Kine and biomechanics mcqs
1. Endoskeleton involves
(a) Covering of skin, hair, nails
(b) Bones and cartilages
(c) Bones only
(d) None of the above.
2. Exoskeleton involves
(a) Covering of skin, hair nails
(b) Bones and cartilages
(c) Long bones only
(d) Short bones only.
3. Study of joints is called
(a) Kinesiology
(b) Biology
(c) Anthropometry
(d) Anthology.
4. 'Hunch back' is also known as
(a) Back pain (b) scoliosis
(c) lordosis (d) kyphosis.
5. Side ward curvature of the spine is called (a) knock knee (b) kyphosis
(c) Scoliosis (d) lordosis.
6. The path of an object project projected into free air space is known as
(a) Speed (b) abnormal curve
(c) Velocity (d) parabola.
7. Boxer's muscles are
(a) trapezius
(b) sterno cliedo mastoid
(c) Abdominal
(d) Deltoid.
8. 'Neck joint' is an example of
(a) Pivot joint
(b) Hinge joint
(c) Saddle joint
(d) Condyloid joint.
9. 'Trapeziums' muscles help in
(a) Pushing the neck backward
(b) Punching
(c) Raising the leg forward
(d) None of the above.
10. Strongest ligament of the hip joint is
(a) pub femoral
(b) Ileofemoral
(c) Ischiofemoral
(d) None of the above.
11. Which type of lever is most effective in sport movements?
(a) Third class
(b) Second class
(c) First class
(d) None of the above.
12. Which muscle is involved in the elevation of arm?
(a) Deltoid (b) Biceps
(c) Triceps (d) Quadriceps.
13. Which of the following is an example of bi-axial joint?
(a) Hinge
(b) Pivot
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
14. Number of bones in the axial skeleton is
(a) 60 (b) 80
(c) 40 (d) 20.
15. Number of bones in the appendicle skeleton is
(a) 120 (b) 180
(c) 126 (d) 116.
16. Movements possible in condyloid joint are
(a) Flexion and extension
(b) Circumduction only
(c) Flexion, extension abduction, adduction
(d) Flexion, extension, abduction adduction and circumduction.
17. Which of the following is an example of uniaxial joint?
(a) Condyloid
(b) Saddle
(c) Hinge
(d) Condyloid and saddle both.
18. The cartilage which serves to cushion the impact of large forces on bone ends is called
(a) Fibrous cartilage
(b) Hyaline cartilage
(c) Notch
(d) fossa.
19. Function of long bones in the body is to
(a) Give strength
(b) Give protection
(c) Act as lever
(d) Provide surface area for muscle attachment.
20. Force generation but fiber lengthening is also known as
(a) Eccentric contraction
(c) Isotonic contraction
(d) Isometric contraction. 21. 'Hypnosis' is also called
(c) Lateral back curve.
22. Bending forward of the trunk is an example of movement in the
(a) Frontal plane
(b) Transverse plane
(c) sagittal plane
(d) Longitudinal axis.
23. A forward upward movement of the foot at the ankle joint is
(a) Plantar flexion (b) dorsi flexion (c) inversion (d) eversion.
24. Bending of head towards right or left side of the shoulder is
(a) Extension (b) flexion
(c) Lateral flexion
(d) Lateral extension.
25. Synovial joints are
(a) Slightly movable
(b) Freely movable
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
26. The vertical axis passes
(a) Perpendicular to the ground
(b) Horizontal to the ground
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of above.
27. The law of gravity is an example of a law of motion studied in the body of knowledge
called
(a) Chemistry (b) Physics (c) Mechanics (d) All the above.
28. Largest bone in the human body is
(a) Femur (b) hummers
(c) Tibia (d) fibula.
29. Shortest bone in the human (a) phalange (b) metatarsal (c) in nominate bone (d) tarsal.
30. Which of the following has maximum percentage in. the. ComQ-aVdon bone 1
(a) Calcium sulphate Calcium phosphate
(c) Chloride
(d) Fluoride.
31. An athlete covering 100 m distance in 10 seconds, ran at a speed of
(a) lOm/s (b) 100 m/s
(c) 20 m/s (d) 1000 m/s.
32. The forces acting on a runner near the end of a race are
(a) Weight (b) friction
(c) Air resistance (d) all the above.
33. The terms reset and motion are studied under
(a) Biochemistry
(b) Anatomy
(c) Biomechanics
(d) None of the above.
34. In which type of lever, the weight is in between force and fulcrum?
(a) Type I (b) Type II
(c) Type III (d) All the above.
35. The movements around ball and socket joints are
(a) Flexion and extension
(b) Rotation and circumduction
(c) Hyper extension
(d) All the above.
36. Bone cells are also called
(a) Osteoblasts (b) osteocytes (c) osteoclasts (d) osteoporosis.
37. Technique of ossification of bones of right hand is used to determine
(a) Height
(b) Age
(c) Weight
(d) Equilibrium ability.
38. 'Hamstring' muscle
(a) extends knee (b) flexes knee (c) extends elbow (d) flexes elbow.
39. Which of the following is a ball and socket joint?
(a) Hip joint
(b) Shoulder joint
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
40. During abduction the arm moves
(a) Towards the body
(b) Away from the body
(c) In front of the chest
(d) None of the above.
41. In which type of lever, the force is in between weight and fulcrum?
(a) Type I (b) Type II
(c) Type III (d) All the above.
42. 'Latissimus Dorsi' is situated in (a) lower leg (b) thigh
(c) Back (d) upper arm.
43. 'Lordosis' is also called
(a) Round back
(b) Hollow back
(c) Lateral back
(d) Back curve.
44. Parabola is
(a) The path of an object projected into free air
(b) path of an object formed with air resistance
(c) Path of the object falling vertically down
(d) None of the above.
45. Which of the following is responsible for limiting the range of movements of joint?
(a) Tendons (b) Ligaments
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Muscle fibers.
46. 'Zygomatic' bone is present in
(a) Upper extremities
(b) Lower extremities
(c) Vertebral column
(d) Skull.
47. Flexion at elbow in brought about by
(a) Biceps
(b) Triceps
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
48. Study of bones is called
(a) Osteoporosis (b) osteoclast (c) otology (d) anthology.
49. The bone cells which are involved in building of bone are
(a) Osteoblasts
(b) Osteoclasts
(c) Osteocytes
(d) None of the above.
50. The skeleton of thorax is made up of
(a) Cartilage
(b) Bone
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answers
1. (b)
8. (a)
15. (c)
22. (c)
2.
9.
16.
23.
(a)
(a)
(d)
(b)
3.
10.
17.
24.
(d)
(b)
(d)
(c)
4.
11.
18.
25.
(d)
(a)
(b)
(b)
5. (c)
12. (a)
19. (b)
26. (a)
6.
13.
20.
27.
(d)
(c)
(a)
(c)
7. (d)
14. (b)
21. (b)
28. (a)
29. (d)
36. (b)
43. (b)
50. (c)
30.
37.
44.
(b)
(b)
(a)
31.
38.
45.
(a)
(b)
(b)
32.
39.
46.
(d)
(c)
(d)
33. (c)
40. (b)
47. (c)
34.
41.
48.
(b)
(c)
(c)
35. (d)
42. (c)
49. (a)
Chapter 1: What is Biomechanics?
1. Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of biomechanics?
A. the study of human movement
B. the study of biological organisms
C. the study of movement mechanics
D. the study of the mechanical aspects of biological organisms
2. Which of the following terms is applied to the study of systems in a constant state of
motion?
A. statics
B. dynamics
C. anthropometrics
D. plyometrics
3. What term is given to considerations such as the size, shape, and weight of body
segments?
A. cybernetic
B. anthropometric
C. kinematic
D. kinetic
4. Which of the following would not be measured in a kinematic analysis of a tennis serve?
A. angular velocity
B. linear velocity
C. muscular force
D. angular acceleration
5. Which of the following is an example of a kinetic consideration?
A. muscle force producing a vertical jump
B. impact force landing from a jump
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
6. Which of the following is an example of a static situation?
A. a cyclist riding at a constant velocity
B. a person balancing motionless on one foot
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
7. Which of the following is associated with kinematics?
A. force
B. displacement
C. mass
D. all of the above
8. Which of the following are anthropometric factors?
A. the length of a forearm
B. the shape of a body
C. the weight of the trunk
D. all of the above
9. Which of the following is included in sports medicine?
A. clinical aspects of exercise and sport
B. scientific aspects of exercise and sport
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
10. Which of the following topics might be studied by biomechanists?
A. optimal form during the pole vault
B. forces on the spine during lifting
C. the mechanics of the jump shot
D. all of the above
11. Biomechanics has roots in which of the following disciplines?
A. physics
B. biology
C. both A & B
D. neither A nor B
12. Which of the following questions about the long jump should be answered
quantitatively?
A. What is the horizontal velocity at take-off?
B. What is the angle at take-off?
C. both A & B
D. neither A nor B
13. Which of the following characterizes a formal problem?
A. a goal or answer
B. a set of given information
C.
a set of operations that can be used to arrive at the desired answer from the
given information
D. all of the above
14. What does the word qualitative mean?
A. general
B. numerical
C. pertaining to quality
D. all of the above
15. Which of the following statements is true regarding qualitative analysis?
A. It is always of a general nature.
B. It does not involve the use of numbers.
C. Both A and B.
D. Neither A nor B.
16. Which of the following professionals regularly make use of qualitative observations?
A. teachers
B. coaches
C. clinicians
D. all of the above
17. Which of the following are components of a structured approach to problem solving?
A. writing down the given information
B. drawing a diagram representing the problem situation
rereading the problem to look for additional information that may be inferred
C.
from the problem statement
D. all of the above
18. Which of the following countries uses the metric system?
A. France
B. Germany
C. Japan
D. all of the above
19. In which of the following systems of measurement are units of the same variable related
to each other by factors of ten?
A. the English system
B. the metric system
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
20. Which of the following conversions is accurate?
A. 2.54 cm = 1 in
B. B. 2.54 in = 1 cm
C. 4.45 lb = 1 N
D. none of the above
21. Which of the following is true about osteoporosis?
A. it is a disease with acute onset
B. it inevitably accompanies aging
C. it is a lifestyle disease that develops and progresses over a number of years
D. all of the above are true
22. Which of the following is a risk factor for osteoporosis?
A. physical inactivity
B. estrogen deficiency
C. excessive consumption of caffeine
D. all of the above
23. Which of the following is true about carpal tunnel syndrome?
A. it is a neurological impairment
B. it is associated with repetitive keyboard use
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
24. Which of the following is an example of equipment designed to enhance performance?
A. Klapskate
B. aerodynamic helmet
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
25. Biomechanical analysis has revealed which of the following about high velocity pitchers
compared to lower velocity pitchers?
A. they have greater internal rotation at the shoulder
B. they have greater upright posture at release
C. they have higher angular velocity of the pelvis and upper torso
D. all of the above
26. Biomechanical research has contributed to which of the following?
A. injury prevention
B. enhanced sport performance
C. equipment design
D. all of the above
27. Why is swimming not the best exercise for prevention of osteoporosis?
A. no weight bearing
B. water resistance is hard on the bones
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
28. Which of the following could be performed by a biomechanist?
A. quantitative analysis of human movement
B. qualitative analysis of human movement
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
29. Which type of analysis involves identifying, analyzing and answering a question of
interest?
A. quantitative
B. qualitative
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
30. Choose the term or phrase that is not synonymous with the others.
A. metric system
B. English system
C. International system of units
D. S. I.
31. What is the base unit for mass in the metric system?
A. Newton
B. Kilogram
C. meter
D. slug
32. A 200 lb. man weighs approximately what in metric units?
A. 890 N
B. 45 N
C. 440 kg
D. none of the above
33. Which of the following is true regarding mechanics?
A. branch of physics
B. analyzes the actions of forces on particles
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
34. Which of the following defines inference?
A. the process of elimination
B. the process of forming deductions from available information
C. the process of observation in a qualitative analysis
D. none of the above
35. Which of the following is true?
No particular biomechanical factors have been associated with running
A.
economy.
B. 3-year olds walking fast can use 70% more energy than adults.
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
36. Astronauts who travel out of the earth's gravitational field have experienced which of the
following?
A. increased bone density
B. reduced strength
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
37. Exercise walking can have which of the following effects?
A. improved balance in older adults
B. decreased likelihood of falls in older adults
C. decreased risk of osteoporosis for women
D. all of the above
38. Which of the following affects the flight of a discus?
A. speed at release
B. projection angle
C. orientation angle relative to the wind
D. all of the above
39. The high incidence of knee injuries among snow skiers is partially due to which of the
following?
A. rigid boot which limit ankle motion
B. bindings which release during a fall
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
40. Possible detrimental effects of knee braces include(s) which of the following?
A. changes muscle activity during gait
B. reduces sprinting speed
C. increases onset of fatigue
D. all of the above
This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your
answers, press the button below to grade the test.
Chapter 2: Kinematic Concepts for Analyzing Human Motion
1. Which of the following is not an example of a sagittal plane movement?
A. flexion
B. hyperextension
C. lateral flexion
D. plantar flexion
2. The cardinal frontal plane divides the body into equal ______.
A. right and left halves.
B. front and back halves.
C. top and bottom halves.
D. medial and lateral halves.
3. Movements in the transverse plane occur around which axis?
A. mediolateral
B. anteroposterior
C. longitudinal
D. horizontal
4. Elbow extension takes place in what plane?
A. sagittal
B. frontal
C. transverse
D. longitudinal
5. Abduction takes place around which axis?
A. anteroposterior
B. mediolateral
C. longitudinal
D. horizontal
6. A dancer performs a pirouette in which plane?
A. sagittal
B. frontal
C. transverse
D. longitudinal
7. Which of the following statements is false?
A. the hip is distal to the knee
B. the shoulder is superior to the hip
C. superficial muscles are closer to the skin than deep muscles
D. the triceps are posterior to the biceps
8. Nodding the head “yes” occurs in which plane?
A. sagittal
B. frontal
C. transverse
D. oblique
9. Most human movement falls into which category?
A. rectilinear
B. curvilinear
C. angular or rotational
D. general
10. Which of the following terms best describes translational motion along a curved line?
A. rectilinear
B. curvilinear
C. rotational
D. general
11. Which of the following categories of motion is mutually exclusive with each of the
others?
A. translational motion
B. rectilinear motion
C. curvilinear motion
D. rotational motion
12. Which of the following motions occurs primarily in the sagittal plane?
A. running
B. a cartwheel
C. a pirouette
D. all of the above
13. Which of the following motions occurs primarily in the frontal plane?
A. running
B. cartwheel
C. pirouette
D. all of the above
14. Abduction occurs in which plane?
A. sagittal
B. frontal
C. transverse
D. it depends on the action being performed
15. Primarily in which plane does the swinging of a baseball bat occur?
A. sagittal
B. frontal
C. transverse
D. obtuse
16. Which of the following limb movements occur during "jumping jacks"?
A. flexion and abduction
B. extension and adduction
C. flexion and extension
D. adduction and abduction
17. Which imaginary cardinal plane bisects the body into right and left halves?
A. sagittal
B. frontal
C. transverse
D. none of the above
18. During the preparatory phase for an underhand softball pitch, the hand holding the ball
is drawn behind the body prior to the forward swing of the arm. When thehand is drawn
behind the body, which of the following movements occurs at the shoulder?
A. flexion
B. extension
C. hyperextension
D. circumduction
19. In which of the following planes does a forward roll occur?
A. sagittal
B. frontal
C. transverse
D. oblique
20. Which of the following are transverse plane movements at the shoulder?
A. horizontal abduction
B. medial rotation
C. both A and B above
D. none of the above
21. Which of the following terms means “farther from the head”?
A. distal
B. proximal
C. superior
D. inferior
22. Which of the following is/are examples of superficial muscle(s)?
A. biceps
B. triceps
C. gastrocnemius
D. all of the above
23. Which of the following describes the knee joint relative to the ankle joint?
A. distal
B. proximal
C. medial
D. lateral
24. Which of the following terms would accurately describe the biceps muscle?
A. anterior
B. posterior
C. medial
D. lateral
25. Which of the following is/are true regarding anatomical reference position?
A. palms face forward
B. erect posture
C. starting position for describing motion
D. all of the above
26. In anatomical position what is the position of the elbow?
A. 180°
B. 0°
C. need more information
D. none of the above
27. Foot pronation occurs at which joint?
A. ankle
B. subtalar
C. both A & B
D. pronation does not occur in the foot
28. Internal rotation is synonymous with which of the following?
A. medial rotation
B. lateral rotation
C. external rotation
D. none of the above
29. In anatomical position, the forearm is in what position?
A. pronated
B. supinated
C. flexed
D. abducted
30. Which of the following is true regarding horizontal adduction?
A. also called horizontal flexion
B. occurs in the transverse plane
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
31. Which of the following is true regarding circumduction?
A. combines flexion, extension, adduction, and abduction
B. synonymous with rotation
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
32. Which is true about the Cartesian coordinate system?
A. It is a special reference system used by biomechanists.
B. It can be used to describe two-dimensional or three-dimensional motion.
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
33. In two-dimensional Cartesian coordinate systems, what unit is used for the vertical axis?
A. x
B. y
C. z
D. any of the above can describe the vertical axis
34. Which of the following units is unique to three-dimensional Cartesian coordinate
systems (i.e. do not exist in 2-D systems)?
A. x
B. y
C. z
D. all of the above are unique to 3-D systems
35. Which view is best for observing normal human gait?
A. side view
B. front view
C. back view
D. does not matter
36. Which of the following could be defined by a movement analyst as a mechanical
system?
A. entire human body
B. right arm
C. projected ball
D. all of the above
37. In anatomical position, what term describes the radius relative to the ulna?
A. medial
B. lateral
C. posterior
D. anterior
38. What term is used to describe the motion of bringing the foot closer to the lower leg?
A. flexion
B. extension
C. dorsiflexion
D. plantar flexion
39. Which of the following is a linear movement in the frontal plane?
A. shoulder adduction
B. shoulder girdle elevation
C. shoulder flexion
D. both A & B
40. Shaking the head “no” involves which of the following movements?
A. lateral and medial rotation
B. left an right rotation
C. internal and external rotation
D. all of the above are correct
This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your
answers, press the button below to grade the test.
Chapter 3: Kinetic Concepts for Analyzing Human Motion
1. When 2 force vectors are acting parallel and in the same direction, how do you compose
them into one vector?
A. add them
B. subtract them
C. divide them
D. resolve them
2. Which of the following defines center of gravity?
A. intersection of the 3 cardinal planes
B.
the point around which a body's weight is equally balanced regardless of body
position
C. both A & B
D. neither A nor B
3. Which of the following is not true about mass?
A. quantity of matter
B. changes depending on gravity
C. measurement unit = kg
D. affects force production
E. all of the above are true
4. Which of the following is not true about weight?
A. measurement unit = lb
B. measurement unit = N
C. weight is a force
D. changes depending on gravity
E. all of the above are true
5. Which of the following relationships is correct?
A. 1 kg = 2.2 lb
B. 1 lb = 4.45 N
C. both A and B are correct
D. neither A nor B is correct
6. Which of the following relationships is correct?
A. m = F / a
B. F = m / a
C. a = m / F
D. none of the above
7. Which of the following statements is true?
A. weight is always a force
B. force is always a weight
C. pressure is synonymous with force
D. pressure is synonymous with weight
8. Which of the following is a correct unit of pressure?
A. Newtons
2
B. kg/cm
C. N/cm
2
D. slugs
9. Which of the following is a correct unit of inertia?
A. psi
B. kg/m
3
3
C. lb/ft
D. none of the above
10. Which of the following characteristics of a vector represents magnitude?
A. its angle of orientation
B. its length
C. its direction
D. all of the above
11. If two vectors lying in the same plane are added together and the result is zero, then
which of the following is true of the vector quantities?
A. they are equal in magnitude
B. they are opposite in direction
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
12. Which of the following types of force acts parallel to a surface?
A. shear
B. compression
C. tension
D. all of the above
13. Which of the following types of force exerts a pull on the body as in muscle contraction?
A. shear
B. compression
C. tension
D. all of the above
14. Which of the following types of force exerts a squeezing effect on the body?
A. shear
B. compression
C. tension
D. all of the above
15. Which of the following quantities is calculated the same as pressure?
A. stress
B. strain
C. shear
D. tension
16. Which of the following statements is/are true?
Increasing the surface area over which a force is distributed increases the
A.
amount of stress acting on the surface.
B.
Decreasing the surface area over which a force is distributed increases the
amount of stress acting on the surface.
C. Both A and B are true.
D. Neither A nor B is true.
17. Which of the following occurs when a bone is caused to twist about longitudinal axis?
A. compression
B. tension
C. torsion
D. none of the above
18. Stress fractures result from which of the following types of loading?
A. acute loading
B. repetitive loading
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
19. Which of the following is a correct unit of torque?
A. N-m
B. N/s
C. Ns
D. kg m
20. When you wear a backpack, your center of gravity shifts in which direction?
A. up
B. back
C. forward
D. up and back
21. Which of the following is/are true regarding a shot put and a softball of equal diameter?
A. they have the same volume
B. they have the same density
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
22. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding density?
A. muscle tissue is more dense than fat tissue
B. specific weight is proportional to density
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
23. The rotary effect created by an eccentric force defines what?
A. torque
B. moment of force
C. rotary force
D. all of the above
24. Which of the following is/are scalar quantities?
A. force
B. mass
C. velocity
D. all of the above
25. Scalar quantities and vector quantities have which of the following properties in
common?
A. magnitude
B. direction
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
26. The “quantity of matter composing a body” defines what?
A. weight
B. momentum
C. mass
D. inertia
27. Inertia is directly proportional to which quantity(s)?
A. mass
B. force
C. acceleration
D. all of the above
28. When muscles on opposite sides of a joint develop tension, what determines the
direction of joint movement?
A. muscle strength
B. muscle flexibility
C. net torque
D. none of the above
29. A free body diagram includes which of the following?
A. sketch of an object, body, or body part being analyzed
B. vectors representations of all forces acting on the system
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
30. In a free body diagram of the human body, where would the vector representing weight
of the body originate?
A. contact between the feet and the ground
B. center of gravity
C. head
D. need more information
31. In a free body diagram of the human body, which direction would the vector
representing weight of the body point?
A. up
B. down
C. depends on body orientation
D. not possible to determine
32. Which of the following will reduce the pressure of a baseball against a catcher's hand?
A. reduce the force with which the ball is thrown
B. wear a catcher's mitt
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
33. Which of the following is true regarding volume?
A. units are cm
3
B. units are liters
C. directly proportional to mass
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
34. When absorbing the force of a baseball, which of the following will change the
impulse?
A. reduce the force with which the ball is thrown
B. wear a catcher's mitt
C. “give with the ball when catching
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
35. The formula for torque includes force and what other variable?
A. perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation
B. moment arm
C. force arm
D. all of the above are correct
36. Mechanical stress in the lumbar vertebrae is less than expected because of which of the
following structural details?
A. bears more weight or force than other vertebrae
B. larger weight-bearing surface area than other vertebrae
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
37. A bending force can result in which of the following types of stress?
A. compression
B. tension
C. torsion
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
38. When injury results from a single large force application, such as a tackle, the injury is
usually termed what?
A. acute
B. chronic
C. repetitive
D. all of the above
39. Which of the following is true regarding electromyography?
A. treats muscle injury with electrical impulses
B. measures the electrical activity produced by a muscle
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
40. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding vector algebra?
In vector resolution, when a vector is resolved into two components, they are
A.
always perpendicular.
B.
In vector composition, only perpendicular components can be composed into a
resultant.
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your
answers, press the button below to grade the test.
Chapter 4: The Biomechanics of Bone Growth and Development
1. Which of the following components of bone provides it with flexibility?
A. water
B. calcium carbonate
C. calcium phosphate
D. collagen
2. Which of the following terms is used to describe bone with relatively high porosity?
A. cortical
B. trabecular
C. spongy
D. all of the above
3. Which of the following terms is defined as deformation divided by original length?
A. stress
B. strain
C. strength
D. elasticity
4. Cortical bone is strongest in resisting which type of stress?
A. tensile stress
B. shear stress
C. compressive stress
D. none of the above
5. Which of the following is true regarding Osgood-Schlatter's disease?
A. It occurs at the tibial tubercle where the patellar tendon attaches.
B. It is more common in children than adults.
C. It is an epiphyseal injury.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
6. Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton?
A. the skull
B. the humerus
C. the sternum
D. all of the above
7. Which of the following is an example of a flat bone?
A. talus
B. maxilla
C. radius
D. scapula
8. Which of the following is an irregular bone?
A. radius
B. rib
C. femur
D. vertebrae
9. The tarsals are examples of what type of bones?
A. long bones
B. short bones
C. flat bones
D. irregular bones
10. Where is articular cartilage located?
A. It covers all bone surfaces.
B. It covers all bone surfaces at articulations.
C. It covers all long bone surfaces.
D. It covers all long bone surfaces at articulations.
11. Which of the following statements regarding bone growth is true?
A. Longitudinal growth continues only as long as the epiphyses exist.
B. Circumferential growth continues throughout most of the lifespan.
C. both A and B are true
D. neither A nor B is true
12. Which of the following is known as the longitudinal "growth center" of a bone?
A. osteoclast
B. periosteum
C. osteoblast
D. epiphysis
13. How do bones typically respond to stress?
A. atrophy
B. hypertrophy
C. no change, as long as the epiphysis has sealed
D. it is impossible to predict how a bone will respond to stress
14. Loss of bone mass has been found in which of the following?
A. bed-ridden patients
B. astronauts
C. tennis players
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
15. Which of the following occurs in the absence of gravitational forces?
A. bone hypertrophy
B. bone atrophy
C. bone modeling
D. all of the above
16. In a child, severe injury to an epiphysis may result in which of the following?
A. premature closure of the epiphyseal junction
B. termination of bone growth
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
17. What is the most common symptom of osteoporosis?
A. frequent headaches
B. joint pain in the extremities
C. back pain derived from vertebral fractures
D. swelling of the distal extremities
18. Which of the following is a possible symptom of osteoporosis?
A. vertebral crush fractures
B. reduced body height
C. dowager's hump
D. all of the above
19. Appropriate strategies to lessen the likelihood of acquiring osteoporosis include which
of the following?
A. adequate dietary calcium intake
B. regular weight-bearing exercise
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
20. Which of the following is true regarding epiphyseal plate injuries?
A. These injuries can terminate longitudinal bone growth.
B. These injuries can result from acute trauma.
C. These injuries can result from repetitive loading of a low magnitude.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
21. The water content of bone makes up approximately what percentage of the total bone
weight?
A. 5% - 10%
B. 15% - 20%
C. 25% - 30%
D. 40% - 50%
22. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the strength of bone?
A. Cortical bone can withstand more stress than trabecular bone.
B. Trabecular bone can withstand more strain than cortical bone.
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
23. Specialized bone cells that build new bone tissue are called what?
A. periosteum
B. osteoblasts
C. osteoclasts
D. epiphysis
24. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding bone growth?
A. When bone remodeling occurs, bone mass may stay the same.
B. When bone remodeling occurs, bone mass may decrease.
C. When bone modeling occurs, bone mass increases.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
25. What happens when osteoclast activity exceeds osteoblast activity?
A. bone mass increases
B. bone modeling
C. bone mass decreases
D. none of the above
26. What happens when osteoblast activity exceeds osteoclast activity?
A. bone hypertrophy
B. bone modeling
C. increased bone mass
D. all of the above
27. Which of the following activities would likely produce the greatest bone mineral
density?
A. swimming
B. cycling
C. walking
D. all of the above would provide equal contribution to bone health
28. Reduced bone mass and density without the presence of a fracture defines what?
A. osteoporosis
B. osteopenia
C. osteoblast
D. osteoclast
29. Undesirably low body weight in young female athletes can lead to what?
A. amenorrhea
B. osteoporosis
C. menopause
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
30. Which of the following is/are part of the “female athlete triad”?
A. osteoporosis
B. disordered eating
C. cessation of menses
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
31. The “female athlete triad” can result in which of the following?
A. stress fractures
B. irreversible bone loss
C. death
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
32. Which of the following could contribute the most in preventing or prolonging
osteoporosis?
A. girls jumping rope before puberty
B. boys running after puberty
C. middle-age women walking before menopause
D. all of the above are of equal importance
33. Which of the following is/are known risk factor(s) for developing osteoporosis?
A. smoking
B. calcium deficiency
C. excessive caffeine consumption
D. all of the above
34. A fracture caused by a tendon or ligament pulling a small chip of bone away from the
rest of the bone is called what?
A. simple fracture
B. compound fracture
C. avulsion fracture
D. spiral fracture
35. Which of the following is true regarding greenstick fractures?
A. They are incomplete fractures.
B. They are caused by bending or torsional loads.
C. They are more common in adults than children.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
36. When a skier's body rotates in a direction opposite of the foot (held steady by the boot),
what type of fracture is likely in the tibia?
A. spiral
B. impacted
C. depressed
D. stress
37. Which type of fracture results from repeated loading of relatively low magnitude?
A. spiral
B. impacted
C. depressed
D. stress
38. Which of the following factors can predispose runners to stress fractures?
increased training duration or intensity without allowing time for bone
A.
remodeling
B. abrupt changes in running surface
C. both A and B
D. runners are not predisposed to stress fractures
39. Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?
A. the skull
B. the vertebrae
C. the sternum
D. all of the above
40. After age 60, what percentage of fractures are osteoporosis related?
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 60%
D. 90%
This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your
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Chapter 5: The Biomechanics of Human Skeletal Articulations
1. Which of the following is not associated with synarthrodial joints?
A. typically weak
B. fibrous
C. immovable
D. sutures of the skull
2. Which of the following is an example of a uniaxial joint?
A. hip
B. carpals
C. elbow
D. base of thumb
3. Which of the following is associated with triaxial joints?
A. ball and socket
B. 3 axes
C. hip
D. all of the above
4. Which of the following terms does not fit with the others?
A. carpals
B. short bones
C. gliding movements
D. uniaxial
5. The knee is an example of which type joint?
A. fibrous
B. synarthroses
C. synovial
D. amphiarthroses
6. A triaxial joint allows which of the following movements?
A. flexion and extension
B. abduction and adduction
C. rotation and circumduction
D. all of the above
7. Hinge joints have how many axes?
A. none
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
8. Which of the following are functions of articular cartilage?
A. minimize friction and wear at a joint
B. protect against joint dislocation
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
9. Which of the following are examples of articular fibrocartilage?
A. the intervertebral discs
B. the menisci of the knee
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
10. Which of the following characterizes the "close-packed position" at a joint?
A. joint stability is minimum
B. muscular tension is maximum
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
11. Which of the following is/are true regarding amphiarthrodial joints?
A. Hyaline cartilage holds the bones together.
B. They are slightly moveable.
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
12. Which of the following refers to the stretching of muscles, tendons, and ligaments by a
force other than tension in the antagonist muscles?
A. active stretching
B. passive stretching
C. ballistic stretching
D. none of the above
13. Which type of flexibility accompanies the ROM achieved by actively contracting the
antagonist muscle?
A. static flexibility
B. dynamic flexibility
C. passive stretching
D. none of the above
14. Which of the following does not affect the range of motion at a joint?
A. the degree of tonus of surrounding muscles and ligaments
B. the shape of the articular surfaces
C. the exercise habits of the individual
D. the number of proprioceptors present at the joint
15. Which of the following heightens the risk of injury?
A. low flexibility
B. high flexibility
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
16. Where are Golgi tendon organs located?
A. in tendons
B. in the junctions between muscles and their tendons
C. interspersed throughout the fibers of muscles
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
17. The stretch reflex, or myotatic reflex, is provoked by activation of which of the
following in a stretched muscle?
A. muscle spindles
B. Golgi tendon organs
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
18. The technique of muscle stretching known as proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
(PNF) is based on responses elicited from which of the following?
A. Golgi tendon organs
B. muscle spindles
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
19. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation is an example of what type of stretching?
A. active stretching
B. passive stretching
C. ballistic stretching
D. none of the above
20. Which of the following joint injuries is accompanied by inflammation?
A. sprains
B. dislocations
C. bursitis
D. all of the above
21. Which of the following are characteristics of diarthrodial joints?
A. Articulating bone surfaces are covered with articular cartilage.
B. An articular capsule surrounds the joint.
C. They are lubricated by synovial fluid.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
22. Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of bursae?
A. They are associated with synovial joints.
B. They separate tendons from bones to reduce friction.
C. They separate skin from bones to reduce friction.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
23. Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of tendon sheaths?
A. They are synovial structures.
B. They surround tendons.
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
24. Which of the following contain synovial fluid?
A. bursae
B. tendon sheaths
C. articular cartilage
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
25. Which connective tissue attaches muscle to bone?
A. ligaments
B. tendons
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
26. What characteristics do tendons and ligaments share with muscles?
A. extensibility
B. elasticity
C. contractility
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
27. Which statement(s) is/are true?
A. Exercise can increase the size and strength of tendons.
B. Exercise can increase the size and strength of ligaments.
C. Exercise can increase the strength of tendon junction with a bone.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
28. The “ability of a joint to resist abnormal displacement” defines what?
A. joint stability
B. joint flexibility
C. loose-packed position
D. none of the above
29. Joint stability is affected by which of the following?
A. shape of the articulating bones
B. arrangement and size of ligaments
C. area of contact between the bones
D. all of the above
30. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. The hip is more stable than the shoulder.
B. The shoulder has more range of motion than the hip.
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
31. What is the result when a ligament is stretched beyond its elastic limit?
A. A sprain occurs.
B. Joint stability may be temporarily compromised.
C. Joint stability may be permanently compromised.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
32. Which statement(s) is/are true?
A. When muscles are fatigued, ligaments are at a greater risk of injury.
B. When ligaments are fatigued, muscles are at a greater risk of injury.
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
33. A goniometer is used to directly measure what?
A. muscle flexibility
B. joint range of motion
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
34. Range of motion at a joint is influenced by which of the following?
A. shape of the articulating surfaces
B. relative laxity and extensibility of the muscles crossing the joint
C. fluid content of the cartilage within the joint
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
35. The term “hypermobile” is used to describe what?
A. a joint with an unusually large range of motion
B. a joint with an unusually small range of motion
C. a gymnast
D. a sprinter
36. Golgi tendon organs respond in which of the following ways?
A. inhibit tension in the activated muscle
B. initiate tension in the antagonist muscle
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
37. Which of the following activates the muscle spindles?
A. knee-jerk test
B. ballistic stretching
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
38. Which type of stretching demonstrates greater range of motion?
A. active stretching
B. passive stretching
C. A and B are equal
D. need more information
39. Which type(s) of arthritis is/are non-inflammatory?
A. rheumatoid arthritis
B. osteoarthritis
C. both A and B
D. none of the above (both A and B are inflammatory)
40. Which of the following is true regarding bursitis?
A. overuse injury
B. frictional irritation in one or more bursae
C. inflammation
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your
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Chapter 6: The Biomechanics of Human Skeletal Muscle
1. Which of the following is a behavioral property of muscle tissue?
A. ability to develop tension
B. extensibility
C. irritability
D. all of the above
2. Which of the following is a unique behavioral property of muscle tissue?
A. ability to develop tension
B. extensibility
C. irritability
D. all of the above
3. Where is the series elastic component (SEC) of a muscle found?
A. tendons
B. ligaments
C. muscle membrane
D. all of the above
4. The elasticity of human skeletal muscle tissue is believed to be due primarily to which of
the following?
A. the parallel elastic component
B. the series elastic component
C. the continuous elastic component
D. the active elastic component
5. Which of the following most accurately describes a motor unit?
A. a single muscle fiber and a single motor neuron
B. a single motor neuron and all muscle fibers it innervates
C. a single muscle fiber and several motor neurons
D. none of the above
6. Which of the following statements is/are true?
Pennate muscles are capable of producing more tension per unit of crossA.
sectional area than parallel muscles.
B.
Parallel muscles are capable of producing more range of motion than pennate
muscles.
C. Both A and B are true.
D. Neither A nor B is true.
7. Which of the following does not characterize a pennate muscle?
A. relatively strong
B. fibers parallel to long axis of muscle
C. relatively low range of motion
D. all of the above are true
8. Which of the following statements is true?
A. When movement is slow, slow twitch fibers are recruited first.
B. When movement is fast, fast twitch fibers are recruited first.
C. Both A and B are true.
D. None of the above are true.
9. What type of muscle contraction is employed by the elbow flexors when slowly lowering
your backpack to your desk?
A. concentric
B. eccentric
C. isometric
D. isokinetic
10. During the kicking and follow-through phases of a punt, the quads are experiencing
what type of contraction?
A. concentric
B. eccentric
C. isometric
D. isokinetic
11. A contraction in which there is not a change in length is called what?
A. dynamic
B. isometric
C. concentric
D. isokinetic
12. A muscle directly involved in causing a segment to move is called what?
A. agonist
B. antagonist
C. neutralizer
D. stabilizer
13. During the down phase of a knee extension exercise, what role does the hamstring group
play?
A. agonist
B. antagonist
C. stabilizer
D. neutralizer
14. When flexing the elbow, the biceps brachii, brachioradialis, and brachialis are the three
major agonists recruited to perform this movement because all cause flexion at the
elbow. However, the biceps also cause supination, an undesired movement. Therefore
another muscle acting as a , causing must be recruited to prevent the undesired motion.
A. stabilizer, extension
B. neutralizer, extension
C. stabilizer, pronation
D. neutralizer, pronation
15. Which of the following types of muscle tension is commonly used as a braking
mechanism to slow limb movement?
A. eccentric
B. isotonic
C. concentric
D. isometric
16. In which of the following activities do the biceps brachii function as antagonists?
A. straightening the elbow during a push-up
B. straightening the elbow during a pull-up
C. curling a barbell from the floor to waist height
D. both A and B
17. Which type of muscle could serve as an antagonist of a flexor?
A. abductor
B. adductor
C. extensor
D. rotator
18. Which of the following types of strength training is particularly associated with
subsequent muscular soreness?
A. concentric
B. eccentric
C. isometric
D. all of the above
19. Which of the following time periods is termed electromechanical delay?
the time required for conduction of the nerve impulse to the neuromuscular
A.
junction
B. the time required for the nerve impulse to cross the neuromuscular junction
the time required for the muscle to initiate the development of tension after
C.
receipt of the nerve impulse
D.
the time required for a muscle to reach peak tension after the development of
tension is initiated
20. Which of the following statements represents the force-velocity relationship for muscle
tissue?
A. contraction is faster when the load is heavier
B. contraction is slower when the load is heavier
C. contraction is slower when the load is lighter
D. the speed of contraction is not affected by the nature of the load
21. Which of the following terms best describes the rate of torque production at a joint?
A. mechanical work
B. muscular power
C. muscular energy output
D. muscular strength
22. During the execution of a pull-up when the chin is over the bar, which force exerted by
the biceps brachii is greatest at the elbow?
A. the rotary force
B. the stabilizing force
C. the dislocating force
D. the "pinching" force
23. The component force which is parallel to the moving bone and acts to pull the bones
together at the joint is called what?
A. curvilinear force
B. stabilizing force
C. rotary force
D. dislocating force
24. Which of the following is true regarding the parallel elastic component (PEC) of
muscular elasticity?
A. This component is provided by the muscle membranes.
B. This component provides resistance when a muscle is passively stretched.
C. This is the component primarily responsible for the elasticity of muscle.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
25. Which behavioral property of muscle tissue is defined as “the ability to respond to a
stimulus”?
A. elasticity
B. irritability
C. extensibility
D. contractility
26. A single muscle cell is called what?
A. fiber
B. neuron
C. unit
D. none of the above
27. Muscle hypertrophy in humans is primarily due to what?
A. increase in number of muscle fibers
B. increase in size of muscle fibers
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
28. Which of the following is/are characteristic of fast-twitch oxidative glycolytic fibers?
A. Contraction speed is intermediate (faster than type I but slower than type IIB).
B. Fatigue rate is intermediate (faster than type I but slower than type IIB).
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
29. When an opposing torque at a joint is greater than the torque created by a muscle, what
type of contraction occurs in that muscle?
A. isometric
B. isotonic
C. concentric
D. eccentric
30. Which of the following is a potential disadvantage of multijoint muscles?
A. active insufficiency
B. passive insufficiency
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
31. When the wrist is flexed, the finger flexors cannot produce as tight a fist as when the
wrist is in a neutral position. This is an example of what?
A. active insufficiency
B. passive insufficiency
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
32. The force-velocity relationship implies which of the following?
A. It is impossible to move a heavy resistance at a fast speed.
B. It is impossible to move a light load at a slow speed.
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
33. In human skeletal muscle, force generation capability is highest in which of the
following conditions?
A. muscle is at resting length
B. muscle is slightly shortened
C. muscle is slightly lengthened
D. muscle length is irrelevant to force production
34. Which of the following likely contributes to the stretch-shortening cycle?
A. the series elastic component
B. muscle spindle activity
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
35. Which of the following is true regarding the stretch-shortening cycle?
When a muscle is stretched just prior to contraction, the resulting contraction is
A.
more forceful.
B. An eccentric contraction is followed by a concentric contraction.
C. The SSC promotes storage of elastic energy.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
36. The amount of torque a muscle group can generate at a joint is used to measure what?
A. muscular power
B. muscular endurance
C. muscular strength
D. muscular flexibility
37. The torque of a muscle (rotary component) is greatest in what position?
A. when the moment arm is longest
B. when the muscle insertion is 90° to the bone
C. both A and B
D. position does not effect torque
38. During the first 12 weeks of resistance training, strength gains are due primarily to
what?
A. improved innervation of the muscle
B. increase in cross-sectional area
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
39. The opposite of muscular endurance is what?
A. muscular strength
B. muscular fatiguability
C. muscular power
D. muscular flexibility
40. Which of the following is/are characteristic of muscle fatigue?
A. reduction in muscle force
B. reduction in shortening velocity
C. prolonged relaxation of motor units between recruitment
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your
answers, press the button below to grade the test.
Chapter 7: The Biomechanics of the Human Upper Extremity
1. Scapulohumeral rhythm involves of the scapula and of the humerus.
A. downward rotation, extension
B. downward rotation, abduction
C. upward rotation, abduction
D. abduction, adduction
2. What is/are the purpose(s) of the scapula muscles?
A. stabilize the scapula
B. move the scapula
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
3. Which of the following is not a rotator cuff muscle?
A. teres major
B. infraspinatus
C. supraspinatus
D. subscapularis
E. all of the above are rotator cuff muscles
4. Which of the following is true about the rotator cuff muscles?
A. they work together with the deltoid for extension
B. they work together to hold the head of humerus in glenoid fossa
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
5. Which of the following secretes synovial fluid to lessen friction between soft tissues
around joints?
A. menisci
B. articular cartilage
C. bursae
D. none of the above
6. Glenohumeral dislocations usually occur when the humerus is in which of the following
positions?
A. abducted
B. externally rotated
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
7. Which scapula muscles perform as stabilizers during crutch walking?
A. elevators
B. depressors
C. adductors
D. abductors
8. Which scapula muscles perform as stabilizers during pushups?
A. elevators
B. depressors
C. adductors
D. abductors
9. Which of the following activities may promote the development of rotator cuff
impingement syndrome?
A. throwing
B. swimming
C. serving in tennis
D. all of the above
10. The biceps brachii is strongest and most effective as an elbow flexor when the forearm
is in what position?
A. neutral
B. supinated
C. pronated
D. does not matter
11. The brachialis is strongest and most effective as an elbow flexor when the forearm is in
what position?
A. neutral
B. supinated
C. pronated
D. does not matter
12. To best isolate the brachialis (reduce the effectiveness of the other flexors), perform arm
curls with the forearm in what position?
A. neutral
B. supinated
C. pronated
D. does not matter
13. Carpometacarpal joint 1 is what type of joint?
A. hinge
B. condyloid
C. saddle
D. none of the above
14. Carpometacarpal joints 2 - 5 are what type joints?
A. hinge
B. condyloid
C. saddle
D. none of the above
15. The interphalangeal joints are what type joints?
A. hinge
B. condyloid
C. saddle
D. none of the above
16. Metacarpophalangeal joints 2 - 5 are what type joints?
A. hinge
B. condyloid
C. saddle
D. none of the above
17. Overuse of the wrist extensors can cause what?
A. tennis elbow
B. lateral epicondylitis
C. tendinitis
D. all of the above
18. What muscles are most often associated with little leaguer's elbow?
A. elbow extensors
B. elbow flexors
C. wrist extensors
D. wrist flexors
19. The humeroulnar, humeroradial, and proximal radioulnar joints are the three
articulations present at which joint?
A. wrist
B. elbow
C. shoulder
D. none of the above
20. Muscles on the anterior side of the arm produce flexion at which of the following?
A. the shoulder
B. the elbow
C. the wrist
D. all of the above
21. Which of the following factors provides stability at the elbow?
A. the articulating bones
B. ligaments
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
22. Pronation and supination of the forearm occur at which of the following joints?
A. proximal radioulnar joint
B. distal radioulnar joint
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
23. Which type of movement is permitted at the radiocarpal joint?
A. sagittal plane motion
B. circumduction
C. frontal plane motion
D. all of the above
24. Movement of the hand at the wrist toward the thumb side of the arm (frontal plane) is
known as which of the following?
A. radial deviation
B. ulnar deviation
C. abduction
D. adduction
25. The large range of movement of the thumb compared to that of the fingers is derived
from the structure of which of the following?
A. the thumb's carpometacarpal joint
B. the thumb's intermetacarpal joint
C. the thumb's metacarpophalangeal joint
D. all of the above
26. Which joint in the body has the most range of motion?
A. sternoclavicular
B. acromioclavicular
C. glenohumeral
D. humeroulnar
27. Which of the following statements is true regarding ball and socket joints?
A. They allow motion in all three planes
B. They are triaxial.
C. The glenohumeral joint is an example.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
28. Which of the following muscles does not attach the scapula to the spine?
A. levator scapula
B. rhomboids
C. trapezius
D. deltoid
E. pectoralis minor
29. The acromion process is a landmark on which bone?
A. scapula
B. humerus
C. clavicle
D. sternum
30. Which of these muscles is not a mover of the humerus?
A. biceps brachii
B. coracobrachialis
C. deltoid
D. trapezius
31. Which of the following originates on the scapula?
A. anterior deltoid
B. pectoralis major
C. biceps brachii
D. latissimus dorsi
32. Muscles located where will cause flexion of the humerus?
A. anterior to the longitudinal axis of the glenohumeral joint
B. anterior to the mediolateral (frontal) axis of the glenohumeral joint
C. superior to the anteroposterior axis of the glenohumeral joint
D. anterior to the mediolateral (frontal) axis of the humeroulnar joint
33. Which of the following muscles is not an elbow flexor?
A. biceps
B. triceps
C. brachioradialis
D. brachialis
34. Where do the wrist flexors originate?
A. medial epicondyle
B. lateral epicondyle
C. both A and B
D. depends on which one
35. Which of the following acts on more than 1 digit?
A. abductor pollicis longus
B. extensor indicis
C. flexor digitorum profundus
D. extensor digiti minimi
36. Throwing injuries to the elbow usually fall into which category?
A. acute
B. chronic
C. both A and B equally
D. throwing does not cause injury to the elbow
37. Which muscles originate distal to the wrist and insert distal to the wrist?
A. intrinsics
B. extrensics
C. elbow flexors
D. elbow extensors
38. Which of the following groups are vulnerable to carpal tunnel syndrome?
A. jobs requiring repeated forceful wrist flexion
B. jobs requiring habitual resting of the arms on the palmar sides of the wrist
C. skateboarders
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
39. Opposition can occur where?
A. CM 1
B. CM 5
C. MP 1
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
40. Right-handed golfers will likely incur epicondylitis where?
A. lateral epicondylitis on the left side
B. lateral epicondylitis on the right side
C. medial epicondylitis on the left side
D. occurs with equal frequency on both sides of both arms
This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your
answers, press the button below to grade the test.
Chapter 8: The Biomechanics of the Human Lower Extremity
1. The hip joint is the articulation between the __ and the ___.
A. femur, acetabulum
B. femur, spine
C. femur, tibia
D. none of the above
2. Which of the following is not true about pelvic girdle movements?
A. position the acetabulum favorably for femoral movement
B. occurs in all 3 planes
C. occurs around the lumbosacral joint
D. all of the above are true
3. Which of the following is not true about the hip joint?
A. triaxial
B. more stable than shoulder
C. several bursae present
D. all of the above are true
4. Anterior pelvic tilt positions the acetabulum in a more favorable position for hip __.
A. flexion
B. hyperextension
C. abduction
D. adduction
5. Lateral pelvic tilt positions the acetabulum in a more favorable position for hip __.
A. flexion
B. extension
C. abduction
D. adduction
6. When the legs are not free to move (i.e. they are supporting your body weight), what
action will result from contraction of the hip flexors?
A. hip flexion
B. hip extension
C. anterior pelvic tilt
D. posterior pelvic tilt
7. Which of the following is not a hamstring muscle?
A. semimembranosus
B. semitendinosus
C. biceps femoris
D. gluteus maximus
8. Which of the following is part of the pelvic girdle?
A. the ilium
B. the ischium
C. the pubis
D. all of the above
9. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. The iliopsoas complex is the major flexor of the hip.
Two-joint muscles function more effectively at one joint when the position of the
B.
other joint stretches the muscle slightly.
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
10. Which of the following is/are two-joint muscle(s)?
A. rectus femoris
B. sartorius
C. pectineus
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
11. What is/are the purpose(s) of the patella?
A. increase the angle between the tendon and tibia
B. increase the mechanical advantage of the quadriceps
C. to protect the anterior aspect of the knee
D. all of the above
12. Which of the following is not true about the menisci in the knee joint?
A. made of cartilage
B. larger surface area to distribute load
C. absorb shock
D. all of the above are true
13. Which of the following muscles serves to “unlock” the knee from full extension?
A. plantaris
B. gracilis
C. popliteus
D. sartorius
14. Which knee ligament is most likely to be damaged from a lateral blow?
A. medial collateral
B. lateral collateral
C. anterior cruciate (ACL)
D. posterior cruciate
15. Knee extensors cross the joint ___ to the ___ axis.
A. anterior, anteroposterior
B. posterior, anteroposterior
C. anterior, mediolateral
D. posterior, mediolateral
16. Which muscle does not affect both the hip and the knee?
A. rectus femoris
B. vastus intermedius
C. biceps femoris
D. semimembranosus
17. Which of the following inserts on the patella?
A. hamstrings
B. quadriceps
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
18. The anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments limit which type of knee motion?
A. knee hyperextension
B.
forward and backward sliding of the femur on the tibia during knee flexion and
extension
C. lateral knee motion
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
19. Which of the following conditions must be met for rotation of the tibia relative to the
femur to occur?
A. the knee is not bearing weight
B. the knee is in extension
C. the knee is in flexion
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
20. Which of the following statements is/are true?
When the knee undergoes a significant amount of flexion, it is necessary for the
A.
femur to slide forward on the tibia in order to prevent its rolling off of the tibial
plateau.
B. During extension, the femur must slide backwards on the tibia.
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
21. Which of the following is the most common of all knee injuries?
A. rupture of the anterior cruciate ligament
B. rupture of the medial collateral ligament
C. tear of the lateral meniscus
D. tear of the medial meniscus
22. Which of the following is/are nonaxial joint(s)?
A. tarsometatarsal joint
B. intermetatarsal joint
C. subtalar joint
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
23. Fractures in the ankle region occur most often to which of the following structures?
A. the lateral malleolus
B. the medial malleolus
C. the talus
D. none of the above
24. Which of the following is the most typical cause of ankle sprain?
A. forced inversion of the ankle during landing while the foot is plantar flexed
B. forced eversion of the ankle during landing while the foot is dorsiflexed
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
25. Which of the following characterizes a “bow-legged” condition?
A. femoral varus and tibial valgus
B. femoral valgus and tibial varus
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
26. Where is the weakest point of the femur?
A. head
B. neck
C. shaft
D. greater trochanter
27. Which of the following causes hip adduction?
A. adductor magnus
B. adductor longus
C. gracilis
D. both A & B
E. all of the above
28. Which of the following causes hip abduction?
A. gluteus medius
B. gluteus minimus
C. gluteus maximus
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
29. What is the largest and most complex joint in the body?
A. hip
B. shoulder
C. knee
D. ankle
30. The medial and lateral collateral ligaments limit which type of knee motion?
A. knee hyperextension
forward and backward sliding of the femur on the tibia during knee flexion and
B.
extension
C. lateral knee motion
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
31. Which of the following statements is true regarding ACL injuries?
A. occur more frequently in during player contact
B. occur more frequently during non-contact
C. occurrence is approximately equal between contact and non-contact
D. it is unknown whether contact or non-contact causes more ACL injury
32. Which of the following statements is true regarding ACL injuries?
A. occur more frequently in women than in men
B. occur more frequently in men than in women
C. occurrence is approximately equal between men and women
D. frequency between men and women is sport specific
33. Runner's knee is associated with which of the following structures?
A. lateral meniscus
B. ACL
C. iliotibial band
D. medial meniscus
34. Patellofemoral pain syndrome is likely associated with what?
A. weakness of vastus medialis relative to vastus lateralis
B. weakness of vastus lateralis relative to vastus medialis
C. weakness of biceps femoris relative to semitendinosus
D. weakness of semitendinosus relative to biceps femoris
35. Which of the following does not bear weight?
A. femur
B. tibia
C. fibula
D. talus
36. The strong layer of fibrous tissue which covers the plantar muscles of the foot is called
what?
A. plantar fascia
B. plantar flexion
C. longitudinal ligament
D. plantar interossei
37. During walking, which of the following actions is combined to cause supination?
A. dorsiflexion, eversion, and abduction
B. dorsiflexion, inversion, and abduction
C. plantar flexion, inversion, and abduction
D. plantar flexion, inversion, and adduction
38. Symptoms of plantar fascitis include which of the following?
A. pain in the arch
B. pain in the heel
C. pain on top of the foot
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
39. Which of the following does not attach to the calcaneus?
A. sartorius
B. gastrocnemius
C. plantaris
D. soleus
40. What is the anatomical name for the big toe?
A. pollicis
B. hallux
C. digiti maximi
D. digiti minimi
This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your
answers, press the button below to grade the test.
Chapter 9: The Biomechanics of the Human Spine
1. Movement of the spine occurs in which plane(s)?
A. sagittal
B. frontal
C. transverse
D. all of the above
2. Which of the following vertebral regions has the best range of motion?
A. cervical
B. thoracic
C. lumbar
D. sacral
3. Which part of the vertebrae bears the most weight?
A. lamina
B. superior articulating facet
C. body
D. inferior articulating facet
4. Which of the following helps the spine absorb shock?
A. spinal curves
B. intervertebral discs
C. ligaments
D. both A & B
E. all of the above
5. Which statement is not true about the intervertebral discs?
A. act as cushions between the vertebrae
B. account for approximately 1/4 of the height of the spine
C. are responsible for spinal movement due to compression
D. all of the above are true
6. Which of the following spinal curves are referred to as primary curves?
A. the thoracic and cervical curves
B. the cervical and lumbar curves
C. the cervical and sacral curves
D. the thoracic and sacral curves
7. Which of the following is not true about lordosis?
A. often accompanied by anterior pelvic tilt
B. can be caused by poor abdominal flexibility
C. often accompanies weight gain and pregnancy
D. all of the above are true
8. The condition of exaggerated thoracic curvature is known as which of the following?
A. lordosis
B. kyphosis
C. scoliosis
D. none of the above
9. The articulations between adjacent vertebral bodies are which of the following types of
joints?
A. pivot joints
B. hinge joints
C. symphysis joints
D. none of the above
10. The spinous processes of the thoracic vertebrae inhibit movement in which plane?
A. sagittal
B. frontal
C. transverse
D. all of the above
11. Which vertebrae are the largest?
A. cervical
B. thoracic
C. lumbar
D. sacral
12. What type of joint occurs between the superior and inferior articulating facets of
adjacent vertebrae?
A. cartilaginous
B. non-axial gliding
C. hinge
D. condyloid
13. The sacral region of the spine is fused to which of the following bones?
A. the ilium
B. the ischium
C. the pubis
D. all of the above
14. Lack of flexibility in which of the following muscle groups can cause anterior pelvic
tilt?
A. hip flexors
B. erector spinae
C. abdominals
D. both A & B
E. all of the above
15. The rectus abdominis causes flexion when contracted .
A. unilaterally
B. bilaterally
C. eccentrically
D. all of the above
16. What is the result when part of the nucleus pulposus of the disc protrudes and presses on
a nerve?
A. stress fracture
B. acute fracture
C. herniated disc
D. contusion
17. What joint is usually the culprit in low back pain?
A. sacroiliac
B. lumbosacral
C. sacrococcygeal
D. acetabulum
18. A typical geriatric disc has a fluid content that is reduced by approximately how much?
A. 5%
B. 35%
C. 50%
D. 85%
19. Transverse or spinous process fractures may result from which of the following?
A. extremely forceful contraction of the attached muscles
B. the sustenance of a hard blow to the back of the spine
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
20. Which of the following are potential consequences of spinal fractures?
A. paralysis
B. death
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
21. What is the most common type of vertebral fracture?
A. fracture to the coccyx
B. stress fracture of the pars interarticularis
C. cervical fracture
D. none of the above
22. Unusually high incidences of pars interarticularis fractures have been documented in
which of the following groups of athletes?
A. female gymnasts
B. interior football linemen
C. weight lifters
D. all of the above
23. The most superior cervical vertebrae is called what?
A. atlas
B. axis
C. atlanto-axial
D. none of the above
24. What is the most common type of spinal loading during daily activities?
A. compression
B. tension
C. shear
D. torsion
25. What causes the pumping action (influx and outflux of water containing nutrients and
waste) of the intervertebral discs in adults?
A. blood supply
B. body motion
C. neural activity
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
26. What is the enlarged cervical portion of the supraspinous ligament called?
A. anterior longitudinal ligament
B. posterior longitudinal ligament
C. ligamentum flavum
D. ligamentum nuchae
27. Lateral deviations in spinal curvature are called what?
A. lordosis
B. kyphosis
C. scoliosis
D. all of the above
28. Which type of exaggerated curve is often caused by osteoporosis?
A. lordosis
B. kyphosis
C. scoliosis
D. all of the above
29. Anterior pelvic tilt facilitates what type of spinal motion?
A. flexion
B. extension
C. lateral flexion
D. rotation
30. Which abdominal muscles cause rotation to the left?
A. left internal oblique
B. right external oblique
C. left rectus abdominis
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
31. What action(s) do posterior trunk muscles cause when they contract unilaterally?
A. extension
B. hyperextension
C. lateral flexion
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
32. In anatomical position, where is the center of gravity located relative to the spine?
A. posterior
B. anterior
C. lateral
D. inferior
33. Attachment to the ribs limits range of motion in which vertebrae?
A. cervical
B. thoracic
C. lumbar
D. sacral
34. What type of articulation occurs between the bodies of adjacent vertebrae?
A. cartilaginous
B. non-axial gliding
C. hinge
D. condyloid
35. What is the dominant force on the spine during activities requiring backward leaning of
the trunk, such as rappelling?
A. compression
B. tension
C. shear
D. torsion
36. Spinal relaxation phenomenon explains what?
A. inactivity of spinal extensors during full flexion
B. inactivity of spinal flexors during full flexion
C. sit and reach flexibility test
D. yoga
37. Which of the following contributes to increased spinal loading?
A. rotation (as compared to flexion
B. asymmetrical frontal loads
C. increased lifting speeds
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
38. What musculoskeletal problem causes the most absences from work?
A. ankle sprain
B. carpal tunnel syndrome
C. low back pain
D. herniated disc
39. Sprains occur in what type of tissue?
A. muscles
B. tendons
C. ligaments
D. all of the above
40. What injury can occur when the neck undergoes sudden acceleration and deceleration
(such as in a car accident)?
A. herniated disc
B. whiplash
C. spondylolisthesis
D. spondylolysis
This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your
answers, press the button below to grade the test.
Chapter 10: Linear Kinematics of Human Movement
1. Vector mechanics apply to which of the following?
A. displacement
B. velocity
C. speed
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
2. If velocity is constant, then acceleration is what?
A. zero
B. constant, but not necessarily zero
C. changing
D. need more information
3. The Greek letter Δ (delta) is used to represent what?
A. time
B. displacement
C. distance
D. change in
4. Linear distance traveled per unit of time describes what?
A. displacement
B. velocity
C. acceleration
D. speed
5. Which of the following is not a kinematic quantity?
A. distance
B. displacement
C. acceleration
D. force
6. In sport, which measure is more important or relevant?
A. distance
B. displacement
C. depends on the situation
D. none of the above are important
7. Which of the following is/are scalar quantity(ies)?
A. distance
B. speed
C. displacement
D. both A & B
8. A runner completes 1 full lap around a 400 meter track. What is her displacement?
A. 400 meters
B. 400 meters X 2π
C. zero
D. need more information
9. A runner moving at a velocity of 6 m/s increases the velocity in a 2 s time interval to a
rate of 10 m/s. What is the rate of acceleration?
A. 4 m/s
B. 4 m/s
2
C. 2 m/s
2
D. - 2 m/s
2
10. When final velocity is larger than initial velocity, the acceleration is what?
A. zero
B. negative
C. positive
D. average
11. Marion Jones changes her velocity from 8 m/s to 11 m/s. Gail Devers changes hers from
7 m/s to 10 m/s. Who has the higher acceleration?
A. Marion
B. Gail
C. acceleration equal for both
D. need more information
12. In a 5K road race, the finish line is also the starting line. What does 5K represent?
A. distance
B. displacement
C. speed
D. velocity
13. What factor(s) distinguishes elite sprinters from non-elite performers?
A. stride length
B. stride frequency
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
14. Once a projectile is airborne, it is affected by which of the following?
A. gravity
B. air resistance
C. release velocity
D. both A & B
E. all of the above
15. It takes a swimmer 1 hour to cross a lake that is 1/2 mile wide. What is true of the
swimmer's acceleration?
A. it is 1/2 mi/hr
B. it is 1 mi/hr
C. it is equal to velocity squared
D. it cannot be determined from the information given
16. If the velocity of a sailboat changes from 4 m/s to 2 m/s over a period of time, what is
true of the sailboat's acceleration?
A. it is positive
B. it is negative
C. it is equal to zero
D. it is equal to 2 knots/hr
17. A ball rolling across a field with an acceleration of -0.5 m/s2 rolls 12.5 m and then
comes to a stop after 8 seconds. What was the ball's initial speed?
A. 4 m/s
B. 16 m/s
C. 12.5 m/s
D. 6.25 m/s
18. Which of the following is an example of projectile motion?
A. a badminton shuttlecock during flight
B. a long jumper while in the air
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
19. Which of the following affects the time that a horizontally projected object remains in
the air?
A. weight
B. mass
C. projection height
D. all of the above
20. Which of the following statements is true regarding objects projected from the same
level as they land?
A. time up and time down are equal
B. angle of decent is equal to angle of takeoff
C. both A & B
D. all of the above
21. What is the average velocity of a cyclist who covers 5 miles in 30 minutes?
A. 5 mi/hr
B. 10 mi/hr
C. 30 mi/hr
D. 60 mi./hr
22. When a long jump performance is analyzed, which of the following is likely to be of the
most interest?
A. the average velocity of the jumper during the run-up
B. the instantaneous velocity of the jumper at takeoff
C. the average velocity of the jumper during the flight
D. the instantaneous velocity of the jumper at landing
23. Which of the following factors typically exerts the most influence on the horizontal
displacement obtained by a projectile?
A. projection angle
B. relative height of projection
C. initial speed of projection
D. initial acceleration of projection
24. A ball is tossed vertically upward from a height of 2 m with an initial velocity of 10 m/s.
Just before the ball hits the ground, its velocity will be what?
A. 10 m/s
B. less than 10 m/s
C. greater than 10 m/s
D. not possible to predict
25. A ball is kicked with an initial velocity of 10 m/s at an angle of 30°. Neglecting air
resistance, what is the speed of the ball at landing?
A. 10 m/s
B. 10 m/s multiplied by the sine of 30 degrees
C. 10 m/s multiplied by the cosine of 30 degrees
D. none of the above
26. Which of the following is/are used to indicate direction of displacement?
A. positive
B. negative
C. North
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
27. The meter is the unit of measurement for which of the following?
A. distance
B. displacement
C. speed
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
28. What factor(s) distinguishes elite cross-country skiers from non-elite performers?
A. stride or cycle length
B. stride or cycle frequency
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
29. Why does running downhill tend to increase running speed?
A. increased stride length
B. increased stride frequency
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
30. What quantity is calculated as the inverse of speed?
A. velocity
B. acceleration
C. pace
D. none of the above
31. The negative sign in front of the acceleration due to gravity (-9.81 m/s2) can mean which
of the following?
A. the projectile is traveling down and speeding up (negative direction)
B. the projectile is traveling up and slowing down (negative acceleration)
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
32. Which of the following components of projectile is affected by gravity?
A. vertical component
B. horizontal component
C. both A and B
D. depends on the individual situation
33. Which of the following is/are true regarding the apex in the trajectory of a projectile?
A. it is the highest point in the flight
B. vertical velocity is 0
C. direction changes
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
34. Neglecting the effect of air resistance, which of the following is/are true regarding the
horizontal component of projectile velocity?
A. remains constant throughout flight
B. changes according to gravitational acceleration
C. equal to 0
D. both A and B
35. The shape of a projectile's trajectory is influenced by which of the following?
A. angle of projection
B. air resistance
C. speed of projection
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
36. Why do elite long jumpers have take-off angles far less than the optimal 45°?
A. take-off velocity is higher during lower take-off angles
B. relative take-off height is zero
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
37. Which of the following represents vertical acceleration of a projectile?
A. –9.81 m/s
2
B. –9.81 m/s
C. 0 m/s
2
D. 0 m/s
38. Which of the following represents horizontal acceleration of a projectile?
A. –9.81 m/s
2
B. –9.81 m/s
C. 0 m/s
2
D. 0 m/s
39. The laws of constant acceleration can be applied to which of the following?
A. horizontal component of projectile motion
B. vertical component of projectile motion
C. resultant of projectile motion
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
40. In the formula v2 = v1, what is know about acceleration?
A. acceleration = –9.81 m/s
2
B. acceleration = 0
C. both A and B
D. need more information
This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your
answers, press the button below to grade the test.
Chapter 11: Angular Kinematics of Human Movement
1. An angle formed by a body segment with respect to horizontal is what?
A. relative angle
B. absolute angle
C. acute angle
D. none of the above
2. If all other factors are held constant, what effect would “choking up” on a bat have on the
resultant linear velocity of a hit ball?
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. need more information
3. If angular acceleration is constant, then angular velocity must be
A. constant
B. increasing or decreasing
C. equal to zero
D. none of the above
4. The component of angular acceleration directed toward the center of curvature defines
what?
A. radial acceleration
B. tangential acceleration
C. angular acceleration
D. linear acceleration
5. What quantity will have the following units? rad/s
A. linear displacement
B. angular displacement
C. linear velocity
D. angular velocity
6. If the angular velocity of a batter's shoulders increases, what will happen to the linear
velocity of the end of the bat?
A. increase
B. decrease
C. stay the same
D. end of the bat has no linear velocity
7. Which of the following terms describes the location of the center of rotation at a joint at a
given instant in time?
A. precise center
B. exact center
C. instant center
D. none of the above
8. Which of the following terms describes the angle formed between the longitudinal axes of
two adjacent body segments?
A. the static angle
B. the relative angle
C. the absolute angle
D. none of the above
9. Which angular direction is conventionally regarded as positive?
A. clockwise
B. counterclockwise
C. flexion
D. extension
10. Which of the following is/are true regarding a radian?
A. it is equal to 57.3 degrees
B. it is the size of the angle subtended by an arc of radius length
C. it is a unit of angular displacement
D. all of the above are true
11. Which of the following expressions defines angular velocity?
A. change in angular position over a given time
B. angular displacement divided by time
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
12. Which of the following is not a valid unit of angular velocity?
A. radians per second
B. revolutions per minute
C. degrees per hour
D. gradients
13. During a baseball pitch, a pitcher's arm rotates through 80 degrees of motion at the
shoulder. If this is accomplished in 0.5 seconds, which of the following statements is
true?
A. angular velocity is constant
B. angular acceleration is constant
C. both A and B must be true
D. neither A nor B must be true
14. Which of the following is/are vector quantity(s)?
A. angular velocity
B. angular acceleration
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
15. Which of the following are scalar quantities?
A. angular distance
B. angular velocity
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
16. If angular acceleration is constant, which of the following is true of angular velocity?
A. it must be constant
B. it must be equal to zero
C. it must be increasing
D. none of the above
17. A model airplane is being flown at the end of a cord 20 feet long. If the speed of the
airplane remains constant, but the cord is shortened to 15 feet, what will be the effect on
the radial acceleration of the airplane?
A. it will increase
B. it will decrease
C. it will remain the same
D. one must know the weight of the airplane in order to answer the question
18. Range of motion at a joint is a measurement of what?
A. linear displacement
B. angular displacement
C. linear velocity
D. angular velocity
19. Human body angles may be calculated using which of the following?
A. goniometer
B. flexometer
C. electrogoniometer
D. all of the above
20. Which of the following quantities are equal?
A. 2π radians and 360°
B. 270° and 3/4 revolution
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
21. When observing someone lift a heavy object, which of the following is likely to be the
angle of interest regarding back injury?
A. absolute angle of the trunk
B. relative angle of the trunk
C. absolute angle of the knee
D. relative angle of the knee
22. Why is anatomical knowledge important when using a goniometer?
A. location of joint center determines placement of axis
B. bone location affects position of the goniometer arms
C. instant center of a joint can change during movement
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
23. When the second hand on a clock makes a complete revolution, which of the following
is/are true?
A. angular distance is 360°
B. angular displacement is 0°
C. angular velocity is 6 deg/s
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
24. If the knee joint goes through 100° of flexion during the down phase of a squat, what is
the total angular distance during 10 complete squats?
A. 1000°
B. 2000°
C. 0°
D. none of the above
25. A quadruple axel (in figure skating) involves how much angular displacement?
A. 4 revolutions
B. 1440°
C. 0°
D. none of the above
26. Which of the following is a correct formula for angular velocity?
A. σ = φ/t
B. ω = φ/t
C. ω = θ/t
D. σ = θ/t
27. Which of the following is/are correct units for angular speed?
A. rpm
B. deg/s
C. rad/s
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
28. What is the angular acceleration of the second hand on a clock after one complete
revolution?
A. 6 deg/s
2
B. 6 deg/s
C. 60 deg/s
2
D. 0
29. A procedure for identifying the direction of an angular motion vector is called what?
A. right hand rule
B. clockwise rule
C. both A and B
D. no special procedure is needed
30. What does the letter “r” stand for in the equation v = rω?
A. resultant
B. radius of rotation
C. radian
D. none of the above
31. What rules have to be followed when using the formula v = rω?
A. units for ω have to be radian-based
B. units for v and r must the same base units (with time included in “v”)
C. both A and B
D. there are no special rules
32. The formula v = rω establishes the relationship between what?
A. linear and angular displacement
B. linear and angular velocity
C. linear displacement and linear velocity
D. angular displacement and angular velocity
33. Which of the following is/are formula(s) for tangential acceleration?
A. at = (vt - vt)/t
B. at = rα
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
34. Maximizing tangential acceleration is important in which of the following situations?
A. punting a football for distance
B. serving a tennis ball
C. throwing a dart
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
35. What component of angular acceleration represents the rate of change in direction of a
rotation body?
A. tangential acceleration
B. radial acceleration
C. linear acceleration
D. none of the above
36. When are radian-based units essential?
A. when measuring linear velocity
B. when measuring angular velocity
C. when converting between linear and angular velocity
D. all of the above
37. Which of the following can contribute to the resultant linear velocity of a projectile at
release?
A. tangential acceleration
B. radial acceleration
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
38. Which of the following are appropriate units for tangential acceleration?
A. rad/s
B. m/s
C. rad/s
D. m/s
2
2
39. Radial acceleration is directly affected by which of the following?
A. tangential velocity
B. radius of rotation
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
40. When angular velocity is 0, what is angular acceleration?
A. –9.81 m/s
2
B. increasing
C. decreasing
D. 0
E. need more information
This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your
answers, press the button below to grade the test.
Chapter 12: Linear Kinetics of Human Movement
1. Which of the following quantities would be different on the moon than on the earth?
A. acceleration due to gravity
B. mass
C. both mass and acceleration
D. neither mass nor acceleration
2. Which of the following relationships is correct?
A. m = F / a
B. F = m / a
C. a = m / F
D. none of the above
3. What determines the time a horizontally projected object remains in the air?
A. weight
B. mass
C. projection height
D. all of the above
4. If an object of constant mass travels with a constant velocity, which statement is true?
A. momentum is constant
B. acceleration is 0
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
5. A skater gliding on ice will continue to move in the same direction and with the same
speed (in the absence of the action of additional forces). This exemplifies which of the
following laws?
A. Newton's first law of inertia
B. Newton's second law of acceleration
C. Newton's third law of action/reaction
D. Newton's law of gravitational force
6. A 500N gymnast performing a giant swing with an angular velocity of 5 rad/sec, exerts
90 Nm of torque on the support bar. How much torque is exerted by the bar on the
gymnast's hands?
A. 100 Nm
B. 2500 Nm
C. 590 Nm
D. 90 Nm
7. The higher the jump, the "harder" the landing. This statement reflects which of the
following laws?
A. the law of inertia
B. the law of momentum
C. the law of torque
D. the law of action/reaction
8. Which quantity is not a force?
A. friction
B. mass
C. weight
D. gravity
9. The 2 variables that determine momentum are
A. velocity and time
B. velocity and mass
C. mass and acceleration
D. velocity and acceleration
10. In sporting activities, what amount of friction is desired?
A. large
B. small
C. none
D. depends on the situation
11. What variable may be described as "the quantity of motion" possessed by an object?
A. force
B. inertia
C. momentum
D. velocity
12. The principle of conservation of momentum restates which of Newton's laws?
A. inertia
B. acceleration
C. action/reaction
D. gravitation
13. Which of the following mechanical quantities is not dependent on time?
A. work
B. power
C. kinetic energy
D. velocity
14. Which of the following correctly describes impact?
A. large force applied over a long period of time
B. large force applied over a short period of time
C. small force applied over a long period of time
D. small force applied over a short period of time
15. Which of the following is true of the coefficient of restitution of a racquetball?
A. it depends solely on the type of material of which the ball is made
B. it depends on the size of the ball as well as the type of material
C. it depends solely on how hard the ball is hit
D. it is a number relating to the elasticity of a ball against a particular surface
16. The product of a force and the time during which it acts defines what?
A. momentum
B. velocity
C. acceleration
D. impulse
17. The capacity for doing work that a body possesses because of its height or position is
called what?
A. potential energy
B. kinetic energy
C. moment of inertia
D. mechanical power
18. Energy of motion is also called what?
A. potential energy
B. kinetic energy
C. strain energy
D. elastic energy
19. Which of the following mechanical quantities is evident in explosive track and field
events, such as the long jump and the shot put.
A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. mechanical work
D. mechanical power
20. Which of the following pairs of quantities are expressed in the same units of measure?
A. friction and weight
B. work and energy
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
21. Which of the following is a correct unit of mechanical energy?
A. Joules
B. Watts
C. kg-m
D. kg/m
22. When two bodies collide head-on and then continue to travel collectively in the original
direction of motion of one of the bodies, what factor determines the direction of
collective motion after the collision?
A. the relative momenta of the two bodies
B. the relative masses of the two bodies
C. the relative acceleration of the two bodies
D. the relative weights of the two bodies
23. Which of the following statements is true of the amount of horizontal force required to
start an object sitting on a horizontal surface in motion?
A. it must be greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction
B. it must be greater than the coefficient of static friction
C. it must be greater than the maximum static friction force
D. it must be greater than the maximum kinetic friction force
24. Which of the following statements is true about the relationship between impact and
impulse?
A. impact is always greater than impulse
B. impulse is always greater than impact
C. impacts generate impulses
D. impulses generate impacts
25. Which of the following factors does not affect the amount of friction generated between
two dry surfaces?
A. the coefficient of friction between the two surfaces
B. the surface area in contact
C. the reaction force
D. the normal force
26. What type of energy is strain energy?
A. potential
B. kinetic
C. caloric
D. entropic
27. Which of the following would be typical for vertical ground reaction force (GRF) during
running?
A. GRF = body weight
B. GRF = 2 X body weight
C. GRF = ½ body weight
D. None of the above
28. What is/are the direction(s) for vertical ground reaction force?
A. up
B. down
C. sideways
D. all of the above are possible directions
29. Which of the following is/are true statement(s) regarding the law of gravitation?
All bodies are attracted to one another with a force proportional to the product
A.
of their masses.
B.
All bodies are attracted to one another with a force inversely proportional to the
square of the distance between them.
C. The law of gravitation ceases to exist outside the earth's atmosphere.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
30. Which of the following relationships is always true?
A. μk < μs
B. μs < μk
C. μk = μs
D. none of the above
31. How does adding weight to the back of a pickup increase the friction between the tires
and the icy road?
A. changes μk
B. changes μs
C. changes R
D. friction is not increased
32. How does wearing gloves increase the friction between the hands and the bat?
A. changes μk
B. changes μs
C. changes R
D. friction is not increased
33. Which of the following is a correct unit for linear momentum?
A. N•m
B. N•m/s
C. kg•m
D. kg•m/s
34. What happens to momentum when an impulse acts on a system?
A. momentum is conserved
B. momentum is changed
C. impulse does not affect momentum
D. all of the above are possible
35. Which of the following is closest to a perfectly elastic impact?
A. modeling clay dropped on a hard surface
B. modeling clay dropped on a trampoline
C. superball dropped on a hard surface
D. superball dropped on a trampoline
36. Which of the following affects the coefficient of restitution between a tennis racket and
tennis ball?
A. how long the ball has been out of the can
B. how many times the ball has been hit
C. tightness of the grip
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
37. The formula for mechanical work is the product of which of the following?
A. force and displacement
B. force and time
C. acceleration and time
D. power and displacement
38. Negative mechanical work involves which of the following?
A. net torque and angular motion are same direction
B. net torque and angular motion are in different directions
C. concentric muscle contraction
D. none of the above
39. Which of the following is/are correct formula(s) for mechanical power?
A. P = W/t
B. P = Fd/t
C. P = Fv
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
40. Which of the following is a correct unit of mechanical power?
A. Joules
B. Watts
C. kg-m
D. kg/m
Chapter 13: Equilibrium and Human Movement
1. The perpendicular distance between the line of force and the axis defines what?
A. torque
B. fulcrum
C. moment arm
D. none of the above
2. Torque is the angular analogue of what?
A. momentum
B. force
C. mass
D. impulse
3. Which of the following is a characteristic of torque?
A. it is a vector quantity
B. it is characterized by magnitude
C. it is characterized by direction
D. all of the above
4. In the human body, most of the lever systems formed by muscles pulling on bones are
what class?
A. 1st class
B. 2nd class
C. 3rd class
D. no particular class is dominant
5. A 30 kg child sits on the right end of a see-saw 1 m from the axis. If a 20 kg child sits on
the left end of the see-saw 2 m from the axis, what will happen?
A. the see-saw will tilt to the right
B. the see-saw will tilt to the left
C. the see-saw will balance
D. need more information to predict outcome
6. The resistance arm (RA) will always be longer than the force arm (FA) in what class
lever?
st
A. 1 class
nd
B. 2 class
rd
C. 3 class
D. none of the above
7. Third class lever systems favor which of the following?
A. speed
B. range of motion
C. strength
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
8. A wheelbarrow is an example of which class of lever?
st
A. 1 class
nd
B. 2 class
rd
C. 3 class
D. not a lever
9. A seesaw is an example of which class of lever?
st
A. 1 class
nd
B. 2 class
rd
C. 3 class
D. not a lever
10. Which of the following will improve leverage?
A. increase force arm
B. decrease resistance arm
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
11. A claw-tooth hammer being used to pry up a nail is an example of which class of lever?
st
A. 1 class
nd
B. 2 class
rd
C. 3 class
D. not a lever
12. The relative efficiency of a lever is proportional to which of the following?
A. mechanical advantage of the lever
B. length of the force arm
C. length of the resistance arm
D. the amount of force needed to move the lever
13. When a muscle contracts at a joint, which of the following affects torque?
A. the rotary component of muscle force
B. the stabilizing component of muscle force
C. the dislocating component of muscle force
D. none of the above
14. When the elbow is extended and the elbow flexors contract, which of the component
forces acts in addition to the rotary component?
A. the stabilizing component of muscle force
B. the dislocating component of muscle force
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
15. The amount of torque which must by generated by the biceps brachii at the elbow in
order to maintain the arm in a particular position is 50 Nm. If the biceps attaches to the
radius at a perpendicular distance of 3 cm from the joint center at the elbow, how much
force must the muscle produce?
A. 1667 N
B. 17 N
C. 150 N
D. 1.5 N
16. Which of the following affects the force-generating capability of a muscle?
A. the muscle length and cross-sectional area
B. the angle and distance from the joint center of the tendon attachment to bone
C. the velocity of muscle shortening
D. all of the above
17. Which of the following factors influences the amount of torque produced by muscles at
a joint?
A. the amounts of tension generated by the muscles
B. the arrangement of the muscles around the joint
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
18. Which of the following must be true for an object to be in a state of static equilibrium?
A. the sum of all vertical forces acting on the object must be equal to zero
B. the sum of all horizontal forces acting on the object must be equal to zero
C. the sum of all torques acting on the object must be equal to zero
D. all of the above must be true
19. In analyzing the human body as a projectile, which of the following quantities follows a
parabolic path?
A. the center of mass
B. the center of volume
C. the navel
D. this varies with the individual performance
20. Which of the following does not increase stability?
A. lower the COG
B. increase size of base of support
C. decrease mass
D. increase friction
21. Which of the following will benefit mobility?
A. increase mass
B. increase base of support
C. increase friction
D. raise center of gravity
22. Which of the following quantities is zero for an object in static equilibrium?
A. momentum
B. kinetic energy
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
23. In which of the following situations is maximal stability desirable?
A. a swimmer's starting position on the blocks before a race
B. a Sumo wrestler's crouched defensive stance
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
24. Which of the following phrases is/are synonymous with torque?
A. moment of force
B. rotary force
C. moment arm
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
25. Which statement is true regarding moment arm?
A. Moment arm is largest when the angle of pull on a bone is 90°.
B. Changes in moment arm directly affect joint muscle torque.
C.
For torque to remain constant, more force must be produced when moment arm
decreases.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
26. Which of the following is/are true regarding a force couple?
A. created by equal forces on opposite sides of an axis
B. created by forces acting in the same angular direction
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
27. Which of the following is/are function(s) of antagonist muscles?
A. control velocity of movement
B. enhance stability of the joint
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
28. What is the proposed advantage of Nautilus resistance equipment over free weights?
A. resistance varies over the range of motion with Nautilus equipment
B. resistance varies over the range of motion with free weights
muscle force requirements change over the range of motion with Nautilus
C.
equipment
D. none of the above is advantageous
29. Which type of equipment provides constant velocity?
A. isotonic
B. free weights
C. Nautilus
D. Isokinetic
30. Which of the following is/are true regarding dynamic equilibrium?
A. applies to bodies in motion
B. first identified by D'Alembert
C. both A and B
D. there is no such thing as dynamic equilibrium
31. Which of the following is/are true regarding center of mass?
A. in a spherical ball with evenly distributed mass, it is in the exact center
it is the point around which a body's weight is equally balanced regardless of
B.
body position
C. it may be located outside an object or body
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
32. What is the importance of segmental center of mass to the lever systems of the human
body?
A. segmental COM will follow a parabolic path when projected
B.
segmental COM is the point of resistance (where weight vector is drawn) and
therefore determines the length of the resistance arm
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
33. Why do skilled high jumpers lower their COM on the last step?
A. to increase time of support between foot and ground
B. to increase vertical velocity at take-off
C. to increase impulse at take-off
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
34. What will happen to the COM of a human body if the arms are raised up overhead?
A. it will move up
B. it will move down
C. it will not change
D. need more information to predict
35. The ability to control equilibrium defines what?
A. stability
B. balance
C. mobility
D. center of mass
36. Which of the following can increase base of support?
A. widen stance
B. add more points of contact (i.e. 3-point stance to 4-point stance)
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
37. If disruption of stability is the desired outcome, which of the following should be
observed?
A. lower COM
B. increase base of support
C. increase friction
D. move COM to edge of BOS
38. Which statement(s) is/are true regarding postural sway?
A. it affects balance in the elderly
B. it is reduced by widening the BOS to a certain point
C. it is increased by putting one foot in front of the other
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
39. Which one of the following incorrectly identifies the parts of a lever within the human
body?
A. a bone is the rigid bar
B. a joint is the axis of rotation
C. a muscle insertion provides the point of force
D. COM of the moving segment is the point of resistance
E. all of the above are correct
40. When net muscle torque and joint movement occur in the same direction, what type of
contraction occurs?
A. concentric
B. eccentric
C. isometric
D. isotonic
This is the end of the test. When yo
Chapter 14: Angular Kinetics of Human Movement
1. Moment of inertia is the angular analogue of what?
A. moment of force
B. moment of time
C. mass
D. surface area
2. When knee flexion is increased, what happens to the moment of inertia of the leg about
the hip?
A. increased
B. decreased
C. remains the same
D. need more information
3. In the absence of external torque, which of the following will increase when moment of
inertia decreases?
A. angular momentum
B. angular velocity
C. both A & B
D. none of the above
4. Torque is the angular analogue of what?
A. momentum
B. force
C. mass
D. impulse
5. Which of the following variables contribute to moment of inertia?
A. F and d
B. T and t
C. M and v
D. m and k
6. Where is radius of gyration located in relation to center of gravity (COG)?
A. closer to the axis
B. further from the axis
C. same distance from the axis
D. need more information
7. If a diver goes from a full layout position to a tuck position, what will happen to her
angular velocity?
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. need more information
8. If a diver goes from a full layout position to a tuck position, what will happen to his
momentum?
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. need more information
9. How many principle axes are there for the human body?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
10. Somersaulting occurs around which of the following axes of rotation?
A. frontal
B. sagittal
C. longitudinal
D. all of the above
11. Which of the following variables affects angular momentum?
A. linear velocity
B. angular acceleration
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
12. Which of the following is referred to as the "quantity of angular motion" possessed by a
body?
A. angular displacement
B. angular velocity
C. angular acceleration
D. angular momentum
13. Which of the following quantities increases as moment of inertia decreases during the
airborne phase of a dive?
A. angular momentum
B. angular velocity
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
14. Which of the following acts to produce a change in angular momentum?
A. moment of inertia
B. torque
C. angular impulse
D. none of the above
15. The statement "a rotating body will maintain a state of constant angular motion unless
acted on by an external torque" refers to which of the following?
A. Newton's first law of inertia
B. Newton's second law of acceleration
C. Newton's third law of action/reaction
D. none of the above
16. Centripetal force is related to which of the following?
A. radial acceleration
B. tangential acceleration
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
17. Which of the following is known as "center-seeking" force?
A. momentum
B. acceleration
C. centrifugal force
D. centripetal force
18. Which of the following is true of a baserunner weighing 70 Newtons and a baserunner
weighing 50 Newtons?
A. the centripetal force exerted on the heavier baserunner will be greater
B.
C.
the heavier baserunner will not be able to run as fast around the bases, due to a
greater centripetal force
if the baserunners run at the same velocity around the bases, the heavier
baserunner will have to lean in more towards the pitcher's mound due to a
greater centripetal force
D. all of the above are true
19. When a cyclist rounds a curve, where does centripetal force act?
A. on the cyclist's center of gravity
B. on the cycle's center of gravity
C. on the tires of the cycle
D. on the ground
20. Centrifugal force is a misnomer. What is really happening when you feel a pull to the
outside while rounding a curve?
A. centripetal force
B. inertia
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
21. What effect does “choking up” on a bat have?
A. reduces moment of inertia
B. increases angular velocity of swing
C. reduces mass
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
22. Regarding moment of inertia of the leg with respect to the hip, which of the following
leg morphologies would favor a sprinter?
A. massive thighs and slimmer lower legs
B. massive lower legs and slimmer thighs
C. leg morphology does not matter
D. need more information
23. Which of the following accurately describes the radius of gyration of the forearm
segment?
A. It is greater with respect to the wrist than with respect to the elbow.
B. It is greater with respect to the elbow than with respect to the wrist.
C. It is equal with respect to the wrist and with respect to the elbow.
D. need more information
24. Which of the following are accurate units for moment of inertia?
A. N•m
B. N•m
2
C. kg•m
2
D. kg•m
25. Rotating around which of the following principal axes of rotation has the least moment
of inertia (anatomical position)?
A. transverse (frontal)
B. anteroposterior (sagittal)
C. longitudinal
D. need more information
26. Which of the following is/are accurate formula(s) for angular momentum?
A. H = Iω
2
B. H = mk ω
C. M = mv
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
27. If a pendulum stops swinging, which of the following is/are true?
A. angular velocity = 0
B. angular momentum = 0
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
28. What are the appropriate units for angular momentum?
2
A. kg•m /s
B. kg•m/s
2
2
C. kg •m/s
D. kg•m
2
29. How come gravity does not affect angular momentum?
A. d⊥ = 0
B. T = 0
C. both A and B
D. gravity does affect angular momentum
30. If total body angular momentum is 0, what will happen as the result of a forceful
movement such as a spike?
A. compensatory rotation in lower body in opposite direction
B. compensatory rotation in upper body called follow-through
C. angular momentum is no longer 0
D. all of the above
31. Why does a figure skater cross his arms tightly across the chest when performing a
quadruple axel?
A. to reduce moment of inertia
B. to increase angular velocity
C. to increase time in the air
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
32. According to Newton's 2nd Law, what is the relationship among torque, moment of
inertia, and angular acceleration?
A. T = Iα
B. I = Tα
C. α = TI
D. T = Iω
33. Which of Newton's laws (angular analogues) explains why a batter wears cleats?
st
A. 1 law – moment of inertia
nd
B. 2 law – angular acceleration
rd
C. 3 law – reaction
D. none of the above
34. Which of the following is/are most important factor(s) affecting the magnitude of
centripetal force?
A. tangential linear velocity
B. radius of rotation
C. mass
D. all of the above are equally important
35. How can a cyclist maintain balance when rounding a sharp curve?
A. slow down
B. lean to the inside of the curve
C. lean to the outside of the curve
D. both A and B
E. none of the above will affect balance
36. Which of the following are accurate units for centripetal force?
2
A. kg•m /s
2
B. kg•deg /s
C. N
D. N-kg•m
37. When a discus thrower spins and then releases the discus, what direction will it travel?
A. tangent to the circular path at release
B. tangent to the circular path at beginning of spin
C. will continue in circular path
D. need more information
38. Why do sprint coaches stress “heel to buttocks” during sprinting?
A. reduces moment of inertia of the leg with respect to the hip
B. reduces moment of inertia of the lower leg with respect to the knee
C. reduces moment of inertia of the foot with respect to the ankle
D. there is no scientific basis for this coaching cue
39. Why is a bat easier to swing if you grip the barrel instead of the handle?
A. k is reduced
B. k is increased
C. moment of inertia is increased
D. easier to grip the barrel
40. Why are golf club heads weighted?
A. to increase the moment of inertia of the club with respect to the shoulder
B. to increase the moment of inertia of the club head rotating around the shaft
C. to decrease the moment of inertia of the club with respect to the shoulder
D. to decrease the moment of inertia of the club head rotating around the shaft
This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the ques
Chapter 15: Human Movement in a Fluid Medium
1. Buoyant force is directly related to what?
A. mass
B. weight
C. volume
D. density
2. Which of the following quantities are forces?
A. friction
B. buoyancy
C. weight
D. all of the above
3. "A flow characterized by smooth, parallel layers of fluid" is the definition of which of the
following?
A. relative velocity
B. turbulent flow
C. laminar flow
D. none of the above
4. Which of the following is not true about drag?
A. it is a force caused by the action of a fluid
B. it is affected by surface area
C. it is affected by the density of the fluid
D. all of the above are true
5. The theoretical square law is related to which of the following?
A. friction
B. lift force
C. drag
D. none of the above
6. Which of the following factors affects skin friction drag?
A. increase in the relative velocity of fluid flow
B. the surface area of the body over which the flow occurs
C. the viscosity of the fluid
D. all of the above
7. Which of the following describes the drag created by a pressure differential between the
lead and rear sides of a body moving through a fluid?
A. form drag
B. profile drag
C. surface drag
D. both A and B above
8. The nature of the boundary layer depends on which of the following?
A. the roughness of the body's surface
B. the body's velocity relative to flow
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
9. Which of the following terms describes a force acting on a body in a fluid in a direction
perpendicular to the fluid flow?
A. wave drag
B. surface drag
C. form drag
D. lift
10. Which of the following factors affects lift force?
A. relative velocity of the fluid
B. fluid density
C. size, shape, and orientation of the body
D. all of the above
11. Lift force occurs in which direction?
A. up
B. down
C. sideways
D. all of the above
12. Which of the following quantities affects a discus as it travels through the air?
A. surface drag
B. lift force
C. both A and B
D. neither A nor B
13. Which type of fluid resistance is likely to be greatest on a swimmer in the ocean at a fast
speed?
A. skin friction
B. profile drag
C. wave drag
D. none of the above
14. Relative velocity of the fluid affects which of the following?
A. skin friction
B. wave drag
C. lift force
D. all of the above
15. Which of the following statements is true of the Magnus force?
A. It is created by spin on a ball.
B. It is created by a pressure differential.
C. Both A and B are true.
D. Neither A nor B is true.
16. The theory attributing propulsion in swimming to Newton's third law is what?
A. the propulsive drag theory
B. the propulsive lift theory
C. the vortex theory
D. none of the above
17. The inverse relationship between relative velocity and relative pressure in a fluid is
what?
A. Archimedes principle
B. Bernoulli principle
C. magnus principle
D. none of the above
18. Which of the following explains buoyancy?
A. Archimedes principle
B. Bernoulli principle
C. magnus principle
D. none of the above
19. Fresh water is more dense than which of the following?
A. sea water
B. air
C. muscle
D. none of the above
20. Which of the following is considered a fluid?
A. air
B. water
C. molasses
D. all of the above
21. A man's ability to float is most directly related to his what?
A. mass
B. weight
C. volume
D. density
22. Which of the following is defined “velocity of a body with respect to the velocity of the
wind (or other surrounding fluid)”?
A. resultant velocity
B. absolute velocity
C. relative velocity
D. all of the above
23. Which of the following statements is accurate?
A. As a fluid becomes denser, it exerts greater forces on moving body.
B. As a fluid becomes denser, it becomes more viscous.
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
24. Which of the following are inversely related?
A. density and volume
B. density and specific weight
C. specific weight and mass
D. mass and density
25. Which of the following statements is always true?
A. center of volume is in the same place as center of mass
B. center of volume is in the same place as center of buoyancy
C. center of mass is in the same place as center of buoyancy
D. all of the above are true
26. For flotation to occur, which of the following must exist?
A. buoyant force must exceed weight
B. buoyant force must equal or exceed weight
C. weight must exceed buoyant force
D. weight must equal or exceed buoyant force
27. Which two forces are always opposite in direction?
A. lift and drag
B. buoyancy and drag
C. buoyancy and weight
D. drag and weight
28. Why were so many world records set at the 1968 Olympic Games in Mexico City?
A. higher altitude reduced VO2max
B. higher altitude reduced drag force
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
29. Total drag is greater for which athletes?
A. swimmers
B. runners
C. equal for swimmers and runners
D. need more information
30. Which of the following is true regarding passive drag?
A. generated by a swimmer's body size, shape, and position in the water
B. inversely related to a swimmer's buoyancy
C. associated with the swimmer in motion
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
31. Which of the following factors that affect skin drag, can athletes usually alter?
A. roughness of the body surface
B. amount of surface area in contact with the fluid
C. viscosity of the fluid
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
32. How do dimples on a golf ball reduce form drag?
A. produce a turbulent boundary layer
B. produce a laminar boundary layer
C. both A and B
D. dimples do not reduce form drag
33. “Drafting” can reduce which kind of drag?
A. skin friction
B. form drag
C. wave drag
D. all of the above
34. Which of the following is considered a foil shape?
A. human hand
B. discus
C. shot put
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
35. Ski jumpers attempt to do which of the following?
A. increase lift and increase drag
B. increase lift and decrease drag
C. decrease lift and decrease drag
D. decrease lift and increase drag
36. Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. Angle of attack and release angle both affect horizontal range.
B. Angle of attack and release angle are independent of each other.
C. Angle of attack and release angle are always equal.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
37. Topspin on a tennis ball will have what effect?
A. Ball will drop sooner.
B. Ball will rebound lower.
C. Ball will rebound faster.
D. both A and B
E. all of the above
38. A curve ball pitch follows which path?
A. straight line with sudden break at the end
B. smooth arc
C. can be either A or B
D. none of the above
39. Golf clubs are designed to impart backspin, which affects the ball in what way?
A. increase in flight time
B. increase in range
C. both A and B
D. none of the above
40. Which of the following acts in the same direction as body motion?
A. wave drag
B. propulsive drag
C. skin friction
D. all of the above
This is the end of the test. When you have completed all the questions and reviewed your
answers, press the button below to grade the test.