EDF 5481
Educational Research
Spring 2013
Multiple Choice
Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question and place it in the
space next to the item number on your answer sheet.
1. An advantage of the scientific approach over deductive reason is that the scientific approach
a. is infallible.
b. produces absolute truth.
c. doesn't include reflective thinking.
d. doesn't include inductive reasoning.
e. probes beyond what is already known.
2. The person who was most prominent in the development and use of inductive reasoning as a source of
knowledge was
a. Bacon.
b. Aristotle.
c. Newton.
d. Darwin.
3. To establish what percent of teachers in the Nashville School District hold master's degrees, an
investigator examined the files of all those teachers who were employed in that school district. This
investigation is an example of
a. perfect induction.
b. perfect deduction.
c. imperfect induction.
d. imperfect deduction.
4. Which of the following is not more of a problem in the social sciences than in the physical sciences?
a. Hypothesis formation
b. Control of variables
c. Measurement of variables
d. Replication of experiments
5. Which of the following illustrates the idea of universal determinism?
a. If a bullet has your name on it, it will hit you no matter what you do.
b. Your fate is in the stars.
c. All natural phenomena have antecedent factors.
d. Whatever will be will be.
Exhibit 2-2
Examine the following list of research titles, then determine whether the italicized part of each title is
an independent variable, a dependent variable, or a variable but impossible to determine whether
independent or dependent.
6. Refer to Exhibit 2-2. The relationship between teacher expectation and the achievement of students
a. an independent variable.
b. a dependent variable.
c. a variable but impossible to determine whether a or b.
7. Refer to Exhibit 2-2. The effect of the use of instructional technology on college algebra achievement
a. an independent variable.
b. a dependent variable.
c. a variable but impossible to determine whether a or b.
8. Refer to Exhibit 2-2. The effect of social reinforcement on shaping children's judgments
a. an independent variable.
b. a dependent variable.
c. a variable but impossible to determine whether a or b.
9. A researcher who wants to investigate the claim that drinking moderate amounts of red wine will
promote a healthy heart would most likely use the ____ method.
a. survey
b. ex post facto
c. experimental
d. quasi-experimental
e. correlational
10. Experimental research, in contrast with nonexperimental research, focuses on
a. cause-and-effect relationships.
b. descriptions of phenomena.
c. prediction of phenomena.
d. naturalistic inquiry into relationships.
11. Which one of the following research questions meets the criteria of a good research question?
a. What are the ways of decreasing violence in American society?
b. How could high school students be motivated to study world geography?
c. Does attending kindergarten affect the social maturity of the children at the
elementary school level?
d. Should high school curricula aim at preparing students for college or should they
aim at preparing students for life?
12. A geography teacher is planning to conduct research on the effect of field trips on learning
geographical facts. The source of this researcher's problem is most likely
a. the recommendation of school authorities.
b. his/her own experience.
c. his/her knowledge of geography.
d. a suggestion made by the school psychologist.
13. To be researchable, an educational problem must be one that
a. can be attacked empirically.
b. has practical implications.
c. can be conducted in one's own school.
d. is approved by the school authorities.
Exhibit 3-4
Criteria for selection of a research problem may be summarized as follows:
1)
2)
3)
4)
The solution of the problem will make a contribution to the body of organized
knowledge in education.
The problem must be one that is researchable.
The problem should be one that will lead to new problems.
The problem must be suitable for the particular researcher.
Indicate which, if any, of these criteria has been violated by the following research proposals.
14. Refer to Exhibit 3-4. A principal wants to determine if high school students should have after-school
jobs.
a. The solution of the problem will make a contribution to the body of organized
knowledge in education.
b. The problem must be one that is researchable.
c. The problem should be one that will lead to new problems.
d. The problem must be suitable for the particular researcher.
e. none of these criteria is violated
15. Refer to Exhibit 3-4. A remedial reading teacher wants to identify measures that have a correlation with
reading improvement among poor readers.
a. The solution of the problem will make a contribution to the body of organized
knowledge in education.
b. The problem must be one that is researchable.
c. The problem should be one that will lead to new problems.
d. The problem must be suitable for the particular researcher.
e. none of these criteria is violated
16. Which of the following is not a purpose of the search for related literature?
a. Avoiding the unintentional replication of previous projects
b. Defining the boundaries of one's field
c. Determining whether the project would make a meaningful contribution to the
field
d. Displaying an exhaustive knowledge of one's field
e. Learning which research procedures have been useful to other researchers
17. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria that materials in ERIC are evaluated on?
a. relevance to education
b. quality
c. editorial/peer review criteria
d. length
18. Where could one locate dissertations related to one's topic?
a. Dissertation Abstracts
b. Education Abstracts
c. Mental Measurements Yearbook
d. Review of Educational Research
19. Established tests and measurements are indexed in
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
a. PsycInfo
b. ERIC database
c. Social Sciences Citation Index
d. Tests in Print
e. Google Scholar
An annotation is a:
a. brief description of an article.
b. critical review of a published test.
c. deliberately limited thesaurus used for classifying studies.
d. descriptive word or phrase used for retrieving information.
e. detailed abstract of a research study.
Which one of the following is the first step in testing a hypothesis?
a. Deducing consequences that can be observed.
b. Asking the views of authorities to see if it satisfies the criteria.
c. Selecting or developing research instruments for data collection
d. Reviewing the literature in the field to see if the hypothesis is consistent with the
body of knowledge
Which one of the following should be included in the statement of a hypothesis?
a. The variables under investigation
b. The source from which the hypothesis is derived
c. The contribution of the hypothesis to the body of knowledge
d. All of these are true
Hypotheses derived from Kohlberg's moral development model could be classified as
a. deductive hypotheses.
b. inductive hypotheses.
A hypothesis which is formulated following the observed relationship between phenomena is classified
as a/an
a. inductive hypothesis.
b. deductive hypothesis.
c. workable hypothesis.
d. alternative hypothesis.
A teacher wishes to compare a new approach to teaching math (Method A) with the traditional
approach (Method B), because she thinks Method A will improve the learning of math. Prior to the
study, what general research hypothesis should the teacher state?
a. The traditional method (Method B) of teaching math is inadequate.
b. Method A should be utilized to teach math.
c. Can Method A be used successfully to teach math in this particular situation?
d. Students will learn more math with Method A than with Method B.
If your professor is only interested in the test performance of students in her class, the class is her
a. population
b. random sample
c. biased sample
d. nonprobability sample.
27. A researcher can guarantee the representativeness of the sample by:
a.
b.
c.
d.
using stratified random sampling.
employing simple random sampling procedures.
using systematic sampling procedures.
using the whole population.
Exhibit 7-1
Choose the type of sample that matches the following characteristics of sampling procedures.
28. Refer to Exhibit 7-1. Individuals from defined subgroups are sampled.
a. simple random.
b. stratified.
c. cluster.
d. systematic.
29. Refer to Exhibit 7-1. Naturally occurring groups are randomly selected.
a. simple random.
b. stratified.
c. cluster.
d. systematic.
30. Refer to Exhibit 7-1. All individual cases have a non-zero chance of being selected.
a. simple random.
b. stratified.
c. cluster.
d. systematic.
Exhibit 7-2
Label the following characteristics of sampling procedures as convenience, purposive, or quota.
31. Refer to Exhibit 7-2. Taking subjects wherever you find them.
a. Convenience
b. Purposive
c. Quota
32. Refer to Exhibit 7-2. Chooses subjects that seem to be typical of the population being studied.
a. Convenience
b. Purposive
c. Quota
33. If a research finding is found to be statistically significant it:
a. confirms the research hypothesis.
b. suggests the findings are significant contributions to the theory being tested.
c. suggests that similar results would be found if another sample was tested.
d. all of these are true.
34. The null hypothesis states that:
35.
36.
37.
38.
39.
40.
a. the effect of the treatment is negative.
b. the apparent relationship between variables is due to chance alone.
c. outcomes are affected by the experimental treatment.
d. the true relationship between variables can never be known.
A school administrator finds no significant difference in learning whether students are taught by
computer or by books. She decides not to spend money on new computer equipment. Later, she finds
that a neighboring district is very successful in implementing computer technology.
a. She may have committed a Type I error.
b. She may have committed a Type II error.
c. A Type I and Type II error may have occurred.
d. No error is possible in this situation.
On a standardized mathematics test the reliability coefficient is reported to be .76. From this
information one could best determine
a. the extent to which the test scores are correlated to classroom achievement in
mathematics.
b. the extent to which errors of measurement have influenced the test scores.
c. the extent to which the test is a representative sample of relevant concepts in math.
d. on the average, the number of points pupils' scores will change when given an
equivalent test.
If the reliability of a test decreases, the standard error of measurement will
a. decrease.
b. increase.
c. stay the same.
d. decrease only if the standard deviation decreases.
The major disadvantage of the coefficient of stability and equivalence as a measure of reliability is
a. getting the cooperation of the subjects.
b. obtaining the two forms of the test.
c. finding a suitable criterion.
d. establishing the appropriate time interval.
e. the statistics involved in calculating the coefficient.
High reliability for a test indicates that
a. the test has validity.
b. random errors of measurement are not a serious problem.
c. the test is measuring what it is supposed to be measuring.
d. the proportion of error variance to true variance is very high.
Three individuals report the same information about a student's personal characteristics. Their
agreement is indicative of a high degree of
a. validity.
b. interrater reliability.
c. halo effect.
d. standardization.
41. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an experiment in its simplest form?
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
a. A dependent variable is manipulated.
b. All variables except the independent variable are held constant.
c. The effect of manipulating the independent variable is observed.
d. Extraneous variables are controlled.
In an experiment, a researcher believes that by manipulating Variable A he can cause changes in
Variable B. However, Variable C is actually causing changes in Variable B. Variable C is a(n) ____
variable.
a. independent
b. dependent
c. extraneous
d. attribute
Which of the following would represent a variable that could be manipulated in an experiment?
a. Lecture vs. discussion method of teaching
b. High vs. low socioeconomic status of subjects
c. Male vs. female subjects
d. College prep vs. vocational curriculum
e. High vs. low scorers on an aptitude test
The finding that individuals' performance may be altered if they are subjects in an experimental
treatment is known as the
a. treatment effect.
b. experimenter effect.
c. placebo effect.
d. Hawthorne effect.
An internal validity threat in which the researcher's expectations concerning the outcome of an
experiment actually contribute to producing certain outcomes is known as the ____ effect.
a. Hawthorne
b. John Henry
c. experimenter reactive
d. Pygmalion
e. experimenter bias
An experimenter bias effect operates when an experimenter
a. deliberately manipulates subjects' behavior or falsifies data in order to obtain an
b. "expected" finding.
c. inadvertently transmits his/her expectancies about the outcome of an experiment in
a way that affects subjects' behavior.
d. deliberately selects a sample that he/she knows will perform in the "expected"
way.
e. all of these are true.
If a researcher wishes to generalize the results of a study to a specifically defined population, he/she
should arrange a research study in which
a. subjects from the population are required to participate in the study.
b. a table of random numbers is used.
c. only a few variables are investigated.
d. subjects are selected randomly from the specific population.
48. A researcher who wants to conduct a study in the local high school finds that she must use volunteers
rather than intact class groups. In this case, the researcher should
a. make sure to use a sample of at least 30 or more subjects.
b. control for the subjects' willingness to volunteer.
c. keep the volunteer subjects naive as to the purpose of the study
d. determine the extent to which volunteers may differ from nonvolunteers on
important variables.
Exhibit 10-10
Identify the major threat to internal validity in the following research studies.
49. Refer to Exhibit 10-10. A researcher used two classrooms in an experimental study. It was found that
the E group had more high ability students than the C group before the study began.
a. Regression
b. Diffusion
c. Mortality
d. Differential Selection
e. History
50. Every subject receives every treatment in the
a. counterbalanced design.
b. randomized Solomon four-group design.
c. randomized subjects pretest-posttest, control group design.
d. randomized subjects posttest-only, control group design.
e. nonrandomized control group pretest-posttest design.
51. There is a need to be concerned with a carry-over effect when the design is a
a. times series design.
b. counterbalanced design.
c. randomized Solomon four-group design.
d. randomized control-group, posttest only design.
52. The main disadvantage of a counterbalanced design is the lack of control for
a. carry-over effect of treatment.
b. internal validity.
c. preexisting differences.
d. pretest sensitization.
53. A researcher wants to study the effect of three treatments, social class, and gender on a dependent
variable. The best design to use is
a. counterbalanced.
b. one-group time series.
c. factorial.
d. randomized control group pretest-posttest.
54. The major problem in single-subject research is
a. external validity.
b. extraneous variable control.
c. intersubject variability.
d. all of these are true.
55. Which of the following would be the least acceptable research design?
a. Posttest only, control group design
b. One-group pretest-posttest design
c. Pretest-posttest control group design
d. Matched subjects, posttest only, control group design
56. In a nonrandomized control group, pretest-posttest design, the recommended procedure for analyzing
test results is a(n)
a. t-test of the difference between pretest and posttest means for both the
experimental and the control group.
b. four-way analysis of variance.
c. analysis of covariance, in which the posttest means are compared using the pretest
means as the covariate.
d. analysis of variance of the mean pretest-posttest change for the experimental and
control groups.
57. The single-subject experimental design is especially useful in
a. research on behavior modification.
b. research where the investigator cannot manipulate an independent variable.
c. research to determine the value of a clinical treatment.
d. all of these are true..
e. a and c.
58. Under which of the following circumstances would a researcher use a quasi-experimental design?
a. Experimenter must employ a pretest.
b. Experimenter must collect all the data him/herself.
c. Experimenter cannot assign subjects to conditions.
d. There is more than one independent variable.
e. The pretest has a reactive effect.
Exhibit 12-1
Indicate whether the following hypotheses are necessarily ex post facto research or possible to do with
experimental research.
59. Refer to Exhibit 12-1. A multicultural curriculum will change children's racial attitudes.
a. necessarily ex post facto research.
b. possible to do with experimental research.
60. Refer to Exhibit 12-1. Teaching hyperactive students how to monitor their diets increases the
probability that these students will eat healthier meals.
a. necessarily ex post facto research.
b. possible to do with experimental research.
61. Refer to Exhibit 12-1. Students who use a computerized problem-solving tool will perform better on
word problems than students who do not use the tool.
a. necessarily ex post facto research.
b. possible to do with experimental research.
62. Refer to Exhibit 12-1. University faculty members who publish their research are evaluated higher by
their students in annual reviews than those who do not publish.
a. necessarily ex post facto research.
b. possible to do with experimental research.
63. One can rule out the possibility of reverse causality if one can establish that:
a. X always precedes Y in time.
b. Y, always precedes X in time.
c. X may occur either before Y or after Y.
d. It is impossible to say what the time relationship between X and Y is.
64. A major limitation of analysis of covariance is:
a. it tends to underadjust for initial differences.
b. it is a technically difficult procedure to perform.
c. the large number of subjects needed to obtain significant results.
d. none of these are true..
65. In an ex post facto design one may employ matching by:
a. matching subjects from one population with subjects from another population; or
b. matching pairs within a single population.
66. Which of the following statements best describes the use of the two strategies mentioned above?
a. a is often useful, b is likely to lead to spurious conclusions.
b. b is often useful, a is likely to lead to spurious conclusions.
c. Both are recommended procedures.
d. Neither is a recommended procedure.
67. An investigator is interested in studying teacher management behavior. He located two groups of
teachers previously identified as either competent in teacher management behavior or incompetent in
teacher management behavior. He found that the competent teachers' students were significantly more
engaged in learning than were incompetent teachers' students. What conclusion should the investigator
draw from this finding?
a. Competent teacher management behavior causes students to be more engaged in
learning.
b. Competent teacher management behavior and student engagement in learning
occur together.
c. To ensure that students become engaged in learning, teachers should become
competent in classroom management behavior.
68. A researcher found a correlation of +1.21 between variables A and B. This means that
a. there is a high relationship between the two variables.
b. the relationship between the two variables is perfect.
c. the variables could be predicted from one another with a high degree of accuracy.
d. a mistake has been made in computation of the coefficient of correlation between
the two variables
69. The prediction of Y from Variable X would be least accurate when the correlation between X and Y is
a. 75.
b. .95.
c. .99.
d. -.80.
e. -1.00.
70. If a computed Pearson correlation coefficient is statistically significant at the .01 level,
a. the correlation coefficient is extremely accurate.
b. the two variables are positively correlated.
c. an important relationship is evident.
d. it is highly likely that a relationship exists between the two variables in the
population.
e. it is highly unlikely that a relationship exists between the two variables in the
population.
71. Other things being equal, as the sample size increases the critical value for the Pearson r
a. increases.
b. decreases.
c. is not affected.
d. becomes more precise.
e. a and d.
72. A researcher who fails to reject the null hypothesis in a correlational analysis, should conclude
a. the correlation between X and Y in the population is not zero.
b. the correlation between X and Y in the population is less than zero.
c. there is insufficient evidence for concluding there is a relationship between X and
Y in the population.
d. the observed relationship between X and Y is stronger than would be expected by
chance.
e. the correlation between X and Y in the population is zero.
73. In a prediction study, the standard error of estimate was equal to 6. What percentage of the actual Y
scores will be within 6 points of the predicted Y scores?
a. 16
b. 50
c. 68
d. 95
e. 99
74. A predictor variable is most likely to receive a large regression weight in a multiple regression analysis
if
a. it has high correlation with the criterion and high correlation with other predictors.
b. it has both high reliability and high correlation with the criterion.
c. it has a greater number of maximum possible points.
d. it has high correlation with the criterion but is unrelated to other predictors.
Exhibit 13-4
The following are the results of three factor analyses from tests 1 and 2. Data shown are factor
loadings.
Test 1
Test 2
Subtests
Factor
A
B
C
Factor
A
B
Math computation
Math concepts
Math applications
Math principles
Reading comprehension
English
.05
.08
.10
.01
.90
.78
.22
.18
.15
.10
.38
.62
.20
.15
.12
.09
.52
.25
.15
.20
.12
.10
.09
.38
.46
.86
.89
.84
.10
.21
75. Refer to Exhibit 13-4. Which test and factor appear to best measure what might be called a verbal
ability?
a. Test 1, Factor A
b. Test 1, Factor C
c. Test 2, Factor A
d. Test 2, Factor B
76. Refer to Exhibit 13-4. A major reason for conducting correlational studies is to
a. establish cause-and-effect relationships among variables.
b. determine the effectiveness of various instructional methods.
c. identify variables that have a substantial relationship with certain dependent
variables.
77. Qualitative inquiry states that human behavior
a. can be generalized from setting to setting.
b. can be generalized if the variables are controlled.
c. is bound to the context of the setting.
d. is universal in nature.
78. In designing qualitative inquiry, a qualitative researcher is more likely to
a. choose a design based on the assumed variables.
b. specify all the variables before a study.
c. test a specific null hypothesis.
d. adapt the design as the study progresses.
79. Which of the following is a qualitative research problem?
a. Is there a relationship between size of high school and the percent of its graduates
80.
81.
82.
83.
85.
attending college?
b. How does the self-esteem of high-achieving and low-achieving high school
students compare?
c. How do immigrant high school age students from war-torn countries adjust when
enrolled in a white suburban U.S. high school?
d. What is the relationship of specified non-cognitive variables to achievement and
persistence of minority students in a large research university?
Which of the following is not an assumption in qualitative research?
a. Reality of socially constructed.
b. Variables can be identified and measured.
c. There is a need to understand the emic perspective.
d. Variables are complex and difficult to measure.
A historical researcher is studying a speech known to have been delivered by President Bush in 1991 in
order to determine whether those parts of the speech which referred to education truly represent the
state of education in the U.S. at that time. The researcher is involved in
a. internal criticism.
b. external criticism.
c. documentary analysis.
d. primary analysis.
A historical document is considered to be primary if
a. it is known to be authentic.
b. it is known not to be authentic.
c. an observer's mind does not come between the event and the investigator.
d. the information in the source does not agree with other contemporary sources.
Which of the following is a primary historical source?
a. A videotape of the governor's speech concerning education
b. A journal article critical of the governor's education policy.
c. A textbook account of education policy at the turn of the century.
d. An opinion poll published the day after the governor's speech.
84. A qualitative researcher who uses snowball sampling selects participants on the basis of
a. their ability to maximize differences on certain characteristics.
b. their homogeneity in attitudes and experiences.
c. their representing negative or deviant cases.
d. recommendations from participants.
In a qualitative investigation, sampling that focuses on atypical cases is described as
a. maximum variation
b. comprehensive
c. typical case
d. extreme case
86. The kind of information typically recorded in field notes is
a. observer interpretations and conclusions about a setting.
87.
88.
89.
90.
91.
b. descriptions about participants/setting and verbatim quotes.
c. observer comments and descriptions of the participants/setting.
d. observer comments and interpretations about a setting.
Which of the following activities is not typical of researchers doing participant observation?
a. Using personal experiences as useable data
b. Becoming totally immersed in the setting
c. Being totally objective in data collection and interpretation
d. Revising hypotheses as the research proceeds
A researcher aims to understand a group and its culture from prolonged observation of the group. This
would be an example of
a. grounded theory.
b. ethnography.
c. case study.
d. phenomenology.
Which is more characteristic of quantitative research?
a. The operational definitions of variables are determined before the study begins.
b. The design emerges as the study proceeds.
c. Studies human experience holistically.
d. Human experience is studied in naturally occurring settings.
Reliability in qualitative research is demonstrated through
a. being value-free.
b. tight control of the setting and independent variables.
c. trustworthiness techniques.
d. removing the experimenter from the setting.
"Triangulation" in qualitative inquiry means
a. developing three alternatives to each null hypothesis.
b. attempting to get the observer, the observed subject, and a disinterested third party
to reach consensus on the meaning of the data.
c. assessing the quality of observational data by having two observers simultaneously
recording the behavior of one human subject.
d. using multiple sources of data, multiple observers, and/or multiple methods of data
collection.
92. Transferability in qualitative research is similar to____ in quantitative research.
a. internal validity.
b. external validity.
c. triangulation.
d. objectivity.
93. Internal validity in qualitative inquiry is enhanced by
a. the observer acting as the instrument.
b. repeating the observation.
c. member checks and participant feedback.
d. reducing threats such as pretesting and selection bias.
94. Objectivity in quantitative research is analogous to ____ in qualitative research.
a. credibility
95.
96.
97.
98.
99.
100.
b. transferability
c. confirmability
d. reflexivity
Which of the following is not a part of qualitative data analysis?
a. reducing the data
b. organizing the data
c. using tests of significance
d. coding the data
Which Bogdan and Biklen category might be used to code the following: The students at the alternative
high school reported that the teachers were helpful and wanted to teach them and not just control them.
The students said they were not made to feel like misfits and troublemakers as they were in their
previous school. Students said they didn't feel so angry and rebellious.
a. Event
b. Setting/context
c. Subjects' perspectives
d. Social structure
Confirmability and objectivity both address the concept of
a. the neutrality of the study
b. the dependability of the study
c. the credibility of the study
d. the reliability of the study
The levels of data analysis in a qualitative study include all except
a. data pieces
b. themes
c. categories
d. data points
When the researcher actively seeks discrepant information and considers alternative explanations, the
type of evidence for credibility that is provided is known as.
a. structural corroboration
b. consensus
c. referential adequacy
d. theoretical adequacy
e. control of bias
When the observer's attitudes and values affect an observation or the interpretation of the observation,
this is known as
a. observer effect.
b. observer bias.
c. participant effect