Name: _________________________
PRACTICE TEST – Unit 8: Geology, Mineral Resources & Nonrenewable Energy
AP Environmental Science – March 14, 2013
Directions: Choose the letter of the best answer and darken its bubble.
Questions 1-4 refer to the following answers. Select the one
lettered choice that best fits each statement.
(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Metamorphic rocks
(C) Sedimentary rocks
(D) All of the above
(E) None of the above
1. This type of rock is susceptible to chemical and
mechanical weathering.
2. This type of rock is created by the cooling of magma
within the lithosphere.
3. This type of rock is produced when small particles,
transported by erosion, settle on top of each other and
become compressed.
4. Marble is an example of this type of rock.
Questions 5-8 refer to the following answers: Select the one
lettered choice that best fits each statement.
(A) Divergent boundary
(B) Convergent boundary with oceanic and continental
plates
(C) Convergent boundary with two oceanic plates
(D) Convergent boundary with two continental plates
(E) Transform boundary
5. The San Andreas Fault between the Pacific Plate and the
North American Plate in California is an example.
6. The Himalayas were formed from this type of boundary.
7. This type of boundary created the Marianas Trench.
8. The mid-Atlantic rift forms this type of boundary.
9. Which of the choices below lists the steps of coal
formation in order from youngest to oldest material?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(E)
Peat, anthracite, lignite, bituminous
Peat, lignite, bituminous, anthracite
Peat, bituminous, anthracite, lignite
Peat, anthracite, bituminous, lignite
Anthracite, lignite, bituminous, peat
10. What percentage of refined uranium typically results
from the milling process?
(A) Less than 1%
(B) 5-10%
(C) About 20%
(D) About 50%
(E) Over 80%
11. Heap leach extraction is the process that is used to
refine which of the following from ore?
(A) Uranium
(B) Gold
(C) Aluminum
(D) Halite
(E) Gravel
12. Which of the following countries has the largest proven
oil reserves in the world?
(A) Saudi Arabia
(B) Canada
(C) Iran
(D) United States
(E) China
13. When a continental plate collides with another
continental plate,…
(A) a subduction zone will be created.
(B) the two plates will push each other up into a
mountain range.
(C) an island arc will be formed.
(D) a rift valley will be formed.
(E) a deep submarine trench will be formed.
14. The evidence that Alfred Wegner cited when he
originally proposed the theory of continental drift was…
(A) the changes in magnetic polarity within iron ore that
occurred equidistant from the mid-Atlantic rift
(B) the earthquakes that occurred along the edges of
tectonic plates
(C) the subduction zones, where one plate dives
underneath another
(D) the way coastlines fit together like a puzzle and
similar fossils occur on both sides of an ocean.
(E) the location of mountain ranges, which occur where
continental plates collide.
15. At which portion of the nuclear fuel cycle is the highest
volume of radioactive waste produced?
(A) Mining
(B) Milling
(C) Fuel cell fabrication
(D) Fuel reprocessing
(E) Fuel disposal
16. A seismically active arc of islands, such as Alaska’s
Aleutian Island chain, is an indicator of…
(A) the convergence of oceanic and continental plates.
(B) a mid-plate hotspot.
(C) the convergence of two oceanic plates.
(D) a divergent boundary.
(E) a mid-oceanic rift.
17. Which of the following nuclear reactions does NOT
take place inside a nuclear reactor?
(A) Fission
(B) Fusion
(C) Beta decay
(D) Alpha decay
(E) Neutron capture
18. Which of the following supplies the greatest amount of
energy in developed countries?
(A) Oil
(B) Coal
(C) Natural gas
(D) Hydroelectric
(E) Solar
19. The period within the Paleozoic Era during which most
of the world’s coal reserves began forming is the …
(A) Cambrian period
(B) Cretaceous period
(C) Carboniferous period
(D) Jurassic period
(E) Quaternary period
20. This environmental crisis involved the meltdown of a
nuclear facility.
(A) Love Canal
(B) Bhopal Crisis
(C) Exxon Valdez
(D) DDT
(E) Chernobyl
21. In which of the following environments is it most likely
that coal deposits originated?
(A) Ocean trenches
(B) Deserts
(C) Swamps
(D) Mountain peaks
(E) Rivers
22. Which of the following toxic heavy metals is released
in significant quantities during the burning of coal?
(A) Nickel
(B) Mercury
(C) Lead
(D) Uranium
(E) Plutonium
23. Which of the following possesses the highest energy
content?
(A) Lignite
(B) Anthracite coal
(C) Biomass
(D) Peat
(E) Bituminous coal
24. Nuclear reactors produce energy through the process of
(A) incineration.
(B) transmutation.
(C) fusion.
(D) breeding.
(E) fission.
25. Of the following, the most common fuel for nuclear
fission is…
(A) radium.
(B) magnesium.
(C) hydrogen.
(D) sodium.
(E) uranium.
26. Which of the following is the most cost-efficient
method of space heating?
(A) Passive solar heat
(B) Electricity
(C) A natural gas furnace
(D) An oil furnace
(E) A geothermal heat pump
27. The site of one of the most ecologically destructive oil
spills in history is…
(A) Chernobyl, Ukraine
(B) Valdez, Alaska
(C) Yucca Mountain, Nevada
(D) Kuwait City, Kuwait
(E) Shanghai, China
28. A resource that is too expensive to extract is said to be
(A) perpetual.
(B) economically depleted.
(C) ecologically depleted.
(D) environmentally depleted.
(E) limited.
29. Which of the following fossil fuels is in shortest supply?
(A) oil
(B) coal
(C) natural gas
(D) uranium
(E) oil shale and tar sands
30. Energy derived from fossil fuels supplies what percent
of the world’s energy needs?
(A) 10%
(B) 33%.
(C) 50%
(D) 85%
(E) 97%
31. Which of the following is an advantage of nuclear
energy?
(A) Emits one-sixth the amount of carbon dioxide as
does coal
(B) Low start up costs
(C) High net energy ratio when generating electricity
(D) Few dangerous wastes produced
(E) Plentiful fuel supply
32. Which of the following is NOT a method for extracting
coal?
(A) Contour strip mining
(B) Subsurface mining
(C) Area strip mining
(D) In situ leach mining/injection wells
(E) Mountain top removal
33. Which of the following is NOT a product made from
petroleum?
(A) gasoline and airplane fuel
(B) nylon and polyester clothing
(C) asphalt for paving roads
(D) plastics
(E) all of the above are made from petroleum
34. The entire pool of oil is not extracted from a well
because…
(A) it is too destructive to the environment.
(B) it is not cost-effective.
(C) pumping a depleted well results in natural gas
contamination.
(D) the technology needed to extract this remaining oil
has not yet been invented.
(E) only the oil nearest the surface is of value.
35. Coal continues to be used in the United States partially
because…
(A) the country has large reserves of coal.
(B) the quality of coal in the United States is very
consistent from deposit to deposit.
(C) coal causes almost no air pollution when burned.
(D) coal deposits in the United States lie very close to
the surface and are easily extracted.
(E) coal contains very few impurities, which cause
problems in petroleum and natural gas.
36. Crude oil is…
(A) formed from just a few hydrocarbon molecules.
(B) essentially usable in its raw form.
(C) usually formed less than 100 yards below the
surface; in deeper places with more pressure, coal is
formed.
(D) created nearly every time biological material is
buried.
(E) separated and transformed into substances as
diverse as asphalt, plastics, gasoline and heating oil
37. Atomic energy in power plants is created via…
(A) fusion of electrons.
(B) ionic transformation of atoms.
(C) extraction of energy from the nucleus of cells.
(D) bombarding radioactive elements with electrons to
release positrons and generate lead.
(E) bombarding radioactive elements with neutrons to
create smaller radioactive byproducts and release
more neutrons.
38. Which of the following countries generates the highest
percentage of its power through nuclear energy?
(A) France
(B) United States
(C) Sweden
(D) Russia
(E) China
39. Which of the following nonrenewable energy sources
has the least environmental impact?
(A) gasoline
(B) coal
(C) oil shale
(D) tar sand
(E) natural gas
40. Which of the following is an advantage to the natural
gas extraction process known as hydrologic fracturing
or ‘fracking?’
(A) No dangerous chemicals are used in the process.
(B) There is little risk of contaminating underground
aquifers.
(C) Suitable sites for hydrologic fracturing are usually
remote and well away from population centers.
(D) Extraction equipment usually has a small land
footprint compared to coal extraction.
(E) There is little risk of fire or explosion in natural gas
extraction.
41. Which of the following is NOT an environmental
hazard of coal use?
(A) leaching of acid materials into waterways
(B) lung disease and high accident rates in mine workers
(C) widespread scarring of the landscape
(D) high CO2 and other air pollutants such as soot,
mercury, and radioactive particles
(E) all of the above are environmental hazards of coal
use
42. The heat generated by burning fossil fuels and/or
nuclear power in electrical power plants is most directly
used to…
(A) heat copper wiring.
(B) spin the blades of turbines.
(C) boil water to create steam.
(D) expand air to create wind.
(E) crate an explosion.
43. The debate over oil exploration, drilling, and extraction
in the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge (ANWR) has
occurred, in part, because…
(A) Some argue that ANWR will only produce enough
oil to last the United States 10 years at present
consumption, while others say it will last over 100
years.
(B) All the native Alaskan groups are united against
drilling in ANWR.
(C) Nearly all oil company scientists admit that
technology is not advanced enough to prevent
significant damage to the environment.
(D) Large wildlife such as grizzlies and caribou are never
seen near oil pipelines or extraction wells.
(E) Alaska shares oil profits with its citizens, ANWR is a
premier pristine wilderness area, and many fear
continued dependence upon foreign oil.
44. The use of nuclear power in the United States continues
to be advocated because…
(A) it is more efficient than other nonrenewable energy
sources.
(B) fear of dependence on imported oil continues to grow.
(C) public confidence in the technology is growing.
(D) the cost of building nuclear power plants has
decreased over the past decade.
(E) it is promoted as a clean, no waste source of energy
generation.
45. All of the following will be found at a nuclear
generating facility except:
(A) boiler
(B) turbine
(C) cooling system
(D) exhaust gas flue
(E) generator
46. The theory of plate tectonics suggests that Earth’s crust
is made up of a series of plates that float on a more fluid
layer of the upper mantle called the…
(A) lithosphere
(B) mesosphere
(C) asthenosphere
(D) hydrosphere
(E) core
47. Which of the following terms refers to the desired
material in a mining operation?
(A) tailings
(B) ore
(C) spoils
(D) overburden
(E) gangue
48. Which of these is a non-metallic mineral resource?
(A) aluminum
(B) gold
(C) sand
(D) oil
(E) copper
49. Which of the following is not a provision of the Surface
Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977?
(A) Companies are required to obtain a permit before
they can begin surface mining operations.
(B) Government is given the authority to inspect mining
operations and levy fines for unsafe or polluting
practices.
(C) Companies do not have to determine how the land
will be used after mining operations cease as long as
they reclaim the land when they are finished.
(D) A bond must be posted by the company which is
held by the government until it is satisfied that
reclamation has been completed.
(E) Surface mining is prohibited on certain lands
especially national parks and wilderness areas.
50. When it comes to nonrenewable mineral resources
recycling is a sustainable option because it reduces all of
the following except:
(A) air pollution
(B) water pollution
(C) toxics released to the environment
(D) energy consumption
(E) demand for mineral resources
51. Which country has the majority of the world’s heavy
oils in the form of oil sands?
(A) Canada
(B) Japan
(C) Nigeria
(D) South Africa
(E) Mexico
52. What was significant about the Three Mile Island
nuclear power plant incident?
(A) It showed that pebble-bed modular reactors could be
operated safely and efficiently.
(B) It was the first time that nuclear fusion was achieved.
(C) It effectively ended the heyday of U.S. nuclear
energy generation.
(D) It revealed how vulnerable U.S. nuclear power plants
were to terrorists.
(E) Marked the beginning of energy independence from
organizations like OPEC.
53. Which country has the largest proven coal reserves in
the world?
(A) Russia
(B) China
(C) United States
(D) Iraq
(E) Canada
54. What is the Hubbert peak?
(A) location of the largest coal reserves in North America
(B) highest percentage of petroleum products that can be
distilled from a single crude oil sample
(C) the halfway production point of an oil field
(D) the maximum heat generated in a nuclear reactor
(E) highest elevation with natural gas reserves
55. Which of the following is an advantage of oil sand
extraction over conventional oil extraction?
(A) low water use
(B) reduced land use
(C) higher net energy yield
(D) abundant and easily transported
(E) less air pollution when burned
ANSWER KEY
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
D
A
C
B
E
D
B
A
B
A
B
A
B
D
B
C
B
A
C
E
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
C
B
B
E
E
A
B
B
D
D
A
D
E
B
A
E
E
A
E
40.
41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.
51.
52.
53.
54.
55.
D
E
C
E
B
D
C
B
C
C
E
A
C
C
C
D