Splanchnology. Central nervous system and sensory organs
Text tests questions
1. In what age milk canines erupt?
A. 6-9 months
B. 9-12 months
C. 12-15 months
D. * 16-20 months
E. 20-24 months
2. In what age milk first molars erupt?
A. 6-9 months
B. 9-10 months
C. * 12-15 months
D. 16-20 months
E. 20-24 months
3. In what age milk incisors erupt?
A. * 6-9 months
B. 9-12 months
C. 12-15 months
D. 16-20 months
E. 20-24 months
4. In what age milk second molars erupt?
A. 6-9 months
B. 9-10 months
C. 12-15 months
D. 16-20 months
E. * 20-24 months
5. In what age permanent canines erupt?
A. 7-9 years
B. * 10-13 years
C. 11-15 years
D. 13-16 years
E. 18-30 years
6. In what age permanent first molars erupt?
A. * 6-7 years
B. 7-9 years
C. 11-15 years
D. 13-16 years
E. 18-30 years
7. In what age permanent first premolars erupt?
A. 7-9 years
B. * 10-12 years
C. 11-15 years
D. 13-16 years
E. 18-30 years
8. In what age permanent incisors erupt?
A. * 7-9 years
B. 10-13 years
C. 11-15 years
D. 13-16 years
E. 18-30 years
9. In what age permanent second molars erupt?
A. 7-9 years
B. 10-13 years
C. 11-15 years
D. * 13-16 years
E. 17-30 years
10. In what age permanent second premolars erupt?
A. 7-9 years
B. 10-13 years
C. * 11-15 years
D. 13-16 years
E. 18-30 years
11. In what age permanent third molars erupt?
A. 7-9 years
B. 10-13 years
C. 11-15 years
D. 13-16 years
E. * 17-30 years
12. The patient has the inflammation of tooth alveola. What part of the tooth can be
injured?
A. * tooth root
B. tooth crown
C. tooth cervix
D. pulp cavity
E. canal of tooth root
13. What doe s form mylohyoid muscle?
A. Cheek
B. Upper lip
C. Lower lip
D. Soft palate
E. * Mouth diaphragm
14. What does communicate oral cavity with pharynx?
A. Vestible
B. Retromolar space
C. Tonsillar fossa
D. * Fauces
E. Frenulum
15. What does cover the cementum?
A. pulp cavity
B. crown
C. * root
D. dental alveoli
E. apical foramen
16. What does cover the enamel ?
A. pulp cavity
B. root
C. * crown
D. apical foramen
E. dental alveoli
17. What does fix teeth to alveoli?
A. Dentine
B. Enamel
C. * Periodont
D. Gum
E. Pulp
18. What does form anterior belly of digastric muscle?
A. Cheek
B. Upper lip
C. Lower lip
D. Soft palate
E. * Mouth diaphragm
19. What does form lateral wall of mouth vestibule?
A. Lips
B. Palate
C. * Cheeks
D. Mouth diaphragm
E. Inner surface of Teeth
20. ?What does form upper wall of mouth cavity?
A. Cheek
B. Lip
C. * Palate
D. Mouth diaphragm
E. Teeth
21. What is function of soft palate?
A. Pushes the food during swallowing
B. Mixes the food during mastication
C. * Separates the nasopharynx during swallowing
D. Communicates the oral cavity and pharynx
E. Communicates the nasopharynx during breathing
22. What is function of tongue?
A. Pushes the food during swallowing
B. Mixes the food during mastication
C. Taste sensation
D. Takes part in spoken speeking
E. * All of above
23. What is located in cavity of the tooth?
A. Dentin
B. Cementum
C. Enamel
D. Periodontium
E. * Pulp
24. What is located inside in tooth root?
A. Dentin
B. Cementum
C. * Canal
D. Periodontium
E. Pulp
25. What is soft tissue of tooth?
A. Dentine
B. Enamel
C. Periodont
D. Gum
E. * Pulp
26. Where is situated buccinator muscle?
A. * Cheek
B. Upper lip
C. Lower lip
D. Soft palate
E. Mouth diaphragm
27. Where is situated genioglossus muscle?
A. Cheek
B. Upper lip
C. Lower lip
D. Soft palate
E. * Mouth diaphragm
28. Where is situated orbicularis oris muscle?
A. Cheek
B. * Lips
C. Phauces
D. Soft palate
E. Mouth diaphragm
29. Where is situated uvulae muscle?
A. Cheek
B. Upper lip
C. Lower lip
D. * Soft palate
E. Mouth diaphragm
30. Which duct opens on the cheeks into vestibule of mouth cavity opposite the second
superior molar ?
A. A: sublingual gland
B. B: thyroid gland
C. D: parotid gland
D. * E: submandibular gland
E. C: all above mentioned
F. Submandibular
G. Buccal
H. Palatine
I. Parotid
J. Sublingual
31. Which fold of mucous membrane communicate gums with lips?
A. Vestible
B. Fauces
C. Palatoglossal arch
D. Tonsillar fossa
E. * Frenulum
32. Which glands are located above the mylohyoid muscle?
A. Submandibular
B. Buccal
C. * Sublingual
D. Parotid
E. Parathyroid
33. Which glands are located closer to incisors?
A. Submandibular
B. Buccal
C. * Sublingual
D. Parotid
E. Parathyroid
34. Which glands are located in retromandibular fossa?
A. Submandibular
B. Buccal
C. Sublingual
D. * Parotid
E. Parathyroid
35. Which glands are located under auricle?
A. Submandibular
B. Buccal
C. Sublingual
D. * Parotid
E. Parathyroid
36. Which glands are located under mylohyoid muscle?
A. * Submandibular
B. Buccal
C. Sublingual
D. Parotid
E. Parathyroid
37. Which glands belong to large salivary glands ?
A. Labial
B. Buccal
C. Palatine
D. Parathyroid
E. * Parotid
38. Which glands belong to small salivary glands ?
A. Submandibular
B. * Buccal
C. Sublingual
D. Parotid
E. Parathyroid
39. Which milk teeth number (amount) is 8?
A. * molars;
B. premolars;
C. canines;
D. medial incisors
E. lateral incisors
40. Which milk teeth number (amount) is 8?
A. first molars
B. second molars
C. premolars
D. canines
E. * incisors
41. Which muscle form base (lower wall) of the mouth cavity?
A. Geniohyoid
B. Stylohyoid
C. * Mylohyoid
D. Digastric
E. Genioglossus
42. Which papillae are located in border between body and root of the tongue?
A. filiform
B. fungiform
C. conic
D. * vallate
E. foliate
43. Which papillae are located on margines of the tongue?
A. filiform
B. fungiform
C. conic
D. vallate
E. * foliate
44. Which papillae are responsible for feeling of bitter taste?
A. filiform
B. fungiform
C. conic
D. * vallate
E. foliate
45. Which papillae carry taste buds with taste receptors?
A. filiform
B. * fungiform
C. conic
D. foramen cecum
E. vater’s
46. Which papillae located between tongue root and body?
A. Foliate
B. * Vallatae
C. Fungiform
D. Conical
E. Filiform
47. Which papillae located on tongue margins?
A. * Foliate
B. Vallatae
C. Fungiform
D. Conical
E. Filiform
48. Which substance cover the crown of the tooth?
A. Dentin
B. Cementum
C. * Enamel
D. Periodontium
E. Pulp
49. Which substance cover the root of the tooth?
A. Dentin
B. * Cementum
C. Enamel
D. Periodontium
E. Pulp
50. Which substance form both the root and the crown of the tooth?
A. * Dentin
B. Cementum
C. Enamel
D. Periodontium
E. Pulp
51. Which surfaces of second premolar is medial?
A. Vestibular
B. Buccal
C. * Lingual
D. Contact
E. Occlusal
52. Which taste papillae are located on dorsal surface of the tongue?
A. filiform
B. * fungiform
C. conic
D. vallate
E. foliate
53. Which teeth have two tubercles on crown?
A. incisor
B. canine
C. * premolar
D. 1st molar
E. 2d molar
54. Which tissue fix the tooth in the alveola?
A. Dentin
B. Cementum
C. Enamel
D. * Periodontium
E. Pulp
55. Which tooth has 1 root?
A. 1st lower molar
B. 2d lower molar
C. * Lower canine
D. 1st Upper molar
E. 2d Upper molar
56. Which tooth has 2 roots?
A. * Lower molar
B. Lower premolar
C. Lower canine
D. Upper molar
E. Upper premolar
57. Which tooth has 3 roots?
A. Lower molar
B. Lower premolar
C. Lower canine
D. * Upper molar
E. Upper premolar
58. Which tooth has chisel-shaped crown?
A. * incisor
B. canine
C. premolar
D. 1st molar
E. 2d molar
59. Which tooth has conic-shaped crown?
A. incisor
B. * canine
C. premolar
D. 1st molar
E. 2d molar
60. Choose correct sentence:
A. Pharynx extends from C4 to level of C7 vertebra.
B. Pharynx extends from C2 to level of C6 vertebra.
C. Pharynx extends from skull to level of C4 vertebra.
D. * Pharynx extends from skull to level of C6 vertebra.
E. Pharynx extends from skull to level of Th1 vertebra.
61. Describe the skeletotopy of the Larynx:
A. base of skull - C6 vertebrae
B. base of skull - C4 vertebrae
C. * C4 - C6 vertebrae
D. C2 - C6 vertebrae
E. C4 - C7 vertebrae
62. How does the Nasopharynx communicate with nasal cavity ?
A. Through the auditory tube
B. * Through the choanae
C. Through the fauces
D. Through the nasal meatus
E. Through the semilunar hiatus
63. How does the pharynx communicate with tympanic cavity ?
A. * Through the auditory tube
B. Through the choanae
C. Through the fauces
D. Through the aditus
E. Through the semilunar hiatus
64. How is the pharynx communicated with larynx ?
A. Through the auditory tube
B. Through the choanae
C. Through the fauces
D. * Through the aditus
E. Through the semilunar hiatus
65. How is the pharynx communicated with oral cavity ?
A. Through the auditory tube
B. Through the choanae
C. * Through the fauces
D. Through the nasal meatus
E. Through the semilunar hiatus
66. In which level does oesophagus empty to stomach?
A. Th-10
B. * Th-11
C. Th-12
D. L-1
E. L-2
67. In which level does oesophagus start?
A. C-5
B. * C-6
C. C-7
D. Th-1
E. Th-2
68. The patient erroneously drank the solution of the acetic acid. Which membrane of
the esophagus was damaged mostly?
A. muscular
B. serous
C. adventitia
D. muscle and serous
E. * mucous.
69. Topography of the duodenum:
A. extends from Th11 (left side) to level of L1(right side) vertebra
B. extends from Th12 (left side) to level of L2 (right side) vertebra
C. extends from L1 (right side) to level of L4 (left side) vertebra
D. extends from Th12 (left side) to level of L2 (right side) vertebra
E. * extends from L1 (right side) to level of L2 (left side) vertebra
70. Topography of the oesophagus:
A. extends from C4 to level of Th10 vertebra
B. extends from C5 to level of L1 vertebra
C. * extends from C6 to level of Th11 vertebra
D. extends from C7 to level of Th12 vertebra
E. extends from C7 to level of Th10 vertebra
71. Topography of the stomach (from cardiac to pyloryc openings)?
A. extends from Th9 to level of Th11 vertebra
B. extends from Th10 to level of Th12 vertebra
C. * extends from Th11 to level of L1vertebra
D. extends from Th12 to level of L2 vertebra
E. extends from Th12 to level of L3 vertebra
72. What do choanae communicate?
A. pharynx and larynx
B. pharynx and esophagus
C. pharynx and oral cavity
D. * pharynx and nasal cavity
E. pharynx and tympanic cavity
73. What does aditus communicate?
A. * pharynx and larynx
B. pharynx and esophagus
C. pharynx and oral cavity
D. pharynx and nasal cavity
E. pharynx and tympanic cavity
74. What does Eustachian tube communicate?
A. pharynx and larynx
B. pharynx and esophagus
C. pharynx and oral cavity
D. pharynx and nasal cavity
E. * pharynx and tympanic cavity
75. What does touch the back stomach wall?
A. diaphragm
B. left liver lobe
C. right liver lobe
D. anterior abdominal wall
E. * spleen
76. What does touch the back stomach wall?
A. diaphragm
B. left liver lobe
C. right liver lobe
D. * transverse colon
E. anterior abdominal wall
77. What does touch the back stomach wall?
A. * diaphragm
B. left liver lobe
C. left kidney
D. right liver lobe
E. anterior abdominal wall
78. What is located back of the esophagus in neck region?
A. Thyroid gland
B. Trachea
C. Pharynx
D. Larynx
E. * Vertebrae
79. What is located front of the esophagus in neck region?
A. Thyroid gland
B. * Trachea
C. Pharynx
D. Larynx
E. Backbone
80. What is located front of the esophagus?
A. Azygos vein
B. Descending aorta
C. Backbone
D. Lung
E. * Pericardium
81. What is located front of the esophagus?
A. Azygos vein
B. Descending aorta
C. * Heart
D. Backbone
E. Lung
82. What is located on the left of esophagus?
A. Azygos vein
B. * Descending aorta
C. Heart
D. Backbone
E. Pericardium
83. What organ does thoracic part of aesophagus touch?
A. Spleen
B. * Liver
C. Pancreas
D. Duodenum
E. Left kidney
84. Where does oesophagus pass through the diaphragm?
A. Central tendom
B. Sternal part
C. Left costal part
D. Right costal part
E. * Lumbar part
85. Where is abdominal (cardiac) constriction of esophagus located?
A. on the level of C7 vertebrae
B. on the level of Th4 vertebrae
C. on the level of Th5 vertebrae
D. on the level of Th9 vertebrae
E. * on the level of Th11 vertebrae
86. Where is aortic constriction of esophagus located?
A. on the level of C7 vertebrae
B. * on the level of Th4 vertebrae
C. on the level of Th5 vertebrae
D. on the level of Th9 vertebrae
E. on the level of Th11 vertebrae
87. Where is pharyngeal constriction of esophagus located?
A. * on the level of C7 vertebrae
B. on the level of Th4 vertebrae
C. on the level of Th5 vertebrae
D. on the level of Th9 vertebrae
E. on the level of Th11 vertebrae
88. Where is pharyngobasilar fascia located?
A. Nose
B. * Nasopharynx
C. Oropharynx
D. Laryngopharynx
E. Larynx
89. Where is phrenic constriction of esophagus located?
A. on the level of C7 vertebrae
B. on the level of Th4 vertebrae
C. on the level of Th5 vertebrae
D. * on the level of Th9-10 vertebrae
E. on the level of Th11 vertebrae
90. Where is thoracic (bronchial) constriction of esophagus located?
A. on the level of C7 vertebrae
B. on the level of Th4 vertebrae
C. * on the level of Th5 vertebrae
D. on the level of Th9 vertebrae
E. on the level of Th11 vertebrae
91. Where is torus tubarius located?
A. Nose
B. * Nasopharynx
C. Oropharynx
D. Laryngopharynx
E. Larynx
92. Where the angular incisura of the stomach located ?
A. * lesser curvatura
B. greater curvatura
C. cardiac ostium
D. pyloric ostium
E. fundus
93. Which coat cover the oesophagus in abdominal region?
A. mucous membrane
B. submucous stratum
C. * serous membrane
D. muscular membrane
E. adventitious coat
94. Which coat cover the oesophagus in neck region?
A. * adventitious membrane
B. mucous membrane
C. submucous stratum
D. serous membrane
E. muscular membrane
95. Which coat cover the oesophagus in thoracic region?
A. mucous membrane
B. submucous stratum
C. serous membrane
D. muscular membrane
E. * adventitious membrane
96. Which component does not form the oesophageal wall in thoracic region?
A. mucous membrane
B. submucous stratum
C. * serous membrane
D. muscular membrane
E. adventitious coat
97. Which component does not form the oesophageal wall in neck region?
A. mucous membrane
B. * serous membrane
C. submucous stratum
D. muscular membrane
E. adventitious coat
98. Which components does not form the pharyngeal wall ?
A. mucous membrane
B. * serous membrane
C. submucous stratum
D. muscular membrane
E. adventitia
99. Which constriction of esophagus located on the level of C7 vertebrae?
A. abdominal (cardiac) constriction
B. thoracic constriction
C. phrenic constriction
D. aortic constriction
E. * pharyngeоesophageal constriction
100.
Which constriction of esophagus located on the level of Th4 vertebrae?
A. abdominal (cardiac) constriction
B. thoracic constriction
C. phrenic constriction
D. * aortic constriction
E. pharyngeоesophageal constriction
101.
Which constriction of esophagus located on the level of Th5 vertebrae?
A. abdominal (cardiac) constriction
B. * thoracic (bronchial) constriction
C. phrenic constriction
D. aortic constriction
E. pharyngeоesophageal constriction
102.
Which constriction of esophagus located on the level of Th9-10 vertebrae?
A. abdominal (cardiac) constriction
B. thoracic constriction
C. * phrenic constriction
D. aortic constriction
E. pharyngeоesophageal constriction
103.
Which constriction of esophagus located on the level of Th11 vertebrae?
A. * abdominal (cardiac) constriction
B. thoracic constriction
C. phrenic constriction
D. aortic constriction
E. pharyngeоesophageal constriction
104.
Which constriction of the oesiphagus is physiological?
A. bronchial constriction
B. thoracic constriction
C. phrenic constriction
D. * aortic constriction
E. Pharyngeоesophageal constriction
105.
Which constriction of the oesiphagus is physiological?
A. bronchial constriction
B. * cardiac constriction
C. thoracic constriction
D. phrenic constriction
E. Pharyngeоesophageal constriction
106.
Which folds does mucous membrane of oesophagus form ?
A. * Longitudinal folds
B. Circular folds
C. Semilunar folds
D. Oblique folds
E. Irregular folds
107.
Which impression is not located on visceral surface of liver?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
108.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
109.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
110.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
111.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
112.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
113.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
114.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
115.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
116.
* cardiac
gastric
renal
duodenal
esophageal
Which layer of oesophageal wall has circular muscles?
* Inner muscular layer
Middle layer
Outer muscular layer
Adventitious membrane
Serous membrane
Which layer of oesophageal wall has longitudinal muscles?
Inner muscular layer
Middle layer
* Outer muscular layer
Adventitious membrane
Serous membrane
Which part of duodenum is hepatoduodenal ligament attached to?
* Superior
Descending
Ascending
Horizontal
Fundus
Which part of stomach is gastro-colic ligament attached to?
cardia
pylorus
fundus
* greater curvatura
lesser curvatura
Which part of stomach is gastro-lienal ligament attached to?
cardia
pylorus
corpus
* greater curvatura
lesser curvatura
Which part of stomach is hepatogastric ligament attached to?
fundus
pylorus
corpus
greater curvatura
* lesser curvatura
Which tonsil located on fornix of the pharynx?
Tubarial
* Pharyngeal
Lingual
Palatine
Aggregated follicles
Which tonsils located in lower part of fauces?
Tubarial
Pharyngeal
* Lingual
Palatine
Aggregated follicles
Which tonsils located laterally of the fauces?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
117.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
118.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
119.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
120.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
121.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
122.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
123.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
124.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
125.
Tubarial
Pharyngeal
Lingual
* Palatine
Aggregated follicles
Which tonsils located on lateral walls of the pharynx?
* Tubarial
Pharyngeal
Lingual
Palatine
Aggregated follicles
? What does demarcate right and left lobes the liver?
porta hepatis
* falciform ligament
triangular ligament
coronary ligament
inferior vena cava
Describe relation of the ascending colon and peritoneum:
Extraperitoneal position
* Mesoperitoneal position
Intraperitoneal position and presence of mesentery
Intraperitoneal position without mesentery
peritoneum does not cover it
Describe relation of the cecum and peritoneum:
Extraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
Intraperitoneal position and presence of mesentery
* Intraperitoneal position without mesentery
Peritoneum does not cover the cecum
Describe relation of the descending colon and peritoneum:
Extraperitoneal position
* Mesoperitoneal position
Intraperitoneal position and presence of mesentery
Intraperitoneal position without mesentery
peritoneum does not cover it
Describe relation of the liver and peritoneum:
Extraperitoneal position
* Mesoperitoneal position
Intraperitoneal position
Intraperitoneal position with mesentery
peritoneum does not cover it
Describe relation of the sigmoid colon and peritoneum:
Extraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Intraperitoneal position and presence of mesentery
Intraperitoneal position without mesentery
peritoneum does not cover it
Describe relation of the transversal colon and peritoneum:
Extraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Intraperitoneal position and presence of mesentery
Intraperitoneal position without mesentery
peritoneum does not cover it
What does border caudate lobe of the liver?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
126.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
127.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
128.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
129.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
130.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
131.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
132.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
133.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
134.
round ligament
coronary ligament
falciform ligament
* venous ligament
triangular ligament
What does border caudate lobe of the liver?
round ligament
coronary ligament
falciform ligament
* inferior vena cava
triangular ligament
What does border quadrate lobe of the liver?
* round ligament
coronary ligament
falciform ligament
venous ligament
inferior vena cava
What does carry deoxygenated blood from parenchime of the liver?
portal vein
hepatic artery
* hepatic vein
inferior vena cava
venous ligament
What does carry deoxygenated blood into the liver?
* portal vein
hepatic artery
hepatic vein
inferior vena cava
venous ligament
What does demarcate quadrate and caudate lobes of the liver?
* porta hepatis
round ligament
coronary ligament
falciform ligament
inferior vena cava
What does demarcate right and left lobes the liver?
porta hepatis
* falciform ligament
triangular ligament
coronary ligament
inferior vena cava
What does located in left inguinal area ?
* sigmoid colon
cecum
ascending colon
transverse colon
descending colon
What does located in left lateral abdominal area ?
duodenum
cecum
ascending colon
transverse colon
* descending colon
What does located in ridht inguinal area ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
135.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
136.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
137.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
138.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
139.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
140.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
141.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
142.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
143.
sigmoid colon
* cecum
ascending colon
transverse colon
descending colon
What does located in right lateral abdominal area ?
duodenum
cecum
* ascending colon
transverse colon
descending colon
What does touch back surface of the liver?
portal vein
hepatic artery
hepatic vein
* inferior vena cava
venous ligament
What does touch quadrate lobe of the liver?
coronary ligament
falciform ligament
venous ligament
inferior vena cava
* gallbladder
What is not an element of hepatic triad?
portal vein
hepatic artery
* hepatic vein
hepatic bile duct
hepatic lymphatic vessels
What is the thickest object touching the liver?
portal vein
hepatic artery
hepatic vein
venous ligament
* inferior vena cava
What is visible near lower margin of the liver?
coronary ligament
triangular ligament
venous ligament
inferior vena cava
* gallbladder
Where do the sinusoid capillaries empty?
* Central vein
Hepatic vein
Sublobular vein
Interlobular vein
Lobar vein
Where the rectal flexurae faced ?
to the right
to the left
forward
* backward
downward
Which are peculiarities of colon ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
144.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
145.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
146.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
147.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
148.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
149.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
150.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
151.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
152.
circular folds
* epiploic appendices
number of layers in the wall
longitudinal folds
presence of submucous layer
Which are peculiarities of colon ?
* haustrae
circular folds
longitudinal folds
submucous layer
serous membrane
Which folds does anal canal have?
* longitudinal folds
transverse folds
circular folds
semilunar folds
oblique folds
Which folds does colon have ?
longitudinal folds
circular folds
transverse folds
* semilunar folds
oblique folds
Which folds does rectal ampulla have?
longitudinal folds
* transverse folds
circular folds
semilunar folds
oblique folds
Which impression located on the right lobe of the liver ?
* suprarenal
splenic
gastric
esophageal
cardiac
Which impression located on the right lobe of the liver ?
cardiac
* colic
splenic
gastric
esophageal
Which impression located on the right lobe of the liver ?
splenic
gastric
* duodenal
esophageal
cardiac
Which impressions located on the diaphragmatic surface of the liver ?
Renal
Adrenal
Gastric
Duodenal
* Cardiac
Which impressions located on the left lobe of the liver ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
153.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
154.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
155.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
156.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
157.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
158.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
159.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
160.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
161.
Renal
Adrenal
* Gastric
Duodenal
colic
Which impressions located on the right lobe of the liver ?
* renal
splenic
gastric
esophageal
cardiac
Which ligament is located near hepatic porta ?
falciform ligament
right triangular ligament
left triangular ligament
coronal ligament
* teres ligament
Which ligament is located near hepatic porta ?
falciform ligament
right triangular ligament
left triangular ligament
coronal ligament
* venous ligament
Which ligament located on the diaphragmatic surface of the liver ?
venous ligament
ligamentum teres
* falciform ligament
hepatogastric ligament
hepatoduodenal ligament
Which ligament start from hepatic porta ?
falciform ligament
right triangular ligament
left triangular ligament
coronal ligament
* hepatoduodenal ligament
Which ligament start from hepatic porta ?
falciform ligament
right triangular ligament
left triangular ligament
coronal ligament
* hepatogastric ligament
Which ligament start from visceral surface of the liver ?
falciform ligament
right triangular ligament
left triangular ligament
coronal ligament
* hepatogastric ligament
Which ligament start from visceral surface of the liver ?
falciform ligament
right triangular ligament
left triangular ligament
coronal ligament
* hepatoduodenal ligament
Which ligaments located on the diaphragmatic surface of the liver ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
162.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
163.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
164.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
165.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
166.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
167.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
168.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
169.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
170.
venous ligament
ligamentum teres
hepato-gastric ligament
hepato-duodenal ligament
* right triangular ligament
Which ligaments located on the diaphragmatic surface of the liver ?
venous ligament
ligamentum teres
* left triangular ligament
hepato-gastric ligament
hepato-duodenal ligament
Which ligaments located on the diaphragmatic surface of the liver ?
venous ligament
ligamentum teres
* triangular ligament
hepato-gastric ligament
hepato-duodenal ligament
Which ligaments located on the visceral surface of the liver ?
Falciform ligament
* ligamentum teres
right triangular ligament
left triangular ligament
coronal ligament
Which ligaments located on the visceral surface of the liver ?
falciform ligament
right triangular ligament
left triangular ligament
* venous ligament
coronal ligament
Which membrane does not transverse colon have?
muscular membrane;
serous membrane;
* adventitia membrane;
mucous membrane;
Submucous layer.
Which organs touch left lobe of the liver ?
* heart
spleen
colon
kidney
duodenum
Which organs touch right lobe of the liver ?
* suprarenal gland
spleen
stomach
esophagus
heart
Which organs touch right lobe of the liver ?
spleen
stomach
esophagus
* kidney
heart
Which organs touch right lobe of the liver ?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
171.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
172.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
173.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
174.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
175.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
176.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
177.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
178.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
spleen
stomach
esophagus
heart
* colon
Which organs touch right lobe of the liver ?
heart
spleen
stomach
esophagus
* gallbladder
Which organs touch right lobe of the liver ?
heart
spleen
stomach
esophagus
* duodenum
Which organs touch right lobe of the liver ?
spleen
colon
kidney
* stomach
duodenum
Which organs touch right lobe of the liver ?
spleen
colon
kidney
duodenum
* esophagus
Which vessels form the sinusoid capillaries?
Central vein
Hepatic vein
Interlobular artery
Interlobular vein
* Both Interlobular artery and Interlobular vein
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Intraperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the ascending colon
* Peritoneum does not form mesentery for ascending colon
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ascending colon
Choose correct sentence about relation of the uterus and peritoneum?
Peritoneum covers the neck of the uterus
Peritoneum does not cover the uterus
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for uterus
Peritoneum covers one surface of the uterus
* Broad ligaments have two peritoneal sheets
Peritoneum covers one surface of the ascending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ascending colon
Peritoneum does not cover the ascending colon
* Peritoneum does not cover posterior surface
Intraperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
179.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
180.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
181.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
182.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
183.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
184.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
185.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
186.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
187.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is not formed by peritoneum ?
ligament
mesentery
* sphincter
greater omentum.
lesser omentum
What is not formed by peritoneum ?
ligament
mesentery
* none of above
greater omentum.
lesser omentum
What is not located in lesser omentum?
Portal vein
Common bile duct
Hepato-gastric ligament
* Gastro-colic ligament
Hepato-duodenal ligament
What relation of the peritoneum and adrenal glands?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Retroperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the adrenal glands
Peritoneum forms mesentery for adrenal glands
What relation of the peritoneum and adrenal glands?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the adrenal glands
* Peritoneum does not form mesentery for adrenal glands
Peritoneum forms mesentery for adrenal glands
What relation of the peritoneum and adrenal glands?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Peritoneum covers the adrenal glands
Peritoneum does not cover the adrenal glands
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for adrenal glands
What relation of the peritoneum and adrenal glands?
Peritoneum does not cover the adrenal glands
Peritoneum forms mesentery for adrenal glands
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Extraperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and adrenal glands?
Peritoneum does not cover the adrenal glands
Peritoneum forms mesentery for adrenal glands
Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the adrenal glands
Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the adrenal glands
* Peritoneum covers one surface of the adrenal glands
What relation of the peritoneum and adrenal glands?
Peritoneum does not cover the adrenal glands
Peritoneum forms mesentery for adrenal glands
* Adrenal glands is positioned in retroperitoneal space
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
188.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
189.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
190.
A.
B.
C.
D.
191.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
192.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
193.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
194.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
195.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
196.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
197.
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Intraperitoneal position
* Mesoperitoneal position
Retroperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the ascending colon
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ascending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Intraperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
Retroperitoneal position
* Peritoneum covers the ascending colon
Peritoneum does not cover the ascending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Peritoneum does not cover the ascending colon
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ascending colon
Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the ascending colon
* Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the ascending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Intraperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
* Peritoneum does not form any ligaments here
Peritoneum does not cover the ascending colon
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ascending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Intraperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the descending colon
* Peritoneum does not form mesentery for descending colon
Peritoneum forms mesentery for descending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Intraperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
Retroperitoneal position
* Peritoneum covers the descending colon
Peritoneum does not cover the descending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Peritoneum does not cover the descending colon
Peritoneum forms mesentery for descending colon
Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the descending colon
* Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the descending colon
Peritoneum covers one surface of the descending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Peritoneum forms mesentery for descending colon
Peritoneum does not cover the descending colon
* Peritoneum does not cover posterior surface
Intraperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Intraperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
* Peritoneum does not form any ligaments here
Peritoneum does not cover the descending colon
Peritoneum forms mesentery for descending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
198.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
199.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
200.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
201.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
202.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
203.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
204.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
205.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
206.
Mesoperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the transverse colon
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for transverse colon
* Peritoneum forms mesocolon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Intraperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
* Peritoneum covers the transverse colon
Peritoneum does not cover the transverse colon
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for transverse colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Peritoneum does not cover the transverse colon
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for transverse colon
* Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the transverse colon
Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the transverse colon
Peritoneum covers one surface of the transverse colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for transverse colon
Peritoneum does not cover the transverse colon
Peritoneum does not cover posterior surface
* Intraperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and ascending colon?
Mesoperitoneal position
Extraperitoneal position
* Peritoneum forms gastrocolic ligament
Peritoneum does not cover the transverse colon
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for transverse colon
What relation of the peritoneum and descending colon?
Intraperitoneal position
* Mesoperitoneal position
Retroperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the descending colon
Peritoneum forms mesentery for descending colon
What relation of the peritoneum and duodenum?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Retroperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the duodenum
Peritoneum forms mesentery for duodenum
What relation of the peritoneum and duodenum?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the duodenum
* Peritoneum does not form mesentery for duodenum
Peritoneum forms mesentery for duodenum
What relation of the peritoneum and duodenum?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Peritoneum covers the duodenum
Peritoneum does not cover the duodenum
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for duodenum
What relation of the peritoneum and duodenum?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
207.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
208.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
209.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
210.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
211.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
212.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
213.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
214.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
215.
Peritoneum does not cover the duodenum
Peritoneum forms mesentery for duodenum
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Extraperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and duodenum?
Peritoneum does not cover the duodenum
Peritoneum forms mesentery for duodenum
Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the duodenum
Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the duodenum
* Peritoneum covers one surface of the duodenum
What relation of the peritoneum and duodenum?
Peritoneum does not cover the duodenum
Peritoneum forms mesentery for duodenum
* Duodenum is positioned in retroperitoneal space
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and duodenum?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* none of above
Peritoneum does not cover the duodenum
Peritoneum forms mesentery for duodenum
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Retroperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
* Peritoneum does not form mesentery for pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Peritoneum covers the pancreas
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for pancreas
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Extraperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the pancreas
Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the pancreas
* Peritoneum covers one surface of the pancreas
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
216.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
217.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
218.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
219.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
220.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
221.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
222.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
223.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
224.
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
* Pancreas is positioned in retroperitoneal space
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Extraperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* none of above
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
* none of above
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* none of above
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum form mesentery for pancreas
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* none of above
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the pancreas
Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the pancreas
* none of above
What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
* none of above
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and transverse colon?
* Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
Retroperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the transverse colon
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for transverse colon
What relation of the peritoneum and ureter?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
225.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
226.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
227.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
228.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
229.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
230.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
231.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
232.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
233.
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Retroperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
What relation of the peritoneum and ureter?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
* Peritoneum does not form mesentery for ureter
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
What relation of the peritoneum and ureter?
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Peritoneum covers the ureter
Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for ureter
What relation of the peritoneum and ureter?
Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
* Extraperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and ureter?
Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the ureter
Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the ureter
* Peritoneum covers one surface of the ureter
What relation of the peritoneum and ureter?
Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
* Ureter is positioned in retroperitoneal space
Intraperitoneal position
Mesoperitoneal position
What relation of the peritoneum and uterus?
Peritoneum does not cover the uterus
* Peritoneum forms mesentery for uterus
Peritoneum does not form broad ligament
Peritoneum covers all surfaces of the uterus
Peritoneum covers one surface of the uterus
What relation of the peritoneum and uterus?
Peritoneum does not cover the uterus
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for uterus
* Peritoneum forms broad ligaments
Peritoneum covers one surface of the uterus
Peritoneum covers neck of the uterus
What relation of the peritoneum and uterus?
* Peritoneum does not cover vaginal part of the neck
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for uterus
Peritoneum covers one surface of the uterus
Broad ligaments have one peritoneal sheet
Peritoneum covers the neck of the uterus
What relation of the peritoneum and uterus?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
234.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
235.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
236.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
237.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
238.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
239.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
240.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
241.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
242.
* Peritoneum does not cover vaginal part of the neck
Peritoneum does not form mesentery for uterus
Peritoneum covers one surface of the uterus
Broad ligaments have one peritoneal sheet
Peritoneum covers the neck of the uterus
?Which organ has three surfaces, covered by peritoneum ?
intraperitoneal
* mesoperitoneal
extraperitoneal
retroperitoneal
none of above
Which organ has three surfaces, covered by peritoneum ?
intraperitoneal
* none of above
extraperitoneal
retroperitoneal
none of above
Arrangement of root of left lung (from up to down):
Pulmonary artery, veins , bronchus
Pulmonary veins, artery, bronchus
* Pulmonary artery, bronchus, veins
Bronchus, pulmonary artery, veins
Bronchus, pulmonary veins, artery
Arrangement of root of left lung (from up to down):
Pulmonary artery, veins , bronchus
Pulmonary veins, artery, bronchus
* Pulmonary artery, bronchus, veins
Bronchus, pulmonary artery, veins
Bronchus, pulmonary veins, artery
Arrangment of root of right lung (from up to down):
Pulmonary artery, veins , bronchus
Pulmonary veins, artery, bronchus
Pulmonary artery, bronchus, veins
* Bronchus, pulmonary artery, veins
Bronchus, pulmonary veins, artery
Arrangment of root of right lung (from up to down):
Pulmonary artery, veins , bronchus
Pulmonary veins, artery, bronchus
Pulmonary artery, bronchus, veins
* Bronchus, pulmonary artery, veins
Bronchus, pulmonary veins, artery
How many segments are there in inferior left lung lobe?
1
2
3
4
*6
How many segments are there in inferior left lung lobe?
1
2
3
4
*6
How many segments are there in inferior right lung lobe?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
243.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
244.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
245.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
246.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
247.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
248.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
249.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
250.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
251.
1
2
3
4
*5
How many segments are there in middle right lung lobe?
1
*2
3
4
5
How many segments are there in superior left lung lobe?
1
2
3
*4
6
How many segments are there in superior right lung lobe?
1
2
*3
4
5
How many segments are there in superior right lung lobe?
1
2
*3
4
5
What are biggest parts of the kidney?
Lobes
Lobules
Acynuses
* Segments
Nephrons
What are biggest parts of the lung ?
Bronchi
Acynuses
Segments
* Lobes
Lobules
What are kidney segments consist off?
Pelvis
Lobules
Nephrons
Cortex
* Lobes
What do bronchioles continue?
Trachea
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
Segmental bronchi
* Intrasegmental bronchi
What do intrasegmental bronchi continue?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
252.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
253.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
254.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
255.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
256.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
257.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
258.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
259.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
260.
Trachea
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
* Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
What do intrasegmental bronchi continue?
Trachea
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
* Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
What do lobar bronchi continue?
* Principal bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Branches of segmental bronchi
Subsegmental bronchi
What do lobar bronchi continue?
* Principal bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Branches of segmental bronchi
Subsegmental bronchi
What do open to alveolar sacs?
Bronchioles
Segmental bronchi
Intrasegmental bronchi
* Respiratory bronchioles
Terminal bronchioles
What do principal bronchi continue?
Lobar bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
* Trachea
Larynx
What do respiratory bronchioles continue?
Principal bronchi
Bronchioles
Segmental bronchi
Intrasegmental bronchi
* Terminal bronchioles
What do segmental bronchi continue?
Principal bronchi
* Lobar bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Branches of segmental bronchi
Subsegmental bronchi
What do terminal bronchioles continue?
Trachea
Principal bronchi
Lobar bronchi
Segmental bronchi
* Bronchioles
What does separate horizontal fissure of lung?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
261.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
262.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
F.
263.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
264.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
265.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
266.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
267.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
268.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Superior and inferior lobes
* Superior and middle lobes
Inferior and middle lobes
Root and superior lobe
Hilum and middle lobe
What does separate oblique fissure of left lung?
* Superior and inferior lobes
Superior and middle lobes
Inferior and middle lobes
Root and superior lobe
Hilum and middle lobe
What does separate oblique fissure of right lung?
Superior and inferior lobes
Superior and middle lobes
* Inferior and middle lobes
Root and superior lobe
Hilum and middle lobe
What is morpho-functional unit of lung?
Lobe
Lobule
Bronchi
* Acynus
Pleura
What parts are separated by lung fissurae?
* Lobes
Lobules
Bronchi
Acynus
Segments
Where does air get from alveolar sacs at exhalation?
Bronchioles
Segmental bronchi
Intrasegmental bronchi
* Respiratory bronchioles
Terminal bronchioles
Where does air get from bronchioles at exhalation?
Trachea
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
Segmental bronchi
* Intrasegmental bronchi
Where does air get from intrasegmental bronchi at exhalation?
* Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Trachea
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
Where does air get from larynx at exhalation?
Trachae
* Pharynx
Lobar bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Principal bronchi
269.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
270.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
271.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
272.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
273.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
274.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
275.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
276.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
277.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where does air get from lobar bronchi at exhalation?
* Principal bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Subsegmental bronchi
Branches of segmental bronchi
Where does air get from nasal cavity at inhalation?
Larynx
* Pharynx
Trachae
Principal bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Where does air get from principal bronchi at exhalation?
Lobar bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Larynx
* Trachea
Where does air get from respiratory bronchioles at exhalation?
Principal bronchi
Bronchioles
Intrasegmental bronchi
* Terminal bronchioles
Segmental bronchi
Where does air get from segmental bronchi at exhalation?
Principal bronchi
* Lobar bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Branches of segmental bronchi
Subsegmental bronchi
Where does air get from terminal bronchioles at exhalation?
Trachea
Principal bronchi
Lobar bronchi
Segmental bronchi
* Bronchioles
Where does air get from trachea at exhalation?
* Larynx
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Where does air get in alveolar sacs at inhalation from?
Bronchioles
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchioles
Intrasegmental bronchi
* Respiratory bronchioles
Where does air get in bronchioles at exhalation from?
* Terminal bronchioles
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Intrasegmental bronchi
278.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
279.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
280.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
281.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
282.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
283.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
284.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
285.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
286.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where does air get in bronchioles at inhalation from?
Segmental bronchi
* Intrasegmental bronchi
Trachea
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
Where does air get in intrasegmental bronchi at exhalation from?
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchioles
* Bronchioles
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
Where does air get in intrasegmental bronchi at inhalation from?
Trachea
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
* Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Where does air get in larynx at inhalation from?
Principal bronchi
Trachae
* Pharynx
Lobar bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Where does air get in lobar bronchi at exhalation from?
Principal bronchi
* Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Subsegmental bronchi
Branches of segmental bronchi
Where does air get in lobar bronchi at inhalation from?
Branches of segmental bronchi
Subsegmental bronchi
* Principal bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Where does air get in nasal cavity at exhalation?
Larynx
* Pharynx
Trachae
Principal bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Where does air get in principal bronchi at exhalation from?
* Lobar bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Larynx
Trachea
Where does air get in principal bronchi at inhalation from?
* Trachea
Larynx
Lobar bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
287.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
288.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
289.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
290.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
291.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
292.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
293.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
294.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
295.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where does air get in respiratory bronchioles at exhalation from?
* Alveolar sacs
Bronchioles
Intrasegmental bronchi
Terminal bronchioles
Segmental bronchi
Where does air get in respiratory bronchioles at inhalation from?
Bronchioles
Principal bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Intrasegmental bronchi
* Terminal bronchioles
Where does air get in segmental bronchi at exhalation from?
Principal bronchi
Lobar bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Respiratory bronchiole
* Branches of segmental bronchi
Where does air get in segmental bronchi at inhalation from?
* Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Branches of segmental bronchi
Subsegmental bronchi
Where does air get in terminal bronchioles at exhalation from?
* Respiratory bronchioles
Principal bronchi
Lobar bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Bronchioles
Where does air get in terminal bronchioles at inhalation from?
Trachea
* Bronchioles
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Where does air get in trachea at inhalation from?
Principal bronchi
* Larynx
Lobar bronchi
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchiole
Where does an interchange of gases take place?
Pulmonary arteries
Pulmonary veins
* Capillaries of alveoli
Bronchial arteries
Interlobular lymph vessels
Where does an interchange of gases take place?
Bronchioles
* Alveolar sacs
Segmental bronchi
Terminal bronchioles
Intrasegmental bronchi
296.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
297.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
298.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
299.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
300.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
301.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
302.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
303.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
304.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where does an oxygen pass to the blood?
Terminal bronchioles
Intrasegmental bronchi
Respiratory bronchioles
* Alveolar sacs
Bronchioles
Where does urine get in proximal convoluted tubule from?
Henle’s loop
distal convoluted tubule
* nephron’s capsule
blood capillaries
collecting tubule
Which part of airways does not contain the cartilages in the wall?
Lobar bronchi
Principal bronchi
* Terminal bronchiole
Segmental bronchi
Subsegmental bronchi
Which wall of trachea contains the muscle?
Lateral
Front
Right
Left
* Back
Which wall of trachea does not contain the cartilages?
Front
* Back
Right
Left
Bifurcation
Which wall of trachea touches the oesophagus?
Lateral
Front
* Back
Right
Left
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
* caput
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
* lobuli
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
* cauda
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
305.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
306.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
307.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
308.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
309.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
310.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
311.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
312.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
313.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
* corpus
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
* coni
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
* ductus
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
* ductuli aberrantes
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
* caput
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
* lobuli
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
* cauda
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
* corpus
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
* coni
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
314.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
315.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
316.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
317.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
318.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
319.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
320.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
321.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
322.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
* ductus
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
* ductuli aberrantes
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to epididymis
* caput
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to funiculus spermaticus
* fascia spermatica externa
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to funiculus spermaticus
* fascia cremasterica
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to funiculus spermaticus
* fascia spermatica interna
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to funiculus spermaticus
* vestigium processus vaginalis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to funiculus spermaticus
* fascia spermatica externa
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to funiculus spermaticus
* fascia cremasterica
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
323.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
324.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
325.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
326.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
327.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
328.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
329.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
330.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
331.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Indicate structure that belongs to funiculus spermaticus
* fascia spermatica interna
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to funiculus spermaticus
* vestigium processus vaginalis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to prostata
* basis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
rete testis
Indicate structure that belongs to prostata
* pars proximalis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
rete testis
Indicate structure that belongs to prostata
* zona glandularum periurethralium
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
rete testis
Indicate structure that belongs to prostata
* apex prostatae
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
rete testis
Indicate structure that belongs to prostata
* basis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
rete testis
Indicate structure that belongs to prostata
* pars proximalis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
rete testis
Indicate structure that belongs to prostata
* zona glandularum periurethralium
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
rete testis
332.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
333.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
334.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
335.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
336.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
337.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
338.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
339.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
340.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Indicate structure that belongs to prostata
* apex prostatae
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
rete testis
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* polus superior
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* polus inferior
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* facies lateralis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* facies medialis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* margo anterior
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* margo posterior
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* tunica vaginalis testis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* lamina parietalis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
341.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
342.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
343.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
344.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
345.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
346.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
347.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
348.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
349.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* lamina visceralis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* tunica serosa
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* tela subserosa
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* tunica albuginea
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* tunica vasculosa
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* tubuli seminiferi contorti
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* tubuli seminiferi recti
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* lig. epididymis superius
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* sinus epididimys
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
350.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
351.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
352.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
353.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
354.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
355.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
356.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
357.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
358.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* mediastinum
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* septula testis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* lobuli
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* parenchyma
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* rete
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* ductuli efferentes
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* polus superior
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* polus inferior
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* facies lateralis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
359.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
360.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
361.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
362.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
363.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
364.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
365.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
366.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
367.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* facies medialis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* margo anterior
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* margo posterior
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* tunica vaginalis testis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* lamina parietalis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* lamina visceralis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* tunica serosa
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* tela subserosa
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* tunica albuginea
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
368.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
369.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
370.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
371.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
372.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
373.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
374.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
375.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
376.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* tunica vasculosa
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* tubuli seminiferi contorti
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* tubuli seminiferi recti
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* lig. epididymis superius
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* lig. epididymis inferius
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* sinus epididimys
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* mediastinum
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* septula testis
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* lobuli
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
377.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
378.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
379.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
380.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
381.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
382.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
383.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
384.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
385.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* parenchyma
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* rete
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
Indicate structure that belongs to testis
* ductuli efferentes
tunica spongiosa
crista urethralis
stratum circulare
sinus prostaticus
What does empty to ejaculatory ducts?
Tubuli contortii
Tubuli recti
Rete testis
* Seminal vesicle
Prostate gland
What does pass through urogenital diaphragm?
* Membranous part of urethra
Spongiuos part of urethra
Prostatic part of urethra
Urethra in glans penis
Urethra in bulb of the penis
What is positioned in inguinal canal?
Tubuli contortii
Tubuli recti
Epididimis
Seminal vesicle
* Spermatic cord
Where does urine pass from membranous part of urethra?
Pelvic part of ureter
Intramural part of ureter
Prostatic part of urethra
* Spongious part of urethra
Urinary bladder
Where does urine pass from prostatic part of urethra?
Pelvic part of ureter
Intramural part of ureter
* Membranous part of urethra
Spongious part of urethra
Urinary bladder
?Where does urine pass from urinary bladder?
ureter
* urethra
papillary duct
major calices
renal pelvis
386.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
387.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
388.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
389.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
390.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
391.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
392.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
393.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
394.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where does urine pass from urinary bladder?
Pelvic part of ureter
Intramural part of ureter
Membranous part of urethra
* Prostatic part of urethra
Spongious part of urethra
?Where does urine pass from urinary bladder?
ureter
* urethra
papillary duct
major calices
renal pelvis
Where does urine pass into membranous part of urethra from?
Pelvic part of ureter
Intramural part of ureter
* Prostatic part of urethra
Spongious part of urethra
Urinary bladder
Where does urine pass into prostatic part of urethra from?
Pelvic part of ureter
Intramural part of ureter
Membranous part of urethra
Spongious part of urethra
* Urinary bladder
Where does urine pass into spongious part of urethra from?
Pelvic part of ureter
Intramural part of ureter
Prostatic part of urethra
* Membranous part of urethra
Urinary bladder
Where does urine pass into urinary bladder from?
Abdominal part of ureter
* Intramural part of ureter
Membranous part of urethra
Prostatic part of urethra
Spongious part of urethra
Where ejaculatory ducts are opened?
Membranous part of urethra
Spongiuos part of urethra
* Prostatic part of urethra
Urethra in glans penis
Urethra in bulb of the penis
Where is external (voluntary) urethral sphincter positioned?
Spongiuos part of urethra
Prostatic part of urethra
Urethra in glans penis
* Membranous part of urethra
Urethra in bulb of the penis
Where is internal (involuntary) urethral sphincter positioned?
Membranous part of urethra
Spongiuos part of urethra
* Prostatic part of urethra
Urethra in glans penis
Urethra in bulb of the penis
395.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
396.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
397.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
398.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
399.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
400.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
401.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
402.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
403.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Where is internal urethral ostium located?
Membranous part of urethra
Spongiuos part of urethra
* Prostatic part of urethra
Urethra in glans penis
Urethra in bulb of the penis
Where is permanent bend of the urethra (in male) located?
* Membranous part of urethra
Spongiuos part of urethra
Prostatic part of urethra
Urethra in glans penis
Urethra in bulb of the penis
Where sperm cells are produced?
* Tubuli contortii
Tubuli recti
Rete testis
Seminal vesicles
Prostate gland
Which scrotal coat consists of serous membrane?
External seminal fascia
Internal seminal fascia
Tunica dartos
* Vaginal tunica
Cremaster
Which scrotal coat is derivate of internal oblique abdominis muscle?
External seminal fascia
Internal seminal fascia
Tunica dartos
Vaginal tunica
* Cremaster
Which scrotal coat is derivate of subcutaneous connective tissue?
External seminal fascia
Internal seminal fascia
* Tunica dartos
Vaginal tunica
Cremaster
Following organs belong to external female reproductive organs, except the:
major labia
minor labia
vestibule of vagina
* uterus
mons pubis
Following organs belong to external female reproductive organs, except the:
major labia
minor labia
vestibule of vagina
* uterine tubes
mons pubis
Following organs belong to external female reproductive organs, except the:
major labia
minor labia
vestibule of vagina
* ovaries
mons pubis
404.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
405.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
406.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
407.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
408.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
409.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
410.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
411.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
412.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Following organs belong to external female reproductive organs, except the:
major labia
minor labia
vestibule of vagina
* vagina
mons pubis
Following organs belong to external female reproductive organs, except the:
major labia
minor labia
vestibule of vagina
* uterus
mons pubis
Following organs belong to external female reproductive organs, except the:
major labia
minor labia
vestibule of vagina
* uterine tubes
mons pubis
Following organs belong to external female reproductive organs, except the:
major labia
minor labia
vestibule of vagina
* ovaries
mons pubis
Following organs belong to external female reproductive organs, except the:
major labia
minor labia
vestibule of vagina
* vagina
mons pubis
Following organs belong to internal female reproductive organs, except the:
ovaries
* vestibule
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
Following organs belong to internal female reproductive organs, except the:
ovaries
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
* clitoris
Following organs belong to internal female reproductive organs, except the:
ovaries
* vestibule
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
Following organs belong to internal female reproductive organs, except the:
ovaries
* minor labia
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
413.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
414.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
415.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
416.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
417.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
418.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
419.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
420.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
421.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Following organs belong to internal female reproductive organs, except the:
ovaries
* vestibule
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
Following organs belong to internal female reproductive organs, except the:
ovaries
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
* clitoris
Following organs belong to internal female reproductive organs, except the:
ovaries
* vestibule
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
Following organs belong to internal female reproductive organs, except the:
ovaries
* minor labia
uterine tubes
uterus
vagina
Indicate structure that belongs to ovarium
* A hilum
B plicae palmatae
C istmus uteri
D paracervix
E tunica spongiosa
Indicate structure that belongs to ovarium
* A facies medialis
B plicae palmatae
C istmus uteri
D paracervix
E tunica spongiosa
Indicate structure that belongs to ovarium
* A hilum
B plicae palmatae
C istmus uteri
D paracervix
E tunica spongiosa
Indicate structure that belongs to ovarium
* A facies medialis
B plicae palmatae
C istmus uteri
D paracervix
E tunica spongiosa
Proper ovaric ligament is attached to:
free margin of the ovary
mesenteric margin of the ovary
* uterine extremity of the ovary
tubarius extremity of the ovary
medial surface of the ovary
422.
Proper ovaric ligament is attached to:
free margin of the ovary
mesenteric margin of the ovary
* uterine extremity of the ovary
tubarius extremity of the ovary
medial surface of the ovary
423.
Proper ovaric ligament is attached to:
A. free margin of the ovary
B. mesenteric margin of the ovary
C. * uterine extremity of the ovary
D. tubarius extremity of the ovary
E. medial surface of the ovary
424.
Suspensory ovaric ligament is attached to:
A. free margin of the ovary
B. mesenteric margin of the ovary
C. uterine extremity of the ovary
D. * tubarius extremity of the ovary
E. medial surface of the ovary
425.
Uterine tube has some parts except:
A. uterine part
B. isthmus
C. neck
D. * ampulla
E. infundibulum
426.
A hormone from the pituitary gland initiates the production of sperm cells.
What is the name of this hormone?
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. * Follicle stimulating hormone
C. Gonadotropin hormone
D. Gametogenesis hormone
E. Antidiuretic hormone
427.
A hormone from the pituitary gland initiates the production of sperm cells.
What is the name of this hormone?
A. Luteinizing hormone
B. * Follicle stimulating hormone
C. Gonadotropin hormone
D. Gametogenesis hormone
E. Antidiuretic hormone
428.
Calcitonin
A. is secreted by the parathyroid glands.
B. is secreted by the adrenal glands.
C. levels increase when blood calcium levels decrease.
D. * causes blood calcium levels to decrease.
E. insufficiency results in weak bones and tetany
429.
Hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary
A. are produced in the anterior pituitary.
B. are produced in the middle pituitary.
C. * are transported to the posterior pituitary within axons.
D. are steroids.
E. all of the above.
430.
Hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary
A. are produced in the anterior pituitary.
B. are produced in the middle pituitary.
C. * are transported to the posterior pituitary within axons.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
D. are steroids.
E. all of the above.
431.
Hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary
A. are produced in the anterior pituitary.
B. are produced in the middle pituitary.
C. * are transported to the posterior pituitary within axons.
D. are steroids.
E. all of the above.
432.
Hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary
A. are produced in the anterior pituitary.
B. are produced in the middle pituitary.
C. * are transported to the posterior pituitary within axons.
D. are steroids.
E. all of the above.
433.
Hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary
A. are produced in the anterior pituitary.
B. are produced in the middle pituitary.
C. * are transported to the posterior pituitary within axons.
D. are steroids.
E. all of the above.
434.
Hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary
A. are produced in the anterior pituitary.
B. are produced in the middle pituitary.
C. * are transported to the posterior pituitary within axons.
D. are steroids.
E. all of the above.
435.
Hormones secreted from the posterior pituitary
A. are produced in the anterior pituitary.
B. are produced in the middle pituitary.
C. * are transported to the posterior pituitary within axons.
D. are steroids.
E. all of the above.
436.
If parathyroid hormone levels increase, which of these conditions is
expected?
A. * Osteoclast activity is increased.
B. Calcium absorption from the small intestine is inhibited.
C. Calcium reabsorption from the urine is inhibited.
D. Less active vitamin D is formed in the kidneys.
E. All of the above.
437.
If parathyroid hormone levels increase, which of these conditions is
expected?
A. * Osteoclast activity is increased.
B. Calcium absorption from the small intestine is inhibited.
C. Calcium reabsorption from the urine is inhibited.
D. Less active vitamin D is formed in the kidneys.
E. All of the above.
438.
If parathyroid hormone levels increase, which of these conditions is
expected?
A. * Osteoclast activity is increased.
B. Calcium absorption from the small intestine is inhibited.
C. Calcium reabsorption from the urine is inhibited.
D. Less active vitamin D is formed in the kidneys.
E. All of the above.
439.
If parathyroid hormone levels increase, which of these conditions is
expected?
A. * Osteoclast activity is increased.
B. Calcium absorption from the small intestine is inhibited.
C. Calcium reabsorption from the urine is inhibited.
D. Less active vitamin D is formed in the kidneys.
E. All of the above.
440.
If parathyroid hormone levels increase, which of these conditions is
expected?
A. * Osteoclast activity is increased.
B. Calcium absorption from the small intestine is inhibited.
C. Calcium reabsorption from the urine is inhibited.
D. Less active vitamin D is formed in the kidneys.
E. All of the above.
441.
Insulin increases
A. * the uptake of glucose by its target tissues.
B. the breakdown of protein.
C. the breakdown of fats.
D. glycogen breakdown in the liver.
E. all of the above.
442.
Insulin increases
A. * the uptake of glucose by its target tissues.
B. the breakdown of protein.
C. the breakdown of fats.
D. glycogen breakdown in the liver.
E. all of the above.
443.
Insulin increases
A. * the uptake of glucose by its target tissues.
B. the breakdown of protein.
C. the breakdown of fats.
D. glycogen breakdown in the liver.
E. all of the above.
444.
Insulin increases
A. * the uptake of glucose by its target tissues.
B. the breakdown of protein.
C. the breakdown of fats.
D. glycogen breakdown in the liver.
E. all of the above.
445.
Insulin increases
A. * the uptake of glucose by its target tissues.
B. the breakdown of protein.
C. the breakdown of fats.
D. glycogen breakdown in the liver.
E. all of the above.
446.
LH and FSH
A. are produced in the hypothalamus.
B. production is increased by TSH.
C. * promote the production of gametes and reproductive hormones.
D. inhibit the production of prolactin.
E. all of the above.
447.
Melatonin
A. is produced by the posterior pituitary.
B. production increases as day length increases.
C. * inhibits the development of the reproductive system.
448.
449.
450.
451.
452.
453.
454.
455.
456.
D. increases GnRH secretion from the hypothalamus.
E. decreases the tendency to sleep.
Oxytocin is responsible for
A. preventing milk release from the mammary glands.
B. preventing goiter.
C. * c. causing contraction of the uterus.
D. maintaining normal calcium levels.
E. increasing metabolic rate.
The adenohypophysis is known as the ____.
A. posterior pituitary
B. * anterior pituitary
C. adrenal cortex
D. thymus gland
E. Tuberal part
The adenohypophysis is known as the ____.
A. posterior pituitary
B. * anterior pituitary
C. adrenal cortex
D. thymus gland
E. Tuberal part
The adrenal medulla
A. produces steroids.
B. has cortisol as its major secretory product.
C. decreases its secretions during exercise.
D. * is formed from a modified portion of the sympathetic division of the ANS.
E. all of the above.
The adrenal medulla
A. produces steroids.
B. has cortisol as its major secretory product.
C. decreases its secretions during exercise.
D. * is formed from a modified portion of the sympathetic division of the ANS.
E. all of the above.
The hypothalamohypophysial portal system
A. contains one capillary bed.
B. carries hormones from the anterior pituitary to the body.
C. carries hormones from the posterior pituitary to the body.
D. * carries hormones from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary.
E. carries hormones from the hypothalamus to the posterior
The pancreas releases insulin and also ____.
A. * glucagon
B. cortisol
C. androgens
D. aldosterone
E. Oxytocin
The pituitary gland
A. develops from the floor of the brain.
B. develops from the roof of the mouth.
C. is stimulated by neurohormones produced in the midbrain.
D. secretes only three major hormones.
E. * both a and b.
The posterior pituitary gland releases ____.
A. * Luteinizing hormone
B. Follicle stimulating hormone
C. C. Gonadotropin hormone
D.
E.
F.
G.
H.
I.
J.
457.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
458.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
459.
A.
B.
C.
D.
460.
A.
B.
C.
D.
461.
A.
B.
C.
D.
462.
A.
B.
C.
D.
463.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
464.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
465.
A.
B.
D. Gametogenesis hormone
Antidiuretic hormone
the antidiuretic hormone
parathormone
calcitonin
adrenocorticotropic hormone
Gonadotropin hormone
Thyroid gland consists of
* right and left lobes, isthmus
right and left lobes
isthmus and pyramidal portion
superior and inferior paired lobes
superior and inferior lobes, isthmus
?Thyroid gland consists of
* right and left lobes, isthmus
right and left lobes
isthmus and pyramidal portion
superior and inferior paired lobes
superior and inferior lobes, isthmus
Thyroid gland is situated on level of the
III-V cervical vertebrae
III-VI cervical vertebrae
* IV-VI cervical vertebrae
IV-VII cervical vertebrae
Thyroid gland is situated on level of the
III-V cervical vertebrae
III-VI cervical vertebrae
* IV-VI cervical vertebrae
IV-VII cervical vertebrae
Thyroid gland is situated on level of the
III-V cervical vertebrae
III-VI cervical vertebrae
* IV-VI cervical vertebrae
IV-VII cervical vertebrae
Thyroid gland is situated on level of the
III-V cervical vertebrae
III-VI cervical vertebrae
* IV-VI cervical vertebrae
IV-VII cervical vertebrae
What does produce Thyroid gland?
Parathormone
Melatonin
Thyroid stimulating hormone
* Calcitonin
Oxytocin
What does produce Thyroid gland?
Parathormone
Melatonin
Thyroid stimulating hormone
* Calcitonin
Oxytocin
What does produce Thyroid gland?
Parathormone
Melatonin
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone
D. * Calcitonin
E. Oxytocin
466.
What does produce Thyroid gland?
A. Parathormone
B. Melatonin
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone
D. * Calcitonin
E. Oxytocin
467.
What gland produces epinephrine?
A. Adrenal cortex
B. * Adrenal medulla
C. Adenohypophysis
D. Neurohypophysis
E. Pineal body
468.
What is morphological unit of Thyroid gland?
A. Segment
B. Acynus
C. Thyroxine
D. Lobe
E. * Lobule
469.
What releases the human chorionic gonadotropin hormone?
A. The zygote
B. The placenta
C. The uterus
D. * The zygote and placenta
E. All of the above
470.
What releases the human chorionic gonadotropin hormone?
A. The zygote
B. The placenta
C. The uterus
D. * The zygote and placenta
E. All of the above
471.
What releases the human chorionic gonadotropin hormone?
A. The zygote
B. The placenta
C. The uterus
D. * The zygote and placenta
E. All of the above
472.
What releases the human chorionic gonadotropin hormone?
A. The zygote
B. The placenta
C. The uterus
D. * The zygote and placenta
E. All of the above
473.
When blood glucose levels increase, the secretion of which of
thesehormones increases?
A. glucagon
B. * insulin
C. GH
D. cortisol
E. epinephrine
474.
When blood glucose levels increase, the secretion of which of these
hormones increases?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
glucagon
* insulin
GH
cortisol
epinephrine
475.
When blood glucose levels increase, the secretion of which of
thesehormones increases?
A. glucagon
B. * insulin
C. GH
D. cortisol
E. epinephrine
476.
When blood glucose levels increase, the secretion of which of
thesehormones increases?
A. glucagon
B. * insulin
C. GH
D. cortisol
E. epinephrine
477.
Which endocrine glands are developed from ectoderm?
A. thyroid
B. * hypophysis
C. adrenal cortex
D. parathyroid
E. paraganglia
478.
Which endocrine glands are developed from ectoderm?
A. thyroid
B. * adrenal medulla
C. adrenal cortex
D. parathyroid
E. paraganglia
479.
Which endocrine glands are developed from ectoderm?
A. thyroid
B. * hypophysis
C. adrenal cortex
D. parathyroid
E. paraganglia
480.
Which endocrine glands are developed from ectoderm?
A. thyroid
B. * adrenal medulla
C. adrenal cortex
D. parathyroid
E. paraganglia
481.
Which endocrine glands are developed from ectoderm?
A. thyroid
B. * hypophysis
C. adrenal cortex
D. parathyroid
E. paraganglia
482.
Which endocrine glands are developed from ectoderm?
A. thyroid
B. * adrenal medulla
C. adrenal cortex
D. parathyroid
483.
484.
485.
486.
487.
488.
489.
490.
491.
E. paraganglia
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. adrenal medulla
C. * parathyroid
D. interstitial cells of testis
E. paraganglia
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. interstitial cells of testis
C. adrenal medulla
D. paraganglia
E. * thymus
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. interstitial cells of testis
C. adrenal medulla
D. paraganglia
E. * thyroid
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. adrenal medulla
C. * parathyroid
D. interstitial cells of testis
E. paraganglia
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. interstitial cells of testis
C. adrenal medulla
D. paraganglia
E. * thymus
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. interstitial cells of testis
C. adrenal medulla
D. paraganglia
E. * thyroid
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. adrenal medulla
C. * parathyroid
D. interstitial cells of testis
E. paraganglia
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. interstitial cells of testis
C. adrenal medulla
D. paraganglia
E. * thymus
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. interstitial cells of testis
C. adrenal medulla
D. paraganglia
492.
493.
494.
495.
496.
497.
498.
499.
500.
E. * thyroid
Which endocrine glands are developed from endoderm?
A. adrenal cortex
B. adrenal medulla
C. * parathyroid
D. interstitial cells of testis
E. paraganglia
Which hormone acts as a negative feedback to calcitonin?
A. * Parathormone
B. Thyroxine
C. Adrenalin
D. Androgens
E. Oxytocin
Which hormone acts as a negative feedback to calcitonin?
A. * Parathormone
B. Thyroxine
C. Adrenalin
D. Androgens
E. Oxytocin
A collection of cell bodies located outside the CNS is called
A. A tract
B. A nerve
C. A nucleus
D. A trunk
E. * A ganglion
All of the following tracts decussate EXCEPT the
A. lateral corticospinal tract
B. lateral spinothalamic tract
C. rubrospinal tract
D. all of the above
E. * posterior spinocerebellar tract
Although brains of males average about 10% larger than females:
A. males are thought to have about 5% greater intelligence
B. females are thought to have about 5% greater intelligence
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
E. * no correlation exists between brain sizes and intelligence
At the synapse:
A. impulses can pass in either direction.
B. two nerve fibres come in direct contact with each other.
C. an electrical "spark" will jump the gap.
D. both A and B above are correct
E. * impulses can pass from an axon of one neuron to the dendron (dendrite) of
the next neuron
At what vertebra does the spinal cord end?
A. C1
B. L5
C. C3
D. T1
E. * L1
At what vertebra does the spinal cord start?
A. C3
B. L1
C. T1
D. L5
E. * C1
501.
Between what vertebrae may a needle be inserted during a spinal tap?
A. L4 & L5
B. L2 & L3
C. L1 & L2
D. Th12 & L1
E. * L3 & L4
502.
Collection of cell bodies located outside the CNS is called
A. tract
B. nerve
C. nucleus
D. trunk
E. * ganglion
503.
Gray matter of the central nervous system consists of:
A. myelinated neurons only
B. pia mater and arachnoid
C. post-ganglionic parasympathetic fibers
D. nerve tracts
E. * cell bodies and unmyelinated neurons
504.
If the posterior root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed person would
lose:
A. willed movement related to that pathway
B. reflex activity only, related to that pathway
C. sensory perception related to that pathway
D. none of the above
E. * both reflex activity and sensation related to that pathway
505.
In what area of the spinal cord do the spinal cord tracts lie?
A. anterior horn
B. posterior horn
C. gray commissure
D. A and B
E. * white matter
506.
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
A. rhombencephalon
B. medulla oblongata
C. diencephalon
D. telencephalon
E. * tractus rubrospinalis
507.
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
A. rhombencephalon
B. medulla oblongata
C. diencephalon
D. telencephalon
E. * pars cervicalis of spinal cord
508.
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
A. rhombencephalon
B. medulla oblongata
C. diencephalon
D. telencephalon
E. * pars sacralis of spinal cord
509.
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
A. rhombencephalon
B. medulla oblongata
510.
511.
512.
513.
514.
515.
516.
517.
518.
C. diencephalon
D. telencephalon
E. * pars thoracica of spinal cord
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
A. rhombencephalon
B. medulla oblongata
C. diencephalon
D. telencephalon
E. * pars lumbalis of spinal cord
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
A. rhombencephalon
B. medulla oblongata
C. diencephalon
D. telencephalon
E. * intumescentia cervicalis
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
A. rhombencephalon
B. medulla oblongata
C. diencephalon
D. telencephalon
E. * funiculus lateralis
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
A. rhombencephalon
B. medulla oblongata
C. diencephalon
D. telencephalon
E. * funiculus anterior
Indicate structure that does not take part in formation of encephalon
A. rhombencephalon
B. medulla oblongata
C. diencephalon
D. telencephalon
E. * funiculus posterior
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * fasciculus proprius anterior
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * funiculus anterior
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * funiculus lateralis
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
519.
520.
521.
522.
523.
524.
525.
526.
527.
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * tractus raphespinalis anterior
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * fibrae olivospinales
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * tractus spinothalamicus anterior
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * tractus tectospinalis
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * tractus pontoreticulospinalis
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * tractus interstitiospinalis
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * fibrae reticulospinales
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * tractus vestibulospinalis medialis
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * tractus corticospinalis anterior
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * tractus vestibulospinalis lateralis
528.
Indicate structure which belongs to white matter of spinal cord
A. area postrema
B. pons
C. lemniscus medialis
D. plexus choroideus
E. * fasciculus sulcomarginalis
529.
Indicate structure which take part in formation of funiculus posterior of spinal
cord
A. lobus temporalis
B. pons
C. dura matter
D. arachnoid matter
E. * fibrae gracilispinales
530.
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
A. fasciculus proprius lateralis
B. tractus corticospinalis lateralis
C. tractus rubrospinalis
D. fibrae olivospinales
E. * tegmentum mesencephali
531.
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
A. fasciculus proprius lateralis
B. tractus corticospinalis lateralis
C. tractus rubrospinalis
D. fibrae olivospinales
E. * cerebellum
532.
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
A. fasciculus proprius lateralis
B. tractus corticospinalis lateralis
C. tractus rubrospinalis
D. fibrae olivospinales
E. * hypothalamus
533.
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
A. fasciculus proprius lateralis
B. tractus corticospinalis lateralis
C. tractus rubrospinalis
D. fibrae olivospinales
E. * substantia nigra
534.
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
A. fasciculus proprius lateralis
B. tractus corticospinalis lateralis
C. tractus rubrospinalis
D. fibrae olivospinales
E. * parietal lobe
535.
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
A. fasciculus proprius lateralis
B. tractus corticospinalis lateralis
C. tractus rubrospinalis
D. fibrae olivospinales
E. * funiculus cuneafus
536.
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
A. fasciculus proprius lateralis
B.
C.
D.
E.
537.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
538.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
539.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
540.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
541.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
542.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
543.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
544.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
545.
A.
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* III ventricle
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* truncus encephali
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* diencephalon
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* telencephalon
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* prosencephalon
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* cerebellum
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* mesencephalon
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* metencephalon
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* pons
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
B.
C.
D.
E.
546.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
547.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
548.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
549.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
550.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
551.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
552.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
553.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
554.
A.
C tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* medulla oblongata
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* bulbus
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* rhombencephalon
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* myelencephalon
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* encephalon
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* thalamus
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* lobus temporalis
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* hypothalamus
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* epithalamus
Name structure which does not belong to funiculus lateralis of spinal cord
fasciculus proprius lateralis
B.
C.
D.
E.
tractus corticospinalis lateralis
tractus rubrospinalis
fibrae olivospinales
* lobus occipitalis
555.
Neural pathways by which sensory impulses from receptors reach effectors
without involving the brain are called:
A. association pathways
B. corticospinal tracts
C. none of the above
D. all of the above
E. * spinal reflexes
556.
Neurons
A. are held in place by glial cells.
B. transmit electrical messages throughout the nervous system.
C. are the basic units of the nervous system.
D. none of the above
E. * are characterized by all of the above
557.
Position of the central canal:
A. Midbrain
B. Diencephalon
C. Brain stem
D. Hind brain
E. * Spinal cord
558.
Position of the filum terminale on adults:
A. L 1 - Co 1 vertebrae
B. C 1 - S 1 vertebrae
C. C 1 - L 2 vertebrae
D. C 2 - L 2 vertebrae
E. * L 2 - Co 2 vertebrae
559.
Position of the filum terminale on adults:
A. L 1 – Co 1 vertebrae
B. C 1 – S 1 vertebrae
C. C 1 – L 2 vertebrae
D. C 2 – L 2 vertebrae
E. * L 2 - Co 2 vertebrae
560.
Position of the lumbosacral enlargement on adults:
A. Th 11 vertebrae
B. L 1 vertebrae
C. L 2 vertebrae
D. S 1 vertebrae
E. * Th 12 vertebrae
561.
Position of the spinal cord on adults:
A. C 8 – Co 2 vertebrae
B. C 2 – Th 8 vertebrae
C. C 1 – S 1 vertebrae
D. C 2 – L 2 vertebrae
E. * C 1 - L 2 vertebrae
562.
Position of the spinal cord on adults:
A. C 8 - Co 2 vertebrae
B. C 2 - Th 8 vertebrae
C. C 1 - S 1 vertebrae
D. C 2 - L 2 vertebrae
E. * C 1 - L 2 vertebrae
563.
Position of the terminal ventricle:
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Midbrain
Diencephalon
Brain stem
Hind brain
* Spinal cord
564.
Position of the terminal ventricle:
A. Midbrain
B. Diencephalon
C. Brain stem
D. Hind brain
E. * Spinal cord
565.
Segment of spinal cord is ….
A. Portion of spinal cord between upper and lower spinal roots
B. Portion of spinal cord with membranes
C. White matter and gray matter
D. Anterior and posterior horns
E. * Portion of spinal cord with pair of spinal nerves
566.
The autonomic nervous system is involved with
A. the nerves connected to the senses and skeletal muscles.
B. voluntary responses
C. only sensory nerves.
D. a and b
E. * involuntary responses such as the regulation of blood vessels and glands
567.
The basic functional unit of the nervous system is the:
A. glial cell
B. dendrite
C. reflex
D. axon
E. * neuron
568.
The brain is part of the:
A. peripheral nervous system.
B. splanchnic nervous system.
C. somatic nervous system
D. autonomic nervous system.
E. * central nervous system
569.
?The cell bodies of sensory neurons whose fibers enter the cord by the
dorsal root are found in the:
A. autonomic ganglia.
B. basal nuclei.
C. ventral root.
D. ventral root ganglion.
E. * dorsal root ganglion
570.
The central nervous system (CNS) consists of:
A. the spinal cord and spinal nerves
B. the cranial nerves and spinal nerves.
C. the brain and cranial nerves.
D. the peripheral and autonomic nervous systems.
E. * the brain and spinal cord
571.
The central nervous system consists of the brain and
A. The cranial nerves
B. The spinal nerves
C. The ganglia
D. The sympathetic trunks
E. * The spinal cord
572.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
573.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
The central nervous system consists of the brain and
The cranial nerves
The spinal nerves
The ganglia
The sympathetic trunks
* The spinal cord
The function of the central nervous system is
to send out messages to muscles.
to send out messages to glands and organs.
to receive, process and interpret incoming information
none of the above
* all of the above
The junctions between the ends of axons and muscle cell membranes are
574.
called:
A. sliding filaments
B. actin and myosin junctions
C. synapses
D. dendrites
E. * neuromuscular junctions
575.
The part of a nerve cell which is adjacent to the neuromuscular junction is
the:
A. axon
B. medulla
C. motor end plate
D. receptor
E. * dendrite
576.
The peripheral nervous system
A. is made up of the brain and spinal cord.
B. depends exclusively on sensory neurons.
C. depends exclusively on motor neurons.
D. A and B
E. * handles the central nervous system's input and output
577.
The sensory or afferent nerve fibers carry information:
A. away from the visceral nervous system.
B. away from the ANS
C. away from the CNS to the ANS.
D. away from the CNS.
E. * toward the CNS
578.
What are groups of nerve cell bodies in the CNS called?
A. central area
B. nerves
C. tracts
D. ganglia
E. * nuclei
579.
What are the two anatomical subdivisions of the nervous system?
A. the afferent division and the efferent division
B. the somatic and the autonomic nervous systems
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
E. * the central and the peripheral nervous systems
580.
What detects the amount of stretch or tension in skeletal muscles, their
tendons, and joints?
A. pressure receptors
B. cutaneous receptors
581.
582.
583.
584.
585.
586.
587.
588.
589.
C. heat receptors
D. pain receptors
E. * proprioceptors
What do anterior funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. anterior spinocerebellar tract
D. posterior spinocerebellar tract
E. * anterior pyramidal tract
What do anterior funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. ventral spinocerebellar tract
D. dorsal spinocerebellar tract
E. * vestibulospinal tract
What do anterior funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. ventral spinocerebellar tract
D. dorsal spinocerebellar tract
E. * reticulospinal tract
What do anterior funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. ventral spinocerebellar tract
D. dorsal spinocerebellar tract
E. * tectospinal tract
What do anterior funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. ventral spinocerebellar tract
D. dorsal spinocerebellar tract
E. * reticulospinal tract
What do anterior funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. ventral spinocerebellar tract
D. dorsal spinocerebellar tract
E. * vestibulospinal tract
What do anterior funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. ventral spinocerebellar tract
D. dorsal spinocerebellar tract
E. * tectospinal tract
What do anterior funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. ventral spinocerebellar tract
D. dorsal spinocerebellar tract
E. * tectospinal tract
What do anterior horns contain?
A. sensory nucleus
B. proper nucleus
590.
591.
592.
593.
594.
595.
596.
597.
598.
C. thoracic nucleus
D. lateral intermediate nucleus
E. * motor nucleus
What do anterior horns contain?
A. sensory nucleus
B. proper nucleus
C. thoracic nucleus
D. lateral intermediate nucleus
E. * motor nucleus
What do lateral funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. reticulospinal tract
D. tectospinal tract
E. * ventral spinocerebellar tract
What do lateral funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. reticulospinal tract
D. tectospinal trac
E. * ventral spinocerebellar tract
What do lateral funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. reticulospinal tract
D. tectospinal tract
E. * rubrospinal tract
What do lateral funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. reticulospinal tract
D. tectospinal tract
E. * rubrospinal tract
What do lateral funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. reticulospinal tract
D. tectospinal tract
E. * ventral spinocerebellar tract
What do lateral funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. reticulospinal tract
D. tectospinal tract
E. * dorsal spinocerebellar tract
What do lateral funiculi contain?
A. fasciculus cuneatus
B. fasciculus gracilis
C. reticulospinal tract
D. tectospinal tract
E. * dorsal spinocerebellar tract
What do lateral horns contain?
A. sensory nucleus
B. motor nucleus
599.
600.
601.
602.
603.
604.
605.
606.
607.
C. proper nucleus
D. thoracic nucleus
E. * lateral intermediate nucleus
What do lateral horns contain?
A. sensory nucleus
B. motor nucleus
C. proper nucleus
D. thoracic nucleus
E. * lateral intermediate nucleus
What do posterior funiculi contain?
A. anterior corticospinal tract
B. tectospinal tract
C. spinothalamic tract
D. fasciculus gracilis
E. dorsal spinocerebellar tract
What do posterior funiculi contain?
A. anterior corticospinal tract
B. tectospinal tract
C. spinothalamic tract
D. dorsal spinocerebellar tract
E. * fasciculus cuneatus
What do posterior funiculi contain?
A. anterior corticospinal tract
B. tectospinal tract
C. spinothalamic tract
D. dorsal spinocerebellar tract
E. * fasciculus gracilis
What do posterior funiculi contain?
A. anterior corticospinal tract
B. tectospinal tract
C. spinothalamic tract
D. dorsal spinocerebellar tract
E. * fasciculus cuneatus
What do posterior horns contain?
A. motor nucleus
B. lateral intermediate nucleus
C. medial intermediate nucleus
D. central canal
E. * thoracic nucleus
What do posterior horns contain?
A. motor nucleus
B. lateral intermediate nucleus
C. medial intermediate nucleus
D. central canal
E. * thoracic nucleus
What is found in the central canal of the spinal cord?
A. extra cerebral spinal fluid
B. the subarachnoid space
C. fat
D. blood
E. * cerebral spinal fluid
What is the minimum number of neurons that can be involved in a reflex?
A. 3
B. 4
608.
609.
610.
611.
612.
613.
614.
615.
616.
C. 5
D. 1
E. * 2
Where does spinocerebral fluid circulates?
A. Epidural space
B. Interpeduncular fossa
C. Between dura mater and vertebrae
D. Between pia mater and spinal cord
E. * Subarachnoidal space
Which nerve is placed in interpeduncular fossa ?
A. 1st cranial nerve
B. 2nd cranial nerve
C. 4th cranial nerve
D. 5th cranial nerve
E. * 3d cranial nerve
Which of following neuron types are pseudounipolar?
A. somatic motor neurons
B. neurons in the retina
C. autonomic motor neurons
D. visceral motor neurons
E. * sensory neurons
Which of following neuron types are pseudounipolar?
A. somatic motor neurons
B. neurons in the retina
C. autonomic motor neurons
D. visceral motor neurons
E. * sensory neurons
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * septum medianum posterius
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * intumescentia lumbosacralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * conus medullaris
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * nucleus nervi phrenici
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
617.
618.
619.
620.
621.
622.
623.
624.
625.
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * intumescentia cervicalis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * nucleus posteromedialis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * nucleus centralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * nucleus nervi accessorii
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * nucleus posterolateralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * nucleus posteromedialis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * nucleus anteromedialis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * nucleus posterolateralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * columna anterior
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
626.
627.
628.
629.
630.
631.
632.
633.
634.
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * laminae spinales
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * nucleus anterolateralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * nucleus motorius
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * substantia alba
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. C crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * substantia gelatinosa centralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * columnae griseae
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * cornu laterale
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * cornu posterius
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * substantia grisea
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
635.
636.
637.
638.
639.
640.
641.
642.
643.
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * cornu anterius
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * pars coccygea (segmenta coccygea)
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * canalis centralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * pars thoracica (segmenta thoracica)
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * pars lumbalis (segmenta lumbalia)
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * pars sacralis (segmenta sacralia)
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * funiculi medulae spinalis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * pars cervicalis (segmenta cervicalia)
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * sulcus anterolateralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
644.
645.
646.
647.
648.
649.
650.
651.
652.
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * sulcus posterolateralis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * sulcus intermedius posterior
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * sulcus medianus posterior
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. crus cerebri
B. fovea inferior
C. habenula
D. basis pedunculi
E. * filum terminale, pars spinalis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. habenula
D. fovea inferior
E. * ventriculus terminalis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * fissura mediana anterior
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * conus medullaris
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. crus cerebri
B. fovea inferior
C. habenula
D. basis pedunculi
E. * filum terminale, pars spinalis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * intumescentia cervicalis
Which of the following are structures of medulla spinalis
A. basis pedunculi
B. crus cerebri
C. fovea inferior
D. habenula
E. * intumescentia lumbosacralis
653.
Which of the following describes the gross anatomy of the spinal cord?
A. The maximum width of the spinal cord is approximately 21 mm.
B. The diameter of the cord increases as you proceed from the cervical
segments to the sacral segments.
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
E. * The spinal cord is approximately 45 cm in length
654.
Which of the following is not a spinal reflex?
A. knee jerk
B. ankle jerk
C. all of the above
D. none of the above
E. * swallowing reflex
655.
Which of the following is true about motor neurons?
A. They deliver information to the central nervous system.
B. There are about 10 million motor neurons.
C. A and B only
D. Motor neurons are unipolar
E. * none of the above
656.
Which of the following statements about spinal cord organization is
CORRECT?
A. Descending axons are found only in the ventral funiculus.
B. The ratio of white to gray matter is greatest in the lumbosacral cord.
C. Segments are interconnected by the propriospinal tract.
D. all of the above
E. * Sensory functions are restricted to the dorsal (posterior) region of the cord
657.
Which of the following statements is true about sensory neurons?
A. There are about 10 million sensory neurons.
B. They deliver information to the central nervous system.
C. Sensory neurons are unipolar.
D. A and B only
E. * all of the above
658.
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
A. a reflex arc is the functional unit of the nervous system
B. effector organs are non-neural structures
C. when a tack pricks the toe of a barefoot person,the tack is the stimulus
D. a reflex always starts at a sensory neuron and ends at a motor neuron
E. * all are correct
659.
Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct?
A. white and gray matter are part of the central nervous system
B. gray matter is so called because of the density of nerve cell bodies each
containing abundant Nissl substance
C. the term nucleus, when applied to the nervous system designates a mass of
gray matter (i.e., nerve cells)
D. ganglion refers to a cluster of nerve cells (gray matter) usually located
outside the brain and spinal cord
E. * white matter is composed chiefly of unmyelinated fibers
660.
Which sequence best represents the course of an impulse over a reflex arc?
A. effector, sensory neuron, synapse, motor neuron, receptor
B. receptor, motor neuron, synapse, sensory neuron, effector
C. receptor, sensory neuron, center, interneuron, effector
D. none of the above
E. * receptor, sensory neuron, synapse,motor neuron, effector
661.
Damage to the corpora quadrigemina would most likely result in:
A. speech defect
B. auditory loss
C. a loss of coordination and balance
D. distorted pain perception
E. * loss of visual motor response
662.
Following an auto accident, a man with an obvious head injury was observed
stumbling about the scene. An inability to walk properly and loss of balance were
quite obvious. What brain area was involved?
A. corpus callosum
B. occipital lobe of cerebrum
C. temporal lobe of cerebrum
D. medulla oblongata
E. * cerebellum
663.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus rubropontius
664.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus olivocochlearis
665.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus hypothalamospinalis
666.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * genu nervi facialis
667.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * corpus trapezoideum
668.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B.
C.
D.
E.
669.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
670.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
671.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
672.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
thalamus
spinal cord
optic nerve
* tractus mesencephalicus nervi trigemini
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
lobus frontalis
lobus temporalis
lobus occipitalis
corpus callosum
* mesencephalon
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
lobus frontalis
lobus temporalis
lobus occipitalis
corpus callosum
* pons
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
lobus frontalis
lobus temporalis
lobus occipitalis
corpus callosum
* medulla oblongata
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
lobus frontalis
lobus temporalis
lobus occipitalis
corpus callosum
* bulbus
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
673.
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * stria cochlearis intermedia
674.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
A. lobus frontalis
B. lobus temporalis
C. lobus occipitalis
D. corpus callosum
E. * myelencephalon
675.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * stria cochlearis anterior
676.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * lemniscus lateralis
677.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus trigeminothalamicus anterior
678.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus trigeminothalamicus
679.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * lemniscus trigeminalis
680.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus spinalis nervi trigemini
681.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae spinoolivares
682.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae spinohypithalamicae
683.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae spinobulbares
684.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae spinotectales
685.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae spinomesencephalicae
686.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae spinoreticulares
687.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae cerebelloolivares
688.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae rubroolivares
689.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae anuloolivares
690.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * commissura cochlearis pontis
691.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus tegmentalis centralis
692.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
cerebellum
thalamus
spinal cord
optic nerve
* tractus spinocerebellaris anterior
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
693.
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * stria cochlearis posterior
694.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus pontoreticulospinalis anterior
695.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae spinothalamicae
696.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * lemniscus spinalis
697.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae tectireticulares
698.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. fibrae tectoolivares
B. cerebellum
C. thalamus
D. spinal cord
E. optic nerve
699.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus tectospinalis
700.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae pretectoolivares
701.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * lemniscus medialis
702.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fasciculus longitudinalis posterior
703.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fasciculus longitudinalis dorsalis
704.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fasciculus longitudinalis medialis
705.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * raphe pontis
706.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
A. lobus frontalis
B. lobus temporalis
C. lobus occipitalis
D. corpus callosum
E. * mesencephalon
707.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus trigeminothalamicus posterior
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
A. lobus frontalis
B. lobus temporalis
C. lobus occipitalis
D. corpus callosum
E. * bulbus
709.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
A. lobus frontalis
B. lobus temporalis
C. lobus occipitalis
D. corpus callosum
E. * myelencephalon
710.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
A. lobus frontalis
B. lobus temporalis
C. lobus occipitalis
D. corpus callosum
E. * medulla oblongata
711.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus rubropontius
712.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae cerebelloolivares
713.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus hypothalamospinalis
714.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae rubroolivares
715.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * fibrae anuloolivares
708.
716.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * commissura cochlearis pontis
717.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus tegmentalis centralis
718.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus spinocerebellaris anterior
719.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * stria cochlearis posterior
720.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus pontoreticulospinalis anterior
721.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * stria cochlearis intermedia
722.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * lemniscus lateralis
723.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * stria cochlearis anterior
724.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus olivocochlearis
725.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus trigeminothalamicus anterior
726.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus trigeminothalamicus
727.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * genu nervi facialis
728.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus mesencephalicus nervi trigemini
729.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of white matter of tegmentum
pontis
A. cerebellum
B. thalamus
C. spinal cord
D. optic nerve
E. * tractus trigeminothalamicus posterior
730.
Indicate structure that takes part in formation of truncus encephali
A. lobus frontalis
B. lobus temporalis
C. lobus occipitalis
D. corpus callosum
E. * pons
731.
Is the area of the brain that controls wakefulness:
A. Cerebellum
B. Midbrain
C. none of the above
D. all of the above
E. * Reticular activating system (RAS)
732.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fasciculus cuneatus
733.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fasciculus gracilis
734.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * decussatio pyramidum
735.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fasciculus gracilis
736.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. ateral ventricle
E. * tractus solitarius
737.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * decussatio pyramidum
738.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * pedunculus cerebellaris inferior
739.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B.
C.
D.
E.
lobus frontalis
corpus callosum
lateral ventricle
* tractus olivocerebellaris
740.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * amiculum olivare
741.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * tractus spinoolivaris
742.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * tractus spinalis nervi trigemini
743.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fasciculus longitudinalis posterior
744.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fasciculus longitudinalis dorsalis
745.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * tractus tectospinalis
746.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fasciculus lohgitudinalis medialis
747.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * lemniscus medialis
748.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fibrae arcuatae internae
749.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * decussatio lemnisci medialis
750.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fasciculus gracilis
751.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fasciculus cuneatus
752.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fibrae corticoreticulares
753.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * decussatio pyramidum
754.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * corticospinal fibers
755.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * fibrae corticonucleares bulbi
756.
Name structure that represents internal structure of white matter of medulla
oblongata
A. lobus temporalis
B. lobus frontalis
C. corpus callosum
D. lateral ventricle
E. * tractus pyramidalis
757.
Reflex centers of the medulla include all of the following except the:
A. cardiovascular center
B. cardiac and vasomotor centers
C. respiratory rhythmicity center
D. none of the above
E. * digestive centers
758.
?The cerebellum aids in maintenance of:
A. visual acuity
B. emotional behavior
C. speech
D. binocular vision
E. * balance and postur
759.
The functions of cerebrospinal fluid are:
A. cushions neural structures
B. transports nutrients, chemical messengers, and waste products
C. Supports the brain
D. none of the above
E. * all of the above
760.
The pons of the brain:
A. contains relay and processing centers for sensory information
B. processes visual and auditory information
C. connects the cerebellum to the brain stem
D. none of the above
E. * all of the above
761.
The region of the brain that regulates heart rate is located in the:
A. cerebellum
B. cerebrum.
C. superior coliculi.
D. none of the above
E. * medulla oblongata
762.
What do anterior lateral sulcus separate?
A. Two pyramids
B. Pyramids and pons
C. Pons and midbrain
D. Cerebellum and pons
E. * Olives and pyramids
763.
What do anterior lateral sulcus separate?
A. Two pyramids
B.
C.
D.
E.
764.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
765.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
766.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
767.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
768.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
769.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
770.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
771.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
772.
A.
Pyramids and pons
Pons and midbrain
Cerebellum and pons
* Olives and pyramids
What do middle cerebellar peducles communicate?
Cerebellum and medulla oblongata
Medulla oblongata and pons
Pons and midbrain
Cerebellum and midbrain
* Cerebellum and pons
What do middle cerebellar peducles communicate?
Cerebellum and medulla oblongata
Medulla oblongata and
Pons and midbrain
Cerebellum and midbrain
* Cerebellum and pons
What does anterior lateral sulcus separate?
Two pyramids
Pyramids and pons
Pons and midbrain
Cerebellum and pons
* Olives and pyramids
What does median foramen (Magendi) communicate?
Fourth and third ventricles
Third ventricle and aqueduct
Central canal and subarachnoid space
Central canal and fourth ventricle
* Fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space
What does produce cerebrospinal fluid?
Pia mater
Dura mater
Dural sinus
Arachnoid granulation
* Choroid plexus
What is NOT part of the brain stem?
Midbrain
Pons
Medulla
Midbrain and cerebellum
* Cerebellum
What is the superior end of the central canal continuous with?
The Brainstem
The Medulla
The Cervicla Plexus
The 3rd Ventricle of the brain
* The 4th Ventricle of the brain
What is the superior end of the central canal continuous with?
The Brainstem
The Medulla
The Cervicla Plexus
The 3rd Ventricle of the brain
* The 4th Ventricle of the brain
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
B.
C.
D.
E.
773.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
774.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
775.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
776.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
777.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
778.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
779.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
780.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
781.
A.
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* pedunculus cerebellaris inferior
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* olivae
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* sulcus posterolateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* area retroolivaris
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* fibrae arcuatae externae anteriores
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* sulcus retroolivaris
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* pyramids
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* sulcus preolivaris
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* funiculus lateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
B.
C.
D.
E.
782.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
783.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
784.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
785.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
786.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
787.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
788.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
789.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
790.
A.
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* sulcus anterolateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* pyramis bulbi
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* decussatio piramidum
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* pyramis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* fissura mediana anterior
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* funiculus lateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* oliva
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* tuberculum gracile
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* sulcus medianus posterior
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
B.
C.
D.
E.
791.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
792.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
793.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
794.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
795.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
796.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
797.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
798.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
799.
A.
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* fasciculus gracilis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* fasciculus cuneatus
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* tuberculum cuneatum
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* corpus restiforme
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* tuberculum trigeminale
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* sulcus posterolateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* pedunculus cerebellaris inferior
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* area retroolivaris
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* fibrae arcuatae externae anteriores
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
B.
C.
D.
E.
800.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
801.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
802.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
803.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
804.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
805.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
806.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
807.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
808.
A.
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* sulcus retroolivaris
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* funiculus lateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* oliva
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* sulcus preolivaris
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* decussatio piramidum
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* sulcus anterolateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* pyramis bulbi
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* sulcus retroolivaris
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* pyramis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
B.
C.
D.
E.
809.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
810.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
811.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
812.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
813.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
814.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
815.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
816.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
817.
A.
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* fibrae arcuatae externae anteriores
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* funiculus lateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* oliva
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* sulcus anterolateralis
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* sulcus preolivaris
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* decussatio piramidum
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* pyramis bulbi
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* fissura mediana anterior
What structure can be seen on medulla oblongata
neocortex
paleocortex
hippocampus
cerebellum
* pyramis
Where are located pyramids?
Pons
B.
C.
D.
E.
Rhomboid fossa
Cerebellum
Isthmus rhomboencephali
* Medulla oblongata
818.
Where are located pyramids?
A. Pons
B. Cerebellum
C. Rhomboid fossa
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Medulla oblongata
819.
Where is located fourth ventricle?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Mesencephalon
C. Diencephalon
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Rhomboencephalon
820.
Where is located fourth ventricle?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Mesencephalon
C. Diencephalon
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Rhomboencephalon
821.
Where is located nucleus cuneatus ?
A. Pons
B. Cerebellum
C. Rhomboid fossa
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Medulla oblongata
822.
Where is located nucleus cuneatus ?
A. Pons
B. Cerebellum
C. Rhomboid fossa
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Medulla oblongata
823.
Where is located trapezoid body?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Rhomboid fossa
C. Cerebellum
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Pons
824.
Where is located trapezoid body?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Rhomboid fossa
C. Cerebellum
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Pons
825.
Where is located trapezoid body?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Rhomboid fossa
C. Cerebellum
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Pons
826.
Which component of the brain controls cardiac centers, the vasomotor
center, and the respiratory rhythmicity center?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
827.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
828.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
829.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
830.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
831.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
832.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
833.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
834.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
835.
cerebellum
mesencephalon
all of the above
none of the above
* medulla oblongata
Which nerve is placed in interpeduncular fossa ?
1st cranial nerve
2nd cranial nerve
4th cranial nerve
5th cranial nerve
* 3d cranial nerve
Which nucleus has accessory nerve?
Ambiguus nucleus
Mesencephalic nucleus
Pontine nucleus
Inferior salivary nucleus
* Spinal nucleus
Which nucleus has accessory nerve?
Ambiguus nucleus
Mesencephalic nucleus
Pontine nucleus
Inferior salivary nucleus
* Spinal nucleus
Which nucleus has facial nerve?
Ambiguus nucleus
Spinal nucleus
Mesencephalic nucleus
Pontine nucleus
* Superior salivary nucleus
Which nucleus has facial nerve?
Ambiguus nucleus
Spinal nucleus
Mesencephalic nucleus
Pontine nucleus
* Superior salivary nucleus
Which nucleus has glossopharyngeal nerve?
Spinal nucleus
Mesencephalic nucleus
Pontine nucleus
Superior salivary nucleus
* Ambiguus nucleus
Which nucleus has glossopharyngeal nerve?
Spinal nucleus
Mesencephalic nucleus
Pontine nucleus
Superior salivary nucleus
* Ambiguus nucleus
Which nucleus has trigeminal nerve?
Ambiguus nucleus
Solitarius nucleus
Dorsal nucleus
salivary nucleus
* Pontine nucleus
Which nucleus has trigeminal nerve?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Ambiguus nucleus
Solitarius nucleus
Dorsal nucleus
Salivary nucleus
* Pontine nucleus
836.
Which nucleus has vagus nerve?
A. Solitarius nucleus
B. Mesencephalic nucleus
C. Pontine nucleus
D. salivary nucleus
E. * Ambiguus nucleus
837.
Which nucleus has vagus nerve?
A. Solitarius nucleus
B. Mesencephalic nucleus
C. Pontine nucleus
D. Salivary nucleus
E. * Ambiguus nucleus
838.
Which of the following is not true of the brainstem in general?
A. it connects the spinal cord to the thalamus and hypothalamus
B. damage to the brainstem is usually fatal
C. most of the cranial nerves enter or exit the brain via the brainstem
D. it is composed of the medulla, pons, and midbrain
E. * the brainstem is larger than the cerebellum but smaller than the cerebrum
839.
Which of the following is/are true?
A. the medulla is a conduction pathway for impulses between the brain and the
spinal cord
B. The brain is protected by CSF, meninges and the skull.
C. most of the cranial nerves enter or exit the brain via the brainstem
D. none of the above
E. * all are correct
840.
Which of these is not found in the hindbrain?
A. pons
B. cerebellar hemispheres
C. vermis of cerebellum
D. decussation of pyramids
E. * inferior colliculus
841.
Choose the function of the hypothalamus that is false.
A. cardiovascular regulation
B. regulation of sleeping and wakefulness
C. houses pneumotaxic area
D. sexual response
E. * none of the variants
842.
Control of hormone release from the anterior pituitary” is from the:
A. cerebral cortex
B. cerebellum
C. pons
D. medulla oblongata
E. * hypothalamus
843.
Feeling satisfied after a nice meal and not being immediately hungry is a
function of the:
A. pons
B. thalamus
C. cerebral cortex
D. medulla
844.
845.
846.
847.
848.
849.
850.
851.
852.
E. * hypothalamus
In the depth of which groove is gyrus dentatus?
A. * sulcuses of hippocampus
B. collateral sulcuses
C. middle temporal sulcuses
D. upper temporal sulcuses
E. lower temporal sulcuses
In the depth of which groove is insula lobe?
A. central
B. upper temporal
C. * lateral
D. lower frontal
E. postcentral
Indicate structure that belongs to hippocampus
A. nervus vagus
B. nervus glossopharyngeus
C. nervus abducens
D. nervus facialis
E. * gyrus dentatus
Indicate structure that belongs to hippocampus
A. nervus vagus
B. nervus glossopharyngeus
C. nervus abducens
D. nervus facialis
E. * cornu Ammonis
Indicate structure that belongs to hippocampus
A. nervus vagus
B. nervus glossopharyngeus
C. nervus abducens
D. nervus facialis
E. * fimbria
Indicate structure that belongs to hippocampus
A. nervus vagus
B. nervus glossopharyngeus
C. nervus abducens
D. nervus facialis
E. * digitationes pedis
Indicate structure that belongs to hippocampus
A. nervus vagus
B. nervus glossopharyngeus
C. nervus abducens
D. nervus facialis
E. * pes hippocampi
Indicate structure that belongs to hippocampus
A. nervus vagus
B. nervus glossopharyngeus
C. nervus abducens
D. nervus facialis
E. * regio IV cornu Ammonis
Locating sensory information is the function of what part of the cortex?
A. Somatosensory Association Cortex
B. Somatomotor Cortex
C. Broca's Area
D. A and D
853.
854.
855.
856.
857.
858.
859.
860.
861.
E. * Somatosensory Cortex
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * stria laminae granularis internae
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * stria occipitalis
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * stria laminae granularis externae
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * stria laminae molecularis
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * lamina pyramidalis interna
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * lamina multiformis
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * lamina pyramidalis externa
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * lamina granularis interna
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
862.
863.
864.
865.
866.
867.
868.
869.
870.
E. * lamina molecularis
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * lamina granularis externa
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * archiocortex
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * paleocortex
Name formation of cerebral cortex
A. medulla spinalis
B. filum terminale
C. canalis centralis
D. ventriculus terminalis
E. * strata isocorticis
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * hypothalamus
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * epithalamus
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * neurohypophysis
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * hypophysis
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. spinal nerves
D. splenium corporis callosi
871.
872.
873.
874.
875.
876.
877.
878.
879.
E. * truncus corporis callosi
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * optic nerve
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * cerebellum
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * medulla spinalis
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * pons
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * medulla oblongata
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * fornix
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * commissura anterior
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * lamina terminalis
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * lobus frontalis
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * lobus occipitalis
881.
Name the biggest part of the brain
A. pons
B. cerebellum
C. * cortex of large hemispheres
D. medulla oblongata
E. midbrain
882.
The anterior pituitary gland receives hypothalamic releasing factors via:
A. direct diffusion through the interstitial spaces
B. transport along nerve axons to the adenohypophysis
C. the systemic arterial system
D. transport through the lymphatic system
E. * a system of vessels in the infundibulum
883.
The central sulcus separates the:
A. parietal lobes
B. occipital lobe and temporal lobe
C. temporal lobe and parietal lobe
D. frontal lobe and ear lobe
E. * frontal lobes and the parietal lobes
884.
The cerebral cortex is characterized by numerous elevated ridges of tissue
called:
A. neural tubes.
B. the cerebral lobes.
C. fissures
D. sulci
E. * none of the above
885.
The four distinct lobes of the cortex are the
A. sensory, auditory, visual and motor lobes.
B. hind, mid, fore and association lobes.
C. front, back, side and top lobes.
D. none of the above
E. * occipital, parietal, temporal and frontal lobes
886.
The largest part of the diencephalon is the:
A. pineal body
B. hypothalamus
C. pituitary gland
D. intermediate mass
E. * thalamus
887.
The occipital lobes:
A. are located within the white matter of the cerebrum.
B. are the most posterior part of the cerebellum.
C. help regulate gross movements performed unconsciously.
D. are part of the peripheral nervous system.
E. * are concerned with vision
888.
The part of the brain concerned with water balance, appetite, and regulating
body temperature, is the:
A. cerebellum.
B. medulla oblongata
880.
889.
890.
891.
892.
893.
894.
895.
896.
897.
C. thalamus.
D. cerebral cortex.
E. * hypothalamus
The thalamus:
A. (1)is the final relay point for ascending sensory information
B. (2)coordinates the pyramidal and extrapyramidal systems
C. (3)secretes hormones
D. all of the above
E. * (1) and (2) only
What centre is located in middle frontal gyrus?
A. Speech area
B. Hearing area
C. Visual cortex
D. Sensory area
E. * Writing centre
What does aqueduct communicate?
A. Third and second ventricles
B. Fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space
C. Central canal and subarachnoid space
D. Central canal and fourth ventricle
E. * Fourth and third ventricles
What does form lateral wall of III ventricle
A. Fornix
B. Thalamus (upper surface)
C. Epithalamus
D. Hypothalamus
E. * Thalamus (medial surface)
What does form lower wall of III ventricle
A. Fornix
B. Thalamus (upper surface)
C. Thalamus (medial surface)
D. Epithalamus
E. * Hypothalamus
What gyruses limited frontal lobe?
A. lateral and precentral
B. lateral and postcentral
C. lower frontal and central
D. * lateral and central
E. upper frontal and central
What gyruses limited parietal lobe?
A. precentral and parieto-occipital
B. central and postcentral
C. central, lateral and transverse occipital
D. * central, lateral, and parieto-occipital
E. central and parieto-occipital
What is authonomic center located ?
A. Thalamus
B. Subthalamic area
C. Epithalamus
D. Optic chiasma
E. * Hypothalamus
What is general sensory center located ?
A. Subthalamic area
B. Epithalamus
898.
899.
900.
901.
902.
903.
904.
905.
906.
C. Metathalamus
D. Hypothalamus
E. * Thalamus
What is located in depth of lateral sulcus of hemisphere?
A. Precuneus
B. Operculum
C. Speach area
D. Superior parietal lobule
E. * Insula
What is located on medial surface of hemisphere ?
A. Insula
B. Operculum
C. Hearing area
D. Superior parietal lobule
E. * Precuneus
What separated cerebral hemispheres of the cerebellum?
A. longitudinal cerebral fissura
B. * transvers fissura
C. lateral sulcus
D. central sulcus
E. postcentral sulcus
What separates two cerebral hemispheres?
A. * longitudinal cerebral fissura
B. transvers fissura
C. lateral sulcus
D. central sulcus
E. postcentral sulcus
Where are located supramarginal and angular gyrus?
A. Upper Parietal gyrus
B. Lower frontal gyrus
C. Upper Temporal gyrus
D. Middle frontal gyrus
E. * Lower Parietal gyrus
Where is cortical hearing area located:
A. Superior frontal sulcus
B. Calcarine sulcus
C. Insula
D. Uncus
E. * Superior temporal gyrus
Where is cortical smell area located:
A. Superior frontal sulcus
B. Superior temporal gyrus
C. Calcarine sulcus
D. Insula
E. * Uncus
Where is hypophysis attached?
A. Optic chiasma
B. Cerebral peduncle
C. Pons
D. Mammilary body
E. * Tuber cinereum
Where is located postcentral gyrus?
A. between precentral and central sulcuses
B. between precentral and lateral sulcuses
C. between precentral and postcentral sulcuses
D. * between central and postcentral sulcuses
E. between lateral and postcentral sulcuses
907.
Where is located precentral gyrus?
A. * between precentral and central sulcuses
B. between precentral and lateral sulcuses
C. between precentral and postcentral sulcuses
D. between central and postcentral sulcuses
E. between lateral and postcentral sulcuses
908.
Where is mammillary body located:
A. Thalamus
B. Subthalamic area
C. Epithalamus
D. Metathalamus
E. * Hypothalamus
909.
Where is pineal body located:
A. Thalamus
B. Subthalamic area
C. Metathalamus
D. Hypothalamus
E. * Epithalamus
910.
Where is visual cortex located:
A. Superior frontal sulcus
B. Superior temporal gyrus
C. Insula
D. Uncus
E. * Calcarine sulcus
911.
Which analyzer has nuclei that located at the middle frontal gyrus?
A. Hearing
B. Vision
C. * Motor analyzer written language
D. Universal sensitivity
E. Motor analyzer of oral language
912.
Which gyrus consist of operculum, triangular and orbital parts?
A. middle frontal
B. * lower frontal
C. upper frontal
D. precentral
E. upper temporal
913.
Which of the cerebral lobes is the center for personality, higher intellectual
processes, verbal communication, and the voluntary control of skeletal muscles?
A. occipital
B. parietal
C. temporal
D. none of the above
E. * frontal
914.
Which of the following describes some of the different hemispheric functions?
A. The left brain is more active in artistic and intuitive tasks, and the right brain
is more involved in emotional and expressive abilities.
B. The left brain has visual-spatial abilities, while the right brain is more involved
in artistic and creative activities.
C. The right brain is more dominant and the left brain is more subordinate.
D. B and D
E. * The left brain is more active in logic and the right brain is associated with
visual-spatial abilities
915.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the thalamus?
A. it is associated with feelings of rage and aggression
B. it has a type of thermostat which controls normal body temperature
C. it receives sensory impulses from stretch receptors in the viscera
D. branches of it include the largest of the cranial nerves, i.e., trigeminal and
vagus
E. * it is a non-specific interpretation center for most sensory impulses such as
pain, temperature touch, and pressure
916.
Which of the following is not primarily a function of the hypothalamus:
A. regulates body temperature
B. links nervous and endocrine systems
C. regulates food intake (appetite)
D. produces antidiuretic hormone
E. * serves as center for language and memory
917.
Which of the following plays an important role in regulating voluntary
movements?
A. cerebral peduncles
B. postcentral gyrus of the parietal lobe
C. basal ganglia
D. hypothalamus
E. * primary motor gyrus of the frontal lobe
918.
Which of the following statements about the cerebral cortex is true?
A. the cortex is the central, white portion of the cerebrum
B. the cells in the right hemisphere control the right side of the body
C. the cortex has sensory and motor nerve tracts
D. none of the above
E. * the cortex is the outer gray area of the cerebrum and is composed of nerve
cell bodies
919.
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * radiation
920.
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * truncus
921.
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * forceps occipitalis
922.
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. cerebellum
D. medulla spinalis
E. * tapetum
923.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
924.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
925.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
926.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
927.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
928.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
929.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
930.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
931.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
pons
medulla oblongata
cerebellum
medulla spinalis
* forceps frontalis
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
pons
medulla oblongata
cerebellum
medulla spinalis
* forceps major
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
pons
medulla oblongata
cerebellum
medulla spinalis
* radiatio
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
pons
medulla oblongata
cerebellum
medulla spinalis
* forceps minor
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
pons
medulla oblongata
cerebellum
medulla spinalis
* stria longitudinalis medialis
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
pons
medulla oblongata
cerebellum
medulla spinalis
* indusium griseum
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
pons
medulla oblongata
cerebellum
medulla spinalis
* stria longitudinalis lateralis
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
pons
medulla oblongata
cerebellum
medulla spinalis
* genu
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
pons
medulla oblongata
cerebellum
medulla spinalis
* truncus
932.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
933.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
pons
medulla oblongata
cerebellum
medulla spinalis
* splenium
Which of the following takes part in formation of corpus callosum
pons
medulla oblongata
cerebellum
medulla spinalis
* rostrum
Which of these groups will be cut through in a midsaggital section of the
934.
brain?
A. (1)medulla oblongata, pineal body, infundibulum and optic chiasma
B. (2)cerebellum, third and fourth ventricles, and cerebral cortex
C. (2) and (3)
D. (3)bulbus olfactorius
E. * (1) and (2)
935.
Which of these is not one of the basal nuclei within the white matter of the
cerebrum?
A. corpus striatum
B. caudate nucleus
C. putamen
D. none of the above
E. * angular gyrus
936.
“Pleasure Centers” and “Punishment Centers” of the brain are located in the:
A. mammillary bodies
B. precentral gyrus
C. prefrontal area
D. intermediate mass
E. * limbic system
937.
Axons that form a fasciculus gracilis (fasciculus of Gaulle), have
proprioceptive impulses from:
A. Bottom half of trunk, head
B. Upper limbs
C. Neck regio of the body
D. * Lower extremities and the lower half of body
E. Thoracic regio of the body
938.
Axons that form a fasciculus gracilis (Gaulle fascicul), carry proprioceptive
impulses from:
A. * Lower extremities and the lower half of body
B. Bottom half of trunk, head
C. Upper limbs
D. Neck
E. Thorax
939.
Certain vascular structures in the brain produce cerebrospinal fluid. Which of
the following is “true” of these structures?
A. they project into the cerebral venous sinuses
B. they constitute what is called a choroid plexus
C. these structures are located in the subarachnoid space
D. they are called arachnoid villi
E. * they are found only in the lateral ventricles
940.
Head of caudate nucleus forms the wall of :
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
941.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
942.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
943.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
944.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
945.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
946.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
947.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
948.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
949.
Anterior horn of lateral ventricle
Posterior horn of lateral ventricle
Superior horn of lateral ventricle
Central part of lateral ventricle
* Inferior horn of lateral ventricle
Hippocampus forms the wall of :
Anterior horn of lateral ventricle
Posterior horn of lateral ventricle
Superior horn of lateral ventricle
Central part of lateral ventricle
* Inferior horn of lateral ventricle
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* cornu frontale
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* foramen interventriculare
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* pars centralis
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* stria terminalis
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* fissura choroidea
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* bulbus cornus posterioris
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* trigonum colaterale
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
950.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
951.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
952.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
953.
A.
B.
954.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
955.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
956.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
957.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
958.
A.
B.
C.
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* cornu occipitale
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* cornu posterius
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* pars centralis
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* foramen interventriculare
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
* pars centralis
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* foramen interventriculare
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* pars centralis
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* central part
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
pons
* tela choroidea
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
mesencephalon
spinal cord
medulla oblongata
959.
960.
961.
962.
963.
964.
965.
966.
967.
D. pons
E. * eminentia collateralis
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * cornu frontale
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * bulbus cornus posterioris
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * cornu occipitale
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * cornu posterius
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * cornu temporale
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * stria terminalis
Indicate structure that represent structure of lateral ventricle
A. mesencephalon
B. spinal cord
C. medulla oblongata
D. pons
E. * foramen interventriculare
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * cortex cerebelli
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
968.
969.
970.
971.
972.
973.
974.
975.
976.
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * metathalamus
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * lobus cerebelli posterior
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * cortex cerebelli
Name structure that doesn’t take part in formation of corpus callosum
A. rostrum
B. radiatio corporis callosi
C. truncus corporis callosi
D. splenium corporis callosi
E. * metathalamus
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. medulla spinalis
D. cerebellum
E. * lamina
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. medulla spinalis
D. cerebellum
E. * cavum
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. medulla spinalis
D. cerebellum
E. * nucleus septalis dorsalis
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. medulla spinalis
D. cerebellum
E. * nucleus septofimbrialis
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. medulla spinalis
D. cerebellum
E. * nucleus triangularis
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. medulla spinalis
977.
978.
979.
980.
981.
982.
983.
984.
985.
D. cerebellum
E. * lamina
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. medulla spinalis
D. cerebellum
E. * nucleus septalis precommissuralis
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. medulla spinalis
D. cerebellum
E. * nucleus septalis lateralis
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. medulla spinalis
D. cerebellum
E. * organum subfornicale
Name structure that takes part in formation of septum pellucidum
A. pons
B. medulla oblongata
C. medulla spinalis
D. cerebellum
E. * nucleus septofimbrialis
?The axones of first neuron of lateral corticospinal tract pass through:
A. * posterior limb of internal capsule
B. anterior limb of internal capsule
C. cerebellar superior peduncles
D. medulla oblongata
E. thalamus
The axones of third neuron of anterior spinothalamic tract pass through:
A. anterior limb of internal capsule
B. cerebellar superior peduncles
C. * posterior limb of internal capsule
D. medulla oblongata
E. thalamus
?The corpus callosum connects the:
A. hypothalamus to the pons.
B. cerebellum to the pons and medulla.
C. lateral lobes of the cerebellum.
D. the calluses on the palms of your hands.
E. * right and left cerebral hemispheres
The first neuron (axon) of anterior corticospinal tract is located in:
A. Postcentral gyrus
B. Anterior horn of spinal cord
C. Anterior funiculus of spinal cord
D. Red nucleus
E. * Precentral gyrus
The first neuron (axon) of lateral corticospinal tract passes through:
A. Extrema capsule
B. Lentiform nucleus
C. Claustrum
986.
987.
988.
989.
990.
991.
992.
993.
994.
D. External capsule
E. * Internal capsule
The first neuron (axon) of rubrospinal tract is terminated in:
A. Postcentral gyrus
B. Anterior funiculus of spinal cord
C. Red nucleus
D. Precentral gyrus
E. * Anterior horn of spinal cord
The first neuron (body) of anterior corticospinal tract is located in:
A. Spinal ganglion
B. Anterior horn of spinal cord
C. Lateral funiculus of spinal cord
D. Medulla oblongata
E. * Precentral gyrus
The first neuron axon of Golla’s tract is terminated in:
A. Lentiform nucleus
B. Posterior horn of spinal cord
C. Thalamus
D. Postcentral gyrus
E. * Medulla oblongata
The first neuron axon of latelal spinothalamic tract is terminated in:
A. Spinal ganglion
B. Nucleus of thalamus
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Postcentral gyrus
E. * Posterior horn of spinal cord
The limbic system includes the
A. spinal cord and brain.
B. cerebellum and brain stem.
C. cortex and corpus callosum
D. A and D
E. * amygdala and hippocampus
The principal connection between the cerebral hemispheres is
A. The pons
B. The fornix
C. The brainstem
D. The cerebral peduncles
E. * The corpus callosum
The second neuron (body) of lateral corticospinal tract is located in:
A. Spinal ganglion
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Lateral funiculus of spinal cord
D. Precentral gyrus
E. * Anterior horn of spinal cord
The second neuron axon of Burdach’s tract is terminated in:
A. Spinal ganglion
B. Posterior horn of spinal cord
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Postcentral gyrus
E. * Nucleus of thalamus
The second neuron axon of latelal spinothalamic tract is terminated in:
A. Spinal ganglion
B. Posterior horn of spinal cord
C. Internal capsule
D. Postcentral gyrus
E. * Nucleus of thalamus
995.
What's the name of the pain and temperature sensitivity pathway?
A. Tractus spinothalamicus ventralis
B. * Tractus spinothalamicus lateralis
C. Tractus bulbothalamicus
D. Tractus spinocerebellaris ventralis
E. Tractus spinocerebellaris dorsalis
996.
Where are located the bodies of the second neuron of proprioceptive
sensitivity tract?
A. In the anterior thalamic nucleus
B. * In a gracilis and cuneatus nuclei of medulla
C. In the lateral dorsal thalamic nucleus
D. In cortex cells of vermis
E. In the posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus
997.
Where are located the bodies of the third neuron of anterior spinalthalamic
tract?
A. In front thalamic nucleus
B. In a gracilis nuclei of medulla
C. * In the lateral dorsal thalamic nucleus
D. In cortex cells of vermis
E. In the dorsal nucleus of the hypothalamus
998.
Where are located the bodies of the third neuron of anterior spinalthalamic
tract?
A. In the anterior thalamic nucleus
B. In a gracilis and cuneatus nuclei of medulla
C. * In the lateral dorsal thalamic nucleus
D. In cortex cells of vermis
E. In the posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus
999.
Where are located the receptors of lateral spinalthalamic tract?
A. In the tendon, ligamentous
B. Muscle
C. * In the skin, mucous membranes
D. In the articular capsule
E. In the retina
1000.
Where are located the receptors of lateral spinalthalamic tract?
A. Muscle
B. In the tendon, ligamentes
C. In the articular capsule
D. In the retina
E. * In the skin, mucous membranes
1001.
Where is lateral corticospinal tract moving to the opposite side?
A. * In the lower medulla oblongata
B. In spinal cord segments
C. cerebellar inferior peduncles
D. cerebral peduncles
E. With oil medulla
1002.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum pellucidum
A. nucleus septalis precommissuralis
B. nucleus septalis dorsalis
C. nucleus septalis lateralis
D. nucleus septalis medialis
E. * pons
1003.
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum pellucidum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1004.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1005.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1006.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1007.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1008.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1009.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1010.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1011.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1012.
nucleus septalis precommissuralis
nucleus septalis dorsalis
nucleus septalis lateralis
nucleus septalis medialis
* medulla oblongata
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum pellucidum
nucleus septalis precommissuralis
nucleus septalis dorsalis
nucleus septalis lateralis
nucleus septalis medialis
* grey matter of thalamus
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum pellucidum
nucleus septalis precommissuralis
nucleus septalis dorsalis
nucleus septalis lateralis
nucleus septalis medialis
* white matter of thalamus
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum pellucidum
nucleus septalis precommissuralis
nucleus septalis dorsalis
nucleus septalis lateralis
nucleus septalis medialis
* nucleus lentiformis
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum pellucidum
nucleus septalis precommissuralis
nucleus septalis dorsalis
nucleus septalis lateralis
nucleus septalis medialis
* corpus striatum
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum pellucidum
nucleus septalis precommissuralis
nucleus septalis dorsalis
nucleus septalis lateralis
nucleus septalis medialis
* nervus olfactorius
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum pellucidum
nucleus septalis precommissuralis
nucleus septalis dorsalis
nucleus septalis lateralis
nucleus septalis medialis
* nervus trigeminus
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum pellucidum
nucleus septalis precommissuralis
nucleus septalis dorsalis
nucleus septalis lateralis
nucleus septalis medialis
* pons
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum pellucidum
nucleus septalis precommissuralis
nucleus septalis dorsalis
nucleus septalis lateralis
nucleus septalis medialis
* medulla spinalis
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum pellucidum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1013.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1014.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1015.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1016.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1017.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1018.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1019.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1020.
A.
B.
C.
D.
nucleus septalis precommissuralis
nucleus septalis dorsalis
nucleus septalis lateralis
nucleus septalis medialis
* grey matter of thalamus
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum pellucidum
nucleus septalis precommissuralis
nucleus septalis dorsalis
nucleus septalis lateralis
nucleus septalis medialis
* white matter of thalamus
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum pellucidum
nucleus septalis precommissuralis
nucleus septalis dorsalis
nucleus septalis lateralis
nucleus septalis medialis
* optic nerve
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum pellucidum
nucleus septalis precommissuralis
nucleus septalis dorsalis
nucleus septalis lateralis
nucleus septalis medialis
* capsula interna
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum pellucidum
nucleus septalis precommissuralis
nucleus septalis dorsalis
nucleus septalis lateralis
nucleus septalis medialis
* corpus striatum
Which of the following doesn’t take part in formation of septum pellucidum
nucleus septalis precommissuralis
nucleus septalis dorsalis
nucleus septalis lateralis
nucleus septalis medialis
* nervus olfactorius
Which of the following is not found in the hindbrain?
fourth ventricle
cerebellum
medulla oblongata
pons
* lateral ventricles
Which of the pathways are exteroreceptive?
ventralis tractus bulbothalamicus
tractus pyramidalis
* tractus spinothalamicus lateralis, tractus spinothalamicus
tractus spinocerebellaris ventralis
tractus spinocerebellaris dorsalis
Which of these is/are “true”?
all of the above
the fourth ventricle is a diamond-shaped expansion of the central canal
within the brainstem
the third ventricle is a thin chamber lying below the corpus callosum and
septum pellucidum
none of the above
E. * the lateral ventricles are two cavities, one in each cerebral hemisphere
What from meningeal covers have no vesels?
A. Pia
B. Middle
C. Internal
D. Dura
E. * Arachnoidea
1022.
All of the following affirmations relatively to the function of the watery
moisture are true except the…
A. Filling anterior chamber of eyeball
B. Filling posterior chamber of eyeball
C. * Produce by crystalline lens
D. Constantly washing the crystalline lens
E. Flow out to the sinus venous of sclera
1023.
All of the following affirmations relatively to the function of the watery
moisture are true except the…
A. Filling anterior chamber of eyeball
B. Filling posterior chamber of eyeball
C. Flow out to the sinus venous of sclera
D. Constantly washing the crystalline lens
E. * None of these
1024.
?An arterial circle of the brain is create by the following arteries…
A. Main,spinal,internal carotid and back connecting
B. Frontal,middle, and back cerebral,main and frontal connecting
C. Middle cerebral,frontal and back connecting,internal carotid
D. * Frontal and back cerebral,frontal and back connecting,internal carotid
E. Frontal,middle and back cerebral,back connecting
1025.
An arterial circle of the brain is create by the following arteries…
A. Main, spinal, internal carotid and back connecting
B. Frontal,middle, and back cerebral,main and frontal connecting
C. Middle cerebral,frontal and back connecting,internal carotid
D. Frontal,middle and back cerebral,back connecting
E. * None of above
1026.
Cilliary muscle formed by…
A. * Smooth musclefibres
B. Striated muscle fibres
C. On 1/3 from smooth and 2/3 from striated muscle fibres
D. On 2/3 from smooth and 1/3 from striated muscle fibres
E. On 2/3 from nonstriated muscle fibres
1027.
Corpus vitrous located between the…
A. * Crystalline lens and internal surface of retina
B. Cornea and iris
C. Iris and crystalline lens
D. Conjunctiva and cornea
E. Conjunctiva and crystalline lens
1028.
Corpus vitrous located between the…
A. In vitrous fossa
B. Cornea and iris
C. Iris and crystalline lens
D. Conjunctiva and cornea
E. * None of these
1029.
Derivatives of pia mater are the…
A. Big and small sinuses
B. Cistern
1021.
C. * Vascular bases of 3 and 4 ventricles
D. Diaphragm of tentorium
E. Phalciphorme proccesus
1030.
Epidural cavity locate between the next structures…
A. * Bone of spinal columna ,and dura mater
B. Dura mater and arachnoidea covers
C. Dura mater and vascular covers
D. Arachnoidea and vascular covers
E. Dura mater and central canal
1031.
Every analyser include the…
A. * Peripheral apparatus,trackts,nevral center in the core of the brain
B. Trackts
C. Nevral center in the core of the brain
D. Connections between nevral centers
E. Subcortical centers
1032.
Every analyser include the…
A. Subcortical centers
B. Trackts
C. Nevral center in the core of the brain
D. Connections between nevral centers
E. * None of these
1033.
Focussing the light rays involves which of the following?
A. change in the location of the optic disc
B. change in the shape of the cornea
C. change in the relative position of the lens
D. change in the density of the aqueous humor
E. * change in the shape of the lens
1034.
Glaucoma is a condition:
A. characterized by encrustations on the eyelids.
B. results eventually in opacity of the lens or cornea.
C. which may be caused by exposure to ultraviolet (U/V) light.
D. in which the conjunctiva is inflamed due to irritants such as dust or smoke.
E. * characterized by abnormally high intraocular pressure
1035.
How mach covers has central brain?
A. 2
B. * 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
1036.
If drainage of aqueous humor is blocked at the canal of Schlemm, what
condition results?
A. iritis
B. cataract
C. blepharitis
D. conjunctivitis
E. * glaucoma
1037.
In what succession are distributed meninges of the brain?
A. Pia mater,dura mater ,arachnoidea
B. * Dura mater,pia mater, arachnoidea
C. Dura mater,arachnoidea,pia mater
D. Dura mater,arachnoidea,middle
E. Arachnoidea,middle,internal
1038.
In the eyeball are select…
A. * Anterior and posterior pole
B.
C.
D.
E.
Posterior pole
Upper pole
Lower pole
Medial pole
1039.
In the region of central fossae of retina are concentrate…
A. * Only cones
B. Only rods
C. Both rods and cones
D. Layer of pigmental cells
E. Orra cerrata
1040.
In the region of central fossae of retina are concentrate…
A. Retina layer
B. Only rods
C. Both rods and cones
D. Layer of pigmental cells
E. * None of these
1041.
Internal axe of eyeball names…
A. * Line that joint back surface of cornea and retina
B. Line that joint the most convexed dots of crystaline lens
C. Line that joint cornea and crystalline lens
D. Line that joint crystaline lens and retina
E. Line that joint crystalline lens and iris
1042.
Internal axe of eyeball names…
A. Line that joint back surface of cornea and iris
B. Line that joint the most convex dots of crystalline lens
C. Line that joint cornea and crystalline lens
D. Line that joint crystalline lens and iris
E. * None of above
1043.
Meningitis can be develop in consequence of progressing of the infected
trombone frome nose to the…
A. Upper sagital sinus
B. * Cavernosus sinus
C. Sigmoid sinus
D. Lower sagital sinus
E. Transverse sinus
1044.
Middle brain receive blood from…
A. Internal carotid artery
B. Middle carotid artery
C. Back brain artery
D. * Basilar artery
E. Ponds artery
1045.
On the boundary of the cornea and in the thickness of the sclera lies down
the…
A. * Sinus venosus of sc lerae (shlemm chanal)
B. Venous sulcus
C. Arterial sulcus
D. Ora cerrata
E. Comb ligament
1046.
On the boundary of the cornea and in the thickness of the sclera lies down
the…
A. Comb ligament
B. Venous sulcus
C. Arterial sulcus
D. Ora cerrata
1047.
1048.
1049.
1050.
1051.
1052.
1053.
1054.
1055.
E. * None of these
The middle thickened part of vascular cover of the eyeball is named…
A. * Ciliar body
B. Iris
C. Sclera
D. Cornea
E. Retina
The middle thickened part of vascular cover of the eyeball is named…
A. Iris
B. Sclera
C. Cornea
D. Retina
E. * None of these
The anterior artery of vascular plexus go off from…
A. External carotid artery
B. * Internal carotid artery
C. Basilar artery
D. Back brain artery
E. Middle brain artery
The anterior artery of vascular plexus go off from…
A. External carotid artery
B. Middle brain artery
C. Basilar artery
D. Back brain artery
E. * None of these
The anterior eye’s chamber founded between the…
A. * Cornea and anterior surface of iris
B. Conjunctiva and cornea
C. Crystalline lens and iris
D. Iris and retina
E. Cornea and internal surface of iris
The anterior eye’s chamber founded between the…
A. Cornea and internal surface of iris
B. Conjunctiva and cornea
C. Crystalline lens and iris
D. Iris and retina
E. * None of these
The anterior part of fibrous cover of the eyeball is named…
A. Pupil
B. * Cornea
C. Vitrous body
D. Iris
E. Retina
The anterior part of fibrous cover of the eyeball is named…
A. Pupil
B. Retina
C. Vitrous body
D. Iris
E. * None of these
The anterior part of vascular plexus is named…
A. * Iris
B. Ciliary body
C. Cornea
D. Sclera
1056.
1057.
1058.
1059.
1060.
1061.
1062.
1063.
1064.
E. Pupil
The anterior part of vascular plexus is named…
A. Pupil
B. Ciliary body
C. Cornea
D. Sclera
E. * None of these
The area of the retina containing only cone cells is the:
A. optic disc.
B. .uvea
C. blind spot.
D. b and d are correct.
E. * fovea centralis
The artery vertebrallis pass to the cavity of the skull trough the…
A. Aristate foramen
B. Foramen rotundum
C. * Big occipital foramen
D. Foramen ovale
E. None of these
The back part of fibrous cover of the eyeball is named…
A. Iris
B. Cornea
C. * Sclera
D. Retina
E. Vitrous body
The back part of fibrous cover of the eyeball is named…
A. Iris
B. Cornea
C. Vitrous body
D. Retina
E. * None of these
The back part of vascular cover of the eyeball is named…
A. * Proper vascular cover
B. Ciliaris body
C. Ciliaris muscle
D. Ciliaris circle
E. Iris
The back part of vascular cover of the eyeball is named…
A. Iris
B. Ciliaris body
C. Ciliaris muscle
D. Ciliaris circle
E. * None of these
The back artery of the brain go off from the…
A. Back connecting artery
B. Internal carotid artery
C. * Spinal artery
D. Frontal brain artery
E. Middle brain artery
The back chamber of eyeball locate between the…
A. * Iris and crystalline lens
B. Cornea and iris
C. Conjunctivae and cornea
D. Crystalline lens and retina
1065.
1066.
1067.
1068.
1069.
1070.
1071.
1072.
1073.
E. Crystalline lens and cornea
The back chamber of eyeball locate between the…
A. Conjunctivae and crystalline lens
B. Cornea and iris
C. Conjunctivae and cornea
D. Crystalline lens and retina
E. * None of these
The back connecting artery go off from the…
A. External carotid artery
B. * Internal carotid artery
C. Basilar artery
D. Back brain artery
E. Middle brain artery
The basilar artery walk away from the…
A. Back connecting artery
B. Internal carotid artery
C. * Spinal artery
D. Frontal cerebral artery
E. Middle cerebral artery
The cerebrospinal liqud getting to subarachnoid space from the…
A. Arachnoid granulations
B. Vascular plexus
C. * Fourth ventricle
D. Aqueduct cerebri
E. Third ventricle
The cerebrospinal liqud getting to subarachnoid space from the…
A. Arachnoid granulations
B. Vascular plexus
C. Third ventricle
D. Aqueduct cerebri
E. * None of these
The cerebrospinal liquid is find in the…
A. Epidermal space
B. Subdural space
C. * Subarachnoid space
D. In central canal
E. Epidural space
The cerebrospinal liquid is find in the…
A. Epidermal space
B. Subdural space
C. Epidural space
D. In central canal
E. * None of these
The cerebrospinal liquid return to the venous system with the help of…
A. Cerebral veins
B. * Arachnoid granulations
C. Vascular plexus
D. Aqueduct cerebrum
E. Opening in 3-d ventricle
The cerebrospinal liquid return to the venous system with the help of…
A. Cerebral veins
B. Opening in 4-th ventricle
C. Vascular plexus
D. Aqueduct cerebrum
E. * None of these
The constriction of the muscle ciliaris stipulate the…
A. * Accommodation of the eye
B. Adaptation of the eye
C. Convergention of the eye
D. Nistagm of the eye
E. Correction of the eye
1075.
The covers of the eyeball are…
A. * Outer fibrous,middle vascular,internal sensitive
B. Middle vascular
C. Internal sensitive
D. Middle muscular
E. Internal mucous cover
1076.
The covers of the eyeball are…
A. Internal mucous cover
B. Middle vascular
C. Internal sensitive
D. Middle muscular
E. * None of these
1077.
The crystalline lens fixed to the cilliary body by the…
A. * Cilliary ligament
B. Comb ligament
C. Crown ligament,muscle that constrict pupil
D. Muscle that dilate pupil
E. Ora cerrata
1078.
The crystalline lens fixed to the cilliary body by the…
A. Ora cerrata
B. Comb ligament
C. Crown ligament,muscle that constrict pupil
D. Muscle that dilate pupil
E. * None of these
1079.
The crystalline lens has form of the…
A. * Biconvex lens
B. Biconcave lens
C. Disc 4-mm thick
D. Sphere
E. Cylinder
1080.
The doctor made punction at patient with meningeal symptoms,what was
puncted?
A. * Spatium subarachnoideum
B. Spatium subdurale
C. Spatium epidurale
D. Cavumtrigeminale
E. Cistern cerebellomedularis posterior
1081.
The doctor made punction at patient with meningeal symptoms,what was
puncted?
A. Cisterna cerebellomedularis posterior
B. Spatium subdurale
C. Spatium epidurale
D. Cavum trigeminale
E. * None of these
1082.
The external axle of eye is named…
A. * The line that connect anterior and back pole
B. The line that connect upper and lower pole
1074.
1083.
1084.
1085.
1086.
1087.
1088.
1089.
1090.
1091.
C. The line that connect middle and lateral pole
D. The line that connect anterior and upper pole
E. The line that connect back and lower pole
The external axle of eye is named…
A. The line that connect upper and back pole
B. The line that connect upper and lower pole
C. The line that connect middle and lateral pole
D. The line that connect anterior and upper pole
E. * None of these
The eye is consist from…
A. * Eyeball and optic nerve with it’scovers
B. Optic nerve with it’s covers
C. Hiasma
D. Optic trackt
E. Fissure calcanea
The eye is consist from…
A. Fissure calcanea
B. Optic nerve with it’s covers
C. Hiasma
D. Optic trackt
E. * None of these
The focal distance at long-sighted patients is…
A. * Longer than internal axle of eyeball
B. Shorte than internal axle of eyeball
C. The same that internal axle
D. Don’t get on the internal axle ofeyeball
E. All of above
The focal distance at short-sighted patients is…
A. Longer than internal axle of eyeball
B. * Shorter than internal axle of eyeball
C. The same that internal axle
D. Don’t get on the internal axle ofeyeball
E. All of above
The inner menix in contact with the brain is
A. The choroid
B. The dura mater encephali
C. The dura mater spinalis
D. The arachnoid mater
E. * The pia mater
The inner menix in contact with the brain is
A. The dura mater
B. The arachnoid mater
C. The choroid
D. All answers are right
E. * The pia mater
The internal (sensitive) cover of eyeball names…
A. * Retina
B. Cornea
C. Iris
D. Ependima
E. Sclerae
The macula of retina is named …
A. * A Region on the discus of the optic nerve
B. Central fossa
1092.
1093.
1094.
1095.
1096.
1097.
1098.
1099.
1100.
C. Layer of pigment cells
D. Ora cerrata
E. Region of iris
The macula of retina is named …
A. Region of iris
B. Central fossa
C. Layer of pigment cells
D. Ora cerrata
E. * None of these
The middle artery of brain go off from the…
A. External carotid artery
B. * Internal carotid artery
C. Basilar artery
D. Back brain artery
E. Anterior artery of vascular plexus
The nucleus of the eyeball is formed from the…
A. * Aqueous liquor of the anterior and posterior chambers,crystalline
lens,vitrous body
B. Crystalline lens
C. Vitrous body
D. Cilliary body
E. Sclera
The nucleus of the eyeball is formed from the…
A. Aqueous liquor
B. Crystalline lens
C. Vitrous body
D. Cilliary body
E. * None of these
The opening in the center io iris named…
A. * Pupil
B. Optic fissure
C. Optic canal
D. Internal optic way
E. External optic way
The opening in the center io iris named…
A. Foramen
B. Optic fissure
C. Optic canal
D. Internal optic way
E. * None of these
The ophthalmic artery pass into the orbit through…
A. Upper orbital fissure
B. Lower orbital fissure
C. * Optic canal
D. Acustic meatus
E. None of these
The optic disc marks the:
A. most optically sensitive point of the retina.
B. .the region in the retina where the ganglion cells are located.
C. junction between the iris and the ciliary body
D. the latest recording techniques on CDs
E. * exit of the Optic nerve, II
The organ of vision include…
A. Fissure calcanea
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Eyeball and accessory parts of it
Accessory parts of eyeball
Hiasma of optic nerve
Optic trackt
1101.
The organ of vision include…
A. Fissure calcanea
B. Optic trackt
C. Accessory parts of eyeball
D. Hiasma of optic nerve
E. * None of these
1102.
The organ of vision locatedain…
A. * Fossa oculus
B. Optic canal
C. Upper fissure oculus
D. Frontal cranial fossa
E. Occipital part of brain
1103.
The organ of vision perceive…
A. * Light
B. Sounde
C. Taste
D. Smell
E. Sense
1104.
The organ of vision perceive…
A. Change of position
B. Sounde
C. Taste
D. Smell
E. * None of these
1105.
The outer fibrous coating of the eyeball is the:
A. ciliary body.
B. retina.
C. choroid.
D. none of the above
E. * sclera
1106.
The part’s of vascular plexus of the eyeball are exept…
A. Muscle ciliaris
B. * Sclera,cornea
C. Proprea vascular plexus
D. Cilliary body
E. Iris
1107.
The patient has an inflammation of internal ear with lesion of meningeal
coversбвщсещк supposed that infection spread trough the…
A. * Aqueducts vestibule
B. Fossa subarcuata
C. Hiatus canalis n. petrosi majoris
D. Hiatus canalis n.petrosi minoris
E. Fissure petrosquamosa
1108.
The patient has trauma of soft tissues and parietal bones at the region of
arrow-shaped seam,what structure may be damaged?
A. * Middle pole
B. Posterior pole
C. Upper pole
D. Lower pole
E. None of these
F.
G.
H.
I.
J.
K.
ANSWER: E
Superior sagittal sinus
Sinus transverses
Sinus petrosus superior
Sinus rectus
Inferior sagittal sinus
1109.
The patient has trauma of soft tissues and parietal bones at the region of
arrow-shaped seam,what structure may be damaged?
A. Inferior sagittal sinus
B. Sinus transverses
C. Sinus petrosus superior
D. Sinus rectus
E. * None of these
1110.
The patient has trauma of the arch of skull,whath sinuses may be damaged?
A. * Superior sagittal
B. Superior petrosus
C. Inferior petrosus
D. Inferior sagittal
E. Sigmoid
1111.
The photoreceptors in the eye are found in the:
A. choroid coat.
B. cornea.
C. sclera.
D. all of the above
E. * retina
1112.
The sphincter of pupil is..
A. * Placed circular and innervate by nucleus of the 3-d pair nerve
B. Innervate by nucleus of the 3-d pair nerve
C. Innervate by nucleus of the 9-th pair nerve
D. Take innervations from spinociliaris center
E. Placed horizontal
1113.
The substance of the crystalline lens is…
A. Colourless and soft
B. Transparent and smooth
C. * Solid,colourless andtransparent
D. Don’t have vessels and nerves
E. Have nerves and vessels
1114.
The substance of the crystalline lens is…
A. Colourless and soft
B. Transparent and smooth
C. Have vessels and nerves
D. Don’t have vessels and nerves
E. * None of these
1115.
The transparent anterior portion of the sclera is the:
A. choroid.
B. retina.
C. ciliary body
D. A and B
E. * cornea
1116.
The visual axle of eyeball connect the…
A. * Anterior pole and central fossa of retina
B. Back surface ofcornea and retina
C. Anterior and back poles
D. Crystalline lens and retina
1117.
1118.
1119.
1120.
1121.
1122.
1123.
1124.
1125.
E. Upper and lower poles
The visual axle of eyeball connect the…
A. Upper and lower poles
B. Back surface ofcornea and retina
C. Anterior and back poles
D. Crystalline lens and retina
E. * None of these
The watery moisture create in…
A. * Processes of ciliary body
B. Sinus venousus of sclera
C. Proper vascular cover
D. Arterial circle of iris
E. Central artery of retina
The watery moisture create in…
A. Chroid plexus
B. Sinus venosus of sclera
C. Proper vascular cover
D. Arterial circle of iris
E. * None of above
To the group of contact analysers are carried the next…
A. Analyser of visceral sensitivity
B. Analyser of taste
C. * Analyser of pain,temperature and sensor sensitivity
D. Analyser of muscle-joint sensitivity
E. Analyser of hearing
To the group of distant analysers are carried the next…
A. Analyser of visceral sensitivity
B. Analyser of taste sensitivity
C. Analyser of muscle-joint sensitivity
D. Analyser of pain,temperature and sensor sensitivity
E. * None of these
To the group of the distant analysers are carried next…
A. * Analyser of smell,hearing and sight
B. Analyser of muscle-joint sensitivity
C. Analyser of pain,temperature and sensor sensitivity
D. Analyser of taste sensitivity
E. Analyser of visceral sensitivity
Trough what opening fourth ventricle connected with third.?
A. Monrouey
B. * Silviev aqueduct
C. Lushka
D. Majendi
E. Forel
Trough what opening fourth ventricle connected with subarachnoid space?
A. Monrouey
B. Silviev aqueduct
C. * Lushka
D. Pirogov
E. Forel
Trough what opening lateral ventricle connected with third.
A. * Monrouey
B. Silvieu aqueduct
C. Lushka
D. Majendi
1126.
1127.
1128.
1129.
1130.
1131.
1132.
1133.
1134.
E. Forel
What does ora serrata separate?
A. choroidea and cornea
B. choroidea and sclera
C. retina and choroidea
D. iris and ciliary body
E. * parts of the retina
What does produce the aquosus humor of the eye ?
A. Ora serrata
B. Zonula ciliaris
C. Pectinate ligaments
D. Iridocorneal angle
E. * Ciliary processes
What does produce the aquosus humor of the eye ?
A. Ora serrata
B. Zonula ciliaris
C. Pectinate ligaments
D. Iridocorneal angle
E. * Ciliary processes
What does produce the cerebrospinal fluid ?
A. Pia mater
B. Spinal cord
C. Arachnoid granulations
D. Choroid plexus
E. * Dural sinus
What does produce the cerebrospinal fluid ?
A. Dural sinus
B. Pia mater
C. Spinal cord
D. Arachnoid granulations
E. * Choroid plexus
What does pupil contain?
A. light
B. lens
C. lens
D. cones and rods
E. * aquosus humor
What from meningeal covers is the most solid?
A. Pia
B. Middle
C. Internal
D. * Dura
E. Arachnoidea
What from the next arteries is not pass from internal carotid artery?
A. Posterior connective artery
B. Anterior artery of vascular plexus
C. * Basilar artery
D. Anterior brain artery
E. Posterior brain artery
What is responsible for accomodation of the lens ?
A. Sphincter muscle
B. Dilator muscle
C. Pupil
D. Pectinate ligament
E. * Ciliary muscle
What is the name of the external cover of the eyeball?
A. Retina
B. Cornea
C. Vascular
D. * Fibrose
E. Iris
1136.
What makes up the outermost tunic of the eye?
A. cornea and ciliary body
B. choroid and sclera
C. retina and ora serrata
D. choroid and iris
E. * cornea and sclera
1137.
What part of the retina contains only cones and is the area of greatest visual
acuity?
A. ciliary body
B. ora serrata
C. optic disk
D. none of the above
E. * fovea centralis
1138.
When a bright light shines in the eye, what reflex action takes place?
A. extrinsic eye muscles contract
B. ciliary bodies secrete tears
C. ciliary muscles contract
D. radial muscles of the iris contract
E. * circular muscles of the iris contract
1139.
Where are cavernous sinuses of the dura mater positioned ?
A. temporal pyramid
B. lesser wing
C. falx cerebri
D. clivus
E. * sellae diaphragm
1140.
Where does aquosus humor pass to the scleral sinus from?
A. posterior chamber
B. anterior chamber
C. ciliary processes
D. pupilla
E. * iridocorneal angle spaces
1141.
Where does spinocerebral fluid circulate?
A. Epidural space
B. Interpeduncular fossa
C. Between dura mater and vertebrae
D. Between pia mater and spinal cord
E. * Subarachnoidal space
1142.
Where is aquosus humor secreted ?
A. iridocorneal angle spaces
B. anterior chamber
C. posterior chamber
D. pupilla
E. * ciliary processes
1143.
Where is cerebrospinal fluid found?
A. ventricles and pial space
B. lymph and the subarachnoid space
C. ventricles and subdural space
1135.
1144.
1145.
1146.
1147.
1148.
1149.
1150.
1151.
1152.
D. orbit and subarachnoid space
E. * ventricles and subarachnoid space
Where is diaphragm of the dura mater positioned?
A. clivus
B. greater wing
C. lesser wing
D. falx cerebri
E. * sphenoid body
Where is positioned arterial Willis circle?
A. Thalamencephalon
B. Interpeduncular fossa
C. Sulcus cirsularis
D. Brainstem
E. * Hypothalamus
Where organ of vision is situate?
A. * In the fossa occulus
B. In the occulus canal
C. In the upper part of fossa occulus fissure
D. In the anterior cranial fossa
E. In the back part of cerebrum
Which artery does not form Willis circle?
A. A Anterior communicating artery
B. B Posterior communicating artery
C. C Anterior cerebral artery
D. E Posterior cerebral artery
E. * D Middle cerebral artery
Which correct order of light passage within eyeball?
A. retina-lens-vitreous body-posterior chamber
B. vitreous body-lens-posterior chamber-retina
C. posterior chamber-vitreous body -lens -retina
D. lens-retina-vitreous body-posterior chamber
E. * posterior chamber-lens-vitreous body-retina
Which parts of the brain does anterior cerebral artery supply ?
A. Parietal and temporal lobes
B. Temporal and occipital lobes
C. Insula and occipital lobes
D. Frontal and occipital lobes
E. * Frontal and parietal lobes
Which parts of the brain does posterior cerebral artery supply ?
A. Frontal and parietal lobes
B. Insula and occipital lobes
C. Frontal and occipital lobes
D. Parietal and temporal lobes
E. * Temporal and occipital lobes
Which sinus empties to internal jugular vein?
A. superior petrosus
B. inferior petrosus
C. inferior sagittal
D. straight
E. * sigmoid
Which sinus located on the border of anterior and middle cranial fossae?
A. Superior sagittal
B. inferior sagittal
C. Superior petrous
1153.
1154.
1155.
1156.
1157.
1158.
1159.
1160.
1161.
D. inferior petrous
E. * Sphenoparietal
Which sinus located on the border of anterior and middle cranial fassae?
A. inferior sagittal
B. Superior sagittal
C. Superior petrous
D. inferior petrous
E. * Sphenoparietal
Which sinus located on the border of posterior and middle cranial fossae?
A. Inferior sagittal
B. Sigmoid
C. Superior sagittal
D. Inferior petrous
E. * Superior petrous
Which sinus located on the border of posterior and middle cranial fassae?
A. Superior sagittal
B. Inferior sagittal
C. Sigmoid
D. Inferior petrous
E. * Superior petrous
Which sinus receive ophtalmic veins?
A. Tranverse
B. Inferior sagittal
C. Sigmoid
D. Inferior petrous
E. * Cavernous
Which sinus receive ophtalmiv veins?
A. Inferior sagittal
B. Sigmoid
C. Cavernous
D. Inferior petrous
E. * Tranverse
Which vessel does not take part in Willi’s circle?
A. Anterior spinal artery
B. Anterior communicating artery
C. Posterior cerebral artery
D. Basilar artery
E. * Anterior cerebral artery
Which vessel does not take part in Willi’s circle?
A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Anterior communicating artery
C. Posterior cerebral artery
D. Basilar artery
E. * Anterior spinal artery
Which vessels supply the temporal and occipital cerebral lobes?
A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Anterior communicating artery
D. Posterior communicating artery
E. * Posterior cerebral artery
Which vessels supply the temporal and occipital cerebral lobes?
A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Anterior communicating artery
1162.
1163.
1164.
1165.
1166.
1167.
1168.
1169.
1170.
D. Posterior communicating artery
E. * Posterior cerebral artery
Which vessels supply the temporal and parietal cerebral lobes?
A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Anterior communicating artery
C. Posterior cerebral artery
D. Posterior communicating artery
E. * Middle cerebral artery
Which vessels supply the temporal and parietal cerebral lobes?
A. Anterior cerebral artery
B. Anterior communicating artery
C. Posterior cerebral artery
D. Posterior communicating artery
E. * Middle cerebral artery
Which way of light within the eyeball?
A. Pupil, anterior chamber, cornea, lens, vitreous body, posterior chamber
B. Pupil, cornea, anterior chamber, posterior chamber, lens, vitreous body
C. Cornea, pupil, lens, anterior chamber, posterior chamber, vitreous body
D. Cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, lens, posterior chamber, vitreous body
E. * Cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, posterior chamber, lens, vitreous body
Which way of light within the eyeball?
A. Pupil, cornea, anterior chamber, posterior chamber, lens, vitreous body
B. Cornea, pupil, lens, anterior chamber, posterior chamber, vitreous body
C. Cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, posterior chamber, lens, vitreous body
D. Cornea, anterior chamber, pupil, lens, posterior chamber, vitreous body
E. * Pupil, anterior chamber, cornea, lens, vitreous body, posterior chamber
Branches of what cells are formed optic nerve?
A. Rods
B. Cones
C. Bipolar
D. * Ganglions
E. Pseudounipolar
Chiasma optic is formed by fibres of the…
A. * 2-d pair of cranial nerves
B. Fibers of medial loop
C. Fibers of hearing loop
D. Fibers of 3-d pair of cranial nerves
E. Reticular formation
Crystalline lens has form of …
A. * Biconvex lens
B. Biconcave lens
C. Disc
D. Ball
E. Cylinder
?Damage to which cranial nerve(s) may impair the sense of taste?
A. (1)VII Facial
B. (2)IX Glossopharyngeal
C. (3)XII Hypoglossal
D. (1), (2), and (3) above are correct
E. * only(1) and (2) are correct
From what artery take blood supply vestibulo- cochlear organ?
A. A.subclavia
B. A.facialis
C. A. brahialis
D. * A.carotis externa
E. A.carotis interna
1171.
From what layers skin is formed?
A. Epidermis
B. Derma
C. Subcutaneous base
D. * Epidermis ,derma, subcutaneous base
E. Epidermis, derma
1172.
From what sensor ganglion pass peripheral fibres to the back one-third of
tongue?
A. Root of facial nerve
B. Superior glossopharingeal nerve
C. * Inferior glossopharingeal nerve
D. Superior part of nervus vagus
E. Inferior part of nervus vagus
1173.
From what structures is formed bone labirint?
A. Canalis semicircularis,trochlea
B. Helix, antihelix
C. * Vestibulum,cochlea,canalis semicircularis
D. Canalis semicircularis,helix,antihelix
E. Semicircular ducts,utricle,saccule
1174.
From what structures is formed organ of hearing and balance?
A. External acustic meatus,acustic tube, internal ear
B. * External ear,middle ear,internal ear
C. Auriculae,middle ear,internal ear
D. Cochlea,sacculus,canalis semicircularis
E. External ear,external acustic meatus
1175.
From what structures is formed smell cerebrum?
A. * Central and peripheral
B. Central,middle and peripheral
C. Frontal and back
D. Frontal,middle and back
E. Middle and peripheral
1176.
From what structures is formed vestibular labirint?
A. Utricle
B. Sacculus
C. Ductus semicircular
D. * All the above
E. Endolimphatic duct
1177.
How many layers are distinued in the skin?
A. 1
B. * 2
C. 4
D. 5
E. 8
1178.
How many milk ducts are open on the nipple apex of mammary gland?
A. * 10-15
B. 2-3
C. 20-30
D. 10-11
E. 10-18
1179.
How many openings has canalis semicircularis in the membranous
vestibule?
A. 2
B.
C.
D.
E.
1180.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1181.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1182.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1183.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1184.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1185.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1186.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1187.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1188.
A.
3
4
*5
6
How many walls has cochlear duct?
*2
1
3
4
5
How many walls has timpanic cavity?
2
4
*6
7
8
How many walls has timpanic cavity?
2
4
3
7
* None of these
How is named back wall of the tympanic cavity?
Tegmental
Jugularis
Labyrinthal
* Mastoideus
Carotiis
How is named lateral wall of the tympanic cavity?
Tegmental
* Membranous
Jugularis
Mastoideus
Carotis
How is named lower wall of the tympanic cavity?
Tegmental
* Jugularis
Mastoideus
Labyrinthal
Carotis
How is named anterior wall of the tympanic cavity?
Tegmental
Jugularis
Labyrinthal
* Carotis
Mastoideus
How is named medial wall of the tympanic cavity?
Tegmental
Jugularis
* Labyrinthal
Mastoideus
Carotis
How is named pin of the cochlea?
Arch
B.
C.
D.
E.
1189.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1190.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1191.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1192.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1193.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1194.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1195.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1196.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1197.
A.
* Modiolus
Gear
Support
Base
How is named pin of the cochlea?
Arch
Base
Gear
Support
* None of these
How is named space between bone and membranouse labyrinth?
Epidural
Subdural
Subarachnoidal
* Perilymphatical
Endolymphatical
How is named top of the cochlea?
Arch
Roof
Covering
* Cupula
Cover
How many muscles are fasten to the eyeball?
3
3
5
*6
8
How many neurons of ophthalmic track are located intheretina?
3
2
*3
4
5
How many openings have vestibule of bone labirint?
3
5
6
*2
4
How many openings of canalis semicircularis have vestibule of bone labirint?
3
5
6
2
* None of these
How many rotations make canalis spiralis of cochlea?
3,4
5,1
4,0
* 2,5
3,8
How many semicircular canalis are in the internal part of the ear?
*3
B.
C.
D.
E.
1198.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1199.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1200.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1201.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1202.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1203.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1204.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1205.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1206.
A.
5
4
2
6
In what part of auricular there are no cartilage?
Helix
Anthelix
Tragus
Antitragus
* Lobules
In what succession from timpanic membrane hearing bones are placed?
Maleus,stapes,ileus
Ileus,maleus,stapes
* Maleus,ileus,stapes
Stapes,ileus,maleus
Stapes,maleus,ileus
In what wall continued timpanic cavity to the mastoid antrum?
Superior
Inferior
* Posterior
Medial
Anterior
In what wall continued timpanic cavity to the mastoid antrum?
Superior
Inferior
Anterior
Medial
* None of these
Internal ear consist from…
Tympanic cavity
Acustic tube
Tympanic membrane
Hearing bones
* Bone and membranous labirintes
Nervus opticus has all parts exept the…
Intracranial
Intracanalis
Optic fossa
* Anteriolaminarae
Pigment
Retraction of the ciliar muscle stipulate the…
* Accommodation of the eye
Adaptation of the eye
Convergention
Correction
None of these
Sensor nervous cells in the skin perceive the…
* Pressure,pain,temperature
Pain, sound
Temperature,
Taste of food
Change position
Sensor nervous cells in the skin perceive the…
Change position
B.
C.
D.
E.
Pain, sound
Temperature,
Taste of food
* None of these
1207.
Special sensitive devices of mucous cover of the tongue perceive the…
A. * Taste of food
B. Sound
C. Light
D. Smell
E. Change of position
1208.
Special sensitive devices of mucous cover of the tongue perceive the…
A. Change of position
B. Sound
C. Light
D. Smell
E. * None of these
1209.
The auditory (or Eustachian) tube is located between the:
A. throat and larynx
B. middle ear and inner ear.
C. throat and inner ear.
D. throat and trachea.
E. * throat and middle ear
1210.
The auditory ossicles are associated with the:
A. external ear
B. semicircular canals
C. cochlear duct
D. internal ear
E. * middle ear
1211.
The auditory tube is associated with the:
A. external ear.
B. semicircular canals.
C. cochlear duct.
D. internal ear
E. * middle ear
1212.
The cochlea is associated with the:
A. external ear
B. semicircular canals
C. Eustachian tube
D. middle ear
E. * internal ear
1213.
The conduction of a sound vibration from the middle ear to the inner ear is by
the vibration of the:
A. stapes in the round window.
B. malleus against the tympanic membrane.
C. stapes against the tympanic membrane.
D. incus in the round window.
E. * stapes in the oval window
1214.
The cristae ampullaris detect:
A. static equilibrium information
B. the energy flow in the mitochondria.
C. sound waves and convert them into nerve impulses
D. both a and c above are correct
E. * dynamic equilibrium information
1215.
The division of the 8th cranial nerve carrying information from the maculae
and christie is the _______ branch.
A. oculomotor
B. cochlear
C. olfactory
D. C and D
E. * vestibular
1216.
?The doctor want make punction of thoracic duct in the region of it
conrfluence to the venous system,where is it?
A. * Left venous angle
B. Right venous angle
C. Place of beginning vena cava superior
D. Place of beginning vena cava inferior
E. Place of beginning vena portae
1217.
The malleus, incus and stapes:
A. are surrounded by perilymph.
B. are parts of the organ of Corti.
C. are located in the inner ear.
D. both a and b above are correct.
E. * form a bridge between the tympanum and the oval window
1218.
The middle ear consist from the…
A. Canalis semicircularis lateralis
B. Utricle
C. Trabecule vestibulae
D. Sacculus
E. * None of these
1219.
The middle ear consist from the…
A. Canalis semicircularis lateralis
B. Utricle
C. * Stapes
D. Sacculus
E. Trabecule vestibulae
1220.
The middle, thick part of choroid cover of eyeball is named…
A. * Ciliar body
B. Iris
C. Sclera
D. Cornea
E. Retina
1221.
The olfactory cells are:
A. specialized to respond to taste.
B. found on the basilar membrane.
C. located in the taste buds
D. both a and b above are correct.
E. * ciliated neuro-epithelium cells
1222.
The olfactory pathways are closely tied to which system (emotional-visceral
part of the brain)?
A. reticular activating system
B. somatic motor system
C. optic system
D. vestibular system
E. * limbic system
1223.
The only special sense which is NOT functional when the child is born is:
A. vision.
B. smell.
C. taste
D. hearing.
E. * balance.
1224.
The organ of balance perceive the…
A. Taste of food
B. * Change of position
C. Sound
D. Light
E. Smell
1225.
The organ of balance perceive the…
A. Taste of food
B. Smell
C. Sound
D. Light
E. * None of these
1226.
The organ of hearing perceive the…
A. Light
B. * Sound
C. Taste
D. Smell
E. Change of position
1227.
The organ of hearing perceive the…
A. Light
B. Change of position
C. Taste
D. Smell
E. * None of these
1228.
The organ of smell perceive the…
A. Taste of food
B. Light
C. * Smell
D. Sound
E. Pressue
1229.
The organ of smell perceive the…
A. Taste of food
B. Light
C. Pressue
D. Sound
E. * None of these
1230.
The outer ear consists of: а) pinna в) auditory tube с)external auditory canal
d)tympanic membrane
A. all of the above are parts of the outer ear
B. only A above is correct
C. only A, B and D above are correct
D. only A, C and D above are correct
E. * only A and C above are correct
1231.
The oval window and tympanic membrane are all associated with the:
A. external ear
B. semicircular canals
C. cochlear duct
D. internal ear
E. * middle ear
1232.
The patient has damage of fibres of 7-th pair of cranial nerves,what taste will
be loose?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* All without bitter
Salt
Sweet
Sour
Bitter
1233.
The round window and tympanic membrane are all associated with the:
A. external ear
B. semicircular canals
C. cochlear duct
D. internal ear
E. * middle ear
1234.
The saccule is associated with the:
A. external ear
B. semicircular canals
C. cochlear duct
D. middle ear
E. * internal ear
1235.
The semicircular canales are associated with the:
A. external ear
B. Eustachian tube
C. cochlear duct
D. middle ear
E. * internal ear
1236.
The specific ear structure responsible for providing constant information of
head position (static equilibrium) is/are the:
A. cristae ampullaris
B. semicircular canals.
C. cupula.
D. organ of Corti.
E. * maculae
1237.
The stapes has no…
A. Head
B. * Neck
C. Upper foot
D. Front foot
E. Back foot
1238.
The structure that provides a means of equalizing the air pressure in the
middle ear chamber is called the:
A. oval window.
B. round window
C. mastoid sinus.
D. seminiferous tube.
E. * auditory tube
1239.
The substance of crystalline lens is…
A. Colourless and soft
B. Transparent and smooth
C. * Solid,colourless and transparent
D. Don’t have vesels and nerves
E. Have vesels and nerves
1240.
The tip of the tongue is very sensitive to which taste(s)?
A. salty
B. sour
C. bitter
D. b and d are correct
1241.
1242.
1243.
1244.
1245.
1246.
1247.
1248.
1249.
E. * sweet
The utricule is associated with the:
A. external ear
B. semicircular canals
C. cochlear duct
D. middle ear
E. * internal ear
The vestibule is associated with the:
A. external ear
B. semicircular canals
C. cochlear duct
D. middle ear
E. * internal ear
What fibres of the optic nerve make crossing?
A. * Medial
B. Lateral
C. Medial and lateral
D. Medial from the left
E. Lateral from the right
What is belong to the accessory apparatus of the eye?
A. Crystalline lens
B. Iris
C. * Muscles of eye
D. Retina
E. Cornea
What is belong to the accessory apparatus of the eye?
A. Crystalline lens
B. Iris
C. * Eyelids
D. Retina
E. Cornea
What is belong to the accessory apparatus of the eye?
A. Crystalline lens
B. Iris
C. * Lachrymal apparatus
D. Retina
E. Cornea
What is belong to the external ear?
A. * Auricle,external acustic meatus
B. Tympanic cavity,hearing bones
C. Bone and membranouse labirint
D. Internal acustic meatus
E. Carotid canal
What is belong to the internal ear?
A. Auricle,external acustic meatus
B. Tympanic cavity,hearing bones
C. * Bone and membranouse labirint
D. Internal acustic meatus
E. Carotid canal
What is belong to the internal ear?
A. Auricle,external acustic meatus
B. Tympanic cavity,hearing bones
C. Carotid canal
D. Internal acustic meatus
1250.
1251.
1252.
1253.
1254.
1255.
1256.
1257.
1258.
E. * None of these
What is belong to the internal ear?
A. Auricle,external acustic meatus
B. * Tympanic cavity,hearing bones
C. Bone and membranouse labirint
D. Internal acustic meatus
E. Carotid canal
What is located in the center of tympanic membrane?
A. Auricle
B. * Umbo
C. Umbilicum
D. Proccesus
E. Tuberculum
What is located in the medial angle of eye?
A. Crystalline lens
B. Lachrymal gland
C. * Lachrymal lacus
D. Eyelash
E. Eyebrow
What is located in the medial angle of eye?
A. Crystalline lens
B. Lachrymal gland
C. * Lachrymal caruncle
D. Eyelash
E. Eyebrow
What is located on the lachrymal caruncle.
A. * Lachrymal punctum
B. Lachrymal comma
C. Lachrymal lacus
D. Lachrymal gland
E. Lachrymal duct
What structures are connected by the auditory tube?
A. Oral and nasal cavity
B. * Nasopharynx and tympanic cavity
C. Nasopharynx and oesophagus
D. Oral and tympanic cavity
E. Nasopharynx and external acustic meatus
What are the semicircular canals in the internal ear?
A. * Anterior,posterior,lateral
B. Internal,external,intermedius
C. Superior,inferior,posterior
D. Posterior,anterior,internal
E. Right,left,middle
What do Eustachian tubes communicate?
A. Larynx and pharynx
B. Oropharynx and tympanic cavity
C. Larynx and tympanic cavity
D. Laryngeal pharynx and oropharynx
E. * Nasopharynx and tympanic cavity
What do Eustachian tubes communicate?
A. Larynx and pharynx
B. Oropharynx and tympanic cavity
C. Larynx and tympanic cavity
D. Laryngeal pharynx and oropharynx
E. * Nasopharynx and tympanic cavity
What does contact with oval window?
A. incus
B. malleus
C. Eustachian tube
D. internal acoustic meatus
E. * Stapes
1260.
What does form lateral wall of tympanic cavity?
A. Osseus labyrinth
B. Tegmen tympany
C. Wall of carotid canal
D. Jugular fossa
E. * Tympanic membrane
1261.
What does form lateral wall of tympanic cavity?
A. Osseus labyrinth
B. Tegmen tympany
C. Wall of cacotid canal
D. Jugular fossa
E. * Tympanic membrane
1262.
What does separate tympanic cavity and middle cranial fossa?
A. anterior wall of tympanic cavity
B. medial wall of tympanic cavity
C. lateral wall of tympanic cavity
D. mastoid wall of tympanic cavity
E. * superior wall of tympanic cavity
1263.
What does touch tympanic membrane?
A. stapes
B. incus
C. Eustachian tube
D. internal acoustic meatus
E. * malleus
1264.
What from the named nerves or vessels not going in the cavity of sinus
cavernosus?
A. Nervus trochlearis
B. Nervus oculomotoris
C. Nervus abducens
D. Arteria carotis interna
E. * Nervus opticus
1265.
What hearing bones do you know?
A. * Maleus , ileus,stapes
B. Sickle,clip,stump
C. Nippers,ploug,clip
D. Maleus, nippers,sirckle
E. Ileus, maleus,sirckle
1266.
What is carried to the derivates of the skin?
A. Nail
B. Sudoriferous glands
C. Sebaceous glands
D. * All of above
E. Epidermis
1267.
What is going out from the lachrymal sac?
A. * Nasolachrymal duct
B. Orolachrymal duct
C. Pharingeolachrymal duct
1259.
1268.
1269.
1270.
1271.
1272.
1273.
1274.
1275.
1276.
D. Mucouselachrymal duct
E. Salivarylachrymal duct
What is going out from the lachrymal sac?
A. Salivarylachrymal duct
B. Orolachrymal duct
C. Pharingeolachrymal duct
D. Mucouselachrymal duct
E. * None of these
What is responsible for accommodation of the lens ?
A. Sphincter muscle
B. Dilator muscle
C. Pupil
D. Pectinate ligament
E. * Ciliary muscle
What muscle of the eye innervated by abducens nerve?
A. Superior oblique
B. Inferior oblique
C. Superior rectus
D. Inferior rectus
E. * Lateral rectus
What muscle of the eye innervated by trochlear nerve?
A. * Superior oblique
B. Inferior oblique
C. Superior rectus
D. Lateral rectus
E. Medial rectus
What nerve innervated superior lateral muscle of the eye?
A. Occulomotoris
B. Trochlear
C. * Abducens
D. Facialis
E. Trigeminus
What nerve innervated superior oblique muscle of the eye?
A. Occulomotoris
B. * Trochlear
C. Abducens
D. Facialis
E. Trigeminus
What structure cover foramen oval on the lateral wall of the bone labyrinth?
A. Maleus
B. Body of ileus
C. * Base of stapes
D. Bone labyrinth
E. Membranous labyrinth
What structure timpanic cavity connected with the help of acustic tube?
A. With internal ear
B. With oral part of pharynx
C. With throat partr of pharynx
D. With external ear
E. * None of these
What structure timpanic cavity connected with the help of acustic tube?
A. * With nasal part of pharynx
B. With oral part of pharynx
C. With throat partr of pharynx
D. With external ear
E. With internal ear
1277.
What structures are belong to the auricle?
A. Umbilicus, maleus
B. Tympanic membrane
C. Mastoideus antrum
D. Tragus,maleus,stapes
E. * Lobules,helix tragus
1278.
What windows are on the lateral wall of the bone labyrinth?
A. * Ovale and rotundum
B. Elliptic and rectangular
C. Opened and closeв
D. Hearing and acoustic
E. Quadratic and spheral
1279.
When the eyes are suddenly exposed to bright light, the pupils immediately
constrict. This is called the:
A. crossed-extensor reflex.
B. stretch reflex.
C. accommodation pupillary reflex.
D. nociceptor reflex.
E. * photopupillary reflex
1280.
Where center of smell analyser is located?
A. Reticulate formation
B. In mammiform bodyes
C. In smell stripes
D. * In the hook
E. In optic mound
1281.
Where are located nucleus of the 8-pair of cranial nerves?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Spinal cord
C. Middle brain
D. Intermedium brain
E. * Pons
1282.
Where are positioned bodies of second neuron of tasting pathway?
A. Uncus
B. Sensory ganglia
C. Lateral geniculated bodies
D. Nuclei of thalamus
E. * Nucleus solitarius
1283.
Where are positioned bodies of third neuron of tasting pathway?
A. Uncus
B. Sensory ganglia
C. Lateral geniculated bodies
D. Nucleus solitarius
E. * Nuclei of thalamus
1284.
Where are the taste buds located that are the most sensitive to sour
substances?
A. at the tip of the tongue
B. at the sides of the tip of the tongue
C. all over the surface of the tongue
D. both a and b above are correct
E. * on the posterior lateral edges of the tongue
1285.
Where do tears flow from lacrimal gland ?
A. Lacrimal sac
B.
C.
D.
E.
1286.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1287.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1288.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1289.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1290.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1291.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1292.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1293.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1294.
A.
Nasolacrimal canal
Superior nasal meatus
Inferior nasal meatus
* Conjuctival sac
Where do tears flow from lacrimal gland ?
Lacrimal sac
Conjuctival sac
Superior nasal meatus
Inferior nasal meatus
* Excretory ducts
Where do tears flow from nasolacrimal canal ?
Lacrimal sac
Conjuctival sac
Excretory ducts
Superior nasal meatus
* Inferior nasal meatus
Where do tears flow from nasolacrimal canal ?
Lacrimal sac
Conjuctival sac
Excretory ducts
Superior nasal meatus
* Inferior nasal meatus
Where has opening nasolachrymal duct?
Middle nasal meatus
Cavity of middle ear
* Inferior nasal meatus
Superior nasal meatus
Oral cavity
Where have opening canaliculis lachrymalis
Middle nasal meatus
* Lachrymal sac
Inferior nasal meatus
Superior nasal meatus
Oral cavity
Where is located second neuron of taste pathway?
Uncus
Thalamus
Medial geniculate body
Inferior colliculus
* Rhomboid fossa
Where is located second neuron of taste pathway?
Uncus
Thalamus
Medial geniculate body
Inferior colliculus
* Rhomboid fossa
Where is located second neuron of visual pathway?
Optic chiasma
Lateral geniculate body
Superior colliculus
Calcarine sulcus
* In retina
Where is positioned body of fourth neuron of visual pathway?
superior colliculus
B.
C.
D.
E.
calcarine sulcus
optic nerve
retina
* lateral geniculated body
1295.
Where is positioned body of third neuron of visual pathway?
A. lateral geniculated body
B. superior colliculus
C. calcarine sulcus
D. optic nerve
E. * retina
1296.
Where it will be continuing haemorrhage when venous vessel is destroyed at
the region of jugularis opening?
A. * Posterior cranial fossa
B. Anterior cranial fossa
C. Subarachnoidalis space
D. Middle cranial fossa
E. Subdural space
1297.
Where lachrymal glands is located?
A. * In medial angle of optic fossa
B. In superior lateral angle of optic fossa
C. In lachrymal sac
D. In the inferior lateral angle of optic fossa
E. In superior part of nasolachrymal chanal
1298.
Which cranial nerves innervate tasting buds of tongue and epiglottis?
A. Olfactory, trigeminal and glossopharyngeal nerves
B. Trigeminal, facial and glossopharyngeal nerves
C. Trigeminal, hypoglossal and glossopharyngeal nerves
D. Hypoglossal, vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves
E. * Facial, vagus and glossopharyngeal nerves
1299.
Which muscle is contracting on bright light?
A. Dilator pupillae
B. Ciliary muscle
C. Rectus superior
D. Oblique superior
E. * Sphincter pupillae
1300.
Which muscle is responsible for reaction of eye on darkness?
A. Rectus superior
B. Oblique superior
C. Sphincter pupillae
D. Ciliary muscle
E. * Dilator pupillae
1301.
Which muscle is responsible for reaction of eye on bright light?
A. Dilator pupillae
B. Ciliary muscle
C. Rectus superior
D. Oblique superior
E. * Sphincter pupillae
1302.
Which muscle responsible for accommodation of the lens?
A. Sphincter pupillae
B. Dilator pupillae
C. Rectus superior
D. Oblique superior
E. * Ciliary muscle
1303.
Which nerve is responsible for taste of anterior 2/3 part of tongue?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1304.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1305.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1306.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1307.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1308.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1309.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1310.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1311.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1312.
* Chorda tympani
Major petrosus nerve
Minor petrosus nerve
Profundus petrosus nerve
Hypoglossus nerve
Which tasting buds are positioned on almost all surface of tongue dorsum?
Foliate
Filiform
Vallate
Conicae
* Fungiform
Whis what are covered walls of membranous labyrinth?
* Flat epithelium
Mucous
Endothelium
Periosteum
Epichondrum
Whis what are covered walls of membranous labyrinth?
Epichondrum
Mucous
Endothelium
Periosteum
* None of these
Whis what are divided tympanic and vestibulum trabeculae?
Canalis spiralis
* Cochlear duct
Canalis semicircularis
Utricle
Sacculus
Whis what are divided tympanic and vestibulum trabeculae?
Canalis spiralis
Sacculus
Canalis semicircularis
Utricle
* None of these
Whis what is covered tympanic membrane from inside?
Serouse
Pleurae
Peritoneum
Skin
* Mucous
Whis what is covered back surface of eyelid?
Serouse
Skin
Fasciae
* Conjunctive
Mucous cover
Whis what is covered back surface of eyelid?
Serouse
Skin
Fasciae
Mucous cover
* None of these
Whis what is covered tympanic membrane from outside?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1313.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1314.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1315.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1316.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1317.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
1318.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Serouse
Pleurae
Peritoneum
* Skin
Mucous
Whis what is covered tympanic membrane from outside?
Serouse
Pleurae
Peritoneum
Mucous
* None of these
Whis what is covered tympanic membrane from inside?
Serouse
Pleurae
Peritoneum
Skin
* None of these
Whis what is full in membranous labyrinth?
Lymph
Blood
* Endolymph
Perilymph
Liquor
Whis what is full in membranous labyrinth?
Lymph
Blood
Aquous liquor
Perilymph
* None of these
Whis what is full in tympanic cavity and vestibulum trabeculi?
Lymph
Blood
Endolymph
* Perilymph
Liquor
Whis what is full in tympanic cavity and vestibulum trabeculi?
Lymph
Blood
Endolymph
Liquor
* None of these
Situational tasks
1. Dentist introduces the cotton wool into the lumen between the cheek and an
alveolar process of the maxilla. Which orifice of gland duct does he close?
A. sublingual gland
B. thyroid gland
C. submandibular gland
D. all above mentioned
E. * parotid gland
2. The patient has the inflammation of tooth alveola. What part of the tooth can be
injured?
A. * tooth root
B.
C.
D.
E.
tooth crown
tooth cervix
pulp cavity
canal of tooth root
3. The patient has the inflammation of tooth alveola. What part of the tooth can be
injured?
A. tooth crown
B. tooth cervix
C. pulp cavity
D. canal of tooth root
E. * tooth root
4. Which duct opens on the cheeks into vestibule of mouth cavity opposite the second
superior molar ?
A. Submandibular
B. Buccal
C. Palatine
D. Sublingual
E. * Parotid
5. A patient 18 years old got symptoms of acute appendicitis - acute pain in right
lumbar area. What type of placing of appendix can be supposed?
A. Lateral.
B. Descending.
C. Ascending.
D. Medial.
E. * Retrocecal retroperitoneal.
6. A patient 40 years old, appealed to the doctor with complaints about frequent
heartburn of esophagus. After examination insufficiency of what sphincter is
exposed?
A. Esophageal.
B. Pyloric.
C. Phalangeal.
D. * Cardiac.
E. Duodenal.
7. A patient 60 years old because of malignant tumor of papilla duodenum major had
an obstructive icterus. Deleting a tumor a surgeon must remember, that on the
papilla duodenum major is opened\:
A. Cystic duct.
B. Common hepatic duct.
C. * Hepatoduodenal ampule.
D. Right hepatic duct.
E. Left hepatic duct.
8. A patient 65 years old was hospitalized with suspicion on the tumor of superior part
of esophagus. But after X-ray examination a tumor process is exposed on the
border of esophagus and pharynx. On level of what cervical vertebra was the tumor
locate?
A. * 6.
B. 5.
C. 4.
D. 3.
E. 2.
9. A patient complains on pain in a right iliac area. During the palpation a mobile, soft,
sickly intestine was determined. What part of intestine did the doctor palpate?
A. Jejunum.
B. Sigmoid colon.
C. Transverse colon.
D. Ascending colon.
E. * Cecum.
10. A patient complaints on disturbance of evacuative function of stomach (the
protracted delay of food in stomach). After the examination, the tumor of initial part
of duodenum was detected. What is the localization of tumor?
A. Pars inferior.
B. * Pars superior.
C. Pars descendens.
D. Pars ascendens.
E. Flexura duodeni inferior.
11. A patient complaints on pain in the superior part of umbilical area. During the
palpation a mobile, soft, sickly intestine is determined. What part of intestine does
the doctor palpate?
A. * Transverse colon.
B. Jejunum.
C. Duodenum.
D. Ileum
E. Sigmoid.
12. A patient has acute appendicitis, which clinically is similar a hepatic colic. What
position of vermiform appendix makes it possible?
A. Descending.
B. Medial.
C. * Ascending.
D. Lateral.
E. Retrocecal.
13. A patient was hospitalized with the ulcer of esophagus. After some time the
symp¬toms of inflammation of peritoneum appeared. In what part of esophagus the
perforation happened?
A. Pharyngeal.
B. Thoracic.
C. Cervical.
D. Stomach.
E. * Abdominal.
14. At 4e child 8 years old, the foreign body of esophagus at the level of a 10 thoracic
vertebra was revealed by X-ray. At the area of what esophageal narrowing had the
foreign body stopped?
A. Abdominal narrowing.
B. Pharyngeal narrowing.
C. Bronchial narrowing.
D. Aortal narrowing.
E. * Diaphragmatic narrowing.
15. At children often possible to observe difficulty of nasal breathing. This is related to
extra development of lymphoid tissue in pharyngeal mucous membrane. Growth of
what tonsil can cause this phenomenon?
A. Tonsilla lingualis.
B. Tonsilla palatine.
C. * Tonsilla pharyngea.
D. Tonsilla tubaria.
E. All of these tonsils.
16. Dentist introduces the cotton wool into the lumen between the cheek and an
alveolar process of the maxilla. Which orifice of gland duct does he close?
A. sublingual gland
B. thyroid gland
C. submandibular gland
D. all above mentioned
E. * parotid gland
17. During endoscope examination of small intestine on a mucous membrane longi
tudinal folds were visible. What part ol what intestine did a doctor see?
A. Ascending part of duodenum.
B. Horizontal part of duodenum.
C. * Initial part (ampoule) of duodenum.
D. Initial part of jejunum.
E. Final part of ileum.
18. During the first feeding of newborn, milk began to flow out of a nasal cavity. What
anomaly or abnormally got a newborn?
A. * Cleft palate.
B. Cleft lip.
C. Atrezy of esophagus.
D. Atrezy of anal canal.
E. Esophageal-tracheal fistula.
19. During the operation on a small intestine a doctor found out the area of mucous
membrane, where on base of circular folds the longitudinal fold was present. What
part of small intestine does such structure have?
A. * Pars descendens duodeni.
B. Pars horizontal is duodeni.
C. Pars ascendens duodeni.
D. Initial department of jejunum.
E. Distal department of ileum.
20. During the operation on the strangulated umbilical hernia in a hernia sack a part of
intestine was revealed with the appendixes of serous, which contain fat tissue.
What part of intestine was strangulated?
A. Duodenum.
B. * Transverse colon.
C. Ileum.
D. Jejunum.
E. Cecum.
21. In patient during the fibrogastroscopy, an inflammation of duodenal bulb was found.
In what part of intestine does the inflammation locate?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Pars ascendens.
Pars descendens.
Pars horizontalis.
* Pars superior.
22. In patient follicle angina was complicated by severe otitis (inflammation of middle
ear). What anatomical precondition does exist for this?
A. Lymphoepythelial ring of Valdeer- Pirogov.
B. Fallopian tube.
C. Anomalies of pharynx.
D. * Eustachian tube.
E. Presence of piriform recess.
23. In the mucous of intestine a surgeon saw group of lymphoid follicles (Peyer's
patches). What department of intestine it is?
A. Rectum.
B. Jejunum.
C. Cecum.
D. Duodenum.
E. * Ileum.
24. Mother of 8 years old child appealed to doctor with complaints on pain during
swallowing and high temperature. During examination a doctor saw an edema and
hyperemia of lymphoid tissue between the arches of soft palate. What tonsil does
situate in this place?
A. Tonsillalingualis.
B. Tonsilla pharyngealis.
C. Tonsillatubaria.
D. * Tonsilla palatina.
E. Tonsilla nasalis.
25. Parents asked the dentist about the delay change of teeth in a child 9 years old, in
whose mouth is the only milk teeth. At what age begin erupting permanent teeth?
A. Since 10 -12 years
B. * Since 6-7 years
C. Since 2 years
D. Since 16 years
E. Since 5-6 years
26. The patient erroneously drank the solution of the acetic acid. Which membrane of
the esophagus was damaged mostly?
A. muscular
B. serous
C. adventitia
D. muscle and serous
E. * mucous
27. The patient has the inflammation of tooth alveola. What part of the tooth can be
injured?
A. tooth crown
B. tooth cervix
C. pulp cavity
D. canal of tooth root
E. * tooth root
28. The patient was hospitalized in surgical department with the penetrable wound of
anterior abdominal wall. A traumatic canal passed superiorly to the small curvature
of stomach. Through what formation of peritoneum did atraumatic channel passed?
A. Ligamentum hepatoduoduodenale.
B. Ligamentum gastrocolicum.
C. * Ligamentum hepatogastricum.
D. Ligamentum hepatorenale.
E. Ligamentum triangulare sinistrurn.
29. The pregnant women 30 years old got the raised doze of radiation. Because of this,
the process of intrauterine development of fetus was disordered. At formation of an
oral cavity did not take a place a fusing of the lateral nasal proc¬ess and maxillary
process. Occurrence of what anomaly is supposed?
A. Atrezy of esophagus.
B. * Cleft palate.
C. Microstoma.
D. Makrostoma.
E. Cleft lip.
30. The X-ray examination of stomach of the patient 37 years old with brachymorphic
constitution with a conical chest was provided. What form of stomach most probably
will be determined?
A. Form of the extended hook.
B. Form hook.
C. Form of stocking.
D. The lengthened stomach.
E. * Form of horn.
31. The X-ray examination of stomach of the patient of 42 years old with mesomorphic
constitution with a cylindrical chest was provided. What form of stomach most
probably be determined?
A. Form of the extended hook.
B. Form of horn.
C. Form of stocking.
D. * Form hook.
E. The lengthened stomach.
32. The X-ray examination of stomach of the woman is 28 years old, dolychomorphyc
constitution with a flat thorax was provided. What form of stomach most probably
will show the pathology?
A. Form of horn.
B. Form hook.
C. * Form of stocking.
D. Form of the extended hook.
E. Ovalfonn.
33. To a hospital the child was delivered with complaints to a retrosternal pain,
appearing after swallowing and accompanying with cough. After X-ray research, the
foreign body in thickness of a wall of esophagus at a level 5 thoracic vertebra was
revealed. In the level of what narrowing of the esophagus was a damage of its wall
occurred?
A. In the place of transition of pharynx to esophagus.
B. In the place of adjoining of arch of aorta.
C. In the place of passing through a dia¬phragm.
D. In the place of passing to the stom¬ach.
E. * In the place of crossing with the left main bronchus.
34. To a hospital the child was delivered with complaints to a retrosternal
pain,appearing after swallowing and accompanying with cough. After X-ray
research, the foreign body in thickness of a wall of esophagus at a level 4 thoracic
vertebra was revealed. In the level of what narrowing of the esophagus was a
damage of its wall occurred?
A. In the place of passing through a dia¬phragm.
B. In the place of decussating with the left main bronchus.
C. * In the place of adjoining of arch of aorta.
D. In the place of passing to the stom¬ach.
E. In the place of transition of pharynx in esophagus.
35. To patient the endoscopy of duodenum was provided. The examination revealed an
inflammation of large duodenal papil¬la and disturbances of bile secretion to the
intestine. In which part of duodenum the disturbances were revealed?
A. Inferior horizontal part.
B. Ascending part.
C. Bulb.
D. Superior part.
E. * Descending part.
36. To the child 6 years old Meckel diverticle was diagnosed. In what department of
gastro-intestinal tract is it necessary to search it during operation?
A. * In the area of ileum.
B. In the area of jejunum.
C. In the area of colon.
D. In the area of duodenum.
E. In the area of sigmoid colon.
37. Which duct opens on the cheeks into vestibule of mouth cavity opposite the second
superior molar ?
A. Submandibular
B. Buccal
C. Palatine
D. Sublingual
E. * Parotid
38. A 40 years old man was hospitalized to surgical department with a diagnosis splenic rupture. In what anatomical formation will the blood accumulate?
A. * Bursa pregastrica.
B. Bursa hepatica.
C. Bursa omental is.
D. Excavatio rectovesicalis.
E. Right lateral canal.
39. A man with closed trauma of the right part of abdomen and suspicion on the liver
rupture was delivered to traumatic department. In what formations of peritoneum it
is necessary to expect the collection of blood?
A. In an intersigmoid corner.
B. In the left lateral canal.
C. In the superior ileocecal angle.
D. * In the rectovesical excavation.
E. In the omental bursa.
40. A patient 18 years old got symptoms of acute appendicitis - acute pain in right
lumbar area. What type of placing of appendix can be supposed?
A. Lateral.
B. Descending.
C. Ascending.
D. Medial.
E. * Retrocecal retroperitoneal.
41. A patient 27 years old entered clinic with complaints on pain in region of stomach,
nausea. After the palpation of abdomen a surgeon found a point of pain on crossing
of right costal arc and lateral margin t of right rectus abdominis muscle (point | of
Kehr). What preliminary diagnosis [ probably will the doctor do?
A. Nephritis.
B. * Pancreatitis.
C. Cholecystitis.
D. Gastritis.
E. Duodenitis.
42. A patient 27 years old entered clinic with complaints on pain in region of stomach,
nausea. After the palpation of abdomen a surgeon found a point of pain on crossing
of right costal arc and lateral margin t of right rectus abdominis muscle (point | of
Kehr). What preliminary diagnosis [ probably will the doctor do?
A. Nephritis.
B. Pancreatitis.
C. Cholecystitis.
D. Gastritis.
E. * Duodenitis.
43. A patient has a perforation and inflammation of vermiform appendix. Revision of
what recess of peritoneum must a doctor provide first?
A. Recessus ileocecal is superior.
B. Recessus duodenalis superior.
C. Recessiis duodenalis inferior.
D. * Recessus retrocecal is.
E. Recessus ileocecalis inferior.
44. A patient has acute appendicitis, which clinically is similar a hepatic colic. What
position of vermiform appendix makes it possible?
A. Descending.
B. Medial.
C. * Ascending.
D. Lateral.
E. Retrocecal.
45. A patient was operated on indication of a trauma of liver with a bleeding to a hepatic
bursa. What border prevents entering the blood in the pregastric bursa?
A. Right triangulate ligament.
B. Round ligament.
C. Coronary ligament.
D. * Falciform ligament.
E. Right triangulate ligament.
46. A patient with the traumatic splenic rupture, which needs an urgent operation, was
delivered to a surgical department. In what formation of peritoneum is it located?
A. Bursa hepatica.
B. * Bursa pregastrica.
C. Burs omentalis.
D. Sinus mesentericus sinister.
E. Sulcus paracolicus sinister.
47. After the revision of peritoneal cavity with indication on peritonitis, the local abscess
at the root of mesentery was found. In what formation of peritoneum it situate?
A. Left lateral canal.
B. Right mesenteric sinus.
C. Right lateral canal.
D. * Intersigmoid fossa.
E. Left mesenteric sinus.
48. At a patient after an operation (stitching of penetrate wound of small intestine) an
interintestinal abscess was formed, which drainage to right mesenteric sinus.
Where can a purulent effluent spread in?
A. * Stay in bounds of sinus.
B. To a small pelvis.
C. To the retrocecal recess.
D. Right lateral cannel.
E. Intersigmoid recess.
49. At acute destructive pancreatitis usually the inspection of omental burse is carry out
because the pancreas is one of its wall. What wall?
A. Anterior one.
B. Superior one.
C. * Posterior one.
D. Inferior one.
E. Left one.
50. At operative interference in an abdominal region a surgeon must get the omen¬tal
bursa. How can a surgeon get in this part of cavity of peritoneum, without vi¬olating
integrity of lesser omentum?
A. Through left paracolic sulcus.
B. Through right paracolic sulcus.
C. * Through the omental foramen.
D. Through the right mesenteric sinus.
E. Through the left mesenteric sinus.
51. At patient one of gangrenous form of acute pancreatitis is diagnosed. To what
peritoneal spaces from below does the exudate spread?
A. Infrahepatic fissure.
B. * Bursa omentalis.
C. Bursa pregastrica.
D. Left lateral canal.
E. Between the layers of anterior and posterior omental laminas.
52. At the patient of 52 years old a chronic stone cholecystitis is diagnosed. At
retrograde cholecystectomy a surgeon checks hepatoduodenal ligament. What
elements of this ligament is it necessary to select and bandage? j
A. * Proper
hepatic artery, duct or urinary blaqder.
B. Common bile duct, common hepatic duct.
C. Proper hepatic artery, common bile duct.
D. Portal vein, artery of gallbladder.
E. Cystic duct, artery of gallbladder.
53. At the patient of 52 years old a chronic stone cholecystitis is diagnosed. At
retrograde cholecystectomy a surgeon checks hepatoduodenal ligament. What
elements of this ligament is it necessary to^ select and bandage? j
A. Proper
hepatic artery, duct or urinary blaqder.
B. Common bile duct, common hepatic duct.
C. Proper hepatic artery, common bile duct.
D. Portal vein, artery of gallbladder.
E. * Cystic duct, artery of gallbladder.
54. Doctors during surgical operation examine the organs of the abdominal cavity.
Pancreatic cyst was found. What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
C. Intraperitoneal position
D. Mesoperitoneal position
E. * Pancreas is positioned in retroperitoneal space
55. Doctors during surgical operation examine the organs of the abdominal cavity.
Pancreatic cyst was found. What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
C. Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the pancreas
D. Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the pancreas
E. * Peritoneum covers one surface of the pancreas
56. Doctors during surgical operation examine the organs of the abdominal cavity.
Pancreatic cyst was found. What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
C. Intraperitoneal position
D. Mesoperitoneal position
E. * Extraperitoneal position
57. Doctors during surgical operation examine the organs of the abdominal cavity.
Pancreatic cyst was found. What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
D. Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
E. * Peritoneum does not form mesentery for pancreas
58. Doctors during surgical operation examine the organs of the abdominal cavity.
Pancreatic cyst was found. What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
D. Peritoneum does not form mesentery for pancreas
E. * Peritoneum covers the pancreas
59. Doctors during surgical operation examine the organs of the abdominal cavity.
Pancreatic cyst was found. What relation of the peritoneum and pancreas?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the pancreas
D. Peritoneum forms mesentery for pancreas
E. * Retroperitoneal position
60. During operation on indication the bile stones a surgeon must find a common
hepatic duct. Between the layers of what ligament does it situate?
A. Hepatoduodenal.
B. Hepatogastric.
C. Hepatorenal.
D. * Round ligament of the liver.
E. Ligamentum venosum.
61. During operation on indication the bile stones a surgeon must find a common
hepatic duct. Between the layers of what ligament does it situate?
A. * Hepatoduodenal.
B. Hepatogastric.
C. Hepatorenal.
D. Round ligament of the liver.
E. Ligamentum venosum.
62. During the cholecystectomy (removing of a gall bladder), which performed from a
fundus, concrements (bile stones) can move through wide cystic duct to the next
departments of the bile ducts. What place a surgeon must check in?
A. Ductus hepaticus communis.
B. Ductus choledochus.
C. Ductus hepaticus dexter.
D. Ductus hepaticus sinister.
E. * Ductulus billifer.
63. During the cholecystectomy (removing of a gall bladder), which performed from a
fundus, concrements (bile stones) can move through wide cystic duct to the next
departments of the bile ducts. What place a surgeon must check in?
A. Ductus hepaticus communis.
B. * Ductus choledochus.
C. Ductus hepaticus dexter.
D. Ductus hepaticus sinister.
E. Ductulus billifer.
64. During the operation on the strangulated umbilical hernia in a hernia sack a part of
intestine was revealed with the appendixes of serous, which contain fat tissue.
What part of intestine was strangulated?
A. Duodenum.
B. * Transverse colon.
C. Ileum.
D. Jejunum.
E. Cecum.
65. In a patient with destructive appendicitis, as complication a subdiaphragmatic
abscess appeared. In what formation of peritoneum does it locate?
A. Left lateral channel.
B. Bursa pregastrica.
C. Bursa omentalis.
D. Right lateral canal.
E. * Bursa hepatica.
66. In man the perforation of ulcer of horizontal part of duodenum was revealed. In what
area the inflammatory process will situate?
A. Omental bursa.
B. Left mesenteric sinus.
C. Right lateral channel.
D. Left lateral channel.
E. * Right mesenteric sinus.
67. The abscess of the left lobe of liver in patient 48 years old was diagnosed. The
generalization of inflammation can cause the peritonitis. Inflammation of what part
of peritoneum will be observed?
A. Left mesenteric sinus.
B. * Pregastric bursa.
C. Left mesenteric sinus.
D. Omental bursa.
E. Hepatic bursa.
68. The examination revealed that a gallbladder is overfull with bile. What part of extrahepatic bile ducts is pathologically changed?
A. Left hepatic duct.
B. Cystic duct.
C. Common hepatic duct.
D. Ductus choledochus.
69. The examination revealed that a gallbladder is overfull with bile. What part of extrahepatic bile ducts is pathologically changed?
A. Left hepatic duct.
B. Cystic duct.
C. Common hepatic duct.
D. * Ductus choledochus.
70. The injured by firearms was delivered to hospital with the strong bleeding. During
the examination the surgeon revealed, that the bullet canal passed through the
anterior wall of stomach, fornix of stomach and went out at the level of the X rib on
the left middle axillary line. What organ is damaged with the stomach?
A. * Transverse colon.
B. Left kidney.
C. Pancreas.
D. Spleen.
E. Left lobe of liver.
71. The injured by firearms was delivered to hospital with the strong bleeding. During
the examination the surgeon revealed, that the bullet canal passed through the
anterior wall of stomach, fornix of stomach and went out at the level of the X rib on
the left middle axillary line. What organ is damaged with the stomach?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Transverse colon.
Left kidney.
Pancreas.
* Spleen.
Left lobe of liver.
72. The patient complains on a pain in the right hypohondriac area. After the palpation
in this area doctor found that liver has increased. What are biggest parts of the
liver?
A. Lobules
B. Nephrons
C. Acynuses
D. Segments
E. * Lobes
73. The perforation of ulcer of posterior wall of stomach was diagnosed at a patient 40
years old. To what anatomical formation the blood and content of stomach will get?
A. Bursa omentalis.
B. Bursa pregastrica.
C. * Bursa omentalis.
D. Left lateral canal.
E. Bursa hepatica.
74. The tumor of ascending colon in woman 65 years old was diagnosed. Peritonitis of
what area of peritoneum will be observed in the case of destruction of tu¬mor?
A. * Right mesenteric sinus.
B. Left mesenteric sinus.
C. Hepatic bursa.
D. Pregastric bursa.
E. Omental bursa.
75. The tumor of descending colon in man 69 years old was diagnosed. Peritonitis of
what area of peritoneum will be ob¬served in the case of destruction of tu¬mor?
A. Omental bursa.
B. Right mesenteric sinus.
C. * Left mesenteric sinus.
D. Pregastric bursa.
E. Hepatic bursa.
76. The ulcer of anterior wall of stomach was diagnosed. Inflammation of what part of
peritoneum is most possible?
A. Bursa hepatica.
B. * Bursa pregastrica.
C. Bursa omentalis.
D. Right mesenteric sinus.
E. Left mesenteric sinus.
77. The victim got a knife wound in right lumbar area. The damage of right kidney takes
a place. What organs of retroperitoneal space can be damaged here?
A. * Duodenum.
B. Transverse colon.
C. Left curvature of transverse colon.
D. Descending colon.
E. Initial part of ileum.
78. To the patient 50 years concerning a pancreatitis the resection of tail of pancreas is
performed. It is necessary to know, that a pancreas situate\:
A. Parenteral.
B. Mesoperitoneal.
C. Intraperitoneal.
D. * Extraperitoneal.
E. Intramuraly.
79. To victim with the punctured wound of anterior wall of stomach appealed for
surgical help. To what formation of peritoneal cavity did the content of stomach get?
A. Left mesenteric sinus.
B. Omental bursa.
C. Hepatic bursa.
D. * Pregastric bursa.
E. Right mesenteric sinus.
80. A patient was hospitalized in a clinic with complaints of cuffing with blood,
hyperhydrosis. The X-ray revealed the tuberculosis focus in the superior lobe of the
left lung. An operation was recommended. What is greatest quantity of segments
can be removed in structure of the superior lobe of left lung?
A. * 5.
B. 6.
C. 3.
D. 2.
E. l.
81. A pathologist made dissection of patient, dyed from long chronic disease of kidney.
The dissection revealed congenital absence of one kidney. What diagnosis did a
doctor?
A. Ren duplex.
B. * Agenesia renis.
C. Distopia renis.
D. Ren arcuata.
E. Ren anularis.
82. A patient 28 years old appealed to nephrology with a diagnosis a falling of the right
kidney (nephroptosis). X-ray contrast urography confirmed a preliminary diagnosis.
What is norm position of the right kidney according to 12th rib?
A. 12 rib crosses a kidney in the inferior third.
B. * 12 rib crosses a kidney in the superior third.
C. 12 rib crosses a kidney in the middle.
D. 12 rib is projected on the superior pole.
E. 12 rib is project on the inferior pole.
83. A patient 37 years old appealed to urology with a diagnosis a falling of the left
kidney (nephroptosis). X-ray-contrast urography confirmed a preliminary diagnosis.
What is the position of the left kidney concerning 12th rib in norm?
A. 12 rib is projected on the superior pole.
B. 12 rib crosses a kidney in the superior third.
C. 12 rib crosses a kidney in the inferior third.
D. * 12 rib crosses a kidney in the middle.
E. 12 rib is project on the inferior pole.
84. A patient 37 years old was delivered to pulmonology department with a diagnosis
left-side exsudative pleuritis. What anatomical formation of pleura the inflammatory
exudates will be collected more credible?
A. * Costodiaphragmatic sinus.
B. Costomediastinal sinus.
C. Phrenicomediastinal sinus.
D. All enumerated.
E. Pleural cupula.
85. A patient 43 years old appealed to urologist with the preliminary diagnosis floating
kidney (ren mobile). At X-ray contrast urography in vertical and lying position the
displacement of the right kidney has been marked. At what level in norm there is a
right kidney according a vertebral column?
A. From inferior edge of 12 thoracic to the middle of 4 lumbar vertebras.
B. * From inferior edge of 11 thoracic to the middle of 3 lumbar vertebras.
C. From inferior edge of 11 thoracic to the superior edge of 1 lumbar vertebra.
D. From inferior edge of 12 thoracic to the superior edge of 2 lumbar vertebras.
E. From the middle of 11 thoracic to the superior edge of 3 lumbar vertebras.
86. A patient 65 years old was operated on indications of the tumor of ureter. During
operation it is revealed, that the tumor extended to mesentery of small in: testine.
What part of ureter is affected with a tumor?
A. Intraorganic.
B. Pelvic.
C. * Abdominal.
D. Intrarenal.
E. Thoracic
87. A patient appealed in clinic with trauma of a kidney. During a surgical operation
from the posterior approach, it is necessary to press a renal artery. What is the
sequence of the elements of renal leg in its hilus from posterior to anterior one?
A. Artery, vein, ureter.
B. Artery, ureter, vein.
C. * Ureter, artery, vein.
D. Vein, ureter, artery.
E. Vein, artery, ureter.
88. A patient appealed to urology with the preliminary diagnosis floating kidney (ren
mobile). At X-ray contrast urography in vertical and lying position the displacement
of the left kidney has been marked. At what level in norm there is a left kidney
according to a vertebral column?
A. From inferior edge of 12 thoracic to the superior edge of 2 lumbar vertebras.
B. From inferior edge of 11 thoracic to the middle of 4 lumbar vertebras.
C. From the middle of 11 thoracic to the superior edge of 4 lumbar vertebras.
D. From inferior edge of 12 thoracic to the middle of 3 lumbar vertebras.
E. * From the middle of 11 thoracic to the superior edge of 3 lumbar vertebras.
89. A patient died from acute renal insufficiency (because of edema of kidney's
parenchyma). What layer of a kidney will be separated hardly from renal
parenchyma quring pathological anatomical dissection?
A. Renal fascia.
B. Fibrous capsule.
C. * Adipose capsule.
D. Retroperitoneal fascia.
E. Preperitoneal fascia.
90. A patient has a urolithiasis. During re moving the concrement from the right ureter a
surgeon cut the wall of ureter. In what anatomical formation the urine will get?
A. * Retroperitoneal space.
B. Right mesemteric sinus.
C. Rectovesical excavation.
D. Prevesical space.
E. Right lateral canal.
91. A patient was hospitalized in clinic with a tumor of middle lobe of right lung. How
many segments can be removed during this operation?
A. 3.
B. * 2.
C. 4.
D. 5.
E. l.
92. After a patient examination was revealed, that his right kidney is situated in iliac
fossa (iliac kidney). This congenital dystopia is differentiated from the nephroptosis
(falling kidney):
A. Absence of fibrous capsule.
B. * Decreasing of pararenal adipose body.
C. Shape of kidney.
D. Anomalistic low position of kidney.
E. More caudal arising of renal artery from aorta.
93. At the sick child RDS (respiratory distress syndrome), connected vvith disturbances
of surfactant production was revealed. The surfactant covers:
A. Walls of larynx.
B. Walls of trachea.
C. * Alveolar walls.
D. Bronchi.
E. Bronchioles.
94. Because of illness a middle-aged woman had acute fall thin. After some period a
pain appeared in a lumbar area. A doctor diagnosed nephroptosis. Weakening of
what fixative factors of kidneys led to this pathology.
A. * Capsula adiposa.
B. Arteriae et venae renalis.
C. Capsula fibrosa.
D. Perinephrium.
E. Fascia endoabdominalis.
95. Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity. On
posterior wall of abdomen ureter was found. What relation of the peritoneum and
ureter?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
D. Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
E. * Retroperitoneal position
96. Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity. On
posterior wall of abdomen ureter was found. What relation of the peritoneum and
ureter?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
D. Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
E. * Peritoneum does not form mesentery for ureter
97. Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity. On
posterior wall of abdomen ureter was found. What relation of the peritoneum and
ureter?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
D. Peritoneum does not form mesentery for ureter
E. * Peritoneum covers the ureter
98. Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity. On
posterior wall of abdomen ureter was found. What relation of the peritoneum and
ureter?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
C. Intraperitoneal position
D. Mesoperitoneal position
E. * Extraperitoneal position
99. Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity. On
posterior wall of abdomen ureter was found. What relation of the peritoneum and
ureter?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
C. Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the ureter
D. Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the ureter
E. * Peritoneum covers one surface of the ureter
100.
Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity.
On posterior wall of abdomen ureter was found. What relation of the peritoneum
and ureter?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the ureter
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for ureter
C. Intraperitoneal position
D. Mesoperitoneal position
E. * Ureter is positioned in retroperitoneal space
101.
Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity.
On posterior wall of abdomen to the both sites of vertebrae kidneys was found.
What relation of the peritoneum and kidneys?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the kidneys
D. Peritoneum forms mesentery for kidneys
E. * Retroperitoneal position
102.
Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity.
On posterior wall of abdomen to the both sites of vertebrae kidneys was found.
What relation of the peritoneum and kidneys?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the kidneys
D. Peritoneum forms mesentery for kidneys
E. * Peritoneum does not form mesentery for kidneys
103.
Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity.
On posterior wall of abdomen to the both sites of vertebrae kidneys was found.
What relation of the peritoneum and kidneys?
A. Intraperitoneal position
B. Mesoperitoneal position
C. Peritoneum does not cover the kidneys
D. Peritoneum does not form mesentery for kidneys
E. * Peritoneum covers the kidneys
104.
Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity.
On posterior wall of abdomen to the both sites of vertebrae kidneys was found.
What relation of the peritoneum and kidneys?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the kidneys
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for kidneys
C. Intraperitoneal position
D. Mesoperitoneal position
E. * Extraperitoneal position
105.
Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity.
On posterior wall of abdomen to the both sites of vertebrae kidneys was found.
What relation of the peritoneum and kidney?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the kidney
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for kidney
C. Peritoneum cover all surfaces of the kidney
D. Peritoneum cover three surfaces of the kidney
E. * Peritoneum covers one surface of the kidney
106.
Doctors during surgical operation review the organs of the abdominal cavity.
On posterior wall of abdomen to the both sites of vertebrae kidneys was found.
What relation of the peritoneum and kidneys?
A. Peritoneum does not cover the kidneys
B. Peritoneum forms mesentery for kidneys
C. Intraperitoneal position
D. Mesoperitoneal position
E. * Kidneys are positioned in retroperitoneal space
107.
During auscultation (hearing) of lungs of a patient 37 years old the "Vesicular
breathing" was marked. It is normal noise which listened to above the thorax of
healthy people. This noise arisen up in a bronchial tree and passed through a
normally functioning alveolar tree. What anatomical structures do not concern to
elements of a bronchial tree?
A. Terminal bronchioles.
B. * Respiratory bronchioles.
C. Lobular bronchi.
D. Lobar bronchi.
E. Segmental bronchi.
108.
During the operation a stone 3x4 cm in size and having on one side 3 hornshaped outgrowths (coral calculus) was removed from renal pelvis. What anatomic
formations do these processes correspond?
A. Lesser calices.
B. Nephrons.
C. Greater calices.
D. Renal pelvis.
E. * Lobules.
109.
During the operation on lungs a surgeon removed a clot of blood from a
horizontal fissure. What lobes of lung are separated by this fissure?
A. Inferior and middle lobes of right lung.
B. Superior and inferior lobes of right lung.
C. Superior and inferior lobes of left lung.
D. * Superior and middle lobes of right lung.
E. Inferior lobes of right and left lungs.
110.
Excretory urogramma (contrasting of urinoexcretory ways) revealed wide
sac-shaped renal pelvis, in which lesser calices empties, greater calices are absent.
Specify the form excretory ways of a kidney.
A. Phylogenetic.
B. Fetal.
C. Mature.
D. * Embryonic.
E. Ontogenetic.
111.
In 3 years old patient the lobectomy of middle lobe of right lung was provided.
What segments were damaged?
A. Medial and anterior.
B. Apical, posterior, anterior.
C. * Lateral and medial.
D. Posterior and lateral basal.
E. Posteroapical.
112.
In patient left renal infarct was diagnosed. The damaging of parenchyma of
kidney was caused a devascularization in the system of arteries, passing through
renal column. Name these arteries...
A. * Segmental.
B. Interlobular.
C. Arcuate.
D. Interlobar.
E. Renal.
113.
In patient right renal infarct was diagnosed. The damaging of parenchyma of
kidney was caused by devascularization in the system of segmental artery. How
many segmental arteries are present in right kidney in a norm?
A. 4.
B. 3.
C. 5.
D. 7.
E. * 6.
114.
In patient the stone in the place of transition of the left renal pelvis to ureter
was revealed. What structure situate anteriorly to the initial part of the left ureter?
A. Sigmoid colon.
B. Stomach.
C. Ileum.
D. Spleen.
E. * Pancreas.
115.
In the short-winded patient X-ray exposed an exudation in a pleural cavity. To
prevent injuring intercostal arteries, the puncture of pleural cavity should be
provided (taking into account the level of exudation)
A. In the place of transition of bone part of rib in cartilaginous.
B. On the lower edge of overlying rib.
C. In the middle point between ribs.
D. At the head of rib.
E. * To the upper edge of subjacent rib.
116.
Mother of 3-years-old child appealed to the clinic. During conversation doctor
clarified that child played with a small metallic object (a cuff-link) and inserted it in
mouth. The child had swallowed or had inhaled this subject. To find out it was not
possible. At X-ray examination the foreign body was revealed at a level of 6-th
thoracic vertebra on a middle line. Where, more probably than all, is there this
foreign body?
A. In a pharynx.
B. In a trachea.
C. * In an esophagus.
D. In the left main bronchus.
E. In the right main bronchus.
117.
The auscultation (hearing) of lungs revealed the segment with «bronchial
breathing» in a patient 46 years old. Such respiratory noise is not listened at healthy
people. The doctor made a conclusion that in the given segment there was a
destruction of an alveolar tree. What anatomical structure doesn't belong to the
alveolar tree?
A. * Intrasegmental bronchi.
B. Alveolar saccules.
C. Alveolar ducts.
D. Alveola.
E. Respiratory bronchioles.
118.
The left-sided segmental pneumonia is diagnosed at the patient. An
additional respiratory noise (crepitation) is listened at the left side from the back
surface, on the level of VII-X ribs. In what segment of lungs is the pathological
process locates?
A. Inferior uvular.
B. Medial basal.
C. Lateral basal.
D. Anterior basal.
E. * Posterior basal.
119.
The parents of new-born child appealed to pediatrics with complaints of
excretions a liquid (urines) in the area of navel. What congenital abnormality did the
child get?
A. Meckel divertikulum.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Non-closed urachus.
Splintering urethra.
* Umbilical cyst.
Inguinal cyst.
120.
The patient appealed to the surgery with a tumor in lower third of esophagus.
What serous layer of thoracic cavity can be damaged during the operation in this
area?
A. Diaphragmatic pleura.
B. Left mediastinal pleura.
C. Right costal pleura.
D. * Right mediastinal pleura.
E. Left costal pleura.
121.
The patient with knife wound of thorax on the right and pneumothorax
(entering of air in a pleural cavity) was delivered to surgical department. By
percussion was found the lower margin of right lung on a midclavicular line lifted up
to level of the III rib. Where in a norm must it be?
A. V rib.
B. VII rib.
C. VIII rib.
D. IX rib.
E. * VI rib.
122.
To a patient 60 years old the lobectomy of superior lobe of right lung was
provided. What segments were damaged?
A. Lateral, middle, superior.
B. * Apical, posterior, anterior.
C. Middle, basal and lateral basal.
D. Posterior basal, superior and inferior lingular.
E. Posteroapical.
123.
To patient with diagnose a cancer of left lung was performed an operation
pneu¬monectomy (removing of the lung). One of stages of the operation is ligation
and cutting a root of the lung, which includes arteries, veins and bronchus. In what
order are these structures disposed in a root of left lung from up to down?
A. Pulmonary artery, pulmonary veins, main bronchus.
B. * Pulmonary artery, main bronchus, pulmonary veins.
C. Main bronchus, pulmonary artery, pulmonary veins.
D. Main bronchus, pulmonary veins, pulmonary artery.
E. Pulmonary veins, main bronchus, pulmonary artery.
124.
To the patient 50 years old the lobectomy of superior lobe of right lung was
provided. How many segments were removed?
A. 4.
B. 5.
C. 2.
D. * 3.
E. O.
125.
A 65 years old man appealed to doctor with acute retention of urine. The
examination revealed an obstruction of urethra, which was caused by pathology of
organ surrounding it. What is this organ?
A. Spermatic cord.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Testicle.
Seminal vesicles.
* Prostate gland.
Epidydimis.
126.
A man 40 years old appealed a doctor with complaints of the presence of
painful tumor in area of scrotum. A doctor diagnosed is hydrocele of testicle.
Be¬tween what suits of testicle does a liquid accumulate at this disease?
A. Between external seminal fascia and fascia of cremaster muscle.
B. Between a skin and tunica dartos.
C. Between a tunica dartos and external seminal fascia.
D. * Between the parietal and visceral lamina of vaginal tunic.
E. Between internal seminal fascia and vaginal tunic.
127.
A man 75 years old entered urology department with complaints of the
expressed pain at the hypogastric region, absence of urine, impossibility of
urination. At examination an urologist revealed a diagnosis\: adenoma (benign
tumor of prostate gland). The catheterization of urinary bladder was indicated. What
is the sequence of passing of catheter through the parts of urethra?
A. Membranous, prostatic, spongy.
B. Spongy, prostatic, membranous.
C. Membranous, spongy, prostatic.
D. Prostatic, membranous, spongy.
E. * Spongy, membranous, prostatic.
128.
A man has a tumor of posterior wall of urinary bladder. What organs can be
engaged in a process?
A. Rectum, prostate gland.
B. Prostate gland.
C. * Rectum, seminal vesicles, ampule of ejaculatory duct.
D. Male urethra.
E. Cowper's (bulbourethral) glands.
129.
A patient 20 years old appealed to the policlinic with complaints of burning
and purulent excretions during urination. For confirmation of diagnosis the bacterial
inoculation from a urethra is appointed. Doctor doing this inoculation, takes mu¬cus
from a navicular fossa. In what part of urethra is this fossa located?
A. Cavernous.
B. * Spongy.
C. Prostatic.
D. Membranous.
E. Bulbar.
130.
A patient 35 years old entered obstetric department with the symptoms of
"acute abdomen" and suspicion on extrauterine pregnancy. Where will blood
accumulate at the rupture of salpinx?
A. In a vesicouterine cavity.
B. * In a rectouterine cavity.
C. In a rectovesical cavity.
D. In a right lateral canal.
E. In the left lateral canal.
131.
A patient 65 years old was hospitalized with suspicion on the tumor of
prostate. During an operation it is revealed, that the tumor «germinated» to a
urinary bladder. What department of urinary bladder suffered?
A. * Neck.
B. Apex.
C. Fundus.
D. Body.
E. Triangle.
132.
A patient appealed to the doctor with a complaint of sharp attacks of a pain in
a right lumbar area. The examination revealed obstruction of right ureter by stone
between its abdominal and pelvic parts. What is anatomical border between these
two parts?
A. Linea semilunaris.
B. * Linea terminalis.
C. Linea arcuata.
D. Linea transversa.
E. Linea inguinalis.
133.
A patient has inflammation of bulbourethral glands. Between what perineal
fascia are these organs?
A. Fasciae diaphragmatis pelvis inferior et superior.
B. Fasciae perinei superficialis et dia¬phragmatic urogenitalis inferior.
C. Fasciae diaphragmatis urogenitalis superior et diaphragmatis pelvis inferior.
D. * Fasciae diaphragmatis urogenitalis superior et inferior.
E. Fasciae perinei superficialis et dia¬phragmatis pelvis inferior.
134.
A patient was hospitalized with suspicion on the tumor of prostate. During an
operation it was exposed, that a tumor «germinated» to the middle department of
urethra. What is it a department?
A. Lacunar.
B. Prostatic.
C. Spongy.
D. Cavernous.
E. * Membranous.
135.
A young man appealed to the hospital with complaints of disturbances of
urination. It was revealed, that a urethra is split above and urine flows out through
this opening. What type of anomaly of development is observed in this case?
A. Paraphimosis.
B. Phimosis.
C. Hermaphroditism.
D. * Epispadiya.
E. Hypospadiya.
136.
After trauma of testicle and hemorrhage the coiled seminal tubuli in a
parenchyma are damaged. What function of testicle is destroyed?
A. Erection of penis.
B. * Spermatogenesis.
C. Excretion of sperms.
D. Production of liquid part of sperm.
E. All mentioned.
137.
An urolithiasis was complicated by the exit of concrement from the kidney.
On what level of ureter can it stop most probably?
A. 2 cm superiorly to the inflow to a urinary bladder.
B. In a renal pelvis.
C. In middle abdominal part.
D. * On the border between abdominal and pelvic parts.
E. 5 cm superiorly to pelvic part.
138.
At a woman extrauterine pregnancy was found out. In what organ did the
impregnation of ovule and its development happen?
A. Vagina.
B. In an ovary.
C. In the body of uterus.
D. In the neck of uterus.
E. * In a salpinx.
139.
At a woman the tumor of ovary was found out. An operation is indicated.
What lig¬ament must a surgeon cut to separate an ovary from uterus? A. Broad
ligament of uterus.
A. Lig. umbilicalis medialis.
B. Lig. suspensorium ovarium.
C. * Lig. ovarium proprium.
D. Lig. umbilicalis lateralis.
E. Rounded ligament of uterus.
140.
At examination of a newborn boy a surgeon exposed absence of the left
testicle in a scrotum (monorchizm). In what age must a testicle be in a scrotum in
norm?
A. Till one year.
B. * To moment of birth.
C. Till three years.
D. Till five years.
E. Till seven years.
141.
During a childbirth at difficult exiting of head of child to avoid the perineal
rupture they usually make the section of vagina opening at base of labia majora.
What perineal muscle is dissected here?
A. M. transversus perinei superficialis.
B. M. ischiocavernosus.
C. * M. bulbospongiosus.
D. M. sphincter ani externus.
E. M. transversus perinei profundus.
142.
During a cystoscopy a doctor revealed changes of mucous membrane of
urinary bladder in the area of «triangle». I n what part of urinary bladder is this
triangle?
A. Body.
B. Isthmus.
C. Apex.
D. Collumn.
E. * Fundus.
143.
During examination in a newborn boy was found that the orifice of urethra is
open on the lower surface of penis. What anomaly of development is it?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Hypospady.
Hermaphroditism.
Epispady.
Monorchism.
Cryptorchism.
144.
During operation of deleting of uterus with ovaries and ovarian tubes a doctor
bandages Ligaments which suspend ovaries. What vessels were bandaged by a
doctor in this ligament?
A. * Ovarian artery and vein.
B. Uterine artery and vein.
C. Tubular artery and vein.
D. Internal iliac artery.
E. Internal iliac vein.
145.
During operation on an ovary vessels were bandaged in area of hilus. In what
department of ovary does conduct manipulation?
A. Facies lateralis.
B. Margo liber.
C. Facies medialis.
D. * Margo mesovaricus.
E. Extremitas uterinus.
146.
During the catheterization of male urethra a mucous membrane was injured.
In what part of urethra is the damage of it most possible?
A. Pars cavernosa.
B. Pars spongiosa.
C. * Pars membranacea.
D. Pars prostatica.
E. Pars bulbaris.
147.
During the removing of right ovary a surgeon instead of ovarian artery
bandaged a near located organ. Which one?
A. * Ureter.
B. Thoracic duct.
C. Aorta.
D. Common iliac artery.
E. Internal iliac artery.
148.
For a man 40 years inflammation of testicle was complicated by hydrocele.
Operative treatment is needed. What from the suits of testicle does a surgeon cut
the last during an operation?
A. Fascia spermatica interna.
B. Tunica dartos.
C. * Lamina parietalis tunicae vaginalis tes¬tis.
D. Musculus cremaster.
E. Fascia spermatica externa.
149.
For a newborn boy at examination in a right half of scrotum a testicle it is not
found . What anomaly of development does speech go about?
A. Epispadia.
B. Hermaphroditism.
C. Hydrocele.
D. Hypospadia.
E. * Monorchizm.
150.
For the boy of 2 years a scrotal hernia is diagnosed. Abnormality of what
testicular membrane does lead to this pathology?
A. Tunica dartos.
B. Fascia cremasterica.
C. Fascia spermatica externa.
D. * Tunica vaginalis testis.
E. Fascia spermatica interna.
151.
For the patient of 53 years old after a wound of perineal region involuntary
urination is marked. What of muscles is damaged?
A. * M. sphincter urethrae.
B. M. ischiocavernosus.
C. M. bulbospongiosus.
D. M. transversus perinei superficialis.
E. M. transversus perinei profundus.
152.
In patient the presence of stone in the place of transition of right renal pelvis
to the ureter was revealed. Behind what structure does the initial part of the right
ureter situate?
A. Colon ascendens.
B. Flexura coli dextra.
C. * Pars descendens duodeni.
D. Pars superior duodeni.
E. Pars horizontalis duodeni.
153.
It is possible to perform a puncture of urinary bladder through anterior
abdominal wall, not affecting a peritoneum. When?
A. When the bladder is empty.
B. * When the bladder is full (stretched), when it is covered mesoperitoneally.
C. Only in male.
D. Only in female.
E. Only in children.
154.
Several time after the trauma of perineal region a patient have the
phenomena of impotence. What muscle was damaged?
A. M. levator ani.
B. M. sphincter urethrae internus.
C. M. sphincter urethrae externus.
D. M. bulbospongiosus.
E. * M. ischiocavernosus.
155.
Ultrasonic research of organs of lesser pelvis is carried out at a full urinary
bladder. What does perineal muscle retain the urine?
A. M. bulbospongiosus.
B. * M. sphincter urethrae.
C. M. ischiocavernosus.
D. M. transversus perinei superficialis.
E. M. transversus perinei profundus.
156.
The patient has compressive fracture at the beginning of spinal cord .At what
vertebra is it?
A. L4
B.
C.
D.
E.
C3
T11
* C1
T7
157.
Between what vertebra may a needle be inserted during a spinal tap?
A. L4-L5
B. L2-L3
C. L1-L2
D. * L3-L4
E. T12-L1
158.
During general anaesthesia doctor blocking the basic functional unit of the
nervous system it is…
A. * Neuron
B. Glial cell
C. White mater and gray mater
D. Portion of spinal cord with pair of spinal nerves
E. Anterior and posterior horns
159.
During general anaesthesia doctor blocking the brain it is the part of…
A. Somatic nervous system
B. * Central nervous system
C. Autonomic nervous system
D. Portion of spinal cord with pair of spinal nerves
E. Splanchnic nervous system
160.
During spinal anaesthesia doctor blocking segment of spinal cord it is…
A. Portion of spinal cord between upper and lower spinal roots
B. Portion of spinal cord with membranes
C. White mater and gray mater
D. * Portion of spinal cord with pair of spinal nerves
E. Anterior and posterior horns
161.
On the CT picture doctor can indicate position of the terminal ventricle in
the…
A. Midbrain
B. Brain steam
C. * Spinal cord
D. Diencephalon
E. Hind brain
162.
On the CT picture doctor can indicate position of the end of spinal cord on
adults in the…
A. Th 12 vertebrae
B. L1 vertebrae
C. S1 vertebrae
D. * L2 vertebrae
E. Th11 vertebrae
163.
On the CT picture doctor can indicate position of the end of spinal cord on
child in the…
A. Th 12 vertebrae
B. L1 vertebrae
C. S1 vertebrae
D. L2 vertebrae
E. * L3 vertebrae
164.
The child 5 years old diagnosed meningitis. At what level punctuate must be
done?
A. L4-L5
B. L2-L3
C. * L3-L4
D. L1-L2
E. T12-L1
165.
The doctor examine knee reflex.Which sequence best represents the
courseof an impulse over a reflex arc?
A. Effector,sensory neuron,synapse,motor neurone,receptor
B. Receptor,motor neuron,synapse,sensory neurone,effector
C. * Receptor,sensory neuron,synapse,motor neurone,effector
D. Receptor,sensory neuron,center,intern neuron,effector
E. Non of the above
166.
The doctor neuropathologist examine knee reflex the sensory nerve fibers
carry information…
A. Away from the visceral nervous system
B. Away from the ANS
C. Away from theCNS to the ANS
D. * Toward the CNS
E. Away from the CNS
167.
The doctor want punctuate spinal canal..At what level it must be done?
A. T4
B. * L2
C. C5
D. T12
E. T8
168.
The patient cannot detect the amount of stretch or tension in skeletal
muscles, what receptors not functioned?
A. Pain receptors
B. * Proprio receptors
C. Heat receptors
D. Cutaneous receptors
E. Away from the CNS
169.
The patient has fever and weakness in the foots, doctor suspect meningitis
and examine…
A. Extra cerebral spinal fluid
B. The subarachnoid space
C. * Cerebral spinal fluid
D. Fat
E. Blood
170.
?The patient has fracture of L2 vertebra At what level will be spinal cord
damaged1?
A. C3
B. L1
C. T5
D. L2
E. No correct answer
171.
The patient has not temperature sensitivity of the legs skin.What is the
minimum number of neurons is blocked?
A. -3
B. -4
C. -5
D. -1
E. * -2
172.
What functions of the central nervous system examine the doctor
neuropathologist?
A. Sending out messages to muscles
B.
C.
D.
E.
Sending out messages to glands and organs
Receiving,processing and interpreting incoming information
* All of the above
None of the above
173.
You see CT picture indicate position of filum terminale in the…
A. L1-Co1
B. C1-S1
C. C1-L2
D. C2-L2
E. * L2-Co2
174.
You see CT picture indicate position of lumbosacral enlargement in the…
A. * Th 12 vertebrae
B. L1 vertebrae
C. S1 vertebrae
D. L2 vertebrae
E. Th11 vertebrae
175.
You see CT picture what you can indicate in central canal of vertebre?
A. Midbrain
B. Brain steam
C. * Spinal cord
D. Diencephalon
E. Hind brain
176.
After auto accident to the neurological department of hospital delivered the
man. Found traumatic brain injury .Suspected lesion of the hindbrain. Which parts
of the brain can be damaged?
A. hypophysis
B. none of the above
C. * pons
D. corpus callosum
E. all correct answers
177.
After auto accident to the neurological department of hospital delivered the
man. Found traumatic brain injury .Suspected lesion of the hindbrain. Which parts
of the brain can be damaged?
A. hypophysis
B. frontal lobe
C. corpus callosum
D. * vermis of cerebellum
E. temporal lobe
178.
After auto accident to the neurological department of hospital delivered the
man. Found traumatic brain injury .Suspected lesion of the hindbrain. Which parts
of the brain can be damaged?
A. * decussation of pyramids
B. hypophysis
C. frontal lobe
D. corpus callosum
E. temporal lobe
179.
After traumatic brain injury of occipital area of the head to the neurological
department of hospital delivered the man. Suspected lesion of the medulla
oblongata. What disorders of the central nervous system can be detected?
A. * cardiovascular disorders
B. speech defect
C. auditory loss
D. a loss of coordination and balance
E. distorted pain perception
180.
After traumatic brain injury of occipital area of the head to the neurological
department of hospital delivered the man. Suspected lesion of the medulla
oblongata. What disorders of the central nervous system can be detected?
A. speech defect
B. auditory loss
C. * cardiac and vasomotor disorders
D. a loss of coordination and balance
E. distorted pain perception
181.
After traumatic brain injury of occipital area of the head to the neurological
department of hospital delivered the man. Suspected lesion of the medulla
oblongata. What disorders of the central nervous system can be detected?
A. speech defect
B. auditory loss
C. a loss of coordination and balance
D. * respiratory rhythmicity disorders
E. distorted pain perception
182.
After traumatic brain injury of occipital area of the head to the neurological
department of hospital delivered the man. Suspected lesion of the cerebellum. What
disorders of the central nervous system can be detected?
A. speech defect
B. auditory loss
C. * a loss of coordination
D. respiratory rhythmicity disorders
E. distorted pain perception
183.
After traumatic brain injury of occipital area of the head to the neurological
department of hospital delivered the man. Suspected lesion of the cerebellum. What
disorders of the central nervous system can be detected?
A. * a loss of balance
B. speech defect
C. auditory loss
D. respiratory rhythmicity disorders
E. distorted pain perception
184.
After traumatic brain injury patient complains of loss of visual motor
response. What part of the brain may be damaged?
A. cerebellum
B. corpus callosum.
C. * corpora quadrigemina.
D. none of the above
E. medulla oblongata
185.
After traumatic brain injury to the neurological department of hospital
delivered the man. Suspected lesion of the hindbrain. Which parts of the brain can
be damaged?
A. pons
B. cerebellar hemispheres
C. vermis of cerebellum
D. decussation of pyramids
E. * all correct answers
186.
After traumatic brain injury to the neurological department of hospital
delivered the man. Suspected lesion of the hindbrain. Which parts of the brain can
be damaged?
A. hypophysis
B. * cerebellar hemispheres
C. none of the above
D. corpus callosum
E. all correct answers
187.
During operation neurosurgeon remove some parts of the pons of the
brain.What structures may be destroyed?
A. Processing centers for sensory information
B. Processes of visual and auditory information
C. Connections of the cerebellum to the brain stem
D. None of the above
E. * All of the above
188.
During the examination of the patient of neurological department found
violations of hypoglossal nerve. Indicate the level of location of the nucleus of
hypoglossal nerve?
A. The upper segments of the spinal cord;
B. * Medulla oblongata
C. The lower part of the pons;
D. Legs brain;
E. Top of the pons.
189.
During the MRI examination revealed pathological formation in the area of
interpeduncular fossa. Which nerve can be damaged?
A. 1st cranial nerve
B. 2nd cranial nerve
C. 4th cranial nerve
D. 5th cranial nerve
E. * 3d cranial nerve
190.
During the MRI examination revealed pathological formation in the area of
trapezoid body. Which parts of the brain can be damaged?
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Rhomboid fossa
C. Cerebellum
D. Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. * Pons
191.
During the MRI examination revealed pathological formation in the area of
superior colliculus and brachium of superior colliculus. The function of what centers
can be damaged?
A. subcortical auditory centers
B. olfactory centers
C. subcortical motor centers
D. * subcortical visual centers
E. centers of stereohnoziyi
192.
During the MRI examination revealed pathological formation in the area of
the lower triangle of rhomboid fossa. What nucleus of cranial nerves can be
damaged?
A. * from IX to XII pair
B. from V to VIII pair
C. from V to XII pair
D. from I to IV pair
E. from I to IV pair
193.
During the MRI examination revealed pathological formation in the area of
the upper triangle of rhomboid fossa. What nucleus of cranial nerves can be
damaged?
A. from IX to XII pair
B. * from V to VIII pair
C. from V to XII pair
D. from I to IV pair
E. from I to IV pair
194.
During the MRI examination revealed pathological formation in the area of
the lateral triangle of rhomboid fossa. What can be damaged?
A. * Vestibular field
B. Triangle pneumogastric
C. Triangle hyoid nerve
D. Caudal pole
E. Cranial pole
195.
Following an auto accident, a man with an obvious head injury was observed
stumbling about the scene. An inability to walk properly and loss of balance were
quite obvious. What brain area was involved?{
A. corpus callosum
B. occipital lobe of cerebrum
C. temporal lobe of cerebrum
D. medulla oblongata
E. * cerebellum
196.
Following an auto accident,a man with an obvious head injury was observed
stumbling about the scene.An inability to walk properly and loss of balance were
qute obvious.What brain area was involved?
A. Corpus callosum
B. Occipital lobe of cerebrum
C. * Cerebellum
D. Medulla oblongata
E. Temporal lobe of cerebrum
197.
In patient heart rhythm irregularities. What part of the brain may be
damaged?
A. cerebellum
B. cerebrum.
C. superior coliculi.
D. none of the above
E. * medulla oblongata
198.
The CT picture indicate haemorrage in the fouth ventricle.Where it locate?
A. * Rhomboencephalon
B. Mesencephalon
C. Diencephalon
D. Medulla oblongata
E. Isthmus rhomboencephali
199.
The CT picture indicate haemorrage in the pyramids region.Where it locate?
A. Cerebellum
B. Rhomboid fossa
C. Medulla oblongata
D. * Isthmus rhomboencephali
E. Pons
200.
The CT picture show small haemorrage to the reflex center of the
medulla.What center not involve to the process?
A. * Digestive centers
B. Cardiac and vasomotor centers
C. Respiratory rhythmicity center
D. Cardiovascular center
E. None of the above
201.
The CT picture show that patient has closed connection between 3-d and 4th ventricles.What structure does not function correctly?
A. * Cerebral aqueduct
B. Lateral ventricle
C. Amiculum olivare
D. Corpus callosum
E. Tractus piramidalis
202.
The doctor diagnosed pathology in the cerebellum.What functions will be
damage?
A. Visual activity
B. * Balance and postur
C. Speech
D. Binocular vision
E. Emotional behavior
203.
The doctor on CT picture diagnosed pathology in the medulla
oblongata.What control functions except heart rate,blood pressurewill be damage?
A. Emotions
B. Balance and postur
C. B and D
D. Body temperature
E. * Rate and depth of breathing
204.
The patient has haemorrage to the corpora quadrigemina ,it would most like
result in…
A. Speech defect
B. * Loss of visual motor response
C. Auditory loss
D. A loss of coordination and balance
E. Distorted pain perception
205.
?The patient has haemorrage to the region of the brain that regulates heart
rate I t is located…
A. Cerebullum
B. Cerebrum
C. * Medulla oblongata
D. Superior coliculi
E. Non of the above
206.
The patient has less quantity of cerebrospinal fluid.What structure is
response for it production?
A. Pia mater
B. Dura mater
C. * Chroid plexus
D. Dural sinus
E. Arachnoid granulation
207.
The patient has less quantity of cerebrospinal fluid.What functional proceses
will be break?
A. Cushions neural structures
B. Transports nutrients,chemical messengers and waste products
C. Supports of the brain
D. None of the above
E. * All of the above
208.
The patient has partial loss of control wake.Whicharea of the brain is
damaged?
A. Cerebellum
B. Midbrain
C. All of the above
D. * Reticular activating system (RAS)
E. Non of the above
209.
The patient in ICU has problems with respiratory rhythme.Where can be
damage of the brain locate?
A. Rhomboencephalon
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Mesencephalon
Diencephalon
Medulla oblongata
Isthmus rhomboencephali
210.
The surgeon during operation cut nerve in the interpeduncular fossa.Which
number of cranial nerve it was?
A. 1-st cranial nerve
B. 2-nd cranial nerve
C. 4-th cranial nerve
D. 5-th cranial nerve
E. * 3-d cranial nerve
211.
To the emergency department brought the patients after auto accident During
the examination in patient found heart rhythm irregularities. What part of the brain
may be damaged?
A. cerebellum
B. * medulla oblongata
C. cerebrum.
D. superior coliculi.
E. none of the above
212.
After injury of head MRI picture indicate,that patient has some adhesions in
the middle frontal gyrus.What center is located here?
A. Speech area
B. Hearing area
C. Sensory area
D. * Writing center
E. Visual cortex
213.
After injury of the head, subdural haemorrhage and compression of the
occipital lobe was detected by CT investigation.With what this region is associate?
A. Are located within the white matter of the cerebrum
B. Are the most posterior part of the cerebellum
C. Help regulate gross movements performed unconsciously
D. * Are concerned with vision
E. Are the part of peripheral nervous system
214.
?After scanning , tumour was detected at the Brocar”s Area in the brain of
patient.Abnormality of which function may be observe?
A. Maintain a state of wakefulness
B. Interpret sounds
C. * Speak
D. Remember
E. Play a musical instrument
215.
After special physiological researches on volunteeres it was explored that…
A. The left brain is more active in artistic and intuitive tasks,and the right brain is
more involved in the emotional and expressive abilities
B. The left brain has visual-spatial abilities,while the right brain is more involved
in artistic and creative activites
C. The right brain is more dominant and the left brain is more subordinate
D. * The left brain is more active in logic and the right brain is assotiated with
visual-spatial abilities
E. B and D
216.
At the clinical researches scientists explored,that anterior pituitary gland
receives hypothalamic relising factors via…
A. Direct diffusion through the interstitial spaces
B. Transport along nerve axons to the adenohypophysis
C. The systemic arterial system
D. Transport through the lymphatic system
E. * System of vessels in the infundibulum
217.
By clinical researches it was explored, that the part of the brain concerned
with water balance,appetite and regulating body temperature is the…
A. Cerebellum
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Cerebral cortex
D. * Hypothalamus
E. Thalamus
218.
During clinical scientific researches of the brain, it was explored ,that general
sensory center is located at…
A. Subthalamic area
B. Epithalamus
C. Metathalamus
D. * Thalamus
E. Hypothalamus
219.
During clinical scientific researches of the brain,it was explored,that the
cortical hearing area is located at…
A. Superior frontal sulcus
B. Unculus
C. * Superior temporal gyrus
D. Insula
E. Calcarine sulcus
220.
During clinical scientific researches of the brain, it was explored,that cortical
smell area is locate at…
A. Superior frontal sulcus
B. Superior temporal gyrus
C. Insula
D. * Uncus
E. Calcarine sulcus
221.
During clinical researches on volunteeres it was explored, that next structure
plays an important role in regulating of voluntary movements.It is…
A. Cerebral peduncles
B. Basal ganglias
C. * Primary motor gyrus of frontal lobe
D. Hypotalamus
E. Postcentral gyrus of parietal lobe
222.
During clinical researches was explored that ,feeling satisfied after a nice
meal and no being immediately hungry is the function of the…
A. Thalamus
B. Medulla
C. Cerebral cortex
D. Hypothalamus
223.
During clinical scientific researches it was explored that the locating sensor y
information is the function of the …
A. Somatosensory assotiation cortex
B. Broca”s area
C. Somatomotor cortex
D. * Somatosensory cortex
E. A and В
224.
During operation it was diagnosted that free circulation of the intracerebral
liquid is blocked at the aqueduct.What formations it communicate?
A. Third and second ventricles
B. * Fourth and third ventricles
C. Central canal of fourth ventricle
D. Central canal and subarachnoid space
E. Fourth ventricle and subarachnoid space
225.
On the CT picture doctor indicate pathologic process at the hypothalamus
region.Choose the function of the hypothalamus that is false…
A. Cardiovascular regulation
B. Regulation of sleeping and wakefulness
C. Houses pneumotaxic aarea
D. Sexual response
E. * None of the variants
226.
On the MRI picture it is indicate small haemorrhage in the pineal body.Where
it is locate?
A. Thalamus
B. * Epithalamus
C. Metathalamus
D. Subthalamic araea
E. Hypothalamus
227.
On the MRI picture of brain doctor can indicate the four distinct lobes of the
cortex,they are…
A. Sensory,auditory,visual and motor lobes
B. Hind,mid,fore and assotiation lobes
C. * Occipital,parietal,temporal and frontal lobes
D. Front,back,side and top lobes
E. None of the above
228.
On the MRI picture of brain doctor can indicate the largest part of the
diencefalon,it is…
A. Pineal body
B. * Thalamus
C. Hypothalamus
D. Intermediate mass
E. Pituitary gland
229.
On the picture of brain, made by electronic microscope,we can see the most
common type of neurons ,which have several dendrites and one axon extending
from the cell body .They are…
A. Interneurons
B. Afferent neurons
C. Pseudounipolar neurons
D. None of the above
E. * Multipolar neurons
230.
The patient has concussion of the brain,he complane about disfunction of
verbal communication,higher intellectual processes,voluntary control of skeletal
muscles.Which cerebral lobes are injured?
A. Occipital
B. * Frontal
C. Temporal
D. Parietal
E. Non of the above
231.
The patient has some problems with regulating sensory activity.What region
of brain may be involved in pathologic process?
A. * Somatic ,parietal
B. Voluntary motor,occipital
C. Somatic,temporal
D. Autonomic,parietal
E. Autonomic,temporal
232.
The patient has some problems with regulating consciously movements of
skeletal muscles.What region of brain may be involved in pathologic process?
A. Somatic sensory frontal
B. Primary motor,temporal
C. Primary motor parietal
D. Somatic sensory,parietal
E. * Primary motor,frontal lobe
233.
The scientists explored by clinical researches of the brain, that authonomic
center is located at…
A. Thalamus
B. Epithalamus
C. * Hypothalamus
D. Optic chiasma
E. Subthalamic area
234.
The scientists explored by clinical researches of the brain, that visual cortex
is located at…
A. Insula
B. Uncus
C. * Calcarine sulcus
D. Superior temporal gyrus
E. Superior frontal sulcus
235.
The scientists explored by clinical researches, that the function of thalamus
is...
A. The final relay point for ascending sensory information
B. Coordination of the pyramidal and extrapiramidal systems
C. Secreating of hormones
D. All of the above
E. * 1 and 2 only
236.
Which of these groups will be cut through in a midsaggital section of the brain
during operation?
A. Medulla oblongata,pineal body,infundibulum and optic chiasma
B. Cerebellum,third and fourth ventricles and cerebral cortex
C. 2 and 3
D. Bulbus olfactorius
E. * 1 and 2
237.
?After clinical scientific researches it was explored that “Pleasure center” and
“Punishment center” of the brain are located in the…
A. Precentral gyrus
B. Prefrontal area
C. Intermediate mass
D. * Limbic system
E. Mammilliary bodies
238.
After examination of CT image of the brain structures ,can you say, what
sentence is true?
A. * The lateral ventricles are two cavities,one in each cerebral hemisphere
B. The fouth ventricle is diamond-shaped expansion of the central canal within
the brainstem
C. The third ventricle is a thin chamber lying below the corpus callosum and
septum pellucidum
D. None of the above
E. All of the above
239.
After examination of CT image indicate structure that represent structure of
lateral ventricle,it is…
A. Mesencephalon
B.
C.
D.
E.
* Cornu anterius
Pons
Medulla oblongata
Spinal cord
240.
After examination of CT image indicate structure that represent structure of
lateral ventricle,it is…
A. Mesencephalon
B. * Cornu temporal
C. Pons
D. Medulla oblongata
E. Spinal cord
241.
After examination of CT image indicate structure that represent structure of
lateral ventricle,it is…
A. Mesencephalon
B. Spinal cord
C. Pons
D. * Pars centralis
E. Medulla oblongata
242.
After examination of CT image indicate structure that represent structure of
lateral ventricle,it is…
A. Mesencephalon
B. Pons
C. Medulla oblongata
D. * Cornu frontale
E. Spinal cord
243.
After examination of CT image indicate structure that represent structure of
lateral ventricle,it is…
A. Mesencephalon
B. Pons
C. Spinal cord
D. Medulla oblongata
E. * Stria terminalis
244.
After examination of CT image indicate structure that represent structure of
lateral ventricle,it is…
A. Mesencephalon
B. Pons
C. * Foramen interventriculare
D. Spinal cord
E. Medulla oblongata
245.
After examination of CT image indicate structure that represent structure of
lateral ventricle,it is…
A. Mesencephalon
B. Pons
C. Medulla oblongata
D. * Cornu inferius
E. Spinal cord
246.
Indicate,after examination of the MRI picture of the brain,what structure
doesn”t take part in formation of corpus callosum?
A. Rostrum
B. * Cortex cerebella
C. Splenium corporis callosi
D. Truncus corpora callosi
E. Radiatio corporis callosi
247.
Indicate,after examination of the MRI picture of the brain,what structures
include to the limbic system?
A. Spinal cord and the brain
B. Cortex and corpus callosum
C. A and B
D. Cerebellum and brain stem
E. * Amygdalla and hippocampus
248.
Indicate,after examination of the MRI picture of the brain,what is the principal
connection between cerebral hemispheres?
A. Cerebellum to the pons and medulla
B. The cerebral peduncles
C. * The corpus callosum
D. The brain system
E. The fornix
249.
Indicate,after examination of the MRI picture of the brain,what structures
connect corpus callosum?
A. Cerebellum to the pons and medulla
B. Lateral lobes of the cerebellum
C. The calluses on the palms of your hand
D. * Right and left cerebral hemispheres
E. The calluses on the palm of your hands
250.
The patient has problems with motor function of left hand. Where is the first
neuron (axon) of lateral corticospinal tract passes through?
A. Extrema capsule
B. Lentiform nucleus
C. External capsule
D. * Internal capsule
E. Claustrum
251.
The patient has significations of high intracranial pressure. What structure of
brain has concern to production of cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Meninges
B. * Choroid plexes
C. Corpora quadrigmina
D. Crura cerebri
E. Adenohypophysis glands
252.
At patient was diagnosed extra production of cerebrospinal fluid.Whath
structure response about it ?
A. Arachnoid granulations
B. * Choroid plexus
C. Spinal cord
D. Pia mater
E. Dural sinus
253.
At the patient was diagnosed “nearsightedness”,it means:
A. Hyperopia
B. Presbiopia
C. Hemianopia
D. * Myopia
E. Emmetropia
254.
At the patient was diagnosed “farsightedness”,it means:
A. * Hyperopia
B. Myopia
C. Presbiopia
D. Emmetropia
E. Hemianopia
255.
During microscopic investigation of eyeball doctor can see that fotoreceptors
are found in the..
A. Choroid coat
B. Cornea
C. * Retina
D. All the above
E. Sclera
256.
During microscopic investigation of retina doctor can see that the area of
retina containing only cone cells is the…
A. Uvea
B. Blind spot
C. * Fovea centralis
D. B and D
E. Optic disc
257.
During microscopic investigation of retina doctor can see that ora serrata
separate…
A. Chroidea and cornea
B. Retina and chroidea
C. * Parts of retina
D. Iris and ciliary body
E. Choroidea and sclera
258.
During microscopic investigation of retina doctor can see that rods and cones
are distributed over the entire retina exept for the…
A. Sclera
B. Ora serrata
C. Choroid
D. A and C
E. * Optic disc
259.
During neurosurgical operation doctor cut three connective tissue
membranes covering and protecting CNS structures are the…
A. Endosteum,pia mater
B. Periosteum,dura mater
C. Meninges,arachnoid
D. * Meninges,dura mater
E. Meninges,pia mater
260.
During operation of implantation an artificial crystalline lens surgeon cut pupil
.What it contain?
A. Lens
B. Light
C. Lens
D. Cones and rods
E. * Aquous humor
261.
The doctor diagnosed that the patient has blocked drainage of aquous humor
at the canal of Schlemm,what condition results?
A. Iritis
B. Cataract
C. * Glaucoma
D. Conjunctivitis
E. Blefaritis
262.
?The patient cannot see clear picture,focussing the light rays involves which
of the following?
A. Change in the location of the optic disc
B. Change in the sharp of the cornea
C. Change in the relative position of the lens
D. * Change in the sharpe of the lens
E. Change in the density of the aqueous humor
263.
The patient has an inflammation of delicate membrane that lines the eyelids
and covers part of oute surface of the eyeball,it is..
A. Arachnoid,cornea
B. Conjunctiva,ciliary glands
C. * Conjunctiva ,cornea
D. Conjunctiva,lacrimal apparatus
E. Endothelium,cornea
264.
The patient has an inflammation of the outer fibrous coating of the eyeball ,it
is…
A. Most optically sensitive point of the retina
B. * The region in the retina where the ganglion cells are locate
C. The latest recording techniques on CDs
D. Exit of the Optic nerve,II
E. Junction between the iris and the ciliary body
F. ANSWER: D
G. Ciliary body
H. Sclera
I. Choroid
J. Retina
K. None of the above
265.
The patient has diagnose “glaucoma”.It is a condition:
A. Characterized by encrustations on the eyelids
B. Results eventually in opacity of the lens or cornea
C. Which may be caused by exposure to ultraviolet light
D. In which the conjunctiva is inflamated due to irritants such as dust or smoke
E. * Characterized by abnormally high intraocular pressure
266.
The patient has inflammation of the transparent anterior portion of the
sclera,it is…
A. Choroid
B. Ciliary body
C. A and B
D. Retina
E. * Cornea
267.
The patient has problems with accommodation of the lens.What is
responseible for this function?
A. Sphincter muscle
B. Pupil
C. Pectinate ligament
D. Dilator muscle
E. * Ciliary musle
268.
The patient has problems with production of the aquous humor of the eye,
what structure responds of it?
A. Ora serrata
B. Pectinate ligaments
C. Iridocorneal angle
D. * Ciliary process
E. Zonula ciliaris
269.
The patient has problems with vision. Which way of light within the eyeball?
A. Pupil,anterior chamber,cornea,lens,vitreous body,posterior chamber
B. Pupil,cornea,anterior chamber,posterior chamber,lens,vitreous body
C. Cornea,pupil,lens,anterior chamber,posterior chamber,vitreous body
D. Cornea,anterior chamber,pupil,lens,posterior chamber,vitreous body
E. * Cornea,anterior chamber,pupil,posterior chamber,lens,vitreous body
At the newborn child some special sense is NOT function,it is…
A. Vision
B. * Balance
C. Taste
D. Smell
E. Hearing
271.
Doctor explore reaction of patient”s eye on bright light. Which muscle is
response for this reaction?
A. Dilator pupilae
B. Ciliary muscle
C. * Sphincter papillae
D. Oblique superior
E. Rectus superior
272.
Doctor explore reaction of patient”s eye on darkness. Which muscle is
response for this reaction ?
A. Rectus superior
B. Oblique superior
C. Sphincter papillae
D. Ciliary muscle
E. * Dilator papillae
273.
It was diagnosed that patient has problems with accommodation.What is
response about thigh function?
A. Sphincter muscle
B. Pupil
C. * Ciliary muscle
D. Pectinate ligament
E. Dilator muscle
274.
It was diagnosed that patient has problems with chemoreceptors, they are…
A. Pain,pressure
B. Sight,smell
C. Smell,hearing
D. * Taste,smell
E. Proprioception,pain
275.
The doctor diagnosed nonmobile the maleus,incus and stapes they…
A. Are surrounded by perilymph
B. Are parts of the organ of Corti
C. Both A and B are correc
D. * Form a bridge between the tympanum and the oval window
E. Are locate in the inner ear
276.
The doctor diagnosed that patient has blocked Eustachian tube.With which
structure they communicate?
A. Larynx and pharynx
B. * Nasopharynx and tympanic cavity
C. Laryngeal pharynx and oropharynx
D. Larynx and tympanic cavity
E. Oropharynx and tympanic cavity
277.
The doctor diagnosed that the patient has an inflammation of the auditory (or
Eustachian) tube,which is locate between the…
A. Throat and larynx
B. Throat and inner ear
C. Throat and trachea
D. Middle ear and inner ear
E. * Throat and middle ear
270.
278.
The patient after car accident has injure of auditory ossiles, they are
associated with the…
A. External ear
B. Semicircular canals
C. * Middle ear
D. Internal ear
E. Cochlear duct
279.
The patient has an infection at cochelea,it is associate with the…
A. External ear
B. Eustachian tube
C. Semicircular canals
D. * Internal ear
E. Middle ear
280.
The patient has an infection in the part of ear which locate between timpanic
membrane and oval window,they associate with the…
A. External ear
B. Cochlear duct
C. * Middle ear
D. Inner ear
E. Semicircular canals
281.
?The patient has an inflammation of membrane that inlay the eyelids and
covers part of the outer surface of the eyeball, it is…
A. Arachnoid,cornea
B. Conjunctiva,cilary glands
C. Endothelium,cornea
D. * Conjunctiva,cornea
E. conjunctiva,lacrimal apparatus
282.
The patient has blocked structure that provides a means of equalizing the air
pressure in the middle ear chamber it is…
A. Oval window
B. Mastoid sinus
C. * Auditory tube
D. Seminiferous tube
E. Round window
283.
The patient has dissociate taste in the tip of the tongue, which taste he
cannot feel?
A. Salty
B. Sour
C. Bitter
D. B and D are correct
E. * Sweet
284.
The patient has dissociate taste to sour substances. Where are such taste
buds located?
A. * On the posterior lateral edges of the tongue
B. At the tip of the tongue
C. Both A ans B are correct
D. All over the surface of the tongue
E. At the sides of the tip of the tongue
285.
The patient has impairment of the teste sense.Which cranial nerves may be
damaged?
A. Fascial
B. Glossopharingeal
C. Hypoglossal
D. A,B and C are correct
E. * Only A and B are correct
When patient crying where do tears flow from lacrimal gland?
A. Lacrimal sac
B. * Conunctival sac
C. Inferior nasal meatus
D. Superior nasal meatus
E. Nasolacrimal canal
287.
When patient crying where do tears flow from nasolacrimal canal?
A. Lacrimal sac
B. * Inferior nasal meatus
C. Superior nasal meatus
D. Excretory ducts
E. Conjunctival sac
288.
When patient has disfunction of the taste, what cranial nerves may be
injured?
A. Olfacatory,trigeminal and glossopharyngeal
B. Trigeminal,fascial,and glossopharingeal
C. Trigeminal,hypoglossal andglossopharingeal
D. Hypoglossal,vagus andglossopharingeal
E. * Fascial,vagus and glossopharingeal
289.
When the doctor suddenly exposed to bright light the eyes of patient,the
pupils immediately constrict.This is called the…
A. Crossed-extensor reflex
B. Stretch reflex
C. Nociceptor reflex
D. * Photopupillary reflex
E. Accommodation pupilary reflex
286.
Text questions for pictures
1. What is indicated on figure 1 with number 4?
A. Regio hypochondriaca
B. Regio epigastrica
C. Regio pubica
D. Regio lateralis
E. *Regio umbilicalis
2. What is indicated on figure 1 with number 2?
A. Regio pubica
B. Regio hypochondriaca
C. Regio umbilicalis
D. Regio lateralis
E. *Regio epigastrica
3. What is indicated on figure 1 with number 6?
A. Regio epigastrica
B. Regio hypochondriaca
C. Regio umbilicalis
D. Regio lateralis
E. *Regio pubica
4. What is indicated on figure 2 with number 16?
A. Canalis analis
B. Pylorus
C. Jejunum
D. Cavitas oris
E. *Gaster
5. 5 What is indicated on figure 2 with number 22?
A. Gaster
B. Pylorus
C. Jejunum
D. Cavitas oris
E. *Canalis analis
6. 6 What is indicated on figure 2 with number 7?
A. Gaster
B. Canalis analis
C. Jejunum
D. Cavitas oris
E. *Pylorus
7. What is indicated on figure 3 with number 11?
A. Cavitas oris
B. Larynx
C. Dentes
D. Lingua
E. *Mandibula
8. What is indicated on figure 3 with number 8?
A. Cavitas oris
B. Larynx
C. Mandibula
D. Lingua
E. *Dentes
9. What is indicated on figure 3 with number 13?
A. Cavitas oris
B. Mandibula
C. Dentes
D. Lingua
E. *Larynx
10. What is indicated on figure 4 with number 7?
A. Uvula palatina
B. Dentes molares
C. Dentes premolars
D. Palatum durum
E. *Dentes incisivi
11. What is indicated on figure 4 with number 1?
A. Dentes incisivi
B. Dentes molares
C. Dentes premolars
D. Palatum durum
E. *Uvula palatina
12. What is indicated on figure 4 with number 4?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Dentes incisivi
Uvula palatina
Dentes premolars
Palatum durum
*Dentes molares
13. What is indicated on figure 5 with number 2?
A. Dentes incisivi
B. Dens caninus
C. Dentes premolars
D. Facies lingualis
E. *Dentes molares
14. What is indicated on figure 5 with number 5?
A. Dentes molares
B. Dens caninus
C. Dentes premolars
D. Facies lingualis
E. *Dentes incisivi
15. What is indicated on figure 5 with number 4?
A. Dentes molares
B. Dentes incisivi
C. Dentes premolars
D. Facies lingualis
E. *Dens caninus
16. What is indicated on figure 6 with number 1?
A. Dens caninus
B. Radix dentis
C. Dentes premolars
D. Corona dentis
E. *Dentes molares
17. What is indicated on figure 6 with number 8?
A. Dens caninus
B. Dentes molares
C. Dentes premolars
D. Corona dentis
E. *Radix dentis
18. What is indicated on figure 6 with number 3?
A. Radix dentis
B. Dentes molares
C. Dentes premolars
D. Corona dentis
E. *Dens caninus
19. What is indicated on figure 7 with number 2?
A. Dentes molares
B. Dens incisivus lateralis
C. Dens incisivus medialis
D. Corona dentis
E. *Dens caninus
20. What is indicated on figure 7 with number 3?
A. Dentes molares
B. Dens caninus
C. Dens incisivus medialis
D. Corona dentis
E. *Dens incisivus lateralis
21. What is indicated on figure 7 with number 4?
A. Dentes molares
B. Dens caninus
C. Dens incisivus lateralis
D. Corona dentis
E. *Dens incisivus medialis
22. What is indicated on figure 8 with number 6?
A. Dentes molares
B. Dens caninus
C. Dentes incisive
D. Dentes permanentes
E. *Foramen mentale
23. What is indicated on figure 8 with number 3?
A. Dentes molares
B. Foramen mentale
C. Dentes incisive
D. Dentes permanentes
E. *Dens caninus
24. What is indicated on figure 8 with number 4?
A. Dentes molares
B. Foramen mentale
C. Dens caninus
D. Dentes permanentes
E. *Dentes incisivi
25. What is indicated on figure 9 with number 1?
A. Sulcus medianus linguae
B. Foramen caecum linguae
C. Papillae folliatae
D. Papillae vallatae
E. *Apex linguae
26. What is indicated on figure 9 with number 2?
A. Apex linguae
B. Foramen caecum linguae
C. Papillae folliatae
D. Papillae vallatae
E. *Sulcus medianus linguae
27. What is indicated on figure 9 with number 11?
A. Apex linguae
B. Sulcus medianus linguae
C. Papillae folliatae
D. Papillae vallatae
E. *Foramen caecum linguae
28. What is indicated on figure 10 with number 4?
A. M. masseter
B. Ductus parotideus
C. Glandula parotidea
D. Glandula sublingualis
E. *Lingua
29. What is indicated on figure 10 with number 7?
A. Lingua
B. Ductus parotideus
C. Glandula parotidea
D. Glandula sublingualis
E. *m. masseter
30. What is indicated on figure 10 with number 5?
A. Lingua
B. Ductus parotideus
C. M. masseter
D. Glandula sublingualis
E. *Glandula parotidea
31. What is indicated on figure 11 with number 1?
A. Fascia pharyngobasilaris
B. Raphe faryngis
C. M. digastricus
D. Raphe faryngis
E. *Basis cranii
32. What is indicated on figure 11 with number 2?
A. Basis cranii
B. Raphe faryngis
C. M. digastricus
D. Raphe faryngis
E. *Fascia pharyngobasilaris
33. What is indicated on figure 11 with number 7?
A. Basis cranii
B. Fascia pharyngobasilaris
C. M. digastricus
D. Raphe faryngis
E. *Raphe faryngis
34. What is indicated on figure 12 with number 8?
A. Pars pylorica
B. Pars cardiaca
C. Corpus ventriculi
D. Oesophagus
E. *Pylorus
35. What is indicated on figure 12 with number 4?
A. Pars pylorica
B.
C.
D.
E.
Pars cardiaca
Pylorus
Oesophagus
*Corpus ventriculi
36. What is indicated on figure 12 with number 6?
A. Corpus ventriculi
B. Pars cardiaca
C. Pylorus
D. Oesophagus
E. *Pars pylorica
37. What is indicated on figure 13 with number 20?
A. Cauda pancreatis
B. Caput pancreatis
C. Corpus vesicae fellae
D. Plica transversa
E. *Jejunum
38. What is indicated on figure 13 with number 16?
A. Jejunum
B. Caput pancreatis
C. Corpus vesicae fellae
D. Plica transversa
E. *Cauda pancreatis
39. What is indicated on figure 13 with number 10?
A. Jejunum
B. Caput pancreatis
C. Cauda pancreatis
D. Plica transversa
E. *Corpus vesicae fellae
40. What is indicated on figure 14 with number 1?
A. Rectum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Rectum
E. *Caecum
41. What is indicated on figure 14 with number 14?
A. Caecum
B. Jejunum
C. Ileum
D. Rectum
E. *Rectum
42. What is indicated on figure 14 with number 10?
A. Caecum
B. Rectum
C. Ileum
D. Rectum
E. *Jejunum
43. What is indicated on figure 15 with number 3?
A. Caecum
B. Ileum
C. Taenia libera coli
D. Colon ascendens
E. *Appendix vermiformis
44. What is indicated on figure 15 with number 6?
A. Appendix vermiformis
B. Ileum
C. Taenia libera coli
D. Colon ascendens
E. *Caecum
45. What is indicated on figure 15 with number 4?
A. Appendix vermiformis
B. Caecum
C. Taenia libera coli
D. Colon ascendens
E. *Ileum
46. What is indicated on figure 16 with number 7?
A. Zona transitionalis analis
B. Sinus anales
C. M. sphincter ani internus
D. Columnae anales
E. *Anus
47. What is indicated on figure 16 with number 4?
A. Anus
B. Sinus anales
C. M. sphincter ani internus
D. Columnae anales
E. *Zona transitionalis analis
48. What is indicated on figure 16 with number 5?
A. Anus
B. Sinus anales
C. M. sphincter ani internus
D. Columnae anales
E. *M. sphincter ani internus
49. What is indicated on figure 17 with number 10?
A. Margo inferior
B. Lig. falciforme
C. Lobus hepatis sinistrum
D. Lobus hepatis dexter
E. *Vesica fellea
50. What is indicated on figure 17 with number 1?
A. Vesica fellea
B. Lig. falciforme
C. Lobus hepatis sinistrum
D. Lobus hepatis dexter
E. *Margo inferior
51. What is indicated on figure 17 with number 8?
A. Vesica fellea
B. Margo inferior
C. Lobus hepatis sinistrum
D. Lobus hepatis dexter
E. *Lig. falciforme
52. What is indicated on figure 18 with number 8?
A. Vena cava inferior
B. Arteria hepatica propria
C. Area nuda
D. Lobus hepatis dexter
E. *Vesica fellea
53. What is indicated on figure 18 with number 24?
A. vesica fellea
B. arteria hepatica propria
C. area nuda
D. lobus hepatis dexter
E. *vena cava inferior
54. What is indicated on figure 18 with number 15?
A. vesica fellea
B. vena cava inferior
C. area nuda
D. lobus hepatis dexter
E. *arteria hepatica propria
55. What is indicated on figure 19 with number 5?
A. prostata
B. vesica urinaria
C. fossa inguinalis lateralis
D. peritoneum parietale
E. *m. rectus abdominis
56. What is indicated on figure 19 with number 17?
A. m. rectus abdominis
B. vesica urinaria
C. fossa inguinalis lateralis
D. peritoneum parietale
E. *prostata
57. What is indicated on figure 19 with number 12?
A. m. rectus abdominis
B. prostata
C. fossa inguinalis lateralis
D. peritoneum parietale
E. *vesica urinaria
58. What is indicated on figure 20 with number 21?
A. rectum
B. lig. falciforme
C. lobus hepatic sinister
D. jejunum
E. *gaster
59. What is indicated on figure 20 with number 37?
A. gaster
B. lig. falciforme
C. lobus hepatic sinister
D. jejunum
E. *rectum
60. What is indicated on figure 20 with number 18?
A. gaster
B. lig. falciforme
C. rectum
D. jejunum
E. *lobus hepatic sinister
61. What is indicated on figure 21 with number 9?
A. prostata
B. gaster
C. rectum
D. area nuda
E. *hepar
62. What is indicated on figure 21 with number 8?
A. prostata
B. hepar
C. rectum
D. area nuda
E. *gaster
63. What is indicated on figure 21 with number 1?
A. gaster
B. hepar
C. rectum
D. area nuda
E. *prostata
64. What is indicated on figure 22 with number 1?
A. os nasale
B. ala nasi
C. os zygomaticum
D. os lacrimale
E. *os frontale
65. What is indicated on figure 22 with number 8?
A. os nasale
B. ala nasi
C. os frontale
D. os lacrimale
E. *os zygomaticum
66. What is indicated on figure 22 with number 14?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
os zygomaticum
ala nasi
os frontale
os lacrimale
*os nasale
67. What is indicated on figure 23 with number 3?
A. sinus frontalis
B. sinus sphenoidalis
C. os frontale
D. torus tubarius
E. *vestibulum nasi
68. What is indicated on figure 23 with number 1?
A. vestibulum nasi
B. sinus sphenoidalis
C. os frontale
D. torus tubarius
E. *sinus frontalis
69. What is indicated on figure 23 with number 8?
A. vestibulum nasi
B. sinus frontalis
C. os frontale
D. torus tubarius
E. *sinus sphenoidalis
70. What is indicated on figure 24 with number 1?
A. cartilago epiglottica
B. cartilago corniculata
C. cornu minus ossis hyoidei
D. corpus ossis hyoidei
E. *epiglottis
71. What is indicated on figure 24 with number 3?
A. epiglottis
B. cartilago corniculata
C. cornu minus ossis hyoidei
D. corpus ossis hyoidei
E. *cartilago epiglottica
72. What is indicated on figure 24 with number 6?
A. epiglottis
B. cartilago epiglottica
C. cornu minus ossis hyoidei
D. corpus ossis hyoidei
E. *cartilago corniculata
73. What is indicated on figure 25 with number 15?
A. trachea
B. epiglottis
C. mm. arytenoidei
D. radix linquae
E. *cartilago thyroidea
74. What is indicated on figure 25 with number 12?
A. cartilago thyroidea
B. epiglottis
C. mm. arytenoidei
D. radix linquae
E. *trachea
75. What is indicated on figure 25 with number 2?
A. cartilago thyroidea
B. trachea
C. mm. arytenoidei
D. radix linquae
E. *epiglottis
76. What is indicated on figure 26 with number 1?
A. cartilago thyroidea
B. m. thyroarytenoideus
C. rima glottidis
D. polica vocalis
E. *epiglottis
77. What is indicated on figure 26 with number 8?
A. epiglottis
B. cartilago thyroidea
C. rima glottidis
D. polica vocalis
E. *m. thyroarytenoideus
78. What is indicated on figure 27 with number 5?
A. epiglottis
B. lamina certilaginis cricoideae
C. m. arytenoideus transversus
D. m. arytaenoideus obliquus
E. *paries membranaceus tracheae
79. What is indicated on figure 27 with number 1?
A. paries membranaceus tracheae
B. lamina certilaginis cricoideae
C. m. arytenoideus transversus
D. m. arytaenoideus obliquus
E. *epiglottis
80. What is indicated on figure 27 with number 7?
A. paries membranaceus tracheae
B. lamina certilaginis cricoideae
C. epiglottis
D. m. arytaenoideus obliquus
E. *m. arytenoideus transversus
81. What is indicated on figure 28 with number 7?
A. os hyoideum
B. bronchus principalis
C. epiglottis
D. cartilago thyroidea
E. *cartilagines thracheales
82. What is indicated on figure 28 with number 1?
A. cartilagines thracheales
B. bronchus principalis
C. epiglottis
D. cartilago thyroidea
E. *os hyoideum
83. What is indicated on figure 28 with number 16?
A. cartilagines thracheales
B. bronchus principalis
C. os hyoideum
D. cartilago thyroidea
E. *epiglottis
84. What is indicated on figure 29 with number 1?
A. basis pulmonis
B. lobus inferior
C. fissure oblique
D. incisura cardiaca pulmonis sinistri
E. *apex pulmonis
85. What is indicated on figure 29 with number 4?
A. basis pulmonis
B. apex pulmonis
C. fissure obliqua
D. incisura cardiaca pulmonis sinistri
E. *lobus inferior
86. What is indicated on figure 29 with number 3?
A. basis pulmonis
B. apex pulmonis
C. lobus inferior
D. incisura cardiaca pulmonis sinistri
E. *fissure obliqua
87. What is indicated on figure 30 with number 2?
A. basis pulmonis
B. apex pulmonis
C. lobus inferior
D. fissure obliqua
E. *fissure obliqua
88. What is indicated on figure 30 with number 1?
A. basis pulmonis
B. fissure obliqua
C. lobus inferior
D. fissure obliqua
E. *apex pulmonis
89. What is indicated on figure 30 with number 7?
A. basis pulmonis
B.
C.
D.
E.
fissure obliqua
lobus inferior
fissure obliqua
*lig. pulmonale
90. What is indicated on figure 31 with number 2?
A. bronchiola terminalis
B. ductus alveolaris
C. alveoli pulmonales
D. sacculus alveolaris
E. *bronchiola respiratorius
91. What is indicated on figure 31 with number 1?
A. bronchiola respiratorius
B. ductus alveolaris
C. alveoli pulmonales
D. sacculus alveolaris
E. *bronchiola terminalis
92. What is indicated on figure 31 with number 3?
A. bronchiola respiratorius
B. bronchiola terminalis
C. alveoli pulmonales
D. sacculus alveolaris
E. *ductus alveolaris
93. What is indicated on figure 32 with number 1?
A. margo inferior
B. fissure oblique
C. pleura parietalis
D. fissure horizontalis pulmonis dextri
E. *apex pulmonis
94. What is indicated on figure 32 with number 7?
A. apex pulmonis
B. fissure oblique
C. pleura parietalis
D. fissure horizontalis pulmonis dextri
E. *margo inferior
95. What is indicated on figure 32 with number 9?
A. apex pulmonis
B. margo inferior
C. pleura parietalis
D. fissure horizontalis pulmonis dextri
E. *fissure oblique
96. What is indicated on figure 33 with number 11?
A. pleura diaphragmatis
B. diaphragma
C. bronchus sinister
D. pleura costalis
E. *arcus aortae
97. What is indicated on figure 33 with number 5?
A. pleura diaphragmatis
B. arcus aortae
C. bronchus sinister
D. pleura costalis
E. *diaphragma
98. What is indicated on figure 33 with number 10?
A. pleura diaphragmatis
B. arcus aortae
C. diaphragma
D. pleura costalis
E. *bronchus sinister
99. What is indicated on figure 34 with number 1?
A. v.renalis
B. ureter
C. margo lateralis
D. extremitas superior
E. *a.renalis
100.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 34 with number 2?
a.renalis
ureter
margo lateralis
extremitas superior
*v.renalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 34 with number 3?
a.renalis
v.renalis
margo lateralis
extremitas superior
*ureter
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 35 with number 1?
ureter
ren dexter
ren sinister
vena cava inferior
*glandula suprarenalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 35 with number 3?
Glandula suprarenalis
ren dexter
ren sinister
vena cava inferior
*ureter
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is indicated on figure 35 with number 7?
glandula suprarenalis
ureter
ren sinister
vena cava inferior
101.
102.
103.
104.
E. *ren dexter
105.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 36 with number 7?
a.renalis
ureter
pelvis renalis
cortex renalis
*v.renalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 36 with number 6?
a.renalis
v.renalis
pelvis renalis
cortex renalis
*ureter
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 36 with number 8?
a.renalis
v.renalis
ureter
cortex renalis
*pelvis renalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 37 with number 1?
calices renales minores
pelvis renalis
ureter
a.renalis
*calices renales majores
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 37 with number 3?
calices renales minores
pelvis renalis
calices renales majores
a.renalis
*ureter
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 37 with number 4?
calices renales minores
ureter
calices renales majors
a.renalis
*pelvis renalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 38 with number 7?
lig. umbilicale medianum
membrana perinea
trigonum vesicae
tunica muscularis
*prostata
106.
107.
108.
109.
110.
111.
112.
What is indicated on figure 38 with number 11?
A. prostata
B. membrana perinea
C. trigonum vesicae
D. tunica muscularis
E. *lig. umbilicale medianum
113.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 38 with number 8?
prostata
lig. umbilicale medianum
trigonum vesicae
tunica muscularis
*membrana perinea
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 39 with number 1?
ductus deferens
septula testis
lobuli testis
tunica albuginea
*caput epididymidis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 39 with number 2?
caput epididymidis
septula testis
lobuli testis
tunica albuginea
*ductus deferens
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 39 with number 5?
caput epididymidis
ductus deferens
lobuli testis
tunica albuginea
*septula testis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 40 with number 9?
testis
prostata
anus
symphysis pubica
*glans penis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 40 with number 8?
glans penis
prostata
anus
symphysis pubica
*testis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 40 with number 6?
glans penis
prostata
testis
symphysis pubica
*anus
114.
115.
116.
117.
118.
119.
120.
What is indicated on figure 41 with number 5?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
a. iliaca communis
vesica urinaria
ductus deferens
vesicula seminalis
*v. iliaca externa
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 41 with number 4?
v. iliaca externa
vesica urinaria
ductus deferens
vesicula seminalis
*a. iliaca communis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 41 with number 7?
v. iliaca externa
a. iliaca communis
ductus deferens
vesicula seminalis
*vesica urinaria
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 42 with number 5?
vagina
uterus
rectum
ovarium
*anus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 42 with number 6?
anus
uterus
rectum
ovarium
*vagina
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 42 with number 3?
anus
vagina
rectum
ovarium
*uterus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 43 with number 2?
vagina
ostium cervicis
ovarium
appendix vesicularis
*corpus uteri
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 43 with number 1?
corpus uteri
ostium cervicis
ovarium
appendix vesicularis
*vagina
121.
122.
123.
124.
125.
126.
127.
128.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 43 with number 13?
corpus uteri
ostium cervicis
vagina
appendix vesicularis
*ovarium
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 44 with number 5?
clitoris
labium minus pudendi
labium majus pudenda
hymen
*anus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 44 with number 2?
clitoris
anus
labium majus pudenda
hymen
*labium minus pudendi
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 44 with number 4?
clitoris
anus
labium minus pudenda
hymen
*labium majus pudendi
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 45 with number 1?
anus
m. levator ani
funiculus spermaticus
corpus cavernosum penis
*glans penis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 45 with number 7?
glans penis
m. levator ani
funiculus spermaticus
corpus cavernosum penis
*anus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 45 with number 6?
glans penis
anus
funiculus spermaticus
corpus cavernosum penis
*m. levator ani
129.
130.
131.
132.
133.
134.
135.
What is indicated on figure 46 with number 7?
A. symphisis pubica
B. m. levator ani
C. urethra masculine
D. arcus tendineus fascie pelvis
E. *rectum
136.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 46 with number 5?
rectum
m. levator ani
urethra masculine
arcus tendineus fascie pelvis
*symphisis pubica
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 46 with number 4?
rectum
symphisis pubica
urethra masculine
arcus tendineus fascie pelvis
*m. levator ani
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 47 with number 3?
anus
labium minus pudendi
m. ischiocavernosus
anulus inguinalis superficialis
*m. levator ani
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 47 with number 4?
m. levator ani
labium minus pudendi
m. ischiocavernosus
anulus inguinalis superficialis
*anus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 47 with number 5?
m. levator ani
Anus
m. ischiocavernosus
anulus inguinalis superficialis
*labium minus pudendi
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 48 with number 6?
clitoris
anus
m. ischiocavernosus
bulbus vestibuli
*labium minus pudendi
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 48 with number 5?
clitoris
labium minus pudendi
m. ischiocavernosus
bulbus vestibuli
*anus
137.
138.
139.
140.
141.
142.
143.
What is indicated on figure 48 with number 1?
A. clitoris
B.
C.
D.
E.
labium minus pudendi
m. ischiocavernosus
bulbus vestibuli
*anus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 49 with number 1?
anus
os coxae
m. iliacus
fossa ischioanalis
*rectum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 49 with number 7?
rectum
os coxae
m. iliacus
fossa ischioanalis
*anus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 49 with number 2?
rectum
anus
m. iliacus
fossa ischioanalis
*os coxae
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 50 with number 6?
pancreas
thymus
glandula thyroidea
hyphophysis
*testes
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 50 with number 3?
pancreas
testes
glandula thyroidea
hyphophysis
*thymus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 57 with number 3?
Prosencephalon
Mesencephalon
Vesicular optica
Medulla spinalis
*Phombencephalon
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 57 with number 6?
Obex
Ganglia spinale
Filum terminale
Lig.denticulatum
*Telencephalon
144.
145.
146.
147.
148.
149.
150.
151.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 57 with number 10?
Diencephalon
Pedunculus cerebellaris inferior
Medulla spinalis
Prosencephalon
*Myelencephalon
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 58 with number 19?
Nonus medullaris
Nn.spinales thoracisi
Intumescentia lumbosacralis
Dura mater spinales
*Obex
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 58 with number 5?
n. spinalis cervicales
n. spinalis lumbales
n. spinalis coccygeus
n. spinalis sacrales
*n. spinalis thoracici
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 58 with number 8?
n. spinalis coccygeus
n. spinalis sacrales
n. spinalis thoracici
n. spinalis sacralis
*n. spinalis lumbales
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 58 with number 4?
n. spinalis sacralis
n. spinalis thoracici
n. spinalis coccygeus
n. spinalis lumbales
*n. spinalis cervicales
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 59 with number 11?
substantia grisea
sulcus medianus posterior
substantia alba
r. posterior n. spinalis
*ganglion trunci sympathici
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 59 with number 3?
fila radicularia radicis posterioris
radix anterior
n.spinalis
sulcus lateralis anterior
*radix posterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is indicated on figure 59 with number 4?
r. posterior n. spinalis
substantia grisea
n. spinalis
fila radicularia radicis posterioris
152.
153.
154.
155.
156.
157.
158.
E. *n. medianus r. posterioris n. spinalis
159.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 60 with number 5?
segmenta sacralia
segmenta cervicalia
segmenta lumbalia
segmenta thoracica
*segmentum coccygeum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 60 with number 1?
segmentum coccygeum
segmenta lumbalia
segmenta thoracica
segmentum coccygeum
*segmenta cervicalia
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 60 with number 3?
segmentum coccygeum
segmenta cervicalia
segmenta thoracica
segmenta sacralia
*segmenta lumbalia
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 61 with number 20?
sulcus posterolateralis
radix posterior
sucl. centralis
sulcus medianus posterior
*fissure mediana anterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 61 with number 22?
sucl. posteromedialis
sucl. Parasympathicus sacralis
sucl. Nervi accessorii
sucl. Nervi phrenici
*sucl.anteromedialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 61 with number 36?
zona terminalis
radix posterior
canalis centralis
sucl.proprius
*zona spongiosa
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 61 with number 40?
sulcus medianus posterior
radix posterior
sulcus medianus anterior
fissure mediana anterior
*sulcus posterolateralis
160.
161.
162.
163.
164.
165.
166.
What is indicated on figure 61 with number 26?
A. sulcus medianus posterior
B. sulcus posterolateralis
C. zona terminalis
D. sucl.proprius
E. *sucl. nervi accessorii
167.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 63 with number 7?
n. vagus(X)
tractus olfactorius
a. Basillaris
n. Opticus(II)
*corpora mamillaria
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 63 with number 25?
tractus olfactorius
bulbus olfactorius
n. spinalis
infundibulum
*tuber cinereum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 63 with number 20 ?
n. vagus(X)
n. opticus(II)
n. spinalis
corpora mamillaria
*n. vestibulocochlearis(VIII)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 63 with number 13?
n. vestibulocochlearis(VIII)
n. vagus(X)
n. opticus(II)
tractus olfactorius
*n. hypoglossus(XII)
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 64 with number 3?
gyrus cinguli
corpus callosum
columna fornicis
foramen interventriculare
*thalamus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 64 with number 5?
cerebellum
hypophysis
lamina terminalis
pons
*epiphysis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 64 with number 26?
columna fornicis
gurus cinguli
thalamus
cerebellum
*sulcus cinuli
168.
169.
170.
171.
172.
173.
174.
What is indicated on figure 65 with number 37?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
thalamus
hypophysis
focus caeruleus
obex
*tuberculum anterius thalami
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 65 with number 19?
tuberculum anterius thalami
trigonum habenulare
columna fornicis
thalamus
*tuberculum gracilis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 65 with number 10?
thalamus
tuberculum anterius thalami
obex
focus caeruleus
*rahium colliculi inferioris
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 66 with number 4?
habenula
obex
thalamus
colliculus superior
*ganglia spinale
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 66 with number 6?
thalamus
pons
medulla oblongata
colliculus superior
*decussatio lemnisci medialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 66 with number 9?
habenula
pons
medulla oblongata
obex
*thalamus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 66 with number 2?
habenula
obex
decussatio lemnisci medialis
medulla oblongata
*pons
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 67 with number 10?
vermis
flocculus
nobule cerebelli
pedunculus cerebellaris medius
*nodulus
175.
176.
177.
178.
179.
180.
181.
182.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 67 with number 2?
nodulus
flocculus
habenula
lobule cerebelli
*vellum medullaresuperius
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 67 with number 5?
habenula
vermis
flocculus
nobule cerebelli
*pedunculus cerebellaris inferior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 68 with number 4?
filum nucl. dentate
nucl.emboliformis
cortex cerebelli
nucl. fastigii
*nucl. dentatus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 68 with number 6?
cortex cerebelli
nucl. dentatus
nucl. fastigii
nucl. emboliformis
*filum nucl. dentate
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 68 with number 3?
cortex cerebelli
filum nucl. Dentate
cortex cerebelli
nucl. fastigii
*nucl.emboliformis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 69 with number 17?
fovea inferior
nucl. N. hypoglossi
nucl. principalis n. trigemini
nucl. N. abducentis
*obex
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 69 with number 15?
apex
nucl. N. abducentis
nucl. principalis n. trigemini
nucl. N. hypoglossi
*fovea inferior
183.
184.
185.
186.
187.
188.
189.
What is indicated on figure 69 with number 20?
A. nucl. N. abducentis
B. nucl. principalis n. trigemini
C. apex
D. fovea inferior
E. *nucl. N. hypoglossi
190.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 69 with number 30?
nucl. N. abducentis
apex
fovea inferior
nucl. N. hypoglossi
*nucl. principalis n. trigemini
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 69 with number 33?
apex
nucl. principalis n. trigemini
fovea inferior
nucl. N. hypoglossi
*nucl. N. abducentis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 70 with number 10?
nucl. N. oculomotorii
fibre corticopontinae
fasticulus longitudinalis medialis
nucl. N. hypoglossi
*fibre corticopontinae
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is indicated on figure 70 with number 15?
fasticulus longitudinalis medialis
fibre corticopontinae
fovea inferior
*nucl. N. oculomotorii
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 70 with number 4?
nucl. N. oculomotorii
fibre corticopontinae
fibre corticopontinae
apex
*asticulus longitudinalis medialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 71 with number 26?
thalamus
tectum mesencephali
sulcus hypothalamicus
epiphysis
*septum pellucidum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 71 with number 7?
septum pellucidum
sulcus hypothalamicus
epiphysis
apex
*tectum mesencephali
191.
192.
193.
194.
195.
196.
197.
What is indicated on figure 71 with number 3?
A. epiphysis
B. fibre corticopontinae
C. fibre corticopontinae
D. tectum mesencephali
E. *sulcus hypothalamicus
198.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 71 with number 6?
tectum mesencephali
fibre corticopontinae
sulcus hypothalamicus
septum pellucidum
*epiphysis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 72 with number 15?
sulcus frontalis superior
sulcus frontalis inferior
gyrus supramarginalis
sulcus centralis
*sulcus temporalis inferior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 72 with number 4?
sulcus temporalis inferior
gyrus supramarginalis
sulcus frontalis inferior
sulcus centralis
*sulcus frontalis superior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 72 with number 6 ?
sulcus centralis
gyrus supramarginalis
sulcus temporalis inferior
sulcus frontalis superior
*sulcus frontalis inferior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 72 with number 20?
sulcus temporalis inferior
sulcus frontalis superior
sulcus centralis
sulcus frontalis inferior
*gyrus supramarginalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 73 with number 7?
pars marginalis sulcus cinguli
corpus callosum
sulcus calcarinus
sulcus centralis
*ithmus gyri cinguli
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 73 with number 24?
ithmus guri
pars marginalis sulcus cinguli
sulcus calcarinus
gyrus supramarginalis
*corpus callosum
199.
200.
201.
202.
203.
204.
205.
What is indicated on figure 73 with number 4?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
sulcus calcarinus
gyrus supramarginalis
sulcus calcarinus
gyrus supramarginalis
*pars marginalis sulcus cinguli
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 73 with number 10?
gyrus supramarginalis
pars marginalis sulcus cinguli
isthmus guri
corpus callosum
*sulcus calcarinus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 74 with number 1?
gyri orbitales
lolus temporalis
n. opticus
tractus olfactorius
*sulcus olfactorius
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 74 with number 3?
n. opticus
gyri orbitales
isthmus guri
corpus callosum
*lolus temporalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 75 with number 9?
stria longitudinalis medialis
stria longitudinalis lateralis
splenium corporis callosi
sulcus frontalis superior
*forceps frontalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 75 with number 5?
stria longitudinalis medialis
sulcus frontalis superior
forceps frontalis
tria longitudinalis lateralis
*splenium corporis callosi
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 75 with number 7?
splenium corporis callosi
stria longitudinalis lateralis
forceps frontalis
corpus callosum
*stria longitudinalis medialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 75 with number 6?
stria longitudinalis medialis
forceps frontalis
splenium corporis callosi
corpus callosum
*stria longitudinalis lateralis
206.
207.
208.
209.
210.
211.
212.
213.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 76 with number 1?
polus occipitalis
trigonum collaterale
fibria hippocampi
columna fornicis
*crus fornicis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 76 with number 10?
columna fornicis
polus occipitalis
fibria hippocampi
crus fornicis
*polus occipitalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 76 with number 9?
crus fornicis
columna fornicis
fibria hippocampi
polus occipitalis
*trigonum collaterale
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 76 with number 12?
polus occipitalis
columna fornicis
crus fornicis
trigonum collaterale
*fibria hippocampi
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 77 with number 1?
lamina granularis externa
lamina pyramidalis externa
lamina granularis interna
lamina pyramidalis interna
*lamina molecularis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 79 with number 4?
cingulum
fasciculus uncinatus
fasciculus uncinatus
fibrae arcuatae cerebri
*fasciculus longitudinalis inferior
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is indicated on figure 80 with number 14?
calcar avis
cornu frontale
cornu temporale
*trigonum collaterale
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is indicated on figure 82 with number 12?
falx cerebri
sinus rectus
sinus sagittalis superior
sinus transversus
214.
215.
216.
217.
218.
219.
220.
E. *sinus sagittalis inferior
221.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 83 with number 7?
sinus transversus
sinus occipitalis
sinus sigmoideus
sinus rectus
*arachnoidea spinalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 81 with number 1?
thalamus
capsula interna
gyrus precentralis
fibrae corticonucleares
*K. issure longitudinalis cerebri
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 84 with number 1?
Camera anterior
Camera posterior
Lens
Iris
*Corpus ciliare
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 84 with number 8?
Sclera
N. opticus
Corpus ciliare
Lens
*Retina
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 84 with number 5?
Camera anterior
Lens
Iris
Corpus ciliare
*Camera posterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 84 with number 10?
Axsis bulbi externus
N opticus
Fovea centralis
Discus n. opticus
*Axis opticus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 84 with number 9?
Discus n. opticus
Conjunctiva
Axsis opticus
Choroidea
*Fovea centralis
222.
223.
224.
225.
226.
227.
228.
What is indicated on figure 84 with number 14?
A. Fovea centralis
B. Discus n. opticus
C. Conjunctiva
D. Axsis opticus
E. *Choroidea
229.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 84 with number 3?
Lens
Sclera
Retina
Conjuctiva
*Iris
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 84 with number 12?
Fasciculus atrioventricularis
Atrium sinistrum
Mm. papillares
Atrium sinistrum
*Nodus sinuatrialis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 84 with number 7?
Discus n. opticus
Zonula ciliaris
Cornea
Retina
*N. opticus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 84 with number 17?
Discus n. opticus
Cornea
N. opticus
Retina
*Zonula ciliaris
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 85 with number 3?
Ora serrata
Nucleus lentis
Lens
Sinus venosus
*M. ciliaris
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 85 with number 9?
Cornea
Lens
Ora serrata
Discus n. opticus
*Nucleus lentis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 85 with number 1?
Ora serrata
M. ciliaris
Cornea
Iris
*Conjunctiva
230.
231.
232.
233.
234.
235.
236.
What is indicated on figure 85 with number 5?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
M. ciliaris
Ora serrata
Cornea
Iris
*Retina
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 85 with number 2?
Nucleus lentis
M. ciliaris
N. opticus
Retina
*Sinus venosus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 85 with number 7?
Sinus venosus
M. ciliaris
Cornea
Retina
*Zonula ciliaris
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 85 with number 8?
Nucleus lentis
Conjunctiva
Sinus venosus
Ora serrata
*Lens
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 85 with number 4?
Sinus venosus
M. ciliaris
Zonula ciliaris
Retina
*Ora serrata
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 85 with number 13?
Camera anterior
Camera posterior
Zonula ciliaris
Retina
*Angulus iridoCornealis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 85 with number 12?
Retina
Ora serrata
M. ciliaris
Camera anterior
*Cornea
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 86 with number 5?
M. rectus superior
M. oliquus superior
M. rectus inferior
periorbita
*M. oliquus inferior
237.
238.
239.
240.
241.
242.
243.
244.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 86 with number 4?
M. oliquus inferior
M. rectus superior
N. opticus
Periorbita
*Sclera
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 86 with number 9?
N. opticus
M. Oliquus inferior
M. rectus superior
Sclera
*Anulus tendineus comunis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 86 with number 6?
M. oliquus inferior
M. rectus superior
M. oliquus superior
M. levator palpebrae superior
*M. rectus inferior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 86 with number 10?
M. oliquus inferior
M. rectus inferior
M. rectus superior
M. levator palpebrae
*M. oliquus superior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 86 with number 7?
Sclera
N. opticus
M. oliquus inferior
M. levator palpebrae superior
*Periorbita
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 86 with number 11?
M. levator palpebrae superior
M. rectus inferior
M. oliquus inferior
M. oliquus superior
*M. rectus superior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 86 with number 12?
M. rectus inferior
M. oliquus superior
M. oliquus inferior
N. opticus
*M. levator palpebrae superior
245.
246.
247.
248.
249.
250.
251.
What is indicated on figure 86 with number 3?
A. M. oliquus inferior
B. M. oliquus superior
C. M. rectus inferior
D. M. levator palpebrae superior
E. *M. rectus lateralis
252.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 86 with number 2?
N. opticus
M. oliquus inferior
M. levator palpebrae superior
Periorbita
*N. trohlearis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 87 with number 1?
Palbea superior
Pupilla
Cilia
Palpebra inferior
*Supercilium
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 87 with number 4?
Palpebra inferior
Cilia
Supercilium
Palbea superior
*Caruncula lacrimalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 87 with number 5?
Caruncula lacrimalis
Palpebra inferior
Palbea superior
Cilia
*iris
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 87 with number 6?
Supercilium
Palbea superior
Cilia
Pupilla
*Palpebra inferior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 87 with number 2?
Palpebra inferior
Caruncula lacrimalis
Iris
Cilia
*Palpebra superior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 87 with number 7?
Pupilla
Palpebra superior
Caruncula lacrimalis
Iris
*Cilia
253.
254.
255.
256.
257.
258.
259.
What is indicated on figure 87 with number 3?
A. Caruncula lacrimalis
B.
C.
D.
E.
Palpebra superior
Pupilla
Iris
*Comissura medialis palpebrarum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 87 with number 9?
Palpebra superior
Caruncula lacrimalis
Iris
Cilia
*Pupilla
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 87 with number 8?
Caruncula lacrimalis
Pupilla
Palpebra superior
Iris
*Comissura lateralis palpebrarum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 88 with number 1?
Corpus ciliare
Corpus vitreum
Vagina bulbi
N. opticus
*Periorbita
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 88 with number 2?
N. opticus
Corpus ciliare
Periorbita
Cilii
*Vagina bulbi
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 88 with number 4?
Vagina bulbi
Corpus vitreum
Corpus ciliare
Periorbita
*N. opticus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 88 with number 5?
Cilii
Corpus vitreum
N. opticus
Corpus ciliare
*Corpus adiposum orbitae
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 88 with number 7?
cilii
Vagina bulbi
N. opticus
Periorbita
*Canalis hyaloidues
260.
261.
262.
263.
264.
265.
266.
267.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 88 with number 6?
Corpus ciliare
Corpus vitreum
Cilii
Vagina bulbi
*Discus n. optici
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 88 with number 8?
N. opticus
Vagina bulbi
Corpus vitreum
Corpus ciliare
*Lens
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 88 with number 9?
Camera anterior
Corpus vitreum
Periorbita
Corpus ciliare
*Camera posterior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 88 with number 11?
N. opticus
Periorbita
Vagina bulbi
Corpus vitreum
*Septum orbitale
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 88 with number 13?
Corpus ciliare
Vagina bulbi
Corpus vitreum
Camera anterior
*Cilii
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 88 with number 12?
Corpus ciliare
Vagina bulbi
Corpus vitreum
Camera anterior
*Tarsus inferior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 88 with number 14?
Corpus ciliare
Vagina bulbi
Periorbita
Camera anterior
*Cornea
A.
B.
C.
D.
What is indicated on figure 88 with number 15?
Corpus ciliare
Corpus vitreum
Periorbita
Vagina bulbi
268.
269.
270.
271.
272.
273.
274.
E. *Camera anterior
275.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 88 with number 16?
N. opticus
Vagina bulbi
Corpus vitreum
Camera anterior
*Iris
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 88 with number 17?
Vagina bulbi
Corpus ciliare
Corpus vitreum
Iris
*Tragus superior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89 with number 2?
Saccus lacrimalis
Plica semilunaris
Ductuli excretorii
Ductus nasolacrimalis
*Canalis lacrimales
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89 with number 3?
Meatus nasi inferior
Ductus nasolacrimalis
Plica semilunaris
Canalis lacrimales
*Saccus lacrimalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89 with number 6?
Plica semilunaris
Ductuli excretorii
Saccus lacrimalis
Ductus nasolacrimalis
*Meatus nasi inferior
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89 with number 4?
Ductuli excretorii
Saccus lacrimalis
Canalis lacrimales
Plica semilunaris
*Ductus nasolacrimalis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 89 with number 9?
Meatus nasi inferior
Canalis lacrimales
Ductuli excretorii
Ductus nasolacrimalis
*Plica semilunaris
276.
277.
278.
279.
280.
281.
282.
What is indicated on figure 89 with number 10?
A. Saccus lacrimalis
B. Plica semilunaris
C. Canalis lacrimales
D. Ductus nasolacrimalis
E. *Ductuli excretorii
283.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 91 with number 1?
Lobulus auriculare
Antihelix
Antitragus
Scapha
*Helix
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 91 with number 2?
Scapha
Helix
Lobulus auriculare
Antitragus
*Antihelix
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 91 with number 4?
Antitragus
Antihelix
Lobulus auriculare
Helix
*Scapha
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 91 with number 5?
Scapha
Antihelix
Helix
Lobulus auriculare
*Crus helicis
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 91 with number 7?
Scapha
Helix
Antitragus
Antihelix
*Lobulus auriculare
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 91 with number 6?
Lobulus auriculare
Helix
Antihelix
Crus helicis
*Antitragus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 93 with number 2?
Mallei
Stapes
Incus
M. Tensor tympani
*Caput mallei
284.
285.
286.
287.
288.
289.
290.
What is indicated on figure 93 with number 8?
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
Mallei
Incus
Caput mallei
M. Tensor tympani
*Stapes
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 93 with number 4?
Caput mallei
Lig.mallei
M. Tensor tympani
Stapes
*Incus
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 93 with number 13?
Stapes
Caput mallei
Lig.mallei
Incus
*M. Tensor tympani
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 93 with number 14?
Stapes
Caput mallei
M. Tensor tympani
Incus
*Lig. Mallei anterius
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 95 with number 3?
Cochlea
Crus osseum commune
Fenestra cochleae
Crus osseum simplex
*Vestibulum
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 95 with number 4?
Vestibulum
Fenestra cochleae
Crus osseum commune
Crus osseum simplex
*Cochlea
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 95 with number 9?
Vestibulum
Cochlea
Fenestra cochleae
Crus osseum commune
*Crus osseum simplex
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 95 with number 12?
Cochlea
Vestibulum
Fenestra cochleae
Crus osseum simplex
*Crus osseum commune
291.
292.
293.
294.
295.
296.
297.
298.
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
What is indicated on figure 95 with number 6?
Cochlea
Vestibulum
Crus osseum commune
Crus osseum simplex
*Fenestra cochleae
Step Normal Anatomy Module 2
A 18-year-old patient came to the out-patient department with the complaints of bleeding
trauma in the vestibule of his nose. On examination: the mechanical injure of the mucous
layer of the vestibule without continuation into nasal cavity proper. What is the boundary
between the vestibule and nasal cavity proper?
A. *Nasal limen
B. Nasal roller
C. Nasal septa
D. Choanes
E. Nostrils
A 25-year-old patient complained of the decreased vision. Accommodation disorders,
dilated pupil, not reacting on the light were revealed on examination. Function of what
muscles is disturbed?
A. *Pupil narrowing muscle, ciliary
B. Pupil dilating muscle, ciliary
C. Inferior oblique muscle, ciliary
D. Lateral rectus muscle, pupil narrowing
E. Pupil narrowing and dilating muscle
A 26-year-old patient was found to have a big furuncle of soft tissues of face by the root of
nose and inferior eyelid. This disease can be seriously complicated by the infection
spreading along veins of this region to the sinuses of dura brain mater. What sinus is most
likely to be affected?
A. *Cavernous
B. Superior sagittal
C. Occipital
D. Sigmoid
E. Petrosal
A 3 year old child was admitted to the hospital with otitis. Pus is probable to spread from
the tympanic cavity. Where can the pus get into?
A. *Into mastoid antrum
B. Into internal ear
C. Into auditory tube
D. Into external acoustic duct
E. Into posterior cranial fossa
A 30-year-old patient was hospitalized due to bleeding of the facial artery. What place on
the face has to be pressed to stop bleeding?
A. *The mandible’s edge
B. The mental process
C. The mandible’s branch
D. The nose’s back
E. The molar bone
A 32-year-old patient has been diagnosed with bartholinitis (inflammation of Bartholin's
glands ). In what part of the female urogenital system are the Bartholin's glands located?
A. *The labia major
B. The labia minor
C. The clitoris
D. The vagina
E. The uterus
A 35 year old patient applied to a doctor with complaints about having intense rhinitis and
loss of sense of smell for a week. Objectively: nasal cavity contains a lot of mucus that
covers mucous membrane and blocks olfactory receptors. In what part of nasal cavity are
these receptors situated?
A. *Superior nasal turbinate
B. Median nasal turbinate
C. Inferior nasal turbinate
D. Common nasal meatus
E. Vestibule of nose
A 35 year old patient came to the admission department with complaints of pain and
edema in the region of floor of oral cavity. After examination he was diagnosed with
inflammation in the region of excretory duct of submandibular gland. Where does this duct
open into?
A. *Caruncula sublingualis
B. Vestibulum oris
C. Foramen caecum linguae
D. Plica fimbriata
E. Recesus gingivalis
A 40-year-old patient complains of intensive heartbeats, sweating, nausea, visual
impairment, arm tremor, hypertension. From his anamnesis: 2 years ago he was
diagnosed with pheochromocytomA. *Hyperproduction of what hormones causes the given
pathology?
A. *Catecholamines
B. Aldosterone
C. Glucocorticoids
D. ACTH
E. Thyroidal hormones
A 40-year-old woman was admitted to the infectious diseases department with high body
temperature. Objectively: marked meningeal symptoms. A spinal cord punction was made.
What anatomic formation was puncturated?
A. *Spatium subarachnoideum
B. Spatium subdurale
C. Spatium epidurale
D. Cavum trigeminale
E. Cisterna cerebellomedullaris posterior
A 45-year-old patient was admitted to the surgical department with complaints of abrupt
sharp pain in the epigastric region. After examination it was diagnosed: perforated ulcer of
the posterior wall of the stomach. Where did content of the stomach flow out while
perforation?
A. *To the omental bursa
B. To the liver bursa
C. To the proventriculus sack
D. To the left mesenteric sinus
E. To the right mesenteric sinus
A 50 year-old patient had hemorrhage of the brain and was taken to the hospital. The
place of hemorrhage was revealed on the lateral hemispheres surfaces during the medical
examination. What artery was injured?
A. *The middle cerebral artery
B. The anterior cerebral artery
C. The posterior cerebral artery
D. The anterior communicating artery
E. The posterior communicating artery
A 53-year-old female patient was diagnosed with liver rupture resulting from a blunt
abdominal injury. The escaped blood will be assembled in the following anatomic
formation:
A. *Rectouterine pouch
B. Vesicouterine pouch
C. Right mesenteric sinus
D. Omental bursa
E. Left mesenteric sinus
A 58 year old woman had her uterus and all appendages completely removed. It resulted
in stoppage of urine excretion. Cystoscopy results: bladder doesn't contain any urine, urine
doesn't come also from ureteric orifices. What part of urinary excretion system was
damaged during the operation?
A. *Ureter
B. Uretra
C. Vesica urinaria
D. Pelvis renalis
E. Ren
A 58-year-old patient with acute cardiac insufficiency has decreased volume of daily urine
- oliguriA. *What is the mechanism of this phenomenon?
A. *Decreased glomerular filtration
B. Decreased number of functioning glomerules
C. Drop of oncotic blood pressure
D. Rise of hydrostatic blood pressure in capillars
E. Reduced permeamility of renal filter
A 5-year-old child was admitted to the otorhinolaryngological department with diagnosis suppurative inflammation of the middle ear. Disease started from the inflammation of the
nasopharynx. Through the what canal of the temporal bone did the infection get into the
tympanic cavity?
A. *Musculortubal canal
B. Tympanic Canaliculus tympanicus
C. Carotid canal
D. Canaliculus chordal tympani
E. Canaliculi caroticotympanici
A 6 month old baby ill with bronchitis was taken for an X-ray of chest. Apart of changes
associated with bronchi the X-ray film showed a shadow of thymus gland. What might
have caused such changes?
A. *The above-mentioned condition is a normal variant for this age
B. It's the effect of bronchitis
C. It is caused by abnormal position
D. It is caused by thymus inflammation
E. It is caused by neoplastic process
A 60-year-old patient has reduced perception of high-frequency sounds. What structures'
disorder of auditory analizer caused these changes?
A. *Main membrane of cochlea near the oval window
B. Main membrane of cochlea near helicotrema
C. Eustachian tube
D. Muscles of middle ear
E. Tympanic membrane
A 6-year-old child fell on the cutting object and traumatized soft tissues between tibia and
fibula . What kind of bone connection was injured?
A. *Membrane
B. Suture
C. Ligament
D. Fontanel
E. Gomphosis
A 70 y.o. man has cut an abscess off in the area of mammiform process during shaving.
Two days later he was admitted to the hospital with inflammation of arachnoid
membranes. How did the infection penetrate into the cavity of skull?
A. *V.emissariaе mastoideaе
B. V.v.labyrinthi
C. V.v.tympanicae
D. V.facialis
E. V.v.auriculares
A 70-year-old patient is diagnosed with brainstem haemorrhage. Examination revealed
increased tonus of flexor muscles accompanied by decreased tonus of extensor muscles.
Such changes in muscle tonus can be explained by the irritation of the following brain
structures:
A. *Red nuclei
B. Vestibular nuclei
C. Quadrigeminal plate
D. Black substance
E. Reticular formation
A foreign body (a button) closed space of the right superior lobar bronchus. What
segments of the right lung won't be supplied with air?
A. *Apical, posterior, anterior
B. Superior and inferior lingular
C. Apical and posterior basal
D. Apical and median basal
E. Medial and lateral
A histological spacemen presents parenchymal organ, which has cortex and medullA.
*Cortex consists of epitheliocytes bars with blood capillaries between them; the bars form
three zones. Medulla consists of chromaffinocytes and venous sinusoids. Which organ has
these morphological features?
A. *Adrenal gland
B. Kidney
C. Lymph node
D. Thymus
E. Thyroid
A man after 1,5 litre blood loss has suddenly reduced diuresis. The increased secretion of
what hormone caused such diuresis alteration?
A. *Vasopressin
B. Corticotropin
C. Natriuretic
D. Cortisol
E. Parathormone
A man with internal abdominal right side injury and suspicion of liver rupture was admitted
to the traumatological department. In what peritonial structure will blood accumulate?
A. *Excavatio rectovesicalis
B. Bursa omentalis
C. Recessus intersigmoideus
D. Fossa ischio-analis
E. Recessus duodenalis inferior
A mother consulted the doctor about her one year old child, who has got six teeth come
out. How many teeth should the child of such age have?
A. *8
B. 10
C. 7
D. 12
E. 6
A mother of a newborn complains of her baby's constant belching with undigested milk.
Which developmental anomaly is it an evidence of?
A. *Esophageal atresia
B. Labium leporium
C. Faux lupinum
D. Anal atresia
E. Esophageal fistula
A newborn didn't take his first breath. Autopsy revealed that in spite of unobstructed
respiratory tracts the baby's lungs didn't expand. What might be the cause of it?
A. *Surfactant absence
B. Bronchostenosis
C. Bronchi rupture
D. Apical cap of lung
E. Alveole enlargement
A patient complained about ear noise and pain sensations. Objectively: the patient has
acute respiratory disease, rhinitis. The infection penetrated into the tympanic cavity
through the following opening of the pharynx:
A. *Pharyngeal opening of auditory tube
B. Tympanic opening of auditory tube
C. Choanae
D. Fauces
E. Aperture of larynx
A patient complains about impaired evacuatory function of stomach (long-term retention of
food in stomach). Examination revealed a tumour of initial part of duodenum. Specify
localization of the tumour:
A. *Pars superior
B. Pars inferior
C. Pars descendens
D. Pars ascendens
E. Flexura duodeni inferior
A patient complains of dizziness and hearing loss. What nerve is damaged?
A. *Vestibulocochlear
B. Trigeminus
C. Sublingual
D. Vagus
E. Trochlear
A patient complains of having urination disorder. He is diagnosed the hypertrophy of
prostate gland. What part of gland is damaged?
A. *Median lobe
B. Left lobe
C. Right lobe
D. Base
E. Apex
A patient complains of headache, heavy breathing. X-ray examination confirmed the
diagnosis - frontitis. What nasal meatus may contain purulent discharge?
A. *Middle
B. Superior
C. Inferior
D. Common
E. Above the superior nasal concha
A patient got a craniocerebral trauma that resulted in right-side convergent strabismus.
Damage of which craniocerebral nerve caused such consequences?
A. *n.abducens
B. n.facialis
C. n.trigeminus
D. n.trochlearis
E. n.aculomotorius
A patient got a trauma that caused dysfunction of motor centres regulating activity of head
muscles. In what parts of cerebral cortex is the respective centre normally localized?
A. *Inferior part of precentral gyrus
B. Superior part of precentral gyrus
C. Supramarginal gyrus
D. Superior parietal lobule
E. Angular gyrus
A patient got an injury of spinal marrow in a road accident that caused loss of tactile
sensation, posture sense, vibration sense. What conduction tracts are damaged?
A. *Fascicle of Goll and cuneate fascicle
B. Anterior spinocerebellar tract
C. Rubrospinal tract
D. Reticulospinal tract
E. Tectospinal tract
A patient had his tooth extracted. The lingual surface of this tooth was smaller than the
buccal one. Masticatoty surface has oval form. Deep transverse sulcus separates buccal
and lingual tubercles. The root is strongly compressed in mesio-distal direction and has
longitudinal sulci on its aproximal surfaces, it is bifurcated. What tooth was extracted?
A. *First upper premolar
B. Upper canine
C. Lower canine
D. First lower premolar
E. Second upper premolar
A patient has an injury in right lateral area of belly. What part of large intestine is most
likely injured?
A. *Ascending colon
B. Transverse colon
C. Descending colon
D. Sigmoid colon
E. Rectum
A patient has lost ability to recognize the objects by the typical for them sounds (clock,
bell, music). What part of brain is most likely damaged?
A. *Lobus temporalis
B. Lobus occipitalis
C. Lobus frontalis
D. Lobus parietalis
E. Insula
A patient has urolithiasis that was complicated by a renal calculus passage. At what level
of ureter is it most likely to stop?
A. *Between abdominal and pelvic part
B. In pelvis
C. In the middle abdominal part
D. 2 cm above flowing into urinary bladder
E. 5 cm above pelvic part
A patient was admitted to the surgical department with inguinal herniA. *During the
operation the surgeon performs plastic surgery on posterior wall of inguinal canal. What
structure forms this wall?
A. *Transverse fascia
B. Aponeurosis of abdominal external oblique muscle
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Loose inferior edge of transverse abdominal muscle
E. Peritoneum
A patient was admitted to the surgical department with suspected inflammation of Meckel's
diverticulum. What part of bowels should be examined in order to discover the diverticulum
in course of an operation?
A. *Ileum
B. Duodenum
C. Jejunum
D. Caecum
E. Colon ascendens
A patient was diagnosed with bartholinitis (inflammation of greater vulvovaginal glands). In
which organ of urogenital system are these glands localized?
A. *Large lips of pudendum
B. Small lips of pudendum
C. Clitoris
D. Vagina
E. Uterus
A patient was diagnosed with paralysis of facial and masticatory muscles. The haematoma
is inside the genu of internal capsule. What conduction tract is damaged?
A. *Tr. cortico-nuclearis
B. Tr. cortico-spinalis
C. Tr. cortico-thalamicus
D. Tr. cortico-fronto-pontinus
E. Tr. cortico-temporo-parieto-occipito-pontinus
A patient who suffers from cancer of back of tongue has an intense bleeding as a result of
affection of dorsal lingual artery by the tumour. What vessel should be ligated to stop
bleeding?
A. *Lingual artery
B. Dorsal lingual artery
C. Deep lingual artery
D. Facial artery
E. Ascending pharyngeal artery
A patient with a stab wound of the anterior stomach wall is in surgical care. What formation
of abdominal cavity did the stomach contents get into?
A. *Antegastrial bursa
B. Omental bursa
C. Hepatic bursa
D. Left mesenteric sinus
E. Right mesenteric sinus
A patient with cholelithiasis fell ill with mechanic jaundice. Examination revealed that the
stone was in the common bile duct. What bile-excreting ducts make up the obturated duct?
A. *Ductus hepaticus communis et ductus cysticus
B. Ductus hepaticus dexter et sinister
C. Ductus hepaticus dexter et ductus cysticus
D. Ductus hepaticus sinister et ductus cysticus
E. Ductus hepaticus communis et ductus choledochus
A patient's middle ear inflammation was complicated by mastoiditis. There was a threat of
purulent thrombosis of the nearest venous sinus. What sinus was under the threat?
A. *Sigmoid
B. Inferior petrosal
C. Superior saggital
D. Transverse
E. Rectus
A surgeon has to find the common hepatic duct during the operative intervention on
account of concrements in the gall ducts. The common hepatic duct is located between the
leaves of:
A. *Hepatoduodenal ligament
B. Hepatogastric ligament
C. Hepatorenal ligament
D. Round ligament of liver
E. Venous ligament
A surgeon should reach the omental bursa to perform an operation on abdominal cavity.
How can he reach this part of peritoneal cavity without affecting the integrity of lesser
omentum?
A. *Through the epiploic foramen
B. Through the right paracolic sulcus
C. Through the left paracolic sulcus
D. Through the right mesenteric sinus
E. Through the left mesenteric sinus
A three year old child was admitted to the hospital with a foreign body in bronches. What
bronchus contains most likely a foreign body?
A. *Right primary
B. Left primary
C. Right segmental
D. Left segmental
E. Lobular
A young man consulted a doctor about disturbed urination. Examination of his external
genitals revealed that urethra is split on top and urine runs out of this opening. What
anomaly of external genitals development is the case?
A. *Epispadia
B. Phimosis
C. Hermaphroditism
D. Paraphimosis
E. Hypospadia
After a 2 y.o. child has had flu, there appeared complaints about ear ache. A doctor
revealed hearing impairment and inflammation of the middle ear. How did the infection
penetrate into the middle ear?
A. *Through the auditory tube
B. Through foramen jugularis
C. Through canalis caroticus
D. Through atrium mastoideum
E. Through canalis nasolacrimalis
After a craniocerebral trauma a patient lost the ability to execute learned purposeful
movements (apraxia). The injury is most likely localized in the following region of the
cerebral cortex:
A. *Gyrus supramarginalis
B. Gyrus angularis
C. Gyrus paracentralis
D. Gyrus lingualis
E. Gyrus parahippocampalis
After anlage of primary teeth at the beginning of the fifth month of embryogenesis some
factors disturbed growth ability of dental plate behind the mentioned anlages. What serious
consequence is possible?
A. *Permanent teeth won't be anlaged
B. Formation of Hertwig's epithelial root sheath will be disturbed
C. Cervix of enamel organ won't disintegrate
D. Formation of mouth vestibule will be disturbed
E. Dentin of primary teeth won't be formed
An 18-year-old man was delivered to the hospital after a road accident. Examination at the
traumatological department revealed multiple injuries of soft tissues of face in the region of
the medial eye angle. The injuries caused massive haemorrhage. What arterial
anastomosis might have been damaged in this region?
A. *A. *carotis externa et A. *carotis interna
B. A. *carotis externa et A. *subclavia
C. A. *carotis interna et A. *subclavia
D. A. *subclavia et A. *ophthalmica
E. A. *carotis interna et A. *ophthalmica
An eye trauma caused soft tissues infection of eye-socket. Through what anatomical
formation can the infection penetrate into the middle cranial fossa?
A. *Through the superior orbital fissure
B. Through the anterior ethmoidal foramen
C. Through the posterior ethmoidal foramen
D. Through the inferior orbital fissure
E. Through the zygomatic orbital foramen
An injured person was delivered to the hospital with a penetrating wound in the left lateral
region of abdomen. What part of the large intestine is most likely damaged?
A. *Colon descendens
B. Colon ascendens
C. Colon transverses
D. Caecum
E. Rectum
Brain tomography revealed a tumour in the region of red nucleus. What part of brain
isdamaged?
A. *Midbrain
B. Medulla oblongata
C. Cerebellum
D. Interbrain
E. Pons cerebelli
Child inspired button. Where is it likely to be?
A. *In the right main bronchus
B. In the left main bronchus
C. In the trachea
D. In the larynx
E. In the gullet
Children often have heavy nasal breathing resulting from excessive development of
lymphoid tissue of pharyngeal mucous membrane. What tonsils growth may cause this
effect?
A. *Tonsilla pharyngea
B. Tonsilla palatina
C. Tonsilla lingualis
D. Tonsilla tubaria
E. All above mentioned tonsils
Children often have laboured nasal breathing which is caused by overdevelopment of
lymphoid tissue of the pharyngeal mucous membrane. This phenomenon may cause
enlargement of the following tonsils:
A. *Tonsilla pharyngea
B. Tonsilla palatina
C. Tonsilla lingualis
D. Tonsilla tubaria
E. All above-mentioned
Chronic rhinitis was complicated by inflammation of frontal sinus. What nasal meatus did
the infection get into this sinus through?
A. *Median
B. Inferior
C. Common
D. Superior
E. Nasopharyngeal
During complicated labour the symphysis pubis ruptured. What organ can be damaged
mostly?
A. *Urinary blader
B. Rectum
C. Ovaria
D. Uterine tubes
E. Uterus
During investigation of patient, it was found formation in the white substance of cerebral
hemispheres with location in the knee and frontal part of posterior crus of internal capsule.
Fibers of what conductive tract of the brain will be disrupted?
A. *Tr. pyramidalis
B. Tr. frontothalamicus
C. Тr. thalamocorticalis
D. Tr. frontopontinus
E. Tr. parietooccipitopontinus
During the endoscopy the inflammation of a major papilla of the duodenum and the
disturbances of bile secretion were found. In which part of duodenum were the problems
found?
A. *Descendent part
B. Ascendant part
C. Bulb
D. Upper horizontal part
E. Lower horizontal part
During the examination of patient's oral cavity a dentist found a carious cavity on the crown
surface of the second premolar tooth that was turned to the first molar tooth. Name the
damaged crown surface:
A. *Facies mesialis
B. Facies vestibularis
C. Facies lingualis
D. Facies distalis
E. Facies occlusalis
During the examination of patient's oral cavity a dentist noticed a slight overbite of
mandibular teeth by maxillary incisors. What occlusion belongs such position of teeth to?
A. *Orthognathic occlusion
B. Prognathism
C. Biprognathic occlusion
D. Orthogenic occlusion
E. Closed occlusion
Examination of a 32 year old patient revealed disproportional skeleton size, enlargement
of superciliary arches, nose, lips, tongue, jaw bones, feet. What gland's function was
disturbed?
A. *Hypophysis
B. Epiphysis
C. Pancreas
D. Thyroid
E. Suprarenal
Examination of a newborn boy's genitals revealed a cleft of urethra that opens on the
inferior surface of his penis. What developmental anomaly is meant?
A. *Hypospadia
B. Hermaphroditism
C. Epispadia
D. Monorchism
E. Cryptorchism
Examination of a patient revealed abnormal development of enamel. This is caused by
damage of the following structural elements of dental germ:
A. *Internal enamel epithelium of enamel organ
B. External enamel epithelium of enamel organ
C. Intermediate layer of enamel organ
D. Pulp of enamel organ
E. Cervix of enamel organ
Examination of a patient revealed hypertrophy and inflammation of lymphoid tissue,
edema of mucous membrane between palatine arches (acute tonsillitis). What tonsil is
normally situated in this area?
A. *Tonsilla palatina
B. Tonsilla pharyngealis
C. Tonsilla tubaria
D. Tonsilla lingualis
E. -
Examination of a patient with impaired blood coagulation revealed thrombosis of a branch
of inferior mesenteric artery. What bowel segment is damaged?
A. *Colon sigmoideum
B. Ileum
C. Caecum
D. Colon transversum
E. Colon ascendens
In case of a penetrating wound of the anterior abdominal wall the wound tract went above
the lesser curvature of stomach. What peritoneum formation is most likely to be injured?
A. *Ligamentum hepatogastricum
B. Ligamentum gastrocolicum
C. Ligamentum hepatoduoduodenale
D. Ligamentum hepatorenale
E. Ligamentum triangulare sinistrum
In course of a small pelvis operation it became necessary to ligate an ovarian artery. What
formation may be accidentally ligated together with it?
A. *Ureter
B. Uterine tube
C. Round ligament of uterus
D. Internal iliac vein
E. Urethra
In course of an operation surgeon removed a part of a lung that was ventilated by a tertiary
bronchus accompanied by branches of pulmonary artery and other vessels. What part of a
lung was removed?
A. *Bronchopulmonary segment
B. Middle lobe
C. Inferior lobe
D. Superior lobe
E. Pulmonary lobule
In the specimen of one of the parts of respiratory system a tubular organ was found. It has
low epithelium, well developed muscular tunic, glands and cartilage are absent. Name this
organ:
A. *Minor bronchs
B. Trachea
C. Larynx
D. Major bronchs
E. Median bronchs
Inflammation of the tympanic cavity (purulent otitis media) was complicated by
inflammation of mammillary process sockets. What wall of tympanic cavity did the pus
penetrate into the sockets through?
A. *Posterior
B. Anterior
C. Medial
D. Lateral
E. Superior
Inflammatory process of modified subserous layer around cervix of the uterus caused an
intensive pain syndrome. In what region of genitals does the pathological process take
place?
A. *Parametrium
B. Mesometrium
C. Myometrium
D. Endometrium
E. Perimetrium
Micro specimen of spinal cord contains a nucleus that should be analyzed. Its neurons
form motor endings in the skeletal muscles. What nucleus of spinal cord is meant?
A. *Proper nucleus of the anterior horn
B. Thoracic nucleus
C. Intermediate lateral nucleus
D. Proper nucleus of the posterior horn
E. Proper nucleus of gray substance
Neurological examination of a 65 y.o. patient revealed a haemorrhage within the superior
temporal gyrus. In the blood supply area of which artery is it?
A. *Middle cerebral artery
B. Anterior cerebral artery
C. Posterior cerebral artery
D. Anterior communicating artery
E. Basilar artery
Obturative jaundice developed in a 60-year-old patient because of malignant tumour of the
big papillary of the duodenal. Lumen of what anatomical structure is squeezed with
tumour?
A. *Hepatopancreatic ampulla
B. Cystic duct
C. Common hepatic duct
D. Right hepatic duct
E. Left hepatic duct
Ovarian tumour was diagnozed in the woman. Surgery was indicated. What ligament
should be cut by the surgeon to disconnect the ovary and the uterus?
A. *The ovarial ligament
B. Broad ligament of uterus
C. Lateral umbilical ligament
D. Suspensory ligament of ovary
E. Round ligament of uterus
Patient complains of frequent and difficult urination. Imperfection of what formation can
cause it?
A. *Prostate
B. Testicles
C. Bulb-uretic glands
D. Testicle adnexa
E. Sperm bubbles
Preventive examination of a patient revealed an enlarged lymph node of metastatic origin
on the medial wall of the left axillary crease. Specify the most likely localization of the
primary tumour:
A. *Mammary gland
B. Submandibular salivary gland
C. Lung
D. Stomach
E. Thyroid gland
Preventive examination of a patient revealed an enlarged lymph node of metastatic origin
on the medial wall of the left axillary crease. Specify the most likely localization of the
primary tumour:
A. *Mammary gland
B. Submandibular salivary gland
C. Lung
D. Stomach
E. Thyroid gland
Pyeloureterography X-ray photo showed a renal pelvis with minor calyces only (major
calyces were absent). What form of urinary tracts of a kidney was revealed?
A. *Embryonal
B. Fetal
C. Mature
D. Ampullar
E. -
The cerebrospinal fluid is being examined for the purpose of diffrential meningitis
diagnostics. At what site is the lumbal puncture safe?
A. *L III-L IV
B. L II-L III
C. L I-L II
D. Th XII-L I
E. L V-S I
The electronic microphoto of kidney fragment has exposed afferent glomerular arteriole,
which has giant cells under its endothelium, containing secretory granules. Name the type
of these cells:
A. *Juxtaglomerular
B. Mesangial
C. Smoothmuscular
D. Juxtavascular
E. Interstitial
Ultrasonic examination of a patient revealed aneurism in the area of aortic arch that
caused alteration of vocal function of larynx. What nerve was constricted?
A. *Recurrent laryngeal
B. Diaphragmatic
C. Superior laryngeal
D. Mandibular
E. Sublingual
Vegetative abnormalities in the sleep, heat regulation, all kinds of metabolism, diabetes
insipidus are developing in the patient due to grouth of the tumour in the III ventricle of
brain. Irritation of the nucleus of what part of the brain can cause this symptoms?
A. *Hypothalamus
B. Cerebral peduncles (cruces cerebri)
C. Mesencephalic tegmentum
D. Pons cerebelli
E. Medulla
While examining the oral cavity a stomatologist revealed inflammation of papillae on the
border of the median and posterior third of the back of tongue. What papillae are inflamed?
A. *Papillae vallatae
B. Papillae fungiformes
C. Papillae foliatae
D. Papillae filiformes
E Papillae conicae
While of oral cavity examination the dentist revealed the formation of the first big
cheekteeth on the lower jaw of a child. How old is this child?
A. *6-7 years old
B. 4-5 years old
C. 8-9 years old
D. 10-11 years old
E. 12-13 years old
While performing an inguinal canal operation on account of hernia a surgeon damaged the
canal's contents. What exactly was damaged?
A. *Funiculus spermaticus
B. Urarchus
C. Lig. teres uteri
D. Lig. inguinalе
E. -
X-ray examination revealed an accumulation of suppuration in maxillary sinus. Into what
nasal meatus excretes the suppuration?
A. *Median nasal
B. Nasopharyngeal
C. Inferior nasal
D. Superior nasal
E. Common nasal