Clinical Pharmacy Department
Drug Therapy
Modul 1. Introduction to the drug therapy with the basics of pharmacokinetics.
Principles of rational pharmacotherapy.
Pharmacotherapy of diseases of internal organs
Which of the following substances has its major activity as a saline cathartic?
A. sodium bicarbonate
B. methylcellulose
C. sodium phosphate
D. castor oil
E. mineral oil
ANSWER: C
The correct statement regarding sucralfate:
A. pharmacologic action is to reduce gastric acid secretion by antagonizing gastrin
B. enhances N+-K+ ATPase
C. antagonizes acetylcholine
D. most common side effects is constipation
E. increases gastric motility
ANSWER: D
Correct statement regarding metoclopramide:
A. central nervous system dopamine receptor agonist
B. peripheral blockage of acetylcholine at muscarinic synapse
C. decreases lower esophageal sphincter pressure
D. adverse effects include dystonic or extrapyramidal effects
E. increases motility of colon
ANSWER: D
In general, mechanisms of laxation include:
A. adding bulk to the stool
B. increasing peristaltic activity
C. emulsifying aqueous and fatty substances with stool
D. lubricating the passage of stool
E. All of the above
ANSWER: E
Appropriate indications for and/or uses of laxatives include:
A. prevent straining at the stool in patients with cardiovascular disease
B. bulk forming agents for diverticular disease
C. treatment of drug overdose
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
ANSWER: D
Which of the following substances is most likely to cause systemic alkalosis?
A. sodium bicarbonate
B. methylcellulose
C. sodium phosphate
D. castor oil
E. mineral oil
ANSWER: A
Adverse effect(s) of laxatives:
A. electrolyte disturbances (hypernatremia, hypokalemia)
B. dehydration
C. spastic colitis with stimulant laxatives
D. gastrointestinal obstruction with bulk forming agents
E. All of the above
ANSWER: E
In esophagitis, elevation of the head of the bed, abstinence from ethanol and
tobacco, and small frequent meals are all useful adjunctive therapeutic measures.
Other useful therapy may include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. omeprazole
B. metoclopramide
C. bethanechol
D. cimetidine
E. amitriptyline
ANSWER: E
Drug which exerts anti-peptic ulcer effects through histamine-2 receptor
antagonism:
A. sucralfate
B. ranitidine
C. metoclopramide
D. omeprazole
E. misoprostol
ANSWER: D
Agents of potential use in peptic ulcer disease include:
A. muscarinic antagonists
B. proton pump inhibitors
C. antacids
D. prostaglandins
E. All of the above
ANSWER: E
Possible drug interactions: Aluminium hydroxide antacids tend to interfere with
the gastrointestinal absorption of:
A. cephalexin
B. penicillin G
C. erythromycin
D. chloramphenicol
E. tetracycline
ANSWER: E
Prostaglandins E2 inhibit the secretion of gastric acid and stimulate the secretion
of mucus. One adverse effect limiting the wide use of prostaglandins for gastric
disease is:
A. headache
B. thrombocytopenia
C. gynecomastia
D. diarrhea
E. seizures
ANSWER: D
Antacids having a relatively non-systemic effect include:
A. aluminum hydroxide
B. sodium bicarbonate
C. calcium carbonate
D. all of the above
E. aluminum hydroxide and calcium carbonate
ANSWER: E
One mechanism to reduce gastric acid secretion is by blocking the H+Na+ATPase pump in the parietal cell. One drug that has this pharmacologic action
is:
A. misoprostol
B. pirenzepine
C. omeprazole
D. serotonin
E. isoniazid
ANSWER: C
The amount of sodium, phosphate or magnesium contained in an antacid should
be assessed when selecting an antacid for patients with:
A. renal insufficiency
B. congestive heart failure
C. ascites
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
ANSWER: D
The concomitant administration of calcium and/or magnesium antacids to patients
receiving one of the tetracycline drugs may have which of the following effects
upon the action of the tetracycline:
A. enhances the action
B. causes no significant change
C. decreases the action
D. increases toxicity
E. suppresses hypersensitivity reactions
ANSWER: C
In general, mechanisms of laxation include
A. adding bulk to the stool
B. increasing peristaltic activity
C. emulsifuing aqenons and fatty substances with stool
D. lubricating the passage of stool
E. all of the above
ANSWER: E
Drug which exerts anti-peptic effects through histamine-2 receptor antagonism:
A. Denol
B. Ranitidine
C. Omeprasole
D. Aluminium hydroxide
E. All of above
ANSWER: B
For treatment of heartburn patient regularly used some powder. After a week of
drug using vomiting, nausea, abdomen pain, fibrillation, shallow and slow
breathing. Biochemical examination show alkalosis. What drug used patient?
A. Natrii hydrocarbonas
B. Aluminium hydroxide
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Omeprasole
E. Calcium carbonate
ANSWER: A
All these Drugs are cause obstipation Except:
A. Anticholinergic agents
B. Ca channel antagonists
C. Opioids
D. Tricyclic antidepressants
E. Muscarinic agonists
ANSWER: E
In the treatment of acute diarrhea
A. antibiotics are worst avoided in non-pathogenic diarrhea
B. antibiotics are worst avoided in viral gastroenteritis
C. oral rehydration should not be used for initial therapy
D. electrolytes and glucose should not be supplemented for initial therapy
E. oral rehydration and electrolytes supplementation are required particularly in
children and in the elderly
ANSWER: E
In patients with diarrhea the following can be used Except
A. antibiotics to treat systemic illness
B. antibiotics in evidence of bacterial infection
C. antidiarrheal drugs decreasing intestinal transit time
D. antidiarrheal drugs increasing bulk and viscosity of the gut contents
E. opioids, antimuscarinics
ANSWER: C
Peptic ulcer disease
A. is an acute disorder
B. characterized by frequent recurrences
C. comprises bones
D. the incidence of duodenal ulcers is four to five times lower than that of gastric
ulcer
E. affects approximately 50% of the population
ANSWER: B
All these are major factors of known importance for the etiology of ulceration
Except
A. acid-pepsin secretion
B. mucosal resistance to attack by acid and pepsin
C. the age
D. effects of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
E. the presence of Helicobacter pylori
ANSWER: C
Antacids:
A. react with gastric acid to form a neutral salt
B. produce sweating
C. are Ineffective at healing duodenal ulcer
D. are very effective at healing gastric ulcers
E. its effect on acid secretion lasts for long (5 hours)
ANSWER: A
Antacids include:
A. balsalazide
B. orlistat
C. cimetidine
D. sucralfate
E. aluminium salts (hydroxide, phosphate, glycinate)
ANSWER: E
Sodium bicarbonate (an antacid)
A. acts only locally
B. excessive doses produce systemic acidosis
C. produces carbon monoxide by reacting with hydrochloric acid
D. causes belching and distension of the large intestine
E. sodium intake need not to be considered in patients with hypertension or heart
failure
ANSWER: B
Magnesium and aluminium salts
A. do undergo absorption so are effective locally
B. magnesium salts are constipating, aluminium salts may produce diarrhea
C. can not reduce the rate and extent of absorption of other drugs
D. aluminium salts should not be used with caution with any renal compromise
E. magnesium and aluminium salts are taken 1-3 hours after meals and at bedtime
ANSWER: E
H2 lytics:
A. at least 4 days treatment is required to achieve healing
B. pain is relieved within 4 weeks treatment
C. include morphine , tramadol
D. include nizatidine, ranitidine, famotidine
E. include pirenzepine
ANSWER: D
Omeprazol
A. is an irreversible stimulator of the proton pump
B. can be used only for healing gastric ulcer
C. Is for women only
D. is taken once weekly
E. degrades in the presence of moisture. Capsules are supplied in special containers
ANSWER: E
Misoprostol
A. is a synthetic analog of prostaglandin E1
B. produces gastric acid secretion
C. causes Stricture in the submucosa
D. decreases production of protective mucus
E. is indicated especially in pregnancy
ANSWER: A
Pharmacokinetics is:
A. The study of biological and therapeutic effects of drugs
B. The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of drugs
C. The study of mechanisms of drug action
D. The study of methods of new drug development
E. All of the above
ANSWER: B
What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
A. Complications of drug therapy
B. Drug biotransformation in the organism
C. Influence of drugs on metabolism processes
D. Influence of drugs on genes
E. All of the above
ANSWER: B
What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
A. Pharmacological effects of drugs
B. Unwanted effects of drugs
C. Chemical structure of a medicinal agent
D. Distribution of drugs in the organism
E. All of the above
ANSWER: D
What does “pharmacokinetics” include?
A. Localization of drug action
B. Mechanisms of drug action
C. Excretion of substances
D. Interaction of substances
E. All of the above
ANSWER: C
The main mechanism of most drugs absorption in GI tract is:
A. Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)
B. Filtration (aqueous diffusion)
C. Endocytosis and exocytosis
D. Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)
E. None of the above
ANSWER: D
What does the term “bioavailability” mean?
A. Plasma protein binding degree of substance
B. Permeability through the brain-blood barrier
C. Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any
route administration
D. Amount of a substance in urine relative to the initial doze
E. Amount of a substance obtained orally and quantity of intakes
ANSWER: C
The reasons determing bioavailability are:
A. Rheological parameters of blood
B. Amount of a substance obtained orally and quantity of intakes
C. Extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect
D. Glomerular filtration rate
E. Permeability through the brain-blood barrier
ANSWER: C
Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of administration when passage of drugs
through liver is minimized:
A. Oral
B. Transdermal
C. Rectal
D. Intraduodenal
E. All of the above
ANSWER: C
Which route of drug administration is most likely to lead to the first-pass effect?
A. Sublingual
B. Oral
C. Intravenous
D. Intramuscular
E. Rectal
ANSWER: B
What is characteristic of the oral route?
A. Fast onset of effect
B. Absorption depends on GI tract secretion and motor function
C. A drug reaches the blood passing the liver
D. The sterilization of medicinal forms is obligatory
E. All of the above
ANSWER: B
Tick the feature of the sublingual route:
A. Pretty fast absorption
B. A drug is exposed to gastric secretion
C. A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism
D. A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses
E. All of the above
ANSWER: A
The term “biotransformation” includes the following:
A. Accumulation of substances in a fat tissue
B. Binding of substances with plasma proteins
C. Accumulation of substances in a tissue
D. Process of physicochemical and biochemical alteration of a drug in the body
E. All of the above
ANSWER: D
In case of liver disorders accompanied by a decline in microsomal enzyme activity
the duration of action of some drugs is:
A. Decreased
B. Enlarged
C. Remained unchanged
D. Changed insignificantly
E. Remained unchanged or changed insignificantly
ANSWER: B
Half life is the time required to:
A. Change the amount of a drug in plasma by half during elimination
B. Metabolize a half of an introduced drug into the active metabolite
C. Absorb a half of an introduced drug
D. Bind a half of an introduced drug to plasma proteins
E. All of the above
ANSWER: A
An agonist is a substance that:
A. Interacts with the receptor without producing any effect
B. Interacts with the receptor and initiates changes in cell function, producing
various effects
C. Increases concentration of another substance to produce effect
D. Interacts with plasma proteins and doesn’t produce any effect
E. Interacts with plasma proteins and produce various effects
ANSWER: B
If an agonist can produce maximal effects and has high efficacy it’s called:
A. Partial agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Agonist-antagonist
D. Full agonist
E. None of the above
ANSWER: D
If an agonist can produce submaximal effects and has moderate efficacy it’s
called:
A. Partial agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Agonist-antagonist
D. Full agonist
E. Agonist-antagonist and partial agonist
ANSWER: A
The substance binding to one receptor subtype as an agonist and to another as an
antagonist is called:
A. Competitive antagonist
B. Irreversible antagonist
C. Agonist-antagonist
D. Partial agonist
E. Full agonist
ANSWER: C
Give the definition for a therapeutical dose:
A. The amount of a substance to produce the minimal biological effect
B. The amount of a substance to produce effects hazardous for an organism
C. The amount of a substance to produce the required effect in most patients
D. The amount of a substance to accelerate an increase of concentration of
medicine in an organism
E. All of the above
ANSWER: C
Which effect may lead to toxic reactions when a drug is taken continuously or
repeatedly?
A. Refractoriness
B. Cumulative effect
C. Tolerance
D. Tachyphylaxis
E. Toxic effect
ANSWER: B
What term is used to describe a more gradual decrease in responsiveness to a drug,
taking days or weeks to develop?
A. Refractoriness
B. Cumulative effect
C. Tolerance
D. Tachyphylaxis
E. withdrawal syndrome
ANSWER: C
Tachyphylaxis is:
A. A drug interaction between two similar types of drugs
B. Very rapidly developing tolerance
C. A decrease in responsiveness to a drug, taking days or weeks to develop
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
ANSWER: B
The situation when failure to continue administering the drug results in serious
psychological and somatic disturbances is called?
A. Tachyphylaxis
B. Sensibilization
C. Abstinence syndrome
D. Idiosyncrasy
E. All of the above
ANSWER: C
What is the type of drug-to-drug interaction which is connected with processes of
absorption, biotransformation, distribution and excretion?
A. Pharmacodynamic interaction
B. Physical and chemical interaction
C. Pharmaceutical interaction
D. Pharmacokinetic interaction
E. Pharmacokinetic interaction+ Pharmaceutical interaction
ANSWER: D
What is the type of drug-to-drug interaction which is the result of interaction at
receptor, cell, enzyme or organ level?
A. Pharmacodynamic interaction
B. Physical and chemical interaction
C. Pharmaceutical interaction
D. Pharmacokinetic interaction
E. Chemical interaction
ANSWER: A
A teratogenic action is:
A. Toxic action on the liver
B. Negative action on the fetus causing fetal malformation
C. Toxic action on blood system
D. Toxic action on kidneys
E. Toxic action on the mother and the fetus
ANSWER: B
Mother, whose child suffered from dry cough that did not let her to sleep at night,
consulted a pediatrician. What preparation can’t be used in such case?
A. Libexyn.
B. Tusuprex.
C. Codeine.
D. Bromhexyn.
E. Acetylcistein.
ANSWER: C
A patient admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia asks the nurse
why she is receiving codeine when she does not have any pain. The nurse's
response is based on knowledge that codeine also has what effect?
A. Immunostimulant.
B. Antitussive.
C. Expectorant.
D. Immunosuppressant.
E. Antihistamine.
ANSWER: B
The patient with severe allergic bronchial asthma has been treated by oral drug
during 7 months. Hypertension, “moon face”, obese trunk, oedema, insomnia
occur. What drugs does he used?
A. Patient used one of orally used glucocorticoids, e.g. prednisolonum.
B. Patient used one of beta-agonists.
C. Patient used cromolynum.
D. Patient used euphyllinum
E. Patient used all above.
ANSWER: A
Common adverse reactions of corticosteroidal therapy are:
A. bradycardia, mental dullness
B. anorexia, polyuria
C. tachycardia
D. “moon face”, obese trunk
E. insomnia
ANSWER: D
The most specific agent for prevention of asthma is:
A. Salbutamolum
B. Libexinum
C. Adrenalini hydrochloridum
D. Pertussinum
E. Mucaltinum
ANSWER: A
Regarding its actions, cromolyn is best described as:
A. bronchodilator
B. anticholinergic
C. beta agonist
D. inhibitor of mast cell degranulation
E. glucocorticoid
ANSWER: D
Which of the following work through cholinergic receptor antagonism?
A. isoetharine
B. cromolyn
C. ephedrine
D. ipratropium
E. salmeterol
ANSWER: D
A 20-yr-old woman presents with a week's history of fever, rigors arid productive
rusty cough. CXR shows right lower lobe consolidation. Prescribe treatment
A. Erythromycin
B. Co-trimoxazole
C. Prednisolone
D. Amoxicillin
E. Salbutamol inhaler
ANSWER: D
Which of the following asthma severity categories has a treatment including
inhaled low-dose steroid, cromolyn, nedocromil, zafirlukast or zileuton?
A. Mild intermittent asthma
B. Mild persistent asthma
C. Moderated persistent asthma
D. Severe persistent asthma
E. Exercise-induced asthma
ANSWER: B
Which of the following, along with Formoterol, is a long acting anti-asthmatic?
A. Albuterol
B. Salmeterol
C. Metaproterenol
D. Terbutaline
E. Pirbuterol
ANSWER: B
Rifampin is used mainly in the treatment of:
A. cholera
B. typhoid fever
C. tuberculosis
D. rickettsial diseases
E. pseudomonas infections
ANSWER: C
The drug applied at the case of hypersusceptibility to nitroglycerine for removing
attack of angina pectoris
A. Aspirin
B. Atropine
C. Piracetame
D. Papaverine
E. Molsidomine
ANSWER: E
The clot aggregation blocker oppressing the Adenosine absorption and reducing
its enzyme destruction
A. Papaverine
B. Propranolol
C. Reserpine
D. Dipiridamole
E. Trental
ANSWER: D
What group does Trimetazidine belong to?
A. Adrenomimetics
B. Cholinoblockers
C. Cardioprotectors
D. Sympatholitics
E. Diuretics
ANSWER: C
The cardioselective beta-adrenoblocker
A. Atenolol
B. Adrenalin
C. Riboxinum
D. Enalapril
E. Nifedipine
ANSWER: A
The drug applied for the medical treatment of ischemic heart disease
A. Sympatholitics
B. beta-Adrenoblockers
C. alpha-Adrenoblockers
D. Myorelaxants
E. M-cholinomimetics
ANSWER: B
Which drug belongs to the beta-adrenoblockers’ group?
A. Nitroglycerine
B. Metoprolol
C. Captopril
D. Nifedipine
E. Furosemidum
ANSWER: B
The action of nitroglycerine and others organic nitrates is caused by
A. The blockade of potassium channels
B. The blockade of sodium channels
C. The blockade of calcium channels
D. The release of nitrogen oxyde in the vessel walls
E. The excitation of beta2 -adrenoreceptors vessels
ANSWER: D
The efficiency of Nifedipine at arterial hypertension is caused by
A. The dilation of vessels
B. The rise of myocardium contractility
C. The decline of renine production
D. The decline of diuresis
E. The rise of diuresis
ANSWER: A
Which drug belongs to the Calcium-channel blocker group?
A. Papaverinum
B. Atenolol
C. Verapamil
D. Furosemidum
E. Anaprilinum
ANSWER: C
The drug applied for the medical treatment of ischemic heart disease
A. alpha-Adrenoblockers
B. Sympatholitics
C. Diuretics
D. M-cholinomimetics
E. Nitrates
ANSWER: E
Which drug decreases the demand in oxygen due to the blockade of the
sympathetic innervation?
A. Molsidomin
B. Atenolol
C. Pentoxiphylline
D. Papaverinum
E. Nitroglycerine
ANSWER: B
The drug, applied sublingually at the attack of angina pectoris
A. Isosorbide dinitrate
B. Riboxinum
C. Pentoxiphylline
D. Atenolol
E. Nitroglycerinum
ANSWER: E
Which drug belongs to the group of beta-adrenoblockers
A. Nitroglycerine, Molsidomine
B. Nebivolol, Atenolol
C. Pentoxiphylline, Papaverinum
D. Nifedipine, Verapamil
E. Captopril, Enalapril
ANSWER: B
Which drug belongs to the group of antagonists of calcium ions
A. Molsidomine, Nitroglycerine
B. Anaprilinum, Atenolol
C. Pentoxiphylline, Papaverinum
D. Nifedipine, Verapamil
E. Captopril, Enalapril
ANSWER: D
Which drug belongs to the inhibitors of ACE
A. Nitroglycerine, Molsidomine
B. Anaprilinum, Atenolol
C. Pentoxiphylline, Papaverinum
D. Nifedipine, Verapamil
E. Captopril, Enalapril
ANSWER: E
Which drug is used for ischemic heart disease, hypertension and cardiac
arrhythmias?
A. Bisoprolol
B. Sustac
C. Nitroglycerine
D. Novocainamidum
E. Validolum
ANSWER: A
What antiarrhythmic drug has local anaesthetic activity?
A. Novocainamidum
B. Chinidinum
C. Verapamilum
D. Xycainum
E. Dipheninum
ANSWER: D
For treatment of what arrythmias Lidocaine is the most effective?
A. Ventrical tachyarrhythmia
B. Atrium tachyarrhythmia
C. Atrio-ventrical block
D. Sino-auricular block
E. Chronic paroxismal arrhythmia
ANSWER: A
For treatmant of what kind of arrythmia cardiac glycosides are contraindicated?
A. Ventrical tachyarrhythmia
B. Atrium tachyarrhythmia
C. Extrasystolia
D. Flutering of atrium
E. Chronic paroxismal arrhythmia
ANSWER: A
Indicate the side effect of nitroglycerine
A. Itching of skin
B. Bradicardia
C. Rise of arterial pressure
D. Headache
E. Intestine atony
ANSWER: D
Which antianginal drug provokes bronchial spasm?
A. Sustac
B. Propranolol
C. Nitroglycerine
D. Fenigidinum
E. Molsidominum
ANSWER: B
Which preparation is drug of choice at attack of angina pectoris?
A. Sustac
B. Molsidominum
C. Nitroglycerine
D. Anaprilinum
E. Fenigidinum
ANSWER: C
Why is not it impossible to apply nitroglycerine in case of high intracranial
pressure?
A. Increase АP
B. Causes bradycardia
C. Increase intracranial pressure
D. Decrease intracranial pressure
E. Provoke angina pectoris
ANSWER: C
Indicate possible side effect of propranolol?
A. Hypertension
B. Tachycardia
C. Bradycardia
D. Оrtostatic collapse
E. Development of tolerance
ANSWER: C
Patient entered the cardiologic department with the attack of angina pectoris,
where a medical treatment was appointed to him. After injection of medicines
patient noted a strong headache and nausea. For what group of antianginal drugs is
character such side effect?
A. Blockers of calcium channels
B. Beta – adrenergic blockers
C. Nitrates
D. Vasodilators action on the coronal vessels
E. Beta – adrenergic stimulants
ANSWER: C
To indicate mechanism of Са2+ antagonists hypotensive action
A. Decrease the tonus of vasomotor centers
B. Block the postsynaptic beta-adrenoreceptors
C. Block the sympathetic ganglions
D. Block the calcium channels
E. Stimulate the production of prostaglandins
ANSWER: D
To indicate side effect of Clophellinum (Clonidine)
A. Increasing of arterial pressure
B. Increasing of intraocular pressure
C. Dryness in the mouth
D. Increasing of glands secretion
E. Increasing of intestine motility
ANSWER: C
To indicate the antihypertensive drug used for the medical treatment of
hypertensive disease with tachycardia and extrasystoles.
A. Methyldopa
B. Reserpinum
C. Bisoprolol
D. Clophelinum
E. Dibazolum
ANSWER: C
What diuretic is used for the removal of hypertensive crisis?
A. Furosemide
B. Mannitum
C. Triamteren
D. Dichlothiazide
E. Spironolactonum
ANSWER: A
To indicate the drug – blocker of angiotensin converting enzyme.
A. Anaprilinum
B. Lisinopril
C. Methyldopa
D. Reserpinum
E. Dibazolum
ANSWER: B
To indicate calcium channels blocker hypotensive drug
A. Nifedepine
B. Captopril
C. Reserpinum
D. Anaprilinum
E. Dibazolum
ANSWER: A
The 45 years old patient has diagnosis Angina pectoris. Cardiosclerosis.
Arrhythmia. Hypertensive disease, Choose the drug for treatment?
A. Nebivolol
B. Suprastine
C. Potassium chloride
D. Strophantine
E. Lidocaine
ANSWER: A
At the patient after injecting drug for the medical treatment of hypertensive crisis
tachycardia, and orthosthatic hypotension in the vertical position has developed.
What drug was injected?
A. Reserpine
B. Clophelinum
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Dibazolum
E. Verapamilum
ANSWER: B
To the patient with hypertensive disease was prescribed a drug from the
adrenotropic group. After some time the pressure normalized, but developed
bradycardia (50 beats on minute) and the atrio-ventricar block. What drug was
prescribed?
A. Propranolol
B. Papaverinum
C. Clophelinum
D. Mesatonum
E. Verapamilum
ANSWER: A
The 45 years old patient with the hypertensive disease has been taking
antihypertensive drug during 4 days. The blood pressure normalized but
somnolence and dry cough developed. What drug has been taking the patient?
A. Clophelinum
B. Prazosinum
C. Enalapril
D. Aspirine
E. Adrenaline
ANSWER: C
Patient with diagnosis of pheochromocytoma suffers from the high blood pressure
which outgrows in hypertensive crisis. What group of drugs will help in this
situation?
A. Beta- adrenoblockers
B. Ganglionblockers
C. Sympatolitics
D. alpha-adrenoblockers
E. Calcium channels blockers
ANSWER: D
To indicate diuretic drug that is used for the removal of hypertensive crisis.
A. Oxytocine
B. Dichlothiazide
C. Triamteren
D. Spironolactonum
E. Furosemide
ANSWER: E
To indicate what diuretics is used in the complex therapy of hypertensive crisis.
A. Spironolactonum
B. Furosemide
C. Manit
D. Dichlothiazide
E. Triamterene
ANSWER: B
Which of the following nitrate preparations or dosage forms has the longest
duration of action?
A. Sublingual nitroglycerin
B. Sublingual isosorbide dinitrate
C. Oral isosorbide dinitrate
D. Transdermal nitroglycerin patch
E. Validolum
ANSWER: D
In order to prevent the development of tolerance, the pharmacist instructs the
patient to:
A. Apply the nitroglycerin patch every other day
B. Switch to sublingual nitroglycerin when the patient's systolic blood pressure
elevates to >140 mm Hg>
C. Apply the nitroglycerin patch for 14 hours each and remove for 10 hours at
night
D. Use the nitroglycerin patch for acute episodes of angina only
E. Apply the nitroglycerin patch 2 times per day
ANSWER: C
Before administering isosorbide mononitrate, a priority assessment would include:
A. Serum electrolytes
B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
C. Blood pressure
D. Level of consciousness
E. Pressure within the heart
ANSWER: C
The patient asks how nitroglycerin should be stored while traveling. The
pharmacist's best response would be:
A. "You can protect it from heat by placing the bottle in an ice chest."
B. "It's best to keep it in its original container away from heat and light."
C. "You can put a few tablets in a resealable bag and carry in your pant's pocket."
D. "It's best to lock them in the glove compartment of your car to keep them away
from heat and light."
E. "Keep the tablets locked in a safe place until you need them."
ANSWER: B
Patient teaching regarding sublingual nitroglycerin should include which of the
following statements:
A. "You can take up to five doses every 3 minutes for chest pain."
B. "Chew the tablet for the quickest effect."
C. "Keep the tablets locked in a safe place until you need them."
D. "Sit or lie down after you take a nitroglycerin tablet to prevent dizziness."
E. "You can protect it from heat by placing the bottle in an ice chest."
ANSWER: D
What is the best way to prevent tolerance to nitrates when using the transdermal
patches?
A. Leave the old patch on for 2 hours when applying a new patch
B. Apply a new patch off for 24 hours once a week
C. Leave the patch off for 24 hours once a week
D. Remove the patch at night for 8 hours, and then apply a new patch in the
morning
E. Leave the patch off for 12 hours once a week
ANSWER: D
An annoying side effect of ACE inhibitors that may be minimized by switching to
an angiotensin receptor blocking agent includes:
A. Orthostatic hypotension
B. A dry, nonproductive cough
C. Fatigue
D. Hypokalemia
E. Hyperkalemia
ANSWER: B
Which of the following should not be taken concurrently with ACE inhibitors?
A. Lasix
B. Morphine
C. Potassium
D. Natrium
E. Vicasolum
ANSWER: C
Labetalol and carvedilol are classified as:
A. Beta-blocking agents
B. Alpha1-blocking agents
C. Combined alpha- and beta-blocking agents
D. Calcium channel blockers
E. Fibrinolytics
ANSWER: C
During assessment of a patient diagnosed with pheochromocytoma, the doctor
auscultates a blood pressure of 210/110 mm Hg. The nurse would expect to
administer which of the following medications?
A. nadolol (Corgard)
B. phentolamine (Regitine)
C. dobutamine (Dobutrex)
D. verapamil (Calan)
E. validolum
ANSWER: B
The pharmacist would monitor for reflex tachycardia in a patient receiving which
classification of antihypertensive agents?
A. Calcium channel blockers
B. Cardioselective beta-blockers
C. Nonselective beta-blockers
D. Direct-acting vasodilators
E. Neuroleptics
ANSWER: D
ACE inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers both work to decrease blood
pressure by:
A. Preventing the formation of angiotensin II
B. Enhancing sodium and water resorption
C. Increasing the breakdown of bradykinin
D. Inhibiting aldosterone secretion
E. All of the above
ANSWER: D