Book Title: Marketing Research: An applied Orientation (5th Edition)
Author: Naresh K. Malhotra
Chapter 1
Introduction to Marketing Research
True/False Questions
1. Boeing commissioned Harris Interactive, Inc. to conduct a study to determine the
aircraft preferences of fliers. Boeing did this because they understood the
importance of continuously monitoring the dynamic marketplace and understanding
the needs and priorities of Boeing customers.
(True, moderate, page 3)
2. Informative capitalizes on the need for “recent” marketing research by providing
clients with data on a weekly basis.
(False, difficult, page 5)
3. Toyota conducted a secret market research project code-named Genesis which led
to the development of the Scion line of cars.
(True, moderate, page 5)
4. The Scion line of cars was advertised through traditional channels such as network
television and magazines.
(False, moderate, page 6)
5. Quick-Track® is a syndicated market research project conducted quarterly to track
key consumer behavioral and attitudinal measures for all major fast food and pizza
chains in individual markets.
(True, difficult, page 6)
6. Marketing research is the systematic and objective identification, collection,
analysis, dissemination, and use of information for the purpose of assisting
management in decision making related to the identification and solution of
problems (and opportunities) in marketing.
(True, easy, page 7)
7. Marketing research is classified into two areas—problem identification and problem
solving research.
(True, easy, page 8)
8. Sales analysis research is a type of problem solving research.
(False, difficult, page 8)
9. Once a problem or opportunity has been identified, market potential research is
undertaken to arrive at a solution.
(False, moderate, page 9)
10. Problem identification research provides information about the marketing
environment and helps diagnose a problem.
(True, moderate, page 9)
11. The findings of problem solving research are used in making decisions that will solve
specific marketing problems.
(True, moderate, page 9)
12. In the Kellogg’s example given in your text, as a result of problem-solving research,
Kellogg’s found out that it was not being creative in introducing new products to
meet the needs of the adult market.
(False, difficult, page 10)
13. The task of marketing research is to assess the information needs and provide
management with relevant, accurate, reliable, cheap, and current information.
(False, easy, page 13)
14. Marketing management decisions are complicated by interactions between the
uncontrollable marketing variables and the uncontrollable environmental factors.
(False, difficult, page 13)
15. Marketing researchers are becoming more involved in decision making, whereas
marketing managers are not becoming more involved with research.
(False, moderate, page 13)
16. Effective competitive intelligence is a continuous process involving the legal and
ethical collection of information, analysis that avoids unwelcome conclusions, and
controlled dissemination of actionable intelligence to decision makers.
(False, difficult, page 16)
17. It is best to do marketing research even if the resources are not available to conduct
a quality project.
(False, moderate, page 16)
18. If a firm lacks the resources to implement the findings arising from marketing
research, spending the resources to conduct the research may not be warranted.
(True, moderate, page 16)
19. Marketing research suppliers can be classified as internal or external.
(True, easy, page 17)
20. Field service organizations are limited service suppliers that specialize in
interviewing or specialize in collecting data through the mail or though personal or
telephone interviewing.
(True, moderate, page 20)
21. Analytical services include designing and pretesting questionnaires, determining the
best means of collecting data, designing sampling plans, and conducting statistical
analysis of quantitative data.
(False, difficult, page 20)
22. Coding and data entry services are full service companies whose primary service
offering is their expertise in converting completed surveys or interviews into a
usable database for conducting statistical analysis.
(False, moderate, page 20)
23. Branded marketing research products and services are specialized problem
identification, data collection and analysis procedures developed to address specific
types of marketing research problems. These procedures are patented, given brand
names, and marketed like any other branded products.
(False, difficult, page 21)
24. Operational supervisor, project manager, research director, analyst, and
statistician/data processing specialist are all positions in the marketing research
field.
(True, moderate, page 22)
25. More information can be obtained from MIS than from ad hoc marketing research
projects, but MIS is limited in the amount and nature of information it provides and
the way this information can be used by the decision maker.
(True, moderate, page 24)
26. DSS differs from MIS in that the DSS is more rigidly structured than the MIS.
(False, moderate, page 24)
27. When conducting international research, the environment prevailing in the
countries, cultural units, or international markets that are being researched,
influences the way the six steps of the marketing research process should be
performed.
(True, easy, page 26)
28. International marketing research is much simpler to conduct than domestic
research.
(False, easy, page 26)
29. Companies that base their business on the Web do not have international marketing
problems.
(False, easy, page 26)
30. International marketing research is expected to grow at a faster rate than domestic
research.
(True, moderate, page 27)
31. Most marketing research is conducted for clients representing commercial firms.
(True, moderate, page 28)
32. Ethical issues arise when the interests of the stakeholders are in conflict and when
one or more of the stakeholders are lacking in their responsibilities.
(True, easy, page 28)
33. Marketing research has often been described as having three stakeholders.
(False, moderate, page 28)
Multiple Choice Questions
34. NBC utilized Informative services to obtain feedback from viewers. Which of the
following is true about their relationship?
a. It helps the network to learn what viewers are looking for.
b. NBC created the show “Will and Grace” as a result of the research results.
c. Viewer feedback has been instrumental in composing and modifying scripts and
storylines.
d. all of the above
(d, moderate, page 5)
35. According to the text, marketing research has become _____.
a. global
b. real time
c. more integrative with marketing and product development
d. all of the above
(d, difficult, page 7)
36. Marketing Research, as defined by the author, is everything except _____.
a. systematic
b. politically biased
c. objective
d. useful for the purpose of improving decision-making
(b, moderate, page 7)
37. The procedures followed at each stage of marketing research are methodologically
sound, well documented, and, as much as possible, planned in advance. The
previous statement defines the _____ aspect of the definition of marketing
research.
a. systematic
b. accuracy
c. identification of information
d. collection of information
(a, moderate, page 8)
38. Each phase of the marketing research process is important. If in the first phase of
the process the problem is identified, what is done after that but before data is
collected?
a. Determine the solution to the problem, identify relevant information sources
and evaluate data collection methods
b. Determine what information is needed, identify relevant information sources,
and evaluate data collection methods
c. Determine the solution to the problem, determine what information is needed,
and identify relevant information sources.
d. Determine what information is needed, evaluate data collection methods, and
analyze the data
(b, difficult, page 8)
39. _____ is undertaken to help identify problems that are perhaps not apparent on the
surface and yet exist or are likely to arise in the future.
a. Problem identification research
b. Segmentation research
c. Problem solving research
d. Marketing information systems
(a, moderate, page 8)
40. _____ is a type of problem identification research.
a. Distribution research
b. Pricing research
c. Market characteristics research
d. Promotion research
(c, difficult, page 8)
41. Which of the issues listed below would be addressed using problem-solving
research?
a. the need to understand market potential
b. the need to understand current cultural trends
c. the need to understand changes in consumer behavior
d. the need to determine where to locate retail outlets
(d, difficult, page 9)
42. In the Kellogg’s example given in your text, Kellogg’s performed several tasks to
identify their problem. Which of the tasks below was not used by Kellogg’s to
identify their problem?
a. They spoke to decision makers within the company.
b. They developed and tested several new flavors of cereal using mall intercept
interviews with adult customers
c. They interviewed industry experts.
d. They surveyed customers about their perceptions and preferences for cereals.
(b, difficult, pages 9-10)
43. _____ is conceptualized as consisting of six steps which include problem definition,
developing an approach to the problem, research design formulation, field work,
data preparation and analysis, and report generation and presentation.
a. The marketing research process
b. Marketing information systems
c. Marketing research
d. A decision support system
(a, moderate, page 10)
44. Which of the tasks below might be conducted by the researcher during the
“problem definition” and the “development of an approach to the problem” steps of
the marketing research process?
a. analysis of secondary data
b. interviews with industry experts
c. qualitative research
d. all of the above
(d, difficult, page 10)
45. Which of the tasks below might be conducted by the researcher during the
“problem definition,” the “development of an approach to the problem,” and the
“research design formulation” steps of the marketing research process?
a. analysis of secondary data
b. interviews with industry experts
c. qualitative research
d. all of the above
(c, difficult, pages 10-11)
46. The emphasis in marketing is on the identification and satisfaction of _____.
a. business needs
b. marketing goals
c. market needs
d. customer needs
(d, easy, page 12)
47. In order to determine customer needs and to implement marketing strategies and
programs aimed at satisfying those needs, marketing managers need information
about _____.
a. customers
b. competitors
c. other forces in the marketplace
d. all of the above
(d, easy, pages 12- 13)
48. Marketing managers need the information provided by marketing research for many
reasons. Which of the following is not a reason to need information provided by
marketing research?
a. Firms have become national and international in scope.
b. Consumers have become more affluent and sophisticated.
c. Competition has become more intense.
d. All of the above are reasons to need information provided by marketing
research.
(d, easy, page 13)
49. Marketing research helps the marketing manager link the _____with the _____and
the customer groups.
a. marketing variables; environment
b. marketing variables; marketing information system
c. marketing information system; environment
d. none of the above
(a, difficult, page 13)
50. _____ may be defined as the process of enhancing marketplace competitiveness
through a greater understanding of a firm’s competitors and the competitive
environment.
a. Market intelligence
b. Competitive intelligence
c. A marketing information system
d. A decision support system
(b, moderate, page 15)
51. Competitive intelligence _____.
a. enables senior managers in companies to make informed decisions about
everything
b. consists of integrated systems of hardware, communications networks, and
software
c. is a continuous process involving the legal and ethical collection of information
d. a and c are both correct
(d, difficult, page 16)
52. Which of the following is not a consideration when making the decision to conduct
marketing research?
a. the consumer’s attitude toward research
b. the costs versus the benefits of research
c. the resources available to conduct the research
d. the resources available to implement the research findings
(a, difficult, page 16)
53. Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning big firms?
a. Many firms maintain in-house marketing research departments.
b. The marketing research department’s place in the organizational structure may
vary considerably.
c. Firms with in-house research departments never use external research suppliers.
d. Both a and b are correct.
(d, moderate, page 17)
54. External research suppliers can be classified as _____ and _____.
a. limited-service; partial-service
b. full-service; partial-service
c. full-service; limited-service
d. none of the above
(c, easy, page 18)
55. Which of the following is not an example of a full-service supplier (Figure 1.5 in
text)?
a. syndicated services
b. customized services
c. Internet services
d. analytical services
(d, moderate, page 18)
56. The Nielsen Television Index is a set of information of known commercial value that
is provided to multiple clients on a subscription basis. The Nielsen Index is an
example of _____.
a. syndicated services
b. customized services
c. standardized services
d. analytical services
(a, difficult, page 18)
57. Syndicated services _____.
a. specialize in one or a few phases of the marketing research project
b. are research studies conducted for different client firms but in a different way
c. are companies that collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve
information needs shared by a number of clients
d. offer a wide variety of marketing research services customized to suit a client’s
specific needs
(c, difficult, page 18)
58. Customized services _____.
a. specialize in one or a few phases of the marketing research project
b. are research studies conducted for different client firms but in a different way
c. collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs
shared by a number of clients
d. offer a wide variety of marketing research services tailored to suit a client’s
specific needs
(d, moderate, page 20)
59. Limited-service suppliers _____.
a. specialize in one or a few phases of the marketing research project
b. are research studies conducted for different client firms but in a different way
c. collect and sell common pools of data designed to serve information needs
shared by a number of clients.
d. offer a wide variety of marketing research services tailored to suit a client’s
specific needs
(a, easy, page 20)
60. Synovate (www.synovate.com) offers several products under the TeleNation® family.
One of their products, TeleNation, is a twice-a-week multi-client telephone study
among households selected at random from the U.S. population. Clients are charged
based on the number of questions they ask. TeleNation® is a _____.
a. field service
b. branded market research product
c. data analysis service
d. analytical service
(b, moderate, page 21)
61. When a firm cannot conduct an entire marketing research project in house, it must
select an external supplier for one or more phases of the project. One of the things
that the firm does not need to consider or do when selecting an external research
supplier is _____.
a. compile a list of prospective suppliers
b. realize that the cheapest bid is not always the best bid
c. develop criteria for selecting an outside supplier
d. all of the above must be considered or done
(d, easy, page 21)
62. There are many entry level marketing research positions available for persons with
BBAs or MBAs. Which one of the following is not an entry-level position?
a. operational supervisor
b. senior analyst
c. junior research analyst
d. research analyst
(b, moderate, page 22)
63. A _____ is a formalized set of procedures for generating, analyzing, storing, and
distributing pertinent information to marketing decision makers on an ongoing basis.
a. marketing information system
b. management information system
c. decision support system
d. none of the above
(a, moderate, page 24)
64. The definition of a(n) _____ is similar to marketing research, except that a(n) _____
provides information continuously rather than on the basis of ad hoc research
studies.
a. marketing information system (MIS); MIS
b. management information system (MIS); MIS
c. decision support system (DDS); DSS
d. none of the above
(a, moderate, page 24)
65. _____ are integrated systems including hardware, communications network, data
base, model base, software base, and the _____ user (decision maker) that collect
and interpret information for decision making.
a. Marketing information systems (MIS); MIS
b. Management information systems (MIS); MIS
c. Decision support systems (DSS); DSS
d. none of the above
(c, moderate, page 24)
66. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a decision support system?
a. rigidly structured problems
b. “what-if” analysis available
c. easy-to-use interactive mode
d. all of the above
(a, moderate, page 24)
67. Which of the following is true about a decision support system?
a. DSS can enhance decision-making effectiveness by using “what if” analysis.
b. DSS have been further developed to expert systems that utilize artificial
intelligence procedures to incorporate expert judgment.
c. The information provided by a DSS is rigidly structured and cannot be easily
manipulated.
d. Both a and b are correct.
(d, moderate, page 24)
68. According to the author of the text, international research refers to which of the
following types of research?
a. foreign research
b. multinational research
c. cross-cultural research
d. all of the above
(d, moderate, page 26)
69. Marketing research has often been described as having four stakeholders. These
stakeholders have certain responsibilities to each other and to the research project.
Which of the following is not one of the stakeholders?
a. the marketing researcher
b. the respondent
c. the public
d. the environment
(d, easy, page 28)
70. _____ features statistical programs such a Missing Values, SamplePower, Decision
Time and Data Entry.
a. SAS
b. MINITAB
c. SPSS
d. EXCEL
(c, moderate, page 29)
Chapter 2
Defining the Marketing Research Problem and Developing an Approach
True/False Questions
1. Problem definition is the most important step in the marketing research project.
(True, easy, page 37)
2. Better communication and more involvement in problem definition are the most
frequently mentioned ways of improving the usefulness of research.
(True, moderate, page 37)
3. The organizational status of the researcher or the research department may make it
easy to reach the key DM in the early stages of the project.
(False, difficult, pages 38-39)
4. The problem audit provides a useful framework for interacting with the researcher
and identifying the underlying causes of the problem.
(False, moderate, page 39)
5. DMs tend to focus on symptoms rather than causes.
(True, easy, page 39)
6. “The DM and the researcher must interact continually rather than sporadically” is an
explanation of one of the 7 Cs known as continuity.
(True, easy, page 40)
7. The purpose of interviewing experts is to help define the marketing research problem
rather than to develop a conclusive solution.
(True, moderate, page 41)
8. Analysis of available secondary data is a non-essential step in the problem definition
process.
(False, moderate, page 42)
9. Information obtained from the DM, industry experts, and secondary data may not be
sufficient to define the research problem.
(True, easy, page 42)
10. To understand the background of a marketing research problem, the researcher must
understand the client’s firm and industry.
(True, easy, page 43)
11. Past information and forecasts of trends with respect to sales, market share,
profitability, technology, population, demographics, and lifestyle can help the
researcher understand the underlying marketing research problem.
(True, moderate, page 43)
12. Where appropriate, analysis of past information and forecasts of trends should be
carried out at the firm’s department level.
(False, moderate, page 43)
13. In instances where the resources are too limited to allow a high-quality project, the
firm should be advised not to undertake formal marketing research.
(True, moderate, page 45)
14. “The number and geographical location of the buyers and non-buyers” is a factor that
should be considered in the ‘objectives’ component of the environmental context of
the problem.
(False, difficult, page 45)
15. The economic environment includes public policies, laws, government agencies, and
pressure groups that influence and regulate various organizations and individuals in
society.
(False, difficult, page 47)
16. The economic environment component of the environmental context is comprised of
purchasing power, gross income, disposable income, discretionary income, prices,
savings, credit availability, and general economic conditions.
(True, moderate, page 47)
17. The marketing research problem asks what the DM needs to do, whereas the
management decision problem asks what information is needed and how it can best
be obtained (Table 2.1 in text).
(False, moderate, page 48)
18. The management decision problem is action oriented.
(True, easy, page 48)
19. The marketing research problem is information oriented.
(True, easy, page 48)
20. To properly identify the marketing research problem, it is best to state the problem in
narrow, specific terms and identify its broad concepts.
(False, moderate, page 49)
21. The second part of the marketing research problem definition is specific components.
The specific components focus on the key aspects of the problem and provide clear
guidelines on how to proceed further.
(True, moderate, page 49)
22. Verbal, graphical, and mathematical models depict the same phenomenon or
theoretical framework in different ways.
(True, moderate, page 52)
23. Graphical models are analytical models that provide a visual picture of the
relationships between variables.
(True, moderate, page 52)
24. Research questions ask what general information is required with respect to the
problem components.
(False, difficult, page 53)
25. Hypotheses go beyond research questions because they are statements of relationships
or propositions rather than merely questions to which answers are sought.
(True, moderate, page 54)
26. Being too familiar with the environmental factors of the country where the research is
being conducted can greatly increase the difficulty of understanding the problem’s
environmental context and uncovering its causes.
(False, moderate, page 57)
27. SPSS can be used to perform forecasts and “what-if” analyses to help the researcher
in isolating the underlying causes, identifying the relevant variables that should be
investigated, and formulating appropriate research questions and hypotheses.
(True, moderate, page 60)
Multiple Choice Questions
28. In the example given in your text, the Harley Davidson management decision problem and
the marketing research problem were defined with the help of all of the following except
_____.
a. discussions with industry experts
b. discussions with a committee of top management
c. secondary data on motorcycle owners
d. focus groups with motorcycle owners
(b, difficult, page 35)
29. According to the Chain Restaurant Study in your text, the researcher had collected data but
did not know _____.
a. the marketing research problem
b. the management decision problem
c. the data collection process
d. the approach to the problem
(a, moderate, page 37)
30. The _____ is a broad statement of the general problem and identification of the specific
components of the marketing research problem.
a. problem audit
b. management problem
c. problem definition
d. none of the above
(c, moderate, page 37)
31. According to the problem definition and approach development process as shown in Figure
2.1 in the text, the tasks involved in problem definition consist of all of the following except
_____.
a. discussions with the decision makers
b. interviews with industry experts
c. analysis of project costs
d. analysis of secondary data
(c, difficult, page 38)
32. According to Figure 2.1 in the text, the components of the _____ consist of:
objective/theoretical foundations, analytical models, research questions, hypotheses,
and specification of the information needed.
a. approach to the problem
b. management decision problem
c. marketing research problem
d. environmental context of the problem
(a, difficult, page 38)
33. The need for the researcher to understand the nature of what decision managers face and
what they hope to learn from research is one of the reasons to conduct _____.
a. discussions with decision makers
b. interview with experts
c. secondary data analysis
d. qualitative research
(a, difficult, page 38)
34. To identify the management problem, the researcher must possess considerable skill
in interacting with the DM. Which of the following is a factor that might complicate
this interaction?
a. Access to the DM may be difficult and some organizations have complicated protocols
for access to top executives.
b. The organizational status of the researcher or the research department may make
it difficult to reach the key DM in the early stages of the project.
c. There may be more than one key DM and meeting with them collectively or
individually may be difficult.
d. All of the above are correct.
(d, difficult, pages 38-39)
35. The _____ provides a useful framework for interacting with the DM and identifying the
underlying causes of the problem.
a. problem audit
b. management problem
c. problem definition
d. none of the above
(a, moderate, page 39)
36. The _____ is a comprehensive examination of a marketing problem with the purpose of
understanding its origin and nature.
a. problem audit
b. management problem
c. problem definition
d. none of the above
(a, moderate, page 39)
37. It is important to perform a problem audit because _____.
a. the DM knows the cause of the problem
b. DMs tend to focus on symptoms rather than on causes
c. the DM, in most cases, has only a vague idea of what the problem is
d. both b and c are correct
(d, moderate, page 39)
38. The interaction between the DM and the researcher should be characterized by the seven
Cs. Which of the following is not one of the seven Cs?
a. continuity
b. communication
c. causality
d. candor
(c, moderate, page 40)
39. As one of the seven Cs that characterize the interaction between the DM and the
researcher, confidence is best defined as _____.
a. there should not be any hidden agendas, and an attitude of openness should prevail
b. the interaction between the DM and the researcher should be guided by mutual
trust
c. marketing research is a team project in which both parties (DM and researcher)
must cooperate
d. the interaction between the DM and the researcher should be creative rather than
formulaic
(b, moderate, page 40)
40. Interviews with industry experts—individuals knowledgeable about the firm and the
industry—may help formulate the marketing research problem. Which of the following
statements is true about interviews with industry experts?
a. These experts may be found both inside and outside the firm.
b. Typically, expert information is obtained by unstructured personal interviews
without administering a formal questionnaire.
c. It is helpful to prepare a list of topics to be covered during the interview.
d. All of the above are true.
(d, moderate, page 40-41)
41. Because of potential difficulties when seeking advice from experts, it is best to use
interviews with experts when conducting marketing research _____.
a. for industrial firms
b. for products of a technical nature
c. in situations where little information is available from other sources
d. all of the above
(d, difficult, page 41)
42. Which of the following statements about secondary data is true?
a. Secondary data are originated by the researcher for the specific purpose of addressing
the research problem at hand.
b. Secondary data are an economical and quick source of background information.
c. Primary data should not be collected until the available secondary data have been
fully analyzed.
d. Both b and c are true.
(d, easy, page 42)
43. _____ is an unstructured, exploratory research methodology based on small samples
intended to provide insight and understanding of the problem setting.
a. Primary research
b. Qualitative research
c. Secondary research
d. Quantitative research
(b, moderate, page 42)
44. _____ is not a qualitative research technique.
a. Depth interview
b. Word association
c. Focus group
d. Conclusive research
(d, moderate, page 42)
45. _____ consists of the factors that have an impact on the definition of the marketing
research problem, including past information and forecasts, resources and constraints of the
firm, objectives of the decision maker, buyer behavior, legal environment, economic
environment, and marketing and technological skills of the firm.
a. The approach to the problem
b. Research design
c. The environmental context of the problem
d. Problem definition
(c, moderate, page 43)
46. Many factors have an impact on the definition of the marketing research problem. These
factors encompass the environmental context of the problem. Which of the following is not
one of the factors?
a. marketing and technological skills of the firm
b. objectives
c. past information and forecasts pertaining to the industry and the firm
d. political environment
(d, moderate, page 43)
47. To formulate a marketing research problem of appropriate scope, it is necessary to take into
account both the resources available, such as money and research skills, and the constraints
on the organization, such as cost and time. These considerations refer to which of the
factors related to the environmental context of the problem?
a. resources and constraints
b. buyer behavior
c. legal environment
d. economic environment
(a, easy, page 45)
48. Media consumption behavior and response to promotions, price sensitivity, and retail
outlets patronized are factors that should be considered in the _____ component of the
environmental context of the problem.
a. objectives
b. legal environment
c. economic environment
d. buyer behavior
(d, moderate, page 45)
49. The “Got Milk?” campaign sponsored by the California Milk Processor Board and mentioned
in your text, used and understanding of _____ to identify the real causes that led to the
decline in milk consumption.
a. objectives
b. the legal environment
c. the economic environment
d. buyer behavior
(d, difficult, page 46)
50. Regulatory policies and norms within which organizations must operate, refer to the _____
factor of the environmental context of the problem.
a. legal environment
b. economic environment
c. objectives
d. buyer behavior
(a, moderate, page 47)
51. _____ is the problem confronting the decision maker. It asks what the decision
maker needs to do.
a. The environmental context of the problem
b. The management decision problem
c. The marketing research problem
d. Problem definition
(b, easy, page 48)
52. _____ is a problem that entails determining what information is needed and how it can be
obtained in the most feasible way.
a. The environmental context of the problem
b. The management decision problem
c. The marketing research problem
d. Problem definition
(c, moderate, page 48)
53. The management decision problem focuses on _____, while the marketing research
problem focuses on _____.
a. symptoms; solutions
b. symptoms; underlying causes
c. solutions; underlying causes
d. none of the above
(b, difficult, page 48)
54. Based on Table 2.1 in the text, which statement is true about the management decision
problem?
a. It asks what information is needed and how it should be obtained.
b. It is information oriented.
c. It asks what the decision maker needs to do.
d. It focuses on the underlying causes.
(c, easy, page 48)
55. Based on Table 2.1 in the text, which statement is true about the marketing research
problem?
a. It focuses on underlying causes.
b. It focuses on symptoms.
c. It is information oriented.
d. Both a and c are correct.
(d, moderate, page 48)
56. If the management decision problem is: “Should a new product be introduced?” what is the
most appropriate marketing research problem?
a. determining the price elasticity of demand and the impact on sales and profits of
various levels of price changes
b. determining consumer preferences and purchase intentions for the proposed new
product
c. determining the effectiveness of the current advertising campaign
d. determining the impact of new distribution outlets
(b, moderate, page 49)
57. Which statement is true concerning defining the marketing research problem?
a. The definition should allow the researcher to obtain all the information needed to
address the management decision problem.
b. The definition should guide the researcher in proceeding with the project.
c. The marketing research problem should be stated in broad, general terms with
specific components identified.
d. All of the above are correct.
(d, moderate, page 49)
58. The outputs of the approach development process should include all of the following
components except _____.
a. objective/theoretical framework
b. analytical models
c. hypotheses
d. all of the above
(d, difficult, page 51)
59. A conceptual scheme based on foundational statements called axioms, which are assumed
to be true, is _____.
a. objective evidence
b. a theory
c. an analytical model
d. none of the above
(b, difficult, page 51)
60. Unbiased evidence that is supported by empirical findings is _____.
a. objective evidence
b. a theory
c. an analytical model
d. none of the above
(a, moderate, page 51)
61. In the process of developing an approach, research should be based on objective evidence
and supported by theory. A theory _____.
a. serves as a foundation on which the researcher can organize and interpret the findings
b. also plays a vital role in influencing the research procedures adopted in basic
research
c. is incomplete
d. all of the above
(d, moderate, page 51)
62. The researcher should rely on _____ to determine which variables should be investigated.
a. objective evidence
b. theory
c. an analytical model
d. none of the above
(b, difficult, page 51)
63. A(n) _____ is a set of variables and their interrelationships designed to represent, in whole
or in part, some real system or process.
a. mathematical model
b. graphical model
c. verbal model
d. analytical model
(d, moderate, page 52)
64. _____ are refined statements of the specific components of the problem.
a. Hypotheses
b. Research questions
c. Marketing research problems
d. Analytical models
(b, difficult, page 53)
65. Which statement about hypotheses is not true?
a. A hypothesis is an unproven statement or proposition about a factor or phenomenon
that is of interest to the researcher.
b. Hypotheses are declarative and can be tested empirically.
c. It is possible to formulate hypotheses in all situations.
d. An important role of a hypothesis is to suggest variables to be included in the
research design.
(c, difficult, pages 53-54)
66. Before defining the problem, the researcher must isolate and examine the impact of the
self-reference criterion (SRC), or the unconscious reference to one’s own cultural values.
Which of the following steps does not help researchers account for environmental and
cultural differences when defining the problem in an international marketing context?
a. Define the marketing research problem in terms of domestic environmental and cultural
factors. This involves an identification of relevant American (domestic country) traits,
economics, values, needs, or habits.
b. Define the marketing research problem in terms of foreign environmental and
cultural factors. Make no judgments. This involves an identification of the related
traits, economics, values, needs, or habits in the proposed market culture. This
task requires input from researchers familiar with the foreign environment.
c. Isolate the self-reference criterion (SRC) influence on the problem and examine it
carefully to see how it complicates the problem.
d. All of the above are correct.
(d, difficult, page 57)
67. Ethical issues arise if the process of defining the problem and developing an approach is
compromised by the personal agendas of the client (DM) or the researcher. Which of these
statements concerning ethics in marketing research is not true?
a. The DM has the obligation to be candid and disclose to the researcher all the relevant
information that will enable a proper definition of the marketing research problem.
b. The researcher is ethically bound to offer the most expensive set of services to
each client.
c. The problem definition process is adversely affected when the DM has hidden
objectives such as gaining a promotion.
d. The researcher is ethically bound to define the problem so as to further the best
interest of the client, rather than the interest of the research firm.
(b, moderate, pages 58-59)
68. Which of the following ethical issues is/are pertinent in developing an approach?
a. When a client solicits proposals, not with the intent of subcontracting the research, but
with the intent of gaining the expertise of research firms without pay, an ethical breach
has occurred.
b. The research firm has the ethical obligation to develop an appropriate approach.
c. Proprietary models and approaches developed by a research firm are the property of
that firm and should not be reused by the client in subsequent studies without the
permission of the research firm.
d. All of the issues are pertinent.
(d, moderate, page 59)
Chapter 3
Research Design
True/False Questions
1. A research design is a framework or blueprint for conducting the marketing research
project.
(True, moderate, page 78)
2. Specifying the measurement and scaling procedures is one of the components
involved in research design.
(True, difficult, page 78)
3. Specifying the format of t he marketing research proposal is one of the components
involved in research design.
(False, easy, page 78)
4. There are three main types of research designs employed in marketing research:
exploratory, descriptive, and conclusive.
(False, moderate, page 79)
5. Exploratory research is used in cases when you must define the problem more
precisely, identify relevant courses of action, or gain additional insights before an
approach can be developed.
(True, easy, page 79)
6. The insights gained from exploratory research might be verified or quantified by
causal research.
(False, moderate, page 79)
7. The objective of conclusive research is to test specific results and examine specific
relationships.
(False, moderate, page 79)
8. Conclusive research is typically more formal and structured than exploratory
research.
(True, easy, page 79)
9. The objective of exploratory research is to explore or search through a problem or
situation to provide insights and understanding (Table 3.2 in text).
(True, moderate, page 79)
10. Identifying alternative courses of action and establishing priorities for further research
are purposes for which exploratory research is used.
(True, difficult, page 80)
11. When conducting exploratory research, the focus of the investigation may shift
constantly as new insights are discovered.
(True, difficult, page 80-81)
12. Shorter Labs is conducting experiments to see if shoppers will buy unknown products
if they are sent coupons. Shorter Labs is conducting causal research.
(True, moderate, page 81)
13. One reason to conduct causal research is to determine the degree to which marketing
variables are associated. For example, to what extent is shopping at department stores
related to eating out?
(False, difficult, page 82)
14. A major difference between exploratory and descriptive research is that exploratory
research is characterized by the prior formulation of specific hypotheses.
(False, moderate, page 82)
15. A descriptive design requires a clear specification of the who, what, when, where,
why, and way (the six Ws) of the research.
(True, easy, page 82)
16. The cross-sectional study is the least used descriptive design in marketing research.
(False, moderate, page 84)
17. Cross-sectional designs involve the collection of information from any given sample
of population elements only once.
(True, moderate, page 84)
18. In single cross-sectional designs, there are two or more samples of respondents, and
information from each sample is obtained only once.
(False, moderate, page 84)
19. Cohort analysis is a type of multiple cross-sectional design that consists of a series of
surveys conducted at appropriate time intervals, where the cohort serves as the basic
unit of analysis.
(True, difficult, page 85)
20. In cohort analysis, it is likely that many of the individuals studied at time one will
also be in the sample at time two.
(False, difficult, page 85)
21. A longitudinal design differs from a cross-sectional design in that the sample or
samples remain the same over time.
(True, moderate, page 86)
22. Sometimes, the term sample survey is used interchangeably with the term
longitudinal design.
(False, moderate, page 86)
23. A major advantage of longitudinal design over the cross-sectional design is the ability
to detect change as a result of repeated measurement of the same variables on the
same sample.
(True, moderate, page 87)
24. Longitudinal data enable researchers to examine changes in the behavior of individual
units and to link behavioral changes to marketing variables, such as changes in
advertising, packaging, pricing, and distribution.
(True, moderate, page 88)
25. Marketing managers continually make decisions based on assumed causal
relationships. Because these assumptions may are justifiable, the validity of the
causal relationships need not be examined via formal research.
(False, moderate, page 89)
26. According to the text, the combination of research designs employed depends on the
nature of the results desired.
(False, moderate, page 90)
27. The total error is the variation between the true mean value in the population of the
variable of interest and the observed mean value obtained in the marketing research
project.
(True, difficult, page 93)
28. In formulating a research design, the researcher should attempt to minimize a
particular source of error, not just the total error.
(False, moderate, page 95)
29. Random sampling error has been found to be the major contributor to total error,
whereas non-sampling error is relatively small in magnitude.
(False, difficult, page 96)
30. A useful approach for managing a project is the critical path method (CPM), which
involves dividing the research project into component activities, determining the
sequence of these activities, and estimating the time required for each activity.
(True, moderate, page 96)
31. The marketing research proposal contains the essence of the project and serves as a
contract between the researcher and the respondent.
(False, easy, page 96)
32. Budgeting and scheduling management tools help ensure that the marketing research
project is completed within the available resources.
(True, easy, page 96)
33. The marketing research proposal does not include a reporting section because a
separate final report of the research project findings is provided at the end of the
project.
(False, moderate, page 97)
34. The research design suitable for one country may not be suitable in another country.
(True, easy, page 97)
35. The example given in the text stated that focus groups conducted in Saudia Arabia to
determine attitude towards major appliances could be conducted the same as in the
U.S. Men and women could participate jointly in the focus group.
(False, moderate, page 97)
36. The client should not take undue advantage of the research firm to solicit unfair
concessions for the current project by making false promises of future research
contracts.
(True, moderate, page 99)
Multiple Choice Questions
37. Which statement is not true about research design?
a. Research design is a framework for conducting the marketing research project.
b. Research design specifies the measurement and scaling procedures.
c. Research design is undertaken before developing the approach to the problem.
d. Research design is undertaken after the marketing research problem is defined.
(c, difficult, pages 77-78)
38. _____ is a framework or blueprint for conducting the marketing research project. It
specifies the details of the procedures necessary for obtaining the information needed
to structure and/or solve marketing research problems.
a. Research classification
b. Research design
c. Design formulation
d. None of the above
(b, moderate, page 78)
39. Typically, a _____ involves the tasks of designing the information needed, specifying
the measurement and scaling procedures, and developing a plan of data analysis.
a. research classification
b. research design
c. design formulation
d. none of the above
(b, difficult, page 78)
40. Which of the following tasks is not a component of research design?
a. Design the exploratory, descriptive, and/or causal phases of the research.
b. Construct and pretest a questionnaire (interviewing form) or an appropriate form
for data collection.
c. Specify the sampling process and sample size.
d. Develop hypotheses.
(d, difficult, page 78)
41. Research designs may be broadly classified as _____ or _____ (Figure 3.1 in text).
a. exploratory; causal
b. conclusive; causal
c. exploratory; conclusive
d. conclusive; descriptive
(c, moderate, page 79)
42. Exploratory research is used in all of the following cases except _____.
a. selecting the cause of action to take in a given situation
b. when you must define the problem more precisely
c. when you must identify relevant causes of action
d. when you must gain additional insights before an approach can be developed
(a, difficult, page 79)
43. The primary objective of _____ is to provide insights into, and an understanding of,
the problem confronting the researcher.
a. exploratory research
b. conclusive research
c. causal research
d. descriptive research
(a, moderate, page 79)
44. _____ is research designed to assist the decision maker in determining, evaluating,
and selecting the best course of action to take in a given situation.
e. Exploratory research
f. Conclusive research
g. Causal research
h. Descriptive research
(b, moderate, page 79)
45. Cross-sectional and longitudinal designs are types of _____ (Figure 3.1 in text).
a. causal research
b. exploratory research
c. descriptive research
d. none of the above
(c, moderate, page 79)
46. Joan needs to determine which variables and relationships she should examine further
as part of the research she is conducting for the Flager Truck Company. Joan is about
to embark on what type of research?
a. simple research
b. exploratory research
c. descriptive research
d. causal research
(b, difficult, page 80)
47. Which of the objectives below would best represent exploratory research?
a. Describe market characteristics or functions.
b. Determine cause and effect relationships.
c. Provide insights and understanding.
d. Test specific hypotheses and examine relationships.
(c, moderate, page 80)
48. Which of the objectives below would best represent conclusive research?
a. Describe market characteristics or functions.
b. Determine cause and effect relationships.
c. Provide insights and understanding.
d. Test specific hypotheses and examine relationships.
(d, moderate, page 80)
49. If there were a need to isolate key variables and relationships for further examination,
it would be best to perform _____.
a. descriptive research
b. causal research
c. exploratory research
d. conclusive research
(c, moderate, page 80)
50. Which of the following statements is not true about exploratory research?
a. It is flexible.
b. It is a pre-planned and structured design.
c. It is versatile.
d. It is often the front end of total research design.
(b, moderate, page 81)
51. Which data collection method is used in causal research?
e. experiments
f. surveys
g. expert surveys
h. panels
(a, moderate, page 81)
52. Jerry and the team working on the Roger Tire Company marketing research project
are developing ways to test their hypothesis that drivers of larger trucks prefer dual
belted radial tires. What type of research are they conducting?
a. simple research
b. exploratory research
c. descriptive research
d. causal research
(c, difficult, page 81)
53. You work for Innovative Focus, an internationally recognized consulting firm. You
are working on the Waterpik account to help them with finding their next successful
product. You are meeting with the Waterpik marketing professionals tomorrow to
conduct a trends meeting to list and prioritize key consumer wants and needs. You
have also scheduled a meeting with the Waterpik engineers to uncover applicable
technologies and the company’s internal competencies. What type of research are
you conducting in your meetings with Waterpik?
a. simple research
b. exploratory research
c. descriptive research
d. causal research
(b, difficult, page 81-82)
54. _____ is a type of conclusive research that has as its major objective the description
of something—usually market characteristics or functions.
e. Exploratory research
f. Conclusive research
g. Causal research
h. Descriptive research
(d, moderate, page 82)
55. Descriptive research is conducted for all of the following reasons except:
e. to describe the characteristics of relevant groups, such as consumers,
salespeople, organizations, or market areas
f. to determine the degree to which marketing variables are associated
g. to understand which variables are the cause and which variables are the effect of a
phenomenon
h. to determine the perceptions of product characteristics
(c, moderate, page 82)
56. A formal research design specifies the methods for selecting the sources of
information and for collecting data from those sources. A _____ design requires a
clear specification of the who, what, when, where, why, and way (the six Ws) of the
research.
a. descriptive
b. causal
c. exploratory
d. none of the above
(a, moderate, page 82)
57. Descriptive research, in contrast to exploratory research, is marked by all of the
following except:
a. a clear statement of the problem
b. specific hypotheses
c. detailed information needs
d. flexibility
(d, difficult, page 82)
58. _____ designs involve the collection of information from any given sample of
population elements only once.
e. Exploratory
f. Causal
g. Cross-sectional
h. None of the above
(c, moderate, page 84)
59. _____ is a cross-sectional design in which one sample of respondents is drawn from
the target population and information is obtained from this sample once.
a. Multiple cross-sectional design
b. Single cross-sectional design
c. Cohort analysis
d. None of the above
(b, moderate, page 84)
60. _____ is the most used descriptive design in marketing research.
e. Longitudinal design
f. Exploratory design
g. Cross-sectional design
h. none of the above
(c, moderate, page 84)
61. Single cross-sectional designs are also called_____.
e. experiment designs
f. sample survey research designs
g. qualitative research designs
h. none of the above
(b, moderate, 84)
62. _____ is a cross-sectional design in which there are two or more samples of
respondents and information is obtained from each sample only once.
e. Multiple cross-sectional design
f. Single cross-sectional design
g. Cohort analysis
h. None of the above
(a, moderate, page 85)
63. _____ is a multiple cross-sectional design consisting of a series of surveys conducted
at appropriate time intervals, where the cohort serves as the basic unit of analysis.
a. Multiple cross-sectional design
b. Single cross-sectional design
c. Cohort analysis
d. None of the above
(c, moderate, page 85)
64. Which of the following statements is true about cohort analysis?
a. A cohort is a group of respondents who experience the same event within the
same time interval.
b. It is unlikely that any of the individuals studied at time one will also be in the
sample at time two.
c. The term cohort analysis refers to any study in which there are measures of some
characteristics of one or more cohorts at two or more points in time.
d. All are correct.
(d, easy, page 85)
65. _____ is a type of research design involving a fixed sample of population elements
that is measured repeatedly. The sample remains the same over time thus providing a
series of pictures which, when viewed together, portray a vivid illustration of the
situation and the changes that are taking place over time.
e. Exploratory research design
f. Causal research design
g. Cross-sectional research design
h. Longitudinal research design
(d, moderate, page 86)
66. The question, “How did the American people rate the performance of George W.
Bush immediately after the war in Afghanistan?” would be addressed using a _____.
However, a _____ would be used to address the question, “How did the American
people change their view of Bush’s performance during the war in Afghanistan?”
e. longitudinal design; multiple cross-sectional
f. cross-sectional design; longitudinal design
g. longitudinal; cross-sectional design
h. none of the above
(b, difficult, page 86)
67. Sometimes the term _____ is used interchangeably with the term longitudinal design.
a. experiment
b. panel
c. survey
d. none of the above
(b, moderate, page 86)
68. _____ refers to a sample of respondents who have agreed to provide information at
specified intervals over an extended period.
e. Experiment
f. Survey
g. Panel
h. None of the above
(c, moderate, page 86)
69. A major advantage of _____ over the cross-sectional design is the ability to detect
change as a result of repeated measurement of the same variables on the same sample.
a. longitudinal design
b. descriptive research design
c. causal research design
d. conclusive research design
(a, moderate, page 87)
70. All of the following are advantages of longitudinal designs over cross-sectional
designs (Table 3.4 in text) except:
e. detecting change
f. accuracy
g. large amount of data collection
h. representative sampling
(d, difficult, page 88)
71. Which of these statements is true about panels?
e. Relatively large amounts of data can be collected.
f. Panel data can be more accurate than cross-sectional data.
g. Panels may not be representative.
h. All of the above statements are correct.
(d, moderate, page 88)
72. According to your text, non-representativeness in panels may arise because of all of
the following except:
e. respondent intelligence
f. mortality
g. refusal to cooperate
h. payment
(a, difficult, pages 88-89)
73. When trying to determine which research design is best to choose, it is best to begin
with exploratory research if the objective of the research is to _____.
a. test hypotheses
b. conduct an annual customer satisfaction survey
c. define the problem more precisely
d. quantify the relative salience of social causes that businesses should be concerned
about
(c, moderate, page 90)
74. _____ is the variation between the true mean value in the population of the variable
of interest and the observed mean value obtained in the marketing research project.
e. Measurement error
f. Recording error
g. Total error
h. Cheating error
(c, moderate, page 93)
75. _____ is the error due to the particular sample selected being an imperfect
representation of the population of interest. It may be defined as the variation between
the true mean value for the sample and the true mean value of the population.
a. Random sampling error
b. Non-response error
c. Non-sampling error
d. Response error
(a, moderate, page 93)
76. _____ are errors that can be attributed to sources other than sampling, and they can be
random or nonrandom.
e. Random sampling error
f. Non-response error
g. Non-sampling error
h. Response error
(c, moderate, page 93)
77. _____ is a type of non-sampling error arising from respondents who do respond but
give inaccurate answers, or their answers are mis-recorded or mis-analyzed. It may
be defined as the variation between the true mean value of the variable in the net
sample and the observed mean value obtained in the marketing research project.
e. Random sampling error
f. Non-response error
g. Non-sampling error
h. Response error
(d, moderate, page 94)
78. _____ is a type of non-sampling error that occurs when some of the respondents
included in the sample do not respond. This error may be defined as the variation
between the true mean value of the variable in the original sample and the true mean
value in the net sample.
a. Random sampling error
b. Non-response error
c. Non-sampling error
d. Response error
(b, moderate, page 94)
79. The variation between the population defined by the researcher and the population as
implied by the sampling frame (list) used is _____.
a. questioning error
b. unwillingness error
c. sampling frame error
d. recording error
(c, easy, page 95)
80. Error that arises from the respondent’s unwillingness to provide accurate information
is _____. Respondents may intentionally misreport their answers because of a desire
to provide socially acceptable answers, avoid embarrassment, or please the
interviewer.
a. questioning error
b. unwillingness error
c. sampling frame error
d. recording error
(b, easy, page 95)
81. In a recent study, the population of the affluent households was defined in four
different ways: (1) households with income of $50,000 or more; (2) the top 20
percent of households, as measured by income; (3) households with net worth over
$250,000; and (4) households with spendable discretionary income 30 percent higher
than that of comparable households. The number and characteristics of the affluent
households varied depending upon the definition, underscoring the need to avoid
_____.
a. sampling frame error
b. respondent selection error
c. measurement error
d. population definition error
(d, difficult, page 95)
82. Which of the following is not a budgeting and scheduling approach for managing a
project?
e. program evaluation and review technique (PERT)
f. critical evaluation and review technique (CERT)
g. critical path method (CPM)
h. graphical evaluation and review technique (GERT)
(b, moderate, page 96)
83. _____ is defined as the official layout of the planned marketing research activity for
management. It describes the research problem, the approach, the research design,
data collection methods, data analysis methods, and reporting methods.
a. Research design
b. The critical path method
c. The marketing research proposal
d. The marketing research problem
(c, moderate, page 96)
84. The marketing research proposal consists of many sections. The _____ section is
normally a statement of the problem, including the specific components.
a. problem definition/objectives of the research
b. approach to the problem
c. executive summary
d. research design
(a, moderate, page 96)
85. The _____ section of the marketing research proposal should discuss how the data
will be collected and who will collect it. The _____ section of the proposal discusses
the kind of data analysis that will be conducted and how the results will be interpreted
should be described.
a. appendices; data analysis
b. fieldwork/data collection; reporting
c. research design; data analysis
d. fieldwork/data collection; data analysis
(d, easy, page 96)
Chapter 4
Exploratory Research Design: Secondary Data
True/False Questions
69. Secondary data are originated by a researcher for the specific purpose of addressing
the problem at hand.
(False, easy, page 106)
70. Primary data are data that have already been collected for purposes other than the
problem at hand.
(False, easy, page 106)
71. As compared to primary data, secondary data are collected rapidly and easily, at a
relatively low cost, and in a short time.
(True, easy, page 106)
72. Examination of available primary data is a prerequisite to the collection of secondary
data.
(False, moderate, page 107)
73. Secondary data can help you develop an approach to the problem, answer certain
research questions and test some hypotheses, and interpret primary data more
insightfully.
(True, moderate, page 107)
74. It is easy to evaluate the accuracy of secondary data because the researcher did
participate in the research.
(False, easy, page 109)
75. One of the problems when evaluating secondary data is that the data may be updated
too frequently for the purpose of the problem at hand.
(False, easy, page 109)
76. Data collected with a specific objective in mind is always appropriate in another
situation.
(False, moderate, page 110)
77. Secondary data may be measured in units that may not be appropriate for the current
problem.
(True, moderate, page 110)
78. It is not possible to reconfigure the available data, for example, convert the units of
measurements, so that the resulting data are more useful to the problem at hand.
(False, difficult, page 110)
79. Data published anonymously or in a form that attempts to hide the details of the data
collection methodology and process should be viewed with suspicion.
(True, moderate, page 110)
80. Secondary data may be classified as either internal or extant.
(False, easy, page 112)
81. Internal sources should be the starting point in the search for external data.
(False, easy, page 112)
82. External data are those generated within the organization for which the research is
being conducted.
(False, easy, page 112)
83. Before collecting external secondary data, it is useful to analyze internal secondary
data.
(True, easy, page 112)
84. DiamlerChrysler’s Personal Information Centers collect data from car owners on all
aspects of buying a car. These PICs give the company the ability to engage in
customized marketing. DiamlerChrysler is using internal secondary data in its
database marketing efforts.
(True, moderate, pages 112-113)
85. Secondary internal data have two significant advantages. They are easily available
and inexpensive.
(True, easy page 113)
86. Secondary internal sources of data are often not fully exploited by organizations.
(True, moderate, page 113)
87. Private sources update census data at a detailed geographic level for between-census
years.
(True, moderate, page 116)
88. Directory databases provide information on individuals, organizations, and services.
(True, moderate, page 118)
89. Syndicated sources, also referred to as syndicated services, are companies that collect
and sell common pools of data of known commercial value, designed to serve
information needs shared by a number of clients.
(True, moderate, page 119)
90. Syndicated sources collect data for marketing research problems specific to individual
clients.
(False, difficult, page 119)
91. Syndicated services data are not collected for the purpose of marketing research
problems specific to individual clients.
(True, difficult, page 119)
92. Syndicated sources can be classified based on the unit of measurement
(households/consumers or institutions).
(True, moderate, pages 119-220)
93. When institutions are the unit of measurement, the data may be obtained from
retailers, wholesales, or households.
(False, difficult, page 120)
94. A lifestyle may be defined as a distinctive pattern of living that is described by the
activities people engage in, the interests they have, and the opinions they hold of
themselves and the world around them (AIOs).
(True, moderate, page 121)
95. Surveys are the primary means of obtaining information about consumers’ motives,
attitudes, and preferences.
(True, moderate, page 123)
96. The distinguishing feature of purchase and media panels is that the respondents
record specific behaviors as they occur.
(True, moderate, page 123)
97. Scanner data is obtained by passing merchandise over a laser scanner that reads the
UPC code from the packages.
(True, easy, page 126)
98. Scanner data have an obvious disadvantage over surveys and purchase panels,
because they reflect purchasing behavior that is not subject to interviewing,
recording, memory, or expert biases.
(False, moderate, page 127)
99. An advantage of scanner data is that in-store variables like pricing, promotions, and
displays are part of the data set.
(True, moderate, page 127)
100. Audits can help consumer product firms determine the size of the total market and
distribution of sales by type of outlet and by different regions.
(True, moderate, page 128)
101. Financial, operating, and employment data are also collected by industry services’
syndicated research firms for one in 10 North American Industry Classification
System (NAICS) industrial categories.
(False, difficult, page 129)
102. The range and sources of syndicated data available for industrial goods firms are
more limited than those available to consumer goods firms.
(True, moderate, page 129)
103. Maps that solve marketing problems are called thematic maps.
(True, difficult, page 130)
104. Ethical issues also arise if the users of secondary data are unduly critical of the
data that do not support their interests and viewpoints.
(True, moderate, page 133)
Multiple Choice Questions
105.
As compared to primary data, secondary data are collected _____.
a. rapidly and easily
b. at a relatively low cost
c. in a short time
d. all of the above
(d, moderate, page 106)
106. The _____ for primary data is very involved and the _____ is high.
i. collection purpose; collection time
j. collection process; collection cost
k. collection process; collection time
l. collection cost; collection time
(b, moderate, page 107)
107. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of secondary data?
a. The objectives, nature, and methods used to collect the secondary data may not
be appropriate to the present situation.
b. Secondary data may be lacking in accuracy.
c. Secondary data may be expensive and time consuming.
d. Secondary data may not be completely current or dependable.
(c, moderate, page 107)
108. Which of the following statements refer to the currency criteria when evaluating
secondary data?
i. Data should be reliable and generalizable to the problem at hand.
j. Syndicated firms periodically update census data.
k. The objective will determine the relevance of the data. Reconfigure the data to
increase their usefulness, if possible.
l. Assess accuracy by comparing data from different sources.
(b, moderate, page 108)
109. Which of the following statements refer to the objective criteria when evaluating
secondary data?
i. Data should be reliable and generalizable to the problem at hand.
j. Syndicated firms periodically update census data.
k. The objective will determine the relevance of the data. Reconfigure the data to
increase their usefulness, if possible.
l. Assess accuracy by comparing data from different sources.
(c, easy, page 108)
110. Based on the criteria for evaluating secondary data shown in Table 4.2, the data
collected by Nielsen Media Research may be suspect because of all of the following
criteria except _____.
a. specification/methodology
b. error/accuracy
c. objective
d. dependability
(c, moderate, page 108)
111. Errors in the approach, research design, sampling, data collection, analysis, and
reporting stages of the project refer to the _____ criteria for evaluating secondary
data.
i. nature
j. objective
k. error/accuracy
l. currency
(c, easy, page 109)
112. Which of the following statements is not true about the currency of secondary
data?
i. The time lag between data collection and publication may be long.
j. The value of secondary data is diminished as it becomes dated.
k. The data may not be updated frequently enough for the problem at hand.
l. All of the above are correct.
(d, easy, pages 109-110)
113. When evaluating secondary data, the _____ criteria asks the question of “why the
data were collected in the first place.”
a. nature
b. objective
c. error/accuracy
d. currency
(b, moderate, page 110)
114. If the key variables have not been defined or are defined in a manner inconsistent
with the researcher’s definition, then the usefulness of the data is limited. This
statement refers to the _____ criteria for evaluating secondary data.
a. nature
b. objective
c. error/accuracy
d. currency
(a, moderate, page 110)
115. You are reviewing secondary data to help with a project concerning consumer
preferences for television programs based on viewer income. Which of the following
statements would not be of concern when considering the nature criteria for
evaluating secondary data?
i. The relationships examined should be taken into account.
j. Secondary data may be measured in units that may not be appropriate for the
current problem.
k. The researcher must determine if the data are accurate enough for the purpose of
the present study.
l. It is possible to reconfigure the available data so that the resulting data are more
useful to the problem at hand.
(c, difficult, page 110)
116. An overall indication of the dependability of data may be obtained by examining
the _____, credibility, reputation, and _____ of the source.
i. accuracy; trustworthiness
j. trustworthiness; expertise
k. expertise; accuracy
l. None of the above is correct.
(b, difficult, page 110)
117. Which of the following classifications of secondary data is not a classification for
external secondary data (Figure 4.1 in text)?
i. published materials
j. computerized databases
k. ready-to-use
l. syndicated services
(c, moderate, page 112)
118.
i.
j.
Creating a marketing database involves all of the following steps except:
transferring raw sales information to a microcomputer
enhancing consumer purchase information by overlaying it with demographic
and psychographic information
k. analyzing information in terms of a customer’s activity over the life of the
business relationship
l. none of the above
(d, difficult, page 113)
119. The CRM system used by DaimlerChrysler is an example of _____.
e. directory databases
f. database marketing
g. audits
h. none of the above
(b, moderate, pages 113-114)
120. Caterpillar needed to know what truck fleets should test their two new engines;
how they could get a marketing strategy that could be measures; and how to adjust for
the coming downturn in sales. To answer these questions, they gave their salesforce
laptops and paid them to enter customer information related to each sale they made.
Caterpillar analyzed the newly acquired customer data and developed strategies to
address their marketing questions. Caterpillar utilized _____.
e. secondary marketing
f. external marketing
g. database marketing
h. internal marketing
(c, moderate, page 114)
121. _____ are an excellent source of standard or recurring information.
i. Directories
j. Indexes
k. Guides
l. Statistical published data
(c, moderate, page 115)
122. Published external secondary data sources may be broadly classified as _____ or
_____ sources (Figure 4.2 in text).
i. public business; government
j. general business; government
k. general business; federal
l. public business; federal
(b, moderate, page 115)
123. _____ are helpful for identifying individuals or organizations that collect specific
data.
a. Directories
b. Indexes
c. Guides
d. Statistical published data
(a, moderate, page 115)
124. It is possible to locate information on a particular topic in several different
publications by using _____.
a. directories
b. indexes
c. guides
d. statistical published data
(b, moderate, page 115)
125. Examples of other government publications published by the federal government
include all of the following except:
a. Periodical Abstract
b. Business Conditions Digest
c. Statistical Abstract of the United States
d. Survey of Current Business
(a, difficult, page 117)
126. _____ are databases stored in computers that require a telecommunications
network to access.
i. Offline databases
j. Bibliographic databases
k. Online databases
l. Internet databases
(c, moderate, page 117)
127. You are researching secondary data on the shopping habits of households for your
dissertation. A marketing research firm that had done research I the area has agreed
to allow you to dial into their mainframe computer to access the data. You will be
accessing a(n) _____. (Choose the best response).
a. online database
b. internet database
c. offline database
d. customer database
(a, difficult, page 117)
128. You are researching secondary data on the shopping habits of households for your
dissertation. You found a data source available via CD-ROM at the library. You are
about to check out a(n) _____. (Choose the best response).
a. online database
b. internet database
c. offline database
d. customer database
(c, moderate, page 117)
129. _____ are databases composed of citations to articles in journals, magazines,
newspapers, marketing research studies, technical reports, government documents,
and the like.
a. Offline databases
b. Bibliographic databases
c. Online databases
d. Internet databases
(b, moderate, page 118)
130. InfoUSA (www.infousa.com) is a leading provider of sales and marketing support
data. InfoUSA provides data via a _____.
a. offline database
b. bibliographic database
c. online database
d. internet database
(d, moderate, page 118)
131. _____ databases provide information on individuals, organizations and services.
is a leading provider of sales and marketing support data.
a. Special purpose
b. Bibliographic
c. Directory
d. Numeric
(c, moderate, page 118)
132.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of audit services (Table 4.3 in text)?
interviewer errors; respondent errors
data is lacking in terms of content, quantity, and quality
data may not be representative; quality of data limited
coverage may be incomplete; matching of data on the competitive activity may be
difficult
(d, difficult, page 120)
133.
a.
b.
c.
d.
Which of the following is a disadvantage of surveys (Table 4.3 in text)?
interviewer errors; respondent errors
data is lacking in terms of content, quantity, and quality
data may not be representative; quality of data limited
coverage may be incomplete; matching of data on the competitive activity may be
difficult
(a, difficult, page 120)
134. Which of the following is a characteristic of purchase panels (Table 4.3 in text)?
a. household purchases recorded through electronic scanners in supermarkets
b. households provide specific information regularly over an extended period of
time; respondents asked to record specific behaviors as they occur
c. verification of product movement by examining physical records or performing
inventory analysis
d. data banks on industrial establishment created through direct inquiries of
companies, clipping services, and corporate reports
(b, moderate, page 120)
135. Which of the following is a characteristic of audit services (Table 4.3 in text)?
a. household purchases recorded through electronic scanners in supermarkets
b. households provide specific information regularly over an extended period of
time; respondents asked to record specific behaviors as they occur
c. verification of product movement by examining physical records or performing
inventory analysis
d. data banks on industrial establishment created through direct inquiries of
companies, clipping services, and corporate reports
(c, moderate, page 120)
136. Surveys can be used for which of the following purposes?
a. to evaluate advertising
b. to examine purchase and consumption behavior
c. for market segmentation
d. all of the above
(d, easy, page 120)
137. Gallup and Robinson Magazine Impact Research Service (MIRS) test ads using
an at-home in-magazine context among widely dispersed samples. Test ads may
naturally appear in the magazine or are inserted as tip-ins. It provides strong,
validated measures of recall, persuasion, and ad reaction with responsive scheduling.
The MIRS is an example of surveys being used _____.
a. to evaluate advertising
b. to examine purchase and consumption behavior
c. for market segmentation
d. all of the above
(a, easy, page 122)
138. A data gathering technique that is comprised of samples of respondents whose
television viewing behavior is automatically recorded by electronic devices,
supplementing the purchase information recorded online or in a diary is referred to as
_____.
a. scanner diary panels/cable TV
b. scanner panels
c. purchase panels
d. media panels
(d, moderate, page 124)
139. According to your text, volume tracking data and scanner panels with cable TV
are sources of scanner data. Which of the following is also a type of scanner data?
e. grocery panels
f. scanner panels
g. both a and b are correct
h. none of the above
(b, difficult, page 124)
140. Scanner data where panel members are identified by an ID card allowing each
panel member’s purchases to be stored with respect to the individual shopper are
referred to as _____.
a. scanner panels with cable TV
b. volume tracking data
c. scanner panels
d. none of the above
(c, moderate, page 124)
141. The different types of scanner data are useful for a variety of purposes. Which of
the following purposes applies to scanner data?
a. data used for market segmentation
b. data used for establishing consumer profiles
c. data used to determine customer motives
d. making advertising decisions, including budget, copy and media, pricing
(d, difficult, page 127)
142. The uses of retail and wholesale audit data include all of the following except:
a. identifying shelf space allocation and inventory problems
b. establishing profiles of specific user groups
c. developing sales potentials and forecasts
d. analyzing distribution problems
(b, moderate, page 128)
143.
a.
b.
c.
Information provided by industry services is useful for which of the following?
sales management decisions such as defining territories and setting quotas
advertising decisions such as allocating advertising budgets
segmenting the market and designing custom products and services for important
segments
d. all of the above
(d, moderate, page 129)
144. _____ combines geography with demographic information and a company’s sales
data or other proprietary information to develop thematic maps.
a. Single-source data
b. Demographic mapping
c. Computer mapping
d. Thematic mapping
(c, moderate, page 130)
145. Sales & Marketing Management’s annual Survey of Buying Power provides data
to help you analyze each of your U.S. markets, whether they are cities, counties,
metro areas, or states. What of the following information is also true of the Survey of
Buying Power?
a. It features statistics, rankings, and projections for ever county and media market
in the United States with demographic broken out by age, race, city, county, and
state.
b. It features information on retail spending; and projections for future growth in
these areas.
c. It features a unique measure of spending power that takes population, EBI, and
retail sales into account to determine a market’s ability to buy.
d. All of the above are true.
(b, difficult, pages 131-132)
146. Which of the following practices might be unethical?
a. the use of secondary data alone when the research requires primary data
collection
b. the client is billed a fixed fee for the project
c. the unnecessary collection of expensive primary data when the research
problem can be addressed based on secondary sources alone
d. both a & c are correct
(d, easy, page 134)
Chapter 5
Exploratory Research Design: Qualitative Research
True/False Questions
147. Qualitative research is an unstructured, exploratory research methodology based
on small samples that provides insights and understanding of the problem setting.
(True, moderate, page 143)
148. Quantitative research seeks to quantify the data and, typically, applies some form
of statistical analysis.
(True, moderate, page 143)
149. The findings of qualitative research should be regarded as conclusive and used to
make generalizations to the population of interest.
(False, difficult, page 143)
150. Qualitative research procedures are classified as either descriptive or causal.
(False, moderate, page 143)
151. Projective techniques are different from focus groups and depth interview
techniques in that projective techniques attempt to disguise the purpose of the
research.
(True, moderate, page 145)
152. The main purpose of focus groups is to gain insights by listening to a group of
people from the appropriate target market talk about issues of interest to the
researcher.
(True, moderate, page 145)
153. An indirect qualitative projective technique is best to use when conducting
research to determine what milk drinkers prefer to eat with their milk.
(False, moderate, page 145)
154. A focus group generally includes 10 to 16 members.
(False, difficult, page 146)
155. A focus group should be homogeneous in terms of demographic and
socioeconomic characteristics.
(True, moderate, page 146)
156. Typical information obtained from the screening questionnaire includes product
familiarity and knowledge, usage behavior, attitudes toward and participation in focus
groups, and standard demographic characteristics.
(True, moderate, page 148)
157. Use of a moderator’s outline reduces some of the validity problems inherent in
focus groups, such as those caused by different moderators not covering the same
content areas in comparable ways.
(False, difficult, pages 148)
158. The number of focus groups that should be conducted on a single subject depends
upon (1) the nature of the issue, (2) the number of distinct market segments, (3) the
number of new ideas generated by each successive group, and (4) time and cost.
(True, moderate, page 153)
159. Resources permitting, one should conduct additional focus groups until the
participants can anticipate what will be said.
(False, moderate, page 153)
160. Telesession groups are focus group sessions by Internet using chat rooms.
(False, moderate, page 154)
161. Synergism, snowballing, simulation, and security are some of the advantages of
focus groups.
(False, difficult, page 154)
162. One advantage of focus groups is synergism which results because the
participants’ feelings are similar to those of other group members; they feel
comfortable and therefore willing to express their ideas and feelings.
(False, difficult, page 154)
163. One advantage of focus groups is serendipity because ideas are more likely to
arise out of the blue in a group than in an individual interview.
(True, moderate, page 154)
164. Focus groups can be misused and abused by considering the results as conclusive.
(True, moderate, page 154)
165. The quality of focus group results depends heavily on the skills of the moderator.
(True, easy, page 154)
166. A disadvantage of focus groups is that the unstructured nature of the responses
makes coding, analysis, and interpretation difficult.
(True, easy, page 154)
167. Focus groups can be used to address substantive issues such as generating
alternative courses of action.
(False, difficult, page 155)
168. Unlike traditional focus groups, online focus group participation is by invitation
only.
(False, moderate, page 155)
169. Participants in online focus groups receive a time, a URL, a room name, and a
password via e-mail.
(True, easy page 155)
170. The cost of online focus groups is much less than for traditional focus groups.
Firms are able to keep costs between one-fifth and one-half the cost of traditional
focus groups.
(True, moderate, page 156)
171. Only audio and visual stimuli can be tested via online focus groups.
(True, easy, page 156)
172. Online focus group participants don't have the potential to be distracted by
external stimuli.
(False, easy, page 156)
173. Online focus groups are appropriate for every research situation.
(False, easy, page 156)
174. There are fewer people in an online focus group than in a traditional focus group
(Table 5.3).
(True, moderate, page 157)
175. During depth interviews, probing is of critical importance in obtaining meaningful
responses and uncovering hidden issues.
(True, easy, page 159)
176. Laddering requires interviewers to be trained in specific probing techniques in
order to develop a meaningful “mental map” of the consumer’s view toward a target
product.
(True, moderate, page 159)
177. Symbolic analysis attempts to analyze the symbolic meaning of objects by
comparing them with their opposites.
(True, moderate, page 160)
178. Depth interviews uncover less depth of insights than focus groups.
(False, difficult, page 161)
179. In role playing, the researcher assumes that the respondents will project their own
feelings into the role.
(True, moderate, page 167)
180. Projective techniques generally require personal interviews with highly trained
interviewers. This is an advantage of projective techniques.
(False, moderate, page 168)
181. Data determination is one of the three general steps that should be followed when
analyzing qualitative data.
(False, difficult, page 170)
182. Qualitative research may reveal the differences between the foreign and domestic
markets.
(True, moderate, page 172)
183. To minimize negative effects that may arise from disguising the purpose of the
qualitative research, the respondents should be informed up front that the true purpose
of the research is being disguised so as not to bias the responses.
(True, moderate, page 174)
184. Focus groups, depth interviews, and projective techniques can be implemented
over the Internet.
(True, moderate, page 176)
Multiple Choice Questions
185. Baby boomers are a large consumer target for many products and “show and
tell” focus groups are being used by consumer researchers. Which of the following
statements is not true about “show and tell” focus groups?
a. Respondents’ attitudes are uncovered by analyzing their responses to scenarios
that are deliberately unstructured, vague, and ambiguous.
b. They provide the needed insight into the core values boomers hold close to their
hearts.
c. Participants bring in three or four items that represent their ideal environment.
d. Group discussion is centered on the items brought in for “show and tell” .
(a, moderate, page 141)
186. Whenever a new marketing research problem is being addressed, _____ research
must be preceded by appropriate _____ research.
a. qualitative; quantitative
b. observational; experimental
c. quantitative; qualitative
d. experimental; observational
(c, moderate, page 143)
187. According to Table 5.1, which of the following does not apply to qualitative
research?
a. a small number of nonrepresentative cases
b. non-statistical data analysis
c. unstructured form of data collection
d. outcome is used to recommend a final course of action
(d, difficult, page 144)
188. There are several reasons to use qualitative research. Which of the following is
not a reason to use qualitative research?
a. It is not always possible, or desirable, to use fully structured or formal methods
to obtain information from respondents.
b. People may be unwilling or unable to answer certain questions.
c. People are unwilling to give truthful answers to questions that invade their
privacy, embarrass them, or have a negative impact on their ego or status.
d. none of the above
(d, moderate, pages 144-145)
189. The _____ is one type of qualitative research in which the purposes of the project
are disclosed to the respondent or are obvious, given the nature of the interview.
a. indirect approach
b. direct approach
c. focus group approach
d. descriptive approach
(b, easy, page 145)
190. An interview conducted by a trained moderator among a small group of
respondents in an unstructured and natural manner is a(n) _____.
a. depth interview
b. projective technique
c. association technique
d. focus group
(d, moderate, page 145)
191. Focus groups are a(n) _____ research procedure and projective techniques are
a(n) _____ research procedure.
a. experimental; direct
b. indirect; direct
c. direct; experimental
d. direct; indirect
(d, easy, page 145)
192. _____ are the most important qualitative research procedure.
a. Focus groups
b. Depth interviews
c. Projective techniques
d. Association techniques
(a, easy, page 146)
193. Which of the following is not one of the key qualifications of focus group
moderators?
a. joviality
b. kindness with firmness
c. flexibility
d. sensitivity
(a, moderate, page 147)
194. The procedure for planning and conducting focus groups is described in Figure
5.3 in the text. Planning begins with _____.
a. specifying the objectives of qualitative research
b. writing a screening questionnaire
c. developing a moderator's guide
d. determining objectives of the marketing research project and defining the problem
(d, easy, page 148)
195. Constructing a detailed moderator’s outline for use during the focus group
interviews involves extensive discussions among the _____, _____, and ____.
a. researcher; moderator; and respondents.
b. researcher; client; moderator.
c. researcher; client; respondent.
d. client; respondent; moderator.
(b, moderate, page 148)
196. The Real Research Mall of Atlanta focus group example in the text used focus
groups to uncover _____.
a. information on the mall visit experience
b. information on mall brand identity versus other malls
c. information on the brand value of the mall
d. all of the above
(d, moderate, page 151-152)
197. It is recommended that at least _____ focus groups be conducted.
a. two
b. three
c. four
d. five
(a, moderate, page 153)
198. A focus group interview conducted by two moderators where one moderator is
responsible for the smooth flow of the session, and the other ensures that specific
issues are discussed is called a _____.
a. two-way focus group
b. dueling-moderator group
c. dual-moderator group
d. respondent-moderator group
(c, difficult, pages 153)
199. Focus groups can use several variations of the standard procedure. Which of the
following is not one of the variations mentioned in your text?
a. respondent-moderator group
b. client-participant group
c. tag-team moderator group
d. mini-group
(c, difficult, pages 153-154)
200. A focus group interview conducted by two moderators where the moderators
deliberately take opposite positions on the issues to be discussed is called a _____.
a. dueling-moderator group
b. two-way focus group
c. dual-moderator group
d. respondent-moderator group
(a, difficult, page 154)
201. One of the findings of the Mall of Atlanta focus group research mentioned in the
text, was that respondents who go to the mall for entertainment try to hold costs to
under $30, except for special occasions. The client reviewed this information and
decided to design a mall experience package that would cost $29.95 The client has
fallen victim to which disadvantage of focus groups?
a. misuse
b. misrepresentation
c. messy
d. both a and b are correct
(d, difficult, pages 154-155)
202. Which of the following is a methodological application of focus groups?
a. obtaining impressions of new product concepts
b. generating alternative courses of action
c. both b and d are correct
d. generating hypotheses that can be tested quantitatively
(c, difficult, pages 154-155)
203. Focus groups can be used to address substantive issues such as _____.
a. defining a problem more precisely
b. generating new ideas about older products
c. developing an approach to a problem
d. interpreting previously obtained quantitative results
(b, difficult, page 155)
204. Which statement is not true about online focus groups?
a. The group interaction lasts for about an hour.
b. The general practice is for moderators to pose their questions in all capital letters
and the respondents to respond using upper and lower case.
c. The whole process is much faster than the traditional method.
d. To enter the online focus group, participants must supply the room name, user
name, and password to the moderator via email.
(d, moderate, page 155-156)
205. Which of the following statements is not an advantage of online focus groups?
a. The researcher can reach segments that are usually hard to survey.
b. Researchers can re-contact group participants at a later date.
c. The cost of the online focus group is much less.
d. Only people that have and know how to use a computer can participate.
(d, moderate, page 156)
206. Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of online focus groups?
a. Moderators may also be able to carry on side conversations with individual
respondents, probing deeper into interesting areas.
b. It can be difficult to verify that a respondent is a member of a target group.
c. Only audio and visual stimuli can be tested.
d. Only people that have and know how to use a computer can participate.
(a, moderate, page 156)
207. Which of the situations mentioned below is not suitable for online focus groups?
a. highly emotional issues
b. companies that use the Internet to sell products or services and want to either gain
market share or gather intelligence
c. corporations that want to gather feedback on workplace issues like downsizing,
job changes, and diversity
d. none of the above
(a, moderate, page 157)
208. A _____ is an unstructured, direct, personal interview in which a single
respondent is probed by a highly skilled interviewer to uncover underlying
motivations, beliefs, attitudes, and feelings on a topic.
a. focus group
b. qualitative interview
c. projective interview
d. depth interview
(d, moderate, page 158)
209. Depth interviews are like focus group in all of the following ways except:
a. both are unstructured interviews
b. both are direct ways of obtaining information
c. both are qualitative research methods
d. both are one-on-one interviews
(d, difficult, page 158)
210. “Why do you say that?”, “That’s interesting, can you tell me more?” or, “Would
you like to add anything else?” are examples of _____.
a. focusing
b. projecting
c. probing
d. none of the above
(c, easy, page 159)
211. _____ is a technique for conducting depth interviews in which a line of
questioning proceeds from product characteristics to user characteristics.
a. Hidden issue questioning
b. Symbolic analysis
c. Laddering
d. none of the above
(c, moderate, page 159)
212. In a study the researcher was investigating attitudes toward airlines among male
middle managers. Each airline attribute, such as wide-body aircrafts, was probed
(why do you like to travel in wide-body aircrafts?) to determine why it was important
(I can get more work done) and then that reason was probed (I accomplish more), and
so on (I feel good about myself). The depth interview techniques used in the study is
called _____.
a. hidden issue questioning
b. symbolic analysis
c. laddering
d. none of the above
(c, difficult, page 160)
213. In a study the researcher was investigating attitudes toward airlines among male
middle managers. Questions asked included, “What would it be like if you could no
longer use airplanes?” Responses like, “Without planes, I would have to rely on email, letters, and telephone calls” were received. This suggests that what airlines sell
to the managers is face-to-face communication. The depth interview techniques used
in the study is called _____.
a. hidden issue questioning
b. symbolic analysis
c. laddering
d. none of the above
(b, difficult, page 160)
214. _____ is a type of depth interview that attempts to locate personal sore spots
related to deeply felt personal concerns.
a. Hidden issue questioning
b. Symbolic analysis
c. Laddering
d. None of the above
(a, moderate, page 160)
215. _____ is a technique for conducting depth interviews in which the symbolic
meaning of objects is analyzed by comparing them with their opposites.
a. Hidden issue questioning
b. Symbolic analysis
c. Laddering
d. None of the above
(b, moderate, page 160)
216. In a depth interview, the interviewer should_____.
a. avoid appearing superior and put the respondent at ease
b. be detached and objective, yet personable
c. probe the respondent
d. all of the above
(d, easy, page 160)
217. In a depth interview, the interviewer should _____.
a. not accept brief “yes” or “no” answers
b. not probe the respondent
c. ask questions in an informative manner
d. a and c are both correct
(d, easy, page 160)
218. Depth interviews suffer from many of the disadvantages of focus groups and often
to a greater extent. Which of the following disadvantages is not shared with focus
groups?
a. Skilled interviewers capable of conducting depth interviews are expensive and
difficult to find.
b. The lack of structure makes the results susceptible to the interviewer’s influence.
c. The data obtained are difficult to analyze and interpret.
d. All of the above are shared with focus groups.
(d, difficult, page 161)
219. A(n) _____ is an unstructured, indirect form of questioning that encourages
respondents to project their underlying motivations, beliefs, attitudes, or feelings
regarding the issues of concern.
a. projective technique
b. focus group
c. association technique
d. depth interview
(a, easy, page 163)
220. In _____, an individual is presented with a stimulus and asked to respond with the
first thing that comes to mind.
a. completion techniques
b. focus groups
c. association techniques
d. depth interviews
(c, moderate, page 163)
221. Word association is the best known of the _____ techniques.
a. expressive
b. association
c. completion
d. construction
(b, easy, page 163)
222. With _____ respondents are presented with a list of words, one at a time. After
each word, they are asked to give the first word that comes to mind.
a. word association
b. sentence completion
c. story completion
d. none of the above
(a, moderate, page 163)
223.
a.
b.
c.
In word association, responses are analyzed by calculating _____.
the frequency with which any word is given as a response
the amount of time that elapses before a response is given
the number of respondents who do not respond at all to a test word within a
reasonable period of time
d. all of the above
(d, moderate, page 163)
224. _____ is a projective technique that requires the respondent to complete an
incomplete stimulus situation.
a. Association technique
b. Expressive technique
c. Construction technique
d. Completion technique
(d, easy, page 164)
225. _____ is a projective technique in which respondents are presented with a number
of incomplete sentences and asked to complete them.
a. Word association
b. Sentence completion
c. Story completion
d. Expression completion
(b, easy, page 164)
226. _____ is a projective technique in which the respondents are provided with part of
a story and required to give the conclusion in their own words.
a. Word association
b. Sentence completion
c. Story completion
d. Expression completion
(c, easy, page 165)
227. _____ require the respondent to construct a response in the form of a story,
dialogue, or description.
a. Association techniques
b. Expressive techniques
c. Construction techniques
d. Impression techniques
(c, easy, page 165)
228. In _____, cartoon characters are shown in a specific situation related to the
problem. The respondents are asked to indicate what one cartoon character might say
in response to the comments of another character.
a. picture response techniques
b. cartoon tests
c. third-person techniques
d. role playing
(b, easy, page 166)
229. The two main expressive techniques are _____ and _____.
a. role playing; word association
b. role playing; third-person technique
c. word association; sentence completion
d. third-person technique; word association
(b, moderate, page 166)
230. _____ is a projective technique in which the respondent is presented with a verbal
or visual situation and asked to relate the beliefs and attitudes of a third person to the
situation.
a. Role playing
b. Sentence completion
c. Cartoon test
d. Third-party technique
(d, easy, page 167)
231. In _____, respondents are asked to play the role or assume the behavior of
someone else.
a. role playing
b. sentence completion
c. cartoon test
d. third-party technique
(a, easy, page 167)
232. Projective techniques are used less frequently than unstructured direct methods
(focus groups and depth interviews). A possible exception may be _____, which is
used commonly to test brand names and occasionally to measure attitudes about
particular products, brands, packages, or advertisements.
a. story completion
b. word association
c. sentence completion
d. cartoon tests
(b, difficult, page 168)
233. Which of the following guidelines does not enhance the usefulness of projective
techniques?
a. Projective techniques should be used because the required information cannot
be accurately obtained by direct methods.
b. Projective techniques should be used for exploratory research to gain initial
insights and understanding.
c. Given their complexity, projective techniques should not be used naively.
d. None of the above
(d, difficult, page 168)
88. _____is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing
qualitative data. In this step, the researcher chooses which aspects of the data are
emphasized, minimized, or set aside for the project at hand.
a. Data display
b. Data reduction
c. Data determination
d. Conclusion drawing and verification
(b, difficult, page 170)
89. _____ is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing
qualitative data. In this step, the researcher develops a visual interpretation of the
data with the use of such tools as a diagram, chart or matrix.
a. Data display
b. Data reduction
c. Data determination
d. Conclusion drawing and verification
(a, easy, page 170)
90. _____ is one of the three general steps that should be followed when analyzing
qualitative data. In this step, the researcher considers the meaning of analyzed data
and assesses its implications for the research question at hand.
a. Data display
b. Data reduction
c. Data determination
d. Conclusion drawing and verification
(d, moderate, page 170)
91. When conducting international marketing research, focus group moderators should
not only be trained in focus group methodology but should also be familiar with the
_____ of the country.
a. language
b. culture
c. patterns of social interaction
d. all of the above
(d, difficult, page 172)
92. Which of the following is not an ethical issue of concern to the researcher?
a. disguising the purpose of the research and the use of deceptive procedures
b. videotaping and recording the proceedings
c. comfort level of the respondents
d. none of the above
(d, moderate, page 173)
93. The 2000 and 2004 presidential elections were cited in your text for negative attacks
by both the Republican and Democratic parties. The negative attacks were based on
qualitative marketing research used to help design the messages. Which ethical
concern is this use of marketing research related to?
a. disguising the purpose of the research and the use of deceptive procedures
b. using qualitative research for questionable purposes
c. comfort level of the respondents
d. none of the above
(b, moderate, page 173)
Chapter 7
Causal Research Design: Experimentation
True/False Questions
1. Causality refers to when the occurrence of X causes the occurrence of Y.
(False, easy, page 220)
35. The everyday meaning of causality is more appropriate to marketing research than is
the scientific meaning.
(False, moderate, page 220)
36. The conditions of concomitant variation, time order of occurrence of variables and
elimination of other possible causal factors, are necessary but not sufficient to
demonstrate causality.
(True, moderate, page 221)
37. Concomitant variation is the extent to which a cause, X, and an effect, Y, occur
together or vary together in the way predicted by the hypothesis under
consideration.
(True, moderate, page 221)
38. Evidence pertaining to concomitant variation can only be obtained in a qualitative
manner.
(False, moderate, page 221)
39. In an after-the-fact examination of a situation, we can confidently rule out all other
causal factors.
(False, moderate, page 222)
40. With experimental designs, it is possible to control for some of the other causal
factors.
(True, moderate, page 222)
41. Evidence of concomitant variation, time order of occurrence of variables, and
elimination of other possible causal factors, when combined, demonstrate
conclusively that a causal relationship exists.
(False, difficult, page 223)
42. Price levels, package designs, and advertising themes are examples of independent
variables manipulated by the researcher.
(True, easy, page 223)
43. Independent variables are variables or alternatives that are manipulated and whose
effects are measured and compared.
(True, easy, page 223)
44. Test units are individuals, organizations, or other entities whose response to
independent variables or treatments is being studied.
(True, easy, page 223)
45. Independent variables are the variables that measure the effect of the dependent
variables on the test units.
(False, moderate, page 224)
46. Extraneous variables are all variables other than the independent variables that
affect the response of the test units.
(True, easy, page 224)
47. An experiment is formed when the researcher manipulates one or more dependent
variables and measures their effect on one or more independent variables, while
controlling for the effect of extraneous variables.
(False, easy, page 224)
48. If the goal of the researcher is to make valid generalizations to a larger population of
interest, then, the researcher is concerned with internal validity.
(False, moderate, page 225)
49. There is no problem developing experimental designs that have high levels of both
internal and external validity.
(False, moderate, page 225)
50. To control for extraneous variables, a researcher may conduct an experiment in an
artificial environment. This enhances external validity, but it may limit the
generalizability of the results, thereby reducing internal validity.
(False, moderate, page 225)
51. History (H) refers to the occurrence of events before the experiment.
(False, moderate, page 226)
52. The longer the time interval between observations, the greater the possibility that
history will confound an experiment.
(True, easy, page 226)
53. Extraneous variables are also called confounding variables because unless they are
controlled for, they affect the independent variable and thus confound the results.
(False, moderate, page 228)
54. Matching is a method of controlling extraneous variables that involve matching test
units on a set of key background variables before assigning them to the treatment
conditions.
(True, easy, page 228)
55. Experimental designs may be classified as preexperimental, true experimental,
quasi-experimental, or post-statistical.
(True, moderate, page 229)
56. Also known as the after-only design, the one-shot case study may be symbolically
represented as: X 01.
(True, difficult, page 230)
57. In practice, a control group is sometimes defined as the group that receives the
current level of marketing activity, rather than a group that receives no treatment at
all because it is difficult to reduce current marketing activities, such as advertising
and personal selling, to zero.
(True, moderate, page 231)
58. The distinguishing feature of the true experimental designs, as compared to
preexperimental designs, is lack of randomization.
(False, moderate, page 231)
59. Quasi-experimental designs are useful because they can be used in cases when true
experimentation cannot, and because they are quicker and less expensive.
(True, moderate, page 233)
60. Full experimental control is available in quasi-experimental designs; therefore, the
researcher does not need to take into account the specific variables that are not
controlled.
(False, moderate, page 233)
61. Time series design is a quasi-experimental design that involves periodic
measurements on the dependent variable for a group of test units.
(True, moderate, page 234)
62. When more than one variable must be controlled, the researcher must use
randomized block or factorial designs.
(False, difficult, page 236)
63. A Latin square is conceptualized as a table, with the rows and the columns
representing the blocks in the two external variables.
(True, moderate, page 237)
64. Unlike the randomized block design and the Latin square, factorial designs allow for
interactions between variables.
(True, moderate, page 237)
65. Factorial design is a true experimental design that is used to measure the effects of
two or more independent variables at various levels and to allow for interactions
between variables.
(False, moderate, page 238)
66. The main disadvantage of a factorial design is that the number of treatment
combinations increases multiplicatively with an increase in the number of variables
or levels.
(True, difficult, page 238)
67. A field environment is synonymous with actual market conditions.
(True, easy, page 238)
68. Field experiments have some advantages over laboratory experiments. The field
experiment offers a high degree of control because it isolates the experiment in a
carefully monitored environment.
(False, easy, page 239)
69. The Internet can provide a mechanism for controlled experimentation, although in a
laboratory type of environment.
(True, difficult, page 239)
70. All of the types of experimental designs mentioned in the chapter on Causal
Research Design (Latin Square, factorial, true experimental, and preexperimental
designs for example) can be implemented on the Internet.
(True, difficult, page 240)
71. Only causal designs are truly appropriate for inferring cause-and-effect relationships.
(True, moderate, page 240)
72. Descriptive survey studies do not meet all conditions required for causality.
(True, moderate, page 240)
73. Experimentation is becoming increasingly important in marketing research, but
there are limitations of time, cost, and administration of an experiment.
(True, moderate, page 240)
74. Standard text markets can cost as much as $1 million; simulated test markets cost
less than 10 percent as much.
(True, moderate, page 243)
75. In many countries, the marketing, economic, structural, information, and
technological environments are not developed to the extent that they are in the
United States.
(True, moderate, page 243)
76. The internal and external validity of field experiments conducted overseas is
generally lower than in the United States.
(True, easy, page 244)
77. Debriefing occurs after the experiment and entails informing test subjects what the
experiment was about and how the experimental manipulations were performed
(True, easy, page 244)
Multiple Choice Questions
78. The scientific concept of causality is complex. “Causality” means something very
different to the average person on the street than to a scientist. If the ordinary
meaning of a statement is “ X is the only cause of Y,” its related scientific meaning is:
a. The occurrence of X makes the occurrence of Y.
b. We can never prove that X is a cause of Y. At best, we can infer that X is a cause
of Y.
c. X is only one of a number of possible causes of Y.
d. None of the above is correct.
(c, difficult, page 221)
47. The conditions that must be satisfied before making causal inferences include all of
the following except _____.
a. time order of occurrence of variables
b. role of evidence
c. concomitant variation
d. elimination of other possible factors
(b, moderate, page 221)
48. _____ is the extent to which a cause, X, and an effect, Y, occur together or vary
together in the way predicted by the hypothesis under consideration.
a. The time order of occurrence of variables
b. The role of evidence
c. Concomitant variation
d. The elimination of other possible factors
(c, moderate, page 221)
49. The statement ‘An effect cannot be produced by an event that occurs after the
effect has taken place,’ refers to _____.
a. the time order of occurrence of variables
b. the role of evidence
c. concomitant variation
d. the elimination of other possible factors
(a, moderate, page 222)
50. Which of the following statements is not true concerning the time order of
occurrence of variables?
a. In an after-the-fact examination of the situation, we can never confidently rule
out all other causal factors.
b. The causing event must occur either before or simultaneously with the effect; it
cannot occur afterwards.
c. An effect cannot be produced by an event that occurs after the effect has taken
place.
d. It is possible for each event in a relationship to be both a cause and an effect of
the other event.
(a, moderate, page 222)
51. _____ means that the factor or variable being investigated should be the only
possible causal explanation.
a. The time order of occurrence of variables
b. The role of evidence
c. Concomitant variation
d. The absence of other possible causal factors
(d, moderate, page 222)
52. When considering _____, accumulated evidence from several investigations
increases our confidence that a causal relationship exists.
a. the time order of occurrence of variables
b. the role of evidence
c. concomitant variation
d. the elimination of other possible factors
(b, moderate, page 223)
53. Experimental design is the set of experimental procedures specifying the test units
and sampling procedures and all of the following except:
a. specifying the independent variables
b. specifying the dependent variables
c. specifying the plan for data analysis
d. specifying how to control the extraneous variables
(c, difficult, page 224)
54. In the New York coupon experiment mentioned in your text, the experiment was
conducted to test the effects of the face value of coupons on the likelihood of
coupon redemption. Subjects were randomly assigned to 2 treatment groups. One
group was offered 15-cent coupons and the other 50-cent coupons for four
products. During the interviews, the respondents answered questions about which
brands they used and how likely they were to cash coupons of the given face value
the next time they shopped. In the preceding experiment, the dependent variable
that was _____.
a. brand usage
b. the value of the coupon (15-cent versus 50-cent coupon)
c. the likelihood of cashing the coupon
d. individual shoppers
(c, moderate, page 224)
55. In the New York coupon experiment mentioned in your text, the experiment was
conducted to test the effects of the face value of coupons on the likelihood of
coupon redemption. Subjects were randomly assigned to 2 treatment groups. One
group was offered 15-cent coupons and the other 50-cent coupons for four
products. During the interviews, the respondents answered questions about which
brands they used and how likely they were to cash coupons of the given face value
the next time they shopped. In the preceding experiment, the independent variable
that was manipulated was_____.
a. brand usage
b. the value of the coupon (15-cent versus 50-cent coupon)
c. the likelihood of cashing the coupon
d. individual shoppers
(b, moderate, page 224)
56. In the New York coupon experiment mentioned in your text, the experiment was
conducted to test the effects of the face value of coupons on the likelihood of
coupon redemption. Subjects were randomly assigned to 2 treatment groups. One
group was offered 15-cent coupons and the other 50-cent coupons for four
products. During the interviews, the respondents answered questions about which
brands they used and how likely they were to cash coupons of the given face value
the next time they shopped. In the preceding experiment, the test units were_____.
a. brand usage
b. the value of the coupon (15-cent versus 50-cent coupon)
c. the likelihood of cashing the coupon
d. individual shoppers
(d, moderate, page 224)
57. _____ is a measure of accuracy of an experiment. It measures whether the
manipulation of the independent variables, or treatments, actually caused the
effects on the dependent variable(s).
a. External validity
b. Extraneous validity
c. Internal validity
d. None of the above
(c, moderate, page 225)
58. All of the following statements are true about external validity except _____.
a. threats to external validity arise when the specific experimental conditions does
not realistically take into account the interactions of other relevant variables in
the real world.
b. external validity is the basic minimum that must be present in an experiment
before any conclusion about treatment effects can be made
c. factors that threaten internal validity may also threaten external validity, the
most serious of these being extraneous variables.
d. a and c are true
(d, difficult, pages 225-226)
59. _____ is a determination of whether the cause-and-effect relationships found in the
experiment can be generalized. Can the results be generalized beyond the
experimental situation and if so, to what populations, settings, times, independent
variables and dependent variables can the results be projected?
a. External validity
b. Extraneous validity
c. Internal validity
d. None of the above
(c, moderate, page 225)
60. _____ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to changes in the test units
themselves that occur with the passage of time.
a. Mortality
b. Interactive testing effect
c. Maturation
d. Main testing effect
(c, moderate, page 226)
61. _____ refers to an effect of testing occurring when a prior observation affects a
latter observation.
a. Mortality
b. Interactive testing effect
c. Maturation
d. Main testing effect
(d, difficult, page 226)
62. _____ refers to an effect in which a prior measurement affects the test unit’s
response to the independent variable.
a. Mortality
b. Interactive testing effect
c. Maturation
d. Main testing effect
(b, difficult, page 227)
63. _____ refers to an extraneous variable involving changes in the measuring
instrument or in the observers or scores themselves.
a. Instrumentation
b. Statistical regression
c. Selection bias
d. None of the above
(a, easy, page 227)
64. _____ refers to an extraneous variable that occurs when test units with extreme
scores move closer to the average score during the course of the experiment.
a. Instrumentation
b. Statistical regression
c. Selection bias
d. None of the above
(b, difficult, page 227)
65. _____ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to the improper assignment of
test units to treatment conditions.
a. Instrumentation
b. Statistical regression
c. Selection bias
d. None of the above
(c, moderate, page 227)
66. _____ refers to an extraneous variable attributable to the loss of test units while the
experiment is in progress.
a. Mortality
b. Interactive testing effect
c. Maturation
d. Main testing effect
(a, difficult, page 227)
67. If the experimental design called for the respondents to be randomly assigned to
one of three experimental groups and for one of three versions of a test commercial
to be randomly administered to each group, this design would be using _____.
a. design control
b. statistical control
c. randomization
d. matching
(c, easy, page 228)
68. _____ involves measuring the extraneous variables and adjusting for their effects
through statistical analysis.
a. Design control
b. Statistical control
c. Randomization
d. Matching
(b, easy, page 228)
69. If in test marketing a new product, the researcher ensures that the product is
positioned in the correct aisle in each store and obtains the right level of store
acceptance and all commodity volume distribution, more than likely, the researcher
used _____ to help control for extraneous variables.
a. design control
b. statistical control
c. randomization
d. matching
(a, difficult, page 229)
70. The one-group pretest-posttest is a type of _____. These designs do not control for
extraneous factors by randomization.
a. quasi-experimental design
b. true experimental design
c. statistical design
d. preexperimental design
(d, moderate, page 229)
71. Pretest-posttest control group and Solomon four-group designs are
_____distinguished by the fact that the researcher can randomly assign test units to
experimental groups and also randomly assign treatments to experimental groups.
a. quasi-experimental designs
b. true experimental designs
c. statistical designs
d. preexperimental designs
(b, moderate, page 229)
72. _____ result when the researcher is unable to achieve full manipulation of
scheduling or allocation of treatments to test units but can still apply part of the
apparatus of true experimentation.
a. Quasi-experimental designs
b. True experimental designs
c. Statistical designs
d. Preexperimental designs
(a, moderate, page 229)
73. _____ allow for the statistical control and analysis of external variables.
a. Quasi-experimental designs
b. True experimental designs
c. Statistical designs
d. Preexperimental designs
(c, moderate, page 229)
74. Which statement is not true about laboratory experiments?
a. The laboratory environment offers a high degree of control because it isolates
the experiment in a carefully monitored environment.
b. The artificiality of the environment may cause reactive error, in that the
respondents react to the situation itself, rather than to the independent
variable.
c. Laboratory experiments are likely to have higher external validity than field
experiments.
d. Laboratory experiments allow for more complex designs than field experiments.
(c, difficult, page 239)
75. Which of the following statements is true when considering experimental versus
non-experimental designs?
a. It is difficult in descriptive studies to establish the prior equivalence of the
respondent groups with respect to both the independent and dependent
variables. However, experiments can establish this equivalence.
b. Descriptive research offers little control over other possible causal factors.
c. In descriptive research, it is also difficult to establish time order of occurrence of
variables. However, in an experiment, the researcher controls the timing of the
measurements and the introduction of the treatment.
d. All of the above statements are correct.
(d, moderate, page 240)
76. Which of the following is a reason why experiments may be hard to administer?
a. It may be impossible to control for the effects of the extraneous variables.
b. Competitors may deliberately contaminate the results of a field experiment.
c. Both a and b are reasons why experiments may be hard to administer.
d. Neither a nor b is a reason why experiments may be hard to administer.
(d, easy, page 241)
77. ____ is a test market in which the product is sold through regular distribution
channels.
a. Simulated test market
b. Partial test market
c. Controlled test market
d. Standard test market
(d, easy, page 241)
78. Which statement is not true concerning a standard test market?
a. It is a one-shot case study.
b. Test markets are selected and the product is sold through regular distribution
channels.
c. Where external validity is important, at least four test markets should be used.
d. All statements are correct.
(d, moderate, pages 241-242)
79. _____ is a test marketing program conducted by an outside research company in
field experimentation. The research company guarantees distribution of the
product in retail outlets that represent a pre-determined percentage of the market.
a. Simulated test market
b. Partial test market
c. Controlled test market
d. Standard test market
(c, moderate, page 243)
80. Which statement is not true about why it is difficult to conduct field experiments in
the international arena?
a. In many countries, the TV stations are owned and operated by the government
with severe restrictions on television advertising. This makes field experiments
manipulating advertising levels extremely difficult.
b. The lack of major supermarkets in the Baltic states makes it difficult to conduct
field experiments to determine the effect of in-store promotions on the sales of
products.
c. Even when basic infrastructures such as roads, transportation, and warehouse
facilities are adequate, they do not help in achieving desired levels of
distribution.
d. Even when experiments are designed, it is difficult to control for the time order
of occurrence of variables and the absence of other possible causal factors, two
of the necessary conditions for causality.
(c, difficult, page 243)
81. Which of the following is an ethical concern associated with doing experiments?
a. how to disguise the purpose of the research in a manner that does not violate
the rights of the respondents
b. how to find respondents for the experiment
c. ensuring that the appropriate experimental design for the problem was used
d. both a and c are correct
(d, moderate, page 244)
82. Which of the following is not true about the debriefing procedure?
a. After the data have been collected, the true purpose of the study and the nature
of the disguise should be fully explained to the respondents and they should be
given an opportunity to withdraw their information.
b. Debriefing can alleviate stress and make the experiment a learning experience
for the respondents.
c. Inform the respondents at the beginning that the experiment has been
disguised.
d. Both a and c are not true.
(c, moderate, page 244)
Chapter 9
Measurement and Scaling: Noncomparative Scaling Techniques
True/False Questions
1. A noncomparative scale is one of two scaling techniques in which each stimulus
object is scaled independent of the other objects in the stimulus set.
(True, moderate, page 272)
2. Noncomparative techniques are comprised of continuous and itemized rating scales.
(False, moderate, page 272)
3. Non-comparative scales are often referred to as monadic scale.
(True, moderate, page 272)
4. Respondents using a non-comparative scale employ whatever rating standard seems
appropriate to them.
(True, moderate, page 272)
5. The New York City Transit used Likert scales to determine people’s perceptions of
the subway system and address their concerns, leading to increased ridership.
(True, moderate, page 272)
6. In an itemized rating scale, the respondents are provided with a scale that has a
number or brief description associated with each category.
(True, moderate, page 274)
7. Itemized rating scales are widely used in marketing research and form the basic
components of more complex scales.
(True, moderate, page 274)
8. Typically, each Likert scale item has seven response categories, ranging from
“strongly disagree” to “strongly agree.”
(False, moderate, page 274)
9. Likert scale analysis can be conducted on an item-by-item basis (profile analysis).
(True, moderate, page 275)
10. Profile analysis involves determining the average respondent ratings for each item.
(True, moderate, page 275)
11. The Likert scale is also referred to as a summated scale.
(True, moderate, page 275)
12. The negative adjective or phrase sometimes appears at the left side of the scale and
sometimes at the right. This controls the tendency of some respondents,
particularly those with very positive or negative attitudes, to mark the right-or-lefthand sides without reading the labels.
(True, moderate, page 276)
13. The semantic differential is a five-point rating scale with endpoints associated with
bipolar labels that have semantic meaning.
(False, moderate, page 276)
14. Individual items on a semantic differential scale may be scored on either a -3 to +3
or a 1 to -7 scale.
(True, moderate, page 277)
15. Although the mean is most often used as a summary statistic with semantic
differential scale data, there is some controversy as to whether the data obtained
should be treated as an interval scale.
(True, moderate, page 277)
16. The Stapel scale is usually presented horizontally.
(False, easy, page 277)
17. An advantage of the Stapel scale is it can be administered over the telephone.
(True, difficult, page 278)
18. Of the three itemized rating scales considered, the semantic differential scale is used
the least.
(False, moderate, page 278)
19. The size of the correlation coefficient, a common measure of relationship between
variables in itemized rating scales, is influenced by the number of scale categories.
The correlation coefficient increases with a reduction in the number of categories.
False, difficult, page 278)
20. The smaller the number of scale categories, the finer the discrimination among
stimulus objects that is possible.
(False, moderate, page 278)
21. When determining the number of scale categories to use in a non-comparative
itemized rating scale, the nature of the object is relevant.
(True, moderate, page 278)
22. When determining the number of scale categories to use in a non-comparative
itemized rating scale, if individual responses are of interest, or the data will be
analyzed by sophisticated statistical techniques, five or more scale categories may
be required.
(False, difficult, page 278)
23. The Likert scale is a balanced rating scale with an odd number of categories and a
neutral point.
(True, easy, page 279)
24. A forced rating scale forces the respondents to express an opinion because “no
opinion” or “no knowledge” options are not provided.
(True, easy, page 279)
25. In situations where the respondents are expected to have no opinions, as opposed
to simply being reluctant to disclose it, the accuracy of data may be improved by a
non-forced scale that includes a “no opinion” category.
(True, easy, page 279)
26. It has been found that providing a verbal description for each scale category
consistently improves the accuracy or reliability of the data.
(False, moderate, page 279)
27. Non-comparative itemized rating scales with strong adjectives as anchors
(1=generally disagree, 7=generally agree) result in less variable and more peaked
response contributions.
(True, difficult, page 279)
28. The number of scale categories used in noncomparative itemized scales is fixed at
five.
(False, easy, page 280)
29. A construct is the theory being measured.
(False, moderate, page 282)
30. The scale development process is an iterative one.
(True, easy, page 282)
31. Reliability refers to the extent to which a scale produces valid results if repeated
measurements are made.
(False, moderate, page 284)
32. Systematic sources of error do have an adverse impact on reliability because they
affect the measurement in a constant way and do not lead to inconsistency.
(True, moderate, page 284)
33. Reliability is assessed by determining the proportion of systematic variation in a
scale.
(True, moderate, page 284)
34. In alternative-forms reliability, the same respondents are measured at two different
times, usually one to three weeks apart, with a different scale form being
administered each time.
(False, difficult, page 285)
35. With alternative forms reliability, a low correlation may reflect either an unreliable
scale or nonequivalent forms.
(True, moderate, page 285)
36. An important property of coefficient alpha is that its value tends to decrease with an
increase in the number of scale items.
(False, moderate, page 285)
37. Coefficient alpha assists in determining whether the averaging process used in
calculating coefficient beta is masking any inconsistent items.
False, moderate, page 285)
38. Perfect validity requires that there be no measurement error, therefore:
(XO = XT, XR = 0, XS = 0).
(True, difficult, page 286)
39. Given its subjective nature, content validity alone is a sufficient measure of the
validity of a scale.
(False, moderate, page 286)
40. Construct validity is the simplest and easiest type of validity to establish.
(False, moderate, page 287)
41. Using several scale items to measure the characteristic of interest provides more
accurate measurement than a single-item scale.
(True, easy, page 288)
42. The semantic differential scale may be said to be pan-cultural or free of cultural bias.
(True, moderate, page 288)
43. The researcher can bias the scales by either biasing the wording of the statements
(Likert type scales), the scale descriptors, or other aspects of the scale.
(True, easy, page 289)
Multiple Choice Questions
46. In a _____, respondents rate the objects by placing a mark at the appropriate
position on a line that runs from one extreme of the criterion variable to the other.
a. semantic differential scale
b. Likert scale
c. continuous rating scale
d. Stapel scale
(c, easy, page 272)
47. Scores assigned to continuous rating scales by the researcher are typically treated as
_____ data.
a. nominal
b. ordinal
c. ratio
d. interval
(d, moderate, page 273)
48. Which non-comparative scale has the advantage of being easy to construct and the
disadvantage of cumbersome scoring unless the scoring is computerized (Table 9.1
in text)?
a. semantic differential scale
b. Likert scale
c. continuous rating scale
d. Stapel scale
(c, difficult, page 272)
49. Which scale is not an itemized rating scale (Table 9.1 in text)?
a. Stapel scale
b. semantic differential scale
c. Likert scale
d. continuous rating scale
(d, easy, page 272)
50. Which of the following statements does not pertain to non-comparative scales?
a. Comparative scales are often referred to as monadic scales.
b. Respondents using a non-comparative scale employ whatever rating standard
seems appropriate.
c. Data must be interpreted in relative terms and have only ordinal or rank order
properties.
d. Non-comparative techniques consist of continuous and itemized rating scales.
(c, moderate, page 272-273)
51. A _____ is a measurement scale with five response categories ranging from
“strongly disagree” to “strongly agree,” which requires the respondents to indicate a
degree of agreement or disagreement with each of a series of statements related to
the stimulus objects.
a. semantic differential scale
b. Likert scale
c. continuous rating scale
d. Stapel scale
(b, easy, page 274)
52. The author of your text and his colleagues have developed a scale for measuring
Internet users’ information privacy concerns. The Awareness (of Privacy Practices)
scale uses seven-point scales anchored with “strongly disagree” and “strongly
agree.” This is an example of a _____.
a. continuous rating scale
b. staple scale.
c. semantic differential scale
d. Likert scale
(d, moderate, page 275)
54. Which non-comparative scale is analyzed using profile analysis?
a. Likert scale
b. semantic differential scale
c. Stapel scale
d. all of the above
(d, difficult, pages 275, 277, 278)
55. Which itemized rating scale takes longer to complete than other itemized rating
scales because respondents have to read each statement?
a. semantic differential scale
b. Likert scale
c. continuous rating scale
d. Stapel scale
(b, difficult, page 275)
56. The Likert scale has several advantages. Which of the following is not an advantage?
a. It does not require a pretest of the adjectives or phrases to ensure bipolarity.
b. Respondents readily understand how to us the scale.
c. It is suitable for mail, telephone, or personal interviews.
d. It is easy to construct and administer.
(a, difficult, page 275)
57. A _____ is a seven point rating scale with endpoints associated with bi-polar labels
that have semantic meaning.
a. semantic differential scale
b. Likert scale
c. continuous rating scale
d. Stapel scale
(a, easy, page 276)
58. The _____ is known for its versatility and is very popular with marketing researchers.
a. continuous rating scale
b. Stapel scale
c. semantic differential scale
d. Likert scale
(c, difficult, page 277)
59. A _____ is a scale for measuring attitudes that consists of a single adjective in the
middle of an even-numbered range of values, from -5 to +5, without a neutral point
(zero).
a. semantic differential scale
b. Likert scale
c. continuous rating scale
d. Stapel scale
(d, moderate, page 277)
60. Which scale asks the respondent to indicate how accurately or inaccurately each
term describes the object by selecting an appropriate numerical response category?
a. continuous rating scale
b. Stapel scale
c. semantic differential scale
d. Likert scale
(b, difficult, page 277)
61. The data obtained by using a Stapel scale can be analyzed in the same way as
a_____.
a. continuous rating scale
b. Stapel scale
c. semantic differential scale
d. Likert scale
(c, difficult, page 278)
62. The _____ is confusing and difficult to apply. It is the least used of the itemized
scales.
a. continuous rating scale
b. Stapel scale
c. semantic differential scale
d. Likert scale
(b, difficult, page 278)
63. Which of the following statements is not a consideration when making noncomparative itemized rating scale decisions?
a. the number of scale categories to use
b. forced versus non-forced choice
c. the order of the scale questions
d. balanced versus unbalanced scales
(c, moderate, page 278)
64. Which statement is not true if deciding on the number of scale categories to use in a
non-comparative itemized rating scale?
a. Traditional guidelines suggest that the appropriate number of categories should
be seven plus or minus two: between five and nine.
b. The smaller the number of scale categories, the finer the discrimination among
stimulus objects that is possible.
c. If the respondents are not very knowledgeable or involved with the task, fewer
categories should be used.
d. How the data are to be analyzed and used should also influence the number of
categories.
(b, difficult, page 278)
65. Which statement is true if deciding on the number of scale categories to use in a
non-comparative itemized rating scale?
a. If the respondents are interested in the scaling task and are knowledgeable
about the objects, a larger number of categories may be employed.
b. Space limitations may restrict the number of categories in mail questionnaires.
c. If telephone interviews are involved, many categories may confuse the
respondents.
d. All of the statement above are true.
(d, moderate, page 278)
66. Which statement is not true when deciding on whether to use balanced or
unbalanced scales when developing a non-comparative itemized rating scale?
a. The scale should be balanced to obtain objective data.
b. In a balanced scale, the number of favorable and unfavorable categories are
equal.
c. If the distribution of responses is likely to be skewed, either positively or
negatively, a balanced scale with more categories in the direction of skewness
may be appropriate.
d. If an unbalanced scale is used, the nature and degree of unbalance in the scale
should be taken into account in data analysis.
(c, difficult, page 279)
67. Which statement is not true when deciding on whether to use an odd or even
number of categories when developing a non-comparative itemized rating scale?
a. With an odd number of categories, the middle scale position is generally designated
neutral or impartial.
b. The decision to use an odd or even number of categories depends on whether some
of the respondents may be neutral on the response being measured.
c. A rating scale with an even number of categories should be used if the researcher
wants to force a response.
d. All of the above statements are true.
(d, easy, page 279)
68. Deciding whether to present scales as vertical or horizontal is related to which of the
non-comparative itemized rating scale decisions?
a. number of scale categories
b. physical form or configuration
c. odd or even number of categories
d. nature and degree of verbal description
(b, easy, page 280)
69. The scale descriptors ‘very bad,’ ‘bad,’ ‘neither bad nor good,’ ‘good,’ and ‘very
good’ are commonly used when studying the _____ construct (Table 9.3 in text).
a. attitude
b. satisfaction
c. purchase frequency
d. purchase intent
(a, moderate, page 281)
70. The scale descriptors ‘never,’ ‘rarely,’ ‘sometimes,’ ‘often,’ and ‘very often’ are
commonly used when studying the _____ construct (Table 9.3 in text).
a. attitude
b. satisfaction
c. purchase frequency
d. purchase intent
(c, moderate, page 281)
71. _____ is the first step in developing a multi-item scale. _____ is the last step.
a. Generate an initial pool of item; Prepare the final scale
b. Develop a theory; Prepare a final scale
c. Develop a theory; Develop a purified scale
d. Generate an initial pool of items; Develop a purified scale
(b, moderate, page 282)
72. A multi-item scale should be evaluated for accuracy and applicability. This involves
an assessment of all of the following except _____.
a. reliability
b. generalizability
c. stability
d. validity
(c, moderate, page 283)
73. Validity can be assessed by examining all of the following except:
a. item validity
b. content validity
c. criterion validity
d. construct validity
(a, moderate, page 283)
74. _____ is the variation in the information sought by the researcher and the
information generated by the measurement process employed.
a. Systematic error
b. Measurement error
c. Random error
d. Variable error
(b, difficult, page 283)
75. Which of the following is not an approach to assess multi-item scale reliability?
a. test-retest reliability
b. construct reliability
c. alternative forms reliability
d. internal consistency reliability
(b, moderate, page 284)
76. Situational factors, such as the lack of clarity of the scale, including the instructions
or the items themselves and, analysis factors, such as differences in scoring and
statistical analysis are both _____ in measurement.
a. random error
b. potential sources of reliability
c. potential sources of error
d. systematic error
(c, difficult, page 284)
77. _____ represents stable factors that affect the observed score in the same way each
time the measurement is made, such as mechanical factors (see Fig. 9.6 in text).
a. Systematic error
b. Measurement error
c. Random error
d. Variable error
(a, moderate, page 284)
78. _____ is not constant. It represents transient factors that affect the observed score
in different ways each time the measurement is made, such as transient personal or
situational factors.
a. Systematic error
b. Measurement error
c. Random error
d. Variable error
(c, moderate, page 284)
79. _____ is the extent to which a scale produces consistent results if repeated
measurements are made on the characteristic.
a. validity
b. generalizability
c. reliability
d. none of the above
(c, difficult, page 284)
80. _____ is an approach for assessing reliability in which respondents are administered
identical sets of scale items at two different times under as nearly equivalent
conditions as possible.
a. Internal consistency reliability
b. Split-half reliability
c. Test-retest reliability
d. Alternative-forms reliability
(c, moderate, page 284)
81. In _____ the degree of similarity between two measurements is determined by
computing a correlation coefficient. The higher the correlation coefficient, the
greater the reliability.
a. test-retest reliability
b. internal consistency reliability
c. coefficient alpha
d. coefficient data
(a, difficult, page 284, 285)
82. There are several problems associated with the test-retest approach to determining
reliability. If measuring respondents’ attitude toward low-fat milk may cause them
to become more health conscious and develop a more positive attitude toward lowfat milk, then there is a problem with _____.
a. the time interval between testing.
b. the initial measurement altering the characteristic being measured.
c. it being impossible to make repeated measurements.
d. the first measurement having a carryover effect to the second or subsequent
measurements.
(b, difficult, pages 284-285)
83. Which of the following is not a problem with alternative-forms reliability?
a. The results will depend on how the scale items are split.
b. It is time consuming and expensive to construct an equivalent form of the scale.
c. It is difficult to construct two equivalent forms of a scale.
d. Both b and c are correct.
(a, difficult, pages 284, 285)
84. _____ is an approach for assessing the internal consistency of the set of items when
several items are summated in order to form a total score for the scale.
a. Internal consistency reliability
b. Split-half reliability
c. Test-retest reliability
d. Alternative-forms reliability
(a, easy, page 285)
85. _____ is a form of internal consistency reliability in which the items constituting the
scale are divided into two halves and the resulting half scores are correlated.
a. Internal consistency reliability
b. Split-half reliability
c. Test-retest reliability
d. Alternative-forms reliability
(b, easy, page 285)
86. _____ is a measure of internal consistency reliability that is the average of all
possible split-half coefficients resulting from different splittings of the scale items.
a. Coefficient delta
b. Coefficient alpha
c. Coefficient beta
d. Coefficient eta
(b, moderate, page 285)
87. _____ is the extent to which differences in observed scale scores reflect true
differences among objects on the characteristics being measured, rather than
systematic or random errors.
a. Validity
b. Generalizability
c. Reliability
d. None of the above
(a, difficult, page 286)
88. _____ is a type of validity, sometimes called face validity, that consists of a
subjective but systematic evaluation of the representativeness of the content of a
scale for the measuring task at hand.
a. Construct validity
b. Content validity
c. Criterion validity
d. Internal consistency validity
(b, difficult, page 286)
89. A scale designed to measure store image would be considered inadequate if it
omitted any of the major dimensions (quality, variety, assortment of merchandise,
etc.). This inadequacy would be reflected in the _____ of the scale.
a. construct validity
b. content validity
c. criterion validity
d. internal consistency validity
(b, difficult, page 286)
90. _____ is a type of validity that examines whether the measurement scale performs
as expected in relation to other variables selected as meaningful criteria.
a. Construct validity
b. Content validity
c. Criterion validity
d. Internal consistency validity
(c, difficult, page 286)
91. _____ is assessed when the data on the scale being evaluated on the criterion
variables are collected at the same time.
a. Convergent validity
b. Predictive validity
c. Concurrent validity
d. Discriminant validity
(c, moderate, page 286)
92. To assess _____, a type of criterion validity, the researcher collects data on the scale
at one point in time and data on the criterion variables at a future time.
a. convergent validity
b. predictive validity
c. concurrent validity
d. discriminant validity
(b, moderate, page 286)
93. _____ is a type of validity that addresses the question of what construct or
characteristic the scale is measuring. An attempt is made to answer theoretical
questions of why a scale works and what deductions can be made concerning the
theory underlying the scale.
a. Construct validity
b. Content validity
c. Criterion validity
d. Internal consistency validity
(a, easy, page 287)
94. _____ is a measure of construct validity that measures the extent to which the scale
correlates positively with other measures of the same construct.
a. Convergent validity
b. Discriminant validity
c. Nomological validity
d. Concurrent validity
(a, difficult, page 287)
95. _____ is a type of construct validity that assesses the extent to which a measure
does not correlate with other constructs from which it is supposed to differ.
a. Convergent validity
b. Discriminant validity
c. Nomological validity
d. Concurrent validity
(b, difficult, page 287)
96. _____ is the a type of validity that assesses the relationship between theoretical
constructs. It seeks to confirm significant correlations between the constructs as
predicted by theory.
a. Convergent validity
b. Discriminant validity
c. Nomological validity
d. Concurrent validity
(c, difficult, page 287)
97. Which statement is not true regarding the relationship between reliability and
validity?
a. If a measure is perfectly valid, it is also perfectly reliable.
b. Unreliability implies invalidity.
c. If a measure is perfectly reliable, it is perfectly valid.
d. Reliability is a necessary, but not sufficient, condition for validity.
(c, moderate, page 287)
98. _____ is the degree to which a study based on a sample applies to a universe of
generalizations.
a. Validity
b. Generalizability
c. Reliability
d. None of the above
(b, easy, page 287)
99. Which statement about generalizability is not true?
a. The set of all conditions of measurement over which the investigator wishes to
generalize is the universe of generalizations.
b. In generalizability studies, measurement procedures are designed to investigate
the universes of interest by sampling conditions of measurement from each of
them.
c. To generalize to other universes, facet theory procedures must be employed.
d. Traditional reliability methods can be viewed as single-facet generalizability
studies.
(c, difficult, page 288)
100. When choosing a scaling technique, which of the following factors should be
considered?
a. the capabilities of the respondents
b. the levels of information needed (nominal, ordinal, interval, or ratio)
c. the method of administration
d. all of the above
(d, easy, page 288)
101. When developing scales for international research, the researcher must pay
special attention to details that can make the measurement instrument specific to
the country in which the instrument will be used. Which of the following should be
of concern to the marketing researcher when developing scales for international
research?
a. Special attention should be devoted to determining equivalent verbal descriptors
in different languages and cultures.
b. Scale endpoints and the verbal descriptors should be employed in a manner that
is consistent with the culture.
c. It is critical to establish the equivalence of scales and measures used to obtain
data from different countries.
d. All of the above are correct.
(d, moderate, page 289)
102. A researcher developed scales using a 7-point scale with anchor descriptors of
‘horrible’ and ‘good’. This researcher has created an ethical violation in the area of
_____?
a. generalizability
b. bias
c. validity
d. none of the above
(c, moderate, page 289)
Chapter 10
Questionnaire and Form Design
True/False Questions
79. A standardized questionnaire or form will ensure comparability of the data, increase
speed and accuracy of recording, and facilitate data processing.
(True, easy, page 299)
80. Another name for questionnaire is schedule instrument.
(False, moderate, page 299)
81. A questionnaire is an informal set of questions for obtaining information from
respondents.
(False, easy, page 299)
82. Two apparently similar ways of posing a question always yields the same
information.
(False, easy, page 299)
83. A well-designed questionnaire can motivate the respondents and increase the
response rate.
True, easy, page 299)
84. A questionnaire is a major source of response error.
(True, moderate, page 299)
85. The steps in the questionnaire design process are interrelated and the development
of a questionnaire will involve some iteration and looping.
(True, moderate, page 300)
86. The more diversified the respondent group, the more difficult it is to design a single
questionnaire that is appropriate for the entire group.
(True, easy, page 301)
87. All questions on a questionnaire should contribute to the information needed or
serve some specific purpose.
(True, easy, pages 302-303)
88. Respondents may not be able to respond because they are unable to articulate a
response, they may not be informed, or they may not remember.
(True, moderate, page 304)
89. Respondents do not answer questions on which they are not informed.
(False, easy, page 304)
90. Filter questions enable the researcher to filter out respondents who are not
adequately informed.
(True, easy, page 304)
91. A “don’t know” option does not appear to reduce uninformed responses without
reducing the overall response rate or the response rate for questions about which
the respondents have information.
(False, moderate, page 304)
92. Questions such as “What did you have for lunch a week ago?” are correct questions
because consumers are very good at remembering quantities of products consumed.
(False, easy, page 304)
93. Creation error is the inability to recall an event that actually took place.
(False, difficult, page 305)
94. Research indicates that questions that rely on unaided recall can underestimate the
actual occurrence of an event.
(True, moderate, page 305)
95. Omission error takes place when a respondent “remembers” and event that did not
actually occur.
(False, moderate, page 305)
96. Omission, telescoping, and creation errors that may occur if the respondent has a
problem remembering the information asked in the questionnaire.
(True, moderate, page 305)
97. Respondents that are unwilling to give responses should be given aids such as
pictures, maps, and descriptions to help them articulate their responses.
(False, moderate, page 305)
98. Respondents with responses that are difficult to articulate should be given aids such
as pictures, maps, and descriptions to help them articulate their responses.
(True, moderate, page 305)
99. Respondents may be unwilling to answer a particular question because too much
effort is required or they may not remember the information that is being asked.
(False, difficult, page 305)
100. The researcher can manipulate the context in which the questions are asked so
that the questions seem appropriate.
(True, moderate, page 306)
101. Sensitive topics should be placed at the beginning of the questionnaire to get the
difficult questions over with.
(False, moderate, page 306)
102. “What is your occupation?” is a free-answer question.
(True, moderate, page 307)
103. Free-response questions are good as first questions on a topic.
(True, difficult, page 307)
104. A principal disadvantage of structured questions is that potential for interviewer
bias is high.
(False, moderate, page 308)
105. A principal disadvantage of unstructured questions is that potential for
interviewer bias is high.
(True, moderate, page 308)
106. Respondents exhibiting order or position bias tend to check the first or last
statement in a list.
(True, difficult, page 309)
107. To control for order bias, several forms of the questionnaire should be prepared
with the order in which alternatives are listed varied from form to form.
(True, easy, page 309)
108. Dichotomous questions cannot have neutral alternatives such as “don’t know” or
“no opinion.”
(False, moderate, page 309)
109. Choosing question structure is probably the most difficult task in developing a
questionnaire.
(False, moderate, page 311)
110. When developing questions, the researcher should avoid leading questions like
“What is your favorite brand of toothpaste?”
(False, moderate, page 313)
111. Mentioning the sponsor of a project in the question might bias the respondent
towards the sponsor.
(True, moderate, page 313)
112. An alternative that is not explicitly expressed in the options is an explicit
alternative.
(False, moderate, page 313)
113. There is evidence that the response to a question is influenced by the
directionality of the question.
(True, easy, page 314)
114. Opening questions should be used to get at the purpose of the questionnaire
quickly.
(False, easy, page 314)
115. Qualifying questions should not serve as opening questions.
(False, easy, page 315)
116. Information should be obtained in the following order: basic, identification,
classification.
(False, moderate, page 315)
117. The inverted funnel is a strategy for ordering questions in a questionnaire in
which the sequence starts with the general questions that are followed by
progressively specific questions in order to prevent specific questions from biasing
general questions.
(False, moderate, page 315)
118. The inverted funnel approach is useful when respondents have no strong
feelings or have not formulated a point of view.
(True, moderate, page 315-316)
119. In questionnaire design, assigning a code to every conceivable response before
data collection is called pre-coding.
(True, easy, page 317)
120. All aspects of the questionnaire should be tested, including question content,
wording, sequence, form and layout, question difficulty, and instructions.
(True, easy, page 319)
121. Respondents for the pretest and for the actual survey should not be drawn from
the same population.
(False, easy, page 319)
83. Pretests are best done by personal interviews, even if the actual survey is to be
conducted by mail, telephone, or electronic means.
(True, moderate, page 319)
84. Protocol analysis and debriefing are two commonly used procedures in pretesting.
(True, moderate, page 319)
85. The responses obtained from the pretest should be coded and analyzed.
(True, moderate, page 319)
47. Forms for recording observational data are more difficult to construct than
questionnaires.
(False, moderate, page 322)
48. Observational forms and questionnaires require adequate pretesting.
(True, easy, page 323)
49. The questionnaire or research instrument should be biased in terms of the country
in which it will be used.
(False, easy, page 323)
50. Information on demographic characteristics such as marital status, education,
household size, occupation, income, and dwelling unit may have to be specified
differently for different countries, as these variables may not be directly comparable
across countries.
(True, moderate, page 323)
51. Unstructured questions reduce cultural bias because they do not impose any
response alternatives.
(True, easy, pages 323-324)
52. To minimize discomfort, it should be made clear at the beginning of the interview
that respondents are not obligated to answer question that makes them
uncomfortable.
(True, easy, page 325)
53. The researcher has the ethical responsibility of designing the questionnaire so as to
obtain the required information in a biased manner.
(False, moderate, page 325)
Multiple Choice Questions
54. Typically, a questionnaire is only one element of a data-collection package that
might also include all of the following except _____.
a. some reward
b. communication aids
c. a data code book
d. fieldwork procedures
(c, difficult, page 299)
55. Which of the following is not an objective of a questionnaire?
a. A questionnaire must translate the information needed into a set of specific
questions that the respondents can and will answer.
b. A questionnaire must be easy to use.
c. A questionnaire must uplift, motivate, and encourage the respondent to become
involved in the interview, to cooperate, and to complete the interview.
d. A questionnaire should minimize response error.
(b, moderate, page 299)
56. The great weakness of questionnaire design is lack of _____.
a. precision
b. accuracy
c. theory
d. consensus
(c, moderate, page 300)
57. The first step in the questionnaire design process is _____.
a. specify the type of interview method
b. identify the form and layout
c. specify the information needed
d. determine the content of individual questions
(c, moderate, page 300)
58. When developing a questionnaire, to ensure that the information obtained fully
addresses all components of the problem, the researcher should _____.
a. review components of the problem and the approach.
b. prepare a set of dummy tables.
c. have a clear idea of the target population.
d. all of the above
(d, moderate, pages 300-301)
59. The type of method influences questionnaire design. Considering how the
questionnaire is administered under each method, which method is most
appropriate if lengthy, complex, and varied questions need to be asked?
a. mail questionnaire
b. telephone interview
c. personal interview
d. Internet questionnaire
(c, moderate, page 301)
60. If you are deciding between personal interviews or computer-assisted interviewing,
you are at which step of the questionnaire design process?
a. Specify the type of interviewing method.
b. Determine the content of individual questions.
c. Arrange the questions in proper order.
d. Eliminate bugs by pretesting.
(a, easy, page 301)
61. Deciding if a question is necessary or if several questions are needed rather than one
are decisions involved with _____.
a. determining the order of scales
b. choosing question wording
c. choosing question structure
d. individual question content
(d, moderate, pages 302, 303)
62. “Do you think Coca-Cola is a tasty and refreshing soft drink?” is an example of a
_____.
a. structured question
b. dichotomous question
c. double-barreled question
d. branching question
(c, moderate, page 303)
63. A _____ is a single question that attempts to cover two issues.
a. structured question
b. dichotomous question
c. double-barreled question
d. branching question
(c, easy, page 303)
64. When determining if a question is necessary, in some situations it may be necessary
to ask questions that are not directly related to the information that is needed.
Which of the reasons stated below were given in your text as reasons why questions
not related to the information needed might be included in the questionnaire?
a. to establish involvement and rapport
b. to disguise the purpose or sponsorship of the project
c. to generate client support for the project
d. all of the above
(d, difficult, page 303)
65. Most “why” questions about the use of a product or choice alternative involve two
aspects: _____ and _____.
a. attributes of the product; influences leading to knowledge of the product
b. attributes of the product; how the product is used
c. how the product is used; influences leading to knowledge of the product
d. none of the above
(a, difficult, page 303)
66. _____ that measure familiarity, product use, and past experience should be asked
before questions about the topics themselves.
a. Branching questions
b. Filler questions
c. Dichotomous questions
d. Filter questions
(d, moderate, page 304)
67. Is the respondent informed?, Can the respondent remember?, and Can the
respondent articulate?, are all questions asked in the _____ stage of the
questionnaire design process.
a. overcoming unwillingness to answer
b. specify the type of interviewing method
c. overcoming inability to answer
d. choosing question wording
(c, moderate, page 304-305)
68. Respondents’ inability to remember leads to three types of error. Which of the
errors listed below is not mentioned in the text as one of the types of errors created
by respondents?
a. telescoping
b. creation error
c. recall error
d. omission error
(c, difficult, page 305)
69. The respondents’ ability to remember an event is influenced by all of the following
except:
a. the event itself
b. the time elapsed since the event
c. the presence or absence of events that would aid memory
d. where you were when the event occurred
(d, moderate, page 305)
70. Which of the following is not a reason why a respondent might be unwilling to
answer a particular question?
a. The respondent may not be informed.
b. Too much effort is required.
c. The situation or context may not seem appropriate for disclosure.
d. No legitimate purpose or need for the information requested is apparent.
(a, moderate, page 305)
71. When trying to overcome respondents’ unwillingness to answer, the researcher
might list of the possible responses a respondent might make. More specifically, the
list is an effort by the researcher to _____.
a. increasing the willingness of respondents
b. obtain sensitive information
c. put the information request in context
d. reduce the effort required of the respondents
(d, moderate, page 305-306)
72. Sally was reluctant to answer questions about her personal hygiene until she saw
that the survey was sponsored by the American Medical Association. Sally’s
understanding of who sponsored the survey helped with which aspect of
‘overcoming the respondent’s unwillingness to answer’?
a. legitimate purpose
b. context
c. sensitive information
d. increasing the willingness of the respondent
(a, moderate, page 306)
73. _____ refer to open-ended questions that respondents answer in their own words.
a. Dichotomous questions
b. Structured questions
c. Unstructured questions
d. Branching questions
(c, easy, page 307)
74. “Describe your college experience” and “What is your occupation?” are _____
questions.
a. dichotomous
b. filter
c. structured
d. unstructured
(d, moderate, page 307)
75. Which of the following statements is not an advantage of unstructured questions?
a. Unstructured questions are good as first questions on a topic.
b. Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are
more articulate.
c. Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than
structured questions.
d. Unstructured questions are useful in exploratory research.
(b, difficult, page 307)
76. Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of unstructured questions?
a. Unstructured questions are not suitable for self-administered questionnaires.
b. Coding of responses is costly and time consuming.
c. Unstructured questions have a much less biasing influence on response than
structured questions.
d. Implicitly, unstructured questions give extra weight to respondents who are
more articulate.
(c, easy, page 308)
77. Which of the following statements is not true about unstructured questions?
a. Open-ended questions are useful in exploratory research.
b. Precoding can overcome some of the disadvantages of unstructured questions.
c. Open-ended questions are useful as opening questions.
d. Unstructured questions can suffer from order or position bias.
(d, moderate, page 308)
78. _____ specify the set of response alternatives and the response format.
a. Filter questions
b. Structured questions
c. Unstructured questions
d. Branching questions
(b, easy, page 308)
79. Which of the following is not a type of structured question?
a. multiple choice
b. dichotomous
c. scale
d. none of the above
(d, easy, page 308)
80. When developing questionnaire questions, if you are considering order position bias
and the set of all possible response alternatives, you are developing _____
questions.
a. multiple choice
b. dichotomous
c. scale
d. branching
(a, moderate, page 309)
81. Which of the following statements is not a disadvantage of structured questions?
a. Coding and processing of data are much less costly and time consuming.
b. Considerable effort is required to design effective multiple choice questions.
c. Showing respondents the list of possible answers produces biased responses.
d. It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.
(a, easy, page 309)
82. What is the one acute problem of dichotomous questions?
a. There is potential for position bias.
b. It is difficult to obtain information on alternatives not listed.
c. The response can be influenced by the wording of the question.
d. None of the above.
(c, moderate, page 310)
83. _____ is the translation of the desired question content and structure into words
that respondents can clearly and easily understand.
a. The questionnaire design process
b. Question wording
c. Overcoming inability to answer
d. Determining the content of individual questions
(b, moderate, page 311)
84. When developing a questionnaire, the following guidelines: (1) use positive and
negative statements, (2) avoid implicit alternatives, and (3) avoid leading questions,
are used when _____.
a. arranging questions in proper order
b. choosing question wording
c. designing questions to overcome the respondent’s inability to answer
d. determining the content of individual questions
(b, moderate, page 311)
85. When developing a questionnaire, the six Ws (who, what, when, where, why, and
way) are used when _____.
a. defining the issue
b. choosing question wording
c. avoiding generalizations and estimates
d. determining the content of individual questions
(a, moderate, page 311)
86. Choosing between the questions “Do you think the distribution of soft drinks is
adequate?” (Incorrect) and “Do you think soft drinks are readily available when you
want to buy them?” (Correct) are examples of situations that pertain to _____.
a. avoiding leading questions
b. avoiding ambiguous words
c. using positive and negative statements
d. using ordinary words
(d, moderate, page 311)
87. Which of the words below is an ambiguous word?
e. once
f. never
g. often
h. none of the above
(c, easy, page 311)
88. When developing a questionnaire, if the researcher is asking him/herself if the word
means what he/she intended; if it has any other meanings; if the word has more
than one pronunciation; or if a simpler phrase is suggested then, he/she is probably
concerned with _____.
a. avoiding leading questions
b. avoiding ambiguous words
c. using defining the issue
d. using ordinary words
(b, difficult, page 312)
89. A _____ is a question that gives the respondent a clue as to what answer is desired
or leads the respondent to answer in a certain way.
a. leading question
b. implicit alternative
c. filter question
d. structured question
(a, difficult, page 312)
90. Which of the following statements is correct about implicit alternatives?
a. Making an implied alternative explicit may increase the percentage of people
selecting that alternative.
b. When alternatives are close in preference or large in number, the alternatives at
the end of the list have a greater chance of being selected.
c. The split ballot technique should be used to rotate the order in which a list of
alternatives appear.
d. All of the above are correct.
(d, difficult, page 313)
91. “Do you like to fly when traveling short distances?” is an example of a(n) _____.
a. implicit assumption
b. implicit alternative
c. generalization
d. All of the above are correct.
(b, difficult, page 313)
92. “Are you in favor or a balanced budget?” is an example of a(n) _____.
a. implicit assumption
b. implicit alternative
c. generalization
d. All of the above are correct.
(a, difficult, page 313)
93. The statement “Questions should be specific, not general.” pertains to the _____
aspect of questionnaire development.
a. avoid implicit assumptions
b. avoid implicit alternatives
c. avoid generalizations and estimates
d. use unambiguous words
(c, moderate, page 313)
94. The information that is of the most importance to the research project and should
be obtained first is _____.
a. qualifying information
b. identification information
c. basic information
d. classification information
(c, difficult, page 313)
95. _____ is information that relates directly to the research problem.
a. Qualifying information
b. Identification information
c. Basic information
d. Classification information
(c, moderate, page 315)
96. _____ is socioeconomic and demographic characteristics used to classify
respondents.
a. Qualifying information
b. Identification information
c. Basic information
d. Classification information
(d, difficult, page 315)
97. _____ is a type of information obtained in a questionnaire that includes name,
address, and phone number.
a. Qualifying information
b. Identification information
c. Basic information
d. Classification information
(b, difficult, page 315)
98. Which of the following statements is true about difficult questions?
a. Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the section on basic
information.
b. Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the identification section.
c. Difficult questions should be placed at the end of the classification section.
d. All of the statements are correct.
(d, moderate, page 315)
103. Which statement is correct concerning the effect on subsequent questions?
a. As a rule of thumb, general questions should precede specific questions to
prevent specific questions from biasing responses to general questions.
b. The inverted funnel approach is useful when respondents have no strong
feelings or have not formulated a point of view.
c. The inverted funnel approach is particularly useful when information has to be
obtained about respondents’ general choice behavior and their evaluations of
specific products.
d. All are correct.
(d, moderate, pages 315-316)
104. _____ are questions used to guide an interviewer through a survey by directing
the interviewer to different spots on the questionnaire depending on the answers
given.
a. Leading questions
b. Branching questions
c. Opening questions
d. Multiple choice questions
(b, moderate, page 316)
105. Experiments on mail questionnaires for census of population revealed what
about questionnaire form and layout?
a. Questions at the top of the page received more attention than those placed at
the bottom.
b. Sensitive information placed at the end of the questionnaire was answered more
frequently than sensitive information placed elsewhere.
c. Instructions printed in red made little difference except that they made the
questionnaire appear more complicated to the respondents.
d. Both ‘A’ and ‘C’ are correct.
(d, moderate, page 317)
106. Which of the following practices should be avoided when reproducing the
questionnaire?
a. If the printed questionnaire runs to several pages, it should take the form of a
booklet.
b. Sideways formatting and splitting should be done to conserve space.
c. Directions or instructions should be placed as close to the questions as possible.
d. Surveys directed at different respondent groups can be reproduced on different
colored paper.
(b, moderate, pages 318-319)
107. _____ is the testing of the questionnaire on a small sample of respondents for
the purpose of improving the questionnaire by identifying and eliminating potential
problems.
a. Funneling
b. Telescoping
c. Posttesting
d. Pretesting
(d, moderate, page 319)
108. Which statement is not true about pretests?
a. To the extent possible, a pretest should involve administering the questionnaire
in an environment and context similar to that of the actual survey.
b. A variety of interviewers should be used for pretests.
c. The project director, the researcher who developed the questionnaire, and other
key members of the research team should conduct some pretest interviews.
d. It is a good practice to employ only experienced interviewers to conduct
pretests.
(d, difficult, pages 319-320)
109. Observational forms should specify the who, what, and when of the behavior to
be observed. The forms should also specify all of the items below except:
a. where
b. whether
c. why
d. way
(b, moderate, page 323)
110. Which of the following statements are true concerning questionnaire design for
international marketing research?
a. The questionnaire may have to be suitable for administration by more than one
method.
b. It is desirable to have two or more simple questions rather than a single complex
question.
c. Unstructured or open-ended questions should be used with caution in countries
with high illiteracy rates.
d. All of the above statements are true.
(d, moderate, pages 323-324)
111. According to the guidelines of the Professional Marketing Research Society of
Canada, with the exception of _____, questionnaires that take more than _____
minutes to complete are generally considered “overly” long?
a. in-home personal interviews; 60
b. computer-assisted personal interviews; 60
c. in-home personal interviews; 30
d. computer-assisted personal interviews; 30
(c, difficult, page 325)