 25%
1621. The algorithm for determining the smell of flour:
A. 3-4 grams of flour sprinkled on the palm
B. 50g flour sprinkled on the table
C. determine the odor
D. warm oven
E. warm breath
F. determine the color
1622. The algorithm for determining the smell of flour:
A. then water drained and determining odor
B. 50 g of flour sprinkled on the table
C. warm oven
D. determine the color
E. a small amount of flour is poured into a glass
F. pour hot water (60 ° C)
1623. What are the indicators of the quality of the flour is estimated:
A. organoleptic
B. By class
C. physical and chemical parameters
D. By prices
E. flour pests flour
F. By sight
1624. In what amounts to analyze the collected bread:
A. piece goods weighing between 200 - 400g - 10 pcs
B. piece goods weighing less than 200 g - 15 pcs
C. weight product 500 g - 1 piece
D. piece goods weighing 200 - 400 g - 2 pcs
E. piece goods weighing less than 200 g - 4 pcs
F. weighing more than 500 grams of the product - 5 units
1625. Show rules acidity of bread:
A. rye-wheat bread - 11 °
B. from wheat flour, first and second grades 30 - 40 °
C. wheat bread from flour, first and second grades 3 - 4 °
D. wheat bread from wholemeal - 70 °
E. wheat bread from wholemeal - 7o
F. rye-wheat bread - 110 °
1626. Show rules acidity of bread:
A. rye-wheat bread - 11 °
B. rye bread - not higher than 12 °
C. rye bread - no higher than 120 °
D. wheat bread from wholemeal - 70 °
E. wheat bread from wholemeal - 7o
F. rye-wheat bread - 110 °
1627. When viewed from the inner surface of the outer cans note:
A. presence of dark spots (corrosion)
B. the presence of yellow spots
C. the presence and size of the solder surface sagging banks
D. the presence of "gluten-free"
E. the presence and size of sagging in the internal solder joints banks
F. presence of "marbling"
1628. What kind of food acids used to acidify beverages:
A. lemon
B. Wine
C. Glutamic
D. ethyl
E. milk
F. nitrate
1629. What kind of food acids not used to acidify beverages:
A. Nitrate
B. citric
C. ethyl
D. glutamic
E. Wine
F. Dairy
1630. Enter the table mineral waters:
A. omonhona
B. seltzer
C. Essentuki №20
D. nidrolife
E. Carlsbad
F. Arzni
1631. Enter the table mineral waters:
A. Berezovskaya
B. Izhevsk
C. nestle
D. omonhona
E. Carlsbad
F. Arzni
1632. Enter the curative mineral waters:
A. omonhona
B. e: ssentuki №20
C. Karlovy Vary
D. nestle
E. Arzni
F. Izhevsk
1633. Show composition Lapsany black tea:
A. extractives not less than 32%
B. extractives not less than 82%
C. Tannin not less than 7%
D. caffeine at least 2%
E. tannin not less than 27%
F. caffeine at least 32%
1634. What drinks are non-alcoholic:
A. vodka
B. carbonated soft drinks
C. Wine
D. Beer
E. Mineral water
F. juice
1635. What drinks are non-alcoholic:
A. drinks "Cola"
B. Wine
C. Coffee and tea
D. Beer
E. syrups
F. vodka
1636. According to the instructions in the basic requirements of the sanitary-chemical
study of utensils from plastics is the following: the inner surface of the specimen shall
beA. crude
B. clean, without cracks
C. It is not sticky
D. clean with cracks
E. sticky
F. smooth
1637. Organoleptic dishes:
A. Acid
B. Moisture
C. The form
D. appearance
E. cracks
F. Amino-ammonia nitrogen
1638. From what places tablespoons necessary to take swabs on bacteriological
research:
A. On the inside
B. with surface knobs
C. with the surface of the edge
D. from the outer surface
E. handles with bottom
F. from the top portion of handles
1639. Enter the poisonous mushrooms:
A. fox
B. pale grebe
C. satanic mushroom
D. mushrooms
E. mushroom
F. Morel
1640. Enter the edible mushrooms:
A. mushroom
B. mushrooms
C. Morel
D. pale grebe
E. chanterelles
F. satanic mushroom
1641. Enter conditionally edible mushrooms:
A. volnushki
B. Valois
C. fox
D. morel
E. mushrooms
F. satanic mushroom
1642. Enter substitutes:
A. Honey
B. melon
C. Coffee
D. watermelon
E. caviar
F. Orange
1643. What documents fills sanitary doctor at the end of consideration of the draft on
the allotment of land, and on what order:
A. Order №231
B. 300
C. 301
D. 303
302 E.
305 F.
G.304
H.prikaz №287
1644. Enter the direction nutsirologii:
A. Examination of the nutrition of the population
B. study the composition write
C. Review of food safety
D. study population demographics
E. Preventive nutrition
F. studying the prices of products
G. parheznaya supply
H. subject matter production
1645. Enter the basis of parasitism of plants:
A. Isolation of toxins from the body of animal products
B. is a man-made products
C. value of the organic substances of animal products
D. Impact of MHC
E. obogoshennostirastitelny products vitamins
F. bad splits in the body
G. preventive nutrition
H. low energy density
1646.Give the definition of "balanced diet"?
A. diet that provides all the physiological needs of the body
B. The percentage distribution of meals
C. power that provides a sufficient amount of nutrients in optimal ratio
D. Adoption of food at certain times
E. food that restores the body's energy costs
F. eating through optimal intervals
G. Power ensures the supply of nutrients in sufficient quantities and their optimal ratio
H. eating through optimal intervals
1647. What is a "diet":
A. The percentage distribution of meals
B. Adoption of the food in accordance with the physiological needs
C. eating at certain hours
D.pitanie, which provides all the physiological needs of the body
E. eating through optimal intervals
F. food which provides a sufficient amount of nutrients in optimal ratio
G. rational distribution of the energy value of the diet meals
H. power that fully restores the body's energy costs and ensures the supply of
nutrients in sufficient quantities and their optimal ratio
1648. Persons which professions are 3 groups of the nature of their work in the norms
of physiological needs:
A.inzhenernotehnicheskie workers
B. machine operators
C. doctors other than surgery
D. Locksmiths
E. nurses and orderlies
F. adjusters
G. Teachers and educators, in addition to sports, Secretary-General
H. surgeons
1649. List the types of nutritional status:
A. optimum
B. normal
C. valid
D. parhezny
E. excess
F. Hour
G. Lack
H.studentny
1650. What is taken into consideration in justifying the physiological standards of
nutrition of the adult population of the country:
A. Sex
B. The place of residence
C. Age
D. profession
E. body weight
F. climatic conditions
G. growth
H. social factor
1651. That it is impossible to leave the next day:
A. suppyure
B. soup
C. Salad
D. kefir
E. compote
F. boiled meat
G .otvarnye pasta
H. burns
1652. Specify which modes meal at 4 one-time balanced diet:
A. Breakfast 25% of the daily diet
B. 35% dinner
C. zavtrak15%
D. obed25%
E. afternoon tea 15%
F. uzhin25%
G. poldnik25%
H. uzhin35%
1653. Describe the main regulations applicable to the washing of eggs:
A. in the first section of soaking in warm water, 510 min
B. in the second processing section 0.5%) soda ash, the temperature of 4050 C, 510
min
C. eggs not less than 2 categories, for the preparation of dietary egg creams
D. soap root-only to cook halva (up 0.03%)
natural dyes (carmine, safflower)
E. in the third section of the disinfection 2% rrom bleach or 0.5%) of chlorine bleach
rrom, 5 minutes
F. fourth section rinse under running water
G. synthetic dyes (yellow indigo, tetrazine yellow) within the allowed
H. synthetic dyes (yellow indigo, tetrazine yellow) within the allowed
1654 is taken into account when checking the medical records:
A. regularity and timeliness of inspections meditsins¬kih
B. Survey of vaccinations
C. the presence and work
D. Work of the health of the asset
E. information on infectious diseases
F. minimum sanitary flow rate
G. Work of the health post
H. availability of health commissioners
1655. Which premises are part of the food stores:
A. trading rooms
B. premises receiving, storage products and prepare them for sale
C. Public space
D. cooperative space
E. storeroom
F. Technical premises
G. kolhoznokooperativnoe
H. pharmacy
1656. What forms of trade do you know:
A. Public
B. Cooperative
C. constant trade
D. temporary or seasonal sale
E. kolkhoz
F. kolhoznokooperativnaya
G. general
H. Private
1657. What legal documents regulating the activities of a doctor on food hygiene:
A.osnovopolagayuschie
B. nation-wide, standard
C. Legal
D. Judicial documents
E. regulatory guidance documents
F. basic and national regulations
G. standardized
H. sudebnopravovye
1658. What documents are included in the basic:
A.konsya the Republic of Uzbekistan
B. Law on Health Protection
C. SNiPs
D. sanitary rules and regulations for the plant miner.vod
E. Labour Code ResUzb
F. ZN "about gosud.san.nadzore"
G. sanitary rules and regulations for the fishery enterprises
SanPiNs
H. norm storage
1659. What are the source data that should be included in the planning:
A.materialy morbidity
B. Material Compilation nutrition
C. Organizational activities
D. precautionary sanitary supervision
E. materials on the health of the catering trade and food industry
F. materials on the quality of food sold
G. current sanitary supervision
H. basic tasks of the Department gig.pitaniya
1660. What are the stages of the SPE in the construction project sites:
A.vybor zem.uchastka
B. oversee the design and expertise of the project
C. ACT san survey
D. Protocol lab.issledovany
E. PSN during construction
F. PSN gospriemka when in operation
G. determine the causes
H. ACT investigation construction
1661. Why is the body's need for energy?
A.vozrast person
B.pol
C. Year machines
D. insect sex
E. nature of employment
F. weight
G. the nature of the insect
H. Weight elephant
1662. What information to determine the primary exchange at
hronometrazhnotablichnom method;
A. growth
B. Age
C. increase in elephant
D. Age Karkidon
E. Sex
F. body weight
G. floor insect
H. mass elephant
1663. Specify which modes meal at 4 one-time balanced diet:
A. Breakfast 25% of the daily diet
B. 35% dinner
C. zavtrak15%
D. obed25%
E. afternoon tea 15%
F. uzhin25%
G .poldnik25%
H. uzhin35%
1664. Specify methods for studying nutrition unorganized groups of the population:
A. questionnaire method
B. balance method
C. survey of children
D. survey of adolescents
E. questionnaire method
F. oprosnovesovoy method
G .opros adults
H .opros old
1665. Enter the function of methionine in the body;
A.metilirovanie
B. transmethylation
C. It is not methylated
D. not transmetilirovanny
E. lipotropic action
F. involved in the synthesis of choline
G. does not have a lipotropic action
H. is not involved in the synthesis of choline
1666. Enter the types of oils that contain the largest number of PUFA;
A. Sunflower
B. Soybean
C. mutton fat
D. lard
E. Olive
F. corn
G. horsemeat
H. Ostrich
1667. What are the Essential fatty acids:
A. linolenavaya
B. linoleic
C. mutton fat
D. lard
E. arahidonavaya
F. oleic
G. horsemeat
H. Ostrich
1668. Indicate the main organoleptic sanitary examination of meat:
A. color of muscle tissue and fat on the surface and in the open shallow and deep
section
B. consistency of meat and fat, the smell of the meat probe knife or boiling
C. broth transparent or turbidity
D. appearance in the broth cereal
E. color of muscle tissue on the surface only
F. Status of tubular bone marrow
G. loss gelatinous precipitate sinegolubogo or greenish
H. condition of the flat bone marrow
1669. Indicate the most valuable proteins contained in the muscle meat:
A. myosin
B. Myogit
C. fibrinogen
D. elastin
E. actin
F. globulin
G. collagen
H. fibrin
1670. Enter the nitrogenous extractives in meat:
A. carnosine
B. Creatine
C. xanthine
D. glycogen
E. akserin
F. hypoxanthine
G. glucose
H. lactic acid
I.
1671. Enter the characteristics of the process of production of sausages with
epidemiological significance:
A. Use of by-products
B. cooling water
C. Use of dairy products
D. cooling of alcohol
E. cooking at 7580 ° C
F. mixing large quantities of meat
G. boiling at 100 150 ° C
H. mixing a small amount of meat
I.
1672. Enter the basic indicators of epidemiological safety sausage:
A. E. coli
B. Salmonella in 25 g
C. botulism
Shigella D. 25 g of product
E. TBC
F. The presence of pathogenic bacteria
G. coli titer
H. presence of saprophytic bacteria
I.
1673. Enter the composition of caviar:
A. lecithin to 20%
B. ihtulin7778%
C. lecithin to 2%
D. ihtulin1718%
E. albumin22,5%
F. cholesterol 3.914%
G. albumin6272,5%
H. cholesterol 8.994%
1674. Enter the key indicators of the freshness of the milk:
A. acid sulphate
B. alkalinity
C. Ammonia Nitrogen
D. acidity
E. reaction to the broth
F. bacteriological indicators
G. quantity of water
H. nitrate acid
1675. Enter the key indicators of milk adulteration:
A. reaction to arsenic
B. reaction to formaldehyde
C. The reaction to chlorine
D. reaction to hydrogen peroxide
E. reaction to the acidity
F. response to soda
G. reaction Nestler
H. reaction to starch
1676. Enter the species of animal fats
A. Sunflower oil
B. cottonseed oil
C. butter
D. beef fat
E. mutton fat
F. lard
G. sesame oil
H. oivkovoe oil
1677. What are the hygienic standards of harmful contamination of flour:
A. disputes - 0.5%
B. talhak tolstoplodny more than 0.04%
C. cockle - more - 0.01%
D. admixture Metolit - 3 mg / kg
E. cockle - more - 4.01%
F. admixture Metolit - 7 mg / kg
G. debate - more than 5.5%
H. talhak tolstoplodny more than 3.04%
1678. List what is required to comply with personal hygiene to working in the baking
industry:
A. never personal hygiene clothing
B. failure to comply with the purity of body
C. personal hygiene clothing
D. Compliance purity of the body
E. washing hands after using the toilet to the processing of 0.2% bleach solution
F. availability of medical books, the timely passage of med.osmotrov
G. not washing hands after using the toilet to the processing of 0.2% bleach solution
H. lack of medical books, the timely passage of med.osmotrov
1679. List the complex sanitarnoepidemicheskie risk factors included in the II group
Sanepid. risk factors:
A. Relevant raw material (milk), butter, eggs, the current state standards
B. Relevant flour for bread, the applicable GOST standards
C. Relevant raw material (milk), butter, eggs, the current foreign standards
D. Relevant flour for baking bread, inoperative GOST standards
E. Failure to comply with the sieving flour and passing through magnitoulovitel
F. Lack of certificates and quality certificates for raw materials
G. compliance with the rules sifting flour and passing through magnitoulovitel
H. availability of certificates and quality certificates for raw materials
1680. List Sanepid complex. the risk factors included in the I group of risk factors:
A. General transport
B. General equipment, boxes, trays
C. specials. transport
D. specials. equipment boxes, trays
E. presence of overhead with the date and date of manufacture of bread and
bakery products
F. availability of health care books and clothing for persons accompanying
transport
G. no overhead with the date and date of manufacture of bread and
bakery products
H. lack of sanitary books and sanitary clothing for persons accompanying vehicles
1681. What are the factors contributing to the development of diseases of bread:
A. sufficient rapid cooling of bread after baking
B. Compliance temperaturnovlazhnostnyh conditions during storage
C. lack of rapid cooling of bread after baking
D. non-compliance with the storage conditions temperaturnovlazhnostnyh
E. insufficient ventilation
F. temperature changes in storage
rooms
G. Adequate ventilation
H. normal temperatures in warehouses
1682. Enter the parameters determined by external examination of canned food:
A. Acid
B. TBC
C. the presence of the label
D. Status of joints
E. transcript vyshtampovki
F. Status of tin
G. E coli
H. smell
1683. Enter the steps of washing equipment for the canning industry:
A. mechanical cleaning of surfaces
B. hot wash (4050 C), 12% solution of soda ash
C. thermal treatment
D. Wash cold 12% solution of soda ash
E. Disinfection of 0.5% solution of bleach with 1 hour 30 minutes Exposure
F. steaming
G. disinfection 15% solution of bleach with 30 minutes exposure 2hours
H. fumigation
1684. What indicators should have the water used for the manufacture of beverages:
A. turbid
B. color
C. transparent
D. colorless
E. free of foreign smell
F. without foreign taste
G. On foreign smell
H. from foreign taste
1685. The necessary information to determine the primary exchange at
hronometrazhnotablichnom method:
A. dynamometry
B. chest circumference
C. growth
D. Age
E. Sex
F. body weight
G. Index Saloveva
H. arterial blood pressure
1686. Enter the symptoms of clinical salmonellosis:
A. vomiting
B. Head ball
C. diarrhea
D. bad bowel movement
E. tenesmus
F. cramps
G. pain in the lumbar region
H. not broken stool consistency
1687. Enter the rules of free issue of vitamin preparations in connection with a
particularly hazardous working conditions:
A. tocopherol
B. pectin
C. ascorbic acid
D. Retinol
E. thiamine
F. niacin
G. tryptophan
H. tyrosine
1688. That it is impossible to leave the next day:
A. soup
B. kefir
C. suppyure
D. Salad
E. compote
F. boiled pasta
G. burns
H. cooked meat
1Sort 1689. List of meat products:
A. brains
B. light
C. liver
D. language
E. heart
F. kidney
G. spleen
H. tail
1690. List 2Sort meat products:
A. brains
B. light
C. liver
D. language
E. heart
F. kidney
G. spleen
H. tail
1691. List the types of meat:
A. sausages
B. sausages
C. beef
D. pork
E. Lamb
F. kbonina
G. Meat Loaves
H. tail
1692. What does the izdeliyapolufabrikaty:
A. pork
B. Lamb
C. I sort of - the liver, tongue, heart, kidneys
D. II grade - brains, lungs, spleen, tail
E. suitability of blood and its products for further processing
F. sausages Beef
G. horsemeat
H. heart
1693. Enter the parameters determined by external examination of canned food:
A. Availability label
B. Status of joints
C. mechanical cleaning of surfaces.
D. Wash hot (4050 C), 12% solution of soda ash.
E. transcript vyshtampovki
F. Status of tin (deformation)
G. disinfection 0.5% solution of bleach with 1 hour and 30 minutes of exposure.
H. steaming.
1694. Enter the kinds of canned food:
A. meat
B. Fish
C. sausage
D. refined
E. vegetable
F. cereal
G. fat
H. hydrochloric
1695. What are the minerals contain natural mineral waters:
A. iron
B. bromine
C. Sulfur
D. Copper
E. iodine
F. Sodium
G. zinc
H. Chrome
1696. Indicate the direction nutsirologii:
A. Examination of the nutrition of the population
B. studying food safety
C. Review of the composition of write
D. study population demographics
E. Preventive nutrition
F. parheznaya supply
G. studying the prices of products
H. subject matter production
1697. A person of any profession are 3 groups of the nature of their work in the norms
of physiological needs:
A. engineering and technical staff
B. doctors other than surgery
C. machinists
D. Locksmiths
E. nurses and orderlies
F. educators and teachers, in addition to the athletes, secretaries
G. adjusters
H. surgeons
1698. List the types of nutritional status:
A. optimum
B. permitted
C. Generally,
D. parhezny
E. excess
F. Underfunding
G. Convenience
H. studentny
1699. Mineral waters are divided into:
E. hot, hot (3742
1700. Enter the base plant parasitism
A. Isolation of toxins from the body of animal products
B. Value of the organic substances of animal products
C. is an artificial product
D. Impact of MHC
E. enriched with vitamins vegetable products
F. Preventive nutrition
G. bad splits in the body
H. low energy density
1701. Describe the main processes in the processing of tea leaves:
A. heaping
B. leaf roll
C. Burning
D. treatment with an acid
E. fermentation
F. drying
G. stores in water for a day
H. treatment with alkali
1702. Products Featured parheze at table number 10:
A. potassium-rich foods
B. foods rich in essential fatty acids
C. tea
D. cocoa
E. suzma
F. seaweed
G. Lemon
H. lamb meat
1703. The products are not recommended during parheze table number 10:
A. salt
B. coffee
C. juices
D. cheese
E. milk
F. fried foods
G. cooked vegetables
H. sausage
1704. What is the purpose of preventive power of workers working in high
temperatures:
A. Normalized vodnosolevogo sharing
B. Protection of the CAS
C. Improved reproductive function
D. obesity
E. Protection of the CNS
F. normalized metabolism
G. prevention of fatigue
H. caries prevention
1705. Substances accelerate release of radionuclides from the body:
A. pectin
B. methionine
C. alanine
D. tyrosine
E. glutamine
F. glycine
G. glucose
H. fuktoza
1706. What des solutions can not be used in the enterprise for the production of beer
for the treatment of aluminum cookware:
A. bleach solution
B. caustic alkali
C. perhydrol
D. acid
E. antiformin
F. alkalis
G. acetic acid
H. sodium chlorine
1707. Enter the mobile objects small retail network:
A. tent
B. Trolley
C. hypermarket
D. supermarket
E. mobile shops
F. kiosks
G. minimarket
H. Market
1708. What are the objects sanitarnobakteriologicheskogo survey:
A. air
B. outer wall
C. Food items
D. washes away with staff workwear
E. washings with equipment, tools
F. water local water sources
G. Exhaust gases
H. roof of the building
1709. Note, implementation, any food not allowed on the market:
A. eggs
B. curd made from pasteurized milk
C. milk is not pasteurized
D. goose eggs
E. curd made from pasteurized milk
1710. What food items are vulnerable in respect of sanitarnoepidemiologicheskom:
A. Market
B. supermarket
C. Bakery
D. cafes
E. Meat Processing Plant
F. dairy farm
G. minimarket
H. hypermarket
1711. The epidemiological importance in the production of sausages is:
A. warehousing
B. Transportation
C. addition of offal in minced
D. cooling minced cold water
E. boiling at 7580 C
F. mixing with other meats
G. Implementation
H. use
1712. What are the occasions ordained held unscheduled examination of foods:
A. By the hygienic indices
B. Do not instructions from higher authorities CGSEN
C. Special Sanepid indicators
D. on behalf of superiors CGSEN
E. on the instructions of the governing investigative and judicial authorities
F. For the final decision on the availability of food
G. By order OliyMazhlisa
H. By stages of TSN and PSN
1713. What are the organoleptic characteristics have surrogates:
A. color
B. turbidity
C. smell
D. taste
E. coloring
F. appearance
G. acidity
H. fat
1714. As stated in the recital of the circuit making the act san examination of foods:
A. whom an examination
B. in the presence of whom an examination
C. General information on batch
D. Data batch inspection at the site
E. Laboratory studies
F. Conclusion Laboratory
G. On what purpose
H. where conducted
1715. What are the organoleptic study determined at meat:
A. Definition of acidity
B. Definition of transparency
C. Determination of appearance
D. Definition of consistency
E. certain smells
F. Definition taste
G. Identification of the state of carbohydrate
H. Identification state of proteins
1716. What do bacterioscopic studies at meat:
A. stained romanovskomugimza
B. stained by Morozov
C. smears fingerprints
D. Gram stained
E. stained gentsianvialetom
F. stained by Lugol
G. stained by ink
H. stained by storm
1717. Which way obezrezhivaetsya meat if it found the Finns:
A. 12h
B. 6h
C. Freeze do120S
D. freeze to 160C
E. exposure at 90 ° C
F. 24h
G. Freeze up to 100C
H. freezing to 60 ° C
1718. What are the indicators of the quality of the meat is evaluated:
A. organoleptic
B. physicochemical
C. Hygiene
D. Research on fungi
E. bacterioscopic research
F. Study on the content in the Finn and Trichinella
G. biological
H. Climate
1719. What is required to determine the content of volatile fatty acids in meat:
A. Meat 25 g
B. 150 ml of a 2% solution of sulfuric acid
C. 50 g of meat
D. 250 mL of 2% solution of sulfuric acid
E. steam generator
F. otkon
G. dis water
H. Gram stain
1720. How is the quality of the meat by the reaction broth with copper sulphate:
A. meat weighed 20 g
B. 60 ml of water dis
C. 100 g of meat
D. 100 ml of water dis
E. water bath, filtration
F. 3 drops of 5% copper sulfate solution
G. 5 drops of 10% copper sulfate solution
H. Drying
1721. From the Department of the meat is taken for research on Trichinella:
A. pieces of muscle tissue
B. diaphragm
C. heart
D. tendon
E. abdominal muscles
F. chewing muscles
G. liver
H. Light
1722. What is needed to determine the flavor of meat:
A. 50 g of meat
B. meat cut into pieces
C. 100 g of meat
D. frying
E. dis water
F. cooking
G. drying
H. 50 ml of water dis
1723. From what parts of the carcass samples were taken for analysis:
A. have desperately against cervical vertebrae 6
B. have desperately against cervical vertebrae 5
C. at the muscles of the chest
D. On the muscles of the head region
E. from muscles of the shoulder blade area
F. From the thick parts of the thigh muscles
G. had desperately against cervical vertebrae 1
H. had desperately against two cervical vertebrae
1724. What form of public health surveillance:
A. Current
B. unscheduled
C. Annual
D. Continuous
E. Warning
F. Planning
G. preview
H. Periodic
1725. Which functional areas delimited area of the market:
A. Trade
B. shopping
C. Recreation Area
D. playground
E. warehouse
F. For parking private vehicles
G. sports area
H. area for sick customers
1726. In some cases, given a positive opinion on allocation of land for the
construction of food items:
A. sanitary protection zone of a width of 50 to 500m
B. The rate of standing groundwater is not less than 0.5 m below the floor of the
ground floor
C. sanitary protection zone of a width of 10 to 100m
D. Standard of standing groundwater is not less than 0.1 m below the floor of the
ground floor
E. terrain is flat, providing storm water runoff
F. location of the site at the former landfill (over 20 years)
G. terrain is flat, providing no stormwater runoff
H. location of the site at the former landfill (over 10 years)
1727. To prevent the adverse effects of infrared radiation on the cooks, confectioners
should:
A. sektsionnomodulnoe used equipment
B. promptly shut down sections of electric stoves
C. Do not apply sektsionnomodulnoe equipment
D. timely includes sections electric cookers
E. switch to less power
F. workplace have ovens, stoves, ovens and other equipment operating heating,
applied vozdushnoedushirovanie
G. did not switch to a lower power
H. workplace from furnaces, stoves, ovens and other equipment working with heated
not used vozdushnoedushirovanie
1728. Washing dinnerware manually in the following order:
A. removal of food residue with a brush or a wooden spatula into a special container
for waste
B. washing in water with a temperature below 40 ° Cc addition degreasers
C. remove food hands in a special container for waste
D. washing in water with a temperature below 70 ° Cc addition degreasers
E. rinsing the dishes placed in a metal mesh with handles, running hot water with a
temperature below 65 ° C or through a flexible hose with shower head
F. drying dishes in the lattice shelves, racks
G. rinsing dishes placed in a metal mesh with handles, running hot water at a
temperature of 15 ° C or through a flexible hose with shower head
H. drying dishes in the dark place
1729. Washing kitchen ware produced in two-piece baths in the following order:
A. removal of food residue brushed
B. washing brushes in water with a temperature below 40 ° Cc and detergents
C. remove food hands in a special container for waste
D. washing in water with a temperature below 70 ° Cc addition degreasers
E. rinsing under running water with a temperature below 65 ° C
F. drying in an inverted form to the grid shelves, racks
G. rinsing dishes placed in a metal mesh with handles, running hot water at a
temperature of 15 ° C or through a flexible hose with shower head
H. drying dishes in the dark place
1730. Enter the hygienic requirements to the tray:
A. trays for visitors after each use wipe clean cloth
B. Do not use trays, deformed and with visible pollution
C. trays for visitors after each use, do not rub with a clean cloth
D. Use trays, deformed and with visible pollution
E. at the end of work trays washed with hot water and detergent and bleach, rinsed
with warm running water and dried
F. kept clean trays in designated areas on the trading floor, apart from the used trays
G. at the end of work trays washed with cold water with detergents and disinfectants,
rinsed with warm running water and dried
H. keep clean trays in designated areas on the trading floor, along with the used trays
1731. Enter the hygienic requirements for the storage of food products:
A. potatoes and root vegetables are stored in a dry dark place
B. cabbage on separate shelves, in bins; pickled, salted vegetables in barrels at a
temperature no higher than 10 ° C
C. potatoes and root vegetables are stored in a bright room Cheese
D. cabbage on separate shelves, in bins; pickled, salted vegetables in barrels at a
temperature no lower than 10 ° C
E. herbs stored in boxes in a cool place at temperatures not above 12 ° C
F. fruits stored in boxes in a cool place at temperatures not above 12 ° C
G. herbs stored in boxes in a cool place at temperatures below 12 ° C
H. fruits stored in boxes in a cool place at temperatures below 12 ° C
1732. intrashop container and inventory after his release from the products subjected
to a thorough mechanical cleaning and washing in the bath 3sektsionnoy in the
following order:
A. in the 1st section of the soaking and washing at 4550 ° C in a solution of detergent
in accordance with the instructions supplied
B. 2nd section of soaking in a disinfectant solution at a temperature of not lower than
40 ° C (a concentration in accordance with the instruction manual) within 10 minutes
And C. In the third section of the soaking and washing at 4550 ° C in a solution of
detergent in accordance with the instructions supplied
D. during 1st section soaking in a disinfectant solution at a temperature not lower than
40 ° C (a concentration in accordance with the instruction manual) for 10 min
E. a third hot rinse section running water with a temperature below 65 ° C in mesh
trays
F. After drying the processing and storage on dedicated shelves for clean containers
and equipment
G. a rinsing section 2d running hot water at a temperature not lower than 65 ° C in
mesh trays
H. drying after processing and storage on dedicated shelves for dirty containers and
equipment
1733. Egg 4sektsionnoy treated in the bath as follows:
A. in the fourth section of soaking in warm water at a temperature
4050 ° C for 510 minutes
B. during a third processing section for 510 min any solution intended for this
purpose, the detergent at the temperature 4050 ° C in accordance with the instructions
for its use
C. in the first section soaking in warm water at a temperature
4050 ° C for 510 minutes
D. a second processing section for 510 min any solution intended for this purpose, the
detergent at the temperature 4050 ° C in accordance with the instructions for its use
E. a third section disinfection for 5 min with a solution intended for this purpose
disinfectants at 4050 ° C
F. a fourth section rinsing with running water for 5 minutes at a temperature of not
lower than 50 ° C
G. a second section disinfection for 5 min with a solution intended for this purpose
disinfectants at 4050 ° C (concentration and treatment time in accordance with
instructions for its use)
H. in the first section rinsing with running water for 5 minutes at a temperature of not
lower than 50 ° C
1734. Specify which room should the market stones to a height of 1.8 m with glazed
tiles painted with waterproof paint, or:
A. Parking
B. Administrative room
C. Wall trading floor
D. washing
E. shower
F. sanitary facilities
G. corridor
H. exterior wall
1735. What must be room in the laboratory market:
A. locker
B. premises for the storage of food
C. observation room
D. premises for research of food, wash
E. head office
F. storage space for misinformation. toilet facilities and laboratory workers
G. office for personal hygiene
H. shower
1736. The epidemiological importance in the production of sausages is:
A. Add flour
B. rubbing
C. addition of offal in minced
D. cooling minced cold water
E. boiling at 7580 C
F. mixing with other meats
G. packaging
H. packaging
1737. Enter the hygiene requirements for the collection of waste in commercial and
warehouses of the market:
A. should not be pedal bins or buckets with lids
B. filling them as no more than 1/3 of the volume to be cleaned
C. must be pedal bins or buckets with lids
D. filling them as no more than 2/3 of the volume, to be cleaned
E. after the work is washed with 1% nym in hot water (45 to 50 ° C) of soda ash
F. should be stored in designated areas in the packaging manufacturer
G. By the end of the work is washed with 10% nym in hot water (45 to 50 ° C) soda
my other
H. should be stored in designated areas in any container manufacturer
1738. Which products are prohibited from being sold on the market
A. allow the sale of honey, has not passed the examination veterinarnosanitarnuyu
B. Honey, delivered in clean containers or meet the above requirements, is not subject
to examination and placing on the market is not permitted
C. The sale of honey, not the past veterinarnosanitarnuyu examinations
D. honey, delivered in a dirty container, or does not comply with the above
requirements, is not subject to examination and placing on the market is not permitted
E. prohibits the sale of milk and dairy products from falsification (by adding water,
starch, ash and other impurities)
F. are not allowed to sell milk and dairy products with the addition of neutralizing and
preservatives
G. permitted the sale of milk and dairy products from falsification (by adding water,
starch, ash and other impurities)
H. allowed to sell milk and dairy products with the addition of neutralizing agents and
preservatives
1739. Enter the hygienic requirements for the storage of fish markets
A. Fresh fish should be stored in the container in which it is delivered, the storage
temperature must be 2 ° C
B. shelf life of 48 hours
C. chilled fish should be stored in the container in which it is delivered, the storage
temperature should be 20 ° C
D. shelf life 76 hours
E. live fish kept in the aquarium with clean water and warm no more than 48 hours
F. live fish is kept in the tank for clean water, and 76 hours at 10 ° C
G. live fish kept in the aquarium with clean water and warm weather up to 24 hours
H. live fish is kept in the tank for clean water, and 48 hours at 10 ° C
1740. The market is prohibited to sell:
A. confectionery and culinary products, meat and fish products, meat and fish byproducts, canned foods and beverages factory prepared
B. loose tea, fortified wines and other alcoholic drinks prepared by ferrying of fruit
and berry raw materials factory
C. confectionery and culinary products, meat and fish products, meat and fish byproducts, canned foods and beverages homemade
D. loose tea, fortified wines and other alcoholic drinks prepared by ferrying of fruit
and berry raw materials in the home
E. lamellar mushrooms in dried, salted and pickled mushrooms homemade
F. herbs individuals
G. lamellar mushrooms in dried, salted and pickled mushrooms factory prepared
H. drugs
1741. In some cases, you can not send the animals to the meat-packing plant:
A. emaciated animals
B. obese animals
C. with the clinical signs of tuberculosis and brucellosis
D. animals with fever
E. animals within 14 days of receiving the vaccine against anthrax
F. animals within 3 days received antibiotics
G. without a history of animal
H. animals with vomiting
1742. According to the degree of salinity distinguish herring:
A. without salt
B. rezkosolenuyu
C. srednesolenuyu
D. salted
E. krepkosolenuyu
F. salted krepkosolenuyu
G. silnosolennuyu
H. salted
1743. According to the degree of salinity distinguish Selden:
A. more than 14% solea
B. 10% solea
C. 1018% solea
D. 2028% solea
2526 E.% solea
F. 2728% solea
G. 610% solea
H. 1014% solea
1744. List the requirements for raw materials used in the confectionery industry:
A. natural dyes (carmine, safflower)
B. synthetic dyes (indigo yellow, yellow tetrazine) within the limits permitted by
regulations
C. placement of garbage bins at a distance of 25m from production and storage
facilities
D. cleaning garbage bins as experience, but at least 2 times in 2 days occupancy yard
toilet at a distance of 25m from the production areas
E. compliance with applicable state standards and raw material specifications
F. eggs not less than 2 categories, for the preparation of dietary egg creams
G. soap root-only to cook halva (up 0.03%)
1745. What are the acts of the survey you will know:
A. Case
B. Monitoring
C. calendar
D. Planning
E. unscheduled
F. extraordinary
G. depth
H. proverechnye
1746. Enter the prevention of salmonellosis:
A. compliance with the rules of the primary food processing
B. Compliance with the rules of thermal food processing
C. Identification and removal otrabot healthy people
D. does not comply with rules governing the storage and transport of products
E. compliance tertiary processing of food products
F. Compliance hemicheskoy food processing
G. detection and removal from work bacillicarriers
H. observance of rules of storage and transportation of products
1747. Point sources toksikoinfektsiivyzyvaemoy Proteuses:
A. dish of potatoes
B. Fish
C. Beer
D. ice cream
E. Strawberry
F. cheese
G. minced
H. sausage with the addition of the blood
1748. Which meat products are encouraged to work with chemical allergens:
A. Liver
B. turkey
C. lamb meat
D. sausage
E. chicken meat
F. pate
G. rabbit meat
H. heart
1749. Specify products zaschischennymidimonosaharidami:
A. Corn
B. rye flour
C. Peas
D. Bean
E. wheat flour
F. mach
G. buckwheat
H. oats
1750. Enter the product has properties desensitization:
A. Fish
B. turkey
C. Orange
D. Lamb
E. Veal
F. beans
G. green peas
H. Lemon
1751. Enter the product has properties of high sensitization:
A. Mandarin
B. legumes
C. Green peas
D. Lemon
E. Fish
F. turkey
G. pork
H. strawberries
1752. What is the reason parheznoe property fish:
A. desensitization
B. high content of elastin
C. high calorie
D. high content of EFAs
E. low concentration of potassium
F. hypersensitization
G. high content of polyunsaturated fatty acids
H. high concentration of potassium
1753. What are the activities before receiving the barley plant to the warehouse beers:
A. Carry out the cleaning of the room
B. wash the walls
C. airing
D. Application of germicidal lamp
E. antibiotic treatment facilities
F. Cooling facilities
G. disinfected floors, basement and walls of the warehouse
H. disinsection floor, basement and walls of the warehouse
1754. Indicate the source of thiamine:
A. peas
B. beets
C. beef
D. thiamine in sunflower seeds
E. sesame
F. thiamin in yeast
G. pork
H. buckwheat
1755. Enter the initial signs of deficiency form of ascorbic acid in the body:
A. decrease in sensitivity to cold
B. rapid fatigue
C. gradual exhaustion
D. decrease sensitivity kzhare
E. increase efficiency
F. decrease in resistance to gastrointestinal diseases
G. reduced resistance to colds
H. decrease in performance
1756. Enter the path of the fund use of food:
A. poteryapischevyh products in production (wheat, vegetables)
B. external consumption
C. Technical production (soap, starch)
D. eksportpischevyh products
E. tehnologicheskoeproizvodstvo
F. imports
G. Domestic fund food consumption
H. increase in production
1757. Specify methods for determining the biological effectiveness of proteins:
A. protein efficiency ratio
B. the rate of lipids
C. PAA
D. rate of amino acid
E. KEK
F. Biological belokChЎB
G. form amino acids
H. lipoprotein form
1758. Enter the purpose of preventive diet of working at high temperatures:
A. Protecting the central nervous system
B. Safety of the respiratory system
C. normalization of metabolism
D. normalization acids
E. Protection of the cardiovascular system
F. Protection Hearing
G. normalization vodnosolevogo sharing
H. normalization of carbohydrate
1759. Enter the values for the body essentsialnyhzhirnyhkislot:
A. Participating in the production of tissue hormones
B. Major part of the cytoplasm
C. increases the heart muscle
D. forming hormone adrenal gland
E. participates in the formation of biological complexes
F. reduces the contractile function of muscles
G. enters into an integral part of cell membranes
H. participates in the formation of physiological systems
1760. Enter the physiological values for the organism of cholesterol:
A. Participating in obrazovaniizhelchi
B. participates in the formation of physiological systems
C. controls the activity of the adrenal glands
D. humidity increases tissue
E. controls male hormone
F. reduces heart muscle
G. tissue retains moisture
H. participates in the formation of biological complexes
1761. Enter the physiological values of minerals:
A. Participation in plastic processes
B. stimulate kidney function
C. Participation in the exchange of blood
D. maintain osmotic pressure
E. retain the balance kislotnoschelochnoy
F. increased liver intoxication feature
G. Participation in fermentnyhsistemah
Take account of the amount of acetylcholine H.
1762. Enter elements with acidic characteristics:
A. Sera
B. chlorine
C. Magnesium
D. potassium
E. Sodium
F. Calcium
G. phosphorus
H. nitrogen
1763. Enter the elements of alkaline features:
A. Magnesium
B. Calcium
C. Phosphorus
D. Nitrogen
E. Sodium
F. calcium
G. sulfur
H. chlorine
1764. Enter the kinds of foods that are acidic in nature:
A. Meat
B. Fruit
C. Bread
D. Milk
E. Fish
F. vegetables
G. melon
H. shokolod
1765. Enter the kinds of foods that are alkaline in nature:
A. Milk and milk products
B. meat
C. Fruit
D. Fish
E. vegetables
F. oats
G. potatoes
H. chocolate
1766. Specify the value of vitamins for the elderly:
A. normalize the cardiovascular system
B. normalize urinary system
C. normalize the hair growth
D. inhibit sclerotic processes in the elderly
E. normalizing effect on the nervous system in the elderly
F. reduce the aging process
G. reinforce the aging process
H. lead to changes in the cardiovascular system
1767. Describe the main functions of preventive nutrition:
A. enhances the chemical processes in the body
B. reduces himikofiziologicheskuyu activities
C. Addressing toxic substances
D. dissolve toxic substances
E. neutralizes toxic substances
F. neutralize BAS
G. protects organs and systems
H. protects the body from environmental influences
1768. Enter the status assessment of supply:
A. optimum
B. Easy
C. physical
D. Biological
E. excessive
F. scarce
G. associated with age
H. Physical
1769. What are the reasons for the formation of compounds in food processing:
A. Ultrasonication
B. food processing antibiotics
C. processing toxic chemicals
D. treatment of different temperatures
E. processing enzyme substances
F. Processing ionizing radiation
G. freeze drying
H. food fortification hydrolysis
1770. Name the corrosive properties of adipose tissue:
A. removal from the blood by fat deposition
B. Growth of fat in the fat depots
C. accumulation of harmful substances
D. resistance in the treatment of various diseases
E. Education of carbohydrates fat
F. Education fats from various substances
G. tendency to look like fabric
H. education energy imbalance
1771. What are the components involved in the preparation of the test:
A. flour
B. Water
C. Milk
D. Fat
E. yeast
F. salt
G. milk powder
H. Fat
1772. Enter the vitamins in the composition of bread:
A. B6
B. B2
C. C
D. B9
E. PP
F. E
G. B3
By H.
1773. Enter the mineral elements in the composition of bread:
A. Magnesium
B. phosphorus
C. bromine
D. Chrome
E. Sodium
F. potassium
Iodine G.
H. beryllium
1774. Enter the index applicable to the refrigerator:
A. overalls
B. passing through a medical examination
C. sanitary clothing
D. Medical certificate
E. time-cropped nails
F. personal hygiene and hygiene in the production of
G. surrender san.minimuma
H. Short Hair
1775. Indicate the main part shown in the graphic part of the project:
A. Situation plan - a plan the place where the enterprise is located food production
B. Plan of water supply
C. addition to the Master Plan
D. planplan main area of the enterprise, where the building
E. plans and sections rooms
F. Draft and circuit manufacturing process
G. gorizontalnyerazrezy
H. vertikalnyerazrezy
1776. What information is reflected in the main terms:
A. density of the construction site
B. degree gardening area
C. Size Square
D. Status area
E. presence and correct tracks for vehicles and pedestrians
F. interposition of buildings and structures
G. presence of tracks
H. height of buildings
1777. Enter the articles of the Law on the State Sanitary Inspection, indicating the
activity of sanitary doctor of food hygiene:
A. № 27
B. № 29
C. № 23
D. № 28
E. № 30
F. № 31
G. № 25
H. № 21
1778. Enter the key documents in the field of food hygiene:
A. Constitution of the Republic of Uzbekistan in 1992
B. Law of Uzbekistan 02.30.1997 № 4831 "Quality and food safety"
C. The right to POP
D. document the fine
E. Law on the protection of public health, 1996
F. Law on State Sanitary Inspection 03.07.1992 657.12.
G. SanPin
H. orders
1779. List the requirements for raw materials used in the confectionery industry:
A. eggs not lower than the second category, dietary eggs for cooking cream
B. vanillin in the permitted number of
C. artificial colors
D. aromatic essences in unauthorized kolichestvepischevyekisloty
E. natural dyes (in the permitted number of yellow indigo carmine, zheltyytatrazin)
F. soap root-only preparation halvah (in an amount not less than 0.03%)
G. eggs the third category
H. stabilizers
1780. List the requirements for the territory of the confectionery industry:
A. daily cleaning, watering space in the summer
B. Purification of waste containers before filling them and for at least 1 time in two
days
C. weekly cleaning
D. daily cleaning garbage containers
E. place for garbage collection must be located at a distance of 25 meters from the
production and storage space
F. yard latrines should be located at a distance of 25 meters from the production
G. space for garbage collection must be located at a distance of 35 meters from the
main premises
H. restrooms should be located at a distance of 50 meters
1781. Specify the requirements for carriage of confectionery:
A. At the products must be marked
B. transportation in convenient transportation
C. When the carriage of goods temperature must not exceed 6 degrees
D. Persons accompanying the transport of confectionery products must be sanitary
clothing, have a medical record, which indicates the time passed a medical
examination
E. Persons accompanying the product must have a medical book
F. is necessary to use special vehicles equipped with a refrigerator or insulated body
G. must be marked with the production shift, day and hour, and the expiry date
H. on the product should be marked
1782. Enter the rules dishwashing:
A. a first chamber 40-50 degree wash water and detergent
B. in the second chamber washed 0.5% bleach solution 2% chloramine
C. dried in the fourth chamber
D. a third chamber 700C rinsing water
E. washed in 2% bleach
F. rinsed with 900C water
G. steamed
H. washed in water 900C
1783. Enter the rules for processing shop dishes:
A. Availability of raw materials
B. a certificate on the colors, flavors and acids
C. Relevant materials available Guest, OSTam and specifications
D. Relevant Standards
E. a certificate for raw materials and auxiliary materials
F. Compliance rules sifting flour and use magnitoulovitelya
G. carrying cocoa beans and nuts through the sorting machine
H. compliance with rules for processing eggs
1784. List the rules of washing eggs:
A. in a first section 5 min wash in cold water
B. rinsed in cool water
C. The first section -poloskanie in cool water for 5-10 minutes
D. a third section disinfection 5 minutes in 2% bleach solution or a 0.5% solution of
chloramine
E. Fourth Section rinsed in running water
F. washing in the second section at 40-50 degrees Celsius with 0.5% solution of soda
ash 5 to 10 minutes
G. washing powder in water
H. washed with 5% solution of bleach
1785. Enter the basic hygiene requirements for technology and accessories to the pan:
A. 10% of washing soda solution
B. disinfection 5% bleach solution
C. markings indicating ware raw materials and semi
D. washing the first section at 40-50 degrees C with 0.5% solution of soda ash
E. wash in the second section 2% solution of bleach and disinfecting 400C hot water
F. in the third section 600C rinsing water
G. rinsing in 900Svode
H. fourth-drying chamber
1786. Enter the basic rules for handling accessories, used for the preparation of egg
masses:
A. 2% washing soda solution
B. lavage 5% bleach solution
C. washing in a 0.5% solution of soda ash
D. disinfection 10 minutes in a 2% solution of bleach
E. polaskanie hot water
F. drying
G. rinse with cool water
H. cooling
1787. Enter the types of beverages:
A. carbonated soft drinks
B. juice
C. vodka
Extracts of vitamin D.
E. syrups
F. mineral water
G. cola drinks
H. tea
1788. Enter the kinds of kvass:
A. Wheat
B. oatmeal
C. Bread
D. brew of potatoes
E. Russian kvass
F. Moscow kvass
G. brew of hash
H. brew of ears
1789. Enter the stage of technological process of tea:
A. dehydration
B. curling leaves
C. burning
D. additive preservatives
E. fermentation
F. drying
G. fortification
H. Packaging
1790. Enter stage molokoperegonnoy cleaning equipment and pipes:
A. air purification
B. 1% solution of washing soda
C. rinsing with boiling water or hot steam through the holding
D. 0,5% soda ash
E. wash 0.10, 2% bleach solution
F. wash water
G. washing 0.5% chlorine solution
H. washing 2% chlorine solution
1791. Specify measures to prevent ingress of foreign substances in the milk:
A. mechanical control additives in coffee, cocoa and vanillin
B. sieving flour and sugar
C. Cooling
D. conducting through the separator
E. filtering milk
F. cleaning raisins
G. weight measurement
H. pasteurization
1792. Enter the key indicators of the site and the area of commercial enterprise:
A. Availability of asphalt
B. dry ground
C. should not be viscous
D. must be lined with stones
E. landscaping
F. availability of suitable tracks
G. planting flowers
H. presence of fountains
1793. Number of unloading areas in the commercial enterprise:
A. If the sales area do900 4 m
B. If sales area do220 m 1
C. If the sales area do250 m 1
D. If the sales area to 350 m 2
E. If the sales area do360 m 2
F. If the sales area do650 m 3
G. If the sales area up to 680 m 3
H. if the sales area up to 1200 m 5
1794. Enter the part of the project reflected in its graphic part:
A. situational plan (plan area, where the food production facility)
B. master plan (plan area, where there are buildings and construction)
C. Water Plan
D. addition to the master plan
E. plans and sections rooms
F. Draft and circuit manufacturing process
G. horizontal section
H. vertical sections
1795. What information is reflected in the main terms:
A. density of the construction site
B. degree gardening area
C. Size Square
D. Status area
E. presence and correct tracks for vehicles and pedestrians
F. interposition of buildings and structures
G. presence of tracks
H. height of buildings
1796. List the basic methods of the subject Food Hygiene:
A. Physical and chemical
B. Biochemistry
C. saline
D. Radiological
E. hygiene
F. bacteriological
G. Clinical
H. Social
1797. Enter the Uzbek scientists who have contributed to the development of the
subject Food Hygiene:
A. M. Mahkamov
B. A.S. Khudaiberganov
C. T.I.Iskandarov
D. M.Қ.Usmonov
E. NL Romanchenko
F. L.A.Ponomareva
Nicholas G. Bobohadzhaev
H. M.N.Ismoilov
1798. List the laws of the Republic of Uzbekistan, affecting the quality and safety of
food products:
A. "The law of the State Sanitary Inspection"
B. The Law on "Certification Service and Food"
C. Law of the Republic of Uzbekistan
D. The law on "Consumer Rights"
E. Legitimate "Quality and food safety"
F. the Constitution of the Republic of Uzbekistan
G. Product Safety Act
H. Law on Product Certification
1799. Why is the energy requirement of the body:
A. Age of the human body
B. catabolism
C. gravity of the human body
D. Classification of work
E. anabolism
F. floor of the human body
G. On the symptoms
H. SDDP
1800. Enter the data necessary for determining basal metabolism by timing:
A. dissimilation
B. mental activity
C. the growth of the human body
D. floor of the human body
E. a person's weight
F. age the human body
G. assimilation
H. OMDT
1801. Enter the types of evaluation of nutritional status:
Vitamin A.
B. Fats
C. easy
D. Additional multiple
E. Small
F. optimum
G. proteins
H. carbohydrates
1802. Mode meal at a balanced diet:
A. dinner 45%
B. 15% dinner
C. B 25%
D. afternoon tea 15%
E. dinner 25%
F. lunch 35%
G. B 35%
H. snack 0.5%
1803. Enter the proteins that make up the muscle tissue of the meat:
A. prolactin
B. Albumin
C. myosin
D. actin
E. Myogit
F. plasmin
G. globulin
H. teratogen
1804. Enter the nitrogenous extractives of meat:
A. akserin
B. troponin
C. carnosine
D. myosin
E. hypoxanthine
Actin F.
G. mioglobulin
H. Creatine
1805. Enter the types of fruits and vegetables, which are a source of fiber loose:
A. Pear
B. quince
C. potatoes
D. carrots
E. Apple
F. peach
G. onions
H. cabbage
1806. Describe the main methods of disposal of animal waste in agriculture:
A. Compost - biothermic method
B. burying in the ground
C. burning acid
D. burning
E. throw in the trash
F. artificial neutralization
G. use in the field
H. epidemiological decontamination
1807. Enter the basic hygiene measures applicable to the working cattle-breeding
complex:
A. monthly survey on worms
B. Registration in medical record
C. Survey of worms on new entrants to the job
D. Treatment
E. timely vaccination
F. Sanitary least explain again to go to work
G. Research blood test
H. dispensary control
1808. Enter the hazards damage nitrate products (in the absence of the influence of
nitrogenous pesticides)
A. damage to sewage
B. nitrification natural sand
C. When tillage
D. In the harvest
E. when applying manure to the ground
F. When in contact with the ground compost and other pesticides
G. In the damp ground
H. While tillage
1809. Identifying the factors of nitrates getting into the human body:
A. National eating habits
B. Composition of the sand
C. seasons
D. increase in nitrates in meat
E. Strengthening the distribution of nitrates in the plant
F. Composition of drinking water
G. Humid
H. residence
1810. Identifying the factors of food poisoning by nitrates:
A. Using high technology in food processing
B. drying food
C. antikontaminantny composition of vitamins and their presence in products
D. not to use high-tech
E. Application of denitrification of nitrate in the production of
F. imbalance in food
G. vitamins decrease in food
H. not reuse product
1811. Enter the types of products, accumulate a nitrate:
A. cabbage family
B. gulhayrilar
C. Animal feed
D. dried
E. vegetables
F. fruit
G. melons products
H. heat-loving plants
1812. Enter the purpose of the use of pesticides:
A. reduce alien plants
B. combating plant diseases
C. draining
D. Combating birds
E. increase plant growth
F. Pest Control
G. increase water supply
H. loosen the soil
1813. Indicate the impact of pesticides used in agriculture:
A. never prevent harmful effects
B. have a dangerous concentration
C. useful for animals
D. very helpful
E. to be contacted with a large group of the population
F. potentially dangerous to the public
G. prevents disease
Increase vitamin H.
1814. Sanitary requirements to the washing room:
A. must be 5 baths
B. WC
C. The floor must be of concrete
D.'s office
E. ovens
F. walls should be painted at a height of 1.8m with oil paint
G. washing room
H. warehouse
1815. Indications lechebnoprofilakticheskomu Power:
A. diets preventive nutrition
B. to enhance immunity
C. For medical examination
D. Dairy products
E. vitamins
F. For the prevention of disease
G. produce lactic acid ipeptin
H. For the saturated power
1816. Indicate the main chemical quality of sausages:
A. volatile fatty acids
B. the amount of sulfur
C. nitrogen
D. the number aminonitratov
E. bouillon reaction
F. amount aminoammiaka
G. saturated fatty acid
H. unsaturated fatty acids
1817. Types of enzymes in milk:
A. hydrolase
Lactose B.
C. phosphorylase
D. pepsin
E. phosphatase
F. Lipase
G. gioluronidaza
H. trypsin
1818. Requirements for finished milk:
A. plotnost1,0271,034
B. the temperature did not exceed 8 °
C. density 2,782,98
D. Temperature 14 gr
E. milk acidity 1sorta1618 T 2 grade 1920 T
F. purity of the standard grade 12
G. milk acidity 1sorta 2224 c T
H. purity of the standard 34 class
1819. Types of ice cream:
A. raspberry
B. strawberry
C. peach
D. apple
E. apricot
F. cherry
G. cucumber
H. cream of tomato
1820. The organoleptic characteristics of meat:
A. appearance
B. Status of fat
C. taste
D. Status of the bone marrow
E. color
F. palatability
G. Form
H. acidity
1821. Enter the types of worms transmitted by eating meat:
A. teniasis
B. opistorhoz
C. intestinal worm
D. fastsiollez
E. Echinococcus
F. trihenillez
G. ascariasis
H. liver worm
1822. Enter the printing form on the meat:
A. highest grade round seal
B. triangular
C. svinoebezlineynaya
D. Principal sortlineynaya
E. rhomboid pork
F. 1sort rectangular
G. 1sort-long line
H. 2sortvolnistaya
1823. What indicators should have the water used for the preparation of beverages:
A. delicious
B. Mixed
C. Transparency
D. tasteless
E. odorless
F. colorless
G. cloudy
H. wraparound
1824. Fat-soluble vitamins:
A. PP
B. B6
C. A
D. D
E. E
F. K
G. B1
H. C
1825. Water-soluble vitamins:
A. E
B. K
C. B1
D. B6
E. C
F. PP
G. A
H. D
1826. The shelf life of perishable products in the EPP in retail chains:
A. Meat farshpri temperature of 240 C. 48 hours
B. chilled offal or tripe at 8100 C 12:00
C. lumpy semi-finished meat at a temperature no higher than 480 C 48 hours
D. small-sized semi-finished meat at a temperature no higher than 480 C for 24 hours
E. minced meat at a temperature below 00 C 48 hours
F. chilled offal and offal at a temperature of 480 C 12 hours
G. lumpy semi-finished meat at 10120 C for 72 hours
H. small-sized semi-finished meat at a temperature of 24 C 10120
1827. When cooking food processing and food you need the following:
A. partial preservation of the quality of food
B. partial neutralization
C. maximum preservation of the quality of the food
D. complete neutralization
E. low pollution
F. complete neutralization of small pollution
G. frequent pollution
H. the loss of vitamins in diet
1828. Specify the causes of mixtures in food processing:
A. Handling of food with toxic chemicals
B. temperature food processing
C. Ultrasonication
D. food processing antibiotics
E. food processing enzyme substances
F. Processing of food with ionizing radiation
G. freeze drying
H. enriching foods by hydrolysis
1829. The main groups of xenobiotics, blocking vitamin C:
A. xenobiotic antibiotic
B. hydrocarbons
C. xenobiotic heavy metals
D. xenobiotic -nikotin
E. xenobiotic aspirin
F. ksenobiotikkontratseptivy
G. salt
H. choline
I. sulfates
1830. The amount of carbohydrates in the balanced diet:
A. 1% fiber
B. 50% starch
C. Relevant 25% of sugar
D. Relevant 75% starch
E. corresponding to 2% of fiber
F. corresponding to 3% pectin
G. 29% sugar
H. 20% pectin
1831. Products issued when diet number 2:
A. Canned
B. animal fat
C. Meat
D. Fish
E. milk
F. vegetable oil
G. sausages
H. offal
1832. Substances limited in the diet 1A:
A. seasonings
B. Fats
C. salt
D. carbohydrates
E. influence of chemical substances
F. substances mechanical influence
G. proteins
H. roasts
I. pasta
1833. Describe the main requirements for the planned sanitary and biological follow:
A. permanent control is optional
B. Survey carried out only in emergencies
C. constant monitoring
D. Definition using epidemiological survey hazards
E. Announcement of the results of the administration of the enterprise survey
F. Results of the survey should be the basis for preventive measures
G. results are stored in the secret
H. takes precautionary measures
1834. The information required for taking smears with accessories:
A. supplies must be sterile
B. swabs should be taken from the doctor
C. Technical and technological state of the accessories
D. name and a list of complex accessories
E. which process is carried out on the accessories to swab
F. Technical and technological state of the accessories, the name and a list of complex
supplies, a process carried out on the accessories to swab
G. swabs are sent to the laboratory
H. accounted weather
1835. The information needed to take samples from products for bacteriological
examination:
A. name of the person who took the sample
B. name of the person who took the sample
C. name and a list of items
D. sampling sites
E. sampling time
F. cooking time and time sampling
G. Information on place of work
H. Appointments
1836. The main group of products from which to sampling for sanitary-bacteriological
examination:
A. utensils in which food is prepared
B. dishes, which are stored ready meals and food products
C. milk, sour cream and ice cream
D. meat and fish products
E. finished food and products; milk, cream and ice cream; meat and fish products
F. utensils for carrying food
G. utensils in which food is prepared; utensils in which food is stored; utensils for
carrying food
1837. The necessary steps to determine the location and source of bacterial
contamination during its utensils washing:
A. utensils in which food is prepared
B. dishes that stores food
C. After washing tub for washing dishes with water samples taken 2 times
D. to the washing tub for washing dishes with water samples taken 2 times
E. After the liberation from the water bath, the samples are taken from every angle
F. smears sschёtka and vetoschi intended for washing dishes
G. utensils for carrying food
H. utensils in which food is prepared; utensils in which food is stored; utensils for
carrying food
1838. Enter the bacteriological indicators that need to be identified in cooked meat:
A. HIV infection
B. influenza virus
C. protea
D. enterobacteria
E. E.Coli
F. total bacterial count
G. rabies virus
H. the total number of viral
1839. Bacterial diseases resulting from the consumption of food products:
A. Infection
B. food toxicosis
C. HIV infection
D. flu virus
E. poisoning
F. infection; Food toxicosis; poisoning
G. rabies virus
H. the total number of viral
1840. Products that are necessary for the planned sanitary and bacteriological survey:
A. Milk
B. meat products
C. sour cream
D. sprat
E. ready fish products
F. ice cream
G. spirits
H. wine
1841. Reasons for sanitary-bacteriological examination of foods:
A. These products are considered necessary food for bacteria
B. natural saprophytes contained in the product can lead to the risk of biochemical
changes
C. fines
D. Definition of unfavorable food for bacteria
E. because of the danger of contact with pathogenic bacteria products
F. these products are considered essential food for bacteria; natural saprophytes
contained in the product can lead to the risk of biochemical changes; because of the
danger of falling into the products of pathogenic bacteria
G. Identification of conditions for the preservation of bacteria
H. Identification of bacterial species
1842. During the sanitarnobakteriologicheskogo supervision strokes with the hands
are taken from the following employees:
A. watchman
B. Accounting
C. kitchen staff
D. pastry shop workers
E. waiters
F. sellers
G. worker
H. Head of the enterprise
1843. What is the purpose of studying the ecological state of the production of food
by a doctor of food hygiene:
A. Enhancing the quality of food products
B. Control of objects supply
C. Election of the land
D. deodorization
E. Recycling
F. Enhancing food consumption per capita
G. ensure control over food safety
H. providing epidemiological control of food safety
I. decline in food prices
J. construction supervision
1844. What the company is forbidden to build in residential buildings:
A. pub
B. production of drugs
C. Shoe Repair
D. pastry shop
E. processing and sale of fish products
F. dairy products
G. dining
H. Bath
I. pharmacy
J. hairdresser
1845. Specify requirements for biological quality of food:
A. Indicators Data vitamins
B. Indicators of these minerals
C. Indicators of nitrogenous residues
D. Indicators of fatty acids
E. Energy value
F. Number of nutrients
G. biological action of the active force
H. chemical value
I. temperature
J. product moisture
1846. Public documents reflecting hygienic and epidemiological indicators of the
quality of food:
A. Constitution Uz.res
B. K.M.K
C. SH.M.K
D. Labour Code
E. Standard
F. T.SH
G. sanitary standards
H. sanitary rules
I. Product Certification
J. Human Rights Act
1847. Enter the substances that provide the body as a result of metabolism:
A. Energy
B. Fats
C. Carbones
D. enzymes
E. Water
F. minerals
G. organic matter
H. Vitamins
I. proteins
J. acid
1848. Enter the founders of alimentary energometricheskogo method for determining
the energy consumption:
A. Berthollet-Rubner
B. Danilevsky
C. Turgenev
D. Ahrorov
E. Shaternikov
F. Basil
G. Benedict
H. Voith-Liebig
St. Andrew I.
J. Zhukovsky
1849. Enter the essential fatty acids:
A. nitric acid
B. sulfuric acid
C. boric acid
D. linoleic acid
E. arachidonic acid
F. oleic acid
G. caproic acid
H. palmitic acid
I. nitrous acid
J. sulfurous acid
1850. Enter the physiological role of cholesterol in the body:
A. Participating in the formation of iodine
B. participate in the growth of an organism
C. regulate wound healing
D. fabric retains moisture
E. participates in the formation of bile
F. regulates the production of men's Gomonov
G. regulates the activity of the pancreas
H. forms plaque
I. regulates sexual activity
J. reduces muscle
1851. Enter the nitrogenous extractives in the composition of meat:
A. carnosine
B. Creatine
C. nitrates
D. sulfide
E. salt
F. hypoxanthine
G. ansorin
H. carnosine, creatine
I. volatile fatty acids
J. hydrochloric acid
1852. Enter the hygienic indices of sausage products:
A. dry product
B. oxygen saturation
C. Sodium
D. humidity
E. nitrates
F. sulfide
G. salt
H. volatile fatty acid
I. free hydrogen
J. chlorine
1853. Sanitary inspection in the area of SE provides control over:
A. Fisheries
B. in commerce and catering
C. food industry
D. Light industry
E. quality of food in the food industry
F. Meat Industry
G. dairy industry
Factory H.
I. Plant
J. trade company
1854. Articles of the Constitution of the Republic of Uzbekistan regulating the
activities of a doctor GP:
A. 37
B. 42
C. 66
D. 38
E. 39
F. 40
G. 65
H. 41
I. 30
J. 35
1855. Enter the annual sections of the plan:
A. material on the nutritional status of the population
B. Material of the san state catering
C. materials about the state of San dekhkan markets
D. supplies of food as sold
E. Major department objectives SE
F. Arrangements
G. PSN and TSN
H. laboratory control
I. san clearance work, the scientific and practical work
J. materials on morbidity
1856. Sanitary study includes:
Qualitative determination of vitamin A.
B. Organization of seminars
C. prophylactic medical examination
D. San epidemiological investigation of food poisoning
E. definition of pesticides
F. Study
G. Definition calorie ready meals
H. san. training workers in the food industry
I. edition of leaflets, flyers
1857. The project consists of:
A. drawings san technology, ventilation, plumbing, heating, lighting
B. drawing san.oborudovaniya
C. annual plan
Quarterly Plan D.
Letter E.
F. explanatory note
G. situational plan
H. master plan
I. drawing stroit.razdela, plans and sections of premises
J. Windrose
1858. What types of refrigerators are permitted for catering:
A. shirokokamernye
B. all of the
C. 4-chamber
D. 2-chamber
E. freon
F. ammonia
G. neonyvye
H. fanerovye
1859. Temperature range for the refrigeration chamber for storage prohladitel¬nyh
drinks:
A. 40 degrees
B. 80gradus
C. 120gradusov
D. 6 degrees
To E. 6 degrees
2 degrees F.
G. 10 degrees
H. 18 degrees
I. 300gradus
J. 340gradus
1860. What should be the size canopy ventilation, boiler catering:
A. equal to 500 cm on all sides plates
B. different size plates
C. perform at 120 cm in all directions
D. performing at 50 cm plates in all directions
E. to speak at 100 cm in all directions plate
F. Equal to 100 cm in all directions plate
G. equal to the area of the plates
H. speak at 30 cm in all directions
I. act of 50 cm of the plate
J. speak at 400 cm on all sides plates
1861. The administrative-household premises otme¬chayut group:
A. clean ra¬bochih places, timely removal of empty packaging and storage ofpresence in the workplace outsiders (lich¬nogo use) items; rationality
raz¬mescheniya departments and goods; sro¬ki quality of products and their
implementation; protection products on the fly
B. Use bulleted cutting boards for cutting products, the availability of forks, knives,
shovels
C. Compliance with the sanitary regulations holiday products (special atten-manie
drawn to rule sales nezatarennyh to¬varov)
D. The product and the purpose of the premises, their razme¬ry and layout
E. sanitary condition
F. availability of premises and facilities for washing equipment and oborudova¬niya
bathtubs, eyeliner hot and cold water; drying conditions, security and cleaning
sredstva¬mi t. d.
G. Conditions sanitary storage and personal clothing
H. availability of sanitary node conditions for washing and disinfection of hands
I. having enough cleaning equipment, its labeling and uslo¬viya storage (closet,
drawer, cupboard)
J. in departments that sell perishable pro¬duktami (milk, sausage, culinary
izde¬liyami, meat, fish, semi-finished products) - the presence of ho¬lodilnyh
cabinets and refrigerated counters, their mode tempe¬raturny
1862. What projects are to be agreed with the authorities san.nadzora:
A. peremetralny project
B. junk
C. Typical projects
D. Draft re-use
E. design solutions that do not have approved rules and regulations
F. Technical designs and drawings
G. Technical Projects
H. Pilot Project
I. sanarny project
J. universal project
1863. At what stage is the implementation pred.san.nadzora necessarily considered
situational plan:
A. When the coordination of the project
B. an experimental project
C. sanarny project
D. universal project
E. While monitoring the construction
F. The acceptance of the
G. In the reconstruction obekta
H. in coordination area
I. peremetralny project
J. junk
1864. Enter the terms of issue of the enterprises of high-quality products for sanitary
indicators:
A. Compliance flow processes in the enterprise
B. In the acceptance of the
C. In the reconstruction of the object
D. In the coordination area
E. having enough space set
F. sufficient size room
G. separate accommodation and household outbuildings
H. disposal of sewage
I. In the coordination of the project
J. For the monitoring of construction
1865. Sanitary inspection in the field of food hygiene includes:
A. control over the quality of food in the field of production
B. Monitoring in storage products on the bases, warehouses Refrigerator
C. Monitoring of infectious patients
D. Monitoring of air pollution
E. Monitoring of children's room
F. Monitoring in the food industry, meat and dairy industry
G. control in the trade network and public catering
H. sanitary supervision during transportation of foodstuffs
I. control of transport depots
J. monitoring of enterprises
1866. Indicate the levels of sanitary-epidemiological service:
A. District CSES
B. port CGSEN
C. Rural
D. Air
E. Res CGSEN
F. region CGSEN
G. mountains CGSEN
H. the farm
I. interstate
J. State
1867. In some articles of the Law of Uzbekistan reflects the activity of the doctor on
hygiene of food:
A. 64
B. 43
C. 32
D. 37
E. 38
F. 39
G. 40
H. 65
I. 50
J. 53
1868. List the main tasks of TSN for the public catering enterprises:
A. a model project
B. Individual project
C. Compliance sanitary and epidemiological rules and regulations when transporting
products
D. food processing (cold and heat)
E. Compliance threading food production and in time
F. deadlines sale of finished food
G. observance of temperature conditions in the processing and marketing of products
H. movement working
I. Orientation premises
J. Building density
1869. Nationwide regulations concerning food hygiene:
A. SanPiN0299-11
B. SanPiN0056-89
C. SanPiN9800-00
D. SanPiN7600-06
E. SanPiN 0070-94
F. SanPiN0066-96
G. SanPiN0254-08
H. SanPiN0257-08
I. SanPiN0076-09
J. SanPiN0063-04
1870. In considering the draft should check the availability of documents:
A. Authorized to supply hot water, gas, electricity
B. construction schedule
C. Resolution department of municipal services
D. General Plan
E. situational plan
F. act
G. letter of application to the project
H. Draft
I. Decision of the Executive Committee on the allocation of land plots with positive
final data
J. drawing
1871. What minerals are included in the physiological nutritional standards:
A. Zinc
B. oxygen
C. honey
D. Calcium
E. phosphorus
F. magnesium
G. Potassium
H. iodine
I. ozone
1872. What are the dishes that are forbidden to leave the next day:
A. Gingerbread
B. Fruit
C. salty
D. salads
E. vinaigrettes
F. pate
G. boiled meat dishes à la carte for the first
H. empanadas and cheese
I. cookies
1873. What should pay attention on the trading floor:
A. In the presence of a number of buildings
B. environmental health building
C. daily profit
D. size of floor space
E. sanitary condition (serviceability lining, plastering, painting, whitewashing the
walls, ceilings, panels, material and condition of the floors, repair of windows and
doors)
F. sanitary condition (timeliness and frequency of cleaning and the current total sales
area, cleanliness of equipment, inventory, etc.)
G. lighting (enough regularity)
H. heating-repair heaters, steam lines, control valves
I. At the wall color
J. attendance of people
1874. As noted in the administrative-household premises Group:
A. unit and the appointment of the premises, their size and layout
B. Measures to combat musty walls
C. timely treatment of cooling batteries from condensation.
D. the presence of quarantine chamber.
E. sanitary condition, availability of space and facilities for washing equipment and
supplies bath, eyeliner hot and cold water; drying conditions, the availability of
detergents, and so on. d.
F. Conditions of storage health and personal clothing availability of sanitary node
conditions for washing and disinfection of hands
G. having enough cleaning equipment, its labeling and storage conditions (closet,
drawer, wardrobe)
H. sanitary condition of the cameras
I. How often painted surface
J. How often painted furniture
1875. Which products are divided Sweets Products:
A. Candy
B. Cookies
C. Wafer
D. gingerbread
E. Chocolate
F. halva
G. marmalade
H. candy
I. cake
1876. What are the main requirements for the preparation and processing of raw
materials used in the confectionery industry:
A. Relevant materials applicable state standards and specifications
B. The current level of mechanization and automation
C. strict observance of temperature regulation during heat treatment and
pasteurization
D. Compliance temperature storage conditions and terms of sale of finished products.
E. presence of quality certificates or certificates for raw materials and
vspomogatelnyematerialy
F. presence of certificates on the colors, flavors and acids
G. absence of heavy metals in food and organic acids
H. compliance with the rules sifting flour and passing it through magnitouloviteli
I. threading strict compliance at all stages of production
J. strict compliance regime san
1877. As part of the carbonated soft drinks:
A. Water
B. Iodine
C. Selenium
D. Zinc
E. Fruit fruit drinks
F. extracts
G. juice
H. essences and organic acids
I. iron
J. bromine
1878. For soft drinks include:
A. syrups
B. cola drinks
C. tea
D. Coffee
E. milk
F. compotes
G. carbonated soft drinks
H. mineral water
I. juices
J. Vodka
1879. The administrative-household premises otme¬chayut group:
A. Conditions sanitary storage and personal clothing
B. availability of sanitary node conditions for washing and disinfecting hands, a
sufficient number of cleaning tools, its labeling and uslo¬viya storage (closet, drawer,
wardrobe)
C. having enough space for differentiation-balanced, storage of various goods
depending on the profile and power of the shop
D. their area
E. sanitary condition
F. presence of pallets
G. The unit and the appointment of facilities, their razme¬ry and layout
H. sanitary condition
I. existence of the premises and conditions for washing oborudova¬niya and
equipment: bath, eyeliner hot and cold water; drying conditions, security and cleaning
sredstva¬mi t. d
J. to be a warehouse
1880. As noted in the group of warehouse space:
A. Achieving refrigerated storage space us¬tanovkami (their types, quantity)
B. Conditions and mode of storage of goods (temperature, humidity, lighting
C. yavlyaet¬sya whether specialized shop
D. mixed or combined (Food and manufactured goods)
E. Location
F. Does the store is located in a separate building or on the ground floor of a
residential building or a public
G. having enough space for differentiation-balanced, storage of various goods
depending on the profile and power of the store
H. their area and sanitary condition
I. the presence of rational ways of following products from the store rooms for the
storage of goods to the relevant departments in the sales area
J. warehouse must be located at a distance of 300 m
1881. What is included in the section of administrative coercion, which details:
A. the number of objects, suspension of operation of which
B. Number of persons removed from office upon the proposal san.vracha
C. Organizational activities
D. precautionary sanitary supervision
E. current sanitary supervision
F. Major tasks of the Department gig.pitaniya
G. number of fines in the reporting year in comparison with the previous year
H. number and% did not impose a penalty, the reasons for not collecting fines
annulled by the court, and the reasons for the adoption of measures sled.organami
I. Materials transferred sanit.sluzhboy in the People's Control Committee
J. Annual Report
1882. List what documents are necessary when considering the project:
A. Letter of application for a project distance
B. Explanatory Note
C. drawing construction
D. vnekalendarny plan
E. Draft
F. Decisions of the Executive Committee of challenge zem area with the situation
concluded. Data
G. Resolution department of municipal households. Gorsvet the possibility of
connecting to the city water supply and sewerage
H. permit gor.voda supply, gas, elec-s and the construction schedule
I. situational plan
J. master plan
1883. What documentation is necessary to check when considering the project:
A. letter of application to the project
B. General Plan - plot in scale 1: 500 and 1: 1000 with the image of the projected
tasks of transport routes, with the image of the projected tasks of transport routes,
with the designation of "wind rose", orientation to the cardinal
C. Construction drawings section, plans and sections of premises
D. drawings san. technology, water supply, sewerage, ventilation, heating, lighting
E. Draft
F. Decisions of the Executive Committee on the allocation of land plots with positive
final data
G. Resolution department of municipal services of the City Council about the
possibility of connecting to the city water supply and sewerage
H. permission for supply of hot water, gas, electricity
I. schedule construction. Explanatory Note that includes a description of the site,
architectural and construction details, the technological part. Plumbing information on
water supply, sewerage, heating, ventilation, lighting, electrical
J. contingency plan - the plan area with drawing objects surrounding land
1884. What the components of the project:
A. the construction schedule. Explanatory Note that includes a description of the site,
architectural and construction details, the technological part. Plumbing information on
water supply, sewerage, heating, ventilation, lighting, electrical equipment
B. Decision of the Executive Committee on the allocation of land plots with positive
final data
C. Resolution department of municipal services of the City Council about the
possibility of connecting to the city water supply and sewerage
D. permission for supply of hot water, gas, electricity
E. situation plan - plan area with drawing the objects surrounding the site
F. master plan - a site on a scale of 1: 500 and 1: 1000 with the image of the projected
tasks of transport routes, with the image of the projected tasks of transport routes,
with the designation of "wind rose", orientation to the cardinal
G. Construction drawings section, plans and sections of premises
H. drawings san. technology, water supply, sewerage, ventilation, heating, electric
I. Letter of application for a review of the draft
J. Draft
1885. What elements should pay attention to sanitary doctor when considering the
land:
A. quantities SPZ
B. the presence of water sources in the next distance
C. epidemiological status
D. epizootic state
E. level of standing groundwater
F. terrain
G. compass rose
H. data on the site over the past 20-years
I. Sources of water supply
J. data on the site over the past reached the 10 years
K. sources of gas supply
1886. Enter the part reflecting the graphical part of the project:
A. situational plan - (plan area with an arrangement of the food facility)
B. Relevant area regulations
C. correct vertical arrangement of storage spaces, industrial and domestic
D. general plan - (a site plan of the enterprise with an arrangement of buildings and
structures)
E. plans and sections of premises
F. Draft schemes and plumbing (water supply, drainage, ventilation, lighting)
G. Draft and circuit manufacturing processes
H. threading production process
I. Motion working
J. Orientation premises
1887 Name of group of premises that should have every food company according to
the general scheme of the production process:
A. warehouse group with the boot for receiving products
B. laundry
C. warehouse for storage of obsolete products
D. shower
E. Production Group
F. pressure washer to be placed, depending on the undertakings in the warehouse and
industrial groups
G. expedition or a trade group for the implementation of products
H. Administration - consumer group
I. parking
J. Closet
1888. What is the purpose of studying the ecological state of the production of food
by a doctor of food hygiene:
A. Enhancing the quality of food products
B. Control of objects of building materials
C. Reducing the use of products per capita
D. no control over the provision San epidemiological food safety
E. Monitoring of the power supply facilities
F. Enhancing the use of products per capita
G. control software San epidemiological food safety
H. food safety
I. decline in food prices
J. does not improve the quality of food products
1889. What are the materials that are provided for sanitary examination of projects:
A. Letter - Application to the project
B. Draft surrounding objects
C. Letter - Application to the plan
D. vnekalendarny construction plan
E. Draft, subject to review
F. Decision khokimiyat the withdrawal of land for construction
G. Resolution department of municipal services of the City Council of People's
Deputies of the possibility of connecting to the municipal water and sanitation
H. Resolution of business organizations in the supply of hot water, gas, electricity and
construction schedule
I. Decision mahalla on the challenge of land for construction
J. Resolution neighboring company
1890. List the main objectives of the current FDA for the public catering enterprises:
A. Compliance sanitary - hygienic and anti-epidemic rules and regulations when
transporting products
B. failure to comply with the temperature conditions in the processing and marketing
of products
C. Compliance threading products vneproizvodstva
D. processing the waste of food
E. food processing (cold and heat)
F. compliance threading products in production and time
G. implementation deadlines ready meals
H. observance of temperature conditions in the processing and marketing of products
I. compliance with the timing of unprepared food
J. observance of temperature conditions in the processing of only
1891. Enter the data reflected in the master plan:
A. building density
B. Choose the correct location Storeroom
C. Presence of a warehouse
D. Status shower
E. degree landscaping
F. correct location and the presence of footpaths
G. interposition of buildings and structures
H. correct location and the availability of access roads
I. size of the room
J. the number of rooms
1858. Indicate the products which are prohibited to sell on the market:
A. confectionery and culinary products, meat and fish products, meat and fish byproducts, canned foods and beverages homemade
B. loose tea, fortified wines and other alcoholic drinks prepared by ferrying of fruit
and berry raw materials prepared in factories
C. drugs made at factories
D. foods subjected vetsanekspertize in the prescribed manner
E. loose tea, fortified wines and other alcoholic drinks prepared by ferrying of fruit
and berry raw materials in the home
F. lamellar mushrooms in dried, salted and pickled mushrooms homemade
G. herbs individuals
H. realization of food products subjected vetsanekspertize in the prescribed manner
I. confectionery and culinary products, meat and fish products, meat and fish byproducts, canned foods and beverages prepared in factories
J. plate mushrooms in dried, salted and pickled mushrooms cooked in factories
1859. Enter the hygiene requirements to water and sewage network:
A. systems for hot and cold water and sewerage markets must meet the requirements
of the current SHNK 2.08.02-09
B. market should not be equipped with the system of economic and drinking hot
water, separate systems of household and industrial sewage with independent releases.
C. Water used for processing, household, drinking water supply must meet the
requirements of the current O`zDSt 951 -2011 "drinking water"
D. For watering areas and the outside can not be used in the washing of motor
vehicles industrial water
E. Do not allowed to build new markets without the device internal plumbing and
sewage
F. market should be equipped with the system of economic and drinking hot water,
separate systems of household and industrial sewage with separate collection
G. water used for processing, household, drinking water supply must meet the
requirements of the current O`zDSt 950 -2011 "drinking water"
H. For watering areas and the outside of washing vehicles can be used process water
I. Systems for the hot and cold water and sewerage markets must meet the
requirements of the current SHNK 5.08.02-66
J. allowed the construction of new markets without the device internal plumbing and
sewage systems
1860. In the trade area of the market are assigned the following areas:
A. For building material trade with motor vehicles
B. For repair cars and consumer services
C. For the trade of animals and birds
D. trade in agricultural products in the covered pavilions, kiosks,
kiosks
E. For trade in agricultural products on markets open or under a canopy
F. For trade in agricultural products with the car
G. For catering and domestic services
H. For trade in food and non-food
goods
I. For the agricultural machinery trade in the covered pavilions, kiosks,
kiosks
J. trade agricultural machines at the sites of open or under shelter
1861. Enter the hygienic requirements for the garbage site on the market:
A. For garbage collection should not be planted containers, waste bins with lids
B. playground should not be fenced asphalt or concrete fence
C. area of which shall be not less than 0.5 m from the base of each dust-collecting
D. dust-collecting area must be located at least 25 meters from the shopping area
E. For the definition of the number of containers up to 10m3 must proceed at the rate
of at least 1 container of 200 m2 Market
F. For garbage collection must be set containers, waste bins with lids
G. site should be fenced asphalted or concreted fenced
H. area which should be at least 1 m from the base of each dust-collecting
I. dust-collecting area must be located at least 15 meters from the shopping area
J. For the determination of the number of containers up to 10m3 must proceed at the
rate of at least 1 container of 400 m2 Market
1862. Enter the task of science of food hygiene:
A. Examination of the actual urbanization
B. study of rational and balanced load on the body
C. Review of the chemical composition of air
D. study of the chemical composition of food
E. study of rational and balanced nutrition
F. study of actual nutrition of the population
G. hygienic examination of food
H. precautionary and current sanitary inspection in food hygiene
I. preventive and current sanitary supervision in the field of occupational health
J. hygienic examination lighting
1863. What are the intensive work:
A. Group 3-bad work of moderate severity
B. Group 4 heavy-poor work
C. 5 group- very heavy bad work
D. 1 group-mental labor.
E. Group 2-light physical labor
F. 3gruppa-physical work of average weight
G. Group 4-hard physical labor
H. 5-band very hard physical labor
I. 1 group is a good work
J. Group 2-poor work
1864. Key indicators of the sanitary integrity of sausages:
A. indexes the content of flour
B. Indicators of the content of the bones
C. Indicators of ammonia content
D. organoleptic
E. physico-chemical parameters
F. performance moisture content
G. indicators nitrite
H. indexes the content of salt and starch content indicators
I. technological indicators
J. biological indicators
1865. Enter the products included in fishery products:
A. ostrich eggs
B. shellfish
C. crab sticks
D. salted fish
E. Herring
F. canned fish
G. Fish cold and hot smoked
H. Caviar
I. squid
J. sausage
1866. Enter the organoleptic properties of fresh fish:
A. gills dull red
B. smell is not specific, with foreign odors.
C. eyes bulging, not transparent
D. surface of the fish net, covered with transparent slime
E. scales difficult to separate from the skin
F. gills bright red
G. peculiar smell, odor-free
H. eyes bulging, transparent
I. surface of the fish net, covered with muddy slime
J. scales easily detached from skin
1867. Enter the signs of fish spoilage:
A. gills bright red
B. peculiar smell, odor.
C. eyes bulging, transparent.
D. stench
E. mucus loses its transparency and becomes cloudy
F. gills become brown
G. scales easily detached from the skin
H. eyes fall
I. surface of the fish net, covered with transparent slime
J. scales difficult to separate from the skin
1868. Enter the kinds of salted fish:
A. Freezing
B. otmorazhivanie
C. dry distillation
D. dry salting
E. wet salting
F. warm salt
G. chilled salting
H. cold salty
I. salted water
J. salinity on special solution
1869. The structure of the fish-processing industry:
A. Washing
B. heat treatment shop
C. Camera otmorazhivanie
Fish cleaning shop D.
E. shop smoked
F. Shop cooking eggs
G. shop canning and cooking workshop
H. cooling chamber
I. Delivery fish shop
J. sorting fish shop
1870. Enter the kinds of vegetable fats:
A. slivkovoe
B. mustard
C. butter
D. beef tallow
E. mutton fat
F. Cotton
G. corn
H. soybean
I. lard
J. chicken fat
1871. Enter the basic organoleptic properties of the bread:
A. Status crumb
B. The smell and taste
C. acidity
D. alkalinity
E. humidity
F. Status of surface
G. coloring
H. form
I. dampness
J. dryness
1872. List the types of monitoring over the bakery:
A. Conditions of storage of grain
B. Compliance with sanitary regime at all stages of production %
C. for a number of raw materials
D. Technical Processes
E. Compliance temperature conditions of growth of wheat
F. the quality of raw materials
G. processes
H. observance temperature conditions bread
I. Conditions for sale of bread
J. observance of sanitary regime in the early stages of production
1873. List San epidemiological group. risk factors in food bakeries:
A. IV group- health improvement and maintenance of the enterprise
B. V group - personal hygiene and health literacy personnel
C. 2gruppa - transportation
D. 1 group - the preparation and processing of raw materials
E. Group 5 - workflow, storage and sale
F. 1 group - transportation
G. II group - the preparation and processing of raw materials
H. III group - the manufacturing process, storage and sale
I. 3 group- health improvement and maintenance of the company
J. Group 4 - Personal hygiene and health literacy personnel
1874. Enter the kinds of canned food:
A. cereal
B. milk
C. Potato
D. chocolate
E. Oatmeal
F. meat
G. Fish
H. vegetables
I. flour
J. marmalade
1875. Enter the components of canned food are monitored:
A. spices
B. flour
C. Candy
D. pasta
E. Bunting
F. fats
G. sugar
H. salt
I. Water
J. alcohol
1876. What drinks are non-alcoholic:
A. syrups
B. extracts
C. vodka
D. Wine
E. cognac
F. carbonated soft drinks
G. mineral water
H. juice
I. beer
J. whiskey
1877. Enter the components, including the concept of a balanced diet:
A. Achieving a balance of internal homeostasis
B. Ensuring performance
C. energy balance
D. balance of nutrients
E. Compliance diet
F. Ensuring the physiological needs
G. energy needs
H. Access plastic function
I. variety of food
J. eating pattern and national habits
1878. Indicate the principles of a balanced diet:
A. variety of food
B. eating pattern and national habits
C. Securing the physiological needs
D. energy needs
E. Ensuring plastic function
F. balanced energy
G. balanced nutrients
H. adherence to diet
I. ensure a balance of internal homeostasis
J. ensure efficiency
1879. Indicate the period of the doctrine of food poisoning:
A. bacteriological
B. The current period
C. Ancient
D. the period until a revival
E. period of revival
F. emperichesky
G. between the chemical nature
H. ptomialny
I. period after revival
J. to the revolutionary period
1880. Enter the permanent features of food poisoning:
A. geographical limitations of the disease of mass consumption of food
B. occurrence only when consumed much food contamination by bacteria
C. gradual onset and short incubation period
D. Links disease with the consumption of various foods
E. Do not cessation of spread of the disease after removal of the affected food
F. short incubation period and the sudden onset
G. mass communication and disease with the consumption of certain foods
H. halting the spread of the disease after removal of the affected food
I. geographic prevalence
J. emergence only with the consumption of fresh food
1881. Enter the components, including the concept of a balanced diet:
A. Compliance diet
B. variety of food
C. eating pattern and national habits
D. Ensuring physiological needs
E. energy needs
F. Ensuring plastic function
G. ensure a balance of internal homeostasis
H. ensuring efficiency and energy balance
I. balanced nutrients
1882. The principles of balanced nutrition:
A. Compliance diet
B. variety of food
C. eating pattern and national habits
D. balance of energy
E. balanced nutrients
F. Compliance diet
G. variety of food
H. eating pattern and national habits
I. ensure balanced energy efficiency
J. balance of nutrients
1883. Enter the types of functions and power supply status of the guidelines:
A. Compliance diet
B. variety of food
C. eating pattern and national habits
D. External power supply
E. internal power supply
F. performance power functions
G. Identification of indicators of the adequacy supply
H. Identification of disease status
I. Security rabotosposobnostisbalansirovannost energy
J. balance of nutrients
1884. Types of meat products:
A. light
B. spleen
C. tail
D. sausages
E. canned
F. frozen semi
G. finished products
H. smeshannyeizdeliya (meat and vegetable products)
I. kidney
J. brains
1885. List produced sausages
A. The heart
B. Kidney
C. brains
D. cooked sausage (dietary, home)
E. sausages
F. sausages
G. Meat loaves
H. boiled, smoked sausage
I. liver
J. Language
1886. Enter the basic organoleptic properties of the bread:
A. humidity
B. the amount of nitrites
C. The amount of sodium
D. Status of surface
E. coloring
F. form
G. State crumb
H. smell
I. Acid
J. gluten
1887. Enter the products included in fishery products:
A. Frozen Intermediates
B. Finished Products
C. smeshannyeizdeliya (meat and vegetable products)
D. salted fish
E. Herring
F. canned fish
G. Fish cold and hot smoked
H. Caviar
I. sausages
J. canned
1888. Enter the organoleptic properties of fresh fish:
A. gills become brown
B. scales easily detached from skin
C. eyes fall
D. surface of the fish net, covered with transparent slime
E. scales difficult to separate from the skin
F. gills bright red
G. peculiar smell, odor-free
H. eyes bulging, transparent
I. stench
J. mucus loses its transparency and becomes cloudy
1889. Enter the signs of fish spoilage:
A. gills bright red
B. peculiar smell, odor.
C. eyes bulging, transparent
D. stench
E. mucus loses its transparency and becomes cloudy
F. gills become brown
G. scales easily detached from the skin
H. eyes fall
I. surface of the fish net, covered with transparent slime
J. scales difficult to separate from the skin
1890. Enter the kinds of salted fish:
A. canned
B. fish cold and hot smoked
C. Eggs
D. dry salting
E. wet salting
F. warm salt
G. chilled salting
H. cold salty
I. nitritovaya fish
J. Herring
1891. Organoleptic butter:
A. salt content not exceeding 1.2%
B. acid number of dairy cream and not more than 1.5 and less than 1.8 dairy%
C. melting point 28 - 36 ° C
D. appearance
E. color
F. consistency
G. smell
H. taste
I. fat content in milk and cream margarine at least 82% of dairy-free
82.5%
J. moisture content less than 16%
1892. Enter the kinds of vegetable fats:
A. mutton fat
B. pork fat (lard)
C. fat knight
D. Cotton
E. Corn
F. soybean
G. Olive
H. mustard
I. butter
J. beef tallow
1893. Depending on the mode of processing, packaging and bottling of milk on which
the milk is divided species:
A. nutritious
B. Fresh
C. the presence of dyes
D. Whole
E. skim
F. raw
G. pasteurized
H. bottles or flyazhnoe
I. Light
J. delicious
1894. Call organoleptic quality of milk:
A. density
B. Acidity
C. purity
D. smell
E. appearance
F. consistency
G. types
H. color
I. Weight
J. internal structure
1895. What are the results of evaluation of the quality of the milk sample of nitrite:
A. fat
B. Do not fat
C. Pickles
D. very poor
E. bad
F. satisfactory
G. good
H. is very good
I. delicious
J. is not tasty
1896. During the examination of butter is necessary to consider the following
physicochemical parameters:
A. Number of saponification 0.5
B. moisture content of not more than 50%
C. fat
D. moisture content not exceeding 16%
E. fat
F. salt content of not more than 2%
G. acidity
H. iodine value of 22-48
I. Transparency
J. taste
1897. List the components of an act of sanitary survey of the dining room:
A. Availability of hot water
B. technological process
C. personal hygiene
D. part of the passport
E. recital
F. Concluding part
G. Recommendations
H. list San gig and control measures
I. sanitary condition
J. characteristic dishes
1898. In some cases, workers are excluded from the work of food businesses:
A. When non-infringement of cooking technology
B. In the absence of cuts on the exposed parts of the body
C. In the absence of pustular disease
D. In their non-compliance with sanitary and hygienic regime at the enterprise
E. While identifying them bacteriocarrier
F. The violation of preparation technology products
G. In the presence of cuts on the exposed parts of the body
H. in the presence of pustular diseases
I. In observance of sanitary-hygienic regime at the enterprise
J. undetected when they bacteriocarrier
1899. Enter the products included in fishery products:
A. ostrich eggs
B. shellfish
C. crab sticks
D. salted fish
E. Herring
F. canned fish
G. Fish cold and hot smoked
H. Caviar
I. squid
J. sausage
1900. Enter the organoleptic properties of fresh fish:
A. gills dull red
B. smell is not specific, with foreign odors.
C. eyes bulging, not transparent
D. surface of the fish net, covered with transparent slime
E. scales difficult to separate from the skin
F. gills bright red
G. peculiar smell, odor-free
H. eyes bulging, transparent
I. surface of the fish net, covered with muddy slime
J. scales easily detached from skin
1901. Enter the signs of fish spoilage:
A. gills bright red
B. peculiar smell, odor.
C. eyes bulging, transparent.
D. stench
E. mucus loses its transparency and becomes cloudy
F. gills become brown
G. scales easily detached from the skin
H. eyes fall
I. surface of the fish net, covered with transparent slime
J. scales difficult to separate from the skin
1902. Enter the kinds of salted fish:
A. Freezing
B. otmorazhivanie
C. dry distillation
D. dry salting
E. wet salting
F. warm salt
G. chilled salting
H. cold salty
I. salted water
J. salinity on special solution
1903. The structure of the fish-processing industry:
A. Washing
B. heat treatment shop
C. Camera otmorazhivanie
Fish cleaning shop D.
E. shop smoked
F. Shop cooking eggs
G. shop canning and cooking workshop
H. cooling chamber
I. Delivery fish shop
J. sorting fish shop
1904. Enter the kinds of vegetable fats:
A. slivkovoe
B. mustard
C. butter
D. beef tallow
E. mutton fat
F. Cotton
G. corn
H. soybean
I. lard
J. chicken fat
1905. Enter the basic organoleptic properties of the bread:
A. Status crumb
B. The smell and taste
C. acidity
D. alkalinity
E. humidity
F. Status of surface
G. coloring
H. form
I. dampness
J. dryness
1906. List the types of monitoring over the bakery:
A. Conditions of storage of grain
B. Compliance with sanitary regime at all stages of production %
C. for a number of raw materials
D. Technical Processes
E. Compliance temperature conditions of growth of wheat
F. the quality of raw materials
G. processes
H. observance temperature conditions bread
I. Conditions for sale of bread
J. observance of sanitary regime in the early stages of production
1907. List San epidemiological group. risk factors in food bakeries:
A. IV group- health improvement and maintenance of the enterprise
B. V group - personal hygiene and health literacy personnel
C. 2gruppa - transportation
D. 1 group - the preparation and processing of raw materials
E. Group 5 - workflow, storage and sale
F. 1 group - transportation
G. II group - the preparation and processing of raw materials
H. III group - the manufacturing process, storage and sale
I. 3 group- health improvement and maintenance of the company
J. Group 4 - Personal hygiene and health literacy personnel
1908. Enter the kinds of canned food:
A. cereal
B. milk
C. Potato
D. chocolate
E. Oatmeal
F. meat
G. Fish
H. vegetables
I. flour
J. marmalade
1909. Enter the components of canned food are monitored:
A. spices
B. flour
C. Candy
D. pasta
E. Bunting
F. fats
G. sugar
H. salt
I. Water
J. alcohol
1910. What drinks are non-alcoholic:
A. syrups
B. extracts
C. vodka
D. Wine
E. cognac
F. carbonated soft drinks
G. mineral water
H. juice
I. beer
J. whiskey
1911. Enter the components, including the concept of a balanced diet:
A. Achieving a balance of internal homeostasis
B. Ensuring performance
C. energy balance
D. balance of nutrients
E. Compliance diet
F. Ensuring the physiological needs
G. energy needs
H. Access plastic function
I. variety of food
J. eating pattern and national habits
1912. Indicate the principles of a balanced diet:
A. variety of food
B. eating pattern and national habits
C. Securing the physiological needs
D. energy needs
E. Ensuring plastic function
F. balanced energy
G. balanced nutrients
H. adherence to diet
I. ensure a balance of internal homeostasis
J. ensure efficiency
1913. Indicate the period of the doctrine of food poisoning:
A. bacteriological
B. The current period
C. Ancient
D. the period until a revival
E. period of revival
F. emperichesky
G. between the chemical nature
H. ptomialny
I. period after revival
J. to the revolutionary period
1914. Enter the permanent features of food poisoning:
A. geographical limitations of the disease of mass consumption of food
B. occurrence only when consumed much food contamination by bacteria
C. gradual onset and short incubation period
D. Links disease with the consumption of various foods
E. Do not cessation of spread of the disease after removal of the affected food
F. short incubation period and the sudden onset
G. mass communication and disease with the consumption of certain foods
H. halting the spread of the disease after removal of the affected food
I. geographic prevalence
J. emergence only with the consumption of fresh food
1915. Enter the components, including the concept of a balanced diet:
A. Compliance diet
B. variety of food
C. eating pattern and national habits
D. Ensuring physiological needs
E. energy needs
F. Ensuring plastic function
G. ensure a balance of internal homeostasis
H. ensuring efficiency and energy balance
I. balanced nutrients
1916. The principles of balanced nutrition:
A. Compliance diet
B. variety of food
C. eating pattern and national habits
D. balance of energy
E. balanced nutrients
F. Compliance diet
G. variety of food
H. eating pattern and national habits
I. ensure balanced energy efficiency
J. balance of nutrients
1917. Enter the types of functions and power supply status of the guidelines:
A. Compliance diet
B. variety of food
C. eating pattern and national habits
D. External power supply
E. internal power supply
F. performance power functions
G. Identification of indicators of the adequacy supply
H. Identification of disease status
I. Security rabotosposobnostisbalansirovannost energy
J. balance of nutrients
1918. Types of meat products:
A. light
B. spleen
C. tail
D. sausages
E. canned
F. frozen semi
G. finished products
H. smeshannyeizdeliya (meat and vegetable products)
I. kidney
J. brains
1919. List produced sausages
A. The heart
B. Kidney
C. brains
D. cooked sausage (dietary, home)
E. sausages
F. sausages
G. Meat loaves
H. boiled, smoked sausage
I. liver
J. Language
1920. Enter the basic organoleptic properties of the bread:
A. humidity
B. the amount of nitrites
C. The amount of sodium
D. Status of surface
E. coloring
F. form
G. State crumb
H. smell
I. Acid
J. gluten
1921. Enter the products included in fishery products:
A. Frozen Intermediates
B. Finished Products
C. smeshannyeizdeliya (meat and vegetable products)
D. salted fish
E. Herring
F. canned fish
G. Fish cold and hot smoked
H. Caviar
I. sausages
J. canned
1922. Enter the organoleptic properties of fresh fish:
A. gills become brown
B. scales easily detached from skin
C. eyes fall
D. surface of the fish net, covered with transparent slime
E. scales difficult to separate from the skin
F. gills bright red
G. peculiar smell, odor-free
H. eyes bulging, transparent
I. stench
J. mucus loses its transparency and becomes cloudy
1923. Enter the signs of fish spoilage:
A. gills bright red
B. peculiar smell, odor.
C. eyes bulging, transparent
D. stench
E. mucus loses its transparency and becomes cloudy
F. gills become brown
G. scales easily detached from the skin
H. eyes fall
I. surface of the fish net, covered with transparent slime
J. scales difficult to separate from the skin
1924. Enter the kinds of salted fish:
A. canned
B. fish cold and hot smoked
C. Eggs
D. dry salting
E. wet salting
F. warm salt
G. chilled salting
H. cold salty
I. nitritovaya fish
J. Herring
1925. Organoleptic butter:
A. salt content not exceeding 1.2%
B. acid number of dairy cream and not more than 1.5 and less than 1.8 dairy%
C. melting point 28 - 36 ° C
D. appearance
E. color
F. consistency
G. smell
H. taste
I. fat content in milk and cream margarine at least 82% of dairy-free
82.5%
J. moisture content less than 16%
1926. Enter the kinds of vegetable fats:
A. mutton fat
B. pork fat (lard)
C. fat knight
D. Cotton
E. Corn
F. soybean
G. Olive
H. mustard
I. butter
J. beef tallow
1927. Depending on the mode of processing, packaging and bottling of milk on which
the milk is divided species:
A. nutritious
B. Fresh
C. the presence of dyes
D. Whole
E. skim
F. raw
G. pasteurized
H. bottles or flyazhnoe
I. Light
J. delicious
1928. Call organoleptic quality of milk:
A. density
B. Acidity
C. purity
D. smell
E. appearance
F. consistency
G. types
H. color
I. Weight
J. internal structure
1929. What are the results of evaluation of the quality of the milk sample of nitrite:
A. fat
B. Do not fat
C. Pickles
D. very poor
E. bad
F. satisfactory
G. good
H. is very good
I. delicious
J. is not tasty
1930. During the examination of butter is necessary to consider the following
physicochemical parameters:
A. Number of saponification 0.5
B. moisture content of not more than 50%
C. fat
D. moisture content not exceeding 16%
E. fat
F. salt content of not more than 2%
G. acidity
H. iodine value of 22-48
I. Transparency
J. taste
1931. List the components of an act of sanitary survey of the dining room:
A. Availability of hot water
B. technological process
C. personal hygiene
D. part of the passport
E. recital
F. Concluding part
G. Recommendations
H. list San gig and control measures
I. sanitary condition
J. characteristic dishes
1932. In some cases, workers are excluded from the work of food businesses:
A. When non-infringement of cooking technology
B. In the absence of cuts on the exposed parts of the body
C. In the absence of pustular disease
D. In their non-compliance with sanitary and hygienic regime at the enterprise
E. While identifying them bacteriocarrier
F. The violation of preparation technology products
G. In the presence of cuts on the exposed parts of the body
H. in the presence of pustular diseases
I. In observance of sanitary-hygienic regime at the enterprise
J. undetected when they bacteriocarrier
1933. During the TSN in the field of food hygiene is controlled:
A. sanitary condition of the streets
B. food prices
C. menu layout
D. production of new types of utensils, containers and equipment edible
E. provision of land for construction of food businesses
F. matching devices and the content of the food enterprises current regulations
G. observance of sanitary and anti-epidemic rules and regulations for storage of food
H. production of new types of food
I. layout of surrounding buildings
1934. Warning sanitation controls:
A. Food prices
B. Menu layout
C. Compliance with sanitary and epidemiological rules and regulations for storage of
food
D. Modifications assortment of foods and products from them
E. commissioning newly built food businesses
F. production of new types of food
G. use of new pesticides
H. control of pesticide residues in foods
I. layout of surrounding buildings
J. sanitary condition of the streets
1935. Which products are prohibited to catering facilities:
A. canned
B. Fresh mushrooms
C. vegetables and fruits clean
D. Eggs
E. animal meat
F. dairy products
G. dirty vegetables and fruit
H. raw eggs from farms unfavorable for salmonellosis
I. butter
J. poultry
1936. What systems are sanitary and technical equipment in catering:
A. Equipment
B. refrigeration units
C. marmitnaya cooker
D. above press machine
E. Grinder
F. Bucket
G. sewage
H. equipment manufacturing equipment
I. Heating
J. cauldron
1937. Enter the mechanical equipment used in catering:
A. ovens
B. steam tables
C. sewerage
D. Equipment technological equipment
E. heating
F. Equipment
G. bread slicer
H. grinder
I. refrigerators
J. ventilation
1938. Within which group of premises shall not pass sewer pipes:
A. household premises
B. washing dinnerware
C. toilet
D. wash
E. shower
F. basement
G. Brewhouse
H. cooling chamber
I. warehouses
J. attic
1939. From what sources are taken to study the data information about the product:
A. Certificate of product quality
B. general inspection party
C. with the words of the carrier
D. data storage products
E. tasting products
F. for the price of the product
G. laboratory tests
H. from bills of lading
I. animal health certificate
J. on the amount of product
1940. How is the quality of the sausages on the organoleptic characteristics:
A. odor
B. taste
C. stiffness
D. acidity
E. humidity
F. Transparency
G. appearance
H. consistency
I. coloring form on the cut
J. alkalinity
1941. Enter the correct chemical composition of sausages:
A. Content of salt 1.5-8 g
B. 3-10mg nitrites%
C. 10-30% proteins
D. fats 20-70%
E. calorie 100 g sausage 1160-1520 kcal
F. Contents of 15-18 grams of salt
G. proteins 0-20%
H. fats 10-50%
I. calorie kolbasa160-520 kcal 100 g
J. nitrites 30-100mg%
1942. What are the catering room should be equipped with floor drain with a slope of
the floor to them:
A. Boot
B. camera storage of food waste
C. dining rooms
D. warehouses
E. manufacturing
F. dayroom
G. manufacturing plants
H. washing
I. defroster
J. locker
1943. Enter the hygienic requirements for the ventilation system of production
premises of catering:
A. vent holes are closed meshed polymer network
B. indoor decoration confectionery plenum ventilation system is equipped with dust delayed and antibacterial filter, providing backwater of clean air in the room
C. the appliance and equipment emissions of local exhaust ventilation systems should
influence the deterioration of living conditions and people staying in houses, rooms
and buildings for other purposes
D. equipment and washing baths, which are a source of increased discharges
moisture, heat, gases are equipped with common exhaust systems
E. utility rooms are not equipped with autonomous systems of ventilation, preferably
with a natural instinct
F. vent holes do not close meshed polymer network
G. The unit and equipment emissions of local exhaust ventilation systems should not
affect the deterioration of living conditions and people staying in houses, rooms and
buildings for other purposes
H. equipment and washing baths, which are a source of increased discharges
moisture, heat, gases are equipped with local exhaust systems
I. utility rooms are equipped with autonomous systems of ventilation, preferably with
a natural impulse
J. indoor decoration confectionery plenum ventilation system is not equipped with
dust - delayed and antibacterial filter, providing backwater of clean air in the room
1944. Specify not correct hygiene requirements for the ventilation system of
production premises of catering:
A. vent holes do not close meshed polymer network
B. indoor decoration confectionery plenum ventilation system is not equipped with
dust - delayed and antibacterial filter, providing backwater of clean air in the room.
C. the appliance and equipment emissions of local exhaust ventilation systems should
not affect the deterioration of living conditions and people staying in houses, rooms
and buildings for other purposes
D. equipment and washing baths, which are a source of increased discharges
moisture, heat, gases are equipped with local exhaust systems
E. utility rooms are equipped with autonomous systems of ventilation, preferably with
a natural instinct
F. vent holes are closed meshed polymer network
G. The unit and equipment emissions of local exhaust ventilation systems should
influence the deterioration of living conditions and people staying in houses, rooms
and buildings for other purposes
H. equipment and washing baths, which are a source of increased discharges
moisture, heat, gases are equipped with common exhaust systems
I. utility rooms are not equipped with autonomous systems of ventilation, preferably
with a natural impulse
1945. To protect workers from noise in the room where the equipment is located,
generating noise, what is being done to protect against its harmful effects:
A. permanent control of fastening the moving parts of machinery, check the status of
the depreciation of gaskets, grease, etc.
B. Timely preventive maintenance and repair of equipment
C. finishing facilities zvukonepogloschayuschimi materials
D. not to install electric shock with sound-absorbing hoods, the installation of
equipment on vibration-absorbing foundation
E. Do not timely troubleshooting, increasing the noise of the equipment
F. By monitoring time for fastening the moving parts of machinery, check the status
of the depreciation of gaskets, grease, etc.
G. finishing facilities sound-absorbing materials
H. installing motors on dampers with sound-absorbing hoods, the installation of
equipment on vibration-absorbing foundation
I. timely troubleshooting, increasing the noise of the equipment
J. is not timely preventive maintenance and repair of equipment
1946. Enter the hygienic requirements for the cleaning of public catering
establishments:
A. at least once a month is carried out general cleaning and disinfection
B. In the established procedure is carried out and disinfestation of premises
C. Current cleaning is carried out each hour
D. in manufacturing plants daily in a day wet cleaning with detergents and
disinfectants
E. After each visitor is not obligatory cleaning the dining table
F. at least once every 3 months carried out general cleaning and disinfection
G. actual cleaning is consistently, on time and as required
H. In manufacturing plants daily wet cleaning with detergents and disinfectants
I. After each visitor is required cleaning dining table
J. least once a month is carried out and disinfestation facilities
1947. What are the dishes must not be used in catering:
A. deformed cookware
B. cookware with damaged enamel
C. clean dishes
D. dishes with different colors
E. tableware made of plastic
F. dishes prepared from iron
G. dishes with cracks
H. bowl with chipped
I. dishes chipped
J. dishes without chips
1948. Enter the hygienic requirements for the storage of utensils:
A. storing the dishes on trays in bulk is not permitted
B. drawer for cutlery daily sanitized
C. clean kitchen utensils and equipment stored on shelves at a height of not less than
0.1 m from the floor
D. dirty tableware stored in closed cabinets or on lattices
E. clean utensils stored in a room in a special box-trays, handles down
F. storage dishes on trays in bulk is permitted
G. Net cookware and equipment stored on shelves at a height of not less than 0.5 m
from the floor
H. clean tableware stored in closed cabinets or on lattices
I. clean utensils stored in a room in a special box-trays, handles up
J. cassette cutlery weekly sanitized
1949. In order to prevent the occurrence and spread of infectious diseases and mass
non-infectious diseases or poisoning is forbidden to take the organization:
A. unskinned poultry (except game)
B. contaminated shell eggs, with a notch, "tech", "battle", as well as eggs from farms
unfavorable for salmonella, duck and goose eggs
C. Food raw materials and food products in the presence of the documents confirming
the quality and safety
D. meat and offal of all kinds of farm animals with the presence of the mark and
veterinary certificates
E. fish, crayfish, Poultry at the presence of veterinary certificate
F. poultry evisceration
G. food raw materials and food products without documents confirming their quality
and safety
H. meat and offal of all kinds of farm animals without the stigma and veterinary
certificates
I. fish, crayfish, Poultry without veterinary certificate
J. eggs without pollution
1950. In order to prevent the occurrence and spread of infectious diseases and mass
non-infectious diseases or poisoning is forbidden to take the organization:
A. cereals, flour, dried fruit and other products infested granary pests
B. cereals, flour, dried fruit and other products of fruits and vegetables with the
presence of mold and rot symptoms
C. edible mushrooms cultivated edible
D. foods with signs of purity
E. products manufacturing factory
F. vegetables and fruits with the presence of mold and rot symptoms
G. inedible mushrooms, edible uncultivated, wormy, wrinkled
H. foods expired and signs of poor quality
I. homemade products
1951. Which products are forbidden to leave the next day:
A. salads, vinaigrettes, spreads, jellies, aspic, cream products and others. Especially
perishables cold dishes
B. Eggs
C. Potatoes
D. green
E. cabbage
F. dairy soups, cold, sweet soups
G. portioned meat boiled for soups, pancakes with meat and cheese, chopped meat
products, poultry, fish
H. sauces
I. omelets
J. raw meat
1952. Processing jigs bags confectionery business is conducted in the following order:
A. drying in special ovens
B. sterilization bags (packed in Bix, pots with lids or wrapped in parchment,
parchment) in an autoclave or a hot air oven at 120 ° C for 20-30 minutes
C. soaking in cold water at a temperature of 15 ° C for 1 hour to complete laundering
cream
D. laundry detergent at a temperature of 10-15 ° C in a washing machine or by hand
E. soaking in hot water at a temperature of not lower than 65 ° C for 1 hour to
complete laundering cream
F. laundry detergent at a temperature of 40-45 ° C in a washing machine or manually
G. thorough rinsing with hot water at temperatures below 65 ° C
H. thorough rinsing with hot water at a temperature not lower than 85 ° C
I. Conventional drying cabinet
J. sterilization is not carried out
1953. Employees of the organization are required to observe the following rules of
personal hygiene:
A. work in a clean sanitary clothing, change it every month
B. In going to the toilet did not shoot sanitary clothes in a special place, after using
the toilet thoroughly wash their hands without soap
C. If signs of colds or intestinal dysfunction, and suppurations, cuts, burns, do not
inform the administration and seek a medical facility for treatment
D. to leave the outer clothing, footwear, headgear, personal belongings in the dressing
room
E. Before starting work wash hands thoroughly with soap and water, put on clean
sanitary clothes, pick up her hair under a cap or a scarf or wear a special hairnets
F. to work in a clean sanitary clothing, change it to the extent of pollution
G. In going to the toilet to remove sanitary clothes in a special place, after using the
toilet to wash hands thoroughly with soap and water
H. For signs of colds or intestinal dysfunction, and suppurations, cuts, burns inform
the administration and seek a medical facility for treatment
I. do not leave outdoor clothing, footwear, headgear, personal belongings in the
dressing room
J. before going to work to wash hands thoroughly with soap and water, put on clean
sanitary clothes, pick up her hair under a cap or a scarf or wear a special hairnets
1954. List hygiene rules used to process the confectionery industry:
A. strict observance of temperature regulation during heat treatment and
pasteurization
B. Compliance with the temperature storage conditions and timing of the finished
product
C. Special transportation with cooling or isothermal bodies
D. the presence of marking of the change, the date and hour of preparation and
implementation deadline
E. Persons accompanying confectionery
F. threading strict compliance at all stages of production
G. strict compliance regime san
H. current level of mechanization and automation of production
I. should have the rank of clothing, medical book and in a timely manner to pass
medical examination
1955. What group of sanitary and epidemiological risk factors in the confectionery
industry:
A. V Group, personal hygiene and health literacy staff.
B. W-band transport
C. III group, preparation and processing of raw materials
D. II-group process, storage and sales
E. V group-san landscaping businesses
F. I-group Transportation
G. II group, preparation and processing of raw materials
H. III-group process, storage and sales
I. IV group-san improvement of the enterprise
J. VII group, personal hygiene and dignity of literacy personnel.
1956. A study carried out some hygiene utensils to its implementation in practice:
A. embriotoksicskie
B. blastogennye
C. Bacteriological
D. virological
E. imunofermentny analysis
F. Biochemical
G. organoleptic
H. sanitary-chemical
I. toxicological
J. parasitological
1957. Enter the types of carbohydrates that perform specific functions in the body:
A. askorbinovayakislota
B. stearinalbumin
C. casein
D. geteropolisaharoza
E. lanolin
F. hyaluronic acid
G. oligosaharidyspetsificheskoy function
H. xylitol
I. Heparin-specific functions
1958. Enter the types of canned foods:
A. smoked
B. Combination
C. stuffed
D. Fruit
E. meat
F. vegetables
G. milk
H. Fish
I. meat and vegetables
J. dried
1959. List the factors that determine a person's need for nutrients:
A. The impact of food on the floor
B. Age
C. Impact of climate change on food
D. Nature of the diet
E. presence of the disease
F. nature of work-to foods
G. physiological condition
H. individual features
I. National
J. impact of the seasons on food
1960. Physiological and morphological changes that occur in the body during
prolonged fasting:
A. Raising energy needs
B. Violations of kidney function
C. Reducing energy costs
D. Violations of the gastrointestinal tract
E. dysfunction of hematopoiesis
F. decrease in physical activity
G. accumulation of toxic products in the blood, resulting tissue destruction
H. Raising costs and losses of the internal energy
I. Violations of liver function
J. reduction in energy needs
1961. Enter the products having in their composition a large amount of fiber in
descending order:
A. Wheat
B. klechatka rice
C. klechatkabobovyh
D. semolina
E. klechatka yasmiқa
F. klechatka wheat and corn
G. buckwheat
H. klechatka pearl barley
I. korakat
1962. List the stage of examination for suspected degradation product:
A. Survey of laboratory tests of samples
B. visual inspection on-site portion of the production, primary research and drafting of
a simple act of sensory research
C. introduction dokumenttsiey product
D. taking commission trial
E. Making the conclusion of the act on prduktsii
F. taking samples from products
G. parcel received samples to the laboratory
H. Evaluation of storage conditions
I. Sensory Evaluation of products on the site
1963. The main importance in the prevention of food poisoning are the following
factors:
A. deadlines using products
B. the degree of knowledge and care tasks of the population with food poisoning
C. the right to sell its products in the food poisoning
D. improper storage of the product
E. degree of quality
F. Health workers at the facilities of power
G. Assessment of the quality of products in the food poisoning
H. proper cooking of perishable goods
I. correct handling of the product for the prevention of food poisoning
J. availability of special accessories on power facilities
1964. Enter the vitamins in the composition of bread:
A. B-6
B. E
C. B-3
C. D.
E. B-9
F. To
G. B
H. B-2
I. PP
J. Do
1965. Enter the mineral elements in the composition of bread:
A. phosphorus
B. Sodium
C. bromine
D. Chrome
E. iodine
F. beryllium
G. Calcium
H. magnesium
I. Potassium
J. radium
1966. Enter the carbohydrates in the composition of bread:
A. Glucose
B. galactose
C. Cellulose
D. lactose
E. starch
F. sucrose
G. fructose
H. maltose
I. mannose
1967. List the types of materials to be delivered for examination in health care
facilities:
A. Authorized district department of municipal services of the possibility of
connecting to the city water supply and sewerage
B. authorization for the supply of hot water, gas, elektroenergieysootvetstvuyuschih
economic institutions
C. Treatment
D. mock draft
E. Order
F. permission to build
G. Draft for consideration
H. letter of application for a review of the project
I. Decrees khokimiyat allocation of land for construction
J. permit water
1968. What are the elements shown in the explanatory memorandum:
A. the number of rooms, and recommendations for their use
B. engineered processes and supplies
C. Technological Facilities
D. Working hours
E. health of workers
F. equipment rooms
G. improvement of land area
H. relief of the land
I. presence in the area of buildings and other constructions
J. site map
1969. What information meant in terms of rooms enterprises producing food:
A. Relevant land area of standards
B. correct vertical placement of industrial and household omescheny warehouse
C. Duration of the process
D. the number of employees
E. Indoor Lighting
F. width of the land area
G. continuous process in the manufacture
H. actions of employees
I. Orientation premises
J. Amount warehouses
1970. Enter the article of the Constitution, indicating the activity of sanitary doctor:
A. № 38
B. № 65
C. № 33
D. № 45
E. № 35
F. № 47
G. № 37
H. № 39
I. № 40
J. № 50
1971. Indicate the general state regulations:
A. building codes
B. orders of the Ministry of Health of Uzbekistan
C. Programme of Sanitation
D. gosudarstvennyestandarty
E. Technical conditions
F. indicators of construction
G. sanitary regulations and laws
H. hygienic standards
I. hygiene rules
J. orders and regulations
1972. List the sanitary regulations applicable to the process in the confectionery
industry:
A. Compliance with the regulation of the temperature of hot processing and
pasteurization
B. Compliance with the temperature and shelf life of products
C. cleanliness in the premises
D. Compliance sanitary regime in the bedrooms
E. answering the requirements of manual labor in the production process
F. Compliance with the rules of cold working
G. observance of strict sanitary regime
H. threading compliance at all stages of the production process
I. Relevant tebovaniyam modern mechanization and automation of the production
process
J. storage products in comfortable conditions
1973. List the sanitary and epidemiological risk factors in the confectionery industry:
A. landscaping and sanitary condition of the enterprise
B. personal hygiene and sanitation awareness of employees
C. At the reception
D. cleaning materials
E. heat treatment
F. purity enterprise
G. In the Transport
H. preparation and processing of raw materials
I. process, storage and sale
J. purity workers
1974. Enter the parameters studied when receiving milk:
A. density
B. acidity
C. biologicheskiepokazateli
D. Skim
E. alkalinity
F. viscosity
G. organoleptic
H. purity
I. fat
J. physical indicators
1975. Enter the parameters that are reflected in the thermal scene:
A. name of the product
B. the start and end of the pasteurization
C. age device
D. cipher pasteurizer
E. Production Amount
F. month
G. F.I.O.apparatchika
H. pasteurizer number
I. date
J. pasteurization temperature
1976. 5 types of diseases that prevent a job in dairy factory:
A. bacillicarriers
B. gelmintonositeli
C. CHD
D. Hypertension
E. zabolevaniyapochek
F. zabolevaniyapecheni
G. pustular diseases of the skin and body
H. angina
I. venereal diseases
J. eye diseases
1977. List the types of materials to be delivered for examination in health care
facilities:
A. Authorized district department of municipal services of the possibility of
connecting to the city water supply and sewerage
B. authorization for the supply of hot water, gas, elektroenergieysootvetstvuyuschih
economic institutions
C. Treatment
D. mock draft
E. Order
F. permission to build
G. Draft for consideration
H. letter of application for a review of the project
I. Decrees khokimiyat allocation of land for construction
J. permit water
1978. What are the elements shown in the explanatory memorandum:
A. The number of rooms, and recommendations for their use
B. engineered processes and supplies
C. Technological Facilities
D. Working hours
E. health of workers
F. premises equipment
G. improvement of land area
H. relief of the land
I. presence in the area of buildings and other constructions
J. map land
1979. List the tasks subject Food Hygiene:
A. Examination of the settlement by the real power of the population
B. sanitary - hygienic products ekspertizapischevyh
C. Review of the rational and balanced nutrition
D. Existing sanitary supervision
E. study of the physical composition of food
F. study of a balanced diet
G. study of the chemical composition of food
H. studying nutrition
I. PSN and TSN in food hygiene
J. predupreditelnyysanitarny supervision
Specify 1980. Russian scientists who contributed to the development of the subject
Food Hygiene:
A. FF Erismann
B. Khlopin
C. S. Khudaiberganov
D. M.N.Ismoilov
E. M. Mahkamov
F. P. Dobroslavin
G. KK Basil
H. Uhl
Nicholas I. Bobohodzhaev
1981. Enter the institutions entrusted with the management of state security and food
quality:
A. Department of the Ministry of Health of Uzbekistan CGSEN
B. State standard of Uzbekistan
C. CGSEN area
D. District CSES
E. Republican CGSEN
F. City CGSEN
G. Office of the Veterinary Service of the Ministry of Economy Sel'kov
H. quarantine infections
I. State Committee for Nature Protection
J. Khokimiyat
1982. Enter the group increasing the degree of labor:
A. 2gruppa- light physical labor
B. Panel-hard physical labor
C. 6-cleaners Group
D. 7gruppa-loaders, lifting a heavy load
E. 8 group- mathematics
F. 9 group- artists
G. group- knowledge workers
H. group-physical work of average weight
I. 5-band very hard physical labor
J. 6 group- geologists
1983. Enter the latest theories in the diet:
A. balanced meal
B. mladovegetarianstvo
C. supply mismatch
D. balance
E. starovegetarianstvo
F. theory vegetarianism
G. eating raw foods
H. theory of living energy
I. The theory of a balanced diet
J. mismatch food
1984 point to dietary allowances in the United States:
A. restriction of cholesterol in the diet
B. Growth of fruit and vegetables
C. Limitations of salt
D. Limitation of sugar
E. restriction in the diet of fatty acids
F. sahranenie body srednezdorovogo state
G. distribution of the available menu of different dishes
H. restriction in the diet of saturated fatty acids, fats and cholesterol
I. Organization of alcohol consumption in small quantities
J. restriction of salt and sugar, an increase in fruit and vegetables
1985. Specify the components included in the concept of "balanced diet":
A. Achieving the proper distribution of labor activity
B. Ensuring plastic problems
C. mixed food
D. External power supply
E. balanced diet
F. satisfy the physiological needs of the body
G. balancing homeostasis
H. proper organization of power
I. internal power
1986. Indicate the principles of a balanced diet:
A. National stereotypical features and power
B. Compliance with the diet
C. mixed food
D. variety of food
E. balance
F. External power supply
G. balanced energy consumption
H. balance of nutrients
I. correct analysis of supply
J. Domestic food
1987. Describe the main components of the recognized WHO particularly hazardous
for agricultural food products:
A. Arsenic
B. Lead
C. Hydrogen
D. oxygen
E. nitrosamines
F. Sera
G. mercury
H. cadmium
I. nitrates
J. Calcium
1988. Enter the non-alcoholic beverages:
A. Cola beverages
B. Mineral water
C. vodka
D. Wine
E. drinks, formed as a result of fermentation
F. Beer
G. carbonated soft drinks
H. juice
I. extracts
J. whiskey
1989. Enter the elements of mineral fertilizers that have a negative chain:
A. Plants
B. Water
C. ionosphere
D. animals
E. Coal
F. minerals
G. Sand
H. atmosphere
I. firewood
J. stoniness
1990. Enter the types of pesticides by extension:
A. akaratsidy
B. fungicides
C. All the answers are correct
D. insecticides
E. herbicides
F. defoliants
G. homeotsidy
H. minamitsidy
I. akorotsidy
J. geterotsidy
K. nematodotsidy
1991. Enter the form of pesticides in the chemical structure:
A. Urea
B. chromite
C. Chlorine
D. fosfornorganicheskie connection
E. hlornorganicheskie connection
F. organic lead
G. carbamates
H. geterotsikliki
I. mercury
J. perehromid
1992. Describe the main steps of the WCF:
A. Small action
B. High-performance
C. volatility
D. contact action
E. reduces cholinesterase
F. absorption
G. allocation of large amounts of heat
H. humidity
I. intact action
J. fast splitting
1993. Enter the principles to which you should pay attention in the preparation of the
diet:
A. to pay attention to growth
B. to pay attention to the race
C. pay attention to the biochemical and physiological laws occurring in healthy and
diseased organism
D. must satisfy the requirement for biological substances and energy
E. paying attention to local and general effect of food on the body
F. pay attention to the local, the individual and the chemical composition of food
G. Food security, the use of training methods
H. pay attention to the weight
I. to pay attention to the muscular system
J. to pay attention to the constitution
1994. Enter the kinds of canned food:
A. Fruit
B. canned potatoes
C. canned izkapusty
D. clear
E. Fish
F. vegetables
G. apple
H. milk
I. smoked
J. salted
1995. Types of milk:
A. Ice
B. alkaline
C. acid
D. normalized
E. homogenized
F. ion-exchange
G. fortified
H. protein
I. salty
1996. Diseases transmitted through milk:
Influenza A.
B. AIDS
C. worms
D. TB
E. FMD
F. intestinal infections
G. mastitis
H. Brucellosis
I. hepatitis
J. parainfluenza
1997. Enter the alien additives in milk:
A. Sand
B. stones
C. Meat
D. Hay
E. manure
F. Blood
G. wool
H. pus
I. gravel
J. fat
1998. Forms of meat:
A. beef
B. pork
C. rabbit
D. poultry
E. Lamb
F. Meat cancers
G. meat Yezhov
H. turtle meat
I. myasozmei
1999. Forms of meat birds
A. rabbit
B. horsemeat
C. veal
D. chicken
E. turkey
F. goose
G. duck meat
H. meat of wild birds
I. pigeon meat
J. Lamb
2000. Types of meat products:
A. sour cream
B. ryazhenka
C. canned vegetables
D. sausages
E. canned
F. Frozen meat products
G. confectionery
H. mixed products (consisting of meat and vegetation)
I. cheese
2001. Enter the health indicators of butter:
A. Acid - 50 ° C for kettstorferu
B. melting temperature - 15 to 250 ° C
C. saponification number - 281- 300
D. humidity should not exceed 16%
E. fats - 81 - 83%
F. acidity - 30C for kettstorferu
G. melting temperature - 28 to 350 C
H. saponification number - 218- 240
I. humidity should not exceed 26%
J. zhiry- 75-78%
2002. Enter the health indicators margarine:
A. the amount of salt - 5.2%
B. acidity 2,5-3
C. The temperature of melting - 10-150 C
D. humidity more- 16%
E. zhirnost- 82 82.5%
F. amount of salt not more- 1.2%
G. acidity of not more-1.5
H. melting temperature - 28-360 C
I. humidity - 25-30%
J. zhirnost- 72-73%
2003 alternately determine the acidity of vegetable oil:
A. drip 2-3 drops of iodine
B. adding 10 drops of sulfuric acid
C. calculate alkalinity
D. weigh out 5 grams of oil
E. add 2-3 drops of phenolphthalein
F. 10 ml of water
G. alkali titrating 0.1 N
H. calculate the acidity
I. was weighed 10-15 grams of product
J. 10 ml of acid sulphate
2004. Enter the types of lightweight diet:
A. Diet fried macaroni
B. diet with meat
C. Chocolate Diet
D. tea diet
E. risovo- Compote diet
F. apple diet
G. watermelon diet
H. diet of potatoes
I. meat diet
J. diet with eggs
2005. Enter the amino acids, which are to prevent the influence of harmful factors:
A. glutamine
B. adenine
C. guanine
D. cystine
E. Methionine
F. tyrosine
G. phenylalanine
H. tryptophan
I. leucine
J. Valine
2006. Clinical signs of salmonellosis:
A. abdominal pain
B. breathing difficulties
C. Low temperature
D. diarrhea-diarrhea
E. fetid feces
F. tenesmus
G. chills
H. high temperature
I. constipation
J. cough
2007. Enter the organoleptic characteristics of sausages:
A. the amount of meat
B. acidity and color
C. Humidity
D. Status shell loaf
E. color and intact membranes
F. density and texture of minced
G. color and density of the stuffing
H. color and density of the oil, the smell of minced
I. Acid
J. fat
2008. Priority microscopy study of meat:
Acid treatment A.
B. alkali treatment
C. color of silver nitrate
D. taking smear
E. Gram stain
F. water rinse
G. alcohol treatment
H. magenta coloring of carbon fiber
I. painting gentian violet
J. stain-Burri Gins
2009. Describe the main components, which include the concept of a balanced diet:
A. decrease metabolism
B. Minimum energy value
C. Fast fatigue
D. satisfaction of physiological needs
E. meet the energy values
F. Ensuring plastic functions
G. ensure coherence of internal homeostasis
H. Raising work capacity
I. reduction of working capacity
J. hemodyscrasia
2010. Types of dishes, forbidden to leave the next day:
A. bread and bread products
B. sausages
C. Tobacco
D. salads
E. vinaigrette
F. pate
G. jellies (jelly)
H. pancakes with meat and cheese
I. canned
J. sausage
2011. Enter the degree of obesity:
A. 3 - normal group completeness, does not exceed the average ± â,¬
B. 4- artist excessive fullness, increased from the average of 1 to 2 â,¬ â,¬
C. 5- group is very high degree of fullness, more than the average rate at 5 â,¬
D. 1- Group normal completeness, does not exceed the average ± â,¬
E. 2- group of excessive fullness, increased from the average of 1 to 2 â,¬ â,¬
F. 3- group high degree of fullness, more than the average rate at â,¬ 2
G. 4- small group of completeness, decreased from an average pokazatelyaot1 â,¬ â,¬
2
H. 5- band low degree of completeness, decreased from the average of 2 â,¬
I. 1- group a high degree of fullness, more than the average rate at 2 â,¬
J. 2- group small degree of completeness, decreased from an average of up to 2
pokazatelyaot1 â,¬ â,¬
2012. Indicators for determination of basal metabolic chronometer table:
A. Physical activity
B. subcutaneous fat
C. Conditions plaguing
D. growth
E. Sex
F. age
G. weight
H. Age and gender
I. Working activities
J. mental activity
2013. What documents are the basis for legislative documents:
A. Various methods
B. decrees
C. TSN
D. The Constitution of the Republic of Uzbekistan
E. Law on "State Sanitary Inspection"
F. Labour Code
G. Law "On protection of the health of citizens" (1996)
H. Law of Uzbekistan on the safety and quality of food
I. SanPin
J. ҚMҚ
2014. According to the quality of the products are divided into:
A. aftermarket products
B. substandard products
C. The product of high quality
D. fit
E. conditionally fit
F. Products of low nutritional value
G. adulterated food
H. worthless products
I. worthless products high
J. little good product
2015. Levels of health examination:
A. 3stupen- opening of packaged products
B. 4stupen- study of organoleptic characteristics of food products
C. 5stupen- examination of food in their places of storage
D. 1stupen- preparatory stage
E. 2stupen-acquainted with the documents
F. 3stupen-examination of food in their places of storage
G. 4stupen opening-packed products
H. 5stupen-study of organoleptic characteristics of food products
I. 1stupen- familiarization with the documents
J. 2stupen- podgotovitelnayastupen
2016. Physical and chemical characteristics of sausage products:
A. Form
B. Acidity
C. alkalinity
D. humidity
E. amount of salt
F. amount of nitrites
G. qualitative reaction for starch
H. amount of nitrites and the degree of humidity
I. taste
J. smell
2017. Which of these meat products are not considered poultry:
A. duck meat
B. goose meat
C. Meat of wild birds
D. beef
E. pork
F. horsemeat
G. hare
H. Lamb
I. chicken
J. turkey
2018. Performance evaluation of the quality of meat on the point system:
A. bouillon reaction to the copper sulfate-8 points
B. aminoammiakna number azota- 3 points
C. bakterioskopiya- 5 points
D. organoleptic pokazateli- 13 points
E. volatile fatty acids - 4 points
F. bouillon reaction to copper sulfate - 4 points
G. aminoammiakna number azota- 2 points
H. bakterioskopiya- 2 points
I. organoleptic pokazateli- 15 points
J. volatile fatty acid-8 points
2019. The ingredients for the ingredients of the reaction with copper sulfate:
A. 5% copper sulfate solution
B. filter paper
C. 20 g of milk
D. 60 ml of sodium hydroxide
E. Petri dish
F. 3% acid sulphate
G. 1N copper sulfate
H. 20 g of meat
I. 60 ml of distilled water
J. vial
2020. Types of milk processing:
A. combustion
B. demineralized
C. warming
D. pasteurization for the long term
E. pasteurization short term
F. single-stage sterilization
G. two-stage sterilization
H. steaming
I. boiling
J. burning
2021. Enter the animal fats:
A. Corn oil
B. Soybean Oil
C. mustard oil
D. butter
E. beef oil
F. fat
G. rump
H. ghee
I. sunflower oil
J. cottonseed oil
2022. Enter the vegetable oils:
A. lard
B. rump
C. ghee
D. sunflower oil
E. cottonseed oil
F. Corn Oil
G. soybean oil
H. mustard oil
I. butter
J. beef butter
2023. The necessary sanitary and hygienic and epidemiological measures for making
the act of sanitary survey:
A. the purpose for which this sample is taken
B. taken from this sample
C. which is directed this trial
D. part of the passport
E. konstatiruyuschayachast
F. Concluding part
G. Recommendations
H. sanitary and hygienic and epidemiological activities
I. Name of the product
J. sampling time
2024. The following types of meat are not permitted for sale:
A. odorless
B. Without change of taste
C. transparent color
D. In the presence of blood clots
E. If the surface of frozen meat
F. The odors
G. In discoloration
H. For zaplesnevenii
I. new meat
J. outer layer of slightly slimy
2025. Find correct these sources of infestation with worms:
A. beef-teniasis
B. fish teniasis
C. greens, trichinosis
D. fishermen diphyllobothriasis
E. pork - teniasis
F. Beef, trichinosis
G. fishermen opistorhoz
H. zelen- ascariasis
I. fish ascariasis
J. pork-opistorhoz
2026. Enter the chemical composition of 100 grams of sausage:
A. holesterin- 2g
B. salt- 30 gr
C. 5 g waterD. 24.6 g fat
E. 53 milligrams of cholesterol
F. 13.3 g Protein
G. 2.5 g salt
H. 3-5 mg \ percentage of nitrite
I. fats -10 c
J. belki- 5 g
2027. Unrelated to animal fats:
A. rump
B. bacon
C. horsemeat
D. butter
E. cottonseed oil
F. sunflower oil
G. olive oil
H. sesame oil
I. Soybean Oil
J. beef butter
2028. Classification of canned products:
A. defatted
B. Jelly
C. with the sauce
D. According sight of food
E. according to the processing of the product
F. composition
G. By thermal processing method
H. By use
I. tomato
J. boiling
Bombazh 2029. Species origin:
A. Social
B. Socio-economic
C. Economic
D. Physics
E. Chemical
F. Microbiological
G. physicochemical
H. Biological
I. Mechanical
J. of damage
2030. Species composition of mineral water:
A. chromium
B. with manganese
C. with the arsenic
D. sulfuric
E. bromine
F. iron
G. iodized
H. carbonate anhydride
I. Lead
J. with radium
2031. Types of mineral water:
A. hot 20-30 0C
B. giperterminalnayabolshe 300
C. Very cold 50 ° C
D. cold (200 ° C Slack)
E. Warm subterminal (20 370)
F. Hot terminal (37-420 C)
G. giperterminalnaya (over 420 C)
H. cold (20 0 C) and warm (20-37 0 C)
I. With cold 100
J. warm 10-200 C
2032. Organoleptic beverages:
A. carbonation
B. mineralization
C. density
D. appearance
E. color
F. taste
G. smell
H. alien presence or absence of impurities
I. alkalinity
J. acidity
2033. Enter the key indicators in the health studies of soft drinks:
A. the absence of dispute
B. appearance of rancid flavor
C. mineralization
D. organoleptic features
E. density
F. acidity
G. amount of CO2
H. no artificial colors
I. turbidity
J. carbonation
2034. The amount of chemicals in the materials used for the preparation of dishes and
accessories:
A. 5.5% copper
B. 0.25% arsenic
C. 6.3% nickel
D. lead-0.15%
E. zinc - 0.3%
F. copper - 3.5%
G. arsenic 0.015%
H. amount of zinc should prevyshat- 0.3% and 3.5% mediI. 0.3% lead
J. 0.6% zinc
2035. A study carried out some hygiene utensils to its implementation in practice:
A. imunofermentny analysis
B. Biochemistry
C. parasitological
D. organoleptic
E. sanitary-chemical
F. toxicological
G. embriotoksicskie
H. blastogennye
I. bacteriological
J. Virological
2036. Enter the types of canned foods:
A. Combined
B. stuffed
C. Fruit
D. meat
E. vegetable
F. milk
G. Fish
H. meat and vegetables
Dried I.
J. smoked
2037. point to dietary allowances in the United States:
A. restriction in the diet of fatty acids
B. sahranenie body srednezdorovogo state
C. restriction of salt and sugar, an increase in fruit and vegetables
D. Allocation of available menu of different dishes
E. dietary restriction of saturated fatty acids, fats and cholesterol
F. Organization of alcohol consumption in small quantities
G. The restriction of cholesterol in the diet
H. increase in fruit and vegetables
I. restriction of salt
J. restriction sugar
2038. .Vidy poultry meat:
A. rabbit
B. horsemeat
C. veal
D. chicken
E. turkey
F. goose
G. duck meat
H. meat of wild birds
I. pigeon meat
J. Lamb
2039. Enter the mineral elements in the composition of bread:
A. Iodine
B. beryllium
C. radium
D. Calcium
E. Magnesium
F. potassium
G. phosphorus
H. Sodium
I. bromine
J. Chrome
2040. Specify indicators, having reflected on the thermogram:
A. Production Amount
B. Month
C. The temperature pasteurization
D. F.I.O.apparatchika
E. pasteurizer number
F. Date
G. name of the product
H. the start and end of the pasteurization
I. age device
J. code pasteurizer
2041. Enter the components included in the concept of "balanced diet":
A. External power supply
B. balanced diet
C. Domestic food
D. to satisfy the physiological needs of the body
E. balancing homeostasis
F. proper organization of power
G. ensure proper distribution of labor activity
H. Access plastic problems
I. mixed food
2042. Types of milk:
A. Ice
B. alkaline
C. acid
D. normalized
E. homogenized
F. ion-exchange
G. fortified
H. protein
I. salty
2043. Enter the amino acids, which are to prevent the influence of harmful factors:
A. glutamine
B. adenine
C. guanine
D. cystine
E. Methionine
F. tyrosine
G. phenylalanine
H. tryptophan
I. leucine
J. Valine
2044. Levels of health examination:
A. 3stupen- opening of packaged products
B. 4stupen- study of organoleptic characteristics of food products
C. 5 stupen- examination of food in their places of storage
D. 1 stupen- podgotovitelnayastupen
E. 2-step introduction to the documents
F. 3-step examination of food in their places of storage
G. 4-stage opening of the packed products
H. 5-stage study of the organoleptic characteristics of food products
I. 1 stupen- familiarization with the documents
J. 2 stupen- podgotovitelnayastupen
2045. Find correct these sources of infestation with worms:
A. beef-teniasis
B. fish teniasis
C. greens, trichinosis
D. fishermen diphyllobothriasis
E. pork - teniasis
F. Beef, trichinosis
G. fishermen opistorhoz
H. zelen- ascariasis
I. fish ascariasis
J. pork-opistorhoz